Page Range | 28391-28547 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
82 FR 28391 - Presidential Determination Pursuant to Section 1245(d)(4)(B) and (C) of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2012 | |
82 FR 28405 - Russian Sanctions: Addition of Certain Entities to the Entity List | |
82 FR 28431 - Evaluation of Existing Regulations | |
82 FR 28488 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
82 FR 28540 - New Postal Products | |
82 FR 28480 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 28470 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Minnesota Advisory Committee To Review and Discuss a Draft Report Regarding Civil Rights and Policing Practices in Minnesota | |
82 FR 28472 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Illinois Advisory Committee for a Meeting To Review and Discuss a Draft Report Regarding Civil Rights and Voter Participation in the State | |
82 FR 28435 - Air Plan Approval; Indiana; Redesignation of the Indiana Portion of the Cincinnati-Hamilton, OH-IN-KY Area to Attainment of the 1997 Annual Standard for Fine Particulate Matter | |
82 FR 28487 - Stony Hill Road Site; Wake Forest, Wake County, North Carolina; Notice of Settlement | |
82 FR 28429 - Regulatory Reform | |
82 FR 28469 - Notice of Availability of Proposed Revisions to Section I of the Iowa, Minnesota, North Dakota, and South Dakota State Technical Guides for Public Review and Comment | |
82 FR 28526 - Marine Mammal Protection Act; Stock Assessment Reports | |
82 FR 28509 - Agency Information Collection Activities: General Declaration | |
82 FR 28508 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Bonded Warehouse Proprietor's Submission | |
82 FR 28500 - Center for Substance Abuse Treatment; Notice of Meeting | |
82 FR 28538 - Exelon Generation Company, LLC; Three Mile Island Nuclear Station, Units 1 and 2 | |
82 FR 28533 - Browns Ferry Nuclear Plant, Units 1, 2, and 3 | |
82 FR 28447 - Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act Provisions; Fisheries of the Northeastern United States; Northeast Groundfish Fishery; Framework Adjustment 56 | |
82 FR 28404 - Amendment of Class E Airspace; Hilo, HI | |
82 FR 28468 - Notice of Proposed New Recreation Fee; Federal Lands Recreation Enhancement Act, (Title VIII, Pub. L. 108-447) | |
82 FR 28488 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Savings and Loan Holding Companies | |
82 FR 28481 - Taking and Importing of Marine Mammals | |
82 FR 28479 - Taking and Importing of Marine Mammals | |
82 FR 28506 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Entry Summary | |
82 FR 28503 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Declaration of Person Who Performed Repairs | |
82 FR 28505 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Automated Clearinghouse | |
82 FR 28510 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Bonded Warehouse Regulations | |
82 FR 28471 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Arkansas Advisory Committee To Vote on a Topic of Study | |
82 FR 28533 - Advisory Committee on the Medical Uses of Isotopes: Call for Nominations | |
82 FR 28530 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection; eComments Requested Uniform Crime Reporting Data Collection Instrument Pretesting and Burden Estimation General Clearance | |
82 FR 28468 - Sierra National Forest; California; Try Me Placer Mining Project | |
82 FR 28484 - Army Science Board Closed Meeting Notice | |
82 FR 28482 - Promoting Stakeholder Action Against Botnets and Other Automated Threats | |
82 FR 28490 - Proposed Information Collection Activity; Comment Request | |
82 FR 28480 - United States Integrated Ocean Observing System Advisory Committee | |
82 FR 28491 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Revision of a Currently Approved Collection (ICR Rev); National Survey of Older Americans Act Participants (NSOAAP) | |
82 FR 28479 - Coral Reef Conservation Program | |
82 FR 28531 - Notice of Information Collection | |
82 FR 28476 - Atlantic Coastal Fisheries Cooperative Management Act Provisions; Summer Flounder Fishery | |
82 FR 28501 - Accreditation and Approval of Intertek USA, Inc., as a Commercial Gauger and Laboratory | |
82 FR 28509 - Approval of SGS North America, Inc., as a Commercial Gauger | |
82 FR 28496 - National Committee on Vital and Health Statistics: Meeting | |
82 FR 28508 - Accreditation and Approval of SGS North America, Inc., as a Commercial Gauger and Laboratory | |
82 FR 28506 - Accreditation of SGS North America, Inc., as a Commercial Laboratory | |
82 FR 28501 - Approval of Altol Petroleum Products Services, Inc., as a Commercial Gauger | |
82 FR 28496 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission to OMB for Review and Approval; Information Collection Request Title: Rural Health Network Development Planning Performance Improvement and Measurement System Database, OMB No. 0915-0384-Extension | |
82 FR 28492 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; Potential Tobacco Product Violations Reporting Form | |
82 FR 28504 - Accreditation and Approval of Camin Cargo Control, Inc., as a Commercial Gauger and Laboratory | |
82 FR 28503 - Accreditation and Approval of Camin Cargo Control, Inc., as a Commercial Gauger and Laboratory | |
82 FR 28502 - Accreditation and Approval of Camin Cargo Control, Inc., as a Commercial Gauger and Laboratory | |
82 FR 28489 - Proposed Information Collection Activity; Comment Request; Medical Complaint Form, Contact Investigation Form: Non-TB Illness, and Contact Investigation Form: Active/Suspect TB | |
82 FR 28534 - Information Collection: Licenses for Radiography and Radiation Safety Requirements for Radiographic Operations | |
82 FR 28546 - Sanctions Action Pursuant to an Executive Order Issued on September 23, 2001, Titled “Blocking Property and Prohibiting Transactions With Persons Who Commit, Threaten To Commit, or Support Terrorism” | |
82 FR 28546 - Agency Information Collection Activity: Veteran's Application for Compensation and/or Pension and Veteran's Supplemental Claim Application | |
82 FR 28487 - Notice of Effectiveness of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status | |
82 FR 28486 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
82 FR 28486 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
82 FR 28484 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Evaluation of the ESSA Title I, Part C, Migrant Education Programs (Recruitment Phase) | |
82 FR 28485 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; Report of Dispute Resolution Under Part C of the Individuals With Disabilities Education Act | |
82 FR 28485 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; Report of Infants and Toddlers Receiving Early Intervention Services and of Program Settings Where Services Are Provided in Accordance With Part C, and Report on Infants and Toddlers | |
82 FR 28472 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request: Challenge and Prize Competition Solicitations Generic Clearance | |
82 FR 28535 - In the Matter of Tilden Mining, L.C. | |
82 FR 28517 - Kansas; Amendment No. 2 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
82 FR 28523 - New Hampshire; Major Disaster and Related Determinations | |
82 FR 28511 - Resighini Rancheria; Amendment No. 1 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
82 FR 28523 - Oklahoma; Major Disaster and Related Determinations | |
82 FR 28545 - Noise Exposure Map Notice for Teterboro Airport, Teterboro, New Jersey | |
82 FR 28401 - Amendment of Class D and E Airspace for the Following North Dakota Towns; Wahpeton, ND; Hettinger, ND; Fargo, ND; Grand Fork, ND; Carrington, ND; Cooperstown, ND; Pembina, ND; Rugby, ND; Devils Lake, ND; Bottineau, ND; Valley City, ND and Gwinner, ND | |
82 FR 28426 - Proposed Amendment of Class D and E Airspace for the Following Missouri Towns; Cape Girardeau, MO; St. Louis, MO; and Macon, MO | |
82 FR 28483 - Notice of Public Meeting on Voluntary Initiatives To Combat Infringement of Intellectual Property in the Online Environment | |
82 FR 28513 - Proposed Flood Hazard Determinations | |
82 FR 28524 - Changes in Flood Hazard Determinations | |
82 FR 28540 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing of a Proposed Rule Change To Adopt Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9 | |
82 FR 28477 - Nominations to the Marine Mammal Scientific Review Groups | |
82 FR 28544 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Medical Examination for Visa or Refugee Applicant | |
82 FR 28528 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Operations in the Outer Continental Shelf for Minerals Other Than Oil, Gas, and Sulphur MMAA104000 | |
82 FR 28499 - National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 28499 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 28497 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 28498 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 28511 - Proposed Flood Hazard Determinations | |
82 FR 28514 - Changes in Flood Hazard Determinations | |
82 FR 28518 - Proposed Flood Hazard Determinations | |
82 FR 28543 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery | |
82 FR 28433 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Nevada; Rescission of Visibility Protection Federal Implementation Plan for the Mohave Generating Station | |
82 FR 28432 - Air Plan Approval; Delaware; Infrastructure Requirements for the 2012 Fine Particulate Matter Standard; Extension of Comment Period; Availability of Data | |
82 FR 28410 - Disruptions to Communications | |
82 FR 28473 - Order Denying Export Privileges | |
82 FR 28412 - Human Reliability Program | |
82 FR 28395 - Airworthiness Directives; Dassault Aviation Airplanes | |
82 FR 28399 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Helicopters Deutschland GmbH Helicopters | |
82 FR 28397 - Airworthiness Directives; Bell Helicopter Textron Canada Limited Helicopters | |
82 FR 28493 - Administering the Hatch-Waxman Amendments: Ensuring a Balance Between Innovation and Access; Public Meeting; Request for Comments | |
82 FR 28393 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
82 FR 28474 - Notice of 10th Annual U.S. Industry Program at the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) General Conference |
Forest Service
Natural Resources Conservation Service
Industry and Security Bureau
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
National Telecommunications and Information Administration
Patent and Trademark Office
Army Department
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Children and Families Administration
Community Living Administration
Food and Drug Administration
Health Resources and Services Administration
National Institutes of Health
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration
Federal Emergency Management Agency
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Fish and Wildlife Service
Ocean Energy Management Bureau
Federal Aviation Administration
Foreign Assets Control Office
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all The Boeing Company Model 737-300, -400, and -500 series airplanes. This AD was prompted by a report of a crack in a certain body station (BS) frame inboard chord during supplemental structural inspection document (SSID) inspections. This AD requires repetitive detailed and high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspections for any crack at the frame inboard chords, and repair if necessary. We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective July 27, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of July 27, 2017.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740; telephone: 562-797-1717; Internet:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Galib Abumeri, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5324; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to all The Boeing Company Model 737-300, -400, and -500 series airplanes. The NPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
United Airlines expressed support for the NPRM.
Aviation Partners Boeing stated that accomplishing the supplemental type certificate (STC) ST01219SE does not affect the actions specified in the NPRM.
We concur with the commenter. We have redesignated paragraph (c) of the NPRM as paragraph (c)(1) of this AD and added paragraph (c)(2) to this AD to state that installation of STC ST01219SE does not affect the ability to accomplish the actions required by this AD. Therefore, for airplanes on which STC ST01219SE is installed, a “change in product” alternative method of compliance (AMOC) approval request is not necessary to comply with the requirements of 14 CFR 39.17.
Boeing requested that we clarify the location of the body station for the inspection of the frame inboard chords. Boeing pointed out that the NPRM stated: “in the inboard chord of the BS 616 frame.” Boeing also pointed out that the service information specifies that for 737-300 and -500 airplanes the corresponding body station is BS 616, but for 737-400 airplanes, with two overwing exit doors, the corresponding body station is BS 578.
We agree that clarification of the body station for the corresponding airplane configuration is necessary. We have revised the Discussion section of this final rule and paragraph (e) of this AD to specify “the inboard chord of the BS 578 (737-400 series airplanes) and BS 616 (737-300 and -500 series airplanes) frame.”
Boeing requested that we include “Authorized Representative” (AR) and “Seattle ACO” in paragraph (j)(3) of the proposed AD. Specifically, the commenter requested that “Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Los Angeles ACO” be revised to “Authorized Representative for the
We disagree with including ARs and the Seattle ACO in paragraph (j)(3) of this final rule. The Los Angeles ACO is now responsible for the Continued Operational Safety of the affected Model 737 airplanes, and delegates AMOC authority to the Boeing Commercial Airplanes ODA based on individual ADs. As a result, AMOC delegation authority is limited to the Manager of the Los Angeles ACO and does not include the Manager of the Seattle ACO. Additionally, including ARs is unnecessary because both the Los Angeles ACO and Seattle ACO authorize only specific ARs to approve AMOCs. We have not changed this AD in this regard.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD with the changes described previously and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of this final rule.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1366, dated May 17, 2016. The service information describes procedures for repetitive detailed and HFEC inspections for cracking at certain BS frame inboard chords, and repair. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 400 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective July 27, 2017.
None.
(1) This AD applies to all The Boeing Company Model 737-300, -400, and -500 series airplanes, certificated in any category.
(2) Installation of Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) ST01219SE (
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by a report of a crack in the body station (BS) 616 frame inboard chord during supplemental structural inspection document (SSID) inspections; the crack was located at the lowest fastener hole of the inboard chord inboard strap below stringer S-11R. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct any crack in the inboard chord of the BS 578 (737-400 series airplanes) and BS 616 (737-300 and -500 series airplanes) frame below stringers S-11L or S-11R, which could result in structural failure of the frame and possible rapid decompression.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as required by paragraph (i) of this AD, at the applicable times specified in table 1 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1366, dated May 17, 2016: Do detailed and HFEC inspections for any crack at the frame inboard chords, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1366, dated May 17, 2016. Repeat the inspections thereafter at the time specified in table 1 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1366, dated May 17, 2016.
If any crack is found during any inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, repair before further flight using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (j) of this AD. Although Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1366, dated May 17, 2016, specifies to contact Boeing for repair instructions, and specifies that action as “RC” (Required for Compliance), this AD requires repair as specified in this paragraph.
Where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1366, dated May 17, 2016, specifies a compliance time “after the original issue date of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k) of this AD. Information may be emailed to
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Los Angeles ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) Except as required by paragraph (h) of this AD: For service information that contains steps that are labeled as RC, the provisions of paragraphs (j)(4)(i) and (j)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or sub-step is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or sub-step. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
For more information about this AD, contact Galib Abumeri, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles ACO, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5324; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1366, dated May 17, 2016.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For Boeing service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740; telephone: 562-797-1717; Internet:
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 7X airplanes. This AD was prompted by reports that during the assembly of structural elements on some airplanes, lack of established procedures and tools caused boring and torqueing defects to be present at some locations. This AD requires a detailed visual inspection of bore holes for defects, replacement of bolts, and repair if necessary. We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective July 27, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of July 27, 2017.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Dassault Falcon Jet Corporation, Teterboro Airport, P.O. Box 2000, South Hackensack, NJ 07606; telephone 201-440-6700; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1137; fax 425-227-1149.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 7X airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2016-0116, dated June 16, 2016 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 7X airplanes. The MCAI states:
During the assembly of structural elements on some aeroplanes, lack of established procedures and tools caused boring and torqueing defects to be present at some locations on the foot of frame (FR) 36 and FR39. Dassault Aviation (DA) identified the individual aeroplanes that are potentially affected by this production deficiency. Quality control actions have been implemented to ensure that new aeroplanes, from s/n 183, cannot be affected by this defect.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, would adversely affect the structural integrity of the aeroplane.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD requires [a detailed visual] inspection of bore holes [for defects] and replacement of bolts at FR36 and FR39 and, depending on findings, accomplishment of a repair.
To address this potential unsafe condition, DA published Service Bulletin (SB) F7X-379 to provide corrective action instructions.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We reviewed Dassault Service Bulletin 7X-379, dated February 29, 2016. This service information describes procedures for a detailed visual inspection of bore holes at FR36 and FR39 for defects, replacement of bolts at FR36 and FR39, and repair. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 41 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition repair specified in this AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective July 27, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 7X airplanes, certificated in any category, serial numbers (S/Ns) 2, 5, and 8 through 182 inclusive; except S/Ns 141, 148, 149, 157, 159, 166, 170, 171, 174, 175, and 177 through 180 inclusive.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by reports that during the assembly of structural elements on some airplanes, lack of established procedures and tools caused boring and torqueing defects to be present at some locations on the foot of frame (FR) 36 and FR39. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct defects in the bore holes at FR36 and FR39 that could adversely affect the structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the applicable time identified in paragraphs (g)(1) or (g)(2) of this AD, remove the sheer bolts at FR36 and FR39, left hand and right hand, as identified in Dassault Service Bulletin 7X-379, dated February 29, 2016, and do a detailed visual inspection of the bore holes for defects, in accordance with Dassault Service Bulletin 7X-379, dated February 29, 2016.
(1) For airplanes with S/Ns 2 and 5: Before exceeding 4,100 flight cycles after the date of release to service after the first C-Check or within 3 months from the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later.
(2) For airplanes other than those identified in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD: Before exceeding 4,100 flight cycles since the date of issuance of the original certificate of airworthiness or the original export certificate of airworthiness or within 3 months from the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later.
(1) If, during any inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, any defect is found, before further flight, repair the affected areas, and replace the bolts at FR36 and FR39, in accordance with Dassault Service Bulletin 7X-379, dated February 29, 2016; except where Dassault Service Bulletin 7X-379, dated February 29, 2016, specifies to contact Dassault Aviation for instructions, before further flight, repair using a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA); or Dassault Aviation's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA).
(2) If, during any inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, no defect is found, before further flight, replace the bolts at FR36 and FR39, in accordance with Dassault Service Bulletin 7X-379, dated February 29, 2016.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2016-0116, dated June 16, 2016, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For more information about this AD, contact Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1137; fax 425-227-1149. Information may be emailed to:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Dassault Service Bulletin 7X-379, dated February 29, 2016.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Dassault Falcon Jet Corporation, Teterboro Airport, P.O. Box 2000, South Hackensack, NJ 07606; telephone 201-440-6700; Internet
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Bell Helicopter Textron Canada Limited (Bell) Model 429 helicopters. This AD requires adding an identification number to life-limited rod ends that do not have a serial number (S/N). The actions of this AD are intended to address an unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective July 27, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain document listed in this AD as of July 27, 2017.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Bell Helicopter Textron Canada Limited, 12,800 Rue de l'Avenir, Mirabel, Quebec J7J1R4; telephone (450) 437-2862 or (800) 363-8023; fax (450) 433-0272; or at
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Matt Fuller, Senior Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Group, Rotorcraft Directorate, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy., Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email
On February 17, 2017, at 82 FR 10976, the
Transport Canada, which is the aviation authority for Canada, has issued AD No. CF-2015-15, dated June 25, 2015, to correct an unsafe condition for Bell Model 429 helicopters, S/Ns 57001 through 57260. Transport Canada advises that, per its regulations, life-limited parts must be marked with their P/N and S/N. Transport Canada further states that the spring assembly rod end P/N 427-010-210-105 has a life limit of 5,000 hours; however, it is not serialized, causing difficulties in tracking its accumulated air time. According to Transport Canada, this condition could result in a rod end remaining in service beyond its life limit. Therefore, the Transport Canada AD requires adding identification markings on each spring assembly rod end.
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD, but we did not receive any comments on the NPRM.
These helicopters have been approved by the aviation authority of Canada and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with Canada, Transport Canada, its technical representative, has notified us of the unsafe condition described in its AD. We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all information provided by Transport Canada and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other helicopters of the same type design and that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD requirements as proposed.
Bell Helicopter has issued Alert Service Bulletin 429-15-19, dated February 26, 2015. This service information specifies procedures for permanently marking each forward and aft rod end with the S/N of the spring assembly. This service information applies to certain serial-numbered helicopters, as subsequent helicopters will have these actions performed during the manufacturing process.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We also reviewed Bell Model 429 Maintenance Manual BHT-429-MM-1, Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations Schedule, Revision 24, approved June 12, 2015, which specifies airworthiness life limits and inspection intervals for parts installed on Model 429 helicopters.
We estimate that this AD will affect 70 helicopters of U.S. Registry. We estimate that operators may incur the following costs in order to comply with this AD. Labor costs are estimated at $85 per work-hour. Marking the rod ends will take about 0.5 work-hour for a total estimated cost of $43 per helicopter and $3,010 for the U.S. fleet. Replacing a rod end that has exceeded its life limit will take about 3 work-hours and required parts will cost about $4,100 for an estimated replacement cost of $4,355 per rod end.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on helicopters identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction; and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
We prepared an economic evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to Model 429 helicopters, serial number 57001 through 57260, with a pylon restraint spring assembly (spring assembly) forward rod end (rod end) part number (P/N) 427-010-210-105 installed, certificated in any category.
This AD defines the unsafe condition as a rod end remaining in service after reaching its life limit. This condition could result in failure of a rod end and subsequent loss of control of a helicopter.
This AD becomes effective July 27, 2017.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
(1) Within 140 hours time-in-service, clean and identify each forward rod end with the spring assembly serial number in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions, paragraphs 3 through 5, and 7 through 8, of Bell Helicopter Alert Service Bulletin 429-15-19, dated February 26, 2015.
(2) Do not install a forward rod end P/N 427-010-210-105 on any helicopter unless it has been marked with a serial number in accordance with paragraph (e)(1) of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Safety Management Group, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to: Matt Fuller, Senior Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Group, Rotorcraft Directorate, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office, before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an AMOC.
(1) Bell Model 429 Maintenance Manual BHT-429-MM-1, Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations Schedule, Revision 24, approved June 12, 2015, which is not incorporated by reference, contains additional information about the subject of this AD. For service information identified in this AD, contact Bell Helicopter Textron Canada Limited, 12,800 Rue de l'Avenir, Mirabel, Quebec J7J1R4; telephone (450) 437-2862 or (800) 363-8023; fax (450) 433-0272; or at
(2) The subject of this AD is addressed in Transport Canada AD No. CF-2015-15 dated June 25, 2015. You may view the Transport Canada AD on the Internet at
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: 5101, Standard Practices/Structures.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Bell Helicopter Alert Service Bulletin 429-15-19, dated February 26, 2015.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For Bell Helicopter service information identified in this AD, contact Bell Helicopter Textron Canada Limited, 12,800 Rue de l'Avenir, Mirabel, Quebec J7J1R4; telephone (450) 437-2862 or (800) 363-8023; fax (450) 433-0272; or at
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy., Room 6N-321, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Airbus Helicopters Deutschland GmbH (Airbus Helicopters) Model MBB-BK 117 C-2 (including configuration C-2e) and MBB-BK 117 D-2 helicopters. This AD requires replacing the main rotor (M/R) blade vibration absorbers. This AD was prompted by a report of strong M/R blade vibrations on a Model MBB-BK 117 C-2 helicopter. The actions of this AD are intended to prevent an unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective July 27, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain documents listed in this AD as of July 27, 2017.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus Helicopters, 2701 N. Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; telephone (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax (972) 641-3775; or at
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Matt Fuller, Senior Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Group, Rotorcraft Directorate, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy., Fort Worth, TX 76177; email
On February 17, 2017, at 82 FR 10978, the
The NPRM was prompted by AD No. 2016-0002, dated January 4, 2016, issued by EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, to correct an unsafe condition for Airbus Helicopters Model MBB-BK 117 C-2, MBB-BK 117 C-2e, MBB-BK 117 D-2, and Model MBB-BK 117 D-2m helicopters. EASA advises of damaged bearings that if not corrected, could lead to the loss of balls from the ball bearing while the M/R blade is turning, possibly resulting in damage to the helicopter and injury to persons on the ground. To address this unsafe condition, EASA requires replacing the spacers with flanged spacers in the M/R blade vibration absorber and re-identifying the vibration absorber and M/R blade.
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD, but we received no comments on the NPRM.
These helicopters have been approved by the aviation authority of Germany and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with Germany, EASA, its technical representative, has notified us of the unsafe condition described in the EASA AD. We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all information provided by EASA and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other helicopters of these same type designs and that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD requirements as proposed.
We consider this AD to be an interim action. The design approval holder is currently developing a modification that will address the unsafe condition identified in this AD. Once this modification is developed, approved, and available, we might consider additional rulemaking.
The EASA AD requires replacing the M/R blade vibration absorber spacers within 12 months after the effective date of the EASA AD. This AD requires the replacement within 200 hours TIS. The EASA AD applies to Airbus Helicopters Model MBB-BK 117 D-2m helicopters. This AD does not because Model MBB-BK 117 D-2m helicopters have no FAA type certificate.
We reviewed Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) MBB-BK117 C-2-62A-009 for Model MBB-BK 117 C-2 and C-2e helicopters and ASB MBB-BK117 D-2-62A-001 for Model MBB-BK 117 D-2 and D-2m helicopters. The ASBs, both Revision 1 and both dated October 28, 2015, specify replacing the vibration absorber spacers with flanged spacers to prevent the balls from escaping from the ball bearings. The ASBs also provide procedures for re-identifying the M/R blade and vibration absorber.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 136 helicopters of U.S. Registry and that labor costs average $85 per work-hour. Based on these estimates, we expect that modifying the M/R blade vibration absorber spacers and re-identifying the parts require 4 work-hours and parts cost about $1,439, for a total cost of $1,779 per helicopter and $241,944 for the U.S. fleet. The cost of recording the new P/N is minimal.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on helicopters identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction; and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities
We prepared an economic evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to Airbus Helicopters Model MBB-BK 117 C-2 (including configuration C-2e) and Model MBB-BK 117 D-2 helicopters with a main rotor (M/R) blade vibration absorber spacer part number (P/N) 117-801841.11 installed, certificated in any category.
This AD defines the unsafe condition as damage to a bearing in an M/R blade vibration absorber. This condition could result in failure of the bearing, possibly resulting in the loss of the balls and damage to the helicopter and injury to persons on the ground.
This AD becomes effective July 27, 2017.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
(1) Within 200 hours time-in-service:
(i) Replace each spacer on the vibration absorber with a flanged spacer.
(ii) Re-identify each vibration absorber and M/R blade in accordance with paragraphs 3.B.2.3. or 3.B.2.4, as applicable, of Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) MBB-BK117 C-2-62A-009, Revision 1, dated October 28, 2015, or ASB MBB-BK117 D-2-62A-001, Revision 1, dated October 28, 2015, whichever applies to your model helicopter. Record the new P/Ns and serial numbers for each M/R blade on the component history card or equivalent record.
(2) After replacing the spacer in accordance with paragraph (e)(1) of this AD, do not install M/R blade P/N B621M1002103 or P/N D621M1002101, vibration absorber P/N B621M3001101, or spacer P/N 117-801841.11 on that helicopter. You may install M/R blade P/N B621M1002101 or P/N B621M1002102 provided you have complied with the requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Safety Management Group, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to: Matt Fuller, Senior Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Group, Rotorcraft Directorate, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy., Fort Worth, Texas 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office, before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an AMOC.
The subject of this AD is addressed in European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD No. 2015-0045, dated March 13, 2015, and corrected April 2, 2015, and in EASA AD No. 2016-0002, dated January 4, 2016. You may view the EASA ADs on the Internet at
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: 6200, Main Rotor System.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin MBB-BK117 C-2-62A-009, Revision 1, dated October 28, 2015.
(ii) Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin MBB-BK117 D-2-62A-001, Revision 1, dated October 28, 2015.
(3) For Airbus Helicopters service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus Helicopters, 2701 N. Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; telephone (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax (972) 641-3775; or at
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy., Room 6N-321, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This action modifies Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Wahpeton/Harry Stern Airport, Wahpeton, ND; Hettinger Municipal Airport, Hettinger, ND; Gwinner-Roger Melroe Field, Gwinner, ND; and Rugby Municipal Airport, Rugby, ND. Decommissioning of non-directional radio beacons (NDBs), cancellation of NDB approaches, and implementation of area navigation (RNAV) procedures have made this action necessary for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at these airports. This action also updates the geographic coordinates and airport names for certain airports listed in the associated Class D and E airspace areas.
Effective 0901 UTC, December 7, 2017. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under Title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Ron Laster, Contract Support, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5879.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part, A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it modifies Class D and E airspace to support IFR operations in standard instrument approach procedures at the following airports: Wahpeton/Harry Stern Airport, Wahpeton, ND; Hettinger Municipal Airport, Hettinger, ND; Gwinner-Roger Melroe Field, Gwinner, ND; Rugby Municipal Airport, Rugby, ND; Hector International Airport, Fargo, ND; Grand Forks Air Force Base, Grand Forks, ND; Carrington Municipal Airport, Carrington, ND; Pembina Municipal Airport, Pembina, ND; Bottineau Municipal Airport, Bottineau, ND; Cooperstown Municipal Airport, ND; Devils Lake Regional Airport, Devils Lake, ND, and Barnes County Municipal Airport, Valley City, ND.
On January 13, 2017, the FAA published in the
Also, a minor correction is made in the proposal for Hettinger Municipal Airport, Hettinger, ND, listed in Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface. The airspace description should read “Within a 6.5-mile radius (increased from a 6.4-mile) radius . . .”, instead of “Within a 6.4-mile radius (previously a 7-mile radius)”.
Class D and Class E airspace designations are published in paragraphs 5000, 6002, 6004, and 6005, respectively, of FAA Order 7400.11A, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class D and Class E airspace designation listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016. FAA Order 7400.11A is publicly available as listed in the
This amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 by:
Modifying geographic coordinates in Class D airspace for Hector International Airport, Fargo, ND; and
Modifying Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface:
Within a 6.4-mile radius (reduced from a 7-mile radius) of Harry Stern Airport, Wahpeton, ND, and updating the geographic coordinates of the airport to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database;
Within a 6.5-mile radius (increased from a 6.4-mile radius) of Hettinger Municipal Airport, Hettinger, ND, and updating the geographic coordinates of the airport to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database;
Within a 6.5-mile radius (reduced from a 7-mile radius) of Gwinner-Roger Melroe Field, Gwinner, ND, and updating the geographic coordinates of the airport to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database; and
Within a 6.3-mile radius (reduced from a 7-mile radius) of Rugby Municipal Airport, Rugby, ND, and updating the geographic coordinates of the airport to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database.
The geographic coordinates will be adjusted for Hector International Airport, Fargo, ND; Grand Forks Air Force Base, Grand Forks, ND; Barnes County Municipal Airport, Valley City, ND; Pembina Municipal Airport, Pembina, ND; Devils Lake VOR/DME; Devils Lake Regional Airport, Devils Lake, ND; Carrington Municipal Airport, Carrington, ND; Bottineau Municipal Airport, Bottineau, ND; Cooperstown Municipal Airport, ND, as well as the airport names for Barnes County Municipal Airport (formerly Valley City/Barnes County Municipal), Valley City, ND, and Devils Lake Regional Airport (formerly Devils Lake Municipal Airport), Devils Lake, ND, to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database.
Airspace reconfiguration is necessary due to the decommissioning of NDBs, cancellation of NDB approaches, and implementation of RNAV procedures at these airports. Controlled airspace is necessary for the safety and management of the standard instrument approach procedures for IFR operations at the airports.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5.a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 3,400 feet MSL within a 4.5-mile radius of Hector International Airport.
Within a 4-mile radius of Devils Lake Regional Airport, and within 3 miles each side of the Devils Lake VOR/DME 134° radial extending from the 4-mile radius to 8.7 miles southeast of the VOR/DME and within 2.3 miles each side of the Devils Lake VOR/DME 324° radial extending from the 4-mile radius to 8.7 miles northwest of the VOR/DME. This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface within 1.7 miles each side of the Fargo VOR/DME 009° radial, extending from the 4.5-mile radius of Hector International Airport to 7.8 miles south of the airport.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.4-mile radius of Bottineau Municipal Airport, and that airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface within an area bounded on the north by lat. 49°00′00″ N., on the east by long. 99°49′00″ W., on the south by the 10.5-mile radius of Rugby, ND, Class E airspace area, and on the west by the 47-mile radius of the Minot, ND, Class E airspace area.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.4-mile radius of Carrington Municipal Airport; and that airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface beginning at lat. 47°50′32″ N., long. 99°16′35″ W.; along the 22-mile arc south of Devils Lake VOR/DME, to lat. 47°45′07″ N. long., 98°50′22″ W.; to lat. 47°17′46″ N., long 98°44′58″ W.; to lat. 47°05′35″ N. long., 99°30′00″ W.; to lat. 47°40′20″ N., long. 99°30′00″ W. to the point of the beginning.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.4-mile radius of Cooperstown Municipal Airport, and that airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface beginning at lat. 48°04′04″ N., long. 98°22′13″ W.; to lat. 48°03′19″ N. long. 98°13′ 59″ W.; thence counterclockwise via the 34-mile radius of Grand Forks AFB ; thence counterclockwise via the 40-mile radius of Fargo, Hector International Airport; to lat. 46°50′55″ N., long. 97°46′55″ W.; to lat. 46°51′26″ N., long. 97°52′13″ W. ; thence counterclockwise via the 7.9 mile radius of Barnes County Municipal Airport; to lat. 46°53′17″ N., long. 98°11′38″ W. to lat. 46°53′43″ N., long. 98°16′53″ W.; thence counterclockwise via the 16.5-mile radius of Jamestown VOR/DME; to lat. 47°12′19″ N., long. 98°43′54″ W.; to lat. 47°45′07″ N., long. 98°50′22″ W.; thence counterclockwise via the 22-mile radius of Devils Lake VOR/DME to the point of the beginning.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within an 8.7-mile radius of Devils Lake Regional Airport and that airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface within a 22-mile radius of Devils Lake VOR/DME.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.5-mile radius of Gwinner-Roger Melroe Field Airport.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.5-mile radius of Hettinger Municipal Airport; and that airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface bounded by a line beginning at lat. 46°20′00″ N., long. 102°58′00″ W., to lat. 46°20′00″ N., long. 102°44′00″ W., to lat. 45°45′00″ N., long. 102°09′00″ W., to lat. 45°45′00″ N., long. 102°58′00″ W., to the point of beginning.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.2-mile radius of Pembina Municipal Airport, and within 1.8 miles each side of Humboldt VORTAC 132/312° radials extending from the 6.2-mile radius to 7 miles southeast of the airport; and that airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface beginning at lat. 49°00′00″ N., long. 97°30′01″ W.; to lat. 48°48′00″ N., long. 97°30′01″ W.; to lat. 48°18′33″ N., long. 98°39′55″ W.; thence clockwise around a 15.3-mile radius of Devils Lake VOR/DME to lat. 48°04′57″ N., long. 98°32′ 07″ W.; to lat. 48°03′19″ N., long. 98°13′59″ W.; thence clockwise along the 34-mile radius of Grand Forks AFB to the North Dakota/Minnesota state boundary; thence north along the state boundary to the United States/Canada border; thence west along the United States/Canada border to the point of beginning.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.3-mile radius of Rugby Municipal Airport; and that airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface within a 13-mile radius of Rugby Municipal Airport, and within 8.1 miles north and 4.2 miles south of the 115° bearing from the airport extending from the 13-mile radius to 16.1 miles east of the airport, and within 8.5 miles south and 3.8 miles north of the 314° bearing from the airport extending from the 13-mile radius to 16.1 miles northwest of the airport, excluding that airspace within Minot, ND, and Rolla, ND, Class E airspace areas.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.4 mile radius of Barnes County Municipal Airport; and that airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface within a 7.9-mile radius of the airport, and within 4 miles southwest and 8.3 miles northeast of the 133° bearing from the airport extending from the 7.9-mile radius to 21.8 miles southeast of the airport.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.4-mile radius of Harry Stern Airport; and that airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface within a 25-mile radius of Harry Stern Airport bounded on the east by the Minnesota border and on the west by a line from lat. 45°55′26″ N., long. 96°59′22″ W., to lat. 46°37′04″ N., long. 96°52′27″ W.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule, technical amendment.
This action removes the Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) part-time status from the legal description of the Class E airspace area designated as an extension at Hilo International, General Lyman Field, Hilo, HI. This action does not affect the charted boundaries or operating requirements of the airspace.
Effective 0901 UTC, August 17, 2017. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed on line at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Robert LaPlante, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Western Service Center, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057; telephone (425) 203-4566.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it removes NOTAM part-time information for Class E surface area airspace at Hilo, HI, for the safety and management of aircraft within the National Airspace System.
The FAA Aeronautical Information Services branch found that Class E airspace designated as an extension at Hilo International/General Lyman Field, Hilo, HI, as published in FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, does not require part-time status. This action makes the correction.
Class D airspace designations are published in paragraph 6004 of FAA Order 7400.11A dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR part 71.1. The Class E airspace designation listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.11A dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR part 71.1. The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This action amends Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 by deleting the following language from the legal description of Class E airspace designated as an extension at Hilo International/General Lyman Field,
This is an administrative change and does not affect the boundaries, altitudes, or operating requirements of the airspace, therefore, notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) is unnecessary.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
Bureau of Industry and Security, Commerce.
Final rule.
The Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) amends the Export Administration Regulations (EAR) by adding ten entities to the Entity List. The ten entities that are added to the Entity List have been determined by the U.S. Government to be acting contrary to the national security or foreign policy interests of the United States. BIS is taking this action to ensure the efficacy of existing sanctions on the Russian Federation (Russia) for violating international law and fueling the conflict in eastern Ukraine. These entities will be listed on the Entity List under the destinations of the Crimea region of Ukraine and Russia.
This rule is effective June 22, 2017.
Chair, End-User Review Committee, Office of the Assistant Secretary, Export Administration, Bureau of Industry and Security, Department of Commerce, Phone: (202) 482-5991, Email:
The Entity List (Supplement No. 4 to Part 744 of the EAR) identifies entities and other persons reasonably believed to be involved in, or that pose a significant risk of being or becoming involved in, activities that are contrary to the national security or foreign policy of the United States. The EAR imposes additional licensing requirements on, and limits the availability of most license exceptions for, exports, reexports, and transfers (in-country) to those persons or entities listed on the Entity List. The license review policy for each listed entity is identified in the License Review Policy column on the Entity List and the impact on the availability of license exceptions is described in the
The End-user Review Committee (ERC) is composed of representatives of the Departments of Commerce (Chair), State, Defense, Energy, and where appropriate, the Treasury. The ERC makes decisions to add an entry to the Entity List by majority vote and to remove or modify an entry by unanimous vote. The Departments represented on the ERC have approved these changes to the Entity List.
This rule adds ten entities to the Entity List. These ten entities are being added on the basis of § 744.11 (License requirements that apply to entities acting contrary to the national security or foreign policy interests of the United States) of the EAR. The ten entries being added to the Entity List consist of two entries in the Crimea region of Ukraine and eight entries in Russia.
Under § 744.11(b) (Criteria for revising the Entity List) of the EAR, persons for whom there is reasonable cause to believe, based on specific and articulable facts, have been involved, are involved, or pose a significant risk of being or becoming involved in, activities that are contrary to the national security or foreign policy interests of the United States and those acting on behalf of such persons may be added to the Entity List. The entities being added to the Entity List have been determined to be involved in activities that are contrary to the national security or foreign policy interests of the United States. Specifically, in this rule, BIS adds entities to the Entity List for violating international law and fueling the conflict in eastern Ukraine. These additions ensure the efficacy of existing sanctions on Russia. The particular additions to the Entity List and related authorities are described below.
Three entities are added based on activities that are described in Executive Order 13660 (79 FR 13493),
Executive Order 13660 blocks all property and interests in property that are in the United States, that come within the United States, or that are or come within the possession or control of any United States person (including any foreign branch) of any person determined by the Secretary of the Treasury, in consultation with the Secretary of State, to be responsible for or complicit in, or to have engaged in, directly or indirectly, misappropriation of state assets of Ukraine or of an economically significant entity in Ukraine, among other activities. Under Section 8 of the Order, all agencies of the United States Government are directed to take all appropriate measures within their authority to carry out the provisions of the Order.
The Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC), pursuant to Executive Order 13660, has designated the following three entities as being within the scope of the Order: Bike Center, Private Military Company `Wagner' and `Wolf' Holding of Security Services. In conjunction with that designation, the Department of Commerce adds all three entities to the Entity List under this rule and imposes a license requirement for exports, reexports, or transfers (in-country) of all items subject to the EAR to these blocked persons. This license requirement implements an appropriate measure within the authority of the EAR to carry out the provisions of Executive Order 13660.
Three entities are added based on activities that are described in Executive Order 13661 (79 FR 15533),
Executive Order 13661 includes a directive that all property and interests in property that are in the United States, that hereafter come within the United States, or that are or thereafter come within the possession or control of any United States person (including any foreign branch) of the following persons are blocked and may not be transferred, paid, exported, withdrawn, or otherwise dealt in: Persons determined by the Secretary of the Treasury, in consultation with the Secretary of State to have either materially assisted, sponsored or provided financial, material or technological support for, or goods and services to or in support of a senior official of the government of the Russian Federation or operate in the defense or related materiel sector in Russia. Under Section 8 of the Order, all agencies of the United States Government are directed to take all appropriate measures within their authority to carry out the provisions of the Order.
The Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control, pursuant to Executive Order 13661, on behalf of the Secretary of Treasury, and in consultation with the Secretary of State, has designated the following three entities as being within the scope of the Order: Concord Catering, Limited Liability Company Concord Management Consulting and Molot-Oruzhie, OOO. BIS is also adding these entities to the Entity List pursuant to Executive Order 13661.
The three entities added to the Entity List under Executive Order 13661 meet the criteria of Section 1, subparagraph B of the Executive Order 13661 because they operate in Russia's arms or related materiel sector. With respect to these three entities, BIS imposes a license requirement for exports, reexports, or transfers (in-country) of all items subject to the EAR to these entities. This license requirement implements an appropriate measure within the authority of the EAR to carry out the provisions of Executive Order 13661.
Four entities are added based on activities that are described in Executive Order 13685 (79 FR 77357),
The Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control,
In conjunction with these designations, BIS adds all four of these entities to the Entity List under this rule and imposes a license requirement for exports, reexports, or transfers (in-country) of all items subject to the EAR to these blocked persons. This license requirement implements an appropriate measure within the authority of the EAR to carry out the provisions of Executive Order 13685.
For the ten entities added to the Entity List based on activities that are described in Executive Order 13660, 13661 or 13685, BIS imposes a license requirement for all items subject to the EAR and a license review policy of presumption of denial. The license requirements apply to any transaction in which items subject to the EAR are to be exported, reexported, or transferred (in-country) to any of the entities or in which such entities act as purchaser, intermediate consignee, ultimate consignee, or end-user. In addition, no license exceptions are available for exports, reexports, or transfers (in-country) to the entities being added to the Entity List in this rule.
The acronyms “a.k.a.” (also known as) and “f.k.a.” (formerly known as) are used in entries on the Entity List to help exporters, reexporters and transferors to better identify listed persons on the Entity List.
This final rule adds the following ten entities to the Entity List:
(1)
Lenin St. 2, Alushta, Crimea 29850, Ukraine;
(2)
29 ul. Karla Marksa, Simferopol, Crimea 295006, Ukraine.
(1)
Nizhnije Mnevniki, 110, Moscow, Russia;
(2)
Nab. Lieutenant Schmidt D. 7, von Keyserling Mansion, St. Petersburg 119034, Russia;
(3)
6 naberezhnaya, Krasnopresnenskaya, Moscow 123100, Russia;
(4)
d. 13 Litera A, Pom. 2-N N4, Naberezhnaya Reki Fontanki, St. Petersburg 191011, Russia;
(5)
135 ul. Lenina, Vyatskie Polyany, Kirov Obl. 612960, Russia;
(6)
d. 18 str. 3 prospekt Komsomolski, Moscow 119021, Russia;
(7) Private Military Company ‘Wagner', a.k.a., the following three aliases:
Russia;
(8) `Wolf' Holding of Security Structures, a.k.a., the following four aliases:
ul. Panferova d. 18, Moscow 119261, Russia;
Although the Export Administration Act of 1979 expired on August 20, 2001, the President, through Executive Order 13222 of August 17, 2001, 3 CFR, 2001 Comp., p. 783 (2002), as amended by Executive Order 13637 of March 8, 2013, 78 FR 16129 (March 13, 2013) and as extended by the Notice of August 4, 2016, 81 FR 52587 (August 8, 2016), has continued the Export Administration Regulations in effect under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act. BIS continues to carry out the provisions of the Export Administration Act of 1979, as appropriate and to the extent permitted by law, pursuant to Executive Order 13222, as amended by Executive Order 13637.
1. Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
2. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person is required to respond to nor be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information, subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Total burden hours associated with the PRA and OMB control number 0694-0088 are not expected to increase as a result of this rule. You may send comments regarding the collection of information associated with this rule, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to Jasmeet K. Seehra, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), by email to
3. This rule does not contain policies with Federalism implications as that term is defined in Executive Order 13132.
4. The provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553) requiring notice of proposed rulemaking, the opportunity for public comment and a delay in effective date are inapplicable because this regulation involves a military or foreign affairs function of the United States. (
5. Because a notice of proposed rulemaking and an opportunity for public comment are not required to be given for this rule by 5 U.S.C. 553, or by any other law, the analytical requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601
Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Terrorism.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Bureau of Industry and Security amends part 744 of the Export Administration Regulations (15 CFR parts 730-774) as follows:
50 U.S.C. 4601
The additions read as follows:
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule; announcement of effective dates.
In this document, the Commission announces that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has approved, for a period of three years, the information collection associated with the Commission's Report and Order and Order on Reconsideration (
• For reporting of critical communications outages potentially affecting airports, July 24, 2017.
• For use of OC3-based metric for reporting major transport facility outages, with a corresponding threshold of 667 OC3 minutes for 30 minutes, February 1, 2018.
• For reporting of simplex outages that persist for at least 96 hours, December 22, 2017.
• For use of revised methodology to calculate the number of potentially affected users for wireless network outages, and use of adopted methodology to estimate the number of potentially affected wireless users for wireless outages affecting a PSAP, May 1, 2018.
• For adherence to the clarified standard for outages that significantly degrade communications to PSAPs, June 22, 2018.
• For reporting of events impacting special offices and facilities enrolled in the TSP Program as Level 1 or Level 2, and disruptions impacting airports listed as current primary (PR) airports in the FAA's National Plan of Integrated Airports Systems, December 22, 2018.
Brenda Villanueva, Cybersecurity and Communications Reliability Division, Public Safety and Homeland Security Bureau, at (202) 418-7005, or email:
This document announces that, on January 17, 2017, OMB approved, for a period of three years, the information collection requirements relating to the outage reporting rules contained in the Commission's
To request materials in accessible formats for people with disabilities (Braille, large print, electronic files, audio format), send an email to
As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507), the FCC is notifying the public that it received final OMB approval on January 17, 2017, for the information collection requirements contained in the modifications to the Commission's rules in 47 CFR part 4.
Under 5 CFR 1320, an agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a current, valid OMB Control Number. No person
The total annual reporting burdens and costs for the respondents are as follows:
Department of Energy.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
DOE proposes to amend its regulation concerning the Human Reliability Program (HRP). This regulation provides the policies and procedures to ensure that individuals who occupy positions affording unescorted access to certain nuclear materials, nuclear explosive devices, facilities and programs meet the highest standards of reliability and physical and mental suitability. The proposed revisions include some clarification of the procedures and burden of proof applicable in certification review hearings, the addition and modification of certain definitions, and a clear statement that a security concern can be reviewed pursuant to DOE regulations for determining eligibility for access to classified matter or special nuclear material and/or the HRP regulation. These proposed revisions are intended to provide better guidance to HRP-certified individuals and to ensure consistency in HRP decision making.
Written comments must be postmarked on or before July 24, 2017 to ensure consideration.
You may submit comments, identified by RIN 1992-AA44, by any of the following methods:
1.
2.
3.
Due to potential delays in DOE's receipt and processing of mail sent through the U.S. Postal Service, DOE encourages responders to submit comments electronically to ensure timely receipt.
All submissions must include the RIN for this rulemaking, RIN 1992-AA44. For detailed instructions on submitting comments and additional information on the rulemaking process, see the “Public Comment Procedures” heading of the
Gina Cano, Office of Corporate Security Strategy, Analysis and Special Operations, (202) 586-7079,
Pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, (the AEA), the DOE owns and leases defense nuclear and other facilities in various locations in the United States. These facilities are operated by contractors with DOE oversight or are operated by DOE. These facilities are involved in (among other activities) researching, testing, producing, disassembling, or transporting nuclear materials. Compromise of these DOE facilities could severely damage national security. To guard against such compromise, DOE established the Human Reliability Program (HRP). The HRP is designed to ensure that individuals who occupy positions affording unescorted access to certain nuclear materials, facilities and programs meet the highest standards of reliability as well as physical and mental suitability, through a system of continuous evaluation of those individuals. The purpose of this continuous evaluation is to identify in a timely manner individuals whose judgment may be impaired by physical or mental/personality disorders; the use of illegal drugs or the abuse of legal drugs or other substances; the abuse of alcohol; or any other condition or circumstance that may represent a reliability, safety or security concern. If any of these conditions or circumstances is identified, the HRP provides for an administrative process, including the opportunity for a certification review hearing that results in either the revocation or reinstatement of the individual's HRP certification.
The part 712 regulation has not been comprehensively updated since it was promulgated in 2004. Two technical amendments to the regulation were made in 2011 and 2013. In 2011, the part 712 regulation was amended to designate the appropriate Undersecretary as the person with the authority to issue a final written decision to recertify or revoke the certification of an individual in the HRP. 76 FR 12271 (Mar. 7, 2011). In 2013, the part 712 regulation was amended to eliminate references to obsolete provisions and to reflect organizational changes within the DOE. 78 FR 56132 (Sep. 12, 2013).
In the 12 years since the HRP regulation was first promulgated, it has become apparent that certain additional updates are necessary in the sections pertaining to security concerns and the process related to certification review hearings.
The paramount intent of the HRP is to protect national security via the identification of individuals whose judgment and reliability may be impaired by any condition or circumstance that raises safety and/or security concerns. The existing regulation contains language that could be erroneously interpreted to mean that
Because the HRP-certified individuals must meet the highest standards of reliability and physical and mental suitability, the procedures for considering security concerns under part 710 are not adequate to address all security and safety concerns in the context of the HRP. For example, under part 710, the DOE personnel who adjudicate security clearances are not permitted to review the requirements of the individual's job when considering whether to grant, suspend, and/or revoke his security clearance. However, in determining whether to grant HRP certification under part 712, the individual's job and duties are important factors to be considered. In addition, the denial or revocation of HRP certification under part 712 may be based on safety issues that are not relevant to adjudication under 10 CFR part 710, even if the same underlying facts raised security concerns that were fully resolved and/or mitigated for security clearance purposes. As such, we are proposing to revise the part 712 regulation to clarify that security concerns are not to be reviewed solely under the part 710 regulations, but rather can also be reviewed under part 712, utilizing the predictive judgments of the HRP personnel with specific expertise in assessing both safety and security risks.
The proposed part 712 revisions fill a void in the existing regulation by setting forth the evidentiary burden that an individual must meet at a certification review hearing. In addition, in order to provide greater structure to the hearing process, the proposed regulation adopts some of the procedures that are currently applied in the context of administrative review hearings under part 710. Although the content of part 710 hearings is somewhat different from that of part 712 hearings, the process for conducting both types of hearings is similar, which is reflected in the procedures we propose to adopt. Finally, the proposed revisions provide that the Administrative Judge who presides over the certification review hearing must prepare a written decision, rather than a written recommendation, to be provided to the individual and the Manager and which may be appealed by either party.
DOE is publishing this notice of proposed rulemaking (NOPR) to update and clarify the policies and procedures, to include the definition of terms used, that apply to HRP certification. The proposed revisions would update and add to some of the definitions. Additionally, the proposed rule would: (1) Identify the evidentiary burden applicable to an individual requesting a certification review hearing; (2) clarify that a security concern is reviewable under HRP separate from a review pursuant to 10 CFR part 710; (3) eliminate obsolete references; and (4) clarify the processes and procedures during the removal, revocation, hearing, and appeal stages.
The proposed changes to part 712 are summarized below in the order in which they appear:
1. The proposed changes to § 712.2 “Applicability” would add the National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA) to clarify that part 712 applies to both the DOE and the NNSA and delete the last sentence regarding the grandfathering of positions. The last sentence of this section is obsolete because it is no longer necessary to grandfather individuals in from the Personnel Assurance Program (PAP) or the Personnel Security Assurance Program (PSAP). When part 712 was enacted in 2004, it was necessary to include such language since the HRP combined both the PAP and PSAP.
2. In proposed § 712.3 “Definitions,” three new definitions are proposed, a number of current definitions are modified, and one definition is deleted. The proposed rule would add the new definitions: “Case Chronology,” “Evaluative Report,” and “Restoration.” The proposed new definitions “Case Chronology” and “Evaluative Report” relate to new provisions in proposed § 712.19 that are intended to provide clarity and consistency among the programmatic elements administering the HRP. The proposed new definition “Restoration” would provide clarity as to the specific actions that must be taken to return an individual to HRP duties after a cognizant Under Secretary or his/her designee restores an individual's HRP certification. The proposed rule would modify the definitions: “Contractors,” “Designated Physician,” “Designated Psychologist,” “Recertification,” “Reinstatement,” “Safety concern,” “Security concern,” and “Site Occupational Medical Director (SOMD).” The title “Director, Office of Health and Safety” is changed to “Associate Under Secretary for Environment, Health, Safety and Security.”
3. In proposed § 712.10 “Designation of HRP positions,” current § 712.10(b) is modified to replace the title “Chief Health, Safety and Security Officer” with “Associate Under Secretary for Environment, Health, Safety and Security.”
4. In proposed § 712.11 “General requirements for HRP certification,” current § 712.11(a) is modified to delete the word “certification” since it is clear that the requirements set forth in this section relate to requirements for HRP certification or recertification. Current § 712.11(a)(1) is modified to delete the language “based on a background investigation” because it is unnecessary to specify the basis for an access authorization and may preclude other authorized means for DOE to grant an access authorization. Current § 712.11(a)(2) is deleted, as the requirement for an annual security review is already set forth in proposed § 712.11(a)(4), current § 712.11(a)(5). Current § 712.11(a)(5)(i), (ii), and (iii) are deleted and relocated, in substance, to proposed § 712.16(e) and (b), because they fall more logically under the section that describes the personnel security review. Current § 712.11(a)(7) is deleted in the entirety because the requirement for a psychological examination is already captured by the requirement for a medical assessment described in proposed § 712.11(a)(4), current § 712.11(a)(5). The psychological examination is a necessary part of the medical assessment, as is described in proposed § 712.14(f). Proposed § 712.11(a)(6), currently § 712.11(a)(8), deletes the language “in accordance with DOE policies implementing Executive Order 12564 or the relevant provisions of 10 CFR part 707 for DOE contractors, and DOE Order 3792.3, `Drug-Free Federal Workplace Testing Implementation Program,' for DOE employees,” as this is already addressed in proposed § 712.15(b), the subsection that deals with drug testing. Proposed § 712.11(a)(7), currently § 712.11(a)(9),
5. In proposed § 712.12 “HRP implementation,” the deadlines for HRP implementation specified in § 712.12(a) and (b)(1) are deleted, since they occurred over a decade ago and are now obsolete. Current § 712.12(b)(2) is deleted in the entirety, as the HRP management official's responsibilities with respect to temporary removal and reinstatement are already addressed in proposed § 712.19. Current § 712.12(c)(1) is modified to replace the title “Chief Health, Safety and Security Officer” with “Associate Under Secretary for Environment, Health, Safety and Security.” Current § 712.12(d) is deleted in the entirety as the role of the cognizant Under Secretary with respect to final decisions is already addressed in proposed § 712.24. Current § 712.12(e), (f), (g), and (h) are redesignated as proposed § 712.12(d), (e), (f), and (g), respectively. Current § 712.12(e), and proposed as § 712.12(d), is modified to replace the title “Director, Office of Security” with “Associate Under Secretary for Environment, Health, Safety and Security.” Current § 712.12(f)(1), and proposed as § 712.12(e)(1), is modified to replace the title “Director, Office of Security” with “Director, Office of Corporate Security, Strategy Analysis and Special Operations.” Current § 712.12(h)(3) is relocated to proposed § 712.25(a), as it fits more logically under the section that describes the individual's responsibility to cooperate.
6. In proposed § 712.13 “Supervisory review,” proposed § 712.13(b) is modified to clarify that the annual reviews and evaluations by supervisors of HRP-certified individuals are based on any and all information within the supervisor's personal knowledge related to the individual that he or she supervises. Current § 712.13(c) is modified to include an additional type of behavior and/or concern that would indicate a concern for HRP certification. The new proposed language would cover any unusual conduct or circumstance that would tend to show the individual is not reliable. The provisions in current § 712.13(d) that deal with temporary removal are deleted, as those procedures are already addressed in proposed §§ 712.14 and 712.19. The provisions of current § 712.13(d) concerning immediate removal are replaced with the substance of current § 712.19(a) and § 712.13(e), which identify the circumstances under which immediate removal is required. The provisions of current § 712.13(e) that identifies the circumstance under which immediate removal is required are relocated to proposed § 712.13(d), with the clarification that the requirement to immediately remove applies to all individuals and not just Federal employees. Additionally, proposed § 712.13(e) deletes language mandating a certain personnel action, such as a temporary reassignment, when an individual is immediately removed. Current § 712.13(f) is deleted in its entirety and its substance is relocated and merged with current § 712.15(c), the paragraph that deals with alcohol testing. Proposed § 712.13(f) is added to specify the actions to be taken in connection with an immediate removal. This language, which can be found at current § 712.19(a), fits more logically in § 712.13, which addresses the role of the supervisor. Proposed § 712.13(f) is modified from the language in current § 712.19(a) to eliminate the requirement by the supervisor to notify the individual of the immediate removal. Instead, notification to the individual is to be provided by the management official upon temporary removal consistent with proposed § 712.19.
7. In proposed § 712.14 “Medical assessment,” the last sentence of current § 712.14(c) describing the responsibilities of the Designated Physician or SOMD when a security concern is identified is deleted, as these responsibilities are already addressed in proposed § 712.19. Current § 712.14(f)(1) and (f)(3) are modified to replace the titles “Director, Office of Health and Safety” with “Associate Under Secretary for Environment, Health, Safety and Security.” Current § 712.14(h) is modified to delete “for concurrence” in the second to last sentence as the responsibilities of the Designated Physician, Designated Psychologist, and the SOMD to make a written recommendation as to reinstating or removing a medical restriction are already set forth clearly and the terms “for concurrence” is not necessary. Additionally, current § 712.14(j) would delete “required” and add in its place “recommended” to clarify that the determination to temporarily remove an individual from HRP duties would be made by the management official upon the recommendation of the Designated Physician, Designated Psychologist, or the SOMD.
8. In proposed § 712.15 “Management evaluation,” proposed § 712.15(a) is modified to clarify that the HRP management official must act in accordance with the procedures for temporary removal, set forth in proposed § 712.19, upon the identification of a safety or a security concern with respect to an HRP-certified individual. Additionally, proposed § 712.15(a) is modified to delete any requirement that the supervisor temporarily reassign an individual to non-HRP duties upon immediate removal. Proposed § 712.15(b) is modified to clarify that if an HRP-certified individual refuses to submit to a drug test, or if the individual submits to the test but the results are not favorable, the supervisor must immediately remove the individual from HRP and take the actions specified in proposed § 712.13(f). Proposed § 712.15(c) is modified to incorporate the substance of current § 712.13(f), which deals with alcohol testing, as discussed in this preamble and to clarify that if an HRP-certified individual's test result is at or above a certain level, then the supervisor should take actions consistent with § 712.13(f).
9. The title of proposed § 712.16 is changed from “DOE security review” to “Security review.” Proposed § 712.16(a) is modified to eliminate the requirement that the security review be initiated only after the medical assessment and management evaluations are completed. Proposed § 712.16(b) is modified to incorporate the content of current § 712.11(a)(5)(ii) and (iii), with the exception of the last clause of paragraph (a)(5)(iii) which is deleted. Additionally proposed § 712.16(b) is modified to delete the reference to the 10 CFR part 710 criteria since the criteria were eliminated in a recent proposed amendment to 10 CFR part 710. The last sentence of current § 712.16(b) is deleted to clarify that security concerns may be addressed by HRP officials in accordance with HRP reliability
10. In proposed § 712.17 “Instructional requirements,” proposed § 712.17(b)(1) is modified to clarify the type of medical conditions that need to be reported by each individual in the HRP.
11. The title of proposed § 712.19 is modified to “Actions related to Removal, Revocation and/or Reinstatement.” Current § 712.19(a) is relocated to proposed § 712.13(f), as described in this preamble, under the section that describes the roles and responsibilities of the supervisor. Proposed § 712.19(a) incorporates the substance of current § 712.19(c)(1) and sets forth additional circumstances under which the HRP management official must temporarily remove an individual from HRP. These circumstances include when the HRP management official has identified a concern during the management evaluation (as set forth in proposed § 712.15), when the individual has been immediately removed by the supervisor (in accordance with proposed § 712.13), or when temporary removal has been recommended by a medical professional associated with the HRP (under proposed § 712.14). Language is added to current § 712.19(b) which requires the HRP management official to notify the individual, in writing, that s/he is temporarily removed. Current § 712.19(c)(2) is redesignated as proposed § 712.19(c) and is modified with the deletion of the last sentence. Current § 712.19(c)(3) is redesignated as proposed § 712.19(d) and is modified to require that the HRP management official obtain a recommendation from an HRP medical professional if temporary removal was based on a concern that is medical-related, and to delete the requirement that the management official prepare a written report of the evaluation. Current § 712.19(c)(4) is redesignated as proposed § 712.19(e) and is modified to clarify the actions to be taken by the HRP management official upon determining that an individual who was temporarily removed continues to meet the requirements for HRP certification. Current § 712.19(c)(5) is redesignated as proposed § 712.19(f) and is modified to state that if the HRP management official makes a determination that an individual does not meet HRP certification requirements, then a case chronology that explains why the individual does not meet the requirement for certification must be prepared for the HRP certifying official and, further, that the HRP management official's determination must be based on one or more of the types of behaviors and conditions identified in proposed § 712.13(c). Proposed § 712.19(f)(1) is modified to clarify that the individual must be notified if his or her HRP certification is reinstated by the HRP certifying official. Proposed § 712.19(f)(3) is modified to clarify the process to be followed should an HRP certifying official recommend revocation of an individual's certification in the HRP, including the preparation of an evaluative report and a role for the appropriate DOE or NNSA counsel, as well as a course of action to be followed if the HRP certifying official is the same person as the Manager. Current § 712.19(d) is redesignated as proposed § 712.19(g) and is modified to replace the phrase “written report” with the proposed concepts “case chronology” and “evaluative report” and to clarify the requirement that the individual be notified if his or her HRP certification is reinstated by the Manager. Current § 712.19(e) is merged with current § 712.19(g), as both paragraphs deal with actions to be taken upon a decision to revoke, and is redesignated as proposed § 712.19(h). Current § 712.19(f) is redesignated as proposed § 712.19(i) and is modified to reflect that the HRP certifying official, in addition to the Manager, can direct that an individual take certain actions to attempt to resolve HRP concerns and to clarify the process to be followed once those actions have been completed.
12. In proposed § 712.20, “Request for reconsideration or certification review hearing,” proposed § 712.20 is modified to delete paragraph (a)(1) and relocate the substance to proposed new paragraph (d) and to further clarify that a failure to take action in response to the Manager's decision to revoke HRP certification means that the Manager's decision becomes a final agency decision. Proposed § 712.20(b) is modified to clarify that a “final decision” refers to a “final agency decision” and to delete the final sentence, so as not to unreasonably limit the information relied upon by the Manager in issuing a final decision.
13. Proposed § 712.21 clarifies the process for appointing DOE counsel when an individual requests a certification review hearing. This requirement and language is consistent with the procedures that pertain to administrative review hearings under 10 CFR part 710. Proposed § 712.21(a) is modified to replace the reference to the local Chief Counsel and the General Counsel with a general description requiring appointment of counsel so that this regulation will not be outdated if there is a change to titles and organizations in DOE.
14. Current § 712.21 is redesignated as proposed § 712.22 in accordance with the addition of proposed § 712.21. The term “hearing officer” is replaced throughout this section, and wherever it appears in this part, with “Administrative Judge” for the reasons set forth in 78 FR 52389 (Aug. 23, 2013). Proposed § 712.22(a) is modified to specify who is responsible for appointing an Administrative Judge. Proposed § 712.22(d) is added to establish the individual's burden at a certification review hearing. For purposes of due process, it is critical that the individual whose HRP certification has been revoked fully understand the nature and scope of evidence that he or she must present. “Specifically, the individual must present evidence to show that the revocation decision was either clearly erroneous or that extraordinary circumstances warrant recertification into HRP. The individual cannot satisfy this burden upon a showing that DOE's security or safety concerns have been mitigated during the time since the decision was made to revoke. Rather, the individual must point to a clear factual error underlying that decision or to some circumstance that is so extraordinary that it warrants reversal of the decision. This is a more burdensome standard to meet than the standard applicable to security clearance hearings under 10 CFR part 710, but it is consistent with the objective that HRP-certified individuals meet the highest standards of reliability as well as physical and mental suitability. Proposed § 712.22(e) is added to clarify the DOE counsel's role at the certification review hearing, which is consistent with the DOE counsel's role
Current § 712.22(e) is redesignated as proposed § 712.22(f) in accordance with the addition of proposed § 712.22(e). Proposed § 712.22(f)(1), (2) and (7) and § 712.22(g) and (h) are added to clarify the responsibilities and authority of the Administrative Judges who perform certification review hearings. The added language is consistent with the responsibilities and authorities of the Administrative Judges who perform administrative review hearings under 10 CFR part 710. Proposed § 712.22(i) is added to clarify the Administrative Judge's responsibility to prepare a decision, and what the decision must contain. Proposed § 712.22(i) also directs the Administrative Judge to ensure that any doubt as to an individual's certification shall be resolved against the individual in favor of national security and/or safety. This direction to err on the side of security and safety is consistent with a similar provision in 10 CFR part 710 and Executive Order 12968 (Aug. 4, 1995).
15. Current § 712.22 is redesignated as proposed § 712.23 in accordance with the addition of proposed § 712.21. The title is modified to reflect that a decision, not a recommendation, is issued by the Administrative Judge at the conclusion of the hearing. The position of “Chief Health Safety and Security Officer” is replaced through this section, and wherever it appears in this part, with “Associate Under Secretary for Environment, Health, Safety, and Security” to reflect organizational changes within the Department. The first sentence of proposed § 712.23(a) is modified to state simply that the Administrative Judge's decision be forwarded to the Associate Under Secretary for Environment, Health, Safety and Security, as the contents of this decision are already described in proposed § 712.22(i). Further, the term “must” is replaced with “should” in order to clarify that issuance of the decision within 30 calendar days is an aspiration rather than a requirement. In addition, the proposed § 712.23 would no longer require the Associate Under Secretary for Environment, Health, Safety, and Security to make a recommendation to recertify or revoke the certification of an individual in the HRP. Instead, a new proposed paragraph (b) requires the Associate Under Secretary for Environment, Health, Safety, and Security to notify the individual and the Manager of the Administrative Judge's decision and the appeal procedures available, and to provide them a copy of the Administrative Judge's decision and the administrative record. A new proposed paragraph (c) provides the individual and the Manager the right to file a written request for further review of the Administrative Judge's decision with the cognizant Under Secretary. A new proposed paragraph (d) requires the Manager to provide the individual with a copy of any request for further review filed by the Manager. A new proposed paragraph (e) requires the request for review to include a statement identifying the issues on which the cognizant Under Secretary should focus. A new proposed paragraph (f) clarifies that the Administrative Judge's decisions become final if neither the individual nor the Manager files a written request for review of the decision. The provisions of proposed § 712.23 are generally consistent with the procedures for notification and appeal of an Administrative Judge's decision in a security clearance hearing under 10 CFR part 710.
16. Current § 712.23 is redesignated as proposed § 712.24 in accordance with the addition of proposed § 712.21. A new proposed paragraph (a) would require the Associate Under Secretary for Environment, Health, Safety, and Security to forward the request for review, the Administrative Judge's decision and the administrative record to the cognizant Under Secretary. Proposed paragraph (b) would delete the 20-working day requirement in order to ensure that the cognizant Under Secretary has sufficient time to render a final decision. Proposed paragraph (b) is further modified to allow the cognizant Under Secretary to delegate the authority to issue a final decision, and to require that final decisions expressly state whether the individual's certification is revoked or restored, in order to avoid any possible confusion. A new proposed paragraph (c) would clarify that the cognizant Under Secretary's decision shall be based only on evidence and information in the administrative record at the time of the Administrative Judge's decision.
17. Proposed § 712.25 is added to require HRP candidates and HRP-certified individuals to cooperate in all aspects of the HRP process. Proposed § 712.25(a), in addition to incorporating current § 712.12(h)(3), as described above, specifies that failure to cooperate may result in a determination not to grant HRP certification, for candidates, or revocation, for HRP-certified individuals. Proposed § 712.25(b) establishes a process by which an HRP-certified individual whose certification was revoked for failure to cooperate may request that the Manager reconsider this decision. This reconsideration process is modelled after a similar process set forth in DOE's security clearance regulations at 10 CFR part 710.
The regulatory action proposed today has been determined not to be a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review,” 58 FR 51735 (October 4, 1993). Accordingly, this proposed rule is not subject to review under the Executive Order by the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs within the Office of Management and Budget.
DOE has also reviewed the proposed regulation pursuant to Executive Order 13563, issued on January 18, 2011 (76 FR 3281 (Jan. 21, 2011)). Executive Order 13563 is supplemental to and explicitly reaffirms the principles, structures, and definitions governing regulatory review established in Executive Order 12866. To the extent permitted by law, agencies are required by Executive Order 13563 to: (1) Propose or adopt a regulation only upon a reasoned determination that its benefits justify its costs (recognizing that some benefits and costs are difficult to quantify); (2) tailor regulations to impose the least burden on society, consistent with obtaining regulatory objectives, taking into account, among other things, and to the extent practicable, the costs of cumulative regulations; (3) select, in choosing among alternative regulatory approaches, those approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity); (4) to the extent feasible, specify performance objectives, rather than specifying the behavior or manner of compliance that regulated entities must adopt; and (5) identify and assess available alternatives to direct regulation, including providing economic incentives to encourage the desired behavior, such as user fees or marketable permits, or providing information upon which choices can be made by the public.
DOE emphasizes as well that Executive Order 13563 requires agencies to use the best available techniques to quantify anticipated present and future benefits and costs as accurately as possible. In its guidance, the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has emphasized that such techniques may include identifying changing future compliance costs that might result from
DOE has concluded that promulgation of this proposed rule falls into a class of actions which would not individually or cumulatively have significant impact on the human environment, as determined by DOE's regulations (10 CFR part 1021, subpart D) implementing the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
This proposed rule would amend procedures that apply to the certification of individuals in the HRP. The proposed rule applies to individuals, and would not apply to “small entities,” as that term is defined in the Regulatory Flexibility Act. As a result, if adopted, the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
Accordingly, DOE certifies that the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, and, therefore, no regulatory flexibility analysis is required.
This proposed rule does not impose a collection of information requirement subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4) generally requires a Federal agency to perform a detailed assessment of costs and benefits of any rule imposing a Federal Mandate with costs to State, local or tribal governments, or to the private sector, of $100 million or more. This rulemaking does not impose a Federal mandate on State, local or tribal governments or on the private sector.
Section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 1999 (Pub. L. 105-277), requires Federal agencies to issue a Family Policymaking Assessment for any rule or policy that may affect family well-being. The proposed rule, if adopted, will have no impact on family well-being. Accordingly, DOE has concluded that it is not necessary to prepare a Family Policymaking Assessment.
Executive Order 13132, 64 FR 43255 (August 4, 1999), imposes certain requirements on agencies formulating and implementing policies or regulations that preempt State law or that have federalism implications. Agencies are required to examine the constitutional and statutory authority supporting any action that would limit the policymaking discretion of the States and carefully assess the necessity for such actions. DOE has examined this proposed rule and has determined that it does not preempt State law and, if adopted, would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. No further action is required by Executive Order 13132.
With respect to the review of existing regulations and the promulgation of new regulations, section 3(a) of Executive Order 12988, “Civil Justice Reform,” 61 FR 4729 (February 7, 1996), imposes on Executive agencies the general duty to adhere to the following requirements: (1) Eliminate drafting errors and ambiguity; (2) write regulations to minimize litigation; and (3) provide a clear legal standard for affected conduct rather than a general standard and promote simplification and burden reduction.
With regard to the review required by section 3(a), section 3(b) of Executive Order 12988 specifically requires that Executive agencies make every reasonable effort to ensure that the regulation: (1) Clearly specifies the preemptive effect, if any; (2) clearly specifies any effect on existing Federal law or regulation; (3) provides a clear legal standard for affected conduct while promoting simplification and burden reduction; (4) specifies the retroactive effect, if any; (5) adequately defines key terms; and (6) addresses other important issues affecting clarity and general draftsmanship under any guidelines issued by the Attorney General. Section 3(c) of Executive Order 12988 requires Executive agencies to review regulations in light of applicable standards in section 3(a) and section 3(b) to determine whether they are met or it is unreasonable to meet one or more of them. DOE has completed the required review and determined that, to the extent permitted by law, this proposed regulation meet the relevant standards of Executive Order 12988.
The Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 2001 (44 U.S.C. 3516, note) provides for agencies to review most disseminations of information to the public under implementing guidelines established by each agency pursuant to general guidelines issued by OMB. OMB's guidelines were published at 67 FR 8452 (February 22, 2002), and DOE's guidelines were published at 67 FR 62446 (October 7, 2002). DOE has reviewed this proposed rule under the OMB and DOE guidelines and has concluded that it is consistent with applicable policies in those guidelines.
Executive Order 13211, “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use,” 66 FR 28355 (May 22, 2001), requires Federal agencies to prepare and submit to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs
The Office of the Secretary of Energy has approved the publication of this proposed rule.
Administrative practice and procedure, Alcohol abuse, Classified information, Drug abuse, Government contracts, Government employees, Health, Occupational safety and health, Radiation protection, and Security measures.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, DOE proposes to amend part 712 of title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations to read as follows:
42 U.S.C. 2165; 42 U.S.C. 2201; 42 U.S.C. 5814-5815; 42 U.S.C. 7101
This part establishes the policies and procedures for a Human Reliability Program (HRP) in the Department of Energy (DOE), including the National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA). The HRP is a security and safety reliability program designed to ensure that individuals who occupy positions affording access to certain materials, nuclear explosive devices, facilities, and programs meet the highest standards of reliability and physical and mental suitability. This objective is accomplished under this part through a system of continuous evaluation that identifies individuals whose judgment and reliability may be impaired by physical or mental/personality disorders, alcohol abuse, use of illegal drugs or the abuse of legal drugs or other substances, or any other condition or circumstance that may be of a security or safety concern.
The HRP applies to all applicants for, or current employees of DOE or NNSA or a DOE or NNSA contractor or subcontractor in a position defined or designated under § 712.10 of this subpart as an HRP position.
The following definitions are used in this part:
(1) A situation that may provide an individual proximity to or control over Category I special nuclear material (SNM); or
(2) The proximity to a nuclear explosive and/or Category I SNM that allows the opportunity to divert, steal, tamper with, and/or damage the nuclear explosive or material in spite of any controls that have been established to prevent such unauthorized actions.
(1) Medical history review;
(2) Job task analysis;
(3) Physical examination;
(4) Appropriate laboratory tests and measurements; and
(5) Appropriate psychological and psychiatric evaluations.
(1) Injury or fatality to any person involving actions of a DOE employee or contractor employee;
(2) An explosion, fire, spread of radioactive material, personal injury or death, or damage to property that involves nuclear explosives under DOE jurisdiction;
(3) Accidental release of pollutants that results from, or could result in, a significant effect on the public or environment; or
(4) Accidental release of radioactive material above regulatory limits.
(a) HRP certification is required for each individual assigned to, or applying for, a position that:
(1) Affords access to Category I SNM or has responsibility for transportation or protection of Category I quantities of SNM;
(2) Involves nuclear explosive duties or has responsibility for working with, protecting, or transporting nuclear explosives, nuclear devices, or selected components;
(3) Affords access to information concerning vulnerabilities in protective systems when transporting nuclear explosives, nuclear devices, selected components, or Category I quantities of SNM; or
(4) Is not included in paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section but affords the potential to significantly impact national security or cause unacceptable damage and is approved pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) The Manager or the HRP management official may nominate positions for the HRP that are not specified in paragraphs (a)(1) through
(c) Before nominating a position for designation as an HRP position, the Manager or the HRP management official must analyze the risks the position poses for the particular operational program. If the analysis shows that more restrictive physical, administrative, or other controls could be implemented that would prevent the position from being designated an HRP position, those controls will be implemented, if practicable.
(d) Nothing in this part prohibits contractors from establishing stricter employment standards for individuals who are nominated to DOE for certification or recertification in the HRP.
(a) The following requirements apply to each individual applying for or in an HRP position:
(1) A DOE “Q” access authorization;
(2) Signed releases, acknowledgments, and waivers to participate in the HRP on forms provided by DOE;
(3) Completion of initial and annual HRP instruction as provided in § 712.17;
(4) Successful completion of an initial and annual supervisory review, medical assessment, management evaluation, and a DOE personnel security review;
(5) No use of any hallucinogen in the preceding 5 years and no experience of flashback resulting from the use of any hallucinogen more than 5 years before applying for certification or recertification;
(6) An initial drug test and random drug tests for the use of illegal drugs at least once each 12 months;
(7) An initial alcohol test and random alcohol tests at least once each 12 months; and
(8) Successful completion of a counterintelligence evaluation, which may include a counterintelligence-scope polygraph examination in accordance with DOE's Polygraph Examination Regulation, 10 CFR part 709, and any subsequent revisions to that regulation.
(b) Each HRP candidate must be certified in the HRP before being assigned to HRP duties and must be recertified annually, not to exceed 12 months between recertifications.
(c) Individuals in newly identified HRP positions must immediately sign the releases, acknowledgments, and waivers to participate in the HRP and complete initial instruction on the importance of security, safety, reliability, and suitability. If these requirements are not met, the individual must be removed from the HRP position. All remaining HRP requirements listed in paragraph (a) of this section must be completed in an expedited manner.
(d) Alcohol consumption is prohibited within an eight-hour period preceding scheduled work for individuals performing nuclear explosive duties and for individuals in specific positions designated by either the Manager, the NNSA Administrator, his or her designee, or the appropriate Lead Program Secretarial Officer, or his or her designee.
(e) Individuals reporting for unscheduled nuclear explosive duties and those specific positions designated by either the Manager, the NNSA Administrator or his or her designee, or the appropriate Lead Program Secretarial Officer, or his or her designee, will be asked prior to performing any type of work if they have consumed alcohol within the preceding eight-hour period. If they answer “no,” they may perform their assigned duties but still may be tested.
(f) Any doubt as to an HRP candidate's or HRP certified individual's eligibility for certification shall be resolved against the candidate or individual in favor of national security and/or safety.
(a) The implementation of the HRP is the responsibility of the appropriate Manager or his or her designee.
(b) The HRP Management Official must prepare an HRP implementation plan and submit it to the applicable Manager for review and approval. The implementation plan must:
(1) Be reviewed and updated every 2 years;
(2) Include the four annual components of the HRP process: Supervisory review, medical assessment, management evaluation (which includes random drug and alcohol testing), and a DOE personnel security determination; and
(3) Include the HRP instruction and education component described in § 712.17 of this part.
(c) The Deputy Administrator for Defense Programs, NNSA must:
(1) Provide advice and assistance to the Associate Under Secretary for Environment, Health, Safety and Security regarding policies, standards, and guidance for all nuclear explosive duty requirements; and
(2) Be responsible for implementation of all nuclear explosive duty safety requirements.
(d) The Associate Under Secretary for Environment, Health, Safety and Security, or designee, is responsible for HRP policy and must:
(1) Ensure consistency of the HRP throughout the DOE and NNSA;
(2) Review and comment on all HRP implementation plans to ensure consistency with policy; and
(3) Provide policies and guidance, including instructional materials, to NNSA and non-NNSA field elements concerning the HRP, as appropriate.
(e) The Manager must:
(1) Review and approve the HRP implementation plan for sites/facilities under their cognizance and forward the plan to the Director, Office of Corporate Security Strategy, Analysis and Special Operations, or designee; and
(2) Ensure that the HRP is implemented at the sites/facilities under their cognizance.
(f) The HRP certifying official must:
(1) Approve placement, certification, reinstatement, and recertification of individuals into HRP positions; for unresolved temporary removals, follow the process in § 712.19(f);
(2) Ensure that instructional requirements are implemented;
(3) Immediately notify (for the purpose of limiting access) the appropriate HRP management official of a personnel security action that results in the suspension of access authorization; and
(4) Ensure that the supervisory review, medical assessment, and management evaluation, including drug and alcohol testing, are conducted on an annual basis (not to exceed 12 months).
(g) Individuals assigned to HRP duties must:
(1) Execute HRP releases, acknowledgments, and waivers to facilitate the collection and dissemination of information, the performance of drug and alcohol testing, and medical examinations;
(2) Notify the Designated Physician, the Designated Psychologist, or the SOMD immediately of a physical or mental condition requiring medication or treatment;
(3) Report any observed or reported behavior or condition of another HRP-certified individual that could indicate a reliability concern, including those behaviors and conditions listed in § 712.13(c), to a supervisor, the Designated Physician, the Designated Psychologist, the SOMD, or the HRP management official; and
(4) Report to a supervisor, the Designated Physician, the Designated Psychologist, the SOMD, or the HRP management official, any behavior or condition, including those listed in § 712.13(c), that may affect his or her ability to perform HRP duties.
(a) The supervisor must ensure that each HRP candidate and each individual occupying an HRP position but not yet HRP certified executes the appropriate HRP releases, acknowledgments, and waivers. If these documents are not executed:
(1) The request for HRP certification may not be further processed until these requirements are completed; and
(2) The individual is immediately removed from the position.
(b) Each supervisor of HRP-certified personnel must conduct an annual review of each HRP-certified individual during which the supervisor must evaluate information, based on his or her personal knowledge that is relevant to the individual's suitability to perform HRP tasks in a reliable and safe manner.
(c) The supervisor must report any concerns resulting from his or her review to the appropriate HRP management official. Types of behavior and conditions that would indicate a concern include, but are not limited to:
(1) Psychological or physical disorders that impair performance of assigned duties;
(2) Conduct that warrants referral for a criminal investigation or results in arrest or conviction;
(3) Indications of deceitful or delinquent behavior;
(4) Attempted or threatened destruction of property or life;
(5) Suicidal tendencies or attempted suicide;
(6) Use of illegal drugs or the abuse of legal drugs or other substances;
(7) Alcohol use disorders;
(8) Recurring financial irresponsibility;
(9) Irresponsibility in performing assigned duties;
(10) Inability to deal with stress, or the appearance of being under unusual stress;
(11) Failure to comply with work directives, hostility or aggression toward fellow workers or authority, uncontrolled anger, violation of safety or security procedures, or repeated absenteeism;
(12) Significant behavioral changes, moodiness, depression, or other evidence of loss of emotional control; and
(13) Any unusual conduct or being subject to any circumstances which tend to show that the individual is not reliable.
(d) A supervisor must immediately remove an individual from HRP duties:
(1) When the supervisor has a reasonable belief that the individual is not reliable, based on either a safety or security concern;
(2) When the individual does not obtain HRP recertification; or
(3) When requested to do so by the HRP certifying official.
(e) The supervisor must contact the appropriate personnel office for guidance as to any actions that should occur as a result of the immediate removal.
(f)
(1) Require the individual to stop performing HRP duties;
(2) Take action to ensure the individual is denied both escorted and unescorted access to the material access areas; and
(3) Notify, within 24 hours, the HRP management official of the immediate removal. The HRP management official shall take actions consistent with § 712.19.
(a)
(1) Represents a security concern; or
(2) Has a condition that may prevent the individual from performing HRP duties in a reliable and safe manner.
(b)
(2) The Designated Physician and other examiners working under the direction of the Designated Physician also will conduct an evaluation:
(i) If an HRP-certified individual requests an evaluation (
(ii) If an HRP-certified individual is referred by management for an evaluation.
(c)
(d)
(1) Physical or medical disabilities, such as a lack of visual acuity, defective color vision, impaired hearing, musculoskeletal deformities, and neuromuscular impairment;
(2) Mental/personality disorders or behavioral problems, including alcohol and other substance use disorders, as described in the
(3) Use of illegal drugs or the abuse of legal drugs or other substances, as identified by self-reporting or by medical or psychological evaluation or testing;
(4) Threat of suicide, homicide, or physical harm; or
(5) Medical conditions such as cardiovascular disease, endocrine disease, cerebrovascular or other neurologic disease, or the use of drugs for the treatment of conditions that may adversely affect the judgment or ability of an individual to perform assigned duties in a reliable and safe manner.
(e)
(f)
(1) For initial HRP certification. This psychological evaluation consists of a psychological assessment (test), approved by the Associate Under Secretary for Environment, Health, Safety and Security or his or her designee, and a semi-structured interview.
(2) For recertification. This psychological evaluation consists of a semi-structured interview. A psychological assessment (test) may also be conducted as warranted.
(3) Every third year. The medical assessment for recertification must include a psychological assessment (test) approved by the Associate Under Secretary for Environment, Health,
(4) When additional psychological or psychiatric evaluations are required by the SOMD to resolve any concerns.
(g)
(h)
(i)
(2) The HRP certifying official may reinstate HRP certification of an individual who successfully completes an SOMD-approved drug or alcohol rehabilitation program. Recertification is based on the SOMD's follow-up evaluation and recommendation. The individual is also subject to unannounced follow-up tests for illegal drugs or alcohol and relevant counseling for 3 years.
(j)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) Breath alcohol testing must be conducted by a certified breath alcohol technician and conform to the DOT procedures (49 CFR part 40, Procedures for Transportation Workplace Drug and Alcohol Testing Programs, subparts J through N) for use of an evidential-grade breath analysis device approved for 0.02/0.04 cutoff levels, which conforms to the DOT model specifications and the most recent “Conforming Products List” issued by NHTSA.
(2) An individual required to undergo DOT alcohol testing is subject to the regulations of the DOT. If such an individual's blood alcohol level exceeds DOT standards, the individual's employer may take appropriate disciplinary action.
(3) The following constitutes a refusal to submit to a test and shall be considered as a positive alcohol concentration test of 0.02 percent, which requires the individual be sent home and not allowed to perform HRP duties for 24 hours:
(i) Failure to appear for unannounced testing within 2 hours of notification (or established shorter time for the specific site);
(ii) Failure to provide an adequate volume of breath in 2 attempts without a valid medical excuse; and
(iii) Engaging in conduct that clearly obstructs the testing process, including failure to cooperate with reasonable instructions provided by the testing technician.
(d)
(i) Testing for the use of illegal drugs in accordance with the provisions of the DOE policies implementing Executive Order 12564, and 10 CFR part 707 or DOE Order 3792.3, which establish workplace substance abuse programs for contractor and DOE employees, respectively.
(ii) Testing for use of alcohol in accordance with this section.
(2) Testing must be performed as soon as possible after an occurrence that requires immediate notification or reporting.
(3) The supervisor must immediately remove an HRP-certified individual from HRP duties if the individual refuses to undergo the testing required by this subsection.
(e)
(2) Reasonable suspicion must be based on an articulable belief, drawn from facts and reasonable inferences from those particular facts that an HRP-certified individual is in possession of, or under the influence of, an illegal drug or alcohol. Such a belief may be based on, among other things:
(i) Observable phenomena, such as direct observation of the use or possession of illegal drugs or alcohol, or the physical symptoms of being under the influence of drugs or alcohol;
(ii) A pattern of abnormal conduct or erratic behavior;
(iii) Information provided by a reliable and credible source that is independently corroborated; or
(iv) Detection of alcohol odor on the breath.
(f)
(a) A personnel security specialist must review the personnel security file of every HRP candidate and every HRP-certified individual up for certification or recertification.
(b) If the personnel security file review is favorable, this information must be forwarded to the HRP certifying official and so noted on the certification form. If the review reveals a security concern, or if a security concern is identified during another component of the HRP process, the HRP certifying official must be notified, and the personnel security specialist must evaluate the concern in accordance with 10 CFR part 710. If a final determination is made by DOE personnel security to suspend access authorization, the HRP management official must be notified, the individual shall be immediately removed from the HRP position, the HRP certifying official notified, and the information noted on the certification form.
(c) A favorable adjudication of security concerns under 10 CFR part 710 does not require granting or continuing HRP certification. Security concerns can be reviewed and evaluated for purposes of granting or continuing HRP certification even if the concerns have been favorably resolved under part 710.
(d) Any mental/personality disorder or behavioral issues found in a personnel security file, which could impact an HRP candidate or HRP-certified individual's ability to perform HRP duties, may be provided in writing to the SOMD, Designated Physician, and Designated Psychologist previously identified for receipt of this information. Medical personnel may not share any information obtained from the personnel security file with anyone who is not an HRP certifying official, except as consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974.
(e) If the DOE personnel security review is not completed within the 12-month time period for recertification and the individual's access authorization is not suspended, the HRP certification form shall be forwarded to the HRP certifying official for recertification or temporary removal, pending completion of the personnel security review.
(a) HRP management officials at each DOE site or facility with HRP positions must establish an initial and annual HRP instruction and education program. The program must provide:
(1) HRP candidates, HRP-certified individuals, supervisors, and managers, and supervisors and managers responsible for HRP positions with the knowledge described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
(2) For all HRP medical personnel, a detailed explanation of HRP duties and responsibilities.
(b) The following program elements must be included in initial and annual instruction. The elements may be tailored to accommodate group differences and refresher training needs:
(1) The objectives of the HRP and the role and responsibilities of each individual in the HRP to include recognizing and responding to behavioral change and aberrant or unusual behavior that may result in a risk to national security or nuclear explosive safety; recognizing and reporting safety and/or security concerns, physical, mental, or emotional conditions that could adversely affect the performance of HRP duties or that require treatment by a doctor, physician's assistant or other health care professional; and prescription drug use; and an explanation of return-to-work requirements and continuous evaluation of HRP participants; and
(2) For those who have nuclear explosive responsibilities, a detailed explanation of duties and safety requirements.
(a) For HRP certification to be transferred, the individual must currently be certified in the HRP.
(b) Transferring the HRP certification from one site to another requires the following before the individual is allowed to perform HRP duties at the new site:
(1) Verify that the individual is currently certified in the HRP and is transferring into a designated HRP position;
(2) Incorporate the individual into the new site's alcohol and drug-testing program;
(3) Ensure that the 12-month time period for HRP requirements that was established at the prior site is not exceeded; and
(4) Provide site-specific instruction.
(c) Temporary assignment to HRP positions at other sites requires verification that the individual is currently enrolled in the HRP and has completed all site-specific instruction. The individual is required to return to the site that maintains his or her HRP certification for recertification.
(a)
(1) Identifies, during the course of the management evaluation, a safety or security concern that warrants such removal;
(2) Receives a supervisor's written notice of the immediate removal of an HRP-certified individual; or
(3) Receives a recommendation from the Designated Physician, the Designated Psychologist, or the SOMD to medically remove an HRP-certified individual consistent with § 712.14(h).
(b) The temporary removal of an HRP-certified individual from HRP duties pending a determination of the individual's reliability is an interim, precautionary action and does not constitute a determination that the individual is not fit to perform his or her required duties. Removal is not, in itself, cause for loss of pay, benefits, or other changes in employment status. Within five (5) business days of placing the individual on a temporary removal, the HRP management official must notify the individual in writing that s/he is temporarily removed.
(c) If temporary removal is based on derogatory information that is a security concern, the HRP management official must notify the HRP certifying official and the applicable DOE personnel security office.
(d) If temporary removal is based on a medical concern, the HRP management official must obtain a recommendation from the Designated Physician, Designated Psychologist, or the SOMD consistent with § 712.14(h).
(e) If the HRP management official determines, after conducting an evaluation of the circumstances or information that led to the temporary removal, that an individual who has been temporarily removed continues to meet the requirements for certification, the HRP management official must:
(1) Direct that the supervisor reinstate the individual and provide written explanation of the reasons and factual bases for the action;
(2) Notify the individual; and
(3) Notify the HRP certifying official.
(f) If the HRP management official determines that an individual who has been temporarily removed does not meet the HRP requirements for certification, the HRP management official must prepare a case chronology that explains why the individual does not meet the requirement for certification and forward it to the HRP certifying official. The HRP management official's determination that an individual does not meet certification requirement must be based on one or more of types of behaviors and conditions identified in § 712.13(c). The HRP certifying official must review the case chronology from the HRP management official and take one of the following actions:
(1) Direct that the supervisor reinstate the individual, with any applicable medical restrictions, provide written explanation of the reasons and factual bases for the action, and notify the individual;
(2) Direct continuation of the temporary removal pending completion of specified actions (
(3) Recommend to the Manager the revocation of the individual's certification, direct the HRP management official to prepare an evaluative report, and provide the case chronology and the evaluative report, when completed, to the Manager. If the HRP certifying official is the Manager, he or she should direct the HRP management official to prepare the evaluative report and then take actions consistent with paragraph (h)(2) of this section. The appropriate DOE or NNSA counsel must review the evaluative report for legal sufficiency.
(g) The Manager, on receiving the HRP management official's case chronology and evaluative report, and the HRP certifying official's recommendation (if any), must take one of the following actions:
(1) Direct that the supervisor reinstate the individual, provide written explanation of the reasons and factual bases for the action, and notify the individual;
(2) Direct revocation of the individual's HRP certification; or
(3) Direct continuation of the temporary removal pending completion of specified actions (
(h)
(i) If an individual is directed by the Manager or HRP certifying official to take specified actions to resolve HRP concerns pursuant to § 712.19(f)(2) or (g)(3) he or she must be reevaluated after those actions have been completed, and the Manager must direct either:
(1) Reinstatement of the individual; or
(2) Revocation of the individual's HRP certification. In the case of revocation, the HRP management official will be directed to make any appropriate revisions to the evaluative report.
(a) An individual who receives notification of the Manager's decision to revoke his or her HRP certification may choose one of the following options:
(1) Submit a written request to the Manager for reconsideration of the decision to revoke certification. The request must include the individual's response to the information that gave rise to the concern. The request must be sent by certified mail to the Manager within 20 working days after the individual received notice of the Manager's decision; or
(2) Submit a written request to the Manager for a certification review hearing. The request for a hearing must be sent by certified mail to the Manager within 20 working days after the individual receives notice of the Manager's decision.
(b) If an individual requests reconsideration by the Manager but not a certification review hearing, the Manager must, within 20 working days after receipt of the individual's request, send by certified mail (return receipt requested) a final agency decision to the individual.
(c) If an individual requests a certification review hearing, the Manager must forward the request to the Office of Hearings and Appeals.
(d) If an individual takes no action within 20 working days after receipt of the Manager's decision, the Manager's decision will become a final agency decision.
(a) Upon receipt from the individual of a written request for a certification review hearing, the Manager shall request appointment of DOE counsel as soon as possible.
(b) DOE Counsel is authorized to consult directly with the individual if he is not represented by counsel, or with the individual's counsel or representative if so represented, to clarify issues and reach stipulations with respect to testimony and contents of documents and other physical evidence. Such stipulations shall be binding upon the individual and the DOE Counsel for the purposes of this subpart.
(a) Upon receipt of the hearing request from the Manager, the Director, DOE Office of Hearings and Appeals, shall appoint, as soon as practicable, an Administrative Judge.
(b) The Administrative Judge must have a DOE “Q” access authorization.
(c) An individual who requests a certification review hearing has the right
(d) An individual must come forward with evidence to demonstrate that the decision to revoke his or her HRP certification was clearly erroneous or that extraordinary circumstances warrant recertification into HRP. Evidence that the individual has rehabilitated or reformed since the time of the Manager's decision will not be considered by the Administrative Judge.
(e) DOE Counsel shall assist the Administrative Judge in establishing a complete administrative hearing record in the proceeding and bringing out a full and true disclosure of all facts, both favorable and unfavorable, having bearing on the issues before the Administrative Judge.
(f) In conducting the proceedings, the Administrative Judge will:
(1) Determine the date, time, and location of the hearing, including whether the hearing will be conducted by video teleconference;
(2) At least 7 calendar days prior to date scheduled for the hearing, convene a prehearing conference for the purpose of discussing stipulations and exhibits, identifying witnesses, and disposing of other appropriate matters. The conference will usually be conducted by telephone;
(3) Receive all relevant and material information relating to the individual's fitness for HRP duties through witnesses or documentation;
(4) Ensure that the individual is permitted to offer information in his or her behalf; to call, examine, and cross-examine witnesses and other persons who have made written or oral statements, and to present and examine documentary evidence to the extent permitted by national security;
(5) Require the testimony of the individual and all witnesses be given under oath or affirmation;
(6) Ensure that a transcript of the certification review proceedings is made; and
(7) Not engage in ex parte communications with either party.
(g) The Administrative Judge shall have all powers necessary to regulate the conduct of proceedings, including, but not limited to, establishing a list of persons to receive service of papers, issuing subpoenas for witnesses to attend the hearing or for the production of specific documents or other physical evidence, administering oaths and affirmations, ruling upon motions, receiving evidence, regulating the course of the hearing, disposing of procedural requests or similar matters, and taking other actions consistent with the regulations in this part. Requests for subpoenas shall be granted except where the Administrative Judge finds that the grant of subpoenas would clearly result in evidence or testimony that is repetitious, incompetent, irrelevant, or immaterial to the issues in the case.
(h) The Administrative Judge may return a case to the HRP Manager for a final agency decision consistent with § 712.20(b) if—
(1) The individual or his or her attorney fails to heed the instructions of the Administrative Judge;
(2) The individual fails to appear at the appointed time, date and location for the certification review hearing;
(3) The individual otherwise fails to cooperate at the hearing phase of the process; or
(4) The individual withdraws his/her request for a certification review hearing.
(i) Based on a review of the administrative hearing record, the Administrative Judge shall prepare a decision regarding the individual's eligibility for recertification in the HRP, which shall consist of written findings and a supporting statement of reasons. In making a decision, the Administrative Judge shall ensure that any doubt as to an individual's certification shall be resolved against the individual in favor of national security and/or safety.
(a) Within 30 calendar days of the receipt of the hearing transcript by the Administrative Judge or the closing of the record, whichever is later, the Administrative Judge should forward his or her decision to the Associate Under Secretary for Environment, Health, Safety, and Security. The Administrative Judge's decision must be accompanied by a copy of the record.
(b) Within 10 calendar days of receipt of the decision and the administrative record, the Associate Under Secretary for Environment, Health, Safety, and Security should:
(1) Notify the individual and Manager in writing of the Administrative Judge's decision;
(2) Advise the individual in writing of the appeal procedures available to the individual in paragraph (c) of this section if the decision is unfavorable to the individual;
(3) Advise the Manager in writing of the appeal procedures available to the Manager in paragraph (c) of this section if the decision is favorable to the individual; and
(4) Provide the individual and/or counsel or representative, and the Manager a copy of the Administrative Judge's decision and the administrative record.
(c) The individual or the Manager may file with the Associate Under Secretary for Environment, Health, Safety, and Security a written request for further review of the decision by the cognizant Under Secretary along with a statement required by paragraph (e) of this section within 20 working days of the individual's receipt of the Administrative Judge's decision;
(d) The copy of any request for further review of the individual's case by the cognizant Under Secretary filed by the Manager shall be provided to the individual by the Manager.
(e) The party filing a request for review of the individual's case by the cognizant Under Secretary shall include with the request a statement identifying the issues on which it wishes the cognizant Under Secretary to focus.
(f) The Administrative Judge's decision shall be considered final if a written request for review is not filed in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
(a) Within 10 calendar days of receipt of the written request for review, the Associate Under Secretary for Environment, Health, Safety and Security should forward to the cognizant Under Secretary the written request for review, the Administrative Judge's decision, and the administrative record.
(b) Upon receipt of the written request for review, the Administrative Judge's decision, and the administrative record, the cognizant Under Secretary, in consultation with the DOE General Counsel, will issue a final written decision. The cognizant Under Secretary may delegate this authority. In issuing a final decision, the cognizant Under Secretary shall expressly state that he or she is either revoking or restoring an individual's HRP certification. A copy of this decision must be sent by certified mail (return receipt requested) to the Manager and to the individual.
(c) The cognizant Under Secretary shall consider only that evidence and information in the administrative record at the time of the Administrative Judge's decision.
(a) It is the responsibility of the HRP candidate or HRP certified individual to provide full, frank, and truthful answers to relevant and material questions, and when requested, furnish, or authorize others to furnish, information that DOE deems pertinent to reach a decision regarding HRP certification or recertification. This obligation to cooperate applies at any stage, including but not limited to initial certification, recertification, temporary removal, revocation, and/or hearing. The individual or candidate may elect not to cooperate; however, such refusal may prevent DOE from reaching an affirmative finding required for granting or continuing HRP certification. In this event, any HRP certification then in effect may be revoked, or, for HRP candidates, may not be granted.
(b) An HRP certified individual who receives notification of the Manager's decision to revoke his or her certification due to failure to cooperate may choose one of the following options:
(1) Take no action; or
(2) Within 20 working days after the individual received notice of the Manager's revocation decision, submit a written request by certified mail to the Manager for reconsideration. The request must include the individual's response to the information that gave rise to the revocation decision.
(c) Upon receipt of the request for reconsideration, the Manager shall notify the individual, in writing, within 20 calendar days of receipt of the written appeal, as to whether the action to revoke certification was appropriate. If the Manager determines that the action was inappropriate, he or she shall direct that the individual be reinstated.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to modify Class D airspace at Spirit of St. Louis Airport, St. Louis, MO; Class E airspace designated as a surface area at Cape Girardeau Regional Airport, Cape Girardeau, MO, and Spirit of St. Louis Airport; Class E airspace designated as an extension at Cape Girardeau Regional Airport; and Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Cape Girardeau Regional Airport, Spirit of St. Louis Airport, and Macon-Fower Memorial Airport, Macon, MO. Cancellation of standard instrument approach procedures at these airports prompted the FAA to conduct a review of the airspace. Additionally, the name of Cape Girardeau Regional Airport (formerly Cape Girardeau Municipal Airport) and the geographic coordinates of St. Louis Regional Airport, Alton/St. Louis, MO; the OBLIO Locator Outer Marker (LOM), and the Macon-Fower Memorial Airport would be adjusted to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database. The airspace designation for Macon-Fower, MO, in Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface would be removed as it is a duplicate entry of the Macon, MO, airspace designation.
Comments must be received on or before August 7, 2017.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590; telephone (202) 366-9826, or 1-800-647-5527. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2016-9559; Airspace Docket No. 16-ACE-11, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the Internet at
FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Jeffrey Claypool, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5711.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would amend Class D airspace at Spirit of St. Louis Airport, St. Louis, MO; Class E airspace designated as a surface area at Cape Girardeau Regional Airport and Spirit of St. Louis Airport; Class E airspace designated as an extension at Cape Girardeau Regional Airport; and Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Cape
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. Communications should identify both docket numbers and be submitted in triplicate to the address listed above. Commenters wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2016-9559/Airspace Docket No. 16-ACE-11.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the Internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016. FAA Order 7400.11A is publicly available as listed in the
Cancellation of standard instrument approach procedures prompted the FAA to conduct a review of the airspace at the Spirit of St. Louis Airport, Cape Girardeau Regional Airport, and Macon-Fower Memorial Airport. Controlled airspace is necessary for the safety and management of the standard instrument approach procedures for IFR operations at these airports.
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 by modifying:
Class D airspace at Cape Girardeau Regional Airport (formerly Cape Girardeau Municipal Airport) by updating the name of the airport to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database;
Class D airspace to within a 4.4-mile radius (increased from a 4.3-mile radius) at Spirit of St. Louis Airport, St. Louis, MO, and adding an extension within 1 mile each side of the 079° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.4-mile radius to 4.6 miles east of the airport, and adjusting the extension west of the airport to within 1 mile each side of the 259° bearing (previously 258°) from the airport extending from the 4.4-mile radius to 4.6 miles west of the airport;
Class E airspace designated as a surface area at Cape Girardeau Regional Airport (formerly Cape Girardeau Municipal Airport) by adding the vertical limits from the surface to and including 2,800 feet, adding the part time language to the description, and updating the name of the airport to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database;
Class E airspace designated as a surface area to within a 4.4-mile radius (increased from a 4.3-mile radius) at Spirit of St. Louis Airport, St. Louis, MO, adding an extension to within 1 mile each side of the 079° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.4-mile radius to 4.6 miles east of the airport, and adding an extension within 1 mile each side of the 259° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.4-mile radius to 4.6 miles west of the airport;
Class E airspace designated as an extension to Class E surface are at Cape Girardeau Regional Airport (formerly Cape Girardeau Municipal Airport), Cape Girardeau, MO, by adding an extension 1 mile each side of the 023° bearing from the airport from the 4.1-mile radius of the airport to 4.4 miles to the north of the airport, adjusting the extension to the east of the airport to within 1 mile (decreased from 2.6 miles) each side of the 108° bearing from the Cape Girardeau Regional Localizer (previously the Cape Girardeau VOR/DME) from the 4.1-mile radius to 4.4 miles east of the airport, adjusting the extension to the south of the airport to within 2.4 miles (previously 2.6 miles) each side of the 196° (previously 194°) radial of the Cape Girardeau VOR/DME from the 4.1-mile radius of the airport extending to 7.2 miles (increased from 5.7 miles), adjusting the extension west of the airport to within 1 mile (decreased from 2.6 miles) each side of the 287° (previously 279°) radial from the Cape Girardeau VOR/DME from the 4.1-mile radius to 4.4 miles (decreased from 7.4 miles) west of the airport, and updating the name of the airport to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database;
Class E airspace areas extending upward from 700 feet above the surface:
At Cape Girardeau Regional Airport, Cape Girardeau, MO, by adding an extension to the north of the airport within 2 miles each side of the 203° bearing from the airport from the 6.6-mile radius of the airport to 7.3 miles, adjusting the extension to the east to within 3.8 miles (increased from 2.5 miles) each side of the 108° bearing from the Cape Girardeau Localizer (previously from the Cape Girardeau VOR/DME) extending from the 6.6-mile radius to 14 miles (increased from 8.7 miles), adjusting the extension to the south of the airport to within 2.4 miles (reduced from 3 miles) each sided of the 196° radial (previously 194°) from the Cape Girardeau VOR/DME from the 6.6-mile radius to 7.2 miles (decreased from 10 miles) south of the airport, adding an extension within 1.9 miles each side of the 023° bearing from the airport from the 6.6-mile radius of the airport to 7.5 miles south of the airport, adjusting the extension to the west of the airport to within 2 miles (decreased from 3 miles) each side of the 280° (previously 279°) bearing from the airport (previously the Cape Girardeau VOR/DME) extending from the 6.6-mile radius to 7.4 miles (decreased from 8.7 miles) west of the airport, and updating the name of the airport to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database;
Within a 6.9-mile radius (increased from a 6.8-mile radius) of the Spirit of St. Louis Airport, St. Louis, MO, adding an extension 4.2 miles north and 6.4 miles south of the 259° bearing from the Spirit of St. Louis Localizer extending from the 6.6-mile radius of the airport to 11.3 miles east of the Spirit of St. Louis Localizer, adding an extension within 2.5 miles each side of the 079° bearing from the airport from the 6.9-mile radius to 8.1 miles east of the airport, adjusting the extension to the
And within a 6.7-mile radius (increased from a 6.5-mile radius) of Macon-Fower Memorial Airport, Macon, MO, and updating the geographic coordinates of the airport to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database. The duplicate airspace designation listed as Macon-Fower, MO, in FAA Order 7400.11A, would be removed.
This action also would make an editorial change in the airspace description for Class D, Class E surface area, and Class E extension airspace, replacing Airport/Facility Directory with the current term Chart Supplement.
Class D and E airspace designations are published in paragraph 5000, 6002, 6004, and 6005, respectively, of FAA Order 7400.11A, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class D and E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 2,800 feet within a 4.1-mile radius of Cape Girardeau Regional Airport. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 3,000 feet within a 4.4-mile radius of Spirit of St. Louis Airport, and within 1 mile each side of the 079° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.4-mile radius to 4.6 miles east of the airport, and within 1 mile each side of the 259° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.4-mile radius to 4.6 miles west of the airport, excluding that airspace within the St. Louis, MO Class B airspace area. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective dates and times will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 2,800 feet within a 4.1-mile radius of the Cape Girardeau Regional Airport. This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 3,000 feet within a 4.4-mile radius of Spirit of St. Louis Airport, and within 1 mile each side of the 079° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.4-mile radius to 4.6 miles east of the airport, and within 1 mile each side of the 259° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.4-mile radius to 4.6 miles west of the airport, excluding that airspace within the St. Louis, MO Class B airspace area. This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective dates and times will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface within 1 mile each side of the 023° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.1-mile radius to 4.4 miles north of the airport, and within 1 mile each side of the 108° bearing from the Cape Girardeau Localizer extending from the 4.1-mile radius to 4.4 miles east of the airport, and within 2.4 miles each side of the 196° radial of the Cape Girardeau VOR/DME extending from the 4.1-mile radius of the airport to 7.2 miles south of the airport, and within 1 mile each side of the 287° radial of the Cape Girardeau VOR/DME extending from the 4.1-mile radius of the airport to 4.4 miles west of the airport.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.6-mile radius of the airport, and within 1.9 miles each side of the 023° bearing from the airport extending from the 6.6-mile radius to 7.3 miles north of the airport, and within 3.8 miles each side of the 108° bearing from the Cape Girardeau Localizer extending from the 6.6-mile radius to 14 miles east of the airport, and within 2.4 miles each side of the 196° radial of the Cape Girardeau VOR/DME extending from the 6.6-mile radius to 7.2 miles south of the airport, and within 2 miles each side of the 203° bearing from the airport from the 6.6-mile radius to 7.5 miles south of the airport, and within 2 miles each side of the 280° bearing from the airport extending from the 6.6-mile radius to 7.4 miles west of the airport.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7.1-mile radius of Lambert-St. Louis International Airport, and within 4 miles southeast and 7 miles northwest of the Lambert-St. Louis International Airport Runway 24 ILS localizer course extending from the airport to 10.5 miles northeast of the ZUMAY LOM, and within 4 miles southwest and 7.9 miles northeast of the Lambert-St. Louis International Airport Runway 12R ILS localizer course extending from the airport to 10.5 miles northwest of the OBLIO LOM, and within 4 miles southwest and 7.9 miles northeast of the Lambert-St. Louis International Airport Runway 30L ILS localizer course extending from the airport to 8.7 miles southeast of the airport, and within a 6.9-mile radius of Spirit of St. Louis Airport, and within 2.5 miles each side of the 079° bearing from the Spirit of St. Louis Airport extending from the 6.9-mile radius of the airport to 8.1 miles east of the airport, and within 4.2 miles north and 6.4 miles south of the 259° bearing from the Spirit of St. Louis Localizer extending from the 6.9-mile radius of the Spirit of St. Louis Airport to 11.3 miles east of the Spirit of St. Louis Localizer, and within 3.9 miles each side of the 259° bearing from the Spirit of St. Louis Airport extending from the 6.9-mile radius of the airport to 10.6 miles west of the airport, and within a 6.4-mile radius of St. Charles County Smartt Airport, and within a 6.9-mile radius of St. Louis Regional Airport, and within 4 miles each side of the 014° bearing from the Civic Memorial NDB extending from the 6.9-mile radius of St. Louis Regional Airport to 7 miles north of the airport, and within 4.4 miles each side of the 190° radial of the St. Louis VORTAC extending from 2 miles south of the VORTAC to 22.1 miles south of the VORTAC.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.7-mile radius of Macon-Fower Memorial Airport.
Office of the Secretary, Interior.
Request for comments.
This document requests public input on how the Department of the Interior (Interior) can improve implementation of regulatory reform initiatives and policies and identify regulations for repeal, replacement, or modification. This document also provides an overview of Interior's approach for implementing the regulatory reform initiative to alleviate unnecessary burdens placed on the American people, which was established by President Trump in Executive Order (E.O.) 13777, “Enforcing the Regulatory Reform Agenda.”
No deadline for the receipt of comments on this effort has been established at this time; Interior will review comments on an ongoing basis.
You may then submit information by clicking on “Comment Now!” If your information will fit in the provided comment box, please use this feature of
Alternatively, you may submit comments by mail to: Office of the Executive Secretariat—ATTN: Reg. Reform, U.S. Department of the Interior, 1859 C Street NW., Mail Stop 7328, Washington, DC 20240. Additional information on this effort can be found at
Mark Lawyer, Office of the Executive Secretariat, (202) 208-5257, email:
E.O. 13777 establishes two main goals
(1) Improve implementation of the regulatory reform initiatives and policies specified in section 2 of E.O. 13771 [E.O. 13771 (Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs); E.O. 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review), as amended; Section 6 of E.O. 13563 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review) regarding retrospective review; and termination, consistent with applicable law, of programs and activities that derive from or implement E.O.s, guidance documents, policy memoranda, rule interpretations, and similar documents, or relevant portions thereof, that have been rescinded]; and
(2) Identify regulations for repeal, replacement, or modification considering, at a minimum, those regulations that:
• Eliminate jobs, or inhibit job creation;
• Are outdated, unnecessary, or ineffective;
• Impose costs that exceed benefits;
• Create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with regulatory reform initiatives and policies;
• Rely, in part or in whole, on data or methods that are not publicly available or insufficiently transparent to meet the standard for reproducibility; or
• Derive from or implement E.O.s or other Presidential directives that have been subsequently rescinded or substantially modified.
To lead regulatory reform efforts at Interior, the Acting Chief of Staff established Interior's Regulatory Reform Task Force on March 15, 2017, pursuant to E.O. 13777. The Task Force is closely examining all regulatory actions that are currently in process and identifying potential deregulatory actions to ensure compliance with regulatory reform goals. Interior and the Task Force welcome public input on regulatory and deregulatory actions that could quantifiably lessen the burden on the American public.
A cornerstone of the Task Force's review of Interior's regulatory burden on the American public has been its thoughtful approach to Interior's regulatory portfolio. The regulatory portfolio includes significant regulations subject to retrospective review under Section 6 of E.O. 13563, meaning that they are periodically reviewed to determine whether they may be outmoded, ineffective, insufficient, or excessively burdensome. The Task Force is rolling these efforts into the larger regulatory reform effort to change or repeal unduly burdensome rules, as appropriate. The Task Force is also taking a holistic approach to ensure that each individual regulatory action it pursues and Interior's future regulatory portfolio as a whole advance the goal of alleviating unnecessary regulatory burdens placed on the American people, consistent with the law. The Task Force is accomplishing this by examining each regulatory action for alignment with the priorities of the Administration, the goals and requirements of applicable Executive Orders issued by the President, and Secretary's Orders issued by the Secretary of the Interior. This deliberate approach ensures that each semi-annual regulatory agenda published under E.O. 12866 will list only those regulations that the Department has a relatively high degree of confidence will move forward within the coming 12 months. With the publication of each semi-annual regulatory agenda, the public will have the opportunity to provide feedback, which the Task Force will consider as part of the regulatory reform effort. For individual regulations, the Task Force also intends to make greater use of advance notices of proposed rulemaking (ANPRMs), where possible, to solicit input on the front end as to how any given regulatory action could be tailored to reduce or eliminate burden.
Part of the regulatory reform effort underway in Interior includes implementing the requirement known colloquially as the “two-for-one” requirement. This requirement was established by President Trump in E.O. 13771, and detailed in Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Interim Guidance issued February 2, 2017, and OMB Guidance of April 5, 2017. These documents require Federal agencies to: (1) Issue two “deregulatory” actions for each new significant regulatory action that imposes costs; and (2) fully offset the total incremental cost of such new significant regulatory action. Interior is in the process of reviewing existing regulations (significant and non-significant) to identify actions that can be repealed. The cost savings associated with to-be-repealed actions will offset the costs of any new significant regulations that are necessary for promulgation; to account for these offsets, bureaus are working to quantify undue burden, where possible.
The Task Force has also taken initial steps toward deregulatory actions, using specific rule rescissions already identified through various means as a starting point for a more widespread reduction in regulatory actions. For example, the Task Force's review will encompass actions that were initiated by the previous Administration and subject to repeal under the Congressional Review Act (CRA). The President approved a joint resolution of disapproval for the following regulations under the CRA:
• The Bureau of Land Management's (BLM) Resource Management Planning; 43 CFR part 1600;
• The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Services' Non-Subsistence Take of Wildlife, and Public Participation and Closure Procedures, on National Wildlife Refuges in Alaska; 50 CFR parts 32 and 36; and
• The Office of Surface Mining, Reclamation and Enforcement's (OSMRE) Stream Protection Rule; 30 CFR parts 700, 701, 773, 774, 777, 779, 780, 783, 784, 785, 800, 816, 817, 824, and 827.
Through Secretary's Order No. 3349, American Energy Independence (Mar. 29, 2017), Interior announced its intention to review all existing actions that potentially burden the development or utilization of domestically produced energy resources and suspend, revise, or rescind such agency actions as soon as practicable. Interior's review will also give particular attention to the four Interior rules related to United States oil and gas development that are identified in section 7 of E.O. 13783 (Promoting Energy Independence and Economic Growth). Specifically, Secretary's Order 3349 provides that:
• BLM will proceed expeditiously with a proposed rule to rescind the final rule entitled “Oil and Gas; Hydraulic Fracturing on Federal and Indian Lands,” 80 FR 16128 (March 26, 2015).
• The National Park Service will review the final rule entitled “General Provisions and Non-Federal Oil and Gas Rights,” 81 FR 77972 (November 4, 2016);
• The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service will review the final rule entitled “Management of Non Federal Oil and Gas Rights,” 81 FR 79948 (November 14, 2016); and
• The BLM will review the final rule entitled “Waste Prevention, Production Subject to Royalties, and Resource Conservation,” 81 FR 83008 (November 18, 2016).
The Office of Natural Resources Revenue has already taken the following actions in accordance with this objective:
• Published a proposed rule to repeal the “Consolidated Federal Oil & Gas and Federal & Indian Coal Valuation Rule” published on July 1, 2016 (81 FR 43338). See 82 FR 16323 (April 4, 2017).
• Published an Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) on April 4, 2017 (82 FR 16325) seeking comments on whether revisions are needed to the regulations governing valuation, for royalty purposes, of oil and gas produced from Federal onshore and offshore leases and coal produced from Federal and Indian lands, and if revisions are appropriate, what specific revisions merit consideration.
Interior is also reviewing regulations to determine whether any require revision or rescission based on the mitigation policy review, climate change policy review, and review of other actions affecting energy development required by E.O. 13783.
Interior's review also gives particular attention to the three Interior rules related to offshore energy that are identified in sections 7, 8, and 11 of E.O. 13795 (Implementing an America-First Offshore Energy Strategy). To implement E.O. 13795, Interior issued Secretary's Order 3350, America-First Offshore Energy, which provides deadlines for review of the rules identified in the E.O. Specifically, the Secretary's Order directs the Bureau of Safety and Environmental Enforcement and the Bureau of Ocean Energy Management to review:
• The proposed rule “Offshore Air Quality Control, Reporting, and Compliance” published on April 5, 2016. See 81 FR 19717;
• The final rule “Oil and Gas and Sulfur Operations in the Outer Continental Shelf—Blowout Preventer Systems and Well Control,” published on April 29, 2016. See 81 FR 25887.
• The final rule “Oil and Gas and Sulfur Operations on the Outer Continental Shelf—Requirements for Exploratory Drilling on the Arctic Outer Continental Shelf,” published on July 15, 2016. See 81 FR 46478.
Secretary's Order 3350 also requires identifying other rules that have been adopted or are in the process of being developed that relate to the above rules.
As it identifies any other potential deregulatory actions and their cost savings, the Task Force will consider input from the public as guidance for prioritizing its efforts. In the coming months, the Task Force will be working with the affected bureaus to calculate the cost savings from any repeal, replacement, or modification.
Interior is seeking public input on how it can best meet the above goals and, specifically, where redundancies and inefficient processes can be eliminated, while ensuring that Interior continues to fulfill our legal obligations, resource stewardship, and Tribal trust responsibilities and minimizes the risk of lengthy and costly appeals and litigation. E.O. 13777 requires the Regulatory Reform Task Force, in performing the evaluation of regulations to seek input and other assistance, as permitted by law, from entities significantly affected by Federal regulations, including State, local, and Tribal governments, small businesses, consumers, non-governmental organizations, and trade associations.
• Eliminate jobs, or inhibit job creation;
• Are outdated, unnecessary, or ineffective;
• Impose costs that exceed benefits;
• Create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with regulatory reform initiatives and policies;
• Rely, in part or in whole, on data or methods that are not publicly available or insufficiently transparent to meet the standard for reproducibility; or
• Derive from or implement E.O.s or other Presidential directives that have been subsequently rescinded or substantially modified.
Periodically, Interior will review the written input to determine whether additional regulations should be targeted for review and considered for suspension, revision, or rescission.
To measure future progress, Interior will incorporate performance indicators for the regulatory reform initiative into Interior's annual performance plan under the Government Performance and Results Act. OMB has issued guidance regarding the appropriate performance indicators and established deadlines for setting targets for each of those indicators in the Fiscal Year (FY) 2018 and FY 2019 annual performance plans.
This notice is published pursuant to E.O. 13777, 82 FR 12285 (February 24, 2017).
Office of the Secretary, Department of Education.
Request for comments.
In accordance with Executive Order 13777, “Enforcing the Regulatory Reform Agenda,” the Department of Education (Department) is seeking input on regulations that may be appropriate for repeal, replacement, or modification.
We must receive your comments no later than August 21, 2017.
Submit your comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal or via postal mail, commercial delivery, or hand delivery. We will not accept comments by fax or email. To ensure that we do not receive duplicate copies, please submit your comments only once. In addition, please include the Docket ID at the top of your comments.
The Department's policy is to make all comments received from members of the public available for public viewing in their entirety on the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
For further information on this document, please contact Hilary Malawer, Assistant General Counsel, Office of the General Counsel, U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Room 6E231, Washington, DC 20202. Telephone: (202) 401-6148 or by email:
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
On February 24, 2017, President Trump signed Executive Order 13777, “Enforcing the Regulatory Reform Agenda,” which established a Federal policy “to alleviate unnecessary regulatory burdens” on the American people. Section 3(a) of the Executive Order directs Federal agencies to establish a Regulatory Reform Task Force (Task Force). One of the duties of the Task Force is to evaluate existing regulations and “make recommendations to the agency head regarding their repeal, replacement, or modification.” The Executive Order further asks that each Task Force “attempt to identify regulations that:
(i) Eliminate jobs, or inhibit job creation;
(ii) Are outdated, unnecessary, or ineffective;
(iii) Impose costs that exceed benefits;
(iv) Create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with regulatory reform initiatives and policies;
(v) Are inconsistent with the requirements of section 515 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 2001 (44 U.S.C. 3516 note), or the guidance issued pursuant to that provision, in particular those regulations that rely in whole or in part on data, information, or methods that are not publicly available or that are insufficiently transparent to meet the standard for reproducibility; or
(vi) Derive from or implement Executive Orders or other Presidential directives that have been subsequently rescinded or substantially modified.”
Section 3(e) of the Executive order calls on the Task Force to “seek input and other assistance, as permitted by law, from entities significantly affected by Federal regulations, including State, local, and tribal governments, small businesses, consumers, non-governmental organizations, and trade associations” on regulations that meet some or all of the criteria above. A “regulation” for this purpose “means an agency statement of general or particular applicability and future effect designed to implement, interpret, or prescribe law or policy or to describe the procedure or practice requirements of an agency . . . .” See Executive Order 13771, section 4.
Through this announcement, the Department is soliciting such input from the public to inform its Task Force's evaluation of existing regulations and guidance that have a policy impact. The Department's regulations are codified in subtitles A and B of title 34 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), which are available in electronic format at
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule; extension of comment period; availability of supplemental information.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is extending the comment period for a proposed rule published on June 1, 2017. In the June 1, 2017 proposed rule, EPA proposed to approve portions of the State of Delaware's December 14, 2015 state implementation plan (SIP) submittal to address the infrastructure requirements for the 2012 fine particulate matter (PM
Written comments must be received on or before July 24, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R03-OAR-2017-0152 at
Gavin Huang, (215) 814-2042, or by email at
On June 1, 2017, EPA published in the
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to rescind the visibility protection federal implementation plan (FIP) that we promulgated on February 8, 2002, to regulate air pollutant emissions from the Mohave Generating Station (MGS), located in Clark County, Nevada. The EPA is proposing this action in response to the Nevada Division of Environmental Protection's (NDEP) request dated March 25, 2016. The request seeks rescission of the FIP because MGS had been decommissioned and demolished, as demonstrated by the supporting documentation provided by the NDEP.
Any comments on this proposal must arrive by August 7, 2017. Requests for public hearing must be received on or before July 7, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID number EPA-R09-OAR-2017-0271, at
Krishna Viswanathan, EPA Region IX, (520) 999-7880,
Throughout this document, “we,” “us” and “our” refer to the EPA.
The EPA promulgated a revision to the long-term strategy of the Nevada Visibility FIP on February 8, 2002, to regulate air pollutant emissions from MGS (“MGS FIP”).
On December 31, 2005, MGS ceased operations. On June 10, 2009, the owners of MGS announced their decision to decommission and
The provisions of Clean Air Act section 307(d) apply to EPA's action to revise the MGS FIP by rescinding it, and this rulemaking is being conducted in accordance with those provisions.
The proposed action relies on documents, information, and data that are listed in the index on
Based on our review of the information submitted with the March 25, 2016 letter from NDEP, we are proposing to grant NDEP's request to rescind the MGS FIP and update the Code of Federal Regulations to remove any references to MGS because MGS has been decommissioned and demolished.
The EPA solicits comments on any issues associated with rescinding the MGS FIP. In addition, if anyone contacts the EPA by July 7, 2017 requesting to speak at a public hearing, the EPA will schedule a public hearing and announce the hearing in the
The EPA is proposing to rescind a FIP that is no longer applicable because the subject facility has been decommissioned and demolished. Therefore, the EPA considers this proposed action to have no potential disproportionately high and adverse effects on minority, low-income, or indigenous populations.
Additional information about these statutes and Executive Orders can be found at
This action is not a significant regulatory action and was therefore not submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review.
This action does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501
I certify that this proposed action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This action will not impose any requirements on small entities because the rule merely rescinds a FIP covering a generating station that has been decommissioned and demolished.
This action does not contain an unfunded mandate of $100 million or more as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments.
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. This action merely rescinds a FIP covering a generating station that has been decommissioned and demolished.
This action does not have tribal implications, as specified in Executive Order 13175. This proposed action will not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the federal government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the federal government and Indian tribes. This action merely rescinds a FIP covering a generating station that has been decommissioned and demolished. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this action.
The EPA interprets EO 13045 as applying only to those regulatory actions that concern health or safety risks that the EPA has reason to believe may disproportionately affect children, per the definition of “covered regulatory action” in section 2-202 of the Executive Order. This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it merely rescinds a FIP covering a generating station that has been decommissioned and demolished.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211 because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
Section 12 of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) of 1995 requires federal agencies to evaluate existing technical standards when developing a new regulation. To comply with NTTAA, the EPA must consider and use “voluntary consensus standards” (VCS) if available and applicable when developing programs and policies unless doing so would be inconsistent with applicable law or otherwise impractical.
The EPA believes that VCS are inapplicable to this action. Today's action does not require the public to perform activities conducive to the use of VCS because it merely rescinds a FIP covering a generating station that has been decommissioned and demolished.
The EPA believes that this proposed rule will not have potential disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority, low-income or indigenous populations because it does not affect the level of protection provided to human health or the environment. Because this proposed rule merely rescinds a FIP covering a generating station that has been decommissioned and demolished, this proposal will not cause any emissions increases.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Sulfur oxides.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Chapter I, Title 40, of the Code of Federal Regulations is proposed to be amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401,
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to redesignate the Indiana portion of the Cincinnati-Hamilton, OH-IN-KY, nonattainment area (hereafter, “the Cincinnati-Hamilton area”) to attainment for the 1997 fine particulate matter (PM
Comments must be received on or before July 24, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R05-OAR-2016-0513 at
Michelle Becker, Life Scientist, Attainment Planning and Maintenance Section, Air Programs Branch (AR-18J), Environmental Protection Agency, Region 5, 77 West Jackson Boulevard, Chicago, Illinois 60604, (312) 886-3901,
This supplementary information section is arranged as follows:
The first air quality standards for PM
On January 5, 2005, at 70 FR 944, EPA published air quality area designations for the 1997 annual PM
On December 23, 2011, EPA approved the redesignation of the Ohio and Indiana portions of the Cincinnati-Hamilton area to attainment of the annual PM
Additionally, in this proposed redesignation, EPA takes into account two decisions of the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit. On August 21, 2012, in
In the second decision, on January 4, 2013, the D.C. Circuit issued its decision with regard to the challenge by the Natural Resources Defense Council (NRDC) to the EPA's 2007 PM
The CAA sets forth the requirements for redesignating a nonattainment area to attainment. Specifically, section 107(d)(3)(E) of the CAA allows for redesignation provided that: (1) The Administrator determines that the area has attained the applicable NAAQS based on current air quality data; (2) the Administrator has fully approved an applicable SIP for the area under section 110(k) of the CAA; (3) the Administrator determines that the improvement in air quality is due to permanent and enforceable emission reductions resulting from implementation of the applicable SIP, Federal air pollution control regulations, or other permanent and enforceable emission reductions; (4) the Administrator has fully approved a maintenance plan for the area meeting the requirements of section 175A of the CAA; and (5) the state containing the area has met all requirements applicable to the area for purposes of redesignation under section 110 and part D of the CAA.
EPA is proposing to redesignate the Cincinnati-Hamilton area to attainment of the 1997 annual PM
In accordance with section 179(c) of the CAA, 42 U.S.C. 7509(c) and 40 CFR 51.1004(c), EPA is proposing to determine that the Cincinnati-Hamilton area has attained the 1997 annual PM
Under EPA's regulations at 40 CFR 50.7, the annual primary and secondary PM
EPA has reviewed the ambient air quality monitoring data in the Cincinnati-Hamilton area, consistent with the provisions of 40 CFR part 50, appendix T. EPA's review focused on data recorded in the EPA Air Quality System (AQS) database for the Cincinnati-Hamilton area for PM
The Cincinnati-Hamilton area has nine monitors located in Butler (OH), Hamilton (OH), and Campbell (KY) Counties that reported design values from 2013-2015 for PM
All monitors in the Cincinnati-Hamilton area recorded complete data in accordance with criteria set forth by EPA in 40 CFR part 50 appendix N, where a complete year of air quality data comprises four calendar quarters, with each quarter containing data from at least 75% capture of the scheduled sampling days. Data available are considered to be sufficient for comparison to the NAAQS if three consecutive complete years of data exist. State certified data for 2013-2015 show the area continues to attain the standard.
EPA has found that the Cincinnati-Hamilton area has attained the 1997 annual PM
EPA has determined that Indiana has met all currently applicable SIP requirements for purposes of redesignation for the Cincinnati-Hamilton area under section 110 of the CAA (general SIP requirements). EPA is also proposing to find that the Indiana submittal meets all SIP requirements currently applicable for purposes of redesignation under part D of title I of the CAA, in accordance with section 107(d)(3)(E)(v). In addition, we are proposing to find that all applicable requirements of the Indiana SIP for purposes of redesignation have been approved, in accordance with section 107(d)(3)(E)(ii). As discussed below, EPA previously approved Indiana's 2005 emissions inventory as meeting the section 172(c)(3) comprehensive emissions inventory requirement.
In making these proposed determinations, we have ascertained which SIP requirements are applicable for purposes of redesignation, and concluded that the Indiana SIP includes measures meeting those requirements and that they are fully approved under section 110(k) of the CAA.
Section 110(a) of title I of the CAA contains the general requirements for a SIP. Section 110(a)(2) provides that the implementation plan submitted by a state must have been adopted by the state after reasonable public notice and hearing, and, among other things, must: Include enforceable emission limitations and other control measures, means or techniques necessary to meet the requirements of the CAA; provide for establishment and operation of appropriate devices, methods, systems, and procedures necessary to monitor ambient air quality; provide for implementation of a source permit program to regulate the modification and construction of any stationary source within the areas covered by the plan; include provisions for the implementation of part C, Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) and part D, New Source Review (NSR) permit programs; include criteria for stationary source emission control measures, monitoring, and reporting; include provisions for air quality modeling; and provide for public and local agency participation in planning and emission control rule development.
Section 110(a)(2)(D) of the CAA requires that SIPs contain measures to prevent sources in a state from significantly contributing to air quality problems in another state. EPA believes that the requirements linked with a particular nonattainment area's designation are the relevant measures to evaluate in reviewing a redesignation request. The transport SIP submittal requirements, where applicable, continue to apply to a state regardless of the designation of any one particular area in the state. Thus, we believe that these requirements should not be construed to be applicable requirements for purposes of redesignation.
Further, we believe that the other section 110 elements described above that are not connected with nonattainment plan submissions and not linked with an area's attainment status are also not applicable requirements for purposes of redesignation. A state remains subject to these requirements after an area is redesignated to attainment. We conclude that only the section 110 and part D requirements that are linked with a particular area's designation are the relevant measures which we may consider in evaluating a redesignation request. See Reading, Pennsylvania, proposed and final rulemakings (61 FR 53174-53176, October 10, 1996) and (62 FR 24826, May 7, 1997); Cleveland-Akron-Lorain, Ohio, final rulemaking (61 FR 20458, May 7, 1996); and Tampa, Florida, final rulemaking (60 FR 62748, December 7, 1995). See also the discussion on this issue in the Cincinnati, Ohio 1-hour ozone redesignation (65 FR 37890, June 19, 2000), and in the Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania 1-hour ozone redesignation (66 FR 50399, October 19, 2001).
We previously reviewed the Indiana SIP and have concluded that it meets the general SIP requirements under section 110 of the CAA to the extent they are applicable for purposes of redesignation. EPA has previously approved provisions of Indiana's SIP addressing section 110 requirements (including provisions addressing particulate matter), at 40 CFR 52.776.
On December 5, 2007, September 9, 2008, March 23, 2011, and April 7, 2011 Indiana made submittals addressing “infrastructure SIP” elements required under CAA section 110(a)(2). EPA approved elements of Indiana's submittals on July 13, 2011, at 76 FR 41075.
The requirements of section 110(a)(2), however, are statewide requirements that are not linked to the PM
EPA has determined that, upon approval of the base year emissions inventories discussed in section III.6 of this rulemaking, the Indiana SIP will meet the SIP requirements for the Cincinnati-Hamilton area applicable for purposes of redesignation under part D of the CAA. Subpart 1 of part D, found in sections 172-176 of the CAA, sets forth the basic nonattainment requirements applicable to all nonattainment areas. Subpart 4 of part D, found in section 189 of the CAA, sets forth nonattainment requirements applicable for particulate matter nonattainment areas.
For purposes of evaluating this redesignation request, the applicable section 172 SIP requirements for the Cincinnati-Hamilton area are contained in sections 172(c)(1)-(9). A thorough discussion of the requirements contained in section 172 can be found in the General Preamble for Implementation of Title I (57 FR 13498, April 16, 1992).
Under section 172, states with nonattainment areas must submit plans providing for timely attainment and meeting a variety of other requirements. However, pursuant to 40 CFR 51.1004(c), EPA's determination that the area has attained the 1997 annual PM
As a result, the only remaining requirements under section 172 to be considered are the emissions inventory requirement under section 172(c)(3), and the RACM/RACT requirement of section 172(c)(1) per the Sixth Circuit decision.
Section 172(c)(1) requires the plans for all nonattainment areas to provide for the implementation of all RACM as expeditiously as practicable and to provide for attainment of the primary NAAQS. EPA has long interpreted that subpart 1 nonattainment planning requirements, including RACM, are not “applicable for purposes of section 107(d)(3)(E)(ii) and (v) when an area is attaining the NAAQS, and, therefore, need not be approved into the SIP before EPA can redesignate the area.
EPA previously redesignated the Cincinnati-Hamilton area to attainment for the 1997 annual PM
As previously discussed, on July 14, 2015, the United States Court of Appeals for the Sixth Circuit issued an opinion in
No SIP provisions applicable for redesignation of the Cincinnati-Hamilton area are currently disapproved, conditionally approved, or partially approved. Indiana currently has a fully approved SIP for all requirements, as applicable for purposes of redesignation under the Sixth Circuit's
The reasonable further progress (RFP) requirement under section 172(c)(2) is defined as progress that must be made toward attainment. This requirement is not relevant for purposes of the Cincinnati-Hamilton redesignation because the area has monitored attainment of the 1997 annual PM
Section 172(c)(3) requires submission and approval of a comprehensive, accurate and current inventory of actual emissions. Indiana submitted a 2005 base year emissions inventory in the required attainment plan, and also updated the emissions inventory with VOCs and ammonia emissions from 2007. EPA previously approved the 2005 base year emissions inventory on October 19, 2011 (76 FR 64825), and is proposing to approve the emissions inventory for VOCs and ammonia.
Section 172(c)(4) requires the identification and quantification of allowable emissions for major new and modified stationary sources in an area, and section 172(c)(5) requires source permits for the construction and operation of new and modified major stationary sources anywhere in the nonattainment area. EPA approved Indiana's current NSR program on October 7, 1994 (59 FR 51108), but has not approved updates since that time. Nonetheless, since PSD requirements will apply after redesignation, the area need not have a fully-approved NSR program for purposes of redesignation, provided that the area demonstrates maintenance of the NAAQS without part D NSR. A detailed rationale for this view is described in a memorandum from Mary Nichols, Assistant Administrator for Air and Radiation, dated October 14, 1994, entitled, “Part D New Source Review Requirements for Areas Requesting Redesignation to Attainment.” Indiana has demonstrated that the Cincinnati-Hamilton area will be able to maintain the standard without part D NSR in effect; therefore, the state need not have a fully approved part D NSR program prior to approval of the redesignation request. The state's PSD program will become effective in the Cincinnati-Hamilton area upon redesignation to attainment.
Section 172(c)(6) requires the SIP to contain control measures necessary to provide for attainment of the standard. Because attainment has been reached, no additional measures are needed to provide for attainment.
Section 172(c)(7) requires the SIP to meet the applicable provisions of section 110(a)(2). As noted above, we have found that Indiana's SIP meets the applicable requirements of section 110(a)(2) for purposes of redesignation.
Section 176(c) of the CAA requires states to establish criteria and procedures to ensure that Federally-supported or funded activities, including highway projects, conform to the air quality planning goals in the applicable SIPs. The requirement to determine conformity applies to transportation plans, programs and projects developed, funded or approved under Title 23 of the U.S. Code and the
EPA approved Indiana's transportation conformity SIPs on March 2, 2015 (80 FR 11134). In April 2010, EPA promulgated changes to 40 CFR 51.851, eliminating the requirement for states to maintain a general conformity SIP. EPA confirms that Indiana has met the applicable conformity requirements under section 176.
On January 4, 2013, in
EPA has longstanding general guidance that interprets the 1990 amendments to the CAA, making recommendations to states for meeting the statutory requirements for SIPs for nonattainment areas.
For the purposes of this redesignation, in order to identify any additional requirements which would apply under subpart 4, we are considering the Cincinnati-Hamilton area to be a “moderate” PM
Section 189(a) and (c) of subpart 4 applies to moderate nonattainment areas and includes the following: (1) An approved permit program for construction of new and modified major stationary sources (section 189(a)(1)(A)); (2) an attainment demonstration (section 189(a)(1)(B)); (3) provisions for RACM (section 189(a)(1)(C)); and (4) quantitative milestones demonstrating RFP toward attainment by the applicable attainment date (section 189(c)).
The permit requirements of subpart 4, as contained in section 189(a)(1)(A), refer to and apply the subpart 1 permit provisions requirements of sections 172 and 173 to PM
With respect to the specific attainment planning requirements under subpart 4,
The requirements for RFP will not apply in evaluating a request for redesignation to attainment since, at a minimum, the air quality data for the area must show that the area has already attained. Showing that the State will make RFP towards attainment will, therefore, have no meaning at that point.
“General Preamble for the Interpretation of Title I of the CAA Amendments of 1990”; (57 FR 13498, 13564, April 16, 1992).
The General Preamble also explained that
Id.
EPA similarly stated in its September 4, 1992, memorandum entitled “Procedures for Processing Requests to Redesignate Areas to Attainment” (Calcagni memorandum) that, “[t]he requirements for reasonable further progress and other measures needed for attainment will not apply for redesignations because they only have meaning for areas not attaining the standard.”
Elsewhere in this action, EPA proposes to determine that the area has attained the 1997 annual PM
Thus, as explained more fully below, EPA is proposing to conclude that the requirements to submit an attainment demonstration under 189(a)(1)(B), a RACM determination under sections 172(c)(1) and 189(a)(1)(c), a RFP demonstration under section 189(c)(1), and contingency measure requirements under section 172(c)(9) are satisfied for purposes of evaluating the redesignation request.
CAA section 189(e) specifically provides that control requirements for major stationary sources of direct PM
For a number of reasons, EPA believes that this proposed redesignation of the Cincinnati-Hamilton area is consistent with the Court's decision on this aspect of subpart 4. First, while the Court, citing section 189(e), stated that “for a PM
The Cincinnati-Hamilton area has attained the standard without any specific additional controls of VOCs and ammonia emissions from any sources in the area.
Precursors in subpart 4 are specifically regulated under the provisions of section 189(e), which requires, with important exceptions, control requirements for major stationary sources of PM
In the General Preamble, EPA discusses its approach to implementing section 189(e).
EPA notes that its 1997 PM
Although, as EPA has emphasized, its consideration here of precursor requirements under subpart 4 is in the context of a redesignation to attainment, EPA's existing interpretation of subpart 4 requirements with respect to precursors in attainment plans for PM
EPA concludes that the area has met all applicable requirements for purposes of redesignation in accordance with section 107(d)(3)(E)(ii) and (v).
Upon final approval of Indiana's comprehensive VOCs and ammonia emissions inventories, EPA will have fully approved the Indiana SIP for the Cincinnati-Hamilton area under section 110(k) of the CAA for all requirements applicable for purposes of redesignation. EPA may rely on prior SIP approvals in approving a redesignation request (
EPA believes that Indiana has demonstrated that the observed air quality improvement in the Cincinnati-Hamilton area is due to permanent and enforceable reductions in emissions resulting from implementation of the SIPs, Federal measures, and other state-adopted measures.
In making this demonstration, Indiana has calculated the change in emissions between 2005, one of the years used to designate the area as nonattainment, and 2008, one of the years the Cincinnati-Hamilton area monitored attainment. The reduction in emissions and the corresponding improvement in air quality over this time period can be attributed to a number of regulatory control measures that the Cincinnati-Hamilton area and contributing areas have implemented, as discussed below. Additional permanent and enforceable measures and shutdowns after 2008 have also been promulgated and are included below.
The following is a discussion of permanent and enforceable measures that have been implemented in the area:
Reductions in direct emissions of PM
Given the significance of sulfates and nitrates in the Cincinnati-Hamilton area, the area's air quality is strongly affected by regulated emissions from power plants.
On August 8, 2011 (76 FR 48208), acting on the D.C. Circuit's remand, EPA promulgated CSAPR to replace CAIR and, thus, to address the interstate transport of emissions contributing to nonattainment and interfering with maintenance of the two air quality standards covered by CAIR as well as the 2006 PM
Numerous parties filed petitions for review of CSAPR in the D.C. Circuit, and on August 21, 2012, the court issued its ruling, vacating and remanding CSAPR to EPA and ordering continued implementation of CAIR.
On remand, the D.C. Circuit affirmed CSAPR in most respects, but invalidated without vacating some of the CSAPR budgets as to a number of states.
Because the emission reduction requirements of CAIR were enforceable through the 2011 control period, and because CSAPR has been promulgated to address the requirements previously addressed by CAIR and will achieve similar or greater reductions once finalized, EPA has determined that the EGU emission reductions that helped lead to attainment in the Cincinnati-Hamilton area can now be considered permanent and enforceable and that the requirement of CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(iii) has been met.
As a result of a settlement with EPA to resolve violations of the CAA's NSR requirements, American Electrical Power (AEP) permanently retired its Tanners Creek Generating Station (
The 2005 emissions inventory for NO
Point source emissions information was compiled from the Indiana Department of Environmental Management (IDEM) annual emissions statement database and from EPA's Clean Air Market's acid rain database. These emissions reflect Indiana's NO
Area source emissions for the Cincinnati-Hamilton area for 2005 were taken from periodic emissions inventories.
Non-road mobile source emissions were extrapolated from non-road mobile source emissions reported in EPA's 2005 National Emissions Inventory (NEI). Contractors were employed by LADCO to estimate emissions for commercial marine vessels and railroads.
On-road mobile source emissions were calculated using EPA's mobile source emission factor model, MOVES2010, and data extracted from the region's travel-demand model. These emissions were then interpolated as needed to determine the 2008 base year values.
All emissions estimates discussed below were documented in the submittals and appendices to Indiana's redesignation request submittal of August 19, 2016. For these data and additional emissions inventory data, the reader is referred to EPA's digital docket for this rule,
Emissions data in tons per year (tpy) for the Cincinnati-Hamilton area are shown in Tables 2, 3, and 4 below.
Tables 2, 3, and 4 show reductions in NO
EPA has fully approved an applicable maintenance plan that meets the requirements of section 175(a) on December 23, 2011.
Section 175A of the CAA sets forth the required elements of a maintenance plan for areas seeking redesignation from nonattainment to attainment. Under section 175A, the plan must demonstrate continued attainment of the applicable NAAQS for at least ten years after EPA approves a redesignation to attainment. Eight years after redesignation, the state must submit a revised maintenance plan which demonstrates that attainment will continue to be maintained for ten years following the initial ten-year maintenance period. To address the possibility of future NAAQS violations, the maintenance plan must contain contingency measures, which it does, with a schedule for implementation as EPA deems necessary to assure prompt correction of any future PM
The Calcagni memorandum provides additional guidance on the content of a maintenance plan. The memorandum states that a maintenance plan should address the following items: the attainment emissions inventory, a maintenance demonstration showing maintenance for the ten years of the maintenance period, a commitment to maintain the existing monitoring network, factors and procedures to be used for verification of continued attainment of the NAAQS, and a contingency plan to prevent or correct future violations of the NAAQS.
Section 175A requires a state seeking redesignation to attainment to submit a SIP revision to provide for the maintenance of the NAAQS in the area “for at least 10 years after the redesignation.” EPA has interpreted this as a showing of maintenance “for a period of ten years following redesignation.” Calcagni memorandum, p. 9. Where the emissions inventory method of showing maintenance is used, its purpose is to show that emissions during the maintenance period will not increase over the attainment year inventory. Calcagni memorandum, pp. 9-10.
As discussed in the section below, the state's maintenance plan submission documents that the area's emissions inventories should remain below the attainment year inventories through 2021. In addition, for the reasons set forth below, EPA believes that the state's submission, in conjunction with additional supporting information, further demonstrates that the area should continue to maintain the 1997 annual PM
Indiana developed an emissions inventory for NO
Indiana has a fully approved maintenance plan that meets the requirements of section 175(A).
Indiana's plan demonstrates maintenance of the 1997 annual PM
The rate of decline in emissions of PM
A maintenance demonstration need not be based on modeling.
Table 5 shows that, for the period between 2008 and the maintenance projection for 2021, the Cincinnati-Hamilton area will reduce NO
As Table 1 demonstrates, monitored PM
Due to the remand of EPA's implementation rule, EPA in this proposal is evaluating the impact of maintenance plan requirements under sections 175A and 107(d)(3)(E)(iv) as they pertain to VOCs and ammonia as PM
EPA proposes to confirm that the state's maintenance plan shows continued maintenance of the standard by tracking the levels of the precursors whose control brought about attainment of the 1997 PM
First, as noted above in EPA's discussion of section 189(e), VOCs emission levels in this area have historically been well-controlled under SIP requirements related to ozone and other pollutants. Second, total ammonia emissions throughout the Cincinnati-Hamilton area are very low, estimated to be less than 3,200 tpy.
Indiana's maintenance plan shows that emissions of direct PM
In addition, available air quality modeling analyses show continued maintenance of the standard during the maintenance period. The current annual design values for the area range from 9.5 to 11.2 μg/m3 (based on 2013-2015 air quality data), which are well below the 1997 annual PM
Thus, EPA believes that there is ample justification to conclude that the Cincinnati-Hamilton area should be redesignated, even taking into consideration the emissions of other precursors potentially relevant to PM
Based on the information summarized above, Indiana has adequately demonstrated maintenance of the 1997 PM
Ohio currently operates eight monitors for purposes of determining attainment with the annual PM
Ohio and Kentucky remain obligated to continue to quality-assure monitoring data and enter all data into the AQS in accordance with Federal guidelines in accordance with 40 CFR 58.
The contingency plan provisions are designed to promptly correct or prevent a violation of the NAAQS that might occur after redesignation of an area to attainment. Section 175A of the CAA requires that a maintenance plan include such contingency measures as EPA deems necessary to ensure that the state will promptly correct a violation of the NAAQS that occurs after redesignation. The maintenance plan should identify the contingency measures to be adopted, a schedule and procedure for adoption and implementation of the contingency measures, and a time limit for action by the state. The state should also identify specific indicators to be used to determine when the contingency measures need to be adopted and implemented. The maintenance plan must include a requirement that the state will implement all pollution control measures that were contained in the SIP before redesignation of the area to attainment.
EPA believes that Indiana's approved contingency measures, as well as the commitment to continue implementing any necessary SIP requirements, satisfy the pertinent requirements of section 175A(d).
For all of the reasons set forth above, EPA determines that the approved maintenance plan is still applicable and meets all the contingency plan requirements of CAA section 175A.
Under the CAA, states are required to submit, at various times, control strategy SIP revisions and maintenance plans for PM
Under 40 CFR part 93, a MVEB for an area seeking a redesignation to attainment is established for the last year of the maintenance plan and could also be established for an interim year or years. The MVEB serves as a ceiling on emissions from an area's planned transportation system. The MVEB concept is further explained in the preamble to the November 24, 1993, transportation conformity rule (58 FR 62188).
Under section 176(c) of the CAA, new transportation plans and transportation improvement programs (TIPs) must be evaluated to determine if they conform to the purpose of the area's SIP. Conformity to the SIP means that transportation activities will not cause new air quality violations, worsen existing air quality violations, or delay timely attainment of the NAAQS or any required interim milestone. If a transportation plan or TIP does not conform, most new transportation projects that would expand the capacity of roadways cannot go forward. Regulations at 40 CFR part 93 set forth EPA policy, criteria, and procedures for demonstrating and assuring conformity of such transportation activities to a SIP.
The maintenance plans previously submitted by Indiana for the area contained PM
EPA has previously approved budgets for 2021 including the added safety margins using the conformity rule's adequacy criteria found at 40 CFR 93.118(e)(4) and the conformity rule's requirements for safety margins found at 40 CFR 93.124(a). EPA has determined that the area can maintain attainment of the 1997 annual PM
As discussed above, section 172(c)(3) of the CAA requires areas to submit a comprehensive emissions inventory including direct PM and all four precursors (SO
Based upon EPA's previous action and 2007 emissions inventory for VOCs and ammonia, the emissions inventory was complete and accurate, and met the requirement of CAA section 172(c)(3).
EPA is proposing to take several actions related to redesignation of the Cincinnati-Hamilton area to attainment for the 1997 annual PM
EPA has previously approved Indiana's PM
EPA has previously approved the 2005 primary PM
EPA is proposing that Indiana meets the requirements for redesignation of the Cincinnati-Hamilton area to attainment of the 1997 annual PM
If finalized, EPA would determine that the previously approved maintenance plan is still applicable to the Cincinnati-Hamilton area for the 1997 annual PM
Under the CAA, redesignation of an area to attainment and the
• Are not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Do not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Are certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Do not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Do not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Are not economically significant regulatory actions based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Are not significant regulatory actions subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Are not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Do not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, this rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because redesignation is an action that affects the status of a geographical area and does not impose any new regulatory requirements on tribes, impact any existing sources of air pollution on tribal lands, nor impair the maintenance of ozone national ambient air quality standards in tribal lands.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Particulate matter.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, National parks, Wilderness areas.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed rule; request for comments.
This action proposes approval of, and regulations to implement, Framework Adjustment 56 to the Northeast Multispecies Fishery Management Plan. This rule would set catch limits for four of the 20 groundfish stocks, adjust several allocations and accountability measures (AMs) for groundfish catch in non-groundfish fisheries, and make other administrative changes to groundfish management measures. This action is necessary to respond to updated scientific information and achieve the goals and objectives of the Fishery Management Plan. The proposed measures are intended to help prevent overfishing, rebuild overfished stocks, achieve optimum yield, and ensure that management measures are based on the best scientific information available.
Comments must be received by July 7, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2017-0021, by either of the following methods:
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Copies of Framework Adjustment 56, including the draft Environmental Assessment, the Regulatory Impact Review, and the Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis prepared by the New England Fishery Management Council (NEFMC) in support of this action are available from Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council, 50 Water Street, Mill 2, Newburyport, MA 01950. The supporting documents are also accessible via the Internet at:
Aja Szumylo, Fishery Policy Analyst, phone: 978-281-9195; email:
This action would implement the management measures in Framework Adjustment 56 to the Northeast Multispecies Fishery Management Plan (FMP). The Council deemed the proposed regulations consistent with, and necessary to implement, Framework 56 in an April 13, 2017, letter from Council Chairman John F. Quinn to Regional Administrator John Bullard. Under the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act), we are required to publish proposed rules for comment after preliminarily determining whether they are consistent with applicable law. The Magnuson-Stevens Act permits us to approve, partially approve, or disapprove measures proposed by the Council based on whether the measures are consistent with the fishery management plan, plan amendment, the Magnuson-Stevens Act and its National Standards, and other applicable law. Otherwise, we must defer to the Council's policy choices. Some regulations authorize the Regional Administrator to make determinations or implement specifications using procedures consistent with the Administrative Procedure Act. The Magnuson-Stevens Act also authorizes the Regional Administrator to put in place regulations that are necessary to ensure the proper administration of FMP goals and objectives. We are seeking comment on the Council's proposed measures in Framework 56 and whether they are consistent with the Magnuson-Stevens Act and its National Standards, and other applicable law. Through Framework 56, the Council proposes to:
• Set 2017 specifications for three shared U.S./Canada stocks (Eastern Georges Bank (GB) cod, Eastern GB haddock, and GB yellowtail flounder);
• Set 2017-2019 specifications for witch flounder;
• Establish an allocation of northern windowpane flounder for the scallop fishery;
• Revise catch thresholds for implementing the scallop fishery's accountability measures for GB yellowtail flounder and northern windowpane flounder; and
• Increase the GB haddock allocation for the midwater trawl fishery.
This action also proposes a number of other measures that are not part of Framework 56, but that may be considered and implemented under our authority specified in the FMP. We are proposing these measures in conjunction with the Framework 56 proposed measures for expediency purposes, and because these measures are related to the catch limits proposed as part of Framework 56. The additional measures proposed in this action are listed below.
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The Northeast Fisheries Science Center conducted a witch flounder benchmark assessment in 2016. The final report for the benchmark assessment is available on the NEFSC Web site:
As part of the review process, the peer review panel evaluated the previous witch flounder benchmark assessment, originally conducted in 2008 and updated in 2012 and 2015. The 2008 benchmark assessment and its updates all supported determinations that the witch flounder stock was overfished, and that overfishing was occurring. The 2016 peer review panel updated the 2008 benchmark as part of its review, and ultimately rejected the update because it showed a large, unexplained retrospective patterns similar to the 2016 benchmark assessment model. The panel recommended that none of these assessments should be used as a basis for determining witch flounder stock status.
Given the lack of an assessment model, the peer review panel examined an alternative approach that used swept-area biomass estimates to generate catch advice. The panel did not have sufficient time to use this approach to fully develop alternative status determination criteria. However, the panel provided recommendations to prevent overfishing. The panel also concluded that stock biomass is at historical low levels based on relative biomass estimates from the alternative approach. In addition, the fishery landings and survey catch indicate truncation of age structure and a reduction in the number of old fish in the population. These are both indicators of poor stock condition. We discuss additional details about the 2016 benchmark assessment results, and the proposed 2017-2019 catch limits for
We approved the existing status determination criteria for witch flounder in Amendment 16 to the Northeast Multispecies FMP (75 FR 18261; April 9, 2010). The existing criteria state that the witch flounder stock is subject to overfishing if the fishing mortality rate (F) is above the F at 40 percent of maximum spawning potential. The witch flounder stock is overfished if spawning stock biomass falls below
The Council relied on the advice from the assessment peer review panel and its Scientific and Statistical Committee (SSC) to recommend changing the status determination criteria for witch flounder to unknown. If the status determination criteria are changed to unknown, however, there would be no measurable and objective standards in place against which to judge the status of the witch flounder stock. We propose disapproving the Council's recommendation, and maintaining the existing criteria until a valid assessment model is available to use for setting new catch limits or for generating new criteria. This is new guidance to the Council, provided after it took final action on Framework 56, and is different than the approach the Council has taken, and that we have approved, for recommending status determination criteria for other groundfish stocks with rejected assessments (
Status determination relative to model-based reference points is no longer possible for witch flounder, and we recognize that we do not have fishing mortality and biomass estimates to compare to the existing status determination criteria. In conjunction with the 2017 assessment updates, we will work with the Council to use updated fishery information to develop fishing mortality and biomass estimates and new status determination criteria for this stock.
The witch flounder stock was previously listed as subject to overfishing and overfished. Despite the rejection of the recent stock assessments for stock status purposes and lack of numerical estimates of stock size, there is qualitative information in the assessment that supports continuing to list the status as overfished, but changing the overfishing status from subject to overfishing to unknown. The conclusion that the stock is at historical low levels and other signs of poor stock condition, provide reliable indicators that support this stock remaining listed as overfished. Unlike the overfished status, for which we have reliable indicators of stock condition, we do not have reliable indicators for the overfishing status. While we cannot specify an overfishing status determination criterion for this stock, catch for the last five years has been below the ACL. The lack of reliable indicators, the rejection of the recent stock assessment, and the fact that catch has remained below the ACL, support changing the overfishing status of this stock to unknown.
In the meantime, we are proposing an acceptable biological catch (ABC) as recommended by the Council, and catch data shows this ABC is expected to prevent overfishing. The limits set from this recommendation are based on historic catch rates and other data that are expected to maintain or improve current biomass levels. There is currently a rebuilding plan in place for witch flounder that has an end date of 2017. We were waiting for the results of the 2016 assessment update, as well as the revisions to the National Standard 1 Guidelines, to provide guidance to the Council regarding how to proceed with the rebuilding plan. Prior to the 2016 assessment, and based on the results of the 2015 assessment update, which found that 2014 spawning stock biomass was at 22 percent of the biomass target, and that the stock was not expected to reach the 2017 rebuilding target even in the absence of fishing mortality, we were anticipating that we would need to notify the Council that it was necessary to revise the rebuilding plan. Although a quantitative status determination relative to the 2016 benchmark assessment results is not possible, there are indications that the stock is still in poor condition, and will continue to need conservative management measures to promote stock growth. Based on what we know of the stock's condition, the proposed catch limits are designed to maintain or improve current biomass levels. We are finalizing our guidance regarding any necessary adjustments to the rebuilding plan and will advise the Council on the next steps prior to the fall 2017 groundfish assessment updates. Additionally, at whatever point the stock assessment for witch flounder can provide biomass estimates, these estimates can be used to evaluate progress towards the rebuilding targets.
Eastern GB cod, eastern GB haddock, and GB yellowtail flounder are jointly managed with Canada under the United States/Canada Resource Sharing Understanding. Each year, the Transboundary Management Guidance Committee (TMGC), which is a government-industry committee made up of representatives from the U.S. and Canada, recommends a shared quota for each stock based on the most recent stock information and the TMGC's harvest strategy. The TMGC's harvest strategy for setting catch levels is to maintain a low to neutral risk (less than 50 percent) of exceeding the fishing mortality limit for each stock. The harvest strategy also specifies that when stock conditions are poor, fishing mortality should be further reduced to promote stock rebuilding. The shared quotas are allocated between the U.S. and Canada based on a formula that considers historical catch (10-percent weighting) and the current resource distribution (90-percent weighting).
For GB yellowtail flounder, the SSC also recommends an ABC for the stock, which is typically used to inform the U.S. TMGC's discussions with Canada for the annual shared quota. Although the stock is jointly managed with Canada, and the TMGC recommends annual shared quotas, the United States may not set catch limits that would exceed the SSC's recommendation. The SSC does not recommend ABCs for eastern GB cod and haddock because they are management units of the total GB cod and haddock stocks. The SSC recommends overall ABCs for the total GB cod and haddock stocks. The shared U.S./Canada quota for eastern GB cod and haddock is accounted for in these overall ABCs, and must be consistent with the SSC's recommendation for the total GB stocks.
The Transboundary Resources Assessment Committee (TRAC) conducted assessments for the three transboundary stocks in July 2016, and detailed summaries of these assessments can be found at:
The Council's proposed 2017 U.S. quota for eastern GB haddock would be a 95-percent increase compared to 2016. This increase is due to an increase in the shared U.S./Canada quota, as well as an increase in the amount of the quota that is allocated to the United States. The proposed 2017 U.S. quota for eastern GB cod would also be a small increase from 2016 (6 percent). The Council's proposed U.S. quota for GB yellowtail flounder would be a 23-percent decrease compared to 2016. The decrease is in response to continued poor stock condition and a decrease in the U.S. share of the quota. For a more detailed discussion of the TMGC's 2017 catch advice, see the TMGC's guidance document under the “Resources” tab at:
The regulations implementing the U.S./Canada Resource Sharing Understanding require that any overages of the U.S. quota for eastern GB cod, eastern GB haddock, or GB yellowtail flounder be deducted from the U.S. quota in the following fishing year. If catch information for fishing year 2016 indicates that the U.S. fishery exceeded its quota for any of the shared stocks, we will reduce the respective U.S. quotas for fishing year 2017 in a future management action, as soon as possible. If any fishery that is allocated a portion of the U.S. quota exceeds its allocation and causes an overage of the overall U.S. quota, the overage reduction would only be applied to that fishery's allocation in the following fishing year. This ensures that catch by one component of the fishery does not negatively affect another component of the fishery.
The catch limits proposed by the Council in this action can be found in Tables 2 through 9. A brief summary of how these catch limits were developed is provided below. More details on the proposed catch limits for each groundfish stock can be found in Appendix III to the Framework 56 Environmental Assessment (see
Last year, Framework 55 (81 FR 26412; May 2, 2016) adopted fishing year 2016-2018 catch limits for all groundfish stocks, except for the U.S./Canada stocks, which must be set every year. As discussed in section “2. Status Determination Criteria for Witch Flounder,” the Northeast Fisheries Science Center conducted a benchmark assessment for witch flounder in December 2016. The Council considered the results of the witch flounder benchmark assessment at its January 2017 meeting, and included revised catch limits in Framework 56. This rule proposes to implement fishing year 2017-2019 catch limits for witch flounder based on the recent stock assessment and consistent with the recommendations of the Council's SSC. This rule also proposes to incorporate shared U.S./Canada quotas (see section “3. Fishing Year 2017 Shared U.S./Canada Quotas). For most stocks, other than GB cod, GB haddock, GB yellowtail flounder, and witch flounder, catch limits included in this action are identical to those previously implemented in Framework 55, and became effective on May 1, 2017. There are changes to the northern windowpane flounder catch limits related to the proposed allocation of northern windowpane flounder to the scallop fishery (see section “5. Allocation of Northern Windowpane Flounder to the Scallop Fishery”). There are also minor changes to the catch limits for GB winter flounder and white hake due to revised estimates of Canadian catch. Table 2 details the percent change in the 2017 catch limit compared to fishing year 2016.
The overfishing limit (OFL) serves as the maximum amount of fish that can be caught in a year without resulting in overfishing. The OFL for each stock is calculated using the estimated stock size and F
As discussed under section “2. Status Determination Criteria for Witch Flounder,” both the 2016 witch flounder benchmark assessment and the previous benchmark assessment were rejected, and could not be used as a basis for catch advice. In the absence of an assessment model, the peer review panel recommended catch advice for witch flounder based on a swept-area biomass approach. The swept-area biomass approach is entirely different from the age-based assessment approaches used to generate past biomass estimates and catch limits. The swept-area biomass approach indicates that biomass declined from the 1960s to the mid-1990s, increased in the early 2000s, and declined until 2005. Since 2005, stock size appears to have been low relative to the 1960s, but relatively stable. The swept-area biomass approach generates an ABC of 878 mt by applying the mean exploitation rate from 2007 to 2015 to the 3-year moving average of exploitable biomass estimates from the spring and fall NOAA Fisheries trawl surveys.
The SSC met on January 17, 2017, to review the results of the recent benchmark assessment. The SSC's final report for its witch flounder ABC recommendation is available here:
The Northeast Fisheries Science center will conduct an assessment update for witch flounder in fall of 2017, in time to re-specify witch flounder catch limits for fishing year 2018, if necessary. Updated catch and assessment information may provide support for adjusting the ABC for future fishing years. Thus, although the Council proposes a 3-year constant ABC, the catch limits adopted may only be in place for 1 year.
The U.S. ABC for each stock is divided among the various fishery components to account for all sources of fishing mortality. First, an estimate of catch expected from state waters and the “other” sub-component (
Once the U.S. ABC is divided, sub-annual catch limits (sub-ACLs) are set by reducing the amount of the ABC distributed to each component of the fishery to account for management uncertainty. Management uncertainty is the likelihood that management measures will result in a level of catch greater than expected. For each stock and fishery component, management uncertainty is estimated using the following criteria: Enforceability and precision of management measures, adequacy of catch monitoring, latent effort, and catch of groundfish in non-groundfish fisheries. The total ACL is the sum of all of the sub-ACLs and ACL sub-components, and is the catch limit for a particular year after accounting for both scientific and management uncertainty. Landings and discards from all fisheries (commercial and recreational groundfish fisheries, state waters, and non-groundfish fisheries) are counted against the ACL for each
For stocks allocated to sectors, the commercial groundfish sub-ACL is further divided into the non-sector (common pool) sub-ACL and the sector sub-ACL, based on the total vessel enrollment in sectors and the cumulative Potential Sector Contributions (PSCs) associated with those sectors. The sector and common pool sub-ACLs proposed in this action are based on fishing year 2017 PSCs and finalized fishing year 2017 sector rosters. Sector specific allocations for each stock can be found in this rule in section “8. Sector Measures for Fishing Year 2017.”
The common pool sub-ACL for each stock (except for SNE/MA winter flounder, northern windowpane flounder, southern windowpane flounder, ocean pout, Atlantic wolffish, and Atlantic halibut) is further divided into trimester total allowable catches (TACs). The distribution of the common pool sub-ACLs into trimesters was adopted in Amendment 16 to the FMP. Once we project that 90 percent of the trimester TAC is caught for a stock, the trimester TAC area for that stock is closed for the remainder of the trimester to all common pool vessels fishing with gear capable of catching the pertinent stock. Any uncaught portion of the TAC in Trimester 1 or Trimester 2 will be carried forward to the next trimester. Overages of the Trimester 1 or Trimester 2 TAC will be deducted from the Trimester 3 TAC. Any overages of the total common pool sub-ACL will be deducted from the following fishing year's common pool sub-ACL for that stock. Uncaught portions of the Trimester 3 TAC may not be carried over into the following fishing year. Table 6 summarizes the common pool trimester TACs proposed in this action.
Incidental catch TACs are also specified for certain stocks of concern (
Overall fishing effort by both common pool and sector vessels in the Closed Area I Hook Gear Haddock SAP is controlled by an overall TAC for GB haddock, which is the target species for this SAP. The maximum amount of GB haddock that may be caught in any fishing year is based on the amount allocated to this SAP for the 2004 fishing year (1,130 mt), and adjusted according to the growth or decline of the western GB haddock biomass in relationship to its size in 2004. Based on this formula, the Council's proposed GB Haddock TAC for this SAP is 10,709 mt for fishing year 2017. Once this overall TAC is caught, the Closed Area I Hook Gear Haddock SAP will be closed to all groundfish vessels for the remainder of the fishing year.
Framework 53 established a mechanism for setting default catch limits in the event a future management action is delayed. If final catch limits have not been implemented by the start of a fishing year on May 1, then default catch limits are set at 35 percent of the previous year's catch limit, effective until July 31 of that fishing year. If this value exceeds the Council's recommendation for the upcoming fishing year, the default catch limits will be reduced to an amount equal to the Council's recommendation for the upcoming fishing year. Because groundfish vessels are not able to fish if final catch limits have not been implemented, this measure was established to prevent disruption to the groundfish fishery. Additional description of the default catch limit mechanism is provided in the preamble to the Framework 53 final rule (80 FR 25110; May 1, 2015). The default catch limits for 2019 were presented in the Framework 55 Final Rule (81 FR 26412; May 2, 2016) and are not repeated here.
Scallop fishery catch of northern windowpane flounder is currently accounted for under the other sub-component, and has ranged between 6 and 76 percent of total northern windowpane flounder catch between 2010 and 2015. As noted above, under section “4. Catch Limits,” the U.S. ABC for each stock is reduced by an estimate of catch expected from state waters and the “other” sub-component (
For northern windowpane flounder, 33 to 49 percent of the U.S. ABC has been set aside for the other sub-component each year since 2010. Scallop fishery catch accounts for more than 90 percent of other sub-component catch in each of those years, and was greater than two times the other subcomponent value in 2012, 2014, and 2015. This means that outside of the groundfish fishery, the scallop fishery is the major contributor to northern windowpane flounder catches. Further, catch has been over the total ACL for the northern windowpane fishery in every year since 2010. In 2012 and 2015, scallop fishery catch, as part of the other sub-component, directly contributed to the ACL overage.
Because the scallop fishery does not currently have an allocation for northern windowpane flounder, the groundfish fishery is held accountable if high levels of catch in the scallop fishery contribute to an ACL overage. When triggered, the northern windowpane flounder AMs require groundfish trawl vessel to use selective gear that reduces flatfish bycatch in certain areas. This restricts the ability of the groundfish fishery to target and catch marketable species, mainly other flatfish such as winter flounder, and result in adverse economic impacts to the groundfish fleet fishing on Georges Bank when the gear-restricted areas are in place.
This action proposes to establish a scallop fishery sub-ACL for northern windowpane flounder equal to 21 percent of the northern windowpane flounder ABC. This allocation is based on the 90th percentile of scallop fishery catches (as a percent of the total catch) for calendar years 2005 to 2014. This approach is similar to the approach used to set the southern windowpane flounder sub-ACL for the scallop fishery in Framework 48 (78 FR 26118, May 2, 2013). The Council chose a fixed-percentage allocation rather than an allocation based on projected catch because projected catch can fluctuate greatly from year to year. The scallop fishery's sub-ACL would be calculated by reducing the portion of the ABC allocated to the scallop fishery to account for management uncertainty. The current management uncertainty buffer for zero-possession stocks is 7 percent. The management uncertainty buffer can be adjusted each time the groundfish specifications are set.
Creating a sub-ACL and, therefore, an AM for the scallop fishery is intended to create accountability for those
This action does not propose scallop fishery AMs for the northern windowpane flounder sub-ACL. Consistent with other scallop allocations, the Council would develop and adopt scallop fishery AMs for this sub-ACL during 2017. We would work with the Council to develop and implement the AMs in time for fishing year 2018. This means that if there is an overage in the 2017 scallop fishery northern windowpane flounder sub-ACL, that overage would be subject to the AM. Once the scallop fishery AM for northern windowpane flounder is implemented, the groundfish fishery would only be subject to an AM if the groundfish fishery exceeds its sub-ACL and the overall ACL is also exceeded. The proposed 2017 sub-ACL is lower than recent scallop fishery catches of northern windowpane flounder. As a result, this action also proposes an AM trigger that would provide additional flexibility that would hold the scallop fishery accountable but ensure that optimum yield is still achieved. The trigger for the scallop fishery northern windowpane flounder AM is discussed below in section “6. Revised Threshold for Scallop Accountability Measures.”
The scallop fishery has sub-ACLs for GB yellowtail flounder, SNE/MA yellowtail flounder, and southern windowpane flounder. Framework 56 would also implement a scallop fishery sub-ACL for northern windowpane flounder (see section “5. Allocation of Northern Windowpane Flounder for the Scallop Fishery). If the scallop fishery exceeds its sub-ACL for these stocks, it is subject to AMs that, in general, restrict the scallop fishery in seasons and areas with high encounter rates for these stocks. Framework 47 (77 FR 26104, May 2, 2012) set a policy for triggering a scallop fishery AMs for groundfish stocks. Currently, the scallop fishery is subject to AMs for these stocks if either: (1) The scallop fishery exceeds its sub-ACL and the total ACL is exceeded; or (2) the scallop fishery exceeds its sub-ACL by 50 percent or more. This policy was implemented to provide flexibility for the scallop fishery.
Framework 56 proposes that the AMs for GB yellowtail flounder and northern windowpane flounder would only be implemented if scallop fishery catch exceeds its sub-ACL by any amount and the total ACL is also exceeded. The AM trigger would remain unchanged for SNE/MA yellowtail flounder and southern windowpane flounder. The adjustment for GB yellowtail flounder and northern windowpane flounder is intended to provide additional flexibility, beyond the existing scallop AM implementation policy, for the scallop fishery to operate in years when the overall and scallop fishery allocations for these stocks are low. The scallop fishery is expected to operate primarily on Georges Bank in 2017 and 2018, based on scallop rotational area management. The revised thresholds would only be effective for fishing years 2017 and 2018, after which the Council would evaluate the provision to ensure the threshold has effectively constrained both scallop fishery catch and total mortality.
Throughout 2016, the Council considered adjustments to the GB haddock catch cap and associated AM to promote long-term sustainable management the GB haddock stock and groundfish fishery and provide incentives for the midwater Atlantic herring fishery to minimize bycatch for this stock to the extent practicable, while still allowing the herring fishery to achieve optimum yield. The Council's Herring Committee considered a range of alternatives to adjust the accountability measure for the GB haddock catch cap in Framework Adjustment 5 to the Herring FMP. Herring Framework 5 analyzed alternatives to adjust GB haddock AM area, to allocate the existing cap seasonally, and to use state portside sampling data in addition to NEFOP observer data to monitor the cap. At its January 2017 meeting, the Council ultimately voted not to adopt any of the AM adjustment approaches in Herring Framework 5, and ceased developing that action. This means that the existing AMs for the GB haddock catch cap remain in effect. This includes the inseason closure of the GB haddock AM area when the haddock catch cap is reached, and pound-for-pound payback for any overages.
The Groundfish Committee simultaneously considered alternatives to adjust the GB haddock catch cap in Framework 56, and took final action to recommend increasing Atlantic herring midwater trawl fishery's GB haddock catch cap from 1 percent of the U.S. ABC to 1.5 percent at its November 2016 meeting. The Council's decision to increase the GB haddock catch cap in Framework 56 factored into its decision to cease development of Herring Framework 5. The Council's analysis notes that this option better meets the goals and objectives of the Atlantic herring management program. In particular, this option meets the goal to achieve, on a continuing basis, optimum yield, and the objectives to achieve full utilization from the catch of herring, and to promote the utilization of the resource in a manner which maximizes social and economic benefits to the nation, while taking into account the protection of marine ecosystems including minimizing bycatch to the extent practicable.
As in the past, the herring fishery's midwater trawl sub-ACL would be calculated by reducing the portion of the ABC allocated to the herring midwater trawl fishery to account for management uncertainty. The current management uncertainty buffer is 7 percent.
The Council also proposes to establish a process for reviewing the GB haddock midwater trawl sub-ACL. Following an assessment of the entire GB haddock stock, the Groundfish Plan Development Team (PDT) would review groundfish fishery catch performance, utilization, status of the GB haddock resource, recruitment, incoming year-class strength, and the variability in the GB haddock incidental catch estimates for the Atlantic herring midwater trawl fishery. Based on this review, the PDT would determine whether changes to the GB haddock midwater trawl sub-ACL were necessary, and recommend to the Groundfish Committee and Council an appropriate sub-ACL equal to 1 to 2 percent of the GB haddock U.S. ABC.
This action also proposes updated annual catch entitlements for 19 sectors for the 2017 fishing year based on the new catch limits included in Framework 56 and the finalized 2017 sector rosters. Sector operation plan approval, as well as evaluation of sector exemptions, is covered in the interim final rule that approved 2017 and 2018 sector operations plans (82 FR 19618; April 28, 2017).
Regional Administrator approval is required for sectors to receive annual catch entitlements (ACEs) for specific groundfish stocks. The ACE allocations are a portion of a stock's ACL available to the sector based on the collective fishing history of the sector's members. Sectors are allocated ACE for groundfish stocks for which its members have landings history, with the exception of Atlantic halibut, ocean pout, windowpane flounder, and Atlantic wolffish. These stocks are not allocated to sectors.
The sector allocations proposed in this rule are based on the fishing year 2017 specifications described above under “3. Catch Limits.” We calculate the sector's allocation for each stock by summing its members' potential sector contributions (PSC) for a stock, as shown in Table 10. The information presented in Table 10 is the total percentage of each commercial sub-ACL each sector would receive for fishing year 2017, based on finalized fishing year 2017 rosters. Tables 11 and 12 show the allocations each sector would receive for fishing year 2017, based on finalized fishing year 2017 rosters. At the start of the fishing year, after sector enrollment is finalized, we provide the final allocations, to the nearest pound, to the individual sectors, and we use those final allocations to monitor sector catch. While the common pool does not receive a specific allocation, the common pool sub-ACLs have been included in each of these tables for comparison.
We do not assign an individual permit separate PSCs for the Eastern GB cod or Eastern GB haddock; instead, we assign a permit a PSC for the GB cod stock and GB haddock stock. Each sector's GB cod and GB haddock allocations are then divided into an Eastern ACE and a Western ACE, based on each sector's percentage of the GB cod and GB haddock ACLs. For example, if a sector is allocated 4 percent of the GB cod ACL and 6 percent of the GB haddock ACL, the sector is allocated 4 percent of the commercial Eastern U.S./Canada Area GB cod TAC and 6 percent of the commercial Eastern U.S./Canada Area GB haddock TAC as its Eastern GB cod and haddock ACEs. These amounts are then subtracted from the sector's overall GB cod and haddock allocations to determine its Western GB cod and haddock ACEs. Framework 51 implemented a mechanism that allows sectors to “convert” their Eastern GB haddock allocation into Western GB haddock allocation (79 FR 22421; April 22, 2014) and fish that converted ACE in Western GB. Framework 55 implemented a similar measure for GB cod (81 FR 26412; May 2, 2016).
We will allow sectors to transfer fishing year 2016 ACE for 2 weeks of the fishing year following the completion of year-end catch accounting to reduce or eliminate any fishing year 2016 overages. If necessary, we will reduce any sector's fishing year 2017 allocation to account for a remaining overage in fishing year 2016.
Sectors can carry over up to 10 percent of the unused initial allocation for each stock into the next fishing year. However, the maximum available carryover may be reduced if up to 10 percent of the unused sector sub-ACL, plus the total ACL for the upcoming fishing year, exceeds the total ABC. Based on the catch limits proposed in this action, or previously established in Framework 55, we evaluated whether the total potential catch in the 2017 fishing year would exceed the proposed or established 2017 ABC if sectors carried over the maximum 10 percent of unused allocation from 2016 to 2017 (Table 13). Under this scenario, total potential catch would exceed the 2017 ABC for all stocks except for Gulf of Maine (GOM) haddock and witch flounder. As a result, we expect we will need to adjust the maximum amount of unused allocation that a sector can carry forward from 2016 to 2017 (down from 10 percent). It is possible that not all sectors will have 10 percent of unused allocation at the end of fishing year 2016. We will make final adjustments to the maximum carryover possible for each sector based on the final 2016 catch for the sectors, each sector's total unused allocation, and proportional to the cumulative PSCs of vessels/permits participating in the sector. We will announce this adjustment as soon as possible.
Based on the catch limits proposed in this rule, the
The FMP gives us authority to implement certain types of management measures for the common pool fishery, the U.S./Canada Management Area, and Special Management Programs on an annual basis, or as needed. This proposed rule includes a description of these management measures that are being considered for fishing year 2017 in order to provide an opportunity for the public to comment on whether the proposed measures are appropriate. These measures are not part of Framework 56, and were not specifically proposed by the Council. We are proposing them in conjunction with Framework 56 measures in this action for efficiency purposes, and because they relate to the catch limits proposed in Framework 56.
As discussed above in section “4. Catch Limits,” this action proposes to increase the witch flounder ABC for fishing year 2017. We propose to adjust the common pool witch flounder trip limit in response to this increase, after considering changes to the common pool sub-ACLs and sector rosters from 2016 to 2017, proposed trimester TACs for 2017, catch rates of witch flounder during 2016, and other available information. Table 14 summarizes the current common pool trip limit for witch flounder for fishing year 2017 implemented on May 1, 2017 (82 FR 20285; May 1, 2017), and the proposed trip limit. The common pool trip limits for all other groundfish stocks remains the same as those implemented on May 1, 2017.
This action proposes to allocate zero trips for common pool vessels to target yellowtail flounder within the Closed Area II Yellowtail Flounder/Haddock SAP for fishing year 2017. Vessels could still fish in this SAP in 2017 to target haddock, but must fish with a haddock separator trawl, a Ruhle trawl, or hook gear. Vessels would not be allowed to fish in this SAP using flounder trawl nets. This SAP is open from August 1, 2017, through January 31, 2018.
We have the authority to determine the allocation of the total number of trips into the Closed Area II Yellowtail Flounder/Haddock SAP based on several criteria, including the GB yellowtail flounder catch limit and the amount of GB yellowtail flounder caught outside of the SAP. The FMP specifies that no trips should be allocated to the Closed Area II Yellowtail Flounder/Haddock SAP if the available GB yellowtail flounder catch is insufficient to support at least 150 trips with a 15,000-lb (6,804-kg) trip limit (or 2,250,000 lb (1,020,600 kg)). This calculation accounts for the projected catch from the area outside the SAP. Based on the proposed fishing year 2017 GB yellowtail flounder groundfish sub-ACL of 363,763 lb (165,000 kg), there is insufficient GB yellowtail flounder to allocate any trips to the SAP, even if the projected catch from outside the SAP area is zero. Further, given the low GB yellowtail flounder catch limit, catch rates outside of this SAP are more than adequate to fully harvest the 2017 GB yellowtail flounder allocation.
In fishing year 2015, the total ACLs for both northern and southern windowpane flounder were exceeded by more than 20 percent (Table 16). For both stocks, the overage was greater than the management uncertainty buffers, which means that catch exceeded the ABCs. This section describes the AMs for both windowpane flounder stocks that would go into effect upon publication of the Framework 56 final rule, and until April 30, 2018. Because Framework 56 proposes measures to address the operational issue that contributed to the northern windowpane flounder ACL overage, we are requesting specific comment on this AM. At the request of the NEFMC and the Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council (MAFMC), we are also requesting comment on the southern windowpane flounder AM for future actions.
The AM areas for either stock are triggered if the catch limit for a given year is exceeded by more than 5 percent. The AM areas are implemented at the start of the next fishing year after the final catch information is available, meaning the overage in 2015 triggers an AM for 2017. If windowpane catch is between 5 and 20 percent over the limit for either stock, the Small AM Area restriction for the stock is triggered (Figure 1). If windowpane catch is more than 20 percent over the limit for either stock, the Large AM Area restriction is triggered. When the AM areas are effective, certain vessels are required to use approved selective gear types that limit flatfish catch. Sectors cannot request an exemption from these AMs. The AMs would remain in place until April 30, 2018, unless modified through a future action to account for updated information as specified in the regulations. As long as additional overages do not occur, the AMs would be removed at the start of fishing year 2018, beginning on May 1, 2018.
An overview of the windowpane AM is available here:
Fishing year 2015 catch exceeded the total ACL for northern windowpane flounder by 36 percent. Unlike previous years, the groundfish fishery did not exceed its sub-ACL for this stock in 2015. Catch from the other sub-component, primarily the scallop fishery, contributed to the overage. Because no other fishery had an allocation of this stock in 2015, the groundfish fishery would be held responsible for the overage. Catch exceeded the ACL by more than 20 percent, and therefore the large Northern windowpane flounder AM area would take effect for all groundfish trawl vessels upon publication of the Framework 56 final rule (Figure 1). As described in section “5. Allocation of Northern Windowpane Flounder for the Scallop Fishery,” Framework 56 also proposes to establish an allocation for the scallop fishery to address the operational issue that contributed to the 2015 ACL overage.
Total 2015 catch exceeded the total ACL for southern windowpane flounder by more than 20 percent. The groundfish fishery, the scallop fishery, and the other non-groundfish fisheries all contributed to the overage. The New England and Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Councils requested that we consider removing or modifying the southern windowpane accountability measures for fishing year 2017. In support of their requests, the Councils pointed to the status of the southern windowpane flounder stock, as well as the potential economic impacts of the large AM on the groundfish, scallop, and large-mesh non-groundfish fisheries.
The 2015 assessment update for southern windowpane flounder stock found that the stock is not overfished, and that overfishing is not occurring. The stock was declared fully rebuilt in 2010, and overfishing has not occurred for this stock since 2006, despite catch in excess of the ACL in all years from 2010-2015. The ABC was also exceeded in 2010, 2011, 2012, and 2013. In addition, survey indices suggest that stock size has been relatively stable, and increasing since hitting a time series low in the mid-1990s, and that stock size increased marginally between 2014 and 2016. The final rule for the 2009
The New England Council conducted an analysis of calendar year 2015 revenue for yellowtail flounder, winter flounder, summer flounder and scup within the large AM areas. This analysis provides additional details of the extent of the economic impacts on non-groundfish fisheries. In 2015, within the large AM closure area, large-mesh bottom-trawl fisheries for yellowtail flounder, winter flounder, summer flounder, and scup revenues were $2 million. Implementing the large AM area would result in substantial loss of revenue for these fisheries, as well as the groundfish and scallop fisheries.
The regulations provide a formulaic trigger for both windowpane AMs. If the ACL for either windowpane stock is exceeded by more than 20 percent, we are required to implement the large AM area, regardless of current stock status. AMs are management controls to prevent ACLs from being exceeded and to correct or mitigate ACL overages if they occur. AMs should address and minimize the frequency and magnitude of overages and correct the problem that caused the overage in as short a time as possible. We are requesting public comment on implementing the large AM area for southern windowpane in fishing year 2017 in comparison to the small AM area. When the Council developed the southern windowpane AM areas in Framework 47 to the Northeast Multispecies FMP (77 FR 26104; May 2, 2012), it selected boundaries for the areas that were potentially larger than would be expected to achieve the desired catch reductions due to uncertainty in the analysis. Framework 47 also states that the boundaries may be adjusted in the future as experience is gained on the effectiveness of the AM system. We are seeking comments on how and to what degree implementing the small AM area could alleviate some of the anticipated economic impacts of the large AM area, while ensuring it would be consistent with the objectives of the New England and Mid-Atlantic Council fishery management plans. We are also seeking comments on potential future adjustments to the AM that would balance achieving optimum yield and taking into account the needs of fishing communities, without compromising the purpose of the AMs and the conservation objectives to prevent overfishing of the southern windowpane flounder stock.
Because the ACL was exceeded by more than 20 percent, the large AM area would take effect upon implementation of the Framework 56 final rule, for all groundfish trawl vessels, and for non-groundfish trawl vessels fishing with a codend mesh size of 5 inches (12 cm) or greater (Figure 1). The scallop fishery AM restricts the use of dredge gear in the area west of 71° W. longitude, excluding the Mid-Atlantic scallop access areas, for the month of February 2018.
Framework 52 (80 FR 2021; January 15, 2015) implemented a provision that allows us to reduce the size of either windowpane AM area restriction for groundfish vessels if the stock is rebuilt and the biomass criterion is met. The biomass criterion is defined as the most recent 3-year average of catch per tow from the fall surveys multiplied by 75 percent of F
We are proposing minor changes to the regulatory text to simplify the regulations, and clarify regulatory intent.
This proposed rule clarifies the regulatory text regarding net obstruction or constriction in § 648.80 to improve enforceability.
This proposed rule would remove § 648.85(d), which describes the now obsolete haddock incidental catch allowance for some Atlantic herring vessels as a special access program within the Northeast multispecies fishery. The haddock incidental catch allowances were codified in the regulations at § 648.90(a)(4)(iii)(D) as midwater trawl sub-ACLs for the GOM and GB haddock stocks when we implemented ACLs and AMs in Amendment 16. This proposed rule would remove the references to § 648.85(d) throughout the regulations, and replace them with the reference to the haddock mid-water trawl sub-ACLs.
This proposed rule clarifies the regulatory text that describes the windowpane flounder and ocean pout accountability measures in § 648.90.
Pursuant to section 304(b)(1)(A) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, the NMFS Assistant Administrator has made a preliminary determination that this proposed rule is consistent with Framework 56, other provisions of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and other applicable law. In making the final determination, we will consider the data, views, and comments received during the public comment period.
This proposed rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order (E.O.) 12866.
This proposed rule does not contain policies with Federalism or “takings” implications as those terms are defined in E.O. 13132 and E.O. 12630, respectively.
The Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration that this proposed rule, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
Framework Adjustment 56 proposes to revise groundfish catch limits for four of the 20 groundfish stocks for fishing years 2017-2019 (May 1, 2017, through April 30, 2020), adjust several allocations and accountability measures (AMs) for groundfish catch in non-groundfish fisheries, and make other administrative changes to groundfish management measures. Our analysis of the likely economic impacts of Framework 56 measures predicts that the proposed action will have positive impacts on fishing vessels, purchasers of seafood products, recreational anglers, and operators of party/charter businesses.
For the purposes of our Regulatory Flexibility Act analysis, the proposed action is considered to regulate ownership entities that are potentially affected by the action. Ownership entities are identified on June 1st of each year based on the list of any type of northeast Federal fishing permit for the most recent complete calendar year. For this action, ownership data was drawn from permits issued for fisheries in 2015. As of the beginning of fishing year 2015 (May 1, 2015), NOAA's National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) issued 3,079 permits that this action potentially affects.
Ownership data collected from 2015 permit holders indicates that there are 1,505 distinct business entities that hold at least one permit that could be directly regulated by the proposed action. Of the 3,079 permits held by these business entities, there were 919 limited access groundfish permits, 268 recreational handgear permits, 726 limited access and general category Atlantic sea scallop permits, 798 small-mesh multispecies permits, and 368 Atlantic herring permits. There were 2,037 vessels associated with these permits. Each vessel may be individually owned or part of a larger corporate ownership structure.
For RFA purposes only, NMFS established a small business size standard for businesses, including their affiliates, whose primary industry is commercial fishing (see 50 CFR 200.2). A business primarily engaged in commercial fishing (NAICS code 11411) is classified as a small business if it is independently owned and operated, is not dominant in its field of operation (including its affiliates), and has combined annual receipts not in excess of $11 million for all its affiliated operations worldwide. The determination as to whether the entity is large or small is based on the average annual revenue for the 3 years from 2013 through 2015.
Ownership data for calendar year 2015 permits contains gross sales associated with the permits for calendar years 2013 through 2015 that were issued to the 1,505 business entities. Of these 1,505 entities, 202 are inactive and do not have revenues. Using NMFS size standards, 1,495 of the 1,505 entities are categorized as small. The remaining 10 are categorized as large entities.
Framework Adjustment 56 would update 2017-2019 catch limits for witch flounder and 2017 catch limits for the three U.S./Canada stocks (Eastern Georges Bank (GB) cod, Eastern GB haddock, and GB yellowtail flounder). Compared to 2016, Framework 56 would increase the catch limits for Eastern GB cod (by 6 percent), Eastern GB haddock (by 94 percent), and witch flounder (by 91 percent), and would decrease the catch limit for GB yellowtail flounder (by 23 percent). The proposed action allows additional fishing opportunities for the commercial components of the groundfish fishery by extending fishing in the Eastern U.S./Canada area. If no action is taken, the Eastern U.S./Canada area would only be open to fishing for three months (May through July), and the proposed action would keep this area open year-round. The increases in the catch limits for Eastern GB cod, Eastern GB haddock, and witch flounder, as well as the fact that the proposed action would keep the Eastern U.S./Canada area for the full fishing year, more than offset the decrease in the catch limit for GB yellowtail flounder.
The proposed action would establish a northern windowpane flounder allocation for the scallop fishery equal to 21 percent of the northern windowpane flounder catch limit. The allocation would cap the incidental catch of northern windowpane flounder in the scallop fishery. Until an AM is developed for the scallop fishery, the 21-percent northern windowpane flounder allocation would have little to no impact on the scallop fishery.
Framework 56 proposes to temporarily change the threshold for implementing scallop fishery AMs for its allocations for GB yellowtail flounder and northern windowpane flounder. Currently, the scallop fishery is subject to AMs for these stocks if either: (1) The scallop fishery exceeds its sub-ACL and the total ACL is exceeded; or (2) the scallop fishery exceeds its sub-ACL by 50 percent or more. The proposed action would only implement scallop fishery AMs for GB yellowtail flounder and northern windowpane flounder if the scallop fishery exceeds its sub-ACL and the total ACL is exceeded in 2017 or 2018. This adjustment provides flexibility for the scallop fishery to operate in years when its allocations for GB yellowtail flounder and northern windowpane flounder are low. In the case of northern windowpane flounder, this adjustment could help offset any potential negative impacts that may result from the AM, once it is developed.
A change in availability due to improved stock conditions could increase the likelihood that groundfish fishery participants would target GB yellowtail flounder. In order to avoid ACL overages, the groundfish fishery may need to limit efforts to target GB yellowtail flounder in 2017 or 2018 if scallop fishery catch is high. However, in recent years, GB yellowtail flounder catch in the groundfish fishery has been low, and less than 40 percent of the groundfish fishery sub-ACL was caught in fishing years 2013 through 2015. Groundfish fishery catch is not expected to increase in 2017, and as a result, this action would not have negative economic impacts for the groundfish fishery.
Framework 56 proposes to increase the Atlantic herring midwater trawl fishery's haddock catch cap for the GB haddock stock from 1 percent of the U.S. ABC to 1.5 percent. This increase is expected to provide additional opportunity to achieve optimum yield in the herring fishery, while still minimizing GB haddock catch in midwater trawl gear. The proposed increased allocation should provide better opportunity for the Atlantic herring fishery to avoid triggering the AM while taking into account GB haddock conditions and minimizing bycatch to the extent practicable. The AM reduces herring possession to 2,000 lb throughout most of the GB stock area until the end of the groundfish fishing year.
Overall, the measures proposed in Framework 56 are expected to have a positive economic effect on small entities. The changes to annual catch limits allow for nine additional months of fishing in the Eastern U.S./Canada fishing area, and generate additional groundfish gross revenues. This action would provide groundfish, scallop, and herring fishermen with additional fishing opportunities, enhance their operational flexibility, and increase profits.
This action is not expected to have a significant or substantial effect on small entities. The effects on the regulated small entities identified in this analysis are expected to be positive. Under the proposed action, small entities would not be placed at a competitive disadvantage relative to large entities, and the regulations would not reduce the profits for any small entities. As a result, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis is not required, and none has been prepared.
Fisheries, Fishing, Recordkeeping and reporting requirements.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, 50 CFR part 648 is proposed to be amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1801
(g) Restrictions on gear and methods of fishing—(1)
(2)
The additions and revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(4) * * *
(iii) * * *
(D)
(E)
(5) * * *
(i) * * *
(D) * * *
(
(
(
(iv)
(A)
(B)
Columbia River Gorge National Scenic Area, Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of proposed new recreation fee.
The Columbia River Gorge National Scenic Area, located in Hood River, Oregon, is proposing to charge a new standard amenity fee of $5 per vehicle per day for use of services and facilities at the Sandy River Delta site. The 1,400-acre Sandy River Delta site, acquired by the Forest Service in 1991, offers five diverse-use trails (5.25 miles total) including a 1.2-mile accessible gravel trail to the Sandy River Delta confluence and bird blind. The Forest Service provides vault toilets, trash service, picnic tables, parking for vehicles (and vehicles with horse trailers), interpretive signage, and regular patrols of the area. The proposed fee would help cover the costs of operations and maintenance of the vault toilets, trash service, septic pumping, ranger patrols, and hazard tree abatement as well as future improvements and replacement of facilities. This fee is only proposed and will be determined upon further analysis and public comment.
Send any comments about these fee proposals by August 21, 2017 so they can be compiled, analyzed and shared with the Mt Hood-Willamette Resource Advisory Committee. If approved, the new recreation use fee will go into effect no sooner than December 19, 2017.
Area Manager, Columbia River Gorge National Scenic Area, 902 Wasco Ave., Suite 200, Hood River, OR 97031.
Lorelei Haukness, Recreation Fee Coordinator, 541-308-1700.
The Federal Recreation Lands Enhancement Act (Title VII, Pub. L. 108-447) directed the Secretary of Agriculture to publish a six month advance notice in the
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of intent to prepare an environmental impact statement.
The Unites States Forest Service (USFS), Sierra National Forest, proposes to approve the Notice of Intent (NOI) and Plan of Operations (PoO) submitted by the Torosians to mine gold bearing alluvial gravels along an un-named perennial stream channel, tributary to West Fork Chiquito Creek.
Comments concerning the scope of the analysis must be received by July 24, 2017. The draft environmental impact statement is expected August 2018 and the final environmental impact statement is expected October 2018.
Send written comments to 1600 Tollhouse Road, Clovis, CA 93611. Comments may also be sent via email to
It is important that reviewers provide their comments at such times and in such a way that they are useful to the Agency's preparation of the EIS. Therefore, comments should be provided prior to the close of the comment period and should clearly articulate the reviewer's concerns and contentions.
Comments received in response to this solicitation, including names and addresses of those who comment, will be part of the public record for this proposed action. Comments submitted anonymously will be accepted and considered, however.
Alan Gallegos, 559-297-0706 extension 4862 or
Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8 a.m. and 8 p.m., Eastern Time, Monday through Friday.
The project is located in Madera County, CA in T. 6 S.; R. 23E, 24E, Sections 13, 18, 19. Dave and Steve Torosian have one lode claim (Try Me 1) and three placer claims (Try Me 2, 3, & 5) along an un-named perennial stream channel tributary to West Fork Chiquito Creek, above Soda Springs. Dave and Steve Torosian have submitted a proposal to mine gold bearing alluvial gravels primarily in their Try Me 2 claim. The Try Me 2 Claim is located along approximately, 1,350 feet of perennial stream channel. The Sierra National Forest received a Notice of Intent (NOI) from Dave and Steve Torosian to mine gravels along an un-named perennial stream channel, tributary to West Fork Chiquito Creek. Upon review of the NOI, it was determined that the proposal would likely result in significant impacts to the stream channel and associated surface resources and a Plan of Operation (PoO with details of their proposal was requested. The role of the USFS regarding mining activities on National Forest system lands is to ensure that mining activities minimize adverse environmental effects to surface resources, and comply with all applicable environmental laws. Congress has not given the USFS authority to unreasonably circumscribe
The purpose of the project from the USFS perspective is to comply with the agency responsibility to comply with the 1872 Mining Act and the 36 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 228 requiring the USFS to authorize a proposed PoO submitted by Dave and Steve Torosian, with the appropriate mitigation measures and to reclaim the mining disturbance to pre-existing conditions. The purpose of the project from the proponent's perspective is to mine gold bearing gravels along 1350 feet of channel, as a pilot project to determine the most practical, economically efficient and viable future mining method.
The mining PoO proposes to excavate alluvial gold bearing gravels along the stream channel in three locations. Mining activity would consist of excavating the entire width of the stream channel and floodplain down to a depth of approximately 5 feet. Each excavation would be 200 to 300 feet long with the total volume of excavated stream channel estimated to be 4,000-5,000 cubic yards. Design criteria set forth in the California Storm Water Best Management Practices handbook and be approved by a Qualified Storm Water Pollution Prevention Plan Designer would be implemented as part of the project.
Other activities associated with the mining operation include setting up a camp, adjacent to the West Fork Chiquito Creek and moving in a small storage container to store equipment and supplies. Shallow samples of soil would be collected throughout the 120 acres of the Try Me Claims. Samples would be taken in a grid pattern for assay and geochemical assessment of the area.
All lands disturbed by this proposal would be reclaimed and restored to a condition that is consistent with the Sierra National Forest Land Management Plan, as amended, USFS Region 5 and national USFS native plant policy as well as applicable State air and water quality requirements.
A USFS approved re-vegetation plan would be developed and implemented. The plan specifies site-specific locally native species sown from seed, or propagated from cuttings or other vegetative methods to be planted. Introduction prevention and spread of invasive non-native plants would be built into all stages of the project.
Sierra National Forest Supervisor, Dean A. Gould.
The decision to be made is whether or not to approve and authorize the proposed mining PoO submitted by Dave and Steve Torosian.
Preliminary issues include diversion of water from the small tributary where mining is proposed and stream bed alteration of a perennial stream channel where mining will occur; management of invasive weeds; impacts to riparian habitat; and soil and vegetation disruption resulting in habitat disturbance and erosion.
Several permits will be required including (1) permit from California Fish and Game (401) and possible Migratory Bird Take Permit; (2) discharge permit from California Water Quality Control Board; (3) stream alteration permit (404) from the Army Corp of Engineers; and (4) reclamation permit from the California Department of Mines.
This notice of intent initiates the scoping process, which guides the development of the environmental impact statement. It is important that reviewers provide their comments at such times and in such manner that they are useful to the agency's preparation of the environmental impact statement. Therefore, comments should be provided prior to the close of the comment period and should clearly articulate the reviewer's concerns and contentions.
Natural Resources Conservation Service (NRCS).
Notice of availability of proposed revisions to Section I of the Iowa, Minnesota, North Dakota, and South Dakota State Technical Guides for public review and comment.
Notice is hereby given of the intention of NRCS to issue revisions to the State Offsite Methods (SOSM) for use in Iowa, North Dakota, Minnesota, and South Dakota. The SOSM is used in completing wetland determinations for USDA program eligibility purposes. The existing SOSM's have been in use since July 2015, NRCS is seeking comments only on the proposed revisions to these documents. The revisions are needed to clarify procedures and improve consistency in application.
NRCS State Conservationists in each of these States will incorporate their revised SOSM into Section I of their respective electronic Field Office Technical Guide (FOTG). As identified in the National Food Security Act Manual these revised methods may be used for completion of wetland determinations. Section 343 of the Federal Agriculture Improvement and Reform Act of 1996 requires NRCS to make available for public review and comment all proposed revisions to methods and procedures used to carry out the Highly Erodible Land and wetland compliance provisions of the 1985 Food Security Act (as amended).
Final versions of these revised State Offsite Methods will be adopted after the close of the 30-day period and after consideration of all comments.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket Number NRCS-2016-0012, using any of the following methods:
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•
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NRCS will post all comments on
The appropriate NRCS State Conservationist as listed below;
Electronic copies of the proposed revised SOSMs are available in the docket information section of this notice. There are separate SOSM documents for each state. In general, all documents have similar language with the exception that the South Dakota and North Dakota SOSM contains procedures for playa wetlands. Playa wetlands do not exist in either Minnesota or Iowa. NRCS is seeking comments on the revisions to these documents. Each document's revisions (deletions, additions, and strike-throughs) can be viewed in a “track changes” format. Requests for paper versions or inquiries may be directed to Paul Flynn, Wetland Project Manager, U.S. Department of Agriculture, Natural Resources Conservation Service, 375 Jackson Street, Suite 600, St. Paul, Minnesota 55101.
To fully understand the proposed revisions, individuals are encouraged to compare these changes with each State's current version as shown on each State's Web site. To aid in this comparison, following are highlights of the proposed revisions to each State's SOSM by section:
• Clarifies that sampling unit boundaries as viewed on aerial imagery can be adjusted using other references including Light Detection and Ranging data.
• Reinforces that for sites without pre-1985 manipulation sampling units can be identified using references other than aerial imagery.
• Provides clarification that all sampling units recorded on the Base Map reflect consideration of Normal Environmental Conditions and sites with pre-1985 drainage also accurately reflect the condition of the drainage.
• Provides direction that drainage manipulations and their approximate year of installation will be identified on the base map or another reference.
• Clarifies how the Official Soil Description (OSD) section titled “Use and Vegetation” can be used in verifying hydrophytic vegetation.
• Clarifies that wetland hydrology for sites without pre-1985 drainage is determined to be present when wetness signatures are found on 50 percent or more of imagery reviewed.
• Explains that the wetland hydrology review for sites without pre-1985 drainage consists of all available normal years starting with the 2014 image year and going back to 1980.
• Clarifies how wetness signatures are defined and annotated on the data sheet.
• Allows that when a normal year image is of poor quality such that wetness signatures are not discernable, those image years can be excluded from the imagery review.
• Defines the term “all available” when used with aerial images or photography.
• Explains how the agency expert determines the best drainage condition of the sampling unit.
• Explains how, after determining the best drained condition, the agency expert uses aerial imagery to determine when wetland hydrology is positive or negative.
• Allows verification based on person provided records that document cropping history.
• Adds additional references that can be used to make this determination.
• Provides that verification will include review of the most recent year of aerial photography available.
• Adds this verification as an independent determination.
• Deletes this entire Section including Table 1. Guidance in the National Food Security Act Manual will be followed to apply USDA wetland labels.
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules
The meeting will be held on Friday, August 4, 2017, at 12:00 p.m. CST.
Public call information: Dial: 888-359-3624, Conference ID: 6816990.
Melissa Wojnaroski, DFO, at
Members of the public can listen to the discussion. This meeting is available to the public through the public call information listed above. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. The conference call operator will ask callers to identify themselves, the organization they are affiliated with (if any), and an email address prior to placing callers into the conference room. Callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-977-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Members of the public are also entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Regional Programs Unit Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 55 W. Monroe St., Suite 410, Chicago, IL 60615. They may also be faxed to the Commission at (312) 353-8324, or emailed to Carolyn Allen at
Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Unit Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meeting will be available via
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act that the Arkansas Advisory Committee (Committee) will hold a meeting on Monday, July 10, 2017, at 12:00 noon Central for the purpose of voting on a topic of study.
The meeting will be held on Monday, July 10, 2017, at 12:00 noon. CST.
Public call information: Dial: 888-899-5068, Conference ID: 8749656.
David Barreras, DFO, at
Members of the public can listen to the discussion. This meeting is available to the public through the following toll-free call-in number: 888-899-5068, conference ID: 8749656. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. The conference call operator will ask callers to identify themselves, the organization they are affiliated with (if any), and an email address prior to placing callers into the conference room. Callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-977-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Members of the public are also entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Midwestern Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 55 W. Monroe St., Suite 410, Chicago, IL 60615. They may also be faxed to the Commission at (312) 353-8324, or emailed to Carolyn Allen at
Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Midwestern Regional Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meeting will be available via
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act that the Illinois Advisory Committee (Committee) will hold a meeting on Tuesday, August 01, 2017, at 12:00 p.m. CST for the purpose of reviewing and discussing a draft report regarding civil rights and voting in the state.
The meeting will be held on Tuesday, August 01, 2017, at 12:00 p.m. CST.
Public call information: Dial: 888-572-7025, Conference ID: 7517480.
Melissa Wojnaroski, DFO, at
Members of the public may listen to the discussion. This meeting is available to the public through the call in information listed above. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement to the Committee as time allows. The conference call operator will ask callers to identify themselves, the organization they are affiliated with (if any), and an email address prior to placing callers into the conference room. Callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-977-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Members of the public are also entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Midwestern Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 55 W. Monroe St., Suite 410, Chicago, IL 60615. They may also be faxed to the Commission at (312) 353-8324, or emailed to Carolyn Allen at
Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Midwestern Regional Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meeting will be available via
Office of the Secretary, Department of Commerce.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Office of the Secretary (OS), Department of Commerce, has submitted an Information Collection Request (ICR), described below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. This is a new ICR to seek generic clearance for the collection of routine information requested of responders to solicitations the Federal government makes during the issuance of challenges and competitions posted on the General Service Administration (GSA)'s
Written comments must be submitted on or before July 24, 2017.
Submit your comments to
This information collection request may be viewed at
The information collected will be used to understand whether the participant has met the technical requirements for the challenge, assist in the technical review and judging of the solutions that are provided, and understand the impact and consequences of administering the competition and developing solutions for submission. Information may be collected during the competition or after its completion. The submissions are evaluated by the submitting agency and typically prizes (monetary and non-monetary) are awarded to the winning entries.
This clearance applies to challenges posted on
We anticipate that approximately 250 challenges would be issued each year by DOC. It is expected that other federal agencies will issue a similar number of challenges. There is no set schedule for the issuance of challenges; they are developed and issued on an “as needs” basis in response to issues the federal agency wishes to solve. The respondents to the challenges, who are participating voluntarily, are unlikely to reply to more than one or several of the challenges.
Although in previous memoranda the GSA and Office of Management and Budget (OMB) described circumstances whereby OMB approval of a PRA request is not needed, program officials at DOC have identified several sets of information that will typically need to be requested of solution providers to enable the solutions to be adequately evaluated by the program office issuing the challenge. These requests for additional information have been suggested to require a PRA review as they represent structured data requests.
There are three types of additional data that may routinely be requested. These include the following:
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
On May 20, 2016, in the U.S. District Court for the Southern District of New York, Ali Reza Parsa (“Parsa”) was convicted of violating the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (50
Section 766.25 of the Export Administration Regulation (“EAR” or “Regulations”)
BIS has received notice of Parsa's conviction for violating IEEPA, and has provided notice and an opportunity for Parsa to make a written submission to BIS, as provided in Section 766.25 of the Regulations. BIS has received a submission from Parsa.
Based upon my review and my consultations with BIS's Office of Export Enforcement, including its Director, and the facts available to BIS, I have decided to deny Parsa's export privileges under the Regulations for a period of 10 years from the date of Parsa's conviction. I have also decided to revoke all licenses issued pursuant to the Act or Regulations in which Parsa had an interest at the time of his conviction.
Accordingly, it is hereby
A. Applying for, obtaining, or using any license, license exception, or export control document;
B. Carrying on negotiations concerning, or ordering, buying, receiving, using, selling, delivering, storing, disposing of, forwarding, transporting, financing, or otherwise servicing in any way, any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or engaging in any other activity subject to the Regulations; or
C. Benefitting in any way from any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or from any other activity subject to the Regulations.
A. Export or reexport to or on behalf of the Denied Person any item subject to the Regulations;
B. Take any action that facilitates the acquisition or attempted acquisition by the Denied Person of the ownership, possession, or control of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States, including financing or other support activities related to a transaction whereby the Denied Person acquires or attempts to acquire such ownership, possession or control;
C. Take any action to acquire from or to facilitate the acquisition or attempted acquisition from the Denied Person of any item subject to the Regulations that has been exported from the United States;
D. Obtain from the Denied Person in the United States any item subject to the Regulations with knowledge or reason to know that the item will be, or is intended to be, exported from the United States; or
E. Engage in any transaction to service any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States and which is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person, or service any item, of whatever origin, that is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person if such service involves the use of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States. For purposes of this paragraph, servicing means installation, maintenance, repair, modification or testing.
International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice.
The United States Department of Commerce's (DOC) International Trade
Representatives of U.S. companies from across the U.S. civil nuclear supply chain are eligible to participate. In addition, organizations providing related services to the industry, such as universities, research institutions, and U.S. civil nuclear trade associations, are eligible for participation. The mission will help U.S. participants gain market insights, make industry contacts, solidify business strategies, and identify or advance specific projects with the goal of increasing U.S. civil nuclear exports to a wide variety of countries interested in nuclear energy.
The schedule includes: Meetings with foreign delegations and discussions with senior U.S. Government officials and IAEA staff on important civil nuclear topics including regulatory, technology and standards, liability, public acceptance, export controls, financing, infrastructure development, and R&D cooperation. Past U.S. Industry Programs have included participation by the U.S. Secretary of Energy, the Chairman of the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) and senior U.S. Government officials from the Departments of Commerce, Energy, State, the U.S. Export-Import Bank and the National Security Council.
There are significant opportunities for U.S. businesses in the global civil nuclear energy market. With 60 reactors currently under construction in 15 countries and 158 nuclear plant projects planned in 27 countries over the next 8-10 years, this translates to a market demand for equipment and services totaling $500-740 billion over the next ten years. This mission contributes to DOC's Civil Nuclear Trade Initiative by assisting U.S. businesses in entering or expanding in international markets.
The IAEA General Conference is the premier global meeting of civil nuclear policymakers, and typically attracts over 1,200 senior officials and industry representatives from all 162 IAEA Member States. As such, it is an opportunity to highlight the breadth and depth of the U.S. civil nuclear sector to foreign energy policymakers and potential customers. The U.S. Industry Program will provide opportunities for U.S. industry representatives to meet with U.S. Government representatives and discuss key issues of interest for civil nuclear exporters. The program will also feature briefings from foreign government representatives, providing opportunities for participants to develop contacts in potential export markets.
The purpose of the U.S. Industry Program is to highlight the benefits of U.S. civil nuclear technology to foreign decision makers in key export markets and to enable representatives from the U.S. public and private sector to discuss U.S. industry's role in the safe and secure expansion of civil nuclear power worldwide. U.S. participants will also have the opportunity to network and build relationships in the global civil nuclear sector, interact with foreign government and industry officials, and learn more about current and future project opportunities. Foreign government participants will hear about the expertise that the U.S. industry has amassed in this sector and may learn how to better partner with U.S. industry on future nuclear power projects.
On Monday, September 18, trade mission participants will begin with a Policymaker's Roundtable and an interagency U.S. Government briefing featuring discussion sessions and remarks by senior officials from the U.S. Departments of Commerce, Energy and State, and the NRC. In addition, on Monday and Tuesday, meetings with foreign delegation officials from some of the top markets for U.S. civil nuclear exports will be scheduled. Approximately ten such meetings will be planned throughout the duration of the event. Throughout the weeklong conference, participants can attend IAEA side meetings using their official IAEA badges, which will be provided as part of the program.
****Note that specific events and meeting times have yet to be confirmed****
Applicants must sign and submit a completed Trade Mission application form and satisfy all of the conditions of participation in order to be eligible for consideration. Applications will be evaluated on the applicant's ability to best satisfy the participation criteria.
A minimum of 15 and maximum of 50 companies and/or trade associations and/or U.S. academic and research institutions will be selected to participate in the mission. The Department of Commerce will evaluate applications and inform applicants of selection decisions on a rolling basis until the maximum number of participants has been selected.
Applicants must submit a completed mission application signed by a company, trade association, or academic or research institution official, together with supplemental application materials, including adequate information on the organization's products and/or services, primary market objectives, and goals for participation. If the DOC receives an incomplete application, the DOC may reject the application, request additional information, or take the lack of information into account in its evaluation.
Each applicant must certify that their organization is not majority owned or controlled by a foreign government entity (or foreign government entities). Each applicant also must certify that the
Applicants must:
• Certify that the products and services that it wishes to market through the mission would be in compliance with U.S. export controls and regulations;
• Certify that it has identified any matter pending before any bureau or office in the U.S. Department of Commerce;
• Certify that it has identified any pending litigation (including any administrative proceedings) to which it is a party that involves the U.S. Department of Commerce;
• Sign and submit an agreement that it and its affiliates (1) have not and will not engage in the bribery of foreign officials in connection with a company's/participant's involvement in this mission, and (2) maintain and enforce a policy that prohibits the bribery of foreign officials; and
• Certify that it meets the minimum requirements as stated in this announcement.
Applicants from a company, organization or institution that is majority owned or controlled by a foreign government entity will not be considered for participation in the U.S. Industry Program.
Selection will be based on the following criteria:
• Suitability of the company's (or, in the case of another organization, represented companies' or constituents') products or services to each of the markets the company or organization has expressed an interest in exporting to as part of this trade mission.
• The company's (or, in the case of another organization, represented companies' or constituents') potential for business in each of the markets the company or organization has expressed an interest in exporting to as part of this trade mission, including likelihood of exports resulting from the mission.
• Consistency of the applicant company's (or, in the case of another organization, represented companies' or constituents') goals and objectives with the stated mission scope.
Referrals from political organizations and any documents containing references to partisan political activities (including political contributions) will be removed from an applicant's submission and will not be considered.
Recruitment for participation in the U.S. Industry Program as a representative of the U.S. nuclear industry will be conducted in an open and public manner, including publication in the
After a company or organization has been selected to participate on the mission, a payment to the DOC in the form of a participation fee is required. The fee covers ITA support to register U.S. industry participants for the IAEA General Conference Participants will be able to take advantage of discounted rates for hotel rooms.
• The fee to participate in the event is $1,600 for a large company and $1,200 for a small or medium-sized company (SME), a trade association, or a U.S. university or research institution. The fee for each additional representative (large company, trade association, university/research institution, or SME) is $900.
○ For purposes of this mission, a SME is defined as a company/organization with less than $7 million in average annual receipts and fewer than five hundred employees (Source: U.S. Small Business Administration).
• To apply to the mission, complete the trade mission application at
Participants selected for the Trade Mission will be expected to pay for the cost of all personal expenses, including, but not limited to, international travel, lodging, meals, transportation, communication, and incidentals, unless otherwise noted. In the event that the Mission is cancelled, no personal expenses paid in anticipation of a Trade Mission will be reimbursed. However, participation fees for a cancelled Trade Mission will be reimbursed to the extent they have not already been expended in the anticipation of the Mission.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of non-compliance referral.
NMFS announces that on June 12, 2017, we received a letter from the Atlantic States Marine Fisheries Commission finding the State of New Jersey out of compliance with Addendum XXVIII to the Summer Flounder, Scup, and Black Sea Bass Interstate Fishery Management Plan and requesting Federal non-compliance review under the provisions of the Atlantic Coastal Fisheries Cooperative Management Act. This notice is necessary to alert the public that NMFS has received and is reviewing the referral of non-compliance from the Commission. The intended effect of this notice is to inform the public of the Commission's recommendation to the Secretary of Commerce and to outline both the decision-making process that will be used and potential outcomes of the non-compliance review.
Emily Gilbert, Fishery Policy Analyst, (978) 281-9244.
The Atlantic States Marine Fisheries Commission (Commission) developed Addendum XXVIII to the Summer Flounder, Scup, and Black Sea Bass Interstate Fishery Management Plan (ISFMP) to specify 2017 recreational management measures (
These measures were designed to constrain coastwide catch of summer flounder to within the 2017 recreational harvest limit. For New Jersey, Addendum XXVIII requires the following measures:
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The Commission required New Jersey to implement these measures in state waters by May 25, 2017. Instead, New Jersey implemented size limits that are one-inch lower in each area described in the bullets above and instituted a season of 104 days. The bag limits remain the same as those required under the addendum. On June 1, 2017, the Commission found the State of New Jersey out of compliance for not fully and effectively implementing and enforcing the Addendum XXVIII measures. The Commission notified NMFS of its non-compliance finding by letter on June 12, 2017.
Federal response to a Commission non-compliance referral is governed by the Atlantic Coastal Fisheries Cooperative Management Act (Atlantic Coastal Act). Under the Atlantic Coastal Act, the Secretary of Commerce must make two findings within 30 days after receiving the non-compliance referral. First, the Secretary must determine whether the state in question (in this case, New Jersey) has failed to carry out its responsibilities under the ISFMP. Second, the Secretary must determine whether the measures that the State has failed to implement or enforce are necessary for the conservation of the fishery in question (in this case, summer flounder). If NMFS determines that New Jersey has failed to carry out its responsibilities under the ISFMP, and if the measures it failed to implement are necessary for conservation, then, according to the Atlantic Coastal Act, NMFS must declare a moratorium on summer flounder fishing in New Jersey waters. Further, the moratorium must become effective within six months of the date of the Secretary's non-compliance determination. If New Jersey is found out of compliance by NMFS and later implements Addendum XXVIII measures, the Atlantic Coastal Act allows the state to petition the Commission that it has come back into compliance. If the Commission concurs that New Jersey has come into compliance, the Commission will notify the Secretary. If the Secretary concurs, the moratorium will be withdrawn.
NMFS has notified New Jersey, the Commission, and the Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council in separate letters, of its receipt of the Commission's non-compliance referral. NMFS solicits comments from the Commission and Council to the extent either is interested in providing comments on the non-compliance referral. NMFS also indicated to New Jersey that it is entitled to meet with and present its comments directly to NMFS, if so desired.
NMFS intends to make its non-compliance determination, including supporting rationale, on or about July 11, 2017, which is 30 days after receipt of the Commission's non-compliance referral. NMFS will announce its determination by
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; request for nominations.
As required by section 117(d) of the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA), the Secretary of Commerce established three independent regional scientific review groups (SRGs) to provide advice on a range of marine mammal science and management issues. NMFS has conducted a membership review of the Alaska, Atlantic, and Pacific SRGs, and is soliciting nominations for new members to fill vacancies and gaps in expertise.
Nominations must be received by July 24, 2017.
Nominations can be emailed to
Shannon Bettridge, Office of Protected Resources, 301-427-8402,
Section 117(d) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1386(d)) directs the Secretary of Commerce to establish three independent regional SRGs to advise the Secretary (authority delegated to NMFS). The Alaska SRG advises on marine mammals that occur in waters off Alaska that are under the jurisdiction of the United States. The Pacific SRG advises on marine mammals that occur in waters off the U.S. West Coast, Hawaiian Islands, and the U.S. Territories in the Central and Western Pacific that are under the jurisdiction of
SRGs members are highly qualified individuals with expertise in marine mammal biology and ecology, population dynamics and modeling, commercial fishing technology and practices, and stocks taken under section 101(b) of the MMPA. The SRGs provide expert reviews of draft marine mammal stock assessment reports and other information related to the matters identified in section 117(d)(1) of the MMPA, including:
A. Population estimates and the population status and trends of marine mammal stocks;
B. Uncertainties and research needed regarding stock separation, abundance, or trends, and factors affecting the distribution, size, or productivity of the stock;
C. Uncertainties and research needed regarding the species, number, ages, gender, and reproductive status of marine mammals;
D. Research needed to identify modifications in fishing gear and practices likely to reduce the incidental mortality and serious injury of marine mammals in commercial fishing operations;
E. The actual, expected, or potential impacts of habitat destruction, including marine pollution and natural environmental change, on specific marine mammal species or stocks, and for strategic stocks, appropriate conservation or management measures to alleviate any such impacts; and
F. Any other issue which the Secretary or the groups consider appropriate.
SRG members collectively serve as independent advisors to NMFS and the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service and provide their expert review and recommendations through participation in the SRG. Members attend annual meetings and undertake activities as independent persons providing expertise in their subject areas. Members are not appointed as representatives of professional organizations or particular stakeholder groups, including government entities, and are not permitted to represent or advocate for those organizations, groups, or entities during SRG meetings, discussions, and deliberations.
SRG membership is voluntary, and, except for reimbursable travel and related expenses, service is without pay. The term of service for SRG members is three years, and members may serve up to three consecutive terms if reappointed.
NMFS annually reviews the expertise available on the SRG and identifies gaps in the expertise that is needed to provide advice pursuant to section 117(d) of the MMPA. In conducting the reviews, NMFS attempts to achieve, to the maximum extent practicable, a balanced representation of viewpoints among the individuals on each SRG.
For the Atlantic SRG (including waters off the Atlantic coast, Gulf of Mexico, and U.S. Territories in the Caribbean), NMFS seeks individuals with expertise in one or more of the following areas: Fishing gear and practices, particularly for fisheries in the U.S. mid-Atlantic and southeast (trap/pot and gillnet fisheries), Gulf of Mexico (shrimp trawl fishery), and maritime Canada; quantitative ecology, modeling, population dynamics, statistics, and/or biometry; species-habitat associations; conservation; and Gulf of Mexico oceanic marine mammal species.
For the Pacific SRG (including waters off the Pacific coast, Hawaiian Islands and the U.S. Territories in the Central and Western Pacific), NMFS seeks individuals with expertise in one or more of the following areas: Quantitative ecology, population dynamics, modeling, and statistics; abundance estimation, especially distance sampling and mark-recapture methods and survey design; passive acoustics; oceanography; West Coast fishing gear/techniques; large whales, particularly with regard to entanglement issues; pinnipeds; and sea otters.
For the Alaska SRG, NMFS seeks individuals with expertise in one or more of the following areas, in order of priority: The Alaska commercial fishing industry and commercial fishery methods/gear, particularly fisheries with marine mammal bycatch and/or ecological interactions; pinnipeds; quantitative ecology, population dynamics, modeling, and statistics; abundance estimation, especially distance sampling and mark-recapture methods and survey design; and acoustics. Knowledge of the MMPA and processing of marine mammal stock assessments would be helpful but not essential.
Nominations for new members should be sent to Dr. Shannon Bettridge in the NMFS Office of Protected Resources (see
Although the MMPA does not explicitly prohibit Federal employees from serving as SRG members, NMFS interprets MMPA section 117(d)'s reference to the SRGs as “independent” bodies that are exempt from Federal Advisory Committee Act requirements to mean that SRGs are intended to augment existing Federal expertise and are not composed of Federal employees or contractors. Therefore, NMFS will not consider any nominee who is currently a Federal employee or a full-time contractor supporting a Federal agency.
When reviewing nominations, NMFS, in consultation with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, will consider the following six criteria:
(1) Ability to make time available for the purposes of the SRG;
(2) Knowledge of the species (or closely related species) of marine mammals in the SRG's region;
(3) Scientific or technical achievement in a relevant discipline, particularly the areas of expertise identified above, to be considered an expert peer reviewer for the topic;
(4) Demonstrated experience working effectively on teams;
(5) Expertise relevant to current and expected needs of the SRG, in particular, expertise required to provide adequate review and knowledgeable feedback on current or developing stock assessment issues, techniques, etc. In practice, this means that each member should have expertise in more than one topic as the species and scientific issues discussed in SRG meetings are diverse; and
(6) No conflict of interest with respect to their duties as a member of the SRG.
Following review, nominees who are identified by NMFS as potential new members must be vetted and cleared in accordance with Department of Commerce policy. NMFS will contact these individuals and ask them to provide written confirmation that they are not registered Federal lobbyists or registered foreign agents, and to complete a confidential financial disclosure form, which will be reviewed by the Ethics Law and Programs
Coral Reef Conservation Program, Office for Coastal Management, National Ocean Service, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, Department of Commerce.
Notice of public meeting, notice of public comment.
Notice is hereby given of a public meeting of the U.S. Coral Reef Task Force (USCRTF). The meeting will be held Thursday, August 11, 2017, at 9:00 a.m. at the Harbor Beach Marriott Hotel, 3030 Holiday Dr, Fort Lauderdale, FL 33316, in the Caribbean Salon I-IV meeting room. The meeting provides a forum for coordinated planning and action among federal agencies, state and territorial governments, and nongovernmental partners.
Registration is requested for all events associated with the meeting. This meeting has time allotted for public comment. All public comments must be submitted in written format. A written summary of the meeting will be posted on the USCRTF Web site within two months of occurrence. For information about the meeting, registering and submitting public comments, go to
Commenters may address the meeting, the role of the USCRTF, or general coral reef conservation issues. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comments, you should be aware that your entire comment, including personal identifying information may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Established by Presidential Executive Order 13089 in 1998, the U.S. Coral Reef Task Force mission is to lead, coordinate and strengthen U.S. government actions to better preserve and protect coral reef ecosystems. Co-chaired by the Departments of Commerce and Interior, Task Force members include leaders of 12 federal agencies, seven U.S. states and territories and three freely associated states.
Jennifer Koss, NOAA USCRTF Steering Committee Point of Contact, NOAA Coral Reef Conservation Program, 1305 East-West Highway, N/OCRM, Silver Spring, MD 20910 at 240-533-0777 or Liza Johnson, USCRTF Executive Secretary, U.S. Department of the Interior, MS-3530-MIB, 1849 C Street NW., Washington, DC 20240 at (202) 208-5004 or visit the USCRTF Web site at
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; five-year affirmative finding for Peru.
The NMFS Assistant Administrator (Assistant Administrator) has issued a five-year affirmative finding for the Government of Peru under the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA). This affirmative finding will allow yellowfin tuna and yellowfin tuna products harvested in the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean (ETP) in compliance with the Agreement on the International Dolphin Conservation Program (AIDCP) by Peruvian-flagged purse seine vessels or purse seine vessels operating under Peruvian jurisdiction to be imported into the United States. The affirmative finding determination was based on reviews of documentary evidence submitted by the Government of Peru and by information obtained from the Inter-American Tropical Tuna Commission (IATTC).
This affirmative finding is effective for the five-year period of April 1, 2017, through March 31, 2022.
Justin Greenman, West Coast Region, National Marine Fisheries Service, 501 W. Ocean Blvd., Suite 4200, Long Beach, CA 90802. Phone: 562-980-3264. Email:
The MMPA, 16 U.S.C. 1361
The affirmative finding process requires that the harvesting nation is meeting its obligations under the AIDCP and its obligations of membership in the IATTC. Every five years, the government of the harvesting nation must request a new affirmative finding and submit the required documentary evidence directly to the Assistant Administrator. On an annual basis, NMFS reviews the affirmative finding and determines whether the harvesting nation continues to meet the requirements. A nation may provide information related to compliance with AIDCP and IATTC measures directly to NMFS on an annual basis or may authorize the IATTC to release the information to NMFS to annually renew an affirmative finding determination without an application from the harvesting nation.
An affirmative finding will be terminated, in consultation with the Secretary of State, if the Assistant Administrator determines that the requirements of 50 CFR 216.24(f) are no longer being met or that a nation is consistently failing to take enforcement actions on violations, thereby diminishing the effectiveness of the AIDCP.
As a part of the affirmative finding process set forth in 50 CFR 216.24(f)(8), the Assistant Administrator considered documentary evidence submitted by the Government of Peru and obtained from the IATTC and has determined that Peru have met the MMPA's requirements to receive an affirmative finding.
After consultation with the Department of State, the Assistant Administrator issued a five-year affirmative finding to Peru, allowing the importation into the United States of
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
National marine sanctuary regulations provide that the public may nominate special places of the marine environment through the sanctuary nomination process (15 CFR part 922). Persons wanting to submit nominations for consideration should submit information on the qualifying criteria and management considerations for the site to be nominated. The Office of National Marine Sanctuaries reviews the submissions, which could result in the nomination being added to an inventory of areas that NOAA may consider for sanctuary designation at some point in the future. Sanctuary designation is a separate public process that would be conducted pursuant to the requirements of the National Marine Sanctuaries Act, and all other applicable laws and executive orders.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
National Ocean Service, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Department of Commerce.
Notice of new member solicitation for the United States Integrated Ocean Observing System (U.S. IOOS) Advisory Committee.
The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) is soliciting applications for membership on the United States Integrated Ocean Observing System Advisory Committee (the Committee), which is a Federal advisory committee. Members of the Committee will fulfill the requirements of the Integrated Coastal and Ocean Observation System Act of 2009 (the Act). The Committee provides advice to the Under Secretary of Commerce for Oceans and Atmosphere and to the Interagency Ocean Observation Committee on the planning, integrated design, operation, maintenance, enhancement, and expansion of the United States Integrated Ocean Observing System (U.S. IOOS). U.S. IOOS promotes research to develop, test, and deploy innovations and improvements in coastal and ocean observation technologies and modeling systems, addresses regional and national needs for ocean information, gathers data on key coastal, ocean, and Great Lakes variables and ensures timely and sustained dissemination and availability of these data for societal benefits. U.S. IOOS benefits national safety, the economy, and the environment through support for national defense, marine commerce and forecasting, navigation safety, weather, climate, energy siting and production, economic development, ecosystem-based management of marine and coastal areas, conservation of ocean and coastal resources and public safety.
The Act requires the establishment and administration of this Committee by the Under Secretary of Commerce for Oceans and Atmosphere. NOAA will hereby accept applications for membership on the Committee through September 20, 2017. Applications received after September 20, 2017 may not be considered during this membership application cycle, but may be considered for future membership cycles. The Act states: “Members shall be qualified by education, training, and experience to evaluate scientific and technical information related to the design, operation, maintenance, or use of the [Integrated Ocean Observing] System, or use of data products provided through the System.” NOAA encourages individuals with expertise in oceanographic data, products, and services; coastal management; fisheries management; coastal and marine spatial planning; geodesy; water levels; and other science-related fields to submit applications for Committee membership. To apply for membership on the Committee, applicants should submit a resume as indicated in the
Application materials should be sent to the address, email address, or fax number specified and must be received by September 20, 2017 for consideration in this membership cycle.
Submit an application for Committee membership, in the form of a resume, to Regina Evans via mail, fax, or email. Mail: 1315 East-West Highway, Station 2605, Silver Spring, MD 20910; Fax: 301-713-3281; Email:
Regina Evans, 1315 East-West Highway, Station 2605, Silver Spring, MD 20910; Telephone: (240) 533-9468, Fax: 301-713-3281; Email:
This notice responds to the ICOOS Act of 2009 (Pub. L. 111-11, section 12304), which requires the Under Secretary of Commerce for Oceans and Atmosphere to solicit nominations for Committee membership. The Committee will advise the NOAA Administrator or Interagency Ocean Observation Committee on matters related to the responsibilities and authorities set forth in section 12302 of the ICOOS Act of 2009 and other appropriate matters as the Under Secretary refers to the Committee for review and advice.
The United States Integrated Ocean Observing System Advisory Committee will provide advice on:
(a) Administration, operation, management, and maintenance of the System;
(b) Expansion and periodic modernization and upgrade of technology components of the System;
(c) Identification of end-user communities, their needs for information provided by the System, and the System's effectiveness in disseminating information to end-user communities and to the general public; and
(d) Any other purpose identified by the Under Secretary of Commerce for Oceans and Atmosphere or the Interagency Ocean Observation Committee.
The Committee's voting members will be appointed by the Under Secretary of Commerce for Oceans and Atmosphere. Members shall be qualified by education, training, and experience to evaluate scientific and technical information related to the design, operation, maintenance, or use of the System, or the use of data products provided through the System. Members are selected on a standardized basis, in accordance with applicable Department of Commerce guidance. Members will be appointed for three-year terms, renewable once. One Committee member will be designated by the Under Secretary as chairperson. Full-time officers or employees of the United States may not be appointed as a voting member. Members will be appointed as special Government employees (SGEs) for purposes of section 202(a) of title 18, United States Code. Members serve at the discretion of the Under Secretary and are subject to government ethics standards. Members of the Committee will not be compensated for service on the Committee, but they may be allowed travel expenses, including per diem in lieu of subsistence, in accordance with subchapter I of chapter 57 of title 5, United States Code.
The Committee will meet at least once a year, and at other times at the call of the Under Secretary, the Interagency Ocean Observation Committee, or the Committee Chairperson. The Committee has approximately thirteen voting members. This solicitation requests candidate applications for up to thirteen full voting member vacancies. Some voting members whose terms expire August 15, 2018 may be reappointed for a second term if eligible.
If an applicant submitted a resume application for the 2015
Upon selection and agreement to serve on the United States Integrated Ocean Observing System Advisory Committee, one becomes a Special Government Employee (SGE) of the United States Government. An SGE is an officer or employee of an agency who is retained, designated, appointed, or employed to perform temporary duties, with or without compensation, for not to exceed 130 days during any period of 365 consecutive days, either on a full-time or intermittent basis. After the membership selection process is complete, applicants who are selected to serve on the Committee must complete the following actions before they can be appointed as a Committee member:
(a) Background Check (on-line Background Check process and fingerprinting conducted through NOAA Workforce Management); and
(b) Confidential Financial Disclosure Report: As an SGE, a Confidential Financial Disclosure Report is required to be filed annually to avoid involvement in a real or apparent conflict of interest. This form can be found at the following Web site:
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; affirmative finding annual renewals for Ecuador, El Salvador, Guatemala, Mexico, and Spain.
The NMFS Assistant Administrator (Assistant Administrator) has issued affirmative finding annual renewals for the Governments of Ecuador, El Salvador, Guatemala, Mexico, and Spain (referred to hereafter as “The Nations”) under the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA). These affirmative finding annual renewals will continue to allow yellowfin tuna and yellowfin tuna products harvested in the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean (ETP) in compliance with the Agreement on the International Dolphin Conservation Program (AIDCP) by The Nations' flagged purse seine vessels or purse seine vessels operating under The Nations' jurisdiction to be imported into the United States. The affirmative finding annual renewals were based on reviews of documentary evidence submitted by the Governments of The Nations and by information obtained from the Inter-American Tropical Tuna Commission (IATTC).
These affirmative finding annual renewals are effective for the one-year period of April 1, 2017, through March 31, 2018.
Justin Greenman, West Coast Region, National Marine Fisheries Service, 501 W. Ocean Blvd., Suite 4200, Long Beach, CA 90802. Phone: 562-980-3264. Email:
The MMPA, 16 U.S.C. 1361
The affirmative finding process requires that the harvesting nation is
An affirmative finding will be terminated, in consultation with the Secretary of State, if the Assistant Administrator determines that the requirements of 50 CFR 216.24(f) are no longer being met or that a nation is consistently failing to take enforcement actions on violations, thereby diminishing the effectiveness of the AIDCP.
As a part of the affirmative finding process set forth in 50 CFR 216.24(f)(8), the Assistant Administrator considered documentary evidence submitted by the governments of The Nations and obtained from the IATTC and has determined that The Nations have met the MMPA's requirements to receive affirmative finding annual renewals.
After consultation with the Department of State, the Assistant Administrator issued affirmative finding annual renewals to The Nations, allowing the continued importation into the United States of yellowfin tuna and products derived from yellowfin tuna harvested in the ETP by The Nations' flagged purse seine vessels or purse seine vessels operating under The Nations' jurisdiction for the one-year period of April 1, 2017, through March 31, 2018.
El Salvador's five-year affirmative finding will remain valid through March 31, 2018, and Ecuador, Guatemala, Mexico, and Spain's five-year affirmative findings will remain valid through March 31, 2020, subject to subsequent annual reviews by NMFS.
National Telecommunications and Information Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice; extension of comment period.
In response to requests for additional time, the Department of Commerce is extending the closing deadline for submitting comments to a request for public comments entitled “Promoting Stakeholder Action Against Botnets and Other Automated Threats.” In the request for comment, the NTIA seeks broad input from all interested stakeholders—including private industry, academia, civil society, and other security experts—on ways to improve industry's ability to reduce threats perpetuated by automated distributed attacks, such as botnets, and what role, if any, the U.S. Government should play in this area. Through this notice, the Department extends the comment period to July 28, 2017.
Comments are due on July 28, 2017, at 5:00 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time (EDT).
Written comments may be submitted by email to
Megan Doscher, tel.: (202) 482-2503, email:
The original deadline for submission of comments was July 13, 2017. With this notice, NTIA announces that the closing deadline for submission of
Comments submitted by email should be machine-readable and should not be copy-protected. Comments submitted by mail may be in hard copy (paper) or electronic (on CD-ROM or disk). Responders should include the name of the person or organization filing the comment, as well as a page number on each page of their submissions. All comments received are a part of the public record and will generally be posted on the NTIA Web site,
United States Patent and Trademark Office, Department of Commerce.
Notice of public meeting.
The United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) will host a public meeting at its headquarters in Alexandria, Virginia, on July 17, 2017, on measuring the impact of voluntary initiatives undertaken to reduce intellectual property infringement, such as copyright piracy and trademark counterfeiting, that occurs online.
The public meeting will be held on July 17, 2017, from 9 a.m. to 4 p.m.
The public meeting will be held at the United States Patent and Trademark Office, Madison Building, Global Intellectual Property Academy, 600 Dulany Street, Alexandria, Virginia 22314. All major entrances to the building are accessible to people with disabilities.
For further information regarding the public meeting, please contact Peter Fowler, Charisma Hampton, or Nadine Herbert at the Office of Policy and International Affairs, by telephone at (571) 272-9300, by email at
The rapid growth of the online marketplace for goods and services has been accompanied by a rise in online infringement of intellectual property, including copyright piracy and trademark infringement. In response, the private sector has undertaken a range of voluntary initiatives to help reduce that infringement.
The Executive Branch has supported these voluntary initiatives. The 2013
On June 20, 2013, the United States Patent and Trademark Office requested input from the public on the impact of the initiatives (78 FR 37210, June 20, 2013). The USPTO has also convened meetings with content creators and Internet service providers, brand owners and payment processing companies, representatives of the advertising community and third-party content and brand owners, as well as with Internet service providers and technology companies to discuss existing voluntary efforts to reduce infringement on commercial platforms that facilitate illicit activities.
To continue this outreach, and as part of the Executive Branch's implementation of the FY 2017-2019 JSP's action items and calls for research, the USPTO will conduct a public meeting on Voluntary Initiatives in the Digital Environment on July 17, 2017. Topics will include methods and metrics for conducting empirical research on the digital economy; evaluating the effectiveness of self-regulatory regimes; case studies of certain private sector initiatives; the role of voluntary undertakings in raising consumer awareness; stemming revenue flows to bad actors; and lessons learned and next steps.
The public meeting will be held at the United States Patent and Trademark Office, Madison Building, Global Intellectual Property Academy, 600 Dulany Street, Alexandria, Virginia 22314. The public meeting will begin at 9 a.m. and end at 4 p.m. The agenda will be available a week before the meeting on the USPTO Web site,
The public meeting will be physically accessible to people with disabilities. Individuals requiring accommodation, such as sign language interpretation or other ancillary aids, should communicate their needs to Nadine Herbert at the Office of Policy and International Affairs, by telephone at (571) 272-9300, by email at
Department of the Army, DoD.
Notice of a partially closed meeting.
Pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act of, the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976 and Ttile 41 of he Code of Federal Regulations (CFR, the Department of the Army announces the meeting of the: Army Science Board (ASB) Summer Voting Session.
Army Science Board, Designated Federal Officer, 2530 Crystal Drive, Suite 7098, Arlington, VA 22202; MAJ Sean M. Madden, the committee's Designated Federal Officer (DFO), at (703)-545-8652 or email:
The DFO will review all timely submissions with the Board's executive committee and ensure they are provided to the specific study members as necessary before, during, or after the meeting. After reviewing written comments, the study chairs and the DFO may choose to invite the submitter of the comments to orally present their issue during a future open meeting.
The DFO, in consultation with the executive committee, may allot a specific amount of time for members of the public to present their issues for discussion.
Office of Planning, Evaluation and Policy Development (OPEPD), Department of Education. (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing a new information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before July 24, 2017.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Carlos Martinez, 202-260-1440.
The Department of Education (ED), in
Office of Special Education and Rehabilitative Services (OSERS), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing a revision of an existing information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before August 21, 2017.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Amanda Hoffman, (202) 245-6951.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Department of Education (ED), Office of Special Education and Rehabilitative Services (OSERS).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing an extension of an existing information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before August 21, 2017.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Amanda Hoffman, 202-245-6951.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that during the month of May 2017, the status of the above-captioned entities as Exempt Wholesale Generators became effective by operation of the Commission's regulations. 18 CFR 366.7(a) (2016).
Environmental Protection Agency.
Notice of settlement.
Under 122(h) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA), the United States Environmental Protection Agency has entered into a settlement with Donald and Catherine Albright, concerning the Stony Hill Road Site located in Wake Forest, Wake County, North Carolina. The settlement addresses recovery of
The Agency will consider public comments on the settlement until July 24, 2017 The Agency will consider all comments received and may modify or withdraw its consent to the proposed settlement if comments received disclose facts or considerations which indicate that the proposed settlement is inappropriate, improper, or inadequate.
Copies of the settlement are available from the Agency by contacting Ms. Paula V. Painter, Program Analyst, using the contact information provided in this document. Comments may also be submitted by referencing the site's name through one of the following methods:
•
•
Paula V. Painter at (404) 562-8887.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1461
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The application also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(e)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 10(c)(4)(B) of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)(4)(B)). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than July 18, 2017.
1.
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, HHS.
Notice.
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Comments must be received by August 21, 2017.
When commenting, please reference the document identifier or OMB control number. To be assured consideration, comments and recommendations must be submitted in any one of the following ways:
1.
2.
To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, you may make your request using one of following:
1. Access CMS' Web site address at
2. Email your request, including your address, phone number, OMB number, and CMS document identifier, to
3. Call the Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
William Parham at (410) 786-4669.
This notice sets out a summary of the use and burden associated with the following information collections. More detailed information can be found in each collection's supporting statement
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA requires federal agencies to publish a 60-day notice in the
1.
The forms are to be used as worksheets for healthcare providers and health departments to compile information that would otherwise have been collected during a medical evaluation. Once completed, the forms will be given to care provider program staff for data entry into ORR's electronic data repository known as `The UAC Portal'. Data will be used to record UC health conditions/illnesses and for case management of any identified illnesses/conditions.
In compliance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13, 44 U.S.C. Chap 35), the Administration for Children and Families is soliciting public comment on the specific aspects of the information collection described above. Copies of the proposed collection of information can be obtained and comments may be forwarded by writing to the Administration for Children and Families, Office of Planning, Research and Evaluation, 330 C Street SW., Washington DC 20201. Attn: ACF Reports Clearance Officer. Email address:
The Department specifically requests comments on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
In compliance with the requirements of Section 506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Family and Youth Services Bureau within the Administration for Children and Families is soliciting public comment on the specific aspects of the information collection described above. Copies of the proposed collection of information can be obtained and comments may be forwarded by writing to the Administration for Children and Families, Family and Youth Services Bureau, Switzer Building 330 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20201, Attn: ACF Reports Clearance Officer. Email address:
The Department specifically requests comments on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted within 60 days of this publication.
The plan assures ORR that the State is capable of administering refugee assistance and coordinating employment and other social services for eligible caseloads in conformity with specific requirements. ORR proposes organizational and formatting changes to make the checklist more accessible to the user. Additionally, ORR proposes streamlining language to make the checklist easier to read. These proposed changes include technical corrections to regulatory citations. ORR proposes removing a number of requirements, including an assurance regarding the
ORR proposes adding language to clarify the following requirements related to the Unaccompanied Refugee Minors (URM) program: State policy on education and training vouchers, medical coverage, the location of URM providers, monitoring procedures, the process for establishing legal responsibility, and information about sub-contractors.
States must use a pre-print format for required components of State Plans for ORR- funded refugee resettlement services and benefits prepared by the Office of Refugee Resettlement (ORR) of the Administration for Children and Families (ACF).
States must submit by August 15 each year new or amended State Plan for the next Federal fiscal year. For previously approved plan, States must certify no later than October 31 each year that the approved State plan is current and continues in effect.
Respondents: State Agencies, Replacement Designees under 45 CFR 400.301(c), and Wilson-Fish Grantees (State 2 Agencies) administering or supervising the administration of programs under Title IV of the Act.
In compliance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13, 44 U.S.C. Chap 35), the Administration for Children and Families is soliciting public comment on the specific aspects of the information collection described above. Copies of the proposed collection of information can be obtained and comments may be forwarded by writing to the Administration for Children and Families, Office of Planning, Research and Evaluation, 330 C Street SW., Washington DC 20201. Attn: ACF Reports Clearance Officer. Email address:
The Department specifically requests comments on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted within 60 days of this publication.
Administration for Community Living, HHS.
Notice.
The Administration for Community Living (ACL) is announcing that the proposed collection of information listed below has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance as required under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA). This 30-Day notice collects comments on the information collection requirements related to a Revision of a Currently Approved Collection (ICR Rev) (OMB approval number 0985-0023).
Submit written comments on the collection of information by July 24, 2017.
Submit written comments on the collection of information by fax 202-395-5806 or by email to
Heather Menne at 202-795-7733 or
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, ACL has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance. ACL is requesting approval for three years of an extension of the currently approved data collection with modifications.
The National Survey of Older Americans Act (OAA) Participants information collection will include consumer assessment surveys for the Congregate and Home-delivered meal nutrition programs; Case Management, Homemaker, and Transportation Services; and the National Family Caregiver Support Program. This survey builds on earlier national pilot studies and surveys, as well as performance measurement tools developed by ACL grantees in the Performance Outcomes Measures Project (POMP). Changes identified as a result of these initiatives were incorporated into the last data collection package that was approved by OMB and are included in this proposed extension with modifications of a currently approved collection. This information will be used by ACL to track performance outcome measures; support budget requests; comply with the GPRA Modernization Act of 2010 (GPRAMA) reporting requirements; provide national benchmark information; and inform program development and management initiatives.
A 60-Day notice was published in the
ACL received comments from eighty-nine (89) organizations and just over 13,900 individuals about the National Survey of Older Americans Act Participants (NSOAAP). ACL reviewed all of the comments. Eight (8) of the comments were deemed not relevant because they were: (a) Programmatic in nature and not survey-related; (b) referencing other data collections and not the NSOAAP (
Descriptions of previous National Surveys of OAA Participants can be found under the section on OAA Performance Information on ACL's Web site at:
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Fax written comments on the collection of information by July 24, 2017.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, FAX: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
Amber Sanford, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A63, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852, 301-796-8867,
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.
On June 22, 2009, the President signed the Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act (the Tobacco Control Act) (Pub. L. 111-31) into law. The Tobacco Control Act amended section 201
FDA created a Tobacco Call Center (with a toll-free number: 1-877-CTP-1373). Callers are able to report potential violations of the Tobacco Control Act, and FDA may conduct followup investigations based on information received. When callers report a violation, the caller will be asked to provide as much certain information as they can recall, including: The date the potential violation occurred; product type (
FDA currently provides a form that may be used to solicit this information from the caller (Form FDA 3779, Potential Tobacco Product Violations Report), and seeks renewal of Form FDA 3779. This form is posted on FDA's Web site. The public and interested stakeholders are also able to report information regarding possible violations of the Tobacco Control Act through the following methods: Calling the Tobacco Call Center using the Center for Tobacco Products' (CTP) toll-free number; using a fillable Form FDA 3779 found on FDA's Web site; downloading a PDF version of the form to send via email or mail to FDA; requesting a copy of Form FDA 3779 by contacting CTP and sending by mail to FDA; and sending a letter to FDA's CTP.
In the
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
FDA estimates that submitting the information (by telephone, Internet form, paper form by mail, or email) will take 0.25 hour (
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of public meeting; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) is announcing the following meeting: “The Hatch-Waxman Amendments: Ensuring a Balance Between Innovation and Access.” This public meeting is intended to provide the public an opportunity to submit comments concerning administration of the Hatch-Waxman Amendments to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act) to help ensure the intended balance between encouraging innovation in drug development and accelerating the availability to the public of lower cost alternatives to innovator drugs is maintained.
The meeting will be held on July 18, 2017, from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. The deadline for submitting comments regarding this meeting is September 18, 2017.
The meeting will be held at the FDA White Oak Campus, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31 Conference Center, the Great Room (Rm. 1503), Silver Spring, MD 20993. Entrance for the public meeting participants (non-FDA employees) is through Building 1, where routine security check procedures will be performed. For parking and security information, please refer to
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before September 18, 2017. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Philip Bonforte, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 75, Rm. 1668, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 240-402-6980, email:
With the Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-417) (Hatch-Waxman Amendments), Congress intended to strike a balance between encouraging innovation in drug development and accelerating the availability to the public of lower cost alternatives to innovator drugs. See H.R. Rep. No. 98-857 (Part I), 98th Cong, 2d Sess. At 14-15 (1984), reprinted in 1984 U.S.C.C.A.N. 2647-48; see also,
FDA's generic drug program has dramatically expanded access to quality, affordable generic medicines. According to the IMS Institute for Healthcare Informatics, generic drugs saved the U.S healthcare system $1.68 trillion from 2005-2014.
Over the past several years, the Agency has undertaken major initiatives to expand access to quality, affordable generic medicines. For example, pursuant to the Generic Drug User Fee Amendments of 2012 (GDUFA I), FDA modernized the ANDA review program, and adopted metric goals to promote timely and predictable ANDA review. As a result, in Fiscal Year 2016, combined ANDA approvals and tentative approvals reached record highs. Pursuant to the proposed GDUFA II,
The development and approval of an innovator drug, and the subsequent approval and marketing of a generic version, together make up the life cycle of that drug product as contemplated by the Hatch-Waxman Amendments.
At the front end of the life cycle, innovation in drug products—including improvements to approved innovator drug products—provides life-changing and oftentimes life-saving therapeutic benefits to patients. In enacting the Hatch-Waxman Amendments, Congress recognized the importance of providing incentives to develop new products, and
In some cases, however, the legal framework surrounding these exclusivities may have been applied to delay generic competition to an extent that may not have been intended by the Hatch-Waxman Amendments, and in ways that may not serve the public health. Relatedly, certain elements of the approval process for both innovator and generic drugs have been used in ways that may (depending on the circumstances) inappropriately hinder generic competition. For example, innovators in some cases have made late changes in patent use codes that create new obstacles to previously acceptable labeling carve-outs. The entry of generic products to the marketplace is also affected by factors external to regulation under the FD&C Act—
FDA will hold a public meeting on July 18, 2017, 9 a.m. to 5 p.m., to provide an opportunity for all interested stakeholders to submit comments concerning the appropriate balance between encouraging innovation in drug development and accelerating the availability to the public of lower cost alternatives to innovator drugs.
The format of the meeting involves presentations from the public only. The Agency will not be inviting specific presenters; rather, with this document, FDA is soliciting presentations from interested stakeholders. FDA also invites interested persons to submit written comments to the docket on the topics described in section II.
FDA is soliciting input from the public concerning how best to preserve the balance Congress intended to strike in the Hatch-Waxman Amendments between encouraging innovation in drug development and accelerating the availability to the public of lower cost alternatives to innovator drugs. Preserving this balance is critical to the public health, and innovators, generic drug manufacturers, and FDA (among others) all have a role to play in maintaining it. This public meeting is part of an effort to create a broader understanding of the interplay between the existing legal and regulatory framework, available incentives and marketplace practices, and consumer access to generic drugs.
The Agency welcomes any relevant information that stakeholders wish to share. We are particularly interested in stakeholder input on the following questions:
1. How has the balance struck in the Hatch-Waxman Amendments been affected by practices and trends related to the following:
a. Exclusivity periods,
b. Patents (including patent listing procedures),
c. Innovator drug product labeling,
d. Post-approval changes to innovator drug products,
e. Other regulatory processes, including the citizen petition process?
2. The drugs described in more than half of all FDA-approved ANDAs are never marketed, marketed only after a substantial delay after approval, or marketed only intermittently. Such failures to market contribute to drug shortages, and hinder consumer access to approved products. What marketplace dynamics dis-incentivize the marketing of approved generic products? What should FDA do, within its statutory authority, to help more approved generics reach consumers?
3. For approximately 10 percent of all innovator drugs, patent and exclusivity protections have expired, but FDA has not received an ANDA. Are there market niches where the Hatch-Waxman Amendments incentives to develop an ANDA are insufficient? Similarly, are there niches where the incentives are insufficient to seek new drug approval of a marketed unapproved drug product that in turn could serve as a Reference Listed Drug? What should FDA do, consistent with its legal authority, to encourage submission development in any such market niches?
4. The statutory requirement that Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS) that include elements to assure safe use (ETASU) be implemented through a “single shared system” relies on brand and generic companies agreeing on such a system before generic drugs may come to market. In some cases, challenges in reaching such an agreement between the parties may cause delays to generic competition. How should FDA apply its statutory authority to waive this requirement to implement a “single shared system,” or develop other administrative tools, to avoid these delays?
5. Restrictions on distribution, either required by innovators or as part of a REMS ETASU, can prevent generic companies from obtaining drug products for bioequivalence and other testing to support ANDA submissions. FDA published a draft guidance for industry, entitled “How to Obtain a Letter from the Food and Drug Administration Stating That Bioequivalence Study Protocols Contain Safety Protections Comparable to Applicable Risk and Evaluation Mitigation Studies for Reference Listed Drugs,” in December 2014. Despite this draft guidance, generic companies have reported continuing difficulties obtaining sufficient samples of drug products for testing. What additional actions should FDA take, within its legal authority, to promote access to these drug products for generic companies seeking to conduct studies required to support ANDA submissions?
6. What other elements of drug product development, regulation, and marketing have the potential to disrupt the Hatch-Waxman Amendments' balance between innovation and generic availability, and how should the Agency and other stakeholders address them?
If you need special accommodations due to a disability, please contact Philip Bonforte (see
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, HRSA has submitted an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. Comments submitted during the first public review of this ICR will be provided to OMB. OMB will accept further comments from the public during the review and approval period.
Comments on this ICR should be received no later than July 24, 2017.
Submit your comments, including the ICR Title, to the desk officer for HRSA, either by email to
To request a copy of the clearance requests submitted to OMB for review, email the HRSA Information Collection Clearance Officer at
When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the information request collection title for reference, in compliance with Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act, the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) announces the following special workgroup activity.
The purpose of this meeting is for the Standards Subcommittee to gain a clear understanding of the current update and adoption process for standards and operating rules for electronic administrative transactions (
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
Pursuant to Public Law 92-463, notice is hereby given that the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration's (SAMHSA) Center for Substance Abuse Treatment (CSAT) National Advisory Council (NAC) will meet on August 10, 2017, 8:30 a.m.-5:00 p.m. (EDT).
The meeting is open and will include consideration of minutes from the SAMHSA CSAT NAC meeting of February 1, 2017, the Director's Report, a budget update, discussions of the 90/90/90 targets, discussion of quality improvement, SAMHSA Leadership Discussion with CSAT Council Members, an update on the 21st Century Cures Act implementation.
The meeting will be held at the SAMHSA 5600 Fishers Lane, Conference Room 5W37, Rockville, MD 20857. Attendance by the public will be limited to space available and will be limited to the open sessions of the meeting. Interested persons may present data, information, or views, orally or in writing, on issues pending before the Council. Written submissions should be forwarded to the contact person on or before August 1, 2017. Oral presentations from the public will be scheduled at the conclusion of the meeting. Individuals interested in making oral presentations are encouraged to notify the contact person on or before August 1, 2017. Five minutes will be allotted for each presentation.
The open meeting session may be accessed via telephone. To attend on site, obtain the call-in number and access code, submit written or brief oral comments, or request special accommodations for persons with disabilities, please register on-line at
Meeting information and a roster of Council members may be obtained by accessing the SAMHSA Committee Web site at
Pursuant to Public Law 92-463, notice is hereby given that the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration's (SAMHSA's) Center for Substance Abuse Treatment (CSAT) National Advisory Council will meet on July 24, 2017, 2:00 p.m.-3:00
The meeting will include discussions and evaluations of grant applications reviewed by SAMHSA's Initial Review Groups, and involve an examination of confidential financial and business information as well as personal information concerning the applicants. Therefore, the meeting will be closed to the public as determined by the SAMHSA Acting Deputy Assistant Secretary for Mental Health and Substance Use in accordance with Title 5 U.S.C 552b(c)(4) and (6) and Title 5 U.S.C. App. 2, 10(d).
Meeting information and a roster of Council members may be obtained by accessing the SAMHSA Committee Web site at
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of approval of Altol Petroleum Products Services, Inc., as a commercial gauger.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that Altol Petroleum Products Services, Inc., has been approved to gauge petroleum and petroleum products for customs purposes for the next three years as of June 23, 2016.
The approval of Altol Petroleum Products Services, Inc., as commercial gauger became effective on June 23, 2016. The next triennial inspection date will be scheduled for June 2019.
Mr. Stephen Cassata, Laboratories and Scientific Services Directorate, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.13, that Altol Petroleum Products Services, Inc., Parque Industrial Sabanetas, Edificio M-1380-01-02, Ponce, PR 00731, has been approved to gauge petroleum and petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.13. Altol Petroleum Products Services, Inc., is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the American Petroleum Institute (API):
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of accreditation and approval of Intertek USA, Inc., as a commercial gauger and laboratory.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that Intertek USA, Inc., has been approved to gauge and accredited to test petroleum and petroleum products, organic chemicals and vegetable oils for customs purposes for the next three years as of April 5, 2016.
Mr. Stephen Cassata, Laboratories and Scientific Services, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that Intertek USA, Inc., 327 Erickson Ave., Essington, PA 19029, has been approved to gauge and accredited to test petroleum and petroleum products in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13. Intertek USA, Inc., is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the American Petroleum Institute (API):
Intertek USA, Inc., is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL)
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of accreditation and approval of Camin Cargo Control, Inc., as a commercial gauger and laboratory.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that Camin Cargo Control, Inc., has been approved to gauge and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes for the next three years as of September 28, 2016.
The accreditation and approval of Camin Cargo Control, Inc., as commercial gauger and laboratory became effective on September 28, 2016. The next triennial inspection date will be scheduled for September 2019.
Mr. Stephen Cassata, Laboratories and Scientific Services Directorate, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that Camin Cargo Control, Inc., 2304 East Burton Street, Sulphur, LA 70663, has been approved to gauge and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13. Camin Cargo Control, Inc., is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the American Petroleum Institute (API):
Camin Cargo Control, Inc., is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of accreditation and approval of Camin Cargo Control, Inc., as a commercial gauger and laboratory.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that Camin Cargo Control, Inc., has been approved to gauge and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes for the next three years as of August 11, 2016.
The accreditation and approval of Camin Cargo Control, Inc., as commercial gauger and laboratory became effective on August 11, 2016. The next triennial inspection date will be scheduled for August 2019.
Mr. Stephen Cassata, Laboratories and Scientific Services Directorate, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that Camin Cargo Control, Inc., 5013 Pacific Hwy East, Unit 2, Fife, WA products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13. Camin Cargo Control, Inc., is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the American Petroleum Institute (API):
Camin Cargo Control, Inc., is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to
U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), Department of Homeland Security.
60-Day notice and request for comments; extension of an existing collection of information.
The Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Customs and Border Protection will be submitting the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted (no later than August 21, 2017) to be assured of consideration.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice must include the OMB Control Number 1651-0048 in the subject line and the agency name. To avoid duplicate submissions, please use only
(1)
(2)
Requests for additional PRA information should be directed to CBP Paperwork Reduction Act Officer, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Office of Trade, Regulations and Rulings, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, 90 K Street NE., 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177, or via email
CBP invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq). Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) suggestions to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) suggestions to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of accreditation and approval of Camin Cargo Control, Inc., as a commercial gauger and laboratory.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that Camin Cargo Control, Inc., has been approved to gauge and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes for the next three years as of August 9, 2016.
The accreditation and approval of Camin Cargo Control, Inc., as commercial gauger and laboratory became effective on August 9, 2016. The next triennial inspection date will be scheduled for August 2019.
Mr. Stephen Cassata, Laboratories and Scientific Services Directorate, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that Camin Cargo Control, Inc., 1301 Fraser Street, Unit #A2, Bellingham, WA 98229, has been approved to gauge and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13. Camin Cargo Control, Inc., is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the American Petroleum Institute (API):
Camin Cargo Control, Inc., is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to
U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), Department of Homeland Security.
60-Day notice and request for comments; extension of an existing collection of information.
The Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Customs and Border Protection will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection is published in the
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice must include the OMB Control Number 1651-0078 in the subject line and the agency name. To avoid duplicate submissions, please use only
(1)
(2)
Requests for additional PRA information should be directed to CBP Paperwork Reduction Act Officer, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Office of Trade, Regulations and Rulings, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, 90 K Street NE., 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177, or via email
CBP invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq). Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) suggestions to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) suggestions to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of accreditation of SGS North America, Inc., as a commercial laboratory.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that SGS North America, Inc., has been accredited to test petroleum, petroleum products, organic chemicals and vegetable oils for customs purposes for the next three years as of August 11, 2016.
The accreditation of SGS North America, Inc., as commercial laboratory became effective on August 11, 2016. The next triennial inspection date will be scheduled for August 2019.
Mr. Stephen Cassata, Laboratories and Scientific Services, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. (202) 344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12, that SGS North America, Inc., 1201 W. 8th St., Deer Park, TX 77536, has been accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12. SGS North America, Inc., is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test this entity is accredited to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to
Please reference the Web site listed below for a complete listing of CBP approved gaugers and accredited laboratories.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), Department of Homeland Security.
60-Day notice and request for comments; extension of an existing collection of information.
The Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Customs and Border Protection will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection is published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted (no later than August 21, 2017) to be assured of consideration.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s)
(1)
(2)
Requests for additional PRA information should be directed to CBP Paperwork Reduction Act Officer, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Office of Trade, Regulations and Rulings, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, 90 K Street NE., 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177, or via email
CBP invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq). Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) suggestions to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) suggestions to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
CBP Form 7501A, Document/Payment Transmittal, is used to reconcile a supplemental payment after an initial Automated Clearinghouse payment with the associated entry so the respondent's account is properly credited.
Collection of the data on these forms is authorized by 19 U.S.C. 1484 and provided for by 19 CFR 142.11 and CFR 141.61. CBP Form 7501 and accompanying instructions can be found at
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of accreditation and approval of SGS North America, Inc., as a commercial gauger and laboratory.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that SGS North America, Inc., has been approved to gauge and accredited to test petroleum and petroleum products, organic chemicals and vegetable oils for customs purposes for the next three years as of January 14, 2017.
The accreditation and approval of SGS North America, Inc., as commercial gauger and laboratory became effective on January 18, 2017. The next triennial inspection date will be scheduled for January 2020.
Mr. Stephen Cassata, Laboratories and Scientific Services, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. (202) 344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that SGS North America, Inc., 4575 Jerry Ware Drive, Beaumont, TX 77705, has been approved to gauge and accredited to test petroleum and petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13. SGS North America, Inc., is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the American Petroleum Institute (API):
SGS North America, Inc., is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to
U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), Department of Homeland Security.
30-Day notice and request for comments; Extension of an existing collection of information.
The Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Customs and Border Protection will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection is published in the
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on this proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the OMB Desk Officer for Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security, and sent via electronic mail to
Requests for additional information should be directed to the CBP Paperwork Reduction Act Officer, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Office of Trade, Regulations and Rulings, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, 90 K Street NE., 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177, or via email
CBP invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq). This proposed information collection was previously published in the
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of approval of SGS North America, Inc., as a commercial gauger.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that SGS North America, Inc., has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes for the next three years as of August 28, 2016.
Mr. Stephen Cassata, Laboratories and Scientific Services, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.13, that SGS North America, Inc., 900B Georgia Ave., Deer Park, TX 77536, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.13. SGS North America, Inc., is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the American Petroleum Institute (API):
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific gauger service this entity is approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to
U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), Department of Homeland Security.
30-Day notice and request for comments; Extension of an existing collection of information.
The Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Customs and Border Protection will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection is published in the
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on
Requests for additional information should be directed to the CBP Paperwork Reduction Act Officer, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Office of Trade, Regulations and Rulings, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, 90 K Street NE., 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177, or via email
CBP invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq). This proposed information collection was previously published in the
CBP Form 7507 is authorized by 19 U.S.C. 1431, 1433, and 1644a; and provided for by 19 CFR 122.43, 122.54, 122.73, and 122.144. This form is accessible at:
U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), Department of Homeland Security.
60-Day notice and request for comments; extension of an existing collection of information.
The Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Customs and Border Protection will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection is published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted (no later than August 21, 2017) to be assured of consideration.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice must include the OMB Control Number 1651-0041 in the subject line and the agency name. To avoid duplicate submissions, please use only
(1) Email. Submit comments to:
(2) Mail. Submit written comments to CBP Paperwork Reduction Act Officer, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Office of Trade, Regulations and Rulings, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, 90 K Street NE., 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177.
Requests for additional PRA information should be directed to CBP Paperwork Reduction Act Officer, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Office of Trade, Regulations and Rulings, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, 90 K Street NE., 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177, or via email
CBP invites the general public and other
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for the Resighini Rancheria (FEMA-4312-DR), dated May 2, 2017, and related determinations.
Effective June 12, 2017.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The notice of a major disaster declaration for the Resighini Rancheria is hereby amended to include the following areas among those areas determined to have been adversely affected by the event declared a major disaster by the President in his declaration of May 2, 2017.
The Resighini Rancheria for debris removal [Category A] (already designated for permanent work [Categories C-G] under the Public Assistance program).
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households In Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050 Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
Comments are requested on proposed flood hazard determinations, which may include additions or modifications of any Base Flood Elevation (BFE), base flood depth, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundary or zone designation, or regulatory floodway on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports for the communities listed in the table below. The purpose of this notice is to seek general information and comment regarding the preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report that the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) has provided to the affected communities. The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP). In addition, the FIRM and FIS report, once effective, will be used by insurance agents and others to calculate appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings and the contents of those buildings.
Comments are to be submitted on or before September 20, 2017.
The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. FEMA-B-1720, to Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
FEMA proposes to make flood hazard determinations for each community listed below, in accordance with section 110 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4104, and 44 CFR 67.4(a).
These proposed flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. These flood hazard determinations are used to meet the floodplain management requirements of the NFIP and also are used to calculate the appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings built after the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
The communities affected by the flood hazard determinations are provided in the tables below. Any request for reconsideration of the revised flood hazard information shown on the Preliminary FIRM and FIS report that satisfies the data requirements outlined in 44 CFR 67.6(b) is considered an appeal. Comments unrelated to the flood hazard determinations also will be considered before the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
Use of a Scientific Resolution Panel (SRP) is available to communities in support of the appeal resolution process. SRPs are independent panels of experts in hydrology, hydraulics, and other pertinent sciences established to review conflicting scientific and technical data and provide recommendations for resolution. Use of the SRP only may be exercised after FEMA and local communities have been engaged in a collaborative consultation process for at least 60 days without a mutually acceptable resolution of an appeal. Additional information regarding the SRP process can be found online at
The watersheds and/or communities affected are listed in the tables below. The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables. For communities with multiple ongoing Preliminary studies, the studies can be identified by the unique project number and Preliminary FIRM date listed in the tables. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
I. Non-watershed-based studies:
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
Comments are requested on proposed flood hazard determinations, which may include additions or modifications of any Base Flood Elevation (BFE), base flood depth, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundary or zone designation, or regulatory floodway on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports for the communities listed in the table below. The purpose of this notice is to seek general information and comment regarding the preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report that the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) has provided to the affected communities. The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP). In addition, the FIRM and FIS report, once effective, will be used by insurance agents and others to calculate appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings and the contents of those buildings.
Comments are to be submitted on or before September 20, 2017.
The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. FEMA-B-1723, to Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
FEMA proposes to make flood hazard determinations for each community listed below, in accordance with section 110 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4104, and 44 CFR 67.4(a).
These proposed flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities.
The communities affected by the flood hazard determinations are provided in the tables below. Any request for reconsideration of the revised flood hazard information shown on the Preliminary FIRM and FIS report that satisfies the data requirements outlined in 44 CFR 67.6(b) is considered an appeal. Comments unrelated to the flood hazard determinations also will be considered before the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
Use of a Scientific Resolution Panel (SRP) is available to communities in support of the appeal resolution process. SRPs are independent panels of experts in hydrology, hydraulics, and other pertinent sciences established to review conflicting scientific and technical data and provide recommendations for resolution. Use of the SRP only may be exercised after FEMA and local communities have been engaged in a collaborative consultation process for at least 60 days without a mutually acceptable resolution of an appeal. Additional information regarding the SRP process can be found online at
The watersheds and/or communities affected are listed in the tables below. The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables. For communities with multiple ongoing Preliminary studies, the studies can be identified by the unique project number and Preliminary FIRM date listed in the tables. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
I. Non-watershed-based studies:
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice lists communities where the addition or modification of Base Flood Elevations (BFEs), base flood depths, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundaries or zone designations, or the regulatory floodway (hereinafter referred to as flood hazard determinations), as shown on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports, prepared by the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) for each community, is appropriate because of new scientific or technical data. The FIRM, and where applicable, portions of the FIS report, have been revised to reflect these flood hazard determinations through issuance of a Letter of Map Revision (LOMR). The LOMR will be used by insurance agents and others to calculate appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings and the contents of those buildings. For rating purposes, the currently effective community number is shown in the table below and must be used for all new policies and renewals.
These flood hazard determinations will become effective on the dates listed in the table below and
From the date of the second publication of notification of these changes in a newspaper of local circulation, any person has 90 days in which to request through the community that the Deputy Associate Administrator for Insurance and Mitigation reconsider the changes. The flood hazard determination information may be changed during the 90-day period.
The affected communities are listed in the table below. Revised flood hazard information for each community is available for inspection at both the online location and the respective community map repository address listed in the table below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
Submit comments and/or appeals to the Chief Executive Officer of the community as listed in the table below.
Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
The specific flood hazard determinations are not described for each community in this notice. However, the online location and local community map repository address where the flood hazard determination information is available for inspection is provided.
Any request for reconsideration of flood hazard determinations must be submitted to the Chief Executive Officer of the community as listed in the table below.
The modifications are made pursuant to section 201 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4105, and are in accordance with the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, 42 U.S.C. 4001
The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP).
These flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. The flood hazard determinations are in accordance with 44 CFR 65.4.
The affected communities are listed in the following table. Flood hazard determination information for each community is available for inspection at both the online location and the respective community map repository address listed in the table below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Kansas (FEMA-4304-DR), dated February 24, 2017, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the
This action terminates the appointment of Michael L. Parker as Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households In Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
Comments are requested on proposed flood hazard determinations, which may include additions or modifications of any Base Flood Elevation (BFE), base flood depth, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundary or zone designation, or regulatory floodway on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports for the communities listed in the table below. The purpose of this notice is to seek general information and comment regarding the preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report that the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) has provided to the affected communities. The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP). In addition, the FIRM and FIS report, once effective, will be used by insurance agents and others to calculate appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings and the contents of those buildings.
Comments are to be submitted on or before September 20, 2017.
The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. FEMA-B-1718, to Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
FEMA proposes to make flood hazard determinations for each community listed below, in accordance with section 110 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4104, and 44 CFR 67.4(a).
These proposed flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. These flood hazard determinations are used to meet the floodplain management requirements of the NFIP and also are used to calculate the appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings built after the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
The communities affected by the flood hazard determinations are provided in the tables below. Any request for reconsideration of the revised flood hazard information shown on the Preliminary FIRM and FIS report that satisfies the data requirements outlined in 44 CFR 67.6(b) is considered an appeal. Comments unrelated to the flood hazard determinations also will be considered before the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
Use of a Scientific Resolution Panel (SRP) is available to communities in support of the appeal resolution process. SRPs are independent panels of experts in hydrology, hydraulics, and other pertinent sciences established to review conflicting scientific and technical data and provide recommendations for resolution. Use of the SRP only may be exercised after FEMA and local communities have been engaged in a collaborative consultation process for at least 60 days without a mutually acceptable resolution of an appeal. Additional information regarding the SRP process can be found online at
The watersheds and/or communities affected are listed in the tables below. The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables. For communities with multiple ongoing Preliminary studies, the studies can be identified by the unique project number and Preliminary FIRM date listed in the tables. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
I. Watershed-based studies:
II. Non-watershed-based studies:
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This is a notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of Oklahoma (FEMA-4315-DR), dated May 26, 2017, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated May 26, 2017, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
I have determined that the damage in certain areas of the State of Oklahoma resulting from severe storms, tornadoes, and flooding during the period of April 28 to May 2, 2017, is of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant a major disaster declaration under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
In order to provide Federal assistance, you are hereby authorized to allocate from funds available for these purposes such amounts as you find necessary for Federal disaster assistance and administrative expenses.
You are authorized to provide Public Assistance in the designated areas and Hazard Mitigation throughout the State. Consistent with the requirement that Federal assistance be supplemental, any Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Hazard Mitigation will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs. Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Public Assistance also will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs, with the exception of projects that meet the eligibility criteria for a higher Federal cost-sharing percentage under the Public Assistance Alternative Procedures Pilot Program for Debris Removal implemented pursuant to section 428 of the Stafford Act.
Further, you are authorized to make changes to this declaration for the approved assistance to the extent allowable under the Stafford Act.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Charles Maskell, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.
The following areas of the State of Oklahoma have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:
Adair, Beaver, Caddo, Cherokee, Cimarron, Craig, Delaware, Haskell, Kiowa, Lincoln, Logan, Mayes, Muskogee, Ottawa, Pittsburg, Sequoyah, Texas, and Washita Counties for Public Assistance.
All areas within the State of Oklahoma are eligible for assistance under the Hazard Mitigation Grant Program.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This is a notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of New Hampshire (FEMA-4316-DR), dated June 1, 2017, and related determinations.
Effective June 1, 2017.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated June 1, 2017, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
I have determined that the damage in certain areas of the State of New Hampshire resulting from a severe winter storm during the period of March 14-15, 2017, is of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant a major disaster declaration under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
In order to provide Federal assistance, you are hereby authorized to allocate from funds available for these purposes such amounts as you find necessary for Federal disaster assistance and administrative expenses.
You are authorized to provide Public Assistance in the designated areas and Hazard Mitigation throughout the State. Consistent with the requirement that Federal assistance be supplemental, any Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Hazard Mitigation will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs. Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Public Assistance also will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs, with the exception of projects that meet the eligibility criteria for a higher Federal cost-sharing percentage under the Public Assistance Alternative Procedures Pilot Program for Debris Removal implemented pursuant to section 428 of the Stafford Act.
Further, you are authorized to make changes to this declaration for the approved assistance to the extent allowable under the Stafford Act.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Albert Lewis, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.
The following areas of the State of New Hampshire have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:
Belknap and Carroll Counties for Public Assistance.
All areas within the State of New Hampshire are eligible for assistance under the Hazard Mitigation Grant Program.
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households In Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice lists communities where the addition or modification of Base Flood Elevations (BFEs), base flood depths, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundaries or zone designations, or the regulatory floodway (hereinafter referred to as flood hazard determinations), as shown on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports, prepared by the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) for each community, is appropriate because of new scientific or technical data. The FIRM, and where applicable, portions of the FIS report, have been revised to reflect these flood hazard determinations through issuance of a Letter of Map Revision (LOMR). The LOMR will be used by insurance agents and others to calculate appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings and the contents of those buildings. For rating purposes, the currently effective community number is shown in the table below and must be used for all new policies and renewals.
These flood hazard determinations will become effective on the dates listed in the table below and revise the FIRM panels and FIS report in effect prior to this determination for the listed communities.
From the date of the second publication of notification of these changes in a newspaper of local circulation, any person has 90 days in which to request through the community that the Deputy Associate Administrator for Insurance and Mitigation reconsider the changes. The flood hazard determination information may be changed during the 90-day period.
The affected communities are listed in the table below. Revised flood hazard information for each community is available for inspection at both the online location and the respective community map repository address listed in the table below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
Submit comments and/or appeals to the Chief Executive Officer of the community as listed in the table below.
Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
The specific flood hazard determinations are not described for each community in this notice. However, the online location and local community map repository address where the flood hazard determination information is available for inspection is provided.
Any request for reconsideration of flood hazard determinations must be submitted to the Chief Executive Officer of the community as listed in the table below.
The modifications are made pursuant to section 201 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4105, and are in accordance with the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, 42 U.S.C. 4001
The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP).
These flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required.
The affected communities are listed in the following table. Flood hazard determination information for each community is available for inspection at both the online location and the respective community map repository address listed in the table below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability of draft revised marine mammal stock assessment reports for two stocks of polar bears; request for comments.
In accordance with the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, as amended and its implementing regulations, we, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, have developed draft revised marine mammal stock assessment reports for each of the two polar bear (
We must receive comments by September 20, 2017.
To obtain the draft Stock Assessment Report for either polar bear stock, and to submit comments, see Document Availability and Public Comment, respectively, under
Patrick Lemons, Marine Mammals Management Office, (800) 362-5148 or via email
Under the Marine Mammal Protection Act (16 U.S.C. 1361
To help accomplish the goal of maintaining marine mammal stocks at their OSPs, section 117 of the MMPA requires us and the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) to prepare a Stock Assessment Report (SAR) for each marine mammal stock that occurs in waters under U.S. jurisdiction. A SAR must be based on the best scientific information available; therefore, we prepare it in consultation with regional scientific review groups (SRG) established under section 117(d) of the MMPA. Each SAR must include:
1. A description of the stock and its geographic range;
2. A minimum population estimate, current and maximum net productivity rates, and current population trend;
3. An estimate of the annual human-caused mortality and serious injury by source and, for a strategic stock, other factors that may be causing a decline or impeding recovery;
4. A description of commercial fishery interactions;
5. A categorization of the status of the stock; and
6. An estimate of the
The MMPA defines the PBR as “the maximum number of animals, not including natural mortalities, that may be removed from a marine mammal stock while allowing that stock to reach or maintain its OSP” (16 U.S.C. 1362(20)). The PBR is the product of the minimum population estimate of the stock (N
Section 117 of the MMPA also requires the Service and NMFS to review the SARs (a) at least annually for stocks that are specified as strategic stocks, (b) at least annually for stocks for which significant new information is available, and (c) at least once every 3 years for all other stocks. If our review of the status of a stock indicates that it has changed or may be more accurately determined, then the SAR must be revised accordingly.
A
Both polar bears SARs were last revised in January 2010. Because the polar bear is listed as a threatened species under the ESA, both the Southern Beaufort Sea and the Chukchi/Bering Seas polar bear stocks are considered strategic. Therefore, the Service considered all available new information on these stocks in 2011, 2012, and 2013, and determined that no new information was available that indicated the status of the stocks had changed or could be more accurately determined. However, as new information became available in 2014, the Service initiated revision of the SARs and obtained advice from the Alaska SRG. Therefore, these draft SARs incorporate the comments and suggestions provided to the Service by the Alaska SRG as appropriate.
The following table summarizes some of the information contained in the draft revised SARs for the Southern Beaufort Sea polar bear and the Chukchi/Bering Seas polar bear stocks, which includes each stock's N
You may obtain copies by any one of the following methods:
• Internet:
• Write to or call (during normal business hours from 8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. Monday through Friday) Patrick Lemons, Chief, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Marine Mammals Management Office, 1011 East Tudor Road, Anchorage, Alaska 99503; telephone: (800) 362-3800.
You may submit a written comment by any one of the following methods:
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Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
In accordance with section 117(b)(1) of the MMPA, we include in this notice a list of the sources of information or published reports upon which we based the draft revised SARs. The Service consulted technical reports, conference proceedings, refereed journal publications, and scientific studies prepared or issued by federal agencies, non-governmental organizations, and individuals with expertise in the fields of marine mammal biology and ecology, population dynamics, Alaska Native subsistence use of marine mammals, modeling, and commercial fishing technology and practices.
These agencies and organizations include: The Service, the U.S. Geological Survey, the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, the National Park Service, the Arctic Institute, the North American Wildlife and Natural Resource Conference, the Marine Mammals of the Holarctic V Conference, and the Outer Continental Shelf Environmental Assessment Program. In addition, the Service consulted publications such as the Journal of Wildlife Management, Conservation Biology, Marine Mammal Science, Ecological Applications, Biological Conservation, Aquatic Mammals, Journal of Zoology, Marine Mammal Science and other refereed journal literature, technical reports, and data sources in the development of these SARs.
A complete list of citations to the scientific literature relied on for each of the two revised SARs is available from the Service by visiting the Service's Marine Mammal Management office's species information page at:
The authority for this action is the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1361
Notice.
To comply with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), the Bureau of Ocean Energy Management (BOEM) is notifying the public that we have submitted an information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. The ICR pertains to the paperwork requirements in the regulations under 30 CFR part 582, Operations in the Outer Continental Shelf for Minerals Other than Oil, Gas, and Sulphur. This notice provides the public a second opportunity to comment on the paperwork burden of this collection.
Submit written comments by July 24, 2017.
Please send your comments on this ICR to the Desk Officer for the Department of the Interior at OMB-OIRA at (202) 395-5806 (fax) or
Anna Atkinson, Office of Policy, Regulations, and Analysis at
Regulations at 30 CFR part 582 carry out these statutory requirements by governing mining operations within the OCS for minerals other than oil, gas, and sulphur and establishing a comprehensive regulatory program for such minerals.
There has been no competitive leasing activity in the OCS for minerals other than oil, gas, and sulphur for many years. Accordingly, BOEM has not generally collected information under this part of its regulations. However, since these are regulatory requirements, the potential exists for information to be collected. Therefore, we are renewing OMB approval for this information collection.
We will use the information required by 30 CFR part 582 to determine if lessees are complying with the regulations for mining minerals other than oil, gas, and sulphur. BOEM will also use the information to ensure that such operations are conducted in a manner that will result in orderly resource recovery, development, and the protection of the human, marine, and coastal environments and for technical and environmental evaluations which provide a basis for BOEM to make informed decisions to approve, disapprove, or require modification of the proposed activities.
We protect proprietary information according to the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) and the Department's implementing regulations (43 CFR part 2), 30 CFR 582.5 and 582.6, and applicable sections of 30 CFR parts 580 and 581. No items of a sensitive nature are collected. Responses are mandatory.
• Whether or not the collection of information is necessary, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;
• the accuracy of the burden estimates;
• ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• ways to minimize the burden on respondents.
As required at 5 CFR 1320.8(d), BOEM published a 60-day notice in the
The authorities for this action are the OCS Lands Act, as amended (43 U.S.C. 1334 and 43 U.S.C. 1337(k)(1)), and the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501,
Federal Bureau of Investigation, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
Department of Justice (DOJ), Federal Bureau of Investigation, Criminal Justice Information Services (CJIS) Division will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until July 24, 2017.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the items contained in this notice, especially the estimated public burden and associated response time, should be directed to Mrs. Amy C. Blasher, Unit Chief, Federal Bureau of Investigation, CJIS Division, Module E-3, 1000 Custer Hollow Road, Clarksburg, West Virginia 26306; facsimile (304) 625-3566. Written comments and/or suggestions can also be sent to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention Department of Justice Desk Officer, Washington, DC 20503 or sent to
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
Overview of this Information Collection:
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(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
If additional information is required contact: Melody Braswell, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., Suite 3E.405B, Washington, DC 20530.
National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of information collection.
The National Aeronautics and Space Administration, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections.
All comments should be submitted within 60 calendar days from the date of this publication.
All comments should be addressed to Frances Teel, National Aeronautics and Space Administration, 300 E Streets SW., Washington, DC 20546-0001.
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument(s) and instructions should be directed to Frances Teel, NASA Clearance Officer, NASA Headquarters, 300 E Street SW., JF0000, Washington, DC 20546, (202) 358-2225.
Homeland Security Presidential Directive 12 (HSPD-12) established a mandatory requirement for a Government-wide identify verification standard. In compliance with HSPD-12 and the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) 201: Personal Identity Verification of Federal Employees and Contractors, and OMB Policy memorandum M-05-24 Implementation of Homeland Security Presidential Directive 12, NASA must collect information from members of the public to: (1) Validate identity and (2) issue secure and reliable federal credentials to enable access to NASA facilities/sites and NASA information systems. Information collected is consistent with background investigation data to include but not limited to name, date of birth, citizenship, social security number (SSN), address, employment history, biometric identifiers (
NASA collects information from U.S. Citizens requiring access 30 or more days in a calendar year. NASA also collects information from foreign nationals regardless of their affiliation time.
NASA collects, stores, and secures information from individuals identified above in the NASA Identify Management System (IdMAX) in a manner consistent with the Constitution and applicable laws, including the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a.)
Information is collected via a combination of electronic and paper processes and stored in the NASA Identify Account Exchange (IdMAX) System.
Electronic (90%) and paper (10%).
Comments are invited on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of NASA, including whether the information collected has practical utility; (2) the accuracy of NASA's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection. They will also become a matter of public record.
National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of information collection.
The National Aeronautics and Space Administration, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public to take this opportunity to comment on the “Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery”. This collection was developed as part of a Federal Government-wide effort to streamline the process for seeking feedback from the public on service delivery. This notice announces our intent to submit this collection to OMB for approval and solicits comments on
Consideration will be given to all comments received within 60 calendar days from the date of this publication.
All comments should be addressed to Frances Teel, National Aeronautics and Space Administration, Code JF000, Washington, DC 20546-0001,
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument(s) and instructions should be directed to Frances Teel, NASA PRA Clearance Officer, NASA Headquarters, 300 E Street SW., Mail Code JF0000, Washington, DC 20546 or
The solicitation of feedback will target areas such as: timeliness, appropriateness, accuracy of information, courtesy, efficiency of service delivery, and resolution of issues with service delivery. Responses will be assessed to plan and inform efforts to improve or maintain the quality of service offered to the public. If this information is not collected, vital feedback from customers and stakeholders on the Agency's services will be unavailable.
The Agency will only submit a collection for approval under this generic clearance if it meets the following conditions:
• The collections are voluntary;
• The collections are low-burden for respondents (based on considerations of total burden hours, total number of respondents, or burden-hours per respondent) and are low-cost for both the respondents and the Federal Government;
• The collections are non-controversial and do not raise issues of concern to other Federal agencies;
• Any collection is targeted to the solicitation of opinions from respondents who have experience with the program or may have experience with the program in the near future;
• Personally identifiable information (PII) is collected only to the extent necessary and is not retained;
• Information gathered will be used only internally for general service improvement and program management purposes and is not intended for release outside of the agency;
• Information gathered will not be used for the purpose of substantially informing influential policy decisions; and
• Information gathered will yield qualitative information; the collections will not be designed or expected to yield statistically reliable results or used as though the results are generalizable to the population of study.
Feedback collected under this generic clearance provides useful information, but it does not yield data that can be generalized to the overall population. This type of generic clearance for qualitative information will not be used for quantitative information collections that are designed to yield reliably actionable results, such as monitoring trends over time or documenting program performance. Such data uses require more rigorous designs that address: the target population to which generalizations will be made, the sampling frame, the sample design (including stratification and clustering), the precision requirements or power calculations that justify the proposed sample size, the expected response rate, methods for assessing potential non-response bias, the protocols for data collection, and any testing procedures that were or will be undertaken prior to fielding the study. Depending on the degree of influence the results are likely to have, such collections may still be eligible for submission for other generic mechanisms that are designed to yield quantitative results.
As a general matter, information collections will not result in any new system of records containing privacy information and will not ask questions of a sensitive nature, such as sexual behavior and attitudes, religious beliefs, and other matters that are commonly considered private.
All written comments will be available for public inspection at:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information
U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Call for nominations.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is advertising for nominations for the positions of Agreement State representative, nuclear medicine physicist, and Health Care Administrator on the Advisory Committee on the Medical Uses of Isotopes (ACMUI).
Nominations are due on or before August 21, 2017.
Ms. Sophie Holiday, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards; (301) 415-7865;
The ACMUI advises the NRC on policy and technical issues that arise in the regulation of the medical use of byproduct material. Responsibilities include providing comments on changes to the NRC regulations and guidance; evaluating certain non-routine uses of byproduct material; providing technical assistance in licensing, inspection, and enforcement cases; and bringing key issues to the attention of the NRC staff, for appropriate action.
ACMUI members are selected based on their educational background, certification(s), work experience, involvement and/or leadership in professional society activities, and other information obtained in letters or during the selection process.
ACMUI members possess the medical and technical skills needed to address evolving issues. The current membership is comprised of the following professionals: (a) Nuclear medicine physician; (b) nuclear cardiologist; (c) two radiation oncologists; (d) diagnostic radiologist; (e) therapy medical physicist; (f) nuclear medicine physicist; (g) nuclear pharmacist; (h) Health Care Administrator; (i) radiation safety officer; (j) patients' rights advocate; (k) Food and Drug Administration representative; and (l) Agreement State representative.
The NRC is inviting nominations for the positions of Agreement State representative, nuclear medicine physicist, and the Health Care Administrator to the ACMUI. The Agreement State representative position is currently vacant. The terms of the individuals currently occupying the nuclear medicine physicist position and the Health Care Administrator position will end March 08, 2018, and March 23, 2018, respectively. Committee members currently serve a 4-year term and may be considered for reappointment to an additional term.
Nominees must be U.S. citizens and be able to devote approximately 160 hours per year to Committee business. Members who are not Federal employees are compensated for their service. In addition, members are reimbursed for travel (including per-diem in lieu of subsistence) and are reimbursed secretarial and correspondence expenses. Full-time Federal employees are reimbursed for travel expenses only.
For the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
License amendment application; withdrawal by applicant.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has granted the request of the Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA, the licensee) to withdraw its license amendment request (LAR) dated September 16, 2015, as supplemented by letters dated April 15, April 29, May 11, May 25, June 16, August 24, and September 15, 2016, for a proposed amendment to Renewed Facility Operating License (RFOL) Nos. DPR-33, DPR-52, and DPR-68, for the Browns Ferry Nuclear Plant (BFN), Units 1, 2, and 3. The proposed amendment would have revised the BFN, Units 1 and 2 Technical Specifications (TSs) by adding a new specification governing the safety functions for the emergency core cooling system preferred pump logic, common accident signal logic, and the unit priority re-trip logic. In addition, the LAR relocated the BFN, Unit 3, requirements for common accident signal logic and unit priority re-trip logic to a new specification governing the safety functions for the common accident signal logic and the unit priority re-trip logic for consistency with the changes to the BFN, Units 1 and 2, TSs.
June 22, 2017.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2015-0288 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Farideh Saba, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-1447; email:
The NRC has granted the request of the TVA to withdraw its September 16, 2015, application for the proposed amendment to RFOLs for Browns Ferry, located in Limestone County, AL.
By letter dated September 16, 2015 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15260B125), as supplemented by letters dated April 15, April 29, May 11, May 25, June 16, August 24, and September 15, 2016 (ADAMS Accession Nos. ML16106A323, ML16123A071, ML16133A566, ML16146A725, ML16169A179, ML16237A418, and ML16260A098, respectively), TVA submitted a LAR to the BFN, Units 1, 2, and 3, Renewed Facility Operating License Nos. DPR-33, DPR-52, and DPR-68, respectively. The proposed amendment would revise the BFN, Units 1 and 2, TSs by adding a new specification governing the safety functions for the emergency core cooling system preferred pump logic, common accident signal logic, and the unit priority re-trip logic. In addition, the LAR would relocate the BFN, Unit 3, requirements for common accident signal logic and unit priority re-trip logic to a new specification governing the safety functions for the common accident signal logic and the unit priority re-trip logic for consistency with the changes to the TSs for BFN, Units 1 and 2.
The NRC published a biweekly notice in the
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Notice of submission to the Office of Management and Budget; request for comment.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) invites public comment on the renewal of Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for an existing collection of information. The information collection is titled “Licenses for Radiography and Radiation Safety Requirements for Radiographic Operations.”
Submit comments by July 24, 2017.
Submit comments directly to the OMB reviewer at: Aaron Szabo, Desk Officer, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB 3150-0007, NEOB-10202, Office of Management and Budget, Washington, DC 20503; telephone: 202-395-3621, email:
David Cullison, NRC Clearance Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-2084; email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0123 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information in comment submissions that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. All comment submissions are posted at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the OMB, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that comment submissions are not routinely edited to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment into ADAMS.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the NRC recently
The NRC published a
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For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Confirmatory order; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing a Confirmatory Order to Tilden Mining Company, L.C. (Tilden Mining) as a result of an agreement reached during an Alternative Dispute Resolution mediation session conducted on May 8, 2017. The mediation session was conducted to reach agreement on the corrective actions to be implemented by Tilden Mining in response to apparent violations involving the failure to implement a security program in accordance with NRC requirements. The Confirmatory Order documents the corrective action commitments made by Tilden Mining and is effective on July 14, 2017.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2017-0147 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Kenneth J. Lambert, Region III, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 630-710-4376; email:
The text of the Order is attached.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Tilden Mining Company L.C. (Tilden Mining or Licensee) is the holder of byproduct material License No. 21-26748-01 issued on June 3, 2014, by the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC or Commission) pursuant to Part 30 of Title 10 of the
This Confirmatory Order is the result of an agreement reached during an Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) mediation session conducted on May 8, 2017.
On March 9, 2017, the NRC issued Inspection Report 03034221/2016001(DNMS) to Tilden Mining, which documented the identification of apparent violations that were being considered for escalated enforcement action in accordance with the NRC Enforcement Policy. The apparent violations involved the failure to implement its security program in accordance with NRC requirements.
By letter, dated March 9, 2017, the NRC notified Tilden Mining of the results of the inspection with an opportunity to: (1) Provide a response in writing, (2) attend a predecisional
In response to the NRC's offer, Tilden Mining requested the use of the NRC's ADR process to resolve differences it had with the NRC. On May 8, 2017, the NRC and Tilden Mining met in an ADR session mediated by a professional mediator, arranged through Cornell University's Institute on Conflict Resolution. The ADR process is one in which a neutral mediator, with no decision-making authority, assists the parties in reaching an agreement on resolving any differences regarding the dispute. This Confirmatory Order is issued pursuant to the agreement reached during the ADR process.
During the ADR session, Tilden Mining and the NRC reached a preliminary settlement in an Agreement in Principal. The elements of the agreement include the following:
Tilden Mining has already taken a number of corrective actions including:
1. Repaired the alarm;
2. Installed a more robust door-access system; and
3. Initiated training for appropriate personnel on the operation of the new alarm system.
Therefore, the parties agree to the following terms and conditions:
1. Tilden Mining shall establish a Radioactive Material Oversight Committee to oversee the implementation of the Licensee's programs for radiation safety and radioactive source security. The Committee shall review and update the scope of work and documentation requirements for the Licensee's annual radiation safety and security audits/program reviews.
The Committee shall be comprised of the Radiation Safety Officer (RSO), the RSO's Manager, the Site General Manager, and other relevant stakeholders.
The Committee shall be established and hold its first meeting no later than September 30, 2017. Thereafter, the Committee shall at a minimum meet three times in 2018, twice in 2019, and annually thereafter until December 31, 2022.
The Committee shall review annual audits/program reviews and the effectiveness reviews required by paragraph 2 of this Agreement in Principle and ensure corrective actions are implemented, as appropriate. The Committee shall ensure that corrective actions and tasks required to ensure compliance are adequately documented and controlled within the Licensee's work-tracking system.
The Committee shall maintain records of its meetings to enable NRC inspection.
2. Tilden Mining shall complete two effectiveness reviews of the corrective actions taken in response to the Confirmatory Order. Each effectiveness review supplements the annual audits/program reviews required by NRC regulations and may be combined with those required audits/reviews. Each effectiveness review shall be conducted by an independent consultant.
The first effectiveness review shall be conducted no later than December 31, 2018, and the second shall be conducted no later than December 31, 2020.
The scope of each effectiveness review shall include review of Radioactive Material Oversight Committee activities and the effectiveness and sustainability of the corrective actions taken in response to the Confirmatory Order.
The Licensee shall provide a copy of the results of each effectiveness review to the Director, Division of Nuclear Materials Safety (DNMS), Region III, within 150 days of the Licensee's receipt of the consultant's final report. If the results indicate a potential or apparent violation of NRC requirements, the NRC will conduct an inspection to determine the facts and assess the significance prior to proposing any enforcement action.
3. For a period of 5 years from the date of the Confirmatory Order, Tilden Mining shall reflect in its work-tracking system tasks governing:
a. Annual coordination with the local law enforcement authority;
b. Twice yearly alarm system testing;
c. Any corrective actions directed by the Radioactive Material Oversight Committee; and
d. Maintenance pertinent to security systems required under the applicable regulation.
4. For a period of 5 years from the date of the Confirmatory Order, Tilden Mining shall provide annual training to affected personnel on the access control and alarm response requirements of the applicable regulations and the Licensee's implementing procedures.
Based on the completed actions described above, and the commitments described in Section V below, the NRC agrees not to pursue any further enforcement action in connection with the NRC's March 9, 2017, letter to Tilden Mining and not to issue a civil penalty. The NRC considers the Confirmatory Order as an escalated enforcement action; however, it will not be considered an escalated enforcement action by the NRC for future assessment of violations occurring at Tilden Mining.
On June 13, 2017, Tilden Mining consented to issuing this Confirmatory Order with the commitments, as described in Section V below. Tilden Mining further agreed that this Confirmatory Order is to be effective upon issuance, the agreement memorialized in this Confirmatory Order settles the matter between the parties, and that it has waived its right to a hearing.
I find that Tilden Mining's actions completed, as described in Section III above, combined with the commitments as set forth in Section V are acceptable and necessary, and conclude that with these commitments the public health and safety are reasonably assured. In view of the foregoing, I have determined that public health and safety require that Tilden Mining's commitments be confirmed by this Confirmatory Order. Based on the above and Tilden Mining's consent, this Confirmatory Order is effective upon issuance.
By no later than thirty (30) days after the completion of the commitments specified in Section V, Tilden Mining Company L.C. is required to notify the NRC in writing and summarize its actions.
Accordingly, pursuant to Sections 81, 161b, 161i, 161o, 182, and 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the Commission's regulations in 10 CFR 2.202 and 10 CFR part 37, it is hereby ordered, effective upon issuance, that license No. 21-26748-01 is modified as follows:
1. Tilden Mining shall establish a Radioactive Material Oversight Committee to oversee the implementation of the Licensee's programs for radiation safety and radioactive source security. The Committee shall review and update the scope of work and documentation requirements for the Licensee's annual radiation safety and security audits/program reviews.
The Committee shall be comprised of the Radiation Safety Officer, the RSO's Manager, the Site General Manager, and other relevant stakeholders.
The Committee shall be established and hold its first meeting no later than September 30, 2017. Thereafter, the Committee shall at a minimum meet three times in 2018, twice in 2019, and annually thereafter until December 31, 2022.
The Committee shall review annual audits/program reviews and the effectiveness reviews required by paragraph 2 of this section and ensure corrective actions are implemented, as appropriate. The Committee shall ensure that corrective actions and tasks required to ensure compliance are adequately documented and controlled within the Licensee's work-tracking system.
The Committee shall maintain records of its meetings to enable NRC inspection.
2. Tilden Mining shall complete two effectiveness reviews of the corrective actions taken in response to this Confirmatory Order. Each effectiveness review supplements the annual audits/program reviews required by NRC regulations and may be combined with those required audits/reviews. Each effectiveness review shall be conducted by an independent consultant.
The first effectiveness review shall be conducted no later than December 31, 2018, and the second shall be conducted no later than December 31, 2020.
The scope of each effectiveness review shall include review of Radioactive Material Oversight Committee activities and the effectiveness and sustainability of the corrective actions taken in response to the Confirmatory Order.
Tilden Mining shall provide a copy of the results of each effectiveness review to the Director, DNMS, Region III, within 150 days of the Licensee's receipt of the consultant's final report. If the results indicate a potential or apparent violation of NRC requirements, the NRC will conduct an inspection to determine the facts and assess the significance prior to proposing any enforcement action.
3. For a period of 5 years from the date of the Confirmatory Order, Tilden Mining shall reflect in its work-tracking system tasks governing:
a. Annual coordination with the local law enforcement;
b. Twice yearly alarm system testing;
c. Any corrective actions directed by the Radioactive Material Oversight Committee; and
d. Maintenance pertinent to security systems required under the applicable regulations.
4. For a period of 5 years from the date of this Confirmatory Order, Tilden Mining shall provide annual training to affected personnel on the access control and alarm response requirements of the applicable regulations and the Licensee's implementing procedures.
In the event of the transfer of the operating license of Tilden Mining to another entity, the terms and conditions set forth in this Confirmatory Order shall continue to apply and accordingly survive any transfer of ownership or license.
The Regional Administrator, Region III may, in writing, relax or rescind any of the above conditions upon demonstration by Tilden Mining or its successors of good cause.
In accordance with 10 CFR 2.202 and 10 CFR 2.309, any person adversely affected by this Confirmatory Order, other than Tilden Mining, may request a hearing within thirty (30) calendar days of the date of issuance of this Confirmatory Order. Where good cause is shown, consideration will be given to extending the time to request a hearing. A request for extension of time must be made in writing to the Director, Office of Enforcement, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555, and include a statement of good cause for the extension.
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing, a petition for leave to intervene, any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene (hereinafter “petition”), and documents filed by interested governmental entities participating under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC's E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007, as amended at 77 FR 46562, August 3, 2012). The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Participants may not submit paper copies of their filings unless they seek an exemption in accordance with the procedures described below.
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least 10 days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on the NRC's public Web site at
A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC's Electronic Filing Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's public Web site at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in NRC's electronic hearing docket, which is available to the public at
The Commission will issue a Notice or Order granting or denying a hearing request or intervention petition, designating the issues for any hearing that will be held and designating the Presiding Officer. A notice granting a hearing will be published in the
If a person (other than Tilden Mining) requests a hearing, that person shall set forth with particularity the manner in which his interest is adversely affected by this Confirmatory Order and shall address the criteria set forth in 10 CFR 2.309(d) and (f).
If a hearing is requested by a person whose interest is adversely affected, the Commission will issue an Order designating the time and place of any hearings. If a hearing is held, the issue to be considered at such hearing shall be whether this Confirmatory Order should be sustained.
In the absence of any request for hearing, or written approval of an extension of time in which to request a hearing, the provisions specified in Section V above shall be final 30 days from the date of this Confirmatory Order without further order or proceedings. If an extension of time for requesting a hearing has been approved, the provisions specified in Section V shall be final when the extension expires if a hearing request has not been received.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Environmental assessment and finding of no significant impact; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is considering issuance of an amendment to Renewed Facility Operating License No. DPR-50 held by Exelon Generation Company, LLC (Exelon, the licensee) for the operation of Three Mile Island Nuclear Station (TMI), Units 1 and 2, located in Dauphin County, Pennsylvania. The proposed amendment would allow for changes to TMI's Radiological Emergency Plan Annex staffing levels to align with Exelon's standard fleet Emergency Response Organization (ERO) framework. In accordance with the Possession-Only License No. DPR-73 Post-Defueling Monitored Storage Safety Analysis Report for TMI, Unit 2, the emergency plan for Unit 1 is considered to encompass Unit 2. Therefore, an amendment to the Unit 2 license is not required. The NRC is issuing an environmental assessment (EA) and finding of no significant impact (FONSI) associated with the proposed license amendment.
The EA referenced in this document is available on June 22, 2017.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2017-0146 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Justin C. Poole, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-2048; email:
The NRC is considering issuance of a license amendment pursuant to section 50.54 of title 10 of the
The proposed action would revise the Radiological Emergency Plan Annex for TMI in order to allow changes to staffing levels to align with Exelon's standard fleet ERO framework. The proposed changes would decrease the on-shift radiation protection technician staffing from three to two technicians. The proposed amendment would also make changes to the staffing of on-shift maintenance personnel. Specifically, the amendment would: (1) Revise the on-shift position of operations support center director (renamed repair team lead) to remove the requirement that the position be from the maintenance organization; (2) remove two dedicated maintenance technicians from the on-shift staffing total; and (3) remove two additional personnel from the repair and corrective actions major task and assign them to respond within 60 minutes, as well as one additional staff person to respond within 90 minutes.
The proposed action is in accordance with the licensee's application dated July 15, 2016 (ADAMS Package Accession No. ML16201A306), as supplemented by letter dated February 13, 2017 (ADAMS Accession No. ML17045A036).
Nuclear power plant owners, government agencies, and state and local officials work together to create a system for emergency preparedness and response that will serve the public in the unlikely event of an emergency. An effective emergency preparedness program decreases the likelihood of an initiating event at a nuclear power reactor proceeding to a severe accident. Emergency preparedness cannot affect the probability of the initiating event, but a high level of emergency preparedness increases the probability of accident mitigation if the initiating event proceeds beyond the need for initial operator actions.
Each licensee is required to establish emergency plans to be implemented in the event of an accident. These emergency plans, in part, cover preparations for evacuation, sheltering, and other actions to protect individuals near plants in the event of an accident.
The NRC, as well as other Federal and state regulatory agencies, reviews emergency plans to ensure that the condition of emergency preparedness provides reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency.
Separate from this environmental assessment, the NRC staff is performing a safety assessment of Exelon's proposed changes to the emergency plan for TMI. This safety review will be documented in a safety evaluation report. The safety evaluation report will determine whether, with the proposed changes to the emergency plan for TMI, there continues to be reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency at TMI, in accordance with the standards of 10 CFR 50.47(b) and the requirements in appendix E to 10 CFR part 50.
The proposed action is needed to align TMI's Radiological Emergency Plan Annex staffing levels with Exelon's standard fleet ERO framework. This will improve consistency throughout the Exelon fleet regarding the application of operating experience and process improvements from other Exelon fleet sites and will provide flexibility in staffing ERO positions with qualified personnel from either the operations or maintenance organizations.
The NRC staff has completed its evaluation of the environmental impacts of the proposed action.
The proposed action consists mainly of administrative changes related to the staffing levels and positions of the TMI emergency plan. These changes include (a) decreasing radiation protection technician staffing from three to two technicians, (b) renaming the on-shift “operations support center director” to “repair team lead” and removing the requirement that the position be filled by a “maintenance team lead,” (c) removing two dedicated maintenance technicians from the on-shift staffing total, (d) removing one Mechanical and one Electrical/Instrumentation and Control Maintenance Technician assigned concurrent duties, and (e) adding one Mechanical Maintenance Technician and one Electrical Maintenance Technician as 60-minute augmentation responders and one Maintenance Instrumentation and Control Technician as a 90-minute augmentation responder.
With regard to potential non-radiological environmental impacts, the proposed changes would have no direct impacts on land use or water resources, including terrestrial and aquatic biota, as they involve no new construction or modification of plant operational systems. There would be no changes to the quality or quantity of non-radiological effluents and no changes to the plant's National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit are needed. Changes in staffing levels could result in minor changes in vehicular traffic and associated air pollutant emissions, but no significant changes in ambient air quality would be expected from the proposed changes. In addition, there would be no noticeable effect on socioeconomic conditions in the region, no environment justice impacts, and no impacts to historic and cultural resources from the proposed changes. Therefore, there are no significant non-radiological environmental impacts associated with the proposed action.
With regard to potential radiological environmental impacts, if the NRC staff's safety review of the proposed changes to the TMI emergency plan determines that, with the proposed changes, the emergency plan continues to meet the standards of 10 CFR 50.47(b) and the requirements in appendix E to 10 CFR part 50, then the proposed action would not increase the probability or consequences of radiological accidents. Additionally, the NRC staff has concluded that the proposed changes would have no direct radiological environmental impacts. There would be no change to the types or amounts of radioactive effluents that may be released and, therefore, no change in occupational or public radiation exposure from the proposed changes. Moreover, no changes would be made to plant buildings or the site property from the proposed changes. Therefore, there are no significant radiological environmental impacts associated with the proposed action.
As an alternative to the proposed action, the NRC staff considered denial of the proposed action (
The proposed action does not involve the use of any different resources than those previously considered.
No additional agencies or persons were consulted regarding the
Pursuant to 10 CFR 50.54(q), the licensee has requested a license amendment to Renewed Facility Operating License No. DPR-50 for the operation of TMI to allow staffing changes to the Radiological Emergency Plan Annex for TMI. The NRC is considering issuing the requested amendment. On the basis of the EA included in Section II of this document and incorporated by reference into this finding, the NRC concludes that the proposed action would not have a significant effect on the quality of the human environment. Accordingly, the NRC has determined not to prepare an environmental impact statement for the proposed action.
The related environmental document is NUREG-1437, “Generic Environmental Impact Statement for License Renewal of Nuclear Plants, Supplement 37, Regarding Three Mile Island Nuclear Station, Unit 1, Final Report,” and is available for public inspection at ADAMS Accession No. ML091751063. NUREG-1437, Supplement 37, provides the latest environmental review of current operations and a description of environmental conditions at TMI.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing for the Commission's consideration concerning rates not of general applicability for Inbound Parcel Post (at Universal Postal Union (UPU) Rates). This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
The Commission gives notice that the Postal Service filed request(s) for the Commission to consider matters related to rates not of general applicability for Inbound Parcel Post (at Universal Postal Union (UPU) Rates).
Section II identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, the title of each Postal Service request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. For each request, the Commission appoints an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in the proceeding, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505 (Public Representative). Section II also establishes comment deadline(s) pertaining to each request.
The public portions of the Postal Service's request(s) can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's request(s) in the captioned docket(s) are consistent with the policies of title 39. For request(s) that the Postal Service states concern market dominant product(s), applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3622, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3010, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. For request(s) that the Postal Service states concern competitive product(s), applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3632, 39 U.S.C. 3633, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3015, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comment deadline(s) for each request appear in section II.
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This Notice will be published in the
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act” or “Exchange Act”),
The Exchange proposes to adopt Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9 (Consolidated Audit Trail—Fee Dispute Resolution) to establish the procedures for resolving potential disputes related to CAT Fees charged to Industry Members.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Bats BYX Exchange, Inc., Bats BZX Exchange, Inc., Bats EDGA Exchange, Inc., Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc., BOX Options Exchange LLC, C2 Options Exchange, Incorporated, Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated, Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc., Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”), Investors' Exchange LLC, Miami International Securities Exchange, LLC, MIAX PEARL, LLC, NASDAQ BX, Inc., Nasdaq GEMX, LLC, Nasdaq ISE, LLC, Nasdaq MRX, LLC,
Paragraph (a) of Proposed Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9 sets forth the definitions for Proposed Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9. Paragraph (a)(1) of Proposed Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9 states that, for purposes of Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9, the terms “CAT NMS Plan”, “Industry Member”, “Operating Committee”, and “Participant” are defined as set forth in the Rule 6810 and Chapter IX, Section 8(a) (Consolidated Audit Trail—Definitions), respectively, and the term “CAT Fee” is defined as set forth in the Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees. In addition, the Exchange proposes to add paragraph (a)(2) to Proposed Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9. New paragraph (a)(2) would define the term “Subcommittee” to mean a subcommittee designated by the Operating Committee pursuant to the CAT NMS Plan. This definition is the same substantive definition as set forth in Section 1.1 of the CAT NMS Plan.
Section 11.5 of the CAT NMS Plan requires Participants to adopt rules requiring that disputes with respect to fees charged to Industry Members pursuant to the CAT NMS Plan be determined by the Operating Committee or Subcommittee. Section 11.5 of the CAT NMS Plan also states that decisions by the Operating Committee or Subcommittee on such matters shall be binding on Industry Members, without prejudice to the right of any Industry Member to seek redress from the SEC pursuant to SEC Rule 608 or in any other appropriate forum. The Exchange proposes to adopt paragraph (b) of Proposed Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9. Paragraph (b) of Proposed Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9 states that disputes initiated by an Industry Member with respect to CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member pursuant to the Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees, including disputes related to the designated tier and the fee calculated pursuant to such tier, shall be resolved by the Operating Committee, or a Subcommittee designated by the Operating Committee, of the CAT NMS Plan, pursuant to the Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures adopted pursuant to the CAT NMS Plan and set forth in paragraph (c) of Proposed Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9. Decisions on such matters shall be binding on Industry Members, without prejudice to the rights of any such Industry Member to seek redress from the SEC or in any other appropriate forum.
The Operating Committee has adopted “Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures” governing the manner in which disputes regarding CAT Fees charged pursuant to the Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees will be addressed. These Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures, as they relate to Industry Members, are set forth in paragraph (c) of Proposed Rule 6896 and
Under these Procedures, an Industry Member that disputes CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member and that desires to have an opportunity to be heard with respect to such disputed CAT Fees must file a written application with the Company within 15 business days after being notified of such disputed CAT Fees. The application must identify the disputed CAT Fees, state the specific reasons why the applicant takes exception to such CAT Fees, and set forth the relief sought. In addition, if the applicant intends to submit any additional documents, statements, arguments or other material in support of the application, the same should be so stated and identified.
The Company will refer applications for hearing and review promptly to the Subcommittee designated by the Operating Committee pursuant to Section 4.12 of the CAT NMS Plan with responsibility for conducting the reviews of CAT Fee disputes pursuant to these Procedures. This Subcommittee will be referred to as the Fee Review Subcommittee. The members of the Fee Review Subcommittee will be subject to the provisions of Section 4.3(d) of the CAT NMS Plan regarding recusal and Conflicts of Interest. The Fee Review Subcommittee will keep a record of the proceedings.
The Fee Review Subcommittee will hold hearings promptly. The Fee Review Subcommittee will set a hearing date. The parties to the hearing shall furnish the Fee Review Subcommittee with all materials relevant to the proceedings at least 72 hours prior to the date of the hearing. Each party will have the right to inspect and copy the other party's materials prior to the hearing.
The parties to the hearing will consist of the applicant and a representative of the Company who shall present the reasons for the action taken by the Company that allegedly aggrieved the applicant. The applicant is entitled to be accompanied, represented and advised by counsel at all stages of the proceedings.
The Fee Review Subcommittee will determine all questions concerning the admissibility of evidence and will otherwise regulate the conduct of the hearing. Each of the parties will be permitted to make an opening statement, present witnesses and documentary evidence, cross examine opposing witnesses and present closing arguments orally or in writing as determined by the Fee Review Subcommittee. The Fee Review Subcommittee also will have the right to question all parties and witnesses to the proceeding. The Fee Review Subcommittee must keep a record of the hearing. The formal rules of evidence will not apply.
The Fee Review Subcommittee must set forth its decision in writing and send the written decision to the parties to the proceeding. Such decisions will contain the reasons supporting the conclusions of the Fee Review Subcommittee.
The decision of the Fee Review Subcommittee will be subject to review by the Operating Committee either on its own motion within 20 business days after issuance of the decision or upon written request submitted by the applicant within 15 business days after issuance of the decision. The applicant's petition must be in writing and must specify the findings and conclusions to which the applicant objects, together with the reasons for such objections. Any objection to a decision not specified in writing will be considered to have been abandoned and may be disregarded. Parties may petition to submit a written argument to the Operating Committee and may request an opportunity to make an oral argument before the Operating Committee. The Operating Committee will have sole discretion to grant or deny either request.
The Operating Committee will conduct the review. The review will be made upon the record and will be made after such further proceedings, if any, as the Operating Committee may order. Based upon such record, the Operating Committee may affirm, reverse or modify, in whole or in part, the decision of the Fee Review Subcommittee. The decision of the Operating Committee will be in writing, will be sent to the parties to the proceeding and will be final.
The Procedures state that a final decision regarding the disputed CAT Fees by the Operating Committee, or the Fee Review Subcommittee (if there is no review by the Operating Committee), must be provided within 90 days of the date on which the Industry Member filed a written application regarding disputed CAT Fees with the Company. The Operating Committee may extend the 90-day time limit at its discretion.
In addition, the Procedures state that any notices or other documents may be served upon the applicant either personally or by leaving the same at its, his or her place of business or by deposit in the United States post office, postage prepaid, by registered or certified mail, addressed to the applicant at its, his or her last known business or residence address. The Procedures also state that any time limits imposed under the Procedures for the submission of answers, petitions or other materials may be extended by permission of the Operating Committee. All papers and documents relating to review by the Fee Review Subcommittee or the Operating Committee must be submitted to the Fee Review Subcommittee or Operating Committee, as applicable.
The Procedures also note that decisions on such CAT Fee disputes made pursuant to these Procedures will be binding on Industry Members, without prejudice to the rights of any such Industry Member to seek redress from the SEC or in any other appropriate forum.
Finally, an Industry Member that files a written application with the Company regarding disputed CAT Fees in accordance with these Procedures is not required to pay such disputed CAT Fees until the dispute is resolved in accordance with these Procedures, including any review by the SEC or in any other appropriate forum. For these purposes, the disputed CAT Fees means the amount of the invoiced CAT Fees that the Industry Member has asserted pursuant to these Procedures that such Industry Member does not owe to the Company. The Industry Member must pay any invoiced CAT Fees that are not disputed CAT Fees when due as set forth in the original invoice.
Once the dispute regarding CAT Fees is resolved pursuant to these Procedures, if it is determined that the Industry Member owes any of the disputed CAT Fees, then the Industry Member must pay such disputed CAT Fees that are owed as well as interest on such disputed CAT Fees from the original due date (that is, 30 days after receipt of the original invoice of such CAT Fees) until such disputed CAT
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that this proposal is consistent with the Act because it implements, interprets or clarifies Section 11.5 of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Exchange and its Industry Members in meeting regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan. In approving the Plan, the SEC noted that the Plan “is necessary and appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors and the maintenance of fair and orderly markets, to remove impediments to, and perfect the mechanism of a national market system, or is otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.”
Section 6(b)(8) of the Act
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice of request for public comment and submission to OMB of proposed collection of information.
The Department of State has submitted the information collection described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 we are requesting comments on this collection from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this Notice is to allow 30 days for public comment.
Submit comments directly to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) up to July 24, 2017.
Direct comments to the Department of State Desk Officer in the
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Direct requests for additional information regarding the collection listed in this notice, including requests for copies of the proposed collection instrument and supporting documents, to Pamela Watkins, Department of State, Office of Directives Management, 1800 G Street NW., Suite 2400, Washington, DC 20522-2202 who may be reached at
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We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:
• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.
• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please note that comments submitted in response to this Notice are public record. Before including any detailed personal information, you should be aware that your comments as submitted, including your personal information, will be available for public review.
The information collection activity will collect qualitative customer feedback in an efficient, timely manner, in accordance with the Administration's commitment to improving service delivery. This qualitative feedback will provide insights into customer perceptions, experiences and expectations, provide an early warning of issues with service, or focus attention on areas where communication, training or changes in operations might improve delivery of products or services. These collections will allow for ongoing, collaborative and actionable communications between the Agency and its customers. It will also allow feedback to contribute directly to the improvement of program management.
Feedback collected under this generic clearance will provide useful information, but it will not yield data that can be used for quantitative information collections that are designed to yield reliably actionable results, such as monitoring trends over time or documenting program performance. Such data uses require more rigorous designs that address: The target population to which generalizations will be made, the sampling frame, the sample design (including stratification and clustering), the precision requirements or power calculations that justify the proposed sample size, the expected response rate, methods for assessing potential non-response bias, the protocols for data collection, and any testing procedures that were or will be undertaken prior fielding the study. Depending on the degree of influence the results are likely to have, such collections may still be eligible for submission for other generic mechanisms that are designed to yield quantitative results.
Respondents will fill out a brief customer survey after completing their interaction with a Department Office or Embassy. Surveys are designed to gather feedback on the customer's experiences.
Notice of request for public comment.
The Department of State is seeking Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for the information collections described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we are requesting comments on this collection from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this notice is to allow 60 days for public comment preceding submission of the collection to OMB.
The Department will accept comments from the public up to August 21, 2017.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
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You must include the DS form number (if applicable), information collection title, and the OMB control number in any correspondence.
Direct requests for additional information regarding the collection listed in this notice, including requests for copies of the proposed collection instrument and supporting documents to Hector Perez-Casillas, who may be reached at
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We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:
• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.
• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden of this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please note that comments submitted in response to this Notice are public record. Before including any detailed personal information, you should be aware that your comments as submitted, including your personal information, will be available for public review
Forms for this collection are completed by panel physicians for refugees, aliens seeking immigrant visas, and for some aliens seeking nonimmigrant visas to the United States. The collection records medical information necessary to determine whether refugees or visa applicants have medical conditions affecting the applicant's eligibility for a visa, or affecting the public health and requiring treatment.
A panel physician, contracted by the consular post in accordance with instructions issued by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), performs the medical examination of the applicant and completes the forms. Panel physicians follow Forms DS-3025, DS-3026, and DS-3030. Upon completing the applicant's medical examination, the examining panel physician submits a report to the consular officer on Form DS-2054.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice.
The FAA announces its determination that the noise exposure maps submitted by the Port Authority of New York and New Jersey for Teterboro Airport are in compliance with applicable requirements.
The effective date of the FAA's determination on the noise exposure maps is June 15, 2017.
Eastern Region Airports Division (AEA-600), Andrew Brooks, Environmental Program Manager, Federal Aviation Administration, AEA-600, 1 Aviation Plaza, Jamaica, New York 11434, Telephone: (718) 553-3330.
This notice announces that the FAA finds that the noise exposure maps submitted for Teterboro Airport under the provisions of 49 U.S.C. 47501 et. seq (Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act) and 14 CFR part 150 are in compliance with applicable requirements of 14 CFR part 150, effective January 13, 2004.
Under 49 U.S.C. Section 47503 of the Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act (hereinafter referred to as “the Act”), an airport operator may submit to the FAA noise exposure maps which meet applicable regulations and which depict non-compatible land uses as of the date of submission of such maps, a description of projected aircraft operations during a forecast period that is at least five (5) years in the future, and the ways in which such operations will affect such maps. The Act requires such maps to be developed in consultation with interested and affected parties in the local community, government agencies, and persons using the airport. An airport operator who has submitted noise exposure maps that are found by the FAA to be in compliance with the requirements of 14 CFR part 150, promulgated pursuant to the Act, may submit a noise compatibility program for FAA approval which sets forth the measures the operator has taken or proposes to take to reduce existing non-compatible uses and prevent the introduction of additional non-compatible uses.
The FAA has completed its review of the noise exposure maps and accompanying documentation submitted by the Port Authority of New York and New Jersey. The documentation that constitutes the “Noise Exposure Maps” (NEM) as defined in Section 150.7 includes a 2016 Base Year NEM, Figure 5-1, and a 2021 Future Year NEM, Figure 5-2, located in Chapter 5 of the NEM Report. The figures contained within Chapter 5 are scaled to fit within the report context; however, the official, to scale, 2016 Base Year NEM and 2021 Future Year NEM are identified as Figures 5-8 and 5-9 and are both located in an attachment to the official NEM Report submittal.
The Noise Exposure Maps contain current and forecast information including the depiction of the airport and its boundaries, the runway configurations, land uses such as single family residential; multi-family residential; mobile home; transient lodging (hotel, motel, etc.); school, university, or daycare; place of worship; recreational, open space, and cemetary; commercial use; manufacturing and production; public use; and vacant or unidentified, and those areas within the Day Night Average Sound Level (DNL) 65, 70 and 75 noise contours. Estimates for the area within these contours for the 2016 Base Year and 2021 Future Year are shown in Table 5-4 of Chapter 5 of the NEM Report. Estimates of the residential population within the 2016 Base Year and 2021 Future Year noise contours are also shown in Table 5-2 of Chapter 5 of the NEM Report. Figure 2-5 in Chapter 2 displays the location of noise monitoring sites. Flight tracks are found in Figures 4-6 and 4-7 of Chapter 4 and detailed in Appedix D. The type and frequency of aircraft operations (including nighttime) are found in Appendix D.1, Tables 7 and 8.
As discussed in Chapter 6 of the NEM Report, the Port Authority of New York and New Jersey provided the general public the opportunity to review and comment on the NEMs. This public comment period opened on September 15, 2016 and closed on October 17, 2016. A public workshop for the Draft NEMs was held on September 22, 2016. All comments received during the public comment period and throughout the development of the NEMs, as well as responses to these comments, are contained in Appendix H of the NEM Report.
Following the closure of the public review period, final review of the Noise Exposure Maps showed that 21 parcels were identified with the incorrect land use in the Draft Noise Exposure Maps distributed to the public. These parcels have been correctly identified on the
The FAA has determined that these noise exposure maps and accompanying documentation are in compliance with applicable requirements. This determination is effective on June 15, 2017.
FAA's determination on an airport operator's noise exposure maps is limited to a finding that the maps were developed in accordance with the procedures contained in Appendix A of 14 CFR part 150. Such determination does not constitute approval of the applicant's data, information or plans, or a commitment to approve a noise compatibility program or to fund the implementation of that program. If questions arise concerning the precise relationship of specific properties to noise exposure contours depicted on a noise exposure map submitted under Section 47503 of the Act, it should be noted that the FAA is not involved in any way in determining the relative locations of specific properties with regard to the depicted noise contours, or in interpreting the noise exposure maps to resolve questions concerning, for example, which properties should be covered by the provisions of Section 47506 of the Act. These functions are inseparable from the ultimate land use control and planning responsibilities of local government. These local responsibilities are not changed in any way under Part 150 or through FAA's review of noise exposure maps. Therefore, the responsibility for the detailed overlaying of noise exposure contours onto the map depicting properties on the surface rests exclusively with the airport operator that submitted those maps, or with those public agencies and planning authorities with which consultation is required under Section 47503 of the Act. The FAA has relied on the certification by the airport operator, under Section 150.21, that the statutorily required consultation has been accomplished.
Copies of the full noise exposure map documentation and of the FAA's evaluation of the maps are available for examination at the following locations:
Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.
Notice.
The Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is publishing the name of one individual that has been placed on OFAC's Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons (SDN) List whose property and interests in property is blocked pursuant to an executive order issued on September 23, 2001, titled “Blocking Property and Prohibiting Transactions With Persons Who Commit, Threaten To Commit, or Support Terrorism.”
OFAC's action described in this notice was effective on June 16, 2017.
Associate Director for Global Targeting, tel.: 202/622-2420, Assistant Director for Sanctions Compliance & Evaluation, tel.: 202/622-2490, Assistant Director for Licensing, tel.: 202/622-2480, Office of Foreign Assets Control, or Chief Counsel (Foreign Assets Control), tel.: 202/622-2410, Office of the General Counsel, Department of the Treasury (not toll free numbers).
The SDN List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available from OFAC's Web site (
On June 16, 2017, OFAC blocked the property and interests in property of the following one individual pursuant to E.O. 13224 of September 23, 2001, “Blocking Property and Prohibiting Transactions With Persons Who Commit, Threaten To Commit, or Support Terrorism” (E.O. 13224):
Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before August 21, 2017.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor at (202) 461-5870.
Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, VBA invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of VBA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of VBA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
By direction of the Secretary.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |