Page Range | 74657-74916 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
81 FR 74803 - Sunshine Act Notice | |
81 FR 74809 - Court of Indian Offenses Serving the Wind River Indian Reservation | |
81 FR 74675 - Addition of the Wind River Indian Reservation to the List of Courts of Indian Offenses | |
81 FR 74804 - Office of Federal High-Performance Green Buildings; Green Building Advisory Committee; Notification of Upcoming Public Advisory Committee Meeting | |
81 FR 74865 - Agency Requests for Renewal of a Previously Approved Information Collection(s): America's Marine Highway Program | |
81 FR 74722 - Importation of Hass Avocados From Colombia | |
81 FR 74870 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 74720 - Importation of Orchids in Growing Media From Taiwan | |
81 FR 74765 - Subsidy Programs Provided by Countries Exporting Softwood Lumber and Softwood Lumber Products to the United States; Request for Comment | |
81 FR 74852 - North Carolina Disaster Number NC-00081 | |
81 FR 74739 - Indemnification Payments; Correction and Extension of Comment Period | |
81 FR 74763 - Phosphor Copper From the Republic of Korea: Postponement of Final Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value | |
81 FR 74854 - Cost-of-Living Increase and Other Determinations for 2017 | |
81 FR 74763 - Foreign-Trade Zone 80-San Antonio, Texas, Application for Subzone, CGT U.S. Limited, New Braunfels, Texas | |
81 FR 74764 - Certain Cased Pencils From the People's Republic of China: Final Results of Antidumping Duty New Shipper Review; 2014-2015 | |
81 FR 74806 - Performance Review Board Members | |
81 FR 74784 - Certain New Chemicals; Receipt and Status Information for June 2016 | |
81 FR 74799 - Notice of Tentative Approval and Opportunity for Public Comment and Public Hearing for Public Water System Supervision Program Revision for Maryland | |
81 FR 74805 - Agency Forms Undergoing Paperwork Reduction Act Review | |
81 FR 74779 - Office of Nuclear Energy; Request for Information on Approaches Involving Private Initiatives for Consolidated Interim Storage Facilities | |
81 FR 74741 - Partial Approval and Partial Disapproval of Attainment Plan for the Idaho Portion of the Logan, Utah/Idaho PM2.5 | |
81 FR 74681 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Sacramento River, Sacramento, CA | |
81 FR 74657 - Revisions to Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards (NASA Case 2015-N030) | |
81 FR 74811 - Boundary Adjustment at Hopewell Culture National Historical Park | |
81 FR 74806 - National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program; List of Petitions Received | |
81 FR 74810 - Draft Fire Island Wilderness Breach Management Plan/Environmental Impact Statement, Fire Island National Seashore, New York | |
81 FR 74727 - Energy Conservation Standards for Residential Central Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps: Availability of Provisional Analysis Results | |
81 FR 74854 - Kansas Disaster #KS-00098 | |
81 FR 74767 - North Pacific Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
81 FR 74767 - New England Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
81 FR 74816 - Preparations for the 32nd Session of the UN Sub-Committee of Experts on the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals (UNSCEGHS) | |
81 FR 74803 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
81 FR 74804 - Change in Bank Control Notices; Acquisitions of Shares of a Bank or Bank Holding Company | |
81 FR 74766 - New England Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting; Cancellation | |
81 FR 74853 - South Carolina Disaster #SC-00041 | |
81 FR 74853 - Florida Disaster Number FL-00121 | |
81 FR 74853 - South Carolina Disaster Number SC-00040 | |
81 FR 74822 - Purdue University Reactor | |
81 FR 74859 - WTO Dispute Settlement Proceeding Regarding China-Export Duties on Certain Raw Materials | |
81 FR 74820 - Entergy Nuclear Operations, Inc.; FitzPatrick Nuclear Power Plant | |
81 FR 74828 - Exelon Generation Company, LLC.; LaSalle County Station, Units 1 and 2; License Renewal | |
81 FR 74818 - Southern Nuclear Operating Company, Inc.; Joseph M. Farley Nuclear Plant, Units 1 and 2 | |
81 FR 74782 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
81 FR 74780 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 74711 - Designating the Sakhalin Bay-Nikolaya Bay-Amur River Stock of Beluga Whales as a Depleted Stock Under the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA) | |
81 FR 74739 - Approval and Promulgation of State Implementation Plans; Texas; Control of Air Emissions From Visible Emissions and Particulate Matter | |
81 FR 74819 - Southern Nuclear Operating Company, Vogtle Electric Generating Plant, Units 3 and 4; Passive Core Cooling System (PXS) Design Changes To Address Potential Gas Intrusion | |
81 FR 74862 - Motor Carrier Safety Assistance Program Multiyear Plans | |
81 FR 74865 - Notice and Request for Comments | |
81 FR 74700 - Physical Qualifications and Examinations: Medical Examination Report and Medical Examiner's Certificate Forms | |
81 FR 74864 - Notice of Application for Approval of Discontinuance or Modification of a Railroad Signal System | |
81 FR 74868 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 74770 - Endangered and Threatened Species; Recovery Plans | |
81 FR 74866 - Proposed Information Collections; Comment Request (No. 61) | |
81 FR 74677 - Establishment of the Appalachian High Country Viticultural Area | |
81 FR 74775 - Standard ST.26-Request for Comments on the Recommended Standard for the Presentation of Nucleotide and Amino Acid Sequence Listings Using XML (eXtensible Markup Language) | |
81 FR 74781 - Leonard Matteson; Notice of Declaration of Intention and Soliciting Comments, Protests, and Motions To Intervene | |
81 FR 74861 - Commercial Driver's License: Application for Exemption; Missouri Department of Revenue (DOR) | |
81 FR 74870 - Notice of Availability of a Draft Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) for a Replacement Veterans Affairs Medical Center, Louisville, Kentucky | |
81 FR 74671 - Extension of the Prohibition Against Certain Flights in the Simferopol (UKFV) and Dnipropetrovsk (UKDV) Flight Information Regions (FIRs) | |
81 FR 74867 - Multiemployer Pension Plan Application To Reduce Benefits | |
81 FR 74814 - Information Collection Activities: Oil and Gas Well-Completion Operations; Submitted for Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 74778 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; Credit Enhancement for Charter School Facilities Program Performance Report | |
81 FR 74808 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 74777 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; Student Assistance General Provisions-Satisfactory Academic Progress Policy | |
81 FR 74802 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection Renewals; Comment Request (3064-0018 & -0137) | |
81 FR 74802 - Notice To All Interested Parties of the Termination of the Receivership of 10355-New Horizons Bank, East Ellijay, Georgia | |
81 FR 74775 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Patent Term Extension | |
81 FR 74773 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Post Allowance and Refiling | |
81 FR 74774 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Patent Law Treaty | |
81 FR 74817 - Request for Comments on Information Technology Modernization Initiative | |
81 FR 74867 - Advisory Council to the Internal Revenue Service; Meeting | |
81 FR 74811 - Notice of Inventory Completion: San Diego Museum of Man, San Diego, CA | |
81 FR 74773 - Multistakeholder Process To Promote Collaboration on Vulnerability Research Disclosure | |
81 FR 74813 - Information Collection: Oil Spill Financial Responsibility for Offshore Facilities; Submitted for OMB Review; Comment Request MMAA104000 | |
81 FR 74849 - Nuveen Fund Advisors, LLC, et al.; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 74842 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE MKT LLC; Order Disapproving a Proposed Rule Change To Modify the NYSE Amex Options Fee Schedule With Respect to Fees, Rebates, and Credits for Transactions in the Customer Best Execution Auction | |
81 FR 74828 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated; Notice of Filing of a Proposed Rule Change Relating to Opening and Closing Rotations Under the HOSS System | |
81 FR 74851 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE MKT LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change Amending Rule 497-Equities | |
81 FR 74840 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Order Instituting Proceedings To Determine Whether To Approve or Disapprove a Proposed Rule Change Relating to the Listing and Trading of Shares of PowerShares Government Collateral Pledge Portfolio Under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600 | |
81 FR 74847 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change Amending Rule 497 | |
81 FR 74800 - Open Commission Meeting, Thursday, October 27, 2016 | |
81 FR 74755 - Significant New Use Rule on Certain Chemical Substances | |
81 FR 74818 - Notice of Permits Issued Under the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978 | |
81 FR 74782 - Request for Nominations of Experts To Augment the Science Advisory Board Chemical Assessment Advisory Committee for the Review of EPA Draft Toxicological Reviews for tert-Butyl Alcohol (tert-butanol) and Ethyl Tertiary Butyl Ether (ETBE) | |
81 FR 74800 - Pesticide Product Registration; Receipt of Application for New Use | |
81 FR 74753 - Receipt of a Pesticide Petition Filed for Residues of a Pesticide Chemical in or on a Commodity | |
81 FR 74754 - Receipt of a Pesticide Petition Filed for Residues of Pesticide Chemicals in or on Various Commodities | |
81 FR 74798 - Release of Final Control Techniques Guidelines for the Oil and Natural Gas Industry | |
81 FR 74769 - Endangered and Threatened Species; Take of Anadromous Fish | |
81 FR 74682 - Independent Living Services and Centers for Independent Living | |
81 FR 74778 - President's Board of Advisors on Historically Black Colleges and Universities | |
81 FR 74750 - Approval and Promulgation of Implementation Plans; Louisiana; Regional Haze State Implementation Plan | |
81 FR 74662 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Helicopters Deutschland GmbH Helicopters | |
81 FR 74730 - Minority and Women Inclusion Amendments | |
81 FR 74659 - Apricots Grown in Designated Counties in Washington; Increased Assessment Rate | |
81 FR 74666 - Airworthiness Directives; Schempp-Hirth Flugzeugbau GmbH Gliders | |
81 FR 74669 - Airworthiness Directives; Embraer S.A. Airplanes | |
81 FR 74664 - Airworthiness Directives; Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH Airplanes | |
81 FR 74762 - Amendment to the Designation of North Dakota Grain Inspection | |
81 FR 74763 - Amendment to the Designation of Mid-Iowa Grain Inspection | |
81 FR 74809 - North Carolina; Major Disaster and Related Determinations | |
81 FR 74874 - Identification (ID) Cards for Members of the Uniformed Services, Their Dependents, and Other Eligible Individuals |
Agricultural Marketing Service
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
National Telecommunications and Information Administration
Patent and Trademark Office
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Community Living Administration
Health Resources and Services Administration
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
Bureau of Safety and Environmental Enforcement
Indian Affairs Bureau
National Park Service
Ocean Energy Management Bureau
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Federal Railroad Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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National Aeronautics and Space Administration.
Final rule.
NASA is issuing a final rule to amend its regulations, titled Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards to revise the requirements related to information contained in a Federal award for commercial firms with no cost sharing requirement and to add new or modify existing terms and conditions related to indirect cost charges and access to research results.
Jennifer Richards, telephone 202-358-0047.
NASA published a proposed rule in the
A. This final rule makes the following significant changes from the proposed rule:
• 2 CFR part 1800, appendix B, 1800.929 was changed to state an exclusion for institutions of higher education as prescribed under 2 CFR part 200.
• 2 CFR part 1800, appendix B, 1800.930(a)(2) was changed to reflect that all graphics and supplemental materials submitted must be those prepared by the Awardee.
• 2 CFR part 1800, appendix B, 1800.930(b)(2) was changed to reflect a modification to the submission deadline for the Final Peer-Reviewed Manuscript to within one year of completion of the peer review process.
• 2 CFR part 1800, appendix B, 1800.930(b)(2) was changed to add a statement indicating that NASA would provide instructions for completing the submission process under separate cover.
• 2 CFR part 1800, appendix B, 1800.930(b)(2) was changed to include a more direct link to the PubMed Central system.
• 2 CFR part 1800, appendix B, 1800.930(b)(4) was changed to include a representation and warranty in respect of the right to submit the Final Peer-Reviewed Manuscript to the NASA repository.
• For added visibility, an administrative change was made to 2 CFR part 1800, appendix B, 1800.930 to move a requirement from paragraph (b)(4) into a new paragraph (b)(5).
NASA reviewed the public comments in the development of the final rule. A discussion of the comments and the changes made to the rule as a result of those comments is provided, as follows:
During internal deliberations some minor changes were made as follows:
• 2 CFR part 1800, appendix B, 1800.930(b)(2) was changed to add a statement indicating that NASA would provide instructions for completing the submission process under separate cover.
• 2 CFR part 1800, appendix B, 1800.930(b)(2) was changed to include a more direct link to the PubMed Central system.
• For added visibility, an administrative change was made to 2 CFR part 1800, appendix B, 1800.930 to move a requirement from paragraph (b)(4) into a new paragraph (b)(5).
Executive Orders (E.O.s) 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This is not a significant regulatory action and, therefore, was not subject to review under section 6(b) of E.O. 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, dated September 30, 1993. This rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804.
NASA certifies that this final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601,
This rule contains information collection requirements that require the approval of the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35); however, these changes to 2 CFR part 1800 do not impose additional information collection requirements to the paperwork burden previously approved under OMB Control Number 2700-0092, entitled Financial Assistant Awards/Grants and Cooperative Agreements.
Government financial assistance.
Accordingly, 2 CFR part 1800 is amended as follows:
51 U.S.C. 20113(e), Pub. L. 97-258, 96 Stat. 1003 (31 U.S.C. 6301
NASA waives the requirement for the inclusion of indirect cost rates on any notice of Federal award for commercial firms with no cost sharing requirement. The terms and conditions for NASA may be found at appendix B of this part and
The additions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(4) For research and research-related awards, see additional reporting requirements at 1800.930 Access to Research Results.
Prescription—The Grant Officer shall include this term and condition in all awards with indirect costs, excluding those awards to institutions of higher education and to entities using the 10% de minimis rate.
Unless otherwise directed in 2 CFR part 200, if during the course of this award, the approved indirect cost rate is revised, changed or removed, that rate must be applied, as allowed, to the covered direct costs that are expended during the time frame of that rate agreement. Any corrections, either up or down, to the approved budget submitted with the awarded application must be reflected in the awardees' records of costs and should be audited as such.
Prescription—The Grant Officer shall include this term and condition in all research and research-related awards.
(a) This award is subject to the requirements of the, “NASA Plan: Increasing Access to the Results of Scientific Research,” which covers public access to digital scientific data and peer-reviewed publications. For purposes of this term and condition, the following definitions apply:
(1) Awardee: Any recipient of a NASA grant or cooperative agreement, its investigators, and subrecipient (subaward or contract as defined in 2 CFR 200.92 and 200.22, respectively) at any level.
(2) Final Peer-Reviewed Manuscript: The final text version of a peer-reviewed article disclosing the results of scientific research which is authored or co-authored by the Awardee or funded, in whole or in part, with funds from a NASA award, that includes all modifications from the publishing peer review process, and all graphics and supplemental material prepared by Awardee.
(b) The recipient shall:
(1) Comply with their approved Data Management Plan submitted with its proposal, and as modified upon agreement by the recipient and NASA from time to time during the course of the period of performance.
(2) Ensure that any Final Peer-Reviewed Manuscript is submitted to the NASA-designated repository, currently the PubMed Central system at
(3) Ensure that any publisher's agreements entered into by an Awardee will allow for the Awardee to comply with these requirements including submission of Final Peer-Reviewed Manuscripts to the NASA-designated repository, as listed in paragraph (b)(2) of this term and condition, with sufficient rights to permit such repository to use such Final Peer-Reviewed Manuscript in its normal course, including rights to permit users to download XML and plain text formats.
(4) Hereby represent and warrant that Awardee has secured for recipient the right to submit the Final Peer-Reviewed Manuscript to the NASA-designated repository for use as set forth herein.
(5) Include in annual and final reports a list of Final Peer-Reviewed Manuscripts covered by this term and condition.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Final rule.
This rule implements a recommendation from the Washington Apricot Marketing Committee (Committee) to increase the assessment rate established for the 2016-17 and subsequent fiscal periods from $0.75 to $1.40 per ton of Washington apricots handled under the marketing order. The Committee, which is composed of growers and handlers, locally administers the order which regulates the handling of apricots grown in designated counties in Washington. Assessments upon apricot handlers are used by the Committee to fund reasonable and necessary expenses of the program. The fiscal period begins April 1 and ends March 31. The assessment rate would remain in effect indefinitely unless modified, suspended, or terminated.
Effective October 28, 2016.
Dale Novotny, Marketing Specialist, or Gary D. Olson, Regional Director, Northwest Marketing Field Office, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA; Telephone: (503) 326-2724, Fax: (503) 326-7440, or Email:
Small businesses may request information on complying with this regulation by contacting Richard Lower, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Telephone: (202) 720-2491, Fax: (202) 720-8938, or Email:
This rule is issued under Marketing Agreement and Order No. 922, both as amended (7 CFR part 922), regulating the handling of apricots grown in designated counties in Washington, hereinafter referred to as the “order.” The order is effective under the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended (7 U.S.C. 601-674), hereinafter referred to as the “Act.”
The Department of Agriculture (USDA) is issuing this rule in conformance with Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 13175.
This rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. Under the order now in effect, apricot handlers in designated counties in Washington are subject to assessments. Funds to administer the order are derived from such assessments. It is intended that the assessment rate as issued herein will be applicable to all assessable Washington apricots beginning April 1, 2016, and continue until amended, suspended, or terminated.
The Act provides that administrative proceedings must be exhausted before parties may file suit in court. Under section 608c(15)(A) of the Act, any handler subject to an order may file with USDA a petition stating that the order, any provision of the order, or any obligation imposed in connection with the order is not in accordance with law and request a modification of the order or to be exempted therefrom. Such handler is afforded the opportunity for a hearing on the petition. After the hearing, USDA would rule on the petition. The Act provides that the district court of the United States in any district in which the handler is an inhabitant, or has his or her principal place of business, has jurisdiction to review USDA's ruling on the petition, provided an action is filed not later than 20 days after the date of the entry of the ruling.
This rule increases the assessment rate established for the Committee for the 2016-17 and subsequent fiscal periods from $0.75 to $1.40 per ton of Washington apricots handled under the order.
The Washington apricot marketing order provides authority for the Committee, with the approval of USDA, to formulate an annual budget of expenses and collect assessments from handlers to administer the program. The members of the Committee are producers and handlers of apricots in designated counties in Washington. They are familiar with the Committee's needs, and with the costs for goods and services in their local area, and are thus in a position to formulate an appropriate budget and assessment rate. The assessment rate is formulated and discussed in a public meeting. Thus, all directly affected persons have an opportunity to participate and provide input.
For the 2015-16 and subsequent fiscal periods, the Committee recommended, and the USDA approved, an assessment rate that would continue in effect from fiscal period to fiscal period unless modified, suspended, or terminated by USDA upon recommendation and information submitted by the Committee or other information available to USDA.
The Committee met on May 11, 2016, and unanimously recommended 2016-17 expenditures of $7,160 and an assessment rate of $1.40 per ton of apricots. In comparison, the previous fiscal period's budgeted expenditures were $7,610. The recommended assessment rate of $1.40 per ton is $0.65 per ton higher than the rate currently in effect.
Last year at the May 12, 2015, meeting, Committee members voted to moderately increase the budget from $7,095 to $7,610, and to decrease the assessment rate from $1.50 to $0.75 per ton of apricots handled. The Committee was attempting to lower their excess reserve funds to approximately one fiscal period's operating expenses to remain in compliance with § 922.42(a)(2) of the order. The Committee based its recommendation on a crop estimate of 5,800 tons for the 2015-16 crop year. The actual crop yield for that period was 4,795 tons, 1,005 tons less than the 5,800 ton estimate used by the Committee for budgeting purposes. Low water supply and higher than average temperatures were reported by the industry at the May 11, 2016, meeting as the major factors for the short 2015-16 crop. As a result of the reduced crop size and related lower assessment revenue, the Committee was forced to use more funds from its reserve than previously anticipated. The Committee intends to fully fund ongoing operations and maintain adequate reserve funds through the implementation of the assessment rate increase for the 2016-17 and future fiscal periods.
The major expenditures recommended by the Committee for the 2016-17 fiscal period include $3,000 for the contracted management fee to the Washington State Fruit Commission, $1,200 for Committee travel, $2,000 for the annual audit, $500 for computer and technical services, and $250 for office supplies. Budgeted expenses for these items in the 2015-2016 fiscal period were $3,000 for the management fee, $1,200 for Committee travel, $2,500 for the annual audit, and $500 for office supplies, respectively.
The assessment rate recommended by the Committee was derived by dividing anticipated expenses by expected shipments of Washington apricots, while also taking into account the Committee's monetary reserve. Washington apricot shipments for the year are estimated at 5,000 tons which should provide $7,000 in assessment income at the rate of $1.40 per ton of Washington apricots handled. Income derived from handler assessments, along with interest income and funds from the Committee's authorized reserve, would be adequate to cover budgeted expenses for the 2016-17 fiscal period. Funds in the reserve (currently $7,301) would be kept within the maximum amount permitted by the order of approximately one fiscal period's operational expenses. Authority for maintaining a financial reserve is found in § 922.42(a)(2) of the order. The Committee expects its monetary reserve to decrease from $7,301 at the beginning of the 2016-17 fiscal period to approximately $7,141 at the end of the 2016-17 fiscal period. That amount would be within the provisions of the order and should provide the Committee with the ability to absorb fluctuations in assessment income and expenses into the future.
The assessment rate will continue in effect indefinitely unless modified, suspended, or terminated by USDA upon recommendation and information submitted by the Committee or other available information.
Although this assessment rate will be in effect for an indefinite period, the Committee will continue to meet prior to or during each fiscal period to recommend a budget of expenses and consider recommendations for modification of the assessment rate. The dates and times of the Committee meetings are available from the Committee or the USDA. Committee meetings are open to the public and interested persons may express their views at these meetings. USDA will evaluate Committee recommendations and other available information to determine whether modification of the assessment rate is needed. Further rulemaking will be undertaken as necessary. The Committee's 2016-17 budget and those for subsequent fiscal periods will be reviewed and, as appropriate, approved by USDA.
Pursuant to requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has considered the economic impact of this rule on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has prepared this final regulatory flexibility analysis.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions in order that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened. Marketing orders issued pursuant to the
There are approximately 100 growers and 17 handlers of Washington apricots subject to regulation under the marketing order in the regulated area. Most apricot producers and all handlers accounted for in the regulated area are engaged in the production of other crops in addition to apricots. Small agricultural producers are defined by the Small Business Administration (SBA) as those having annual receipts of less than $750,000, and small agricultural service firms are defined as those whose annual receipts are less than $7,500,000 (13 CFR 121.201).
The National Agricultural Statistics Service (NASS) reports that the 2015 total production and utilization (including both fresh and processed markets) of Washington apricots was approximately 8,000 tons, the average price was $1,050 per ton, and the total farm-gate value was approximately $8,400,000. Based on these reports and the number of apricot growers within the production area, it is estimated that the 2015 average revenue from the sale of apricots was approximately $84,000. In addition, based on information from the USDA's Market News Service, 2015 f.o.b. prices for Washington No.1 apricots ranged from $20.00 to $26.00 per 24-pound container for both loose pack and 2-layer tray-pack containers. Using average prices and shipment information provided by the Committee, it is determined that each of the Washington apricot handlers currently ship less than $7,500,000 worth of apricots on an annual basis. In view of the foregoing, it is concluded that the majority of handlers and growers of Washington apricots may be classified as small entities.
This rule increases the assessment rate established for the Committee, and collected from handlers, for the 2016-17 and subsequent fiscal periods from $0.75 to $1.40 per ton of Washington apricots handled. The new assessment rate of $1.40 is $0.65 higher than the 2015-16 rate. The quantity of assessable apricots for the 2016-17 fiscal period is estimated at 5,000 tons. Thus, the $1.40 rate should provide $7,000 in assessment income and, combined with the existing reserve fund, should be adequate to meet this year's budgeted expenses.
The major expenditures recommended by the Committee for the 2016-17 fiscal period include $3,000 for the contracted management fee to the Washington State Fruit Commission, $1,200 for Committee travel, $2,000 for the annual audit, $500 for computer and technical services, and $250 for office supplies. Budgeted expenses for these items in the 2015-2016 fiscal period were $3,000 for the management fee, $1,200 for Committee travel, $2,500 for the annual audit, and $500 for office supplies.
The Committee discussed alternatives to this action, including recommending alternative expenditure levels and assessment rates. Although lower assessment rates were considered, none were selected because they would not have generated sufficient income to administer the order.
A review of historical data and preliminary information pertaining to the 2016-17 season indicates that the grower price for Washington apricots could range between $1,050 and $1,300 per ton. Therefore, the assessment revenue for the 2016-17 fiscal period, as a percentage of total grower revenue, could range between 0.133 and 0.108 percent.
This action increases the assessment obligation imposed on handlers. While assessments impose some additional costs on handlers, the costs are minimal and uniform on all handlers. Some of the additional costs may be passed on to producers. However, these costs are offset by the benefits derived by the operation of the order. In addition, the Committee's meeting was widely publicized throughout the Washington apricot industry and all interested persons were invited to attend the meeting and participate in Committee deliberations on all issues. Like all Committee meetings, the May 11, 2016, meeting was a public meeting and all entities, both large and small, were able to express views on this issue. Finally, interested persons were invited to submit comments on this rule, including the regulatory and informational impacts of this action on small businesses.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the order's information collection requirements have been previously approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and assigned OMB No. 0581-0189. No changes in those requirements as a result of this action are necessary. Should any changes become necessary, they would be submitted to OMB for approval.
This rule imposes no additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements on either small or large Washington apricot handlers. As with all Federal marketing order programs, reports and forms are periodically reviewed to reduce information requirements and duplication by industry and public sector agencies. As noted in the initial regulatory flexibility analysis, USDA has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap or conflict with this final rule.
AMS is committed to complying with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
A proposed rule concerning this action was published in the
A small business guide on complying with fruit, vegetable, and specialty crop marketing agreements and orders may be viewed at:
After consideration of all relevant material presented, including the information and recommendation submitted by the Committee and other available information, it is hereby found that this rule, as hereinafter set forth, will tend to effectuate the declared policy of the Act.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553, it is also found and determined that good cause exists for not postponing the effective date of this rule until 30 days after publication in the
Apricots, Marketing agreements, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 7 CFR part 922 is amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 601-674.
On or after April 1, 2016, an assessment rate of $1.40 per ton is established for Washington apricots handled in the production area.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Airbus Helicopters Deutschland GmbH (Airbus Helicopters) Model MBB-BK 117 C-2 helicopters. This AD requires inspecting each terminal lug and replacing any lug that has discoloration, corrosion, incorrect crimping, or incorrect installation. This AD was prompted by the discovery that terminal lugs with incorrect crimping may have been installed on these helicopters. The actions of this AD are intended to detect incorrectly installed or crimped terminal lugs and prevent contact resistance and reduced gastightness between the wire and terminal lug, subsequent loss of electrical power, and an electrical fire.
This AD is effective December 1, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain document listed in this AD as of December 1, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus Helicopters, 2701 N. Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; telephone (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax (972) 641-3775; or at
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
George Schwab, Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Group, Rotorcraft Directorate, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy., Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email
On April 22, 2016, at 81 FR 23656, the
The NPRM was prompted by AD No. 2015-0044, dated March 13, 2015, issued by EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, to correct an unsafe condition for certain serial-numbered Airbus Helicopters Model MBB-BK117 C-2 helicopters. EASA advises that terminal lugs with incorrect crimping, which can adversely affect contact resistance and gastightness of the contact between the wire and the terminal lug, may have been installed on some helicopters in production. EASA advises that this condition, if not detected and corrected, could lead to the loss of electrical power during flight. Because of this, the EASA AD requires a one-time visual inspection of the terminal lugs and replacement of affected lugs if incorrect crimping is found.
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD, but we received no comments on the NPRM (81 FR 23656, April 22, 2016).
These helicopters have been approved by the aviation authority of Germany and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with Germany, EASA, its technical representative, has notified us of the unsafe condition described in the EASA AD. We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all information provided by EASA and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other helicopters of these same type designs and that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD requirements as proposed.
We reviewed Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin ASB MBB-BK117 C-2-24A-013, Revision 1, dated November 25, 2014 (ASB). The ASB specifies a visual inspection of the terminal lugs in the distribution and diode boxes for correct crimping, damage, discoloration, corrosion, and correct installation. If any deviation is detected, the terminal lug must be replaced. The ASB also specifies reporting certain information to Airbus Helicopters.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 183 helicopters of U.S. Registry. We estimate that operators may incur the following costs in order to comply with this AD. Labor costs are estimated at $85 per work-hour. We estimate about 9 work-hours to inspect the terminal lugs for a cost of $765 per helicopter and $139,995 for the U.S. operator fleet. The cost to replace a lug is minimal.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on helicopters identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction; and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
We prepared an economic evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to Model MBB-BK 117 C-2 helicopters, certificated in any category, with a serial number as listed in the Planning Information, paragraph 1.A.1, of Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin ASB MBB-BK117 C-2-24A-013, Revision 1, dated November 25, 2014 (ASB).
This AD defines the unsafe condition as a terminal lug with incorrect crimping.
This AD becomes effective December 1, 2016.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
Within 100 hours time-in-service or 12 months, whichever occurs first:
(1) Using a mirror, inspect each terminal lug for discoloration and corrosion, and for correct crimping and correct installation in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions, Table 1, and the examples in Figure 1 through Figure 5 of the ASB.
(2) If a terminal lug is not correctly crimped or installed or if it has any discoloration or corrosion, replace it before further flight.
(1) The Manager, Safety Management Group, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to: George Schwab, Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Group, Rotorcraft Directorate, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office, before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an AMOC.
The subject of this AD is addressed in European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD No. 2015-0044, dated March 13, 2015. You may view the EASA AD on the Internet at
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: 2400 Electrical Power System.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin ASB MBB-BK117 C-2-24A-013, Revision 1, dated November 25, 2014.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For Airbus Helicopters service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus Helicopters, 2701 N. Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; telephone (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax (972) 641-3775; or at
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Room 6N-321, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation.
Final rule; request for comments.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH Models DA 40 NG, DA 42 NG, and DA 42 M-NG airplanes. This AD results from mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) issued by the aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as cracked autopilot bridle cable clamps. We are issuing this AD to correct the unsafe condition on these products
This AD is effective November 16, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of November 16, 2016.
We must receive comments on this AD by December 12, 2016.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this AD, contact Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH, N.A. Otto-Straße 5, A-2700 Wiener Neustadt, Austria, telephone: +43 2622 26700; fax: +43 2622 26780; email:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Mike Kiesov, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Room 301, Kansas City, Missouri 64106; telephone: (816) 329-4144; fax: (816) 329-4090; email:
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Community, has issued AD No. 2016-0190, dated September 26, 2016 (referred to after this as “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for the specified products. The MCAI states:
During an inspection of the pitch and roll control system of an aeroplane, cracked autopilot bridle cable clamps were discovered. Over‐torqueing has been determined as a possible reason for the cracking.
This condition, if not corrected, could lead to detachment of the clamps from the control system, possibly resulting in reduced control of the aeroplane.
To address this potential unsafe condition, Diamond Aircraft Industries (DAI) issued Recommended Service Bulletins DAI RSB 40NG‐048, DAI RSB 42NG‐059 and DAI RSB 42NG‐059 Revision 1. Later DAI issued Mandatory Service Bulletins DAI MSB 40NG‐048 Revision 1 and DAI MSB 42NG‐059 Revision 2 (referred to as `the applicable SB' in this AD) to provide inspection instructions. DAI also improved the clamp material in a redesign
For the reasons described above, this AD requires repetitive inspections of the auto pilot bridle cable clamps, and replacement of clamps with redesigned clamps if cracks are found.
You may examine the MCAI on the Internet at
Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH has issued Mandatory Service Bulletin MSB 40NG-048/1, dated September 9, 2016, Work Instruction WI-MSB 40NG-048, Revision 1, dated September 9, 2016, Mandatory Service Bulletin MSB 42NG-059/2, dated September 9, 2016, and Work Instruction WI-MSB 42NG-059, Revision 2, dated September 9, 2016. In paired combinations, the mandatory service bulletins and work instructions describe procedures for inspecting the autopilot bridle cable clamps and replacing the clamps with redesigned clamps if cracks are found on the applicable airplane models. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, they have notified us of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all information provided by the State of Design Authority and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
An unsafe condition exists that requires the immediate adoption of this AD. The FAA has found that the risk to the flying public justifies waiving notice and comment prior to adoption of this rule because cracked autopilot bridle cable clamp could cause detachment of the clamps from the control system and result in reduced control. Therefore, we determined that notice and opportunity for public comment before issuing this AD are impracticable and that good cause exists for making this amendment effective in fewer than 30 days.
This AD is a final rule that involves requirements affecting flight safety, and we did not precede it by notice and opportunity for public comment. We invite you to send any written relevant
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We estimate that this AD will affect 78 products of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it will take about 1 work-hour per product to comply with the basic inspection requirement of this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour.
Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD on U.S. operators to be $6,630, or $85 per product.
In addition, we estimate that any necessary follow-on replacement actions will take about 1 work-hour and require parts costing $41 per autopilot bridle cable clamp. There are a total of 4 clamps per airplane. This AD requires replacing 2 clamps at a time, for a cost of $167 per product. We have no way of determining the number of products that may need these actions.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) becomes effective November 16, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to the following Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH model airplanes certificated in any category.
(1) Model DA 40 NG: Serial numbers 40.N260 through 40.N314;
(2) Model DA 42 NG: Serial numbers 42.N150 through 42.N223; and
(3) Model DA 42 M-NG: Serial numbers 42.MN035 through 42.MN052.
Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Code 22: Autopilot.
This AD was prompted by mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) issued by the aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracked autopilot bridle cable clamps, which could cause detachment of the clamps from the control system and could result in reduced control.
Unless already done, do the following actions.
(1) Within the next 25 hours time-in-service (TIS) after November 16, 2016 (the effective date of this AD) or within the next 3 months after November 16, 2016 (the effective date of this AD), whichever occurs first, and repetitively thereafter at intervals not to exceed 200 hours TIS, inspect each autopilot bridle cable clamp, part numbers (P/Ns) D41-2213-10-53 and D41-2213-10-54. Do the inspections following the INSTRUCTIONS section of Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH (DAI) Work Instruction WI-MSB 40NG-048, Revision 1, dated September 9, 2016, as specified in the Accomplishments/Instructions paragraph of DAI Mandatory Service Bulletin MSB 40NG-048/1, dated September 9, 2016, and the INSTRUCTIONS section of DAI Work Instruction WI-MSB 42NG-059, Revision 2, dated September 9, 2016, as specified in the Accomplishments/Instructions paragraph of DAI Mandatory Service Bulletin MSB 42NG-059/2, dated September 9, 2016, as applicable.
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD No. 2016-0190, dated September 26, 2016, and the DAI service bulletins referenced in paragraph (f)(1) of this AD allow the compliance time for the initial inspection of each autopilot bridle cable clamp to be extended from within the 25 hours time-in-service or within the next 3 months, whichever occurs first, to 200 hours TIS or 12 months, whichever occurs first, as long as the autopilot is deactivated. This AD does not allow for this extension.
(2) If a crack is found in either autopilot bridle cable clamp during any inspection required in paragraph (f)(1) of this AD, before further flight, replace both autopilot bridle cable clamps with improved design autopilot bridle cable clamps, P/Ns D41-2213-10-53_01 (or higher) and P/N D41-2213-10-54_01 (or higher). Do the replacements following the INSTRUCTIONS section of DAI Work Instruction WI-MSB 40NG-048, Revision 1, dated September 9, 2016, as specified in the Accomplishments/Instructions paragraph of DAI Mandatory Service Bulletin MSB 40NG-048/1, dated September 9, 2016, and the INSTRUCTIONS section of DAI Work Instruction WI-MSB 42NG-059, Revision 2, dated September 9, 2016, as specified in the Accomplishments/Instructions paragraph of DAI Mandatory Service Bulletin MSB 42NG-
(3) Installing improved design autopilot bridle cable clamps, P/N D41-2213-10-53_01 (or higher) and P/N D41-2213-10-54_01 (or higher) terminates the repetitive inspections required in paragraph (f)(1) of this AD.
(4) As of November 16, 2016 (the effective date of this AD), do not install autopilot bridle cable clamps, P/Ns D41-2213-10-53 and D41-2213-10-54.
This AD allows credit for doing only the initial inspection action required in paragraph (f)(1) of this AD if done before November 16, 2016 (the effective date of this AD), following DAI Recommended Service Bulletin RSB 40NG-048, dated August 24, 2016, and DAI Recommended Service Bulletin RSB 42NG-059, dated June 30, 2016, or DAI Recommended Service Bulletin RSB 42NG-059, Revision 1, dated August 24, 2016, as applicable.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
Refer to MCAI EASA AD No. 2016-0190, dated September 26, 2016, DAI Recommended Service Bulletin RSB 40NG-048, dated August 24, 2016, DAI Recommended Service Bulletin RSB 42NG-059, dated June 30, 2016, and DAI Recommended Service Bulletin RSB 42NG-059, Revision 1, dated August 24, 2016, for related information. You may examine the MCAI on the Internet at
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH Mandatory Service Bulletin MSB 40NG-048/1, dated September 9, 2016.
(ii) Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH Work Instruction WI-MSB 40NG-048, Revision 1, dated September 9, 2016.
(iii) Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH Mandatory Service Bulletin MSB 42NG-059/2, dated September 9, 2016.
(iv) Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH Work Instruction WI-MSB 42NG-059, Revision 2, dated September 9, 2016.
(3) For Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH service information identified in this AD, contact Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH, N.A. Otto-Straße 5, A-2700 Wiener Neustadt, Austria, telephone: +43 2622 26700; fax: +43 2622 26780; email:
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Kansas City, Missouri 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (816) 329-4148. It is also available on the Internet at
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Schempp-Hirth Flugzeugbau GmbH Models Discus-2a, Discus-2b, Discus-2c, Discus 2cT, Ventus-2a, and Ventus-2b gliders. This AD results from mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) issued by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition insufficient overlap of the airbrake panels. We are issuing this AD to correct the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective December 1, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the AD as of December 1, 2016.
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
For service information identified in this AD, contact Schempp-Hirth Flugzeugbau GmbH, Krebenstrasse 25, 73230 Kirchheim/Teck, Germany; telephone: +49 7021 7298-0; fax: +49 7021 7298-199; email:
Jim Rutherford, Aerospace Engineer, FAA,
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to Schempp-Hirth Flugzeugbau Model Discus-2a, Discus-2b, Discus-2c, Discus 2cT, Ventus-2a, and Ventus-2b gliders. The NPRM was published in the
Operational experience shows that, under certain conditions, the overlap between the two airbrake panels can be insufficient and the panels can interlock.
This condition, if not corrected, could lead to blockage of the airbrakes, possibly resulting in reduced control of the (powered) sailplane.
To address this potential unsafe condition, Schempp-Hirth Flugzeugbau GmbH issued TN 349-39, 360-29, 825-55 and 863-22 (single document, hereafter referred to as `the TN' in this AD), to provide inspection instructions to verify the correct overlap between the two affected airbrake panels.
For the reason described above, this AD requires a one-time inspection of the overlap of the affected airbrake panels and, depending on findings, accomplishment of applicable corrective action(s).
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments received on the proposal and the FAA's response to each comment.
Glenn Yeldezian commented that the EASA AD mandated the use of a Schempp-Hirth Technical Note that allowed for the pilot-owner to accomplish the inspection. The commenter requested that the FAA AD include this option for the pilot-owner to accomplish the inspection or, alternately, asked whether the revised Technical Note is enough justification for the pilot-owner to perform the inspection.
We do not agree with allowing pilot-owner to do this inspection. The U.S. regulatory system will not allow a pilot-owner to accomplish inspections on their gliders in accordance with Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part 43. Therefore, we will not revise the AD to account for the allowance in the foreign AD for the pilot-owner to accomplish the specified inspections.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comment received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We reviewed Schempp-Hirth Flugzeugbau GmbH Technical Note No. 349-39, 360-29, 825-55, 863-22; dated January 29, 2016 (published as a single document), and Arbeitsanweisung (English translation: Working instructions) for Technische Mitteilung Nr. (English translation: Technical Note No.) 349-39, 360-29, 825-55, 863-22, Ausgabe (English translation: Issue) 1, Datum (English translation: Dated) January 22, 2016 (published as a single document). In combination, this service information describes procedures for inspection of the overlap of the airbrake panels and, if necessary, replacement of the airbrake panels. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD will affect 86 products of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it would take about 2 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this AD.
Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD on U.S. operators to be $14,620, or $170 per product.
In addition, we estimate that any necessary follow-on actions would take about 4 work-hours and require parts costing $100, for a cost of $440 per product. We have no way of determining the number of products that may need these actions.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) becomes effective December 1, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to the following Schempp-Hirth Flugzeugbau GmbH model and serial number gliders, certificated in any category:
(1) Model Discus-2a, serial numbers 1 through 253;
(2) Model Discus-2b, serial numbers 1 through 255;
(3) Model Discus-2c, serial numbers 1 through 61;
(4) Model Discus 2cT, serial numbers 1 through 127;
(5) Model Ventus-2a, serial numbers 1 through 178; and
(6) Model Ventus-2b, serial numbers 1 through 175.
Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Code 27: Flight Controls.
This AD was prompted by mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as insufficient overlap of the airbrake panels. We are issuing this proposed AD to require actions to address the unsafe condition on these products. We are issuing this AD to prevent interlocking of the airbrake panels, which could lead to blockage of the airbrakes and possible loss of control.
Unless already done, do the following actions in paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) of this AD:
(1) Within the next 40 days after December 1, 2016 (the effective date of this AD), inspect the overlap of the airbrake panels for a minimum overlap of at least 3 millimeters following Action 1 in Schempp-Hirth Flugzeugbau GmbH Technische Mitteilung Nr. (English translation: Technical Note No.) 349-39, 360-29, 825-55, 863-22, dated January 29, 2016 (published as a single document); and Action 1 in the associated Arbeitsanweisung (English translation: Working instructions) for Technische Mitteilung Nr. (English translation: Technical Note No.) 349-39, 360-29, 825-55, 863-22, Ausgabe (English translation: Issue) 1, Datum (English translation: Dated) January 22, 2016 (published as a single document).
This service information contains German to English translation. The EASA used the English translation in referencing the document. For enforceability purposes, we will refer to the Schempp-Hirth Flugzeugbau GmbH service information as it appears on the document.
(2) If, during the inspection required in paragraph (f)(1) of this AD, the overlap on the airbrake panels is found to be less than 3 millimeters, before further flight, install eccentric bushings and make adjustments following Action 2 in Schempp-Hirth Flugzeugbau GmbH Technische Mitteilung Nr. (English translation: Technical Note No.) 349-39, 360-29, 825-55, 863-22, dated January 29, 2016 (published as a single document); and Action 2 in the associated Arbeitsanweisung (English translation: Working instructions) for Technische Mitteilung Nr. (English translation: Technical Note No.) 349-39, 360-29, 825-55, 863-22, Ausgabe (English translation: Issue) 1, Datum (English translation: Dated) January 22, 2016 (published as a single document).
The Schempp-Hirth Flugzeugbau GmbH Technische Mitteilung Nr. (English translation: Technical Note No.) 349-39, 360-29, 825-55, 863-22, dated January 29, 2016 (published as a single document) includes four German language drawings that you may use for additional information, but the drawings are not required to comply with this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
Refer to MCAI European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD No.: 2016-0027, dated February 9, 2016, for related information. The MCAI can be found in the AD docket on the Internet at:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Schempp-Hirth Flugzeugbau GmbH Technische Mitteilung Nr. (English translation: Technical Note No.) 349-39, 360-29, 825-55, 863-22, dated January 29, 2016 (published as a single document); and
(ii) Arbeitsanweisung (English translation: Working instructions) for Technische Mitteilung Nr. (English translation: Technical Note No.) 349-39, 360-29, 825-55, 863-22, Ausgabe (English translation: Issue) 1, Datum (English translation: Dated) January 22, 2016 (published as a single document).
This service information contains German to English translation. The EASA used the English translation in referencing the document. For enforceability purposes, we will refer to the Schempp-Hirth Flugzeugbau GmbH service information as it appears on the document.
(3) For Schempp-Hirth Flugzeugbau GmbH service information identified in this AD, contact Schempp-Hirth Flugzeugbau GmbH, Krebenstrasse 25, 73230 Kirchheim/Teck, Germany; telephone: +49 7021 7298-0; fax: +49 7021 7298-199; email:
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Kansas City, Missouri 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (816) 329-4148. In addition, you can access this service information on the Internet at
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Embraer S.A. Models EMB-500 and EMB-505 airplanes. This AD results from mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) issued by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as incorrect installation of passenger seat attachment fittings. We are issuing this AD to correct the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective December 1, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the AD as of December 1, 2016.
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
For service information identified in this AD, contact Embraer—S.A., Phenom Maintenance Support, Avenida Brigadeiro Faria Lima, 2170, São José dos Campos—SP—12227-901, P.O. Box 36/2, Brasil; phone: +55 12 3927 1000; fax: +55 12 3927-2619; email:
Jim Rutherford, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Room 301, Kansas City, Missouri 64106; telephone: (816) 329-4165; fax: (816) 329-4090; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to Embraer S.A. Models EMB-500 and EMB-505 airplanes. The NPRM was published in the
There is the possibility that certain attachment fittings of passenger seats have been incorrectly installed. This AD results from a determination that the passenger seat on which the attachment fittings were improperly installed may not meet certain static strength, and dynamic strength criteria. Failure to meet static and dynamic strength criteria could result in injuries to the occupants during an emergency landing condition.
This AD requires the inspection of each passenger seat for the correct installation of the attachment fittings and correction, if necessary.
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
Embraer S.A requested that the FAA withdraw this AD stating there is no data available considering the real seat dynamic strength if the fittings were not assembled in the correct way, as this wrong configuration was never tested during the seat certification process. The commenter stated that assuming the possible uncorrected seat fittings were installed, the unsafe condition would require a survivable crash landing to exist. Due to lack of better data and considering a total of six (6) hull losses in the fleet as being survivable crash landings, then the current fleet probability of a crash landing would be 1,15 X 10-5. Based on this consideration, Embraer understood that the probability of an unsafe condition would be extremely remote, therefore not justifying the issuance of an AD as per 14 CFR part 39 requirements.
The commenter suggested that the issuance of a special airworthiness information bulletin (SAIB) would be more appropriate for a possible improper installation because, per FAA definition, the “Special Airworthiness Information Bulletin (SAIB) is an information tool that alerts, educates, and makes recommendations to the aviation community. SAIBs contain non-regulatory information and guidance that does not meet the criteria for an AD.”
We don't agree because as part of the investigation into the Embraer request, the FAA contacted the Brazilian Airworthiness Authority, ANAC, to get their input as the certifying authority and originator of the original mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI). ANAC reported that they had received similar comments from Embraer and had decided to go ahead and issue their AD. They justified this decision because there is no data indicating that a seat installation on which the aluminum and steel fittings have been switched would meet the static and dynamic criteria. They also reasoned that the seat assembly criteria for the current requirements are to provide a specific level of safety to the occupants in case of impact. Therefore, they disagreed with removing these safety features just because they would only be used in a crash landing event. After review of the Embraer request and the related comments from ANAC, the FAA has decided that we agree with ANAC and will not withdraw our proposed AD for this unsafe condition.
Justin Collins requested that the FAA make changes to the wording of the proposed AD Applicability, paragraph (c)(2), which excludes “any passenger seat replaced during routine maintenance.” The commenter believes that a more appropriate phrase would be “any passenger seat removed and reinstalled” or “any passenger seat that has been installed.”
The commenter states that the word ‘replaced’ in the proposed AD infers a different part has been installed.
We don't agree with adding the concept of `reinstallation' to the final rule. If the unsafe condition exists on the aircraft, it is possible that this seat could be removed and reinstalled without the fitting installation being corrected and thus still have the unsafe
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD with the change described previously and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of the AD.
We reviewed Embraer S.A. Service Bulletin (SB) No.: 500-25-0016, dated December 8, 2015; and Embraer S.A. SB No.: 505-25-0020, dated December 8, 2015. The service information describes procedures for inspection of the passenger seat attachment fittings and correction to the fittings if necessary on the applicable airplane models. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD will affect 203 products of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it would take about 4 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour.
Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD on U.S. operators to be $69,020, or $340 per product.
In addition, we estimate that any necessary follow-on actions would take about 6 work-hours for a cost of $510 per product. We have no way of determining the number of products that may need these actions.
According to the manufacturer, all of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) becomes effective December 1, 2016.
None.
(1) This AD applies to Embraer S.A. Model EMB-500 airplanes, serial numbers 50000322, 50000324 through 50000328, 50000330 through 50000344, 50000346 through 50000350, and 50000353, certificated in any category; and Embraer S.A. Model EMB-505 airplanes, serial numbers 50500004 through 50500215, 50500217 through 50500245, 50500247 through 50500255, 50500257 through 50500259, 50500261 through 50500263, 50500265, and 50500267, certificated in any category.
(2) The airplanes identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this AD had passenger seats installed at manufacturer as listed in Embraer S.A. Service Bulletin (SB) No.: 500-25-0016, dated December 8, 2015; or Embraer S.A. SB No.: 505-25-0020, dated December 8, 2015. Since these are line replaceable units and the unsafe condition of this AD was originated during manufacturing, any passenger seat replaced with another one during routine maintenance is not affected by the actions of this AD.
Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Code 25: Equipment/Furnishing.
This AD was prompted by mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as incorrect installation of passenger seat attachment fittings. We are issuing this proposed AD to detect and correct improperly installed seat attachment fittings, which could result in seat damage causing injury to occupants during an emergency landing condition.
Unless already done, do the following actions in paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) of this AD following the Accomplishment Instructions in Embraer S.A. Service Bulletin (SB) No.: 500-25-0016, dated December 8, 2015; or Embraer S.A. SB No.: 505-25-0020, dated December 8, 2015, as applicable:
(1) Within the next 30 months after December 1, 2016 (the effective date of this AD), inspect each applicable passenger seat for the correct installation of attachment fittings.
(2) If any discrepancy is found during the inspection required in paragraph (f)(1) of this AD, before further flight, correct the discrepancy following the applicable service information or using FAA-approved procedures.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
Refer to MCAI Agência Nacional de Aviação Civil (ANAC) AD No.: 2016-05-01, dated May 27, 2016, for related information. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Embraer S.A. Service Bulletin (SB) No.: 500-25-0016, dated December 8, 2015.
(ii) Embraer S.A. SB No.: 505-25-0020, dated December 8, 2015.
(3) For Embraer S.A. service information identified in this AD, contact Embraer—S.A., Phenom Maintenance Support, Avenida Brigadeiro Faria Lima, 2170, São José dos Campos—SP—12227-901, P.O. Box 36/2, Brasil; phone: +55 12 3927 1000; fax: +55 12 3927-2619; email:
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Kansas City, Missouri 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (816) 329-4148. In addition, you can access this service information on the Internet at
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
This action extends the prohibition against certain flight operations in the Simferopol (UKFV) and Dnipropetrovsk (UKDV) flight information regions (FIRs) by all United States (U.S.) air carriers; U.S. commercial operators; persons exercising the privileges of a U.S. airman certificate, except when such persons are operating a U.S.-registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and operators of U.S.-registered civil aircraft, except when such operators are foreign air carriers. The FAA finds this action to be necessary to address a continuing hazard to persons and aircraft engaged in such flight operations.
This final rule is effective on October 27, 2016.
Michael Filippell, Air Transportation Division, AFS-220, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591; telephone: 202-267-8166; email:
This action continues the prohibition on flight operations in the Simferopol (UKFV) and Dnipropetrovsk (UKDV) FIRs by all U.S. air carriers; U.S. commercial operators; persons exercising the privileges of a U.S. airman certificate, except when such persons are operating a U.S.-registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and operators of U.S.-registered civil aircraft,
The FAA is responsible for the safety of flight in the U.S. and for the safety of U.S. civil operators, U.S.-registered civil aircraft, and U.S.-certificated airmen throughout the world. The FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety is found in title 49, U.S. Code. Subtitle I, section 106(f), describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Section 40101(d)(1) provides that the Administrator shall consider in the public interest, among other matters, assigning, maintaining, and enhancing safety and security as the highest priorities in air commerce. Section 40105(b)(1)(A) requires the Administrator to exercise his authority consistently with the obligations of the U.S. Government under international agreements.
This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, subpart III, section 44701, General requirements. Under that section, the FAA is charged broadly with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing, among other things, regulations and minimum standards for practices, methods, and procedures that the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce and national security. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it continues to prohibit the persons subject to paragraph (a) of Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) No. 113, § 91.1607, from conducting flight operations in the Simferopol (UKFV) and Dnipropetrovsk (UKDV) FIRs due to the hazard to the safety of such persons' flight operations, as described in the Background section of this rule.
Section 553(b)(3)(B) of title 5, U.S. Code, authorizes agencies to dispense with notice and comment procedures for rules when the agency for “good cause” finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” In this instance, the FAA finds that notice and public comment to this immediately adopted final rule, as well as any delay in the effective date of this rule, are contrary to the public interest due to the immediate need to address the continuing hazard to civil aviation that exists in the Simferopol (UKFV) and Dnipropetrovsk (UKDV) FIRs, as described in the Background section of this final rule.
The threat to safety in existence when the FAA first published SFAR No. 113, § 91.1607 on April 25, 2014 (79 FR 22862) has not abated. At that time, the FAA viewed the possibility of civil aircraft receiving confusing and conflicting air traffic control instructions from both Ukrainian and Russian air traffic service providers when operating in the portion of the Simferopol (UKFV) FIR covered by SFAR No. 113, § 91.1607, as an unsafe condition that presented a potential hazard to U.S. civil flight operations in the disputed airspace. Because political and military tensions between Ukraine and the Russian Federation remained high, the FAA was also concerned that compliance with air traffic control instructions issued by the authorities of one country could result in a civil aircraft being misidentified as a threat and intercepted or otherwise engaged by air defense forces of the other country. The FAA continues to have these concerns.
On July 18, 2014, the FAA issued a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) FDC 4/2182, expanding the flight prohibition to the entire Simferopol (UKFV) and Dnipropetrovsk (UKDV) FIRs, primarily as an immediate response to the shoot down of Malaysia Airlines MH17 on July 17, 2014, while flying over Ukraine at 33,000 feet just west of the Russian border. Two hundred ninety eight passengers and crew perished. In addition, there were other attacks on fixed-wing and rotary-wing Ukrainian military aircraft flying at lower altitudes, such as the shoot down of a Ukrainian An-26 flying at 21,000 feet southeast of Luhansk on July 14, 2014. As a result of these events, the FAA determined that the ongoing conflict in the region posed a significant threat to U.S. civil aviation operations in these FIRs. The use of weapons capable of targeting and shooting down aircraft flying on civil air routes at cruising altitudes posed a significantly dangerous threat to civil aircraft flying in the Simferopol (UKFV) and Dnipropetrovsk (UKDV) FIRs. The FAA published a final rule incorporating the expanded flight prohibition into SFAR No. 113, § 91.1607, on December 29, 2014 (79 FR 77857). The FAA extended this flight prohibition in a final rule published October 27, 2015 (80 FR 65621).
The State Aviation Administration of Ukraine conducted and completed an airspace restructuring that went into effect in the late 2014 timeframe. The new configuration altered both the Simferopol (UKFV) and Dnipropetrovsk (UKDV) Flight Information Region (FIR) altitude structures. To address the Ukraine airspace restructuring and provide additional clarity, on July 22, 2016, the FAA published a technical amendment to specifically identify the prohibited airspace in which SFAR No. 113, § 91.1607, applies, with inclusive altitudes and lateral limitations (latitude and longitude coordinates). 81 FR 47699.
The FAA has continued to evaluate the situation in the Simferopol (UKFV) and Dnipropetrovsk (UKDV) FIRs and has determined there is a continuing significant flight safety hazard to U.S. civil aviation. Although the European Aviation Safety Agency's (EASA) published a Safety Information Bulletin (SIB) on February 17, 2016, indicating that ATS routes L851 and M856 could be considered for planning flights in the Simferopol (UKFV) FIR, there is continuing concern over the hazard to U.S. civil aviation from possible conflicting air traffic control instructions from Ukrainian and Russian air traffic service providers. Shortly following the EASA bulletin, the Russian Federal Air Transport Agency responded with a press release in which it again asserted that it was responsible for air traffic services in a portion of the Simferopol (UKFV) FIR. The Russian circular (from Feb 21, 2016) further stated, “The Russian Federation does not bear the responsibility for the provision of safety to those flights, which will be operated within Simferopol FIR under control of ATC unit other than Simferopol Air Traffic Management Centre.” Russia contended that EASA's decision was politically motivated and `pose[d] a threat to aviation safety in the region.' In addition, there have been reported incidents of purposeful interference, including GPS jamming, in the Simferopol (UKFV) and Dnipropetrovsk (UKDV) FIRs. Based on this information, the FAA continues to assess that there is a significant flight safety hazard to U.S. civil aviation in the Simferopol (UKFV) FIR.
In the Dnipropetrovsk (UKDV) FIR, there is an ongoing risk of skirmishes in the area and a potential for larger-scale fighting in eastern Ukraine involving combined Russian-separatist forces, which could result in civil aircraft being misidentified as a threat and then intercepted or otherwise engaged, as demonstrated by the shoot down of Malaysia Airlines Flight 17 on July 17, 2014. These combined forces have access to a variety of anti-aircraft
Due to the previously described continuing hazards to U.S. civil aviation operations, the FAA is extending the expiration date of SFAR No. 113, § 91.1607, to continue the prohibition on flight operations in the Simferopol (UKFV) and Dnipropetrovsk (UKDV) FIRs by all U.S. air carriers; U.S. commercial operators; persons exercising the privileges of a U.S. airman certificate, except when such persons are operating a U.S.-registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and operators of U.S.-registered civil aircraft, except when such operators are foreign air carriers. This rule extends the expiration date of SFAR No. 113, § 91.1607, from October 27, 2016, to October 27, 2018.
The FAA will continue to actively evaluate the area to determine to what extent U.S. civil aviation may be able to safely operate therein. Adjustments to this SFAR may be appropriate if the risk to aviation safety and security changes. The FAA may amend or rescind this SFAR as necessary prior to its expiration date.
Because the circumstances described herein warrant a continuation of the flight restrictions imposed by SFAR No. 113, I find that notice and public comment under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3)(B) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest. I also find that this action is fully consistent with the obligations under 49 U.S.C. 40105 to ensure that I exercise my duties consistently with the obligations of the United States under international agreements.
Changes to Federal regulations must undergo several economic analyses. First, Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct that each Federal agency shall propose or adopt a regulation only upon a reasoned determination that the benefits of the intended regulation justify its costs. Second, the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-354), as codified in 5 U.S.C. 603
In conducting these analyses, FAA has determined this final rule has benefits that justify its costs. This rule is a significant regulatory action as defined in section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866 or as defined in DOT's Regulatory Policies and Procedures, as it raises novel policy issues. This final rule merely extends an existing flight prohibition without change. This rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This rule will not create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States. This rule will not impose an unfunded mandate on State, local, or tribal governments, or on the private sector by exceeding the threshold identified above.
DOT Order 2100.5 prescribes policies and procedures for simplification, analysis, and review of regulations. If the expected cost impact is so minimal that a proposed or final rule does not warrant a full evaluation, this order permits a statement to that effect and the basis for it to be included in the preamble if a full regulatory evaluation of the costs and benefits is not prepared. Such a determination has been made for this final rule. The reasoning for this determination follows.
This rule extends the existing prohibition against U.S. civil flight operations in the Simferopol (UKFV) and Dnipropetrovsk (UKDV) FIRs. As we noted in the most recent previous amendment to SFAR No. 113, § 91.1607 (80 FR 65621, October 27, 2015), almost all U.S. operators already had voluntarily ceased their operations in these FIRs prior to the issuance of the FAA NOTAM on July 18, 2014 (UTC), which prohibited U.S. civil flight operations in these two FIRS in their entirety. Prior to the issuance of the July 18, 2014 (UTC) NOTAM, the FAA had already prohibited U.S. civil flight operations in a portion of the Simferopol (UKFV) FIR due to a dispute between Ukraine and the Russian Federation over which country is responsible for providing air navigation services in the area, first via NOTAM and subsequently when the FAA initially published SFAR No. 113, § 91.1607, on April 25, 2014. Consequently, no U.S. operators were operating in that portion of the Simferopol (UKFV) FIR at the time of the December 29, 2014 amendment to the rule.
Because of the continuing significant hazards to U.S. civil aviation discussed in the Background section of this final rule, the FAA believes that few, if any, U.S. operators presently wish to conduct operations in either of these two FIRS. Moreover, both the amendment published on December 29, 2014, and this rule, permit a U.S. Government department, agency, or instrumentality to request FAA approval on behalf of a person described in paragraph (a) of SFAR No. 113, § 91.1607, to conduct operations under a contract (or subcontract), grant, or cooperative agreement with that department, agency, or instrumentality. As no U.S. Government department, agency, or instrumentality has requested such approval since December 29, 2014, there is apparently little demand for such approvals. Finally, the possibility of obtaining an approval, should one be requested, lowers the expected cost of the extended rule. Accordingly, the FAA believes the incremental costs of this final rule will be minimal. These minimal costs will be exceeded by the benefits of avoiding the deaths, injuries, and/or property damage that would result from a U.S. operator's aircraft being shot down (or otherwise damaged) while operating in either or both of the Simferopol (UKFV) and Dnipropetrovsk (UKDV) FIRs.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-354) (RFA) establishes “as a principle of regulatory issuance that agencies shall endeavor, consistent with the objectives of the rule and of applicable statutes, to fit regulatory and informational requirements to the scale
Agencies must perform a review to determine whether a rule will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. If the agency determines that it will, the agency must prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis, as described in the RFA.
However, if an agency determines that a rule is not expected to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, section 605(b) of the RFA provides that the head of the agency may so certify and a regulatory flexibility analysis is not required. The certification must include a statement providing the factual basis for this determination, and the reasoning should be clear.
As described in the Regulatory Evaluation section of this preamble, the incremental costs of this rule are minimal. Therefore, as provided in § 605(b), the head of the FAA certifies that this rulemaking will not result in a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The Trade Agreements Act of 1979 (Pub. L. 96-39), as amended, prohibits Federal agencies from establishing standards or engaging in related activities that create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States. Pursuant to this Act, the establishment of standards is not considered an unnecessary obstacle to the foreign commerce of the United States, so long as the standard has a legitimate domestic objective, such as the protection of safety, and does not operate in a manner that excludes imports that meet this objective. The statute also requires consideration of international standards and, where appropriate, that they be the basis for U.S. standards.
The FAA has assessed the effect of this final rule and determined that its purpose is to protect the safety of U.S. civil aviation from a hazard outside the U.S. Therefore, the rule is in compliance with the Trade Agreements Act.
Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4) requires each Federal agency to prepare a written statement assessing the effects of any Federal mandate in a proposed or final agency rule that may result in an expenditure of $100 million or more (in 1995 dollars) in any one year by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector; such a mandate is deemed to be a “significant regulatory action.” The FAA currently uses an inflation-adjusted value of $155.0 million in lieu of $100 million.
This final rule does not contain such a mandate. Therefore, the requirements of Title II of the Act do not apply.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)) requires that the FAA consider the impact of paperwork and other information collection burdens imposed on the public. The FAA has determined that there is no new requirement for information collection associated with this immediately adopted final rule.
In keeping with U.S. obligations under the Convention on International Civil Aviation, it is FAA policy to conform to International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Standards and Recommended Practices to the maximum extent practicable. The FAA has determined that there are no ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices that correspond to this regulation.
FAA Order 1050.1F identifies FAA actions that are categorically excluded from preparation of an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) in the absence of extraordinary circumstances. The FAA has determined this rulemaking action qualifies for the categorical exclusion identified in paragraph 5-6.6f of this order and involves no extraordinary circumstances.
The FAA has reviewed the implementation of this SFAR and determined it is categorically excluded from further environmental review according to FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.6f. The FAA has examined possible extraordinary circumstances and determined that no such circumstances exist. After careful and thorough consideration of the action, the FAA finds that this Federal action does not require preparation of an Environmental Assessment or Environmental Impact Statement in accordance with the requirements of NEPA, Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ) regulations, and FAA Order 1050.1F.
The FAA has analyzed this immediately adopted final rule under the principles and criteria of Executive Order 13132, Federalism. The agency has determined that this action would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, or the relationship between the Federal Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, and, therefore, would not have Federalism implications.
The FAA analyzed this immediately adopted final rule under Executive Order 13211, Actions Concerning Regulations that Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use (May 18, 2001). The agency has determined that it would not be a “significant energy action” under the executive order and would not be likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy.
Executive Order 13609, Promoting International Regulatory Cooperation, (77 FR 26413, May 4, 2012) promotes international regulatory cooperation to meet shared challenges involving health, safety, labor, security, environmental, and other issues and to reduce, eliminate, or prevent unnecessary differences in regulatory requirements. The FAA has analyzed this action under the policies and agency responsibilities of Executive Order 13609, and has determined that this action would have no effect on international regulatory cooperation.
An electronic copy of rulemaking documents may be obtained from the Internet by—
Copies may also be obtained by sending a request (identified by docket or amendment number of the rule) to the Federal Aviation Administration, Office of Rulemaking, ARM-1, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591, or by calling (202) 267-9677.
Except for classified material, all documents the FAA considered in developing this rule, including economic analyses and technical reports, may be accessed from the Internet through the Federal eRulemaking Portal referenced above.
The Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (SBREFA) requires FAA to comply with small entity requests for information or advice about compliance with statutes and regulations within its jurisdiction. A small entity with questions regarding this document may contact its local FAA official, or the person listed under the
Air traffic control, Aircraft, Airmen, Airports, Aviation safety, Freight, Ukraine.
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends chapter I of title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 1155, 40101, 40103, 40105, 40113, 40120, 44101, 44111, 44701, 44704, 44709, 44711, 44712, 44715, 44716, 44717, 44722, 46306, 46315, 46316, 46504, 46506-46507, 47122, 47508, 47528-47531, 47534, articles 12 and 29 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation (61 Stat. 1180), (126 Stat. 11).
(e)
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Interim final rule.
This interim final rule establishes a Court of Indian Offenses (also known as CFR Court) for the Wind River Indian Reservation until the agency can promulgate a final rule that considers comments received.
This interim final rule is effective on October 27, 2016. Submit comments by November 28, 2016.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
• Federal rulemaking portal
•
• We cannot ensure that comments received after the close of the comment period (see DATES) will be included in the docket for this rulemaking and considered. Comments sent to an address other than those listed above will not be included in the docket for this rulemaking.
Ms. Elizabeth Appel, Director, Office of Regulatory Affairs & Collaborative Action—Indian Affairs, (202) 273-4680;
Courts of Indian Offenses operate in those areas of Indian country where tribes retain jurisdiction over Indians exclusive of State jurisdiction, but where tribal courts have not been established to fully exercise that jurisdiction. The Eastern Shoshone Tribe and the Northern Arapaho Tribe have a joint interest in the Wind River Indian Reservation, however the current tribal court operating on the reservation, the Shoshone & Arapaho Tribal Court, is currently operating without the support of both tribes, and with such limited resources, that it may cease operations without notice. To ensure the continued administration of justice on the Reservation, the BIA is taking steps to ensure that judicial services will continue to be provided if the Shoshone & Arapaho Tribal Court ceases operations. Therefore, this rule revises a section of 25 CFR part 11 to add the Wind River Indian Reservation in Wyoming to the list of areas in Indian Country with established Courts of Indian Offenses (also known as CFR Courts). This rule inserts the Wind River Indian Reservation into a new paragraph (d) in 25 CFR 11.100.
Adding this reservation will allow for BIA to constitute a Court of Indian Offenses that can provide for the administration of justice until such time as the Northern Arapaho and Eastern Shoshone Tribes put into effect a court system that meets regulatory requirements and is capable of serving the entire reservation.
Executive Order 12866 provides that the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs in the Office of Management and Budget will review all significant rules. The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has determined that this rule is not significant.
Executive Order 13563 reaffirms the principles of E.O. 12866 while calling for improvements in the nation's regulatory system to promote predictability, reduce uncertainty, and use the best, most innovative, and least burdensome tools for achieving regulatory ends. The Executive order also directs agencies to consider regulatory approaches that reduce burdens and maintain flexibility and freedom of choice for the public where these approaches are relevant, feasible, and consistent with regulatory objectives. E.O. 13563 emphasizes further that regulations must be based on the best available science and that the rulemaking process must allow for public participation and an open exchange of ideas. We have developed this rule in a manner consistent with these requirements.
This rule will not have a significant economic effect on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
This rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804(2), the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act. This rule:
(a) Does not have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more;
(b) Will not cause a major increase in costs or prices for consumers, individual industries, Federal, State, or local government agencies, or geographic regions;
(c) Does not have significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or the ability of U.S. based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises.
This rule does not impose an unfunded mandate on State, local, or tribal governments or the private sector of more than $100 million per year. The rule does not have a significant or unique effect on State, local, or tribal governments or the private sector. A statement containing the information required by the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (2 U.S.C. 1531
This rule does not affect a taking of private property or otherwise have taking implications under Executive Order 12630. A takings implication assessment is not required.
Under the criteria in section 1 of Executive Order 13132, this rule does not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a federalism summary impact statement. A federalism summary impact statement is not required.
This rule complies with the requirements of Executive Order 12988. Specifically, this rule:
(a) Meets the criteria of section 3(a) requiring that all regulations be reviewed to eliminate errors and ambiguity and be written to minimize litigation; and
(b) Meets the criteria of section 3(b)(2) requiring that all regulations be written in clear language and contain clear legal standards.
The Department of the Interior strives to strengthen its government-to-government relationship with Indian tribes through a commitment to consultation with Indian tribes and recognition of their right to self-governance and tribal sovereignty. We have evaluated this rule under the Department's consultation policy under the criteria in Executive Order 13175 and have consulted with the affected tribes.
(a) Tribal Summary Impact Statement: Prior to issuing this regulation the Department of the Interior and its Agencies, Bureaus, and Offices have communicated with the Eastern Shoshone Tribe and the Northern Arapaho Tribe repeatedly since 2015 regarding public safety concerns for the residents of the Wind River Indian Reservation. Following the withdrawal of the Northern Arapaho Tribe from the Joint Business Committee, the Shoshone and Arapaho Tribal Court has continued to operate, although with limited resources and without the express support of both tribes. Although the Department has continued to discuss this situation with both tribes while allowing the joint Shoshone and Arapaho Tribal Court to use funds previously contracted to it, those funds expired on September 30, 2016, and the tribes have not been able to agree on the continued operation of the Shoshone and Arapaho Tribal Court.
The Shoshone and Arapaho Tribal Court is exercising some jurisdiction, however, it has no dedicated funding, no right to remain in its current physical location, and may cease or suspend operations at any time. To ensure there is not a lapse in public safety, if the Shoshone and Arapaho Tribal Court ceases or suspends operations, it will be necessary to establish a Court of Indian Offenses until such time as the Eastern Shoshone Tribe and the Northern Arapaho Tribe can agree on the operation and funding of a court system which is capable of serving the entire population of the Wind River Indian Reservation. Furthermore the Eastern Shoshone Business Committee has requested the Department to establish and operate a Court of Indian Offenses for the Wind River Indian Reservation.
To effectuate the immediate establishment and operation of the Court of Indian Offenses on the Wind River Reservation in the event that the Shoshone & Arapaho Tribal Court ceases or suspends operations, the Wind River Indian Reservation is hereby added to the list of jurisdictions served by the Courts of Indian Offenses.
This rule does not contain information collection requirements, and a submission to the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
This rule does not constitute a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment. A detailed statement under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) is not required because the rule is covered by a categorical exclusion. This rule is excluded from the requirement to prepare a detailed statement because it is a regulation of an administrative nature (for further information, see 43 CFR 46.210(i)). We have also determined that the rule does not involve any of the extraordinary circumstances listed in 43 CFR 46.215 that would require further analysis under NEPA.
This rule is not a significant energy action under the definition in Executive Order 13211. A Statement of Energy Effects is not required.
We are required by Executive Orders 12866 (section 1(b)(12)), and 12988 (section 3(b)(1)(B)), and 13563 (section 1(a)), and by the Presidential Memorandum of June 1, 1998, to write all rules in plain language. This means that each rule we publish must:
(a) Be logically organized;
(b) Use the active voice to address readers directly;
(c) Use common, everyday words and clear language rather than jargon;
(d) Be divided into short sections and sentences; and
(e) Use lists and tables wherever possible.
If you feel that we have not met these requirements, send us comments by one of the methods listed in the
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
We are publishing this interim final rule with a request for comment without prior notice and comment, as allowed under 5 U.S.C. 553(b). Under section 553(b) we find that there is good cause to effectuate this rule without prior notice, and comments are unnecessary and would be contrary to the public interest. This rule is necessary to ensure that a court is immediately available to administer justice on land within the Wind River Indian Reservation. If the Tribal Court were to cease or suspend operations, this would affect, among others, child and adult protection, and supervised Individual Indian Money account clients (vulnerable individuals). Accordingly, a gap in the provision of judicial services on the Reservation would harm the tribes and their members.
As allowed under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the effective date of this rule is the date of publication in the
Courts, Indians—law.
For the reason stated in the preamble the Department of the interior, Bureau of Indian Affairs amends part 11 in title 25 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
5 U.S.C. 301; R.S. 463, 25 U.S.C. 2; R.S. 465, 25 U.S.C. 9; 42 Stat. 208, 25 U.S.C. 13; 38 Stat. 586, 25 U.S.C. 200.
(d) This part applies to the Indian country (as defined in 18 U.S.C. 1151 and by Federal precedent) within the exterior boundaries of the Wind River Reservation in Wyoming.
Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau, Treasury.
Final rule; Treasury decision.
The Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau (TTB) establishes the approximately 2,400-square mile “Appalachian High Country” viticultural area in all or portions of the following counties: Alleghany, Ashe, Avery, Mitchell, and Watauga Counties in North Carolina; Carter and Johnson Counties in Tennessee; and Grayson County in Virginia. The viticultural area is not located within any other viticultural area. TTB designates viticultural areas to allow vintners to better describe the origin of their wines and to allow consumers to better identify wines they may purchase.
This final rule is effective November 28, 2016.
Karen A. Thornton, Regulations and Rulings Division, Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau, 1310 G Street NW., Box 12, Washington, DC 20005; phone 202-453-1039, ext. 175.
Section 105(e) of the Federal Alcohol Administration Act (FAA Act), 27 U.S.C. 205(e), authorizes the Secretary of the Treasury to prescribe regulations for the labeling of wine, distilled spirits, and malt beverages. The FAA Act provides that these regulations should, among other things, prohibit consumer deception and the use of misleading statements on labels and ensure that labels provide the consumer with adequate information as to the identity and quality of the product. The Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau (TTB) administers the FAA Act pursuant to section 1111(d) of the Homeland Security Act of 2002, codified at 6 U.S.C. 531(d). The Secretary has delegated various authorities through Treasury Department Order 120-01, dated December 10, 2013 (superseding
Part 4 of the TTB regulations (27 CFR part 4) authorizes TTB to establish definitive viticultural areas and regulate the use of their names as appellations of origin on wine labels and in wine advertisements. Part 9 of the TTB regulations (27 CFR part 9) sets forth standards for the preparation and submission of petitions for the establishment or modification of American viticultural areas (AVAs) and lists the approved AVAs.
Section 4.25(e)(1)(i) of the TTB regulations (27 CFR 4.25(e)(1)(i)) defines a viticultural area for American wine as a delimited grape-growing region having distinguishing features, as described in part 9 of the regulations, and a name and a delineated boundary, as established in part 9 of the regulations. These designations allow vintners and consumers to attribute a given quality, reputation, or other characteristic of a wine made from grapes grown in an area to the wine's geographic origin. The establishment of AVAs allows vintners to describe more accurately the origin of their wines to consumers and helps consumers to identify wines they may purchase. Establishment of an AVA is neither an approval nor an endorsement by TTB of the wine produced in that area.
Section 4.25(e)(2) of the TTB regulations (27 CFR 4.25(e)(2)) outlines the procedure for proposing an AVA and provides that any interested party may petition TTB to establish a grape-growing region as an AVA. Section 9.12 of the TTB regulations (27 CFR 9.12) prescribes standards for petitions for the establishment or modification of AVAs. Petitions to establish an AVA must include the following:
• Evidence that the area within the proposed AVA boundary is nationally or locally known by the AVA name specified in the petition;
• An explanation of the basis for defining the boundary of the proposed AVA;
• A narrative description of the features of the proposed AVA affecting viticulture, such as climate, geology, soils, physical features, and elevation, that make the proposed AVA distinctive and distinguish it from adjacent areas outside the proposed AVA boundary;
• The appropriate United States Geological Survey (USGS) map(s) showing the location of the proposed AVA, with the boundary of the proposed AVA clearly drawn thereon; and
• A detailed narrative description of the proposed AVA boundary based on USGS map markings.
TTB received a petition from Johnnie James, owner of Bethel Valley Farms, on behalf of members of the High Country Wine Growers Association, proposing the establishment of the “Appalachian High Country” AVA. The proposed AVA covers approximately 2,400-square miles in all or portions of Alleghany, Ashe, Avery, Mitchell, and Watauga Counties in North Carolina, Carter and Johnson Counties in Tennessee, and Grayson County in Virginia. There are 21 commercially-producing vineyards covering a total of approximately 71 acres distributed throughout the proposed AVA, along with 10 wineries. According to the petition, an additional 8 vineyards comprising approximately 37 acres are planned in the near future. The proposed Appalachian High Country AVA is not located within any established AVA. According to the petition, the distinguishing features of the proposed Appalachian High Country AVA are its topography, climate, and soils.
The topography of the proposed AVA, which is located within the Appalachian Mountains, is characterized by high elevations and steep slopes. Elevations within the proposed AVA range from 1,338 feet to over 6,000 feet, and most vineyards are planted at elevations between 2,290 and 4,630 feet. The high elevations expose vineyards within the proposed AVA to high amounts of solar irradiance, which promotes grape maturation and compensates for low temperatures and a short growing season. The average slope angle within the proposed AVA is 35.9 degrees, and most vineyards are planted on slopes with angles of 30 degrees or greater. Because of the steep slopes, many of the vineyards within the proposed AVA are terraced to prevent erosion, and most of the vineyards' work is done by hand rather than by machinery. The regions surrounding the proposed AVA all have lower average elevations as well as smaller average slope angles, except for the region to the southwest of the proposed AVA, which has a slightly greater average slope angle.
The proposed Appalachian High Country AVA is also characterized by a cool climate and a short growing season. The average annual temperature within the proposed AVA is 51.5 degrees Fahrenheit. The proposed AVA accumulates an average of 2,635 growing degree days during the growing season, which is approximately 139 days long. Because of the cool climate and short growing season, the proposed AVA is suitable for growing cold-hardy grape varietals such as Marquette, Vidal Blanc, and Frontenac, which do not have a lengthy maturation time. By contrast, the regions surrounding the proposed AVA have warmer temperatures, longer growing seasons, and higher growing degree accumulations, making these regions more suitable for growing grape varietals that require warmer temperatures and a longer maturation time.
The soils of the proposed Appalachian High Country AVA are derived from igneous and metamorphic rocks such as granite and gneiss. All of the common soil series within the proposed AVA are described as deep, well-drained soils with a fine, loamy texture. The well-drained soils help reduce the risk of rot and fungus in the grapevines. Organic matter comprises up to 14 percent of the soils within the proposed AVA, providing an excellent source of nutrients for vineyards. The most prevalent soil series is the Tusquitee-Edneyville series, which covers approximately 24 percent of the proposed AVA. By contrast, in the surrounding regions, other soil series are more prominent. To the northeast of the proposed AVA, the Hayesville series is the most common soil series, and the Frederick-Carbo soil series is most commonly found in the region northwest of the proposed AVA. Southeast of the proposed AVA, the dominant soil series is the Hiwassee-Cecil association, and the Chester-Ashe series is the most common soil series to the southwest of the proposed AVA.
TTB published Notice No. 158 in the
In Notice No. 158, TTB solicited comments on the accuracy of the name, boundary, and other required information submitted in support of the petition. The comment period closed on July 5, 2016. TTB received a total of 68 comments in response to Notice No. 158. During the comment period, TTB received 67 comments, including comments from local winery and vineyard owners, local residents, the president of the Tennessee Farm Winegrowers Alliance, officers from the University of Tennessee and the North Carolina State University Agricultural Extension Offices, the mayor of Johnson City (TN), the Johnson County (TN) Tourism Committee, the Johnson County Chamber of Commerce, the Appalachian Region Wine Growers Association, the Carter County (TN) Tourism Association, the Elizabethton (TN) Planning and Economic Development Department, a former mayor of Elizabethton, a former Tennessee State Representative, and the owner and publisher of the Carolina Mountain Life magazine. After the comment period closed, TTB received an additional letter of support signed by two U.S. Representatives from North Carolina, a Representative from Virginia, and a Representative from Tennessee. Sixty-seven of the 68 total comments received supported the proposed AVA, with many commenters stating their belief that an AVA designation could promote economic growth in their communities.
One comment opposed the proposed Appalachian High Country AVA. The commenter, a neighbor of one of the vineyards in the proposed AVA, states that the vineyard owner frequently uses a propane cannon to deter birds and other wildlife from eating the grapes. The commenter asserts that the noise from the cannon affects her ability to enjoy her property and that the vineyard owner has refused requests from neighbors to use alternate wildlife deterrent methods such as netting. The commenter states her belief that approval of the proposed AVA would encourage the development of new vineyards that might also use propane cannons. The commenter states that she cannot support the establishment of the proposed AVA unless TTB prohibits vineyard owners in the AVA from using propane cannons within a mile of other residences.
The prohibition or restriction of the use of wildlife deterrent devices is outside the scope of TTB's authority. The use of such devices by current or future vineyard owners is not related to the name, boundaries, or distinguishing features of the proposed area and, as a result, is not a factor for TTB's consideration in the establishment of a proposed AVA.
After careful review of the petition and the comments received, TTB finds that the evidence provided by the petitioner supports the establishment of the Appalachian High Country AVA. Accordingly, under the authority of the FAA Act, section 1111(d) of the Homeland Security Act of 2002, and parts 4 and 9 of the TTB regulations, TTB establishes the “Appalachian High Country” AVA in portions of North Carolina, Tennessee, and Virginia, effective 30 days from the publication date of this document.
See the narrative description of the boundary of the AVA in the regulatory text published at the end of this final rule.
The petitioner provided the required maps, and they are listed below in the regulatory text.
Part 4 of the TTB regulations prohibits any label reference on a wine that indicates or implies an origin other than the wine's true place of origin. For a wine to be labeled with an AVA name or with a brand name that includes an AVA name, at least 85 percent of the wine must be derived from grapes grown within the area represented by that name, and the wine must meet the other conditions listed in § 4.25(e)(3). If the wine is not eligible for labeling with an AVA name and that name appears in the brand name, then the label is not in compliance and the bottler must change the brand name and obtain approval of a new label. Similarly, if the AVA name appears in another reference on the label in a misleading manner, the bottler would have to obtain approval of a new label. Different rules apply if a wine has a brand name containing an AVA name that was used as a brand name on a label approved before July 7, 1986. See 27 CFR 4.39(i)(2) for details.
With the establishment of this AVA, its name, “Appalachian High Country,” will be recognized as a name of viticultural significance under § 4.39(i)(3). The text of the regulation clarifies this point. Consequently, wine bottlers using the name “Appalachian High Country” in a brand name, including a trademark, or in another label reference as to the origin of the wine, will have to ensure that the product is eligible to use the AVA name as an appellation of origin.
The establishment of the Appalachian High Country AVA will not affect any existing AVA. The establishment of the Appalachian High Country AVA will allow vintners to use “Appalachian High Country” as an appellation of origin for wines made primarily from grapes grown within the Appalachian High Country AVA if the wines meet the eligibility requirements for the appellation.
TTB certifies that this regulation will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The regulation imposes no new reporting, recordkeeping, or other administrative requirement. Any benefit derived from the use of an AVA name would be the result of a proprietor's efforts and consumer acceptance of wines from that area. Therefore, no regulatory flexibility analysis is required.
It has been determined that this final rule is not a significant regulatory action as defined by Executive Order 12866 of September 30, 1993. Therefore, no regulatory assessment is required.
Karen A. Thornton of the Regulations and Rulings Division drafted this final rule.
Wine.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, TTB amends title 27, chapter I, part 9, Code of Federal Regulations, as follows:
27 U.S.C. 205.
(a)
(b)
(1) Unicoi, Tenn.-N.C, 1939; photorevised 1978;
(2) Iron Mountain Gap, Tenn.-N.C., 1960; photorevised 1968;
(3) Johnson City, Tenn., 1959; photorevised 1968;
(4) Elizabethton, Tenn., 1959; photorevised 1968;
(5) Watauga Dam, Tenn., 1960;
(6) Carter, Tenn., 1938; photorevised 1969;
(7) Keenburg, Tenn., 1960;
(8) Doe, Tenn., 1938; photorevised 1969;
(9) Shady Valley, Tenn.-VA., 1960; photorevised 1970; photoinspected 1988;
(10) Laurel Bloomery, Tenn.-VA., 1938; photorevised 1969;
(11) Grayson, Tenn.-N.C.-VA., 1959; photoinspected 1976;
(12) Park, N.C.-VA., 1959; photorevised 1978;
(13) Whitetop Mountain, VA., 1959; photorevised 1978;
(14) Trout Dale, VA., 1959; photorevised 1978; photoinspected 1988;
(15) Middle Fox Creek, VA., 1959; photoinspected 1988;
(16) Cedar Springs, VA., 1959; photorevised 1978; photoinspected 1988;
(17) Speedwell, VA., 1968; photorevised 1979;
(18) Cripple Creek, VA., 1968; photoinspected 1988;
(19) Austinville, VA., 1965; photorevised 1979; photoinspected 1982;
(20) Galax, VA., 1965; photorevised 1984;
(21) Cumberland Knob, N.C.-VA., 1965; photorevised 1977;
(22) Lambsburg, VA.-N.C., 1965; photorevised 1977;
(23) Roaring Gap, N.C., 1971;
(24) Glade Valley, N.C., 1968;
(25) Traphill, N.C., 1968;
(26) Whitehead, N.C., 1968;
(27) McGrady, N.C., 1968; photoinspected 1984;
(28) Horse Gap, N.C., 1968;
(29) Laurel Springs, N.C., 1968;
(30) Glendale Springs, N.C., 1967;
(31) Maple Springs, N.C., 1966;
(32) Deep Gap, N.C., 1967;
(33) Buffalo Cove, N.C., 1967;
(34) Globe, N.C., 1959;
(35) Grandfather Mountain, N.C., 1960; photorevised 1978;
(36) Newland, N.C., 1960; photorevised 1978;
(37) Linville Falls, N.C., 1994;
(38) Ashford, N.C., 1994;
(39) Little Switzerland, N.C., 1994;
(40) Spruce Pine, N.C., 1994;
(41) Celo, N.C., 1994;
(42) Micaville, N.C., 1960; photorevised 1978;
(43) Bakersville, N.C.,-Tenn., 1960; photorevised 1978;
(44) Burnsville, N.C., 1998;
(45) Huntdale, N.C.-Tenn., 1939; and
(46) Chestoa, Tenn.-N.C., 1939; photorevised 1978.
(c)
(1) The beginning point is on the Unicoi map, at the point where the Unicoi/Mitchell County line intersects with an unnamed road known locally as Unaka Mountain Road near Beauty Spot Gap, Tennessee. From the beginning point, proceed northeasterly approximately 7.3 miles along the Unicoi/Mitchell County line, crossing onto the Iron Mountain Gap map, to the intersection of the Unicoi/Mitchell County line with the Carter County line; then
(2) Proceed northerly along the Unicoi/Carter County line approximately 9.3 miles, crossing back onto the Unicoi map and then onto the Johnson City map, to the intersection of the Unicoi/Carter County line with the 2,000-foot elevation contour, southeast of an unnamed road known locally as Whispering Pine Road; then
(3) Proceed southeasterly along the meandering 2,000-foot elevation contour, crossing onto the Unicoi map and then back onto the Johnson City map, and continuing onto the Elizabethton map for approximately 19 miles to the intersection of the elevation contour with an unnamed road known locally as Brimer Road near Bremer Hollow; then
(4) Proceed northwesterly approximately 1,500 feet along Brimer Road to an unnamed road known locally as Jenkins Hollow Road; then
(5) Proceed easterly approximately 1.4 miles along Jenkins Hollow Road, crossing the Doe River, to U.S. Route 321 in the town of Valley Forge, Tennessee; then
(6) Proceed north approximately 400 feet along U.S. Route 321 to an unnamed road known locally as Ruby Harmon Road; then
(7) Proceed northeasterly approximately 360 feet along Ruby Harmon Road to an unnamed road known locally as Nanny Goat Hill Road; then
(8) Proceed easterly approximately 0.2 mile along Nanny Goat Hill Road to the 1,800-foot elevation contour, east of an unnamed road known locally as Gene Mathes Road; then
(9) Proceed northeasterly approximately 0.4 mile along the 1,800-foot elevation contour to an unnamed road known locally as Franklin Lane; then
(10) Proceed southerly approximately 0.3 mile along Franklin Lane to the 2,000-foot elevation contour; then
(11) Proceed northeasterly along the meandering 2,000-foot elevation contour, crossing over Hardin Branch, Clover Branch, South Pierce Branch, and North Pierce Branch, to a fifth, unnamed stream; then
(12) Proceed northerly approximately 0.47 mile along the unnamed stream to an unnamed road known locally as Wilbur Dam Road; then
(13) Proceed southeasterly approximately 0.25 mile along Wilbur Dam Road to Wilbur Dam; then
(14) Proceed northeasterly across Wilbur Dam to the marked transmission line; then
(15) Proceed northerly approximately 0.5 mile along the transmission line to the 2,000-foot elevation contour; then
(16) Proceed northeasterly approximately 19 miles along the meandering 2,000-foot elevation contour, crossing over the Watauga Dam map and onto the Carter map, and continuing along the 2,000-foot elevation contour as it crosses over State Route 91 near Sadie, Tennessee, and turns southwesterly, and continuing southwesterly for approximately 22.2 miles along the 2,000-foot elevation contour, crossing onto the Keenburg map and circling Carter Knob, to the intersection of the 2,000-foot elevation contour with the Carter/Sullivan County line; then
(17) Proceed southeasterly, then northeasterly, approximately 7 miles along the Carter/Sullivan County line to an unnamed road known locally as National Forest Road 56, near Low Gap, Tennessee; then
(18) Proceed easterly approximately 0.75 mile along National Forest Road 56, crossing onto the Carter map, to the Carter/Sullivan County line; then
(19) Proceed easterly approximately 10.4 miles along the Carter/Sullivan County line, crossing over the Doe map (northwestern corner) and onto the Shady Valley Map, to the intersection of the Carter/Sullivan County line with the Johnson County line at Rich Knob, Tennessee; then
(20) Proceed northeasterly approximately 13.4 miles along the Johnson/Sullivan County line, crossing onto the Laurel Bloomery map, to the intersection of the Johnson/Sullivan County line with the Washington County line at the Virginia/Tennessee State line; then
(21) Proceed easterly approximately 10 miles along the Johnson/Washington County line, crossing onto the Grayson map, to the intersection of the Johnson/Washington County line with the Grayson County line; then
(22) Proceed east, then northeasterly, then southeasterly, along the Grayson County line, crossing over the Park, Whitetop Mountain, Trout Dale, Middle Fox Creek, Cedar Springs, Speedwell, Cripple Creek, Austinville, Galax, and Cumberland Knob maps and onto the Lambsburg map, to the intersection of the Grayson County line with the Surry County line and an unnamed road known locally as Fisher's Peak Road, at the Virginia/North Carolina State line; then
(23) Proceed west along the Grayson/Surry County line, crossing back onto the Cumberland Knob map, to Alleghany County line; then
(24) Proceed southerly, then northwesterly, then southwesterly along the Alleghany County line, crossing over the Roaring Gap, Glade Valley, Traphill (northeastern corner), Whitehead, McGrady (northwestern corner), Horse Gap, and Laurel Springs map, then back onto the Horse Gap map and continuing along the Alleghany County line on the Horse Gap map to the Ashe/Wilkes County line at Mulberry Gap, North Carolina; then
(25) Proceed westerly, then southwesterly along the Ashe/Wilkes County line, crossing over the Glendale Springs and onto the Maple Springs map, then back onto the Glendale Springs map, then back onto the Maple Springs map, and continuing along the Ashe/Wilkes County line on the Maple Springs map to the intersection of the Ashe/Wilkes County line and the Watauga County line at Thomkins Knob, North Carolina; then
(26) Proceed southwesterly along the Watauga/Wilkes County line, crossing over the Deep Gap map (southeastern corner) and onto the Buffalo Cove map, to the intersection of the Watauga/Wilkes County line and the Caldwell County line at White Rock Mountain, North Carolina; then
(27) Proceed west along the Watauga/Caldwell County line, crossing over the Globe map and onto the Grandfather Mountain map, to the intersection of the Watauga/Caldwell County line with the Avery County line at Calloway Peak, North Carolina; then
(28) Proceed southeasterly approximately 1.8 miles along the Caldwell/Avery County line to the boundary of the Blue Ridge Parkway at Pilot Knob, North Carolina; then
(29) Proceed southwesterly approximately 11.6 miles along the Blue Ridge Parkway boundary, crossing over the Newland map (southeastern corner) and onto the Linville Falls map, to the intersection of the parkway boundary with the Avery/Burke County line; then
(30) Proceed northwesterly, then southwesterly, for a total of approximately 4.2 miles along the Avery/Burke County line to the McDowell County line; then
(31) Proceed southerly approximately 5 miles along the Avery/McDowell County line to the Mitchell County line; then
(32) Proceed southerly, then southwesterly, along the McDowell/Mitchell County line, crossing over the Ashford (northwestern corner) and Little Switzerland (northeastern corner) maps and onto the Spruce Pine map, then back onto the Little Switzerland map and continuing along the McDowell/Mitchell County line, crossing onto the Celo map, to the intersection of the McDowell/Mitchell County line with the Yancey County line; then
(33) Proceed west then northerly along the Mitchell/Yancey County line, crossing over the Micaville, Bakersville, Huntdale (southeastern corner), and Burnsville maps, then back onto the Huntdale map and continuing along the Mitchell/Yancy County line, crossing onto the Chestoa map, to the intersection of the Mitchell/Yancey County line with the Mitchell/Unicoi County line, which is concurrent with the Tennessee/North Carolina State line; then
(34) Proceed northeasterly along the Mitchell/Unicoi County line, crossing back over the Huntsdale (northwestern corner) map and onto the Unicoi map, returning to the beginning point.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the Tower Drawbridge across the Sacramento River, mile 59.0, at Sacramento, CA. The deviation is necessary to allow the community to participate in the Run Because You Can 5K event.
This deviation is effective from 8 a.m. to 10:30 a.m. on November 6, 2016.
The docket for this deviation, [USCG-2016-0964], is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email David H. Sulouff, Chief, Bridge Section, Eleventh Coast Guard District; telephone 510-437-3516, email
California Department of Transportation has requested a temporary change to the operation of the Tower Drawbridge, mile 59.0, over Sacramento River, at Sacramento, CA. The vertical lift bridge navigation span provides a vertical clearance of 30 feet above Mean High Water in the closed-to-navigation position. The draw operates as required by 33 CFR 117.189(a). Navigation on the waterway is commercial and recreational.
The drawspan will be secured in the closed-to-navigation position from 8 a.m. to 10:30 a.m. on November 6, 2016, to allow the community to participate in the Run Because You Can 5K event. This temporary deviation has been coordinated with the waterway users. No objections to the proposed temporary deviation were raised.
Vessels able to pass through the bridge in the closed position may do so at anytime. The bridge will not be able
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Independent Living Administration, Administration for Community Living, HHS.
Final rule.
This rule implements the Rehabilitation Act as amended by the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act, which established an Independent Living Administration within the Administration for Community Living (ACL) of the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS). The rule helps implement changes to the administration of Independent Living Services and the Centers for Independent Living made under the current law in alignment with ACL and HHS policies and practices.
These final regulations are effective November 28, 2016.
Molly Burgdorf, Administration for Community Living, telephone (202) 795-7317 (Voice). This is not a toll-free number. This document will be made available in alternative formats upon request. Written correspondence can be sent to the Administration for Community Living, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 330 C St. SW., Washington, DC 20201.
The federal Independent Living (IL) program seeks to empower and enable individuals with disabilities, particularly individuals with significant disabilities, to exercise full choice and control over their lives and to live independently in their communities. For over 40 years, these aims have been advanced through two federal programs: Independent Living Services (ILS) and Centers for Independent Living (referred to as CILs or Centers). The Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (WIOA) transferred these Independent Living programs to the Administration for Community Living (ACL) and created a new Independent Living Administration within the agency, adding section 701A of the Rehabilitation Act, 29 U.S.C. 796-1. As part of the transfer, the Administrator of ACL (Administrator) drafted a Notice of Proposed Rule Making (NPRM) that was published on November 16, 2015,to implement changes made by WIOA in accordance with Section 12 of the Rehabilitation Act, as amended, 29 U.S.C. 709(e), and section 491(f) of WIOA, 42 U.S.C. 3515e(f).
ACL received over 100 comments to the NPRM, most of them expressing their support for the provisions in the proposed rule. ACL has read and considered each of the comments received. We respond here to the most-commonly-received comments and to those that we believe require further discussion. We have indicated changes made between the NPRM and final rule.
Several comments raised issues that are specific to the commenter. Responding to such comments is beyond the scope of the final regulation. Nevertheless, we encourage commenters with individualized questions to contact the technical and training support center or the ILA specialist for their State for assistance with their questions. We also made a number of technical changes in the preamble, for example, to reflect that the term “704 Reporting Instruments” will no longer be used for data collection going forward, and to clarify potentially confusing references to the “State.”
ACL received numerous comments expressing concern about the person-centered planning language in the NPRM preamble, including the statement that person centered planning and consumer control “are not interchangeable terms.”
ACL affirms that consumer control is a guiding principle in IL. To clarify, the NPRM did not intend to conflate person-centeredness and consumer control or other key terms in the IL purpose. The proposed regulatory language did not include person-centeredness; the language was included in the preamble to the NPRM to both highlight this requirement in the home and community-based services and supports (HCBS) settings context, and offer an opportunity to IL programs and stakeholders to help shape person-centered planning and self-direction principles in HHS-funded programs and practices that serve people with significant disabilities, as they increasingly are embedded in the work we do at ACL and across HHS. This language applies in the HCBS settings context and does not limit consumer control or anything centers do with Title VII funding.
One commenter suggested that Centers should not be penalized for hiring individuals who do not have significant disabilities when candidates who have significant disabilities do not apply, or if those who do apply are not qualified, and the CIL therefore fails to meet the requirement that the majority of staff are individuals with disabilities. The majority hiring requirement is beyond the scope of this rule; however, the ongoing requirement that a Center ensure that the majority of the staff, and individuals in decision-making positions are individuals with disabilities is consistent with the consumer directed, self-help, and self-advocacy principles in the IL Philosophy.
WIOA added a new fifth requirement to the Independent Living Core Services, which includes services that—
• Facilitate the transition of individuals with significant disabilities from nursing homes and other institutions to home and community-based residences, with the requisite supports and services;
• Provide assistance to individuals with significant disabilities who are at risk of entering institutions so that the individuals may remain in the community; and
• Facilitate the transition of youth who are individuals with significant disabilities, who were eligible for individualized education programs under section 614(d) of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. 1414(d)), and who have completed their secondary education or otherwise left school, to postsecondary life.
ACL received many comments expressing concern about being able to effectively provide the new IL core services without the allocation of additional funding. We cannot address concerns about funding levels for IL programs in the final regulation. We also wish to clarify that funds for transition services allocated to other agencies are based under separate statutory authorities and appropriations.
ACL will support programs in accomplishing and reporting IL services. To add value and help enhance the work CILs are already doing in this area, ACL offers technical assistance for state and community-based aging and disability organizations (CBOs) through national partners as well as through learning collaboratives of networks of community-based aging and disability organizations, including Centers for Independent Living. ACL looks forward to engaging more of the IL community in these efforts to support and improve business acumen, which has enabled CBOs to garner funding through public-private partnerships, contracts with health-care providers and payers, and grants from private foundations. ACL's business acumen efforts are one way that CILs may enhance their resource development activities. We will also work to identify opportunities to collaborate and leverage resources for the core IL services, including the new fifth core services, across ACL, HHS, and other federal agencies.
The NPRM sought public comment on whether to include a definition of “institution” and the suitability of applying Medicare and Medicaid definitions of that term in defining the new core independent living services.
We received comments indicating that the Medicare/Medicaid definitions are not sufficiently broad to encompass the range of entities included in the term “institution.” We received numerous comments recommending various terms and entities that should be included in a definition of “institution,” as well as comments stating that including a regulatory definition was not necessary or could be unnecessarily limiting and could impede effective provision of services. As some commenters recommended, a broad, non-prescriptive approach allows CILs the most flexibility to determine the types of transition services they can offer with the best chance of success for individuals receiving the services based on available local resources.
Some commenters recommended a very broad definition of institution, including “any congregate living arrangement of any size in which residents with disabilities are not in control of their own lives,” a parental/guardian controlled home, or “any situation in which a person with a disability is not free to control all aspects of his or her life.” ACL did not incorporate this approach, as we concluded that the suggested categories were vague and overbroad. For instance, these examples are not limited to adults, and minors are not given authority to control all aspects of their lives, including moving from a home where the person lives with a parent or guardian. Other commenters suggested narrowing the definition and excluding certain settings such as correctional facilities.
ACL has not included a specific definition of the term institution here, so that the categories will be sufficiently broad and allow flexibility to CILs. Without specifically defining the term, we identify the following examples of entities that fall within the category of “institution,” which includes but is not limited to: Hospitals, nursing facilities and skilled nursing facilities, Intermediate Care Facilities for Individuals with Intellectual Disabilities, and criminal justice facilities, juvenile detention facilities, etc.
In the NPRM, we also requested comment on the need for and proposed content of definitions for “home and community-based residences” and individuals who are “at risk” of institutionalization in the new independent living core services. We received several comments requesting that we define “home and community-based residences” for the purposes of the fifth core services. Some commenters suggested we refer to Medicaid definitions, including the definitions used in the “Money Follows the Person” demonstration program and the rule related to Medicaid-funded home and community-based services published on January 16, 2014. Many commenters suggested a definition that would include any residence “with fewer than 4 people non-related in which a person with a disability is free to control all aspects of his or her life.” Other commenters recommended against including size or configuration of living arrangements in the definition, explaining, “When maximum number of people in a setting or their familial relationship to each other is prescribed, it does not permit those groups of totally self-directing individuals who choose to share an apartment or house and share attendant services, for example, to be included in the service count. The regulations should not preclude serving those individuals who, of their own volition, have chosen forms of co-housing, cooperatives, or Naturally Occurring Retirement Communities (NORCs).”
As some commenters recommended, ACL considered language in Medicaid regulations that define home and community-based settings for certain Medicaid programs. ACL encourages IL programs to consult the language in the rule defining HCBS settings for Medicaid waivers under section 1915(c) of the Social Security Act at 42 CFR 441.301(c)(4), for state plan HCBS at 42 CFR 441.710(a)(1) and (2) or for Community First Choice services at 42 CFR 441.530(a)(1) and (2). These CMS regulations provide details on the qualities of home and community-based settings, as compared with those that have the qualities of an institutional setting. However, we did not import the definition from the CMS HCBS rules into this rule. ACL seeks to encourage CILs to assist the broadest range of individuals as they transition from an institutional to a community-based setting. The Medicaid rules apply to Medicaid beneficiaries receiving home and community-based services under specific statutory provisions, and while the language is instructive to determine qualities integral to a home and community-based setting, IL serves a broader range of people and addresses a wider range of situations than those covered under the Medicaid rules. For example, the needs of the individual in 42 CFR 441.301(c)(4) are determined “as indicated in their person-centered service plan.”
As some commenters recommended, to preserve wide latitude and to support consumer control, we have chosen not to include a definition for “home and community-based residences” in the final rule.
We received comments recommending that the individual should determine whether or not he or she is at-risk through self-disclosure. We received comments that emphasized the importance of the intake and goal setting processes for facilitating informed consumer choice related to self-identification. If a consumer feels he or she is at risk of institutionalization, and self-identifies as being at risk as part of the intake or goal-setting process, then he or she should be treated as being at risk. CILs in these situations conduct discussions around the person's circumstances, possibilities and risks but the designation ultimately must be informed by consumer choice. We have incorporated that recommendation in
Some commenters recommended adding a definition of “transition process.” Since the term “transition” is not included in the second prong of the fifth core IL services, and the term “transition” has a different meaning in the third prong, we incorporated the recommended definition into the first prong regarding the transition of individuals with significant disabilities from nursing homes and other institutions to home and community-based residences.
WIOA defines youth with a disability to mean “an individual with a disability who is not younger than 14 years of age; and is not older than 24 years of age.” In the NPRM, ACL defined the category of “youth with a significant disability” by combining the definition of “individual with significant disability” in section 7(21), 29 U.S.C. 705(21) and “youth with a disability” in section 7(42) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 705(42).
A commenter expressed concern that the rule uses the term “youth with a
A commenter recommended removing the “completed their secondary education” provision from this regulation. Other commenters suggested the definition was overbroad and should be pared back. We received comments that individuals who have reached the age of 18 but are still receiving services in accordance with an individual's education program developed under the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) should not be considered to have “completed their secondary education.” Because Sec. 7(17)(E)(iii) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 705(17)(E)(iii), uses the term “completed their secondary education,” ACL does not have the authority to remove this phrase from the definition of IL core services regarding youth transition. However, we are removing from regulatory language: “has reached age 18, even if he or she is still receiving services in accordance with an individualized education program developed under the IDEA.” In agreement with comments received, we have added to the definition of independent living core services that individuals who have reached the age of 18 and are still receiving services in accordance with an Individualized Education Program (IEP) under IDEA have not “completed their secondary education.”
Some commenters also questioned the link to eligibility under IDEA/eligibility for an IEP, or recommended a definition of “students with disabilities” be defined broadly, such as those receiving services under of Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act (under 504 plans). Commenters also requested that the youth transition prong be extended to the youngest possible age, for example before vocational rehabilitation (VR) begins to provide services in the State. In WIOA, Congress established the prong of the new IL service to “(iii) facilitate the transition of youth who are individuals with significant disabilities, who were eligible for individualized education programs under section 614(d) of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. 1414(d)), and who have completed their secondary education or otherwise left school, to postsecondary life.” 29 U.S.C. 705(17)(E)(iii). This requirement, defined in the statute, focuses on providing independent living services to youth who are transitioning to postsecondary life after they have left school. ACL does not have the authority to redefine this category through the rulemaking process.
We acknowledge the importance of transition services for youth prior to post-secondary life in order to prepare youth for a successful transition to post-secondary life. However, we also want to emphasize that some youth transition activities not covered under the fifth core services may be included within the other four core services, Sec. 7 (17)(A-D) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 705(17)(A-D), as well as within the Independent Living Services in Sec. 7(18), 29 U.S.C. 705(18), and CILs should continue to report their work in these areas accordingly.
A commenter raised concerns that broad definitions around the youth transition component of the fifth core service could prompt school districts to shift responsibility for youth transition to the CILs. While we appreciate the concern, how school districts fulfill their responsibilities to students with disabilities is beyond the scope of this rule. We acknowledge, however, that Centers often participate as one of several entities, including schools, with an important role in supporting and facilitating youth transitions. As a promising practice, ACL recommends continuing successful collaboration, coordination, and leveraging of resources.
Commenters noted that they are already pursing transition work with youth that falls outside of the proposed parameters of the fifth core services. Programs may and are encouraged to continue to engage in such activities, which can be captured and credited under the other core IL services or general independent living services under Sec. 7(18), 29 U.S.C. 705(18).
Finally, in response to the NPRM, ACL received questions as to whether there are minimum levels which must be achieved in order to have met the requirements of each component of the new fifth core IL services. Each CIL must demonstrate activity under all three prongs of the definition, but the minimum levels are not further defined here. See the Regulatory Impact Analysis for further discussion. The revised data collection system will contain more information when published.
ACL received comments recommending additional changes to this definition, including a request for additional clarity on the “services and supports” provided by the DSE. Others expressed support for a broad definition, with flexibility for the DSE. In order to preserve flexibility, we made no changes to the definition in the proposed rule.
ACL received a number of comments on the proposed definition. Some commenters expressed a concern about a perceived lack of inclusion of “systems change” in the definition, and requested that the language in the rule “revert back to the original language for advocacy that includes both self and systems change.” We note that the proposed definition of “advocacy,” identical to the prior definition from the Department of Education regulation 34 CFR 364.4, includes “systems advocacy.” Many commenters recommend that the activities described in § 1329.10(b)(5) be included in the definition, as they are part of systems advocacy. The final rule retains the proposed definition for “advocacy.” The activities described in § 1329.10(b)(5) are already required as authorized uses of funds for independent living services and including them in the definition of advocacy would be redundant. ACL will consider providing further guidance and will continue to offer training and
Many commenters expressed support for the proposed definition from the NPRM, though several commenters raised questions about accountability for CILs that are not recipients of Part C or Part B funding. A few commenters recommended the definition be limited to CILs that receive Part B or Part C funding. The final rule retains the proposed definition of CILs. With respect to compliance and oversight issues, the SILCs, pursuant to their duty under Section 705(c)(1)(B) to monitor, review, and evaluate implementation of the SPIL, will make the determination that entities counted as CILs eligible to sign the SPIL comply with the standards in Sections 725 (b) and the assurances in Section 725(c). The SPIL must identify 1) the eligible CILs and 2) how they were determined to meet the required standards and assurances. We will consider including corresponding assurances with some standards of evidence of documentation in the indicators of minimum compliance for the SILCs.
We received requests for clarification regarding the phrase “regardless of age or income.” This phrase is based directly on the statutory definition, Sec. 702(2) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 796a(2). The phrase means that an agency, in addition to meeting all of the other requirements, may not categorically exclude individuals with significant disabilities on the basis of age or income. This does not preclude prioritizing services by urgency of need, nor does it preclude practical distinctions such as age-based legal restrictions.
We also received questions regarding the use of fee-for-service models for the delivery of services. The final rule does not address the use of fee-for-service models, though we encourage CILs to consider how to ensure that any application of such a model is accomplished in a way that is consistent with IL values.
In the NPRM we proposed to add the statutory definition of consumer control at Section 702(3) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 796a(3). Commenters requested that the definition also include individual consumer control. ACL acknowledges the importance of an individual being able to make his or her own choices and set his or her own goals, including deciding with whom and how to achieve them, and allowing for the dignity of risk, which is a critical component of growth and true independence. The definition of “consumer control” is amended in the final rule to include: “Consumer control, with respect to an individual, means that the individual with a disability asserts control over his or her personal life choices, and in addition, has control over his or her independent living plan (ILP), making informed choices about content, goals and implementation.”
Some commenters also suggested that the definition include the requirement that a majority of staff, management and Board positions are filled by persons with disabilities. ACL did not make that change, as the composition requirements (for the SILC) and assurances (for the CILs) at issue are established separately in the statute.
The NPRM proposed that personal assistance services mean “a range of services, paid or unpaid, provided by one or more persons, designed to assist an individual with a disability to perform daily living activities on or off the job that the individual would typically perform if the individual did not have a disability. These services must be designed to increase the individual's control in life and ability to perform everyday activities on or off the job and include but are not limited to: Getting up and ready for work or going out into the community (including bathing and dressing), cooking, cleaning or running errands.” Commenters indicated that the purpose of personal assistance services is not merely to enable a person with a disability to get a job, but to perform a myriad of social functions. Commenters also raised the point that the concept of personal assistance services should be updated to reflect “the possibilities available today.” Commenters requested additional examples of personal assistance services, to help illustrate that such services may support a variety of interdependent social functions, such as parenting, engaging in civic activities, practicing the individual's preferred religion, engaging in a relationship with partner(s) of the individual's choice, and more. The final rule incorporates the recommended language. Thus, personal assistance services means “a range of services, paid or unpaid, provided by one or more persons, designed to assist an individual with a disability to perform daily living activities that the individual would typically perform if the individual did not have a disability. These services must be designed to increase the individual's control in life and ability to perform everyday activities including but not limited to: Getting up and ready for work or going out into the community (including bathing and dressing), cooking, cleaning or running errands, and engaging in social relationships including parenting.”
ACL received comments indicating that the DSE should not be included in the definition of “service provider.” The commenters explained that DSEs should not provide direct services because the DSE “is not consumer controlled and does not provide peer support, systems advocacy, etc.,” among other justifications. After consideration of the comments on this provision, ACL agrees with the concerns expressed, and added the clarification that a DSE is eligible to receive funds to provide independent living services only where so specified in the SPIL. We have added a corresponding clarification to the preamble language in § 1329.17.
ACL received numerous comments about the definition of unserved and underserved populations. A commenter expressed concerns about the elimination of “sensory impairments” from the definition. Others recommended that the definition should include older people with disabilities, or populations with certain types of disabilities, including individuals who are low vision, blind, deafblind or deaf, and people with traumatic brain injuries (TBI), and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Another commenter asked about other groups, including people with limited English proficiency. One commenter expressed a concern about a lack of services for black veterans. Others requested a definition for “disadvantaged individuals.”
ACL notes that the proposed definition includes “populations such as . . .” and lists a number of possible categories. As stated in the NPRM, “We recognize that unserved and underserved groups or populations will vary by service area. For example, in some service areas unserved and underserved groups may include people with disabilities from the gay, lesbian, bisexual and transgender communities.” The categories included in the definition are examples, and not an all-inclusive list. We are not including a definition of disadvantaged individuals, as that definition may vary by individuals and by community.
Commenters expressed support for the proposed definition of “youth with a significant disability.”
ACL made technical changes to the definitions of “
Commenters requested that the final rule include SILC standards and indicators. The statute requires that ACL develop and publish in the
ACL also clarifies that the indicators of minimum compliance and data collection instruments are living documents. ACL will periodically engage stakeholders to make refinements and improvements.
Regarding comments expressing concern about the lack of a sufficient notice and opportunity for “substantive public comment,” ACL is committed to continued engagement with stakeholders as we develop and publish the required indicators. We also note that the
Commenters also recommended establishing a rotation for CIL reviews. As indicated in the NPRM, the statute eliminated the requirement that compliance reviews be conducted on a random basis. ACL is actively reviewing options for review criteria, including how CILs will be selected for review.
Commenters expressed concerns about “targeting” CILs and requesting a neutral process. We decline to incorporate the comment that some CILs should not be reviewed more frequently than others. On-site compliance reviews are no longer required to be conducted on a random basis and there may be legitimate reasons why a CIL may require more frequent evaluation. ACL agrees that clear, unbiased, and legitimate criteria must be established and consistently followed.
Some commenters expressed concern about the lack of capacity at the state and federal levels to conduct the required reviews of CILs. Section 711(c), 29 U.S.C. 796d-1(c) includes a requirement that the Administrator (rather than the DSE) shall annually conduct onsite compliance reviews of at least 15 percent of the centers for independent living that receive funds under Section 722 of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 796f-1 and at least one-third of the designated state units that receive funding under Section 723 of the Act. ACL is actively evaluating the review processes, to optimize our capacity to conduct the required oversight.
A commenter objected to proposed § 1329.6(b), stating that the requirement that the DSE in each state “submit a report in a manner and at a time described by the Administrator, consistent with section 704(c)(4) of the Act,” exceeds statutory authority since the referenced statute, Section 704(c)(4), only requires the designated state entity to “submit such additional information or provide such assurances as the Administrator may require.” This commenter noted that CILs are explicitly required by statute to “submit such reports with respect to such records as the Administrator determines to be appropriate.” We appreciate the comment, but find that requiring a report is fully consistent with and authorized by the statutory requirement that the DSE submit such additional information or provide assurances that the Administrator may require. We received a comment concerning readability and accessibility of forms, materials, and links. We appreciate the comment and agree that the instructions, and any forms, links, and needed materials must be user-friendly and easily accessible. We continue to strive to meet this standard.
Regarding the proposed enforcement and appeals procedures in the rule, commenters asked questions about onsite compliance reviews and expressed concern about the lack of peer review. To clarify, the enforcement and appeals procedures proposed in § 1329.7 are separate from a request for technical assistance and separate and in addition to the compliance review set forth in Section 706(c)(1). Section 706(c)(2)(C), 29 U.S.C. 796d-1(c)(2)(C), requires that, for the compliance review, the Administrator must “. . . ensure that at least one of member of a team conducting such a review shall be an individual who (i) is not a government employee; and (2) has experience in the operation of centers for independent living.” The proposed regulatory text in § 1329.7 does not address or propose changes to the onsite compliance review process, including the qualifications of employees and others conducting reviews. Instead, § 1329.7 establishes the enforcement and appeals process that arises when a grantee receives notice of an action that would trigger the additional review process available through 45 CFR part 16. These determinations, set forth in appendix A, C.a.(1)-(4) are: Disallowance, termination for failure to comply with the terms of an award, denial of a noncompeting continuation award for failure to comply with the terms of a previous award, and voiding (a decision that an award is invalid because it was not authorized by statute or regulation or because it was fraudulently obtained).
For example, if after an onsite compliance review, the Director determines it necessary to terminate funds because of the grantee's failure to comply with the terms of the award, § 1329.7 provides the affected CIL or State with the opportunity to seek additional review of that decision, consistent with HHS policies and practices. We added clarifying language regarding the onsite compliance review process as some commenters recommended. We also made technical changes to more accurately reflect established HHS processes and incorporate correct citations.
Several commenters interpreted § 1329.7 to mean that ACL would immediately terminate funding under certain circumstances, and pointed out that WIOA stipulates 90 day notice before Title VII Part C funding can be terminated. The NPRM did not propose to move more quickly than the 90 day time frame. The process that was outlined for enforcement and appeals is designed precisely to afford due process for those CILs for which expiration of the 90 day time frame and possible loss of funding is imminent. Since nothing in the regulation changes the statutory deadlines, no changes to the regulatory text are required.
With regard to § 1329.7(b), one commenter questioned whether the Administrator has the authority to terminate Title VII B funding. We refer the commenter to 45 CFR part 75, Uniform Administrative Requirements,
ACL thanks commenters for embracing the opportunity to work with ACL on developing sub-regulatory guidance to provide additional detail in this area.
Commenters state that the time frame for notice should be clear and specific. The regulation describes that written notice shall be provided “within a timely manner.” In the absence of a recommendation for a specific length of time, we retain the language of the proposed rule, with the clarification that the standard is a reasonable determination of a “timely manner.” We will consider whether to designate a specific time period in any sub-regulatory guidance that we develop.
Commenters requested a change to § 1329.10(a) to more accurately reflect the language and intention of the statute. Commenters were correct in stating that the Administrator reserves the funds under Section 711A for SILC training and technical assistance, before the State receives funding under this part. ACL incorporated the requested change, and revised § 1329.10 to include the correction.
Regarding § 1329.11, commenters recommended including language that “[a]ny designated State entity (DSE) identified in the SPIL and agreed to by the State is eligible to apply for assistance under this part in accordance with Section 704 of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 796c.”
We decline to make these changes, because, as explained in the FAQs that accompanied the DSE Guidance document,
However, in response to these comments, and with the understanding that the State plan shall “designate” the “designated State entity” as the agency that, on behalf of the State, shall accomplish the listed responsibilities in the law and comply with the specified funding limits (and acknowledging that the chairperson of the Statewide Independent Living Council and the directors of the CILs in the State, after receiving public input from individuals with disabilities and other stakeholders throughout the State, develop the State plan) ACL modified the proposed definition to clarify the reference to a DSE “identified by the State and included in the signed SPIL . . .”
Commenters also requested that ACL identify the body that is responsible to submit the SPIL. Section 1329.17(b)(4) indicates that the SPIL “must be submitted . . . in the time frame and manner prescribed by the Administrator.” For developing the FY 2017-2019 State Plan for Independent Living (SPIL), ACL refers stakeholders to the State Plan for Independent Living (SPIL) instructions, issued on February 19, 2016, which specify that the Statewide Independent Living Council shall submit the State Plan for Independent Living (SPIL).
Commenters requested additional language to clarify the role of the DSE and the allocation of funds in accordance with the approved SPIL. ACL incorporated suggested language to make clear in § 1329.12(a)(2) the DSE's role to provide administrative support services for a program under Part B, as directed by the approved SPIL, and for relevant CILs under Part C. We also revised the language in § 1329.12(b) to state that the DSE must also carry out its other responsibilities under the Act, including, but not limited to—
• Allocating funds for the delivery of IL services under Part B of the Act as directed by the SPIL; and
• Allocating the necessary and sufficient resources needed by the SILC to fulfill its statutory duties and authorities under section 705(c), consistent with the approved State Plan.
While the regulatory text in the new § 1329.12(b)(i) focuses on the delivery of IL services, Sec. 713(b) of the Act identifies six (6) additional activities that remain authorized uses of funding under this Section, and are encompassed in the “including, but not limited to” language in § 1329.12(b).
Some commenters were concerned that the 5% was not sufficient given the scope of the administrative responsibilities of the DSE, and that some entities may choose not to serve as a DSE. The 5% is a statutory cap and therefore not subject to change in this regulation.
For the sake of consistency we made formatting changes to § 1329.12(b).
Many commenters requested that the proposed regulatory language of § 1329.13(c) be deleted or amended to permit only a single DSE. A few commenters expressed support for a second DSE and stressed the importance of certain programs that have been funded by State agencies for the blind. Upon consideration of the comments in the context of the language in WIOA, we agree that it is consistent with the statute to permit only one DSE. Accordingly, in addition to revising the regulatory text in § 1329.13(c) to permit only a single DSE, § 1329.17(e) is deleted.
Nineteen (19) States have been operating with more than one body taking on these responsibilities. One body in those States provides services to the general disability population and the other provides services to individuals who are blind. Under the language we are finalizing, the SPIL must identify one DSE in the State, and that DSE will sign the SPIL as discussed above. Specific funding to address the needs of consumers in the State who are blind may be allocated through the SPIL process.
Regarding proposed § 1329.13(d), commenters also requested that ACL not reserve funds to directly provide training and technical assistance to SILCs, and others recommended an increase in funding to the current technical assistance provider. ACL retained the language from the proposed rule, which is required by section 711A of the Act (29 U.S.C. 796e-0).
Commenters also recommended that the SILCs be involved in the process for determining the type of training and technical assistance that is offered and how the funding is utilized. We did not add additional regulatory language, as the Act requires in Sec. 711A(b) that the Administrator conduct surveys of SILCs regarding training and technical
Commenters expressed support for the proposed language in the NPRM. Some commenters also requested “direction or guidance on what constitutes `autonomous.' ” ACL did not make changes to the language of the proposed rule. To better understand what autonomous means, we refer commenters to pertinent statutory provisions at Sec. 705 of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 796d, including Sec. 705(a) and (b) on the establishment, composition and appointments to the SILC. These include the requirement at Sec. 705(a) providing that “The Council shall not be established as an entity within a State agency,” and the conflict of interest policy at Sec. 705(e)(3), precluding staff and other personnel of the SILC from being assigned duties by the DSE or other agencies of the state that would create a conflict. We also note that the Council and voting members of the Council are to be comprised of members meeting the qualifications under Sec. 705(b)(4), including state-wide representation, a broad range of individuals with disabilities from diverse backgrounds, knowledge about centers for independent living and independent living services, and a majority of whom are individuals with disabilities per 29 U.S.C. 705(20)(B) and not employed by any State agency or center for independent living. We will continue to consult with stakeholders on the need for additional guidance, including providing more detail about the SILC standards and indicators that are under development.
Many commenters indicated they could not identify any relevant CIL-Tribal relationships that met the definition under Section 705 of the Act. However, other commenters indicated that there are currently 83 American Indian Vocational Rehabilitation Services (AIVRS) programs located on Federal and State Reservations providing IL-complementary services to American Indians/Alaska Natives (AI/ANs) with disabilities. Some commenters also expressed support for the effort to ensure that American Indians are part of SILC leadership. As a promising practice, we recommend that in each State where there are Federal and State-recognized Tribal Governments, the SILC include a Tribal Representative on the SILC, and conduct outreach to the AIVRS program(s) in the State, as available, or other relevant organizations to foster Tribal participation on the SILC.
Commenters clarified that the SILC resource plan is an integral part of the three-year SPIL. We acknowledge that this is the correct interpretation. Since the language incorrectly describing the resource plan as “separate from the SPIL” was preamble language attempting to clarify the new requirement regarding the allocation of funds for this plan as distinct from the SPIL, no changes to the regulatory text are needed.
Regarding § 1329.15(c)(2) on Innovations and Expansion (I&E) funds, commenters recommended revised language consistent with Section 101(a)(18) of the Act to make clear that resources for SILCs include I&E funds consistent with the statute. ACL made the requested change to the regulatory text. ACL will work with the Department of Education and stakeholders to develop appropriate guidance on this matter.
Commenters expressed support for the proposed language in § 1329.15(c)(4) and we have included it without change.
Commenters requested additional detail on what constitutes “necessary and sufficient” funds to carry out the functions of the SILC for the purpose of the SILC resource plan. Other commenters indicated that additional information was not needed. In the interest of clarity, ACL adopted the recommended additions to § 1329.15(c)(6), with a final category for other appropriate costs. A description of the SILC's resource plan must be included in the State plan.
The plan should include:
A commenter asked “how will it be determined that the funding within the 30% cap for resource planning to carry out SILC functions has been well spent.” As discussed, the resource plan is agreed to as part of the SPIL. As noted above, ACL has added some additional required elements to the regulatory language. It will be up to the entities in the State to determine how the funds are spent, as reflected in the resource plan and the SPIL.
To minimize potential confusion, we removed duplicative requirements from § 1329.15(d).
Commenters requested some additional terms be defined in the final rule, such as “in conjunction with.” ACL chose not to include several of these requested definitions, with the understanding that these words and phrases are given their plain meaning.
A commenter raised concerns about whether the prohibition against providing services directly or “managing” services would preclude SILCs from securing funding to allow CILs to accomplish specific goals. We clarify here our interpretation that securing funding is distinct from “managing” services. Rather, a practice such as applying for and receiving grant funding in these circumstances is a legitimate exercise of SILCs' newly statutorily authorized resource development authority.
We received several comments regarding SILCs that were pertinent to a particular state. Individual state concerns are beyond the scope of the regulations. However, we suggest that SILCs that raised such concerns consult with the SILC technical assistance and training center and their respective ILA specialist.
Regarding § 1329.16(b)(3), commenters stated that the proposed regulation “fails to provide a reference to the statute or regulation that prohibits lobbying . . .” along with other listed perceived omissions. For information on the relevant prohibition, please consult 45 CFR part 93—New Restrictions on Lobbying, which was included in § 1329.3(i), along with the other provisions on applicability of other regulations, that was included in the proposed rule and retained in the final rule.
Commenters expressed support for the SPIL development and approval process in the NPRM, as required under the changes implemented by WIOA. Some commenters discussed the ways successful collaboration is already underway, that the new SPIL development process will result in a better State Plan; and ultimately have a positive impact for people with disabilities. We appreciate this information.
As discussed in § 1329.4 regarding the definition of “service provider,” ACL has added a clarification that the DSE may provide IL services directly only when so specified in the SPIL. The
In discussing the new requirements of the SPIL in the summary in the preamble, with respect to a phrase describing collaboration between CILs and other entities performing similar work, ACL received a comment requesting that we define “similar work.” That term refers to the requirement in the statute in Sec. 704(a)(3)(c) that the SPIL address working relationships and collaboration between centers for independent living and:
• Entities carrying out programs that provide independent living services, including those serving older individuals;
• other community-based organizations that provide or coordinate the provision of housing, transportation, employment, information and referral assistance, services, and supports for individuals with significant disabilities; and
• entities carrying out other programs providing services for individuals with disabilities.
The term “similar work” is not in the regulatory text, and we did not add a definition because the statutory language provides sufficient clarity.
Some commenters requested clarification that § 1329.17(d)(2)(ii) specify that the signature by the director of the DSE signifies agreement to execute the responsibilities of the DSE identified in section 704(c) of the Act. ACL incorporated this clarification in the final rule.
Regarding § 1329.17(d)(2), a commenter made the point that Centers with service areas (and grants) within multiple states should have sign off authority for each SPIL that affects them, where they meet the other applicable requirements. ACL agrees, and we have added language to so clarify in § 1329.17(d)(2)(iii). ACL also received many comments supporting our analysis that the number of CILs be based on the number of “legal entities,” not the number of grants, and we retain that provision from the proposed rule.
As a technical correction, we renumbered new § 1329.17(e)-(h). Regarding proposed § 1329.17(g)(2), commenters indicated that the proposed language is not consistent with section 704(a)(2)(A) of the Act, which requires that public input be received prior to development of the State plan. The proposed provision included an option to provide a preliminary draft State plan for comment at the public meetings as an option for meeting the requirement for public input. ACL agrees that this language, adapted from the previous regulations in 34 CFR 364.20(g), does not reflect the requirement of the statute that the State plan be developed “after receiving public input from individuals with disabilities and other stakeholders throughout the State,” and we have modified the regulatory text of § 1329.17(f)(1) (formerly proposed § 1329.17(g)(2)) accordingly. This means that the public input requirement may be satisfied by a public meeting to get input prior to development of the SPIL, and then an opportunity for public comment before the SPIL is submitted, for instance through another public meeting where a preliminary draft is provided in advance, or by offering some other meaningful and accessible opportunity for the public to comment prior to SPIL submission. ACL also made technical changes to renumber the section.
Regarding § 1329.21(g), commenters suggested that the SILCs and the CILs, rather than the DSE and SILC, must jointly agree on the order of priorities. ACL agrees that SILCs and CILs, rather than the DSE, must agree to priorities as set forth in the SPIL as it is jointly developed, after receiving public input from individuals with significant disabilities and other stakeholders. Section 1329.21, however, addresses priority for funding centers in States that receive funding under Section 723 of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 796f-2. Currently, only two States, Massachusetts and Minnesota, qualify as Section 723 States. Under Section 723(e), priorities for funding centers are set by the designated State unit
This section establishes the process for competitive awards to new Centers for Independent Living in unserved or underserved regions. We received comments requesting the authority to modify existing Part C Center service areas if the majority of the Center Directors, the SILC Chair, and the Center/s in question agree. While ACL is sensitive to the issue raised, we are not addressing that issue in this final regulation. We will take under advisement the need to address service area adjustments in the future. We made a technical correction to § 1329.22(b), to read “location” rather than “allocation,” and technical change in § 1329.22(c) to clarify that “bordering” means “contiguous.”
ACL received the comment that, regarding “guidance or guidelines as determined by the Administrator,” “[i]t is unclear if the guidance will include additional requirements and if the public will have an opportunity to comment on this guidance and guidelines.” ACL may issue guidance consistent with statutory requirements, and the content and process may vary depending on the information conveyed.
A commenter proposed that ACL consider alternative entities to conduct federal reviews of the CILs and suggested longer time periods between reviews of a single CIL. WIOA establishes the requirement that the Administrator must conduct annual compliance reviews of CILs and DSEs in in 29 U.S.C. 796d-1(c)(1), so ACL does not have the authority to alter the requirements established in the statute in this regulation. However, as noted above, ACL is actively evaluating the review processes, to optimize our capacity to conduct the required oversight, incorporating alternative approaches where permitted and appropriate.
Commenters pointed out that WIOA does not authorize ACL to retain funds for the direct provision of training and technical assistance to CILs. We agree that this is the correct interpretation. Since the inconsistent language was included only in the preamble text, no changes have been made to the regulatory text.
Executive Order 12866 requires that regulations be drafted to ensure that they are consistent with the priorities and principles set forth in Executive Order 12866. The Department has determined that this rule is consistent with these priorities and principles. The rule implements the Workforce
The Secretary certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b), the Regulatory Flexibility Act (Pub. L. 96-354), that this regulation will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The small entities that would be affected by these proposed regulations are States and Centers receiving Federal funds under these programs. However, the regulations would not have a significant economic impact on States or Centers affected because the regulations would not impose excessive regulatory burdens or require unnecessary Federal supervision. The final regulations implement statutory changes that impose new requirements to ensure the proper expenditure of program funds.
The ILS Program provides formula grants to States for the purpose of funding a number of activities, directly and/or through grant or contractual arrangements. To be eligible for financial assistance, States are required to establish a designated State entity, State Independent Living Council and to submit an approvable three-year State Plan for Independent Living (SPIL) jointly developed by the chairperson of the SILC and the directors of the CILs in the State, after receiving public input, and signed by the chairperson of the SILC acting on behalf of and at the direction of the Council; not less than 51 percent of the directors of the CILs in the State, and the director of the designated State entity (DSE). The signature requirement of not less than 51 percent of CIL directors is a new requirement under WIOA. While this requirement does increase the amount of time a State may need to prepare an approvable SPIL, the statute provides no flexibility in implementing the new requirement. We are not able to estimate the amount of additional time the 51 percent signatory requirement will add to the SPIL development and approval process at the State level given that this is a new requirement. We solicited comments from affected States on this issue, but beyond a few comments touching on general difficulty, did not receive any comments that clarify the amount of additional time required to meet the 51 percent signatory requirement.
The CIL program provides grants to consumer-controlled, community-based, cross disability, nonresidential, private nonprofit agencies for the provision of IL services to individuals with significant disabilities. WIOA expanded the previous definition of core IL services, specified in Section 7(17) of the Act, to include an additional, fifth category of core services. Specifically, Centers funded by the program must now provide services that facilitate transition from nursing homes and other institutions to the community, provide assistance to those at risk of entering institutions, and facilitate transition of youth to postsecondary life. Currently there are 354 CILs that receive federal funding under this program.
WIOA did not include any additional funding for the provision of this new fifth core service, necessitating that CILs would reallocate existing grant money to ensure the appropriate provision of all services required under Title VII of the Rehabilitation Act. Many commenters requested additional funding to carry out program responsibilities under the law. A number of commenters recommended that “ACL should seek to obtain additional funding for the 5th Core Transition Service.” Commenters also stated that “HHS should make CILs the mandatory receiver of all funding for transition services.”
Funding issues are beyond the scope of this rule. However, it might be useful to note that some resources currently funded by HHS related to transition services reside in other agencies within the Department and ACL lacks the authority to direct how these transition funds are disbursed.
With those facts in mind, we recommend that interested CILs note that ACL offers technical assistance for state and community-based aging and disability organizations through national partners as well as through learning collaboratives of networks of community-based aging and disability organizations, including Centers for Independent Living. These networks assist many CILs with leveraging their Federal funds and conducting resource development, and with building their business capacity for generating sustainable revenue streams for programs and services. ACL looks forward to engaging more of the IL community in these efforts. ACL will actively endeavor to identify further funding opportunities for CILs fifth core services transition work and will strive to raise awareness about CILs unique statutory mandate and successes with our sister agencies across HHS and the broader federal community.
ACL stated in the NPRM that, since successful transition is a process that requires sustained efforts and supports over a long-term period, and the CILs were aware of the changes under the law before officially tracking these efforts as core services, we do not currently have a clear picture of the impact of the changes under WIOA on the programs. In developing the NPRM we therefore applied the closest applicable data to the estimates in the analysis. For purposes of the analysis, we looked at three specific categories of data currently captured in the 704 Annual Performance Report that we believe most accurately match the three components of the fifth core services.
Based on this analysis, we believe that many CILs currently have staff capable of providing the new fifth core services. However, due to the lack of additional funding, compliance with this statutory change may require CILs to re-examine their individual budgets, staffing plans, and consumer needs in order to reallocate funding to ensure the appropriate provision of services as required by the Rehabilitation Act. We estimated that this analysis will require approximately 10-15 hours of time for each CIL director. We proposed to use the upper end of the time estimate (15 hours) for purposes of estimating the total impact of this statutory requirement. Therefore, we estimated the amount of compliance analysis time for CIL directors to total 5,310 hours.
To estimate the average hourly wage for a CIL director, we examined data compiled by the IL Net (a collaborative project of Independent Living Research Utilization (ILRU), the National Council on Independent Living (NCIL), and the Association of Programs for Rural Independent Living (APRIL)) and Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) data. According to a 2003 National Survey of Salaries and Work Experience of Center for Independent Living Directors, compiled by IL Net, the most common annual salary range for CIL directors in 2002 was between $41,000 and $45,000. This equates to an average hourly salary range of $19.71 to $21.63. The Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) provided more recent salary information.
According to 2012 BLS data, the average hourly wage for a social and community manager (a BLS occupational classification for managers who coordinate and supervise social service programs) was $28.83. We proposed using the more recent BLS data to calculate the total estimated impact of this statutory requirement. In order to estimate the benefits and overhead associated with this hourly wage, we assume that these costs equal 100 percent of pre-tax wages, for a total hourly cost of $57.66. Therefore, we estimated the total dollar impact of this additional CIL director time to be $306,174.60.
As noted previously, we have interpreted recent 704 Reports as indicating that many CILs currently have staff capable of providing the new fifth core services. We received comments that some CILs which currently provide fifth core services do so using other sources of funding, including Medicaid dollars and contracts with managed care organizations. However, as shown in the table above, a substantial number of CILs do not yet provide the newly required services and therefore would potentially incur costs in order to comply with this rule.
We also received questions as to whether there are minimum levels which must be achieved in order to have met the requirements of each component of the new fifth core IL services; the responses to these questions relate to and may impact the burden analysis. Each CIL must demonstrate activity under all three prongs of the definition, but the minimum levels are not further defined in this regulation. The revised data collection system will contain more information when it is published. We note that we do not establish a minimum number of services, beyond that there must be some service (at least one activity) accomplished and reported in each category and sub-category, for any of the core services, and we do not intend to establish a minimum number for the new fifth core services. The amount of services provided will depend on the needs of the individuals seeking services, the social dynamics of the community served by each CIL, and the approach each CIL takes to address the needs of individuals under the fifth core service. In addressing the comments related to burden, we also note that CILs can fulfill their obligation to provide fifth core services in a number of ways that may reduce the burden associated with the service. For example, services that CILs already provide may count towards this category rather than other core services.
Nevertheless, we recognize that the addition of the fifth core services may place more of a burden on CIL directors to re-examine their individual budgets, staffing and strategic plans, and consumer needs in order to reallocate funding to ensure the appropriate provision of services as required by the Rehabilitation Act. We therefore are increasing our initial estimate of 15 hours of time for each CIL director to 30 hours of time to account for the additional burden. In the final rule we estimate the amount of compliance analysis time for CIL directors to total 10,620 hours. We received several comments with different estimates. However, the comments did not provide sufficient detail or explain how the estimates were calculated. They did not include a breakdown of the costs of wages, benefits and overhead; nor did they include an estimate of the hours used in the calculation. Thus, we continue to assume that the costs of wages, benefits and overhead to be a total hourly cost of $57.66, and use that figure in determining the dollar impact based on an increased number of hours, as discussed above. We increase our estimate in the final rule of the total dollar impact of this additional CIL director time to be $612,349.20.
WIOA continues to require annual onsite compliance reviews of at least 15 percent of CILs that receive funding under section 722 of the Act and at least one-third of designated state units that receive funds under section 723 of the Act. The only change made by WIOA was to eliminate the requirement that CILs subject to compliance reviews be selected randomly. ACL is not proposing any changes to the compliance review process in this regulation. We do not anticipate any
While the final rule establishes a new appeals process for States, we anticipate that the process will be utilized infrequently based on past experience of the Independent Living Services programs. The process is designed to provide additional protection against the termination of funding. We received no specific comments on the burden analysis. Therefore, we do not expect that funds will be terminated more or less frequently.
The allocation of 1.8 to 2 percent of Part B funds to training and technical assistance for SILCs is a new requirement under WIOA. We have limited available data regarding the impact on programs of this provision and requested comment on this aspect of the analysis. We received no comments related to burden analysis for this provision.
The 5 percent administrative cap on the DSE is a new statutory requirement under WIOA, as is the 30 percent ceiling on the SILC resource plan (unless the SPIL specifies that a greater percentage of funds is needed for to carry out the functions of the SILC). The rule makes final the NPRM's narrow interpretation of the 5 percent administrative cap, limiting its application to “Part B” funds only, rather than applying the 5 percent cap on administrative funds allocated to the DSE to all federal funds supporting the Independent Living Services. Additional funding sources include Social Security reimbursements, Vocational Rehabilitation program funds, and other public or private funds.
The rule avoids a broader application of the cap in an attempt to avoid creating too great a disincentive to State agencies to serve as DSEs, given the more limited role of the DSEs in decision-making (as they no longer have a statutory role in the development of the SPIL). Our intent is to effectuate the limitation as required under the law, while helping ensure retention of DSEs for the Part B programs. Some commenters indicated that the 5 percent administrative cap on the DSE may result in reduced funding for independent living services; they did not discuss the specific burden associated with implementation of this statutory requirement.
Although we believe that the approach of the rule best serves the purposes of the law, we considered a regulatory scheme requiring an alternative treatment of the Part B State matching funds. In the final rule, as in the proposed rule, funds used to meet the required 10 percent State match are treated the same as funds “received by the State” under Part B.
To better understand the implications of this decision, consider the five percent administrative cap on the DSE's use of Part B funds for administrative purposes in § 1329.12(a)(5). For example, the proposed regulatory language mandates that WIOA's 5 percent cap on funds for DSE administrative expenses applies only to the Part B funds allocated to the State and to the State's required 10 percent Part B match. It does not apply to other program funds, including, but not limited to, payments provided to a State from the Social Security Administration for assisting Social Security beneficiaries and recipients to achieve employment outcomes, any other federal funds, or to other funds allocated by the State for IL purposes. Treating the issue in this way makes more Part B funds available for IL services and SPIL activities, while retaining sufficient funds to permit the DSE to accomplish its responsibilities and oversight requirements for ILS program funds under the law. One key advantage of this approach is minimizing disruptions to the ILS program from potential DSE decisions to relinquish the program due to insufficient resources to fulfill the WIOA-related fiscal oversight/administrative support responsibilities. For context, on average, 10-15 percent of DSE funding was spent on administrative costs prior to WIOA, though this must be considered along with the more limited role the DSE now plays under the law as amended.
A narrower interpretation of this provision would be to apply it to Part B funds only, without the State match. Not only would this approach severely limit the funds available for fulfillment of DSE responsibilities under the law, it would also create some potential accounting burdens for programs, as State funds provided as a result of the ILS program's State matching requirement have traditionally been treated similarly to Federal Part B funds. It would also be inconsistent with prior accounting practices regarding the 10% State match for Part B funding, which existed prior to WIOA.
The broadest interpretation would include all federal funds supporting the ILS program, including Social Security reimbursements and funds from the Title I (Vocational Rehabilitation) program in the cap, which would broaden the pot of monies allocated for administrative costs of the DSE, which on its face seems counter to the change in the law capping the available percentage for these purposes at a relatively low amount. Commenters supported this approach.
We also considered alternative approaches regarding implementation of the new fifth core services based on comments regarding lack of funding to provide the new services. We have chosen not to establish minimum number of services to be provided for any of the core services, including the fifth core service, and to allow CILs flexibility in determining how to meet the requirements of the act. We believe that this approach, discussed above, satisfies the requirements of WIOA that CILs provide services in all five core service areas. It also gives CILs the greatest amount of flexibility to determine how to use their limited federal funds to meet the needs of individuals in their service area.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501
This final rule makes no revisions to existing 704 reporting requirements, the Section 704 Annual Performance Report (Parts I and II). ACL is currently convening workgroups to recommend and implement changes regarding data collection. These changes will be subject to the public comment process under the PRA before they are finalized.
The SPIL encompasses the activities planned to achieve the specified independent living objectives and reflects the commitment to comply with all applicable statutory and regulatory requirements during the three years covered by the plan. A SPIL has already been approved in each State through fiscal year 2016. (State Plan for Independent Living and Center for Independent Living Programs, OMB Control Number 1820-0527.) The law remains unchanged that the SPIL continues to govern the provision of IL services.
Any amendments to the SPIL, reflecting either a change based on the WIOA amendments or any material change in State law, organization, policy, or agency operations that affect the administration of the SPIL, must be developed in accordance with Section 704(a)(2) of the Rehabilitation Act, as amended. SPIL amendments must be submitted to ACL for approval.
WIOA changed the content of the SPIL to the extent that the SPIL must describe how the independent living services will promote full access to community life for individuals with significant disabilities and describe strategies for providing independent living services on a statewide basis, to the greatest extent possible. The SPIL must also include a justification for any funding allocation of Part B funds above 30% for the SILC's resource plan.
We anticipate that such changes may, on average, increase the amount of time to develop the SPIL by five (5) hours. There are 57 SPILs, one for each State, the District of Columbia, and the six territories. Assuming the same hourly cost of $57.66 discussed in the Regulatory Impact Analysis above, we therefore estimate the cost of the changes to be $16,433.1 (57 SPILs × $57.66/hour × 5 hours).We did not receive any comments on these calculations.
The Section 704 Annual Performance Report (Parts I and II) are the Reporting Instruments used to collect information required by the Act,
Prior to WIOA, an effort was underway to make formal changes to the 704 Reporting Instruments. The passage of WIOA in July 2014 put those efforts on hold until late 2014. ACL is currently convening workgroups to recommend and implement changes in data collection, and these changes will be subject to the public comment process under the PRA before they are finalized. Key steps in ACL's current and projected timeline on the process include an external workgroup webinar, held April 1, 2015, to share the status of data collection efforts and invite feedback on specific issues. It is anticipated that additional external stakeholder engagement will occur during summer of 2016. The SILC indicators of minimum compliance will also be published in the
Updating data collection will require changes to include the new fifth core services under WIOA. We make final definitions for some of the terms in the fifth core services in this rule, and have made changes based on comments received. Assuming revised data collection requirements will include reporting on the new fifth core services, we estimate that providing the information will take approximately 1 hour per data report. Based on the total number of 704 Reports filed annually in past years,
Assuming the same hourly cost of $57.66 discussed in the regulatory impact analysis above, we estimate the cost of the changes to be $23,755.92. We received no comments on these estimates. In summary, future proposed changes to the Section 704 Annual Performance Report (Parts I and II) will be published in the
Section 706 of the Rehabilitation Act continues to require reviews of CILs funded under Section 722 and reviews of State entities funded under Section 723 of the Rehabilitation Act. Therefore, ACL will continue to conduct compliance reviews and make final decisions on any proposed corrective actions and/or technical assistance related to compliance reviews of a CIL's grants.
In Section 706(b), 29 U.S.C. 796d-1(b), the Act, as amended by WIOA, requires the Administrator to develop and publish in the
Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires that a covered agency prepare a budgetary impact statement before promulgating a rule that includes any Federal mandate that may result in expenditures by State, local, or Tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million, adjusted for inflation, or more in any one year.
If a covered agency must prepare a budgetary impact statement, Section 205 further requires that it select the most cost-effective and least burdensome alternatives that achieves the objectives of the rule and is consistent with the statutory requirements. In addition, Section 203 requires a plan for informing and advising any small government entities that may be significantly or uniquely impacted by a rule.
ACL has determined that this rulemaking does not result in the expenditure by State, local, and Tribal governments in the aggregate, or by the private sector of more than $100 million in any one year. The total FY 2016 budget for the Independent Living Services and Centers for Independent Living programs authorized under Chapter 1, Title VII of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Rehabilitation Act or Act), as amended by WIOA (Pub. L. 113-128) is $101,183,000. We do not anticipate that the rule will impact the majority of the budget for these programs.
This rule is not a major rule as defined in 5 U.S.C. Section 804(2).
Section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act of 1999 requires Federal agencies to determine whether a policy or regulation may affect family well-being. If the agency's conclusion is affirmative, then the agency must prepare an impact assessment addressing seven criteria specified in the law. These regulations do not have an impact on family well-being as defined in the legislation.
Executive Order 13132 on “federalism” was signed August 4, 1999. The purposes of the Order are to guarantee the division of governmental responsibilities between the national government and the States that was intended by the Framers of the Constitution, to ensure that the principles of federalism established by the Framers guide the executive departments and agencies in the formulation and implementation of policies, and to further the policies of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act.
The Department certifies that this rule does not have a substantial direct effect on States, on the relationship between the Federal government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. ACL is not aware of any specific State laws that would be preempted by the adoption of the regulation in subchapter C of 45 CFR part 1329.
Centers for independent living, Compliance, Enforcement and appeals, Independent living services, Persons with disabilities, Reporting.
29 U.S.C. 709; 42 U.S.C. 3515e.
This part includes general requirements applicable to the conduct of the following programs authorized under title VII, chapter 1 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended:
(a) Independent Living Services (ILS), title VII, chapter 1, part B (29 U.S.C. 796e to 796e-3).
(b) The Centers for Independent Living (CIL), title VII, chapter 1, part C (29 U.S.C. 796f to 796f-6).
The purpose of title VII of the Act is to promote a philosophy of independent living (IL), including a philosophy of consumer control, peer support, self-help, self-determination, equal access, and individual and system advocacy, in order to maximize the leadership, empowerment, independence, and productivity of individuals with disabilities, and to promote the integration and full inclusion of individuals with disabilities into the mainstream of American society by:
(a) Providing financial assistance to States for providing, expanding, and improving the provision of IL services;
(b) Providing financial assistance to develop and support statewide networks of Centers for Independent Living (Centers or CILs);
(c) Providing financial assistance to States, with the goal of improving the independence of individuals with disabilities, for improving working relationships among—
(1) State Independent Living Services;
(2) Centers for Independent Living;
(3) Statewide Independent Living Councils (SILCs or Councils) established under section 705 of the Act (29 U.S.C. 796d);
(4) State vocational rehabilitation (VR) programs receiving assistance under Title 1 of the Act (29 U.S.C. 720
(5) State programs of supported employment services receiving assistance under Title VI of the Act (29 U.S.C. 795g
(6) Client assistance programs (CAPs) receiving assistance under section 112 of the Act (29 U.S.C. 732);
(7) Programs funded under other titles of the Act;
(8) Programs funded under other Federal laws; and
(9) Programs funded through non-Federal sources with the goal of improving the independence of individuals with disabilities.
Several other regulations apply to all activities under this part. These include but are not limited to:
(a) 45 CFR part 16—Procedures of the Departmental Grant Appeals Board.
(b) 45 CFR part 46—Protection of Human Subjects.
(c) 45 CFR part 75—Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for HHS Awards.
(d) 45 CFR part 80—Nondiscrimination under Programs Receiving Federal Assistance through the Department of Health and Human Services—Effectuation of title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
(e) 45 CFR part 81—Practice and Procedure for Hearings under Part 80 of this Title.
(f) 45 CFR part 84—Nondiscrimination on the Basis of Handicap in Programs Activities Receiving Federal Financial Assistance.
(g) 45 CFR part 86—Nondiscrimination on the Basis of Sex in Education Programs or Activities Receiving Federal Financial Assistance.
(h) 45 CFR part 91—Nondiscrimination on the Basis of Age in Programs or Activities Receiving Federal Financial Assistance from HHS.
(i) 45 CFR part 93—New Restrictions on Lobbying.
(j) 2 CFR part 376—Nonprocurement Debarment and Suspension.
(k) 2 CFR part 382—Requirements for Drug-Free Workplace (Financial Assistance).
For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
(1) Involve representing an individual—
(i) Before private entities or organizations, government agencies (whether State, local, or Federal), or in a court of law (whether State or Federal); or
(ii) In negotiations or mediation, in formal or informal administrative proceedings before government agencies (whether State, local, or Federal), or in legal proceedings in a court of law; and
(2) Be on behalf of—
(i) A single individual, in which case it is individual advocacy;
(ii) A group or class of individuals, in which case it is
(iii) Oneself, in which case it is
(1) Is designed and operated within a local community by individuals with disabilities;
(2) Provides an array of IL services as defined in section 7(18) of the Act, including, at a minimum, independent living core services as defined in this section; and
(3) Complies with the standards set out in Section 725(b) and provides and complies with the assurances in section 725(c) of the Act and § 1329.5.
(1) Information and referral services;
(2) Independent Living skills training;
(3) Peer counseling, including cross-disability peer counseling;
(4) Individual and systems advocacy;
(5) Services that:
(i) Facilitate the transition of individuals with significant disabilities from nursing homes and other institutions to home and community-based residences, with the requisite supports and services. This process may include providing services and supports that a consumer identifies are needed to move that person from an institutional setting to community based setting, including systems advocacy required for the individual to move to a home of his or her choosing;
(ii) Provide assistance to individuals with significant disabilities who are at risk of entering institutions so that the individuals may remain in the community. A determination of who is at risk of entering an institution should include self-identification by the individual as part of the intake or goal-setting process; and
(iii) Facilitate the transition of youth who are individuals with significant disabilities, who were eligible for individualized education programs under section 614(d) of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. 1414(d)), and who have completed their secondary education or otherwise left school, to postsecondary life. Individuals who have reached the age of 18 and are still receiving services in accordance with an Individualized Education Program (IEP) under IDEA have not “completed their secondary education.”
(1) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities of such individual;
(2) Has a record of such an impairment; or
(3) Is regarded as having such an impairment, as described in section 3(3) of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. 12102(3)).
(1) Incidental to the overall operation of the Center;
(2) Necessary so that the individual may receive an IL service; and
(3) Limited to a period not to exceed eight weeks during any six-month period.
(1) Is not younger than 14 years of age; and
(2) Is not older than 24 years of age.
To be eligible to receive funds under this part, a Center must comply with the standards in section 725(b) and assurances in section 725(c) of the Act, with the indicators of minimum compliance, and the requirements contained in the terms and conditions of the grant award.
(a) A Center must submit a performance report in a manner and at a time described by the Administrator, consistent with section 704(m)(4)(D) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 796c(m)(4)(D).
(b) The DSE must submit a report in a manner and at a time described by the Administrator, consistent with section 704(c)(4) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 796c(c)(4).
(c) The Administrator may require such other reports as deemed necessary to carry out the responsibilities set forth in section 706 of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 796d-1.
(a)
(2) The Director may offer technical assistance to the Center to develop a corrective action plan or to take such other steps as are necessary to come into compliance with the standards and assurances.
(3) The Center may request a preliminary appeal to the Director in a form and manner determined by the Administrator. The Director shall review the appeal request and provide written notice of the determination within a timely manner.
(4) Where there is a determination that falls within 45 CFR part 16, appendix A, C.a.(1)-(4), the Center may appeal an unfavorable decision by the Director to the Administrator within a time and manner established by the Administrator. The Administrator shall review the appeal request and provide written notice of the determination within a timely manner.
(5) The Administrator may take steps to enforce a corrective action plan or to terminate funding if the Administrator determines that the Center remains out of compliance.
(6) Written notice of the determination by the Administrator shall constitute a final determination for purposes of 45 CFR part 16. A Center that receives such notice of a determination that falls within 45 CFR part 16, appendix A, C.a.(1)-(4), may appeal to the Departmental Appeals Board pursuant to the provisions of 45 CFR part 16.
(7) A Center that is administered by the State under Section 723 of the Act must first exhaust any State process before going through the process described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (6) of this section.
(b)
(2) The Director may offer technical assistance to the State to develop a corrective action plan or to take such other steps as are necessary to ensure that the State comes in to compliance.
(3) Where there is a determination that falls within 45 CFR part 16, appendix A, C.a.(1)-(4), the State may seek an appeal consistent with the steps set forth in paragraphs (a)(3) and (4) of this section.
(4) The Administrator may take steps to enforce statutory or regulatory requirements or to terminate funding if the Administrator determines that the State remains out of compliance.
(5) Written notice of the determination by the Administrator shall constitute a final determination for purposes of 45 CFR part 16 with regard to the types of determinations set forth in 45 CFR part 16, appendix A, C.a.(1)-(4). A State that receives such notice may appeal to the Departmental Appeals Board pursuant to the provisions of 45 CFR part 16.
(a) The State:
(1) May use funds received under this part to support the SILC resource plan described in section 705(e) of the Act but may not use more than 30 percent of the funds unless an approved SPIL so specifies pursuant to § 1329.15(c);
(2) May retain funds under section 704(c)(5) of the Act; and
(3) Shall distribute the remainder of the funds received under this part in a manner consistent with the approved State plan for the activities described in paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) The State may use the remainder of the funds described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section to—
(1) Provide to individuals with significant disabilities the independent living (IL) services required by section 704(e) of the Act, particularly those in unserved areas of the State;
(2) Demonstrate ways to expand and improve IL services;
(3) Support the operation of Centers for Independent Living (Centers) that are in compliance with the standards and assurances in section 725 (b) and (c) of the Act;
(4) Support activities to increase the capacities of public or nonprofit agencies and organizations and other entities to develop comprehensive approaches or systems for providing IL services;
(5) Conduct studies and analyses, gather information, develop model policies and procedures, and present information, approaches, strategies, findings, conclusions, and recommendations to Federal, State, and local policy makers in order to enhance IL services for individuals with significant disabilities;
(6) Train individuals with disabilities and individuals providing services to individuals with disabilities, and other persons regarding the IL philosophy; and
(7) Provide outreach to populations that are unserved or underserved by programs under title VII of the Act, including minority groups and urban and rural populations.
(a) Any designated State entity (DSE) identified by the State and included in the signed SPIL pursuant to section 704(c) is eligible to apply for assistance under this part in accordance with section 704 of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 796c.
(b) To receive financial assistance under Parts B and C of chapter 1 of title VII, a State shall submit to the Administrator and obtain approval of a State plan that meets the requirements of section 704 of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 796c.
(c) Allotments to states are determined in accordance with section 711 of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 796e.
(a) A DSE that applies for and receives assistance must:
(1) Receive, account for, and disburse funds received by the State under Part B and Part C in a State under section 723 of the Act based on the State plan;
(2) Provide administrative support services for a program under Part B, as directed by the approved State plan, and for CILs under Part C when administered by the State under section 723 of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 796f-2;
(3) Keep such records and afford such access to such records as the Administrator finds to be necessary with respect to the programs;
(4) Submit such additional information or provide such assurances as the Administrator may require with respect to the programs; and
(5) Retain not more than 5 percent of the funds received by the State for any fiscal year under Part B, for the performance of the services outlined in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section. For purposes of these regulations, the 5 percent cap on funds for administrative expenses applies only to the Part B funds allocated to the State and to the State's required 10 percent Part B match. It does not apply to other program income funds, including, but not limited to, payments provided to a State from the Social Security Administration for assisting Social Security beneficiaries and recipients to achieve employment outcomes, any other federal funds, or to other funds allocated by the State for IL purposes.
(b) The DSE must also carry out its other responsibilities under the Act, including, but not limited to:
(1) Allocating funds for the delivery of IL services under Part B of the Act as directed by the SPIL; and
(2) Allocating the necessary and sufficient resources needed by the SILC to fulfill its statutory duties and authorities under section 705(c), consistent with the approved State Plan.
(c) Fiscal and accounting requirements: The DSE must adopt fiscal control and fund accounting procedures as may be necessary to ensure the proper disbursement of and accounting for federal funds provided to CILs, SILCs, and/or other services providers under the ILS program. The DSE must comply with all applicable federal and State laws and regulations, including those in 45 CFR part 75.
(a) The allotment of Federal funds for State IL services for each State is computed in accordance with the requirements of section 711(a)(1) of the Act.
(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, the allotment of Federal funds for Guam, American Samoa, the United States Virgin Islands, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands is computed in accordance with section 711(a)(2) of the Act.
(c) The Administrator shall reserve between 1.8 percent and 2 percent of appropriated funds to provide, either directly or through grants, contracts, or cooperative agreements, training and technical assistance to SILCs. Training and technical assistance funds shall be administered in accordance with section 711A of the Act.
(a) To be eligible to receive assistance under this part, each State shall establish and maintain a SILC that meets the requirements of section 705 of the Act, including composition and appointment of members.
(b) The SILC shall not be established as an entity within a State agency, including the DSE. The SILC shall be independent of and autonomous from the DSE and all other State agencies.
(a) The duties of the SILC are those set forth in section 705(c), (d), and (e) of the Act.
(1) The SILC shall develop the SPIL in accordance with guidelines developed by the Administrator;
(2) The SILC shall monitor, review and evaluate the implementation of the SPIL on a regular basis as determined by the SILC and set forth in the SPIL;
(3) The SILC shall meet regularly, and ensure that such meetings are open to
(4) The SILC shall submit to the Administrator such periodic reports as the Administrator may reasonably request, and keep such records, and afford such access to such records, as the Administrator finds necessary to verify the information in such reports; and
(5) The SILC shall, as appropriate, coordinate activities with other entities in the State that provide services similar to or complementary to independent living services, such as entities that facilitate the provision of or provide long-term community-based services and supports.
(b) In carrying out the duties under this section, the SILC may provide contact information for the nearest appropriate CIL. Sharing of such information shall not constitute the direct provision of independent living services as defined in section 705(c)(3) of the Act.
(c) The SILC, in conjunction with the DSE, shall prepare a plan for the provision of resources, including staff and personnel that are necessary and sufficient to carry out the functions of the SILC.
(1) The resource plan amount shall be commensurate, to the extent possible, with the estimated costs related to SILC fulfilment of its duties and authorities consistent with the approved State Plan.
(2) Available resources include: Innovation and Expansion (I&E) funds authorized by 29 U.S.C. 721(a)(18); Independent Living Part B funds; State matching funds; other public funds (such as Social Security reimbursement funds); and private sources.
(3) In accordance with § 1329.10(a)(1), no more than 30 percent of the State's allocation of Part B and Part B State matching funds may be used to fund the resource plan, unless the approved SPIL provides that more than 30 percent is needed and justifies the greater percentage.
(4) No conditions or requirements may be included in the SILC's resource plan that may compromise the independence of the SILC.
(5) The SILC is responsible for the proper expenditure of funds and use of resources that it receives under the resource plan.
(6) A description of the SILC's resource plan must be included in the State plan. The plan should include:
(i) Staff/personnel;
(ii) Operating expenses;
(iii) Council compensation and expenses;
(iv) Meeting expenses, including public hearing expenses, such as meeting space, alternate formats, interpreters, and other accommodations;
(v) Resources to attend and/or secure training for staff and Council members; and
(vi) Other costs as appropriate.
(d) The SILC shall carry out the activities in paragraph (a), to better serve individuals with significant disabilities and help achieve the purpose of section 701 of the Act.
(e) The SILC shall, consistent with State law, supervise and evaluate its staff and other personnel as may be necessary to carry out its functions under this section.
(a) The SILC may conduct the following discretionary activities, as authorized and described in the approved State Plan:
(1) Work with Centers for Independent Living to coordinate services with public and private entities to improve services provided to individuals with disabilities;
(2) Conduct resource development activities to support the activities described in the approved SPIL and/or to support the provision of independent living services by Centers for Independent Living; and
(3) Perform such other functions, consistent with the purpose of this part and comparable to other functions described in section 705(c) of the Act, as the Council determines to be appropriate and authorized in the approved SPIL.
(b) In undertaking the foregoing duties and authorities, the SILC shall:
(1) Coordinate with the CILs in order to avoid conflicting or overlapping activities within the CILs' established service areas;
(2) Not engage in activities that constitute the direct provision of IL services to individuals, including the IL core services; and
(3) Comply with Federal prohibitions against lobbying.
(a) The State may use funds received under Part B to support the Independent Living Services program and to meet its obligations under the Act, including the section 704(e) requirements that apply to the provision of independent living services. The State plan must stipulate that the State will provide IL services, directly and/or through grants and contracts, with Federal, State or other funds, and must describe how and to whom those funds will be disbursed for this purpose.
(b) In order to receive financial assistance under this part, a State shall submit to the Administrator a State plan for independent living.
(1) The State plan must contain, in the form prescribed by the Administrator, the information set forth in section 704 of the Act, including designation of an Agency to serve as the designated State entity, and such other information requested by the Administrator.
(2) The State plan must contain the assurances set forth in section 704(m) of the Act.
(3) The State plan must be signed in accordance with the provisions of this section.
(4) The State plan must be submitted 90 days before the completion date of the proceeding plan, and otherwise in the time frame and manner prescribed by the Administrator.
(5) The State plan must be approved by the Administrator.
(c) The State plan must cover a period of not more than three years and must be amended whenever necessary to reflect any material change in State law, organization, policy, or agency operations that affects the administration of the State plan.
(d) The State plan must be jointly—
(1) Developed by the chairperson of the SILC, and the directors of the CILs, after receiving public input from individuals with disabilities and other stakeholders throughout the State; and
(2) Signed by the—
(i) Chairperson of the SILC, acting on behalf of and at the direction of the SILC;
(ii) The director of the DSE, signifying agreement to execute the responsibilities of the DSE identified in section 704(c) of the Act; and
(iii) Not less than 51 percent of the directors of the CILs in the State. For purposes of this provision, if a legal entity that constitutes the “CIL” has multiple Part C grants considered as separate Centers for all other purposes, for SPIL signature purposes, it is only considered as one Center. CILs with service areas in more than one State that meet the other applicable requirements are eligible to participate in SPIL development and sign the SPIL in each of the relevant States.
(e) The State plan must provide for the review and revision of the plan, not less than once every three years, to ensure the existence of appropriate planning, financial support and coordination, and other assistance to meet the requirements of section 704(a) of the Act.
(f) The public, including people with disabilities and other stakeholders throughout the State, must have an opportunity to comment on the State plan prior to its submission to the
(1) The requirement for public input in this section may be met by holding public meetings before a preliminary draft State plan is prepared and by providing a preliminary draft State plan for comment prior to submission.
(2) To meet the public input standard of this section, a public meeting requires:
(i) Accessible, appropriate and sufficient notice provided at least 30 days prior to the public meeting through various media available to the general public, such as Web sites, newspapers and public service announcements, and through specific contacts with appropriate constituency groups.
(ii) All notices, including notices published on a Web site, and other written materials provided at or prior to public meetings must be available upon request in accessible formats.
(g) The State plan must identify those provisions that are State-imposed requirements. For purposes of this section, a State-imposed requirement includes any State law, regulation, rule, or policy relating to the DSE's administration or operation of IL programs under Title VII of the Act, including any rule or policy implementing any Federal law, regulation, or guideline that is beyond what would be required to comply with the regulations in this part.
(h) The State plan must address how the specific requirements in the Act and in paragraph (f) of this section will be met.
State allotments of Part C, funds shall be based on section 721(c) of the Act, and distributed to Centers within the State in accordance with the order of priorities in sections 722(e) and 723(e) of the Act.
(a) In any State in which the Administrator has approved the State plan required by section 704 of the Act, an eligible agency funded under Part C in fiscal year 2015 may receive a continuation award in FY 2016 or a succeeding fiscal year if the Center has—
(1) Complied during the previous project year with the standards and assurances in section 725 of the Act and the terms and conditions of its grant; and
(2) Submitted an approvable annual performance report demonstrating that the Center meets the indicators of minimum compliance referenced in in § 1329.5.
(b) If an eligible agency administers more than one Part C grant, each of the Center grants must meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section to receive a continuation award.
(c) A designated State entity (DSE) that operated a Center in accordance with section 724(a) of the Act in fiscal year (FY) 2015 is eligible to continue receiving assistance under this part in FY 2016 or a succeeding fiscal year if, for the fiscal year for which assistance is sought—
(1) No nonprofit private agency submits and obtains approval of an acceptable application under section 722 or 723 of the Act to operate a Center for that fiscal year before a date specified by the Administrator; or
(2) After funding all applications so submitted and approved, the Administrator determines that funds remain available to provide that assistance.
(d) A Center operated by the DSE under section 724(a) of the Act must comply with paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section to receive continuation funding, except for the requirement that the Center be a private nonprofit agency.
(e) A designated State entity that administered Part C funds and awarded grants directly to Centers within the State under section 723 of the Act in fiscal year (FY) 2015 is eligible to continue receiving assistance under section 723 in FY 2016 or a succeeding fiscal year if the Administrator determines that the amount of State funding earmarked by the State to support the general operation of Centers during the preceding fiscal year equaled or exceeded the amount of federal funds allotted to the State under section 721(c) of the Act for that fiscal year.
(f) A DSE may apply to administer Part C funds under section 723 in the time and in the manner that the Administrator may require, consistent with section 723(a)(1)(A) of the Act.
(g) Grants awarded by the DSE under section 723 of the Act are subject to the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the order of priorities in section 723(e) of the Act, unless the DSE and the SILC jointly agree on another order of priorities.
(a) Subject to the availability of funds and in accordance with the order of priorities in section 722(e) of the Act and the State Plan's design for the statewide network of Centers, an eligible agency may receive Part C funding as a new Center for Independent Living in a State, if the eligible agency:
(1) Submits to the Administrator an application at the time and manner required in the funding opportunity announcement (FOA) issued by the Administrator which contains the information and meets the selection criteria established by the Administrator in accordance with section 722(d) of the Act;
(2) Proposes to serve a geographic area that has been designated as a priority unserved or underserved in the State Plan for Independent Living and that is not served by an existing Part C-funded Center; and
(3) Is determined by the Administrator to be the most qualified applicant to serve the designated priority area consistent with the State plan setting forth the design of the State for establishing a statewide network of Centers for independent living.
(b) An existing Part C-funded Center may apply to serve the designated unserved or underserved areas if it proposes the establishment of a separate and complete Center (except that the governing board of the existing center may serve as the governing board of the new Center) at a different geographic location, consistent with the requirements in the FOA.
(c) An eligible agency located in a bordering, contiguous State may be eligible for a new CIL award if the Administrator determines, based on the submitted application, that the agency:
(1) Is the most qualified applicant meeting the requirements in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section; and
(2) Has the expertise and resources necessary to serve individuals with significant disabilities who reside in the bordering, contiguous State, in accordance with the requirements of the Act and these regulations.
(d) If there are insufficient funds under the State's allotment to fund a new Center, the Administrator may—
(1) Use the excess funds in the State to assist existing Centers consistent with the State plan; or
(2) Reallot these funds in accordance with section 721(d) of the Act.
(a) Centers receiving Part C funding shall be subject to periodic reviews, including on-site reviews, in accordance with sections 706(c), 722(g), and 723(g) of the Act and guidance set forth by the Administrator, to verify compliance with the standards and assurances in section 725(b) and (c) of the Act and the grant terms and conditions. The Administrator shall annually conduct reviews of at least 15 percent of the Centers.
(b) A copy of each review under this section shall be provided, in the case of section 723(g), by the director of the DSE to the Administrator and to the SILC, and in the case of section 722(g), by the Administrator to the SILC and the DSE.
The Administrator shall reserve between 1.8% and 2% of appropriated funds to provide training and technical assistance to Centers through grants, contracts or cooperative agreements, consistent with section 721(b) of the Act. The training and technical assistance funds shall be administered in accordance with section 721(b) of the Act.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of decision on use of Medical Examination Report and Medical Examiner's Certificate Forms.
FMCSA announces its decision to allow certified Medical Examiners (MEs) to use the Medical Examination Report (MER) Form, MCSA-5875, and Medical Examiner's Certificate (MEC), Form MCSA-5876, with October, November, and December, 2015 revision dates that are located in the top left corner of the forms until existing stocks are depleted. For MEs in an office where these forms have been programmed into an electronic system that will require IT programming, the current approved versions of the forms should be programmed as soon as practicable. FMCSA published sample versions of the forms in October and November 2015 prior to posting fillable Portable Document Format (PDF) versions in December 2015. Based on the fact that the October and November 2015 forms contain minor differences yet collect the same information as the fillable PDF version, FMCSA determined the October and November versions are acceptable. In addition, MEs are also allowed to continue to use the versions of the MER Form, MCSA-5875, that include the Privacy Act Statement on page one until stocks are depleted. For MEs in an office where these forms have been programmed into an electronic system that will require IT programming, the current approved versions of the forms should be programmed as soon as practicable. The versions of the forms currently posted by FMCSA include nonsubstantive changes that were approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) on April 7, 2016 and September 6, 2016, and no longer include the Privacy Act Statement or a revision date in the top left corner. State Driver's Licensing Agencies (SDLAs) should not accept versions of the MEC that have not been approved by OMB, and do not display both the FMCSA form number (MCSA-5876) and the OMB expiration date of August 31, 2018.
This decision is in effect on October 27, 2016.
You may search background documents or comments to the docket for this rule, identified by docket number FMCSA-2012-0178, by visiting the:
•
•
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, Office of Policy, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590; telephone (202) 366-4001;
On April 23, 2015, FMCSA published a final rule adopting regulations to facilitate the electronic transmission of MEC information from FMCSA's National Registry system to SDLAs for holders of Commercial Driver's Licenses (CDL) and Commercial Learner's Permits (CLP). The final rule also requires the use of the prescribed MER Form, MCSA-5875, in place of the MER and the prescribed MEC, Form MCSA-5876, in place of the MEC.
FMCSA published sample versions of the MER Form, MCSA-5875, and MEC, Form MCSA-5876, with October and November, 2015 revision dates on the National Registry Web site with the intent and purpose of educating MEs regarding the use of new categories on the forms and assisting MEs in programming electronic medical records prior to the Agency's posting of the fillable Adobe Acrobat
On December 21, 2015, FMCSA published guidance providing a 120-day grace period during which MEs were allowed to use either the old MER and MEC or the newly prescribed MER Form, MCSA-5875, and MEC, Form MCSA-5876, until April 20, 2016 (80 FR 79273).
Subsequently, after receiving OMB approval for nonsubstantive changes to the forms, FMCSA posted the current versions of the MER Form, MCSA-5875, and MEC, Form MCSA-5876, on the FMCSA and National Registry Web sites on April 13, 2016. The current versions include several OMB approved nonsubstantive and functional changes but no longer include a revision date in the top left corner. The specific OMB approved non-substantive and functional changes can be found on the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs Web site by selecting the following link,
On June 7, 2016, the Department of Transportation's Chief Privacy Officer and Office of General Counsel reviewed the requirements of the rulemaking and determined that the collection of information maintained and held by MEs does not constitute information protected by the Privacy Act. Therefore, FMCSA submitted to OMB for approval a request for additional nonsubstantive changes including removal of the Privacy Act statement on page one of the MER Form, MCSA-5875, and the addition of disclaimer language regarding the protection of sensitive information that was approved on September 6, 2016. FMCSA has posted the current versions of the MER Form, MCSA-5875 and MEC, Form MCSA-5876 on the FMCSA and National Registry Web sites. The additional OMB-approved non-substantive changes can be found on the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs Web site by selecting the following link
All changes to the MER and MEC forms since the August 5, 2015, date on which OMB provided approval for use of the forms were nonsubstantive in nature. Therefore, MEs are allowed to use MER Form, MCSA-5875, and MEC, Form MCSA-5876, with October, November, and December, 2015 revision dates until existing stocks are depleted. This includes forms produced by the private sector with October or November, 2015 revision dates that FMCSA never intended to be published for use by the public and fillable forms posted on the FMCSA and National Registry Web sites on December 14, 2015, as well as the MER Form, MCSA-5875, that includes the Privacy Act Statement on page one. For MEs in an office where these forms have been programmed into an electronic system that will require IT programming, the current approved versions of the forms should be programmed as soon as practicable. MEs are also encouraged to use the current versions of the forms that no longer include the Privacy Act Statement or a revision date in the top left corner, and can be found on the FMCSA and National Registry Web sites.
Under the provisions of 49 CFR 383.71(h), until June 22, 2018, commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers operating vehicles that require a CDL or CLP are required to provide SDLAs with an original or a copy of the MEC, Form MCSA-5876, for entry of the medical certification status on the driver record. FMCSA has learned that some SDLAs are refusing to accept from CMV drivers the MEC, Form MCSA-5876, with an October or November, 2015 revision date. In view of the clarification in this document of the status of the MEC, Form MCSA-5876, with various revision dates, FMCSA is directing SDLAs to accept the MEC, Form MCSA-5876, with October, November, and December, 2015 revision dates until existing stocks are depleted. SDLAs should also be accepting the versions that were posted on April 13, 2016, on the FMCSA and National Registry Web sites that no longer include a revision date in the top left corner and the current version of the MER Form, MCSA-5875, that is posted on the FMCSA and National Registry Web sites that no longer includes the Privacy Act Statement on page one. On the other hand, SDLAs should not accept versions of the MEC that have not been approved by OMB and do not display both the FMCSA form number (MCSA-5876) and the OMB expiration date of August 31, 2018. The final versions of the forms published on the FMCSA and National Registry Web sites are shown below for your reference.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Final rule.
We, NMFS, issue a final determination to designate the Sakhalin Bay-Nikolaya Bay-Amur River Stock of beluga whales (
This final rule is effective November 28, 2016.
Copies of supporting documents, including the status review, the proposed rule, and a list of references cited in the final rule, are available via the Federal e-rulemaking Portal, at
Shannon Bettridge,
Section 115(a) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1383b(a)) allows interested parties to petition NMFS to initiate a status review to determine whether a species or stock of marine mammals should be designated as depleted. On April 23, 2014, we received a petition from the Animal Welfare Institute, Whale and Dolphin Conservation, Cetacean Society International, and Earth Island Institute (petitioners) to “designate the Sakhalin Bay-Amur River stock of beluga whales as depleted under the MMPA.” We published a notification that the petition was available (79 FR 28879; May 20, 2014). After evaluating the petition, we determined that the petition contained substantial information indicating that the petitioned action may be warranted (79 FR 44733; August 1, 2014). Following the determination that the petitioned action may be warranted, we convened a status review team and conducted a status review to evaluate
Although the Sakhalin Bay-Nikolaya Bay-Amur River stock of beluga whales does not occur in waters under the jurisdiction of the United States, we have authority to designate the stock as depleted if we find that the stock is below its optimum sustainable population (OSP). Section 115(a) of the MMPA provides NMFS with the authority to designate “a species or stock” of marine mammals as depleted and sets forth the procedures the agency must follow to make such a designation. 16 U.S.C. 1383b(a)(1). The MMPA defines “depleted” as
NMFS has previously used its authority under section 115(a) to designate as depleted, two stocks of marine mammals that occur entirely outside of waters under the jurisdiction of the United States: The northeastern stock of offshore spotted dolphin and the eastern stock of spinner dolphin.
A status review for the population stock of beluga whales addressed in this rule was conducted by a status review team (Bettridge
As required by the MMPA, we consulted with the Marine Mammal Commission (Commission) related to the petition to designate the Sakhalin Bay-Amur River group of beluga whales as a depleted population stock. In a letter dated December 7, 2015, the Commission recommended we take a precautionary approach and define the Sakhalin Bay-Amur River stock to include whales in Nikolaya Bay and promptly publish a proposed rule under section 115(a)(3)(D) of the MMPA to designate this stock as depleted.
Beluga whales are found throughout much of the Sea of Okhotsk, including Shelikov Bay in the northeast and throughout the western Sea of Okhotsk including the Amur River estuary, the nearshore areas of Sakhalin Bay, in the large bays to the west (Nikolaya Bay, Ulbansky Bay, Tugursky Bay and Udskaya Bay), and among the Shantar Islands. Use of the bays and estuaries in the western Sea of Okhotsk is limited primarily to summer months when belugas may molt (Finley 1982) and give birth to and care for their calves (Sergeant and Brodie 1969). The whales move into the ice-covered offshore areas of the western Sea of Okhotsk in the winter (Melnikov 1999). In the status review and the preamble to the proposed rule, we refer to the beluga whales found in the Amur River estuary and the nearshore areas of Sakhalin Bay during summer as the Sakhalin Bay-Amur River beluga whales.
The preamble to the proposed rule summarized additional general background information on the Sea of Okhotsk beluga whales' natural history, range, reproduction, population structure, distribution, abundance, and threats. That information has not changed and is not repeated here.
The MMPA defines “population stock” as “a group of marine mammals of the same species or smaller taxa in a common spatial arrangement, that interbreed when mature” (MMPA section 3(11)). NMFS' guidelines for assessing stocks of marine mammals (NMFS 2005) state that many different types of information can be used to identify stocks, reproductive isolation is proof of demographic isolation, and demographically isolated groups of marine mammals should be identified as separate stocks. NMFS has interpreted “demographically isolated” as “demographically independent” (see, for example, Weller
NMFS considered the following lines of evidence regarding the Sakhalin Bay-Amur River beluga whales to answer the question of whether the group comprises a stock: (1) Genetic comparisons among the summering aggregations in the western Sea of Okhotsk; (2) movement data collected using satellite transmitters; and (3) geographical and ecological separation (site fidelity). This information was discussed in detail in the preamble to the proposed rule and is not repeated here. In summary, multiple lines of evidence indicate that Sakhalin Bay-Amur River beluga whales are their own stock or are a stock that also includes whales that summer in Nikolaya Bay. The status review team's evaluation of whether the Sakhalin Bay-Amur River stock is discrete or includes whales in
None of the information regarding the identification of the Sakhalin Bay-Nikolaya Bay-Amur River group of beluga whales as a population stock has changed since we published the proposed rule, and we received no new information through the public comment period that would cause us to reconsider our previous finding as reflected in the preamble to the proposed rule. Thus, all of the information contained in the preamble to the proposed rule with respect to identifying the Sakhalin Bay-Nikolaya Bay-Amur River group of beluga whales as a population stock is reaffirmed in this final action. Therefore, based on the best scientific information available as presented in the status review report, the preamble to the proposed rule, and this final rule, NMFS is identifying the Sakhalin Bay-Nikolaya Bay-Amur River group of beluga whales as a population stock.
Section 3(1)(A) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1362(1)(A)) defines the term “depletion” or “depleted” to include any case in which “the Secretary, after consultation with the Marine Mammal Commission and the Committee of Scientific Advisors (CSA) on Marine Mammals . . . determines that a species or a population stock is below its optimum sustainable population.” Section 3(9) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1362(9)) defines “optimum sustainable population . . . with respect to any population stock, [as] the number of animals which will result in the maximum productivity of the population or the species, keeping in mind the carrying capacity [(K)] of the habitat and the health of the ecosystem of which they form a constituent element.” NMFS' regulations at 50 CFR 216.3 clarify the definition of OSP as a population size that falls within a range from the population level of a given species or stock that is the largest supportable within the ecosystem (
A population stock below its MNPL is, by definition, below OSP and, thus, would be considered depleted under the MMPA. Historically, MNPL has been expressed as a range of values (between 50 and 70 percent of K) determined on a theoretical basis by estimating what stock size, in relation to the historical stock size, will produce the maximum net increase in population (42 FR 12010; March 1, 1977). In practice, NMFS has determined that stocks with populations under the mid-point of this range (
One technique NMFS has employed to estimate maximum historical abundance is the back-calculation method, which assumes that the historic population was at equilibrium, and that the environment has not changed greatly. The back-calculation approach looks at the current population and then calculates historic carrying capacity based on how much the population has been reduced by anthropogenic actions. For example, the back-calculation approach was applied in the management of the subsistence hunt of the Cook Inlet beluga whale stock (73 FR 60976, October 15, 2008). The status review team concluded, and NMFS agrees, that the back-calculation technique is the most appropriate to use in determining the abundance of the stock relative to OSP. Therefore, the status review team analyzed the status of the stock relative to carrying capacity using a back-calculation method.
The best available estimate of abundance beluga whales in the Sakhalin Bay-Amur River area is 3,961 (Reeves
As noted above, in its OSP analysis, the status review team used a 2009-2010 abundance estimate from only the Sakhalin Bay-Amur River area because there was no current abundance estimate of the Nikolaya Bay region. However, because few animals are thought to be in Nikolaya Bay in the survey period compared to the Sakhalin Bay-Amur River, the estimate accounts for nearly all of the population (Shpak
None of the information presented in the preamble to the proposed rule regarding the abundance of the Sakhalin Bay-Nikolaya Bay-Amur River stock relative to its carrying capacity or OSP has changed since we published the proposed rule, and we received no new information through the public comment period that would cause us to reconsider our previous analysis or finding as reflected in the preamble to the proposed rule. Thus, all of the information contained in the preamble to the proposed rule with respect to the depleted determination is reaffirmed in this final action. As such, based upon the best scientific information available as presented in the status review report, the preamble to the proposed rule, and this final rule, we find that the Sakhalin Bay-Nikolaya Bay-Amur River stock of beluga whales is below its OSP level, and designate the stock as a depleted stock under the MMPA. The depletion designation applies to all biological
With the publication of the proposed rule for the designation of the Sakhalin Bay-Nikolaya Bay-Amur River stock of beluga whales as depleted under the MMPA on April 5, 2016 (81 FR 19542), we announced a 60-day public comment period that closed on June 6, 2016. During the public comment period we received a total of 125 written comments on the proposed rule. Commenters included the Commission, non-governmental organizations (Environmental Investigation Agency, Defenders of Wildlife and the Humane Society of the United States, Center for Biological Diversity, Animal Welfare Institute, Orca Rescues Foundation, Orca Network, and Georgia Aquarium); eight organizations or businesses (Northwest Biotechnology Company, Perkins Coie, Alliance of Marine Mammals Parks and Aquariums, Oceans of Fun, Gulfworld Marine Park, Zoomarine Italy, and Marineland Dolphin Adventure), and 111 interested individuals (the majority of whom submitted variations of a form letter supportive of our proposed determination). We fully considered all comments received on the proposed rule in developing this final depleted determination of the Sakhalin Bay-Nikolaya Bay-Amur River stock of beluga whales.
Summaries of the substantive comments that we received concerning our proposed determination, and our responses to all of the significant issues they raise, are provided below. Comments of a similar nature were grouped together, where appropriate. In addition to the specific comments detailed below relating to the proposed determination, we also received comments expressing general support for or opposition to the proposed rule and comments conveying peer-reviewed journal articles, technical reports, and references to scientific literature regarding threats to the species and stock determination. Unless otherwise noted in our responses below, after thorough review, we concluded that the additional information received was either considered previously or did not alter our determinations regarding the status of the Sakhalin Bay-Nikolaya Bay-Amur River stock of beluga whales.
One commenter stated that “[i]t is well established that the MMPA does not apply extraterritorially,” citing
Some commenters also asserted that the plain language of the ESA and the MMPA indicate that Congress intended the ESA—and not the MMPA—to be the regulatory system through which foreign marine mammals are protected. NMFS disagrees. The MMPA and the ESA are separate statutes with distinct frameworks for protecting and conserving marine mammals and threatened and endangered species, respectively. NMFS has the authority to list foreign species as threatened or endangered under the ESA, and NMFS also has the authority to designate foreign species or stocks as depleted
Finally, with respect to precedent, NMFS has previously used its authority under section 115(a) to designate as depleted two stocks of dolphins that occur entirely outside of waters under the jurisdiction of the United States: The northeastern stock of offshore spotted dolphin and the eastern stock of spinner dolphin.
Regarding the “dual track” regulation referenced by the commenter, a species that is listed as threatened or endangered under the ESA is automatically considered depleted under MMPA, but the converse is not true. Therefore, this MMPA depleted designation does not automatically result in any ESA protections. This depleted designation is not unprecedented; there are several species or stocks of marine mammals that have been determined to be depleted under the MMPA but are not listed under the ESA, such as the AT1 group of killer whales (69 FR 31321, June 3, 2004) and the Pribilof Island population of North Pacific fur seals (53 FR 17888, May 18, 1988).
As stated in the preamble to the proposed rule, we consulted with the Commission related to the petition to designate the Sakhalin Bay-Amur River group of beluga whales as a depleted population stock. Review of the draft status review report by the Commission, in consultation with its CSA, constituted the consultation required by section 3(1)(A). We have confirmed that the Commission consulted with its CSA in making its recommendation. We are neither required to, nor are we in a position to explain, the basis for a recommendation by another federal agency.
For the purposes of management under the MMPA, NMFS recognizes a marine mammal stock as being a management unit that identifies a demographically independent biological population. We define demographic independence to mean that the population dynamics of the affected group is more a consequence of births and deaths within the group (internal dynamics) rather than immigration or emigration (external dynamics). Thus, the exchange of individuals between population stocks is not great enough to prevent the depletion of one of the populations as a result of increased mortality or lower birth rates (NMFS 2016). Mortality includes both natural and human-caused mortality and removals from the population.
In our definition of demographic independence and in our interpretation of “interbreed when mature” we recognize that some interchange among groups may occur (
Generally, significant differences in mtDNA haplotype frequencies are interpreted as sufficient evidence for demographic independence reflecting female philopatry. Stocks, including harbor seal stocks in the North Pacific (O'Corry-Crowe
For the microsatellite data, Meschersky
NMFS believes the telemetry (tagging) data also supports our stock delineation, although we consider them to be weaker evidence, in part, because of the small number of tags. Furthermore, while the tag data reveal where animals move, they do not indicate whether interbreeding is occurring if/when animals from different stocks may overlap. However, NMFS disagrees with the commenters' assertion that “[t]he telemetry data show there is significant movement of belugas among bays in the Sea of Okhotsk in autumn and other times of the year.” Beluga whale movements from Sakhalin Bay to the Shantar region, mainly Nikolaya Bay, were recorded primarily in the fall and interpreted as the beginning of migration westward and then northwest into offshore waters for the winter. Shpak
Regarding census (abundance) data, one commenter speculated that the inter-annual differences in population estimates in the Shantar and Sakhalin-Amur regions are not a result of increases (or decreases) in insolated populations, but, rather, indicate that beluga whales move from one region to another. In support of their argument, the commenter recalculated Shpak
The commenter also discussed the relative abundance of beluga whales in the Sakhalin-Amur and Shantar regions. Regardless of which correction factors are used, the Sakhalin-Amur aggregation represents 59 percent of the total estimated number of beluga whales in the two regions in 2009 and 33 percent in 2010. The commenter asserted that the inter-annual differences in abundance are due to shifting of belugas from one region to another, which it states may be in large part due to the variation in salmon or other fish runs. The commenter cited Berzin
As stated in the status review, we acknowledge that summer aggregations of beluga whales often focus on seasonally available fish runs, like salmon runs. However, we do not agree that the abundance data indicate a single stock of beluga whales moving between regions. We evaluated the
Based upon the above, we cannot conclude that all beluga whales from the five western bays in the Sea of Okhotsk belong to a single demographically independent population; the best scientific information available supports our conclusion that the Sakhalin Bay-Nikolaya Bay-Amur River population of beluga whales is a stock. Multiple lines of evidence support this conclusion, including mtDNA differentiation, movement data, geographical/ecological separation, and similarity to other examples of MMPA stock designations outlined in the status review report (
The MMPA requires NMFS to prepare a conservation plan and restore any stock designated as depleted to its OSP level, unless NMFS determines that such a plan would not promote the conservation of the stock. We have determined that a conservation plan would not further promote the conservation of the Sakhalin Bay-Nikolaya Bay-Amur River stock of beluga whales given that NMFS does not manage the stock, and therefore do not plan to implement a conservation plan. However, as noted above, by prohibiting the importation of Sakhalin Bay-Nikolaya Bay-Amur River beluga whales into the United States for the purpose of public display, this depleted designation will provide intrinsic conservation benefits that may reduce the impacts of live captures to this stock.
As noted above, a direct result of this depleted designation is that importation of whales from this stock into the United States for purposes of public display is prohibited. This may reduce the impacts of live captures, but does not directly address the remaining threats to this population.
This rule has been determined to be not significant for the purposes of Executive Order 12866.
Similar to ESA listing decisions, which are based solely on the best scientific and commercial information available, depleted designations under the MMPA are determined “solely on the basis of the best scientific information available.” 16 U.S.C. 1533(b)(1)(A) and 16 U.S.C. 1383b(a)(2). Because ESA listings are thus exempt from the requirement to prepare an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (
When the proposed rule was published, the Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration that this rule would not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. (81 FR 19546, April 5, 2016). This rule designates a group of beluga whales in Russian waters (known as the Sakhalin Bay-Nikolaya Bay-Amur River group) as depleted; however, this rule would not, by itself, directly regulate the public, including any small entities. The MMPA authorizes NMFS to take certain actions to protect a stock that is designated as depleted. For example, a stock that is designated as depleted meets the definition of a strategic stock under the MMPA. Under provisions of the MMPA, a take reduction team must be established and a take reduction plan developed and implemented within certain time frames if a strategic stock of marine mammals interacts with a Category I or II commercial fishery. However, NMFS has not identified any interactions between commercial fisheries and this group of beluga whales that would result in such a requirement. In addition, under the MMPA, if NMFS determines that impacts on areas of ecological significance to marine mammals may be causing the decline or impeding the recovery of a strategic stock, it may develop and implement conservation or management measures to alleviate those impacts. However, NMFS has not identified information sufficient to make any such determination for this group of beluga whales. The MMPA also requires NMFS to prepare a conservation plan and restore any stock designated as depleted to its OSP, unless NMFS determines that such a plan would not promote the conservation of the stock. NMFS has determined that a conservation plan would not promote the conservation of the Sakhalin Bay-Nikolaya Bay-Amur River stock of beluga whales and therefore does not plan to implement a conservation plan. In summary, this final rule will not directly regulate the public. If any subsequent restrictions placed on the public to protect the Sakhalin Bay-Nikolaya Bay-Amur River stock of beluga whales are included in separate regulations, appropriate analyses under the Regulatory Flexibility Act would be conducted during those rulemaking procedures.
The MMPA prohibits the importation of any marine mammal designated as depleted for purposes of public display (see 16 U.S.C. 1371(a)(3)(B) and 1372(b)). Therefore, this rule will have the indirect effect of prohibiting the future importation of any marine mammal from this stock into the United States for purposes of public display. There are 104 facilities in the United States that house marine mammals for the purposes of public display. Of these, only six facilities house beluga whales. There are currently twenty-seven beluga whales at these facilities. None of these beluga whales were taken in the wild from the Sakhalin Bay-Nikolaya Bay-Amur River stock; three whales are progeny of animals taken in the wild from this stock. NMFS receives very few requests to import beluga whales into the United States for purposes of public display and has no pending requests to import beluga whales for public display. NMFS notes the small number of U.S. entities that house beluga whales and the small number of beluga whales from this stock that are currently permitted for public display in the United States. Because this rule will not prevent an entity from requesting to import a beluga whale from a non-depleted stock for purposes of public display, NMFS found that this rule would not result in a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. NMFS invited comment from members of the public to provide any additional information on NMFS determination that the rule will not result in a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. NMFS did not receive any comment on this issue. As a result, no regulatory flexibility analysis for this final rule has been prepared.
This final rule does not contain a collection-of-information requirement for purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1980.
This final rule does not contain policies with federalism implications sufficient to warrant preparation of a federalism assessment under Executive Order 13132.
Administrative practice and procedure, Exports, Imports, Marine mammals, Transportation.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR part 216 is amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1361
(j) Sakhalin Bay-Nikolaya Bay-Amur River beluga whales (
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Proposed rule.
We are proposing to amend the regulations governing the importation of plants for planting to add orchid plants of the genus
We will consider all comments that we receive on or before December 27, 2016.
You may submit comments by either of the following methods:
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Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at
Ms. Lydia E. Colón, Regulatory Policy Specialist, Plants for Planting Policy, PPQ, APHIS, 4700 River Road, Unit 133, Riverdale, MD 20737; (301) 851-2302.
The regulations in 7 CFR part 319 prohibit or restrict the importation into the United States of certain plants and plant products to prevent the introduction of plant pests and noxious weeds. The regulations in “Subpart—Plants for Planting,” §§ 319.37 through 319.37-14 (referred to below as the regulations) contain, among other things, prohibitions and restrictions on the importation of plants, plant parts, and seeds for propagation.
Paragraph (a) of § 319.37-8 of the regulations requires, with certain exceptions, that plants offered for importation into the United States be free of sand, soil, earth, and other growing media. This requirement is intended to help prevent the introduction of plant pests that might be present in the growing media; the exceptions to the requirement take into account factors that mitigate that plant pest risk. Those exceptions, which are found in paragraphs (b) through (e) of § 319.37-8, consider either the origin of the plants and growing media (paragraph (b)), the nature of the growing media (paragraphs (c) and (d)), or the use of a combination of growing conditions, approved media, inspections, and other requirements (paragraph (e)).
Paragraph (e) of § 319.37-8 provides conditions under which certain plants established in growing media may be imported into the United States. In addition to specifying the types of plants that may be imported § 319.37-8(e) also:
• Specifies the types of growing media that may be used;
• Requires plants to be grown in accordance with written agreements between the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) and the national plant protection organization (NPPO) of the country where the plants are grown and between the foreign NPPO and the grower;
• Requires the plants to be rooted and grown for a specified period in a greenhouse that meets certain requirements for pest exclusion and that is used only for plants being grown in compliance with § 319.37-8(e);
• Requires that the parent plants of the exported plants in growing media are produced from seed germinated in the production greenhouse or from mother plants that are grown and monitored for a specified period prior to export of the descendant plants;
• Specifies the sources of water that may be used on the plants, the height of the benches on which the plants must be grown, and the conditions under which the plants must be stored and packaged; and
• Requires that the plants be inspected in the greenhouse and found free of evidence of plant pests no more than 30 days prior to the exportation of the plants.
A phytosanitary certificate issued by the NPPO of the country in which the plants were grown that declares that the above conditions have been met must accompany the plants at the time of importation. These conditions have been used to successfully mitigate the risk of pest introduction associated with the importation into the United States of approved plants established in growing media.
Currently, orchid plants of genus
The regulations in § 319.37-8(g) provide that requests such as the one made by the Government of Taiwan be evaluated by APHIS using a pest risk assessment (PRA) that uses specific pest risk evaluation standards that are based on pest risk analysis guidelines established by the International Plant Protection Convention of the United Nations' Food and Agriculture Organization. Such analyses are conducted to determine the plant pest risks associated with each requested plant article and to determine whether or not APHIS should propose to allow
In the PRA, titled “Importation of
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A quarantine pest is defined in § 319.37-1 of the regulations as a plant pest of potential economic importance to the United States and not yet present in the United States, or present but not widely distributed and being officially controlled. Potential plant pest risks associated with the importation of
Accordingly, we are proposing to amend the regulations in § 319.37-8(e) by adding
This proposed rule has been determined to be not significant for the purposes of Executive Order 12866 and, therefore, has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
In accordance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act, we have analyzed the potential economic effects of this action on small entities. The analysis is summarized below. Copies of the full analysis are available by contacting the person listed under
The proposed rule would enable Taiwanese exporters to provide higher-valued, mature
Taiwan is the world's largest orchid exporter, with international sales in 2013 totaling $166.3 million. That year,
The United States imported more than 6,400 metric tons of live orchids valued at $79.4 million in 2015. Orchid imports from Taiwan comprised almost 77 percent of this value, at $61.4 million. In comparison, the value of orchid plants produced in the United States in 2014 was $300 million, with
U.S.
Under these circumstances, the Administrator of the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service has determined that this action would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
This proposed rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. If this proposed rule is adopted: (1) All State and local laws and regulations that are inconsistent with this rule will be preempted; (2) no retroactive effect will be given to this rule; and (3) administrative proceedings will not be required before parties may file suit in court challenging this rule.
To provide the public with documentation of APHIS' review and analysis of any potential environmental impacts associated with the proposed importation of
The environmental assessment may be viewed on the
In accordance with section 3507(d) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
APHIS is proposing to amend the regulations governing the importation of plants and plant products to add orchid plants of the genus
We are soliciting comments from the public (as well as affected agencies) concerning our proposed information collection and recordkeeping requirements. These comments will help us:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper performance of our agency's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the burden of the proposed information collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the information collection on those who are to respond (such as through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology;
A copy of the information collection may be viewed on the
The Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service is committed to compliance with the EGovernment Act to promote the use of the Internet and other information technologies, to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes. For information pertinent to E-Government Act compliance related to this proposed rule, please contact Ms. Kimberly Hardy, APHIS' Information Collection Coordinator, at (301) 851-2727.
Coffee, Cotton, Fruits, Imports, Logs, Nursery stock, Plant diseases and pests, Quarantine, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Rice, Vegetables.
Accordingly, we propose to amend 7 CFR part 319 as follows:
7 U.S.C. 450, 7701-7772, and 7781-7786; 21 U.S.C. 136 and 136a; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.3.
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Proposed rule.
We are proposing to amend the fruits and vegetables regulations to allow the importation of Hass avocados from Colombia into the continental United States. As a condition of entry, Hass avocados from Colombia would have to be produced in accordance with a systems approach that would include requirements for importation in commercial consignments; registration and monitoring of places of production and packinghouses; pest-free places of production; grove sanitation, monitoring, and pest control practices; lot identification; and inspection for quarantine pests by the Colombian national plant protection organization. Additionally, avocados from Colombia would be required to be accompanied by a phytosanitary certificate with an additional declaration stating that the avocados have been produced in accordance with the proposed requirements. This action would allow for the importation of Hass avocados from Colombia into the continental United States while continuing to provide protection against the introduction of plant pests.
We will consider all comments that we receive on or before December 27, 2016.
You may submit comments by either of the following methods:
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Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at
Mr. David B. Lamb, Senior Regulatory Policy Specialist, USDA/APHIS/PPQ, 4700 River Road, Unit 133, Riverdale, MD 20737-1236; (301) 851-2103;
Under the regulations in “Subpart—Fruits and Vegetables” (7 CFR 319.56-1 through 319.56-75, referred to below as the regulations or the fruits and vegetables regulations), the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) of the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) prohibits or restricts the importation of fruits and vegetables into the United States from certain parts of the world to prevent plant pests from being introduced into and spread within the United States.
The national plant protection organization (NPPO) of Colombia has requested that we amend the regulations to allow Hass avocados (
In evaluating Colombia's request, we prepared a pest risk assessment (PRA) and risk management document (RMD). Copies of the PRA and the RMD may be obtained from the person listed under
The PRA, titled “Importation of Fresh Fruit of Avocado,
The PRA identifies four pests of quarantine significance present in Colombia that could follow the pathway of Hass avocados from Colombia to the continental United States. They are:
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The PRA derives plant pest risk potentials for these pests by estimating the likelihood of introduction of each pest into the continental United States through the importation of Hass avocados from Colombia, as well as the consequences of such introduction, if the avocados are not subject to mitigations to address the pests. The PRA considers three of the pests to have a high unmitigated pest risk potential (
Based on the findings of the PRA, APHIS has determined that measures beyond standard port-of-entry inspection are necessary in order to mitigate the risk associated with the importation of fresh Hass avocados from Colombia into the continental United States. These measures are listed in the RMD and are used as the basis for the requirements of this proposed rule.
Therefore, we are proposing to amend the regulations to allow the importation of commercial consignments of fresh Hass avocados from Colombia into the continental United States, subject to a systems approach. Requirements of the systems approach, which would be added to the regulations as a new § 319.56-76, are discussed below.
Proposed paragraph (a) of § 319.56-76 would set out general requirements for fresh Hass avocados from Colombia destined for export to the continental United States.
Proposed paragraph (a)(1) would require the NPPO of Colombia to provide an operational workplan to APHIS that details the systems approach activities that the NPPO of Colombia and places of production and packinghouses registered with the NPPO of Colombia would, subject to APHIS approval of the workplan, implement to meet the proposed requirements. An operational workplan is an arrangement between APHIS' Plant Protection and Quarantine program and officials of the NPPO of a foreign government that specifies in detail the phytosanitary measures that will comply with U.S. regulations governing the import or export of a specific commodity. Other foreign parties associated with an export program, such as producers and packinghouse operators, may also be signatories on specific operational workplans. Operational workplans apply only to the signatories and establish detailed procedures and guidance for the day-to-day operations of specific import/export programs. Operational workplans also establish how specific phytosanitary issues are dealt with in the exporting country and make clear who is responsible for dealing with those issues. Operational workplans require APHIS approval.
If the operational workplan is approved, APHIS would be directly involved with the NPPO of Colombia in monitoring and auditing the systems approach implementation. Such monitoring could involve site visits by APHIS personnel.
Proposed paragraph (a)(2) would require the avocados considered for export to the continental United States to be grown by places of production that are registered with the NPPO of Colombia and that have been determined to be free from
Proposed paragraph (a)(3) would require the avocados to be packed for export to the continental United States in pest-exclusionary packinghouses that are registered with the NPPO of Colombia.
Registration of places of production and packinghouses with the NPPO of Colombia would ensure that the NPPO exercises oversight of these locations and that the places of production and packinghouses continuously follow the provisions of the export program. It would also facilitate traceback in the event that avocados from Colombia are determined to be infested with quarantine pests.
Proposed paragraph (a)(4) would require Hass avocados from Colombia to be imported into the continental United States in commercial consignments only. Noncommercial shipments are more prone to infestations because the commodity is often ripe to overripe, could be of a variety with unknown susceptibility to pests, and is often grown with little or no pest control. Commercial consignments, as defined in § 319.56-2 of the regulations, are consignments that an inspector identifies as having been imported for sale and distribution. Such identification is based on a variety of indicators, including, but not limited to: Quantity of produce, type of packaging,
The systems approach we are proposing includes monitoring and oversight requirements in paragraph (b) of proposed § 319.56-76. These requirements are to ensure that the required phytosanitary measures are properly implemented throughout the process of growing and packing of avocados for export to the United States.
Proposed paragraph (b)(1) would require the NPPO of Colombia to visit and inspect registered places of production monthly, starting at least 2 months before harvest and continuing until the end of the shipping season, to verify that the growers are complying with grove sanitation requirements (discussed below) and following pest control guidelines, when necessary, to reduce quarantine pest populations. Any personnel conducting trapping and pest surveys under this section at registered places of production would have to be hired, trained, and supervised by the NPPO of Colombia. APHIS would monitor the places of production, if necessary. We may consider it necessary to monitor a place of production, for example, if a registered place of production is suspended from the export program for avocadoes from Colombia due to the presence of quarantine plant pests at the place of production, but is subsequently reinstated after taking appropriate remedial actions to address these pests.
Under paragraph (b)(2), in addition to conducting fruit inspections at the packinghouses, the NPPO of Colombia would be required to monitor packinghouse operations to verify that the packinghouses are complying with the packinghouse requirements for pest exclusion, safeguarding, and identification that are described later in this document.
Under paragraph (b)(3), if the NPPO of Colombia finds that a place of production or a packinghouse is not complying with the proposed regulations, no avocados from the place of production or packinghouse would be eligible for export to the United States until APHIS and the NPPO of Colombia conduct an investigation and agree that appropriate remedial actions have been implemented.
Paragraph (b)(4) would require the NPPO of Colombia to retain all forms and documents related to export program activities in places of production and packinghouses for at least 1 year and, as requested, provide them to APHIS for review. Such forms and documents would include (but would not necessarily be limited to) trapping and survey records for
Under paragraph (c) of proposed § 319.56-76, avocado fruit that has fallen from the trees would have to be removed from each place of production at least once every 7 days, starting 2 months before harvest and continuing to the end of harvest. This procedure would reduce the amount of material in the groves that could serve as potential host material for insect pests.
Fruit that has fallen from avocado trees to the ground may be damaged and thus more susceptible to infestation. Therefore, proposed paragraph (c) would not allow fallen avocado fruit to be included in field containers of fruit brought to the packinghouse to be packed for export.
Proposed paragraph (d) of § 319.56-76 would require either that the avocados are grown in places of production located in departments
Section 319.56-5 specifies that, to be determined to be free of a quarantine pest, an area must be surveyed according to a survey protocol approved by APHIS, and meet the International Plant Protection Convention's International Standards for Phytosanitary Measures (ISPM) No. 4, “Requirements for the establishment of pest-free areas.” ISPM No. 4 require the NPPO to take measures to maintain the pest-free status of the area, including, but not limited to, routine monitoring or the establishment of buffer areas.
Similarly, in order for a place of production to be determined by APHIS to be free of
If one or more
Paragraph (e) of proposed § 319.56-76 sets out requirements for harvesting. Harvested avocados would have to be placed in field cartons or containers that are marked with the official registration number of the place of production. The place of production where the avocados were grown would have to remain identifiable when the fruit leaves the grove, at the packinghouse, and throughout the export process. These requirements would ensure that APHIS and the NPPO of Colombia could identify the place of production where the avocados were produced if inspectors find quarantine pests in the fruit either before export or at the port of entry.
We would require the fruit to be moved to a registered packinghouse within 3 hours of harvest or to be protected from fruit fly introduction until moved.
For a similar reason, the fruit would also have to be safeguarded in accordance with the operational workplan while in transit to the packinghouse and while awaiting packing. This safeguarding would prevent the fruit from being infested
Proposed paragraph (f) of § 319.56-76 would contain packinghouse requirements for Hass avocados from Colombia.
Paragraph (f)(1) would require registered packinghouses to accept only avocados that are from registered places of production and that are produced in accordance with the requirements of the systems approach during the time they are in use for packing avocados for export to the United States.
Paragraph (f)(2) would require avocados to be packed within 24 hours of harvest in a pest-exclusionary packinghouse. All openings to the outside of the packinghouse would have to be screened or covered by a barrier that prevents pest from entering, as specified within the operational workplan. The packinghouse would have to have double doors at the entrance to the facility and at the interior entrance to the area where the avocados are packed. These proposed requirements are designed to exclude insect pests from the packinghouse.
Paragraph (f)(3) would require the avocados to be packed in insect-proof packaging, or covered with insect-proof mesh or a plastic tarpaulin, for transport to the United States. These safeguards would have to remain intact until arrival in the United States.
Paragraph (f)(4) would require shipping documents accompanying consignments of avocados from Colombia that are exported to the United States to specify the place of production at which the avocados were grown as well as the packing shed or sheds in which the fruit was processed and packed. The identification would have to be maintained until the fruit is released for entry into the United States.
These requirements would ensure that APHIS and the NPPO of Colombia could identify the packinghouse at which the fruit was packed if inspectors find quarantine pests in the fruit either before export or at the port of entry.
Proposed paragraph (g) of § 319.56-76 would require the NPPO of Colombia to visually inspect a biometric sample of fruit from each place of production at a rate determined by APHIS, following any post-harvest processing. Visual inspection should identify
However,
If a single quarantine pest is detected during this inspection protocol, the consignment from which the sample was taken would be prohibited from being shipped to the United States. Additionally, if a single
Proposed paragraph (h) of § 319.56-76 would require each consignment of Hass avocados from Colombia to be accompanied by a phytosanitary certificate issued by the NPPO of Colombia with an additional declaration that the avocados were produced in accordance with proposed § 319.56-76 and the operational workplan.
This proposed rule has been determined to be not significant for the purposes of Executive Order 12866 and, therefore, has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
We have prepared an economic analysis for this rule. The economic analysis provides an initial regulatory flexibility analysis that examines the potential economic effects of this proposed rule on small entities, as required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act. The economic analysis is summarized below. Copies of the full analysis are available by contacting the person listed under
Colombia has requested market access for commercial shipments of Hass avocado into the continental United States under a systems approach. U.S. avocado imports have increased significantly over the years. A growing U.S. population and growing Hispanic share of the population, greater awareness of the avocado's health benefits, year-round availability of fresh, affordable Hass avocados, and greater disposable income have contributed to the increased demand.
The increase in demand over the past decade has contributed to domestic producers being able to maintain production levels despite the large increase in avocado imports. Annual U.S. avocado production, 2003/04 to 2014/15, averaged 206,368 tons, of which California accounted for 87.5 percent or over 375 million pounds. Nearly all of California's production is of the Hass variety.
Potential economic effects of this rule are estimated using a partial equilibrium model of the U.S. fresh Hass avocado sector. Colombia is expected to export 10,000 metric tons of Hass avocados annually to the United States. We estimated economic impacts for annual import levels of 10,000 and 12,000 metric tons. In addition, for the 10,000 metric ton level, we estimate impacts assuming that 20 percent of the imports would displace Hass avocado imports from other countries, yielding a net increase in imports of 8,000 metric tons.
For each import level, consumer welfare gains outweigh producer welfare losses, with positive net welfare impacts. Producer welfare losses under the three import levels range between $4 million and $6 million, which is equivalent to less than 1 percent of the 2014/2015 value of U.S. avocado production. Consumer welfare gains range between $14 million and $22 million, with net welfare gains for the United States of between $10 million and $16 million. The price of fresh Hass avocados is estimated to decline by less than 2 percent under all three import scenarios.
While APHIS does not have information on the size distribution of U.S. avocado producers, according to the Census of Agriculture there were a total of 93,020 Fruit and Tree Nut farms (NAICS 1113) in the United States in 2012. The average value of agricultural products sold by these farms was less than $274,000, which is well below the Small Business Administration's small-entity standard of $750,000. It is reasonable to assume that most avocado farms qualify as small entities. Between 2002 and 2012, the number of avocado operations in California grew by approximately 17 percent, from 4,801 to 5,602 operations.
This proposed rule would allow Hass avocados to be imported into the continental United States from Colombia. If this proposed rule is adopted, State and local laws and regulations regarding avocados imported under this rule would be preempted while the fruit is in foreign commerce. Fresh avocados are generally imported for immediate distribution and sale to the consuming public and would
In accordance with section 3507(d) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
This proposed rule would allow the importation of Hass avocados from Colombia into the continental United States. These avocados must be produced in accordance with the requirements of a systems approach and will require information collection activities, such as an operational workplan, production site and packinghouse registration, inspection, training, monitoring, investigation, survey and survey investigation protocols, carton markings, shipping documents, post-harvest inspection and investigation, recordkeeping, and phytosanitary certificates.
We are soliciting comments from the public (as well as affected agencies) concerning our proposed information collection and recordkeeping requirements. These comments will help us:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper performance of our agency's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the burden of the proposed information collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the information collection on those who are to respond (such as through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology;
A copy of the information collection may be viewed on the
The Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service is committed to compliance with the E-Government Act to promote the use of the Internet and other information technologies, to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes. For information pertinent to E-Government Act compliance related to this proposed rule, please contact Ms. Kimberly Hardy, APHIS' Information Collection Coordinator, at (301) 851-2727.
Coffee, Cotton, Fruits, Imports, Logs, Nursery stock, Plant diseases and pests, Quarantine, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Rice, Vegetables.
Accordingly, we propose to amend 7 CFR part 319 as follows:
7 U.S.C. 450, 7701-7772, and 7781-7786; 21 U.S.C. 136 and 136a; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.3.
Fresh Hass variety (
(a)
(2)
(3)
(4) Avocados may be imported in commercial consignments only.
(b)
(2) In addition to conducting fruit inspections at the packinghouses, the NPPO of Colombia must monitor packinghouse operations to verify that the packinghouses are complying with the requirements of this section.
(3) If the NPPO of Colombia finds that a place of production or packinghouse is not complying with the requirements of this section, no avocados from the place of production or packinghouse will be eligible for export to the United States until APHIS and the NPPO of Colombia conduct an investigation and agree that appropriate remedial actions have been implemented.
(4) The NPPO of Colombia must retain all forms and documents related to export program activities in places of production and packinghouses for at least 1 year and, as requested, provide them to APHIS for review.
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(2) Avocados must be packed within 24 hours of harvest in a pest-exclusionary packinghouse. All openings to the outside of the packinghouse must be screened or covered by a barrier that prevents pests from entering, as specified within the operational workplan. The packinghouse must have double doors at the entrance to the facility and at the interior entrance to the area where the avocados are packed.
(3) Fruit must be packed in insect-proof packaging, or covered with insect-proof mesh or a plastic tarpaulin, for transport to the United States. These safeguards must remain intact until arrival in the United States.
(4) Shipping documents accompanying consignments of avocados from Colombia that are exported to the United States must specify the place of production at which the avocados were grown as well as the packing shed or sheds in which the fruit was processed and packed. This identification must be maintained until the fruit is released for entry into the United States.
(g)
(h)
Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Department of Energy.
Notice of data availability (NODA).
The U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) has completed a provisional analysis to translate the residential central air conditioner and heat pump energy conservation standard levels recommended by the CAC/HP ECS Working Group—expressed in terms of the test procedure at the time of the Working Group negotiations—into levels consistent with the DOE test procedure proposed in the August 2016 test procedure SNOPR. At this time, DOE is not proposing any energy conservation standard for residential central air conditioners and heat pumps. However, it is publishing these analysis results and the underlining assumptions and calculations that might ultimately support a proposed standard. DOE
DOE will accept comments, data, and information regarding this notice of data availability (NODA) no later than November 14, 2016.
Any comments submitted must identify the NODA for central air conditioners and heat pumps, and provide docket number EERE-2014-BT-STD-0048 and/or regulatory information number (RIN) number 1904-AD37. Comments may be submitted using any of the following methods:
(1)
For further information on how to submit a comment, review other public comments and the docket, contact the Appliance and Equipment Standards Program staff at (202) 586-6636 or by email:
The Docket Number EERE-2014-BT-STD-0048, is available for review at
A link to the docket Web page can be found at:
Ms. Ashley Armstrong, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies, EE-2J, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 586-6590. Email:
Ms. Johanna Jochum, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of the General Counsel, GC-33, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 287-6307. Email:
On June 27, 2011, DOE published in the
DOE is amending its energy conservation standards for central air conditioners pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 6295(m)(1), which requires DOE to periodically review its already established energy conservation standards for a covered product. More specifically, the Energy Policy and Conservation Act of 1975 (EPCA), as amended by the Energy Independence and Security Act of 2007 (EISA 2007), requires that not later than 6 years after issuance of any final rule establishing or amending a standard, DOE must publish either a notice of determination that standards for the product do not need to be amended, or a notice of proposed rulemaking including new proposed energy conservation standards. As DOE's last final rule for residential central air conditioners and heat pumps energy conservation standards was issued on June 27, 2011, DOE must act by June 27, 2017.
On July 14, 2015, DOE published a notice of intent to form a working group to negotiate energy conservation standards for central air conditioners and heat pumps and requested nominations from parties interested in serving as members of that working group. 80 FR 40938. This working group (“CAC/HP ECS Working Group”), which ultimately consisted of 15 members in addition to one member from the Appliance Standards and Rulemaking Federal Advisory Committee (ASRAC), and one DOE representative, came to a consensus on January 19, 2016 to recommend the energy conservation standard levels outlined in the ASRAC Working Group Final Term Sheet (“the Term Sheet”). (ASRAC Working Group Term Sheet, Docket No. EERE-2014-BT-STD-0048, No. 0076). On August 24, 2016, DOE published a supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking (the August 2016 SNOPR) that incorporates some of those recommendations into DOE's test procedure for central air conditioners and heat pumps. 81 FR 58164.
Several of the Term Sheet recommendations are relevant to this NODA. Recommendation #8 of the Term Sheet recommended standard levels, in terms of SEER, EER, and HSPF, based on the test procedure that was in place at the time of the CAC/HP ECS Working Group negotiations. Recommendation #9 of the Term Sheet provided translated values, in terms of SEER2 and EER2, for some of the recommended standard levels in Recommendation #8 that would be consistent with the proposed amendments to the test procedure outlined in the November 2015 test procedure SNOPR.
Based on comments received on the November 2015 test procedure SNOPR, DOE continued work on the concurrent rulemaking to amend the CAC/HP test procedure while the CAC/HP ASRAC Working Group was negotiating the standard levels for CACs and HPs. DOE published a test procedure SNOPR on August 24, 2016 proposing revisions to the amendments of the November 2015 NOPR. 81 FR 58164. The August 2016 test procedure SNOPR included translated HSPF2 levels for split-system and single-package heat pumps, but did not include translated levels for small-
This NODA provides provisional translations of the CAC/HP Working Group's recommended energy conservation standard levels for small-duct high velocity and space constrained products (which are in terms of the test procedure at the time of the 2015-2016 Negotiations) into levels consistent with the test procedure proposed in the August 2016 test procedure SNOPR. As mentioned, translated values for all other product classes can be found in the Term Sheet
The August 2016 test procedure SNOPR made minor changes to the procedure for measuring SEER in SDHV systems. Specifically, rather than testing with external static pressure that varies with capacity from 1.1 to 1.2 inches water column (in. wc.), consistent with term sheet Recommendation #2, the August 2016 SNOPR proposed testing all SDHV units with 1.15 in wc. external static pressure. 81 FR 58163 (Aug. 24, 2016). Translation of SEER for this test procedure change would involve a slight reduction for low-capacity unit, no change for medium-capacity units, and a slight increase for high-capacity units. Rather than setting three different SEER levels for these products, DOE's translated level represents an average translation, equivalent to no change in the value. Consequently, current SEER ratings would not change should DOE adopt the test procedure proposed in the August 2016 SNOPR, per the CAC/HP Working Group's Recommendation #8 to keep the current 12 SEER standard.
The August 2016 test procedure SNOPR proposes changes to the test procedure for determining heating performance, including for SDHV systems. Consequently, HSPF2 numerical values for SDHV will be different than the current HSPF numerical values. In the August 2016 test procedure, DOE interpolated between the HSPF2 values resulting from the heating load line slope factor options presented by the CAC/HP Working Group in the Term Sheet to translate current HSPF standard levels to HSPF2 levels in terms of the proposed heating load line slope factor for split-system heat pumps. DOE found that this methodology resulted in a 15% reduction from HSPF to HSPF2 ratings. 81 FR at 58191. For SDHV heat pump products, DOE reviewed split-system heat pump test data to determine the appropriate HSPF to HSPF2 translation and found that the same 15% reduction in HSPF to HSPF2 would be appropriate to apply to SDHV heat pump products as well. Thus, to translate the CAC/HP Working Group recommendation a HSPF2 value consistent with the August 2016 test procedure SNOPR achieve the HSPF2 values presented in this NODA, DOE applied a 15% reduction to the current SDHV HSPF standard.
For the space-constrained air conditioner SEER standard level translation, DOE reviewed existing test data, adjusted relevant measurements based on indoor fan performance data to account for the test procedure changes (
The August 2016 test procedure SNOPR proposed that split-system coil-only products be tested at a minimum external static pressure of 0.5 in. wc. To adjust for this change, DOE replaced the tested indoor fan power with 441 W/1000 CFM, and recalculated the SEER rating. The 441 W/1000 CFM is the default fan power value recommended in the CAC/HP Working Group Term Sheet and proposed in the August 2016 test procedure SNOPR to represent split-system coil-only blower power consumption at 0.5 in. wc., which reduced the space-constrained coil-only SEER value by an average of 4%. ASRAC Term Sheet, No. 76 at p. 3; 81 FR at 58185 (Aug. 24, 2016). DOE applied this 4% reduction to the SEER standard level recommended by the CAC/HP Working Group (to maintain stringency equivalent to the current space constrained air conditioner 12 SEER standard) to derive the translated SEER2 level in Table 1. DOE also evaluated the impact on SEER assuming operation at 0.30 in. wc., as recommended by the CAC/HP ECS Working Group, given that the test procedure is not finalized and DOE's proposals may change. To estimate SEER at 0.30 in. wc., DOE replaced the tested indoor fan power with 406 W/1000 CFM, and recalculated the SEER rating. The 406 W/1000 CFM is the default fan power value recommended in the CAC/HP Working Group Term Sheet and proposed in the August 2016 test procedure SNOPR to represent split-
For the space-constrained heat pump SEER translation, DOE used a similar methodology as it used for space-constrained air conditioners, but the adjustments to blower power were slightly different. Section 429.16 requires that split-system heat pumps have blower-coil efficiency representations. In addition, the August 2016 test procedure SNOPR proposed that split-system coil-only products be tested at a minimum external static pressure of 0.5 in. wc., which is higher than the 0.1 to 0.2 in. wc. at which these products are currently. DOE replaced the tested indoor fan power with fan power at 0.5 in. wc. determined from product specification sheets and recalculated SEER. The tested SEER reduced by an average of 4% to 11.5, as listed in Table 1 of this preamble. DOE also evaluated the impact on SEER reduction, assuming operation at 0.30 in. wc., as recommended by the CAC/HP ECS Working Group, given that the test procedure is not finalized and DOE's proposals may change. DOE replaced the tested indoor fan power with fan power at 0.30 in. wc. determined from product specification sheets and recalculated SEER. The tested SEER reduced by an average of 1% to 11.9, as listed in Table 1 of this preamble.
For the space-constrained heat pump HSPF translation, DOE used the same methodology as it used for its SDHV system HSPF translation (
DOE is interested in receiving comments and views of interested parties concerning the translation of SEER and HSPF values to SEER2 and HSPF2 values shown in Table 1 for spaced-constrained and SDHV products.
The purpose of this NODA is to notify industry, manufacturers, consumer groups, efficiency advocates, government agencies, and other stakeholders of the publication of an analysis of potential energy conservation standards for commercial and industrial fans and blowers. Stakeholders should contact DOE for any additional information pertaining to the analyses performed for this NODA.
Federal Housing Finance Agency.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA or Agency) is issuing notice and providing an opportunity for the public to comment on proposed amendments to its regulations on minority and women inclusion. Those regulations, require the Federal National Mortgage Association (Fannie Mae), the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (Freddie Mac) (together, Enterprises), and the Federal Home Loan Banks (Banks or Bank System) (collectively, the regulated entities) and the Bank System's Office of Finance to promote diversity and ensure the inclusion and utilization of minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities and minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses in all business and activities at all levels, including management, employment, and contracting. The proposed amendments would clarify the scope of the regulated entities' obligation to promote diversity and ensure the inclusion and utilization of minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities in all business and activities; require each regulated entity to develop and adopt strategies for promoting diversity and ensuring the inclusion of minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities; and improve the usefulness and comparability of the information the regulated entities report to FHFA about their efforts to advance diversity and inclusion.
Written comments must be received on or before December 27, 2016.
You may submit your comments, identified by Regulatory Information Number (RIN) 2590-AA78, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Sharron P. A. Levine, Director, Office of Minority and Women Inclusion,
FHFA invites comments on all aspects of the proposed amendments and will take all comments into consideration before issuing a final rule. Copies of all comments received will be posted without change on the FHFA Web site at
The objectives of the proposed amendments are to:
• Ensure that the regulated entities
• Clarify that the requirement to promote diversity and inclusion applies to all the regulated entities' operational, commercial and economic endeavors, including management, employment, contracting, capital market transactions, and affordable housing and community investment programs;
• Require the regulated entities to develop a stand-alone diversity and inclusion strategic plan or incorporate diversity and inclusion into its existing strategic planning process and adopt strategies for promoting diversity and ensuring the inclusion of minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities as well as minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses;
• Require the regulated entities to amend their policies on equal opportunity in employment and contracting to include sexual orientation, gender identity, and status as a parent to the list of protected classifications;
• Encourage the regulated entities to expand contracting opportunities for minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities by working with prime contractors (tier 1) to provide subcontracting (tier 2) opportunities to minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses;
• Affirm that the regulated entities are authorized to expand the scope of their outreach and inclusion programs beyond the requirements of the Rule, which focuses on minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities; and
• Improve the usefulness and comparability of the annual reports to FHFA by requiring that the regulated entities provide information about their efforts to advance diversity and inclusion through capital market transactions, affordable housing and community investment programs, initiatives to improve access to mortgage credit, and strategies for promoting the diversity of supervisors and managers.
Section 1116 of the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008 (HERA) amended section 1319A of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (Safety and Soundness Act), (12 U.S.C. 4520), to require, in part, that the regulated entities establish or designate an office to carry out the requirements of an Office of Minority and Women Inclusion (OMWI). That office is responsible for: Fulfilling the requirements of section 1116 of HERA that include all matters relating to diversity in the entity's management, employment, and business activities; developing and implementing standards and procedures to promote diversity in all business and activities of the regulated entity; and submitting an annual report to FHFA detailing the actions taken to promote diversity and inclusion. Furthermore, 12 U.S.C. 1833e,
FHFA has adopted regulations to implement section 1116 of HERA, 12 U.S.C. 1833e, and in conformance with Executive Order 11478, as amended, to set forth the minimum requirements for the affirmative program for equal opportunity and reporting requirements for the regulated entities.
In addition, part 1207 provides that the FHFA Director has broad enforcement authority in that he or she may enforce this Rule and standards issued under it in any manner and through any means within his or her authority, including through identifying matters requiring attention, corrective action orders, directives, or enforcement actions under 12 U.S.C. 4513b and 4514.
Strategic planning is critical to the success of any organization, including the regulated entities. As noted in FHFA's Examination Manual (EM) module entitled,
• An analysis of the regulated entity's financial and operational condition;
• An assessment of internal and external risks to the regulated entity;
• An evaluation of the regulated entity's strengths and weaknesses;
• An evaluation of opportunities or potential threats facing the regulated entity;
• The financial and operational goals and realistic projections that serve as benchmarks for achieving desired results within a defined time frame;
• The process by which the regulated entity plans to reach its financial and operational goals;
• The identification of those responsible for achieving the goals; and
• A means to monitor the results on an ongoing basis.
The regulated entities are also subject to the Agency's Prudential Management and Operations Standards (PMOS) found in part 1236 of FHFA's regulations. Pursuant to the PMOS guidelines, the board of directors of each regulated entity is responsible for adopting appropriate business strategies, policies, and procedures. The PMOS guidelines also establish standards by which the board of directors is to review and approve all major strategies and policies at least annually, and make any necessary revisions to ensure consistency with the overall business plan.
FHFA regulations at 12 CFR 1239.31 provide detailed information on the strategic planning requirements for each Bank including a requirement that their board of directors have a strategic business plan in effect at all times. FHFA regulation 12 CFR 1239.31(b) requires the board of directors to (1) review the strategic business plan at least annually; (2) amend the plan as appropriate; (3) re-adopt the plan at least every three years; and (4) establish management reporting requirements and monitor implementation of the strategic business plan and the operating goals and objectives contained in it.
A significant and growing body of research provides evidence that having a diverse and inclusive workforce and leadership team benefits an organization by increasing its ability to be creative, innovative, and solutions-oriented.
Effective strategic business planning, executive sponsorship, communication, change management, project management, day-to-day execution, and measurement are all regarded as business fundamentals for most functional areas in an organization. The research supports the premise that the ability to assess the current state and measure the progress of its diversity and inclusion efforts is also a fundamental and prudent business practice.
The Rule became effective on January 27, 2011, and set forth the minimum requirements for the regulated entities' diversity and inclusion programs and reporting requirements. They responded to the new regulatory requirements by establishing an OMWI office or designating another office responsible for fulfilling the entity's OMWI responsibilities. They implemented policies, procedures, and programs to improve human resource processes for recruiting, hiring, and promoting minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities. They also focused attention on identifying diverse suppliers and improving outreach efforts to increase participation opportunities for diverse businesses. These efforts have resulted in improvements in workforce diversity and the utilization of diverse vendors. In order to advance and promote diversity and inclusion, the regulated entities currently engage in one or more of the following activities and initiatives:
• Conducting diversity and inclusion education and training sessions for their directors, managers, and employees;
• Establishing mentoring programs for employees, particularly minorities and women;
• Partnering with minority youth development organizations;
• Sponsoring internship programs for high school and college students;
• Sponsoring and/or supporting community events and celebrations;
• Establishing diversity and inclusion councils;
• Establishing and/or sponsoring employee resource or affinity groups;
• Expanding the scope of outreach activities and initiatives to target and recruit minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities for employment;
• Expanding the scope of outreach activities and initiatives to target minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses for contracting opportunities; and
• Marketing to diverse communities.
Many of these efforts and initiatives have enabled or enhanced the ability of the regulated entities to promote opportunities for minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities. While each has worked to build and improve the foundation for advancing diversity and inclusion within its organization, more can be done to expand the breadth, scope, and impact of its existing program. Gaps remain in the regulated entities' processes and approaches for assessing, planning, and executing diversity and inclusion programs that fulfill the letter and spirit of section 1116 of HERA.
The proposed amendments would revise the Rule to require each regulated entity to engage in diversity and inclusion strategic planning. They would either develop a stand-alone diversity and inclusion strategic plan or incorporate diversity and inclusion into their existing strategic planning process. Under the proposal, their board of directors must establish an organizational tone for enhanced focus on, and commitment to, diversity and inclusion. The board of director's ongoing oversight assists in creating the conditions for success by ensuring alignment with the overall strategic and operational direction of the regulated entity. Senior management teams also play an important role in the development and execution of the diversity and inclusion strategic plan.
The regulated entities have mainly focused on workforce and supplier diversity to date, largely as a result of the Rule's primary focus on requirements for establishing an OMWI, ensuring equal opportunity in employment and contracting, and developing and submitting reports on the efforts taken to promote diversity and ensure inclusion in employment and contracting. The proposed amendments emphasize the need to expand the scope of diversity and
The proposed amendments would encourage the regulated entities to develop and implement procurement programs and initiatives that expand contracting opportunities for minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities and minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses beyond contracting with prime contractors (tier 1) by using subcontracting arrangements (tier 2). This could entail negotiating subcontracting opportunities for minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities in contracts between a regulated entity and prime contractors. This could also involve entering into contracts with majority-owned businesses that advance opportunities for minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities. A new annual reporting requirement would include additional information about the number of contracts and the amounts paid to prime contractors (tier 1) for subcontracts (tier 2) with minorities or minority-owned businesses, women or women-owned businesses, and individuals with disabilities or disabled-owned businesses during the reporting year and the diverse spend with non-diverse-owned businesses.
The Rule implements 12 U.S.C. 1833e and conforms with Executive Order 11478, as amended, to require the regulated entities to commit to the principles of equal opportunity in employment and prohibit discrimination on the basis of race, color, national origin, sex, religion, age, disability status, or genetic information. Executive Orders 13087 and 13152 amended Executive Order 11478 to add sexual orientation and status as a parent to the list of protected bases.
The scope of the diversity and inclusion obligations to be satisfied by the regulated entities varies depending on the source of the authority. As previously noted, FHFA's Rule implements 12 U.S.C. 1833e, which applies the requirements of sections 1 and 2 of Executive Order 11478 to the regulated entities. Section 1 requires the regulated entities to provide equal employment opportunity for all persons, prohibit employment discrimination, and promote equal employment opportunity through a continuing affirmative program. Section 2 describes the elements of an affirmative program of equal employment opportunity, which include providing sufficient resources for administering the program in a positive and effective manner; engaging in recruitment activities that reach all sources of job candidates; fully utilizing the skills of all employees; providing employees opportunities to enhance their skills so they may perform at their fullest potential and advance in accordance with their abilities; providing training and advice to managers and supervisors to assure their understanding and implementation of the program; assuring participation at the local level with other employers, schools, and public and private groups in cooperative efforts to improve community conditions that affect employability; and providing for periodic evaluations of the effectiveness of the program.
FHFA acknowledges that diversity encompasses the broad range of demographic characteristics identified in Executive Order 11478. However, section 1116 of HERA only focuses on the responsibility of the regulated entities to promote diversity and ensure the inclusion of minorities and women. Therefore, in accordance with the statutory requirements, the primary focus of the regulatory text amendments is on advancing and promoting opportunities for minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities as well as minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses. Nonetheless, FHFA affirms that each regulated entity is authorized to expand the scope of its diversity program beyond the requirements of Executive Order 11478, section 1116 of HERA, and the regulations at 12 CFR part 1207. As a result, each regulated entity is encouraged to incorporate other aspects of diversity and inclusion (
FHFA proposes to add, revise, or remove several definitions in § 1207.1 to clarify the existing and new regulatory requirements under part 1207. Where FHFA proposes to add or revise terms, FHFA has reviewed several external sources in search of industry standard definitions. FHFA has determined that there is no uniformly accepted term of art or single source for the newly proposed terms, so FHFA has adapted the substance found in multiple external definitions
FHFA proposes to add definitions for “Applicant” and “Promotion” to clarify the scope of the information the regulated entities are required to report to FHFA under existing § 1207.23(b)(3) and § 1207.23(b)(7). FHFA is proposing a new definition of “Diversity and inclusion strategic planning” that would describe the process the regulated entities must engage in to develop strategies for promoting diversity and ensuring the inclusion of minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities.
FHFA proposes to add definitions for “Prime contractor (tier 1)” and “Subcontractor (tier 2)” to identify two types of contracting arrangements available to the regulated entities to promote diversity and the inclusion of minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities and minority-,
FHFA proposes to add a definition for “Minority-serving financial institution” that would be used by the regulated entities in their efforts to promote access to single- and multi-family mortgage credit, including an assessment of the challenges and impediments financial institutions that primarily serve minorities face in their efforts to access the secondary mortgage market. The proposed definition closely follows the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation's (FDIC) Policy Statement Regarding Minority Depository Institutions
FHFA is proposing to revise the definition of “Women-owned business” by removing one of the standards used to determine whether a business qualifies as a women-owned business. The existing definitions for minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses include criteria for determining the diverse status of a business based on who owns or controls the business as well as who accrues the profits or losses generated by the business. The existing definition of “Women-owned business” also includes a criterion based on the percentage of senior management positions held by one or more women. FHFA believes this criterion is unnecessary due to the emphasis the existing definition places on ownership and control. The proposed removal of this criterion for women-owned businesses would bring consistency to the Rule's standards for determining ownership and control of minority- and disabled-owned businesses. FHFA is also proposing to revise the definitions of “Disabled-owned business,” “Minority-owned business,” and “Women-owned business” by clarifying that ownership can be direct or indirect. By revising the definition, FHFA wishes to encourage each regulated entity to develop and implement procurement programs and initiatives without regard to the distinction between businesses owned by individuals/natural persons and legal persons, such as corporations, as long as the ultimate ownership benefits are held by predominantly disabled, minority, or women owners.
Finally, FHFA is proposing to remove the definitions for “Director,” “FHFA,” “Office of Finance,” and “regulated entity” because they are now defined in 12 CFR part 1201, which defines terms that apply to all FHFA regulations.
FHFA proposes to revise § 1207.2(c) to address the scope of each regulated entity's responsibility to promote diversity and ensure the inclusion and utilization of minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities and minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses. The proposed regulatory language would place emphasis on the requirement to promote diversity and ensure inclusion when awarding contracts for goods and services.
FHFA is proposing to revise existing § 1207.3(b), which currently requires each regulated entity's contracts for goods over $10,000 to include a material clause that commits the contractor to practice the principles of equal employment opportunity and nondiscrimination and to submit demographic data reports with respect to their workforce. FHFA proposes to increase the material clause threshold to $25,000 to alleviate administrative burdens the regulated entities encounter when routinely purchasing lower-value goods such as materials and supplies necessary for day-to-day operations. However, FHFA welcomes comments on the potential impact the proposed threshold change could have on small businesses and, specifically, on the dollar amount of the threshold.
FHFA is also proposing to add paragraphs (c) and (d) to existing § 1207.3. Proposed § 1207.3(c) would require each regulated entity to submit to FHFA within 90 days after the effective date of the amended Rule, a list of the types of contracts it considers exempt under § 1207.3(b) and any thresholds, exceptions, and limitations it establishes for implementing § 1207.21(c)(2). Proposed § 1207.3(d) would then require each regulated entity to notify FHFA within 30 days after any additional changes to the list.
FHFA is proposing to revise paragraphs (b) and (c) of § 1207.20 to clarify that a regulated entity's board of directors has ultimate responsibility for achieving the requirements of part 1207—not the regulated entity's OMWI (or office designated to perform the responsibilities of part 1207). The proposed revision would clarify that the OMWI is responsible for leading the regulated entity's efforts to promote diversity and inclusion, and that any officer(s) designated to direct and oversee the diversity and inclusion programs has/have the necessary qualifications to effectively administer the requirements of part 1207.
FHFA is proposing to revise the title of existing § 1207.21 from “Equal opportunity in employment and contracting” to “Promoting diversity and ensuring inclusion in all business and activities” to accurately reflect the scope of requirements for advancing diversity and ensuring inclusion in all activities and at every level of the regulated entity, including management, employment and contracting.
FHFA is proposing to amend § 1207.21(a) to add sexual orientation, gender identity, and status as a parent to the list of bases covered under each regulated entity's equal opportunity statement as required by 12 U.S.C. 1833e, and in conformance with Executive Order 11478.
FHFA is proposing to add a new paragraph to § 1207.21(b)(3) to address the statutory requirement in section 1116(b) of HERA that the regulated entities establish processes that give consideration to the diversity of an applicant when reviewing and evaluating contract proposals and hiring service providers. The proposed rule would require them to develop procedures it would implement for giving consideration to diversity when reviewing and considering contract proposals and hiring service providers.
Proposed § 1207.21(b)(7) would require each regulated entity to establish effective procedures for engaging in diversity and inclusion strategic planning. FHFA is also proposing to revise its allowance that the regulated entities may establish, where commercially reasonable, thresholds, exceptions, and limitations for implementing § 1207.21(b)(7) (proposed
Proposed § 1207.21(d) would require each regulated entity to develop and implement strategies for promoting diversity and ensuring the inclusion of minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities and minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses. The board-approved strategies would cover three years and be reviewed and affirmed by the board of directors annually.
Proposed § 1207.21(e)(1) through (e)(3) would establish the minimum requirements for developing a diversity and inclusion strategic plan. The requirements would complement the guidance that has been provided in FHFA's EM,
• A vision and/or mission statement for fulfilling § 1207.2;
• Measurable goals and objectives for achieving the vision and/or mission statement; and
• A requirement that senior management develop and implement action plans for monitoring and achieving the measurable goals and objectives.
FHFA is proposing to revise § 1207.23(b)(3) and (b)(7) to substitute the word “applicants” as defined in § 1207.1 for the words “individuals applying” to clarify the scope of information the regulated entities are required to report to FHFA.
Proposed § 1207.23(b)(9) through (b)(23) revises and/or supplements the minimum requirements for the annual report submitted by each regulated entity. Proposed § 1207.23(b)(9) would require them to report on the diversity of their supervisors and managers as well as provide a description of the strategies and activities it implemented to promote diverse individuals to supervisory or managerial roles. Proposed § 1207.23(b)(12) would require each regulated entity to provide a description of the strategies, initiatives, and activities it implemented to advance diversity and inclusion in conjunction with capital market or financial transactions, efforts to promote access to credit, and affordable housing and community investment programs. Proposed § 1207.23(b)(16) and § 1207.23(b)(17) would require each regulated entity to report the number and dollar amounts of contracts entered into during the preceding year that it considered exempt under § 1207.3(b). The proposed amendments would also require reporting on the number and dollar amounts of prime contracts and subcontracts that prime contractors had with minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities and minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses. Proposed § 1207.23(b)(18) would require that the regulated entity report on diversity spend with non-diverse-owned businesses. Proposed § 1207.23(b)(19) would require the regulated entity to provide the total amounts paid to prime contractors and subcontractors and the percentage that was paid to diverse vendors.
Finally, the proposed amendments would remove most references to the “Office of Finance” found in the existing regulation. The proposed change would neither alter nor reduce the Office of Finance's responsibility to promote diversity and inclusion and would serve to streamline the text of the regulatory requirements. Therefore, FHFA is proposing to add § 1207.25 to explain that any reference to the regulated entities in part 1207 also applies to the Office of Finance, unless the Office of Finance is otherwise specifically addressed or excluded.
Section 1313(f) of the Safety and Soundness Act, as amended by section 1201 of HERA, requires the Director, when promulgating regulations relating to the Banks, to consider the differences between the Banks and the Enterprises with respect to the Banks' cooperative ownership structure; mission of providing liquidity to members; affordable housing and community development mission; capital structure; and joint and several liability. The Director may also consider any other differences that are deemed appropriate. In preparing this proposed rule, the Director has considered the differences between the Banks and the Enterprises as they relate to the above factors and has determined that the proposed rule would not adversely affect the Banks taking into account all of the above factors.
The proposed regulation does not contain any information collection requirement that requires the approval of the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
Disability, Discrimination, Diversity, Equal employment opportunity, Government contracts, Minority businesses, Office of Finance, Outreach, Regulated entities.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, under the authority of 12 U.S.C. 4526, FHFA proposes to amend part 1207 of title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
12 U.S.C. 4520 and 4526; 12 U.S.C. 1833e; E.O. 11478.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(1) The regulated entity acted to fill a particular position;
(2) The individual followed the regulated entity's standard process for submitting an application;
(3) The individual's expression of interest indicates that the individual possesses the basic qualifications for the position; and
(4) The individual has not removed him or herself from consideration or otherwise indicated that he or she is no longer interested in the position.
(1) Qualified as a Service-Disabled Veteran-Owned Small Business Concern as defined in 13 CFR 125.8 through 125.13; or
(2) More than fifty percent (50%) of the ownership or control of which is held, directly or indirectly by one or more persons with a disability; and
(3) More than fifty percent (50%) of the net profit or loss of which accrues to one or more persons with a disability.
(1) More than fifty percent (50%) of the ownership or control of which is held, directly or indirectly, by one or more minority individuals; and
(2) More than fifty percent (50%) of the net profit or loss of which accrues to one or more minority individuals.
(1) More than fifty percent (50%) of the ownership or control of which is held, directly or indirectly, by one or more women; and
(2) More than fifty percent (50%) of the net profit or loss of which accrues to one or more women.
The revision reads as follows:
(c)
(b) The contract clause required by § 1207.21(b)(6) and the itemized data reporting on numbers of contracts and amounts involved required under §§ 1207.22 and 1207.23(b)(13) through (22) apply only to contracts for services in any amount and to contracts for
(c) Within ninety (90) days after the effective date of this regulation each regulated entity shall submit to FHFA a list of the types of contracts it considers exempt under § 1207.3(b) and any thresholds, exceptions, and limitations the regulated entity establishes for the implementation of § 1207.21(c)(2). The submission shall address the criteria identified in § 1207.21(b)(9).
(d) Each regulated entity shall notify FHFA within thirty (30) days after any change in the types of contracts it considers exempt under § 1207.3(b) or any change in the thresholds, exceptions, and limitations the regulated entity establishes for the implementation of § 1207.21(c)(2).
(b)
(c)
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a)
(b) * * * The policies and procedures of each regulated entity, at a minimum, shall:
(2) Describe its practices and principles for prohibiting discrimination in employment and contracting;
(3) Give consideration to minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses when reviewing and evaluating contract proposals as required under § 1207.2(c);
(4) Attempt to resolve complaints of discrimination in employment and in contracting. Publication will include at a minimum making the procedure conspicuously accessible to employees and applicants through print, electronic, or alternative media formats, as necessary, and through the regulated entity's Web site;
(5) Accept, review, and grant or deny requests for reasonable accommodations of disabilities from employees or applicants for employment;
(7) Develop a stand-alone diversity and inclusion strategic plan or incorporate into its existing strategic plan a diversity and inclusion plan that proactively focuses on promoting the advancement of diversity and inclusion. The stand-alone diversity and inclusion strategic plan and the incorporated diversity and inclusion plan are hereinafter referred to as the diversity and inclusion strategic plan;
(9) Identify the types of contracts the regulated entity considers exempt under § 1207.3(b) and any thresholds, exceptions, and limitations the regulated entity establishes for the implementation of § 1207.21(c)(2). The policies and procedures must describe the following:
(i) The rationale and need for the thresholds, exceptions, or limitations;
(ii) The criteria used to implement the thresholds, exceptions, or limitations; and
(iii) Any negative or adverse impact the implementation of the thresholds, exceptions, or limitations would likely have on contracting opportunities for minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities, and minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses.
(10) Be published and made accessible to employees, applicants for employment, contractors, potential contractors, and members of the public through print, electronic, or alternative media formats, as necessary, and through the regulated entity's Web site; and
(d)
(e)
(1) A vision and/or mission statement that address the importance of promoting diversity and ensuring the inclusion of minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities in order to fulfill § 1207.2;
(2) Measurable strategic goals and objectives for accomplishing the agreed-upon priorities and intended outcomes developed to advance diversity and ensure the inclusion of minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities at the regulated entity in accordance with § 1207.2; and
(3) A requirement to create and implement action plans to achieve the strategic goals and objectives and management reporting requirements for monitoring the implementation of those goals and objectives.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(9) Data showing for the reporting year by minority, gender, and disability classification—
(i) The number of individuals responsible for supervising employees and/or managing the functions or departments of the regulated entity; and
(ii) A description of the strategies, initiatives, and activities executed during the preceding year to promote diverse individuals to supervisory and management roles;
(12) A description of strategies, initiatives, and activities the regulated entity implemented to advance diversity and inclusion in conjunction with its efforts to—
(i) Promote access to single- and multi-family mortgage credit by—
(A) Assessing challenges and impediments minority-serving financial institutions face in accessing the secondary mortgage market and/or providing access to single- and multi-family mortgage credit for creditworthy borrowers; and
(B) Supporting lenders who serve minority communities;
(ii) Promote diversity in capital market transactions by—
(A) Assessing challenges and impediments minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses face providing capital market or financial transaction services including, but not limited to, those identified in § 1201.1; and
(B) Identifying, considering, and selecting minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses to participate in capital market or financial transactions;
(iii) Promote diversity and inclusion in affordable housing and community investment programs;
(14) Cumulative data separately showing the total number of contracts in place at the beginning of the reporting year as well as those entered into during the reporting year;
(15) Cumulative data separately showing the total amount paid for contracts in place at the beginning of the reporting year as well as those entered into during the reporting year;
(16) Cumulative data separately showing the total number of contracts entered into during the reporting year that were—
(i) Considered exempt under § 1207.3(b);
(ii) Prime contracts (tier 1) entered into with minorities or minority-owned businesses, women or women-owned businesses, and individuals with disabilities or disabled-owned businesses;
(iii) Subcontractor (tier 2) contracts that prime contractors (tier 1) entered into with minorities or minority-owned businesses, women or women-owned businesses, and individuals with disabilities or disabled-owned businesses;
(17) Cumulative data separately showing the total amount paid for contracts entered into during the reporting year that were—
(i) Considered exempt under § 1207.3(b);
(ii) To prime contractors (tier 1) that are minorities or minority-owned businesses, women or women-owned businesses, and individuals with disabilities or disabled-owned businesses in place at the beginning of the reporting year as well as those entered into during the reporting year;
(iii) To subcontractors (tier 2) that are minorities or minority-owned businesses, women or women-owned businesses, and individuals with disabilities or disabled-owned businesses in place at the beginning of the reporting year;
(18) Cumulative data separately showing the total diversity spend with non-diverse-owned businesses during the reporting year;
(19) The annual total of amounts paid to prime contractors (tier 1) and subcontractors (tier 2) and the percentage of which was paid separately through prime contracts and subcontracts to minorities or minority-owned businesses, women or women-owned businesses, and individuals with disabilities or disabled-owned businesses during the reporting year;
(23) A comparison of the data reported under paragraphs (b)(13) through (19) of this section with the same information reported for the previous year;
All parts of this regulation and the standards issued under it shall apply to the Office of Finance, as defined in § 1201.1, in the same manner in which it applies to the regulated entities, unless the Office of Finance is otherwise specifically addressed or excluded.
Federal Housing Finance Agency.
Proposed rule; correction and extension of comment period.
The Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) is correcting the regulatory text, and extending the comment period for, the proposed rule published in the
The comment period for the proposed rule published September 20, 2016, at 81 FR 64357, is extended. Comments should be received on or before December 21, 2016.
You may submit your comments, identified by Regulatory Information Number (RIN) 2590-AA68, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Mark D. Laponsky, Deputy General Counsel,
FHFA invites comments on all aspects of the 2016 proposed rulemaking and will take all comments into consideration before issuing the final rule. Copies of all comments will be posted without change, including any personal information you provide, such as your name, address, email address, and telephone number, on the FHFA Web site at
In the
In proposed rule FR Doc. 2016-22483, on page 64360, in the issue of September 20, 2016, in the right column, in paragraph (b)(3) of § 1231.4, should correctly read: “Amounts due under an indemnification agreement entered into with a named entity-affiliated party on or prior to September 20, 2016.”
The proposed rule requested that the public submit comments by November, 21, 2016. FHFA hereby extends the deadline for submitting comments by an additional 30 days, to December 21, 2016.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve revisions to the Texas State Implementation Plan (SIP) submitted by the State of Texas that pertain to particulate matter standards and outdoor burning regulations. The State submitted the SIP revisions in the years 1989, 2004, 2006, and 2014. This rulemaking action is being taken under section 110 of the Federal Clean Air Act (CAA). The EPA has determined that the SIP revisions are approvable and meet the requirements established in section 110 of the CAA.
Written comments must be received on or before November 28, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket No. EPA-R06-OAR-2014-0222, at
Mr. Randy Pitre, (214) 665-7299,
Throughout this document wherever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean the EPA.
Section 110 of the CAA requires states to develop air pollution regulations and control strategies to ensure that air quality meets the EPA's National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS). These NAAQS are established under section 109 of the CAA and they currently address six criteria pollutants: Carbon monoxide, nitrogen dioxide, ozone, lead, particulate matter, and sulfur dioxide. The state's air regulations are contained in its SIP, which is basically a clean air plan. Each state is responsible for developing SIPs to demonstrate how the NAAQS will be achieved, maintained, and enforced. The SIP must be submitted to EPA for approval and any changes a state makes to the approved SIP also must be submitted to the EPA for approval.
As detailed in the Technical Support Document (TSD) accompanying this action, the Texas Commission on Environmental Quality (TCEQ or “the State”) submitted revisions to 30 Texas Administrative Code (TAC) Chapter 111, Subchapters 203, 209 and 211. The TCEQ also asked that we remove from the SIP a prior version of the now repealed rule (30 TAC Section 111.155) that we previously approved into the SIP as Rule 105.2, titled “Ground Level Concentrations” that limit ground level concentrations of particulate matter emissions in Texas. See 27 FR 10842 (May 31, 1972).
In the August 21, 1989 SIP submittal, the TCEQ repealed Rule 105.2 and adopted the newly renumbered 30 TAC Section 111.155 to replace it. In an October 28, 1999 (64 FR 57983) direct final rulemaking action, we proposed to approve the newly renumbered Section 111.155 into the Texas SIP. However, we received an adverse comment on inclusion of Section 111.155 (formerly 105.2) into the SIP. We therefore withdrew that October 28, 1999 action. See 64 FR 70592 (December 17, 1999). In our final action to that rulemaking, we stated that we were no longer taking action to approve Section 111.155 into the SIP. See 80 FR 19145 (April 28, 2009). Subsequently, the TCEQ adopted the repeal of Section 111.155 from their State rules. In the State's June 9, 2006 SIP submittal, the TCEQ asked EPA to remove from consideration a currently pending SIP request (the August 21, 1989, SIP submittal) to include 30 TAC Section 111.155 into the SIP. It also asked us to remove the former 105.2 rule from the SIP. Our analysis, available in our TSD in the rulemaking docket, finds that removal of Rule 105.2 (subsequently renumbered by the State as 111.155) is approvable. In 1971, EPA promulgated primary and secondary NAAQS for particulate matter (PM), measured as “total suspended particulate matter” or “TSP.” On July 1, 1987, (52 FR 24634) following the initial review of the standard, EPA announced its decision to replace TSP as the indicator for PM for ambient standards with particles with an aerodynamic diameter less than or equal to a nominal 10 micrometers (PM
The State's November 15, 2004 SIP submittal requests that EPA approve an amendment to 30 TAC Section 111.209, Exception for Disposal Fires, which allows the disposal of animal remains by veterinarians. Specifically, the November 15, 2004, SIP submittal revises 30 TAC Section 111.209(3) to authorize the use of outdoor burning of animal remains for veterinarians in accordance with Texas Occupations Code (TOC), Section 801.361, Disposal of Animal Remains. This revision to the State's rules was necessary for TCEQ rules to be consistent with State law and to more precisely define when and where such animal remains could be burned by referencing the current state code of practice for veterinarians. The TOC, Section 801.361 addresses what can be burned (
The July 18, 2006, SIP submittal revises 30 TAC Section 111.203 to prohibit the burning of household refuse in a limited demographic area on lots of less than five acres, making it a Class C misdemeanor under Texas law if someone knowingly or intentionally burns in such an area. 30 TAC Section 111.209 was amended to make a distinction between allowable burning in areas of attainment and nonattainment, and to incorporate all currently SIP-approved controls at 30 TAC Section 111.219. Additional amended regulations were included in the July 18, 2006, SIP submittal which included regulations to require signs at designated specific residential
The March 3, 2014 SIP submittal revises 30 TAC Section 111.211 to allow prescribed burns for the purpose of wildfire hazard mitigation. The submitted revision allows prescribed burning in other areas, such as where rural areas interface with urban areas, for the purpose of wildfire hazard mitigation in order to reduce the incidence, intensity, and spread of wildfires. The EPA submitted comments to the TCEQ during the State's public comment period. The State responded to our comments and those were included as part of the SIP submittal. We have reviewed the State's evaluation of our comments and agree that the revision is not allowing an additional activity with the addition of wildfire hazard mitigation, since the TCEQ already has the ability to allow prescribed burns for wildfire hazard mitigation purposes on a case by case basis. The purpose of the revision is to better facilitate the process of allowing prescribed burns for wildfire hazard mitigation and thereby reduce the chance of emissions of pollutants that could be emitted in an uncontrolled wildfire. Our analysis, available in our TSD in the rulemaking docket, finds that the revisions to 30 TAC Section 111.211 are not significant, are approvable and would not interfere with attainment of the NAAQS or prevent any reasonable further progress in obtaining the NAAQS or any other applicable requirement of the CAA.
We are proposing to approve the Texas SIP revisions dated from 1989, 2004, 2006 and 2014. Specifically, we are proposing to approve the August 21, 1989 and the June 9, 2006 submittals that repealed the Rule 105.2 (subsequently renumbered 30 TAC Section 111.155). We are proposing to approve the November 15, 2004, submittal that revises 30 TAC Section 111.209. We are proposing to approve the July 18, 2006, submittal that adopted amendments to 30 TAC Section 111.203 and 30 TAC Section 111.209 that revises 30 TAC Subchapter B “Emissions Limits.” We are also proposing to approve the March 3, 2014, submittal that adopted amendments to 30 TAC Section 111.211 with revisions to Subchapter B.
In this action, we are proposing to include in a final rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with the requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, we are proposing to incorporate by reference revisions to the Texas regulations as described in the Proposed Action section above. We have made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely proposes to approve state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the proposed rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
Franklin County, Idaho is a rural and sparsely populated county adjacent to Cache County, Utah. In 2009, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) designated Cache County, along with Franklin County, as part of the multi-state Logan, Utah-Idaho fine
Written comments must be received on or before November 28, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R10-OAR-2015-0067 at
Jeff Hunt, Air Planning Unit, Office of Air and Waste (AWT-150), Environmental Protection Agency, Region 10, 1200 Sixth Ave, Suite 900, Seattle, WA 98101; telephone number: (206) 553-0256; email address:
Throughout this document, wherever “we”, “us” or “our” are used, it is intended to refer to the EPA.
On July 18, 1997, the EPA established the 1997 PM
On October 17, 2006, the EPA strengthened the 24-hour PM
On March 2, 2012, the EPA issued “Implementation Guidance for the 2006 24-Hour Fine Particulate (PM
On January 4, 2013, the D.C. Circuit Court issued a decision in
Prior to the January 4, 2013 Court decision, states had worked towards meeting the air quality goals of the 2006 PM
With respect to the requirements for attainment plans, the EPA notes that the general nonattainment area planning requirements are found in subpart 1, and the Moderate area planning requirements for particulate matter are found in subpart 4. The EPA has a longstanding general guidance document that interprets the 1990 amendments to the CAA commonly referred to as the “General Preamble” (57 FR 13498, April 16, 1992). The General Preamble addresses the relationship between subpart 1 and subpart 4 requirements and provides recommendations to states for meeting statutory requirements for particulate matter nonattainment planning. Specifically, the General Preamble explains that requirements applicable to Moderate area nonattainment SIPs are set forth in subpart 4, but such SIPs must also meet the general nonattainment planning provisions in subpart 1, to the extent these provisions “are not otherwise subsumed by, or integrally related to,” the more specific subpart 4 requirements (57 FR 13538). In addition, on August 24, 2016, the EPA issued a final rule establishing requirements applicable to nonattainment areas for current and future PM
The requirements of subpart 1 for attainment plans include: (i) The section 172(c)(1) requirements for reasonably available control measures (RACM), reasonably available control technology (RACT) and attainment demonstrations; (ii) the section 172(c)(2) requirement to demonstrate reasonable further progress (RFP); (iii) the section 172(c)(3) requirement for emissions inventories; (iv) the section 172(c)(5) requirements for a nonattainment new source review (NSR) permitting program; and (v) the section 172(c)(9) requirement for contingency measures.
Several subpart 4 requirements for Moderate areas are comparable with subpart 1 requirements and include: (i) The section 189(a)(1)(A) NSR permit program requirements; (ii) the section 189(a)(1)(B) requirements for an attainment demonstration; (iii) the section 189(a)(1)(C) requirements for RACM; and (iv) the section 189(c) requirements for RFP and quantitative milestones. In addition, under subpart 4 the Moderate area attainment date is no later than the end of the 6th calendar year after designation.
The EPA has evaluated the 2012 SIP submittal and 2014 amendment to determine whether they meet the applicable Clean Air Act (CAA) requirements. Based on this evaluation, the EPA is proposing to approve certain provisions and disapprove other provisions of the 2012 SIP submittal and 2014 amendment.
The attainment plan elements that the IDEQ submitted for Franklin County included base year and attainment year emissions inventories that addressed direct particulate matter emissions and all particulate matter precursors, an analysis of RACM and RACT, contingency measures, and reasonable further progress addressed through the attainment demonstration. The attainment plan's strategy for controlling direct and precursor PM
The applicable attainment planning requirements under subpart 4 (section 189(a) and (b)) depend on whether the nonattainment area is classified as Moderate or Serious. In response to the Court's decision in
On May 14, 2014, we proposed approval of the baseline emissions inventory included as part of Idaho's 2012 submittal (79 FR 27543). The emissions inventory covered direct PM
The December 14, 2012 attainment plan submitted by the IDEQ included permanent and enforceable Franklin County, City of Clifton, City of Dayton, Franklin City, City of Oxford, City of Preston, and City of Weston ordinances implementing the mandatory woodstove curtailment and burn ban programs. The IDEQ's Air Quality Index (AQI) program supports the local jurisdictions by instituting mandatory burn bans for uncertified woodstoves when PM
In our March 25, 2014 action, the EPA also approved road sanding agreements between the IDEQ, Franklin County Road and Bridge, and the Idaho Transportation Department to reduce the contribution of primary PM
The CAA requirements of subpart 4 include a demonstration that a nonattainment area will meet applicable NAAQS within the timeframe provided in the statute (section 189(a)(1)(B)). For the 2006 PM
Section 189(a)(1)(B) requires that a Moderate area nonattainment plan contain either a demonstration that the plan will provide for attainment by the applicable attainment date, or a demonstration that attainment by such date is impracticable. Due to the multi-state nature of the shared Logan UT-ID air shed and the location of the violating monitor in Logan, Utah, the Utah Department of Air Quality (UDAQ) conducted the attainment demonstration for the entire nonattainment area with IDEQ's active participation. This attainment demonstration was included in Appendix D of IDEQ's 2012 SIP submittal. In response to the EPA's 2014 Classification and Deadline Rule, IDEQ again worked with the UDAQ to update the attainment demonstration with new modeling based on more recent emission inventory information. This updated modeling, cited in the 2014 amendment, demonstrated attainment by the subpart 4 attainment date of December 31, 2015.
The EPA is proposing to disapprove the attainment demonstration because the area did not, in fact, attain the NAAQS by December 31, 2015.
In evaluating the 2012 SIP submission and 2014 amendment under the requirements of subpart 4, control of direct PM
The EPA's interpretation of section 189(e) and section 172 indicates that consideration of all precursors is necessary for PM
Subpart 4 expressly requires control of precursors from major stationary sources where direct PM from major sources is controlled unless certain conditions are met; however, other sources of precursors may also need to be controlled for the purposes of demonstrating attainment as expeditiously as practicable in a given area. Thus, the statute requires states with Moderate nonattainment areas to evaluate available control measures for all sources of direct PM
As discussed in the EPA's 1992 General Preamble, in the event that a state's attainment plan includes controls on major stationary sources for PM
The General Preamble describes the assessment of precursors as specific to each nonattainment area, and acknowledges that the determination of precursor significance would likely vary based on the characteristics of the area-wide nonattainment problem. The General Preamble further provides that in making a determination regarding the significance of precursors, the EPA will rely on technical information presented in the state's submittal, including filter analysis, the relative contribution to overall nonattainment, the selected control strategies, as well as other relevant factors (57 FR 13541). The recent PM
The IDEQ's 2012 SIP submittal contained a detailed analysis of the Logan UT-ID air shed (see Appendix A, Special Air Quality Studies, PM
The general SIP planning requirements for nonattainment areas under subpart 1 include section 172(c)(1), which requires implementation of all RACM (including RACT). The CAA section 172(c) indicates that what constitutes RACM or RACT is related to what is necessary for attainment in a given area, as the provision states that nonattainment plans shall provide for attainment of the NAAQS in the area covered by the attainment plan.
The SIP requirements under subpart 4 likewise impose upon states an obligation to develop attainment plans that impose RACM and RACT on sources within a nonattainment area. Section 189(a)(1)(C) requires that states with areas classified as Moderate nonattainment areas must have SIP provisions to assure that RACM and RACT level controls are implemented by no later than four years after designation of the area. As with subpart 1, the terms RACM and RACT are not defined within subpart 4. Nor do the provisions of subpart 4 specify how states are to meet the RACM and RACT requirements. However, the EPA's longstanding guidance in the General Preamble provides recommendations for appropriate considerations for determining what control measures constitute RACM and RACT for purposes of meeting the statutory requirements of subpart 4.
The EPA's guidance for RACM under subpart 4 in the General Preamble includes: (1) A list of some potential measures for states to consider; (2) a statement of the EPA's expectation that the state will provide a reasoned explanation for a decision not to adopt a particular control measure; (3) recognition that some control measures might be unreasonable because the emissions from the affected sources in the area are
With respect to RACT requirements, the EPA's existing guidance in the General Preamble: (1) Noted that RACT has historically been defined as “the lowest emission limit that a source is capable of meeting by the application of control technology that is reasonably available considering technological and economic feasibility;” (2) noted that RACT generally applies to stationary sources, both stack and fugitive emissions; (3) suggested that major stationary sources be the minimum starting point for a state's RACT analysis; and (4) recommended that states evaluate RACT not only for major stationary sources, but for other source categories as needed for attainment and considering the feasibility of controls.
For both RACM and RACT, the EPA notes that an overarching principle is that if a given control measure is not needed to attain the relevant NAAQS in a given area as expeditiously as practicable, then that control measure would not be required as RACM or RACT because it would not be reasonable to impose controls that are not in fact needed for attainment purposes. In making recommendations for the subpart 4 RACM and RACT requirements, the focus is upon the process to identify emissions sources, to evaluate potential emissions controls, and to impose those control measures that are reasonable and that are necessary to bring the area into attainment as expeditiously as practicable, but by no later than the attainment date for the area. The only exception is if the economically and technically feasible measures not necessary to attain by the outermost attainment date and adopted as RACT/RACM will collectively advance attainment by at least a year. If that is the case, the additional measures must be adopted.
The new PM
Consistent with EPA guidance at the time, the IDEQ evaluated which measures would constitute RACM and RACT in Franklin County.
1. The IDEQ evaluated the technical and economic feasibility of establishing a motor vehicle inspection and
2. As discussed above, the General Preamble suggests that major stationary sources be the minimum starting point for a state's RACT analysis and recommended that states evaluate RACT not only for major stationary sources, but for other source categories as needed for attainment and considering the feasibility of controls. In developing the emissions inventories underlying the 2012 SIP submittal and 2014 amendment, the criteria of 40 CFR 51 for air emissions reporting requirements under the EPA's National Emissions Inventory (NEI) was used to establish a 100 tpy threshold for identifying stationary point sources. For Franklin County there are no point sources with the potential to emit 100 tpy of PM
3. As previously discussed in the Control Measures section, the IDEQ submitted road sanding agreements negotiated between the IDEQ, Franklin County Road and Bridge, and the Idaho Department of Transportation to reduce PM
4. As previously discussed in the Control Measures section, the EPA approved the permanent and enforceable Franklin County, City of Clifton, City of Dayton, Franklin City, City of Oxford, City of Preston, and City of Weston ordinances implementing the mandatory woodstove curtailment and burn ban program (79 FR 16201, March 25, 2014). The EPA is now proposing to determine that these ordinances already approved into the Idaho SIP satisfy our criteria for RACM under subpart 1 and subpart 4. The EPA also notes that because the ordinances banned the sale or installation of non-EPA certified devices in new or existing buildings in Franklin County jurisdictions, the three woodstove change-out programs conducted in 2006-2007, 2011-2012, and 2013-2014, that replaced 212 units, can be considered to have permanent,
The EPA is proposing to approve the woodstove curtailment, device restrictions and burn ban control measures discussed above, and already incorporated into the SIP, as meeting the requirements of RACM. We are proposing to approve IDEQ's determination that an I&M program for Franklin County is not economically feasible under RACM. We are also proposing to approve IDEQ's determination that RACT controls are not necessary given the lack of stationary sources in the county.
Under the attainment plan requirements, an area must implement all reasonable control measures that are not necessary to attain by the outermost attainment date, if such measures would advance the date of attainment by an estimated one year. At the time of the IDEQ's December 24, 2014 amendment, the State and the EPA had access to monitoring data showing that it would not be possible to advance attainment by one year (December 31, 2014) due to expected 3-year average of 24-hour PM
As discussed in the “Characterization of the Franklin County Air Shed” section above, secondary formation of ammonium nitrate (NH
IDEQ's analysis of potential control measures under RACM was informed by the emissions inventory for the area (see pages 23-29 of the 2012 submittal). As discussed above, many of the source categories in the Franklin County portion of the nonattainment area have negligible emissions due to the sparse population and rural nature of the county. IDEQ then analyzed the emissions inventory for SO
Contingency measures are additional measures to be implemented in the event that an area fails to attain a standard by its attainment date, or fails to meet Reasonable Further Progress (RFP).
The EPA explained that the April 16, 1992 General Preamble provided the following guidance: “States must show that their contingency measures can be implemented without further action on their part and with no additional rulemaking actions such as public hearings or legislative review. In general, EPA will expect all actions needed to affect full implementation of the measures to occur within 60 days after EPA notifies the State of its failure.” (57 FR at 13512). The statute requires that contingency measures provide for additional emission reductions that are not relied on for RFP or attainment and that are not included in the demonstration. The purpose of contingency measures is to provide a cushion while the plan is being revised to meet the missed milestone and continue progress towards expeditious attainment. In other words, contingency
In its 2012 SIP submittal, the IDEQ relied on two sets of measures as contingency measures: Idaho control measures that had already been adopted and implemented but which were not included or accounted for in UDAQ's attainment demonstration modeling; and the contingency measures included in Utah's 2012 SIP submission. IDEQ asserted that such measures collectively would achieve emission reductions resulting in a 0.2 μg per year reduction, equaling one year's worth of emission reductions necessary to achieve RFP at the time of IDEQ's 2012 submittal. While the IDEQ asserts that the 0.2 μg per year reduction would occur, the reductions are not quantified in the UDAQ modeling. The EPA is therefore proposing to disapprove the IDEQ's contingency measure plan element.
For PM
The IDEQ's 2012 SIP submittal was developed to meet the subpart 1 RFP requirements, and the 2014 amendment was intended to address the D.C. Circuit's determination that the subpart 4 requirements apply to PM
While the specific RFP and quantitative milestones requirements were not satisfied in the SIP submittals, the IDEQ's attainment plan did contain control measures that were implemented after the area was designated nonattainment. For example, the woodstove curtailment and burn ban ordinances were adopted and in place during the summer and fall of 2012. In addition, the woodstove change-out programs conducted in 2006-2007 and 2011-2012, had already commenced and achieved sustained and quantifiable emission reductions of 8.04 tons per year (tpy) PM
Section 176(c) of the CAA requires Federal actions in nonattainment and maintenance areas to “conform to” the goals of SIPs. This means that such actions will not cause or contribute to violations of a NAAQS, worsen the severity of an existing violation, or delay timely attainment of any NAAQS or any interim milestone. Actions involving Federal Highway Administration (FHWA) or Federal Transit Administration (FTA) funding or approval are subject to the transportation conformity rule (40 CFR part 93, subpart A). Under this rule, metropolitan planning organizations (MPOs) in nonattainment and maintenance areas coordinate with state air quality and transportation agencies, the EPA, the FHWA, and the FTA to demonstrate that their long-range transportation plans and transportation improvement programs (TIPs) conform to applicable SIPs. This demonstration is typically determined by showing that estimated emissions from existing and planned highway and transit systems are less than or equal to the motor vehicle emissions budgets (budgets) contained in a SIP.
For budgets to be approvable, they must meet, at a minimum, the EPA's adequacy criteria (40 CFR 93.118(e)(4)). One of the adequacy criteria requires that motor vehicle emissions budgets when considered together with all other emissions sources, are consistent with the applicable requirements for reasonable further progress, attainment or maintenance (40 CFR 93.118(e)(4)((iv)). In this case the applicable requirement is attainment of the 2006 24-hour PM
This section explains the consequences of a disapproval of a SIP under section 110(k) of the Act. The Act provides for the imposition of sanctions and the promulgation of a federal implementation plan (FIP) if a state fails to submit and the EPA approve a plan revision that corrects the deficiencies identified by the EPA in its disapproval.
If the EPA finalizes disapproval of a required SIP submission, such as an attainment plan submission, or a portion thereof, section 179(a) provides for the imposition of sanctions unless the deficiency is corrected within 18 months of the final rulemaking of disapproval. The first sanction would apply 18 months after the EPA disapproves the SIP. Under EPA's sanctions regulations, 40 CFR 52.31, the first sanction imposed at 18 months following a disapproval is 2:1 offsets for sources subject to the new source review requirements under section 173 of the Act. If the deficiency remains uncorrected at 24 months after the disapproval a second sanction is imposed consisting of a prohibition on the approval or funding of certain highway projects.
In addition to sanctions, if the EPA finds that a state failed to submit the required SIP revision or finalizes disapproval of the required SIP revision, or a portion thereof, the EPA must promulgate a FIP no later than 2 years from the date of the finding if the deficiency has not been corrected within that time period.
One consequence if EPA finalizes disapproval of a control strategy SIP submission is a conformity freeze.
The EPA is proposing to approve the woodstove curtailment ordinances, burn ban, heating device restrictions and woodstove change-out programs as meeting RACM requirements. However, for the reasons set forth above and because the area failed to attain by the December 31, 2015 attainment date, we are proposing to determine that the IDEQ has not satisfied the attainment demonstration, the contingency measures, the RFP and quantitative milestone, and the motor vehicle emission budget requirements for the Franklin County portion of the Logan UT-ID area. As such, we are proposing to disapprove these elements.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land in Idaho or any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a revision to the Louisiana State Implementation Plan (SIP) submitted by the State of Louisiana through the Louisiana Department of Environmental Quality (LDEQ) on August 11, 2016 that addresses regional haze (RH) for the first planning period. This revision was submitted to address deficiencies identified in a previous action regarding requirements of the Federal Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) and the EPA's rules that require states to prevent any future and remedy any existing man-made impairment of visibility in mandatory Class I areas caused by emissions of air pollutants from numerous sources located over a wide geographic area (also referred to as the “regional haze program”). This action concerns Best Available Retrofit Technology for certain sources.
Written comments must be received on or before November 28, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket No. EPA-R06-OAR-2016-0520, at
Jennifer Huser, 214-665-7347,
Throughout this document wherever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean the EPA.
In the Clean Air Act (CAA) Amendments of 1977, Congress established a program to protect and improve visibility in the Nation's national parks and wilderness areas. See CAA section 169A. Congress amended the visibility provisions in the CAA in 1990 to focus attention on the problem of regional haze. See CAA section 169B. The EPA promulgated regional haze regulations in 1999 to implement sections 169A and 169B of the CAA. These regulations require states to develop and implement plans to ensure reasonable progress toward improving visibility in mandatory Class I Federal areas
Regional haze is impairment of visual range or colorization caused by air pollution, principally fine particulate, produced by numerous sources and activities, located across a broad regional area. The sources include but are not limited to, major and minor stationary sources, mobile sources, and area sources including non-anthropogenic sources. These sources and activities may emit fine particles (PM
Section 169A of the CAA directs states to evaluate the use of retrofit controls at certain larger, often uncontrolled, older stationary sources with the potential to emit greater than 250 tons per year (tpy) or more of any visibility impairing pollutant in order to address visibility impacts from these sources. Specifically, section 169A(b)(2)(A) of the Act requires states to revise their SIPs to contain such measures as may be necessary to make
We promulgated regulations addressing Regional Haze in 1999, 64 FR 35714 (July 1, 1999), codified at 40 CFR part 51, subpart P.
On June 13, 2008, Louisiana submitted a SIP to address regional haze. EPA acted on that submittal in two separate actions. The first was a limited disapproval (77 FR 33641) because of deficiencies in the state's regional haze SIP submittal arising from the remand by the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia to the EPA of the Clean Air Interstate Rule (CAIR). The second was a partial limited approval/partial disapproval (77 FR 39425) because the SIP revision met some but not all of the applicable requirements of the CAA and EPA's regulations as set forth in sections 169A and 169B of the CAA and in 40 CFR 51.300-308, but as a whole, the SIP revision strengthened the SIP. The deficiencies included inadequate Best Available Retrofit Technology (BART) determinations for four facilities. These four facilities are the only non-electric generating unit (EGU) facilities in Louisiana that were identified as being subject to BART and are referred to as the non-EGU facilities.
On August 11 2016, Louisiana submitted a SIP revision intended to address the deficiencies related to BART for the four non-EGUs.
The four non-EGU facilities are: Phillips 66 Company-Alliance Refinery; Mosaic Fertilizer LLC, Uncle Sam Plant; Eco-Services Operations Corp.; and Sid Richardson Carbon Co., Addis Plant. For three facilities (Phillips 66, Eco-Services, and Sid Richardson), LDEQ had submitted a BART analysis under 40 CFR 51.308(e)(1)(ii)(A). For each of these facilities, we determined, in our July 3, 2012 notice, that the BART analysis satisfied part, but not all, of the requirements. We also found that LDEQ had erred in exempting Mosaic from BART by using future controls and visibility impacts rather than assessing controls that were in place at the time of the SIP submittal.
In its August 11, 2016 SIP submittal, LDEQ provided revised BART analyses for the three facilities to address the deficiencies noted in the previous Regional Haze SIP action. LDEQ has also provided a BART analysis for Mosaic. A summary of our proposed findings for these facilities is provided below. For more details, please see our evaluation of the BART determination for each of these four subject-to-BART sources in the TSD.
The Sid Richardson Carbon Company's Addis Plant is located in West Baton Rouge Parish, Louisiana. For the BART eligible units at the facility, LDEQ submitted in the original Regional Haze SIP a BART engineering analysis; for particulate matter the LDEQ determined that the high efficiency fabric filters already in use at the facility are BART. EPA found that the LDEQ acted within its discretion in making this determination and that the analyses met the BART requirements. However, the EPA found that the BART analysis for NO
The original modeling that was performed showed that the facility had an impact that was above the contribution threshold of 0.5 deciview level for determining which sources are subject to BART. The Addis plant model results were 0.756 deciviews.
In response to the EPA action, Sid Richardson revised the BART analysis and updated the modeling. The facility requested permission to perform a new round of modeling using the same emissions parameters that were used in the original model but utilizing the newest EPA approved methods and guidance documents. EPA reviewed and concurred with the methodology and modeling results provided by Sid Richardson. Based on this analysis, LDEQ concluded that the facility is not subject-to-BART because its model visibility impact was less than 0.5 deciviews. We have evaluated LDEQ's submittal and propose to approve the Sid Richardson BART analysis and modeling and the LDEQ's finding that the Addis plant is not subject-to-BART.
The Phillips 66 Company (Phillips 66) owns and operates the Alliance Refinery near Belle Chasse, Louisiana, which is a subject-to-BART source.
In our initial action on Louisiana Regional Haze, we approved LDEQ's BART determinations for several other subject to BART units at the Alliance Refinery. These units include the cooling water tower, gas-fired heaters, loading docks, and the coke transfer and storage area. See 77 FR at 39432. However, at that time, LDEQ did not submit the BART emissions limits for approval into the SIP. The BART emissions limits for these units are also included in AOC No. AE-AOC-14-00211A.
EPA proposes to find that the current controls installed and operating conditions at these subject to BART units constitute BART. The emissions limits for all of the subject to BART units at the Alliance Refinery are included in the AOC in accordance with 40 CFR 51.308(4)(e). Upon EPA approval of this portion of the Regional Haze SIP submittal, the AOC becomes federally enforceable. We propose to approve the BART analysis and the emission limits for Phillips 66 as meeting the BART requirements.
Mosaic Fertilizer, LLC, owns and operates the Uncle Sam Plant (Mosaic) in St. James Parish, Louisiana and produces phosphoric acid and sulfuric acid. In our previous action, we partially disapproved Louisiana's Regional Haze SIP for failure to identify Mosaic as subject to BART and failure to submit a BART determination for Mosaic.
In Louisiana's initial Regional Haze SIP submittal, the LDEQ used a contribution threshold of 0.5 dv for determining which sources are subject to BART, and we approved this threshold in our previous action. See, 77 FR at 11849. The Regional Haze Rule states that a BART eligible source can only be exempted from being subject to BART if its visibility impacts at the time the SIP is developed are less than the screening value. See, 70 FR 39118; 77 FR at 11849.
In the original Regional Haze SIP submittal, the LDEQ properly identified Mosaic as a BART eligible source consistent with the BART Guidelines. However, LDEQ's initial SIP submittal inappropriately allowed Mosaic to screen out based on controls that were not installed at the time of the submittal. LDEQ accepted Mosaic's modeling, which was based on future controls that were to be installed on the A-Train Sulfuric Acid Stack. Based on the modeling results, the LDEQ listed the facility as passing both the screening modeling as well as the refined modeling. As such, LDEQ erroneously determined that the facility was not subject to BART and, therefore, was not required to perform a BART analysis.
In our final action (77 FR at 39429), we determined that the state should have identified the Mosaic facility as being subject to BART and submitted a BART determination for the source. Mosaic entered into a CD with the EPA, LDEQ and other parties on December 23, 2009.
The Eco-Services Operations Corp facility (Eco-Services) is a sulfuric acid plant located in Baton Rouge, Louisiana.
In the July 23, 2012 action (77 FR at 39426), EPA found that with the selected control strategy, the Eco-Services units met the BART requirements at 40 CFR part 51, Appendix Y.OV.D.1.9.
In the BART analysis, Eco-Services identified both a short term and long term limit control level for SO
We are proposing to approve Louisiana's Regional Haze SIP revision submitted on August 11, 2016. Specifically, we are proposing to find that the following elements have satisfied the federal requirement:
• the State's identification of BART-eligible sources,
• the State's determination that Sid Richardson Addis Plant is not subject to BART,
• the State's BART determinations for Phillips 66, Eco-Services, and Mosaic.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely proposes to approve state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the proposed rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur dioxides, Visibility, Interstate transport of pollution, Regional haze, Best available control technology.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of filing of petition and request for comment.
This document announces the Agency's receipt of an initial filing of a pesticide petition requesting the establishment or modification of regulations for residues of pesticide chemicals in or on various commodities.
Comments must be received on or before November 28, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0083, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
Michael L. Goodis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
1.
2.
3.
EPA is announcing receipt of a pesticide petition filed under section 408 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA), 21 U.S.C. 346a, requesting the modification of regulations in 40 CFR part 180 for residues of a pesticide chemical in or on a food commodity. The Agency is taking public comment on the request before responding to the petitioner. EPA is not proposing any particular action at this time. EPA has determined that the pesticide petition described in this document contains data or information prescribed in FFDCA section 408(d)(2), 21 U.S.C. 346a(d)(2); however, EPA has not fully evaluated the sufficiency of the submitted data at this time or whether the data supports granting of the pesticide petition. After considering the public comments, EPA intends to evaluate whether and what action may be warranted. Additional data may be needed before EPA can make a final determination on this pesticide petition.
Pursuant to 40 CFR 180.7(f), a summary of the petition that is the subject of this document, prepared by the petitioner, is included in a docket EPA has created for this rulemaking. The docket for this petition is available at
As specified in FFDCA section 408(d)(3), 21 U.S.C. 346a(d)(3), EPA is publishing notice of the petition so that the public has an opportunity to comment on this request for the establishment or modification of regulations for residues of pesticides in or on food commodities. Further information on the petition may be obtained through the petition summary referenced in this unit.
21 U.S.C. 346a.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of filing of petition and request for comment.
This document announces the Agency's receipt of an initial filing of a pesticide petition requesting the establishment or modification of regulations for residues of pesticide chemicals in or on various commodities.
Comments must be received on or before November 28, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0594, by one of the following methods:
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Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
Michael Goodis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
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3.
EPA is announcing receipt of a pesticide petition filed under section 408 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA), 21 U.S.C. 346a, requesting the establishment or modification of regulations in 40 CFR part 180 for residues of pesticide chemicals in or on various food commodities. The Agency is taking public comment on the request before responding to the petitioner. EPA is not proposing any particular action at this time. EPA has determined that the pesticide petition described in this document contains data or information prescribed in FFDCA section 408(d)(2), 21 U.S.C. 346a(d)(2); however, EPA has not fully evaluated the sufficiency of the submitted data at this time or whether the data supports granting of the pesticide petition. After considering the public comments, EPA intends to evaluate whether and what action may be warranted. Additional data may be needed before EPA can make a final determination on this pesticide petition.
Pursuant to 40 CFR 180.7(f), a summary of the petition that is the subject of this document, prepared by the petitioner, is included in a docket EPA has created for this rulemaking. The docket for this petition is available at
As specified in FFDCA section 408(d)(3), 21 U.S.C. 346a(d)(3), EPA is publishing notice of the petition so that the public has an opportunity to comment on this request for the establishment or modification of regulations for residues of pesticides in or on food commodities. Further information on the petition may be obtained through the petition summary referenced in this unit.
21 U.S.C. 346a.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
EPA is proposing significant new use rules (SNURs) under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) for three chemical substances which were the subject of premanufacture notices (PMNs). The applicable review periods for the PMNs submitted for these chemical substances all ended prior to June 22, 2016, the date on which President Obama signed into law the Frank R. Lautenberg Chemical Safety for the 21st Century Act which amends TSCA). This action would require persons who intend to manufacture (defined by statute to include import) or process any of the chemical substances for an activity that is designated as a significant new use by this proposed rule to notify EPA at least 90 days before commencing that activity. The required notification initiates EPA's evaluation of the intended use within the applicable review period. Manufacture and processing for the significant new use is unable to commence until EPA has conducted a review of the notice, made an appropriate determination on the notice, and take such actions as are required with that determination.
Comments must be received on or before November 28, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2015-0810, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
You may be potentially affected by this action if you manufacture, process, or use the chemical substances contained in this proposed rule. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
Manufacturers (including importers) or processors of one or more subject chemical substances (NAICS codes 325 and 324110),
This action may also affect certain entities through pre-existing import certification and export notification rules under TSCA. Chemical importers are subject to the TSCA section 13 (15 U.S.C. 2612) import certification
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2.
EPA is proposing these SNURs under TSCA section 5(a)(2) for three chemical substances which were the subject of PMNs P-15-276, P-15-378, and P-15-559. These SNURs would require persons who intend to manufacture or process any of these chemical substances for an activity that is designated as a significant new use to notify EPA at least 90 days before commencing that activity. In accordance with the procedures at § 721.160(c)(3)(i), in the
Section 5(a)(2) of TSCA (15 U.S.C. 2604(a)(2)) authorizes EPA to determine that a use of a chemical substance is a “significant new use.” EPA must make this determination by rule after considering all relevant factors, including the four bulleted TSCA section 5(a)(2) factors listed in Unit III. Once EPA determines that a use of a chemical substance is a significant new use, TSCA section 5(a)(1)(B) requires persons to submit a significant new use notice (SNUN) to EPA at least 90 days before they manufacture or process the chemical substance for that use (15 U.S.C. 2604(a)(1)(B)(i)). TSCA furthermore prohibits such manufacturing or processing from commencing until EPA has conducted a review of the notice, made an appropriate determination on the notice, and taken such actions as are required in association with that determination (15 U.S.C. 2604(a)(1)(B)(ii)). As described in Unit V., the general SNUR provisions are found at 40 CFR part 721, subpart A.
General provisions for SNURs appear in 40 CFR part 721, subpart A. These provisions describe persons subject to the rule, recordkeeping requirements, exemptions to reporting requirements, and applicability of the rule to uses occurring before the effective date of the final rule. Provisions relating to user fees appear at 40 CFR part 700. According to § 721.1(c), persons subject to these SNURs must comply with the same SNUN requirements and EPA regulatory procedures as submitters of PMNs under TSCA section 5(a)(1)(A). In particular, these requirements include the information submission requirements of TSCA section 5(b) and 5(d)(1), the exemptions authorized by TSCA section 5(h)(1), (h)(2), (h)(3), and (h)(5), and the regulations at 40 CFR part 720. Once EPA receives a SNUN, EPA must either determine that the significant new use is not likely to present an unreasonable risk of injury or take such regulatory action as is associated with an alternative determination before the manufacture or processing for the significant new use can commence. If EPA determines that the significant new use is not likely to present an unreasonable risk, EPA is required under TSCA section 5(g) to make public, and submit for publication in the
Section 5(a)(2) of TSCA states that EPA's determination that a use of a chemical substance is a significant new use must be made after consideration of all relevant factors, including:
• The projected volume of manufacturing and processing of a chemical substance.
• The extent to which a use changes the type or form of exposure of human beings or the environment to a chemical substance.
• The extent to which a use increases the magnitude and duration of exposure of human beings or the environment to a chemical substance.
• The reasonably anticipated manner and methods of manufacturing, processing, distribution in commerce, and disposal of a chemical substance.
In addition to these factors enumerated in TSCA section 5(a)(2), the statute authorized EPA to consider any other relevant factors.
To determine what would constitute a significant new use for the chemical substances that are the subject of these SNURs, EPA considered relevant information about the toxicity of the chemical substances, likely human exposures and environmental releases associated with possible uses, and the four bulleted TSCA section 5(a)(2) factors listed in this unit.
EPA is proposing significant new use and recordkeeping requirements for three chemical substances in 40 CFR part 721, subpart E. In this unit, EPA
• PMN number.
• Chemical name (generic name, if the specific name is claimed as CBI).
• Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) Registry number (assigned for non-confidential chemical identities).
• Public comments and EPA's response to comments on the three direct final SNURs
• Basis for the TSCA non-section 5(e) SNURs (
• Tests recommended by EPA to provide sufficient information to evaluate the chemical substance (see Unit VII. for more information).
• CFR citation assigned in the regulatory text section of this proposed rule.
The three PMN substances included in this rulemaking are not subject to consent orders under TSCA section 5(e). These cases completed Agency review prior to June 22, 2016. Under TSCA, prior to the enactment of the Frank R. Lautenberg Chemical Safety for the 21st Century Act on June 22, 2016, EPA did not find that the use scenario described in the PMN triggered the determinations set forth under TSCA section 5(e). However, EPA does believe that certain changes from the use scenario described in the PMN could result in increased exposures, thereby constituting a “significant new use.” These so-called “non-TSCA section 5(e) SNURs” are consistent with the determination made at the time and are promulgated pursuant to § 721.170. EPA has determined that every activity designated as a “significant new use” in all non-TSCA section 5(e) SNURs issued under § 721.170 satisfies the two requirements stipulated in § 721.170(c)(2),
During review of the PMNs submitted for the chemical substances that are subject to these SNURs, EPA determined that one or more of the criteria of concern established at § 721.170 were met. For additional discussion on these chemical substances, see Units II. and IV. of this proposed rule.
EPA is proposing these SNURs for specific chemical substances which have undergone premanufacture review because the Agency wants to achieve the following objectives with regard to the significant new uses designated in this proposed rule:
• EPA would receive notice of any person's intent to manufacture or process a listed chemical substance for the described significant new use before that activity begins.
• EPA would have an opportunity to review and evaluate data submitted in a SNUN before the notice submitter begins manufacturing or processing a listed chemical substance for the described significant new use.
• EPA would be able to either determine that the prospective manufacture or processing is not likely to present an unreasonable risk, or to take necessary regulatory action associated with any other determination, before the described significant new use of the chemical substance occurs.
Issuance of a SNUR for a chemical substance does not signify that the chemical substance is listed on the TSCA Chemical Substance Inventory (TSCA Inventory). Guidance on how to determine if a chemical substance is on the TSCA Inventory is available on the Internet at
To establish a significant new use, EPA must determine that the use is not ongoing. The chemical substances subject to this proposed rule have undergone premanufacture review. In cases where EPA has not received a notice of commencement (NOC) and the chemical substance has not been added to the TSCA Inventory, no person may commence such activities without first submitting a PMN. Therefore, for chemical substances for which an NOC has not been submitted EPA concludes that the designated significant new uses are not ongoing.
When chemical substances identified in this proposed rule are added to the TSCA Inventory, EPA recognizes that, before the rule is effective, other persons might engage in a use that has been identified as a significant new use. The identities of the three chemical substances subject to this proposed rule have been claimed as confidential and EPA has received no post-PMN
Therefore, as mentioned in the original May 16, 2016 direct final rule, EPA designated that date as the cutoff date for determining whether the new use is ongoing. Persons who begin commercial manufacture or processing of the chemical substances for a significant new use identified as of that May 16, 2016 date would have to cease any such activity upon the effective date of the final rule. To resume their activities, these persons would have to first comply with all applicable SNUR notification requirements and wait until the notice review period, including any extensions, expires. If such a person met the conditions of advance compliance under § 721.45(h), the person would be considered exempt from the requirements of the SNUR. Consult the
EPA recognizes that TSCA section 5 does not require developing any particular new information (
In the absence of a TSCA section 4 test rule covering the chemical substance, persons are required only to submit information in their possession or control and to describe any other information known to or reasonably ascertainable by them (see 40 CFR 720.50). However, upon review of PMNs and SNUNs, the Agency has the authority to require appropriate testing. Descriptions of tests are provided for
The recommended tests specified in Unit IV. may not be the only means of addressing the potential risks of the chemical substance. However, submitting a SNUN without any test data may increase the likelihood that EPA will take action under TSCA section 5(e), particularly if satisfactory test results have not been obtained from a prior PMN or SNUN submitter. EPA recommends that potential SNUN submitters contact EPA early enough so that they will be able to conduct the appropriate tests.
SNUN submitters should be aware that EPA will be better able to evaluate SNUNs and define the terms of any potentially necessary controls if the submitter provides detailed information on the following:
• Human exposure and environmental release that may result from the significant new use of the chemical substances.
According to § 721.1(c), persons submitting a SNUN must comply with the same notification requirements and EPA regulatory procedures as persons submitting a PMN, including submission of test data on health and environmental effects as described in 40 CFR 720.50. SNUNs must be submitted on EPA Form No. 7710-25, generated using e-PMN software, and submitted to the Agency in accordance with the procedures set forth in 40 CFR 720.40 and 721.25. E-PMN software is available electronically at
EPA has used scientific information, technical procedures, measures, methods, protocols, methodologies, and models consistent with the risk assessment documents included in the public docket. These information sources supply information relevant to whether a particular use would be a significant new use, based on relevant factors including those listed under TSCA section 5(a)(2).
The clarity and completeness of the data, assumptions, methods, quality assurance, and analyses employed in EPA's decision are documented, as applicable and to the extent necessary for purposes of this proposed significant new use rule, in Unit II and in the documents noted above. EPA recognizes, based on the available information, that there is variability and uncertainty in whether any particular significant new use would actually present an unreasonable risk. For precisely this reason, it is appropriate to secure a future notice and review process for these uses, at such time as they are known more definitely. The extent to which the various information, procedures, measures, methods, protocols, methodologies or models used in EPA's decision have been subject to independent verification or peer review is adequate to justify their use, collectively, in the record for a significant new use rule.
EPA has evaluated the potential costs of establishing SNUN requirements for potential manufacturers and processors of the chemical substances subject to this proposed rule, during the development of the direct final rule. EPA's complete economic analysis is available in the docket under docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2015-0810.
This proposed rule would establish SNURs for three chemical substances that were the subject of PMNs. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled
According to PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501
The information collection requirements related to this proposed rule have already been approved by OMB pursuant to PRA under OMB control number 2070-0012 (EPA ICR No. 574). This proposed rule would not impose any burden requiring additional OMB approval. If an entity were to submit a SNUN to the Agency, the annual burden is estimated to average between 30 and 170 hours per response. This burden estimate includes the time needed to review instructions, search existing data sources, gather and maintain the data needed, and complete, review, and submit the required SNUN.
Send any comments about the accuracy of the burden estimate, and any suggested methods for minimizing respondent burden, including through the use of automated collection techniques, to the Director, Collection Strategies Division, Office of Environmental Information (2822T), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001. Please remember to include the OMB control number in any correspondence, but do not submit any completed forms to this address.
On February 18, 2012, EPA certified pursuant to RFA section 605(b) (5 U.S.C. 601
1. A significant number of SNUNs would not be submitted by small entities in response to the SNUR.
2. The SNUR submitted by any small entity would not cost significantly more than $8,300.
A copy of that certification is available in the docket for this proposed rule.
This proposed rule is within the scope of the February 18, 2012 certification. Based on the Economic Analysis discussed in Unit IX. and EPA's experience promulgating SNURs (discussed in the certification), EPA believes that the following are true:
• A significant number of SNUNs would not be submitted by small entities in response to the SNUR.
• Submission of the SNUN would not cost any small entity significantly more than $8,300.
Therefore, the promulgation of the SNUR would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
Based on EPA's experience with proposing and finalizing SNURs, State, local, and Tribal governments have not been impacted by these rulemakings, and EPA does not have any reasons to
This proposed rule would not have a substantial direct effect on States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, as specified in Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999).
This proposed rule would not have Tribal implications because it is not expected to have substantial direct effects on Indian Tribes. This proposed rule would not significantly nor uniquely affect the communities of Indian Tribal governments, nor would it involve or impose any requirements that affect Indian Tribes. Accordingly, the requirements of Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), do not apply to this proposed rule.
This proposed rule is not subject to Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997), because this is not an economically significant regulatory action as defined by Executive Order 12866, and this proposed rule does not address environmental health or safety risks disproportionately affecting children.
This proposed rule is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001), because this proposed rule is not expected to affect energy supply, distribution, or use and because this proposed rule is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
In addition, since this proposed rule would not involve any technical standards, NTTAA section 12(d) (15 U.S.C. 272 note), would not apply to this proposed rule.
This proposed rule does not entail special considerations of environmental justice related issues as delineated by Executive Order 12898, entitled “Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations” (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
Environmental protection, Chemicals, Hazardous substances, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, it is proposed that 40 CFR chapter I be amended as follows:
15 U.S.C. 2604, 2607, and 2625(c).
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(A) NIOSH-certified power air-purifying respirator with a hood or helmet and with appropriate gas/vapor (acid gas, organic vapor, or substance specific) cartridges in combination with HEPA filters.
(B) NIOSH-certified continuous flow supplied-air respirator equipped with a loose fitting facepiece, hood, or helmet.
(C) NIOSH-certified negative pressure (demand) supplied-air respirator with a full facepiece.
(ii)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii) [Reserved].
(b)
(1)
(2)
Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration, USDA.
Notice.
North Dakota Grain Inspection Service, Inc.'s (North Dakota) geographical territory is amended to include the area previously designated to Columbus Grain Inspection, Inc. (Columbus). North Dakota purchased Columbus effective July 11, 2016, and met the requirements specified in the agency's General Regulations. The designation of North Dakota is from January 1, 2016, to December 31, 2020.
Effective July 11, 2016.
Sharon Lathrop, 816-891-0415 or
The United States Grain Standards Act (USGSA) authorizes the Secretary to designate a qualified applicant to provide official services in a specified area after determining that the applicant is better able than any other applicant to provide such official services 7 U.S.C. 79(f). Under 7 U.S.C. 79(g), designations of official agencies are effective for no longer than five years, unless terminated by the Secretary, and may be renewed according to the criteria and procedures prescribed in 7 U.S.C. 79(f).
Pursuant to 7 U.S.C. 79(f)(2), the following geographic area, in the States of Illinois, Indiana, Michigan, Minnesota, North Dakota, and Ohio, is assigned to this official agency.
Bounded on the East by the eastern Cumberland County line; the eastern Jasper County line south to State Route 33; State Route 33 east-southeast to the Indiana-Illinois State line; the Indiana-Illinois State line south to the southern Gallatin County line; Bounded on the South by the southern Gallatin, Saline, and Williamson County lines; the southern Jackson County line west to U.S. Route 51; U.S. Route 51 north to State Route 13; State Route 13 northwest to State Route 149; State Route 149 west to State Route 3; State Route 3 northwest to State Route 51; State Route 51 south to the Mississippi River; and Bounded on the West by the Mississippi River north to the northern Calhoun County line; Bounded on the North by the northern and eastern Calhoun County lines; the northern and eastern Jersey County lines; the northern Madison County line; the western Montgomery County line north to a point on this line that intersects with a straight line, from the junction of State Route 111 and the northern Macoupin County line to the junction of Interstate 55 and State Route 16 (in Montgomery County); from this point southeast along the straight line to the junction of Interstate 55 and State Route 16; State Route 16 east-northeast to a point approximately 1 mile northeast of Irving; a straight line from this point to the northern Fayette County line; the northern Fayette, Effingham, and Cumberland County lines.
Bartholomew, Blackford, Boone, Brown, Carroll (south of State Route 25), Cass, Clinton, Delaware, Fayette, Fulton (bounded on east by eastern Fulton County line south to State Route 19; State Route 19 south to State Route 114; State Route 114 southeast to eastern Fulton County line), Grant, Hamilton, Hancock, Hendricks, Henry, Howard, Jay, Johnson, Madison, Marion, Miami, Monroe, Montgomery, Morgan, Randolph, Richmond, Rush (north of State Route 244), Shelby, Tipton, Union, and Wayne Counties.
Bounded on the West by State Route 127 at the Michigan-Ohio State line north to State Route 50; Bounded on the north by State Route 50 at State Route 127 east to the Michigan State line; the Michigan state line south to the Michigan-Ohio State line.
Koochiching, St. Louis, Lake, Cook, Itasca, Norman, Mahnomen, Hubbard, Cass, Clay, Becker, Wadena, Crow Wing, Aitkin, Carlton, Wilkin, and Otter Tail Counties, except those export port locations within the State, which are serviced by GIPSA.
Bounded on the North by the northern Steele County line from State Route 32 east; the northern Steele and Trail County lines east to the North Dakota State line; Bounded on the East by the eastern North Dakota State line; Bounded on the South by the southern North Dakota State line west to State Route 1; and Bounded on the West by State Route 1 north to Interstate 94; Interstate 94 east to the Soo Railroad line; the Soo Railroad line northwest to State Route 1; State Route 1 north to State Route 200; State Route 200 east to State Route 45; State Route 45 north to State Route 32; State Route 32 north.
The northern Ohio State line east to the to the Ohio Pennsylvania State line; Bounded on the East by the Ohio-Pennsylvania State line south to the Ohio River; Bounded on the South by the Ohio River south-southwest to the western Scioto County line; and Bounded on the West by the western Scioto County line north to State Route 73; State Route 73 northwest to U.S. Route 22; U.S. Route 22 west to U.S. Route 68; U.S. Route 68 north to Clark County; the northern Clark County line west to Valley Pike Road; Valley Pike Road north to State Route 560; State Route 560 north to U.S. 36; U.S. 36 west to eastern Miami County Line; eastern Miami County Line to Northern Miami County Line; Northern Miami County Line west to Interstate 75; Interstate 75 north to State Route 47; State Route 47 northeast to U.S. Route 68 (including all of Sidney, Ohio); U.S. Route 68 north to the southern Hancock County line; the southern Hancock County line west to the western Hancock, Wood and Lucus County lines north to the Michigan-Ohio State line; the Michigan-Ohio State line west to State Route 127; plus all of Darke County.
North Dakota's assigned geographic area does not include the export port locations inside North Dakota's area which are serviced by GIPSA. The
The agency certifies that North Dakota has met all the criteria for designation as delineated in 7 CFR 800.196(f)(2).
7 U.S.C. 71-87k.
Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration, USDA.
Notice.
Mid-Iowa Grain Inspection, Inc.'s (Mid-Iowa) geographical territory is amended to include the area previously designated to John R. McCrea Agency, Inc. (McCrea). Mid-Iowa purchased McCrea effective September 1, 2016, and met the requirements specified in GIPSA's General Regulations. The designation of Mid-Iowa is from July 1, 2016, to June 30, 2020.
Jorge Vazquez, 816-866-2224 or
The United States Grain Standards Act (USGSA) authorizes the Secretary to designate a qualified applicant to provide official services in a specified area after determining that the applicant is better able than any other applicant to provide such official services 7 U.S.C. 79(f). Under 7 U.S.C. 79(g), designations of official agencies are effective for no longer than five years, unless terminated by the Secretary, and may be renewed according to the criteria and procedures prescribed in 7 U.S.C. 79(f).
Pursuant to 7 U.S.C. 79(f)(2), the following geographic area, in the States of Minnesota, Illinois, and Iowa, is assigned to this official agency.
Wabasha, Olmstead, Winona, Houston, and Fillmore Counties.
Carroll and Whiteside Counties.
Bounded on the North by the northern Winneshiek and Allamakee County lines; Bounded on the East by the eastern Allamakee County line; the eastern and southern Clayton County lines; the eastern Buchanan County line; the northern Jones and Jackson County lines; the eastern Jackson and Clinton County Lines; southern Clinton County Line; the eastern Cedar County line south to State Route 130; Bounded on the South by State Route 130 west to State Route 38; State Route 38 south to Interstate 80; Interstate 80 west to U.S. Route 63; and Bounded on the West by U.S. Route 63 north to State Route 8; State Route 8 east to State Route 21; State Route 21 north to D38; D38 east to V49; V49 north to Bremer County; the southern Bremer County line; the western Fayette and Winneshiek County lines.
The agency certifies that Mid-Iowa meets the criteria delineated in 7 CFR § 800.196(f)(2).
7 U.S.C. 71-87k.
An application has been submitted to the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board by the City of San Antonio, grantee of FTZ 80, requesting subzone status for the facility of CGT U.S. Limited located in New Braunfels, Texas. The application was submitted pursuant to the provisions of the Foreign-Trade Zones Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), and the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR part 400). It was formally docketed on October 20, 2016.
The proposed subzone (27.78 acres) is located at 2827 FM 1101 in New Braunfels. A notification of proposed production activity has been submitted and will be published separately for public comment.
In accordance with the FTZ Board's regulations, Camille Evans of the FTZ Staff is designated examiner to review the application and make recommendations to the FTZ Board.
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is December 6, 2016. Rebuttal comments in response to material submitted during the foregoing period may be submitted during the subsequent 15-day period to December 21, 2016.
A copy of the application will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the FTZ Board's Web site, which is accessible via
For further information, contact Camille Evans at
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is postponing the deadline for issuing the final determination in the less-than-fair-value (LTFV) investigation of phosphor copper from the Republic of Korea (Korea) and is extending the provisional measures from a four-month period to a period of not more than six months.
Effective October 27, 2016.
Cindy Robinson at (202) 482-3797, Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
On April 5, 2016, the Department of Commerce (the Department) initiated an antidumping duty investigation of imports of phosphor copper from the Republic of Korea (Korea).
Section 735(a)(2)(B) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), and 19 CFR 351.210(b)(2)(ii) provide that a final determination may be postponed until not later than 135 days after the date of the publication of the preliminary determination if, in the event of an affirmative preliminary determination, a request for such postponement is made by the exporters or producers who account for a significant proportion of exports of the subject merchandise. Further, 19 CFR 351.210(e)(2) requires that such postponement requests by exporters be accompanied by a request for extension of provisional measures from a four-month period to a period of not more than six months, in accordance with section 733(d) of the Act.
In accordance with section 735(a)(2)(B) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(b)(2)(ii), because (1) our preliminary determination was affirmative; (2) the request was made by the exporter/producer who accounts for a significant proportion of exports of the subject merchandise; and (3) no compelling reasons for denial exist, we are postponing the final determination until no later than 135 days after the date of the publication of the
This notice is issued and published pursuant to section 735(a)(2)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(g).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
On June 10, 2016, the Department of Commerce (the Department) published the preliminary results of the new shipper review of the antidumping duty order on certain cased pencils from the People's Republic of China. This review covers one company, Wah Yuen Stationery Co., Ltd. and its affiliated producer, Shandong Wah Yuen Stationery Co., Ltd. (collectively, Wah Yuen), for the period of review (POR) December 1, 2014, through May 31, 2015. We invited interested parties to comment on the
Effective October 27, 2016.
Mary Kolberg, AD/CVD Operations, Office I, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-1785.
The Department published its
Imports covered by this order are shipments of certain cased pencils of any shape or dimension which are writing and/or drawing instruments that feature cores of graphite or other materials, encased in wood and/or man-made materials, whether or not decorated and whether or not tipped (
All issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs by parties in this review are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. A list of the issues which parties raised is attached to this notice as an appendix. The Issues and Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file in the Department's Central Records Unit, B8024 of the main Department of Commerce building, as well as available electronically via
Based on a review of the record and the comments received from interested parties regarding our
The dumping margin for the final results of the new shipper review for the period of review December 1, 2014, through May 31, 2015, is as follows:
The Department will disclose the analysis performed for these final results to the parties within five days of the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b) of the Department's regulations.
Pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act) and 19 CFR 351.212(b), the Department will determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries of subject merchandise, in accordance with the final results of this review. The Department intends to issue assessment instructions to CBP 15 days after the date of publication of the final results of this new shipper review.
For Wah Yuen, which has a dumping margin which is not zero or
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the final results of this new shipper review for shipments of the subject merchandise from the PRC entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date, as provided by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) For merchandise produced by Shandong Wah Yuen Stationery Co., Ltd. and exported by Wah Yuen Stationery Co., Ltd., the cash deposit rate will be the rate established in the final results of this review; (2) for subject merchandise exported by Wah Yuen Stationery Co., Ltd. but not produced by Shandong Wah Yuen Stationery Co., Ltd., the cash deposit rate will be that for the PRC-wide entity (
This notice also serves as a reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during the POR. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Department's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
This notice serves as a reminder to parties subject to an administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials, or conversion to judicial protective order, is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a violation subject to sanction.
We are issuing and publishing these results and this notice in accordance with sections 751(a)(2)(B) and 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.214.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (Department) seeks public comment on any subsidies, including stumpage
Comments must be submitted within 30 days after publication of this notice.
James Terpstra, Office III, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-3965.
On June 18, 2008, section 805 of Title VIII of the Tariff Act of 1930 (the Softwood Lumber Act of 2008) was enacted into law. Under this provision, the Secretary of Commerce is mandated to submit to the appropriate Congressional committees a report every 180 days on any subsidy provided by countries exporting softwood lumber or softwood lumber products to the United States, including stumpage subsidies.
The Department submitted its last subsidy report on June 15, 2016. As part of its newest report, the Department intends to include a list of subsidy programs identified with sufficient clarity by the public in response to this notice.
Given the large number of countries that export softwood lumber and softwood lumber products to the United States, we are soliciting public comment only on subsidies provided by countries whose exports accounted for at least one percent of total U.S. imports of softwood lumber by quantity, as classified under Harmonized Tariff Schedule code 4407.1001 (which accounts for the vast majority of imports), during the period January 1, 2016 through June 30, 2016. Official U.S. import data published by the United States International Trade Commission Tariff and Trade DataWeb indicate that three countries, Canada, Chile and France, exported softwood lumber to the United States during that time period in amounts sufficient to account for at least one percent of U.S. imports of softwood lumber products. We intend to rely on similar previous six-month periods to identify the countries subject to future reports on softwood lumber subsidies. For example, we will rely on U.S. imports of softwood lumber and softwood lumber products during the period July 1, 2016 through December 31, 2016, to select the countries subject to the next report.
Under U.S. trade law, a subsidy exists where an authority: (i) Provides a financial contribution; (ii) provides any form of income or price support within the meaning of Article XVI of the GATT 1994; or (iii) makes a payment to a funding mechanism to provide a financial contribution to a person, or entrusts or directs a private entity to make a financial contribution, if providing the contribution would normally be vested in the government and the practice does not differ in substance from practices normally followed by governments, and a benefit is thereby conferred.
Parties should include in their comments: (1) The country which provided the subsidy; (2) the name of the subsidy program; (3) a brief description (at least 3-4 sentences) of the subsidy program; and (4) the government body or authority that provided the subsidy.
Persons wishing to comment should file comments by the date specified above. Comments should only include publicly available information. The Department will not accept comments accompanied by a request that a part or all of the material be treated confidentially due to business proprietary concerns or for any other reason. The Department will return such comments or materials to the persons submitting the comments and will not include them in its report on softwood lumber subsidies. The Department requests submission of comments filed in electronic Portable Document Format (PDF) submitted on CD-ROM or by email to the email address of the EC Webmaster, below.
The comments received will be made available to the public in PDF on the Enforcement and Compliance Web site at the following address:
All comments and submissions in response to this Request for Comment should be received by the Department no later than 5 p.m. Eastern Standard Time on the above-referenced deadline date.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of cancellation of a public meeting.
The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) has cancelled the public meeting of its Herring Advisory Panel that was scheduled for Tuesday, November 8, 2016, at 10:30 a.m.
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492.
The original notice was published in the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of cancellation of a public meeting.
The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) has cancelled the public meeting of its Herring Committee that was scheduled
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492.
The original notice was published in the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) is scheduling a public meeting of its Monkfish Committee to consider actions affecting New England fisheries in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ). Recommendations from this group will be brought to the full Council for formal consideration and action, if appropriate.
This meeting will be held on Monday, November 14, 2016 at 10 a.m.
The meeting will be held at the Hotel Viking, One Bellevue Avenue, Newport, RI 02840; telephone: (401) 847-3300.
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492.
The Monkfish Committee will receive an update on Plan Development Team (PDT) analysis on Days-at-sea (DAS) allocation and trip limits. They will also receive an overview from the Monkfish PDT on draft alternatives and impacts for Framework 10 regarding specifications for FY 2017-19 and DAS allocation and/or possession limit alternatives. The Committee will select preferred alternatives for Framework. They will discuss other business, as necessary.
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, at (978) 465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meeting.
The North Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) Groundfish Plan Team will meet in November in Seattle, WA.
The meeting will be held on Monday, November 14, 2016 to Friday, November 18, 2016, from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m.
The meeting will be held at the Alaska Fishery Science Center Traynor Room 2076, 7600 Sand Point Way NE., Building 4, Seattle, WA 98115.
Diana Stram or Jim Armstrong, Council staff; telephone: (907) 271-2809.
The Plan Teams will compile and review the annual Groundfish Stock Assessment and Fishery Evaluation (SAFE) reports, (including the Economic Report, the Ecosystems Consideration Chapter, and the stock assessments for BSAI and GOA groundfishes), and recommend final groundfish harvest specifications for 2017/18.
The Agenda is subject to change, and the latest version will be posted at
These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Shannon Gleason at (907) 271-2809 at least 7 working days prior to the meeting date.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meeting.
The New England Fishery Management Council (Council, NEFMC) will hold a three-day meeting to consider actions affecting New England fisheries in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ).
The meeting will be held on Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday, November 15, 16, and 17, 2016, beginning at 9 a.m. on November 15, 8:30 a.m. on November 16, and 8:30 a.m. on November 17.
The meeting will be held at the Hotel Viking, 1 Bellevue Avenue, Newport, RI 02840; telephone: (401) 847-3300; online at
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492, ext. 113.
After introductions and brief announcements, the meeting will begin with reports from the Council Chairman and Executive Director, NMFS's Regional Administrator for the Greater Atlantic Regional Office (GARFO), liaisons from the Northeast Fisheries Science Center and Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council, representatives from NOAA General Counsel and the Office of Law Enforcement, and staff from the Atlantic States Marine Fisheries Commission and the U.S. Coast Guard. Following these reports, the Council will hear from its Vessel Monitoring System (VMS)/Enforcement Committee, which will: (1) Update the Council on work being done to develop a codend certification program; (2) provide a brief overview of the Anthropocene Institute's mapping project; and (3) provide initial input on measures under consideration in Atlantic Herring Framework Adjustment 5 and Atlantic Herring Amendment 8. Next, the Skate Committee will present a Skate Monitoring Report with an overview on stock status, landings, and revenue for the seven skate species being managed by the Council. Afterward, the Council is expected to approve a scoping document for Amendment 5 to the Northeast Skate Complex Fishery Management Plan (FMP) to consider limited access in the fishery. Next, the Council will receive a presentation from the NMFS Highly Migratory Species (HMS) staff on Draft Amendment 5b to the 2006 Consolidated HMS FMP, which is being developed to end overfishing and rebuild dusky sharks.
After a lunch break, the Council will hear from its Monkfish Committee and take final action on Framework Adjustment 10 to the Monkfish FMP, which will set fishing year 2017-19 specifications and, if needed, additional measures. Next, the Council will receive a progress report from its Small Mesh Multispecies (Whiting) Committee regarding limited access options being developed for Amendment 22. The Council will close out the day with a Habitat Committee report, which will include an overview of the preliminary impacts analysis for the Council's Omnibus Deep-Sea Coral Amendment. The Council also will discuss Coral Amendment alternatives that overlap with the new Northeast Canyons and Seamounts Marine National Monument and, finally, consider a management action to implement fishing regulations in the monument area. Following adjournment, NMFS will hold a public hearing at 5:30 p.m. in the Council meeting room on Draft Amendment 5b to the 2006 Consolidated HMS FMP.
The second day of the meeting will begin with a report from the Scientific and Statistical Committee (SSC), which will present Atlantic sea scallop overfishing limit (OFL) and acceptable biological catch (ABC) recommendations for the 2017 scallop fishing year and OFL and ABC defaults for the 2018 fishing year. The SSC also may discuss issues related to improving control rules and ABC recommendations for groundfish and other stocks. The Scallop Committee report will directly follow the SSC. At this point, the Council will take final action on Framework Adjustment 28 to the Atlantic Sea Scallop FMP, which includes: (1) Specifications for fishing year 2017 with default measures for 2018; (2) a measure to restrict the possession of shell stock inshore of the days-at-sea demarcation line north of 42° 20' N; (3) modifications to the process for setting scallop fishery annual catch limits (ACLs); and (4) modifications to the Closed Area I Scallop Access Area boundary to be consistent with potential changes to habitat and groundfish mortality closed areas. More specifically, the 2017 specifications and 2018 default measures include: (a) Setting ABCs, ACLs, days-at-sea, and access-area allocations for both limited access (LA) and limited access general category (LAGC) vessels; (b) determining the hard total allowable catch (TAC) for the Northern Gulf of Maine Management Area; (c) setting the target TAC for the LAGC incidental catch; and (d) specifying set-aside amounts for the scallop observer and research set-aside programs. Next, members of the public will be able to speak during an open comment period on issues that relate to Council business but are not included on the published agenda for this meeting. The Council asks the public to limit remarks to 3-5 minutes.
Following a lunch break, the Council will go into its Groundfish Committee report and take final action on most of the measures in Framework Adjustment 56 to the Northeast Multispecies FMP. These include: (1) 2017 U.S./Canada specifications; (2) a scallop fishery sub-ACL for northern windowpane flounder; (3) potential changes to the scallop fishery accountability measure (AM) triggers for Georges Bank yellowtail flounder; (4) a potential increase to the sub-ACL for Georges Bank haddock for the Atlantic herring midwater trawl fishery; and (5) a timely notification process for announcing recreational measures. The Council is expected to take final action on 2017-19 witch flounder specifications—the last component of Framework 56 -- at its January meeting. In another groundfish-related item for this November meeting, the Council also will review a draft scoping notice for a Groundfish Monitoring Program Amendment. Closing out the day, the Council will receive a NMFS briefing on revisions to National Standard Guidelines 1, 3, and 7 to the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act.
The third day of the meeting will begin with a discussion of 2017 Council priorities, followed by a final vote on the resulting list. Next, the Council will receive a NMFS briefing on the agency's comprehensive review of observer safety issues. Then, the Council will take up the Atlantic Herring Committee report. The Council may take final action on Framework Adjustment 5 to the Atlantic Herring FMP, which includes alternatives to modify Georges Bank haddock bycatch AMs in the Atlantic herring midwater trawl fishery. The Council also will approve the agenda for a second Management Strategy Evaluation (MSE) workshop, which will be held Dec. 7-8 as part of the MSE process under Amendment 8 to develop ABC control rule alternatives for the Atlantic herring fishery. Furthermore, the Council will receive an update on the development of Amendment 8 measures to address herring localized depletion.
Following a lunch break, the Council will resume the Atlantic Herring Committee discussion if needed and then conclude the meeting with “other business.”
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this Council for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Council
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Thomas A. Nies (see
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Applications for five scientific research permit renewals and one permit modification.
Notice is hereby given that NMFS has received six scientific research permit application requests relating to Pacific salmon and steelhead. The proposed research is intended to increase knowledge of species listed under the Endangered Species Act (ESA) and to help guide management and conservation efforts. The applications may be viewed online at:
Comments or requests for a public hearing on the applications must be received at the appropriate address or fax number (see
Written comments on the applications should be sent to the Protected Resources Division, NMFS, 1201 NE. Lloyd Blvd., Suite 1100, Portland, OR 97232-1274. Comments may also be sent via fax to 503-230-5441 or by email to
Rob Clapp, Portland, OR (ph: 503-231-2314), Fax: 503-230-5441, email:
The following listed species are covered in this notice:
Scientific research permits are issued in accordance with section 10(a)(1)(A) of the ESA (16 U.S.C. 1531
Anyone requesting a hearing on an application listed in this notice should set out the specific reasons why a hearing on that application would be appropriate (see
The Nez Perce Tribe (NPT) under the authorization of the Columbia River Intertribal Fish Commission (CRITFC) is seeking to renew for five years its permit to annually take adult and juvenile SR spr/sum Chinook salmon and SR steelhead while conducting research in a number of the tributaries to the Imnaha River (Cow, Lightning, Horse, Big Sheep, Camp, Little Sheep, Freezeout, Grouse, Crazyman, Mahogany, and Gumboot Creeks), the Grande Ronde River (Joseph Creek, Wenaha and Minam rivers), the Clearwater River (South Fork Clearwater River and Lolo Creek), and the Snake River (Lower Granite Dam adult trap). The Imnaha and Grande Ronde Rivers are in northeastern Oregon, the Clearwater is in Idaho, and the work in the Snake River would take place in Washington. The permit would be a renewal of work the NPT has been conducting for well over a decade in the Northwest.
The purpose of the research is to acquire information on the status (escapement abundance, genetic structure, life history traits) of juvenile and adult steelhead in the Imnaha, Grande Ronde, and Clearwater River basins. The research would benefit the listed species by providing information on current status that fishery managers can use to determine if recovery actions are helping increase wild Snake River salmonid populations. Baseline information on steelhead populations in the Imnaha, Grande Ronde, and Clearwater River basins would also be used to help guide future management actions. Adult and juvenile salmon and steelhead would be observed, harassed, handled, and marked. The researchers would use temporary/portable picket and resistance board weirs and rotary screw traps to capture the fish and would then sample them for biological information (fin tissue and scale samples). They may also mark some of the fish with opercule punches, fin clips, dyes, and PIT, floy, and/or Tyvek disk tags. Adult steelhead carcasses would also be collected and sampled. The researchers do not intend to kill any of the fish being captured, but a small number may die as an unintended result of the activities.
The Shoshone-Bannock Tribes (Tribes) are seeking to renew for five years their permit to take SR sockeye salmon and SR spr/sum Chinook salmon while conducting research designed to estimate their overwinter survival and downstream migration survival and timing. The researchers would also conduct limnological studies on the lakes and monitor sockeye rearing. This research—which has been conducted every year since 1996—would continue to provide information on the relative success of the Pettit and Alturas Lakes (Idaho) sockeye salmon reintroduction programs and thereby benefit the listed fish by improving those programs. Juvenile SR sockeye salmon, spr/sum Chinook salmon, and steelhead would be collected at Pettit and Alturas Lakes, ID, using rotary screw traps and weirs. The fish would be sampled for biological information and released or tagged with passive integrated transponders and released. In addition, to determine trap efficiencies, a portion of the tagged juvenile SR
The Idaho Department of Environmental Quality (IDEQ) is seeking to renew for five years their permit to annually take juvenile threatened SR steelhead, threatened SR fall Chinook salmon, threatened SR spr/sum Chinook salmon, and endangered SR sockeye salmon during the course of two research projects designed to ascertain the condition of many Idaho streams. The purposes of the research are to (a) determine whether aquatic life is being properly supported in Idaho's rivers, streams, and lakes, and (b) assess the overall condition of Idaho's surface waters. The fish would benefit from the research because the data it produces would be used to inform decisions about how and where to protect and improve water quality in the state. The researchers would use backpack- and boat electrofishing equipment to capture the fish. They would then be weighed and measured (some may be anesthetized to limit stress) and released. The IDEQ does not intend to kill any of the fish being captured, but a small percentage may die as an unintended result of the research activities.
The WDFW is seeking a to renew for five years their permit to annually capture, handle, and release juvenile UCR steelhead and Chinook salmon in the Hanford reach of the Columbia River and near the Tri-Cities, Washington. The purpose of the research is to gather data on fall Chinook abundance, length frequency distribution, and losses in the area. The information collected from these surveys has been used and continues to be used to evaluate protections for juvenile fall Chinook under the Hanford Reach Fall Chinook Protection Program Agreement and gauge the efficacy of the Coded Wire Tagging Program for marking of wild up-river bright fall Chinook in the Hanford Reach. These surveys can provide biologists and managers with definitive data on the presence or impacts on both non-listed and ESA Listed Chinook and steelhead residing in near shore habitats in this area of the Columbia River. These data, in turn, would be used to help guide management actions for the benefit of the listed species in the future. The researchers would use beach seines and backpack electrofishing equipment to capture the fish. The captured fish would be anesthetized, measured, allowed to recover, and released back to the river. The researchers do not expect to kill any listed fish, but a small number may die as an unintended result of the research activities.
The Confederated Tribes of the Umatilla Indian Reservation (CTUIR) are seeking to renew for five years their permit to take MCR steelhead during the course of research designed to monitor listed fish population status in the Walla Walla River watershed, Washington. The data gathered (on fish abundance, trends, genetics, diversity, productivity, and population structure) would be used to inform management decisions regarding land use activities and recovery planning in the Walla Walla sub-basin. The researchers would use rotary screw traps and backpack electrofishing units to capture the fish. At the screw traps, the fish would then be identified, measured, weighed, tissue sampled, and implanted with PIT-Tags (if they do not already have tags). Fish captured via electrofishing would be handled, measured, allowed to recover, and released in a safe area. Some adult carcasses would also be sampled. The researchers do not expect to kill any of the fish being captured, but a small number may die as an unintended result of the research activities.
The Idaho Power company is seeking to modify their five-year permit to annually capture juvenile white sturgeon in Lower Granite Reservoir. The researchers would use small-mesh gill nets and d-ring nets to capture the fish. The gill net fishing would take place at times (October and November) and in areas (the bottom of the reservoir) that have purposefully been chosen to have the least possible impact on listed fish. When the nets are pulled to the surface, listed species would immediately be released (including by cutting the net, if necessary) and allowed to return to the reservoir. The d-ring fishing would take place in June and July, but the same restrictions (immediately releasing listed fish, etc.) would still apply. The research targets a species that is not listed, but the research should benefit listed salmonids by generating information about the habitat conditions in Lower Granite Reservoir and by helping managers develop conservation plans for the species that inhabit it. The researchers are not proposing to kill any of the fish they capture, but a small number of individuals may be killed as an inadvertent result of the activities.
This notice is provided pursuant to section 10(c) of the ESA. NMFS will evaluate the applications, associated documents, and comments submitted to determine whether the applications meet the requirements of section 10(a) of the ESA and Federal regulations. The final permit decisions will not be made until after the end of the 30-day comment period. NMFS will publish notice of its final action in the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, Commerce.
Notice of Availability; request for comments.
We, NMFS, announce that the
We will consider and address, as appropriate, all substantive comments received during the comment period. Comments on the Proposed Plan must be received no later than 5 p.m. Pacific daylight time on December 27, 2016.
Please send written comments and materials to Rosemary Furfey, National Marine Fisheries Service, 1201 NE. Lloyd Boulevard, Suite 1100, Portland, OR 97232.
Comments may also be submitted by email to:
Please include “Comments on Proposed Snake River Spring/Summer Chinook Salmon and Snake River Steelhead Recovery Plan” in the subject line of the email. Comments may be submitted via facsimile (fax) to (503) 230-5441. Electronic copies of the Proposed Plan are available on the NMFS Web site at:
Rosemary Furfey, NMFS Snake River Spring/Summer Chinook Salmon and Steelhead Recovery Coordinator, at (503) 231-2149, or mail to:
We are responsible for developing and implementing recovery plans for Pacific salmon and steelhead listed under the ESA of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
We believe it is essential to have local support of recovery plans by those whose activities directly affect the listed species and whose continued commitment and leadership will be needed to implement the necessary recovery actions. We, therefore, support and participate in collaborative efforts to develop recovery plans that involve state, tribal, and federal entities, local communities, and other stakeholders. For this Proposed Plan for threatened Snake River Spring/Summer Chinook Salmon and Snake River Steelhead, we worked collaboratively with state, tribal, and Federal partners to produce a recovery plan that satisfies the ESA requirements. We have determined that this
For the purpose of recovery planning for the ESA-listed species of Pacific salmon and steelhead in Idaho, Oregon, and Washington, NMFS designated five geographically based “recovery domains.” The Snake River Spring/Summer Chinook Salmon ESU and Snake River Steelhead DPS spawning and rearing range is in the Snake River recovery domain of the Interior Columbia area. For each domain, NMFS appointed a team of scientists, nominated for their geographic and species expertise, to provide a solid scientific foundation for recovery plans. The technical recovery team responsible for Snake River Spring/Summer Chinook Salmon and Snake River Steelhead, the Interior Columbia Technical Recovery Team, included biologists from NMFS, other Federal agencies, states, tribes, and academic institutions.
A primary task for the Interior Columbia Technical Recovery Team was to recommend criteria for determining when each component population within an ESU or DPS should be considered viable (
We also collaborated with state, tribal, and Federal biologists and resource managers to provide technical information used to write the Proposed Plan which is built upon locally-led recovery efforts. In addition, NMFS established a multi-state (Idaho, Oregon, and Washington), tribal, and Federal partners' regional forum called the Snake River Coordination Group that addresses the four ESA-listed Snake River salmon and steelhead species. They met twice a year to be briefed and provide technical and policy information to NMFS. We presented regular updates on the status of this Proposed Plan to the Snake River Coordination Group and posted draft chapters on NMFS' West Coast Region Snake River recovery planning Web page. We also made full drafts of the Proposed Plan available for review to the state, tribal, and Federal entities with whom we collaborated to develop the plan.
For the purpose of recovery planning in the Snake River recovery domain, NMFS divided the domain into three different “management units” based on jurisdictional boundaries, as well as areas where local planning efforts were underway. The three Snake River domain management units include: the Northeast Oregon unit; Southeast Washington unit; and the Idaho unit. A recovery plan addressing tributary conditions for both species was developed for each management unit. All three management unit plans were developed in coordination with respective Federal, state, and local agencies, tribes, and others. This Proposed Plan synthesizes relevant information from the three management unit plans at the species level and includes them as appendices: Appendix A is the
In addition to the Proposed Plan, we developed and incorporated the
The Proposed Plan, including the three management unit plans and four modules, is now available for public review and comment.
The Proposed Plan contains biological background and contextual information that includes descriptions of the ESU and DPS, the planning area, and the context of the plan's development. It presents relevant information on ESU and DPS structure, guidelines for assessing salmonid population and ESU and DPS status, and a brief summary of Interior Columbia Technical Recovery Team products on population structure and species status. It also presents NMFS' proposed biological viability criteria and threats criteria for delisting each species.
The Proposed Plan also describes specific information on the following: Current status of Snake River Spring/Summer Chinook Salmon and Snake River Steelhead (Chapter 4); limiting factors and threats throughout the life cycle that have contributed to each species' decline (Chapter 5); recovery strategies and actions addressing these limiting factors and threats (Chapter 6); and a proposed research, monitoring, and evaluation program for adaptive management (Chapter 7). For recovery actions, the Proposed Plan incorporates the site-specific actions in each management unit plan, together with the associated location, life stage affected and potential implementing entity. The Proposed Plan also summarizes time and costs (Chapter 8) required to implement recovery actions. In some cases, costs of implementing actions could not be determined at this time and NMFS is interested in additional information regarding scale, scope, and costs of these actions. We are also particularly interested in comments on establishing appropriate forums (Chapter 9) to coordinate implementation of the Proposed Plan. We are also interested in information to address critical uncertainties identified in the Proposed Plan, particularly regarding causes of mortality of juvenile fish as they move from natal tributaries into the Salmon and Snake Rivers during migration to the Pacific Ocean.
With approval of the final recovery plan, we will commit to implement the actions in the plan for which we have responsibility, authority, and funding; encourage other Federal and state agencies and tribal governments to implement recovery actions for which they have responsibility, authority, and funding; and work cooperatively with the public and local stakeholders on implementation of other actions. We expect the recovery plan to guide us and other Federal agencies in evaluating Federal actions under ESA section 7, as well as in implementing other provisions of the ESA and other statutes. For example, the plan will provide greater biological context for evaluating the effects that a proposed action may have on a species by providing delisting criteria, information on priority areas for addressing specific limiting factors, and information on how the ESU and DPS can tolerate varying levels of risk.
When we are considering a species for delisting, the agency will examine whether the section 4(a)(1) listing factors have been addressed. To assist in this examination, we will use the delisting criteria described in section 3.4 of the Proposed Plan, which include both biological criteria and criteria addressing each of the ESA section 4(a)(1) listing factors, as well as any other relevant data and policy considerations.
We will also work with the proposed implementation structure, as described in chapter 9 of the Proposed Plan, to coordinate among existing forums, develop implementation priorities, and address science and adaptive management issues.
Section 4(f)(1)(B) of the ESA requires that recovery plans incorporate, to the maximum extent practicable, (1) objective, measurable criteria which, when met, would result in a determination that the species is no longer threatened or endangered; (2) site-specific management actions necessary to achieve the plan's goals; and (3) estimates of the time required and costs to implement recovery actions. We conclude that the Proposed Plan meets the requirements of ESA section 4(f) and are proposing to adopt it as the
We are soliciting written comments on the Proposed Plan. All substantive comments received by the date specified above will be considered and incorporated, as appropriate, prior to our decision whether to approve the plan. While we invite comments on all aspects of the Proposed Plan, we are particularly interested in comments on addressing critical uncertainties in our knowledge about the early juvenile life stage survival from natal tributaries downstream into the Salmon and Snake Rivers, comments on the cost of recovery actions for which we have not yet determined implementation costs, and comments on establishing an appropriate implementation forums for the plan. We will issue a news release announcing the adoption and availability of the final plan. We will post on the NMFS West Coast Region Web site (
16 U.S.C. 1531
National Telecommunications and Information Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice of open meeting.
The National Telecommunications and Information Administration (NTIA) will convene a meeting of a multistakeholder process concerning the collaboration between security researchers and software and system developers and owners to address security vulnerability disclosure on November 7, 2016.
The meeting will be held on November 7, 2016, from 12:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m., Eastern Time. See
The meeting will be held at the American Institute of Architects, 1735 New York Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20006.
Allan Friedman, National Telecommunications and Information Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Room 4725, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-4281; email:
The United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
This collection of information also encompasses several actions that may be taken after issuance of a patent. A certificate of correction may be requested to correct an error or errors in the patent. If the USPTO determines that the request should be approved, the USPTO will issue a certificate of correction. For an original patent that is believed to be wholly or partly inoperative or invalid, the assignee(s) or inventor(s) may apply for reissue of the patent, which entails several formal requirements, including provision of an oath or declaration specifically identifying at least one error being relied upon as the basis for reissue and stating the reason for the belief that the original patent is wholly or partially inoperative or invalid. The rules outlining these procedures are found at 37 CFR 1.171-1.178 and 1.322-1.325.
Once submitted, the request will be publicly available in electronic format through
Further information can be obtained by:
•
•
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent on or before November 28, 2016 to Kimberly Keravuori, OMB Desk Officer, via email to
The United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
As covered in the final rule titled, “Changes to Implement the Patent Law Treaty” (RIN 0651-AC85), the USPTO adopted the rules of practice for consistency with the PLT and title II of the PLTIA. The information in this collection relates to the petitions for restoration that may be filed in accordance with the revised rules.
The information in this collection can be submitted electronically through EFS-Web, the USPTO's Web-based electronic filing system, as well as on paper. The USPTO is therefore accounting for both electronic and paper submissions in this collection.
Once submitted, the request will be publicly available in electronic format through
Further information can be obtained by:
•
•
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent on or before November 28, 2016 to Kimberly Keravuori, OMB Desk Officer, via email to
The United States Patent and Trademark Office (USTPO) will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
The public uses this information collection to file requests related to patent term extensions and reconsideration or reinstatement of patent term adjustments. The information in this collection is used by the USPTO to consider whether an applicant is eligible for a patent term extension or reconsideration of a patent term adjustment and, if so, to determine the length of the patent term extension or adjustment.
Once submitted, the request will be publicly available in electronic format through
Further information can be obtained by:
•
•
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent on or before November 28, 2016 to Kimberly R. Keravuori, OMB Desk Officer, via email to
United States Patent and Trademark Office, Commerce.
Request for comments.
Patent applications that contain disclosures of nucleotide and/or amino acid sequences must contain sequence information in a separate part of the disclosure in a specified manner. The United States Patent and Trademark Office (Office) is seeking additional comments to obtain views of the public on the continuing international effort to revise the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) standard for the presentation of nucleotide and/or amino acid sequences and the consequent changes to the United States rules of practice. The revised standard will be known as WIPO Standard ST.26. An interim version of WIPO Standard ST.26 was adopted in March 2016 by the Committee on WIPO Standards (CWS), but has not been implemented pending further consideration by the CWS. Since the adoption of the interim version, efforts have been undertaken to finalize WIPO Standard ST.26 and to improve its effectiveness once implemented. One aspect of that continuing effort is a proposed guidance document annex, which will include a variety of sequence disclosure examples, to ensure understanding and uniform application of standard requirements. Comments may be offered on any aspect of this effort, and in particular, (a) the comprehensiveness and clarity of WIPO Standard ST.26 and the proposed guidance document annex, and (b) the proposed authoring/validation tool for creation of a sequence listing in XML.
Written comments must be received on or before December 27, 2016 to ensure consideration. No public hearing will be held.
Comments concerning this notice should be sent by electronic mail message over the Internet addressed to
The comments will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Commissioner for Patents, located in Madison East, Tenth Floor, 600 Dulany Street, Alexandria, Virginia, and will be available via the Internet (
Susan C. Wolski, Office of International Patent Legal Administration, Office of the Deputy Commissioner for International Patent Cooperation, by telephone at (571) 272-3304, or by mail addressed to: Mail Stop Comments—Patents, Commissioner for Patents, P.O. Box 1450, Alexandria, VA 22313-1450, marked to the attention of Susan C. Wolski.
Patent applicants are currently required to submit biological sequence data in a standardized electronic format in accordance with WIPO Standard ST.25, both within the framework of the Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT) (Annex C of the Administrative Instructions) and under most national and regional provisions. The Rules of Patent Practice in the United States (37 CFR 1.821-1.825) were amended to implement WIPO Standard ST.25 in July of 1998.
WIPO Standard ST.25, which became effective in 1998 and has not been revised since that time, requires a flat file structure of numeric identifiers using a limited set of character codes. In October 2010, the CWS established a Task Force, designating the European Patent Organization as the lead, to draft a revised standard (WIPO Standard ST.26) for the filing of nucleotide and/or amino acid sequence listings in XML format. The Office issued a first request for comments on WIPO Standard ST.26 as drafted by the Task Force (
The Office, leading the negotiations for the United States, is seeking public comment on WIPO Standard ST.26, as revised subsequent to the adoption of the interim version. To that end, the current revisions of the main body of the standard and its five annexes, as well as the newly proposed sixth annex, are available via the Office's Web site at
Written comments may be offered on any aspect of WIPO Standard ST.26, its annexes, or the proposed authoring/validation tool. Comments are specifically requested on the following issues:
Since the first request for comments, the main body of WIPO Standard ST.26 has been revised,
The Office invites comments on whether the main body of WIPO Standard ST.26 is sufficiently comprehensive and clear, and in particular welcomes suggestions to add details or clarify the language as appropriate.
One goal of the development of a WIPO Standard for sequence listings is to allow patent applicants to draw up a single sequence listing in a patent application that would be acceptable for the purposes of both international and national or regional prosecution worldwide. Any new standard should represent the maximum requirements for any sequence listing submission. The purpose of the guidance document is to ensure that all applicants and IPOs understand and agree on the requirements for inclusion and representation of sequence disclosures, such that this purpose is realized.
The guidance document is composed of an introduction, examples, and a sequence listing in XML demonstrating representation of the exemplified sequences. The introduction defines terminology used in the document and discusses the questions raised for each example, namely, whether inclusion is required for a particular disclosed sequence, if inclusion of the sequence is permitted when it is not required, and the appropriate means of representation of sequences included in a sequence listing. Examples were chosen to illustrate various paragraphs of the main body and include 22 involving nucleotide sequences and 19 involving amino acid sequences. It is envisioned that the guidance document would be updated as necessary to include further examples to keep pace with technological advances.
The Office invites comments on whether the guidance document is sufficiently comprehensive and clear, and in particular welcomes suggestions to add details or further examples as appropriate.
Availability of an authoring tool in advance of the WIPO Standard ST.26 effective date is key to a successful transition from WIPO Standard ST.25. As envisioned, the authoring tool should be capable of intake of a sequence listing in WIPO Standard ST.25 format, and with additional input from applicant, create a sequence listing in WIPO Standard ST.26 format. Unfortunately, direct conversion from one standard to the other is not possible, due to numerous differences between the two standards, including
The authoring tool should also prompt entry of all required data, prevent entry of sequences having fewer than ten specifically defined nucleotides or fewer than four specifically defined amino acids, inform as to the possibility of optional annotations, and allow use of only acceptable values or formats where applicable, thereby enhancing submission quality. A sequence listing in WIPO Standard ST.26 XML format is not as easily human-readable as its ST.25 counterpart; therefore, the tool should also provide a means for easily viewing both the in-progress and completed sequence listing.
Because the authoring tool is expected to prompt entry of all required data and to allow use of only acceptable values or formats where applicable, a certain level of validation occurs as data is entered. The tool is further expected to include a separate validation function for use by both applicants and IPOs.
WIPO Standard ST.25 provides for a single numeric identifier <223> per sequence to contain “free text” to describe sequence characteristics using non-language neutral vocabulary. Such “free text” is required to be repeated in the main part of the application description in the language thereof in a specific recommended section entitled “Sequence Listing Free Text.” Such repetition ensures that any “free text” will be translated together with the application description, precluding the need for separate translation of the sequence listing itself. In contrast, WIPO Standard ST.26 allows use of “free text” as the value for multiple different annotation qualifiers per sequence, and due to the absence of procedural requirements, repetition in the application is not required, although such a requirement under the PCT and by various IPOs is possible. In WIPO Standard ST.26, “free text” is limited to a few short terms indispensable for understanding a characteristic of a sequence, is preferably in the English language, and as part of the sequence data part of the sequence listing, must not exceed 1000 characters composed of printable characters from the Unicode Basic Latin code table. It is expected that most inventors providing sequence information are capable of providing “free text” in the English language.
The Office invites comments on any aspect of the authoring tool, and in particular welcomes feedback on whether it is deemed necessary for the authoring tool to include a mechanism for automatic identification and extraction of any “free text” from sequence annotations to facilitate inclusion in the application description.
Department of Education (ED), Federal Student Aid (FSA)
Notice
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 3501
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before December 27, 2016.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Beth Grebeldinger, 202-377-4018.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Office of Innovation and Improvement (OII), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 3501
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before December 27, 2016.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Clifton Jones, 202-205-2204.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Office of the Undersecretary, U.S. Department of Education.
Announcement of an open meeting.
This notice sets forth the agenda for the October 26, 2016 meeting of the President's Board of Advisors on Historically Black Colleges and Universities (Board) and provides information regarding an opportunity to attend. Notice of the meeting is required by the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) and is intended to notify the public of its opportunity to attend. This notice is being published less than 15 calendar days prior to the meeting to address scheduling conflicts by having the meeting coincide with the National HBCU Week Conference and thereby ensure a quorum for the final meeting of the Board during this Administration.
The Board meeting will be held on October 26, 2016, from 9 a.m. to 2 p.m. E.D.T. at the Renaissance Capital View, 2800 South Potomac Avenue, Arlington, Virginia 22202.
Sedika Franklin, Associate Director, U.S. Department of Education, White House Initiative on Historically Black Colleges and Universities, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20204; telephone: (202) 453-5634 or (202) 453-5630, fax: (202) 453-5632, or email:
The Board shall advise the President and the Secretary in the following areas: (i) Improving the identity, visibility, and distinctive capabilities and overall competitiveness of HBCUs; (ii) engaging the philanthropic, business, government, military, homeland-security, and education communities in a national dialogue regarding new HBCU programs and initiatives; (iii) improving the ability of HBCUs to
The meeting agenda will include (i) a review of the Board's activities prior to October 26 2016; (ii) the introduction and swearing-in of five new members of the Board; (iii) Chairman William R. Harvey will present a report on HBCU issues and concerns; (iv) Deputy Under Secretary of the U.S. Department of Education and Acting Executive Director/Designated Federal Official, Kim Hunter Reed, will provide an update on current priorities of the White House Initiative on HBCUs, including planning strategies and initiatives; (v) Kim Hunter Reed will also provide an update on education policies relevant to HBCUs; (vi) Chairman Harvey will open the floor for subcommittee reports. The public comment period will begin immediately following the conclusion of the subcommittee reports.
All comments made will become part of the official record of the Board. Similarly, written materials distributed during oral comment will become part of the official record of the meeting.
Presidential Executive Order 13532, continued by Executive Order 13708.
Spent Fuel and Waste Disposition, Office of Nuclear Energy, Department of Energy.
Notice of availability and request for information.
The U.S. Department of Energy (DOE), Office of Nuclear Energy, released on its Web site a Request for Information (RFI) on Private Initiatives (PIs) for Consolidated Interim Storage Facilities. The purpose of the RFI is to gather input on the role of PIs for private consolidated interim storage facilities (ISF) services as part of an integrated waste management system.
Written comments and information are requested on or before January 27, 2017.
Interested parties are to submit requested information by any of the following methods:
Requests for further information should be sent to Mr. Andrew Griffith via
Since the Administration's Strategy for the Management and Disposal of Used Nuclear Fuel and High-Level Radioactive Waste was issued, PIs for interim storage facilities that could provide DOE or utilities with consolidated SNF interim storage services are in various stages of development. PIs, although were not envisioned in the Administration's Strategy, represent a potentially promising alternative to federal facilities for consolidated interim storage. The RFI seeks input on key questions related to the role PFIs could play in an integrated waste management system. The RFI is available on the DOE-NE Web site at:
The DOE Office of Nuclear Energy invites all interested parties to submit in writing by January 27, 2017, comments and information on matters addressed in the notice.
DOE intends to make the responses submitted to this RFI publicly available in their entirety. Therefore, DOE recommends that respondents do not include any business sensitive, proprietary, or otherwise privileged information (Confidential Business Data or CBI), or any personally identifiable information (PII) such as personal email or phone numbers, in their submission. Responses to this RFI will be automatically posted and made publicly available; DOE will not review submissions for any CBI or PII so it is the respondents' responsibility to ensure no such information is submitted.
If a respondent would like to respond with information that contains potential CBI or PII, they may do so by submitting responses to
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric securities filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the following application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
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j. Deadline for filing comments, protests, and motions to intervene is: 30 days from the issuance date of this notice by the Commission.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments, protests, and motions to intervene using the Commission's eFiling system at
k.
When a Declaration of Intention is filed with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, the Federal Power Act requires the Commission to investigate and determine if the project would affect the interests of interstate or foreign commerce. The Commission also determines whether or not the project: (1) Would be located on a navigable waterway; (2) would occupy public lands or reservations of the United States; (3) would utilize surplus water or water power from a government dam; or (4) would be located on a non-navigable stream over which Congress has Commerce Clause jurisdiction and would be constructed or enlarged after 1935.
l.
m. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.
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p.
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
Any person desiring to protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rule 211 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Science Advisory Board (SAB) Staff Office requests public nominations of scientific experts to augment the SAB Chemical Assessment Advisory Committee (CAAC) for the peer review of two EPA Draft Toxicological Review: (1) The Toxicological Review of
Nominations should be submitted by November 17, 2016 per the instructions below.
Any member of the public wishing further information regarding this Notice and Request for Nominations may contact the Designated Federal Officer for the review, as identified below. Nominators unable to submit nominations electronically as described below may contact the Designated Federal Officer for assistance. General information concerning the EPA SAB can be found at the EPA SAB Web site at
The National Center for Environmental Assessment (NCEA) in the EPA's Office of Research and Development (ORD) develops toxicological reviews/assessments for various chemicals for inclusion in the IRIS database. NCEA is developing a draft Toxicological Review of tert-Butyl Alcohol (
These two draft EPA documents represent new IRIS assessments of
EPA's SAB Staff Office requests contact information about the person making the nomination; contact information about the nominee; the disciplinary and specific areas of expertise of the nominee; the nominee's resume or curriculum vitae; sources of recent grant and/or contract support; and a biographical sketch of the nominee indicating current position, educational background, research activities, and recent service on other national advisory committees or national professional organizations.
Persons having questions about the nomination procedures, or who are unable to submit nominations through the SAB Web site, should contact Dr. Hill as noted above. Nominations should be submitted in time to arrive no later than November 17, 2016. EPA values and welcomes diversity. In an effort to obtain nominations of diverse candidates, EPA encourages nominations of women and men of all racial and ethnic groups.
The EPA SAB Staff Office will acknowledge receipt of nominations. The names and biosketches of qualified nominees identified by respondents to this
For the EPA SAB Staff Office a balanced review panel includes candidates who possess the necessary domains of knowledge, the relevant scientific perspectives (which, among other factors, can be influenced by work history and affiliation), and the collective breadth of experience to adequately address the charge. In forming this expert panel, the SAB Staff Office will consider public comments on the List of Candidates, information provided by the candidates themselves, and background information independently gathered by the SAB Staff Office. Selection criteria to be used for panel membership include: (a) Scientific and/or technical expertise, knowledge, and experience (primary factors); (b) availability and willingness to serve; (c) absence of financial conflicts of interest; (d) absence of an appearance of a loss of impartiality; (e) skills working in committees, subcommittees and advisory panels; and, (f) for the panel as a whole, diversity of expertise and scientific points of view.
The SAB Staff Office's evaluation of an absence of financial conflicts of interest will include a review of the “Confidential Financial Disclosure Form for Environmental Protection Agency Special Government Employees” (EPA Form 3110-48). This confidential form allows government officials to determine whether there is a statutory conflict between a person's public responsibilities (which include membership on an EPA federal advisory committee) and private interests and activities, or the appearance of a loss of impartiality, as defined by federal regulation. The form may be viewed and downloaded from the following URL address
The approved policy under which the EPA SAB Office selects members for subcommittees and review panels is described in the following document:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
EPA is required under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) to publish in the
Comments identified by the specific case number provided in this document, must be received on or before November 28, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2016-0025, and the specific PMN number or TME number for the chemical related to your comment, by one of the following methods:
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•
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Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
This action is directed to the public in general. As such, the Agency has not attempted to describe the specific entities that this action may apply to. Although others may be affected, this action applies directly to the submitters of the actions addressed in this document.
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2.
This document provides receipt and status reports, which cover the period from June 22, 2016 to June 30, 2016, and consists of the PMNs and TMEs both pending and/or expired, and the NOCs to manufacture a new chemical that the Agency has received under TSCA section 5 during this time period.
President Obama signed new TSCA legislation on June 22, 2016. TSCA subsection 5(a) notices, which were submitted prior to signature of the law, but were still within the review period on June 22 (
Under TSCA, 15 U.S.C. 2601
Anyone who plans to manufacture or import a new chemical substance for a non-exempt commercial purpose is required by TSCA section 5 to provide EPA with a notice before initiating the activity. TSCA furthermore prohibits such manufacturing or processing from commencing until EPA has conducted a review of the notice, made an appropriate determination on the notice, and taken such actions as are required in association with that determination (15 U.S.C. 2604(a)(1)(B)(ii)). Section 5(h)(1) of TSCA authorizes EPA to allow persons, upon application, to manufacture (includes import) or process a new chemical substance, or a chemical substance subject to a significant new use rule (SNUR) issued under TSCA section 5(a), for “test marketing” purposes, which is referred to as a test marketing exemption, or TME. For more information about the requirements applicable to a new chemical go to:
Under TSCA sections 5(d)(2) and 5(d)(3), EPA is required to publish in the
As used in each of the tables in this unit, (S) indicates that the information in the table is the specific information provided by the submitter, and (G) indicates that the information in the table is generic information because the specific information provided by the submitter was claimed as CBI.
For the 349 PMNs received by EPA during this period, the table provides the following information (to the extent that such information is not claimed as CBI): The EPA case number assigned to the PMN; the date the PMN was received by EPA; the projected end date for EPA's review of the PMN; the submitting manufacturer/importer; the potential uses identified by the manufacturer/importer in the PMN; and the chemical identity.
15 U.S.C. 2601
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of availability.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is announcing the availability of a final document titled, “Control Techniques Guidelines for the Oil and Natural Gas Industry” (EPA 453/B-16-001). This Control Techniques Guidelines (CTG) document provides state, local, and tribal air agencies (air agencies) information to assist them in determining reasonably available control technology (RACT) for volatile organic compound (VOC) emissions from select oil and natural gas industry emission sources.
This CTG document is effective October 27, 2016.
The final “Control Techniques Guidelines for the Oil and Natural Gas Industry” document is available primarily via the Internet at
Ms. Charlene Spells, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, Sector Policies and Programs Division (E143-05), Research Triangle Park, NC 27711; telephone number: (919) 541-5255; fax number: (919) 541-3470; email:
Section 172(c)(1) of the Clean Air Act (CAA) provides that State Implementation Plans (SIP) for nonattainment areas must include RACT, including RACT for existing sources of emissions. Section 182(b)(2)(A) of the CAA requires that for areas designated nonattainment for an ozone national ambient air quality standard (NAAQS) and classified as Moderate, states must revise their SIP to include provisions to implement RACT for each category of VOC sources covered by a CTG document issued between November 15, 1990, and the date of attainment. CAA section 182(c) through (e) applies this requirement to states with areas designated nonattainment for an ozone NAAQS classified as Serious, Severe, and Extreme.
The CAA also imposes the same requirement on states in Ozone Transport Regions (OTR). Specifically, CAA section 184(b) provides that states in the OTR must revise their SIP to implement RACT with respect to all sources of VOC in the state covered by a CTG document issued before or after November 15, 1990. CAA section 184(a) establishes a single OTR comprised of Connecticut, Delaware, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, New Hampshire, New Jersey, New York, Pennsylvania, Rhode Island, Vermont, and the Consolidated Metropolitan Statistical Area (CMSA) that includes the District of Columbia.
The EPA defines RACT as “the lowest emission limitation that a particular source is capable of meeting by the application of control technology that is reasonably available considering technological and economic feasibility” (44 FR 53761, September 17, 1979). In subsequent notices, the EPA has addressed how states can meet the RACT requirements of the CAA. The EPA developed this CTG document to provide air agencies information to assist them in determining what types of
The recommendations contained in the CTG document are based on data and information currently available to the EPA. These general recommendations may not apply to a particular situation based on circumstances not considered in the CTG document. Regardless of whether an air agency chooses to implement the recommendations contained in this CTG document, or to issue rules that adopt different approaches for RACT for VOC from oil and natural gas industry emission sources, air agencies must submit their RACT provisions to the EPA for review and approval as part of the SIP submission process. The EPA will evaluate the submissions and determine, through notice and comment rulemaking in the SIP review process, whether the submissions meet the RACT requirements of the CAA and the EPA's regulations. To the extent an air agency adopts any of the recommendations in this CTG document into its RACT provisions, interested parties can raise questions and objections about the appropriateness of the application of this guidance to a particular situation during the development of the rules and the EPA's SIP review process. Such questions and objections can relate to the substance of this guidance.
Section 182(b)(2) of the CAA provides that a CTG document issued after November 15, 1990, include the period for submitting SIP revisions incorporating provisions to require RACT for the category of VOC sources covered by the CTG document. The EPA is providing a 2-year period, from the effective date included in this Notice, for the required SIP submittal.
The Tribal Authority Rule (63 FR 7254, February 12, 1998) (TAR) identifies CAA provisions for which it is appropriate to treat Indian tribes in the same manner as air agencies (TAS). Pursuant to the TAR, tribes may apply for TAS for purposes of CAA section 110 and Part D planning requirements in CAA section 182. As a result, tribes may, but are not required to, apply for TAS for the purpose of developing a tribal implementation plan (TIP) addressing RACT for sources located in an area designated nonattainment for an ozone NAAQS with a classification of Moderate, Serious, Severe or Extreme within the tribe's jurisdiction. If the EPA grants that status and approves the TIP, the tribe would implement RACT in the area within the geographic scope of the TAS designation and the approved TIP. If a tribe does not seek and obtain the authority from the EPA to establish a plan, the EPA will be responsible for establishing CAA section 110 and 182 plans for reservations and trust lands, and any other lands under tribal jurisdiction, if the EPA determines that such a plan is necessary or appropriate to protect air quality in such areas. See 40 CFR 49.4 and 49.11.
A summary of the comments received on the draft CTG document and responses can be found in the docket at
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of approval and solicitation of requests for public hearing.
Notice is hereby given that the State of Maryland is revising its approved Public Water System Supervision Program. Maryland has adopted drinking water regulations for the Stage 2 Disinfectants and Disinfection By-Products Rule (Stage2). The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has determined that Maryland's Stage 2 Rule meets all minimum federal requirements, and that it is no less stringent than the corresponding federal regulation. Therefore, EPA has tentatively decided to approve the State program revisions.
Comments or a public hearing must be submitted by November 28, 2016. This determination shall become final and effective on November 28, 2016 if no timely and appropriate request for a hearing is received, and the Regional Administrator does not elect to hold a hearing on his own motion, and if no comments are received which cause EPA to modify its tentative approval.
Comments or a request for a public hearing must be submitted to the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region III, 1650 Arch Street, Philadelphia, PA 19103-2029. All documents relating to this determination are available for inspection between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, at the following offices:
• Drinking Water Branch, Water Protection Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency Region III, 1650 Arch Street, Philadelphia, PA 19103-2029.
• Water Management Administration, Maryland Department of the Environment, 1800 Washington Boulevard, Baltimore, Maryland 21230.
Anthony Meadows, Drinking Water Branch (3WP21) at the Philadelphia address given above, or telephone (215) 814-5442 or fax (215) 814-2318.
All interested parties are invited to submit written comments on this determination and may request a hearing. All comments will be considered, and if necessary EPA will issue a response. Frivolous or insubstantial requests for a hearing will be denied by the Regional Administrator. If a substantial request for a public hearing is made by November 28, 2016, a public hearing will be held. A request for public hearing shall include the following: (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the individual, organization, or other entity requesting a hearing; (2) a brief statement of the requesting person's interest in the Regional Administrator's determination and of information that the requesting person intends to submit at such hearing; and (3) the signature of the individual making the request; or, if the request is made on behalf of an organization or other entity, the signature of a responsible official of the organization or other entity.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
EPA has received an application to register a new use for a pesticide product containing a currently registered active ingredient. Pursuant to the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA), EPA is hereby providing notice of receipt and opportunity to comment on this application.
Comments must be received on or before November 28, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0594 and the EPA Registration Number of interest as shown in the body of this document, by one of the following methods:
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Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
Michael Goodis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
EPA has received an application to register a new use for a pesticide product containing a currently registered active ingredient. Pursuant to the provisions of FIFRA section 3(c)(4) (7 U.S.C. 136a(c)(4)), EPA is hereby providing notice of receipt and opportunity to comment on this application. Notice of receipt of this application does not imply a decision by the Agency on this application.
7 U.S.C. 136
The Federal Communications Commission will hold an Open Meeting on the subjects listed below on October 27, 2016 which is scheduled to commence at 10:30 a.m. in Room TW-C305, at 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC.
The Commission will consider the following subjects listed below as a consent agenda and these items will not be presented individually:
The Commission will consider the following personnel actions listed below and these items will not be presented individually:
The meeting site is fully accessible to people using wheelchairs or other mobility aids. Sign language interpreters, open captioning, and assistive listening devices will be provided on site. Other reasonable accommodations for people with disabilities are available upon request. In your request, include a description of the accommodation you will need and a way we can contact you if we need more information. Last minute requests will be accepted, but may be impossible to fill. Send an email to:
Additional information concerning this meeting may be obtained from the Office of Media Relations, (202) 418-0500; TTY 1-888-835-5322. Audio/
For a fee this meeting can be viewed live over George Mason University's Capitol Connection. The Capitol Connection also will carry the meeting live via the Internet. To purchase these services, call (703) 993-3100 or go to
Notice is hereby given that the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (“FDIC”) as Receiver for New Horizons Bank, East Ellijay, Georgia (“the Receiver”) intends to terminate its receivership for said institution. The FDIC was appointed receiver of New Horizons Bank on April 15, 2011. The liquidation of the receivership assets has been completed. To the extent permitted by available funds and in accordance with law, the Receiver will be making a final dividend payment to proven creditors.
Based upon the foregoing, the Receiver has determined that the continued existence of the receivership will serve no useful purpose. Consequently, notice is given that the receivership shall be terminated, to be effective no sooner than thirty days after the date of this Notice. If any person wishes to comment concerning the termination of the receivership, such comment must be made in writing and sent within thirty days of the date of this Notice to: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Attention: Receivership Oversight Department 34.6, 1601 Bryan Street, Dallas, TX 75201.
No comments concerning the termination of this receivership will be considered which are not sent within this time frame.
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC).
Notice and request for comment.
The FDIC, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the renewal of existing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 35). Currently, the FDIC is soliciting comment on renewal of the information collections described below.
Comments must be submitted on or before December 27, 2016.
Interested parties are invited to submit written comments to the FDIC by any of the following methods:
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All comments should refer to the relevant OMB control number. A copy of the comments may also be submitted to the OMB desk officer for the FDIC: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503.
Jennifer Jones, at the FDIC address above.
Proposal to renew the following currently approved collections of information:
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2.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collections of information are necessary for the proper performance of the FDIC's functions, including whether the information has practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the estimates of the burden of the information collections, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collections of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. All comments will become a matter of public record.
10:00 a.m., Tuesday, November 15, 2016.
The Richard V. Backley Hearing Room, Room 511N, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20004 (enter from F Street entrance).
Open.
The Commission will consider and act upon the following in open session:
Any person attending this meeting who requires special accessibility features and/or auxiliary aids, such as sign language interpreters, must inform the Commission in advance of those needs. Subject to 29 CFR 2706.150(a)(3) and 2706.160(d).
Emogene Johnson (202) 434-9935/(202) 708-9300 for TDD Relay/1-800-877-8339 for toll free.
1 (866) 867-4769, Passcode: 493-925.
10:00 a.m., Thursday, November 10, 2016.
The Richard V. Backley Hearing Room, Room 511N, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20004 (enter from F Street entrance).
Open.
The Commission will hear oral argument in the matter
Any person attending this oral argument who requires special accessibility features and/or auxiliary aids, such as sign language interpreters, must inform the Commission in advance of those needs. Subject to 29 CFR 2706.150(a)(3) and 2706.160(d).
Emogene Johnson (202) 434-9935/(202) 708-9300 for TDD, Relay/1-800-877-8339 for toll free.
1 (866) 867-4769, Passcode: 493-925.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than November 25, 2016.
1.
The notificants listed below have applied under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) and § 225.41 of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41) to acquire shares of a bank or bank holding company. The factors that are considered in acting on the notices are set forth in paragraph 7 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(7)).
The notices are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The notices also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing to the Reserve Bank indicated for that notice or to the offices of the Board of Governors. Comments must be received not later than November 14, 2016.
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Office of Government-wide Policy, General Services Administration (GSA).
Meeting notice.
Notice of this meeting is being provided according to the requirements of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. 10(a)(2). This notice provides the agenda and schedule for the November 17, 2016 meeting of the Green Building Advisory Committee (the Committee). The meeting is open to the public and the site is accessible to individuals with disabilities. Interested individuals must register to attend as instructed below under Supplementary Information.
The meeting will be held on Thursday, November 17, 2016, starting at 9:00 a.m. Eastern daylight time (EDT), and ending approximately at 4:00 p.m., EDT.
Mr. Ken Sandler, Designated Federal Officer, Office of Federal High-Performance Green Buildings, Office of Government-wide Policy, General Services Administration, 1800 F Street NW., Washington, DC 20405, telephone 202-219-1121 (note: This is not a toll-free number). Additional information about the Committee, including meeting materials and updates on the task groups and their schedules, will be available on-line at
Contact Ken Sandler at
Detailed agendas, background information and updates for the meeting will be posted on GSA's Web site at
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The notice for the proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address any of the following: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
Report of Verified Case of Tuberculosis (RVCT), (OMB Control No. 0920-0026 exp. 3/31/2017)—Extension—National Center for HIV/AIDS, Viral Hepatitis, STD, and TB Prevention (NCHHSTP), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention CDC).
In the United States, an estimated 10 to 15 million people are infected with
CDC currently conducts and maintains the national TB surveillance system (NTSS) pursuant to the provisions of Section 301 (a) of the Public Service Act [42 U.S.C. 241] and Section 306 of the Public Service Act [42 U.S.C. 241 (a)]. Data are collected by 60 reporting areas (the 50 states, the District of Columbia, New York City, Puerto Rico, and 7 jurisdictions in the Pacific and Caribbean). The last major revision of the RVCT data collection instrument was approved in 2009, in consultation with CDC's Division of Tuberculosis Elimination (DTBE), state and local health departments, and partner organizations including the National TB Controllers Association, the Council for State and Territorial Epidemiologists, and the Advisory Committee for the Elimination of Tuberculosis. No revisions to the RVCT are proposed in this data collection extension request.
CDC publishes an annual report using RVCT data to summarize national TB statistics and also periodically conducts special analyses for publication to further describe and interpret national TB data. These data assist in public health planning, evaluation, and resource allocation. Reporting areas also review and analyze their RVCT data to monitor local TB trends, evaluate program success, and focus resources to eliminate TB. No other Federal agency collects this type of national TB data.
In addition to providing technical assistance on the use of RVCT, CDC provides technical support for reporting software. In this request, CDC is requesting approval for approximately 5496 burden hours, an estimated decrease of 350 hours from 2014. This decrease is due to having fewer TB cases in the United States as we continue progress towards TB elimination. There is no cost to respondents other than their time.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) located within the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) is publishing the names of the Performance Review Board Members who are reviewing performance for Fiscal Year 2016.
Sharon O'Brien, Deputy Director, Executive and Scientific Resources Office, Human Resources Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 4770 Buford Highway NE., Mailstop K-15, Atlanta, Georgia 30341, Telephone (770) 488-1781.
Title 5, U.S.C. Section 4314(c) (4) of the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978, Public Law 95-454, requires that the appointment of Performance Review Board Members be published in the
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice.
HRSA is publishing this notice of petitions received under the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program (the Program), as required by Section 2112(b)(2) of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act, as amended. While the Secretary of HHS is named as the respondent in all proceedings brought by the filing of petitions for compensation under the Program, the United States Court of Federal Claims is charged by statute with responsibility for considering and acting upon the petitions.
For information about requirements for filing petitions, and the Program in general, contact the Clerk, United States Court of Federal Claims, 717 Madison Place NW., Washington, DC 20005, (202) 357-6400. For information on HRSA's role in the Program, contact the Director, National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program, 5600 Fishers Lane, Room 08N146B, Rockville, MD 20857; (301) 443-6593, or visit our Web site at:
The Program provides a system of no-fault compensation for certain individuals who have been injured by specified childhood vaccines. Subtitle 2 of Title XXI of the PHS Act, 42 U.S.C. 300aa-10 et seq., provides that those seeking compensation are to file a petition with the U.S. Court of Federal Claims and to serve a copy of the petition on the Secretary of Health and Human Services, who is named as the respondent in each proceeding. The Secretary has delegated this responsibility under the Program to HRSA. The Court is directed by statute to appoint special masters who take evidence, conduct hearings as appropriate, and make initial decisions as to eligibility for, and amount of, compensation.
A petition may be filed with respect to injuries, disabilities, illnesses, conditions, and deaths resulting from vaccines described in the Vaccine Injury Table (the Table) set forth at 42 CFR 100.3. This Table lists for each covered childhood vaccine the conditions that may lead to compensation and, for each condition, the time period for occurrence of the first symptom or manifestation of onset or of significant aggravation after vaccine administration. Compensation may also be awarded for conditions not listed in the Table and for conditions that are manifested outside the time periods specified in the Table, but only if the petitioner shows that the condition was caused by one of the listed vaccines.
Section 2112(b)(2) of the PHS Act, 42 U.S.C. 300aa-12(b)(2), requires that “[w]ithin 30 days after the Secretary receives service of any petition filed under section 2111 the Secretary shall publish notice of such petition in the
Section 2112(b)(2) also provides that the special master “shall afford all interested persons an opportunity to submit relevant, written information” relating to the following:
1. The existence of evidence “that there is not a preponderance of the evidence that the illness, disability, injury, condition, or death described in the petition is due to factors unrelated to the administration of the vaccine described in the petition,” and
2. Any allegation in a petition that the petitioner either:
a. “[S]ustained, or had significantly aggravated, any illness, disability, injury, or condition not set forth in the Vaccine Injury Table but which was caused by” one of the vaccines referred to in the Table, or
b. “[S]ustained, or had significantly aggravated, any illness, disability, injury, or condition set forth in the Vaccine Injury Table the first symptom or manifestation of the onset or significant aggravation of which did not occur within the time period set forth in the Table but which was caused by a vaccine” referred to in the Table.
In accordance with Section 2112(b)(2), all interested persons may submit written information relevant to the issues described above in the case of the petitions listed below. Any person choosing to do so should file an original and three (3) copies of the information with the Clerk of the U.S. Court of Federal Claims at the address listed above (under the heading
Periodically, the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) will publish a summary of information collection requests under OMB review, in compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35). To request a copy of these documents, call the SAMHSA Reports Clearance Officer on (240) 276-1243.
Project: Project: Voluntary Customer Satisfaction Surveys to Implement Executive Order 12862 in the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA)—(OMB No. 0930-0197)—Extension
Executive Order 12862 directs agencies that “provide significant services directly to the public” to “survey customers to determine the kind and quality of services they want and their level of satisfaction with existing services.” SAMHSA provides significant services directly to the public, including treatment providers and State substance abuse and mental health agencies, through a range of mechanisms, including publications, training, meetings, technical assistance and Web sites. Many of these services are focused on information dissemination activities. The purpose of this submission is to extend the existing generic approval for such surveys.
The primary use for information gathered is to identify strengths and weaknesses in current service provisions by SAMHSA and to make improvements that are practical and feasible. Several of the customer satisfaction surveys expected to be implemented under this approval will provide data for measurement of program effectiveness under the Government Performance and Results Act (GPRA). Information from these customer surveys will be used to plan and redirect resources and efforts to improve or maintain a high quality of service to health care providers and members of the public. Focus groups may be used to develop the survey questionnaire in some instances.
The estimated annual hour burden is as follows:
Written comments and recommendations concerning the proposed information collection should be sent by November 28, 2016 to the SAMHSA Desk Officer at the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB). To ensure timely receipt of comments, and to avoid potential delays in OMB's receipt and processing of mail sent through the U.S. Postal Service, commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This is a notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of North Carolina (FEMA-4285-DR), dated October 10, 2016, and related determinations.
Effective October 10, 2016.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated October 10, 2016, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
I have determined that the damage in certain areas of the State of North Carolina resulting from Hurricane Matthew beginning on October 4, 2016, and continuing, is of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant a major disaster declaration under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
In order to provide Federal assistance, you are hereby authorized to allocate from funds available for these purposes such amounts as you find necessary for Federal disaster assistance and administrative expenses.
You are authorized to provide Individual Assistance and assistance for debris removal and emergency protective measures (Categories A and B) under the Public Assistance program in the designated areas, Hazard Mitigation throughout the State, and any other forms of assistance under the Stafford Act that you deem appropriate subject to completion of Preliminary Damage Assessments (PDAs). Direct Federal assistance is authorized.
Consistent with the requirement that Federal assistance is supplemental, any Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Hazard Mitigation and Other Needs Assistance will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs. Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Public Assistance also will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs, with the exception of projects that meet the eligibility criteria for a higher Federal cost-sharing percentage under the Public Assistance Alternative Procedures Pilot Program for Debris Removal implemented pursuant to section 428 of the Stafford Act.
Further, you are authorized to make changes to this declaration for the approved assistance to the extent allowable under the Stafford Act.
The time period prescribed for the implementation of section 310(a), Priority to Certain Applications for Public Facility and Public Housing Assistance, 42 U.S.C. 5153, shall be for a period not to exceed six months after the date of this declaration.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Elizabeth Turner, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.
The following areas of the State of North Carolina have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:
Beaufort, Bladen, Columbus, Cumberland, Edgecombe, Hoke, Lenoir, Nash, Pitt, and Robeson Counties for Individual Assistance.
Beaufort, Bertie, Bladen, Brunswick, Camden, Carteret, Chowan, Columbus, Craven, Cumberland, Currituck, Dare, Duplin, Edgecombe, Greene, Hoke, Hyde, Johnston, Lenoir, Nash, New Hanover, Onslow, Pamlico, Pasquotank, Pender, Perquimans, Pitt, Robeson, Tyrrell, Washington, and Wayne Counties for debris removal and emergency protective measures (Categories A and B), including direct federal assistance, under the Public Assistance program.
All areas within the State of North Carolina are eligible for assistance under the Hazard Mitigation Grant Program.
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households in Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Notice of Waiver of Certain Parts of 25 CFR Part 11.
This notice accompanies the interim final rule establishing a Court of Indian Offenses (also known as CFR Court) for the Wind River Indian Reservation. It waives the application of certain sections of the regulations for the Court of Indian Offenses serving the Wind River Indian Reservation to allow BIA to establish a CFR court when necessary. It will also allow the Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs to appoint a magistrate without the need for confirmation by the tribal governing body.
This notice is effective on October 27, 2016.
Ms. Elizabeth Appel, Director, Office of Regulatory Affairs & Collaborative Action—Indian Affairs, (202) 273-4680;
Courts of Indian Offenses operate in those areas of Indian country where tribes retain jurisdiction over Indians that is exclusive of State jurisdiction but where tribal courts have not been established to fully exercise that jurisdiction. The Eastern Shoshone Tribe and the Northern Arapaho Tribe have a joint interest in the Wind River Indian Reservation; however, the current tribal court operating on the reservation, the Shoshone & Arapaho Tribal Court, is currently operating without the support of both Tribes, and with limited resources. To ensure the continued administration of justice on the Reservation, BIA is taking steps to ensure that judicial services will continue to be provided if the Shoshone & Arapaho Tribal Court ceases operations. Therefore, the Secretary has determined, in her discretion, that it is necessary to waive 25 CFR 11.104(a) and 25 CFR 11.201(a) on the Wind River Indian Reservation to ensure that the Bureau of Indian Affairs can establish and operate a Court of Indian Offenses immediately in the event that the Shoshone and Arapaho Tribal Court ceases operations.
Section 11.104(a) provides that 25 CFR part 11 applies to Tribes listed in
Section 11.201(a) provides that the Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs appoints a magistrate subject to confirmation by a majority vote of the Tribal governing bodies.
The waiver will allow BIA to establish a CFR court when necessary and to allow the Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs to appoint a magistrate without the need for confirmation by the Tribal governing body.
National Park Service, Department of the Interior.
Notice of availability.
The National Park Service (NPS) announces the availability of the Draft Fire Island Wilderness Breach Management Plan and Environmental Impact Statement (Draft Breach Plan/EIS) for Fire Island National Seashore, New York. The Draft Breach Plan/EIS presents and analyzes the potential consequences of three alternatives that will guide the management of the breach that occurred in the Otis Pike Fire Island High Dune Wilderness during Hurricane Sandy in October, 2012.
The comment period will end on December 12, 2016. A public meeting will be held on November 7, 2016.
Copies of the Draft Breach Plan/EIS will be available online for public review at
Kaetlyn Jackson, Fire Island National Seashore, 120 Laurel Street Patchogue, NY, 11772, 631-687-4770.
On October 29, 2012, Hurricane Sandy created three breaches in the barrier island system off the south shore of Long Island, New York, including one within the Otis Pike Fire Island High Dune Wilderness Area (Fire Island Wilderness) which is within the boundaries of Fire Island National Seashore (Seashore).
The existing Breach Contingency Plan, developed by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers in 1996, is the only guidance currently in effect to address breaches along coastal Long Island from Fire Island Inlet east to Montauk Point. Action is needed at this time because the Breach Contingency Plan is outdated and does not adequately address management of breaches in the Fire Island Wilderness.
Managing a breach in designated wilderness is different from managing breaches outside wilderness areas, as the NPS must manage federal wilderness to preserve wilderness character. Management of the Fire Island Wilderness must comply with the Wilderness Act of 1964; the 1980 Otis Pike Fire Island High Dune Wilderness Act (Pub. L. 96-585); and the 1983
• Ensuring the continued integrity of the wilderness character;
• protecting the natural and cultural features of the Seashore and its surrounding ecosystems;
• protecting human life; and
• managing the risk of economic and physical damage to the surrounding areas.
Scoping and early engagement with other agencies, tribes, stakeholders, and the public began in late 2014 and continued through 2015. Formal public scoping was initiated with the publication of a Notice of Intent to Prepare an EIS in the
The Draft Breach Plan/EIS evaluates two action alternatives and the no-action alternative.
Alternative 3 is identified as the NPS preferred alternative because it allows the breach to be managed according to NPS resource management policies and wilderness directives while allowing closure if necessary to prevent “loss of life, flooding, and other severe economic and physical damage to the Great South Bay and surrounding areas.”
The Draft Breach Plan/EIS analyzes the impacts of these three alternatives on the human environment by examining five key issues:
(1) The wilderness breach is geologically bound by erosion-resistant clay in the geological record to the east and west of the breach; however, there is uncertainty regarding how the breach will evolve in the future (narrow or widen from existing conditions), how far it might migrate along the coast, and how it affects sediment transport.
(2) There is concern that the presence of the wilderness breach increases the potential for flooding on the mainland of Long Island during storm events, increasing the potential risk to life and property.
(3) The wilderness breach has altered the physical characteristics of the Fire Island Wilderness and Great South Bay, which has led to changes in the ecological communities.
(4) The wilderness breach resulted in the creation of a marine wilderness area that did not previously exist. The mechanical closure of the breach would alter the existing wilderness qualities of the area.
(5) Driving access has changed since formation of the wilderness breach. There is concern that changes in driving access for emergency response could increase risks to public health and safety in several Fire Island communities.
To examine these issues, the environmental analysis focuses on the following resources:
• Wilderness character;
• sediment transport and geomorphology;
• water quality;
• ecosystem structure and processes;
• benthic communities;
• finfish and decapod crustaceans;
• socioeconomics; and
• public health and safety.
The NPS encourages commenting electronically through the NPS Planning, Environment, and Public Comment Web site. If you wish to comment electronically, you may submit your comments online at
If you wish to submit your comments in hard copy (
A public meeting will be held on November 7th from 7:00 to 8:30 p.m. at the Patchogue-Watch Hill Ferry Terminal at 150 West Ave. in Patchogue, New York. The public meeting will provide an opportunity to learn more about the plan and to ask questions about the plan. Written comments will be accepted during the public meeting.
Comments will not be accepted by fax, email, or in any form other than those specified above. All comments received on the Draft Breach Plan/EIS will be reviewed and considered. An analysis of substantive comments with NPS responses will be provided in a comment analysis report that will be included in the Final Breach Plan/EIS. A comment is considered to be substantive if it raises, debates, or questions a point of fact or policy discussed in the Draft Breach Plan/EIS. Comments that merely state support for or opposition to the proposed action, alternatives, or NPS policy, without providing supporting information, will not be considered substantive. Although all comments will be read and considered in shaping the Final Breach Plan/EIS, only those that are determined to be substantive will be explicitly addressed by the NPS response.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notification of boundary adjustment.
The boundary of Hopewell Culture National Historical Park is adjusted to include an adjacent nonfederal parcel of land containing 4.03 acres. Upon completion of this adjustment, fee simple interest in the land will be acquired by exchange for a federal parcel within the park. The federal parcel will be conveyed subject to restrictions to ensure continued compatible use of the property within the park. Both parcels are located in Ross County, Ohio.
The effective date of this boundary adjustment is October 27, 2016.
The map depicting this boundary adjustment is available for inspection at the following locations: National Park Service, Land Resources Program Center, Midwest Region, 601 Riverfront Drive, Omaha, NE 68102 and National Park Service, Department of the Interior, 1849 C Street NW., Washington, DC 20240.
Superintendent Dean Alexander, Hopewell Culture National Historical Park, 16062 State Route 104, Chillicothe, OH 45601-8694, telephone (740) 774-1126.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to 16 U.S.C. 410uu-1(c), the boundary of Hopewell Culture National Historical Park is adjusted to include an additional 4.03 acres. This boundary adjustment is depicted on Map No. 353/132767 dated May 2016.
16 U.S.C. 410uu-1(c) states that the Secretary of the Interior may, by publication of notice in the
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The San Diego Museum of Man has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects, in consultation with the appropriate Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request to the San Diego Museum of Man. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains and associated funerary objects to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the San Diego Museum of Man at the address in this notice by November 28, 2016.
Ben Garcia, Deputy Director, San Diego Museum of Man, 1350 El Prado, San Diego, CA 92101, telephone (619) 239-2001 ext. 17, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects under the control of the San Diego Museum of Man, San Diego, California. The human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from Del Mar, San Diego County, CA.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains and associated funerary objects was made by the San Diego Museum of Man professional staff in consultation with representatives of the Campo Band of Diegueno Mission Indians of the Campo Indian Reservation, California; Capitan Grande Band of Diegueno Mission Indians of California: (Barona Group of Capitan Grande Band of Mission Indians of the Barona Reservation, California; Viejas (Baron Long) Group of Capitan Grande Band of Mission Indians of the Viejas Reservation, California); Ewiiaapaayp Band of Kumeyaay Indians, California; Iipay Nation of Santa Ysabel, California (previously listed as the Santa Ysabel Band of Diegueno Mission Indians of the Santa Ysabel Reservation); Inaja Band of Diegueno Mission Indians of the Inaja and Cosmit Reservation, California; Jamul Indian Village of California; La Posta Band of Diegueno Mission Indians of the La Posta Indian Reservation, California; Manzanita Band of Diegueno Mission Indians of the Manzanita Reservation, California; Mesa Grande Band of Diegueno Mission Indians of the Mesa Grande Reservation, California; San Pasqual Band of Diegueno Mission Indians of California; and the Sycuan Band of the Kumeyaay Nation (hereafter referred to as “The Tribes”).
In 1929, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were removed from a coastal bluff facing the Pacific Ocean, north of the San Dieguito River mouth (SDM W-34) in Del Mar, San Diego County, CA. The remains were excavated by Malcolm J. Rogers, on behalf of the San Diego Museum of Man. Rogers was conducting archaeological reconnaissance work in the Southern California coastal, mountain and desert regions under a grant funded by the Smithsonian Institution. Later, he became a field archaeologist and Curator of Anthropology at the San Diego Museum of Man. Shortly after excavation, Rogers transferred control of the remains of these individuals to the San Diego Museum of Man. No known individuals were identified. The 98 associated funerary objects are 3 metates, 1 groundstone tool, 1 mano, 2 battered stones, 7 core tools, 2 ceramic pot sherds, 2 olivella beads, 1 chione pendant, 1 cottonwood biface, 1 biface tool, 28 utilized flakes, 10 fish vertebrae, 9 unidentified faunal remains, 1 fish palate, 5 stone ecofacts, 5 lots of various shell, 1 rock oyster, 2 argopectin shells, 3 limpets, 3 gastropods, 1 barnacle, 1 olivella shell, 1 moonsnail, 2 lots of small rock, 1 lot of charcoal, 1 abalone pry bar and 3 soil samples.
In 1972, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were removed north of the La Zanja Canyon near Circo Diegueno Rd. (SDM W-467) in Del Mar, San Diego County, CA. The remains were removed by Mr. Phil McDonald during an independent excavation. The same year, McDonald donated the remains of this individual to the San Diego Museum of Man. No known individuals were identified. The 7 associated funerary objects are 6 core tools and 1 utilized flake.
Sites, SDM W-34 and SDM W-467, are located within territory traditionally occupied by the Kumeyaay Nation as represented by The Tribes. Based on collection research, archeological evidence, geographic location, ethnographic information, and oral history evidence, these remains have been identified as prehistoric Kumeyaay.
• Officials of the San Diego Museum of Man have determined that: Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of three individuals of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C 3001(3)(A), the 105 associated funerary objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects and The Tribes.
Lineal descendants and representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Ben Garcia, Deputy Director, San Diego Museum of Man, 1350 El Prado, San Diego, CA 92101, telephone (619) 239-2001 ext. 17, email
The San Diego Museum of Man is responsible for notifying The Tribes that this notice has been published.
30-day notice.
To comply with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), the Bureau of Ocean Energy Management (BOEM) is notifying the public that we have submitted an information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. The information collection request (ICR) concerns the paperwork requirements for 30 CFR 553, Oil Spill Financial Responsibility for Offshore Facilities, as well as the revised forms. The OMB previously approved this information collection activity, and assigned it control number 1010-0106. This notice provides the public a second opportunity to comment on the paperwork burden of this collection.
Submit written comments by November 28, 2016.
Submit comments on this ICR to the Desk Officer for the Department of the Interior at OMB-OIRA at (202) 395-5806 (fax) or
Anna Atkinson, Office of Policy, Regulations, and Analysis at (703) 787-1025 (phone). You may review the ICR and revised forms online at
The Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521) and OMB regulations at 5 CFR part 1320 provide that an agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. Until OMB approves a collection of information, you are not obligated to respond. In order to obtain and renew an OMB control number, Federal agencies are required to seek public comment on information collection and recordkeeping activities (see 5 CFR 1320.8(d) and 1320.12(a)).
As required at 5 CFR 1320.8(d), the BLM published a 60-day notice in the
Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501,
The following information pertains to this request:
The BOEM uses the information collected under 30 CFR 553 to verify compliance with section 1016 of the Oil Pollution Act, as amended (OPA). The information is necessary to confirm that applicants can pay for cleanup and damages resulting from oil spills and other hydrocarbon discharges that originate from Covered Offshore Facilities (COFs).
We will protect information from respondents considered proprietary under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) and its implementing regulations (43 CFR part 2) and under regulations at 30 CFR 550.197, “Data and information to be made available to the public or for limited inspection.” No items of a sensitive nature are collected. Responses are mandatory.
Bureau of Safety and Environmental Enforcement, Interior.
30-Day notice.
To comply with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), the Bureau of Safety and Environmental Enforcement (BSEE) is notifying the public that we have submitted to OMB an information collection request (ICR) to renew approval of the paperwork requirements in the regulations under Subpart E,
You must submit comments by November 28, 2016.
Submit comments by either fax (202) 395-5806 or email (
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Kelly Odom, Regulations and Standards Branch, (703) 787-1775, to request additional information about this ICR. To see a copy of the entire ICR submitted to OMB, go to
In addition to the general rulemaking authority of the OCSLA at 43 U.S.C. 1334, section 301(a) of the Federal Oil and Gas Royalty Management Act (FOGRMA), 30 U.S.C. 1751(a), grants authority to the Secretary to prescribe such rules and regulations as are reasonably necessary to carry out FOGRMA's provisions. While the majority of FOGRMA is directed to royalty collection and enforcement, some provisions apply to offshore operations. For example, section 108 of FOGRMA, 30 U.S.C. 1718, grants the Secretary broad authority to inspect lease sites for the purpose of determining whether there is compliance with the mineral leasing laws. Section 109(c)(2) and (d)(1), 30 U.S.C. 1719(c)(2) and (d)(1), impose substantial civil penalties for failure to permit lawful inspections and for knowing or willful preparation or submission of false, inaccurate, or misleading reports, records, or other information. Because the Secretary has delegated some of the authority under FOGRMA to BSEE, 30 U.S.C. 1751 is included as additional authority for these requirements.
These authorities and responsibilities are among those delegated to BSEE. The regulations at 30 CFR 250, Subpart E, concern oil and gas well-completion operations and are the subject of this collection. This request also covers the related Notices to Lessees and Operators (NTLs) that BSEE issues to clarify, supplement, or provide additional guidance on some aspects of our regulations.
All responses are mandatory. This collection does not contain questions of a sensitive nature. BSEE will protect proprietary information according to the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) and DOI's implementing regulations (43 CFR 2); 30 CFR part 250.197,
• Compliance with personnel safety training requirements;
• Crown block safety device is operating and can be expected to function to avoid accidents;
• Proposed operation of the annular preventer is technically correct and provides adequate protection for personnel, property, and natural resources;
• Well-completion operations are conducted on well casings that are structurally competent; and
• Sustained casing pressures are within acceptable limits.
To comply with the public consultation process, on June 13, 2016, we published a
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Department of Labor.
Notice of public meeting.
This notice is to advise interested persons that on Tuesday, November 15, 2016, OSHA will conduct a public meeting to discuss proposals in preparation for the 32nd session of the
Also, on Tuesday, November 15, 2016, the Department of Transportation (DOT), Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA) will conduct a public meeting (See Docket No. PHMSA-2016-0114 Notice No. 16-19) to discuss proposals in preparation for the 50th session of the United Nations Sub-Committee of Experts on the Transport of Dangerous Goods (UNSCE TDG) to be held November 27 to December 6, 2016, in Geneva, Switzerland. During this meeting, PHMSA is also requesting comments relative to potential new work items that may be considered for inclusion in its international agenda. PHMSA will also provide an update on recent actions to enhance transparency and stakeholder interaction through improvements to the international standards portion of its Web site.
Tuesday, November 15, 2016.
Both meetings will be held at the DOT Headquarters Conference Center, West Building, Oklahoma City Conference Room, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590.
Specific information on call-in and live meeting access will be posted when available at:
At the Department of Transportation, please contact Mr. Steven Webb or Mr. Aaron Wiener, Office of Hazardous Materials Safety, Department of Transportation, Washington, DC 20590, telephone: (202) 366-8553.
At the Department of Labor, please contact Ms. Maureen Ruskin, OSHA Directorate of Standards and Guidance, Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210, telephone: (202) 693-1950, email:
General topics on the agenda include:
Informal Papers submitted to the UNSCEGHS provide information for the Sub-committee and are used either as a mechanism to provide information to the Sub-committee or as the basis for future Working Papers. Informal Papers for the 32nd session of the UNSCEGHS are located at:
In addition to participating at the Public meeting, interested parties may submit comments on the Working and Informal Papers for the 32nd session of the UNSCEGHS to the docket established for International/Globally Harmonized System (GHS) efforts at
PHMSA will host the meeting to gain input from the public concerning proposals submitted to the UNSCOE TDG for the 20th Revised Edition of the United Nations Recommendations on the Transport of Dangerous Goods Model Regulations, which may be implemented into relevant domestic, regional, and international regulations from January 1, 2019. During this meeting, PHMSA is also soliciting input relative to preparing for the 50th session of the UNSCE TDG as well as potential new work items which may be considered for inclusion in its international agenda.
Copies of working documents, informal documents, and the meeting agenda may be obtained from the United Nations Transport Division's Web site at:
Office of Management and Budget
Notice of public comment period.
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) is seeking public comment on a draft memorandum titled, “
The 30-day public comment period on the draft memorandum begins on October 26, 2016 in the
Interested parties should provide comments at the following link:
Sean Casey at
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) is proposing a new policy to modernize the Federal government's aging IT systems. This memorandum would require the CFO-Act agencies to identify systems as candidates for modernization and submit modernization proposals to OMB. Research and agency-submitted analysis indicates that aging legacy systems pose operations risks for the agencies and the government as a whole when these systems cannot adapt to current or expected mission requirements, user needs, or operating environments. This memorandum strives to assist agencies with the costs and risks of modernizing critical systems, and it seeks to promote cost reductions, risk reductions, and improved delivery of services to the American public through modernization of these systems. Authority for this notice is granted under the Clinger-Cohen Act, 40 U.S.C. Subtitle III.
National Science Foundation.
Notice of permits issued under the Antarctic Conservation of 1978, Public Law 95-541.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) is required to publish notice of permits issued under the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978. This is the required notice.
Nature McGinn, ACA Permit Officer, Division of Polar Programs, Rm. 755, National Science Foundation, 4201 Wilson Boulevard, Arlington, VA 22230. Or by email:
On September 9, 2016 the National Science Foundation published a notice in the
Dr. George Watters
Permit Nos. 2017-012; 2017-013
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
License amendment application; withdrawal by applicant.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has granted the request of the Southern Nuclear Operating Company, Inc. (SNC—the licensee) to withdraw its license amendment application dated November 24, 2014, as supplemented on September 28, 2015; March 3, 2016; and July 25, 2016, for proposed amendments to Renewed Facility Operating License Nos. NPF 2 and NPF 8 for the Joseph M. Farley Nuclear Plant, Units 1 and 2, respectively, located in Houston County, Alabama. The application contained 24 requests. Twenty-three of those requests were addressed in NRC letter dated August 3, 2016. The amendments adopted previously approved Technical Specifications Task Force Travelers and made two changes not associated with Travelers. A request to incorporate TSTF-312-A, Revision 1, “Administratively Control Containment Penetrations,” has been withdrawn by SNC in a letter dated October 17, 2016.
The license amendment was withdrawn by the licensee on October 17, 2016.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2015-0015 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Shawn Williams, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-1009, email:
The NRC has granted the request of the licensee to withdraw its November 24, 2014, license amendment application (ADAMS Package Accession No. ML14335A689), as supplemented on September 28, 2015 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15271A223); March 3, 2016 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16063A516); and July 25, 2016 (ADAMS Accession Package No. ML16214A040), for proposed amendments to Renewed Facility Operating License Nos. NPF 2 and NPF 8 for the Joseph M. Farley Nuclear Plant, Units 1 and 2, respectively, located in Houston County, Alabama.
The licensee requested to change the Technical Specifications related to TSTF-312-A, Revision 1, “Administratively Control Containment Penetrations.”
The proposed amendment was noticed in the
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Exemption and combined license amendment; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is granting an exemption to allow a departure from the certification information of Tier 1 of the generic design control document (DCD) and is issuing License Amendment No. 55 to Combined Licenses (COL), NPF-91 and NPF-92. The COLs were issued to Southern Nuclear Operating Company, Inc., and Georgia Power Company, Oglethorpe Power Corporation, MEAG Power SPVM, LLC, MEAG Power SPVJ, LLC, MEAG Power SPVP, LLC, Authority of Georgia, and the City of Dalton, Georgia (the licensee); for construction and operation of the Vogtle Electric Generating Plant (VEGP) Units 3 and 4, located in Burke County, Georgia.
The granting of the exemption allows the changes to Tier 1 information asked for in the amendment. Because the acceptability of the exemption was determined in part by the acceptability of the amendment, the exemption and amendment are being issued concurrently.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2008-0252 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Paul Kallan, Office of New Reactors, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-2809; email:
The NRC is granting an exemption from paragraph B of section III, “Scope and Contents,” of Appendix D, “Design Certification Rule for the AP1000,” to part 52 of Title 10 of the
Part of the justification for granting the exemption was provided by the review of the amendment. Because the exemption is necessary in order to issue the requested license amendment, the NRC granted the exemption and issued the amendment concurrently, rather than in sequence. This included issuing a combined safety evaluation containing the NRC staff's review of both the exemption request and the license amendment. The exemption met all applicable regulatory criteria set forth in 10 CFR 50.12, 10 CFR 52.7, and Section VIII.A.4 of Appendix d to 10 CFR part 52. The license amendment was found to be acceptable as well. The combined safety evaluation is available in ADAMS under Accession No. ML16237A393.
Identical exemption documents (except for referenced unit numbers and license numbers) were issued to the licensee for VEGP Units 3 and 4 (COLs NPF-91 and NPF-92). The exemption documents for VEGP Units 3 and 4 can be found in ADAMS under Accession Nos. ML16237A325 and ML16237A344, respectively. The exemption is reproduced (with the exception of abbreviated titles and additional citations) in Section II of this document. The amendment documents for COLs NPF-91 and NPF-92 are available in ADAMS under Accession Nos. ML16237A315 and ML16237A319, respectively. A summary of the amendment documents is provided in Section III of this document.
Reproduced below is the exemption document issued to Vogtle Units 3 and Unit 4. It makes reference to the combined safety evaluation that provides the reasoning for the findings made by the NRC (and listed under Item 1) in order to grant the exemption:
1. In a letter dated May 5, 2016, the licensee requested from the Commission an exemption from the provisions of 10 CFR part 52, Appendix d, Section III.B, as part of License Amendment Request 16-004, “Passive Core Cooling System (PXS) Design Changes to Address Potential Gas Intrusion (LAR-16-004).”
For the reasons set forth in Section 3.1, “Evaluation of Exemption,” of the NRC staff's Safety Evaluation, which can be found in ADAMS under Accession No. ML16237A393, the Commission finds that:
A. The exemption is authorized by law;
B. the exemption presents no undue risk to public health and safety;
C. the exemption is consistent with the common defense and security;
D. special circumstances are present in that the application of the rule in this circumstance is not necessary to serve the underlying purpose of the rule;
E. the special circumstances outweigh any decrease in safety that may result from the reduction in standardization caused by the exemption; and
F. the exemption will not result in a significant decrease in the level of safety otherwise provided by the design.
2. Accordingly, the licensee is granted an exemption from the certified DCD Tier 1 information, with corresponding changes to Appendix C of the facility COLs as described in the licensee's request dated May 5, 2016. This exemption is related to, and necessary for, the granting of License Amendment No. 55, which is being issued concurrently with this exemption.
3. As explained in Section 5.0, “Environmental Consideration,” of the NRC staff's Safety Evaluation this exemption meets the eligibility criteria for categorical exclusion set forth in 10 CFR 51.22(c)(9). Therefore, pursuant to 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment needs to be prepared in connection with the issuance of the exemption.
4. This exemption is effective as of the date of its issuance.
By letter dated May 5, 2016, the licensee requested that the NRC amend the COLs for VEGP, Units 3 and 4, COLs NPF-91 and NPF-92. The proposed amendment is described in Section I of this
The Commission has determined for these amendments that the application complies with the standards and requirements of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), and the Commission's rules and regulations. The Commission has made appropriate findings as required by the Act and the Commission's rules and regulations in 10 CFR chapter I, which are set forth in the license amendment.
A notice of consideration of issuance of amendment to facility operating license or combined license, as applicable, proposed no significant hazards consideration determination, and opportunity for a hearing in connection with these actions, was published in the
The Commission has determined that these amendments satisfy the criteria for categorical exclusion in accordance with 10 CFR 51.22. Therefore, pursuant to 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment need be prepared for these amendments.
Using the reasons set forth in the combined safety evaluation, the staff granted the exemption and issued the amendment that the licensee requested on May 5, 2016.
The exemption and amendment were issued on October 4, 2016 as part of a combined package to the licensee (ADAMS Accession No. ML16237A283).
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Exemption; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing an exemption in response to a January 15, 2016, request from Entergy Nuclear Operations, Inc. (Entergy or the licensee), from certain regulatory requirements. The exemption would permit a certified fuel handler to approve the emergency suspension of security measures for James A. Fitzpatrick Nuclear Power Plant (JAF) during certain emergency conditions or during severe weather. The exemption will be effective after JAF has submitted the certifications that it has permanently ceased power operation and has permanently removed fuel from the reactor vessel.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0221 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Thomas Wengert, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation; U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-4037; email:
Entergy is the holder of Renewed Facility Operating License No. DPR-59, which authorizes operation of JAF. The license provides, among other things, that the facility is subject to all rules, regulations, and orders of the NRC now or hereafter in effect. The facility consists of a boiling-water reactor located in Oswego County, New York.
By letter dated November 18, 2015 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15322A273), Entergy submitted to the NRC, the certification, in accordance with § 50.82(a)(1)(i) of title 10 of the
On January 15, 2016 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16015A457), the licensee requested an exemption from § 73.55(p)(1)(i) and (ii), pursuant to § 73.5, “Specific exemptions.” Section 73.55(p)(1)(i) and (ii) require, in part, that the suspension of security measures during certain emergency conditions or during severe weather be approved by a licensed senior operator. The exemption request relates solely to the licensing requirements specified in the regulations directing suspension of security measures in accordance with § 73.55(p)(1)(i)-(ii), and would expand on the requirement for a licensed senior operator to provide this approval. The exemption would allow the suspension of security measures during certain emergency conditions or during severe weather by a certified fuel handler
Historically, the NRC's security regulations have long recognized the potential to suspend security or safeguards measures under certain conditions. Accordingly, 10 CFR 50.54(x) and (y), first issued or published in 1983, allow a licensee to take reasonable steps in an emergency that deviate from license conditions when those steps are “needed to protect the public health and safety” and there are no conforming comparable measures (48 FR 13970; April 1, 1983). As originally issued, the deviation from license conditions must be approved by, as a minimum, a licensed senior operator. In 1986, in its final rule, “Miscellaneous Amendments Concerning the Physical Protection of Nuclear Power Plants” (51 FR 27817; August 4, 1986), the Commission issued 10 CFR 73.55(a), stating in part:
In accordance with § 50.54 (x) and (y) of Part 50, the licensee may suspend any safeguards measures pursuant to § 73.55 in an emergency when this action is immediately needed to protect the public health and safety and no action consistent with license conditions and technical specification that can provide adequate or equivalent protection is immediately apparent. This suspension must be approved as a minimum by a licensed senior operator prior to taking the action.
In 1995, the NRC made a number of regulatory changes to address decommissioning. Among the changes was new text that amended § 50.54(x) and (y) by allowing a non-licensed operator called a “Certified Fuel Handler,” in addition to a licensed senior operator, to authorize protective steps. Specifically, in addressing the role of the CFH during emergencies, the NRC stated in the proposed rule, “Decommissioning of Nuclear Power Reactors” (60 FR 37379; July 20, 1995):
The Commission is proposing to amend 10 CFR 50.54(y) to permit a certified fuel handler at nuclear power reactors that have permanently ceased operations and permanently removed fuel from the reactor vessel, subject to the requirements of § 50.82(a) and consistent with the proposed definition of “Certified Fuel Handler” specified in § 50.2, to make these evaluations and judgments. A nuclear power reactor that has permanently ceased operations and no longer has fuel in the reactor vessel does not require a licensed individual to monitor core conditions. A certified fuel handler at a permanently shutdown and defueled nuclear power reactor undergoing decommissioning is an individual who has the requisite knowledge and experience to evaluate plant conditions and make these judgements.
In the final rule (61 FR 39298; July 29, 1996), the NRC added the following definition to § 50.2: “
In the final rule, “Power Reactor Security Requirements” (74 FR 13926; March 27, 2009), the NRC removed the security suspension requirements from § 73.55(a) and added them to § 73.55(p)(1)(i) and (ii). The CFHs were not discussed in the rulemaking, so the requirements of § 73.55(p) to use a licensed senior operator remain, even for a site that otherwise no longer operates.
However, pursuant to § 73.5, the Commission may, upon application by any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant exemptions from the requirements of 10 CFR part 73, as it determines are authorized by law and will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security, and are otherwise in the public interest.
The exemption from § 73.55(p)(1)(i) and (ii) would expand upon the requirement that only a licensed senior operator could approve the suspension of security measures under certain emergency conditions or severe weather. The licensee intends to use the exemption to authorize the use of a non-licensed CFH, in place of a licensed senior operator, to approve the suspension of security measures during certain emergency conditions or during severe weather after JAF permanently ceases operation and the licensee has submitted the certifications required under § 50.82(a)(1).
Per § 73.5, the Commission is allowed to grant exemptions from the regulations in 10 CFR part 73, as authorized by law. The NRC staff has determined that granting the licensee's proposed exemption will not result in a violation of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or other laws. Therefore, the exemption is authorized by law.
Expanding the requirement to have a licensed senior operator or a CFH approve suspension of security measures during emergencies or severe weather will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security for the reasons described in this section.
First, § 73.55(p)(2) continues to require that “[s]uspended security measures must be reinstated as soon as conditions permit.”
Second, the suspension for nonweather emergency conditions under § 73.55(p)(1)(i) will continue to be invoked only “when this action is immediately needed to protect the public health and safety and no action consistent with license conditions and technical specifications that can provide adequate or equivalent protection is immediately apparent.” Thus, the exemption would not prevent the licensee from meeting the underlying purpose of § 73.55(p)(1)(i) to protect public health and safety.
Third, the suspension for severe weather under § 73.55(p)(1)(ii) will continue to be used only when “the suspension of affected security measures is immediately needed to protect the personal health and safety of security force personnel and no other immediately apparent action consistent with the license conditions and technical specifications can provide adequate or equivalent protection.” The requirement to receive input from the security supervisor or manager will remain. The exemption would not prevent the licensee from meeting the underlying purpose of § 73.55(p)(1)(ii) to protect the health and safety of the security force.
Additionally, by letter dated October 17, 2016 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16259A347), the NRC approved Entergy's CFH training and retraining program for the JAF facility. The NRC staff found that, among other things, the program addresses the safe conduct of decommissioning activities, safe handling and storage of spent fuel, and the appropriate response to plant emergencies. Because the CFH is qualified under an NRC-approved program, the NRC staff considers a CFH to have sufficient knowledge of operational and safety concerns, such that allowing a CFH to suspend security measures during emergencies or severe weather will not result in undue risk to public health and safety.
In addition, the exemption does not reduce the overall effectiveness of the physical security plan and has no adverse impacts to Entergy's ability to physically secure the site or protect special nuclear material at JAF, and thus would not have an effect on the common defense and security. The NRC staff has concluded that the exemption would not reduce security measures currently in place to protect against radiological sabotage. Therefore,
Entergy's proposed exemption would allow a CFH, following permanent cessation of operation and permanent removal of fuel from the reactor vessel, to approve suspension of security measures in an emergency when “immediately needed to protect the public health and safety” or during severe weather when “immediately needed to protect the personal health and safety of security force personnel.” Without the exemption, the licensee cannot implement changes to its security plan to authorize a CFH to approve the temporary suspension of security regulations during an emergency or severe weather, comparable to the authority given to the CFH by the NRC when it published § 50.54(y). Instead, the regulations would continue to require that a licensed senior operator be available to make decisions for a permanently shutdown plant, even though JAF would no longer require a licensed senior operator. However, it is unclear how the licensee would implement emergency or severe weather suspensions of security measures without a licensed senior operator. This exemption is in the public interest for two reasons. First, without the exemption, there is uncertainty on how the licensee will invoke temporary suspension of security matters that may be needed for protecting public health and safety or the safety of the security force during emergencies and severe weather. The exemption would allow the licensee to make decisions pursuant to § 73.55(p)(1)(i) and (ii) without having to maintain a staff of licensed senior operators. The exemption would also allow the licensee to have an established procedure in place to allow a trained CFH to suspend security measures in the event of an emergency or severe weather. Second, the consistent and efficient regulation of nuclear power plants serves the public interest. This exemption would assure consistency between the security regulations in 10 CFR part 73 and the operating reactor regulations in 10 CFR part 50, and the requirements concerning licensed operators in 10 CFR part 55. The NRC staff has determined that granting the licensee's proposed exemption would allow the licensee to designate an alternative position, with qualifications appropriate for a permanently shutdown and defueled reactor, to approve the suspension of security measures during an emergency to protect the public health and safety, and during severe weather to protect the safety of the security force, consistent with the similar authority provided by § 50.54(y). Therefore, the exemption is in the public interest.
The NRC's approval of the exemption to security requirements belongs to a category of actions that the Commission, by rule or regulation, has declared to be a categorical exclusion, after first finding that the category of actions does not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. Specifically, the exemption is categorically excluded from further analysis under § 51.22(c)(25).
Under § 51.22(c)(25), the granting of an exemption from the requirements of any regulation of Chapter I to 10 CFR is a categorical exclusion provided that: (i) There is no significant hazards consideration; (ii) there is no significant change in the types or significant increase in the amounts of any effluents that may be released offsite; (iii) there is no significant increase in individual or cumulative public or occupational radiation exposure; (iv) there is no significant construction impact; (v) there is no significant increase in the potential for or consequences from radiological accidents; and (vi) the requirements from which an exemption is sought involve: Safeguard plans, and materials control and accounting inventory scheduling requirements; or involve other requirements of an administrative, managerial, or organizational nature.
The Director, Division of Operating Reactor Licensing, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, has determined that approval of the exemption request involves no significant hazards consideration because expanding the requirement to allow a CFH to approve the security suspension at a defueled shutdown power plant does not (1) involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated; or (2) create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated; or (3) involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety. The exempted security regulation is unrelated to any operational restriction. Accordingly, there is no significant change in the types or significant increase in the amounts of any effluents that may be released offsite; and no significant increase in individual or cumulative public or occupational radiation exposure. The exempted regulation is not associated with construction, so there is no significant construction impact. The exempted regulation does not concern the source term (
Therefore, pursuant to § 51.22(b) and (c)(25), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment need be prepared in connection with the approval of this exemption request.
Accordingly, the Commission has determined that, pursuant to 10 CFR 73.5, the exemption is authorized by law and will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security, and is otherwise in the public interest. Therefore, the Commission hereby grants the licensee's request for an exemption from the requirements of 10 CFR 73.55(p)(1)(i) and (ii), which otherwise would require suspension of security measures during emergencies and severe weather, respectively, to be approved by a licensed senior operator following permanent cessation of operations and permanent removal of fuel from the reactor vessel. The exemption is effective upon the docketing of the certification of permanent removal of fuel in accordance with 10 CFR 50.82(a)(1)(ii).
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Environmental assessment and finding of no significant impact; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is considering renewal of Facility Operating License No. R-87, held by Purdue University (the applicant), for the continued operation of the Purdue University Reactor (PUR-1), located in West Lafayette, Tippecanoe County, Indiana for an additional 20 years. In connection with the renewed license, the applicant is also seeking a power increase from 1 kilowatt thermal (kW(t)) to a licensed power level of 12 kW(t). The NRC is issuing an environmental assessment (EA) and finding of no significant impact (FONSI) associated with the renewal of the license.
The EA and FONSI referenced in this document is available on October 27, 2016.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2011-0186 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Cindy K. Montgomery, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-3398; email:
The NRC is considering issuance of a renewed Facility Operating License No. R-87, held by Purdue University, which would authorize continued operation of PUR-1, located in West Lafayette, Tippecanoe County, Indiana, for an additional 20 years. In connection with the renewed license, the applicant is also seeking a power increase from 1 kW(t) to 12 kW(t). As required by section 51.21 of title 10 of the
The proposed action would renew Facility Operating License No. R-87 for a period of 20 years from the date of issuance of the renewed license. The proposed action would also authorize a power increase from 1 kW(t) to 12 kW(t). The proposed action is in accordance with Purdue University's application dated July 7, 2008, as supplemented by letters dated June 30, 2008; June 3, and June 4, 2010; November 15, 2011; January 4, January 30, January 31, June 1, June 15, June 29, July 13, and August 11, 2012; April 10, 2013; July 24, 2015; and January 29, February 26, March 31, May 9, July 7, July 19, September 19, and September 29, 2016 (collectively referred to as “the renewal application”). In accordance with § 2.109, “Effect of timely renewal application,” the existing license remains in effect until the NRC takes final action on the renewal application.
The proposed action is needed to allow the continued operation of the PUR-1, which is used for teaching and research to support the mission of Purdue University, for a period of 20 years. Operation of the PUR-1 at the requested higher power level would expand the educational and research uses of the facility.
Separate from the environmental assessment referenced in this document, the NRC is writing a safety evaluation (SE) of the proposed action to issue renewed Facility Operating License No. R-87 to allow continued operation of the PUR-1 for a period of 20 years. The details of the NRC's SE will be provided with the renewed license, if approved. This document contains the EA of the proposed action.
The applicant has requested a power increase from 1 kW(t) to 12 kW(t) maximum allowed licensed power. The applicant performed analyses at 18 kW(t) to bound the requested power increase. The applicant's required annual reports from 2011 through 2015 indicate that no measurable amount of radioactive effluent was released from the PUR-1 to the environment.
The PUR-1 is a heterogeneous, pool-type non-power reactor that has been in operation since 1962 for teaching and research purposes. The PUR-1 is located in the Duncan Annex of the Electrical Engineering Building on the eastern edge of the Purdue University campus. The building was originally designed as a high voltage laboratory, and the space was later converted into classrooms, laboratories, and offices. The building is constructed of brick, concrete block, and reinforced concrete. Within the Duncan Annex, the PUR-1 is located within a 6,400-gallon cylindrical water tank that is 17 feet deep and 8 feet in diameter. The tank is enclosed by a concrete shielding structure.
The PUR-1 operates about 90 times per year on average. The reactor is fueled with standard low-enriched uranium plate-type fuel and is cooled by natural convection of light water. The reactor coolant system includes a process system, which controls the pool water temperature, and a purification system, which is designed to maintain pool water quality by limiting corrosion and coolant activation by the use of microfilters and ion exchange resins. Water from the pool is drawn out from the scupper drain or suction line via polyvinyl chloride piping leading to the circulating pump; a second source of water for the pump is a water supply tank supplied with city service water and controlled by a float valve. Ball valves for water shutoff and a vacuum cleaning connection are provided in the pump supply line. From the pump, a pipe with a ball valve installed leads first to the filter and then to a demineralizer. An adjustable by-pass or throttling valve is inserted in the system to regulate water flow through the demineralizer. A flow indicator and a conductivity indicator are installed as a check on flow rate and water purity
A detailed description of the reactor can be found in the PUR-1 Safety Analysis Report (SAR) submitted by the applicant with its renewal application.
During normal operations at the PUR-1 facility, the two primary airborne sources of radiation are argon-41 (Ar-41) and nitrogen-16 (N-16). N-16 is produced when oxygen in the pool water is irradiated in the reactor core, and must then diffuse to the pool surface before it is released to the atmosphere. The applicant estimates that, due to its short half-life (about 7 seconds), any N-16 produced by the reactor at the bounding power level of 18 kW(t) would decay before reaching the surface of the pool. The primary source of Ar-41 at the PUR-1 is from irradiation of air containing argon dissolved in the reactor pool. At the current 1 kW(t) steady-state operation, effluent samples in the reactor room have not contained detectable traces of Ar-41. At the bounding power level of 18 kW(t), the applicant estimates that steady-state operation of the reactor would produce an equilibrium concentration of 2.08 × 10
Purdue University has a structured radiation safety program. Policies for the program are determined by the University Radiation Safety Committee, which has the mission to ensure the safety of the University and community in the utilization of all radioactive materials and radiation-producing devices at the University by faculty, staff, or students. The program is administered by the Radiation Safety Officer and his staff, as part of Radiological and Environmental Management. The staff is equipped with radiation detection instrumentation to determine, control, and document occupational radiation exposures at the reactor facility under the broad scope byproduct materials license held by Purdue University.
Only very limited contaminated materials are generated by PUR-1. Any contaminated material is disposed of under the Purdue University broad scope license. No wastes have been released to the environment in an uncontrolled manner. During the past 5-year period from 2011 through 2015, the applicant reported no routine releases of liquid radioactive waste by any disposal method. The NRC assumes that any changes due to the requested power increase from 1 kW(t) to 12 kW(t) are expected to be minimal and capable of being handled by the existing systems and procedures.
As described in Chapter 11 of the PUR-1 SAR, personnel exposures are well within the limits set by § 20.1201, “Occupational dose limits for adults,” and the ALARA dose criteria in § 20.1101(b). The University is committed to the principle of ALARA and it makes every effort to keep doses to a minimum. All unanticipated or unusual exposures are investigated. According to annual reports for the past 5 years of operation from 2011 through 2015, there were no radiation exposures greater than 25 percent of limits set forth in § 20.1201. The change in occupational dose from the proposed power uprate from 1 kW(t) to 12 kW(t) is discussed previously in this notice.
The applicant monitors dose to the public by placing thermoluminescent dosimeters (TLD) at the boundaries of the facility. The TLDs are checked for exposure every other month. Doses measured from the TLDs at the current operating power level of 1 kW(t) have been at background levels, therefore, the applicant concludes that the public has not received exposures greater than the limits set forth in § 20.1301, “Dose limits for individual members of the public.” As stated previously, this should not change for the proposed power increase of 12 kW(t). Additionally, the potential radiation dose from current operations at 1kW(t) also demonstrates compliance with the ALARA dose constraints specified in § 20.1101(d), “Radiation protection programs.” As stated previously, this should not change for the proposed power increase of 12 kW(t).
Over the past 5 years of operation from 2011 through 2015, results from the applicant's survey program indicate that radiation exposures at the current operating power level of 1 kW(t) at the monitoring locations were not significantly higher than those measured at the control locations. This should not change for the proposed power increase of 12 kW(t). Therefore, the NRC concludes that the proposed action would not have a significant radiological impact.
The maximum hypothetical accident (MHA) is an event involving the cladding failure of an irradiated fuel element in air. The MHA is considered the worst-case fuel failure scenario for PUR-1 that would lead to the maximum potential radiation hazard to facility personnel and to members of the public. The results of the MHA are used by the NRC to evaluate the ability of the applicant to respond and mitigate the consequences of this postulated radioactive release.
The applicant conservatively calculated doses to facility personnel
Because the NRC concludes in the SE that the radiological consequences of the MHA are within the NRC's 10 CFR part 20 dose limits, the proposed action will not have a significant impact with respect to the radiological consequences of the MHA.
As discussed previously in this notice, the applicant has requested a power increase from 1kW to 12 kW maximum allowed licensed power. In addition, as previously described, while there is a potential increase in routine occupational and public radiation exposure as a result of license renewal at the higher power level, all exposure rates and doses would be within regulatory limits. There would be no changes in the types of effluents that may be released off site, and any potential increase in their quantities would be within regulatory limits. The applicant has systems in place for controlling the release of radiological effluents and implements a radiation protection program to monitor personnel exposures and releases of radioactive effluents, and the systems and radiation protection program are appropriate for the types and quantities of effluents expected to be generated by continued operation of the reactor. The proposed action will not significantly increase the probability or consequences of accidents. Therefore, license renewal and the proposed power increase would not change the environmental impact of facility operation. The NRC evaluated information contained in the renewal application and data reported to the NRC by the applicant for the last 5 years of operation to determine the projected radiological impact of the facility on the environment during the period of the renewed license. The NRC found that releases of radioactive material and personnel exposures were all well within applicable regulatory limits. Based on this evaluation, the NRC concludes that the proposed action would not have a significant environmental impact.
The proposed action would not result in any land use changes, visual resource impacts, or increases in noise. No significant changes in air emissions would occur as a result of the proposed license renewal and power increase. Because water is supplied through the city, the proposed action would not affect surface water or groundwater resources. There is no potential for the proposed action to affect aquatic or terrestrial resources. Therefore, the NRC concludes that the proposed action would have no significant non-radiological impacts.
In addition to the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), the NRC has responsibilities that are derived from other environmental laws, which include the Endangered Species Act (ESA), Coastal Zone Management Act, National Historic Preservation Act (NHPA), Fish and Wildlife Coordination Act, and Executive Order 12898 Environmental Justice. Preparing this EA satisfies the agency's obligations under NEPA. The following presents a brief discussion of impacts associated with resources protected by these laws.
The NRC staff conducted a search of Federally listed species and critical habitats that have the potential to occur in the vicinity of the PUR-1 using the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service's (FWS) Environmental Conservation Online System Information for Planning and Conservation (IPaC) system. Five Federally-listed mussels—clubshell (
Tippecanoe County, Indiana does not contain any coastal zones. Because the PUR-1 is not located within or near any managed coastal zones, the proposed action would not affect any coastal zones and Coastal Zone Management Act consistency certification does not apply.
The NHPA requires Federal agencies to consider the effects of their undertakings on historic properties. As stated in the Act, historic properties are any prehistoric or historic district, site, building, structure, or object included in, or eligible for inclusion in the National Register of Historic Places (NRHP). The NRHP lists several historic districts and properties within 0.5 miles of PUR-1 in the Duncan Annex of the Electrical Engineering Building on the campus of Purdue University. Operation of PUR-1 has not likely had any impact on these districts and properties. Based on this information, the NRC staff finds that the potential impacts of license renewal and the continued operation of PUR-1 would have no adverse effect on historic properties located near PUR-1.
The proposed action does not involve any water resource development projects, including any of the modifications relating to impounding a body of water, damming, diverting a stream or river, deepening a channel, irrigation, or altering a body of water for navigation or drainage. Therefore, no coordination with FWS pursuant to the Fish and Wildlife Coordination Act is required for the proposed action.
The environmental justice impact analysis evaluates the potential for disproportionately high and adverse human health and environmental effects on minority and low-income populations that could result from the relicensing and the continued operation of PUR-1. Such effects may include human health, biological, cultural, economic, or social impacts.
According to the U.S. Census Bureau's 2014 American Community Survey Census 1-Year Estimates, the median household income for Indiana was $49,446, while 11 percent of families and 15.2 percent of the state population were found to be living below the Federal poverty threshold. Tippecanoe County had a lower median household income average ($45,771) and a higher percent of families and people living below the poverty level (12.2 and 23.6 percent, respectively).
Based on this information and the analysis of human health and environmental impacts presented in this EA, the proposed action would not have disproportionately high and adverse human health and environmental effects on minority and low-income populations residing in the vicinity of PUR-1.
As an alternative to license renewal, the NRC considered denying the proposed action (
The proposed action does not involve the use of any different resources or significant quantities of resources beyond those previously considered in the issuance of Facility Operating License No. R-87 for the PUR-1 in August 1988, which renewed the Facility Operating License for a period of 20 years.
The NRC did not enter into consultation with any other Federal agencies or with the State of Indiana regarding the environmental impact of the proposed action. However, on October 21, 2016, the NRC notified the Indiana State official, Ms. Laura Dresen, Radiation Programs Director, of the Indiana Department of Homeland Security of the proposed action. The State official had no comments.
The NRC is considering issuance of a renewed Facility Operating License No. R-87, held by Purdue University, which would authorize the continued operation of PUR-1 for an additional 20 years.
On the basis of the EA included in Section II of this notice and incorporated by reference in this finding, the NRC concludes that the proposed action would not have significant effects on the quality of the human environment. Section IV lists the environmental documents related to the proposed action and includes information on the availability of these documents. Based on its findings, the NRC has decided not to prepare an environmental impact statement for the proposed action.
The documents identified in the following tables are available to interested persons as indicated.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
License renewal and record of decision; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has issued renewed facility operating license Nos. NPF-11 and NPF-18 to Exelon Generation Company, LLC (Exelon or the licensee), the operator of LaSalle County Station, Units 1 and 2. Renewed facility operating license Nos. NPF-11 and NPF-18 authorize the operation of LaSalle County Station, Units 1 and 2 by the licensee at reactor core power levels not in excess of 3546 megawatts thermal in accordance with the provisions of the renewed licenses and technical specifications until April 17, 2042 and December 16, 2043, respectively. The NRC prepared a safety evaluation report, a final supplemental environmental impact statement (FSEIS), and a record of decision (ROD) that support its decision to issue renewed facility operating license Nos. NPF-11 and NPF-18.
Renewed facility operating license Nos. NPF-11 and NPF-18 were issued and effective on October 19, 2016.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2014-0268 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Jeffrey Mitchell, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-3019; email:
Notice is hereby given that the NRC has issued renewed facility operating license Nos. NPF-11 and NPF-18 to Exelon Generation Company, LLC, the operator of LaSalle County Station, Units 1 and 2. Renewed facility operating license Nos. NPF-11 and NPF-18 authorize the operation of LaSalle County Station, Units 1 and 2 by the licensee at reactor core power levels not in excess of 3546 megawatts thermal in accordance with the provisions of the renewed licenses and technical specifications until April 17, 2042 and December 16, 2043, respectively.
LaSalle County Station, Units 1 and 2, are boiling-water reactors located in Brookfield Township, LaSalle County, Illinois. The NRC determined that the application for the renewed licenses, “License Renewal Application, LaSalle County Station, Units 1 and 2, Facility Operating License Nos. NPF-11 and NPF-18,” dated December 9, 2014 (ADAMS Accession No. ML14343A849), as supplemented by letters dated through June 8, 2016, complied with the standards and requirements of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), and the NRC's regulations set forth in Chapter I of title 10 of the
The NRC's FSEIS, NUREG-1437, Supplement 57, “Generic Environmental Impact Statement for License Renewal of Nuclear Plants Regarding LaSalle County Station, Units 1 and 2,” and ROD that support the NRC's issuance of renewed facility operating license Nos. NPF-11 and NPF-18 are available in ADAMS under Accession Nos. ML16264A222 and ML16238A029, respectively. As discussed in the FSEIS and ROD, the NRC considered a range of reasonable alternatives to the issuance of the renewed licenses that included new nuclear power generation, coal-integrated gasification combined-cycle, natural gas combined-cycle (NGCC), a combination of wind, solar, and NGCC, purchased power, and the no-action alternative. The FSEIS and ROD document the NRC's decision with respect to its environmental review that the adverse environmental impacts of issuing the renewed licenses are not so great that preserving the option of license renewal for energy-planning decisionmakers would be unreasonable.
For further details with respect to this action, see: (1) The Exelon Generation Company, LLC license renewal application for LaSalle County Station, Units 1 and 2, dated December 9, 2014, as supplemented by letters dated through June 8, 2016; (2) the NRC safety evaluation report dated September 2016 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16271A039); (3) the NRC FSEIS dated August 2016; and (4) the NRC ROD dated October 2016.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934
The Exchange proposes to amend its rules related to the opening of series for trading on the Exchange. The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site (
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
CBOE proposes to amend its rules related to the opening of series for trading on the Exchange. Rule 6.2B describes the process the Exchange's Hybrid Trading System (the “System”) uses to open series on the Exchange each trading day (referred to as “HOSS”). The Exchange may also use this same process for closing series or opening series after a trading halt. The Exchange proposes to make various changes to this rule to reorganize and simplify the rule as well as make other changes to the opening procedures in order to reflect current System functionality.
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 6.2B by reorganizing the provisions of the rule to describe the HOSS procedures in a more sequential manner, clarifying the timing of each stage of the process and enhancing or modifying the description of certain provisions within the rule. HOSS generally processes the opening of each series as follows:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
The proposed rule change more clearly organizes the provisions of Rule 6.2B in this order and makes the additional following changes.
Rule 6.2B(a) currently provides that, for regular trading hours, for a period of time before the opening of trading in the underlying security or, in the case of index options, prior to 8:30 a.m.,
The proposed rule change amends Rule 6.2B(a)(i) by deleting the provision that indicates the Exchange will designate eligible order size, order type and order origin code as order terms for which the Exchange may designate eligibility for submission during the pre-opening period on a class-by-class basis. The Exchange currently does not, and does not intend to, restrict the size or origin code of orders that may be submitted during the pre-opening period, so this provision is no longer necessary. Additionally, the System currently accepts all quotes and all order types during the pre-opening period except for immediate-or-cancel, fill-or-fill, intermarket sweep orders, and Market-Maker trade prevention orders, as acceptance of those order types during the pre-opening period
The proposed rule change proposes to amend Rule 6.2B(a)(ii) in several ways. First, the proposed rule change amends the description of when the System begins disseminating expected opening information. Currently, the rule states, at specified intervals of time determined by the Exchange, the System will disseminate information about resting orders in the book that remain from the prior business day and orders and quote submitted before the opening, which may include the EOP and EOS. The Exchange proposes to revise this provision to state beginning at a time (determined by the Exchange) no earlier than three hours prior to the expected initiation of an opening rotation for a series, the System disseminates EOIs to all market participants that have elected to receive them at regular intervals of time (the length of which is determined by the Exchange) or less frequently if there are no updates to the opening information since the previously disseminated EOI. This revised rule text clarifies the time at which the System will begin disseminating expected opening information, which may be different (and generally later) than the beginning of the pre-opening period, as the Exchange believes recipients generally want to receive EOIs closer to the opening of trading.
Second, the proposed rule change also amends Rule 6.2B(a)(ii) to more specifically describe the information regarding the expected opening of a series that the System disseminates. Currently, subparagraph (a)(ii) provides that the System will disseminate information about resting orders in the book that remain from the prior business day and any orders and quotes submitted before the opening, including the expected opening price and size. The Exchange proposes to simplify this provision by stating that the expected opening information will be based on resting orders in the book (which includes orders remaining from the prior trading day and orders entered during the pre-opening period) and quotes submitted prior to the opening of trading. Additionally, in addition to the EOP and EOS, these messages may include additional information based on the circumstances, such as a description of the reason why a series may not or did not open (
Third, the proposed rule change amends the provision about what the EOP is and when it is calculated. Currently, Rule 6.2B(a)(ii) states that the EOP is the price at which the greatest number of orders and quotes in the book are expected to trade and that an EOP may only be calculated if (a) there are market orders in the book, or the book is crossed or locked and (b) at least one quote is present. The proposed rule change revises this language to state the EOP is the price at which any opening trade is expected to execute. The EOS is the size of any expected opening trade. As further discussed below, the definition of opening price is included in current paragraph (c), so the proposed rule change deletes that definition from paragraph (a)(ii) and only includes the definition in proposed paragraph (c), as the Exchange believes it is less confusing to include the opening price definition in the rules only one time. Additionally, the proposed rule change deletes the language the EOP may only be calculated if there are market orders in the book or the book is crossed. Because the EOP is a price of an expected opening trade, it is only possible to have a trade if there are market orders or a locked or crossed market, so the Exchange believes this language is unnecessary. Further, the proposed rule change states the System will only disseminate EOP and EOS messages: (a) If the width between the highest quote bid and lowest quote offer on the Exchange is no wider than the OEPW range (as defined below), in classes in which the Hybrid Agency Liaison (“HAL”)
Rule 6.2B(b) currently provides, unless unusual circumstances exist, at a randomly selected time within a number of seconds after the opening trade and/or the opening quote is disseminated in the market for the underlying security
• For regular trading hours:
○ With respect to equity and ETP options, after the opening trade or the opening quote is disseminated in the market for the underlying security, or at 8:30 for classes determined by the Exchange (including over-the-counter equity classes); or
○ with respect to index options, at 8:30 a.m., or at the later of 8:30 a.m. and the time the Exchange receives a disseminated index value for classes determined by the Exchange; and
• for extended trading hours, at 2:00 a.m.
The proposed rule change also deletes the phrase regarding the initiation of the opening rotation procedure at a randomly selected time within a number of seconds after the triggering event.
The Exchange believes this proposed change more accurately describes the timing at which the System initiates the opening rotation procedure for each type of option, which generally occurs immediately after the triggering event rather than a randomly selected number of seconds after the event. The proposed rule change provides, while the dissemination of the opening trade or quote in the market for the underlying security is generally the trigger to initiate the opening rotation for an equity or ETP class, the Exchange may determine to open certain equity and ETP classes at 8:30 a.m. instead if it does not have access to underlying information for those classes. The Exchange does not receive underlying information regarding the opening of certain equities.
In addition, the Exchange proposes to amend current Rule 6.2B(b)(i), which is proposed Rule 6.2B(b)(ii), to state the System notifies market participants of the opening rotation initiation upon initiating the opening rotation procedure (defined as the “Rotation Notice”) rather than following the opening trade or quote. The initiation of the opening rotation for a series triggers the dissemination of the notice, so the Exchange believes this proposed change more accurately and simply describes when market participants will receive the rotation notice.
Current Rule 6.2B(c) provides after the rotation notice is sent, the System will enter into a rotation period, during which the opening price will be established for each series. During the rotation period, the System will continue to calculate and provide the EOP and EOS given the current resting orders and quotes. The System will process the series of a class in a random order, and the series will begin opening after a period following the rotation notice, which period will not exceed 60 seconds and will be established on a class-by-class basis.
The proposed rule change reorganizes paragraph (c) to describe when the opening rotation period begins (which is after the System initiates the opening rotation procedure and sends the rotation notice) (proposed subparagraph (c)), what happens during the period (proposed subparagraph (c)(i)), the handling of EOIs during the period (proposed subparagraph (c)(ii)), and when the period ends (proposed subparagraph (c)(iii)). The Exchange believes this will more clearly describe for investors the opening rotation process.
The proposed rule change adds detail regarding what occurs during the opening rotation period. Specifically, while the rules currently state the System establishes the opening trade price for a series during the opening rotation period, the proposed rule change adds proposed subparagraph (c)(i), which states the System does this (as well as establish the opening BBO) by matching and executing resting orders and quotes against each other. The proposed rule change moves the definition of opening trade price to proposed subparagraph (c)(i)(A) from current subparagraph (c)(iv) so the rules include discussions of the opening trade price in a single location within the rules. The proposed rule change amends the definition of the opening trade price of a series to be the “market-clearing” price, which is the single price at which the largest number of contracts in the book can execute, leaving bids and offers that cannot trade with each other. The Exchange believes it is more appropriate to clear the largest size from the book at the open, even if that size is comprised of a smaller number of orders and quotes (as stated in Rule 6.2B(a)(ii)). The EOS is the size of any expected opening trade. This is consistent with the change to the definition of EOP, as discussed above. The proposed rule change adds if there are multiple prices at which the same number of contracts would clear, the System uses (a) the price at or nearest to the midpoint of the opening BBO, or the widest offer (bid) point of the OEPW range if the midpoint is higher (lower) than that price point, in classes in which the Exchange has not activated HALO; or (b) the price at or nearest to the midpoint of the range consisting of the higher of the opening NBB and widest bid point of the OEPW range, and the lower of the opening NBO and widest offer point of the OEPW range, in classes in which the Exchange has activated HALO.
The proposed rule change also adds proposed paragraph (c)(i)(B), which states all orders (except complex orders and, in classes in which the Exchange has not activated HALO, all-or-none orders and orders with a stop contingency) and quotes in a series in the book prior to the opening rotation period participate in the opening rotation for a series. Contingency orders that participate in the opening rotation may execute during the opening rotation period only if their contingencies are triggered. The proposed rule change also notes complex orders do not participate in the opening rotation. While the System accepts those orders prior to the open, the Exchange believes it would complicate the opening rotation if they participated in the opening rotation and attempted to execute against the leg markets. Similarly, the Exchange
The proposed rule change also revises the language regarding the messages disseminated during the opening rotation period to provide the System will continue to disseminate EOIs (not just the EOP and EOS). This proposed revision is consistent with the proposed language described above regarding dissemination of EOIs during the pre-opening period (and incorporates the proposed definition of EOIs). The proposed rule change provides the Exchange with the authority to determine a shorter interval length for the dissemination of EOIs during the opening rotation period than during the pre-opening period, as the Exchange believes market participants may want to receive these messages more frequently closer to the opening. This flexibility is intended to ensure the Exchange may disseminate these messages to market participants as frequently as it deems necessary to ensure a fair and orderly opening.
Proposed subparagraph (c)(iii) updates the description of the length of the opening rotation period and how the System processes series to open following the opening rotation period. Current subparagraph (c)(ii) states the System will process the series of a class in a random order and the series will begin opening after a period following the Rotation Notice, which period may not exceed sixty seconds and will be established on a class-by-class basis by the Exchange. Proposed subparagraph (c)(iii) states after a period of time determined by the Exchange for all classes, the System opens series of a class in a random order, staggered over regular intervals of time (the Exchange determines the length and number of these intervals for all classes).
The proposed rule change also deletes current subparagraph (c)(iii), which states prior the expiration of the opening rotation period, the System will not open a series unless opening quotes that comply with the bid/ask differential requirements have been entered by at least one Market-Maker. Current paragraph (e) (and proposed paragraph (d)) describes conditions that must be satisfied for a series to open, including the required quotes, so the Exchange believes this provision is duplicative.
The proposed rule change deletes the language in current paragraph (d) stating as the opening price is determined by series, the System will disseminate through OPRA the opening quote and the opening trade price, if any. The System disseminates all quote and trade price information to OPRA once a series opens pursuant to the OPRA plan, including opening quote and trade price information, so the Exchange believes it is unnecessary to include this provision specifically in the opening rule.
Current Rule 6.2(e) provides that the System will not open a series if one of the following conditions is met:
(1) There is no quote present in the series that complies with the bid/ask differential requirements (as determined by the Exchange on a class-by-class basis) that has been entered by at least one Market-Maker appointed to the class (or by the DPM or LMM, as determined by the Exchange on a class-by-class basis);
(2) the opening price is not within an acceptable range (as determined by the Exchange) compared to the lowest quote offer and the highest quote bid; or
(3) the opening trade would leave a market order imbalance (
The proposed rule change amends these conditions to provide that, notwithstanding proposed paragraph (c),
(1) If there are no quotes in the series on the Exchange, the System does not open the series. There are no exceptions to this opening condition. The Exchange generally requires an opening quote to ensure there will be liquidity in a series when it opens;
(2) if the width between the Exchange's best quote bid and best quote offer (for purposes of subparagraph (d)(i), the “opening quote”)
(3) if the opening trade price would be outside of the OEPW range, the System does not open the series. As discussed above, the Exchange believes using the term OEPW range with respect to the acceptable range for opening price in the rules is a more accurate description of the appropriate range for opening prices (as this is the term used in circulars and among Trading Permit Holders). As indicated in the previous paragraph, the OEPW range is used as a price protection measure. There are no exceptions to this opening condition in order to prevent executions at extreme prices on the open. Additionally, the proposed rule change clarifies that a series will open if the opening trade price is at the widest part of OEPW range (it will only not open if it is outside OEPW range); or
(4) if the opening trade would leave a market order imbalance, which means there are more market orders to buy or to sell for the particular series than can be satisfied by the orders and quotes on the opposite side, the System does not open the series. However, if a sell market order imbalance exists, there is no bid in the series and the best offer is $0.50 or less, the System opens the series; if there is no bid in the series and the best offer is greater than $0.50, the System does not open the series. The proposed rule change deletes the language regarding the exception for series that will open at a minimum increment and revises this exception to use language consistent with the existing rule regarding the treatment of no-bid series. Pursuant to Rule 6.13(b)(vi), in the situation in which there is no bid in the series and the best offer is $0.50 or less, the System considers these market orders to be limit orders for the minimum increment applicable to the series and enter these orders in the book (behind limit orders to sell at the minimum increment already resting in the book). Essentially, this creates a situation in which a series opens at a minimum price increment (
Current Interpretation and Policy .03 describes opening conditions that apply to classes in which the Exchange has activated HALO. To keep the description of opening conditions for all classes in a single location within the rules, the proposed rule change moves these opening conditions to proposed subparagraph (d)(ii). Current Interpretation and Policy .03(a) provides that the System will not open a series if one of the following conditions is met:
(1) There is no quote present in the series that complies with the bid/ask differential requirements (as determined by the Exchange on a class-by-class basis) have been entered by at least one Market-Maker appointed to the class (or by the DPM or LMM, as determined by the Exchange on a class-by-class basis);
(2) the opening price is not within an acceptable range (as determined by the Exchange) compared to the lowest quote offer and the highest quote bid;
(3) the opening trade would be at a price that is not the national best bid or offer; or
(4) the opening trade would leave a market order imbalance (
Paragraph (b) describes what happens when each of these conditions is present:
(1) If the condition in paragraph (a)(i) is present (
(2) If the condition in paragraph (a)(ii) is present (
(3) If the condition in paragraph (a)(iii) is present (
(4) If the condition in paragraph (a)(iv) is present (
The proposed rule change amends the opening conditions to provide in proposed paragraph (d)(ii) as follows:
(1) If there are no quotes on the Exchange or disseminated from at least one away exchange present in the series, the System does not open the series. There are no exceptions to this opening condition. The Exchange generally requires an opening quote to ensure there will be liquidity in a series when it opens;
(2) if the width between the best quote bid and best quote offer, which may consist of Market-Makers quotes or bids and offers disseminated from an away exchange (for purposes of proposed subparagraph (d)(ii), the “opening quote”), is wider than the OEPW range and there are orders or quotes marketable against each other or that lock or cross the OEPW range, the System does not open the series. However, if the opening quote width is no wider than the IEPW range and there are no orders or quotes marketable against each other or that lock or cross the OEPW range, the System opens the series. If the opening quote width is wider than the IEPW range, the System does not open the series. If the opening quote for a series consists solely of bids and offers disseminated from an away exchange(s), the System opens the series by matching orders and quotes to the extent they can trade and reports the opening trade, if any, at the opening trade price. The System then exposes any remaining marketable buy (sell) orders at the widest offer (bid) point of the OEPW range or NBO (NBB), whichever is lower (higher). The proposed rule change only makes nonsubstantive, simplifying changes to the exception to this opening condition. Because the proposed definition of opening quote width includes bids and offers from away exchanges, opening quote width incorporates those bids and offers. If there are no Market-Maker quotes on CBOE but other exchanges have disseminated bids and offers in a series, those away quotes constitute the NBBO for the series. Thus, the proposed rule change clarifies that the System will open a series if the opening quote width, which is comprised of the best quotes on CBOE and other exchanges (essentially, the NBBO) is no wider than the OEPW range. As discussed above, the OEPW range is a price protection measure intended to prevent orders from executing at extreme prices on the open. If that market is no wider than the OEPW range, the Exchange believes it is appropriate to open a series under these circumstances and provide marketable orders on the Exchange with the opportunity to execute at the NBBO. If the opening quote width is no wider than the OEPW range, then the Exchange believes the risk of execution at an extreme risk is not present. With respect to the exception to this opening condition, similar to the exception in proposed Rule 6.2B(d)(i)(B), if the best market (whether the Exchange or national market) would satisfy the price check parameter the Exchange uses for intraday trading, and there are no orders that can execute on the open, then there is no risk that an order will execute at an extreme price on the open. Because the risk that the OEPW range is intended to address is not present in this situation, the Exchange believes it is appropriate to open a series given these conditions. Other proposed changes make the language (
(3) if the opening trade price would be outside the OEPW range or the NBBO, the System opens the series by matching orders and quotes to the extent they can trade and reports the opening trade, if any, at an opening trade price not outside either the OEPW range or NBBO. The System then exposes any remaining marketable buy (sell) orders at the widest offer (bid) point of the OEPW range or NBO (NBB), whichever is lower (higher). As discussed above, the Exchange believes using the term OEPW range with respect to the acceptable range for opening price in the rules is a more accurate description of the appropriate range for opening prices (as this is the term used in circulars and among Trading Permit Holders). The OEPW range is used as a price protection measure. Additionally, the proposed rule change clarifies that a series will open if the opening trade price is at the widest part of the OEPW
(4) if the opening trade would leave a market order imbalance, which means there are more market orders to buy or to sell for the particular series than can be satisfied by the orders and quotes on the opposite side, the System opens the series by matching orders and quotes to the extent they can trade and reports the opening trade, if any, at the opening trade price. The System then exposes any remaining marketable buy (sell) orders at the widest offer (bid) point of the OEPW range or NBO (NBB), whichever is lower (higher). The proposed rule change makes nonsubstantive, simplifying changes to this provision. Other proposed changes make the language in this paragraph consistent with language used in the other conditions in proposed subparagraphs (d)(i) and (ii); or
(5) if the opening quote bid (offer) or the NBB (NBO) crosses the opening quote offer (bid) or the NBO (NBB) by more than an amount determined by the Exchange on a class-by-class and premium basis, the System does not open the series.
Generally, the purpose of these opening conditions and exceptions is to ensure that series open in a fair and orderly manner and at prices consistent with the current market conditions for the series and not at extreme prices, while taking into consideration the markets of other exchanges that may be better than the Exchange's at the open. With respect to classes in which the Exchange has activated HAL for openings, the exceptions provide the opportunity for orders to execute through a HAL auction or at an away exchange when that is the case.
Current Interpretation and Policy .03 states for classes for which HALO is activated, the procedures in Interpretation and Policy .03 will apply in lieu of current paragraph (e) (and proposed subparagraph (d)(i)) regarding opening conditions (see above discussion). The proposed rule change adds subparagraph (d)(ii) to specify the opening conditions in that subparagraph apply to those classes. The proposed rule change deletes the provision regarding the allocation period of the HAL openings. The Exchange no longer uses an allocation period and just uses the exposure period, which may not exceed 1.5 seconds. There is no allocation period for the HAL exposure process described in Rule 6.14A, and the Exchange does not believe it is necessary to include one for HAL on the openings. As provided in current Interpretation and Policy .03(c)(ii) and proposed subparagraph (d)(ii), the exposure process will be conducted via HAL pursuant to Rule 6.14A for an exposure period designated by the Exchange for a class (which period of time will not exceed 1.5 seconds),
The Exchange also proposes to add subparagraph (d)(iii), which provides if the System does not open a series pursuant subparagraphs (i) or (ii), notwithstanding proposed paragraph (c) (which states the opening rotation period may not last more than 60 seconds), the opening rotation period continues (including the dissemination of EOIs, which is consistent with language the Exchange proposes to delete regarding the notifications sent to market participants if one of the opening conditions is present) until the condition causing the delay is satisfied or the Exchange otherwise determines it is necessary to open a series in accordance with proposed paragraph (e). This is currently how the System operates, and the Exchange believes it will benefit investors to explicitly state this in the rules, particularly because, under these circumstances, the opening rotation period will last longer than the standard length of time determined by the Exchange. The Exchange believes it is important for market participants to continue to receive EOIs, particularly those describing why a series is not open, so they have close to real-time information regarding the potential opening of a series.
The proposed rule change moves Rule 6.2B, Interpretation and Policy .01(a), which contains provisions related to the opening applicable to classes that trade on the Hybrid 3.0 platform, to proposed paragraph (h) of Rule 6.2B. Interpretation and Policy .01 generally
The introduction to proposed paragraph (h) explicitly states all the provisions set forth in Rule 6.2B apply to the opening of Hybrid 3.0 series except as set forth in proposed paragraph (i).
The proposed rule change amends the modified opening procedures for classes and series used to calculate volatility indexes on the exercise and final settlement dates for those indexes. Current Interpretation and Policy .01(b) requires the DPM or LMM to enter opening quotes in all series in a Hybrid 3.0 class on during a modified opening procedure (as it does not specify any subset of series to which the obligation applies). The proposed rule change deletes this obligation. As a result, the opening quoting obligations in Rules 8.15 and 8.85, as applicable, would apply to LMMs and DPMs, respectively, in Hybrid 3.0 classes on volatility settlement days.
Current Rule 6.2B, Interpretation and Policy .01(c) describes a modified opening procedure that applies to series in Hybrid 3.0 classes that are used to calculate a volatility index on expiration and final settlement dates for those indexes.
The introduction to current paragraph (c) continues to state on settlement dates, public customers, broker-dealers, Exchange Market-Makers, away market-makers and specialists may enter orders in any index options series used to calculate the exercise settlement or final settlement value of that volatility index. As discussed above, proposed Rule 6.2B(a) provides market participants may submit orders prior to the open. The group of market participants listed in current Interpretation and Policy .01(c) generally covers all market participants, so it is unnecessary to list them out. Additionally, proposed Rule 6.2B(a) applies to expiration and final settlement dates unless otherwise set forth in Interpretation and Policy .01; however, the current provision about entering orders on settlement dates is consistent with proposed Rule 6.2B(a). Therefore, the proposed rule change deletes that provision, as it is duplicative and unnecessary.
Current Interpretation and Policy .01(c)(i) states all orders (including public customer, broker-dealer, Market-
Current subparagraph (c)(ii) provides, in addition to the LMM quoting requirement, all LMMs in Hybrid 3.0 classes, if applicable, must enter opening orders during the modified opening procedures on settlement dates. The Exchange does not require LMMs (or any Market-Makers) to enter orders on settlement dates (or any trading days), and instead imposes a quoting obligation. Thus, the Exchange proposes to delete the requirement for LMMs to submit orders on exercise and final settlement dates. Market-Makers are permitted, but not required, to enter orders in addition to quotes. The Exchange requires, and will continue to require, LMMs (or DPMs) in Hybrid 3.0 classes to enter opening quotes in series that may be used to calculate the exercise and final settlement values of options or futures on the volatility index on expiration and final settlement dates. Additionally, LMMs and DPMs must enter quotes within a certain timeframe as necessary on all trading days.
The proposed rule change also makes nonsubstantive changes to Interpretation and Policy .01, including changes to delete unnecessary language, update cross-references and paragraph numbering and lettering, and incorporate defined terms.
The proposed rule change deletes obsolete and duplicate language in Rule 6.2B as follows:
• Current Rule 6.2B(b)(ii) describes how a DPM or LMM, as applicable takes part in determining the cause of a delay in the opening of an underlying security, and the Exchange may consider such information when deciding whether to open a series despite the delay in the opening of the underlying. Exchanges continue to increase connectivity communication among each other, and thus the Exchange Help Desk generally is aware of any delayed openings in the underlying securities, making this provision obsolete. While DPMs and LMMs may still communicate any issues related to an opening to the Exchange, given that CBOE generally knows of these issues prior to them being reported by DPMs and LMMs, the Exchange does not believe the rules should impose this reporting requirement on DPMs and LMMs. Given the increased importance of speed within the marketplace, the Exchange believes it is necessary to have the ability to react to any issues it is aware of, even though it may not have yet received information from DPMs or LMMs. Additionally, pursuant to proposed paragraph (f) (as discussed below), the Exchange's Help Desk may compel the opening of a series for the reasons set forth in that paragraph. Therefore, the Exchange proposes to delete this provision.
• Current Rule 6.2B provides in various places Exchange Floor Officials, including paragraphs (b)(ii), (e) and (f) and Interpretations and Policies .01 and .08. The Exchange believes it is simpler to have one single rule provision within Rule 6.2B that applies to the entire rule stating designated Exchange personnel may determine whether to modify the opening procedures when they deem necessary. The Exchange proposes to delete these references and combine them into current paragraph (f) and proposed paragraph (e). Additionally, the Exchange proposes to amend proposed paragraph (e) to state senior Help Desk personnel make these determinations. This is consistent with the current language that states Floor Officials make these determinations. However, the Exchange proposes to clarify in the rules the Floor Officials that do make these determinations are located in the Help Desk, as this terminology is more familiar to market participants.
• Rule 6.2B, Interpretation and Policy .01(b) states the DPM or LMM must enter opening quotes that comply with the bid/ask differential requirements determined by the Exchange on a class-by-class basis and that if there is not a quote present in a series that complies with the bid/ask differential requirements established by the Exchange, then that series will not open. As discussed above, bid/ask differential requirements apply to all Market-Maker quotes, and whether the System opens a series depends on whether the opening quote satisfies the OEPW range (not bid/ask differentials) for the series. Thus, the Exchange believes including language that DPMs and LMM must comply with bid/ask differential requirements in the opening procedures rules is duplicative of rules regarding Market-Maker obligations related to bid/ask differential requirements (including Rules 8.7, 8.15, 8.15A and 8.85). Additionally, because the proposed rule change explicitly states all provisions of Rule 6.2B apply to Hybrid 3.0 classes except as provided in proposed paragraph (i), the Exchange does not believe it is necessary to repeat in subparagraph (a) the opening quote must satisfy the OEPW range.
• The Exchange also proposes to delete current Interpretation and Policy .01(c)(v), which states the HOSS system will automatically generate cancels immediately prior to the opening of the applicable index option series for broker-dealer, Market-Maker, away market-maker, and specialist (
• The proposed rule change deletes Interpretation and Policy .08. The modified opening procedures described in Interpretations and Policies .01 and .08 are nearly identical for Hybrid and Hybrid 3.0 classes. Therefore, the proposed rule change amends Interpretation and Policy .01 (as amended by this proposed rule change) to apply to all classes. Proposed Interpretation and Policy .01 does not distinguish between 30-day volatility indexes and short-term volatility indexes, as the modified opening procedure operates in the same manner for all volatility indexes on settlement dates.
There are various provisions throughout Rule 6.2B that allow the Exchange to make certain determinations on a class-by-class basis. However, pursuant to Rule 8.14, Interpretation and Policy .01,
The proposed rule change makes numerous nonsubstantive and clerical changes throughout Rule 6.2B and in Rule 6.53(l), including adding or amending headings and defined terms, updating cross-references, adding introductory and clarifying language, using consistent language and punctuation, replacing terms such as “option series” with series (all series listed for trading on the Exchange are for options, making it unnecessary to include “option”), and using more plain English. The proposed rule change also amends current Rule 6.2B(g) and proposed Rule 6.2B(f) to indicate the procedure described in Rule 6.2B may be used to reopen a series, in addition to a class, after a trading halt. This proposed changes addresses a potential situation in which only certain series are subjected to halt. As series open on an individual basis, the Exchange does not believe this to be a significant change. The proposed rule change also adds detail regarding notice of use of this opening procedure following a trading halt and clarifies the procedure would be the same, however, based on then-existing facts and circumstances, there may be no pre-opening period or a shorter pre-opening period than the regular pre-opening period. Specifically, proposed paragraph (f) states the Exchange will announce the reopening of a class or series after a trading halt as soon as practicable via verbal message to the trading floor and electronic message to Trading Permit Holders that request to receive such messages.
The Exchange also proposes to amend Interpretation and Policy .04, which states the Exchange may determine on a class-by-class basis which electronic algorithm from Rule 6.45A or 6.45B, as applicable, applies to the class during rotations. The proposed rule change makes the electronic algorithm that applies to a class intraday the algorithm that applies to a class during rotations, but still leaves the Exchange with the same flexibility to apply a different algorithm to a class during rotations if it deems necessary or appropriate. This proposed change merely makes the intraday algorithm the default opening algorithm for a class. The Exchange believes it is important to maintain this flexibility so that it can facilitate a robust opening with sufficient liquidity in all classes.
The Exchange also proposes to amend Rules 6.1A(e)(iii)(C), 8.15(b)(v), 8.85(a)(xi), and 17.50(g)(14) to update cross-references related to proposed changes described above.
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
In particular, the proposed rule change enhances the description of the opening procedures in the rules to reflect how the System opens series, which perfects the mechanism of a free and open market and ultimately protects investors. The Exchange believes the proposed rule changes to reorganize and enhance the description of the opening (and sometimes) closing procedures (for Hybrid and Hybrid 3.0 classes) will benefit investors, because the rule as amended more accurately and clearly describes how the System opens series on the Exchange. Thus, investors will have a better understanding of how their quotes and orders will be handled during opening rotations if they elect to submit quotes and orders during the pre-opening period or if they have orders resting on the book from the prior
The Exchange also believes the proposed changes to the modified opening procedures on settlement dates more clearly state the standard opening procedures apply in those situations except as specifically set forth in the Interpretation and Policy, which will also eliminates potential investor confusion. While the proposed rule change deletes the obligation for LMMs in Hybrid 3.0 classes to enter opening orders and quotes (in addition to the standard opening quoting obligation) on volatility settlement dates, the Exchange does not believe this impacts the balance of LMM obligations and benefits, as this obligation applies only to a brief period of time on certain days. Market-Maker obligations generally do not require the entry of orders in addition to quotes. Additionally, LMMs in Hybrid 3.0 must enter opening quotes in accordance with the obligation in Rule 8.15, including in series of classes that may be used to calculate the exercise and final settlement values of options or futures on the volatility index on settlement dates. The Exchange believes the standard opening quoting obligation, in addition to other general obligations applicable to LMMs, provides sufficient liquidity in these series on the volatility settlement days and thus does not believe it is necessary to impose additional opening quoting obligations on LMMs on those days. Additionally, the Exchange believes imposing the same opening quoting obligation on LMMs every day will promote compliance with the obligation.
The revised opening conditions (for both the standard opening procedures and HAL opening procedures) are intended promote just and equitable principles of trade, as they ensure that series open in a fair and orderly market with sufficient liquidity in the series and opportunities for execution at prices that are consistent with then-current market conditions rather than potentially extreme prices. These proposed changes ensure that market participants are aware of all circumstances under which the System may not open a series.
The proposed rule change to allow the Exchange to make determinations in Rule 6.2B for groups of series on different trading platforms provides the Exchange with the appropriate flexibility to make these determinations in a manner consistent with how the System's opening (and closing) process, which it performs by series, not class. It is also consistent with Exchange rules that permit the Exchange to authorize a group of series of a class for trading on different platforms. The Exchange believes this consistency removes impediments to and perfects the mechanism of a free and open market and promotes just and equitable principles of trade.
CBOE does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The opening procedures as revised by the proposed rule change will still apply to all market participants in the same manner as they do today. The proposed rule change more accurately describes the opening procedures that are currently in place on the Exchange, which procedures are designed to open series on the Exchange in a fair and orderly manner. These changes have no impact on competition. The purposes of the opening conditions are to ensure there is sufficient liquidity in a series when it opens and the series opens at prices consistent with the current market conditions (at the Exchange and other exchanges) rather than extreme prices that could result in unfavorable executions to market participants. The nonsubstantive changes as well as the deletion of obsolete and duplicative language have no impact on competition, as they are intended to eliminate confusion within and simplify the rules.
While the proposed rule change deletes the obligation for LMMs in Hybrid 3.0 classes to enter opening orders and quotes (in addition to the standard opening quoting obligation) on volatility settlement dates, the Exchange does not believe this impacts the balance of LMM obligations and benefits, as this obligation applies only to a brief period of time on certain days. Market-Maker obligations generally do not require the entry of orders in addition to quotes. Additionally, LMMs in Hybrid 3.0 must enter opening quotes in accordance with the obligation in Rule 8.15, including in series of classes that may be used to calculate the exercise and final settlement values of options or futures on the volatility index on settlement dates. The Exchange believes the standard opening quoting obligation, in addition to other general obligations applicable to LMMs, provides sufficient liquidity in these series on the volatility settlement days and thus does not believe it is necessary to impose additional opening quoting obligations on LMMs on those days. Additionally, the Exchange believes imposing the same opening quoting obligation on LMMs every day will promote compliance with the obligation.
The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
A. by order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
B. institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On July 6, 2016, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange proposes to list and trade the Shares of the Fund under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600, which governs the listing and trading of Managed Fund Shares. The Fund is a series of the PowerShares Actively Managed Exchange Traded Trust (“Trust”).
The Exchange has made the following representations and statements in describing the Fund and its investment strategies, including the Fund's portfolio holdings and investment restrictions.
According to the Exchange, the Fund's investment objective will be to seek to provide as high a level of current income as is consistent with liquidity and minimum volatility of principal. The Fund will seek to achieve its investment objective by investing, under normal market conditions,
Under normal market conditions, the Fund intends to invest a substantial portion of its assets in the following Underlying Funds: (a) Treasury Portfolio; (b) Government TaxAdvantage Portfolio; (c) Government & Agency Portfolio; and (d) Premier US Government Money Portfolio, each of which is advised by an affiliate of the Adviser. The Sub-Adviser may add, eliminate, or replace any or all Underlying Funds at any time. Any additions to or replacements of the Underlying Funds in the Fund's portfolio also will be registered U.S. government money market funds with investment characteristics that are substantially similar to those of the Underlying Funds. The Adviser, the Sub-Adviser, or their affiliates may advise some or all the Underlying Funds. In constructing the Fund's portfolio, the Sub-Adviser generally will allocate and re-allocate the Fund's assets among the Underlying Funds on a monthly basis on an approximate
While the Fund, under normal circumstances, will invest at least 80% of its net assets in the securities and financial instruments described above, the Fund may invest its remaining assets in other assets and financial instruments, as described below.
The Fund (and the Underlying Funds) may invest in certain U.S. government obligations other than those referenced above, namely Treasury receipts where the principal and interest components are traded separately under the Separate Trading of Registered Interest and Principal of Securities (STRIPS) program. The Fund also may invest directly in repurchase agreements and reverse repurchase agreements.
According to the Exchange, the Fund will be classified as “non-diversified.”
The Fund intends to maintain the required level of diversification and otherwise conduct its operations so as to qualify as a regulated investment company for purposes of the U.S. Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended.
The Fund may invest up to an aggregate amount of 15% of its net assets in illiquid assets (calculated at the time of investment). The Fund will monitor its portfolio liquidity on an ongoing basis to determine whether, in light of current circumstances, an adequate level of liquidity is being maintained, and will consider taking appropriate steps in order to maintain adequate liquidity if, through a change in values, net assets, or other circumstances, more than 15% of the Fund's net assets are held in illiquid assets. Illiquid assets include securities subject to contractual or other restrictions on resale and other instruments that lack readily available markets as determined in accordance with Commission staff guidance.
The Fund will not invest in futures, options, swaps, or forward contracts.
The Fund's investments will be consistent with the Fund's investment objective and will not be used to enhance leverage. That is, while the Fund will be permitted to borrow as permitted under the 1940 Act, the Fund's investments will not be used to seek performance that is the multiple or inverse multiple (
The Commission is instituting proceedings pursuant to Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act,
Under the proposal, BNYM will calculate the Fund's NAV at 12:00 p.m., Eastern time, every day the New York Stock Exchange is open. In addition, to initiate an order for a creation unit, the Distributor or its agent must receive an irrevocable order from an authorized participant, in proper form, no later than 12:00 p.m., Eastern time, in each case on the date such order is placed in order to receive that day's NAV. Likewise, with respect to redemptions, an authorized participant must submit an irrevocable request to redeem shares of the Fund generally before 12:00 p.m., Eastern time on any business day in order to receive that day's NAV. The Commission notes the proposal does not provide any explanation for the early NAV calculation time and creation and redemption cut-off time. The proposal also does not explain whether the early NAV calculation time and creation and redemption cut-off time would have any impact on the trading of the Shares, including any impact on arbitrage. Accordingly, the Commission seeks commenters' views on the 12:00 p.m. NAV calculation time and creation and redemption cut-off time, and on whether the Exchange's statements relating to the NAV calculation and the creation and redemption process support a determination that the listing and trading of the Shares would be consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act, which, among other things, requires that the rules of an exchange be designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, and to protect investors and the public interest.
The Commission requests that interested persons provide written submissions of their views, data, and arguments with respect to the issues identified above, as well as any other concerns they may have with the proposal. In particular, the Commission invites the written views of interested persons concerning whether the proposal is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) or any other provision of the Act, or the rules and regulations thereunder. Although there do not appear to be any issues relevant to approval or disapproval that would be facilitated by an oral presentation of views, data, and arguments, the Commission will consider, pursuant to Rule 19b-4, any request for an opportunity to make an oral presentation.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments regarding whether the proposal should be approved or disapproved by November 17, 2016. Any person who wishes to file a rebuttal to any other person's submission must file that rebuttal by December 1, 2016. The Commission asks that commenters address the sufficiency of the Exchange's statements in support of the proposal, which are set forth in the Notice,
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On April 11, 2016, NYSE MKT LLC (the “Exchange” or “NYSE MKT”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange's proposal amended certain fees, rebates, and credits relating to executions through its CUBE Auction. First, the proposal increased the fees assessed by the Exchange for RFR Responses (
Further, the proposal increased a rebate available to Initiating Participants in CUBE Auctions (
Finally, the proposal increased the credit paid by the Exchange to Initiating Participants (the “break-up credit”) for each contract in the contra-side order that is paired with the agency order that does not trade with the agency order because it is replaced in the auction. Prior to the proposal, the credit granted was $0.05 per contract in all classes. The proposal raised it to $0.35 for Penny classes and $0.70 for Non-Penny classes.
The amended fees resulted in a proposed difference between the fees charged to an Initiating Participant and those charged to Non-Customer auction responders that would be a minimum of $0.65 in Penny classes and $1.00 in Non-Penny classes.
In its filing, the Exchange stated that the changes to the CUBE Auction transaction fees are reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory “because they apply equally to all ATP Holders that choose to participate in the CUBE, and access to the Exchange is offered on terms that are not unfairly discriminatory.”
In the Order Instituting Proceedings, the Commission stated that it would further assess whether the proposal satisfies the statutory provisions that require exchange rules to: (1) provide for the equitable allocation of reasonable fees among members, issuers, and other persons using its facilities;
In the Order Instituting Proceedings, the Commission expressed concern about the potential effect the proposal could have on the operation of the CUBE Auction and its potential to provide price improvement to customers, as well as about its effect upon competition among participants initiating CUBE Auctions and those responding to them.
Further, in the Order Instituting Proceedings, the Commission raised questions as to whether the proposal would in fact provide the additional trading opportunities for Non-Customer auction responders and other market quality benefits suggested by the Exchange.
The Commission received ten comment letters in response to the Order Instituting Proceedings, one of which was from the Exchange.
More specifically, many commenters believed that the fee differentials created by the Exchange's proposal would significantly favor Initiating Participants over Non-Customer auction responders.
A few commenters stated that an effect of the proposed fees would be to limit opportunities for price improvement in the CUBE mechanism by discouraging auction responders from effectively participating.
Commenters expressed other concerns as well. One commenter stated that high response fees generally disincentivize firms from responding to an auction and offering price improvement.
Several commenters expressed concern that high transaction fees in auction mechanisms generally, not only the fees under the Exchange's proposal, could harm options market quality by negatively impacting market maker quoting behavior.
In its comment letter, the Exchange broadly expressed concerns with options exchange electronic auction mechanisms, and stated its belief that such mechanisms should guarantee price improvement.
Under Section 19(b)(2)(C) of the Act,
In the Order Instituting Proceedings, the Commission raised concerns about the effect the proposal could have on the operation of the CUBE Auction and its ability to provide price improvement to customers, as well as the impact it could have on competition among participants initiating CUBE Auctions and those responding to them.
As discussed above, most commenters broadly echoed the Commission's concerns, and several expressed the view that the proposal would not provide the additional trading opportunities for non-Initiating Participants and other market quality benefits suggested by the Exchange. Specifically, several commenters stated that an effect of the proposed fees would be to limit opportunities for price improvement in the CUBE mechanism by discouraging auction responders from effectively participating,
In its comment letter, the Exchange did not respond specifically to the concerns articulated in the Order Instituting Proceedings or in the comments, or otherwise offer any additional information to support its view that the proposal would provide additional trading opportunities for non-Initiating Participants and other market quality benefits.
As noted, Rule 700(b)(3) of the Commission's Rules of Practice states that the “burden to demonstrate that a proposed rule change is consistent with the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations issued thereunder . . . is on the self-regulatory organization that proposed the rule change” and that a “mere assertion that the proposed rule change is consistent with those requirements . . . is not sufficient.”
Accordingly, after careful consideration, the Commission does not find that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange.
For the reasons set forth above, the Commission does not find that the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange, and in particular, Sections 6(b)(4), 6(b)(5), and 6(b)(8) of the Act.
It is therefore ordered, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 497 regarding the requirements for the listing of securities that are issued by the Exchange or any of its affiliates. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 497 (Additional Requirements for Listed Securities Issued by Intercontinental Exchange, Inc. or its Affiliates) regarding the requirements for the listing of securities that are issued by the Exchange or any of its affiliates. Rule 497 sets forth certain requirements that securities issued by the Exchange's ultimate parent, Intercontinental Exchange, Inc. (“ICE”), or its affiliates, must meet before they can be listed on the Exchange, including certain pre-listing approvals and post-listing monitoring requirements.
Specifically, the Exchange is proposing to make the following changes to Rule 497: (i) Expand the definition of Affiliate Security under Rule 497(a)(2); (ii) require that the annual review required under Rule 497(c)(2) be forwarded to the Exchange's Regulatory Oversight Committee (“ROC”); and (iii) make non-substantive typographical changes.
Rule 497(a)(2) currently defines “Affiliate Security” as “any security issued by an ICE Affiliate, with the exception of Investment Company Units as defined in Para. 703.16 of the Listed Company Manual.”
In the event that an ICE Affiliate lists an Affiliate Security, Rule 497(c)(2) requires that, throughout the continued listing of the Affiliate Security on the Exchange, an independent accounting firm will review the listing standards for the Affiliate Security and a copy of the report shall be forwarded promptly to the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”). The Exchange proposes to expand Rule 497(c)(2) to require that such report also be forwarded to the ROC.
The Exchange proposes to make the following additional, non-substantive changes to Rule 497(c):
• It proposes to move “the Exchange shall” from the end of Rule 497(c) to the start of Rule 497(c)(1), as the text only applies to Rule 497(c)(1), and not sub-paragraphs (2) or (3), and change “shall” to “will.”
• It proposes to add “and trading” after “Throughout the continued listing” in Rule 497(c), as Rule 497 (c)(1)
• The Exchange proposes to delete an extraneous “that” from the final clause of Rule 497(c)(1)(b), so that it reads as follows:
Exchange regulatory staff's monitoring of the trading of the Affiliate Security including summaries of all related surveillance alerts, complaints, regulatory referrals, adjusted trades, investigations, examinations, formal and informal disciplinary actions, exception reports and trading data used to ensure the Affiliate Security's compliance with the Exchange's listing and trading rules.
The Exchange notes that the proposed amendments would be consistent with recent changes to the Bats BZX Exchange, Inc. (“BZX”) Rule 14.3 regarding requirements for the listing of securities listed by BZX or any of its affiliates.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Exchange Act
Specifically, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change, by requiring heightened reporting by the Exchange to the Commission and the ROC with respect to oversight of the listing and trading on the Exchange of Affiliate Securities, will continue to help protect against concerns that the Exchange will not effectively enforce its rules with respect to the listing and trading of these securities. By adding Exchange-listed options on any security issued by an ICE Affiliate to the definition of “Affiliate Securities,” the proposed changes would expand the scope of Rule 497. The Exchange accordingly believes that the proposed amendments to Rule 497 would continue to eliminate any perception of a potential conflict of interest if an ICE Affiliate seeks to list a security on the Exchange.
Lastly, the Exchange believes that the proposed non-substantive grammatical changes would promote just and equitable principles of trade and remove impediments to a free and open market by providing greater clarity in the Exchange's rules.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Exchange Act. The proposed rule change is not intended to address competitive issues but rather provide market participants with additional specificity and transparency regarding the Exchange's controls that are in place to address the potential conflicts of interest that may arise in the listing of Affiliate Securities on the Exchange.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Because the proposed rule change does not (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of an application for an order pursuant to: (a) Section 6(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Act”) granting an exemption from sections 18(f) and 21(b) of the Act; (b) section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act granting an exemption from section 12(d)(1) of the Act; (c) sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act granting an exemption from sections 17(a)(1), 17(a)(2) and 17(a)(3) of the Act; and (d) section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act to permit certain joint arrangements and transactions. Applicants request an order that would permit certain registered open-end management investment companies to participate in a joint lending and borrowing facility.
Nuveen All Cap Energy MLP Opportunities Fund, Nuveen AMT-Free Municipal Value Fund, Nuveen AMT-Free Quality Municipal Income Fund, Nuveen Arizona Premium Income Municipal Fund, Nuveen Build America Bond Fund, Nuveen Build America Bond Opportunity Fund, Nuveen California AMT-Free Municipal Income Fund, Nuveen California Dividend Advantage Municipal Fund, Nuveen California Dividend Advantage Municipal Fund 2, Nuveen California Dividend Advantage Municipal Fund 3, Nuveen California Municipal Value Fund 2, Nuveen California Municipal Value Fund, Inc., Nuveen California Select Tax-Free Income Portfolio, Nuveen Connecticut Premium Income Municipal Fund, Nuveen Core Equity Alpha Fund, Nuveen Credit Strategies Income Fund, Nuveen Diversified Dividend and Income Fund, Nuveen Dow 30SM Dynamic Overwrite Fund, Nuveen Energy MLP Total Return Fund, Nuveen Enhanced AMT-Free Municipal Credit Opportunities Fund, Nuveen Enhanced Municipal Credit Opportunities Fund, Nuveen Enhanced Municipal Value Fund, Nuveen Flexible Investment Income Fund, Nuveen Floating Rate Income Fund, Nuveen Floating Rate Income Opportunity Fund, Nuveen Georgia Dividend Advantage Municipal Fund 2, Nuveen Global High Income Fund, Nuveen Global Equity Income Fund, Nuveen High Income 2020 Target Term Fund, Nuveen High Income December 2018 Target Term Fund, Nuveen High Income December 2019 Target Term Fund, Nuveen High Income November 2021 Target Term Fund, Nuveen Intermediate Duration Municipal Term Fund, Nuveen Intermediate Duration Quality Municipal Term Fund, Nuveen Investment Funds, Inc., Nuveen Investment Trust, Nuveen Investment Trust II, Nuveen Investment Trust III, Nuveen Investment Trust V, Nuveen Managed Accounts Portfolios Trust, Nuveen Maryland Premium Income Municipal Fund, Nuveen Massachusetts Premium Income Municipal Fund, Nuveen Michigan Quality Income Municipal Fund, Nuveen Minnesota Municipal Income Fund, Nuveen Missouri Premium Income Municipal Fund, Nuveen Mortgage Opportunity Term Fund 2, Nuveen Mortgage Opportunity Term Fund, Nuveen Multi-Market Income Fund, Nuveen Multistate Trust I, Nuveen Multistate Trust II, Nuveen Multistate Trust III, Nuveen Multistate Trust IV, Nuveen Municipal 2021 Target Term Fund, Nuveen Municipal High Income Opportunity Fund, Nuveen Municipal Income Fund, Inc., Nuveen Municipal Trust, Nuveen Municipal Value Fund, Inc., Nuveen NASDAQ 100 Dynamic Overwrite Fund, Nuveen New Jersey Dividend Advantage Municipal Fund, Nuveen New Jersey Municipal Value Fund, Nuveen New York AMT-Free Municipal Income Fund, Nuveen New York Dividend Advantage Municipal Fund, Nuveen New York Municipal Value Fund 2, Nuveen New York Municipal Value Fund, Inc., Nuveen New York Select Tax-Free Income Portfolio, Nuveen North Carolina Premium Income Municipal Fund, Nuveen Ohio Quality Income Municipal Fund, Nuveen Pennsylvania Investment Quality Municipal Fund, Nuveen Pennsylvania Municipal Value Fund, Nuveen Preferred and Income Term Fund, Nuveen Preferred Income Opportunities Fund, Nuveen Preferred Securities Income Fund, Nuveen Quality Municipal Income Fund, Nuveen Real Asset Income and Growth Fund, Nuveen Real Estate Income Fund, Nuveen S&P 500 Buy-Write Income Fund, Nuveen S&P 500 Dynamic Overwrite Fund, Nuveen Select Maturities Municipal Fund, Nuveen Select Tax-Free Income Portfolio, Nuveen Select Tax-Free Income Portfolio 2, Nuveen Select Tax-Free Income Portfolio 3, Nuveen Senior Income Fund, Nuveen Short Duration Credit Opportunities Fund, Nuveen Strategy Funds, Inc., Nuveen Tax-Advantaged Dividend Growth Fund, Nuveen Tax-Advantaged Total Return Strategy Fund, Nuveen Texas Quality Income Municipal Fund, Nuveen Virginia Premium Income Municipal Fund, Diversified Real Asset Income Fund, each an investment company organized as a business trust or a corporation under the laws of Massachusetts, Maryland or Minnesota and registered under the Act as an open-end or closed-end management investment company,
The application was filed on February 23, 2016 and amended on July 1, 2016 and September 30, 2016.
An order granting the requested relief will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving
Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC, 20549-1090; Applicants: Nuveen Fund Advisors, LLC, 333 West Wacker Drive, Chicago, IL 60606.
Deepak T. Pai, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-6876 or Mary Kay Frech, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6821 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. Applicants request an order that would permit the applicants to participate in an interfund lending facility where each Fund could lend money directly to and borrow money directly from other Funds to cover unanticipated cash shortfalls, such as unanticipated redemptions or trade fails.
2. Applicants anticipate that the proposed facility would provide a borrowing Fund with a source of liquidity at a rate lower than the bank borrowing rate at times when the cash position of the Fund is insufficient to meet temporary cash requirements. In addition, Funds making short-term cash loans directly to other Funds would earn interest at a rate higher than they otherwise could obtain from investing their cash in repurchase agreements or certain other short term money market instruments. Thus, applicants assert that the facility would benefit both borrowing and lending Funds.
3. Applicants agree that any order granting the requested relief will be subject to the terms and conditions stated in the application. Among others, the Adviser, through a designated committee, would administer the facility as a disinterested fiduciary as part of its duties under the investment management and administrative agreements with the Funds and would receive no additional fee as compensation for its services in connection with the administration of the facility. The facility would be subject to oversight and certain approvals by the Funds' Board, including, among others, approval of the interest rate formula and of the method for allocating loans across Funds, as well as review of the process in place to evaluate the liquidity implications for the Funds. A Fund's aggregate outstanding interfund loans will not exceed 15% of its net assets, and the Fund's loans to any one Fund will not exceed 5% of the lending Fund's net assets.
4. Applicants assert that the facility does not raise the concerns underlying section 12(d)(1) of the Act given that the Funds are part of the same group of investment companies and there will be no duplicative costs or fees to the Funds.
5. Applicants also believe that the limited relief from section 18(f)(1) of the Act that is necessary to implement the facility (because the lending Funds are not banks) is appropriate in light of the conditions and safeguards described in the application and because the open-end Funds would remain subject to the requirement of section 18(f)(1) that all borrowings of the open-end Fund, including combined interfund loans and bank borrowings, have at least 300% asset coverage.
6. Section 6(c) of the Act permits the Commission to exempt any persons or transactions from any provision of the Act if such exemption is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act. Section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security, or transaction, or any class or classes of persons, securities, or transactions, from any provision of section 12(d)(1) if the exemption is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors. Section 17(b) of the Act authorizes the Commission to grant an order permitting a transaction otherwise prohibited by section 17(a) if it finds that (a) the terms of the proposed transaction are fair and reasonable and do not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned; (b) the proposed transaction is consistent with the policies of each registered investment company involved; and (c) the proposed transaction is consistent with the general purposes of the Act. Rule 17d-1(b) under the Act provides that in passing upon an application filed under the rule, the Commission will consider whether the participation of the registered investment company in a joint enterprise, joint arrangement or profit sharing plan on the basis proposed is consistent with the provisions, policies and purposes of the Act and the extent to which such participation is on a basis different from or less advantageous than that of the other participants.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 497—Equities regarding the requirements for the listing of securities that are issued by the Exchange or any of its affiliates. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 497—Equities (Additional Requirements for Listed Securities Issued by Intercontinental Exchange, Inc. or its Affiliates) regarding the requirements for the listing of securities that are issued by the Exchange or any of its affiliates. Rule 497—Equities sets forth certain requirements that securities issued by the Exchange's ultimate parent, Intercontinental Exchange, Inc. (“ICE”), or its affiliates, must meet before they can be listed on the Exchange, including certain pre-listing approvals and post-listing monitoring requirements.
Specifically, the Exchange is proposing to make the following changes to Rule 497—Equities: (i) Expand the definition of Affiliate Security under Rule 497—Equities (a)(2); (ii) require that the annual review required under Rule 497—Equities (c)(2) be forwarded to the Exchange's Regulatory Oversight Committee (“ROC”); and (iii) make non-substantive typographical changes.
Rule 497—Equities (a)(2) currently defines “Affiliate Security” as “any security issued by an ICE Affiliate.”
In the event that an ICE Affiliate lists an Affiliate Security, Rule 497—Equities (c)(2) requires that, throughout the continued listing of the Affiliate Security on the Exchange, an independent accounting firm will review the listing standards for the Affiliate Security and a copy of the report shall be forwarded promptly to the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”). The Exchange proposes to expand Rule 497—Equities (c)(2) to require that such report also be forwarded to the ROC.
The Exchange proposes to make the following additional, non-substantive changes to Rule 497—Equities (c):
• It proposes to move “the Exchange shall” from the end of Rule 497—Equities (c) to the start of Rule 497—Equities (c)(1), as the text only applies to Rule 497—Equities (c)(1), and not sub-paragraphs (2) or (3), and change “shall” to “will.”
• It proposes to add “and trading” after “Throughout the continued listing” in Rule 497—Equities (c), as Rule 497—Equities (c)(1) references the listing of Affiliate Securities, as well as their trading.
• The Exchange proposes to delete an extraneous “that” from the final clause of Rule 497—Equities (c)(1)(b), so that it reads as follows:
Exchange regulatory staff's monitoring of the trading of the Affiliate Security including summaries of all related surveillance alerts, complaints, regulatory referrals, adjusted trades, investigations, examinations, formal and informal disciplinary actions, exception reports and trading data used to ensure the Affiliate Security's compliance with the Exchange's listing and trading rules.
The Exchange notes that the proposed amendments would be consistent with recent changes to the Bats BZX Exchange, Inc. (“BZX”) Rule 14.3 regarding requirements for the listing of securities listed by BZX or any of its affiliates.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Exchange Act
Specifically, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change, by requiring heightened reporting by the Exchange to the Commission and the ROC with respect to oversight of the listing and trading on the Exchange of Affiliate Securities, will continue to help protect against concerns that the Exchange will not effectively enforce its rules with respect to the listing and trading of these securities. By adding Exchange-listed options on any security issued by an ICE Affiliate to the definition of “Affiliate Securities,” the proposed changes would expand the scope of Rule 497—Equities. The Exchange accordingly believes that the proposed amendments to Rule 497—Equities would continue to eliminate any perception of a potential conflict of interest if an ICE Affiliate seeks to list a security on the Exchange.
Lastly, the Exchange believes that the proposed non-substantive grammatical changes would promote just and equitable principles of trade and remove impediments to a free and open market by providing greater clarity in the Exchange's rules.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Exchange Act. The proposed rule change is not intended to address competitive issues but rather provide market participants with additional specificity and transparency regarding the Exchange's controls that are in place to address the potential conflicts of interest that may arise in the listing of Affiliate Securities on the Exchange.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Because the proposed rule change does not (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Amendment 7.
This is an amendment of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of North Carolina (FEMA-4285-DR), dated 10/10/2016.
10/19/2016.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
The notice of the Presidential disaster declaration for the State of North Carolina, dated 10/10/2016 is hereby amended to include the following areas as adversely affected by the disaster:
All counties contiguous to the above listed county have previously been declared.
All other information in the original declaration remains unchanged.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice.
This is a Notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for Public Assistance Only for the State of South Carolina (FEMA-4286-DR), dated 10/18/2016.
10/18/2016.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
Notice is hereby given that as a result of the President's major disaster declaration on 10/18/2016, Private Non-Profit organizations that provide essential services of governmental nature may file disaster loan applications at the address listed above or other locally announced locations.
The following areas have been determined to be adversely affected by the disaster:
The Interest Rates are:
The number assigned to this disaster for physical damage is 149278 and for economic injury is 149288.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Amendment 2.
This is an amendment of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of South Carolina (FEMA-4286-DR), dated 10/14/2016.
10/19/2016.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
The notice of the Presidential disaster declaration for the State of South Carolina, dated 10/14/2016 is hereby amended to include the following areas as adversely affected by the disaster:
All other information in the original declaration remains unchanged.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Amendment 1.
This is an amendment of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of Florida (FEMA-4283-DR), dated 10/17/2016.
10/19/2016.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
The notice of the Presidential disaster declaration for the State of Florida, dated 10/17/2016 is hereby amended to include the following areas as adversely affected by the disaster:
All other information in the original declaration remains unchanged.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice.
This is a Notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for Public Assistance Only for the State of Kansas (FEMA-4287-DR), dated 10/20/2016.
10/20/2016.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
Notice is hereby given that as a result of the President's major disaster declaration on 10/20/2016, Private Non-Profit organizations that provide essential services of governmental nature may file disaster loan applications at the address listed above or other locally announced locations.
The following areas have been determined to be adversely affected by the disaster:
The Interest Rates are:
The number assigned to this disaster for physical damage is 14929B and for economic injury is 14930B
Social Security Administration.
Notice.
Under title II of the Social Security Act (Act), there will be a 0.3 percent cost-of-living increase in Social Security benefits effective December 2016. In addition, the national average wage index for 2015 is $48,098.63. The cost-of-living increase and national average wage index affect other program parameters as described below.
Susan C. Kunkel, Office of the Chief Actuary, Social Security Administration, 6401 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21235, (410) 965-3000. Information relating to this announcement is available on our Internet site at
Because of the 0.3 percent cost-of-living increase, the following items will increase for 2017:
(1) The maximum Federal Supplemental Security Income (SSI) monthly benefit amounts for 2017 under title XVI of the Act will be $735 for an eligible individual, $1,103 for an eligible individual with an eligible spouse, and $368 for an essential person;
(2) The special benefit amount under title VIII of the Act for certain World War II veterans will be $551.25 for 2017;
(3) The student earned income exclusion under title XVI of the Act will be $1,790 per month in 2017, but not more than $7,200 for all of 2017;
(4) The dollar fee limit for services performed as a representative payee remains at $41 per month ($78 per month in the case of a beneficiary who is disabled and has an alcoholism or drug addiction condition that leaves him or her incapable of managing benefits) in 2017; and
(5) The dollar limit on the administrative-cost fee assessment charged to an appointed representative such as an attorney, agent, or other person who represents claimants remains at $91 beginning in December 2016.
The national average wage index for 2015 is $48,098.63. This index affects the following amounts:
(1) The Old-Age, Survivors, and Disability Insurance (OASDI) contribution and benefit base will be $127,200 for remuneration paid in 2017 and self-employment income earned in taxable years beginning in 2017;
(2) The monthly exempt amounts under the OASDI retirement earnings test for taxable years ending in calendar year 2017 will be $1,410 for beneficiaries who will attain their Normal Retirement Age (NRA) (defined in the
(3) The dollar amounts (“bend points”) used in the primary insurance amount (PIA) benefit formula for workers who become eligible for benefits, or who die before becoming eligible, in 2017 will be $885 and $5,336;
(4) The bend points used in the formula for computing maximum family benefits for workers who become eligible for benefits, or who die before
(5) The taxable earnings a person must have to be credited with a quarter of coverage in 2017 will be $1,300;
(6) The “old-law” contribution and benefit base under title II of the Act will be $94,500 for 2017;
(7) The monthly amount deemed to constitute substantial gainful activity (SGA) for statutorily blind persons in 2017 will be $1,950. The corresponding amount for non-blind disabled persons will be $1,170;
(8) The earnings threshold establishing a month as a part of a trial work period will be $840 for 2017; and
(9) Coverage thresholds for 2017 will be $2,000 for domestic workers and $1,800 for election officials and election workers.
The cost-of-living increase is 0.3 percent for benefits under titles II and XVI of the Act. Under title II, OASDI benefits will increase by 0.3 percent for individuals eligible for December 2016 benefits, payable in January 2017. We base this increase on the authority contained in section 215(i) of the Act.
Pursuant to section 1617 of the Act, Federal SSI payment levels will also increase by 0.3 percent effective for payments made for January 2017 but paid on December 30, 2016.
Computation of the cost-of-living increase is based on an increase in a Consumer Price Index produced by the Bureau of Labor Statistics. At the time the Act was amended to provide cost-of-living increases, only one Consumer Price Index existed, namely the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers. Although the Bureau of Labor Statistics has since developed other consumer price indices, we follow precedent by continuing to use the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers. We refer to this index in the following paragraphs as the CPI.
Section 215(i)(1)(B) of the Act defines a “computation quarter” to be a third calendar quarter in which the average CPI exceeded the average CPI in the previous computation quarter. The last cost-of-living increase, effective for those eligible to receive title II benefits for December 2014, was based on the CPI increase from the third quarter of 2013 to the third quarter of 2014. Therefore, the last computation quarter is the third quarter of 2014. The law states that a cost-of-living increase for benefits is determined based on the percentage increase, if any, in the CPI from the last computation quarter to the third quarter of the current year. Therefore, we compute the increase in the CPI from the third quarter of 2014 to the third quarter of 2016.
Section 215(i)(1) of the Act states that the CPI for a cost-of-living computation quarter is the arithmetic mean of this index for the 3 months in that quarter. In accordance with 20 CFR 404.275, we round the arithmetic mean, if necessary, to the nearest 0.001. The CPI for each month in the quarter ending September 30, 2014, the last computation quarter, is: For July 2014, 234.525; for August 2014, 234.030; and for September 2014, 234.170. The arithmetic mean for the calendar quarter ending September 30, 2014 is 234.242. The CPI for each month in the quarter ending September 30, 2016, is: For July 2016, 234.771; for August 2016, 234.904; and for September 2016, 235.495. The arithmetic mean for the calendar quarter ending September 30, 2016 is 235.057. The CPI for the calendar quarter ending September 30, 2016, exceeds that for the calendar quarter ending September 30, 2014 by 0.3 percent (rounded to the nearest 0.1). Therefore, beginning December 2016 a cost-of-living benefit increase of 0.3 percent is effective for benefits under title II of the Act.
Section 215(i) also specifies that a benefit increase under title II, effective for December of any year, will be limited to the increase in the national average wage index for the prior year if the OASDI fund ratio for that year is below 20.0 percent. The OASDI fund ratio for a year is the ratio of the combined assets of the OASDI Trust Funds at the beginning of that year to the combined expenditures of these funds during that year. For 2016, the OASDI fund ratio is assets of $2,812,510 million divided by estimated expenditures of $924,944 million, or 304.1 percent. Because the 304.1 percent OASDI fund ratio exceeds 20.0 percent, the benefit increase for December 2016 is not limited.
The following program amounts change based on the cost-of-living increase: (1) Title II benefits; (2) title XVI benefits; (3) title VIII benefits; (4) the student earned income exclusion; (5) the fee for services performed by a representative payee; and (6) the appointed representative fee assessment.
In accordance with section 215(i) of the Act, for workers and family members for whom eligibility for benefits (that is, the worker's attainment of age 62, or disability or death before age 62) occurred before 2017, benefits will increase by 0.3 percent beginning with benefits for December 2016, which are payable in January 2017. For those first eligible after 2016, the 0.3 percent increase will not apply.
For eligibility after 1978, we determine benefits using a formula provided by the Social Security Amendments of 1977 (Pub. L. 95-216), as described later in this notice.
For eligibility before 1979, we determine benefits by using a benefit table. The table is available on the Internet at
Section 215(i)(2)(D) of the Act requires that, when we determine an increase in Social Security benefits, we will publish in the
In accordance with section 1617 of the Act, maximum Federal SSI benefit amounts for the aged, blind, and disabled will increase by 0.3 percent effective January 2017. For 2016, we derived the monthly benefit amounts for an eligible individual, an eligible individual with an eligible spouse, and for an essential person—$733, $1,100, and $367, respectively—from yearly, unrounded Federal SSI benefit amounts of $8,804.43, $13,205.18, and $4,412.31. For 2017, these yearly unrounded amounts respectively increase by 0.3 percent to $8,830.84, $13,244.80, and $4,425.55. We must round each of these resulting amounts, when not a multiple of $12, to the next lower multiple of $12. Therefore, the annual amounts, effective for 2017, are $8,820, $13,236, and $4,416. Dividing the yearly amounts by 12 gives the respective monthly amounts for 2017—$735, $1,103, and $368. For an eligible individual with an eligible spouse, we equally divide the amount payable between the two spouses.
Title VIII of the Act provides for special benefits to certain World War II veterans who reside outside the United States. Section 805 of the Act provides that “[t]he benefit under this title payable to a qualified individual for any month shall be in an amount equal to 75 percent of the Federal benefit rate [the maximum amount for an eligible individual] under title XVI for the month, reduced by the amount of the qualified individual's benefit income for the month.” Therefore, the monthly benefit for 2017 under this provision is 75 percent of $735, or $551.25.
A blind or disabled child who is a student regularly attending school, college, university, or a course of vocational or technical training can have limited earnings that do not count against his or her SSI benefits. The maximum amount of such income that we may exclude in 2016 is $1,780 per month, but not more than $7,180 in all of 2016. These amounts increase based on a formula set forth in regulation 20 CFR 416.1112.
To compute each of the monthly and yearly maximum amounts for 2017, we increase the unrounded amount for 2016 by the latest cost-of-living increase. If the amount so calculated is not a multiple of $10, we round it to the nearest multiple of $10. The unrounded monthly amount for 2016 is $1,781.37. We increase this amount by 0.3 percent to $1,786.71, which we then round to $1,790. Similarly, we increase the unrounded yearly amount for 2016, $7,180.65, by 0.3 percent to $7,202.19 and round this to $7,200. Therefore, the maximum amount of the income exclusion applicable to a student in 2017 is $1,790 per month but not more than $7,200 in all of 2017.
Sections 205(j)(4)(A)(i) and 1631(a)(2)(D)(i) of the Act permit a qualified organization to collect a monthly fee from a beneficiary for expenses incurred in providing services as the beneficiary's representative payee. In 2016, the fee is limited to the lesser of: (1) 10 percent of the monthly benefit involved; or (2) $41 each month ($78 each month when the beneficiary is entitled to disability benefits and has an alcoholism or drug addiction condition that makes the individual incapable of managing such benefits). The dollar fee limits are subject to increase by the cost-of-living increase, with the resulting amounts rounded to the nearest whole dollar amount. Due to the rounding provision, the 0.3 percent COLA effective for December 2016 has no effect on the fee limits, so both the current $41 amount and the current $78 amount remain the same for 2017.
Under sections 206(d) and 1631(d) of the Act, whenever we pay a fee to a representative such as an attorney, agent, or other person who represents claimants, we must impose on the representative an assessment to cover administrative costs. The assessment is no more than 6.3 percent of the representative's authorized fee or, if lower, a dollar amount that is subject to increase by the cost-of-living increase. We derive the dollar limit for December 2016 by increasing the unrounded limit for December 2015, $91.20, by 0.3 percent, which is $91.47. We then round $91.47 to the next lower multiple of $1. The dollar limit effective for December 2016 is, therefore, $91, the same as the current amount.
We determined the national average wage index for calendar year 2015 based on the 2014 national average wage index of $46,481.52, published in the
Multiplying the national average wage index for 2014 ($46,481.52) by the ratio of the average wage for 2015 ($46,119.78) to that for 2014 ($44,569.20) produces the 2015 index, $48,098.63. The national average wage index for calendar year 2015 is about 3.48 percent higher than the 2014 index.
Under the Act, the following amounts change with annual changes in the national average wage index: (1) The OASDI contribution and benefit base; (2) the exempt amounts under the retirement earnings test; (3) the dollar
Two amounts also increase under regulatory requirements—the SGA amount applicable to non-blind disabled persons, and the monthly earnings threshold that establishes a month as part of a trial work period for disabled beneficiaries.
The OASDI contribution and benefit base is $127,200 for remuneration paid in 2017 and self-employment income earned in taxable years beginning in 2017. The OASDI contribution and benefit base serves as the maximum annual earnings on which OASDI taxes are paid. It is also the maximum annual earnings used in determining a person's OASDI benefits.
Section 230(b) of the Act provides the formula used to determine the OASDI contribution and benefit base. Under the formula, the base for 2017 is the larger of: (1) The 1994 base of $60,600 multiplied by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 to that for 1992; or (2) the current base ($118,500). If the resulting amount is not a multiple of $300, we round it to the nearest multiple of $300.
Multiplying the 1994 OASDI contribution and benefit base ($60,600) by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 ($48,098.63 as determined above) to that for 1992 ($22,935.42) produces $127,086.27. We round this amount to $127,200. Because $127,200 exceeds the current base amount of $118,500, the OASDI contribution and benefit base is $127,200 for 2017.
We withhold Social Security benefits when a beneficiary under the NRA has earnings over the applicable retirement earnings test exempt amount. The NRA is the age when retirement benefits (before rounding) are equal to the PIA. The NRA is age 66 for those born in 1943-54, and it gradually increases to age 67 for those born in 1960 or later. A higher exempt amount applies in the year in which a person attains NRA, but only for earnings in months before such attainment. A lower exempt amount applies at all other ages below NRA. Section 203(f)(8)(B) of the Act provides formulas for determining the monthly exempt amounts. The annual exempt amounts are exactly 12 times the monthly amounts.
For beneficiaries who attain NRA in the year, we withhold $1 in benefits for every $3 of earnings over the annual exempt amount for months before NRA. For all other beneficiaries under NRA, we withhold $1 in benefits for every $2 of earnings over the annual exempt amount.
Under the formula that applies to beneficiaries attaining NRA after 2017, the lower monthly exempt amount for 2017 is the larger of: (1) The 1994 monthly exempt amount multiplied by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 to that for 1992; or (2) the 2016 monthly exempt amount ($1,310). If the resulting amount is not a multiple of $10, we round it to the nearest multiple of $10.
Under the formula that applies to beneficiaries attaining NRA in 2017, the higher monthly exempt amount for 2017 is the larger of: (1) The 2002 monthly exempt amount multiplied by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 to that for 2000; or (2) the 2016 monthly exempt amount ($3,490). If the resulting amount is not a multiple of $10, we round it to the nearest multiple of $10.
Multiplying the 1994 retirement earnings test monthly exempt amount of $670 by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 ($48,098.63) to that for 1992 ($22,935.42) produces $1,405.08. We round this to $1,410. Because $1,410 exceeds the current exempt amount of $1,310, the lower retirement earnings test monthly exempt amount is $1,410 for 2017. The lower annual exempt amount is $16,920 under the retirement earnings test.
Multiplying the 2002 retirement earnings test monthly exempt amount of $2,500 by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 ($48,098.63) to that for 2000 ($32,154.82) produces $3,739.61. We round this to $3,740. Because $3,740 exceeds the current exempt amount of $3,490, the higher retirement earnings test monthly exempt amount is $3,740 for 2017. The higher annual exempt amount is $44,880 under the retirement earnings test.
The Social Security Amendments of 1977 provided a method for computing benefits that generally applies when a worker first becomes eligible for benefits after 1978. This method uses the worker's average indexed monthly earnings (AIME) to compute the PIA. We adjust the formula each year to reflect changes in general wage levels, as measured by the national average wage index.
We also adjust, or index, a worker's earnings to reflect the change in the general wage levels that occurred during the worker's years of employment. Such indexing ensures that a worker's future benefit level will reflect the general rise in the standard of living that will occur during his or her working lifetime. To compute the AIME, we first determine the required number of years of earnings. We then select the number of years with the highest indexed earnings, add the indexed earnings for those years, and divide the total amount by the total number of months in those years. We then round the resulting average amount down to the next lower dollar amount. The result is the AIME.
The PIA is the sum of three separate percentages of portions of the AIME. In 1979 (the first year the formula was in effect), these portions were the first $180, the amount between $180 and $1,085, and the amount over $1,085. We call the dollar amounts in the formula governing the portions of the AIME the “bend points” of the formula. Therefore, the bend points for 1979 were $180 and $1,085.
To obtain the bend points for 2017, we multiply each of the 1979 bend-point amounts by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 to that average for 1977. We then round these results to the nearest dollar. Multiplying the 1979 amounts of $180 and $1,085 by the ratio of the national
Therefore, for individuals who first become eligible for old-age insurance benefits or disability insurance benefits in 2017, or who die in 2017 before becoming eligible for benefits, their PIA will be the sum of:
(a) 90 percent of the first $885 of their AIME, plus
(b) 32 percent of their AIME over $885 and through $5,336, plus
(c) 15 percent of their AIME over $5,336.
We round this amount to the next lower multiple of $0.10 if it is not already a multiple of $0.10. This formula and the rounding adjustment are stated in section 215(a) of the Act.
The 1977 amendments continued the policy of limiting the total monthly benefits that a worker's family may receive based on the worker's PIA. Those amendments also continued the relationship between maximum family benefits and PIAs but changed the method of computing the maximum benefits that may be paid to a worker's family. The Social Security Disability Amendments of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-265) established a formula for computing the maximum benefits payable to the family of a disabled worker. This formula applies to the family benefits of workers who first become entitled to disability insurance benefits after June 30, 1980, and who first become eligible for these benefits after 1978. For disabled workers initially entitled to disability benefits before July 1980 or whose disability began before 1979, we compute the family maximum payable the same as the old-age and survivor family maximum.
The formula used to compute the family maximum is similar to that used to compute the PIA. It involves computing the sum of four separate percentages of portions of the worker's PIA. In 1979, these portions were the first $230, the amount between $230 and $332, the amount between $332 and $433, and the amount over $433. We refer to such dollar amounts in the formula as the “bend points” of the family-maximum formula.
To obtain the bend points for 2017, we multiply each of the 1979 bend-point amounts by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 to that average for 1977. Then we round this amount to the nearest dollar. Multiplying the amounts of $230, $332, and $433 by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 ($48,098.63) to that for 1977 ($9,779.44) produces the amounts of $1,131.22, $1,632.89, and $2,129.64. We round these amounts to $1,131, $1,633, and $2,130. Therefore, the portions of the PIAs to be used in 2017 are the first $1,131, the amount between $1,131 and $1,633, the amount between $1,633 and $2,130, and the amount over $2,130.
Thus, for the family of a worker who becomes age 62 or dies in 2017 before age 62, we will compute the total benefits payable to them so that it does not exceed:
(a) 150 percent of the first $1,131 of the worker's PIA, plus (b) 272 percent of the worker's PIA over $1,131 through $1,633, plus (c) 134 percent of the worker's PIA over $1,633 through $2,130, plus (d) 175 percent of the worker's PIA over $2,130.
We then round this amount to the next lower multiple of $0.10 if it is not already a multiple of $0.10. This formula and the rounding adjustment are stated in section 203(a) of the Act.
The earnings required for a quarter of coverage in 2017 is $1,300. A quarter of coverage is the basic unit for determining if a worker is insured under the Social Security program. For years before 1978, we generally credited an individual with a quarter of coverage for each quarter in which wages of $50 or more were paid, or with 4 quarters of coverage for every taxable year in which $400 or more of self-employment income was earned. Beginning in 1978, employers generally report wages yearly instead of quarterly. With the change to yearly reporting, section 352(b) of the Social Security Amendments of 1977 amended section 213(d) of the Act to provide that a quarter of coverage would be credited for each $250 of an individual's total wages and self-employment income for calendar year 1978, up to a maximum of 4 quarters of coverage for the year. The amendment also provided a formula for years after 1978.
Under the prescribed formula, the quarter of coverage amount for 2017 is the larger of: (1) The 1978 amount of $250 multiplied by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 to that for 1976; or (2) the current amount of $1,260. Section 213(d) provides that if the resulting amount is not a multiple of $10, we round it to the nearest multiple of $10.
Multiplying the 1978 quarter of coverage amount ($250) by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 ($48,098.63) to that for 1976 ($9,226.48) produces $1,303.28. We then round this amount to $1,300. Because $1,300 exceeds the current amount of $1,260, the quarter of coverage amount is $1,300 for 2017.
The old-law contribution and benefit base for 2017 is $94,500. This base would have been effective under the Act without the enactment of the 1977 amendments.
The old-law contribution and benefit base is used by:
(a) The Railroad Retirement program to determine certain tax liabilities and tier II benefits payable under that program to supplement the tier I payments that correspond to basic Social Security benefits,
(b) the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation to determine the maximum amount of pension guaranteed under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (section 230(d) of the Act),
(c) Social Security to determine a year of coverage in computing the special minimum benefit, as described earlier, and
(d) Social Security to determine a year of coverage (acquired whenever earnings equal or exceed 25 percent of the old-law base for this purpose only) in computing benefits for persons who are also eligible to receive pensions based on employment not covered under section 210 of the Act.
The old-law contribution and benefit base is the larger of: (1) The 1994 old-law base ($45,000) multiplied by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 to that for 1992; or (2) the current old-law base ($88,200). If the resulting amount is not a multiple of $300, we round it to the nearest multiple of $300.
Multiplying the 1994 old-law contribution and benefit base ($45,000) by the ratio of the national average wage
A finding of disability under titles II and XVI of the Act requires that a person, except for a title XVI disabled child, be unable to engage in SGA. A person who is earning more than a certain monthly amount is ordinarily considered to be engaging in SGA. The monthly earnings considered as SGA depends on the nature of a person's disability. Section 223(d)(4)(A) of the Act specifies the SGA amount for statutorily blind individuals under title II while our regulations (20 CFR 404.1574 and 416.974) specify the SGA amount for non-blind individuals.
The monthly SGA amount for statutorily blind individuals under title II for 2017 is the larger of: (1) The amount for 1994 multiplied by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 to that for 1992; or (2) the amount for 2016. The monthly SGA amount for non-blind disabled individuals for 2017 is the larger of: (1) The amount for 2000 multiplied by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 to that for 1998; or (2) the amount for 2016. In either case, if the resulting amount is not a multiple of $10, we round it to the nearest multiple of $10.
Multiplying the 1994 monthly SGA amount for statutorily blind individuals ($930) by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 ($48,098.63) to that for 1992 ($22,935.42) produces $1,950.33. We then round this amount to $1,950. Because $1,950 exceeds the current amount of $1,820, the monthly SGA amount for statutorily blind individuals is $1,950 for 2017.
Multiplying the 2000 monthly SGA amount for non-blind individuals ($700) by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 ($48,098.63) to that for 1998 ($28,861.44) produces $1,166.58. We then round this amount to $1,170. Because $1,170 exceeds the current amount of $1,130, the monthly SGA amount for non-blind disabled individuals is $1,170 for 2017.
During a trial work period of 9 months in a rolling 60-month period, a beneficiary receiving Social Security disability benefits may test his or her ability to work and still receive monthly benefit payments. To be considered a trial work period month, earnings must be over a certain level. In 2017, any month in which earnings exceed $840 is considered a month of services for an individual's trial work period.
The method used to determine the new amount is set forth in our regulations at 20 CFR 404.1592(b). Monthly earnings in 2017, used to determine whether a month is part of a trial work period, is the larger of: (1) The amount for 2001 ($530) multiplied by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 to that for 1999; or (2) the amount for 2016. If the amount so calculated is not a multiple of $10, we round it to the nearest multiple of $10.
Multiplying the 2001 monthly earnings threshold ($530) by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 ($48,098.63) to that for 1999 ($30,469.84) produces $836.64. We then round this amount to $840. Because $840 exceeds the current amount of $810, the monthly earnings threshold is $840 for 2017.
The minimum amount a domestic worker must earn so that such earnings are covered under Social Security or Medicare is the domestic employee coverage threshold. For 2017, this threshold is $2,000. Section 3121(x) of the Internal Revenue Code provides the formula for increasing the threshold.
Under the formula, the domestic employee coverage threshold for 2017 is equal to the 1995 amount of $1,000 multiplied by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 to that for 1993. If the resulting amount is not a multiple of $100, we round it to the next lower multiple of $100.
Multiplying the 1995 domestic employee coverage threshold ($1,000) by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 ($48,098.63) to that for 1993 ($23,132.67) produces $2,079.25. We then round this amount to $2,000. Therefore, the domestic employee coverage threshold amount is $2,000 for 2017.
The minimum amount an election official and election worker must earn so the earnings are covered under Social Security or Medicare is the election official and election worker coverage threshold. For 2017, this threshold is $1,800. Section 218(c)(8)(B) of the Act provides the formula for increasing the threshold.
Under the formula, the election official and election worker coverage threshold for 2017 is equal to the 1999 amount of $1,000 multiplied by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 to that for 1997. If the amount we determine is not a multiple of $100, it we round it to the nearest multiple of $100.
Multiplying the 1999 coverage threshold amount ($1,000) by the ratio of the national average wage index for 2015 ($48,098.63) to that for 1997 ($27,426.00) produces $1,753.76. We then round this amount to $1,800. Therefore, the election official and election worker coverage threshold amount is $1,800 for 2017.
Office of the United States Trade Representative.
Notice with request for comments.
The Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) is providing notice that the United States has requested the establishment of a dispute settlement panel under the
Although USTR will accept any comments received during the course of the dispute settlement proceedings, you should submit your comment on or before December 15, 2016, to be assured of timely consideration by USTR.
You should submit written comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal:
Katherine Wang, Assistant General Counsel,
Section 127(b)(1) of the Uruguay Round Agreements Act (URAA) (19 U.S.C. 3537(b)(1)) requires notice and opportunity for comment after the United States submits or receives a request for the establishment of a WTO dispute settlement panel. Pursuant to this provision, USTR is providing notice that the United States has requested a dispute settlement panel pursuant to the WTO
On October 13, 2016, the United States requested the establishment of a WTO dispute settlement panel regarding China's restrictions on the export of various forms of antimony, chromium, cobalt, copper, graphite, indium, lead, magnesia, talc, tantalum, and tin identified in the
China's export restraints appear to be inconsistent with Article XI:1 of the
USTR invites written comments concerning the issues raised in this dispute. You should submit your comment electronically to
To submit comments via
The
Submit any comments containing business confidential information by fax to Sandy McKinzy at (202) 395-3640. A person requesting that information contained in a comment be treated as confidential business information must certify that s/he would not customarily release the information to the public. Any page containing business confidential information must be clearly marked “BUSINESS CONFIDENTIAL” on the top and bottom of that page. Filers of submissions containing business confidential information also must submit a public version of their comments electronically through regulations.gov. The non-confidential summary will be placed in the docket and will be open to public inspection.
USTR may determine that information or advice contained in a comment, other than business confidential information, is confidential in accordance with section 135(g)(2) of the Trade Act of 1974 (19 U.S.C. 2155(g)(2)). If a submitter believes that information or advice is confidential, s/he must clearly designate the information or advice as confidential and mark it as “SUBMITTED IN CONFIDENCE” at the top and bottom of the cover page and each succeeding page, and provide a non-confidential summary of the information or advice.
Pursuant to section 127(e) of the URAA (19 U.S.C. 3537(e)), USTR will maintain a docket on this dispute settlement proceeding, docket number USTR-2016-0021, accessible to the public at
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition; grant of application for exemption.
FMCSA announces its decision to grant a limited exemption to the Missouri Department of Revenue (DOR), Driver's License Bureau, and, at their option, all other State driver licensing agencies (SDLAs), from the commercial driver's license (CDL) regulations. These regulations require a driver to pass the general knowledge test before being issued a Commercial Learner's Permit (CLP). The Missouri DOR requested an exemption from the knowledge test requirement for qualified current or former military personnel who participated in training in military heavy-vehicle driving programs. The Missouri DOR contends that qualified personnel who participated in such training have already received numerous hours of classroom training, practical skills training, and one-on-one road training that are essential for safe driving.
The exemption is effective from October 27, 2016 through October 29, 2018.
For information concerning this notice, contact Mr. Tom Yager, Chief, FMCSA Driver and Carrier Operations Division; Office of Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards; Telephone: 614-942-6477. Email:
To view comments, as well as documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315 to grant exemptions from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations. FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the
The Agency reviews safety analyses and the public comments, and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved by the current regulation (49 CFR 381.305). The decision of the Agency must be published in the
The Missouri DOR requested an exemption from 49 CFR 383.71(a)(2)(ii), which requires any person applying for a Commercial Learner's Permit (CLP) on or after July 8, 2015, to have taken and passed a general knowledge test that meets the Federal standards contained in subparts F, G and H of 49 CFR part 383 for the commercial vehicle group that person operates or expects to operate. The Missouri DOR requested an exemption from the knowledge test requirements for trained military truck drivers, in effect giving designated drivers credit for military training and experience.
The Missouri DOR provided a number of reasons for its application. It contends that qualified veterans who completed military heavy-vehicle driver training programs have already received numerous hours of classroom training, practical skills training, and one-on-one road training that are essential for safe driving. Other reasons for their request included:
• The hours of training in these military programs exceeds hours required by FMCSA's proposed entry-level driver training rule. The skill level required by military courses is comparable to that needed to pass the American Association of Motor Vehicle Administrators (AAMVA) 2005 CDL Test Model (amended 2010);
• Military personnel who complete specialized driver training are assigned duties where their driving skills are applied and used on a frequent basis, an obvious asset in civilian life; and
• The trucking industry predicts a growing shortage of new drivers. Providing this incentive will helpfully assist trained military truck drivers' transition into civilian jobs.
On April 20, 2016, FMCSA published notice of this application and requested public comments (81 FR 23349). The Minnesota Department of Motor Vehicle Safety, the North Dakota Department of Transportation, and the Advocates for Highway and Auto Safety (Advocates) filed comments opposing the exemption. The North Dakota Department of Transportation stated that the exemption should not be granted until there are assurances that military training in lieu of the State knowledge test meets the requirements in 49 CFR 383.111, Required knowledge. The Minnesota Department of Motor Vehicle Safety suggested that, in lieu of granting this exemption
The Advocates pointed out that the current skills test exemption in § 383.77 requires applicants to provide evidence that they were regularly employed within the last 90 days in a military position requiring the operation of a CMV. Advocates expressed concern that the Missouri DOR application did not include a similar experience requirement for ex-military personnel seeking a knowledge test exemption. Such a requirement should be included if the Agency grants the application to ensure that the knowledge obtained in the military has not diminished over an extended period of time. However, Advocates argues that making this exemption available to all 50 States and the District of Columbia is a permanent and material revision of Federal regulations that must be done through formal rulemaking allowing for review and comment by the public, including SDLAs.
FMCSA disagrees with the North Dakota Department of Transportation comments that this exemption should not be granted until there are assurances that military training in lieu of the State knowledge tests meets the requirements in 49 CFR 383.111. The training provided by these specialized military programs includes many hours of classroom training (typically based on FMCSA's own regulations, including all of the elements of § 383.111), practical skills training, and on-the-road training, followed by actual driving in support of the military mission. There is no reason to believe that military training is deficient compared to the requirements of § 383.111. FMCSA further disagrees with the Minnesota Department of Motor Vehicle Safety's suggestion that in lieu of granting this exemption request, the military's licensing and training program should be accepted as an SDLA program. Such an action would first require extensive legal analysis and would be very complex in any case.
The limited exemption approved today allows the States to waive the CDL knowledge test but does not require them to do so. The Agency expects few SDLAs to participate due to a lack of demand in their geographical areas and the administrative burden involved. However, because FMCSA cannot predict which State SDLAs may want to use this exemption, the Agency has made it available to all States. SDLAs that choose to participate will be able to establish their own administrative procedures to implement the exemption,
Although Missouri used the term “veterans” in its application, to add clarity and be consistent with similar programs, we have expanded the eligibility to include “current or former members of the military services (including Reserve and National Guard units), who have been regularly employed within the last year in a military position that requires operation of large trucks, and have received formal military training for that duty.” This is consistent with comments filed by Advocates.
FMCSA has evaluated Missouri DOR's application and the public comments and decided to grant the exemption. FMCSA agrees with the reasons for the request made by the Missouri DOR. The two primary reasons were that the training provided by these specialized military programs includes many hours of classroom training, practical skills training, and on-the-road training that are essential for safe driving. In addition, the hours of training in these programs is in excess of the training proposed in FMCSA's own entry-level driver training rule (81 FR 11944, March 7, 2016), and is comparable to the skills needed to pass the AAMVA CDL test model. FMCSA has concluded that the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption, in accordance with § 381.305(a).
The following are the Terms and Conditions of this exemption:
(1) SDLAs may, at their discretion, issue CLP/CDLs to qualifying applicants as described below, without these applicants being required to complete the knowledge test required by 49 CFR 383.71(a)(2)(ii).
(2) “Qualifying applicants” must:
(a) Be current or former members of the military services (including Reserve and National Guard units),
(b) Have been regularly employed within the year prior to application in a military position that requires operation of large trucks, and
(c) Have received formal military training for that duty.
(3) Participating SDLAs may establish their own requirements and administrative procedures for verifying the eligibility of applicants.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice: Request for comments.
The Fixing America's Surface Transportation (FAST) Act requires the Secretary to prescribe procedures for a State to submit multiple-year plans for the Motor Carrier Safety Assistance Program (MCSAP) grants. FMCSA seeks information to improve development and implementation of multiple-year plans.
Responses to these questions must be received on or before November 28, 2016.
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket ID FMCSA-2016-0325 using any of the following methods:
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Each submission must include the Agency name and the docket number for this notice. Note that DOT posts all comments received without change to
Mr. Thomas Liberatore, Chief, State Programs Division, FMCSA, (202) 366-3030 or by email at
FMCSA encourages you to participate by submitting comments and related materials.
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice (FMCSA-2016-0325), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so the Agency can contact you if it has questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to
FMCSA will consider all comments and material received during the comment period and may change this notice based on your comments.
To view comments, as well as documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
As prescribed in the FAST Act, the goal of the MCSAP is to ensure that there is a partnership to establish programs to improve motor carrier, commercial motor vehicle (CMV), and driver safety to support a safe and efficient surface transportation system. MCSAP makes targeted investments to promote CMV safety, including the transportation of passengers and hazardous materials. FMCSA encourages the States and Territories to invest in activities likely to maximize reductions in the number and severity of CMV crashes and fatalities resulting from such crashes. This is accomplished by adopting and enforcing effective motor carrier, CMV, and driver safety regulations and practices consistent with Federal requirements, assessing and improving statewide performance by setting program goals, and meeting performance standards, measures, and benchmarks.
Since Fiscal Year (FY) 1983, the Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), FMCSA's predecessor agency, or FMCSA have awarded MCSAP funds annually to the States after submission of a satisfactory Commercial Vehicle Safety Plan (CVSP). Pursuant to FMCSA regulation, CVSPs are due to the Agency on August 1 of the fiscal year preceding the requested funds.
Often safety initiatives can only be properly evaluated after lengthy implementation periods. The removal of the annual CVSP requirement is intended to provide States/Territories with additional flexibility to continue these initiatives for a longer period, such that funding can be appropriate requested and CMV crash reduction benefits can be documented. In addition, the use of multiple-year plans will reduce the States'/Territories' administrative burdens associated with submitting the plan each year. With implementation of multi-year plans, an annual, full submission of the CVSP will no longer be required. Only annual data and budget updates might be needed, depending on changes in the States'/Territories' operations and/or annual MCSAP funding allocation.
It is noted that the period of performance for MCSAP grants did not change under the FAST Act, so MCSAP funding will continue to be available to the State/Territory for the fiscal year of award and for the next fiscal year.
FMCSA codified the FAST Act changes to remove the annual requirements for the plan in the final rule titled, “Amendments to Implement Grants Provisions of the Fixing America's Surface Transportation Act.” This rule was published in the
Additionally, the FAST Act requires that FMCSA publish each approved State/Territory multiple-year plan, and each annual update thereto, on a publically accessible Internet Web site of the Department of Transportation not later than 30 days after the date the Secretary approves the plan or update. 49 U.S.C. 311029(c)(3).
To assist FMCSA in developing the information technology system, form, and procedures for submission of a multiple-year plan, FMCSA requests information primarily from the MCSAP agencies responsible for developing and submitting the plan in response to the following questions:
1. How many years should a multi-year plan cover (
2. Should the length (
3. How many years long is the State's Strategic Highway Safety Plan (SHSP)? Should the CVSP be aligned with length of the SHSP? Please explain.
4. Can your State/Territory provide complete and accurate data to support a performance-based, multi-year plan? If so, how many years?
5. What data elements, certifications, and documents required under 49 CFR part 350 should be revised from or added to the current CVSP format to capture multiple years (
6. Would your State/Territory be confident submitting a multi-year plan knowing that FMCSA's program authorizations (
7. Should a State/Territory be required to submit a full application on
8. Should FMCSA institute the multi-year CVSP at one time for all States/Territories, or is a phased-in approach, with a proportionate number of States submitting such plans over the time period of the multi-year plan (
9. Are there other factors, concerns and/or elements that FMCSA should consider in the implementation of multi-year plans? Please provide specifics regarding these additional considerations.
10. In moving to a multi-year CVSP with annual updates, in order to enhance usability of the electronic CVSP (eCVSP) application, what additional features should FMCSA add? Please be specific in providing recommendations for additional features.
11. FMCSA is considering requiring certain CVSP data fields to be validated or updated annually. Examples of such data fields include prior-year activity objectives, current-year activity goals, current-year spending plans, etc. What additional data fields do you believe should be updated annually and why?
12. Should the annual update be a mechanism within the eCVSP tool's multi-year CVSP or a completely separate module with the eCVSP tool? Please explain.
13. What data elements and documents should be revised from, or added to, the current CVSP format to capture the annual update? Please explain how they should be revised.
14. Should the FMCSA require States/Territories to provide detailed spending plans or only require grantees to estimate their costs utilizing the SF-424A budget categories for the multi-year plan and annual update in the eCVSP tool? Please explain how your preference would enhance the CVSP planning process.
After consideration of the information received in response to this notice, FMCSA will prescribe the procedures required by the FAST Act through a future
In accordance with part 235 of Title 49 Code of Federal Regulations and 49 U.S.C. 20502(a), this document provides the public notice that by a document dated October 3, 2016, CSX Transportation (CSX) petitioned the Federal Railroad Administration (FRA) seeking approval for the discontinuance or modification of a signal system. FRA assigned the petition Docket Number FRA-2016-0098.
CSX proposes to retire CSX rules for Control Point (CP) 511, Traffic Control (TC) 510, and Yard Limit (YL-S) 508 on all tracks and operate under Rule 502, Other Than Main Track, between Milepost (MP) CA-664.9 and RH West MP BB-4.7, on the Cincinnati Terminal Subdivision, Louisville Division, Cincinnati, OH.
All existing power switches would remain in place, controlled by the yard master, and all existing signals would be retired and replaced with switch position indicators. In support of its request, CSX indicates the signal system, CSX rules TC-510 and YL-S 508, is no longer needed for present-day operation.
A copy of the petition, as well as any written communications concerning the petition, is available for review online at
Interested parties are invited to participate in these proceedings by submitting written views, data, or comments. FRA does not anticipate scheduling a public hearing in connection with these proceedings since the facts do not appear to warrant a hearing. If any interested party desires an opportunity for oral comment, they should notify FRA, in writing, before the end of the comment period and specify the basis for their request.
All communications concerning these proceedings should identify the appropriate docket number and may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Web site:
• Fax: 202-493-2251.
• Mail: Docket Operations Facility, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., W12-140, Washington, DC 20590.
• Hand Delivery: 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal Holidays.
Communications received by December 12, 2016 will be considered by FRA before final action is taken. Comments received after that date will be considered as far as practicable.
Anyone is able to search the electronic form of any written communications and comments received into any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the document, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.). In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its processes. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice and request for comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Comments must be submitted on or before November 28, 2016.
Send comments regarding the burden estimate, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to the Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for the Office of the Secretary of Transportation, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503.
Shirlene Ball, 202-366-2245, Office of the Chief Information Officer, NPO-420, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590.
Comments are invited on: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; the accuracy of the Department's estimate of the burden of the proposed information collection; ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended; and 49 CFR 1:48.
Maritime Administration, DOT.
Notice and request for comments.
The Maritime Administration (MARAD) invites public comments about our intention to request the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval to renew an information collection. The information to be collected will be used by the Maritime Administration to evaluate and review applications being submitted for project designation. The review will assess factors such as project scope, impact, public benefit, environmental effect, offsetting costs, cost to the government (if any), the likelihood of long-term self-supporting operations, and its relationship with Marine Highway Routes once designated. We are required to publish this notice in the
Written comments should be submitted by December 27, 2016.
You may submit comments [identified by Docket No. DOT-MARAD-2016-0109] through one of the following methods:
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Lauren Brand, Office of Intermodal System Development, Maritime Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590. Telephone: 202-366-7057; or email
Public Comments Invited: You are asked to comment on any aspect of this information collection, including (a) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the Department's performance; (b) the
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended; and 49 CFR 1:93.
By Order of the Maritime Administrator.
Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau (TTB); Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of our continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we invite comments on the proposed or continuing information collections listed below in this notice.
We must receive your written comments on or before December 27, 2016.
As described below, you may send comments on the information collections listed in this document using the
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Please submit separate comments for each specific information collection listed in this document. You must reference the information collection's title, form or recordkeeping requirement number, and OMB number (if any) in your comment.
You may view copies of this document, the information collections listed in it and any associated instructions, and all comments received in response to this document within Docket No. TTB-2016-0001 at
Michael Hoover, Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau, 1310 G Street, NW., Box 12, Washington, DC 20005; telephone 202-453-1039, ext. 135; or email
The Department of the Treasury and its Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau (TTB), as part of their continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invite the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed or continuing information collections listed below in this notice, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be included or summarized in our request for Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval of the relevant information collection. All comments are part of the public record and subject to disclosure. Please do not include any confidential or inappropriate material in your comments.
For each information collection listed below, we invite comments on: (a) Whether the information collection is necessary for the proper performance of the agency's functions, including whether the information has practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the information collection's burden; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; (d) ways to minimize the information collection's burden on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide the requested information.
Currently, we are seeking comments on the following information collections (forms, recordkeeping requirements, or questionnaires):
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice.
The Internal Revenue Service Advisory Council (IRSAC) will hold a public meeting on Wednesday, November 16, 2016.
Ms. Anna Millikan, IRSAC Program Manager, Office of National Public Liaison, CL:NPL:P, Room 7559, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224. Telephone: 202-317-6851 (not a toll-free number). Email address:
Notice is hereby given pursuant to section 10(a) (2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. (1988), a public meeting of the IRSAC will be held on Wednesday, November 16, 2016, from 9:20 a.m. to 1:15 p.m. at the Melrose Georgetown Hotel, 2430 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Potomac III Ballroom, Washington, DC 20037. Issues to be discussed include, but are not limited to:
Department of the Treasury.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
The Board of Trustees of the Automotive Industries Pension Plan (Auto Industries Pension Plan), a multiemployer pension plan, has submitted an application to Treasury to reduce benefits under the plan in accordance with the Multiemployer Pension Reform Act of 2014. The purpose of this notice is to announce that the application submitted by the Board of Trustees of the Auto Industries Pension Plan has been published on the Web site of the Department of the Treasury (Treasury), and to request public comments on the application from interested parties, including participants and beneficiaries, employee organizations, and contributing employers of the Auto Industries Pension Plan.
Comments must be received by December 12, 2016.
You may submit comments electronically through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
Comments may also be mailed to the Department of the Treasury, MPRA Office, 1500 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Room 1224, Washington, DC 20220. Attn: Eric Berger. Comments sent via facsimile and email will not be accepted.
Additional Instructions. All comments received, including attachments and other supporting materials, will be made available to the public. Do not include any personally identifiable information (such as Social Security number, name, address, or other contact information) or any other information in your comment or supporting materials that you do not want publicly disclosed. Treasury will make comments available for public inspection and copying on
For information regarding the application from the Auto Industries Pension Plan, please contact Treasury at (202) 622-1534 (not a toll-free number).
The Multiemployer Pension Reform Act of 2014 (MPRA) amended the Internal Revenue Code to permit a multiemployer plan that is projected to have insufficient funds to reduce pension benefits payable to participants and beneficiaries if certain conditions are satisfied. In order to reduce benefits, the plan sponsor is required to submit
On September 27, 2016, the Board of Trustees of the Auto Industries Pension Plan submitted an application for approval to reduce benefits under the plan. As required by MPRA, that application has been published on Treasury's Web site at
Comments are requested from interested parties, including participants and beneficiaries, employee organizations, and contributing employers of the Auto Industries Pension Plan. Consideration will be given to any comments that are timely received by Treasury.
The Department of the Treasury will submit the following information collection requests to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, on or after the date of publication of this notice.
Comments should be received on or before November 28, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimates, or any other aspect of the information collections, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for Treasury, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submissions may be obtained by emailing
The Department of the Treasury will submit the following information collection requests to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, on or after the date of publication of this notice.
Comments should be received on or before November 28, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimates, or any other aspect of the information collections, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for Treasury, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submissions may be obtained by emailing
The Department of the Treasury will submit the following information collection request(s) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, on or after the date of publication of this notice.
Comments should be received on or before November 28, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimates, or any other aspect of the information collection(s), including suggestions for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for Treasury, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submissions may be obtained by emailing
Department of Veterans Affairs (VA).
Notice of availability.
VA proposes to site, construct and operate a new campus to replace the existing Robley Rex VA Medical Center (VAMC), Veterans Benefits Administration (VBA) regional office, and three community-based outpatient clinics (CBOC) in Louisville, Kentucky. In accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), VA has prepared a Draft EIS that analyzes the potential impacts of three alternatives for the replacement VAMC. The Draft EIS is available for review on the agency Web site and at the St. Matthews and Westport Branches of the Louisville Free Public Library system.
Interested parties are invited to submit comments in writing on the Replacement Robley Rex VAMC Draft EIS by December 12, 2016.
Submit written comments on the Replacement Robley Rex VAMC online at
Replacement VAMC Activation Team Office, 800 Zorn Avenue, Louisville, KY 40206 or by email to
VA proposes to site, construct, and operate a VAMC and VBA regional office to replace the existing Robley Rex VAMC located on Zorn Avenue in Louisville, KY. The existing 63-year-old VAMC facilities have reached the end of their serviceable lives and need to be replaced. The existing building conditions and site configuration are inadequate to effectively and efficiently meet the expanding needs of VA's health care mission in the region. The replacement campus would include diagnostic and treatment facilities and required site amenities and improvements needed to provide sufficient capacity to meet the current and projected future health care needs of Veterans in the Louisville service area. This EIS analyzes the potential impacts of three alternatives for the replacement VAMC.
Alternative A proposes construction and operation of a replacement VAMC campus at the Brownsboro Site at 4906 Brownsboro Road, Louisville, KY. Alternative B would construct and operate a replacement VAMC campus at the St. Joseph site on a parcel located east of I-265 and south of Factory Lane in Louisville, KY. Alternative C is the No Action alternative, which is required by NEPA and its regulations and also provides a baseline for comparing potential impacts from the action alternatives.
VA's preferred alternative is Alternative A, the proposed construction and operation of a replacement VAMC campus at the Brownsboro Site at 4906 Brownsboro Road, in Louisville. VA would relocate medical facility operations to the Brownsboro Site from Zorn Avenue and a later process would evaluate the future use or disposition of the Zorn Avenue property.
Environmental topics that are addressed in the Draft EIS include aesthetics, air quality, cultural resources, geology and soils, hydrology and water quality, wildlife and habitat, noise, land use, floodplains and wetlands, socioeconomics, community services, solid waste and hazardous materials, transportation and parking, utilities, and environmental justice. Best management practices and mitigation measures that could alleviate environmental effects have been considered and are included where relevant within the Draft EIS.
The Draft EIS describes mitigation measures for the potential impacts to environmental resources that are identified in the impact analysis. Unavoidable adverse impacts include effects to air quality, aesthetics, noise, land use, solid waste and hazardous materials, utilities, and transportation and traffic. With the exception of aesthetics and land use, implementation of specified mitigation measures would substantially decrease the magnitude of these impacts.
The Replacement Robley Rex VAMC Draft EIS is available for viewing on the VA Web site at
Information related to the EIS process is also available for viewing on the VA Web site at
The Secretary of Veterans Affairs, or designee, approved this document and authorized the undersigned to sign and submit the document to the Office of the Federal Register for publication electronically as an official document of the Department of Veterans Affairs. Gina S. Farrisee, Deputy Chief of Staff, Department of Veterans Affairs, approved this document on October 21, 2016, for publication.
Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness, DoD.
Interim final rule; amendment.
This rule amends an interim rule published on January 6, 2014 which provided procedures for DoD ID cards. These cards are issued to uniformed service members, their dependents, and other eligible individuals and are used as proof of identity and DoD affiliation as well as to facilitate the extension of DoD benefits. The previous rule extended benefits to all eligible dependents of Uniformed Service members and eligible DoD civilians. DoD is proposing further amendments to its ID card policy to include ID card eligibility documentation requirements incorporating guidance addressing the modification of gender in a record for transgender retirees and family members who have completed their gender transition. The rule also aligns the CFR to match revised contents of various DoD policy issuances and NIST Federal Information Processing Standards.
This rule is effective on October 27, 2016. Comments must be received by December 27, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by docket number and/or RIN number and title, by any of the following methods:
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Robert Eves at 571-372-1956; email:
The amendments DoD is proposing would:
a. Ensure the issuance of ID cards and extension of benefits to all eligible dependents of Uniformed Service members and eligible DoD civilians is implemented across the DoD.
b. Align policy for the implementation of Homeland Security Presidential Directive (HSPD) 12 within DoD with the most current version of FIPS 201-2. “Personal Identity Verification (PIV) of Federal Employees and Contractors” (available at
c. Align the benefits for commissary; exchange; and, morale, welfare, and recreation (MWR) in subpart C with the current versions of the following:
• DoD Instruction 1015.10, “Military Morale, Welfare, and Recreation (MWR) Programs” (available at
• DoD Instruction 1330.17, “Armed Services Commissary Operations”; (available at
• DoD Instruction 1330.21, “Armed Services Exchange Regulations.” (available at
d. Provide procedures and defines acceptable documentation for enrollment and eligibility verification, as necessary, for DoD ID card issuance as described in DoD Manual 1000.13 Volume 3 which identifies:
• The eligibility documentation requirements for all DoD ID card eligible populations, and
• Documentation requirements for the correction of Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) records, to include changing one's gender in DEERS.
All revisions to this rule will be reported in future updates to DoD's retrospective plan under Executive Order 13563 as completed in August 2011. DoD's full plan can be accessed at:
Authorities for this rule include Title 5, Section 5703 and Title 10 U.S.C., Sections 1044a, 1061-1064, 1072-1074, 1074a-1074c, 1076, 1076a, 1077, 1095 (k) (2), 1408(H), and chapter 1223 authorize members of the Uniformed Services (active duty, Reserve, or retired members) and their spouses and dependents certain benefits and privileges. Title 18, Sections 499, 506, 509, 701, and 1001 address penalties, fines and imprisonment for unauthorized reproduction of ID cards. The DoD ID cards authorize eligible individuals (to include specific categories of civilians and contractors) certain benefits and privileges to include health care; use of commissary; exchange; and morale, welfare, and recreation facilities.
The public will not incur any costs from the amendments DoD is proposing. The amendments benefit the Department and the public by strengthening the identity proofing requirements for ID card issuance. The amendments also benefit members of the public by ensuring that those eligible for DoD benefits will be issued an ID card conveying those benefits in a timely manner, and retirees, dependents and contractors have the ability to have their gender marker in DEERS reflect their gender identity.
A void currently exists in DoD's policy with respect to the documentation required to establish eligibility for benefits extended by Title 10 United States Code in terms of the information required to change a record. The addition of Subpart D in this regulation fills that void by providing specific policy guidance addressing the modification of gender in a record for transgender uniformed service retirees and family members following completion of a gender transition. Immediate implementation of this rule eliminates confusion for those seeking enrollment and benefit eligibility while clarifying documentation requirements necessary to update a record to accurately reflect an individual's personal information.
In addition, the revised Commissary, Exchange, and Morale, Welfare and Recreation policy issuances provide additional clarity concerning who is eligible to receive their respective benefits and the circumstances under which they are eligible for those benefits. The revision to the benefits tables in Subpart C capture the changes to the updated benefits policy issuances and correct previously identified discrepancies, ensuring that those who
Finally, the revision to the most current version of the Department of Commerce, National Institute of Standards and Technology FIPS PUB 201-2 released August 2013 are incorporated into these amendments. FIPS PUB 201-2 mandates changes to the acceptable forms of identification for the Personal Identity Verification (PIV) identity proofing and registration requirements, providing lists of acceptable primary and secondary identity source documents. These revisions ensures DoD policy is compliant with the current Federal standard for identity proofing and registration requirements, the required identity source documents are provided by the ID card applicant during the actual ID card issuance process, and provide additional assurance that the individual receiving an ID card has been positively identified. DoD issues approximately five million ID cards each year to military members, civilian employees, contractors, foreign nationals, and where applicable, family members. The Department believes portions of this rule relate to “agency management or personnel” and those portions are exempt under sec. 553(a)(2) from all requirements of sec. 533. However, the Department also believes there are significant portions of the rule that relate to members of the public that are not exempt from rule making. The Department prefers to submit this rule content in its entirety, including both required and exempt portions, to maintain the intent of its policy as written and avoid the potential confusion that separation of any exempt portions from the non-exempt portions could create.
It has been determined that 32 CFR part 161 is a significant regulatory action as it does raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in these Executive Orders.
However, 32 CFR part 161 does not:
(1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy; a section of the economy; productivity; competition; jobs; the environment; public health or safety; or State, local, or tribal governments or communities;
(2) Create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another Agency;
(3) Materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs, or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof.
Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1532) requires agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule whose mandates require spending in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. In 2014, that threshold is approximately $141 million. This rule will not mandate any requirements for State, local, or tribal governments, nor will it affect private sector costs.
The Department of Defense certifies that this interim final rule is not subject to the Regulatory Flexibility Act because it would not, if promulgated, have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Therefore, the Regulatory Flexibility Act, as amended, does not require us to prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis.
This rule does impose reporting or recordkeeping requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. These reporting requirements have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget and assigned OMB Control Number 0704-0415, “Application for Department of Defense Common Access Card—DEERS Enrollment.”
Executive Order 13132 establishes certain requirements that an agency must meet when it promulgates a proposed rule (and subsequent final rule) that imposes substantial direct requirement costs on State and local governments, preempts State law, or otherwise has Federalism implications. This interim final rule will not have a substantial effect on State and local governments.
Administrative practice and procedure, Armed forces, Military personnel, National defense, Privacy, Security measures.
Accordingly, 32 CFR part 161 is amended as follows:
10 U.S.C. 1061-1064, 1072-1074, 1074a-1074c, 1076, 1076a, 1077, and 1095(k)(2), and 18 U.S.C. 499, 506, 509, 701, and 1001; 5 U.S.C. 5703, 10 U.S.C. 1408(h), 10 U.S.C. 1044a, 10 U.S.C. chapter 1223.
The addition reads as follows:
(d) Provides procedures and defines acceptable documentation for enrollment and eligibility verification, as necessary, for DoD ID card issuance and as described in DoD Instruction 1000.13 and subparts B and C of this part.
The additions and revisions read as follows:
(1) Entitled to retired pay based on 20 or more years of service who, on or after October 23, 1992, while a member, are eligible to receive retired pay terminated as a result of misconduct involving the abuse of the spouse or dependent child pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1408(h); or
(2) Not entitled to retired pay, who have received a dishonorable or bad-conduct discharge, dismissal from a uniformed service as a result of a court martial conviction for an offense involving physical or emotional abuse of a spouse or child, or were administratively discharged as a result of such an offense, separated on or after November 30, 1993.
(1) Conveys the appropriate seal or markings of the issuer;
(2) Has a means to validate the authenticity of the document by a reference or source number;
(3) Is a notarized legal document or other document approved by a Judge Advocate, other members of the armed forces designated by law and regulations to have the powers set forth in 10 U.S.C 1044a, or other eligible persons in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1044a; or
(4) Has the appropriate certificate of authentication by a U.S. Consular Officer in the foreign country of issuance which attests to the authenticity of the signature and seal.
(1) 21 or 22 years old and enrolled in a full-time course of higher learning;
(2) 21 or older but incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before the 21st birthday; or
(3) 21 or 22 years old and was enrolled full-time in an accredited institution of higher learning but became incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical condition while a full-time student.
(2) Information systems used or operated by an agency or by a contractor of an agency or other organization on behalf of an agency (44 U.S.C. 3544(a)(1)(A)).
(1) Has not attained the age of 21; or
(2) Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary and is, or was at the time of the member's or former member's death, in fact dependent on the member or former member for over one-half of the child's support; or
(3) Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that occurs while a dependent of a member or former member and is, or was at the time of the member's or former member's death, in fact dependent on the member or former member for over one-half of the child's support.
(1) Has not attained the age of 21;
(2) Has not attained the age of 23 and is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary; or
(3) Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that occurred while the person was considered a dependent of the member or former member.
The additions read as follows:
(d) * * *
(7) Determines and maintains a list of forms of documentation that are acceptable for the purpose of eligibility verification, in accordance with applicable law.
(8) Through the Director, Defense Manpower Data Center:
(i) Provides and maintains training on the examination and inspection of documentation for the purpose of eligibility verification for DEERS enrollment, record management, and ID card issuance.
(ii) Supports and maintains the development of automated data feeds to DEERS that serve as authoritative eligibility sources for applicable DoD ID card-eligible personnel.
(iii) Supports and maintains the development of the Real-time Automated Personnel Identification System (RAPIDS) as the application used to incorporate and collect eligibility documentation.
(h) * * *
(12) Comply with the provisions of this part and provide timely and accurate support to the provisions of this part.
(13) Ensure that the policies and procedures in subpart D of this part are implemented to protect the privacy of individuals in the collection, use, maintenance, and dissemination of personally identifiable information, in accordance with 32 CFR part 310.
(i) * * *
(3) Coordinate with the Director, DoDHRA, through the Joint Uniformed Services Personnel Advisory Committee, to determine if the list of acceptable eligibility documentation needs to be amended to add new documents or remove outdated documents.
(4) Ensure that the policies and procedures in this subpart are implemented to protect the privacy of individuals in the collection, use, maintenance, and dissemination of personally identifiable information, in accordance with 32 CFR part 310.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(c)
(2) Issuance of a CAC requires, at a minimum, the completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) fingerprint check with favorable results and successful submission of a NACI (or investigation approved in Federal Investigative Standards) to the Office of Personnel Management (OPM). Completed background investigations for CAC issuance shall be adjudicated in accordance with DoD Instruction 5200.46 and Office of Personnel Management Memorandum, “Final
(3) Except for uniformed services members, special considerations for conducting background investigations of non-U.S. nationals are addressed in DoD Instruction 5200.46. Non-U.S. person CAC applicants that do not meet the criteria to complete a NACI (
(d) * * *
(1)
(e) * * *
(2) * * *
(i)
(ii)
(B) An indefinite DD Form 1173 will be issued to a dependent of retired Service members who are either 75 years of age or permanently incapacitated in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1060b.
(C) All other non-CAC ID cards shall be given expiration dates in accordance with the guidance listed on
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
The benefits population is defined by roles. There are roles that have a direct affiliation with the DoD, such as an active duty Service member, or those that have an association to someone who is affiliated, such as the spouse of an active duty member. This section reflects benefit eligibility established by law and associated DoD policy, and addresses the roles that receive benefits. These benefits can include civilian health care, direct care at an MTF, commissary, exchange, and MWR, which are conveyed on the authorized CAC or uniformed services ID card. Sections 161.10 through 161.22 identify the categories of eligible persons and their authorized benefits as they would be recorded in the Defense Eligibility Enrollment Reporting System (DEERS).
(a) Sections 161.10 through 161.22 reflect the eligibility of persons for the benefits administered by the uniformed services in accordance with 10 U.S.C. chapter 55 and DoD Instruction 1330.17, “Armed Services Commissary Operations” (available at
(1) Additional benefits may be authorized by DoD Instruction 1330.17, DoD Instruction 1330.21, and DoD Instruction 1015.10, but are not printed on the DoD ID card; access to benefits may be facilitated in another manner in accordance with DoD Instruction 1330.17, DoD Instruction 1330.21, and DoD Instruction 1015.10.
(2) Installation commanders may never authorize benefits beyond those allowed by DoD Instruction 1330.17, DoD Instruction 1330.21, and DoD Instruction 1015.10, but they may deny privileges indicated when base support facilities cannot handle the burden imposed as authorized by DoD Instruction 1330.17, DoD Instruction 1330.21, and DoD Instruction 1015.10.
(b) A sponsor's begin date for benefit eligibility is based on the date the sponsor begins their affiliation with the Department.
(c) A dependent's begin date for benefit eligibility is based on the date the dependent becomes associated as an eligible dependent to an eligible sponsor.
(d) Guidance on benefit eligibility begin dates and ID card expiration dates based on benefits will be maintained at
(e) Refer to the figure 1 to this subpart for abbreviations for the tables in this subpart.
This section describes the benefits for active duty uniformed services members and their eligible dependents administered by the uniformed services in accordance with 10 U.S.C. chapter 55. Descriptions of benefits for National Guard and Reserve members and their eligible dependents are contained in § 161.11. Descriptions of benefits for surviving dependents of active duty uniformed services members are contained in § 161.17.
(a)
(b)
This section describes the benefits for National Guard and Reserve members of the uniformed services and their eligible dependents. Benefits for members of the Retired Reserve and their eligible dependents are described in § 161.13. Benefits for surviving dependents of deceased National Guard and Reserve members are described in § 161.17.
(a)
(b)
This section describes the benefits for former uniformed services members and their eligible dependents. Former members are eligible to receive retired pay, at age 60, for non-regular service in accordance with 10 U.S.C. chapter 1223, but have been discharged from their respective Service or agency and maintain no military affiliation.
(a)
(b) [Reserved]
This section describes the benefits for retired uniformed service members entitled to retired pay and their eligible dependents. Retired uniformed service members are entitled to retired pay and eligible for benefits administered by the uniformed services in accordance with 10 U.S.C., DoD Instruction 1330.17, DoD Instruction 1330.21, DoD Instruction 1015.10, and TRICARE Policy Manual 6010.57-M (available at
(a)
(b)
(c)
This section describes the benefits for MOH recipients and their dependents who are authorized pursuant to section 706 of Public Law 106-398, “National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2001” and who are not otherwise entitled to military medical and dental care. Section 706 of Public Law 106-398 authorized MOH recipients not otherwise entitled to military medical and dental care and their dependents to be given care in the same manner that such care is provided to former uniformed service members who are entitled to military retired pay and the dependents of those former members. Eligibility for the benefits described in Table 13 to this subpart begins on the date of award of the MOH but no earlier than October 30, 2000.
This section describes the benefits for DAVs rated as 100 percent disabled or incapable of pursuing substantially gainful employment by the VA and their eligible dependents. Neither DAVs nor their eligible dependents receive CHC or DC benefits from the DoD based on their affiliation. Honorably discharged veterans rated by the VA as 100 percent disabled or incapable of pursuing substantially gainful employment from a service-connected injury or disease, and their dependents, are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 14 to this subpart.
This section shows the benefits for THC members and their eligible dependents. THC (formerly the TAMP) was instituted in section 502 of Public Law 101-510, “Department of Defense Appropriations Bill Fiscal Year 1991” effective October 1, 1990. Section 706 of Public Law 108-375, “National Defense Authorization Act of for Fiscal Year 2005” made the THC program permanent and made the medical eligibility 180 days for all eligible uniformed services members. Section 651 of Public Law 110-181 extended 2 years' commissary and exchange benefits to THC members. Section 734 of Public Law 110-417, “National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2009” extended THC benefits to uniformed service members separating from active duty who agree to become members of the SelRes of the Ready Reserve of a reserve component. Uniformed service members separated as uncharacterized entry-level separations do not qualify for THC.
This section describes the benefits for surviving dependents of active duty deceased uniformed services members, deceased National Guard and Reserve service members, deceased MOH recipients, and deceased 100 percent DAV. Surviving children who are adopted by a non-military member after the death of the sponsor remain eligible for all benefits as shown in this section.
(a)
(b)
(1) The National Guard or Reserve member died from an injury or illness incurred or aggravated while on active duty for a period of 30 days or less, on active duty for training, or on inactive duty training, or while traveling to or from the place at which the member was to perform, or performed, such active duty, active duty for training, or inactive duty training pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1076 and 1086(c)(2) and if death occurred on or after October 1, 1985; or
(2) The National Guard or Reserve member died from an injury, illness, or disease incurred or aggravated while performing, or while traveling to or from performing active duty for a period of 30 days or less, or active duty for training, or inactive duty training, or while performing service on funeral honors in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1074a and if death occurred on or after November 15, 1986.
(c)
(1) A Reserve member who had earned 20 qualifying years for retirement and received their NOE for retired pay at age 60, but had not transferred to the Retired Reserve.
(2) A Retired Reserve member eligible for pay at age 60, not yet age 60.
(3) A former member who had met time-in-service requirements.
(d)
(1) The member's death was unrelated to the member's service.
(2) The member was not on active duty, active duty for training, or on inactive duty training, or while traveling to or from the place at which the member was to perform, or performed, such active duty, active duty for training, or inactive duty training.
(3) The member was not eligible for retired pay.
(e)
(f)
(a) Abused dependents of active duty uniformed services members entitled to retired pay based on 20 or more years of service who, on or after October, 23, 1992, while a member, have their eligibility to receive retired pay terminated as a result of misconduct involving the abuse of the spouse or dependent child pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1408(h), are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 22 to this subpart. For the purposes of these benefits the eligible spouse or child may not reside in the household of the sponsor. See § 161.19 for additional information on abused dependents under the 10/20/10 former spouse rule.
(b) Dependents of active duty uniformed service members (who have served for a continuous period greater than 30 days) not entitled to retired pay who have received a dishonorable or bad-conduct discharge, dismissal from a
(a)
(1)
(2)
(ii) In the case of former spouses of National Guard members or Reserve members ordered to active duty, or Retired Reserve members under age 60 recalled to active duty, they continue to receive benefits as shown in Table 25 to this subpart if the orders are for a period of 30 days or less. If the National Guard member, Reserve member, or recalled Retired Reserve member is on active duty orders in excess of 30 days, the
(b)
(1)
(2)
(ii) In the case of former spouses of Reserve members or Retired Reserve members under age 60 recalled to active duty on orders for a period of 30 days or less they are not entitled to any benefits as shown in Table 27 to this subpart. If the Reserve member or recalled Retired Reserve member is on active duty orders in excess of 30 days, the former spouse will receive benefits as shown in Table 26 to this subpart if they are within 1 year from the date of divorce from the uniformed service member.
(c)
Civilian personnel may be eligible for certain benefits described in this section based on their affiliation with DoD, Service-specific guidelines, or other authorizing conditions. The definition of “civilian personnel” (
(a) Civilian personnel in the United States may be issued a DoD ID card as a condition of employment or assignment in accordance with subpart B of this part. Civilian personnel in the United States are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 29 to this subpart.
(b) Civilian personnel residing on a military installation in the United States are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 30 to this subpart.
(c) DoD civilian personnel stationed or employed outside the United States and outside U.S. Territories and Possessions, and their accompanying dependents, when residing in the same household, are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 31 to this subpart.
(d) Non-DoD Government agency civilian personnel stationed or employed outside the United States and outside U.S. territories and possessions, and their dependents, when residing in the same household, are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 32 to this subpart.
(e) Civilian personnel stationed or employed in U.S. Territories and Possessions and their dependents, when residing in the same household, are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 33 to this subpart.
(f) DoD OCONUS hires are foreign nationals in host countries who are employed by U.S. forces, consistent with any agreement with the host country as defined in Volume 1231 of DoD Instruction 1400.25. They are entered into DEERS for the purposes of issuing a CAC and are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 34 to this subpart.
(g) Full-time paid personnel of the Red Cross assigned to duty with the uniformed services in the United States and residing on a military installation and their accompanying dependents, when residing in the same household are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 35 to this subpart.
(h) Full-time paid personnel of the Red Cross assigned to duty with the uniformed services outside the United States and their accompanying dependents, when residing in the same household, are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 36 to this subpart.
(i) Full-time paid personnel of the United Service Organizations (USO) serving outside the United States and their accompanying dependents when residing in the same household are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 37 to this subpart.
(j) Full-time paid personnel of the USS serving outside the United States and outside U.S. territories and possessions, and their accompanying dependents, when residing in the same household, are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 38 to this subpart.
(k) MSC civil service Marine personnel deployed on MSC-owned and operated vessels outside the United States and outside U.S. territories and possessions are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 39 to this subpart.
(l) Ship's officers and members of the crews of NOAA vessels are eligible for benefits in accordance with 33 U.S.C. 3074 as shown in Table 40 to this subpart. Ship's officers are not commissioned officers, but civilian employees of NOAA.
(m) Officers and crews of vessels, lighthouse keepers, and depot keepers of the former Lighthouse Service are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 41 to this subpart.
(n) Presidential appointees who have been confirmed by the Senate (PASs) are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 42 to this subpart.
(o) Contract surgeons overseas during the period of their contract are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 43 to this subpart.
(p) State employees of the National Guard may be identified in DEERS for the purpose of issuing a CAC to access DoD networks. There are no benefits assigned and no dependent benefits are extended as shown in Table 44 to this subpart.
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(a)
(ii) An individual's DEERS record is established through the in-person presentation of identity documentation and, in some cases, eligibility documentation. Documentation verifying an ID card applicant's identity is always required in accordance with § 161.7(d)(1). Eligibility documentation may also be required to update a DEERS record to reflect a change in benefits or status.
(A) Identity and eligibility documentation is reviewed for authenticity by a RAPIDS verifying official (VO) and incorporated into the individual's DEERS record as necessary.
(B) The sponsor or DoD beneficiary must provide documentation to establish or terminate the relationship to a dependent within 30 days of the change.
(C) The VO ensures that the DD Form 1172-2 is signed by the sponsor.
(
(
(D) A VO may request additional documentation if there is any question of the authenticity of those presented.
(iii) Eligible individuals presenting eligibility documentation not listed in this subpart must have the responsible uniformed service Judge Advocate General or local Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) review and verify the documentation. A written Judge Advocate General or SJA opinion may need to be submitted at ID card issuance, verifying the documentation's use for DEERS enrollment.
(2)
(ii)
(A) A full English language translation, which the translator has certified as complete and accurate, and the translator's certification of competency to translate from the foreign language into English, in accordance with 8 CFR 103.2(b)(3). Translation must be provided by a translator other than the individual presenting the document.
(B) A written Judge Advocate General or local SJA opinion confirming use of the eligibility documentation, if the uniformed service member is stationed overseas.
(C) Documentation that attests to the genuineness of the signature and seal, or the position of the foreign official who executed, issued, or certified the foreign documentation being presented to substantiate the dependency relationship to the sponsor.
(
(
(b)
(i) The uniformed services restrict cross-servicing for verification of the DD Form 1172-2 and eligibility documentation to the responsible uniformed service for certain categories of dependents, in accordance with § 161.7(e)(1).
(ii) Service-specific requirements and processes are addressed in Air Force Instruction 36-3026, “Identification Cards for Members of the Uniformed Services, Their Eligible Family Members, and Other Eligible Personnel” (available at:
(2)
(3)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(4)
(i)
(ii)
(5)
(c)
(d)
(i) For the purposes of this paragraph (d), dependent children are limited to the sponsor's legitimate children, adopted children, and stepchildren, in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1408(h). Their eligibility ends at age 18 unless otherwise eligible as full-time students (aged 18-23) or based on an incapacitation that existed before age 18
(ii) Abused dependents are required to provide documentation that verifies eligibility as shown in Tables 12 and 13 to this subpart to the responsible uniformed service project office.
(2)
(3)
(e)
(f)
(i) MOH recipients must have their DEERS records updated manually, as indicated in this paragraph.
(ii) Current, former, and retired members identified in this paragraph (f) should have eligibility updated in DEERS by an authoritative feed; however, under certain circumstances described in paragraphs (f)(2) and (3) of this section, a Service member may have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Tables 15 through 21 to this subpart.
(iii) All other uniformed service members should have their DEERS records updated by authoritative data feeds.
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(g)
(2)
(ii)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(h)
(i)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(j)
(k)
(1) For changes to a retiree's gender marker, after DoDHRA confirms the change in DEERS, the uniformed service project office must follow existing Service procedures to send an update to DFAS, or the Service equivalent pay office, to allow DFAS, or the Service equivalent pay office, to update its system with the retiree's gender identity.
(2) A military Service member should refer to DoD Instruction 1300.28, “In-Service Transition For Transgender Service Members” (available at:
(3) Government civilian employees should consult their servicing human resources or civilian personnel office for guidance concerning changing their gender markers in DEERS.
(4) If a name change is required in conjunction with a change of gender marker, see paragraph (m) of this section.
(5) To change a gender marker in DEERS to correct an administrative error, see paragraph (n) of this section.
(l)
(1) To change an SSN in a DEERS record that was established by an authoritative feed (
(2) To change an SSN in a DEERS record that was manually established (
(m)
(1) To change a name in a DEERS record that was established by an authoritative feed (
(2) To change a name in a DEERS record that was manually established (
(n)
(i) To correct an administrative error in a DEERS record that was established and updated by authoritative feed, the sponsor should consult the personnel office that owns the authoritative feed.
(ii) To correct an administrative error in a DEERS record that was established and updated manually, the sponsor, on behalf of a dependent, should seek the support of the uniformed service's DEERS Support Office Field Support personnel with documentation shown in Tables 36 through 38 of this subpart.
(2)
(3)
(4)
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |