Page Range | 36991-37169 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
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82 FR 37094 - Sunshine Act Notice | |
82 FR 37048 - Cast Iron Soil Pipe Fittings From the People's Republic of China: Initiation of Countervailing Duty Investigation | |
82 FR 37053 - Cast Iron Soil Pipe Fittings From the People's Republic of China: Initiation of Less-Than-Fair Value Investigation | |
82 FR 37156 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
82 FR 37118 - Fire Brigades Standard; Extension of the Office of Management and Budget's Approval of Information Collection (Paperwork) Requirements | |
82 FR 37120 - Material Hoists, Personnel Hoists, and Elevators Standard; Extension of the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Approval of Information Collection (Paperwork) Requirements | |
82 FR 37107 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Extension, Without Change, of a Currently Approved Collection: Application for Replacement/Initial Nonimmigrant Arrival-Departure Document | |
82 FR 37117 - Ionizing Radiation Standard; Extension of the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Approval of Collections of Information (Paperwork) | |
82 FR 37165 - Members of Senior Executive Service Performance Review Boards | |
82 FR 37161 - Petition for Exemption; Summary of Petition Received; Republic Airline Inc. | |
82 FR 37160 - Petition for Exemption; Summary of Petition Received; Southwest Airlines Company | |
82 FR 37097 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
82 FR 36991 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Integrating Electronic Monitoring Into the North Pacific Observer Program | |
82 FR 37040 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 37159 - Nebraska, Kansas & Colorado Railway, L.L.C.-Discontinuance of Service Exemption-in Franklin, Harlan, Furnas and Red Willow Counties, Neb., and Decatur, Rawlins and Cheyenne Counties, Kan. | |
82 FR 37113 - Leia A. Frickey, M.D.; Decision and Order | |
82 FR 37114 - Importer of Controlled Substances Application: Almac Clinical Services Incorp (ACSI) | |
82 FR 37113 - Importer of Controlled Substances Registration | |
82 FR 37132 - Information Collection: Voluntary Reporting of Performance Indicators | |
82 FR 37122 - Information Collection: Enforcement Discretion for Operating Reactors and Gaseous Diffusion Plants | |
82 FR 37115 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Consent Decree Under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act | |
82 FR 37104 - Public Workshop on Marine Technology and Standards | |
82 FR 37095 - Cross-Media Electronic Reporting: Authorized Program Revision Approval, State of Illinois | |
82 FR 37115 - Information Collection Activities, Comment Request | |
82 FR 37058 - Seamless Refined Copper Pipe and Tube From the People's Republic of China: Preliminary Results and Partial Rescission of the Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2015-2016 | |
82 FR 37052 - Polyester Staple Fiber From the Republic of Korea: Rescission of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2016-2017 | |
82 FR 37048 - Fine Denier Polyester Staple Fiber From the People's Republic of China and India: Postponement of Preliminary Determinations in the Countervailing Duty Investigations | |
82 FR 37103 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection: Public Comment Request Information Collection Request Title: Office of Patient Advocacy/Be The Match® Patient Services Survey, OMB No. 0906-0004, Revision | |
82 FR 37167 - Agency Information Collection Activity: Living Will and Durable Power of Attorney for Health Care | |
82 FR 37168 - Agency Information Collection Activity: Accelerated Payment Verification of Completion | |
82 FR 37168 - Agency Information Collection Activity: Statement of Dependency of Parent(s) | |
82 FR 37169 - Agency Information Collection Activity: Longitudinal Investigation of Gender, Health and Trauma (LIGHT) Survey | |
82 FR 37167 - Agency Information Collection Activity Under OMB Review: Operation Enduring Freedom/Operation Iraqi Freedom Seriously Injured/Ill Service Member Veteran Worksheet | |
82 FR 37089 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Consolidated Annual Report (CAR) for the Carl D. Perkins Career and Technical Education Act of 2006 | |
82 FR 37112 - Steel Nails From the United Arab Emirates; Scheduling of an Expedited Five-Year Review | |
82 FR 37042 - Notice of Availability of Treatment Evaluation Document for Aircraft Treatments for Certain Hitchhiking Pests | |
82 FR 37043 - Notice of Availability of an Evaluation of the Classical Swine Fever Status of Mexico | |
82 FR 37041 - Concurrence With OIE Risk Designations for Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy | |
82 FR 37045 - Availability of an Environmental Assessment for Field Testing of a Bursal Disease-Marek's Disease Vaccine, Serotype 3, Live Marek's Disease Vector | |
82 FR 37133 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
82 FR 37097 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 37159 - Notice of Determinations; Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “Golden Kingdoms: Luxury and Legacy in the Ancient Americas” Exhibition | |
82 FR 37031 - Energy Conservation Program: Test Procedures for General Service Fluorescent Lamps, General Service Incandescent Lamps, Incandescent Reflector Lamps | |
82 FR 37060 - Listing Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Notice of 12-Month Finding on a Petition To List the Pacific Bluefin Tuna as Threatened or Endangered Under the Endangered Species Act | |
82 FR 37046 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Georgia Advisory Committee | |
82 FR 37096 - Notice to All Interested Parties of the Termination of the Receivership of 10515-Premier Bank, Denver, Colorado | |
82 FR 37095 - Opening of First Priority Filing Window for Eligible Full Power and Class A Television Stations | |
82 FR 37027 - Establishment of Policies and Service Rules for the Broadcasting-Satellite Service at the 17.3-17.8 GHz and the 24.75-25.25 GHz Frequency Bands for Feeder Links to the Broadcasting-Satellite Service and for Satellite Services Operating Bi-Directionally | |
82 FR 37133 - Product Change-Priority Mail Negotiated Service Agreement | |
82 FR 37133 - Product Change-Priority Mail and First-Class Package Service Negotiated Service Agreement | |
82 FR 37105 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Report of Diversion | |
82 FR 37089 - Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records | |
82 FR 37040 - Notice of Intent To Grant Exclusive License | |
82 FR 36991 - Cranberries Grown in the States of Massachusetts, Rhode Island, Connecticut, New Jersey, Wisconsin, Michigan, Minnesota, Oregon, Washington, and Long Island in the State of New York; Order Amending Marketing Order 929 | |
82 FR 37046 - Notice of Request for Extension of a Currently Approved Information Collection | |
82 FR 37047 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 37158 - Data Collection Available for Public Comments | |
82 FR 37163 - Request for Approval of a New Information Collection | |
82 FR 37162 - Agency Request for Approval of a New Information Collection: Recruitment and Debriefing of Human Subjects for a Study on Commercial Vehicle Crash Avoidance Systems (CAS) | |
82 FR 37100 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; Cosmetic Labeling Regulations | |
82 FR 37101 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; Exceptions or Alternatives to Labeling Requirements for Products Held by the Strategic National Stockpile | |
82 FR 37098 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; Providing Waiver-Related Materials in Accordance With the Guidance for Industry on Providing Post-Market Periodic Safety Reports in the International Conference on Harmonisation E2C(R2) Format | |
82 FR 37161 - Seventeenth Tactical Operations Committee Meeting | |
82 FR 37010 - Special Local Regulation for Marine Events; Back River, Hampton, VA | |
82 FR 37011 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Mill River, New Haven, CT | |
82 FR 37111 - Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Review Committee; Postponement of Meeting | |
82 FR 37160 - Notice: Extension | |
82 FR 37041 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 37158 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Designation of a Longer Period for Commission Action on Proposed Rule Change in Connection With the Proposed Merger of Its Wholly Owned Subsidiary NYSE Arca Equities, Inc. With and Into the Exchange | |
82 FR 37138 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ PHLX LLC; Order Granting Approval of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment Nos. 1 and 2, To Permit the Listing and Trading of P.M.-Settled NASDAQ-100 Index® Options on a Pilot Basis | |
82 FR 37144 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BOX Options Exchange LLC; Order Approving a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment Nos. 1 and 2, To Adopt Rules for an Open-Outcry Trading Floor | |
82 FR 37154 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Bats EDGA Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change Related to Fees for Use on Bats EDGA Exchange, Inc. | |
82 FR 37136 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change to Fees for Use of Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc. and Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc.'s Equity Options Platform | |
82 FR 37135 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Bats BZX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change Related to Fees for Use on Bats BZX Exchange, Inc. and Bats BZX Exchange, Inc.'s Equity Options Platform | |
82 FR 37156 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Bats BYX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change Related to Fees for Use on Bats BYX Exchange, Inc. | |
82 FR 37086 - Defense Science Board; Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting | |
82 FR 37082 - Arms Sales Notification | |
82 FR 37141 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; National Securities Clearing Corporation; Notice of Filing of Advance Notice To Expand the Application of the Family-Issued Securities Charge | |
82 FR 37159 - Notice of Determinations; Culturally Significant Object Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “Artist's Choice: David Hammons” Exhibition | |
82 FR 37122 - Federal Register Meeting Notice; Quarterly Public Meeting | |
82 FR 37087 - 36(b)(1) Arms Sales Notification | |
82 FR 37106 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Non-Disaster (ND) Grants System | |
82 FR 37110 - Notice of Inventory Completion: U.S. Department of the Interior, Bureau of Indian Affairs, Washington, DC; and University of Nevada, Reno, Anthropology Research Museum, Reno, NV | |
82 FR 37111 - Notice of Inventory Completion: University of Pennsylvania Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology, Philadelphia, PA | |
82 FR 37108 - Notice of Inventory Completion: U.S. Department of Defense, Army Corps of Engineers, Nashville District, Nashville, TN | |
82 FR 37109 - Notice of Inventory Completion: Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation, Division of Archaeology, Nashville, TN | |
82 FR 37084 - 36(b)(1) Arms Sales Notification | |
82 FR 37047 - Notice of Petitions by Firms for Determination of Eligibility To Apply for Trade Adjustment Assistance | |
82 FR 37096 - Notice to All Interested Parties of the Termination of the Receivership of 10415-Premier Community Bank of the Emerald Coast Crestview, Florida | |
82 FR 37096 - Notice Of Termination; 10411 SunFirst Bank, St. George, Utah | |
82 FR 37015 - Air Plan Approval; Mississippi: Prevention of Significant Deterioration Updates | |
82 FR 37037 - Air Plan Approval; Mississippi: Prevention of Significant Deterioration Updates | |
82 FR 37025 - Air Plan Approvals, Idaho: Logan Utah/Idaho PM2.5 | |
82 FR 37080 - Arms Sales Notification | |
82 FR 37036 - Periodic Reporting | |
82 FR 37094 - Proposed Agency Information Collection Extension, With Changes | |
82 FR 37004 - Procedures for Disclosure or Production of Information Under the Freedom of Information Act | |
82 FR 37020 - Approval and Promulgation of State Implementation Plans; Nevada; Regional Haze Progress Report | |
82 FR 37012 - Air Plan Approval; Kentucky; Infrastructure Requirements for the 2012 PM2.5 | |
82 FR 37013 - Air Plan Approval; Connecticut; Infrastructure Requirement for the 2010 Sulfur Dioxide National Ambient Air Quality Standard | |
82 FR 37038 - Evaluation of Safety Sensitive Personnel for Moderate-to-Severe Obstructive Sleep Apnea | |
82 FR 37121 - Proposed Extension of the Approval of Information Collection Requirements | |
82 FR 37123 - Applications and Amendments to Facility Operating Licenses and Combined Licenses Involving Proposed No Significant Hazards Considerations and Containing Sensitive Unclassified Non-Safeguards Information and Safeguards Information and Order Imposing Procedures for Access to Sensitive Unclassified Non-Safeguards Information and Safeguards Information |
Agricultural Marketing Service
Agricultural Research Service
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
Rural Business-Cooperative Service
Economic Development Administration
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy Office
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Children and Families Administration
Food and Drug Administration
Health Resources and Services Administration
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
National Park Service
Drug Enforcement Administration
Labor Statistics Bureau
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Workers Compensation Programs Office
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Federal Railroad Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Notification of disposition.
Notice is hereby given that a referendum to amend Marketing Order and Agreement No. 929 (order), which regulates the handling of cranberries grown in the states of Massachusetts, Rhode Island, Connecticut, New Jersey, Wisconsin, Michigan, Minnesota, Oregon, Washington, and Long Island in the State of New York, did not meet the minimum voting requirements for approval. The Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended, hereinafter referred to as the “Act” requires, in part, that a proposed amendment to the cranberries order must be approved by two-thirds of producers voting, or by those voting in the referendum representing at least two-thirds of the volume of cranberries, as well as by processors who have frozen or canned more than 50 percent of the volume of cranberries within the production area. Processors representing only 18 percent of the volume of cranberries within the production area voted in the referendum. Because a minimum of 50 percent of the volume of cranberries processed within the production area is required in order to pass, the referendum did not pass and the proposed amendment will not be implemented. The amendment, which was proposed by the Cranberry Marketing Committee (Committee), would have authorized the Committee to receive and expend voluntary contributions from domestic sources.
This action is effective August 8, 2017.
Geronimo Quinones, Marketing Specialist, or Julie Santoboni, Rulemaking Branch Chief, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Stop 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Telephone: (202) 720-2491, Fax: (202) 720-8938, or Email:
Small businesses may request information on complying with this regulation by contacting Richard Lower, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Telephone: (202) 720-2491, Fax: (202) 720-8938, or Email:
Marketing Order and Agreement No. 929 (order) regulates the handling of cranberries grown in the states of Massachusetts, Rhode Island, Connecticut, New Jersey, Wisconsin, Michigan, Minnesota, Oregon, Washington, and Long Island in the State of New York. The order is effective under the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended (7 U.S.C. 601-674), hereinafter referred to as the “Act”. Section 608c(17) of the Act and the applicable rules of practice and procedure (7 CFR part 900) authorize the use of informal rulemaking to amend the order.
A proposed rule and referendum order was issued on December 14, 2016, and published in the
After tabulation of the ballots, the amendment was approved by 89 percent of the number of producers voting and by 96 percent of the volume voted in the referendum, which exceeds the required two-thirds approval of the producers voting in the referendum or two-thirds of the volume represented in the referendum. Of the processors voting, 89 percent voted in favor of the proposed amendment. However, those processors only represented 18 percent of the total 2015-16 processed production volume. Because a minimum of 50 percent of the total volume of cranberries processed must be represented by the processors voting to approve an amendment, the referendum did not pass. Consequently, the proposed amendment will not be implemented.
7 U.S.C. 601-674.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Final rule.
NMFS hereby issues regulations to implement Amendment 114 to the Fishery Management Plan for
Effective September 7, 2017.
Electronic copies of Amendments 114/104 and the Environmental Assessment/Regulatory Impact Review prepared for this action (collectively the “Analysis”) may be obtained from
Written comments regarding the burden-hour estimates or other aspects of the collection-of-information requirements contained in this rule may be submitted by mail to NMFS Alaska Region, P.O. Box 21668, Juneau, AK 99802-1668, Attn: Ellen Sebastian, Records Officer; in person at NMFS Alaska Region, 709 West 9th Street, Room 420A, Juneau, AK; by email to
Gretchen Harrington or Jennifer Watson, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fisheries in the exclusive economic zone under the FMPs. The North Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) prepared the FMPs under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, 16 U.S.C. 1801
Management of the Pacific halibut fisheries in and off Alaska is governed by an international agreement, the Convention Between the United States of America and Canada for the Preservation of the Halibut Fishery of the Northern Pacific Ocean and Bering Sea (Convention), which was signed in Ottawa, Canada, on March 2, 1953, and was amended by the Protocol Amending the Convention, signed in Washington, DC, on March 29, 1979. The Convention is implemented in the United States by the Northern Pacific Halibut Act of 1982.
This final rule implements Amendments 114/104 to the FMPs. The Council submitted Amendments 114/104 for review by the Secretary of Commerce, and NMFS published the Notice of Availability of these amendments in the
NMFS published the proposed rule to implement Amendments 114/104 on March 23, 2017 (82 FR 14853), with comments invited through May 22, 2017. The proposed rule and Amendments 114/104 to the FMPs amend the Council's fisheries research plan prepared under the authority of section 313 of the Magnuson-Stevens Act. The Secretary implemented the fisheries research plan through the North Pacific Observer Program. Its purpose is to collect data necessary for the conservation, management, and scientific understanding of the groundfish and halibut fisheries off Alaska. Magnuson-Stevens Act section 313 requires NMFS to provide a 60-day public comment period on the proposed rule and conduct a public hearing in each state represented on the Council for the purpose of receiving public comment on the proposed regulations. The states represented on the Council are Alaska, Oregon, and Washington.
Per section 313 of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, NMFS conducted public hearings to accept oral and written comments on the proposed rule in Oregon, Washington, and Alaska during the public comment period. The first public hearing was held in conjunction with the April meeting of the Council on April 6, 2017, in Anchorage, AK. The second public hearing was on April 18, 2017, in Seattle, WA. The third public hearing was held on April 19, 2017, in Newport, OR.
NMFS received seven unique relevant comment letters. NMFS received one comment that was outside the scope of this action. NMFS considered 18 unique relevant written and oral comments received by the end of the applicable comment period or at a public hearing, whether specifically directed to the FMP amendments, this proposed rule, or both, in the approval decision for Amendments 114/104 and in this final rule. NMFS summarizes and responds to each comment under the heading Response to Comments below.
A detailed review of the provisions of Amendments 114/104, the proposed regulations to implement Amendments 114/104, and the rationale for these regulations is provided in the preamble to the proposed rule (82 FR 14853, March 23, 2017) and are briefly summarized in this final rule.
The Observer Program is an integral component in the management of North Pacific fisheries. In 2013, the Council and NMFS restructured the Observer Program to address longstanding concerns about statistical bias of observer-collected data and cost inequality among fishery participants with the funding and deployment structure under the previous Observer Program (77 FR 70062, November 21, 2012). The restructured Observer Program established two observer coverage categories: Partial and full. This final rule applies to the partial coverage category and will not change the full coverage category.
The partial coverage category includes fishing sectors (vessels and processors) that are not required to have an observer at all times. The partial coverage category includes catcher vessels, shoreside processors, and stationary floating processors when they are not participating in a catch share program with a transferrable bycatch limit, referred to in regulations as a prohibited species catch limit. Small catcher/processors that meet certain criteria may also be assigned to the partial coverage category.
The restructured Observer Program expanded the vessels subject to observer coverage to include groundfish vessels less than 60 ft in length overall (LOA) and halibut vessels that had not been previously required to carry an observer. Expanding observer coverage to the approximately 950 previously unobserved vessels improved NMFS' ability to estimate total catch in all Federal fisheries in the North Pacific.
The restructured Observer Program created a new system of fees to pay for the cost of implementing observer coverage in the partial coverage category. Vessels and processors included in the partial coverage category pay a fee of 1.25 percent of the ex-vessel value of fishery landings to NMFS to fund the deployment of observers in the partial coverage category. Under section 313 of the
Even before implementing the restructured Observer Program, many vessel owners and operators new to the Observer Program were opposed to carrying an observer (77 FR 70062, November 21, 2012). Vessel owners and operators explained that there is limited space on board for an additional person or limited space in the vessel's life raft. Some vessel owners, operators, and industry representatives, particularly those active in nontrawl fisheries (
To address their concerns, the Council and NMFS have been actively engaged in developing EM as a tool to collect fishery data in the nontrawl fisheries. Over the past several years, NMFS and industry participants have undertaken cooperative research to test the applicability and reliability of EM systems. An EM system uses cameras, video storage devices, and associated sensors to record and monitor fishing activities.
This final rule establishes the process and structure for owners and operators of vessels using nontrawl gear in the partial coverage category of the Observer Program to choose to be in the EM selection pool and to use an EM system to monitor catch and bycatch. EM data will supplement observer data from other nontrawl gear vessels. Some data necessary for catch estimation, fishery management, and stock assessment that observers collect cannot be collected from EM systems. NMFS will obtain this data from observers on board other nontrawl gear vessels that are fishing in similar areas and at similar time periods.
To implement EM, NMFS will contract with one or multiple EM service providers to install and service EM equipment, and to collect and review EM data. The contract will specify hardware and field service specifications, EM data review requirements, and data and archiving requirements. “EM service provider” means any person, including their employees or agents, that NMFS contracts with to provide EM services, or to review, interpret, or analyze EM data.
Each year, NMFS develops an annual deployment plan (ADP) that describes how NMFS plans to deploy observers to vessels and processors in the partial coverage category in the upcoming year. The ADP describes the scientific sampling design NMFS uses to randomly deploy observers to generate unbiased estimates of total and retained catch, and catch composition in the groundfish and halibut fisheries. The ADP provides flexibility to improve deployment to meet scientifically based estimation needs while accommodating the realities of a dynamic fiscal environment. Each year, NMFS conducts a scientific evaluation of observer data collected to understand the impact of changes in observer deployment and to identify areas where improvements are needed to collect the data necessary to conserve and manage the groundfish and halibut fisheries. NMFS adjusts the ADP in response to this evaluation.
After consultation with the Council, NMFS will make EM system and observer deployment decisions following the sampling design in the ADP. Through this scientific process for EM system deployment, NMFS will gather reliable data necessary for the conservation, management, and scientific understanding of the fisheries covered by the fisheries research plan.
In the ADP, NMFS and the Council will define the criteria for vessels to be eligible to participate in EM. The criteria for placement in the EM selection pool may include, but are not limited to, gear type, vessel length, area fished, number of fishing trips or total catch, sector, target fishery, home or landing port, and availability of EM systems. The ADP will specify the EM selection rate—the portion of trips that are sampled—for each calendar year. NMFS and the Council may change the EM selection rate from one calendar year to the next to achieve efficiency, cost savings, and data collection goals. NMFS may adjust the EM selection rate set in the ADP to respond to new information inseason. NMFS posts the ADP on the NMFS Alaska Region Web site (
NMFS will use the fees collected under section 313 of the Magnuson-Stevens Act to deploy EM systems. The amount of fee revenues NMFS collects will determine the level of costs that NMFS could incur to deploy EM systems and to deploy observers. In consultation with the Council, NMFS will allocate funds between EM and observers to achieve the most precision for the least cost. Since the fee is based on the ex-vessel value of harvested fish, which fluctuates annually, the amount of funding available for deploying observers and EM systems will also fluctuate. NMFS will need to adjust observer coverage and EM coverage levels to align anticipated annual costs with available fee revenues.
The Analysis provides a detailed discussion of the potential costs of EM system deployment (see
An important part of the ADP analysis will be identifying and understanding gaps in observer data when a portion of the partial coverage vessels participates in the EM selection pool. Appendix 1 of the Analysis (see
Each year, NMFS also develops an annual report that evaluates how well various aspects of the program are achieving program goals, identifies areas where improvements are needed, and includes preliminary recommendations regarding the upcoming ADP. The Council and its Scientific and Statistical Committee review the annual report in June. This timing allows NMFS and the Council to consider the results of past performance in developing the ADP for the following year. NMFS posts the annual report on the NMFS Alaska Region Web site (
This final rule implements the requirements to allow an owner or operator of a vessel using nontrawl gear to choose to use an EM system in place of an observer.
Participation in the EM program and entry into the EM selection pool will be voluntary. Any owner or operator of a vessel that meets the EM selection pool criteria could annually request to be in the EM selection pool using the process established in this rule if they are willing to comply with the provisions established under this rule. While there are additional responsibilities for the owner or operator of a vessel in the EM selection pool to install and maintain the EM system, NMFS' intent is to allow the vessel to continue its normal fishing practice and allow the cameras to capture data observations that an EM
The vessel owner or operator will work with the EM service provider to develop a vessel monitoring plan (VMP). The VMP will describe how fishing operations on the vessel are conducted, including how gear is set, how catch is brought on board, and where catch is retained and discarded. The VMP will also describe how the EM system and associated equipment will be configured to meet the data collection objectives and purpose of the EM program, including camera locations to cover all fishing activities, any sensors to detect fishing activities, and any special catch handling requirements to ensure the data collection objectives can be met. The VMP will also include methods to troubleshoot the EM system and instructions for ensuring the EM system is functioning properly. These required components of the VMP will be detailed in the VMP template and in the contract between NMFS and the EM service provider. Once the VMP is complete and the vessel owner or operator agrees to comply with the components of the VMP, the vessel owner or operator must sign and submit the VMP to NMFS for approval.
NMFS will provide a VMP template for guidance to the EM service provider and the vessel owner or operator on the elements NMFS will require in the final approved VMP. NMFS will make this VMP template available on the NMFS Alaska Region Web site at
Once in the EM selection pool and after the vessel has an approved VMP, the vessel operator will register fishing trips in the Observer Declare and Deploy System (ODDS). ODDS will notify the vessel operator when the vessel is selected to use the EM system and guide the vessel operator to the requirements for using an EM system.
Vessel owners or operators will be required to maintain the EM system in working order, including ensuring the EM system is powered and functioning throughout the trip, keeping cameras clean and unobstructed, and ensuring the system is not tampered with. The vessel owner or operator will also need to ensure that power is maintained to the EM system at all times when the vessel is underway or the engine is operating. The vessel operator will also be required to conduct a system function test before each trip to ensure the EM system is working properly before departing.
At the end of the fishing trip selected for EM coverage, the vessel operator will close the trip in ODDS and submit the video data storage device to NMFS.
Previously, a vessel was prohibited from retaining halibut or sablefish in excess of the total amount of unharvested individual fishing quota (IFQ) or community development quota (CDQ) applicable to that vessel for the IFQ regulatory area in which the vessel was operating and that was currently held by all IFQ or CDQ permit holders aboard the vessel, unless that vessel had an observer aboard and maintained the applicable daily logbook. This final rule expands this exception to the prohibition to include when a vessel is in the EM selection pool and complies with the applicable requirements. This final rule provides that the owner or operator of a vessel in the EM selection pool, who complies with the regulations and maintains the applicable daily logbook, can retain halibut or sablefish in excess of the total amount of unharvested IFQ or CDQ applicable to that vessel for the IFQ regulatory area in which the vessel is operating and that is currently held by all IFQ or CDQ permit holders aboard the vessel. If a vessel is not part of the EM selection pool and is not selected for observer coverage for that fishing trip, the vessel owner or operator will continue to be prohibited from retaining halibut or sablefish in excess of the total amount of unharvested IFQ or CDQ applicable to that vessel for the IFQ regulatory area in which the vessel is operating.
If a vessel owner or operator in the EM selection pool intends to use this expanded exception to fish in multiple IFQ/CDQ areas, the vessel owner or operator will use ODDS to identify when he or she intends to fish in multiple areas and to commit to using a functioning EM system on the whole trip, even if the vessel was not selected for EM coverage. The vessel owner or operator will be required to meet all the same responsibilities as if the vessel's fishing trip had been selected for EM coverage in ODDS. These include having a copy of a valid NMFS-approved VMP on board before the vessel starts a fishing trip, maintaining the EM system in working order, and submitting the required information at the end of the trip. Because the EM system in this instance will be used as a compliance monitoring tool, some additional regulatory requirements will also apply to the vessel owner and operator (see § 679.51(f)(6)).
NMFS made the following changes to this final rule in response to comments received on the proposed rule. All of the specific regulation changes, and the reasons for making these changes, are explained under Response to Comments, below. NMFS revised:
• The definition of a fishing trip at § 679.2, paragraph (3)(iv), for a vessel in the EM selection pool of the partial coverage category to include delivery to a tender vessel;
• § 679.7(j)(2) and § 679.51(f)(5)(iii) to clarify that these paragraphs only apply to vessels when directed fishing in a fishery subject to EM coverage;
• § 679.7(j)(9) to clarify that it applies only to vessels when directed fishing in a fishery subject to EM coverage, and it applies unless the vessel operator is directed to make changes to the EM system by NMFS, the EM service provider, or as directed in the troubleshooting guide of the VMP;
• § 679.51(f)(2)(i) to remove the 72-hour requirement to register each fishing trip in ODDS;
• § 679.51(f)(3)(ii) to remove the requirement for fishing trips to be closed within 24 hours of the end of a trip and add the requirement that, at the end of a fishing trip selected for EM coverage, the vessel operator must use ODDS to close the fishing trip following the instructions in the VMP; and
• § 679.51(f)(5)(vii) to add that, if the fishing trip ends in a remote port with limited postal service or at a tender vessel, the vessel operator must ensure the video data storage device and associated documentation is postmarked as soon as possible but no later than two weeks after the end of the fishing trip.
NMFS received 18 unique substantive comments, which are summarized and responded to below. The commenters consisted of individuals, representatives of vessels using hook-and-line and pot gear, and the Council.
The Analysis identified a clear process for EM technology development, maturation, and vetting prior to being deployed in the operational EM program. This process is necessary to ensure that the EM hardware and software meet reliability standards, are compatible with normal operating procedures on board fishing vessels, and provide data of sufficient reliability, quality, and formats capable of meeting management needs.
From an industry perspective, it is critical that any EM system be thoroughly vetted prior to being installed on a vessel in the EM program. During pre-implementation, several volunteer vessels experienced costly damage to hydraulic systems, VHF radio interference, and significant delays due to EM systems under development. The proposed rule preamble indicates the EM service provider, not the vessel owner, determines which EM hardware to install on a vessel. However, the vessel operator bears the cost of malfunctioning EM systems because a malfunction may require trips to be delayed for up to 72 hours, a malfunction may cause damage to the vessel systems, or a vessel operator may be required to terminate a fishing trip if that vessel is fishing IFQ in multiple areas. This proposed EM service provider based approach is only workable if the EM systems have undergone a thorough vetting process.
Future EM development may be funded with NMFS funds or through grants, such as from the National Fish and Wildlife Foundation, similar to how the EM system development under pre-implementation has been funded since 2014.
NMFS, the Council, and the fishing industry spent four years on the careful implementation of EM, called “pre-implementation.” This work is discussed in detail in the Analysis, is reflected in this final rule, and will be reflected in the EM service provider contract and in the VMP prepared for each vessel.
In 2014, the Council appointed the EM Workgroup to develop an EM program to integrate into the Observer Program. The EM Workgroup provides a forum for stakeholders, including the commercial fishery participants, NMFS, Alaska Department of Fish and Game, and EM service providers to cooperatively and collaboratively design, test, and develop EM systems, and to identify key decision points related to operationalizing and integrating EM systems into the Observer Program in a strategic manner.
The EM Workgroup developed a cooperative research program to inform evaluation of multiple EM program design options and consider various EM integration approaches to achieve management needs. The cooperative research includes analytical and fieldwork components to address the following four elements: deployment of EM systems for operational testing, research and development of EM
An important part of pre-implementation was determining the types of compliance actions that can be detected by the EM system, including compliance with seabird avoidance regulations. Also during pre-implementation, NMFS worked with the Pacific States Marine Fisheries Commission on the video review and extracting the necessary data from the video. All the work done during pre-implementation and to integrate EM into the Observer Program protects the integrity of fishery data.
Additionally, the ADP analysis will identify and evaluate gaps in observer data when a portion of the partial coverage vessels participates in the EM selection pool. Appendix 1 of the Analysis (see
Change the definition of a “fishing trip” for vessels in the EM selection pool so that a fishing trip begins when the vessel leaves a port or tender vessel with an empty hold and ends when the vessel returns to a port or tender vessel and all fish are delivered. When the vessel is delivering to a tender, the vessel operator can provide the video storage device to crew on the tender that can then submit the storage device. This change would result in more timely submission of EM data. The safety concerns of transferring a person do not apply to video storage devices.
Vessels participating in the pre-implementation program that delivered to tender vessels were required to submit their video storage devices when they returned to a shore-based port. Most of these vessels fished for the duration of the season without returning to a shore-based port. The season was closed before these vessels submitted their video storage devices. This decreased the timeliness and value of the data collected for inseason management. Additionally, the EM video reviewers were challenged with long hours of review and were unable to provide vessels or the EM service providers with timely feedback to modify the EM system to improve data quality.
Changing the definition of a fishing trip to allow vessels in the EM selection pool to begin or end a trip at a tender vessel could increase the timeliness of data collection data for in-season management, provide the opportunity for timely feedback to vessels to reconfigure the EM system to improve data quality, and potentially decrease costs by reducing the length of the trip to be reviewed.
As the commenter states, there are no safety concerns with transferring a video storage device between a vessel and a tender vessel. There is the potential for a video storage device to be lost during a transfer, but transferring mail, groceries, and other goods to and from a tender is a common practice, and the potential to lose a video storage device is low.
Based on this comment, NMFS revised § 679.7(j)(9) to state that a vessel operator may not tamper with, bias, disconnect, damage, destroy, alter, or in any other way distort, render useless, inoperative, ineffective, or inaccurate any component of the EM system, associated equipment, or data recorded by the EM system when the vessel is directed fishing in a fishery subject to EM coverage, unless the vessel operator is directed to make changes to the EM system by NMFS, the EM service provider, or as directed in the troubleshooting guide of the VMP.
Based on this comment, NMFS revised § 679.7(j)(2) to prohibit vessels from fishing without an approved VMP when directed fishing in a fishery subject to EM coverage. NMFS also revised § 679.51(f)(5)(iii) to clarify that a VMP must be aboard while the vessel is directed fishing in a fishery subject to EM coverage.
NMFS did not identify a similar timeline for changes to the VMP template and catch handling procedures. In order for a vessel operator to make an informed decision about remaining in the EM pool, NMFS must make the major catch handling procedures for EM vessels public with sufficient time for vessel operators to evaluate them prior to the November 1 opt-out date. NMFS should not make major changes to the VMP template after November 1 because the vessel operator will no longer have the opportunity to evaluate them and opt-out if needed. It is NMFS' responsibility to finalize major provisions of the VMP template with sufficient advance notice for vessel operators to make an informed decision by the November 1 deadline.
NMFS agrees that it is important to allow vessel owners and EM service providers the opportunity to review the provisions required in the VMP for the upcoming year. As stated by the commenter, vessel owners may wish to review the requirements of the VMP template prior to determining if they will participate in the EM selection pool. EM service providers will want to review the requirements of the VMP template and the draft ADP to plan their equipment and installation services for the upcoming year.
The proposed 24-hour requirement would also create different standards for trip closure on EM vessels vs. observed vessels. If the need for timely trip closing in ODDS applies to both observed and EM vessels, NMFS should address the issue and find a solution for both observed vessels and EM vessels.
There is currently no requirement for an operator of a vessel carrying an observer to close the fishing trip in ODDS. However, there are inherent differences between the EM pool and the observer pool, and it is reasonable that there are regulatory requirements that are specific to each monitoring approach.
The requirement to close a trip in ODDS is unique to EM and provides the ability to instruct the vessel to send the video storage device after the trip to ensure the timeliness of EM data for inseason management. Also, requiring a vessel operator to close the trip will give NMFS a mechanism to avoid monitoring bias by allowing NMFS to require 100 percent recording of trips and use a post-trip selection process through ODDS to randomly select trips for video review. If NMFS, in consultation with the Council, modifies the timeframe for closing a trip when using an EM system, NMFS would make the change through the ADP process and in the annual VMP template.
The overall burden on a vessel operator to close a trip when using an EM system would be minimal. Section 5.5 of the Analysis describes the demographics of fixed-gear vessels and
A more streamlined approach would be to have the EM service provider submit to NMFS an electronic copy of all current VMPs by November 15 each year. NMFS could then review and approve them prior to the start of the season on January 1. The fisherman could then review and digitally sign an electronic copy when logging the first trip into ODDS to certify that he or she has read the VMP and it is consistent with the VMP carried on the vessel per the proposed rule at § 679.51(f)(5)(iii) and § 679.7(j)(2). This provision would apply only to renewing an existing VMP as a new vessel would go through the VMP process upon initial install.
Digital signatures are currently accepted by NMFS. NMFS currently does not have the ability to create digital signatures on its Web site. However, digital signatures created from an outside Web site or other program, like Adobe, can be accepted. NMFS envisions that the EM service provider could email the vessel owner or operator an electronic copy of the vessel's VMP that could be digitally signed. The vessel owner or operator could email this digitally signed VMP to NMFS for approval. Once NMFS approves the VMP, the approval will be sent via email to the vessel owner or operator. This will reduce the need for an EM service provider to physically visit each boat to provide copies of VMPs and obtain signatures.
NMFS agrees that the process should be streamlined in the future to increase efficiency and is actively pursuing electronic solutions to streamline the process that would meet the needs of the vessel operator and minimize the administrative burden for NMFS and the EM service provider, but these solutions may not be available in the first year of the program. Once these electronic solutions have been developed, changing the method for submitting a VMP would not require a regulatory change. NMFS would notify the public as part of the ADP process and provide updated instructions in the annual VMP template.
The video data storage device submission requirement is better addressed as a provision of the VMP rather than in regulation. The VMP can consider the specifics of a vessel's delivery pattern, local infrastructure, and the need for data timeliness to develop specific procedures for each vessel that meets management needs.
Moving this requirement to the VMP would not be appropriate because requiring a vessel owner or operator to record each location the vessel may deliver to during the year would be onerous. Also, tracking and verifying the location of delivery and whether the time frame for submission was appropriate for that location, would be a large administrative burden to NMFS.
Therefore, NMFS will continue to require submission of video storage devices no later than 2 business days after the end of a fishing trip, but will provide flexibility for circumstances outside the vessel owner's or operator's control that do not allow for postmarking the video storage devices within the time frame. NMFS revised § 679.51(f)(5)(vii) to add that, if the fishing trip ends in a remote port with limited postal service or at a tender vessel, the vessel operator must ensure the video data storage device and associated documentation is postmarked as soon as possible but no later than two weeks after the end of the fishing trip.
Clarify in the regulations or the VMP that (1) if the vessel operator is unable to contact OLE (for example, because they are not in range of communication), the vessel operator is not required to abandon gear before proceeding to a location from which they can contact OLE; and (2) vessel operators are prohibited from deploying any additional fishing gear until they contact OLE, but would be allowed to retrieve deployed gear before proceeding to a location from which
The VMP template will provide instructions about how and when to contact OLE as well as the procedures to follow if the vessel is unable to contact OLE if an EM system malfunction occurs that does not allow the recording of essential information about catch and fishing location. The VMP template will also provide guidance on what type of malfunctions will require the vessel operator to cease fishing and contact OLE. For example, failure of a camera that showed catch coming aboard will require a vessel operator to cease fishing and contact OLE. Conversely, failure of a camera that showed the streamer line being set will not require the vessel operator to cease fishing and contact OLE.
The VMP template will also include methods to troubleshoot the EM system while at sea that may repair the problem and allow the vessel to continue fishing without the need to contact OLE. If an EM system malfunction occurs that does not allow the recording of catch and fishing location information and the vessel operator has used the troubleshooting guide in the VMP but the problem persists, the vessel operator must cease fishing and contact OLE immediately.
There are several methods a vessel operator could use to contact OLE while at sea. The vessel operator could use a cell phone or satellite phone. The vessel operator could also contact the U.S. Coast Guard via VHF or single side band radio to request the Coast Guard to contact OLE. The vessel operator should make every effort available to contact OLE, but if the vessel operator is unable to reach OLE while at sea, NMFS will not require a vessel operator to abandon fishing gear to return to port to contact OLE. The vessel operator must not set additional gear once an EM system malfunction is detected and must return to port immediately if unable to contact OLE at sea.
The Administrator, Alaska Region, NMFS, has determined that Amendments 114/104 to the FMPs and this rule are necessary for the conservation and management of the groundfish fishery and that they are consistent with the Magnuson-Stevens Act and other applicable law.
This rule has been determined to be not significant for the purposes of Executive Order (E.O.) 12866.
Section 212 of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 states that, for each rule or group of related rules for which an agency is required to prepare a final regulatory flexibility analysis, the agency shall publish one or more guides to assist small entities in complying with the rule, and shall designate such publications as “small entity compliance guides.” The preambles to the proposed rule and this final rule serve as the small entity compliance guide. This action does not require any additional compliance from small entities that is not described in the preambles. Copies of the proposed rule and this final rule are available from the NMFS Web site at
This FRFA incorporates the initial regulatory flexibility analysis (IRFA), a summary of the significant issues raised by the public comments, NMFS' responses to those comments, and a summary of the analyses completed to support this action.
Section 604 of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) requires that, when an agency promulgates a final rule under section 553 of Title 5 of the U.S. Code, after being required by that section or any other law to publish a general notice of proposed rulemaking, the agency shall prepare a FRFA. Section 604 describes the required contents of a FRFA: (1) A statement of the need for, and objectives of, the rule; (2) a statement of the significant issues raised by the public comments in response to the initial regulatory flexibility analysis, a statement of the assessment of the agency of such issues, and a statement of any changes made in the proposed rule as a result of such comments; (3) the response of the agency to any comments filed by the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration (SBA) in response to the proposed rule, and a detailed statement of any change made to the proposed rule in the final rule as a result of the comments; (4) a description of and an estimate of the number of small entities to which the rule will apply or an explanation of why no such estimate is available; (5) a description of the projected reporting, recordkeeping and other compliance requirements of the rule, including an estimate of the classes of small entities which will be subject to the requirement and the type of professional skills necessary for preparation of the report or record; and (6) a description of the steps the agency has taken to minimize the significant economic impact on small entities consistent with the stated objectives of applicable statutes, including a statement of the factual, policy, and legal reasons for selecting the alternative adopted in the final rule and why each one of the other significant alternatives to the rule considered by the agency which affect the impact on small entities was rejected.
Descriptions of this action, its purpose, and the legal basis are contained in the preamble to the proposed rule (82 FR 14853, March 23, 2017) and are not repeated here.
NMFS published the proposed rule on March 23, 2017 (82 FR 14853). An IRFA was prepared and summarized in the “Classification” section of the preamble to the proposed rule. The comment period closed on May 22, 2017. NMFS received 7 letters of public comment on the proposed rule and Amendments 114/1104. The Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the SBA did not file any comments on the proposed rule.
NMFS received no comments on the IRFA.
This action directly regulates those entities that harvest groundfish and halibut using nontrawl gear and are subject to observer coverage in the partial coverage category of the Observer Program. These directly regulated entities include vessels that fish with nontrawl gear in State waters only if those vessels have a Federal Fisheries Permit (FFP), which makes them subject to Federal observer regulations. Since participation in the EM selection pool is voluntary, only those vessels that choose to participate in the EM selection pool will be directly regulated by this rule.
For RFA purposes only, NMFS has established a small business size standard for businesses, including their affiliates, whose primary industry is commercial fishing (see 50 CFR 200.2). A business primarily engaged in commercial fishing (NAICS code 11411) is classified as a small business if it is independently owned and operated, is not dominant in its field of operation (including its affiliates), and has combined annual receipts not in excess of $11 million for all its affiliated operations worldwide.
The estimated number of vessels that use nontrawl gear in the partial coverage category that are small entities might be overstated. Conversely, the number of non-small entities might be understated. The RFA requires a consideration of affiliations between entities for the purpose of assessing whether an entity is classified as small. The estimates below do not take into account all affiliations between entities. There is not a strict one-to-one correlation between vessels and entities; many persons and firms are known to have ownership interests in more than one vessel, and many of these vessels with different ownership are otherwise affiliated with each other. Vessels that have types of affiliation that are not tracked in available data (
In 2015, the most recent data available at the time of the analysis, 981 vessels (
Table 1 provides a count of small and non-small entities (
This final rule adds additional reporting, recordkeeping, and other compliance requirements for vessels that request to participate in the EM selection pool and vessels that use the exemption in § 679.7(f)(4) to harvest IFQ or CDQ halibut and sablefish. No small entity is subject to reporting requirements that are in addition to or different from the requirements that apply to all directly regulated entities.
No unique professional skills are needed for the vessel owners or operators to comply with the reporting and recordkeeping requirements associated with this final rule. Vessel owners or operators will request to be placed in the EM selection pool using ODDS, a tool already used by directly regulated small entities. If they choose to participate in the EM selection pool, vessel owners and operators will be required to assist with the installation of the EM system and conduct basic maintenance to ensure the EM equipment remains functional. Vessel operators would meet with the EM service provider to develop a VMP for their vessel, in which the operator's responsibilities will be clearly defined. These responsibilities can generally be fulfilled by a crewmember of the vessel who already is fulfilling similar functions during fishing activity. The vessel owner or operator will be required to submit the VMP to NMFS for approval.
Vessel owners or operators in the EM selection pool that choose to use the
No significant alternatives were identified that would accomplish the stated objectives, are consistent with applicable statutes, and that would minimize any significant economic impact of this rule on small entities.
This rule contains collection-of-information requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) and which have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under OMB control number 0648-0318 (North Pacific Observer Program).
The public reporting burden for these collection-of-information requirements includes the time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing the collection of information.
This rule will allow vessel owners or operators to use the existing ODDS to submit a request to be placed in the EM selection pool. In addition, this rule will allow vessel owners or operators in the EM selection pool to submit a request to be removed from the EM selection pool. Public reporting burden per response for these new options in ODDS is estimated to average 5 minutes. If NMFS denies a request to place a vessel in the EM selection pool, the vessel owner may submit an administrative appeal to NMFS. Public reporting burden per response for an administrative appeal is estimated to average 4 hours.
This rule will require all vessel owners or operators in the EM selection pool to register a fishing trip in ODDS. Public reporting burden per response to register a fishing trip in ODDS if a vessel is assigned to the EM selection pool is estimated to average 15 minutes.
This rule will require vessel owners or operators who request to be placed in the EM selection pool to submit a VMP to NMFS. Public reporting burden per response for the VMP is estimated to average 48 hours.
This rule will require a vessel operator in the EM selection pool to close the fishing trip in ODDS. Public reporting burden per response to close a fishing trip in ODDS is estimated to average 5 minutes.
This rule will require vessel owners or operators selected to carry EM to submit video data storage devices and associated documentation to the EM data reviewer within 2 business days of the end of the fishing trip. Public reporting burden per response is estimated to average 1 hour.
Vessel owners or operators wanting to use EM to fish under the exception in § 679.7(f)(4) will be required to notify NMFS through ODDS under § 679.51(f)(6). Public reporting burden per response to register a fishing trip in ODDS is estimated to average 15 minutes. The addition of the option to indicate that the vessel will use EM to fish under the exception in § 679.7(f)(4) during an upcoming fishing trip is not expected to increase the average response time to register a trip in ODDS.
Send comments on this data collection, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to NMFS Alaska Region (see
Notwithstanding any other provision of the law, no person is required to respond to, nor shall any person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information subject to the requirements of the PRA, unless that collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number. All currently approved NOAA collections of information may be viewed at
Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Alaska, Fisheries, Recordkeeping and reporting requirements.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, NMFS amends 15 CFR part 902 and 50 CFR part 679 as follows:
44 U.S.C. 3501
(b) * * *
16 U.S.C. 773
The additions and revsion read as follows:
(3)
(iv)
(f) * * *
(4) Except as provided in § 679.40(d), retain IFQ or CDQ halibut or IFQ or CDQ sablefish on a vessel in excess of the total amount of unharvested IFQ or CDQ, applicable to the vessel category and IFQ or CDQ regulatory area(s) in which the vessel is deploying fixed gear, and that is currently held by all IFQ or CDQ permit holders aboard the vessel, unless the vessel has an observer aboard under subpart E of this part or the vessel participates in the EM selection pool and complies with the requirements at § 679.51(f), and maintains the applicable daily fishing log prescribed in the annual management measures published in the
(g)
(j)
(2) Fish with an EM system without a copy of a valid NMFS-approved VMP on board when directed fishing in a fishery subject to EM coverage.
(3) Fail to comply with a NMFS-approved VMP.
(4) Fail to conduct a function test prior to departing port on a fishing trip as required at § 679.51(f)(5)(vi)(A).
(5) Depart on a fishing trip selected for EM coverage without a functional EM system, unless procedures at § 679.51(f)(5)(vi)(A)(
(6) Fail to follow procedures at § 679.51(f)(5)(vi)(B) prior to each set on a fishing trip selected for EM coverage.
(7) Fail to make the EM system, associated equipment, logbooks, and other records available for inspection upon request by NMFS, OLE, or other NMFS-authorized officer.
(8) Fail to submit a video data storage device as specified under § 679.51(f)(5)(vii).
(9) Tamper with, bias, disconnect, damage, destroy, alter, or in any other way distort, render useless, inoperative, ineffective, or inaccurate any component of the EM system, associated equipment, or data recorded by the EM system when the vessel is directed fishing in a fishery subject to EM coverage, unless the vessel operator is directed to make changes to the EM system by NMFS, the EM service provider, or as directed in the troubleshooting guide of the VMP.
(10) Assault, impede, intimidate, harass, sexually harass, bribe, or interfere with an EM service provider.
(11) Interfere or bias the sampling procedure employed in the EM selection pool, including either mechanically or manually sorting or discarding catch outside of the camera view or inconsistent with the NMFS-approved VMP.
(12) Fail to meet vessel owner and operator responsibilities specified at § 679.51(f)(5).
(a) * * *
(2) * * *
(ii) After allowing for sampling by an observer, if an observer is aboard, sort its catch immediately after retrieval of the gear and, except for salmon prohibited species catch in the BS pollock fisheries and GOA groundfish fisheries under paragraph (f) or (h) of this section, or any prohibited species catch as provided (in permits issued) under the PSD program at § 679.26, return all prohibited species, or parts thereof, to the sea immediately, with a minimum of injury, regardless of its condition.
(3)
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(a) * * *
(1)
(C) A catcher/processor placed in the partial coverage category under paragraph (a)(3) of this section; or
(ii)
(B)
(D)
(4) * * *
(iii)
(f)
(1)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(B) Once the vessel owner or operator receives notification of approval from NMFS, the vessel owner or operator must comply with the vessel owner or operator responsibilities in paragraphs (f)(4) and (5) of this section and all further instructions set forth by ODDS.
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(A) NMFS disapproves the VMP under paragraph (f)(4) of this section;
(B) The vessel owner or operator notifies NMFS that the vessel intends to leave the EM selection pool in the following fishing year under paragraph (f)(1)(ix) of this section; or
(C) The vessel no longer meets the EM selection pool criteria specified by NMFS.
(ix)
(x)
(2)
(ii) ODDS will notify the vessel operator whether the trip is selected for EM coverage and provide a receipt number corresponding to this notification. Trip registration is complete when the vessel operator receives the receipt number.
(iii) An operator may embark on a fishing trip registered with ODDS:
(A)
(B)
(3)
(i) A fishing trip selected for EM coverage may not begin until all previously harvested fish have been offloaded.
(ii) At the end of the fishing trip selected for EM coverage, the vessel operator must use ODDS to close the fishing trip following the instructions in the VMP and submit the video data storage devices and associated documentation as outlined in paragraph (f)(5)(vii) of this section.
(4)
(i) The vessel owner or operator must sign and submit the VMP to NMFS each calendar year.
(ii) NMFS will approve the VMP for the calendar year if it meets all the requirements specified in the VMP template available through the NMFS Alaska Region Web site
(iii) If the VMP does not meet all the requirements specified in the VMP template, NMFS will provide the vessel owner or operator the opportunity to submit a revised VMP that meets all the requirements specified in the VMP template.
(iv) If NMFS does not approve the revised VMP, NMFS will issue an IAD to the vessel owner or operator that will explain the basis for the disapproval. The vessel owner or operator may file
(v) If changes are required to the VMP to improve the data collection of the EM system or address fishing operation changes, the vessel owner or operator must work with NMFS and the EM service provider to alter the VMP. The vessel owner or operator must sign the updated VMP and submit these changes to the VMP to NMFS prior to departing on the next fishing trip selected for EM coverage.
(5)
(i) Make the vessel available for the installation of EM equipment by an EM service provider.
(ii) Provide access to the vessel's systems and reasonable assistance to the EM service provider.
(iii) Maintain a copy of a NMFS-approved VMP aboard the vessel at all times when the vessel is directed fishing in a fishery subject to EM coverage.
(iv) Comply with all elements of the VMP when selected for EM coverage in ODDS.
(v) Maintain the EM system, including the following:
(A) Ensure power is maintained to the EM system at all times when the vessel is underway.
(B) Ensure the system is functioning for the entire fishing trip, camera views are unobstructed and clear in quality, and catch and discards may be completely viewed, identified, and quantified.
(C) Ensure EM system components are not tampered with, disabled, destroyed, or operated or maintained improperly.
(vi) Complete pre-departure function test and daily verification of EM system.
(A) Prior to departing port, the vessel operator must conduct a system function test following the instructions from the EM service provider. The vessel operator must verify that the EM system has adequate memory to record the entire fishing trip.
(
(
(B) During a fishing trip selected for EM coverage, before each set is retrieved the vessel operator must verify all cameras are recording and all sensors and other required EM system components are functioning as instructed in the vessel's VMP.
(
(
(vii) At the end of a fishing trip selected for EM coverage, the vessel operator must submit the video data storage device and associated documentation identified in the vessel's VMP to NMFS using a method that requires a signature for delivery and provides a return receipt or delivery notification to the sender. The vessel operator must postmark the video data storage device and associated documentation no later than 2 business days after the end of the fishing trip. If the fishing trip ends in a remote port with limited postal service or at a tender vessel, the vessel operator must ensure the video data storage device and associated documentation is postmarked as soon as possible but no later than two weeks after the end of the fishing trip.
(viii) Make the EM system and associated equipment available for inspection upon request by OLE, a NMFS-authorized officer, or other NMFS-authorized personnel.
(6)
(i) Meet the requirements described in paragraph (f) of this section.
(ii) Register in ODDS that he or she intends to fish in multiple regulatory areas using the exception in § 679.7(f)(4).
(iii) Ensure the EM system is powered continuously during the fishing trip. If the EM system is powered down during periods of non-fishing, the VMP must describe alternate methods to ensure location information about the vessel is available for the entire fishing trip, as specified in the VMP template available through the NMFS Alaska Region Web site
(iv) If an EM system malfunction occurs during a fishing trip that does not allow the recording of retrieval location information and imagery of catch as described in the vessel's VMP, the vessel operator must cease fishing and contact OLE immediately.
Consumer Product Safety Commission.
Final rule.
The Consumer Product Safety Commission (Commission, CPSC, or we) is issuing a final rule to update its Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) rule. The final rule revises the rule to conform to the amendments of the FOIA Improvement Act of 2016 (the 2016 FOIA) to the FOIA. The final rule is also updated to reflect changes in Commission procedures; updates Commission contact information, including current methods of submitting requests for records to the Commission; revises employee titles; and makes various technical changes and corrections.
The rule is effective on September 7, 2017.
Renee McCune, Office of the General Counsel, Consumer Product Safety Commission, 4330 East West Highway, Bethesda, MD 20814, (301) 504-7673; or Todd A. Stevenson, Chief Freedom of Information Officer, Consumer Product Safety Commission, 4330 East West
The Commission amends the agency's procedures for disclosure or production of information under the Freedom of Information Act. 16 CFR part 1015.
On June 30, 2016, the President signed into law the 2016 FOIA, Public Law 114-185 (2016). The 2016 FOIA amends the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, requiring an agency to review its FOIA regulations and issue regulations on procedures for the disclosure of records under the new amendments. Specifically, the 2016 FOIA requires: Certain records be available for public inspection in an electronic format; agencies to make available for public inspection in an electronic format records that have been requested three or more times; that an agency not withhold information under FOIA unless the agency reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by a FOIA Exemption or disclosure is prohibited by law; extending the number of days for an administrative appeal of an adverse determination from 30 to 90 days; the assessment of fees be limited in certain circumstances; and requesters be notified of available dispute resolution services from the FOIA Public Liaison of the agency or the Office of Government Information Services.
The Commission amends its regulations to implement the 2016 FOIA, 16 CFR part 1015, by incorporating these new statutory requirements. The amendments revise the Commission's FOIA regulations to comply with the FOIA, as amended by the 2016 FOIA, and update Commission procedures, contact information, and methods of submitting requests for records to the Commission, in addition to other conforming and technical revisions. Updating Commission procedures and Commission contact information provides clarity for requesters seeking records from the Commission.
On January 3, 2017, the Commission published a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPR) in the
Based on informal input from the Office of Information Policy (“OIP”) within the U.S. Department of Justice, we clarified the Privacy Act discussion in § 1015.1(a) to reflect current practices and provided further guidance to first and third party requesters. With respect to an individual's request for records about himself or herself, we clarified that we would process such a request under the Privacy Act and then under the FOIA. Thus, if a request is denied under the Privacy Act, the records will be processed under the FOIA. This change is consistent with the FOIA and allows a requester access to the greatest number of records.
Additionally, with respect to a request by a third party for records under the Privacy Act, we removed the sentence on third party requests (not including a request on behalf of a first party for Privacy Act records) because such requests are only processed under the FOIA. Therefore the reference to third party requests being processed under the Privacy Act is not required.
One commenter asserted that the Commission's policy regarding requests for records in § 1015.1(b) should not characterize disclosure as a “rule” and withholding as an “exception.” The commenter stated that “disclosure” and “withholding” are “prescribed equally by rules” and suggested that the Commission's policy should indicate that the Commission will apply a presumption of disclosure when processing responsive records.
We believe that a presumption of disclosure is already reflected in the Commission's policy statement in § 1015.1(b), which states that the Commission's policy regarding requests for records is that disclosure is the rule and withholding is the exception. The Commission's policy is further clarified by the next two sentences in the rule, which incorporate a presumption of disclosure in explaining the limited circumstances under which records that are exempted from disclosure will not be made available. Accordingly, we decline to revise the sentence.
One commenter observed that the time limitations as written in §§ 1015.5(a) and 1015.7(b) of the NPR could result in unintended consequences. The commenter suggested that, under this formulation, a request or an appeal submitted at, for example, 7:59 a.m., would begin running the next work day, instead of one minute later, at 8 a.m. Additionally, the commenter noted that the phrase “to requests for records” should be added after the word “responses” at the end of the sentence and a comma should be added after the word “received.”
We agree with the commenter. If an electronic submission occurs during non-working hours, we intend for time limitations to begin to run when working hours resume. Accordingly, we have revised the sentence, which also takes into account the grammatical concerns the commenter raised. For example, if a request is submitted electronically at 7:59 a.m. EST on a working day, the time limitations will begin to run at 8 a.m. EST on that day when working hours resume. In response to the comment addressing § 1015.7(b) we made the same conforming changes to § 1015.7(b).
One commenter stated that, to be consistent with other provisions in the rule that expressly state whether time periods are measured in calendar days or working days, the Commission should clarify § 1015.5(g)(3) to reflect that the Secretariat or delegate of the Secretariat will determine whether to grant a request for expedited processing within 10
The rule does not indicate whether the 10 days are calendar days or working days. For clarity and consistency with other provisions in the rule that specify “calendar days” or “working days” we have amended the sentence to refer to “ten (10) calendar days.” This amendment is consistent with the Commission's current practice of treating the 10 day time period as calendar days. It is also consistent with the FOIA, which does not specify “working days.” 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(E)(ii)(I).
One commenter remarked that neither party may be able to definitively prove the date of receipt of the Commission's denial of a request for records under § 1015.6(b)(4) if the Commission sends the denial by regular mail. The rule
In response to the comment, we have revised §§ 1015.6(b)(4) and 1015.7(a) to state that an appeal must be made within 90 calendar days of the Commission's response. The Commission's practice is to send certified letters of denial, which allow the Commission to determine the date that the requester received the letter. This revision simplifies the process, eliminates any ambiguity, and allows the Commission flexibility to implement future changes electronically where feasible. This change also tracks the FOIA, which provides that, in the case of an adverse determination, there is a right to appeal “within a period determined by the head of the agency that is not less than 90 days after the date of such adverse determination.” 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(A)(i)(III)(aa). The revisions also revise §§ 1015.6(b), (b)(4), and 1015.7(a) to state that denials include partial denials, for consistency with the current language in § 1015.7(a), which refers to denials of requests for records “in whole or in part.” The Commission's practice is to include a date on denial letters, but we have amended § 1015.6(b) to explicitly require that a denial letter be dated.
As noted above, one commenter identified that proposed § 1015.7(b), which sets forth time limits for responding to appeals, would add an extra day for responding to an appeal received just before the start of a working day.
As stated in our above response, we agree that the sentence should be revised. Accordingly, for the same reasons we noted above, we have similarly revised the sentence, except that we refer to “appeals” instead of “requests” (an error in the NPR). For that same reason, we also revised the preceding sentence to correct “request” to state “appeal.” Finally, we updated a parenthetical citation at the end of § 1015.7.
One commenter asserted that the definition of a “representative of the news media” at § 1015.9(c)(8) should be amended because it is outdated and conflicts with the FOIA, as amended, and to conform to judicial authorities,
We agree with the commenter that the definition of “representative of the news media,” which is used to determine fee waivers in § 1015.9, is outdated and should be amended to track the definition in the FOIA at 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(A)(ii). Therefore, we have revised the first sentence of the definition to follow the FOIA definition. Additionally, to provide further clarification and guidance for this definition, we have incorporated some additional language from the FOIA definition and the template guidelines for agency FOIA regulations provided by the OIP.
This additional language encompasses the OIP guidance and addresses the commenter's suggestions. First, the additional language added to the definition of news media focuses on the nature of the requester as opposed to the content of the request. Second, the commenter's observation that a press release should meet the distinct work standard would be permissible under the revised definition as long as it meets the requirement that it is about current events or of current interest to the public. Finally, we explain that the revised definition uses examples of news media entities that are not all-inclusive.
One commenter suggested clarifying that the “10 additional days” in § 1015.9(f)(6)(i) are working days. We agree with the commenter and for clarity have amended § 1015.9(f)(6)(i) accordingly. This section is an exception to the requirement that the Commission waive certain fees if it fails to meet certain time limits. Although the “10 additional days” language we proposed in the NPR tracks the language used in the 2016 FOIA at 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(A)(viii)(ll), the 10 days are in addition to the 20
Additionally, on our own initiative, we made some clarifications and corrections to § 1015.9(f)(6). Specifically, we added or corrected citations to other sections in the rule and made other conforming changes to the 2016 FOIA. First, we added or corrected some references to sections in the rule that had previously been omitted or needed to be revised. Second, we revised the first sentence to remove “and notice” to track the language of the 2016 FOIA at 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(A)(viii), which only refers to “any time limits.” The notice portion is instead a requirement of the exceptions at § 1015.9(f)(6)(i) and (ii), as stated in the 2016 FOIA at 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(A)(viii)(ll)(aa) and (bb). Finally, we corrected two citation errors in § 1015.9(f)(6)(iii).
Based on informal OIP input on this section we removed § 1015.10 because it unnecessarily repeats the requirements stated in the FOIA at 5 U.S.C. 552(e)(1), and, at the same time, is incomplete and lacks various other requirements listed in the FOIA.
Also based on informal OIP input on this section, we removed § 1015.16 for similar reasons. Because the requirements are already specified in the FOIA at 5 U.S.C. 552(b), it is unnecessary to repeat them in the rule. Moreover, § 1015.16(c) is incomplete.
The Commission's regulations address whether the Commission is required to prepare an environmental assessment or an environmental impact statement. 16 CFR part 1021. These regulations provide a categorical exclusion for certain CPSC actions that normally have “little or no potential for affecting the human environment.” 16 CFR 1021.5(c)(1). This final rule falls within the categorical exclusion.
Under section 603 of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), when the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) or another law requires an agency to publish a general notice of proposed rulemaking, the agency must prepare an initial regulatory flexibility analysis and a final regulatory flexibility analysis assessing the economic impact of the rule on small entities or certify that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. 5 U.S.C. 603(a), 604(a), and 605. As noted in the NPR, the Commission chose to provide notice and comment for this rulemaking. However, because this is a “rule of agency organization, procedure, or practice,” the APA does not require an NPR. 5 U.S.C. 553. Thus, the RFA requirement does not apply to this rulemaking. We further noted in the NPR that the rule would merely set out in a regulation the procedural requirements stated in the FOIA of 2016, update Commission procedures, and make other technical changes and corrections. We expect that the final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) establishes certain requirements when an agency conducts or sponsors a “collection of information.” 44 U.S.C. 3501-3520. The final rule amends the Commission's rule to conform to the 2016 FOIA, to update Commission procedures, and make other technical changes and corrections. The final rule would not impose any information collection requirements. The existing rule and the amendment do not require or request information from firms, but rather, explain the Commission's FOIA procedures. Thus, this rulemaking does not implicate the PRA.
According to Executive Order 12988 (February 5, 1996), agencies must state in clear language the preemptive effect, if any, of new regulations. Section 26 of the Consumer Product Safety Act (CPSA) explains the preemptive effect of consumer product safety standards issued under the CPSA. 15 U.S.C. 2075. The final rule is not a consumer product safety standard. The final rule revises a rule of agency practice and procedure by implementing the FOIA of 2016 and making technical revisions or corrections. Therefore, section 26 of the CPSA would not apply to this rule.
The Commission proposed that the final rule would become effective 30 days after the final rule is published in the
Administrative practice and procedure, Consumer protection, Disclosure of information, Freedom of information.
Accordingly, the Commission amends 16 CFR part 1015 as follows:
15 U.S.C. 2051-2084; 15 U.S.C. 1261-1278; 15 U.S.C. 1471-1476; 15 U.S.C. 1211-1214; 15 U.S.C. 1191-1204; 15 U.S.C. 8001-8008; Pub. L. 110-278, 122 Stat. 2602; 5 U.S.C. 552.
(a) The regulations of this subpart provide information concerning the procedures by which Consumer Product Safety Commission records may be made available for inspection and the procedures for obtaining copies of records from the Consumer Product Safety Commission. Official records of the Consumer Product Safety Commission consist of all documentary material maintained by the Commission in any format, including an electronic format. These records include those maintained in connection with the Commission's responsibilities and functions under the Consumer Product Safety Act, as well as those responsibilities and functions transferred to the Commission under the Federal Hazardous Substances Act, the Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970, the Refrigerator Safety Act, the Flammable Fabrics Act, the Children's Gasoline Burn Prevention Act, the Virginia Graeme Baker Pool and Spa Safety Act, and the Child Nicotine Poisoning Prevention Act, and those maintained under any other authorized activity. Official records do not, however, include objects or articles such as tangible exhibits, samples, models, equipment, or other items of valuable property; books, magazines, or other reference material; or documents routinely distributed by the Commission in the normal course of business such as copies of Federal Register notices, pamphlets, and laws. Official records include only existing records. Official records of the Commission made available under the requirements of the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) shall be furnished to the public as prescribed by this part 1015. A request by an individual for records about himself or herself that are contained in the Commission's system of records under the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) will be processed under the Privacy Act and the FOIA. Documents routinely distributed to the public in the normal course of business will continue to be furnished to the public by employees of the Commission informally and without compliance with the procedures prescribed herein.
(b) The Commission's policy with respect to requests for records is that disclosure is the rule and withholding is the exception. All records or portions of records not exempt from disclosure will be made available. Records which may be exempted from disclosure will be made available unless: Disclosure is prohibited by law; the Commission reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by an exemption described in 5 U.S.C. 552(b); or disclosure is exempted under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3). See § 1015.15(b). Section 6(a)(2) of the Consumer Product Safety Act, 15 U.S.C. 2055(a)(2), prohibits the disclosure of trade secrets or other matters referred to in 18 U.S.C. 1905; section 6(b) and section 25(c) of the CPSA. The Commission will consider the record's age, content, and character in assessing whether it reasonably foresees that disclosure of the document would harm an interest protected by an exemption. Additionally, the Commission will consider whether partial disclosure of information is possible whenever the Commission determines that a full disclosure of a requested record is not possible and will take reasonable steps
(c) The Secretariat of the Commission is the designated Chief Freedom of Information Officer who, subject to the authority of the Chairman, is responsible for compliance with and implementation of 5 U.S.C. 552(j).
(a) The Consumer Product Safety Commission will maintain in a public reference room or area the materials relating to the Consumer Product Safety Commission that are required by 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2) and 552(a)(5) to be made available for public inspection in an electronic format. The principal location will be in the Office of the Secretariat of the Commission. The address of this office is: Office of the Secretariat, Consumer Product Safety Commission, Room 820, 4330 East West Highway, Bethesda, MD 20814.
(b) This public reference facility will maintain and make available for public inspection in an electronic format a current index of the materials available at that facility which are required to be indexed by 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2).
(c) The Consumer Product Safety Commission will maintain an “electronic reading room” on the World-Wide Web at
(d) Subject to the requirements of Section 6 of the CPSA, the Commission will make available for public inspection in an electronic format copies of all records, regardless of form or format, that:
(1) Have been released to any person under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(3); and
(2) Because of the nature of their subject matter, the Commission determines have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records or that have been requested three or more times.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a) A request for access to records of the Commission shall be in writing addressed to the Secretariat and shall be submitted through any of the following methods: The e-FOIA Public Access Link at
(b) * * * Before submitting their requests, requesters may contact the Commission's FOIA contact or FOIA Public Liaison to discuss the records they seek and to receive assistance in describing the records.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a) The Secretariat or delegate of the Secretariat shall respond to all written requests for records within twenty (20) working days (excepting Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays). The time limitations on responses to requests for records submitted by mail shall begin to run at the time a request for records is received and date stamped by the Office of the Secretariat. The Office of the Secretariat shall date stamp the request the same day that it receives the request. The time limitations on responses to requests for records submitted electronically during working hours (8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. EST) shall begin to run at the time the request was electronically received, and the time limitations on responses to requests for records submitted electronically during non-working hours will begin to run when working hours resume.
(e) If an extension of time greater than ten (10) working days is necessary, the Commission shall make available its FOIA Public Liaison for this purpose. A list of the Commission FOIA Public Liaisons is available at
(g) * * *
(2) Requesters for expedited processing must include in their requests, which may be submitted through any of the methods described in § 1015.3(a), a statement setting forth the basis for the claim that a “compelling need” exists for the requested information, certified by the requester to be true and correct to the best of his or her knowledge and belief.
(3) The Secretariat or delegate of the Secretariat will determine whether to grant a request for expedited processing and will notify the requester of such determination within ten (10) calendar days of receipt of the request.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a) When a requested record has been identified and is available for disclosure, the requester shall be supplied with a copy or notified as to where and when the record will be made available for public inspection in an electronic format. If the payment of fees is required the requester shall be advised by the Secretariat in writing of any applicable fees under § 1015.9 hereof. The requester will be notified of the right to seek assistance from the Commission's FOIA Public Liaison.
(b) A response denying or partially denying a written request for a record shall be in writing, dated, and signed by the Secretariat or delegate of the Secretariat and shall include:
(4) A statement that the denial may be appealed to the Commissioners of the Consumer Product Safety Commission. Any such appeal must be made within 90 calendar days after the date of the denial or partial denial of the Commission's response to a request for records.
(5) A statement that the requester has the right to seek dispute resolution services from the Commission's FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services.
The revisions read as follows:
(a) When the Secretariat or delegate of the Secretariat has denied a request for records in whole or in part, the requester may, within 90 calendar days after the date of the denial or partial denial, appeal the denial to the General Counsel of the Consumer Product Safety Commission, attention of the Secretariat. Appeals may be submitted through any of the following methods: the e-FOIA Public Access Link at
(b) The General Counsel, or the Secretariat upon reconsideration, will act upon an appeal within 20 working days of its receipt. The time limitations on an appeal submitted by mail shall begin to run at the time an appeal is received and date stamped by the Office of the Secretariat. The Office of the Secretariat will date stamp the appeal the same day that it receives the appeal. The time limitations on an appeal submitted electronically during working hours (8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. EST) shall begin to run at the time the appeal was electronically received, and the time limitations on appeals submitted electronically during non-working hours will begin to run when working hours resume.
(e) The General Counsel's action on appeal shall be in writing, shall be signed by the General Counsel, and shall constitute final agency action. A denial in whole or in part of a request on appeal shall set forth the exemption relied upon; a brief explanation, consistent with the purpose of the exemption, of how the exemption applies to the records withheld; and the reasons for asserting it. The decision will inform the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the Commission's FOIA Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services. A denial in whole or in part shall also inform the requester of his/her right to seek judicial review of the Commission's final determination in a United States district court, as specified in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(B).
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(b) Fees shall be paid to the Treasury of the United States according to the directions provided by the Commission.
(c) * * *
(2)
(3)
(8)
(e) * * *
(1) * * * Where paper documents must be scanned in order to comply with a requester's preference to receive records in an electronic format, the requester must also pay the direct costs associated with scanning those materials.
(f) * * *
(6) Search fees shall be waived for all requests and duplication fees shall be waived for requests from educational institutions, non-commercial scientific institutions, and representatives of the news media if the Commission fails to comply with any time limit under §§ 1015.5(a), (g)(3), 1015.7(b), and 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6) other than those exceptions stated in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(A)(viii)(ll). Those exceptions include:
(i) If the Commission has determined that unusual circumstances as defined in § 1015.5(b) apply and the Commission provided timely written notice to the requester as required by § 1015.5(c) or § 1015.7(f), then failure to comply with the time limit in §§ 1015.5(a), (g)(3), 1015.7(b), and 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6) is excused for 10 additional working days; or
(ii) If the Commission has determined that unusual circumstances as defined in § 1015.5(b) apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, and the Commission has provided timely written notice in accordance with § 1015.5(c) and (e) and the Commission has discussed with the requester via written mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three
(iii) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(C), then failure to comply with §§ 1015.5(a), (g)(3), 1015.7(b), and 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6) shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
(a) In accordance with section 6(a)(2) of the CPSA, the Commission may disclose information which it has determined to be a trade secret or other matter referred to under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) to Commission consultants and contractors for use only in their work for the Commission. Such persons are subject to the same restrictions with respect to disclosure of such information as any Commission employee.
(b) In accordance with section 6(a)(2) of the CPSA, the Commission is prohibited from disclosing information which it has determined to be a trade secret or other matter referred to under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) to advisory committees, except when required in the official conduct of their business, or to other Federal agencies and state and local governments except when permitted by the provisions of section 29(f) of the CPSA.
(a) The regulations of this subpart provide information concerning the types of records which may be withheld from production and disclosure by the Consumer Product Safety Commission. These regulations also provide information on the method whereby persons submitting information to the Commission may request that the information be considered exempt from disclosure, and information concerning the Commission's treatment of documents submitted with a request that they be treated as exempt from disclosure.
(b) No identifiable record requested in accordance with the procedures contained in this part shall be withheld from disclosure unless it falls within one of the classes of records exempt under 5 U.S.C. 552(b). The Commission will make available, to the extent permitted by law, records authorized to be withheld under 5 U.S.C. 552(b) unless the Commission reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by the exemption or disclosure is prohibited by law or otherwise exempted from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3). In this regard the Commission will not ordinarily release documents that provide legal advice to the Commission concerning pending or prospective litigation where the release of such documents would significantly interfere with the Commission's regulatory or enforcement proceedings.
(c) Draft documents that are agency records are subject to release upon request in accordance with this regulation. However, in order to avoid any misunderstanding of the preliminary nature of a draft document, each draft document released will be marked to indicate its tentative nature. Similarly, staff briefing packages, which have been completed but not yet transmitted to the Commission by the Office of the Secretariat are subject to release upon request in accordance with this regulation. Each briefing package or portion thereof released will be marked to indicate that it has not been transmitted to or acted upon by the Commission. In addition, briefing packages, or portions thereof, which the Secretariat upon the advice of the Office of the General Counsel has determined would be released upon request in accordance with this regulation, will be made available for public inspection in an electronic format through the Commission's Web site at
(d) The exemptions contained in 5 U.S.C. 552(b) will be interpreted in accordance with the applicable law at the time a request for production or disclosure is considered.
(a) Accident or investigation reports made by an officer, employee, or agent of the Commission are available to the public under the procedures set forth in subpart A of this part 1015 unless such reports are subject to the investigatory file exemption contained in the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(b)) except that portions identifying any injured person or any person treating such injured person will be deleted in accordance with section 25(c)(1) of the CPSA. * * *
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of enforcement of regulation.
The Coast Guard will enforce special local regulations for the Poquoson Seafood Festival Workboat Race held on the Back River on October 15, 2017, with a rain date of October 29, 2017. This action is necessary to provide for the safety of life on navigable waterways during the power boat race. Our regulation for recurring marine events in Captain of the Port—Sector Hampton Roads zone identifies the regulated area for this regatta. During the enforcement period, no vessel may transit this regulated area without approval from the Captain of the Port or a designated representative.
The regulations in 33 CFR 100.501 will be enforced for the location listed at (c)(8) in the Table to § 100.501, Coast Guard Sector Hampton Roads—COTP Zone, from 1 p.m. through 4 p.m. on October 15, 2017, with a rain date of October 29, 2017.
If you have questions about this notice of enforcement, call or email LCDR Barbara Wilk, Waterways Management Sector Hampton Roads, U.S. Coast
The Coast Guard will enforce special local regulations in 33 CFR 100.501 from 1 p.m. until 4 p.m. on October 15, 2017, with a rain date of October 29, 2017, for the Poquoson Seafood Festival Workboat Race at Poquoson, VA. This action is being taken to provide for the safety of life on navigable waterways during the power boat race. Our regulation for recurring marine events within the Fifth Coast Guard District, § 100.501, specifies the location for this special local regulation; Race area: The area is bounded on the north by a line drawn along latitude 37°06′30″ N., bounded on the south by a line drawn along latitude 37°06′15″ N., bounded on the east by a line drawn along longitude 076°18′52″ W. and bounded on the west by a line drawn along longitude 076°19′30″ W. Buffer area: The waters of Back River extending 200 yards outwards from east and west boundary lines, and 100 yards outwards from the north and south boundary lines described in this section. As specified in § 100.501(c), during the enforcement period, no vessel may transit this regulated area without approval from the Captain of the Port (COTP)—Sector Hampton Roads or a COTP designated representative.
This notice of enforcement is issued under authority of 33 CFR 100.501 and 5 U.S.C. 552(a). This notice of enforcement will be published in the
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation; modification.
The Coast Guard has modified a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the Chapel Street Bridge across the Mill River, mile 0.4 at New Haven, Connecticut. This modified deviation is necessary to accommodate delays to the bridge deck replacement and various repairs. This modified deviation allows the bridge to open for the passage of vessels upon two hours of advance notice as well as a twelve day closure of the draw to all vessel traffic.
This modified deviation is effective without actual notice from August 8, 2017 through 11:59 p.m. on September 9, 2017. For purposes of enforcement, actual notice will be used from 12:01 a.m. on August 1, 2017 until August 8, 2017.
The docket for this deviation, USCG-2017-0524, is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email James M. Moore, Bridge Management Specialist, First District Bridge Branch, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 212-514-4334, email
The City of New Haven, the owner of the bridge, requested a temporary deviation from the normal operating schedule to facilitate rehabilitation of the bridge, specifically replacement of the bridge deck. The Chapel Street Bridge, across the Mill River, mile 0.4 at New Haven, Connecticut offers mariners a vertical clearance of 7.9 feet at mean high water and 14 feet at mean low water in the closed position. The existing drawbridge operating regulations are listed at 33 CFR 117.213(d).
On July 6, 2017, the Coast Guard published a temporary deviation entitled “Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Mill River, New Haven, CT” in the
Due to project delays precipitated by the discovery of advanced corrosion of the steel deck grid prior to the planned pouring of concrete deck material as well as associated remediation of the same corrosion, the City of New Haven has requested that until 11:59 p.m. August 9, 2017 the draw of the Chapel Street Bridge open for the passage of vessels requiring an opening provided two hours of advance notice is furnished to the owner of the bridge; except that, from 7:30 a.m. to 8:30 a.m. and 4:45 p.m. to 5:45 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays, the draw need not open for the passage of vessel traffic. The bridge will remain closed to all vessels requiring an opening from 12:01 a.m. August 10, 2017 until 11:59 p.m. August 21, 2017 to facilitate the pouring/curing of new bridge deck material. From 12:01 a.m. August 22, 2017 until 11:59 p.m. September 9, 2017 the bridge will open for the passage of vessels requiring an opening provided two hours of advance notice is furnished to the owner of the bridge; except that from 7:30 a.m. to 8:30 a.m. and 4:45 p.m. to 5:45 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays, the draw need not open for the passage of vessel traffic.
The bridge routinely opens for commercial vessels. Nevertheless, the requirement for two hours of advance notice has not impeded routine waterway operations. Mariners have offered no objection to a twelve day closure of the draw in order to complete the necessary deck replacement. The concrete pour and curing process can be accomplished in four days, but a twelve day closure period has been requested in order to take inclement weather into account. The bridge will resume operations as soon as the curing process has been completed. The City of New Haven has maintained open lines of communication with waterway operators and ensured all project developments are quickly disseminated to all relevant parties.
Vessels that can pass under the bridge without an opening may do so at all times. The bridge will be not able to open for emergencies. There is no alternate route for vessels to pass.
The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterways through our Local and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking final action to approve portions of the State Implementation Plan (SIP) submission, submitted on February 8, 2016, by the Commonwealth of Kentucky, through the Energy and Environment Cabinet, Department for Environmental Protection, through the Kentucky Division for Air Quality (KDAQ), to demonstrate that the State meets the infrastructure requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) for the 2012 Annual Fine Particulate Matter (PM
This rule will be effective September 7, 2017.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket Identification No. EPA-R04-OAR-2016-0213. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Tiereny Bell, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Ms. Bell can be reached via electronic mail at
On December 14, 2012 (78 FR 3086, January 15, 2013), EPA promulgated a revised primary annual PM
In a proposed rulemaking published May 10, 2017 (82 FR 21751), EPA proposed to approve portions of Kentucky's February 8, 2016 SIP submission for the 2012 Annual PM
With the exception of the interstate transport requirements of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) and (II) (prongs 1, 2, and 4) and the minor source program requirement of section 110(a)(2)(C), EPA is taking final action to approve Kentucky's infrastructure submission for the 2012 Annual PM
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations.
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by October 10, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(e) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving one aspect (the remaining portion) of a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted on May 30, 2013 by the State of Connecticut. This revision addresses the interstate transport requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA), referred to as the good neighbor provision, with respect to the 2010 sulfur dioxide (SO
This rule is effective on September 7, 2017.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket Identification No. EPA-R01-OAR-2015-0198. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Donald Dahl, Air Permits, Toxics and Indoor Programs Units, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, EPA New England Regional Office, 5 Post Office Square—Suite 100, (Mail code OEP05-2), Boston, MA 02109-3912, (617) 918-1657; email at
Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA.
On May 30, 2013, the Connecticut Department of Energy and Environmental Protection (CT DEEP) submitted a revision to its SIP, certifying that its SIP meets the requirements of section 110(a)(2) of the CAA with respect to the 2010 SO
On May 8, 2017 (82 FR 21351), EPA published a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPR) for the State of Connecticut 2010 SO
EPA is approving the remainder of the May 30, 2013 SIP submission from Connecticut certifying that the State's current SIP is sufficient to meet the required infrastructure elements under section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) for the 2010 SO
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by October 10, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Sulfur oxides.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(b) On May 30, 2013, the State of Connecticut submitted a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision addressing the Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) interstate transport requirements of the Clean Air Act for the 2010 SO
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a portion of the State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by Mississippi, through the Mississippi Department of Environmental Quality (MDEQ), Office of Pollution Control, on June 7, 2016. Specifically, this action approves the portion of the SIP revision making changes to Mississippi's Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) program by modifying the incorporation by reference (IBR) date for the Federal PSD regulations promulgated by EPA. By changing this date, approval of the SIP revision modifies the existing Greenhouse Gas (GHG) PSD permitting program and incorporates PSD provisions related to the 1997, 2006, and 2012 fine particulate matter (PM
This direct final rule is effective October 10, 2017 without further notice, unless EPA receives adverse comment by September 7, 2017. If EPA receives such comments, it will publish a timely withdrawal of the direct final rule in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2017-0188 at
Andres Febres of the Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Febres can be reached via telephone at (404) 562-8966 or via electronic mail at
On June 7, 2016, MDEQ submitted a SIP revision for EPA's approval that includes changes to Mississippi's regulations to make them consistent with Federal requirements for the New Source Review (NSR) permitting program, in particular for PSD permitting.
EPA is approving the portion of Mississippi's submittal that makes changes to the State's PSD program, as established in MDEQ's Regulation 11-MAC-Part 2-5, which applies to the construction or modification of any major stationary source in areas designated as attainment or unclassifiable as required by part C of title I of the CAA. This SIP revision is intended to make Mississippi's state PSD permitting rule consistent with the Federal requirements, as promulgated by EPA. The June 7, 2016 submittal updates the IBR date at 11-MAC-Part 2-5 Rule 5.1 and Rule 5.2 from November 4, 2011, to February 17, 2016, for the Federal PSD permitting regulations at 40 CFR 52.21 and 51.166.
On January 2, 2011, GHG emissions were, for the first time, covered by the PSD and title V operating permit programs.
In Step 2 of the GHG Tailoring Rule, which applied as of July 1, 2011, the PSD and title V permitting requirements applied to some sources that were classified as major sources based solely on their GHG emissions or potential to emit GHGs. Step 2 also applied PSD permitting requirements to modifications of otherwise major sources that would increase only GHG emissions above the level in the EPA regulations. EPA generally described the sources covered by PSD during Step 2 of the GHG Tailoring Rule as “Step 2 sources” or “GHG-only sources.”
Subsequently, EPA published the GHG Step 3 Rule on July 12, 2012.
The GHG PALs portion of the July 12, 2012 final rule revised EPA regulations under 40 CFR part 52 for establishing PALs for GHG emissions. A PAL establishes a site-specific plantwide emission level for a pollutant that allows the source to make changes at the facility without triggering the requirements of the PSD program, provided that emissions do not exceed the PAL level. Under EPA's interpretation of the Federal PAL provisions, such PALs are already available under PSD for non-GHG pollutants and for GHGs on a mass basis. EPA revised the PAL regulations to allow for GHG PALs to be established on a carbon dioxide equivalent (CO
On June 23, 2014, the U.S. Supreme Court addressed the application of stationary source permitting requirements to GHG emissions in
In accordance with the Supreme Court decision, on April 10, 2015, the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit (D.C. Circuit) issued an Amended Judgment vacating the regulations that implemented Step 2 of the GHG Tailoring Rule, but not the regulations that implement Step 1 of the GHG Tailoring Rule.
EPA promulgated a good cause final rule on August 19, 2015, entitled “Prevention of Significant Deterioration and Title V Permitting for Greenhouse Gases: Removal of Certain Vacated Elements.”
By revising the IBR date of 40 CFR 52.21 to February 17, 2016, Mississippi's June 7, 2016 SIP revision incorporates the GHG Step 3 Rule and removes permitting requirements for Step 2 sources.
Pursuant to section 165(a)(3)(B) of the CAA and the implementing PSD regulations at 40 CFR 52.21(k)(1) and
For the 2012 primary annual PM
For the 2015 8-hour ozone NAAQS revision, sources with PSD permit applications that meet one of the following conditions would be allowed to give a demonstration that the source requesting the permit does not cause or contribute to a violation of the NAAQS based on the previous 2008 8-hour ozone standard, instead of the revised 2015 standard: (1) Applications for which the reviewing authority has formally determined that the application is complete on or before October 1, 2015; or (2) applications for which the reviewing authority has first published a public notice of the draft permit or preliminary determination before the effective date of the revised 2015 8-hour ozone NAAQS (December 28, 2015).
By revising the IBR date of 40 CFR 52.21 to February 17, 2016, Mississippi's June 7, 2016 SIP revision incorporates both the 2012 annual PM
On May 16, 2008, EPA finalized a rule titled “Implementation of the New Source Review (NSR) Program for Particulate Matter Less Than 2.5 Micrometers (PM
On October 25, 2012, EPA took final action to amend the definition of “regulated NSR pollutant” promulgated in the 2008 NSR PM
By revising the IBR date of 40 CFR 52.21 to February 17, 2016, Mississippi's June 7, 2016 SIP revision captures the PM
Mississippi currently has a SIP-approved NSR program for PSD at 11-MAC-Part 2-5, including the regulation of GHGs under Step 1 and Step 2 of the GHG Tailoring Rule. The June 7, 2016 submittal revises the PSD regulations by changing the incorporation by reference date of 40 CFR 52.21 and 40 CFR 51.166 at 11-MAC-Part 2-5 Rule 5.1 and Rule 5.2 from November 4, 2011, to February 17, 2016.
Mississippi's June 7, 2016 SIP revision seeks to add to the SIP elements of the EPA's July 12, 2012 rule implementing Step 3 of the phase-in of PSD permitting requirements for GHGs described in the GHG Step 3 Rule. Specifically, the incorporation of the GHG Step 3 Rule provisions will allow GHG-emitting sources to obtain PALs for their GHG emissions on a CO2e basis. As explained in Section II.A above, a PAL establishes a site-specific plantwide emission level for a pollutant, which allows the source to make changes to individual units at the facility without triggering the requirements of the PSD program, provided that facility-wide emissions do not exceed the PAL.
The Federal GHG PAL regulations include provisions that apply solely to GHG-only, or Step 2, sources. Some of these provisions may no longer be applicable in light of the Supreme Court's decision in
Moreover, the existing GHG PALs regulations do not add new requirements for sources or modifications that only emit or increase greenhouse gases above the major source threshold or the 75,000 ton per year GHG level in 40 CFR 52.21(b)(49)(iv). Rather, the PALs provisions provide increased flexibility to sources that wish to address their GHG emissions in a PAL. Since this flexibility may still be valuable to sources in at least one context described above, the Agency believes that it is appropriate to approve these provisions into the Mississippi SIP at this time.
Mississippi's June 7, 2016 submittal incorporates the Federal PSD provisions as of February 17, 2016, which is after the
EPA has concluded that approving these changes into the SIP will not interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment and reasonable further progress (as defined in section 171), or any other applicable requirement of the CAA. Step 2 of the GHG Tailoring Rule was invalidated. EPA discussed the effects of PALs in the Supplemental Environmental Analysis of the Impact of the 2002 Final NSR Improvement Rules (November 21, 2002) (Supplemental Analysis). The Supplemental Analysis explained, “[t]he EPA expects that the adoption of PAL provisions will result in a net environmental benefit. Our experience to date is that the emissions caps found in PAL-type permits result in real emissions reductions, as well as other benefits.” Supplemental Analysis at 6;
Mississippi's June 7, 2016 SIP revision also incorporates revisions to the PSD permitting requirements for both the 2012 primary annual PM
Finally, by changing the incorporation by reference date for 11-MAC-Part 2-5 in the SIP revision, Mississippi also adopts changes made by EPA in the PM
In this rule, EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of Rule 5.1 and Rule 5.2 at Mississippi Administrative Code, Title 11, Part 2, Chapter 5, entitled “Regulations for the Prevention of Significant Deterioration of Air Quality,” effective May 28, 2016, which revises PSD rules.
EPA is taking a direct final action to approve the portion of Mississippi's June 7, 2016 SIP revision to update the IBR date for the Federal requirements of the PSD program. This SIP revision is intended to make Mississippi's state permitting rule consistent with the Federal requirements, as promulgated by EPA. The June 7, 2016 SIP submission updates the IBR date at 11-MAC-Part 2-5 to February 17, 2016, for the Federal PSD permitting regulations at 40 CFR 52.21 and 51.166. By revising the IBR date, this SIP revision modifies the existing GHG PSD permitting program and incorporates PSD provisions related to the 2012 primary annual PM
EPA is publishing this rule without prior proposal because the Agency views this as a noncontroversial submittal and anticipates no adverse comments. However, in the proposed rules section of this
If EPA receives such comments, then EPA will publish a document withdrawing the final rule and informing the public that the rule will not take effect. All adverse comments received will then be addressed in a subsequent final rule based on the proposed rule. EPA will not institute a second comment period. Parties interested in commenting should do so at this time. If no such comments are received, the public is advised that this rule will be effective on October 10, 2017 and no further action will be taken on the proposed rule.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations.
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by October 10, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. Parties with objections to this direct final rule are encouraged to file a comment in response to the parallel notice of proposed rulemaking for this action published in the proposed rules section of today's
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Volatile organic compounds.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a revision to the Nevada Regional Haze State Implementation Plan (SIP) submitted by the Nevada Division of Environmental Protection. The revision consists of the “Nevada Regional Haze 5-Year Progress Report” that addresses Regional Haze Rule requirements under the Clean Air Act to document progress towards achieving visibility goals by 2018 in Class I Federal areas in Nevada and nearby states. The EPA is taking final action to approve Nevada's determination that the regional haze requirements in the existing Nevada Regional Haze SIP do not require any substantive revision at this time.
This rule is effective September 7, 2017.
The EPA has established docket number EPA-R09-OAR-2015-0316 for this action. Generally, documents in the docket are available electronically at
Krishna Viswanathan, EPA, Region IX, Air Division, AIR-2, 75 Hawthorne Street, San Francisco, CA 94105. Krishna Viswanathan may be reached at (520) 999-7880 or
The Nevada Division of Environmental Protection (NDEP or “the State”) submitted the Nevada Regional Haze 5-Year Progress Report (“Progress Report”) to the EPA on November 18, 2014, to satisfy the Regional Haze Rule requirements codified at 40 CFR 51.308(g), (h), and (i). As described in our proposal, NDEP has demonstrated in its Progress Report that the emission control measures in the existing Nevada Regional Haze SIP are adequate to make progress towards the reasonable progress goals (RPGs) in Class I Federal areas in Nevada and in nearby states that may be affected by emissions from sources in Nevada without requiring any substantive revisions to the Nevada Regional Haze SIP. Our proposal discussed each element required under 40 CFR 51.308(g), (h), and (i) for an approvable progress report, summarized how the Progress Report addressed each element, and provided our evaluation of the adequacy of the Progress Report for each element. Please refer to our proposed rule for background information on the Regional Haze Rule, the Nevada Regional Haze SIP, and the specific requirements for progress reports.
We received comment letters on our proposed approval of the Progress Report from NDEP,
In particular, as explained in our proposal, the Progress Report demonstrates that current (
In addition to demonstrating the large influence of non-anthropogenic pollutants, the Progress Report also establishes the significant impact of out-of-state sources on Jarbidge. In particular, the Progress Report refers to source apportionment modeling performed by the WRAP to evaluate source areas that contribute to sulfate and nitrate extinction on the 20 percent worst days at Jarbidge. As noted in our proposal, this modeling indicated that the Outside Domain source category (
Finally, with regard to the modeling underlying the 2018 RPG, as explained in response to a similar comment below, no revision to the Nevada Regional Haze SIP is required to address the WRAP modeling correction noted by the commenters. For these reasons, and taking into consideration the large reductions in anthropogenic emissions of SO
We also do not agree with the commenters that it was improper for the State to rely on emission reductions from power generating stations that are not located near Jarbidge in making its declaration. The Regional Haze Rule requires progress reports to include a “summary of emission reductions” and specifically refers to such reductions as a relevant consideration in determining whether substantive revision to the SIP is required.
We also agree with the commenter that there is uncertainty regarding what
With regard to NVGS, we note that in the EPA's approval of the Nevada Regional Haze SIP, we determined that NDEP had reasonably weighed the cost of additional emissions controls against the potential benefits and concluded that additional controls were not warranted for non-BART sources such as NVGS during the first planning period. NDEP would only be required to revisit this conclusion during this first planning period if it had determined that the Nevada Regional Haze SIP “is or may be inadequate to ensure reasonable progress due to emissions from sources within the State” under 40 CFR 51.308(h)(4). However, as discussed elsewhere in this document, NDEP instead made a well-supported declaration under 40 CFR 51.308(h)(1), and the EPA is approving this declaration. One of the elements of the State's analysis supporting its negative declaration was its showing that the overall lack of improvement on the 20 percent worst days at Jarbidge has been largely due to non-anthropogenic pollutants and out-of-state emissions, rather than to emissions of SO
(1) Find that NDEP's [RPG] for the 20 percent worst days at the Jarbidge Wilderness is
(2) Establish a more realistic RPG goal, a goal based on proper modeling and planned emission reduction requirements required under the Nevada regional haze plan and state law. A proper goal would show that visibility is not expected to improve at the Jarbidge Wilderness in a manner consistent with achieving natural background visibility by 2064; and
(3) Ensure that NDEP evaluates and adopts additional measures to achieve reasonable progress towards the national visibility goal at the Jarbidge Wilderness.
The EPA is taking final action to approve the Nevada Regional Haze Plan 5-Year Progress Report submitted to the EPA on November 18, 2014, as meeting the applicable Regional Haze Rule requirements as set forth in 40 CFR 51.308(g), (h), and (i). In addition, we are re-codifying our prior approval of the Nevada Regional Haze SIP in order to correct its location within 40 CFR 52.1470(e). This recodification has no effect on the substantive content of the Nevada SIP.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations.
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Public Law 104-4);
• does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by October 10, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements (see section 307(b)(2)).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen oxides, Organic carbon, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Visibility, Volatile organic compounds.
Part 52, Chapter I, Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
The addition reads as follows:
(e) * * *
(g)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving revisions to Idaho's State Implementation Plan (SIP) submitted in 2012 and 2014 to address Clean Air Act (CAA) requirements for the Idaho portion of the Logan, Utah-Idaho fine particulate matter (PM
This final rule is effective September 7, 2017.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R10-OAR-2015-0067. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Jeff Hunt, Air Planning Unit, Office of Air and Waste (OAW-150), Environmental Protection Agency, Region 10, 1200 Sixth Ave., Suite 900, Seattle, WA 98101; telephone number: (206) 553-0256; email address:
On June 1, 2017, the EPA proposed to approve Idaho's attainment demonstration and 2014 MVEBs as early progress budgets (82 FR 25208). As part of the same action, the EPA also proposed to conditionally approve RFP, QMs, and revised MVEBs for the Idaho portion of the nonattainment area. An explanation of the CAA requirements, a detailed analysis of the submittals, and the EPA's reasons for proposing approval were provided in the notice of proposed rulemaking, and will not be restated here. The public comment period for the proposal ended July 3, 2017. We received no comments.
For the reasons set forth in the proposed rulemaking for this action, the EPA is approving the attainment demonstration in Idaho's 2012 and 2014 revisions to the SIP (Idaho attainment plan) for the Idaho portion of the Logan UT-ID area. The EPA is also approving the 2014 MVEBs as early progress budgets, in that they are consistent with making progress toward attainment of the 24-hour 2006 PM
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because this action does not involve technical standards; and
• does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land in Idaho and is also not approved to apply in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by October 10, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2)).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
The addition reads as follows:
(e) * * *
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule.
The Federal Communications Commission adopts technical rules to mitigate ground-path interference between the Digital Broadcasting Satellite Service (DBS) and the Broadcasting-Satellite Service (BSS) in the 17.3-17.8 GHz band to protect consumers and foster more rapid deployment of services, greater investment, and new innovation.
Effective September 7, 2017.
Sean O'More, 202-418-2453, or if concerning the information collections in this document, Cathy Williams, 202-418-2918.
This is a summary of the Commission's Third Report and Order, FCC 17-49, adopted April 21, 2017, and released April 25, 2017. The full text of the Report and Order is available at
This Report and Order adopts new rules to mitigate interference from DBS feeder-link earth stations to BSS consumer earth terminals (ground path interference) in the 17.3-17.8 GHz band. We adopt a rule allowing currently-licensed DBS feeder link earth stations to continue operations under the terms of their current licenses, and to expand their facilities provided that new antennas are constructed within one kilometer of current antennas and the aggregate power-flux density of the station at any point does not increase.
We adopt a methodology for determining a coordination zone for new DBS feeder-link earth stations, and require applicants for new DBS feeder-link earth stations to coordinate with BSS licensees to achieve agreement on interference mitigation. We adopt rules specifying the information applicants for new DBS feeder-link earth stations must provide for the purposes of coordination.
This document contains new and modified information collection requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Public Law 104-13. It will be submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review under section 3507(d) of the PRA. OMB, the general public, and other Federal agencies will be invited to comment on the new or modified information collection requirements contained in this proceeding in a separate
Pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198, see 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(4), we previously sought specific comment on how the Commission might further reduce the information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees. We received no comments on this issue. We have assessed the effects of the revisions adopted that might impose information collection burdens on small business concerns, and find that the impact on businesses with fewer than 25 employees will be an overall reduction in burden.
The Commission will send copies of this Report and Order to Congress and the General Accountability Office pursuant to the Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801(a)(1)(A), and will send a copy including the final regulatory flexibility act analysis to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration, in accordance with section 603(a) of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601,
As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) was incorporated in the Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking in the Matter of Comprehensive Review of Licensing and Operating Rules for Satellite Services. The Commission sought written public comment on the proposals in the NPRM, including comment on the IRFA. No comments were received on the IRFA. This Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (FRFA) conforms to the RFA.
The objective of the Report and Order is to adopt processing and service rules for the 17/24 GHz Broadcasting-Satellite Service (BSS) which will address potential interference scenarios which arise in the reverse band operating environment. The rules will mitigate against ground path interference. Specifically, we adopt criteria to facilitate sharing in the 17 GHz bands by BSS and Direct Broadcast Satellite (DBS) services. These new rules will introduce a new generation of broadband services to the public, providing a mix of local and domestic video, audio, data, video-on-demand, and multimedia services to consumers
No party filing comments in this proceeding responded to the IRFA, and no party filing comments in this proceeding otherwise argued that the policies and rules proposed in this proceeding would have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The Commission has, nonetheless, considered any potential significant economic impact that the rule changes may have on the small entities which are impacted. On balance, the Commission believes that the economic impact on small entities will be negligible.
Pursuant to the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010, the Commission is required to respond to any comments filed by the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration, and to provide a detailed statement of any change made to the proposed rules as a result of those comments. The Chief Counsel did not file any comments in response to the proposed rules in this proceeding.
The RFA directs agencies to provide a description of and, where feasible, an estimate of the number of small entities that may be affected by the rules adopted herein. The RFA generally defines the term “small entity” as having the same meaning as the terms “small business,” “small organization,” and “small governmental jurisdiction.” In addition, the term “small business” has the same meaning as the term “small business concern” under the Small Business Act. A small business concern is one which: (1) Is independently owned and operated; (2) is not dominant in its field of operation; and (3) satisfies any additional criteria established by the Small Business Administration (SBA). Below, we further describe and estimate the number of small entity licensees that may be affected by the adopted rules.
The category of Other Telecommunications “comprises establishments primarily engaged in (1) providing specialized telecommunications applications, such as satellite tracking, communications telemetry, and radar station operations; or (2) providing satellite terminal stations and associated facilities operationally connected with one or more terrestrial communications systems and capable of transmitting telecommunications to or receiving telecommunications from satellite systems.” For this category, Census Bureau data for 2007 show that there were a total of 2,383 firms that operated for the entire year. Of this total, 482 firms had annual receipts of under $25 million. Consequently, we estimate that the majority of Other Telecommunications firms are small entities that might be affected by our action.
Under the Commission's existing rules, all requests for space station authorizations are required to be in the form of a comprehensive proposal submitted on the relevant FCC forms. Similarly, to obtain an earth station authorization, applicants must file the appropriate forms as required by the Commission's rules. In addition to our existing requirements, in this Third Report and Order we adopt certain specific requirements for 17/24 GHz BSS earth and space station applications.
The Commission does not expect significant costs to be associated with these rules. Therefore, we do not anticipate that the burden of compliance would be greater for smaller entities.
The RFA requires that, to the extent consistent with the objectives of applicable statutes, the analysis shall discuss significant alternatives such as: (1) The establishment of differing compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) the clarification, consolidation, or simplification of compliance and reporting requirements under the rule for small entities; (3) the use of performance, rather than design, standards; and (4) an exemption from coverage of the rule, or any part thereof, for small entities.
The rules adopted herein are necessary to protect 17/24 GHz BSS
The technical rules adopted here are the least intrusive option considered in terms of compliance requirements and will be the most effective in terms of facilitating the licensing of operations in the 17/24 GHz BSS without causing harmful interference to other authorized radiocommunication services. We have considered alternatives, including subjecting existing DBS uplink facilities to new interference-mitigation requirements and establishing protection zones for existing DBS uplink facilities, and believe the rules as adopted provide the most equitable solution to the potential interference problems posed by the operations in 17/24 GHz BSS. By requiring that technical showings be made prior to operation, we anticipate that there will be far fewer instances of harmful interference between these two services. This will have a positive economic impact on all satellite space station and earth station licensees, including small entities.
This final rule incorporates by reference an element of the ITU Radio Regulations, Edition of 2012, into part 25 for specific purposes:
ITU Radio Regulations, Appendix 7, “Methods for determination of the coordination area around an earth station in frequency bands between 100 MHz and 105 GHz,” Section 3, “Horizon antenna gain for a receiving earth station with respect to a transmitting earth station,” Table 9b.
This material is available for free download at
Appendix 7, Section 3 establishes the methodology and values for determining coordination areas between transmitting earth stations and receiving earth stations in the satellite services. The § 25.203(m) requires applicants for new DBS feeder-link earth stations to use the values in Table 9b, as amended by § 25.203(m), to determine the area within which they must coordinate with BSS licensees.
Administrative practice and procedure, Earth stations, Incorporation by reference, Satellites.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission amends 47 CFR part 25 as follows:
Interprets or applies 47 U.S.C. 154, 301, 302, 303, 307, 309, 310, 319, 332, 605, and 721, unless otherwise noted.
(b) * * *
(2) ITU Radio Regulations, Volume 2: Appendices, Appendix 7, “Methods for the determination of the coordination areas around an earth station in the frequency bands between 100 MHz and 105 GHz,” Edition of 2012,
(m) Feeder links to DBS space stations:
(1) Each applicant for a license to construct a new FSS earth station to provide feeder-link service to DBS space stations in the frequency band 17.3-17.8 GHz, or to modify any such station currently authorized except where the modification is for a new station within one kilometer of a currently-licensed earth station and modification will not increase the aggregate pfd, measured at any point 3-10 meters above the ground, above that generated by the current earth station, shall identify a coordination zone around its proposed new or modified earth station by the methodology outlined in Annex 3 of Appendix 7 of the ITU Radio Regulations, using the following values for the parameters in Table 9b of Annex 7 of Appendix 7:
(2) Each applicant for such new or modified feeder-link earth station shall provide the following information to a third-party coordinator of its choice for use in coordination required by this paragraph:
(i) The geographical coordinates of the proposed earth station antenna(s);
(ii) Proposed operating frequency band(s) and emission(s);
(iii) Antenna diameter (meters);
(iv) Antenna center height above ground and ground elevation above mean sea level;
(v) Antenna gain pattern(s) in the plane of the main beam;
(vi) Longitude range of geostationary satellite orbit (GSO) satellites at which an antenna may be pointed;
(vii) Horizon elevation plot;
(viii) Antenna horizon gain plot(s) determined in accordance with the procedure in Section 2.1 of Annex 5 to Appendix 7 of the ITU Radio Regulations;
(ix) Minimum elevation angle;
(x) Maximum equivalent isotropically radiated power (e.i.r.p.) density in the main beam in any 1 MHz band;
(xi) Maximum available RF transmit power density in any 1 MHz band at the input terminals of the antenna(s);
(xii) A plot of the coordination distance contour(s) and rain scatter coordination distance contour(s) as determined by Table 2 of Section 3 to Appendix 7 of the ITU Radio Regulations.
(3) Each applicant for such new or modified feeder-link earth stations shall file with its application memoranda of coordination with each licensee authorized to construct BSS receive earth stations within the coordination zone.
Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Department of Energy.
Request for information (“RFI”).
The U.S. Department of Energy (“DOE”) is initiating a data collection process through this RFI to consider whether to amend DOE's test procedures for general service fluorescent lamps, general service incandescent lamps, and incandescent reflector lamps. To inform interested parties and to facilitate this process, DOE has gathered data, identifying several issues associated with the currently applicable test procedures on which DOE is interested in receiving comment. The issues outlined in this document mainly concern updating industry references in and making clarifications to DOE's test procedures for general service fluorescent lamps, general service incandescent lamps, and incandescent reflector lamps; and any additional topics that may inform DOE's decisions in a future test procedure rulemaking, including methods to reduce regulatory burden while ensuring the procedures' accuracy. DOE welcomes written comments from the public on any subject within the scope of this document (including topics not raised in this RFI).
Written comments and information are requested and will be accepted on or before September 7, 2017.
Interested persons are encouraged to submit comments using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
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No telefacsimilies (faxes) will be accepted. For detailed instructions on submitting comments and additional information on this process, see section III of this document.
The docket Web page can be found at
Ms. Lucy deButts, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Office, EE-5B, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 287-1604. Email:
Ms. Celia Sher, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of the General Counsel, GC-33, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 287-6122. Email:
For further information on how to submit a comment or review other public comments and the docket, contact the Appliance and Equipment Standards Program staff at (202) 287-1445 or by email:
General service fluorescent lamps (“GSFLs”), general service incandescent lamps (“GSILs”), and incandescent reflector lamps (“IRLs”) are included in the list of “covered products” for which DOE is authorized to establish and amend energy conservation standards and test procedures. (42 U.S.C. 6292(a)(14)) DOE's test procedures for GSFLs, GSILs, and IRLs are prescribed at Appendix R to Subpart B of Part 430 of Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations (“CFR”). The following sections discuss DOE's authority to establish and amend test procedures for GSFLs, GSILs, and IRLs, as well as relevant background information regarding DOE's consideration of test procedures for these products.
The Energy Policy and Conservation Act of 1975 (“EPCA” or “the Act”),
Under EPCA, DOE's energy conservation program consists essentially of four parts: (1) Testing, (2) labeling, (3) Federal energy conservation standards, and (4) certification and enforcement procedures. Relevant provisions of the Act specifically include definitions (42 U.S.C. 6291), energy conservation standards (42 U.S.C. 6295), test procedures (42 U.S.C. 6293), labeling provisions (42 U.S.C. 6294), and the authority to require information and reports from manufacturers (42 U.S.C. 6296).
Federal energy efficiency requirements for covered products established under EPCA generally supersede State laws and regulations concerning energy conservation testing, labeling, and standards. (See 42 U.S.C. 6297) DOE may, however, grant waivers of Federal preemption for particular State laws or regulations, in accordance with the procedures and other provisions of EPCA. (42 U.S.C. 6297(d))
The Federal testing requirements consist of test procedures that manufacturers of covered products must use as the basis for: (1) Certifying to DOE that their products comply with the applicable energy conservation standards adopted pursuant to EPCA (42 U.S.C. 6295(s)), and (2) making representations about the efficiency of those consumer products (42 U.S.C. 6293(c)). Similarly, DOE must use these test procedures to determine whether the products comply with relevant standards promulgated under EPCA. (42 U.S.C. 6295(s))
Under 42 U.S.C. 6293, EPCA sets forth the criteria and procedures DOE must follow when prescribing or amending test procedures for covered products. EPCA requires that any test procedures prescribed or amended under this section be reasonably designed to produce test results which measure energy efficiency, energy use or estimated annual operating cost of a covered product during a representative average use cycle or period of use and not be unduly burdensome to conduct. (42 U.S.C. 6293(b)(3))
In addition, if DOE determines that a test procedure amendment is warranted, it must publish a proposed test procedure and offer the public an opportunity to present oral and written comments. (42 U.S.C. 6293(b)(2)) EPCA also requires that, at least once every 7 years, DOE review test procedures for each type of covered equipment, including GSFLs, GSILs, and IRLs, to determine whether amended test procedures would more accurately or fully comply with the requirements for the test procedures to not be unduly burdensome to conduct and be reasonably designed to produce test results that reflect energy efficiency, energy use, and estimated operating costs during a representative average use cycle. (42 U.S.C. 6293(b)(1)(A)) If amended test procedures are appropriate, DOE must publish a final rule to incorporate the amendments. If DOE determines that test procedure revisions are not appropriate, DOE must publish its determination not to amend the test procedures. DOE is publishing this RFI to collect data and information to inform a potential test procedure rulemaking to satisfy the 7-year review requirement specified in EPCA, which requires that DOE publish, by January 27, 2019, either a final rule amending the test procedures or a determination that amended test procedures are not required. (42 U.S.C. 6293(b)(1)(A))
EPCA directs DOE to take into consideration applicable Illuminating Engineering Society of North America (IESNA) and American National Standards Institute (ANSI) standards when prescribing test procedures for GSFLs and IRLs. (42 U.S.C. 6293(b)(6)) On September 28, 1994, DOE issued an interim final rule to add a new section in the CFR to establish test procedures for certain fluorescent and incandescent lamps. 59 FR 49468 (“September 1994 interim final rule”). The test procedures incorporated by reference a number of IESNA and ANSI standards.
On May 29, 1997, DOE published a final rule adopting, with amendments, the test procedures established in the September 1994 interim final rule. 62 FR 29222 (“May 1997 final rule”). The May 1997 final rule affirmed DOE's determination that the referenced test procedures effectively measure lamp efficacy and color rendering index, and they are not unduly burdensome to conduct; and incorporated updates to the referenced IESNA and ANSI standards.
On July 6, 2009, DOE published a final rule amending the test procedures for GSFLs, IRLs, and GSILs. 74 FR 31829 (“July 2009 final rule”). These amendments consisted largely of: (1) Referencing the most current versions of several lighting industry standards incorporated by reference; (2) adopting certain technical changes and clarifications; and (3) expanding the test procedures to accommodate new classes of lamps to which coverage was extended by the Energy Independence and Security Act of 2007 (Pub. L. 110-140).
DOE most recently amended the test procedures for GSFLs and GSILs in a final rule published on January 27, 2012. 77 FR 4203 (“January 2012 final rule”). DOE updated several references to the industry standards referenced in DOE's test procedures and established a lamp lifetime test procedure for GSILs.
The current test procedures for GSFLs, GSILs, and IRLs are in Appendix R to Subpart B of Part 430 of Title 10 of the CFR.
In the following sections, DOE has identified a variety of issues on which it seeks input to aid in the development of the technical and economic analyses regarding whether amended test procedures for GSFLs, GSILs, and IRLs may be warranted. Specifically, DOE is requesting comment on any opportunities to streamline and simplify testing requirements for GSFLs, GSILs, and IRLs.
Additionally, DOE welcomes comments on other issues relevant to the conduct of this process that may not specifically be identified in this document. In particular, DOE notes that under Executive Order 13771, “Reducing Regulation and Controlling
This RFI covers GSFLs, GSILs, and IRLs, which are established as covered consumer products under EPCA. (42 U.S.C. 6292(a)(14)) A GSFL is defined as any fluorescent lamp which can be used to satisfy the majority of fluorescent lighting applications. 10 CFR 430.2. The GSFL definition does not include any lamp designed and marketed for any of the following nongeneral applications: Fluorescent lamps designed to promote plant growth; fluorescent lamps specifically designed for cold temperature applications; colored fluorescent lamps; impact-resistant luorescent lamps; reflectorized or aperture lamps; fluorescent lamps designed for use in reprographic equipment; lamps primarily designed to produce radiation in the ultra-violet region of the spectrum; and lamps with a Color Rendering Index of 87 or greater.
The currently effective definition of a GSIL is a standard incandescent or halogen type lamp that is intended for general service applications; has a medium screw base; has a lumen range of not less than 310 lumens and not more than 2,600 lumens or, in the case of a modified spectrum lamp, not less than 232 lumens and not more than 1,950 lumens; and is capable of being operated at a voltage range at least partially within 110 and 130 volts. 10 CFR 430.2. However, the GSIL definition does not include the following incandescent lamps: Appliance lamps; black light lamps; bug lamps; colored lamps; infrared lamps; left-hand thread lamps; marine lamps; marine signal service lamps; mine service lamps; plant light lamps; reflector lamps; rough service lamps; shatter-resistant lamps (including a shatter-proof lamps and a shatter-protected lamps); sign service lamps; silver bowl lamps; showcase lamps; 3-way incandescent lamps; traffic signal lamps; vibration service lamps; G shape lamps (as defined in ANSI C78.20) and ANSI C79.1-2002 with a diameter of 5 inches or more; T shape lamps (as defined in ANSI C78.20) and ANSI C79.1-2002 and that uses not more than 40 watts or has a length of more than 10 inches; and B, BA, CA, F, G16-1/2, G-25, G30, S, or M-14 lamps (as defined in ANSI C79.1-2002) and ANSI C78.20 of 40 watts or less.
An IRL (commonly referred to as a reflector lamp) is defined as any lamp in which light is produced by a filament heated to incandescence by an electric current, which: Contains an inner reflective coating on the outer bulb to direct the light; is not colored; is not designed for rough or vibration service applications; is not an R20 short lamp; has an R, PAR, ER, BR, BPAR, or similar bulb shapes with an E26 medium screw base; has a rated voltage or voltage range that lies at least partially in the range of 115 and 130 volts; has a diameter that exceeds 2.25 inches; and has a rated wattage that is 40 watts or higher. 10 CFR 430.2.
As noted, EPCA directs DOE to prescribe test procedures for GSFLs and IRLs, taking into consideration the applicable standards of IESNA or ANSI. (42 U.S.C. 6293(b)(6)) Consideration of IESNA and ANSI standards aligns DOE test procedures with latest industry practices for testing electric lamps and therefore DOE considers these industry standards when prescribing test procedures for GSILs as well as for GSFLs and IRLs. Appendix R references several ANSI and IES standards in its test conditions, methods, and measurements for GSFLs, GSILs, and IRLs. DOE has determined that several of the referenced industry standards have been updated since DOE last amended its test procedure. Specifically, appendix R references industry standards shown in Table II.1.
The
Section 4.1.1 of Appendix R references industry standards ANSI C78.375, ANSI C78.81, ANSI C78.901, and ANSI C82.3 for taking measurements of GSFLs. ANSI C78.375 provides general instructions for taking measurements of electrical characteristics of fluorescent lamps. Lamp data sheets with physical and electrical characteristics of fluorescent lamps are provided in ANSI C78.81 (double-ended lamps) and ANSI C78.901 (single-ended lamps). Per section 4.1.1 of Appendix R, GSFLs must be operated by a reference ballast during testing. ANSI C82.3 provides general design and operating characteristics for reference ballasts used to test GSFLs.
DOE's initial review indicates updates mainly provide more detail on how the wattage, voltage and current should be measured in reference circuits in ANSI C78.375A-2014 compared to its 1997 version. ANSI C82.3-2016, compared to its 2002 version, contains updates regarding impedance tolerances, voltage regulation, and instrumentation for taking high frequency measurements. DOE requests comments on referencing the updated versions of ANSI C78.375 and ANSI C82.3.
In the latest versions of ANSI C78.81 and ANSI C78.901, DOE has identified new lamp datasheets and updates to existing lamp datasheets for certain GSFLs. A lamp data sheet provides the physical and electrical characteristics needed to appropriately operate a lamp including starting method and the input voltage, current, and impedance of the reference ballast on which the lamp should be tested. For some lamps, the updated standard now specifies only high frequency reference ballast settings, whereas previously low frequency settings were provided. Because cathode heat is not utilized at high frequency, the lamp efficacy would likely increase during high frequency operation compared to low frequency operation. DOE's test procedures require testing at low frequency unless only high frequency settings are provided. Hence the potential adoption of ANSI C78.81-2016 and ANSI C78.901-2014 would result in certain lamps that were previously tested at low frequency being tested at high frequency, negating the consideration of cathode heat. ANSI C78.81-2016 and/or ANSI C78.901-2014 remove low frequency reference ballast settings and provide only high frequency reference ballast settings for the following lamps: 32 Watt (W), 48-Inch T8 lamp; 32 W U-shaped lamp, 6-Inch Center T8 lamp; 31 W, U-shaped, 1-
Additionally, DOE has determined that for certain lamps other reference ballast characteristics (
Section 4.4.1 of appendix R describes test methods for measuring coloring rendering index (CRI) and correlated color temperature (CCT). It states that the required spectroradiometric measurement and characterization shall be conducted in accordance with IES LM-58.
IES LM-45 provides methods for taking electrical and photometric measurements of GSILs. Sections 3.2, 4.2.1, and 4.2.2 of appendix R specify that, for GSILs, test conditions, methods, and measurements be in accordance with IES LM-45. DOE's initial review indicates that changes in IES LM-45-2015, compared to its 2009 version, include various clarification updates regarding the impact of lamp polarity on light output and changes to certain tolerances (
IES LM-49
IES LM-20
Appendix R specifies lamps shall be operated at the rated voltage as defined in 10 CFR 430.2 for measurements of GSILs (see section 4.2.1) and IRLs (see section 4.3.1). Previously, DOE had required the test voltage for incandescent lamps to be 120 V. However, DOE received comments that lamps designed to be operated at higher voltages (
(1) The design voltage if the design voltage is 115 V, 130 V or between 115V and 130 V;
(2) 115 V if the design voltage is less than 115 V and greater than or equal to 100 V and the lamp can operate at 115 V; and
(3) 130 V if the design voltage is greater than 130 V and less than or equal to 150 V and the lamp can operate at 130 V.
(1) The voltage marked as the intended operating voltage;
(2) The mid-point of the voltage range if the lamp is marked with a voltage range; or
(3) 120 V if the lamp is not marked with a voltage or voltage range. 10 CFR 430.2
DOE noted in its final rule that this approach provided for testing incandescent lamps at a known voltage for certification while accommodating the FTC requirements for labeling, which allow testing and labeling at the design voltage. 62 FR 29232.
DOE would like feedback on simplifying the test voltage requirements for incandescent lamps and aligning them, to the extent possible, with DOE test procedure requirements for other lamp types such as compact fluorescent lamps (CFLs) and integrated light-emitting-diodes (LED) lamps. Those test procedures require that CFLs and LED lamps be tested at the voltage marked on the lamp as the intended operating voltage and if no voltage is marked to test at 120 V; if multiple voltages are marked including 120 V to test at 120 V, and if multiple voltages are marked not including 120 V to test at the highest voltage. DOE requests comments on modifying the required test voltage for incandescent lamps.
To the extent possible DOE would like to harmonize its test procedures for taking photometric measurements for lamps. For example, DOE test procedures for CFLs and integrated LED lamps prescribe the use of an integrating sphere method and disallow the use of goniophotometer. DOE requests comments on allowing only the integrating sphere method and not the goniophotometer method for testing of GSFLs, GSILs, and IRLs, particularly comments regarding accuracy and test burden.
For IRLs, section 4.3.2 of appendix R states that lumen output may be measured in an integrating sphere or from an average intensity distribution curve as specified in IES LM-20. DOE requests comments on how frequently industry uses the average intensity distribution curve method to take total lumen output measurements for IRLs.
For taking lumen output measurements of GSFLs, DOE's test procedure currently references IES LM-9-2009. Section 6.3 of IES LM-9 describes the use of a “peak lumen” method which allows measurements at peak light output which are adjusted by a correction factor, a ratio of the stabilized lumens to the peak lumens developed specifically for that lamp type. DOE requests feedback on how frequently industry uses the peak lumen method to take measurements for GSFLs.
In addition to the issues identified earlier in this document, DOE welcomes comment on any other aspect of the existing test procedures for GSFLs, GSILs, and IRLs not already addressed by the specific areas identified in this document. DOE particularly seeks information that would improve the repeatability, reproducibility, and consumer representativeness of the test procedures. DOE also requests information that would help DOE create procedures that would limit manufacturer test burden through streamlining or simplifying testing requirements. Comments regarding the repeatability and reproducibility are also welcome.
DOE also requests feedback on any potential amendments to the existing test procedures that could be considered to address impacts on manufacturers, including small businesses. Regarding the Federal test method, DOE seeks comment on the degree to which the DOE test procedures should consider and be harmonized with the most recent relevant industry standards for GSFLs, GSILs, and IRLs, and whether there are any changes to the Federal test methods that would provide additional benefits to the public.
DOE requests comment on whether the existing test procedures limit a manufacturer's ability to provide additional features to consumers on GSFLs, GSILs, and IRLs. DOE particularly seeks information on how the test procedures could be amended to reduce the cost of new or additional features and make it more likely that such features are included on GSFLs, GSILs, and IRLs.
DOE invites all interested parties to submit in writing by September 7, 2017, comments and information on matters addressed in this notice and on other matters relevant to DOE's consideration of amended test procedures for GSFLs, GSILs, and IRLs.
Submitting comments via
However, your contact information will be publicly viewable if you include it in the comment or in any documents attached to your comment. Any information that you do not want to be publicly viewable should not be included in your comment, nor in any document attached to your comment. Persons viewing comments will see only first and last names, organization names, correspondence containing comments, and any documents submitted with the comments.
Do not submit to
DOE processes submissions made through
Submitting comments via email, hand delivery, or mail. Comments and documents submitted via email, hand delivery, or mail also will be posted to
Include contact information each time you submit comments, data, documents, and other information to DOE. If you submit via mail or hand delivery, please provide all items on a CD, if feasible. It is not necessary to submit printed copies. No facsimiles (faxes) will be accepted.
Comments, data, and other information submitted to DOE electronically should be provided in PDF (preferred), Microsoft Word or Excel, WordPerfect, or text (ASCII) file format. Provide documents that are not secured, written in English and free of any defects or viruses. Documents should not contain special characters or any form of encryption and, if possible, they should carry the electronic signature of the author.
Campaign form letters. Please submit campaign form letters by the originating organization in batches of between 50 to 500 form letters per PDF or as one form letter with a list of supporters' names compiled into one or more PDFs. This reduces comment processing and posting time.
Confidential Business Information. According to 10 CFR 1004.11, any person submitting information that he or she believes to be confidential and exempt by law from public disclosure should submit via email, postal mail, or hand delivery two well-marked copies: One copy of the document marked confidential including all the information believed to be confidential, and one copy of the document marked non-confidential with the information believed to be confidential deleted. Submit these documents via email or on a CD, if feasible. DOE will make its own determination about the confidential status of the information and treat it according to its determination.
Factors of interest to DOE when evaluating requests to treat submitted information as confidential include (1) a description of the items, (2) whether and why such items are customarily treated as confidential within the industry, (3) whether the information is generally known by or available from other sources, (4) whether the information has previously been made available to others without obligation concerning its confidentiality, (5) an explanation of the competitive injury to the submitting person which would result from public disclosure, (6) when such information might lose its confidential character due to the passage of time, and (7) why disclosure of the information would be contrary to the public interest.
It is DOE's policy that all comments may be included in the public docket, without change and as received, including any personal information provided in the comments (except information deemed to be exempt from public disclosure).
DOE considers public participation to be a very important part of the process for developing test procedures. DOE actively encourages the participation and interaction of the public during the comment period in each stage of this process. Interactions with and between members of the public provide a balanced discussion of the issues and assist DOE in this process. Anyone who wishes to be added to the DOE mailing list to receive future notices and information about this RFI may do so at
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Commission is announcing a recent filing requesting that the Commission initiate an informal rulemaking proceeding to consider changes to an analytical method for use in periodic reporting (Proposal Eight). This document informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
On July 31, 2017, the Postal Service filed a petition pursuant to 39 CFR 3050.11 requesting that the Commission initiate a rulemaking proceeding to consider changes to analytical principles relating to periodic reports and compliance determinations.
The Postal Service explains that, since the passage of the Postal Accountability and Enhancement Act (PAEA) in 2006, it has been applying the “60 percent rule” codified in 39 U.S.C. 3626(a)(6)(A), to USPS Marketing Mail (formerly Standard Mail) overall. Petition, Proposal Eight at 1. It now proposes to return to its pre-PAEA application of the 60 percent rule at the subclass level,
The Postal Service states that, although application at the class level was simpler, it also had the unintended effect of giving relative price relief to Nonprofit mail. Because Nonprofit mail is less concentrated in USPS Marketing Mail ECR, both USPS Regular and USPS ECR generate a lower average revenue per piece ratio than USPS Marketing Mail overall.
The Commission establishes Docket No. RM2017-12 for consideration of matters raised by the Petition. More information on the Petition may be accessed via the Commission's Web site at
1. The Commission establishes Docket No. RM2017-12 for consideration of the matters raised by the Petition of the United States Postal Service for the Initiation of a Proceeding to Consider Proposed Changes in Analytical Principles (Proposal Eight), filed July 31, 2017.
2. Comments by interested persons in this proceeding are due no later than September 18, 2017.
3. Pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505, the Commission appoints Richard A. Oliver to serve as an officer of the Commission (Public Representative) to represent the interests of the general public in this docket.
4. The Secretary shall arrange for publication of this order in the
By the Commission.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a portion of the State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by Mississippi, through the Mississippi Department of Environmental Quality (MDEQ), Office of Pollution Control, on June 7, 2016. Specifically, this action proposes to approve the portion of the SIP revision making changes to Mississippi's Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) program by modifying the incorporating by reference (IBR) date for the Federal PSD regulations promulgated by EPA. This proposed SIP revision will modify the existing Greenhouse Gas (GHG) PSD permitting program and incorporates provisions related to the 1997, 2006 and 2012 fine particulate matter (PM
Written comments must be received on or before September 7, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2017-0188 at
Andres Febres of the Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Febres can be reached via telephone at (404) 562-8966 or via electronic mail at
In the Final Rules Section of this
Advance notice of proposed rulemaking; withdrawal.
The Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) and Federal Railroad Administration (FRA) (collectively, the Agencies) withdraw the March 10, 2016, advance notice of proposed rulemaking (ANPRM) concerning the prevalence of moderate-to-severe obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) among individuals occupying safety sensitive positions in highway and rail transportation, and its potential consequences for the safety of highway and rail transportation. The Agencies have determined not to issue a notice of proposed rulemaking at this time.
As of August 8, 2017 the ANPRM published on March 10, 2016, at 81 FR 12642 is withdrawn.
If you have questions about viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Docket Services, telephone 202-493-0402.
Based on the potential severity of OSA-related transportation incidents and crashes/accidents, and the varied, non-regulatory, OSA-related actions the Department's Operating Administrations have taken to date, the Agencies issued a joint ANPRM to consider regulatory action to ensure consistency in addressing the risk of OSA among transportation workers with safety sensitive duties (81 FR 12642, March 10, 2016). The Agencies sought information from interested parties regarding OSA to better inform their decision on whether to take regulatory action and, if so, how to craft the most effective and efficient regulations to address the potential safety risks associated with untreated OSA.
The information requested in the ANPRM seemed to be necessary to help the Agencies quantify the potential economic benefits and costs of adopting standards to assess risks associated with motor carrier and rail transportation workers in safety sensitive positions diagnosed with OSA. To gather relevant data, the Agencies posed a series of questions addressing the following matters:
• Whether OSA is a problem among individuals occupying safety sensitive positions in highway and rail transportation;
• Cost and benefits of regulatory actions that address the safety risks associated with motor carrier and rail transportation workers in safety sensitive positions who have OSA;
• Qualifications and restrictions for medical personnel; and
• Treatment effectiveness.
The Agencies also sought information at three listening sessions in May 2016, and extended the comment period by thirty days to review the results from the American Transportation Research Institute (ATRI) Commercial Driver Survey on Sleep Apnea Issues (
OSA remains an on-going concern for the Agencies and the motor carrier and railroad industries because it can cause unintended sleep episodes and resulting deficits in attention, concentration, situational awareness, and memory, thus reducing the capacity to safely respond to hazards when performing safety sensitive duties. The Agencies received valuable information in response to the ANPRM and a series of public listening sessions in May 2016. The Agencies believe that current safety
FMCSA will consider an update to its January 2015 “Bulletin to Medical Examiners and Training Organizations Regarding Obstructive Sleep Apnea” regarding the physical qualifications standard and related advisory criteria concerning respiratory dysfunction, specifically how the standard applies to drivers who may have OSA. The Agency would use the updated August 2016 Medical Review Board
In addition, FMCSA will continue to recommend that drivers and their employers use the North American Fatigue Management Program (NAFMP) (
On September 21, 2004, FRA issued Safety Advisory 2004-04 to alert the railroad industry, and especially those employees with safety sensitive duties, to the danger associated with degradation of performance resulting from undiagnosed or unsuccessfully treated sleep disorders (69 FR 58995, Oct. 1, 2004). That Safety Advisory set forth recommended actions regarding OSA, which FRA reiterated in Safety Advisory 2016-03 (81 FR 87649, Dec. 5, 2016). Additionally, FRA is aware several railroads are implementing OSA identification and treatment programs. FRA anticipates these programs will identify best practices for OSA screening, diagnosis, treatment, and mitigation. These programs will help identify the current and future needs of the industry, potential costs, and help define FRA's role in addressing OSA in the railroad industry. In addition, under the Rail Safety Improvement Act of 2008 (RSIA), railroads must establish a fatigue management plan as part of their Risk Reduction Program (RRP) or System Safety Program (SSP) (49 U.S.C. 20156(f)). RSIA requires a railroad to consider the need to include in its fatigue management plan “opportunities for identification, diagnosis, and treatment of any medical condition that may affect alertness or fatigue, including sleep disorders.” (
Based on the foregoing reasons, the Agencies withdraw the March 2016 ANPRM entitled “Evaluation of Safety Sensitive Personnel for Moderate-to-Severe Obstructive Sleep Apnea.” If FRA or FMCSA determines further action to be necessary, it will consider regulatory action.
Agricultural Research Service, USDA.
Notice of intent.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. Department of Agriculture, Agricultural Research Service, intends to grant to Zoetis, LLC, of Kalamazoo, Michigan, an exclusive license to U.S. Patent No. 8,765,141, “DEVELOPMENT OF A MARKER FOOT AND MOUTH DISEASE VIRUS VACCINE CANDIDATE THAT IS ATTENUATED IN THE NATURAL HOST”, issued on July 1, 2014, and U.S. Patent No. 9,180,179, “DEVELOPMENT OF A MARKER FOOT AND MOUTH DISEASE VIRUS VACCINE CANDIDATE THAT IS ATTENUATED IN THE NATURAL HOST”, issued on November 10, 2015.
Comments must be received on or before August 23, 2017.
Send comments to: USDA, ARS, Office of Technology Transfer, 5601 Sunnyside Avenue, Rm. 4-1174, Beltsville, Maryland 20705-5131.
Brian T. Nakanishi of the Office of Technology Transfer at the Beltsville address given above; telephone: 301-504-5989.
The Federal Government's patent rights in these inventions are assigned to the United States of America, as represented by the Secretary of Agriculture. It is in the public interest to so license these inventions as Zoetis, LLC, of Kalamazoo, Michigan, has submitted a complete and sufficient application for a license. The prospective exclusive license will be royalty-bearing and will comply with the terms and conditions of 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR 404.7. The prospective exclusive license may be granted unless, within fifteen (15) days from the date of this published Notice, the Agricultural Research Service receives written evidence and argument which establishes that the grant of the license would not be consistent with the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR 404.7.
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this information collection received by September 7, 2017 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20502. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
This information will help the United States detect trends in the management, production, and health status of the Nation's beef industry over time.
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this information collection received by September 7, 2017 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725—17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20502. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Notice.
We are advising the public of our decision to concur with the World Organization for Animal Health's (OIE) bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) risk designations for seven regions. The OIE recognizes these regions as being of negligible risk for BSE. We are taking this action based on our review of information supporting the OIE's risk designations for these regions.
Dr. Roberta Morales, Senior Staff Veterinarian, Regionalization Evaluation Services, National Import Export Services, VS, APHIS, 920 Main Campus Drive, Suite 200, Raleigh, NC 27606; (919) 855-7735.
The regulations in 9 CFR part 92 subpart B, “Importation of Animals and Animal Products; Procedures for Requesting BSE Risk Status Classification With Regard to Bovines” (referred to below as the regulations), set forth the process by which the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) classifies regions for bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) risk. Section 92.5 of the regulations provides that all countries of the world are considered by APHIS to be in one of three BSE risk categories: Negligible risk, controlled risk, or undetermined risk. These risk categories are defined in § 92.1. Any region that is not classified by APHIS as presenting either negligible risk or controlled risk for BSE is considered to present an undetermined risk. The list of those regions classified by APHIS as having either negligible risk or controlled risk can be accessed on the APHIS Web site at
Under the regulations, APHIS may classify a region for BSE in one of two ways. One way is for countries that have
If the OIE has recognized a country as either BSE negligible risk or BSE controlled risk, APHIS will seek information to support our concurrence with the OIE classification. This information may be publicly available information, or APHIS may request that countries supply the same information given to the OIE. APHIS will announce in the
In accordance with that process, we published a notice
The commenter expressed concern that there is no process for verifying whether ruminant-to-ruminant feed bans are effectively enforced.
As part of its risk assessment process, the OIE considers the likelihood that the BSE agent either could be introduced into or spread within a country through contaminated commodities, including animal feed and feed ingredients. They consider both the production of processed animal proteins from domestic livestock, and the use of imported processed animal proteins, animal feed, and feed ingredients when assessing that risk. APHIS reviews similar information before concurring with the OIE designation.
Once recognized as either negligible or controlled risk for BSE by the OIE, a country must submit data on surveillance results and feed controls for the previous 12 months annually to maintain that status. If a country fails to provide that data in a timely manner, or the data shows changes that increase the risk of BSE introduction or spread, the country's risk designation may be changed. In the event that a country's risk status is demoted by the OIE, APHIS would also change its risk designation for the country.
Within the United States, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is the Federal agency responsible for regulating animal feed. The FDA has established regulations in 21 CFR part 589 that prohibit mammalian protein in ruminant feed (which includes a ruminant-to-ruminant feed ban) and the use of tissues that have the highest risk for carrying the BSE agent in all animal feed. These high risk cattle materials, known as specified risk materials (SRM), include the brains and spinal cords from cattle 30 months of age and older.
To assess and monitor for compliance with the feed ban, the FDA established the ruminant feed ban inspection program and guidance to assist both the FDA and State investigators. Feed mill and rendering plant inspections conducted since 1998 indicate a very high level of compliance with the feed ban. Summaries of inspections can be viewed on the FDA Web site at
The commenter also expressed concern that products from cattle slaughtered at 36 months of age pose a health risk to consumers.
The commenter is correct that certain bovine products and live cattle from specific countries with a higher risk of BSE release may carry BSE infectivity and therefore present a health risk to consumers if no measures are taken to mitigate that risk. For this reason, the OIE also describes specific requirements for certain commodities originating from regions of controlled and undetermined risk.
APHIS regulations require implementation of and compliance with very similar requirements for both live bovines and bovine commodities in a region before we concur with the OIE's BSE risk designation. These requirements mitigate the risk of exposure to a negligible level. Therefore, countries with either controlled or undetermined risk statuses must demonstrate that they have the authority to conduct oversight of the compliance with such requirements.
Therefore, in accordance with the regulations in § 92.5, we are announcing our decision to concur with the OIE risk classifications of the following countries:
• Regions of negligible risk for BSE: Costa Rica, Germany, Lithuania, Mexico, Namibia, Romania, and Spain.
7 U.S.C. 1622 and 8301-8317; 21 U.S.C. 136 and 136a; 31 U.S.C. 9701; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.4.
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Notice of availability and request for comments.
We are advising the public that we have determined that it is necessary to immediately add to the Plant Protection and Quarantine Treatment Manual two new chemical treatments for targeting regulated pests in the cargo holds of aircraft. We have prepared a treatment evaluation document that describes the new treatment schedules and explains why we have determined that they are effective at neutralizing certain target pests. We are making the treatment evaluation document available to the public for review and comment.
We will consider all comments that we receive on or before October 10, 2017.
You may submit comments by either of the following methods:
•
•
Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at
Mr. George Balady, Senior Regulatory Policy Specialist, PPQ, APHIS, 4700 River Road, Unit 133, Riverdale, MD 20737-1231; (301) 851-2240.
The regulations in 7 CFR chapter III are intended, among other things, to prevent the introduction or dissemination of plant pests and noxious weeds into or within the United States. Under the regulations, certain plants, fruits, vegetables, and other articles must be treated before they may be moved into the United States or interstate. The phytosanitary treatments regulations contained in part 305 of 7 CFR chapter III (referred to below as the regulations) set out standards for treatments required in parts 301, 318, and 319 of 7 CFR chapter III for fruits, vegetables, and other articles.
In § 305.2, paragraph (b) states that approved treatment schedules are set out in the Plant Protection and Quarantine (PPQ) Treatment Manual.
• PPQ has determined that an approved treatment schedule is ineffective at neutralizing the targeted plant pest(s).
• PPQ has determined that, in order to neutralize the targeted plant pest(s), the treatment schedule must be administered using a different process than was previously used.
• PPQ has determined that a new treatment schedule is effective, based on efficacy data, and that ongoing trade in a commodity or commodities may be adversely impacted unless the new treatment schedule is approved for use.
• The use of a treatment schedule is no longer authorized by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency or by any other Federal entity.
In accordance with § 305.3(b)(1), we are providing notice that we have determined that it is necessary to add two new treatments to the PPQ Treatment Manual: T409-a, a surface spray with deltamethrin 4.75 percent active ingredient to mitigate the risk of Khapra beetle on aircraft; and T409-b-3, an aerosol spray with `1-Shot' treatment containing 2 percent d-phenothrin and 2 percent permethrin to mitigate the risk of Japanese beetle and other hitchhiking pests, except Khapra beetle, on aircraft.
To accommodate the addition of treatment T409-b-3, we have redesignated treatment schedule T409-b as T409-b-1.
The reasons for these additions to the treatment manual are described in detail in the treatment evaluation document (TED) we have prepared to support this action. The TED may be viewed on the
After reviewing the comments we receive, we will announce our decision regarding the new treatment schedules described in the TED in a subsequent notice. If we do not receive any comments, or the comments we receive do not change our determination that the proposed changes are effective, we will affirm these changes to the PPQ Treatment Manual and make available a new version of the PPQ Treatment Manual reflecting these changes. If we receive comments that cause us to determine that additional changes need to be made to one or more of the treatment schedules discussed above, we will make available a new version of the PPQ Treatment Manual that reflects the changes.
7 U.S.C. 7701-7772 and 7781-7786; 21 U.S.C. 136 and 136a; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.3.
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Notice of availability.
We are advising the public that we are proposing to recognize Mexico as free of classical swine fever, subject to conditions in the regulations governing the importation of live swine, pork, and pork products from certain regions into the United States. We are proposing this action based on a risk evaluation that we have prepared in connection with this action and that we are making available to the public for review and comment.
We will consider all comments that we receive on or before October 10, 2017.
You may submit comments by either of the following methods:
•
•
Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at
Dr. Chip Wells, Senior Staff Veterinarian, Regionalization Evaluation Services, National Import Export Services, VS, APHIS, USDA, 4700 River Road, Unit 38, Riverdale, MD 20737-1231;
The Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) of the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) regulates the importation of animals and animal products into the United States
APHIS currently recognizes nine Mexican States as free of CSF: Baja California, Baja California Sur, Campeche, Chihuahua, Nayarit, Quintana Roo, Sinaloa, Sonora, and Yucatan. Because of the proximity of those nine States to CSF-affected regions and/or other risk factors, however, their live swine, pork, and pork products may only be imported into the United States under the conditions specified in § 94.32. These conditions include, among others, a requirement for certification by a full-time salaried veterinary officer of the national government of the region of export that the pork or pork products originated in a CSF-free region, requirements that the pork or pork products be derived only from swine that were born and raised in such a region and never lived in a CSF-affected region, a prohibition against the comingling of the pork or pork products with pork or pork products that have been in an affected region, and a requirement that any processing of the pork or pork products be done in a federally inspected processing plant in a CSF-free region.
The regulations in 9 CFR part 92, § 92.2, contain requirements for requesting the recognition of the animal health status of a region (as well as for the approval of the export of a particular type of animal or animal product to the United States from a foreign region). If, after review and evaluation of the information submitted in support of the request, APHIS believes the request can be safely granted, APHIS will make its evaluation available for public comment through a document published in the
Between 2007 and 2009, the Government of Mexico submitted a series of requests to APHIS seeking recognition of additional States as CSF-free. The last of those requests, submitted in January 2009, after the Government of Mexico had declared that CSF had been eradicated in the country, was for APHIS to recognize all of Mexico as CSF-free.
In response to these requests, we conducted a qualitative risk evaluation to evaluate the CSF status of the Mexican States not already recognized by APHIS as CSF-free. This evaluation included site visits to farms and diagnostic laboratories, as well as examinations of Mexico's capabilities with respect to veterinary control and oversight, disease history and vaccination, livestock demographics and traceability, epidemiological separation from potential sources of infection, disease surveillance, diagnostic laboratory capabilities, and emergency preparedness and response. The resulting risk evaluation document, “APHIS Evaluation of the CSF Status of a Region in Mexico” (referred to below as the “2013 risk evaluation”), did not support CSF-free recognition of all of Mexico; however, it did support access to the U.S. domestic market under certain risk-mitigating conditions.
Based on the findings of the 2013 risk evaluation, on July 29, 2014, we published in the
In February 2015, Mexico received notice that the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE) recognized the country as CSF-free. Citing the OIE decision, the Government of Mexico then requested that APHIS suspend its rulemaking and instead continue evaluating Mexico for CSF-free status.
In response to this request, APHIS reopened its evaluation of the CSF status of Mexico. This reevaluation incorporated findings from a 2015 APHIS site visit report, along with updated surveillance data and information submitted by Mexico. These findings are documented in an April 2016 addendum to the 2013 risk evaluation.
Based on improved conditions observed through the end of 2015, APHIS has determined that concerns identified in the 2013 risk evaluation that had supported the July 2014 proposed rule have been addressed and that conditions now support CSF-free recognition for all of Mexico. Additionally, our determinations support including the entire country of Mexico on the Web-based list
Therefore, in accordance with § 92.2(e), we are announcing the availability of our updated risk evaluation of the CSF status of Mexico for public review and comment. The risk evaluation may be viewed on the
Information submitted in support of Mexico's request is available by contacting the person listed under
After reviewing any comments we receive, we will announce our decision regarding the CSF status of Mexico and the import status of live swine, pork, and pork products from that country in a subsequent notice.
7 U.S.C. 450, 7701-7772, 7781-7786, and 8301-8317; 21 U.S.C. 136 and 136a; 31 U.S.C. 9701; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.4.
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Notice of availability.
We are advising the public that the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service has prepared an environmental assessment concerning authorization to ship for the purposes of field testing, and then to field test, an unlicensed Bursal Disease-Marek's Disease Vaccine, Serotype 3, Live Marek's Disease Vector. Based on the environmental assessment, risk analysis, and other relevant data, we have reached a preliminary determination that field testing this veterinary vaccine will not have a significant impact on the quality of the human environment. We are making the documents available to the public for review and comment.
We will consider all comments that we receive on or before September 7, 2017.
You may submit comments by either of the following methods:
•
•
Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at
Dr. Donna Malloy, Operational Support Section, Center for Veterinary Biologics, Policy, Evaluation, and Licensing, VS, APHIS, 4700 River Road Unit 148, Riverdale, MD 20737-1231; (301) 851-3426, fax (301) 734-4314.
For information regarding the environmental assessment or the risk analysis, or to request a copy of the environmental assessment (as well as the risk analysis with confidential business information redacted), contact Dr. Patricia L. Foley, Risk Manager, Center for Veterinary Biologics, Policy, Evaluation, and Licensing, VS, APHIS, 1920 Dayton Avenue, P.O. Box 844, Ames, IA 50010; phone (515) 337-6100, fax (515) 337-6120.
Under the Virus-Serum-Toxin Act (21 U.S.C. 151
APHIS issues licenses to qualified establishments that produce veterinary biological products and issues permits to importers of such products. APHIS also enforces requirements concerning production, packaging, labeling, and shipping of these products and sets standards for the testing of these products. Regulations concerning veterinary biological products are contained in 9 CFR parts 101 to 124.
A field test is generally necessary to satisfy prelicensing requirements for veterinary biological products. Prior to conducting a field test on an unlicensed product, an applicant must obtain approval from APHIS, as well as obtain APHIS' authorization to ship the product for field testing.
To determine whether to authorize shipment and grant approval for the field testing of the unlicensed product referenced in this notice, APHIS considers the potential effects of this product on the safety of animals, public health, and the environment. Based upon a risk analysis and other relevant data, APHIS has prepared an environmental assessment (EA) concerning the field testing of the following unlicensed veterinary biological product:
The above-mentioned product is a live Marek's Disease serotype 3 vaccine virus containing a gene from the infectious bursal disease virus. The attenuated vaccine is intended for use in healthy 18-day-old or older chicken embryos by the
The EA has been prepared in accordance with: (1) The National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), as amended (42 U.S.C. 4321
We are publishing this notice to inform the public that we will accept written comments regarding the EA from interested or affected persons for a period of 30 days from the date of this notice. Unless substantial issues with adverse environmental impacts are raised in response to this notice, APHIS intends to issue a finding of no significant impact (FONSI) based on the EA and authorize shipment of the above product for the initiation of field tests following the close of the comment period for this notice.
Because the issues raised by field testing and by issuance of a license are identical, APHIS has concluded that the EA that is generated for field testing would also be applicable to the proposed licensing action. Provided that the field test data support the conclusions of the original EA and the issuance of a FONSI, APHIS does not intend to issue a separate EA and FONSI to support the issuance of the associated product license, and would determine that an environmental impact statement need not be prepared. APHIS intends to issue a veterinary biological product license for this vaccine following satisfactory completion of the field test, provided no adverse impacts on the human environment are identified and provided the product meets all other requirements for licensing.
21 U.S.C. 151-159.
Rural Business-Cooperative Service, USDA.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice announces the Rural Business-Cooperative Service intention to request an extension for a currently approved information collection in support of the Repowering Assistance Program (OMB No. 0570-0066).
Comments on this notice must be received by October 10, 2017.
Contact Todd Hubbell, Technology Branch Chief, Energy Programs, Repowering Assistance Program, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Room 6901, Washington, DC 20250. Telephone: 202-690-2516. Email:
Copies of this information collection can be obtained from Jeanne Jacobs, Regulations and Paperwork Management Division, at (202) 692-0040.
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act that the Georgia Advisory Committee will hold a meeting on Tuesday, August 29, 2017, for continuing the discussion of project implementation.
The meeting will be held on Tuesday August 29, 2017 at 12:00 p.m. EST.
The meeting will be held via teleconference. Toll-free call-in number: 877-874-1565, conference ID: 9651290.
Jeffrey Hinton, DFO, at
Members of the public can listen to the discussion. This meeting is available to the public through the following toll-free call-in number: 877-874-1565, conference ID: 9651290. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. Callers can expect to incur charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-977-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Members of the public are also entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office by August 25, 2017. Written comments may be mailed to the Southern Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 61 Forsyth Street, Suite 16T126, Atlanta, GA 30303. They may also be faxed to the Commission at (404) 562-7005, or emailed to Regional Director, Jeffrey Hinton at
Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Southern Regional Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meeting will be available via
The Department of Commerce (DOC) will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
Economic Development Administration, Department of Commerce.
Notice and opportunity for public comment.
Pursuant to Section 251 of the Trade Act 1974, as amended (19 U.S.C. 2341
Any party having a substantial interest in these proceedings may request a public hearing on the matter. A written request for a hearing must be submitted to the Trade Adjustment Assistance for Firms Division, Room 71030, Economic Development Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, Washington, DC 20230, no later than ten (10) calendar days following publication of this notice.
Please follow the requirements set forth in EDA's regulations at 13 CFR 315.9 for procedures to request a public hearing. The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance official number and title for the program under which these petitions are submitted is 11.313, Trade Adjustment Assistance for Firms.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Applicable August 8, 2017.
Yasmin Bordas at (202) 482-3813 (People's Republic of China (PRC)); Trisha Tran at (202) 482-4852 (India), AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
On June 20, 2017, the Department of Commerce (the Department) initiated countervailing duty (CVD) investigations of imports of fine denier polyester fiber (fine denier PSF) from the PRC and India.
Section 703(b)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), requires the Department to issue the preliminary determination in a countervailing duty investigation within 65 days after the date on which the Department initiated the investigation. However, section 703(c)(1) of the Act permits the Department to postpone the preliminary determination until no later than 130 days after the date on which the Department initiated the investigation if: (A) The petitioners makes a timely request for a postponement; or (B) the Department concludes that the parties concerned are cooperating, and determines that the investigation is extraordinarily complicated, and that additional time is necessary to make a preliminary determination. Under 19 CFR 351.205(e), the petitioner must submit a request for postponement 25 days or more before the scheduled date of the preliminary determination and must state the reasons for the request. The Department will grant the request unless it finds compelling reasons to deny the request.
On July 26, 2017, the petitioners
In accordance with 19 CFR 351.205(e), the petitioners have stated the reasons for requesting a postponement of the preliminary determinations, and the Department finds no compelling reason to deny the request. Therefore, in accordance with section 703(c)(1)(A) of the Act, the Department is postponing the deadline for the preliminary determinations to no later than 130 days after the date on which these investigations were initiated,
This notice is issued and published pursuant to section 703(c)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(f)(1).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Applicable August 2, 2017.
Dennis McClure at (202) 482-5973, AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement & Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
On July 13, 2017, the Department of Commerce (the Department) received a countervailing duty (CVD) petition concerning imports of cast iron soil pipe fittings (soil pipe fittings) from the People's Republic of China (PRC), filed in proper form, on behalf of the Cast Iron Soil Pipe Institute (the petitioner).
On July 17, 2017, the petitioner filed an amendment to Volume I of the Petition.
In accordance with section 702(b)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), the petitioner alleges that the Government of the PRC (GOC) is providing countervailable subsidies, within the meaning of sections 701 and 771(5) of the Act, with respect to imports of soil pipe fittings from the PRC, and that, such imports are materially injuring, or threatening material injury to, an industry in the United States. Also, consistent with section 702(b)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.202(b), for those alleged programs on which we are initiating a CVD investigation, the Petition is accompanied by information reasonably available to the petitioner supporting its allegations.
The Department finds that the petitioner filed the Petition on behalf of the domestic industry because the petitioner is an interested party as defined in section 771(9)(E) of the Act. The Department also finds that the petitioner demonstrated sufficient industry support with respect to the initiation of the CVD investigation that the petitioner is requesting.
Because the Petition was filed on July 13, 2017, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.204(b)(2), the period of investigation is January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016.
The product covered by this investigation is soil pipe fittings from the PRC. For a full description of the scope of this investigation,
During our review of the Petition, we discussed with the petitioner the language pertaining to the proposed scope to ensure that the scope language in the Petition would be an accurate reflection of the products for which the domestic industry is seeking relief.
As discussed in the preamble to the Department's regulations,
The Department requests that any factual information the parties consider relevant to the scope of the investigation be submitted during this time period. However, if a party subsequently finds that additional factual information pertaining to the scope of the investigation may be relevant, the party may contact the Department and request permission to submit the additional information. As stated above, all such comments must be filed on the record of each of the concurrent AD and CVD investigations.
All submissions to the Department must be filed electronically using Enforcement & Compliance's Antidumping Duty and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS).
Pursuant to section 702(b)(4)(A) of the Act, the Department notified representatives of the GOC of the receipt of the Petition, and provided them the opportunity for consultations with respect to the CVD Petition.
Section 702(b)(1) of the Act requires that a petition be filed on behalf of the domestic industry. Section 702(c)(4)(A) of the Act provides that a petition meets this requirement if the domestic producers or workers who support the petition account for: (i) At least 25 percent of the total production of the domestic like product; and (ii) more than 50 percent of the production of the domestic like product produced by that portion of the industry expressing support for, or opposition to, the petition. Moreover, section 702(c)(4)(D) of the Act provides that, if the petition does not establish support of domestic producers or workers accounting for more than 50 percent of the total production of the domestic like product, the Department shall: (i) Poll the industry or rely on other information in order to determine if there is support for the petition, as required by subparagraph (A); or (ii) determine industry support using a statistically valid sampling method to poll the “industry.”
Section 771(4)(A) of the Act defines the “industry” as the producers as a whole of a domestic like product. Thus, to determine whether a petition has the requisite industry support, the statute directs the Department to look to producers and workers who produce the domestic like product. The U.S.
Section 771(10) of the Act defines the domestic like product as “a product which is like, or in the absence of like, most similar in characteristics and uses with, the article subject to an investigation under this title.” Thus, the reference point from which the domestic like product analysis begins is “the article subject to an investigation” (
With regard to the domestic like product, the petitioner does not offer a definition of the domestic like product distinct from the scope of the investigation. Based on our analysis of the information submitted on the record, we have determined that soil pipe fittings, as defined in the scope, constitute a single domestic like product, and we have analyzed industry support in terms of that domestic like product.
In determining whether the petitioner has standing under section 702(c)(4)(A) of the Act, we considered the industry support data contained in the Petition and the petitioner's subsequent submissions with reference to the domestic like product as defined in the “Scope of the Investigation,” in the Appendix to this notice. The petitioner provided the 2016 production of the domestic like product by its members.
Our review of the data provided in the Petition, Petition Amendment, General Issues Supplement, and other information readily available to the Department indicates that the petitioner has established industry support for the Petition.
The Department finds that the petitioner filed the Petition on behalf of the domestic industry because it is an interested party as defined in section 771(9)(E) of the Act, and it has demonstrated sufficient industry support with respect to the CVD investigation that it is requesting that the Department initiate.
Because the PRC is a “Subsidies Agreement Country” within the meaning of section 701(b) of the Act, section 701(a)(2) of the Act applies to this investigation. Accordingly, the ITC must determine whether imports of the subject merchandise from the PRC materially injure, or threaten material injury to, a U.S. industry.
The petitioner alleges that imports of the subject merchandise are benefitting from countervailable subsidies and that such imports are causing, or threaten to cause, material injury to the U.S. industry producing the domestic like product. In addition, the petitioner alleges that subject imports exceed the negligibility threshold provided for under section 771(24)(A) of the Act.
The petitioner contends that the industry's injured condition is illustrated by reduced market share; underselling and price depression or suppression; lost sales and revenues; and negative impact on profit.
Section 702(b)(1) of the Act requires the Department to initiate a CVD investigation whenever an interested party files a CVD petition on behalf of an industry that: (1) Alleges the elements necessary for an imposition of a duty under section 701(a) of the Act; and (2) is accompanied by information reasonably available to the petitioner supporting the allegations.
The petitioner alleges that producers/exporters of soil pipe fittings in the PRC benefited from countervailable subsidies bestowed by the GOC. The Department examined the Petition and finds that it complies with the requirements of section 702(b)(1) of the Act. Therefore, in accordance with section 702(b)(1) of the Act, we are initiating a CVD investigation to determine whether manufacturers, producers, and/or exporters of soil pipe fittings from the PRC receive countervailable subsidies from the GOC.
Under the Trade Preferences Extension Act of 2015, numerous amendments to the AD and CVD laws were made.
Based on our review of the Petition, we find that there is sufficient information to initiate a CVD investigation on 32 alleged programs.
In accordance with section 703(b)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(b)(1), unless postponed, we will make our preliminary determination in this investigation no later than 65 days after the date of initiation.
The petitioner named numerous companies as producers/exporters of soil pipe fittings from the PRC. The Department intends to follow its standard practice in CVD investigations and calculate company-specific subsidy rates in this investigation. In the event the Department determines that the number of companies is large and it cannot individually examine each company based upon the Department's resources, where appropriate, the Department intends to select mandatory respondents based on U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) data for U.S. imports of soil pipe fittings from the PRC during the period of investigation under the appropriate Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States number listed in the “Scope of the Investigation,” in the Appendix.
On July 21, 2017, the Department released CBP data under Administrative Protective Order (APO) to all parties with access to information protected by APO and indicated that interested parties wishing to comment regarding the CBP data and respondent selection must do so within three business days of the publication date of the notice of initiation of this CVD investigation.
Interested parties must submit applications for disclosure under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(b). Instructions for filing such applications may be found on the Department's Web site at
Comments for this investigation must be filed electronically using ACCESS. An electronically-filed document must be received successfully in its entirety by the Department's electronic records system, ACCESS, by 5:00 p.m. ET, by the date noted above. We intend to finalize our decision regarding respondent selection within 20 days of publication of this notice.
In accordance with section 702(b)(4)(A)(i) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.202(f), a copy of the public version of the Petition has been provided to the GOC
We will notify the ITC of our initiation, as required by section 702(d) of the Act.
The ITC will preliminarily determine, within 45 days after the date on which the Petition was filed, whether there is a reasonable indication that imports of soil pipe fittings from the PRC are materially injuring, or threatening material injury to, a U.S. industry.
Factual information is defined in 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) as: (i) Evidence submitted in response to questionnaires; (ii) evidence submitted in support of allegations; (iii) publicly available information to value factors under 19 CFR 351.408(c) or to measure the adequacy of remuneration under 19 CFR 351.511(a)(2); (iv) evidence placed on the record by the Department; and (v) evidence other than factual information described in (i) through (iv). The regulation requires any party, when submitting factual information, to specify under which subsection of 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) the information is being submitted and, if the information is submitted to rebut, clarify, or correct factual information already on the record, to provide an explanation identifying the information already on the record that the factual information seeks to rebut, clarify, or correct. Time limits for the submission of factual information are addressed in 19 CFR 351.301, which provides specific time limits based on the type of factual information being submitted. Parties are advised to review the regulations prior to submitting factual information in this investigation.
Parties may request an extension of time limits before the expiration of a time limit established under 19 CFR 351.301, or as otherwise specified by the Secretary. In general, an extension request will be considered untimely if it is filed after the expiration of the time limit established under 19 CFR 351.301. For submissions that are due from multiple parties simultaneously, an extension request will be considered untimely if it is filed after 10:00 a.m. on the due date. Under certain circumstances, we may elect to specify a different time limit by which extension requests will be considered untimely for submissions which are due from multiple parties simultaneously. In such a case, we will inform parties in the letter or memorandum setting forth the deadline (including a specified time) by which extension requests must be filed to be considered timely. An extension request must be made in a separate, stand-alone submission; under limited circumstances we will grant untimely-filed requests for the extension
Any party submitting factual information in an AD or CVD proceeding must certify to the accuracy and completeness of that information.
Interested parties must submit applications for disclosure under Administrative Protective Order (APO) in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305. On January 22, 2008, the Department published
This notice is issued and published pursuant to sections 702 and 777(i) of the Act.
The merchandise covered by this investigation is cast iron soil pipe fittings, finished and unfinished, regardless of industry or proprietary specifications, and regardless of size. Cast iron soil pipe fittings are nonmalleable iron castings of various designs and sizes, including, but not limited to, bends, tees, wyes, traps, drains, and other common or special fittings, with or without side inlets.
Cast iron soil pipe fittings are classified into two major types—hubless and hub and spigot. Hubless cast iron soil pipe fittings are manufactured without a hub, generally in compliance with Cast Iron Soil Pipe Institute (CISPI) specification 301 and/or American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) specification A888. Hub and spigot pipe fittings have hubs into which the spigot (plain end) of the pipe or fitting is inserted. Cast iron soil pipe fittings are generally distinguished from other types of nonmalleable cast iron fittings by the manner in which they are connected to cast iron soil pipe and other fittings.
The subject imports are normally classified in subheading 7307.11.0045 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS): Cast fittings of nonmalleable cast iron for cast iron soil pipe. The HTSUS subheading and specifications are provided for convenience and customs purposes only; the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is rescinding the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on polyester staple fiber (PSF) from the Republic of Korea (Korea), based on the timely withdrawal of requests for review. The period of review (POR) is May 1, 2016, through April 30, 2017.
Effective August 8, 2017.
Toby Vandall, AD/CVD Operations, Office I, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-1664.
On May 1, 2017, the Department published a notice of opportunity to request an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on PSF from Korea for the POR of May 1, 2016, through April 30, 2017.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(l), the Department will rescind an administrative review, in whole or in part, if the party, or parties, that requested a review withdraw the request/s within 90 days of the publication date of the notice of initiation of the requested review. As noted above, the petitioners withdrew their request for review of Toray and Huvis within 90 days of the publication date of the notice of initiation. In addition, Huvis also timely withdrew its request for an administrative review. No other parties requested an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on PSF from Korea. Therefore, in response to the timely withdrawal of requests for review and, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.213(d)(l), the Department is rescinding this review.
The Department will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess antidumping duties on all appropriate entries of PSF from Korea during the POR. Antidumping duties
This notice serves as a final reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
This notice also serves as a final reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under an APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3), which continues to govern the business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
This notice is issued and published in accordance with sections 75l(a)(l) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.213(d)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Applicable August 2, 2017.
Sergio Balbontin at (202) 482-6478 or Denisa Ursu at (202) 482-2285, AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement & Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
On July 13, 2017, the Department of Commerce (the Department) received an antidumping duty (AD) petition concerning imports of cast iron soil pipe fittings (soil pipe fittings) from the People's Republic of China (the PRC), filed in proper form, on behalf of the Cast Iron Soil Pipe Institute (the petitioner).
On July 17, 2017, the petitioner filed an amendment to Volume I of the Petition.
In accordance with section 732(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), the petitioner alleges that imports of soil pipe fittings from the PRC are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value within the meaning of section 731 of the Act, and that, such imports are materially injuring, or threatening material injury to, an industry in the United States. Also, consistent with section 732(b)(1) of the Act, the Petition is accompanied by information reasonably available to the petitioner supporting its allegations.
The Department finds that the petitioner filed the Petition on behalf of the domestic industry because the petitioner is an interested party as defined in section 771(9)(E) of the Act. The Department also finds that the petitioner demonstrated sufficient industry support with respect to the initiation of the AD investigation that the petitioner is requesting.
Because the Petition was filed on July 13, 2017, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.204(b)(1), the period of investigation (POI) is January 1, 2017, through June 30, 2017.
The product covered by this investigation is soil pipe fittings from the PRC. For a full description of the scope of this investigation,
During our review of the Petition, the Department discussed with the petitioner the language pertaining to the proposed scope to ensure that the scope language in the Petition would be an accurate reflection of the products for which the domestic industry is seeking
As discussed in the preamble to the Department's regulations,
The Department requests that any factual information the parties consider relevant to the scope of the investigation be submitted during this time period. However, if a party subsequently finds that additional factual information pertaining to the scope of the investigation may be relevant, the party may contact the Department and request permission to submit the additional information. As stated above, all such comments must be filed on the record of each of the concurrent AD and CVD investigations.
All submissions to the Department must be filed electronically using Enforcement & Compliance's Antidumping Duty and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS).
The Department requests comments from interested parties regarding the appropriate physical characteristics of soil pipe fittings to be reported in response to the Department's AD questionnaire. This information will be used to identify the key physical characteristics of the merchandise under consideration in order to report the relevant factors and costs of production accurately as well as to develop appropriate product-comparison criteria.
Interested parties will have the opportunity to provide any information or comments that they feel are relevant to the development of an accurate list of physical characteristics. Specifically, they may provide comments as to which characteristics are appropriate to use as: (1) General product characteristics; and (2) product-comparison criteria. We note that it is not always appropriate to use all product characteristics as product-comparison criteria. We base product-comparison criteria on meaningful commercial differences among products. In other words, although there may be some physical product characteristics used by manufacturers to describe soil pipe fittings, it may be that only a select few product characteristics take into account commercially-meaningful physical characteristics. In addition, interested parties may comment on the order in which the physical characteristics should be used in matching products. Generally, the Department attempts to list the most important physical characteristics first and the least important characteristics last.
In order to consider the suggestions of interested parties in developing and issuing the AD questionnaire, all comments must be filed by 5:00 p.m. ET on August 17, 2017. Any rebuttal comments, which may include factual information, must be filed by 5:00 p.m. ET on August 24, 2017. All comments and submissions to the Department must be filed electronically using ACCESS, as explained above, on the record of the less-than-fair-value investigation.
Section 732(b)(1) of the Act requires that a petition be filed on behalf of the domestic industry. Section 732(c)(4)(A) of the Act provides that a petition meets this requirement if the domestic producers or workers who support the petition account for: (i) At least 25 percent of the total production of the domestic like product; and (ii) more than 50 percent of the production of the domestic like product produced by that portion of the industry expressing support for, or opposition to, the petition. Moreover, section 732(c)(4)(D) of the Act provides that, if the petition does not establish support of domestic producers or workers accounting for more than 50 percent of the total production of the domestic like product, the Department shall: (i) Poll the industry or rely on other information in order to determine if there is support for the petition, as required by subparagraph (A); or (ii) determine industry support using a statistically valid sampling method to poll the “industry.”
Section 771(4)(A) of the Act defines the “industry” as the producers as a whole of a domestic like product. Thus, to determine whether a petition has the requisite industry support, the statute directs the Department to look to producers and workers who produce the domestic like product. The International Trade Commission (ITC), which is responsible for determining whether “the domestic industry” has been injured, must also determine what constitutes a domestic like product in order to define the industry. While both the Department and the ITC must apply the same statutory definition regarding the domestic like product,
Section 771(10) of the Act defines the domestic like product as “a product
With regard to the domestic like product, the petitioner does not offer a definition of the domestic like product distinct from the scope of the investigation. Based on our analysis of the information submitted on the record, we have determined that soil pipe fittings, as defined in the scope, constitute a single domestic like product, and we have analyzed industry support in terms of that domestic like product.
In determining whether the petitioner has standing under section 732(c)(4)(A) of the Act, we considered the industry support data contained in the Petition and the petitioner's subsequent submissions with reference to the domestic like product as defined in the “Scope of the Investigation,” in Appendix I of this notice. The petitioner provided the 2016 production of the domestic like product by its members.
Our review of the data provided in the Petition, Petition Amendment, General Issues Supplement, and other information readily available to the Department indicates that the petitioner has established industry support for the Petition.
The Department finds that the petitioner filed the Petition on behalf of the domestic industry because it is an interested party as defined in section 771(9)(E) of the Act, and it has demonstrated sufficient industry support with respect to the AD investigation that it is requesting that the Department initiate.
The petitioner alleges that the U.S. industry producing the domestic like product is being materially injured, or is threatened with material injury, by reason of the imports of the subject merchandise sold at less than normal value (NV). In addition, the petitioner alleges that subject imports exceed the negligibility threshold provided for under section 771(24)(A) of the Act.
The petitioner contends that the industry's injured condition is illustrated by reduced market share; underselling and price depression or suppression; lost sales and revenues; and negative impact on profit.
The following is a description of the allegations of sales at less than fair value upon which the Department based its decision to initiate the AD investigation of imports of soil pipe fittings from the PRC. The sources of data for the deductions and adjustments relating to U.S. price and NV are discussed in greater detail in the Initiation Checklist.
The petitioner based the U.S. price on export price (EP) using average unit values (AUVs) of publicly available import data.
The petitioner stated that the Department has consistently treated the PRC as a non-market economy (NME) country.
The petitioner argues that South Africa is an appropriate surrogate country for the PRC because it is a market economy that is at a level of economic development comparable to that of the PRC, it is a significant producer of comparable merchandise, and public information from South Africa is available to value all FOPs.
Because information regarding the volume of inputs consumed by Chinese producers/exporters is not reasonably available, the petitioner based the FOPs for materials, labor, and energy on the production experience of one of its member companies.
The petitioner valued direct materials based on publicly-available import data for South Africa obtained from the Global Trade Atlas (GTA) for the period November 2016 through April 2017.
The petitioner relied on 2012 data published by the International Labor Organization, inflated to 2017 using the South African Consumer Price Index.
The petitioner valued natural gas using GTA import data.
The petitioner calculated ratios for selling, general, and administrative expenses, and profit based on the 2016 consolidated financial statements of Tata Africa Steel Processors Proprietary Ltd., a South African steel processor and producer of aluminum wire rods.
Based on the data provided by the petitioner, there is reason to believe that imports of soil pipe fittings from the PRC are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value. Based on comparisons of EP to NV, in accordance with section 773(c) of the Act, the estimated dumping margin for soil pipe fittings from the PRC is 92.48 percent.
Based upon the examination of the AD Petition on soil pipe fittings from the PRC, we find that the Petition meets the requirements of section 732 of the Act. Therefore, we are initiating an AD investigation to determine whether imports of soil pipe fittings from the PRC are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value. In accordance with section 733(b)(1)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(b)(1), unless postponed, we will make our preliminary determination no later than 140 days after the date of this initiation.
Under the Trade Preferences Extension Act of 2015, numerous amendments to the AD and CVD laws were made.
The petitioner named 22 companies in the PRC as producers/exporters of soil pipe fittings.
Exporters/producers of soil pipe fittings from the PRC that do not receive Q&V questionnaires by mail may still submit a response to the Q&V questionnaire and can obtain a copy from the Enforcement & Compliance Web site. The Q&V response must be submitted by all PRC exporters/producers no later than August 14, 2017. All Q&V responses must be filed electronically
In order to obtain separate-rate status in an NME investigation, exporters and producers must submit a separate-rate application.
The Department will calculate combination rates for certain respondents that are eligible for a separate rate in an NME investigation. The Separate Rates and Combination Rates Bulletin states:
{w}hile continuing the practice of assigning separate rates only to exporters, all separate rates that the Department will now assign in its NME Investigation will be specific to those producers that supplied the exporter during the period of investigation. Note, however, that one rate is calculated for the exporter and all of the producers which supplied subject merchandise to it during the period of investigation. This practice applies both to mandatory respondents receiving an individually calculated separate rate as well as the pool of non-investigated firms receiving the weighted-average of the individually calculated rates. This practice is referred to as the application of “combination rates” because such rates apply to specific combinations of exporters and one or more producers. The cash-deposit rate assigned to an exporter will apply only to merchandise both exported by the firm in question
In accordance with section 732(b)(3)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.202(f), a copy of the public version of the Petition has been provided to the Government of the PRC
We will notify the ITC of our initiation, as required by section 732(d) of the Act.
The ITC will preliminarily determine, within 45 days after the date on which the Petition was filed, whether there is a reasonable indication that imports of soil pipe fittings from the PRC are materially injuring or threatening material injury to a U.S. industry.
Factual information is defined in 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) as: (i) Evidence submitted in response to questionnaires; (ii) evidence submitted in support of allegations; (iii) publicly available information to value factors under 19 CFR 351.408(c) or to measure the adequacy of remuneration under 19 CFR 351.511(a)(2); (iv) evidence placed on the record by the Department; and (v) evidence other than factual information described in (i) through (iv). The regulation requires any party, when submitting factual information, to specify under which subsection of 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) the information is being submitted and, if the information is submitted to rebut, clarify, or correct factual information already on the record, to provide an explanation identifying the information already on the record that the factual information seeks to rebut, clarify, or correct. Time limits for the submission of factual information are addressed in 19 CFR 351.301, which provides specific time limits based on the type of factual information being submitted. Parties are advised to review the regulations prior to submitting factual information in this investigation.
Parties may request an extension of time limits before the expiration of a time limit established under 19 CFR 351.301, or as otherwise specified by the Secretary. In general, an extension request will be considered untimely if it is filed after the expiration of the time limit established under 19 CFR 351.301. For submissions that are due from multiple parties simultaneously, an extension request will be considered untimely if it is filed after 10:00 a.m. on the due date. Under certain circumstances, we may elect to specify a different time limit by which extension requests will be considered untimely for submissions which are due from multiple parties simultaneously. In such a case, we will inform parties in the letter or memorandum setting forth the deadline (including a specified time) by which extension requests must be filed to be considered timely. An extension request must be made in a separate, stand-alone submission; under limited circumstances we will grant untimely-filed requests for the extension of time limits. Review
Any party submitting factual information in an AD or CVD proceeding must certify to the accuracy and completeness of that information.
Interested parties must submit applications for disclosure under Administrative Protective Order (APO) in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305. On January 22, 2008, the Department published
This notice is issued and published pursuant to sections 732(c)(2) and 777(i) of the Act.
The merchandise covered by this investigation is cast iron soil pipe fittings, finished and unfinished, regardless of industry or proprietary specifications, and regardless of size. Cast iron soil pipe fittings are nonmalleable iron castings of various designs and sizes, including, but not limited to, bends, tees, wyes, traps, drains, and other common or special fittings, with or without side inlets.
Cast iron soil pipe fittings are classified into two major types—hubless and hub and
The subject imports are normally classified in subheading 7307.11.0045 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS): Cast fittings of nonmalleable cast iron for cast iron soil pipe. The HTSUS subheading and specifications are provided for convenience and customs purposes only; the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) preliminarily determines that the five remaining companies under review do not qualify for a separate rate and are, therefore, considered a part of the People's Republic of China (PRC)-Wide Entity for their exports of subject merchandise exported to the United States during the period of review (POR), November 1, 2015, through October 31, 2016. If these preliminary results are adopted in the final results, the Department will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess antidumping duties on all appropriate entries of subject merchandise during the POR. Interested parties are invited to comment on these preliminary results.
Applicable August 8, 2017.
Julia Hancock or Courtney Canales, AD/CVD Operations, Office V, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-1394 or (202) 482-4997, respectively.
On January 13, 2017, the Department published in the
The merchandise subject to the order is seamless refined copper pipe and tube. The product is currently classified under Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) item numbers 7411.10.1030 and 7411.10.1090. Products subject to this order may also enter under HTSUS item numbers 7407.10.1500, 7419.99.5050, 8415.90.8065, and 8415.90.8085. Although the HTSUS numbers are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this order remains dispositive.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), the Department will rescind an administrative review, in whole or in part, if the party or parties that requested a review withdraws the request within 90 days of the publication date of the notice of initiation of the requested review. As noted above, the petitioners withdrew their request for an administrative review with respect to 11 companies within 90 days of the publication date of the notice of initiation. No other parties requested an administrative review of the order with respect to these 11 companies. Therefore, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), the Department is rescinding this review of the AD order on copper pipe from the PRC with respect to these companies.
The Department is conducting this review in accordance with sections 751(a)(1)(B) and 751(a)(2)(A) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). For a full description of the methodology underlying our preliminary conclusions,
The Preliminary Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically
The Department preliminarily determines that the five companies under review, China Hailiang, Hong Kong Hailiang, Shanghai Hailiang, and Zhejiang Hailiang, failed to demonstrate eligibility for a separate rate. In making our findings, two of the five companies, China Hailiang and Shanghai Hailiang Trading, did not submit no shipment letters or separate rate applications/certifications by the specified deadlines, and, as noted above, Hong Kong Hailiang, Shanghai Hailiang, and Zhejiang Hailiang, notified the Department that they would not be participating in this review and also did not submit no shipment letters or separate rate applications/certifications by the specified deadlines.
Normally, the Department discloses to interested parties the calculations performed in connection with the preliminary results within five days of its public announcement or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b). However, because the Department preliminarily determined that the five remaining companies under review are part of the PRC-wide entity, there are no calculations to disclose.
Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than 50 days after the date of publication of these preliminary results, unless the Secretary alters the time limit.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, limited to issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain the party's name, address, and telephone number, the number of participants, whether any participant is a foreign national, and a list of the issues to be discussed. If a request for a hearing is made, the Department intends to hold the hearing at the U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230, at a time and date to be determined. Parties should confirm by telephone the date, time, and location of the hearing two days before the scheduled date.
The Department intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, which will include the results of our analysis of all issues raised in the case briefs, within 120 days of publication of these preliminary results in the
Upon issuance of the final results, the Department will determine, and CBP shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review.
For any individually examined respondent whose weighted average dumping margin is above
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the final results of this review for shipments of the subject merchandise from the PRC entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date, as provided by sections 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) For the companies listed above that have a separate rate, the cash deposit rate will be that established in the final results of this review (except, if the rate is zero or
This notice also serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during the POR. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Department's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
These preliminary results are issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of 12-month petition finding.
We, NMFS, announce a 12-month finding on a petition to list the Pacific bluefin tuna (
This finding was made on August 8, 2017.
The documents informing the 12-month finding are available by submitting a request to the Assistant Regional Administrator, Protected Resources Division, West Coast Regional Office, 501 W. Ocean Blvd., Suite 4200, Long Beach, CA 90802, Attention: Pacific Bluefin Tuna 12-month Finding. The documents are also available electronically at
Gary Rule, NMFS West Coast Region at
On June 20, 2016, we received a petition from the Center for Biological Diversity (CBD), on behalf of 13 other co-petitioners, to list the Pacific bluefin tuna as threatened or endangered under the ESA and to designate critical habitat concurrently with its listing. On October 11, 2016, we published a positive 90-day finding (81 FR 70074) announcing that the petition presented substantial scientific or commercial information indicating that the petitioned action may be warranted. In our 90-day finding, we also announced the initiation of a status review of the Pacific bluefin tuna and requested information to inform our decision on whether the species warrants listing as threatened or endangered under the ESA.
The ESA defines “species” to include any subspecies of fish or wildlife or plants, and any distinct population segment (DPS) of any vertebrate fish or wildlife which interbreeds when mature (16 U.S.C. 1532(16)). The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) and NMFS have adopted a joint policy describing what constitutes a DPS under the ESA (61 FR 4722; February 7, 1996). The joint DPS policy identifies two criteria for making a determination that a population is a DPS: (1) The population must be discrete in relation to the remainder of the species to which it belongs; and (2) the population must be significant to the species to which it belongs.
Section 3 of the ESA defines an endangered species as any species which is in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range and a threatened species as one which is likely to become an endangered species within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range. Thus, we interpret an “endangered species” to be one that is presently in danger of extinction. A “threatened species,” on the other hand, is not presently in danger of extinction, but is likely to become so in the foreseeable future (that is, at a later time). In other words, the primary statutory difference between a threatened and endangered species is the timing of when a species may be in danger of extinction, either presently (endangered) or in the foreseeable future (threatened).
We determine whether any species is endangered or threatened as a result of any one or a combination of the following five factors: The present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of its habitat or range; overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes; disease or predation; the inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; or other natural or manmade factors affecting its continued existence (ESA section 4(a)(1)(A)-(E)). Section 4(b)(1)(A) of the ESA requires us to make listing determinations based solely on the best scientific and commercial data available after conducting a review of the status of the species and after taking into account efforts being made by any State or foreign nation or political subdivision thereof to protect the species.
The petition to list Pacific bluefin tuna identified the risk classification made by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). The IUCN assessed the status of Pacific bluefin tuna and categorized the species
As part of our comprehensive status review of the Pacific bluefin tuna, we formed a status review team (SRT) comprised of Federal scientists from NMFS' Southwest Fisheries Science Center (SWFSC) having scientific expertise in tuna and other highly migratory species biology and ecology, population estimation and modeling, fisheries management, conservation biology, and climatology. We asked the SRT to compile and review the best available scientific and commercial information, and then to: (1) Conduct a “distinct population segment” (DPS) analysis to determine if there are any DPSs of Pacific bluefin tuna; (2) identify whether there are any portions of the species' geographic range that are significant in terms of the species' overall viability; and (3) evaluate the extinction risk of the population, taking into account both threats to the population and its biological status. While the petitioner did not request that we list any particular DPS(s) of the Pacific bluefin tuna, we decided to evaluate whether any populations met the criteria of our DPS Policy, in case doing so might result in a conservation benefit to the species. Generally, however, we opt to consider the species' rangewide status, rather than considering whether any DPSs might exist.
In order to complete the status review, the SRT considered a variety of scientific information from the literature, unpublished documents, and direct communications with researchers working on Pacific bluefin tuna, as well as technical information submitted to NMFS. Information that was not previously peer-reviewed was formally reviewed by the SRT. Only the best-available science was considered further. The SRT evaluated all factors highlighted by the petitioners as well as additional factors that may contribute to Pacific bluefin tuna vulnerability.
In assessing population (stock) structure and trends in abundance and productivity, the SRT relied on the International Scientific Committee for Tuna and Tuna-Like Species' (ISC) recently completed peer-reviewed stock assessment (ISC 2016). The ISC was established in 1995 for the purpose of enhancing scientific research and cooperation for conservation and rational utilization of HMS species of the North Pacific Ocean, and to establish the scientific groundwork for the conservation and rational utilization of the HMS species in the North Pacific Ocean. The ISC is currently composed of scientists representing the following seven countries: Canada, Chinese Taipei, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, People's Republic of China, and the United States. The ISC conducts regular stock assessments to assemble fishery statistics and biological information, estimate population parameters, summarize stock status, and develop conservation advice. The results are submitted to Regional Fishery Management Organizations (RFMOs), in particular the Western and Central Pacific Fisheries Commission (WCPFC) and the Inter-American Tropical Tuna Commission (IATTC), for review and are used as a basis of management actions. NMFS believes the ISC stock assessment (ISC 2016) represents best available science because: (1) It is the only scientifically based stock assessment of Pacific bluefin tuna; (2) it was completed by expert scientists of the ISC, including key contributions from the United States; (3) it was peer reviewed; and (4) we consider the input parameters to the assessment to represent the best available data, information, and assumptions.
The SRT analyzed the status of Pacific bluefin tuna in a 3-step progressive process. First, the SRT evaluated 25 individual threats (covering the five factors in ESA section 4(a)(1)(A)-(E)). The SRT evaluated how each threat affects the species and contributes to a decline or degradation of Pacific bluefin tuna by ranking each threat in terms of severity (1-4, with “1” representing the lowest contribution, and “4” representing the highest contribution). The threats were evaluated in light of the Pacific bluefin tuna's vulnerability of and exposure to the threat, and its biological response.
Following the initial rankings of specific threats, the SRT identified those threats where the range of rankings across the SRT was greater than one. For these threats, subsequent discussions ensured that the interpretation of the threat and its time-frame were clear and consistent across team members. For example, it was necessary to clarify that threats were considered only as they related to existing management measures and not historical management. After clarification, and a final round of discussion, each team member provided a final set of severity rankings for each specific threat.
There were three specific threats (Illegal, Unregulated, and Unreported fishing, International Management, and sea surface temperature rise) for which the range of severity rankings remained greater than one after they had been discussed thoroughly. For these threats the SRT carried out a Structured Expert Decision Making process (SEDM) to determine the final severity rank. In this SEDM approach, each team member was asked to apportion 100 plausibility points across the four levels of severity. Points were totaled and mean scores were calculated. The severity level with the highest mean was determined to be the final ranking. As will be further detailed in the Analysis of Threats and Extinction Risk Analysis sections of this notice, the SRT also used SEDM in steps 2 and 3 of its analysis.
The purpose of decision structuring is to provide a rational, thorough, and transparent decision, the basis for which is clear to both the decision maker(s) and to other observers, and to provide a means to capture uncertainty in the decision(s). Use of qualitative risk analysis and structured expert opinion methods allows for a rigorous decision-making process, the defensible use of expert opinion, and a well-documented record of how a decision was made. These tools also accommodate limitations in human understanding and allow for problem solving in complex situations. Risk analysis and other structured processes require uncertainty to be dealt with explicitly and biases controlled for. The information used may be empirical data, or it may come from subjective rankings or expert opinion expressed in explicit terms. Even in cases where data are sufficient to allow a quantitative analysis, the structuring process is important to clearly link outcomes and decision standards, and thereby reveal the reasoning behind the decision.
This initial evaluation of individual threats and the potential demographic risk they pose forms the basis of understanding used during steps 2 and 3 of the SRT's analysis.
In the second step of its analysis, the SRT used the same ranking system to evaluate the risk of each of the five factors in ESA section 4(a)(1)(A)-(E) contributing to a decline or degradation of Pacific bluefin tuna. This involved a consideration of the combination of all threats that fall under each of the five
The SRT's draft status review report was subjected to independent peer review as required by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Final Information Quality Bulletin for Peer Review (M- 05-03; December 16, 2004). The draft status review report was peer reviewed by independent specialists selected from the academic and scientific community, with expertise in tuna and/or highly migratory species biology, conservation, and management. The peer reviewers were asked to evaluate the adequacy, appropriateness, and application of data used in the status review report, including the extinction risk analysis. All peer reviewer comments were addressed prior to dissemination and finalization of the draft status review report and publication of this finding.
We subsequently reviewed the status review report, its cited references, and peer review comments, and believe the status review report, upon which this 12-month finding is based, provides the best available scientific and commercial information on the Pacific bluefin tuna. Much of the information discussed below on Pacific bluefin tuna biology, distribution, abundance, threats, and extinction risk is attributable to the status review report. However, in making the 12-month finding determination, we have independently applied the statutory provisions of the ESA, including evaluation of the factors set forth in section 4(a)(1)(A)-(E); our regulations regarding listing determinations (50 CFR part 424); our Policy Regarding the Recognition of Distinct Vertebrate Population Segments Under the Endangered Species Act (DPS Policy, 61 FR 4722; February 7, 1996); and our Final Policy on Interpretation of the Phrase “Significant Portion of Its Range” in the Endangered Species Act's Definitions of “Endangered Species” and “Threatened Species (SPR Policy, 79 FR 37578; July 1, 2014).
Pacific bluefin tuna (
Pacific bluefin tuna are large predators reaching nearly 3 meters (m) in length and 500 kilograms (kg) in weight (ISC 2016). They are pelagic species known to form large schools. As with all tunas and mackerels, Pacific bluefin tuna are fusiform in shape and possess numerous adaptations to facilitate efficient swimming. These include depressions in the body that accommodate the retraction of fins to reduce drag and a lunate tail that is among the most efficient tail shapes for generating thrust in sustained swimming (Bernal
One of the most unique aspects of Pacific bluefin tuna biology is their ability to maintain a body temperature that is above ambient temperature (endothermy). While some other tunas and billfishes are also endothermic, these adaptations are highly advanced in the bluefin tunas (Carey
The Pacific bluefin tuna is a highly migratory species that is primarily distributed in sub-tropical and temperate latitudes of the North Pacific Ocean (NPO) between 20° N. and 50° N., but is occasionally found in tropical waters and in the southern hemisphere, in waters around New Zealand (Bayliff 1994).
As members of a pelagic species, Pacific bluefin tuna use a range of habitats including open-water, coastal seas, and seamounts. Pacific bluefin tuna occur from the surface to depths of at least 550 m, although they spend most of their time in the upper 120 m of the water column (Kitagawa,
Pacific bluefin tuna exhibit large inter-annual variations in movement (
While in the EPO, the juveniles make north-south migrations along the west coast of North America (Kitagawa
After spending up to 5 years in the EPO, individuals return to the WPO where the only two spawning grounds (a southern area near the Philippines and Ryukyu Islands, and a northern area in the Sea of Japan) have been documented. No spawning activity, eggs, or larvae have been observed in the EPO. The timing of spawning and
Like most pelagic fish, Pacific bluefin tuna are broadcast spawners and spawn more than once in their lifetime, and they spawn multiple times in a single spawning season (Okochi,
Histological studies have shown that approximately 80 percent of the individuals found in the Sea of Japan from June to August are reproductively mature (Tanaka,
Spawning in Pacific bluefin tuna occurs in only comparatively warm waters, so larvae are found within a relatively narrow sea surface temperature (SST) range (23.5-29.5 °C) compared to juveniles and adults (Kimura
As discussed above, spawning in Pacific bluefin tuna has been recorded only in two locations: Near the Philippines and Ryukyu Islands, and in the Sea of Japan (Okochi
Pacific bluefin tuna exhibit rapid growth, reaching 58 cm or more in length by age 1 and frequently more than 1 m in length by age 3 (Shimose
Pacific bluefin tuna are opportunistic feeders. Small individuals (age 0) feed on small squid and zooplankton (Shimose
Based on the best available scientific and commercial information summarized above, we find that the Pacific bluefin tuna is currently considered a taxonomically-distinct species and, therefore, meets the definition of “species” pursuant to section 3 of the ESA. Below, we evaluate whether the species warrants listing as endangered or threatened under the ESA throughout all or a significant portion of its range.
While we were not petitioned to list a distinct population segment (DPS) of the Pacific bluefin tuna and are therefore not required to identify DPSs, we decided, in this case, to evaluate whether any populations of the species meet the DPS Policy criteria. As described above, the ESA's definition of “species” includes “any subspecies of fish or wildlife or plants, and any distinct population segment of any species of vertebrate fish or wildlife which interbreeds when mature.” The DPS Policy requires the consideration of two elements: (1) The discreteness of the population segment in relation to the remainder of the species to which it belongs; and (2) the significance of the population segment to the species to which it belongs.
A population segment of a vertebrate species may be considered discrete if it satisfies either one of the following conditions: (1) It is markedly separated from other populations of the same taxon as a consequence of physical, physiological, ecological, or behavioral factors. Quantitative measures of genetic or morphological discontinuity may provide evidence of this separation; or (2) it is delimited by international governmental boundaries within which differences in control of exploitation, management of habitat, conservation status, or regulatory mechanisms exist that are significant in light of section 4(a)(1)(D) of the ESA. If a population segment is found to be discrete under one or both of the above conditions, its biological and ecological significance to the taxon to which it belongs is evaluated. Factors that can be considered in evaluating significance may include, but are not limited to: (1) Persistence of the discrete population segment in an ecological setting unusual or unique for the taxon; (2) evidence that the loss of the discrete population segment would result in a significant gap in the range of a taxon; (3) evidence that the discrete population segment represents the only surviving natural occurrence of a taxon that may be more abundant elsewhere as an introduced population outside its historic range; or (4) evidence that the discrete population segment differs markedly from other populations of the species in its genetic characteristics.
Pacific bluefin tuna are currently managed as a single stock with a trans-Pacific range. We considered a number of factors related to Pacific bluefin tuna movement patterns, geographic range, and life history that relate to the discreteness criteria. Among the many characteristics of Pacific bluefin tuna that were discussed as contributing factors to the determination of ESA discreteness, three were regarded as carrying the most weight in the identification of DPSs. The strongest argument for the existence of a DPS was the spatial specificity of Pacific bluefin tuna spawning. The strongest arguments against the existence of a DPS included Pacific bluefin tuna migratory behavior
Based on the current understanding of Pacific bluefin tuna movements, Pacific bluefin tuna use one of two areas in the WPO to spawn. There is no evidence to suggest that these represent two separate populations but rather that, as fish increase in size, they shift from using the Sea of Japan to using the spawning ground near the Ryukyu Islands (
Catch data and conventional and electronic tagging data demonstrate the highly migratory nature of Pacific bluefin tuna. Results support broad mixing around the Pacific. While fish cross the Pacific from the WPO to the EPO, results indicate that they then return to the WPO to spawn. Furthermore, the limited genetic data currently available (Tseng
The ISC stock assessment presented population dynamics of Pacific bluefin tuna based on catch per unit effort data from 1952-2015 using a fully integrated age-structured model. The model included various life-history parameters including a length/age relationship and natural mortality estimates from tag-recapture and empirical life-history studies. Specific details on the modelling methods can be found in the ISC stock assessment available at
The 2016 ISC Pacific bluefin tuna stock assessment indicated three major trends: (1) Spawning stock biomass (SSB) fluctuated from 1952-2014; (2) SSB declined from 1996 to 2010; and (3) the decline in SSB has ceased since 2010 yet remains near to its historical low.
Based on the stock assessment model, the 2014 SSB was estimated to be around 17,000 mt, which represents 143,053 individuals capable of spawning. Relative to the theoretical, model-derived SSB had there been no fishing (
It is important to note that while the SSB as estimated by the ISC stock assessment is 2.6 percent of the theoretical, model-derived, “unfished” SSB, this value is based on a theoretical unfished population, and only includes fish of spawning size/age. Based on the estimated number of individuals at each age class, the number of individuals capable of spawning in 2014 was 143,053. However, total population size, including non-spawning capable individuals that have not yet reached spawning age, is estimated at 1,625,837. This yields an 8 percent ratio of spawning-capable individuals to total population. From 1952-2014, this ratio has ranged from 28 percent in 1960 to 2.5 percent in 1984, with a mean of 8 percent. The ratio in 2014 indicates that, relative to population size, there were more spawning-capable fish than in some years even with a similarly low total population size (
The 2016 ISC stock assessment was also used to project changes in SSB through the year 2034. The assessment evaluated 11 scenarios in which various management strategies were altered from the status quo (
The stock assessment also indicates that Pacific bluefin tuna is overfished and that overfishing is occurring. This assessment, however, is based on the abundance of the species through 2014. As described in the following section on existing regulatory measures, the first Pacific bluefin tuna regulations that placed limits on harvest were implemented in 2012 with additional regulations implemented in 2014 and 2015.
As described above, section 4(a)(1) of the ESA and NMFS' implementing regulations (50 CFR 424.11(c)) state that we must determine whether a species is endangered or threatened because of any one or a combination of the following factors: The present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of its habitat or range; overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes; disease or predation; inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; or other natural or manmade factors affecting its continued existence. We evaluated whether and the extent to which each of the foregoing factors contribute to the overall extinction risk of Pacific bluefin tuna, with a “significant” contribution defined, for purposes of this evaluation, as increasing the risk to such a degree that the factor affects the species' demographics (
For their extinction risk analysis, the SRT members evaluated threats and the extinction risk over two time frames. The SRT used 25 years (~3 generations for Pacific bluefin tuna) for the short time frame and 100 years (~13 generations) for the long time frame. The SRT concluded that the short time frame was a realistic window to evaluate current effects of potential threats with a good degree of reliability, especially when considering the limits of population forecasting models (
The following sections briefly summarize our findings and conclusions regarding threats to the Pacific bluefin tuna and their impact on the overall extinction risk of the species. More details can be found in the status review report, which is incorporated here by reference.
Given their highly migratory nature, Pacific bluefin tuna may be exposed to a variety of contaminants and pollutants. Pollutants vary in terms of their concentrations and composition depending on location, with higher concentrations typically occurring in coastal waters. There are two classes of pollutants in the sea that are most prevalent and that could pose potential risks to Pacific bluefin tuna: Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) and mercury. However, the SRT also considered Fukushima derived radiation and oil pollution as independent threats.
Persistent organic pollutants are organic compounds that are resistant to environmental degradation and are most often derived from pesticides, solvents, pharmaceuticals, or industrial chemicals. Common POPs in the marine environment include the organochlorine Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT) and Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs). Because they are not readily broken down and enter the food-web, POPs tend to bioaccumulate in marine organisms. In fishes, some POPs have been shown to impair reproductive function (
Specific information on POPs in Pacific bluefin tuna is limited. Ueno
While POPs have been detected in the tissues of Pacific bluefin tuna (see above), much higher levels have been measured in other marine fish (
Mercury (Hg) enters the oceans primarily through the atmosphere-water interface. Initial sources of Hg are both natural and anthropogenic. One of the main sources of anthropogenic Hg is coal-fired power-plants. Total Hg emissions to the atmosphere have been estimated at 6,500-8,200 Mg/yr, of which 4,600-5,300 Mg/yr (50-75 percent) are from natural sources (Driscoll
As a top predator, Pacific bluefin tuna can potentially accumulate high levels of Hg. Several studies have examined Hg in Pacific bluefin tuna and reported a wide range of concentrations that vary based on geographic location. In the WPO, measured Hg concentrations ranged from 0.66-3.23 μg/g wet mass (Hisamichi
The petitioners suggest that since some bluefin products are above 1 ppm, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration's (FDA) threshold, there is cause for concern with regard to bluefin tuna health. The FDA levels are set at the point at which consumption is not recommended for children and women of child bearing age and are not linked to fish health. While methyl Hg compounds have been shown to cause neurobiological changes in a variety of animals, there have been no studies on tuna or tuna-like species showing detrimental effects from methyl Hg. As with the POPs, other marine species have much higher levels of Hg contamination (Montiero and Lopes 1990; Lyons
We find that water pollution poses no risk of contributing to a decline or degradation of the Pacific bluefin tuna. While we acknowledge that bioaccumulation of pollutants in Pacific bluefin tuna may result in some risk to consumers, the absence of empirical studies showing that water pollution has direct effects on Pacific bluefin tuna implies that water pollution is not a high risk for Pacific bluefin tuna themselves.
Plastics have become a major source of pollution on a global scale and in all major marine habitats (Law 2017). In 2014, global plastic production was estimated to be 311 million metric tons (mt) (Plast. Eur. 2015). Plastics are the most abundant material collected as floating marine debris or from beaches (Law
Cannon
We find that plastic ingestion by Pacific bluefin tuna poses no to low risk of contributing to a decline or degradation of the Pacific bluefin tuna. This was based in large part upon the absence of empirical evidence of large amounts of macro- and micro-plastic directly impacting individual Pacific bluefin tuna health.
There are numerous examples of oil and gas exploration and operations posing a threat to marine organisms and habitats. Threats include seismic activities during exploration and construction and events such as oil spills or uncontrolled natural gas escape where released chemicals can have severe and immediate effects on wildlife.
Unfortunately, there is limited information on the direct impacts of oil and gas exploration and operation on pelagic fishes such as Pacific bluefin tuna. Studies looking at the impacts of seismic exploration on fish have mixed results. Wardle
The effects of seismic exploration on larval Pacific bluefin tuna, however, could be greater than on older individuals due in part to the reduced capacity of larvae to move away from affected areas. Davies
The most relevant study, for the purposes of the SRT, is an evaluation of the impacts of oil pollution on the larval stage of Atlantic bluefin tuna. Oil released from the 2010 Deepwater Horizon oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico covered approximately 10 percent of the spawning habitat, prompting concerns about larval survival (Muhling
Oil and gas infrastructure may have beneficial impacts on the marine environment by providing habitat for a range of species and
In summary, we consider oil and gas development to pose no to low risk of contributing to a decline or degradation of the Pacific bluefin tuna.
Concerns about climate impacts linked to the use of petroleum products has led to an increase in renewable energy programs over the past two decades. Offshore and coastal wind energy generating stations have been among the fastest growing renewable energy sectors, particularly in shallow coastal areas, which generally have consistent wind patterns and reduced infrastructure costs due to shallow depths and proximity to land.
Impacts of wind energy generating stations on marine fauna have been well studied (see Köppel, 2017 for examples). There have been some studies predicting negative effects on marine life, particularly birds and benthic organisms, but few empirical studies have demonstrated direct impacts to fishes. Wilson
Studies on wind energy development and its impact on fishes has largely focused on demersal species assemblages. Similar to oil and gas platforms, wind energy platforms have been shown to have a positive effect on demersal fish communities in that they tend to harbor high diversity and biomass of fish populations (
We find that wind energy development poses no to low risk of contributing to a decline or degradation of the Pacific bluefin tuna. This was based largely on the ability of Pacific bluefin tuna to avoid wind farms and the absence of empirical evidence showing harm directly to Pacific bluefin tuna.
Operation of coastal aquaculture facilities can degrade local water quality, mostly through uneaten fish feed and feces, leading to nutrient pollution. The severity of these issues depends on the species being farmed, food composition and uptake efficiency, fish density in net pens, and the location and design of pens (Naylor
The petition by CBD highlights a proposed offshore aquaculture facility in California as a potential threat to Pacific bluefin tuna. The proposed Rose Canyon aquaculture project would construct a facility to raise yellowtail jack approximately 7 km from the San Diego coast. The high capacity of the proposed project (reaching up to 5,000 mt annually after 8 years of operation) has raised concerns about resulting impacts to the surrounding marine environment. As the proposed aquaculture facility would act as a point source of pollutants, the potential impacts to widely distributed pelagic species such as Pacific bluefin tuna will depend on oceanographic dispersal of these pollutants within the Southern California Bight (SCB) and surrounding regions.
Data from current meters and Acoustic Doppler Current Profilers (ADCPs) near Point Loma have recorded seasonally reversing, and highly variable, alongshore flows (Hendricks 1977; Carson
We find that habitat degradation from large-scale aquaculture poses no to low risk of contributing to population decline or degradation in Pacific bluefin tuna over both time-scales largely due to the very small proportion of their habitat which would be impacted as well as the absence of empirical evidence showing harm directly to Pacific bluefin tuna.
As highly migratory, fast-swimming top predators, tunas have relatively high energy requirements (Olson and Boggs 1986; Korsmeyer and Dewar 2001; Whitlock
Biomass of the two main forage fish in the California Current, sardine and anchovy, has been low in recent years (Lindegren
This ability to switch between prey species may be one reason why Hilborn
However, although Pacific bluefin tuna have a broad and varied prey base in the California Current, the physiological effects of switching between dominant prey types are not well known. Some species are more energy-rich than others, and may have lower metabolic costs to catch and digest (Olson & Boggs 1986; Whitlock
We find that prey depletion poses a very low threat to Pacific bluefin tuna over the 25-year time frame, primarily because it is clear that they are generally adapted to natural fluctuations of forage fish biomass through prey switching. We also find that prey depletion may pose a low to moderate threat over the 100-year timeframe, albeit with low certainty. This was mainly because climate change is expected to alter ecosystem structure and function to produce potentially novel conditions, over an evolutionarily short time period. If this results in a less favorable prey base for Pacific bluefin tuna, in either the California Current or other foraging areas, impacts on the population may be more deleterious than they have been in the past.
Potential threats to the Pacific bluefin tuna from overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific or educational purposes also includes illegal, unregulated and unreported fishing. Each of these potential threats is discussed in the following sections.
Commercial fishing for Pacific bluefin tuna has occurred in the western Pacific since at least the late 1800s. Records from Japan indicate that several methods were used prior to 1952 when catch records began to be taken in earnest and included longline, pole and line, drift net, and set net fisheries. Estimates of global landings prior to 1952 peaked around 47,635 mt (36,217 mt in the WPO and 11,418 mt in the EPO) in 1935 (Muto
There are currently five major contributors to the Pacific bluefin tuna fisheries: Japan, Korea, Mexico, Taiwan, and the United States. Each operates in nearshore coastal waters in the Pacific Ocean while a few also operate in distant offshore waters. In modern fisheries, Pacific bluefin tuna are taken by a wide range of fishing gears (
Estimates of landings indicate that annual catches of Pacific bluefin tuna by country have fluctuated dramatically from 1952-2015. During this period reported catches from the five major contributors to the ISC peaked at 40,144 mt in 1956 and reached a low of 8,627 mt in 1990, with an average of 21,955 mt. Japanese fisheries are responsible for the majority of landings, followed by Mexico, the United States, Korea and Taiwan. In 2014, the United States reported commercial landings of 408 mt, Taiwan reported 525 mt, Korea reported 1,311 mt, Mexico reported 4,862 mt, and Japan reported 9,573 mt. These represent 2.4 percent, 3 percent, 7.7 percent, 28.4 percent, and 56 percent of the total landings, respectively. Landings in the southern hemisphere are small and concentrated around New Zealand.
The commercial Japanese Pacific bluefin tuna fisheries are comprised of both distant-water and coastal longline vessels, coastal trolling vessels, coastal pole-and-line vessels, coastal set net vessels, coastal hand line vessels, and purse seiners. Each fishery targets specific age classes of Pacific bluefin tuna: Coastal trolling and pole and line target fish less than 1 year old, coastal set net and coastal hand-line target ages 1-5, purse seiners target ages 0-10, and the distant-water and coastal longline vessels target ages 5-20. The distant water longline fisheries have operated for the longest time while the coastal longline fisheries did not begin in earnest until the mid-1960s. Between 1952 and 2015, total annual catches by Japanese fisheries have fluctuated between a maximum of approximately 34,000 mt in 1956 and a minimum of approximately 6,000 mt in 2012, and they have averaged 15,653 mt.
The Japanese troll fleet harvests small, age-0 Pacific bluefin tuna for its commercial aquaculture grow-out facilities. From 2005-2015, the harvest of Pacific bluefin tuna for grow-out by the troll fishery has averaged 14 percent of Japan's total landings (approximately 8.5 percent of global landings) by weight.
Nearly all commercial Pacific bluefin tuna catches by U.S. flagged vessels on the west coast of the United States are landed in California. Historically, the commercial fisheries for Pacific bluefin tuna focused their efforts on the fishing grounds off Baja California, Mexico, until the 1980s. Following the creation of Mexico's EEZ, the U.S. purse seine fisheries largely ceased their efforts in Mexico and became more opportunistic (Aires-da-Silva
Mexico's harvest of Pacific bluefin tuna is dominated by its purse seine fisheries, which dramatically increased in size following the creation of Mexico's EEZ. While most of the purse seine fisheries target yellowfin tuna (the dominant species in the catch) in tropical waters, Pacific bluefin tuna are caught by purse seine near Baja California. Since 1952, reported landings in Mexico have ranged from 1-9,927 mt with an average of 1,766.7 mt (ISC catch database
The Korean take of Pacific bluefin tuna is dominated by its offshore purse seine fishery with a small contribution by the coastal troll fisheries. The fisheries generally operate off Jeju Island with occasional forays into the Yellow Sea (Yoon
Historically, the Taiwanese fisheries have used a wide array of gears, but since the early 1990s the fisheries are largely comprised of small-scale longline vessels. These vessels are targeting fish on the spawning grounds
We acknowledge the Petitioner's concern that a large proportion of Pacific bluefin tuna caught are between 0 and 2 years of age. The petition states that 97.6 percent of fish are caught before they have a chance to reproduce, and argues that this is a worrisome example of growth overfishing. The interpretation of the severity of this statement requires acknowledging several factors that are used to evaluate the production (amount of “new” fish capable of being produced by the current stock). Importantly, the estimate of production includes considering factors such as recruitment, growth of individuals (thus moving from one age class to the next and potentially reaching sexual maturity), catch, and natural mortality. Excluding all other parameters except catch results in erroneous interpretations of the severity of a high proportion of immature fish being landed on an annual basis. If all year classes are taken into account, the percentage of fish in the entire population (not just in the age 0 age class) that are harvested before reaching maturity is closer to 82 percent. While we acknowledge that this is not an ideal harvest target, it is a more accurate representation of the catch of immature fish.
Growth overfishing occurs when the average size of harvested individuals is smaller than the size that would produce the maximum yield per recruit. The effect of growth overfishing is that total yield (
We consider commercial fishing to pose the greatest risk to contribute to the decline or degradation of the Pacific bluefin tuna. Threat scores given by the BRT members for commercial fishing ranged from moderate to high (severity score of 2 to 3 with a mean of 2.29). While we acknowledge that past trends in commercial landings have been the largest contributor to the decline in the Pacific bluefin tuna, we find the population size in the terminal year of the ISC stock assessment (2014; >1,625,000 individuals and >143,000 spawning-capable individuals) as sufficient to prevent extinction in the foreseeable future. This is due to the fact that the population size is large enough to prevent small population effects (
Recreational fishing for Pacific bluefin tuna occurs to some extent in most areas where Pacific bluefin tuna occur relatively close to shore. The majority of recreational effort appears to be in the United States, although this may be an artifact of a lack of record keeping outside of the United States. From the mid-1980s onward, the majority of U.S. Pacific bluefin tuna landings have been from recreational fisheries. Along the west coast of the United States, the recreational fishing fleet for highly migratory species such as Pacific bluefin tuna is comprised of commercial passenger fishing vessels (CPFVs) and privately owned vessels operating from ports in southern California.
The vast majority of recreational fishing vessels operate from ports in southern California from Los Angeles south to the U.S./Mexico border, with a large proportion operating out of San Diego. Much of the catch actually occurs in Mexican waters. The recreational catch for Pacific bluefin tuna is dominated by hook and line fishing with a very small contribution from spear fishing. The landings for Pacific bluefin tuna are highly variable. This variability is linked to changes in the number of young fish that move from the western Pacific (Bayliff 1994), and potentially regional oceanographic variability, and is not taken to reflect changes in overall Pacific-wide abundance.
In addition to variability in immigration to the EPO, regulatory measures impact the number of fish caught. As mentioned, most U.S. fishing effort occurs in Mexican waters. In July 2014, Mexico banned the capture of Pacific bluefin tuna in its EEZ for the remainder of the year, reducing the catch by the U.S. recreational fleet. In 2015, while this ban was lifted, the United States instituted a two fish per angler per day bag limit and a 6 fish per multi-day fishing trip bag limit on Pacific bluefin tuna, lowered from 10 fish per angler per day and 30 fish total for multi-day trips (80 FR 44887; July 28, 2015). It is difficult to quantify the effects of the reduced bag limit at the current time as there are only two years of landings data following the reduction (2015-16). This is further complicated by an absence of an index of availability of Pacific bluefin tuna to the recreational fishery. Anecdotal evidence in the form of informal crew and fisher interviews suggests that Pacific bluefin tuna have been in high abundance since 2012. CPFV landings in 2014-16 declined following an exceptionally productive year in 2013. Whether this was an effect of the reduced bag limit or an artifact of Pacific bluefin tuna availability is uncertain. While the petition raises the concern that the two fish per day per angler bag limit is insufficient as the fishery is “open access” (an angler may fish as many days as they wish), it is important to note that the number of anglers participating in CPFV trips has not increased dramatically since the late 1990s. It should also be noted that the average number of Pacific bluefin tuna caught per angler on an annual basis has never exceeded 1.4 (2013), thus the two fish per day per angler bag limit will effectively prevent a major expansion of the Pacific bluefin tuna recreational landings.
Since 1980, the peak of the U.S. recreational fishery was in 2013 when 63,702 individual fish were reported in CPFV log books, with an estimated weight of 809 tons. This was more than the total U.S. commercial catch in 2013 (10.1 mt), keeping in mind that commercial vessels cannot go into Mexican waters. The average recreational catch is far lower (264 mt average from 2006-2015). The peak recreational CPFV landings in the United States in 2013 represented 7 percent of the total global catch of Pacific bluefin tuna in that same year, whereas in 2015 it represented 3.2 percent of total global catch.
Private vessel landings are more difficult to quantify as they rely on voluntary interviews with fishers at only a few of the many landing ports. In 2015, the estimated landings by private vessels was 6,195 individual Pacific bluefin tuna, which represented approximately 30 percent of all U.S.
At 3.2 percent of the total global landings, we consider the U.S. recreational fishery to be a minor overall contributor to the global catch of Pacific bluefin tuna, and recent measures have been implemented to reduce landings. Given that recreational landings have been reduced through increased management, we consider recreational fishing as posing no or a low risk of contributing to population decline or degradation in Pacific bluefin tuna.
Illegal, Unreported or Unregulated (IUU) fishing, as defined in 50 CFR 300.201, means:
(1) In the case of parties to an international fishery management agreement to which the United States is a party, fishing activities that violate conservation and management measures required under an international fishery management agreement to which the United States is a party, including but not limited to catch limits or quotas, capacity restrictions, bycatch reduction requirements, shark conservation measures, and data reporting;
(2) In the case of non-parties to an international fishery management agreement to which the United States is a party, fishing activities that would undermine the conservation of the resources managed under that agreement;
(3) Overfishing of fish stocks shared by the United States, for which there are no applicable international conservation or management measures, or in areas with no applicable international fishery management organization or agreement, that has adverse impacts on such stocks;
(4) Fishing activity that has a significant adverse impact on seamounts, hydrothermal vents, cold water corals and other vulnerable marine ecosystems located beyond any national jurisdiction, for which there are no applicable conservation or management measures or in areas with no applicable international fishery management organization or agreement; or
(5) Fishing activities by foreign flagged vessels in U.S. waters without authorization of the United States.
While there is likely some level of IUU fishing for Pacific bluefin tuna in the Pacific, no reports of substantial IUU fishing have emerged, thus the amount cannot be determined. However, improvements to catch document schemes in several countries have been proposed/implemented in an effort to combat IUU harvest, and the most recent advice from the relevant RFMOs requires improvements to reporting. The SRT members had a range of opinions on the effects of IUU fishing on population decline or degradation for Pacific bluefin tuna, ranging from no impact to moderate impact. The SRT therefore performed a SEDM analysis to arrive at the conclusion that the magnitude of potential IUU fishing losses for Pacific bluefin tuna were likely low relative to existing commercial catches and thus not likely to increase substantially in the future; however, the certainty around this determination is low.
Given the absence of estimates of IUU fishing losses for Pacific bluefin tuna, we have a low level of certainty for this threat. However, with the continued improvements in catch documentation and the assumption of low IUU take relative to the commercial harvest, we determined that IUU fishing represented a low to moderate risk of contributing to population decline or degradation in Pacific bluefin tuna.
Pacific bluefin tuna are used in scientific research for a range of studies such as migration patterns, stable isotope analysis, and feeding preference. The amount of lethal use of Pacific bluefin tuna in scientific and educational pursuits is negligible, as most tissues used in research (
Studies of disease in Pacific bluefin tuna are largely absent from the literature. Most studies involve the identification of parasites normally associated with cage culture. Parasites are often associated with mortalities and reduced production among farmed marine fishes (Hayward
Munday
Young Pacific bluefin tuna are often infected with red sea bream iridoviral, but the disease never appears in Pacific bluefin tuna more than 1 year of age, and occurrence is restricted to periods of water temperatures greater than 24 °C (Munday
There is no evidence of transmission of parasites or other pathogens from captive Pacific bluefin tuna in tuna ranches. This is likely due to the fact that wild Pacific bluefin tuna are not likely to be in close enough proximity to pens used to house Pacific bluefin tuna.
We find that disease poses no to low risk of contributing to population decline or degradation in Pacific bluefin tuna. This was based largely on the absence of empirical evidence of abnormal levels of natural disease outbreaks in Pacific bluefin tuna, the absence of observations of wild Pacific bluefin tuna swimming in close enough proximity to “farms” such that disease transmission is possible, and the absence of empirical evidence showing disease transmission from “farms” to wild Pacific bluefin tuna.
As large predators, Pacific bluefin tuna are not heavily preyed upon naturally after their first few years. Predators of adult Pacific bluefin tuna may include marine mammals such as killer whales (
We find that natural predation poses no to low risk of contributing to population decline or degradation in Pacific bluefin tuna. This was based primarily on the limited diversity of predators and absence of empirical evidence showing abnormal decline/degradation of Pacific bluefin tuna by predation.
The current management and regulatory schemes for Pacific bluefin tuna are intrinsically linked to the patterns of utilization discussed in the previous section “Overutilization for Commercial, Recreational, Scientific or Educational Purposes.” The evaluation in this section focuses on the adequacy or inadequacy of the current management and regulatory schemes to address the threats identified in the section on “Overutilization for Commercial, Recreational, Scientific or Educational Purposes.”
Pacific bluefin tuna fisheries are managed under the authorities of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (MSA), the Tuna Conventions Act of 1950 (TCA), and the Western and Central Pacific Fisheries Convention Implementation Act (WCPFCIA). The TCA and WCPFCIA authorize the Secretary of Commerce to implement the conservation and management measures of the Inter-American Tropical Tuna Commission (IATTC) and Western and Central Pacific Fisheries Commission (WCPFC), respectively.
Pacific bluefin tuna is managed as a single Pacific-wide stock under two RFMOs: The IATTC and the WCPFC. Both RFMOs are responsible for establishing conservation and management measures based on the scientific information, such as stock status, obtained from the ISC.
The IATTC has scientific staff that, in addition to conducting scientific studies and stock assessments, also provides science-based management advice. After reviewing the Pacific bluefin tuna stock assessment prepared by the ISC, the IATTC develops resolutions. Mexico and the United States are the two IATTC member countries that currently fish for, and have historically fished for, Pacific bluefin tuna in the EPO. Thus, the IATTC resolutions adopted were intended to apply to these two countries.
The WCPFC has a Northern Committee (WCPFC-NC), which consists of a subset of the WCPFC members and cooperating non-members, that meets annually in advance of the WCPFC meeting to discuss management of designated “northern stocks” (currently North Pacific albacore, Pacific bluefin tuna, and North Pacific swordfish). After reviewing the stock assessments prepared by the ISC, the WCPFC-NC develops the conservation and management measures for northern stocks and makes recommendations to the full Commission for the adoption of measures. Because Pacific bluefin tuna is a “northern stock” in the WCPFC Convention Area, without the recommendation of the Northern Committee, those measures would not be adopted by the WCPFC. The WCPFC's Scientific Committee also has a role in providing advice to the WCPFC with respect to Pacific bluefin tuna; to date its role has been largely limited to reviewing and endorsing the stock assessments prepared by the ISC.
The IATTC and WCPFC first adopted conservation and management measures for Pacific bluefin tuna in 2009, and the measures have been revised five times. The conservation and management measures include harvest limits, size limits, and stock status monitoring plans. In recent years, coordination among both RFMOs has improved in an effort to harmonize conservation and management measures to rebuild the depleted stock. The most relevant resolutions as they relate to recent Pacific bluefin tuna management are detailed below.
In 2012, the IATTC adopted Resolution C-12-09, which set commercial catch limits on Pacific bluefin tuna in the EPO for the first time. This resolution limited catch by all IATTC members to 5,600 mt in 2012 and to 10,000 mt in 2012 and 2013 combined, notwithstanding an allowance of up to 500 mt annually for any member with a historical catch record of Pacific bluefin tuna in the eastern Pacific Ocean (
The conservation and management measures adopted by the WCPFC have become increasingly restrictive since the initial 2009 measure. In 2009, total fishing effort north of 20° N. was limited to the 2002-2004 annual average level. At this time, an interim management objective—to ensure that the current level of fishing mortality rate was not increased in the western Pacific Ocean—was also established. In 2010, Conservation and Management Measure (referred to as CMM) 2010-04 established catch restrictions in addition to the effort limits described above for 2011 and 2012. A similar measure, CMM 2012-06, was adopted for 2013. In 2014 (CMM 2013-09) all catch of Pacific bluefin tuna less than 30 kilograms (kg) was reduced by 15 percent below the 2002-2004 annual average. In 2015 (CMM 2014-04) the harvest of Pacific bluefin tuna less than 30 kilograms was reduced to 50 percent of the 2002-2004 annual average. The CMM 2014-04 also limits all catches of Pacific bluefin tuna greater than 30 kg to no more than the 2002-2004 annual average level. The measure was amended in 2015 (CMM 2015-04) to include a requirement to adopt an “emergency rule” where additional actions would be triggered if recruitment in 2016 was extremely poor. However, this emergency rule was not
In summary, the WCPFC adopted harvest limits for Pacific bluefin tuna in 2010 and further reduced those limits in 2012, 2014, and 2016. The IATTC adopted harvest limits for Pacific bluefin tuna in 2012 and further reduced those limits in 2014 and 2016. Additionally, both RFMOs addressed concerns about monitoring harvest by adopting monitoring and reporting plans in 2010. Furthermore, the ISC stock assessment predicts that under all scenarios the current harvest limits will allow for rebuilding the abundance of Pacific bluefin tuna to targets by 2030.
After thorough discussion, the SRT members had a range of opinions on the effects of international management on population decline or degradation for Pacific bluefin tuna, ranging from no impact to high impact. The SRT therefore used SEDM to arrive at the conclusion that inadequacy of international management poses a low risk of contributing to population decline or degradation in Pacific bluefin tuna over the short time period (25 years) and a moderate risk over the long time period (100 years).
Domestic fisheries are managed under the MSA. The MSA provides regional fishery management councils with authority to prepare Fishery Management Plans (FMPs) for the conservation and management of fisheries in the U.S. EEZ. The MSA was reauthorized and amended in 1996 by the Sustainable Fisheries Act (SFA) and again in 2006 by the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Reauthorization Act (MSRA). Among other modifications, the SFA added requirements that FMPs include measures to rebuild overfished stocks.
The Pacific Fishery Management Council (Pacific Council) has purview over the U.S. West Coast fisheries, which catch the large majority of Pacific bluefin tuna caught by U.S. vessels. The Pacific Council makes recommendations on the implementation of the FMP for U.S. West Coast Fisheries for highly migratory species (HMS FMP) for consideration by NMFS. Additionally, the Pacific Council makes recommendations to NMFS on issues expected to be considered by the IATTC and WCPFC. During its November 2016 meeting, the Pacific Council, in response to a petition that NMFS received by the Center for Biological Diversity, recommended a review of domestic status determination criteria for Pacific bluefin tuna at upcoming meetings in March, June, and September 2017. The domestic status determination criteria, also commonly referred to as reference points, are targets for fishing effort and abundance of the population. At the March 2017 meeting, NMFS provided a report to the Pacific Council that included domestic status determination criteria for Pacific bluefin tuna.
The Pacific Council, in response to NMFS' 2013 determination that the Pacific bluefin tuna stock was overfished and subject to overfishing (78 FR 41033; July 9, 2013), recommended reducing the bag and possession limits for Pacific bluefin tuna in the recreational fishery. The Pacific Council recommended reducing the daily bag limit from 10 to 2 fish and the possession limit from 30 to 6 fish. Based on analyses conducted at the SWFSC, this was projected to reduce landings by 10.4 percent in U.S. waters and 19.4 percent in U.S. and Mexican waters combined (Stohs, 2016). We published a final rule in 2015 implementing the bag limit of two fish per day and possession limit of six fish per trip (80 FR 44887, July 28, 2015).
NMFS coordinates closely with the California Department of Fish and Wildlife (CDFW) to monitor the Pacific bluefin tuna fishery. The State of California requires that fish landed in California have a corresponding receipt, which indicates quantity landed. Together, NMFS and CDFW monitor landings to ensure catch limits agreed to by the IATTC are not exceeded.
In summary, NMFS initially set limits for commercial and recreational harvest limits in 2010 and further reduced those limits in 2012, 2014, and 2016. The CDFW monitors and reports commercial and recreation harvest to NMFS. When U.S. commercial catch limits are met, NMFS closes the fishery. Furthermore, the ISC stock assessment predicts that the current harvest limits will allow for stable or increasing Pacific bluefin tuna SSB. We expect the current harvest limits to be effective at reducing the impact of domestic commercial and recreational fisheries, and we will continue to monitor the effectiveness of those regulations. We find that U.S. domestic management of commercial and recreational fishing poses no or low risk of contributing to population decline or degradation in Pacific bluefin tuna.
The other factors affecting the continued existence of Pacific bluefin tuna that we analyzed are climate change, radiation contamination from Fukushima, and the risks of low abundance levels inherent in small populations.
Over the next several decades climate change models predict changes to many atmospheric and oceanographic conditions. The SRT considered these predictions in light of the best available information. The SRT felt that there were three physical factors resulting from climate change predictions that would have the most impact on Pacific bluefin tuna: Rising sea surface temperatures (SST), increased ocean acidification, and decreases in dissolved oxygen.
Rising SST may affect Pacific bluefin tuna spawning and larval development, prey availability, and trans-pacific migration habits. Pacific bluefin tuna spawning has only been recorded in two locations: Near the Philippines and Ryukyu Islands in spring, and in the Sea of Japan during summer (Okochi
Currently, SSTs within the theoretically suitable range for larvae are present near the Ryukyu Islands between April and June, and in the Sea of Japan during July and August (Caiyun & Ge 2006; Seo
The precise mechanisms by which warming waters will affect Pacific bluefin tuna larvae are not entirely clear. Kimura
Similar to other tuna species, larval Pacific bluefin tuna appear to have highly specialized and selective diets (Uotani
Climate change may affect the foraging habitats of Pacific bluefin tuna. Adult and older juvenile (>1 year) Pacific bluefin tuna disperse from the spawning grounds in the western Pacific and older juveniles can make extensive migrations, using much of the temperate North Pacific. An unknown proportion of 1-2 year old fish migrate to foraging grounds in the eastern North Pacific (California Current LME) and typically remain and forage in this region for several years (Bayliff
Sea surface temperatures in the California Current are expected to increase up to 1.5-2 °C by the end of the 21st century (Hazen
The high productivity and biodiversity of the California Current is driven largely by seasonal coastal upwelling. Although there is considerable uncertainty on how climate change will impact coastal upwelling, basic principles indicate a potential for upwelling intensification (Bakun 1990). Bakun's hypothesis suggested that the rate of heating over land would be enhanced relative to that over the ocean, resulting in a stronger cross-shore pressure gradient and a proportional increase in alongshore winds and resultant upwelling (Bakun
To date, global climate models have generally been too coarse to adequately resolve coastal upwelling processes (Stock
The information directly relating to food web alterations that may impact Pacific bluefin tuna is scarce. While changes to upwelling dynamics in foraging areas have been examined, it is still relatively speculative, and literature on the potential impacts of the projected changes is limited. Given their trophic position as an apex predator, and the fact that Pacific bluefin tuna are opportunistic feeders that can change their preferred diet from year to year, alterations to the food web may have less impact on Pacific bluefin tuna than on other organisms that are reliant on specific food sources.
Climate change may affect the Pacific bluefin tuna's migratory pathways. Pacific bluefin tuna undergo trans-Pacific migrations, in both directions, between the western Pacific spawning grounds and eastern Pacific foraging grounds (Boustany
Under RCP 8.5, SSTs in the NPTZ are expected to increase by 2-3 °C by the end of the 21st century (Woodworth-Jefcoats
A recent study of projected climate change in the North Pacific that used an ensemble of 11 climate models, including measures of primary and secondary production, found that increasing temperatures could alter the spatial distribution of tuna and billfish species across the North Pacific (Woodworth-Jefcoats
As CO
Current projections estimate a future decline in dissolved oxygen of 3-6 percent by 2100 under RCP 8.5 (Bindoff
Another factor to include in considerations of climate change impacts is biogeochemical changes. Driven by upper ocean warming, changes in source waters, enhanced stratification, and reduced mixing, the dissolved oxygen content of mid-depth oceanic waters is expected to decline (Keeling
The effects of increasing hypoxia on marine fauna in the California Current may be magnified by ocean acidification. Ekstrom
We find that ocean acidification and changes in dissolved oxygen content due to climate change pose a very low risk to the decline or degradation of the Pacific bluefin tuna on the short-term time scale (25 years), and low to moderate threat on the long-time scale (100 years). The reasoning behind this decision for acidification centered primarily on the disconnect between Pacific bluefin tuna and the lower trophic level prey which would be directly affected by acidification as well as by the lack of information on direct impacts on acidification on pelagic fish. Conclusions by the SRT members on the rising SST due to climate change required SEDM, as the range of values assigned by each SRT member was large. Following the SEDM, the SRT concluded that SST rise poses a low risk of contributing to population decline or degradation in PBF over the short (25 year) and long (100 year) time frames. This decision was reached primarily due to the highly migratory nature of Pacific bluefin tuna; despite likely latitudinal shifts in preferred habitat, it would take little effort for Pacific bluefin tuna to shift their movements along with the changing conditions.
On 11 March, 2011, the Tōhoku megathrust earthquake at magnitude 9.1 produced a devastating tsunami that hit the Pacific coast of Japan. As a result of the earthquake, the Fukushima Daiichi Nuclear Power Plant was compromised, releasing radionuclides directly into the adjacent sea. The result was a 1- to 2-week pulse of emissions of the caesium radioisotopes Caesium-134 and Caesium-137. These isotopes were biochemically available to organisms in direct contact with the contaminated water (Oozeki
Madigan
Fisher
We find that Fukushima associated radiation poses no risk of contributing to population decline or degradation in Pacific bluefin tuna. This was based largely on the absence of empirical evidence showing negative effects of Fukushima derived radiation on Pacific bluefin tuna.
Small populations face a number of inherent risks. These risks are tied to survival and reproduction (
In small populations, individuals may have difficulty finding a mate. However, the probability of finding a mate depends largely on density on the spawning grounds rather than absolute abundance. Pacific bluefin tuna are a schooling species and individual Pacific bluefin tuna are not randomly distributed throughout their range. They also exhibit regular seasonal migration patterns that include aggregating at two separate spawning grounds (Kitigawa
Another concern with small populations is demographic stochasticity. Demographic stochasticity refers to the variability of annual population change arising from random birth and death events at the individual level. When populations are very small (
Small populations may also face Allee effects. If a population is critically small in size, Allee effects can act upon genetic diversity to reduce the prevalence of beneficial alleles through genetic drift. This may lower the population's fitness by reducing adaptive potential and increasing the accumulation of deleterious alleles due to increased levels of inbreeding. Population genetic theory typically sets a threshold of 50 individuals (
With respect to considerations of N
Animals that are highly mobile with a large range are less susceptible to stochastic and catastrophic events (such as oil spills) than those that occur in concentrated areas across life history stages. Pacific bluefin tuna are likely to be resilient to catastrophic and stochastic events for the following reasons: (1) They are highly migratory, (2) there is a large degree of spatial separation between life history stages, (3) there are two separated spawning areas, and (4) adults reproduce over many years such that poor recruitment even over a series of years will not result in reproductive collapse. As long as this spatial arrangement persists and poor recruitment years do not exceed the reproductive age span for the species, Pacific bluefin tuna should be resilient to both stochastic and catastrophic events.
Although Pacific bluefin tuna are resilient to many of the risks that small populations face, there is increasing evidence for a reduction in population growth rate for marine fishes that have been fished to densities below those expected from natural fluctuations (Hutchings 2000, 2001). These studies focus on failure to recover at expected rates. A far more serious issue is not just reducing population growth but reducing it to the point that populations decrease (death rates exceed recruitment). Unfortunately, the reviews of marine fish stocks do not make a distinction between these two important categories of depensation: Reduced but neutral or positive growth versus negative growth. Many of the cases reviewed suggested depensatory effects for populations reduced to relatively low levels (0.2 to 0.5 SSB
Hutchings
We find that small population concerns pose low risk of contributing to population decline or degradation in Pacific bluefin tuna over both the 25- and 100-year time scales, though with low certainty. This was largely due to the estimated population size of more than 1.6 million individuals, of which at least 140,000 are reproductively capable. This, coupled with previous evidence of recovery from similarly low numbers and newly implemented harvest regulations, strongly suggests that small population concerns are not particularly serious in Pacific bluefin tuna.
As noted previously, the SRT conducted its analysis in a 3-step progressive process. First, the SRT evaluated the risk of 25 different threats (covering all of the ESA section 4(a)(1) categories) contributing to a decline or degradation of Pacific bluefin tuna. The second step was to evaluate the extinction risk in each of the 4(a)(1) categories. Finally, they performed an overall extinction risk analysis over two timeframes—25 years and 100 years.
In step one, the evaluation of the risk of individual threats contributing to a decline or degradation of Pacific bluefin tuna considered how these threats have affected and how they are expected to continue to affect the species. The threats were evaluated in light of the vulnerability of and exposure to the threat, and the biological response. This evaluation of individual threats and the potential demographic risk they pose forms the basis of understanding used during the extinction risk analysis to inform the overall assessment of extinction risk.
Within each threat category, individual threats have not only different magnitudes of influence on the overall risk to the species (weights) but also different degrees of certainty. The overall threat within a category is cumulative across these individual threats. Thus, the overall threat is no less than that for the individual threat with the highest influence but may be greater as the threats are taken together. For example, some of the individual threats rated as “moderate” may result in an overall threat for that category of at least “moderate” but potentially “high.” When evaluating the overall threat, individual team members considered all threats taken together and performed a mental calculation, weighting the threats according to their expertise using the definitions below.
Each team member was asked to record his or her confidence in their overall scoring for that category. If, for example, the scoring for the overall threat confidence was primarily a function of a single threat and that threat had a high level of certainty, then
The level of severity is defined as the level of risk of this threat category contributing to the decline or degradation of the species over each time frame (over the next 25 years or over the next 100 years). Specific rankings for severity are: (1) High: The threat category is likely to eliminate or seriously degrade the species; (2) moderate: The threat category is likely to moderately degrade the species; (3) low: The threat category is likely to only slightly impair the species; and (4) none: The threat category is not likely to impact the species.
The level of confidence is defined as the level of confidence that the threat category is affecting, or is likely to affect, the species over the time frame considered. Specific rankings for confidence are: (1) High: There is a high degree of confidence to support the conclusion that this threat category is affecting, or is likely to affect, the species with the severity ascribed over the time frame considered; (2) moderate: There is a moderate degree of confidence to support the conclusion that this threat category is affecting, or is likely to affect, the species with the severity ascribed over the time frame considered; (3) low: There is a low degree of confidence to support the conclusion that this threat category is affecting, or is likely to affect, the species with the severity ascribed over the time frame considered; and (4) none: There is no confidence to support the conclusion that this threat category is affecting, or is likely to affect, the species with the severity ascribed over the time frame considered.
Based on the best available information and the SRT's SEDM analysis, we find that overutilization, particularly by commercial fishing activities, poses a moderate risk of decline or degradation of the species over both the 25 and 100-year time scales. While the degree of certainty for this risk assessment was moderate for the 25-year time frame, it was low for the 100-year time frame. This largely reflects the inability to accurately predict trends in both population size and catch over the longer time frame. In addition, management regimes may shift in either direction in response to the population trends at the time.
Over the short and long time frames, we find that habitat destruction, disease, and predation are not likely to pose a risk to the extinction of the Pacific bluefin tuna. Among the specific threats in the Habitat Destruction category, water pollution was ranked the highest (mean severity score 1.5). This was largely due to the fact that any degradation to Pacific bluefin tuna by water pollution is a passive event. That is, behavioral avoidance might not be possible, whereas other specific threats involved factors where active avoidance would be possible.
We also find that based on the best available information and the SRT's SEDM analysis, the inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms poses a low risk of decline or degradation to the species over both the 25- and 100-year time scales, given the stable or upward trends of future projected SSB over the short time scale from various harvest scenarios in the 2016 ISC stock assessment. The confidence levels were moderate for the 25-year time frame and low for the 100-year time frame.
Lastly, we find that other natural or manmade factors, which included climate change and small population concerns, pose a low risk of decline or degradation to the species over the 25-year time frame and moderate risk over the 100-year time frame.
As described previously, following the evaluation of the risk of 25 specific threats contributing to the decline or degradation of Pacific bluefin tuna, the SRT then conducted step 2 and step 3 to perform an extinction risk analysis. In step two the SRT used SEDM to evaluate the contribution of each section 4(a)(1) factor to extinction risk. Finally, in step 3 the SRT performed an overall extinction risk analysis over two timeframes—25 years and 100 years.
This final risk assessment considered the threats, the results from the recent stock assessment, the species life history, and historical trends. After considering all factors, team members were asked to distribute 100 plausibility points into one of three risk categories for the short term and long term time frames. The short-term time frame was 25 years and the long-term time frame was 100 years.
The SRT defined the extinction risk categories as low, moderate, and high. The species is deemed to be at low risk of extinction if at least one of the following conditions is met: (1) The species has high abundance or productivity; (2) There are stable or increasing trends in abundance; and (3) The distributional characteristics of the species are such that they allow resiliency to catastrophes or environmental changes. The species is deemed to be at moderate risk of extinction if it is not at high risk and at least one of the following conditions is met: (1) There are unstable or decreasing trends in abundance or productivity which are substantial relative to overall population size; (2) There have been reductions in genetic diversity; or (3) The distributional characteristics of the species are such that they make the species vulnerable to catastrophes or environmental changes. Finally, the species is deemed to be at high risk of extinction if at least one of the following conditions is met: (1) The abundance of the species is such that depensatory effects are plausible; (2) There are declining trends in abundance that are substantial relative to overall population size; (3) There is low and decreasing genetic diversity; (4) There are current or predicted environmental changes that may strongly and negatively affect a life history stage for a significant period of time; or (5) The species has distributional characteristics that result in vulnerability to catastrophes or environmental changes.
The SRT members distributed their plausibility points across all three risk categories, with most members placing their points in the low and moderate risk categories. Over the 25-year time frame, a large proportion of plausibility points were assigned to the low and moderate risk by some team members. Over the 100-year time frame, more points were assigned to the moderate risk category by all members and a few members assigned points to the high risk category. After the scores were recorded, the SRT calculated the average number of points for each risk category under both the 25 and 100-year timeframes. For both timeframes, the greatest number of points were in the low risk category. The average number of points for the low risk category was 68 for the 25-year timeframe and 51 for the 100-year timeframe.
There are a number of factors that contributed to the low ranking of the overall extinction risk over both the 25 and 100-year time frames. The large number of mature individuals, while small relative to the theoretical, model-derived unfished population, coupled
After evaluating the extinction risk SEDM analysis conducted by the SRT over the 25-year and 100-year timeframes, we considered the overall extinction risk categories described below:
The SRT evaluation of extinction risk placed the majority of distributed points in the low risk category for both the 25-year and 100-year timeframes. The SRT members explained their assessment of low risk over those timeframes recognizing that the large number of mature individuals, while small relative to the theoretical, model-derived unfished population, coupled with the total estimated population size, was deemed sufficiently large for Pacific bluefin tuna to avoid small population effects. Harvest regulations have been adopted by member nations to reduce landings and rebuild the population, with all model results from the ISC stock assessment analysis (ISC 2016) showing stable or increasing trends under current management measures. Also, the SRT noted that over the past 40 years the SSB has been low relative to the theoretical, model-derived unfished population (less than 10 percent of unfished), and it has increased before. While the SRT agreed that climate change has the potential to negatively impact the population, many members of the team felt that the Pacific bluefin tuna's broad distribution across habitat, its vagile nature, and its generalist foraging strategy were mitigating factors in terms of extinction risk.
Based upon the expert opinion of the SRT and for the reasons described above, we determine that the overall extinction risk to Pacific bluefin tuna is most accurately characterized by the description of the low risk category as noted above.
Section 4(b)(1) of the ESA requires that NMFS make listing determinations based solely on the best scientific and commercial data available after conducting a review of the status of the species and taking into account those efforts, if any, being made by any state or foreign nation, or political subdivisions thereof, to protect and conserve the species. We are not aware of additional conservation efforts being made by any state or foreign nation to protect and conserve the species other than the fishery management agreements already considered, thus no additional measures were evaluated in this finding.
As the definitions of “endangered species” and “threatened species” make clear, the determination of extinction risk can be based on either assessment of the rangewide status of the species, or the status of the species in a “significant portion of its range” (SPR). Because we determined that the Pacific bluefin tuna is at low risk of extinction throughout its range, the species does not warrant listing based on its rangewide status. Next, we needed to determine whether the species is threatened or endangered in a significant portion of its range. According to the SPR Policy (79 FR 37577; July 1, 2014), if a species is found to be endangered or threatened in a significant portion of its range, the entire species is listed as endangered or threatened, respectively, and the ESA's protections apply to all individuals of the species wherever found.
On March 29, 2017, the Arizona District Court in
The SPR Policy sets out the following three components:
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(2) The range of a species is considered to be the general geographical area within which that species can be found at the time NMFS
(3) If the species is endangered or threatened throughout a significant portion of its range, and the population in that significant portion is a valid DPS, we will list the DPS rather than the entire taxonomic species or subspecies.
When we conduct a SPR analysis, we first identify any portions of the range that warrant further consideration. The range of a species can theoretically be divided into portions in an infinite number of ways. However, there is no purpose to analyzing portions of the range that are not reasonably likely to be of relatively greater biological significance, or in which a species may not be endangered or threatened. To identify only those portions that warrant further consideration, we determine whether there is substantial information indicating that (1) the portions may be significant and (2) the species may be in danger of extinction in those portions or likely to become so within the foreseeable future. We emphasize that answering these questions in the affirmative is not a determination that the species is endangered or threatened throughout a SPR, rather, it is a step in determining whether a more detailed analysis of the issue is required. Making this preliminary determination triggers a need for further review, but does not prejudge whether the portion actually meets these standards such that the species should be listed.
If this preliminary determination identifies a particular portion or portions that may be significant and that may be threatened or endangered, those portions must then be evaluated under the SPR Policy as to whether the portion is in fact both significant and endangered or threatened. In making a determination of significance under the SPR Policy we would consider the contribution of the individuals in that portion to the viability of the species. That is, we would determine whether the portion's contribution to the viability of the species is so important that, without the members in that portion, the species would be in danger of extinction or likely to become so in the foreseeable future. Depending on the biology of the species, its range, and the threats it faces, it may be more efficient to address the “significant” question first, or the status question first. If we determine that a portion of the range we are examining is not significant, we would not need to determine whether the species is endangered or threatened there; if we determine that the species is not endangered or threatened in the portion of the range we are examining, then we would not need to determine if that portion is significant.
Because Pacific bluefin tuna range broadly throughout their lifecycle around the Pacific basin, there was no portion of the range that, if lost, would increase the population's extinction risk. In other words, risk of specific threats to Pacific bluefin tuna are buffered both in space and time. To be thorough, the SRT examined the potential for a SPR by considering the greatest known threats to the species and whether these were localized to a significant portion of the range of the species. The main threats to Pacific bluefin tuna identified by the SRT were overutilization, inadequacy of management, and climate change. Generally, these threats are spread throughout the range of Pacific bluefin tuna and not localized to a specific region.
We also considered whether any potential SPRs might be identified on the basis of threats faced by the species in a portion of its range during one part of its life cycle. We further evaluated the potential for the two known spawning areas to meet the two criteria for a SPR. The spawning areas for Pacific bluefin tuna are likely to be somewhat temporally and spatially fluid in that they are characterized by physical oceanographic conditions (
Pacific bluefin tuna range broadly throughout their life cycle around the Pacific basin, and there is no portion of the range that merits evaluation as a potential SPR. If a threat was determined to impact the fish in the spawning area, it would impact the fish throughout its range and, therefore, the species would warrant listing as threatened or endangered based on its status throughout its entire range. Based on our review of the best available information, we find that there are no portions of the range of the Pacific bluefin tuna that were likely to be of heightened biological significance (relative to other areas) or likely to be either endangered or threatened themselves.
Section 4(b)(1) of the ESA requires that NMFS make listing determinations based solely on the best scientific and commercial data available after conducting a review of the status of the species and taking into account those efforts, if any, being made by any state or foreign nation, or political subdivisions thereof, to protect and conserve the species. We have independently reviewed the best available scientific and commercial information including the petition, public comments submitted on the 90-day finding (81 FR 70074; October 11, 2016), the status review report, and other published and unpublished information, and have consulted with species experts and individuals familiar with Pacific bluefin tuna. We considered each of the statutory factors to determine whether it presented an extinction risk to the species on its own, now or in the foreseeable future, and also considered the combination of those factors to determine whether they collectively contributed to the extinction risk of the species, now or in the foreseeable future.
Our determination set forth here is based on a synthesis and integration of the foregoing information, factors and considerations, and their effects on the status of the species throughout its entire range. Based on our consideration of the best available scientific and commercial information, as summarized here and in the status review report, we conclude that no population segments of the Pacific bluefin tuna meet the DPS policy criteria and that the Pacific bluefin tuna faces an overall low risk of extinction. Therefore, we conclude that the species is not currently in danger of extinction throughout its range nor is it
This is a final action, and, therefore, we are not soliciting public comments.
A complete list of all references cited herein is available upon request (see
The authority for this action is the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense.
Arms sales notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Pamela Young, (703) 697-9107,
This 36(b)(1) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 17-34 with attached Policy Justification and Sensitivity of Technology.
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* As defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of Australia requested the possible sale of thirty-two (32) Multifunctional Information Distribution System Joint Tactical Radio System (MIDS JTRS) with four channel Concurrent Multi-Network (CMN-4), and thirty-nine (39) AN/ALQ-214A(V)4 Countermeasure Systems. This will also include all system integration and testing, component improvement, test and tools equipment upgrades, support equipment replenishment, supply support, publications and technical document updates, personnel training and training equipment upgrades, aircrew trainer device upgrades, U.S. Government and contractor technical assistance and other related elements of logistical and program support. The total estimated program cost is $101.4 million.
This sale will contribute to the foreign policy and national security of the United States by helping to improve the security of a major contributor to political stability, security, and economic development in the Western Pacific. Australia is an important Major non-NATO Ally and partner that contributes significantly to peacekeeping and humanitarian operations around the world. It is vital to the U.S. national interest to assist our ally in developing and maintaining a strong and ready self-defense capability.
The proposed sale will improve Australia's capability in current and future coalition efforts. This equipment will help the Royal Australian Air Force better communicate with and protect its F/A-18 aircraft, and the addition of MIDS JTRS will accomplish the goal of making U.S. and Australian aircraft more interoperable when supporting operational forces. Australia will have no difficulty absorbing this equipment into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this equipment does not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The prime contractors will be the Harris Corporation, Melbourne, FL. There are no known offset agreements proposed in connection with this potential sale.
Implementation of this proposed sale may require the assignment of U.S. contractor representatives to Australia which will be determined at a later date.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
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1. Multifunctional Information Distribution System (MIDS) Joint Tactical Radio System (JTRS) Concurrent Multi-Network (CMN-4) is classified CONFIDENTIAL. MIDS JTRS CMN-4 is a secure data and voice communication network using the Link-16 architecture. The system provides enhanced situational awareness, positive identification of participants with the network, secure fighter-to-fighter connectivity, and secure voice capability. It provides three major functions: Air Control, Wide Area Surveillance, and Fighter-to-Fighter. The MIDS JTRS CMN-4 can be used to transfer data in Air-to-Air, Air-to-Surface and Fighter-to-Fighter scenarios.
2. The AN/ALQ-214A(V)4 is an advanced airborne Integrated Defensive Electronic Countermeasures (IDECM) programmable modular automated system capable of intercepting, identifying, processing received radar signals (pulsed and continuous) and applying an optimum probability of survival from a variety of surface-to-air and air-to-air RF threats. The system operates in a standalone or Electronic Warfare (EW) suite mode. In the EW suite mode, the system operates various dispensable countermeasures and the onboard radar in the F/A-18E/F in a coordinated, non-interference manner, sharing information for enhanced information. The ALQ-214 was designed to operate in a high-density Electromagnetic Hostile Environment with the ability to identify and counter a wide variety of multiple threats including those with Doppler characteristics. Hardware with the AN/ALQ-214A(V)4 is classified CONFIDENTIAL.
3. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures or equivalent system which might reduce system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities.
4. A determination has been made that Australia can provide substantially the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This sale is necessary in furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification.
5. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to Australia.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense.
Arms sales notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Pamela Young, (703) 697-9107,
This 36(b)(1) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 17-25 with attached Policy Justification and Sensitivity of Technology.
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Foreign Military Sales (FMS) case NE-B-WFV, implemented in June 2013, was below congressional notification threshold at $26.3M ($20M in MDE) and included one hundred and eighty (180) AGM-114R Hellfire II Missiles and twenty-four (24) M36E8 Captive Air Training Missiles (CATM). The Netherlands has requested the case be amended to include an additional seventy (70) AGM-114R Hellfire II missiles. This amendment will push the current case above the MDE notification threshold and thus requires notification of the entire case.
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* As defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of the Netherlands has requested the possible sale of an additional seventy (70) AGM-114R Hellfire II missiles to a previously implemented case for Hellfire missiles. The original FMS case, valued at $26.3M, included one hundred and eighty (180) AGM-114R Hellfire II Missiles and twenty-four (24) M36E8 Captive Air Training Missiles (CATM) with various support elements. Therefore, this case is for a total of two hundred fifty (250) AGM-114R Hellfire II Missiles, twenty-four (24) M36E8 CATMs, to include Hellfire missile cutaway model, AGM-114R missile spare parts, a Launcher Test Station (LTS), LTS spares, two (2) maintenance support devices, integrated logistics support tools, M299 launcher software upgrade and testing, aircrew familiarization training, launcher test station training, unclassified publications, technical assistance, AN/AWM-101A software, CATM spare parts and related support services, and other related elements of logistics and program support. The estimated total case value is $34 million.
This proposed sale will enhance the foreign policy and national security objectives of the United States by helping to improve the security of the Netherlands which has been, and continues to be an important force for political stability and economic progress in Europe. It is vital to the U.S. national interests to assist the Netherlands to develop and maintain a strong and ready self-defense capability.
The proposed sale will improve the Netherlands' capability to meet current and future threats and will be employed on the Netherlands' AH-64D Apache helicopters. The Netherlands will use this capability to strengthen its homeland defense, deter regional threats, and provide direct support to coalition operations. The Netherlands will have no difficulty absorbing these missiles into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of these missiles will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The principal contractor will be Lockheed Martin. The purchaser typically requests offsets. Any offset agreement will be defined in negotiations between the purchaser and the contractor.
Implementation of this proposed sale will not require the assignment of any additional U.S. Government personnel or contractor representatives to the Netherlands.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
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1. AGM-114R: The AGM-114R is used against heavy and light armored targets, thin skinned vehicles, urban structures, bunkers, caves and personnel. The missile is Inertial Measurement Unit (IMU) based, with a variable delay fuse, improved safety and reliability. The highest level for release of the AGM-114R is SECRET. Software and firmware documentation (
2. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures which might reduce weapons systems effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities.
3. A determination has been made that the Government of the Netherlands can provide substantially the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This proposed sale is necessary to the furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the policy justification.
4. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal are authorized for release and export to the Government of the Netherlands.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense.
Notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Pamela Young, (703) 697-9107
This 36(b)(1) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 17-35 with attached Policy Justification and Sensitivity of Technology.
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Also included with this request are communications equipment, tools and test equipment, support equipment, prime movers, generators, publications and technical documentation, training equipment, spare and repair parts, personnel training, TAFT team, U.S. Government and contractor technical, engineering, and logistics support services, Systems Integration and Checkout (SICO), field office support, and other related elements of logistics and program support.
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* As defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of Romania has requested the possible sale of seven (7) Patriot Configuration-3+ Modernized Fire Units consisting of: seven (7) AN/MPQ-65 radar sets, seven (7) AN/MSQ-132 engagement control stations, thirteen (13) antenna mast groups, twenty-eight (28) M903 launching stations, fifty-six (56) Patriot MIM-104E Guidance Enhanced Missile-TBM (GEM-T) missiles, one hundred and sixty-eight (168) Patriot Advanced Capabilty-3 (PAC-3) Missile Segment Enhancement (MSE) missiles, and seven (7) Electrical Power Plants (EPP) III. Also included with this request are communications equipment, tools and test equipment, support equipment, prime movers, generators, publications and technical documentation, training equipment, spare and repair parts, personnel training, TAFT team, U.S. Government and contractor technical, engineering, and logistics support services, Systems Integration and Checkout (SICO), field office support, and other related elements of logistics and program support. The total estimated program cost is $3.9 billion.
This proposed sale will enhance the foreign policy and national security objectives of the United States by helping to improve the security of a NATO ally that has been, and continues to be an important force for political stability and economic progress within Europe. The proposed sale of the Patriot system will support Romania's needs for its own self-defense and support NATO defense goals.
Romania will use the Patriot missile system to strengthen its homeland defense and deter regional threats. The proposed sale will increase the defensive capabilities of the Romanian military to guard against aggression and shield the NATO allies who often train and operate within Romania's borders. Romania should have no difficulty absorbing this system into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of these missiles and equipment will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The prime contractors will be Raytheon Corporation in Andover, Massachusetts, and Lockheed-Martin in Dallas, Texas. There are no known offset agreements proposed in connection with this potential sale.
Implementation of this proposed sale will require approximately 30 U.S. Government and 40 contractor representatives to travel to Romania for an extended period for equipment de-processing/fielding, system checkout, training, and technical and logistics support.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
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1. The Patriot Air Defense System contains classified CONFIDENTIAL hardware components, SECRET tactical software and CRITICAL/SENSITIVE technology. Patriot ground support equipment and Patriot missile hardware is classified CONFIDENTIAL and the associated launcher hardware is UNCLASSIFIED. Information on system performance capabilities, effectiveness, survivability, missile seeker capabilities, select software/software documentation and test data are classified up to and including SECRET. The items requested represent significant technological advances for Romania Patriot. The Patriot Air Defense System continues to hold a significant technology lead over other surface-to-air missile systems in the world.
2. The Patriot Air Defense System's sensitive/critical technology is primarily in the area of design and production know-how and primarily inherent in the design, development and/or manufacturing data related to certain components. The list of components is classified CONFIDENTIAL. For more information contact the PEO Missiles and Space Lower Tier Project Office.
3. The loss of this hardware, software, documentation and/or data could permit development of information which may lead to a significant threat to future U.S. military operations. If an adversary were to obtain this sensitive technology, the missile system effectiveness could be compromised through reverse engineering techniques.
4. This proposed sale is necessary in furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification. Moreover, the benefits to be derived from this sale, as outlined in the Policy Justification, outweigh the potential damage that could result if the sensitive technology were revealed to unauthorized persons.
5. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to Romania.
Department of Defense.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee meeting.
This notice is to announce that the following meetings of the Defense Science Board (DSB) and the 2017 DSB Summer Study Task Force on Countering Anti-access Systems with Longer Range and Standoff Capabilities (“the Long Range Effects 2017 Summer Study Task Force”) will meet in closed session.
The Defense Science Board 2017 Defense Science Board (DSB) Summer Study Task Force on Countering Antiaccess Systems with Longer Range and Standoff Capabilities will meet from July 31 to August 4, 2017, from 8:30 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.; and August 7 to August 10, 2017, from 8:30 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. The Defense Science Board will meet on August 9, 2017, from 11:00 a.m. to 1:00 p.m. and August 11, 2017, from 9:30 a.m. to 12:00 p.m.
Arnold and Mabel Beckman Center of the National Academies of Sciences and Engineering, 100 Academy Way, Irvine, CA 92617.
Defense Science Board Designated Federal Officer (DFO) Ms. Karen D.H. Saunders, (703) 571-0079 (Voice), (703) 697-1860 (Facsimile),
Due to circumstances beyond the control of the Designated Federal Officer and the Department of Defense, the Defense Science Board was unable to provide public notification concerning its meeting on August 9 and August 11, 2017, of the Defense Science Board as required by 41 CFR 102-3.150(a). Accordingly, the Advisory Committee Management Officer for the Department of Defense, pursuant to 41 CFR 102-3.150(b), waives the 15-calendar day notification requirement.
Due to circumstances beyond the control of the Designated Federal Officer and the Department of Defense, the Defense Science Board was unable to provide public notification concerning its meeting on July 31, 2017 through August 4, 2017, and August 7 through August 10, 2017, of the Defense Science Board 2017 Summer Study Task Force on Countering Anti-access Systems with Longer Range and Standoff Capabilities, as required by 41 CFR 102-3.150(a). Accordingly, the Advisory Committee Management Officer for the Department of Defense, pursuant to 41 CFR 102-3.150(b), waives the 15-calendar day notification requirement.
This meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended), the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976 (5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended), and 41 CFR 102-3.140 and 102-3.150.
The mission of the DSB is to provide independent advice and recommendations on matters relating to the Department of Defense's (DoD) scientific and technical enterprise. The objective of the Long Range Effects 2017 Summer Study Task Force is to explore new defense systems and technologies that will enable cost effective power projection that relies on the use of longer stand-off distances than current capabilities. System components may be deployed on manned or unmanned platforms with a range of potential autonomous capabilities. Use of cost reducing technology and advanced production practices from defense and commercial industry may be a major part of the strategy for deploying adequate numbers of weapons. This nine-day session will focus on coalescing all the information from briefings presented during the January, February, March, April, May, June and July meetings of the Long Range Effects 2017 Summer Study Task Force. The four panels (Architecture; Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance; Basing, Delivery, and Weapons; and Command, Control, Communications, and Cyber) will meet simultaneously to discuss topics and analyze data in support of the study.
Additionally, the DSB members will attend a working luncheon on August 9, 2017, from 11:00 a.m. to 1:00 p.m. to deliberate and vote on the findings and recommendations from the 2017 DSB Summer Study on Long Range Effects, and on August 11, 2017, from 9:30 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. to present the final outbriefing of the Long Range Effects 2017 Summer Study Task Force to DoD senior leaders.
In accordance with section 10(d) of the FACA and 41 CFR 102-3.155, the DoD has determined that the Defense Science Board and the Long Range Effects 2017 Summer Study Task Force meetings will be closed to the public. Specifically, the Under Secretary of Defense (Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics), in consultation with the DoD Office of General Counsel, has determined in writing that the DSB meetings and the Long Range Effects 2017 Summer Study Task Force meeting will be closed to the public because matters covered by 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(1) will be considered. The determination is based on the consideration that it is expected that discussions throughout the DSB meetings and the Long Range Effects 2017 Summer Study Task Force meeting will involve classified matters of national security concern. Such classified material is so intertwined with the unclassified material that it cannot reasonably be segregated into separate discussions without defeating the effectiveness and meaning of the overall meetings. To permit the meetings to be open to the public would preclude discussion of such matters and would greatly diminish the ultimate utility of the DSB's findings and recommendations to the Secretary of Defense and to the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics.
In accordance with section 10(a)(3) of the FACA and 41 CFR 102-3.105(j) and 102-3.140, interested persons may submit a written statement for consideration by the Long Range Effects 2017 Summer Study Task Force members at any time regarding its mission or in response to the stated agenda of a planned meeting. Individuals submitting a written statement must submit their statement to the DSB's DFO—Ms. Karen D.H. Saunders, Executive Director, Defense Science Board, 3140 Defense Pentagon, Room 3B888A, Washington, DC 20301, via email at
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense.
Notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Pamela Young, (703) 697-9107,
This 36(b)(1) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 17-30 with attached Policy Justification and Sensitivity of Technology.
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The following defense articles and services have been requested as part of a Service Life Extension Program for Switzerland's F/A-18C/D aircraft:
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* As defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of Switzerland has requested the possible sale of a Service Life Extension Program for its F/A-18C/D aircraft to include up to fifty (50) Multifunctional Information Distribution System Joint Tactical Radio System (MIDS JTRS) with Concurrent Multi-Net 4 (CMN-4) capability; fifty (50) ARC-210 GEN 5 RT-1900A(C) radios w/Second Generation Anti-Jam Tactical UHF Radio for NATO (SATURN) frequency hopping; twenty (20) Joint Helmet Mounted Cueing System (JHMCS) Night Vision Cueing Display (NVCD); CIT Automated Dependence Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out; software enhancements to the APG-73 radar; improvements to the F/A-18 Software Configuration Set (SCS) 29C; and sustainment for the ALQ-165 Airborne Self Protection Jammer (ASPJ) system. Operational support for these modifications will be provided through upgrades to the purchaser's unique Mission Data System. Also included are: System integration and testing; software development and integration; support equipment; spare and repair parts; maintenance personnel and pilot familiarization training; software support; publications and technical documents; U.S. Government and contractor technical assistance; and other related elements of logistics and program support. The estimated total case value is $115 million.
This proposed sale will contribute to the foreign policy and national security objectives of the United States by helping to improve the security of Switzerland which has been, and continues to be an important force for political stability and economic progress in Europe. Switzerland is also a member of the NATO Partnership for Peace (PfP) program.
The proposed sale will allow the Swiss Air Force to extend the useful life of its F/A-18 fighter aircraft and enhance their survivability. Further, the proposed sale will increase Switzerland's tactical aviation operational capabilities. Switzerland will have no difficulty absorbing this equipment and support into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The principal contractors will be the Boeing Company, McDonnell Douglas Corporation, St. Louis, MO; Data Link Solutions LLC, Wayne, NJ; Rockwell Collins, Cedar Rapids, IA; Rockwell Collins ESA Vision System LLC, Fort Worth, TX. There are no known offset agreements associated with this potential sale.
Implementation of this proposed sale will not require the assignment of any additional U.S. Government personnel or contractor representatives to Switzerland. However, multiple trips to Switzerland involving U.S. Government and contractor representatives will be required for technical reviews/support, and program management.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
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1. The hardware and software being purchased is being used to upgrade Switzerland's existing F/A-18C/D Hornet aircraft. Description and classification of the hardware and software being purchased are detailed in the following paragraphs.
a. The MIDS/JTRS with CMN-4 is a secure, scalable, modular, wireless, and jam-resistant digital information system currently providing Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN), Link-16, and J-Voice to airborne, ground, and maritime joint and coalition warfighting platforms. MIDS provides real-time and low-cost information and situational awareness via digital and voice, communications within the JTRS Enterprise. The MIDS/JTRS hardware is UNCLASSIFIED. The MIDS/JTRS software requires a crypto key be loaded in order to function. The crypto key required for operation is a Controlled Cryptographic Item (CCI).
b. The ARC-210 GEN 5 RT-1990A(C) is a digital radio capable of transmit and receipt of Digital Communication System, Variable Message Format (DCS/VMF) encrypted data messages. The RT-1990 hardware is UNCLASSIFIED. The RT 1900 software requires a crypto key be loaded in order to function. The crypto key required for operation is a Controlled Cryptographic Item (CCI).
c. The AN/AVS-11 Night Vision Cueing Device (NVCD) is UNCLASSIFIED but is capable of high resolution imaging. This capability allows reduced visibility weapon delivery using Switzerland's F/A-18C/D aircraft. While the NVCD hardware is UNCLASSIFIED, this item requires Enhanced End Use Monitoring (EEUM).
2. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures which might reduce weapons systems effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities.
3. A determination has been made that the Government of Switzerland can provide substantially the same degree of
4. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal are authorized for release and export to the Government of Switzerland.
Office of Career, Technical, and Adult Education (OCTAE), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing a revision of an existing information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before September 7, 2017.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact John Haigh, 202-245-7735.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Federal Student Aid, Department of Education.
Notice of a new and rescinded system of records.
In accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (Privacy Act), the Department of Education (Department) publishes this notice of a new system of records entitled “Integrated Partner Management” (IPM) system (18-11-21), and a rescinded system of records entitled “Postsecondary Education Participants System” (PEPS) (18-11-09).
Submit your comments on this proposed new and rescinded system of records notice on or before September 7, 2017.
The Department has filed a report describing the new system of records covered by this notice with the Chair of the Senate Committee on Homeland Security and Governmental Affairs, the Chair of the House Committee on Oversight and Government Reform, and the Acting Administrator of the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), on July 7, 2017. This new and rescinded system of records will become effective upon publication in the
Submit your comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal or via postal mail, commercial delivery, or hand delivery. We will not accept comments submitted by fax or by email or those submitted after the comment period. To ensure that we do not receive duplicate copies, please submit your comments only once. In addition, please include the Docket ID and the term “Integrated Partner Management” at the top of your comments.
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Michele Brown, Director, Technical and Business Support Service Group, Program Compliance, Federal Student Aid, U.S. Department of Education, 830 First Street NE., Union Center Plaza (UCP), Room 82D4, Washington, DC 20202. Telephone: (202) 377-3203.
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), you may call the Federal Relay Service, toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
The Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4) and (11)) requires each Federal agency to publish in the
The Privacy Act applies to information about an individual that is maintained in a system of records from which information is retrieved by a unique identifier associated with the individual, such as a name or Social Security number (SSN). The information about the individual is called a “record,” and the system, whether manual or computer based, is called a “system of records.”
The Privacy Act requires Federal agencies to publish a notice of a new system of records in the
The Privacy Act also requires Federal agencies to publish in the
The Department identifies the PEPS system of records (18-11-09), as published in the
The IPM system is a web-accessible system created by the Department to support eligibility determination and enrollment of entities seeking to participate in student aid programs under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended (HEA), and to oversee those entities' compliance with title IV, HEA's statutory and regulatory requirements.
The IPM system contains information on individuals with substantial ownership interests in, or control over, authorized entities (postsecondary schools, lenders, guaranty agencies, or third-party servicers that participate in title IV, HEA student financial aid programs) regarding the eligibility, administrative capabilities, and financial responsibility of the schools, lenders, guaranty agencies, and third-party servicers. Such information includes, but is not limited to, the names, taxpayer identification numbers, bank account numbers, SSNs, personal identification numbers, personal addresses, personal phone numbers, and personal email addresses of the individuals with substantial ownership interests in, or control over, those entities.
The IPM system also contains information about individuals affiliated with authorized entities who request electronic access to title IV, HEA, Federal Student Aid (FSA) systems. Such information includes, but is not limited to, the individual's name, SSN, date of birth, address, phone number, and authentication information (user ID, password, and security challenge questions and answers).
The IPM system will integrate a number of core partner management functions to deliver significant improvements from both a cost and customer satisfaction perspective. The partner management functions include enrollment, eligibility, and oversight processes used to manage partner entities as they administer title IV financial assistance. The IPM system will integrate the services currently provided by legacy systems into a single IPM solution. This integration will take an end-to-end view of FSA's entire partner eligibility and oversight business, which includes the following legacy systems: Postsecondary Education Participants System (PEPS), Electronic Application for Approval to Participate in Federal Student Financial Aid Programs (eApp), eZ-Audit, Integrated Partner Management Document Management (IPM DM), and Lender's Application Process (LAP). The benefits of integrating these legacy systems will include:
• Improved workflow automation to ensure timely completion of partner eligibility and enrollment processes;
• Improved efficiency in case management;
• A seamless repository of information;
• A scalable and configurable platform that will provide maximum flexibility to meet future needs;
• Reduced risks from leveraging current technologies to replace outdated and unsupported technologies;
• An established base of secure and accessible information;
• More efficient processes to meet internal and external reporting requirements;
• Improved overall program quality by reducing errors; and
• Reduction of the risk of FSA failing to detect a non-compliant partner.
Upon implementation of the IPM system, the PEPS legacy systems will be retired. However, some legacy systems may be kept alive for a short period of time to ensure the continued operation of our business until the new IPM system is fully functional.
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Acting Chief Operating Officer of Federal Student Aid (FSA) of the U.S. Department of Education (Department) publishes a notice of a new and a rescinded system of records to read as follows:
Postsecondary Education Participants System (PEPS) (18-11-09) published in the
Integrated Partner Management (IPM) system (18-11-21).
None.
Federal Student Aid Virtual Data Center (VDC), Dell Systems, Plano Technology Center, 2300 West Plano Parkway, Plano, TX 75075.
Effective December 2017, the Department expects to relocate the IPM system to: Hewlett Packard Enterprise Services Mid-Atlantic Data Center (HPES MDC), Federal Student Aid Next Generation Data Center (FSA NGDC), 250 Burlington Drive, Clarkesville, VA 23927.
Program Director, Integrated Partner Management, Federal Student Aid, U.S. Department of Education, 830 First Street NE., Room 82D4, Washington, DC 20202.
The data collected and stored in the IPM system is authorized under sections 131, 481, 487, and 498 of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended (HEA) (20 U.S.C. 1088, 1094, 1099c), and the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996 (31 U.S.C. 7701). The collection of Social Security numbers (SSNs) in this system is authorized by 31 U.S.C. 7701 and Executive Order 9397 (November 22, 1943), as amended by Executive Order 13478 (November 18, 2008).
The Government Paperwork Elimination Act (GPEA), Public Law 105-277, 44 U.S.C. 3504 note, Title XVII, Section 1704, requires agencies, by October 21, 2003, to provide the option of electronic submission of information by the public when practicable. The Freedom to E-File Act, E-Government Act, and the President's Management Agenda authorize eGovernment functions as alternatives to traditional paper-based processes.
The information contained in the IPM system will be used for the purposes of determining initial and continued eligibility, administrative capability, and financial responsibility of postsecondary schools, lenders, and guaranty agencies that participate in title IV, HEA student assistance programs, and third-party servicers contracted by these entities; tracking changes to those entities; maintaining a history of this information for all entities that have ever applied to participate or have participated in these programs; documenting any protective or corrective action against an entity or an individual associated with the entity; and establishing the identity of individuals who request access to title IV, HEA Federal student aid systems.
The IPM system contains records about individual owners (either solely or as partners or shareholders), officials, and individuals acting as authorized agents of postsecondary institutions, lenders, and guaranty agencies that participate in the student assistance programs authorized under title IV of the HEA; members of boards of directors or trustees of such entities; employees of foreign entities that evaluate the quality of education; employees of third-party servicers, including contact persons, that contract with schools, lenders, or guaranty agencies; and individuals affiliated with authorized entities who request electronic access to title IV, HEA student assistance systems.
The records in the IPM system will include, but are not limited to, names, taxpayer identification numbers (TINs), and bank account numbers of individuals with substantial ownership interests in, or control over, schools, lenders, guaranty agencies, or third party servicers. The IPM system will also contain SSNs, personal identification numbers assigned by the Department, personal addresses, personal phone numbers, and personal email addresses of the individuals with substantial ownership interests in, or control over, those entities.
Records for individuals affiliated with authorized entities (schools, lenders, guaranty agencies, or third-party servicers) who request electronic access to title IV, HEA student assistance systems will also be included in the system. Such information will include, but is not limited to, the individual's name, SSN, and date of birth, address, phone number, and authentication information (User ID and password).
Information is obtained from applications submitted by postsecondary institutions and other entities that seek to participate in the student financial assistance programs and from components of the Department; from other Federal, State, Tribal, and local governmental agencies; and from non-governmental agencies and organizations that acquire information relevant to the purposes of the IPM system.
The Department may disclose information contained in a record in this system of records under the routine uses listed in this system of records without the consent of the individual when the disclosure is compatible with the purposes for which the record was collected. These disclosures may be made on a case-by-case basis or, if the Department has complied with the computer matching requirements of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (Privacy Act), under a computer matching agreement (CMA).
The routine uses for the IPM system are as follows:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(a)
(i) The Department, or any component of the Department;
(ii) Any Department employee in his or her official capacity;
(iii) Any employee of the Department in his or her individual capacity where the Department of Justice (DOJ) has agreed to or has been requested to provide or arrange for representation for the employee;
(iv) Any employee of the Department in his or her individual capacity where the Department has agreed to represent the employee; or
(v) The United States, where the Department determines that the litigation is likely to affect the Department or any of its components.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(4)
(a)
(b)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
(12)
(13)
(14)
(15)
(16)
(17)
(18)
The records are maintained in electronic data files on the IPM system servers.
The records in this system are indexed by the name of the institution or organization, and may be retrieved by an identifying number, such as, but not limited to, the Routing ID (RID) of the organization, the Entity Identification Number (EIN), or Partner ID or Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS) of the entity; or the name, SSN, or the TIN of an individual associated with the institution or organization.
Records are retained for 30 years after the final action is completed in accordance with the Department's records retention and disposition schedule 074 FSA Guaranty Agency, Financial & Education Institution Eligibility, Compliance, Monitoring and Oversight Records.
In accordance with the Federal Information Security Management Act of 2002, as amended by the Federal Information Security Modernization Act of 2014 (FISMA), every Federal Student Aid information system must receive a signed Authority to Operate (ATO) from a designated official. The ATO process includes a rigorous assessment of security controls, a plan of action and milestones to remediate any identified deficiencies, and a continuous monitoring program.
The IPM system controls include a combination of FISMA management, operational, and technical controls, including the following control families: Access control, awareness and training, audit and accountability, security assessment and authorization, configuration management, contingency planning, identification and authentication, incident response, maintenance, media protection, physical and environmental protection, planning, personnel security, privacy, risk assessment, system and services acquisition, system and communications protection, system and information integrity, and program management.
All physical access to the Department's Virtual Data Center system is controlled and monitored by security personnel who check each individual entering the building for his or her employee or visitor badge. The computer system employed by the Department offers a high degree of resistance to tampering and circumvention. This security system limits data access to staff of the Department, schools, guarantors, authorized third-party servicer employees, lenders, accrediting agencies, State agencies, and
You may gain access to any records in the IPM system that pertain to you. This is done by contacting the system manager and following the procedures for notification listed above. You must meet the requirements of 34 CFR 5b.5.
You may contest the content of a record in the IPM system pertaining to you by presenting to the system manager, either in writing or in person, a request to amend or correct that information. The request to amend, or for an appointment to present an oral request, must be made in writing mailed to the system manager at the address provided above. The request must identify the particular record within the IPM system that you wish to have changed, state whether you wish to have the record amended, corrected, or rescinded, and explain the reasons why you wish to have the record changed. Your request must meet the requirements of the Department's Privacy Act regulations at 34 CFR 5b.7.
If you wish to determine whether a record exists regarding you in the IPM system, provide the system manager with your name, date of birth, and SSN. Your request must meet the requirements of the regulations at 34 CFR 5b.5, including proof of identity. You may address your request, or present that request in person, to the system manager at the address above.
Disclosures pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(12) (as set forth in 31 U.S.C. 3711(e)): Disclosures may be made from this system to “consumer reporting agencies,” as defined in the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681a(f)) or the Debt Collection Improvement Act (31 U.S.C. 3701(a)(3)).
None.
Pursuant to the requirements of OMB Circular No. A-108, the last full
U.S. Election Assistance Commission.
Notice of public meeting agenda.
Wednesday, August 16, 2017, (2:00-3:00 p.m.—EDT).
U.S. Election Assistance Commission,1335 East West Highway (Suite 104), Silver Spring, MD 20910.
Bryan Whitener, Telephone: (301) 563-3961.
Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, U.S. Department of Energy (DOE).
Notice and request for OMB review and comment.
The Department of Energy's (DOE) Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy (EERE) has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance, a proposal for a three-year extension, with changes, of a collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed collection will provide DOE with the information necessary to meet its statutory and regulatory obligations under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969 and the DOE NEPA implementing regulations, which requires EERE to perform environmental impact analyses prior to making a decision to provide Federal funding for research, development and demonstration projects funded by DOE.
Comments regarding this collection must be received on or before September 7, 2017.
Written comments should be sent to: DOE Desk Officer at Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Room 10102, 735 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503.
And to: Lisa Jorgensen at U.S. Department of Energy, 15013 Denver West Parkway, Golden, CO 80401, by fax at (720-562-1640), or by email at:
Requests for additional information or copies of the EERE Environmental Questionnaire should be directed to Lisa Jorgensen at: 720-356-1569 or by email at:
If you anticipate difficulty in submitting comments by the deadline, contact the DOE Desk Officer at OMB of your intention to make a submission as soon as possible. The Desk Officer may be telephoned at 202-395-4650.
This information collection request contains:
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6.
7.
National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
This notice announces EPA's approval of the State of Illinois' request to revise its EPA Administered Permit Programs: The National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System EPA-authorized program to allow electronic reporting.
EPA approves of the State of Illinois' authorized program revision(s) as of August 8, 2017.
Karen Seeh, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Environmental Information, Mail Stop 2823T, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20460, (202) 566-1175,
On October 13, 2005, the final Cross-Media Electronic Reporting Rule (CROMERR) was published in the
On July 19, 2017, the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency (IEPA) submitted an application titled “NPDES e-Reporting Tool” for revision to its EPA-approved program under title 40 CFR to allow new electronic reporting. EPA reviewed IEPA's request to revise its EPA-authorized Part 123—EPA Administered Permit Programs: The National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System program and, based on this review, EPA determined that the application met the standards for approval of authorized program revision/modification set out in 40 CFR part 3, subpart D. In accordance with 40 CFR 3.1000(d), this notice of EPA's decision to approve Illinois's request to revise its Part 123—EPA Administered Permit Programs: The National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System program to allow electronic reporting under 40 CFR parts 122 and 125 is being published in the
IEPA was notified of EPA's determination to approve its application with respect to the authorized program listed above.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice.
This document announces that the first priority filing window for eligible full power and Class A television stations to file applications for alternate channels or expanded facilities will be open from August 9, 2017 through September 8, 2017.
August 8, 2017.
Joyce Bernstein,
Auction 1000, which was conducted pursuant to Title VI of the Middle Class Tax Relief and Job Creation Act of 2012, was completed on April 13, 2017, and the Commission initiated a transition period during which broadcast television stations that received new channel assignments in the April 13, 2017 Closing and Channel Reassignment Public Notice will be reauthorized and relicensed. The deadline for applications for construction permits consistent with the requirements of that Public Notice were due July 12, 2017.
The first priority filing window, which opens on Wednesday, August 9, 2017 and closes at 11:59 p.m. EDT on Friday, September 8, 2017, is limited to: (1) 25 reassigned stations that were granted a waiver of the July 12, 2017 filing deadline because they were “unable to construct” the specified facilities assigned to them in the Closing and Channel Reassignment Public Notice; (2) stations entitled to protection in the repacking process that are predicted to experience a loss of population served in excess of one percent as a result of the auction repacking process; and (3) Class A stations that did not receive protection and were displaced in the repacking
Eligible stations may file applications for expanded facilities that qualify as a minor change under the Commission's rules, or for alternate channels which will be treated as major change applications under the Commission's rules. Applicants must protect the construction permit facilities of stations assigned to new channels, whether those stations' applications have been granted or remain pending, and must also protect the facilities specified in applications that were filed before the April 2013 freeze on applications proposing to extend a station's contour. Applications filed by displaced Class A stations must also demonstrate that the proposal would not cause interference to a low power television or translator facility previously authorized or proposed. A station that files an application that is incomplete or defective will be afforded an opportunity to submit an amendment to correct any defects, and failure to correct will result in dismissal of the application. If an application filed by (1) a station that was unable to construct the facilities specified in the Closing and Channel Reassignment Public Notice or (2) a displaced Class A station is dismissed, then the station must file a new application within 15 days of dismissal and pay the requisite filing fee.
Applications filed during the first priority filing window will be treated as filed on the last day of the window for purposes of determining mutual exclusivity. Stations with mutually exclusive applications will be notified and given a 90-day period to resolve their mutual exclusivity by proposing a technical solution or settlement in an amendment to their pending applications.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as Receiver for 10411 SunFirst Bank, St. George, Utah (Receiver) has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of SunFirst Bank (Receivership Estate); the Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law.
The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds.
Effective August 1, 2017, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
Notice is hereby given that the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) as Receiver for Premier Bank, Denver, Colorado (“the Receiver”) intends to terminate its receivership for said institution. The FDIC was appointed Receiver of Premier Bank on July 10, 2015. The liquidation of the receivership assets has been completed. To the extent permitted by available funds and in accordance with law, the Receiver will be making a final dividend payment to proven creditors.
Based upon the foregoing, the Receiver has determined that the continued existence of the receivership will serve no useful purpose. Consequently, notice is given that the receivership shall be terminated, to be effective no sooner than thirty days after the date of this notice. If any person wishes to comment concerning the termination of the receivership, such comment must be made in writing and sent within thirty days of the date of this notice to: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Attention: Receivership Oversight Department 34.6, 1601 Bryan Street, Dallas, TX 75201.
No comments concerning the termination of this receivership will be considered which are not sent within this time frame.
Based upon the foregoing, the Receiver has determined that the continued existence of the receivership will serve no useful purpose. Consequently, notice is given that the receivership shall be terminated, to be effective no sooner than thirty days after the date of this notice. If any person wishes to comment concerning the termination of the receivership, such comment must be made in writing and sent within thirty days of the date of this notice to: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Attention: Receivership Oversight Department 34.6, 1601 Bryan Street, Dallas, TX 75201.
No comments concerning the termination of this receivership will be considered which are not sent within this time frame.
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, HHS.
Notice.
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Comments must be received by October 10, 2017.
When commenting, please reference the document identifier or OMB control number. To be assured consideration, comments and recommendations must be submitted in any one of the following ways:
1.
2.
To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, you may make your request using one of following:
1. Access CMS' Web site address at
2. Email your request, including your address, phone number, OMB number, and CMS document identifier, to
3. Call the Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
William Parham at (410) 786-4669.
This notice sets out a summary of the use and burden associated with the following information collections. More detailed information can be found in each collection's supporting statement and associated materials (see
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA requires federal agencies to publish a 60-day notice in the
1.
The Promising Youth Programs (PYP) project supports PREP programming in two ways. First, it supports PREP grantees as they collaborate with independent evaluators to conduct evaluations of their programs. Second, it is working to develop curricula to address PREP-related needs for underserved youth. PYP is overseen by ACF's Office of Planning, Research, and Evaluation (OPRE). To support the PYP project, FYSB and OPRE seek approval to collect the following information:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Fax written comments on the collection of information by September 7, 2017.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, FAX: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
Domini Bean, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A63, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852, 301-796-5733,
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.
The International Conference on Harmonisation (ICH) of Technical Requirements for Registration of Pharmaceuticals for Human Use issued, on November 15, 2012, the ICH harmonized tripartite guideline entitled “Periodic Benefit-Risk Evaluation Report (PBRER) E2C(R2)” (the PBRER guideline) (available at
FDA currently has OMB approval for the required submission of periodic adverse drug experience reports (PADER) for drugs subject to a new drug application (NDA) or an abbreviated new drug application (ANDA) (§ 314.80(c)(2) (21 CFR 314.80(c)(2)) (OMB control number 0910-0230), and for the required submission of periodic adverse experience reports (PAER) for drugs subject to a biologics license application (BLA) (§ 600.80(c)(2) (21 CFR 600.80(c)(2)) (OMB control number 0910-0308).
There is considerable overlap in the information required under §§ 314.80(c)(2) and 600.80(c)(2) and the information requested in a periodic safety report using the ICH E2C(R2) PBRER format. Applicants subject to periodic safety reporting requirements under FDA regulations could choose to continue to submit the reports as specified in those regulations, and would be permitted to submit reports in the PBRER format and submit reports as specified in FDA regulations with an approved waiver. Companies who submit periodic reports on the same drug to multiple regulators, including not only the United States, but, also the European Union, Japan, and regulators in other countries who have elected to adopt the ICH standards, may find it in their interest to prepare a single PBRER, rather than preparing multiple types of reports for multiple regulators. As a result, FDA, in the
Because FDA regulations in §§ 314.80(c)(2) and 600.80(c)(2) include specific requirements for periodic safety reports, in order for an applicant to submit an alternative report, such as the PBRER, for a given product, FDA must grant a waiver. Existing regulations permit applicants to request waivers of any post-marketing safety reporting requirement, and the information collections associated with such waiver requests generally are approved under existing control numbers. (See § 314.90(a), waivers for drugs subject to NDAs and ANDAs, approved under OMB control number 0910-0001, and § 600.90(a), waivers for products subject to BLAs, approved under OMB control number 0910-0308.) The November 29, 2016, guidance both explains conditions under which applicants that have previously received waivers to submit reporting information in the format of the previous ICH guidance would be permitted to apply those existing waivers to the submission of PBRERs, and also advises how applicants that have not previously obtained a waiver may submit waiver requests to submit the PBRER.
There are information collections proposed in the November 29, 2016, guidance that are related to waivers specifically to enable the submission of PBRERs, and these information collections are not already addressed under the approved control numbers covering waiver submissions and periodic safety reports generally. FDA has previously granted waiver requests, submitted under §§ 314.90(a) and 600.90(a), that allow applicants to prepare and submit reports using the periodic safety update report (PSUR) format described in FDA's 1996 and 2004 ICH E2C guidance. In accordance with the recommendations of the November 29, 2016, guidance, if an applicant already has a PSUR waiver in place for a given approved application, FDA will consider the existing PSUR waiver to allow the applicant to submit a PBRER instead of a PSUR because the PBRER replaces the PSUR for post-marketing periodic safety reporting for that application. The applicant would not need to submit a new waiver request unless the applicant wishes to change the frequency of reporting. FDA will consider requests to be waived of the quarterly reporting requirement but will not waive applicants of the annual reporting requirement.
If an applicant submits a PBRER in place of the PSUR and uses a different data lock point, the applicant should submit overlapping reports or submit a one-time PADER/PAER in order to cover the gap in reporting intervals. The applicant should submit notification to the application(s), indicating the change in data lock point and should include a description of the measures taken to ensure that there are no resulting gaps in reporting.
If an applicant submits a PBRER in place of the PSUR and uses a different reporting frequency for the PBRER than was used for the PSUR, the continued validity of the waiver will be conditioned on the submission of a PADER/PAER as needed to fulfill the reporting frequency requirement under FDA regulations. The applicant should submit a notification to the application(s), describing this change and the measures taken to ensure that the periodicity requirements are being met.
FDA expects approximately 187 waiver requests and notifications to include the additional information described previously in this document for using a different data lock point and/or for using a different reporting frequency when submitting a PBRER. FDA expects approximately 55 applicants to make these submissions, and we estimate that the time for submitting the additional information described previously would be on average approximately 1 hour for each waiver request or notification.
If an applicant does not have a PSUR waiver in place for an approved application, the applicant may submit a waiver request under § 314.90(a) or § 600.90(a) to submit a PBRER instead of the PADER/PAER. The applicant should submit a request to FDA for each approved application for which a waiver is requested, and a single waiver request letter can include multiple applications. Waiver requests should be submitted to each of the application(s) in the request, and may be submitted electronically or by paper as described in the November 29, 2016, guidance. Each PBRER waiver request should include the following information:
• The product name(s) and application number(s);
• a brief description of the justification for the request;
• the U.S. approval date for the product(s) and current reporting interval used;
• the reporting interval of the last PADER/PAER submitted for the product(s); and
• the data lock point that will be used for each PBRER. If a data lock point other than one aligned to the U.S. approval date is proposed, the applicant should describe how he/she will ensure that there are no gaps in reporting intervals (
• The frequency for submitting the PBRER, as described in section IV.C of the April 8, 2013, draft guidance.
• The email address and telephone number for the individual who can provide additional information regarding the waiver request.
As explained earlier, existing regulations at § 314.90(a) or 600.90(a) permit applicants to request waivers of any post-marketing safety reporting requirement, and the information collections associated with such waiver requests generally are approved under OMB control numbers 0910-0001 and 0910-0308. FDA believes that the information submitted under numbers 1-4 and number 7 in the list in the previous paragraph is information that is typical of any waiver request regarding post-marketing safety reporting and is accounted for in the existing approved collections of information for waiver requests and reports. Concerning numbers 5 and 6, FDA expects approximately 67 waiver requests to include the additional information for using a different data lock point and/or for using a different
In the
We therefore estimate the burden of this collection of information as follows:
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA, the Agency, or we) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA).
Fax written comments on the collection of information by September 7, 2017.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, FAX: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
Ila S. Mizrachi, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A63, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852, 301-796-7726,
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.
The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) and the Fair Packaging and Labeling Act (the FPLA) require that cosmetic manufacturers, packers, and distributors disclose information about themselves or their products on the labels or labeling of their products. Sections 201, 301, 502, 601, 602, 603, 701, and 704 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 321, 352, 361, 362, 363, 371, and 374) and sections 4 and 5 of the FPLA (15 U.S.C. 1453 and 1454) provide authority to FDA to regulate the labeling of cosmetic products. Failure to comply with the requirements for cosmetic labeling may render a cosmetic adulterated under section 601 of the FD&C Act or misbranded under section 602 of the FD&C Act.
FDA's cosmetic labeling regulations are published in part 701 (21 CFR part 701). Four of the cosmetic labeling regulations have information collection provisions. Section 701.3 requires the label of a cosmetic product to bear a declaration of the ingredients in descending order of predominance. Section 701.11 requires the principal display panel of a cosmetic product to bear a statement of the identity of the product. Section 701.12 requires the label of a cosmetic product to specify the name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor. Section 701.13 requires the label of a cosmetic product to declare the net quantity of contents of the product.
In the
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
The hour burden is the additional or incremental time that establishments need to design and print labeling that includes the following required elements: A declaration of ingredients in decreasing order of predominance, a statement of the identity of the product, a specification of the name and place of business of the establishment, and a declaration of the net quantity of contents. These requirements increase the time establishments need to design labels because they increase the number of label elements that establishments must take into account when designing labels. These requirements do not generate any recurring burden per label because establishments must already print and affix labels to cosmetic products as part of normal business practices.
The estimated annual third-party disclosure is based on data available to the Agency, our knowledge of and experience with cosmetic labeling, and our communications with industry. We estimate there are 1,518 cosmetic product establishments in the United States. We calculate label design costs based on stock keeping units (SKUs) because each SKU has a unique product label. Based on data available to the Agency and on communications with industry, we estimate that cosmetic establishments will offer 94,800 SKUs for retail sale in 2017. This corresponds to an average of 62 SKUs per establishment.
One of the four provisions that we discuss in this information collection, § 701.3, applies only to cosmetic products offered for retail sale. However, the other three provisions, §§ 701.11, 701.12, and 701.13, apply to all cosmetic products, including non-retail professional-use-only products. We estimate that including professional-use-only cosmetic products increases the total number of SKUs by 15 percent to 109,020. This corresponds to an average of 72 SKUs per establishment.
Finally, based on the Agency's experience with other products, we estimate that cosmetic establishments may redesign up to one-third of SKUs per year. Therefore, we estimate that the number of disclosures per respondent will be 21 (31,878 SKUs) for § 701.3 and 24 each (36,432 SKUs) for §§ 701.11, 701.12, and 701.13.
We estimate that each of the required label elements may add approximately 1 hour to the label design process. We base this estimate on the hour burdens the Agency has previously estimated for food, drug, and medical device labeling and on the Agency's knowledge of cosmetic labeling. Therefore, we estimate that the total hour burden on members of the public for this information collection is 141,174 hours per year.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Fax written comments on the collection of information by September 7, 2017.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, FAX: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
Domini Bean, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A63, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852, 301-796-5733,
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.
Under the Public Health Service Act (PHS Act), the Department of Health and Human Services stockpiles medical products that are essential to the health security of the Nation (see the PHS Act, 42 U.S.C. 247d-6b). This collection of medical products for use during national health emergencies, known as the Strategic National Stockpile (SNS), is to “provide for the emergency health security of the United States, including the emergency health security of children and other vulnerable populations, in the event of a bioterrorist attack or other public health emergency.” It may be appropriate for certain medical products that are or will be held in the SNS to be labeled in a manner that would not comply with certain FDA labeling regulations given their anticipated circumstances of use in an emergency. However, noncompliance with these labeling requirements could render such products misbranded under section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 352).
Under 21 CFR 201.26, 610.68, 801.128, and 809.11 (§§ 201.26, 610.68, 801.128, and 809.11), the appropriate FDA Center Director may grant a request for an exception or alternative to certain regulatory provisions pertaining to the labeling of human drugs, biological products, medical devices, and in vitro diagnostics that currently are or will be included in the SNS if certain criteria are met. The appropriate FDA Center Director may grant an exception or alternative to certain FDA labeling requirements if compliance with these labeling requirements could adversely affect the safety, effectiveness, or availability of products that are or will be included in the SNS. An exception or alternative granted under the regulations may include conditions or safeguards so that the labeling for such products includes appropriate information necessary for the safe and effective use of the product given the product's anticipated circumstances of use. Any grant of an exception or alternative will only apply to the specified lots, batches, or other units of medical products in the request. The appropriate FDA Center Director may also grant an exception or alternative to the labeling provisions specified in the regulations on his or her own initiative.
Under §§ 201.26(b)(1)(i) (human drug products), 610.68(b)(1)(i) (biological products), 801.128(b)(1)(i) (medical devices), and 809.11(b)(1)(i) (in vitro diagnostic products for human use), an SNS official or any entity that manufactures (including labeling, packing, relabeling, or repackaging), distributes, or stores such products that are or will be included in the SNS may submit, with written concurrence from a SNS official, a written request for an exception or alternative to certain labeling requirements to the appropriate FDA Center Director. Except when initiated by an FDA Center Director, a request for an exception or alternative must be in writing and must:
• Identify the specified lots, batches, or other units of the affected product;
• Identify the specific labeling provisions under the regulations that are the subject of the request;
• Explain why compliance with the specified labeling provisions could adversely affect the safety, effectiveness, or availability of the product subject to the request;
• Describe any proposed safeguards or conditions that will be implemented so that the labeling of the product includes appropriate information necessary for the safe and effective use of the product given the anticipated circumstances of use of the product;
• Provide copies of the proposed labeling of the specified lots, batches, or other units of the affected product that will be subject to the exception or alternative; and
• Provide any other information requested by the FDA Center Director in support of the request.
If the request is granted, the manufacturer may need to report to FDA any resulting changes to the new drug application, biologics license application, premarket approval application, or premarket notification (510(k)) in effect, if any. The submission and grant of an exception or an alternative to the labeling requirements specified in the regulations may be used to satisfy certain reporting obligations relating to changes to product applications under §§ 314.70, 601.12, 814.39 and 807.81 (21 CFR 314.70 (human drugs), 21 CFR 601.12 (biological products), 21 CFR 814.39 (medical devices subject to premarket approval), or 21 CFR 807.81 (medical devices subject to 510(k) clearance requirements)).
The information collection provisions in §§ 314.70, 601.12, 807.81, and 814.39 have been approved under OMB control numbers 0910-0001, 0910-0338, 0910-0120, and 0910-0231, respectively. On a case-by-case basis, the appropriate FDA Center Director may also determine when an exception or alternative is granted that certain safeguards and conditions are appropriate, such as additional labeling on the SNS products, so that the labeling of such products would include information needed for safe and effective use under the anticipated circumstances of use.
Respondents to this collection of information are entities that manufacture (including labeling, packing, relabeling, or repackaging), distribute, or store affected SNS products. Based on data from fiscal years 2014 and 2015, FDA estimates an average of one request annually for an exception or alternative received by FDA. FDA estimates an average of 24 hours preparing each request. The average burden per response for each submission is based on the estimated time that it takes to prepare a supplement to an application, which may be considered similar to a request for an exception or alternative. To the extent that labeling changes not already required by FDA regulations are made in connection with an exception or alternative granted under the regulations, FDA is estimating one occurrence annually in the event FDA would require any additional labeling changes not already covered by FDA regulations. FDA estimates 8 hours to develop and revise the labeling to make such changes. The average burden per response for each submission is based on the estimated time to develop and revise the labeling to make such changes.
In the
We therefore estimate the burden of this collection of information as follows:
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
In compliance with the requirement for opportunity for public comment on proposed data collection projects of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, HRSA announces plans to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR), described below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Prior to submitting the ICR to OMB, HRSA seeks comments from the public regarding the burden estimate, below, or any other aspect of the ICR.
Comments on this ICR must be received no later than October 10, 2017.
Submit your comments to
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the data collection plans and draft instruments, email
When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the information request collection title for reference, in compliance with Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
The survey includes items to measure the following: (1) Reason for contacting Be The Match®, (2) if the PSC was able to answer questions and was easy to understand, (3) if the contact helped the participant to feel better prepared to discuss transplants with their care team, (4) increase in awareness of available resources, (5) timeliness of response, and (6) overall satisfaction.
The proposed changes to the survey instrument include minor changes to both selected survey questions and the instructions. The updated survey questions include simplified language and the references to race and ethnicity are updated to better match preliminary U.S. Census Bureau question format and statements from the U.S. Department of Education. The question format changes will better allow individuals to self-identify their ethnicity and race and permit individuals to select more than one race and/or ethnicity. These changes will not increase respondent burden.
HRSA specifically requests comments on (1) the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (3) ways to enhance
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice.
The American Society of Mechanical Engineers, in coordination with the United States Coast Guard, is sponsoring a two-day public workshop on marine technology and standards in Washington, DC. This document provides information regarding the workshop, including registration information. The workshop will provide a unique opportunity for industry groups, classification societies, standards development organizations, government organizations, and other interested members of the public to come together for a professional exchange of information on topics ranging from technological impacts on the marine industry, corresponding coverage in related codes and standards, and government regulations.
The two-day workshop will be held on Monday, October 16, 2017, and Tuesday, October 17, 2017. The deadline for advance registration is Monday, October 2, 2017.
See
The workshop will be held at the Liaison Capitol Hill hotel in Washington, DC. The hotel is located at 415 New Jersey Avenue NW., Washington, DC. For registration information or to obtain further information about this workshop, visit the USCG Web site at
If you have questions about this document you may contact a USCG/ASME representative via email at
The American Society of Mechanical Engineers/United States Coast Guard (ASME/USCG) Workshop on Marine Technology and Standards provides a unique opportunity for classification societies, industry groups, standards development organizations, government agencies, and interested members of the public to come together for a professional exchange of information on topics ranging from technological impacts on the marine industry, corresponding coverage in related codes and standards, and government regulations.
The public workshop is sponsored by the ASME in coordination with the USCG Office of Design and Engineering Standards. ASME is a standards setting organization with wide-ranging volunteer committee membership, which includes USCG-supported personnel who serve as members of various ASME committees in support of USCG missions in maritime safety and environmental protection. The USCG Office of Design and Engineering Standards is responsible for developing and promulgating national regulations and standards that govern the safe design and construction of ships and shipboard equipment, including hull structure, stability, electrical and mechanical systems, lifesaving and fire safety equipment, and related equipment approval and laboratory acceptance.
This workshop is an opportunity for the public to provide expertise on technical matters affecting the marine industry, to leverage new technologies, and to improve future policymaking, standards development, and rulemaking. Public engagement on regulations and design standards enhances both the effectiveness and the quality of policy development.
Topics for the workshop are listed below and include application of various marine technologies to promote safe and environmentally conscious operation of ships and offshore vessels and platforms.
The workshop will be held in Washington, DC, over a two-day period on Monday, October 16, 2017, and Tuesday, October 17, 2017. See
This workshop comprises a series of panel sessions over a two-day period covering a variety of topics. Proposed topics include:
Considers shipboard systems involved in the handling and transport of CNG/LNG as cargo. This panel will also consider the handling and use of natural gas as a shipboard fuel, addressing, among other things, systems, containment, fuel quality, safety considerations. Will also consider recent international and domestic requirements, including environmental considerations.
Considers containment and handling systems, bunkering systems and safety considerations for fuels other than natural gas. Also considers the latest requirements and standards used by ship owners and designers, including the IMO Gas-Fueled Ships Code (IGF Code). Some examples include biofuels, hydrogen, and methanol. Also considers costs associated with infrastructure, training, operations and maintenance.
Considers international and domestic requirements for infrastructure such as offshore structures and servicing vessels for alternative energy sources such as wind farms and tidal generators.
Considers technological advancements in a variety of subjects affecting the offshore industry and the marine transportation system. This includes systems for ensuring the safe and effective offshore exploration and extraction of energy resources, including dynamic positioning, hazardous areas, and safety systems. Will consider lessons learned from operations as well as application of related standards.
Considers technologies and best practices for improving energy efficiency in the design and operation of ship equipment and systems. Potential topics include Energy Efficiency Design Index, Energy Efficiency Operational Indicator, and Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan.
Consider requirements within the recently adopted IMO Polar Code and the IACS Polar Class rules. This includes vessel design considerations for low temperature environments. Also considers experiences of organizations operating ships in Polar Waters.
Considers issues, technologies, equipment and standards under the Annexes to the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL 73/78). Topics include pollution prevention requirements and standards for oil, sewage, garbage, ballast water, and air emissions.
Considers operation, training, safety, design and maintenance issues as well as the requirements within the ASME PVHO-1 & PVHO-2 Code and the IMO guidelines for diving systems (IMO Code of Safety for Diving Systems) and passenger submersibles (MSC/Circ.981—Guidelines for the design, construction and operation of passenger submersible craft).
Considers issues/advancements regarding automation and autonomous ship technology, as well as the intercept with cybersecurity.
Considers latest international and domestic developments and requirements regarding safety and environmental protection impacting the maritime community.
For additional information on this workshop, visit the USCG Web site at
Registration is now open; to register for this workshop, visit the ASME Web site:
The USCG Web site for the event is:
Material presented at the workshop will be made available to the public on the USCG Web site listed above after the conclusion of this event. For additional information on material presented at this event, you may contact one of the individuals listed above in
Persons with disabilities who require special assistance should advise us of their anticipated special needs as early as possible by one of the individuals listed above in
Please note that the workshop may adjourn early if all business is finished.
This notice is issued under authority of 5 U.S.C. 552(a).
U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), Department of Homeland Security.
60-Day notice and request for comments; extension of an existing collection of information.
The Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Customs and Border Protection will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection is published in the
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice must include the OMB Control Number 1651-0025 in the subject line and the agency name. To avoid duplicate submissions, please use only
(1)
(2)
Requests for additional PRA information should be directed to CBP Paperwork Reduction Act Officer, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Office of Trade, Regulations and Rulings, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, 90 K Street NE., 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177, or via email
CBP invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice and request for comments.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) will submit the information collection abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget for review and clearance in accordance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The submission will describe the nature of the information collection, the categories of respondents, the estimated burden (
Comments must be submitted on or before September 7, 2017.
Submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the Desk Officer for the Department of Homeland Security, Federal Emergency Management Agency, and sent via electronic mail to
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection should be made to Director, Records Management Division, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472-3100, or email address
This proposed information collection previously published in the
Comments may be submitted as indicated in the
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional 30 days for public comments.
The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional 30 days for public comments. Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until September 7, 2017. This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.10.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice, especially regarding the estimated public burden and associated response time, must be directed to the OMB USCIS Desk Officer via email at
You may wish to consider limiting the amount of personal information that you provide in any voluntary submission you make. For additional information please read the Privacy Act notice that is available via the link in the footer of
USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy, Regulatory Coordination Division, Samantha Deshommes, Chief, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2140, Telephone number (202) 272-8377 (This is not a toll-free number; comments are not accepted via telephone message.). Please note contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. It is not for individual case status inquiries. Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
The information collection notice was previously published in the
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Nashville District, has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects, in consultation with the appropriate Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is no cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and any present-day Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Representatives of any Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request to the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Nashville District. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains and associated funerary objects to the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Representatives of any Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Nashville District, at the address in this notice by September 7, 2017.
Dr. Valerie McCormack, Archaeologist, Department of Defense, Nashville District, Corps of Engineers, U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Nashville District, 110 9th Avenue South, Room A-405, Nashville, TN 37203, telephone (615) 736-7847, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects under the control of the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Nashville District, Nashville, TN. The human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from Lyon County, KY.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3) and 43 CFR 10.11(d). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Nashville District, and the St. Louis District's Mandatory Center for Expertise for the Curation and Management of Archaeological Collections (MCX-CMAC) professional staff in consultation with representatives of the Absentee Shawnee Tribe of Indians of Oklahoma, Cherokee Nation, Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians, Eastern Shawnee Tribe of Oklahoma, Shawnee Tribe, The Chickasaw Nation, The Osage Nation (previously listed as the Osage Tribe), and United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma.
In 1959, human remains representing, at minimum, 128 individuals were removed from the Tinsley Hill Cemetery site (15LY18b). The remains include 21 adult males, 5 adult probable males, 20 adult females, 6 adult probable females, 27 adults of indeterminate sex, 29 subadults, 19 infants, and 1 individual of indeterminate age and sex. No known individuals were identified. The 478 associated funerary objects are 271 pottery sherds, 5 burned clay, 2 projectile points, 11 chipped stone tool fragments, 2 stone drill fragment, 2 stone cores, 1 stone celt, 1 flint chisel, 38 debitage, 2 quartz, 1 sandstone, 24 UID stone, 20 cannel coal, 1 splinter bone awl, 1 worked antler tip, 2 deer teeth, 1 elk tooth, 8 UID bone, 9 pieces of shell, 17 shells, 9 pieces of charcoal, 1 mica, 3 red ochre, 3 crinoids, 1 fossil coral, 19 iron nails, 5 pieces of iron, 1 metal carpet tack, 2 plastic buttons, 13 ceramics, 1 brown glass, and 1 lead.
In 1960 and 1962, human remains representing, at minimum, nine individuals were removed from site 15LY18a, the Tinsley Hill Village. Berle Clay of the University of Kentucky excavated the village area of the site in 1960. During this field season, Clay excavated eight individuals. In 1962, he returned to the site and removed a ninth individual from the village area. Information on the excavations can be found in the publications “Excavations at Tinsley Hill Village, 1960” and “Tinsley Hill Village, 1962” by Clay. The nine individuals are infants. No known individuals were identified. The 7 associated funerary objects are 3 pottery sherds, 1 broken antler tip drilled lengthwise through the base, and 3 faunal fragments.
The University of Kentucky undertook excavations at Tinsley Hill with funds provided by the National Park Service under the River Basins Archaeological Salvage Program. The work occurred prior to the inundation of Lake Barkley. The human remains and associated funerary objects have been in the physical custody of the Webb Museum, University of Kentucky, since excavation, but under the control of the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers.
In the winter and spring of 1958, Douglas W. Schwartz and Tacoma G. Sloan identified site 15LY18 as the only large Mississippian site below Lake Barkley's inundation pool. The site covered approximately 20 acres and contained two mounds, a village area, and a stone box cemetery.
Officials of the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Nashville District, have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice are Native American based on the archeological context.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 137 individuals of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(A), the 485 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), a relationship of shared group identity cannot be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects and any present-day Indian Tribe.
• Treaties, Acts of Congress, or Executive Orders, indicate that the land from which the Native American human remains were removed is the aboriginal land of the Cherokee Nation, Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians, and United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma.
• Pursuant to 43 CFR 10.11(c)(1), the disposition of human remains from site 15LY18 may be jointly to the Cherokee Nation, Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians, and United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma.
Representatives of any Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to: Dr. Valerie McCormack, Archaeologist, Department of Defense, Nashville District, Corps of Engineers, U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Nashville District, 110 9th Avenue South, Room A-405, Nashville, TN 37203, telephone (615) 736-7847, email
The U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Nashville District is responsible for notifying the Absentee Shawnee Tribe of Indians of Oklahoma, Cherokee Nation, Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians, Eastern Shawnee Tribe of Oklahoma, Shawnee Tribe, The Chickasaw Nation, The Osage Nation, and United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation, Division of Archaeology, has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects, in consultation with the appropriate Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and present-day Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request to the Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation, Division of Archaeology. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains to the lineal descendants, Indian Tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation, Division of Archaeology, at the address in this notice by September 7, 2017.
Michael C. Moore, Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation, Division of Archaeology, 1216 Foster Avenue, Cole Building 3, Nashville, TN 37243, (615) 687-4776,
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects under the control of the Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation, Division of Archaeology, Nashville, TN. The human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from Polk County, TN.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by the Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation, Division of Archaeology, professional staff in consultation with representatives of the Cherokee Nation of Oklahoma, Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians, and United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians of Oklahoma.
From 1986 to 1987, human remains representing, at minimum, six individuals were removed from the Hiwassee Old Town site (40PK3) in Polk County, TN. The Tennessee Division of Archaeology (TDOA) discovered the human remains during construction of the State Division of Forestry, East Tennessee Nursery. The human remains represent one subadult approximately 9-10 years of age; one subadult of indeterminate age; and four individuals of indeterminate age or sex. No individuals were identified. The 46 associated funerary objects are 1 greenstone celt, 1 stone elbow pipe, 1 coiled brass hairplucker, 4 iron buckles, 2 gunflints, 1 metal razor, 1 metal awl, and 35 clay beads.
The associated funerary objects were transferred to the McClung Museum at the University of Tennessee-Knoxville (UT-Knoxville) for analysis during the late 1980s, but were returned to the TDOA in 2009. One associated funerary object noted in the original NAGPRA inventory, a small piece of lead, was not present when the associated funerary objects were returned to the TDOA. The McClung Museum does not know the location of this item and it is not included in this notice.
The Hiwassee Old Town site (40PK3) represents a multi-component Native American site located on the north bank of the Hiwassee River in Polk County, TN. Archeological investigations conducted from 1986 to 1987 by TDOA determined prehistoric and historic Native American deposits to be present, including deposits associated with the previously documented Hiwassee Old Town occupied by Overhill Cherokee during the 18th and early 19th centuries (Riggs et al. 1988). The associated funerary objects are consistent with previously identified historic period Native American artifacts, based upon the range and style of artifacts.
Officials of the Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation, Division of Archaeology have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of six individuals of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(A), the 46 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects and the Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Michael C. Moore, Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation, Division of Archaeology, 1216 Foster Avenue, Cole Building 3, Nashville, TN 37243, (615) 687-4776,
The Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation, Division of Archaeology is responsible for notifying the Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians, the Cherokee Nation of Oklahoma, and the United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians of Oklahoma that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The U.S. Department of the Interior, Bureau of Indian Affairs, and the University of Nevada, Reno, Anthropology Research Museum, have completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects, in consultation with the appropriate Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and have determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and present-day Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request to the Bureau of Indian Affairs. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains and associated funerary objects to the lineal descendants, Indian Tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the Bureau of Indian Affairs at the address in this notice by September 7, 2017.
Anna Pardo, Museum Program Manager/NAGPRA Coordinator, U.S. Department of the Interior, Bureau of Indian Affairs, 12220 Sunrise Valley Drive, Room 6084, Reston, VA 20191, telephone (703) 390-6343, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects under the control of the U.S. Department of the Interior, Bureau of Indian Affairs, Washington, DC, and in the physical custody of the University of Nevada, Reno, Anthropology Research Museum, Reno, NV. The human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from several sites near Pyramid Lake in Washoe County, NV.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by the U.S. Department of the Interior, Bureau of Indian Affairs, professional staff in consultation with representatives of the Pyramid Lake Paiute Tribe of the Pyramid Lake Reservation, Nevada.
At an unknown date in 1968, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were removed by an amateur archeologist from a site located one mile east of Needles, at Pyramid Lake in Washoe County, NV. The human remains were donated to the Nevada Archaeological Survey (NAS) in the same year. NAS later became part of the University of Nevada, Reno, Department of Anthropology, where the human remains have continued to be housed. The Anthropology Research Museum is part of the Department of Anthropology and provides curation. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects are present.
In April of 1968, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were removed from site 26WA1616, located approximately 50 yards from the shoreline of Pyramid Lake in Washoe County, NV. The human remains were deposited at the University of Nevada, Reno, Department of Anthropology. The Anthropology Research Museum is part of the Department of Anthropology and provides curation. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects are present.
At an unknown date in 1972, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were removed from site 26WA162, located in the northwest corner of Pyramid Lake in Washoe County, NV. The human remains were donated to NAS in the same year. NAS later became part of the University of Nevada, Reno, Department of Anthropology, where the human remains have continued to be housed. The Anthropology Research Museum is part of the Department of Anthropology and provides curation. No known individual was identified. The five associated funerary objects are two quartzite flakes and three animal bones.
Geographic, historic, and anthropological evidence indicates that the human remains from these sites are Native American. The location of the burial is within the boundaries of the Pyramid Lake Reservation. Historic documents and archeological and consultation evidence, including tribal oral history, indicate that this area has been occupied by the Pyramid Lake Paiute Tribe of the Pyramid Lake Reservation, Nevada, since pre-contact times. Based on this evidence, the human remains have been determined to be culturally affiliated with the
Officials of the Bureau of Indian Affairs have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of three individuals of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(A), the five objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects and the Pyramid Lake Paiute Tribe of the Pyramid Lake Reservation, Nevada.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Anna Pardo, Museum Program Manager/NAGPRA Coordinator, U.S. Department of the Interior, Bureau of Indian Affairs, 12220 Sunrise Valley Drive, Room 6084, Reston, VA 20191, telephone (703) 390-6343, email
The Bureau of Indian Affairs is responsible for notifying the Pyramid Lake Paiute Tribe of the Pyramid Lake Reservation, Nevada, that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The July 2017 Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Review Committee meeting has been postponed.
The meeting via teleconference scheduled for July 11, 2017, will be rescheduled at a later date. We will publish a future notice with new meeting date and location.
Melanie O'Brien, Designated Federal Officer, Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Review Committee, National NAGPRA Program (2253), National Park Service, 1849 C Street NW., Room 7360, Washington, DC 20240, (202) 354-2201 or via email
The 7-member Review Committee monitors and reviews the implementation of the inventory and identification processes and repatriation activities under Sections 5, 6, and 7 of the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act of 1990.
Additional information is available in the meeting notice published on October 21, 2016 (81 FR 72827).
25 U.S.C. 3006a-i; 5 U.S.C. Appendix 1-16.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The University of Pennsylvania Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology has completed an inventory of human remains in consultation with the appropriate Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and present-day Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request to the University of Pennsylvania Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains to the lineal descendants, Indian Tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the University of Pennsylvania Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology at the address in this notice by September 7, 2017.
Dr. Julian Siggers, Williams Director, University of Pennsylvania Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology, 3260 South Street, Philadelphia, PA 19104, telephone (215) 898-4050.
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains under the control of the University of Pennsylvania Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology, Philadelphia, PA. The human remains were removed from the Brakebill Mound site (40KN55), Knox County, TN.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by the University of Pennsylvania Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology professional staff in consultation with representatives of the Alabama-Quassarte Tribal Town; Cherokee Nation; Eastern Band of
At some time prior to February of 1837, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were removed from the Brakebill Mound site (40KN55) in Knox County, TN, by Professor Gerard Troost (b. 1776-d.1850). Professor Troost was a founding member of the Academy of Natural Sciences in Philadelphia and state geologist for Tennessee (1831-1839). The mound is situated at the junction of the French Broad and Holston Rivers on private land. At some time prior to October of 1838, the human remains were loaned to Dr. Samuel G. Morton for his study of human crania from around the world, and accessioned into his collections between 1839 and 1840. In 1853, Dr. Morton's collections were formally presented to the Academy of Natural Sciences of Philadelphia, loaned to the University of Pennsylvania Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology in 1966, and formally gifted to the University of Pennsylvania Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology in 1997 (UPM no. 97-606-992). The human remains consist of a cranium representing a single male, over 50 years old. No known individuals were identified.
Archival records and museum documentation do not designate a specific culture for this individual. Published anthropological information indicates that the Brakebill Mound site is a Dallas Phase archeological site dating from 1300 to 1600 CE. Based on consultation information and published ethnographic and anthropological literature, current evidence suggest that the Dallas Phase archeological culture may be associated with the Muscogee Creek and/or Cherokee cultural traditions. Today, these groups are represented by The Consulted Tribes.
Officials of the University of Pennsylvania Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individuals of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and The Consulted Tribes.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Dr. Julian Siggers, Williams Director, University of Pennsylvania Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology, 3260 South Street, Philadelphia, PA 19104, telephone (215) 898-4050, by September 7, 2017. After that date, if no additional requestors have come forward, transfer of control of the human remains to The Consulted Tribes may proceed.
The University of Pennsylvania Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology is responsible for notifying The Consulted Tribes that this notice has been published.
United States International Trade Commission.
Notice.
The Commission hereby gives notice of the scheduling of an expedited review pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 (“the Act”) to determine whether revocation of the antidumping duty order on steel nails from the United Arab Emirates would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury within a reasonably foreseeable time.
July 7, 2017.
Calvin Chang (202-205-3062), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server (
For further information concerning the conduct of this review and rules of general application, consult the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, part 201, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 201), and part 207, subparts A, D, E, and F (19 CFR part 207).
In accordance with sections 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the rules, each document filed by a party to the review must be served on all other parties to the review (as identified by either the public or BPI service list), and a certificate of service must be timely filed. The Secretary will not accept a document for filing without a certificate of service.
By order of the Commission.
Notice of registration.
Registrants listed below have applied for and been granted registration by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) as importers of various classes of schedule I or II controlled substances.
The companies listed below applied to be registered as importers of various basic classes of controlled substances. Information on previously published notices is listed in the table below. No comments or objections were submitted and no requests for hearing were submitted for these notices.
The DEA has considered the factors in 21 U.S.C. 823, 952(a) and 958(a) and determined that the registration of the listed registrants to import the applicable basic classes of schedule I or II controlled substances is consistent with the public interest and with United States obligations under international treaties, conventions, or protocols in effect on May 1, 1971. The DEA investigated each company's maintenance of effective controls against diversion by inspecting and testing each company's physical security systems, verifying each company's compliance with state and local laws, and reviewing each company's background and history.
Therefore, pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 952(a) and 958(a), and in accordance with 21 CFR 1301.34, the DEA has granted a registration as an importer for schedule I or II controlled substances to the above listed persons.
On February 28, 2017, the Assistant Administrator, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), issued an Order to Show Cause to Leia A. Frickey, M.D. (Registrant), of New Orleans, Louisiana. The Show Cause Order proposed the revocation of Registrant's Certificate of Registration, the denial of any applications to renew or modify her registration, and the denial of any applications for any other DEA registration on the ground that she lacks “state authority to handle controlled substances” in Louisiana, the State in which she is registered with the DEA. Order to Show Cause, at 1 (citing 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(3)).
With respect to the Agency's jurisdiction, the Show Cause Order alleged that Registrant is registered as a practitioner in schedules II through V, pursuant to DEA Certificate of Registration BF5029574, at the address of 3312 South I-10 Service Road, Metairie, Louisiana.
As substantive grounds for the proceeding, the Show Cause Order alleged that on May 6, 2016, the Louisiana State Board of Medical Examiners issued a “Notice of Summary Suspension of Medical License, summarily suspending [Registrant's] medical license.”
The Show Cause Order notified Registrant of her right to request a hearing on the allegations or to submit a written statement in lieu of a hearing, the procedure for electing either option, and the consequence for failing to elect either option.
The Government states that on March 16, 2017, “[p]ersonnel from DEA's New Orleans Field Division served the Order on Registrant.” Government Request for Final Agency Action (RFFA), at 1 (citing Government Exhibit (GX) 5). Specifically, a DEA Diversion Investigator (DI) and DEA Task Force Officer traveled to a medical center in Louisiana on March 16, 2017, where the nursing staff escorted them to her room where they found the Registrant. GX5, at 1. The DI advised Registrant that he had a Show Cause Order to serve on her.
On May 19, 2017, the Government forwarded its Request for Final Agency Action and an evidentiary record to my Office. Therein, the Government represents that Registrant has neither requested a hearing nor “otherwise corresponded or communicated with DEA regarding” the Show Cause Order. RFFA, at 2. Based on the Government's representation and the record, I find that more than 30 days have passed since the Order to Show Cause was served on Registrant, and she has neither requested a hearing nor submitted a written statement in lieu of a hearing.
Registrant is a physician who is registered as a practitioner in schedules II-V pursuant to Certificate of Registration BF5029574, at the address of 3312 South I-10 Service Road, Metairie, Louisiana. GX 1, at 1. The registration does not expire until September 30, 2017.
On May 6, 2016, the Louisiana State Board of Medical Examiners summarily suspended Registrant's medical license and stated that the suspension was “effective immediately.” GX 3, at 1. On November 16, 2016, the Louisiana State Board of Pharmacy “indefinitely suspended” Registrant's controlled substance license “in accordance with the suspension of her medical license by the Louisiana State Board of Medical Examiners on May 6, 2016.” GX 4, at 1. Based on the above, I find that Registrant does not currently have authority under the laws of Louisiana to dispense controlled substances.
Pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(3), the Attorney General is authorized to suspend or revoke a registration issued under section 823 of Title 21, “upon a finding that the registrant . . . has had [her] State license . . . suspended [or] revoked . . . by competent State authority and is no longer authorized by State law to engage in the . . . dispensing of controlled substances.” With respect to a practitioner, DEA has long held that the possession of authority to dispense controlled substances under the laws of the State in which a practitioner engages in professional practice is a fundamental condition for obtaining and maintaining a registration.
This rule derives from the text of two provisions of the CSA. First, Congress defined “the term `practitioner' [to] mean[] a . . . physician . . . or other person licensed, registered or otherwise permitted, by . . . the jurisdiction in which he practices . . . to distribute, dispense, [or] administer . . . a controlled substance in the course of professional practice.” 21 U.S.C. 802(21). Second, in setting the requirements for obtaining a practitioner's registration, Congress directed that “[t]he Attorney General shall register practitioners . . . if the applicant is authorized to dispense . . . controlled substances under the laws of the State in which [s]he practices.” 21 U.S.C. 823(f). Because Congress has clearly mandated that a practitioner possess state authority in order to be deemed a practitioner under the Act, DEA has held repeatedly that revocation of a practitioner's registration is the appropriate sanction whenever she is no longer authorized to dispense controlled substances under the laws of the State in which she engages in professional practice.
Moreover, because “the controlling question” in a proceeding brought under 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(3) is whether the holder of a practitioner's registration “is currently authorized to handle controlled substances in the [S]tate,”
Pursuant to the authority vested in me by 21 U.S.C. 823(f) and 824(a), as well as 28 CFR 0.100(b), I order that DEA Certificate of Registration No. BF5029574, issued to Leia A. Frickey, M.D., be, and it hereby is, revoked. I further order that any pending application of Leia A. Frickey to renew or modify the above registration, or any pending application of Leia A. Frickey for any other registration, be, and it hereby is, denied. This Order is effective immediately.
Notice of application.
Registered bulk manufacturers of the affected basic classes, and applicants therefore, may file written comments on or objections to the issuance of the proposed registration in accordance with 21 CFR 1301.34(a) on or before September 7, 2017. Such persons may also file a written request for a hearing on the application pursuant to 21 CFR 1301.43 on or before September 7, 2017.
Written comments should be sent to: Drug Enforcement Administration, Attention: DEA Federal Register Representative/DRW, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, Virginia 22152. All requests for hearing must be sent to: Drug Enforcement Administration, Attn: Administrator, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, Virginia 22152. All request for hearing should also be sent to: (1) Drug Enforcement Administration, Attn: Hearing Clerk/LJ, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, Virginia 22152; and (2) Drug Enforcement Administration, Attn: DEA Federal Register Representative/DRW, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, Virginia 22152.
The Attorney General has delegated his authority under the Controlled Substances Act to the Administrator of the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), 28 CFR 0.100(b). Authority to exercise all necessary functions with respect to the promulgation and implementation of 21 CFR part 1301, incident to the registration of manufacturers, distributors, dispensers, importers, and exporters of controlled substances (other than final orders in connection with suspension, denial, or revocation of registration) has been redelegated to the Assistant Administrator of the DEA Diversion Control Division (“Assistant Administrator”) pursuant to section 7 of 28 CFR part 0, appendix to subpart R.
In accordance with 21 CFR 1301.34(a), this is notice that on March 7, 2017, Almac Clinical Services Incorp (ACSI), 25 Fretz Road, Souderton, Pennsylvania 18964 applied to be registered as an importer of the following basic classes of controlled substances:
The company plans to import small quantities of the listed controlled substances in dosage form to conduct clinical trials.
On August 1, 2017, the Department of Justice lodged a proposed consent decree with the United States District Court for the Central District of California in the lawsuit entitled
The United States filed this lawsuit under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) for the recovery of costs that the United States incurred responding to releases of hazardous substances at certain Installation Restoration Program (IRP) Sites at Vandenberg Air Force Base in Santa Barbara County, California. The consent decree requires the defendant The Bionetics Corporation to pay $219,000 to the United States. In return, the United States agrees not to sue the defendant under sections 106 and 107 of CERCLA at certain IRP Sites at Vandenberg Air Force Base.
The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the consent decree. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to
During the public comment period, the consent decree may be examined and downloaded at this Justice Department Web site:
Please enclose a check or money order for $5.25 (25 cents per page reproduction cost) payable to the United States Treasury.
Bureau of Labor Statistics, Department of Labor.
Notice of information collection, request for comment.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a pre-clearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This program helps to ensure that requested data can be provided in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the impact of collection requirements on respondents can be properly assessed. The Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) is soliciting comments concerning the proposed revision of the “The Consumer Expenditure Surveys: The Quarterly Interview and the Diary.” A copy of the proposed information collection request can be obtained by contacting the individual listed below in the
Written comments must be submitted to the office listed in the
Send comments to Nora Kincaid, BLS Clearance Officer, Division of Management Systems, Bureau of Labor Statistics, Room 4080, 2 Massachusetts Avenue NE., Washington, DC 20212. Written comments also may be transmitted by
Nora Kincaid, BLS Clearance Officer, at 202-691-7628 (this is not a toll free number). (See
The Consumer Expenditure (CE) Surveys collect data on consumer expenditures, demographic information, and related data needed by the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and other public and private data users. The continuing surveys provide a constant measurement of changes in consumer expenditure patterns for economic analysis and to obtain data for future CPI revisions. The CE Surveys have been ongoing since 1979.
The data from the CE Surveys are used (1) for CPI revisions, (2) to provide a continuous flow of data on income and expenditure patterns for use in economic analysis and policy formulation, and (3) to provide a flexible consumer survey vehicle that is available for use by other Federal government agencies. Public and private users of price statistics, including Congress and the economic policymaking agencies of the Executive branch, rely on data collected in the CPI in their day-to-day activities. Hence, data users and policymakers widely accept the need to improve the process used for revising the CPI. If the CE Surveys were not conducted on a continuing basis, current information necessary for more timely, as well as more accurate, updating of the CPI would not be available. In addition, data would not be available to respond to the continuing demand from the public and private sectors for current information on consumer spending.
In the Quarterly Interview Survey, each consumer unit (CU) in the sample is interviewed every three months over four calendar quarters. The sample for each quarter is divided into three panels, with CUs being interviewed every three months in the same panel of every quarter. The Quarterly Interview Survey is designed to collect data on the types of expenditures that respondents can be expected to recall for a period of three months or longer. In general the expenses reported in the Interview Survey are either relatively large, such as property, automobiles, or major appliances, or are expenses which occur on a fairly regular basis, such as rent, utility bills, or insurance premiums.
The Diary (or recordkeeping) Survey is completed at home by the respondent family for two consecutive one-week periods. The primary objective of the Diary Survey is to obtain expenditure data on small, frequently purchased items which normally are difficult to recall over longer periods of time.
Office of Management and Budget clearance is being sought for the proposed revision of the Consumer Expenditure Surveys: The Quarterly Interview and the Diary.
As part of an ongoing effort to improve data quality, maintain or increase response rates, and reduce data collection costs, CE is making the below changes.
Several changes will be implemented in the Quarterly Interview Survey including the addition of a veterans question, point of purchase or outlet questions, and two studies.
One question will be added asking whether members of the consumer unit aged 16 and over have ever served on active duty in the armed forces. The addition of this question will enable CE to publish estimates on expenditures by veteran status.
CE will continue to test the addition of outlet questions, adding in the remaining sections of the Quarterly Interview Survey instrument. These questions will be added beginning July 2018.
CE will test the effect of providing respondents with a Spending Summary Report (SSR) on respondent cooperation and survey experience. The test will be fielded from July through September 2018 and April through May 2019. The test is designed to address response rates, which have been trending downward over the past twenty years. At the end of the 1st Interview, respondents will be offered the option to receive a SSR. Results of the field test will be used to inform the final design of the CE Gemini Redesign's use of a similar Spending Summary Report.
CE will also test the addition of a Quarterly Interview Survey Worksheet to be fielded April through May 2019 and October through December 2019. CE will evaluate both the feasibility of using this worksheet based on debriefing questions and the effect of using the worksheet on the data.
No changes will be made in Diary.
A full list of the proposed changes to the Quarterly Interview Survey are available upon request.
The Bureau of Labor Statistics is particularly interested in comments that:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility.
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval of the information collection request; they also will become a matter of public record.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Request for public comments.
OSHA solicits public comments concerning its proposal to extend OMB approval of the collections of information specified in the Ionizing Radiation Standard.
Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by October 10, 2017.
Theda Kenney or Todd Owen, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor, Room N-3609, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210; telephone (202) 693-2222.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
The basic purpose of the collections of information in the Ionizing Radiation Standard is to document that employers are providing their workers with protection from ionizing radiation exposure. The collections of information contained in the Standard include: Monitoring worker exposure to ionizing radiation, posting caution signs at radiation areas, reporting worker overexposures to OSHA, maintaining exposure records, and providing exposure records to current and former workers.
OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:
• Whether the proposed collections of information are necessary for the proper performance of the Agency's functions, including whether the information is useful;
• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the collections of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply, for example, by using automated or other technological information collection and transmission techniques.
OSHA is requesting an adjustment increase of 6,719 burden hours from 45,217 to 51,936 hours. This increase is the result of an adjustment of the number of establishments and workers used in this analysis based on updated data. The increase is off-set by a reduction in burden hours due to the determination that employers providing training to workers under paragraph (i)(2) is not considered to be a collection of information. Also, the increase is off-set by a reduction in the predicted number of notification of incidents (paragraph (l)) and of overexposure and excessive levels and concentrations (paragraph (m)). The total estimated number of establishments affected by the regulation increased from 12,719 to 13,012, a total adjustment of 293 more establishments.
You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) Electronically at
Because of security procedures, the use of regular mail may cause a significant delay in the receipt of comments. For information about security procedures concerning the delivery of materials by hand, express delivery, messenger, or courier service, please contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627).
Comments and submissions are posted without change at
Loren Sweatt, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Request for public comments.
OSHA is soliciting public comments concerning its proposal to extend the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) approval of the information collection requirements specified in the Fire Brigades Standard.
Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by October 10, 2017.
Theda Kenney, 202-693-2044,
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
OSHA does not mandate that employers establish fire brigades; however, if they do so, they must comply with the provisions of the Fire Brigades Standard. The provisions of the standard, including the paperwork requirements, apply to fire brigades, industrial fire departments, and private or contract fire departments, but not to airport crash rescue units or forest firefighting operations. Paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2), and (c)(4) contain the paperwork requirements of the standard.
Under paragraph (b)(1) of the standard, employers must develop and maintain an organizational statement that establishes the: Existence of a fire brigade; the basic organizational structure of the brigade; type, amount, and frequency of training provided to brigade members; expected number of members in the brigade; and functions that the brigade is to perform. This paragraph also specifies that the organizational statement must be available for review by workers, their designated representatives, and OSHA compliance officers. The organizational statement describes the functions performed by the brigade members and, thereby, determines the level of training and type of personal protective equipment (PPE) necessary for these members to perform their assigned functions safely. Making the statement available to workers, their designated representatives, and OSHA compliance officers ensures that the elements of the statement are consistent with the functions performed by the brigade members and the occupational hazards they experience, and that employers are providing training and PPE appropriate to these functions and hazards.
To permit a worker with known heart disease, epilepsy, or emphysema to participate in fire brigade emergency activities, paragraph (b)(2) of the standard requires employers to obtain a physician's certificate of the worker's fitness. This provision provides employers with a direct and efficient means of ascertaining whether or not they can safely expose workers with these medical conditions to the hazards of firefighting operations.
Paragraph (c)(4) of the standard requires employers to inform fire brigade members of special hazards, such as the storage and use of flammable liquids and gases, toxic chemicals, radioactive sources, water-reactive substances that may be present during fires and other emergencies, and any changes in these special hazards. It also requires that employers develop written procedures describing the actions that brigade members are to take when special hazards are present, and to make these procedures available in the education and training program and for review by brigade members.
OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:
• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the agency's functions, including whether the information is useful;
• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• The quality, utility and clarity of the information collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information collection and transmission techniques.
OSHA is requesting that OMB extend its approval of the information collection requirements contained in the Fire Brigades Standard (29 CFR 1910.156). The agency is requesting an increase in its current burden hours from 2,510 hours to 2,693 hours, a total increase of 183 hours. The adjustment is primarily due to an increase in the estimated number of manufacturing facilities with 100 or more workers. The agency will summarize the comments submitted in response to this notice and will include this summary in the request to OMB.
You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) Electronically at
Because of security procedures, the use of regular mail may cause a significant delay in the receipt of comments. For information about security procedures concerning the delivery of materials by hand, express delivery, messenger, or courier service, please contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627).
Comments and submissions are posted without change at
Loren Sweatt, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Request for public comments.
OSHA is soliciting public comments concerning its proposal to extend OMB approval of the information collection requirements specified in the Standard on Material Hoists, Personnel Hoists, and Elevators.
Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by October 10, 2017.
Todd Owen or Theda Kenney, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor, Room N-3609, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210; telephone (202) 693-2222.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
Paragraph (a)(2) of the Material Hoists, Personnel Hoists, and Elevators Standard requires that the rated load capacities, recommended operating speeds, and special hazard warnings or instructions be posted on cars and platforms. Paragraph (b)(1)(i) requires that operating rules for material hoists be established and posted at the operator's station of the hoist. These rules shall include signal system and allowable line speed for various loads. Paragraph (c)(10) requires that cars be provided with a capacity and data plate secured in a conspicuous place on the car or crosshead.
These posting requirements are used by the operator and crew of the material and personnel hoists to determine how to use the specific machine and how much it will be able to lift as assembled in one or a number of particular configurations. If not properly used, the machine would be subject to failures, endangering the workers in the immediate vicinity.
Paragraph (c)(15) requires that a test and inspection of all functions and safety devices be made following the assembly and erection of hoists. The test and inspection are to be conducted under the supervision of a competent person. A similar inspection and test is required following major alteration of an existing installation. All hoists shall be inspected and tested at three-month intervals. A certification record (the most recent) of the test and inspection must be kept on file, including the date the test and inspection was completed, the identification of the equipment and the signature of the person who performed the test and inspection. This certification ensures that the equipment has been tested and is in safe operating condition. The most recent certification record will be disclosed to a Compliance Safety and Health Officer during an OSHA inspection.
OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:
• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the Agency's functions, including whether the information is useful;
• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• The quality, utility and clarity of the information collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information collection and transmission techniques.
OSHA is requesting that OMB extend its approval of the information
You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) Electronically at
Because of security procedures, the use of regular mail may cause a significant delay in the receipt of comments. For information about security procedures concerning the delivery of materials by hand, express delivery, messenger, or courier service, please contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627).
Comments and submissions are posted without change at
Loren Sweatt, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506
Notice.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a preclearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA95). This program helps to ensure that requested data can be provided in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the impact of collection requirements on respondents can be properly assessed. Currently, the Office of Workers' Compensation Programs is soliciting comments concerning the proposed collection: Rehabilitation Plan and Award (OWCP-16). A copy of the proposed information collection request can be obtained by contacting the office listed below in the addresses section of this notice.
Written comments must be submitted to the office listed in the addresses section below on or before October 10, 2017.
You may submit comments by mail, delivery service, or by hand to Ms. Yoon Ferguson, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Ave. NW., Room S-3323, Washington, DC 20210; by fax to (202) 354-9647; or by Email to
The Office of Workers' Compensation Programs (OWCP) is the agency responsible for administration of the Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act (LHWCA), 33 U.S.C. 901
The Department of Labor is particularly interested in comments which:
* Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
* evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
* enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and
* minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
The Department of Labor seeks approval for the extension of this currently approved information collection in order to determine if a rehabilitation plan should be approved and payment of any related expenses authorized.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval of the information collection request; they will also become a matter of public record.
National Women's Business Council.
Notice of open public meeting.
The Public Meeting teleconference will be held on Wednesday, August 9, 2017 from 2:30 p.m. to 3:00 p.m. EST.
The meeting will be held via teleconference.
Pursuant to section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C., Appendix 2), the U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA) announces the meeting of the National Women's Business Council. The National Women's Business Council conducts research on issues of importance and impact to women entrepreneurs and makes policy recommendations to the SBA, Congress, and the White House on how to improve the business climate for women.
This meeting is the 4th Quarter meeting for Fiscal Year 2017. The online meeting will open with remarks from Council Chairwoman, Carla Harris, providing updates on research projects. Time will be reserved at the end for audience participants to address Council Members directly with questions, comments, or feedback.
The meeting is open to the public; however advance notice of attendance is requested. To RSVP and confirm attendance, the general public should email
For more information, please visit the National Women's Business Council Web site at
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Notice of submission to the Office of Management and Budget; request for comment.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has recently submitted a request for renewal of an existing collection of information to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review. The information collection is entitled, “Enforcement Discretion for Operating Reactors and Gaseous Diffusion Plants.”
Submit comments by September 7, 2017.
Submit comments directly to the OMB reviewer at: Aaron Szabo, Desk Officer, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (3150-0136), NEOB-10202, Office of Management and Budget, Washington, DC 20503; telephone: 202-395-7315, email:
David Cullison, NRC Clearance Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-2084; email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0222 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2016-0222 in the subject line of your comment submission, in order to ensure that the NRC is able to make your
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC posts all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment submissions into ADAMS.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the NRC recently submitted a request for renewal of an existing collection of information to OMB for review entitled, “Enforcement Discretion for Operating Reactors and Gaseous Diffusion Plants.” The NRC hereby informs potential respondents that an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and that a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The NRC published a
In these circumstances, a licensee or certificate holder may request that the NRC exercise enforcement discretion, and the NRC staff may choose to not enforce the applicable TS, TSR, or other license or certificate condition. This enforcement discretion is designated as a NOED.
A licensee or certificate holder seeking the issuance of a NOED must document and submit to the NRC by letter, in accordance with Inspection Manual Chapter 0410 (ADAMS Accession No. ML13071A487), the safety basis for the request, including an evaluation of the safety significance and potential consequences of the proposed request, a description of proposed compensatory measures, a justification for the duration of the request, the basis for the licensee's or certificate holder's conclusion that the request does not have a potential adverse impact on the public health and safety, and does not involve adverse consequences to the environment, and any other information the NRC staff deems necessary before making a decision to exercise discretion.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
License amendment request; opportunity to comment, request a hearing, and petition for leave to intervene; order imposing procedures.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) received and is considering the approval of three amendment requests. The amendment requests are for Vermont Yankee Power Station, Virgil C. Summer Nuclear Station, Units 2 and 3; and Vogtle Electric Generating Plant, Units 3 and 4. For each amendment request, the NRC proposes to determine that they involve no significant hazards consideration. Because the amendment requests contain sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (SUNSI) and/or safeguards information (SGI), an order imposes procedures to obtain access to SUNSI and SGI for contention preparation.
Comments must be filed by September 7, 2017. A request for a hearing must be filed by October 10, 2017. Any potential party as defined in § 2.4 of title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations (10 CFR), who believes access to SUNSI and/or SGI is necessary to respond to this notice must request document access by August 18, 2017.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specific subject):
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•
For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Shirley Rohrer, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-5411, email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2017-0162, facility name, unit number(s), plant docket number, application date, and subject when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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•
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2017-0162, facility name, unit number(s), plant docket number, application date, and subject in your comment submission.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC will post all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment into ADAMS.
Pursuant to Section 189a.(2) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), the NRC is publishing this notice. The Act requires the Commission to publish notice of any amendments issued, or proposed to be issued and grants the Commission the authority to issue and make immediately effective any amendment to an operating license or combined license, as applicable, upon a determination by the Commission that such amendment involves no significant hazards consideration, notwithstanding the pendency before the Commission of a request for a hearing from any person.
This notice includes notices of amendments containing SUNSI and/or SGI.
The Commission has made a proposed determination that the following amendment requests involve no significant hazards consideration. Under the Commission's regulations in § 50.92, this means that operation of the facility in accordance with the proposed amendment would not (1) involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated, or (2) create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated, or (3) involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety. The basis for this proposed determination for each amendment request is shown below.
The Commission is seeking public comments on this proposed determination. Any comments received within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice will be considered in making any final determination.
Normally, the Commission will not issue the amendment until the expiration of 60 days after the date of publication of this notice. The Commission may issue the license amendment before expiration of the 60-day period provided that its final determination is that the amendment involves no significant hazards consideration. In addition, the Commission may issue the amendment prior to the expiration of the 30-day comment period if circumstances change during the 30-day comment period such that failure to act in a timely way would result, for example, in derating or shutdown of the facility. If the Commission takes action prior to the expiration of either the comment period or the notice period, it will publish a notice of issuance in the
Within 60 days after the date of publication of this notice, any persons (petitioner) whose interest may be affected by this action may file a request for a hearing and petition for leave to intervene (petition) with respect to the action. Petitions shall be filed in accordance with the Commission's “Agency Rules of Practice and Procedure” in 10 CFR part 2. Interested persons should consult a current copy of 10 CFR 2.309. The NRC's regulations are accessible electronically from the NRC Library on the NRC's Web site at
As required by 10 CFR 2.309(d) the petition should specifically explain the reasons why intervention should be permitted with particular reference to the following general requirements for standing: (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the petitioner; (2) the nature of the petitioner's right under the Act to be made a party to the proceeding; (3) the nature and extent of the petitioner's property, financial, or other interest in the proceeding; and (4) the possible effect of any decision or
In accordance with 10 CFR 2.309(f), the petition must also set forth the specific contentions which the petitioner seeks to have litigated in the proceeding. Each contention must consist of a specific statement of the issue of law or fact to be raised or controverted. In addition, the petitioner must provide a brief explanation of the bases for the contention and a concise statement of the alleged facts or expert opinion which support the contention and on which the petitioner intends to rely in proving the contention at the hearing. The petitioner must also provide references to the specific sources and documents on which the petitioner intends to rely to support its position on the issue. The petition must include sufficient information to show that a genuine dispute exists with the applicant or licensee on a material issue of law or fact. Contentions must be limited to matters within the scope of the proceeding. The contention must be one which, if proven, would entitle the petitioner to relief. A petitioner who fails to satisfy the requirements at 10 CFR 2.309(f) with respect to at least one contention will not be permitted to participate as a party.
Those permitted to intervene become parties to the proceeding, subject to any limitations in the order granting leave to intervene. Parties have the opportunity to participate fully in the conduct of the hearing with respect to resolution of that party's admitted contentions, including the opportunity to present evidence, consistent with the NRC's regulations, policies, and procedures.
Petitions must be filed no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. Petitions and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions that are filed after the deadline will not be entertained absent a determination by the presiding officer that the filing demonstrates good cause by satisfying the three factors in 10 CFR 2.309(c)(1)(i) through (iii). The petition must be filed in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document.
If a hearing is requested, and the Commission has not made a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration, the Commission will make a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration. The final determination will serve to establish when the hearing is held. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration, the Commission may issue the amendment and make it immediately effective, notwithstanding the request for a hearing. Any hearing would take place after issuance of the amendment. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves a significant hazards consideration, then any hearing held would take place before the issuance of the amendment unless the Commission finds an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public, in which case it will issue an appropriate order or rule under 10 CFR part 2.
A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof, may submit a petition to the Commission to participate as a party under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(1). The petition should state the nature and extent of the petitioner's interest in the proceeding. The petition should be submitted to the Commission no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. The petition must be filed in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document, and should meet the requirements for petitions set forth in this section, except that under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(2) a State, local governmental body, or Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof does not need to address the standing requirements in 10 CFR 2.309(d) if the facility is located within its boundaries. Alternatively, a State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof may participate as a non-party under 10 CFR 2.315(c).
If a hearing is granted, any person who is not a party to the proceeding and is not affiliated with or represented by a party may, at the discretion of the presiding officer, be permitted to make a limited appearance pursuant to the provisions of 10 CFR 2.315(a). A person making a limited appearance may make an oral or written statement of his or her position on the issues but may not otherwise participate in the proceeding. A limited appearance may be made at any session of the hearing or at any prehearing conference, subject to the limits and conditions as may be imposed by the presiding officer. Details regarding the opportunity to make a limited appearance will be provided by the presiding officer if such sessions are scheduled.
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing and petition for leave to intervene (petition), any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene, and documents filed by interested governmental entities that request to participate under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC's E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007, as amended at 77 FR 46562, August 3, 2012). The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions may be found in the Guidance for Electronic Submissions to the NRC and on the NRC Web site at
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least 10 days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on the NRC's public Web site at
A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC's Electronic Filing Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's public Web site at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing stating why there is good cause for not filing electronically and requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff; or (2) courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service to the Office of the Secretary, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff. Participants filing adjudicatory documents in this manner are responsible for serving the document on all other participants. Filing is considered complete by first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail, or by courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service. A presiding officer, having granted an exemption request from using E-Filing, may require a participant or party to use E-Filing if the presiding officer subsequently determines that the reason for granting the exemption from use of E-Filing no longer exists.
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket which is available to the public at
For further details with respect to these license amendment applications, see the application for amendment which is available for public inspection in ADAMS and at the NRC's PDR. For additional direction on obtaining information related to this document, see the “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” section of this document.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
VY has submitted notifications pursuant to 10 CFR 50.82(a)(1) for permanent cessation of power reactor operations and permanent removal of fuel from the reactor vessel. Upon docketing of the 10 CFR 50.82(a)(1) certifications, under 10 CFR 50.82(a)(2) the VY Part 50 license no longer authorizes operation of the reactor or emplacement or retention of fuel into the reactor vessel. The irradiated fuel at VY is currently stored in the spent fuel pool (SFP) and within the ISFSI on a single pad. In this condition, the number of credible accidents or transients is significantly smaller than for a plant authorized to operate the reactor or emplace or retain fuel in the reactor vessel.
Construction of a second ISFSI pad is in progress and scheduled for completion in 2017, to allow for complete off-load of the SFP to dry storage in casks within the ISFSI. The proposed ISFSI PSP reflects the future site configuration with offload of fuel from the SFP to the ISFSI, with no intention to return spent fuel to the SFP. In this dry fuel storage only configuration, the Fuel Handling Accident currently described in VY Defueled Safety Analysis Report (DSAR) Chapter 6 would no longer be credible. Since the proposed amendment would have no significant effect on facility SSCs and no significant effect on the capability of facility structures, systems, components (SSCs) to perform their design functions for any accident previously evaluated, it does not significantly increase the likelihood of the malfunction of facility SSCs and does not increase the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
The casks are maintained in accordance with the provisions of the general license for the VY ISFSI, utilizing the Holtec International HI-STORM 100 Cask System, Certificate of Compliance (CoC) No. 72-1014, and in accordance with the associated Cask Final Safety Analysis Report (FSAR). The HI-STORM 100 Cask System consists of spent nuclear fuel (SNF) residing within a fuel basket structure contained within a sealed metallic canister, or Multi-Purpose Canister (MPC). The HI-STORM 100 receives and contains the sealed MPC for long term storage, and provides gamma and neutron shielding, ventilation passages, missile protection, and protection against natural phenomena and accidents for the MPC. Cask
• The MPC confinement boundary maintains radioactive material confinement,
• The MPC fuel basket structure maintains the fuel contents subcritical,
• The stored SNF can be retrieved by normal means and
• The system provides adequate shielding.
The HI-STORM 100 Cask System provides the spent nuclear fuel and radioactive material in storage with confinement, radiation shielding, criticality and passive heat removal, independent of other facility SSCs.
Security modifications associated with this proposed amendment include new security systems for lighting, intruder detection systems, protected area boundary fencing, access control systems, telecommunications equipment, a vehicle barrier system, and a central alarm station. These security modifications do not significantly affect the ability of the Cask System and MPC to perform their functions as described in the Cask FSAR. Hence the proposed amendment has no effect on the ability of the Cask System to perform its design function nor would it increase the likelihood of an accident previously evaluated.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of a previously evaluated accident.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed amendment does not involve any physical alteration of any facility SSCs or Cask System components required to mitigate or prevent any accident previously evaluated, and does not have a significant effect on the capability of any facility SSC or Cask System component to perform its design functions. Thus, the proposed amendment does not create any initiators or precursors of a new or different kind of accident than previously evaluated. Likewise, the proposed amendment does not create the possibility of a new failure mode associated with any SSC malfunction or personnel errors that could result in a new or different kind of accident. Since the proposed amendment does not significantly affect any Cask System components, the credible events for the ISFSI are not changed.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
Pursuant to 10 CFR 50.82(a)(2), the 10 CFR part 50 license for VY no longer authorizes operation of the reactor or emplacement or retention of fuel into the reactor vessel, therefore the occurrence of any postulated accidents associated with an operating nuclear reactor is no longer credible. The proposed changes would not be effective until after the transfer of spent fuel to the ISFSI is complete, with no intent to return spent fuel to the spent fuel pool, therefore the fuel handling accident described in VY DSAR Chapter 6 would no longer be credible in this configuration. The proposed amendment does not involve a significant change in any facility SSC or Cask System component's design, configuration, or operation. Therefore the modifications associated with this proposed amendment do not significantly affect the capability or manner in which facility SSCs or Cask System components perform their safety functions or the safety margins associated with their design and function.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed activity removes radiation shield walls from the west end of the containment air filtration exhaust rooms A and B (Rooms 40551 and 40552) to facilitate installation, access and maintenance of filtration equipment. The removal of the walls results in increased levels of radiation; however, the increase does not change the radiation level classification of the area including the Zone 2 designation for the staging and storage area or the Zone 3 designation of Rooms 40551 and 40552. It is expected that by removing the walls, occupational doses are reduced through a reduction in expected occupancy time when personnel are required to access the filtration units. Radiation licensing commitments are met without consideration of the shield walls. The radiation levels associated with the equipment are not changed. No specific accident sequences for the containment air filtration units are analyzed or described in the licensing bases, apart from the information in UFSAR [Updated Final Safety Analysis Report] Subsection 12.3.3.5, which remains valid and is not adversely affected. The removed walls are not relied upon to mitigate evaluated accidents described in UFSAR Ch. 6 or 15 and are not credited for aircraft impact assessment. There are no changes to remaining walls that provide shielding in the area.
No safety-related structure, system, component (SSC) or function is adversely affected by this change. The change does not involve an interface with any SSC accident initiator or initiating sequence of events, and thus, the probabilities of the accidents evaluated in the plant-specific UFSAR are not affected. The proposed changes do not involve a change to the predicted radiological releases due to postulated accident conditions, thus, the consequences of the accidents evaluated in the UFSAR are not affected.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed activity to remove the radiation shield walls from the west end of the containment air filtration exhaust rooms A and B (Rooms 40551 and 40552) does not create a new or different kind of accident previously evaluated as the removal of the walls does not change equipment in the affected room or functions of SSCs. Radiation levels are maintained for each designated zone in the affected Rooms 40551 and 40552 and the nearby areas including the security room, the storage and staging area, and the auxiliary building. Surface dose rates for the filtration equipment are not changed by this activity.
The proposed activity does not adversely affect any safety-related equipment, and do
Therefore, the requested amendment does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
Designated radiation level identified for the containment air filtration exhaust rooms A and B (Rooms 40551 and 40552) in UFSAR Figure 12.3-1 (Sheet 13) are unchanged. Radiation levels are determined for Room 40550 with removal of the walls and are calculated to be approximately 0.42 mRem/hr {milli/roentgen equivalent man/hour}. This radiation dose is within the radiation levels of ≤ 2.5 mRem/hr designated for the Zone 2 designation of these rooms. The different zones have varying level of access control that function to limit worker exposure. Because of the radiation protection controls, a potential increase in the dose rates in an area does not necessarily lead to a corresponding increase in worker exposure and can still be consistent with the ALARA [as low as reasonably achievable] principle. The change continues to comply with the applicable ALARA design considerations discussed in UFSAR Subsection 12.1.2.3. Removal of the walls support reduced duration of radiation exposure due to the improved access to Rooms 40551 and 40552 to perform maintenance activities to the filtration units. Therefore, the overall impact to occupational doses is not adverse. Radiation sources are not changed by the proposed activity. No safety analysis or design basis acceptance limit/criterion is challenged or exceeded by the proposed changes.
Therefore, the requested amendment does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed activity removes radiation shield walls from the west end of the containment air filtration exhaust rooms A and B (Rooms 40551 and 40552) to facilitate installation, access and maintenance of filtration equipment. The removal of the walls results in increased levels of radiation; however, the increase does not change the radiation level classification of the area including the Zone 2 designation for the staging and storage area or the Zone 3 designation of Rooms 40551 and 40552. It is expected that by removing the walls, occupational doses are reduced through a reduction in expected occupancy time when personnel are required to access the filtration units.
Radiation licensing commitments are met without consideration of the shield walls. The radiation levels associated with the equipment are not changed. No specific accident sequences for the containment air filtration units are analyzed or described in the licensing bases, apart from the information in Updated Final Safety Analysis Report (UFSAR) Subsection 12.3.3.5, which remains valid and is not adversely affected. The removed walls are not relied upon to mitigate evaluated accidents described in UFSAR Ch. [chapter] 6 or 15 and are not credited for aircraft impact assessment. There are no changes to remaining walls that provide shielding in the area.
No safety-related structure, system, component (SSC) or function is adversely affected by this change. The change does not involve an interface with any SSC accident initiator or initiating sequence of events, and thus, the probabilities of the accidents evaluated in the plant-specific UFSAR are not affected. The proposed changes do not involve a change to the predicted radiological releases due to postulated accident conditions, thus, the consequences of the accidents evaluated in the UFSAR are not affected.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed activity to remove the radiation shield walls from the west end of the containment air filtration exhaust rooms A and B (Rooms 40551 and 40552) does not create a new or different kind of accident previously evaluated as the removal of the walls does not change equipment in the affected room or functions of SSCs. Radiation levels are maintained for each designated zone in the affected Rooms 40551 and 40552 and the nearby areas including the security room, the storage and staging area, and the auxiliary building. Surface dose rates for the filtration equipment are not changed by this activity.
The proposed activity does not adversely affect any safety-related equipment, and do not add any new interfaces to safety-related SSCs that adversely affect safety functions. No system or design function or equipment qualification is adversely affected by these changes as the change does not modify any SSCs that prevent safety functions from being performed. The changes do not introduce a new failure mode, malfunction or sequence of events that could adversely affect safety or safety-related equipment.
Therefore, the requested amendment does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
Designated radiation level identified for the containment air filtration exhaust rooms A and B (Rooms 40551 and 40552) in UFSAR Figure 12.3-1 (Sheet 13) are unchanged. Radiation levels are determined for Room 40550 with removal of the walls and are calculated to be approximately 0.42 mRem/hr [milli/roentgen equivalent man/hour]. This radiation dose is within the radiation levels of ≤ 2.5 mRem/hr designated for the Zone 2 designation of these rooms. The different zones have varying level of access control that function to limit worker exposure. Because of the radiation protection controls, a potential increase in the dose rates in an area does not necessarily lead to a corresponding increase in worker exposure and can still be consistent with the ALARA [as low as reasonably achievable] principle. The change continues to comply with the applicable ALARA design considerations discussed in UFSAR Subsection 12.1.2.3. Removal of the walls support reduced duration of radiation exposure due to the
Therefore, the requested amendment does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
A. This Order contains instructions regarding how potential parties to this proceeding may request access to documents containing sensitive unclassified information (including Sensitive Unclassified Non-Safeguards Information (SUNSI) and Safeguards Information (SGI)). Requirements for access to SGI are primarily set forth in 10 CFR parts 2 and 73. Nothing in this Order is intended to conflict with the SGI regulations.
B. Within 10 days after publication of this notice of hearing and opportunity to petition for leave to intervene, any potential party who believes access to SUNSI or SGI is necessary to respond to this notice may request access to SUNSI or SGI. A “potential party” is any person who intends to participate as a party by demonstrating standing and filing an admissible contention under 10 CFR 2.309. Requests for access to SUNSI or SGI submitted later than 10 days after publication will not be considered absent a showing of good cause for the late filing, addressing why the request could not have been filed earlier.
C. The requestor shall submit a letter requesting permission to access SUNSI, SGI, or both to the Office of the Secretary, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff, and provide a copy to the Associate General Counsel for Hearings, Enforcement and Administration, Office of the General Counsel, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The expedited delivery or courier mail address for both offices is: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. The email address for the Office of the Secretary and the Office of the General Counsel are
(1) A description of the licensing action with a citation to this
(2) The name and address of the potential party and a description of the potential party's particularized interest that could be harmed by the action identified in C.(1);
(3) If the request is for SUNSI, the identity of the individual or entity requesting access to SUNSI and the requestor's basis for the need for the information in order to meaningfully participate in this adjudicatory proceeding. In particular, the request must explain why publicly available versions of the information requested would not be sufficient to provide the basis and specificity for a proffered contention; and
(4) If the request is for SGI, the identity of each individual who would have access to SGI if the request is granted, including the identity of any expert, consultant, or assistant who will aid the requestor in evaluating the SGI. In addition, the request must contain the following information:
(a) A statement that explains each individual's “need to know” the SGI, as required by 10 CFR 73.2 and 10 CFR 73.22(b)(1). Consistent with the definition of “need to know” as stated in 10 CFR 73.2, the statement must explain:
(i) Specifically why the requestor believes that the information is necessary to enable the requestor to proffer and/or adjudicate a specific contention in this proceeding;
(ii) The technical competence (demonstrable knowledge, skill, training or education) of the requestor to effectively utilize the requested SGI to provide the basis and specificity for a proffered contention. The technical competence of a potential party or its counsel may be shown by reliance on a qualified expert, consultant, or assistant who satisfies these criteria.
(b) A completed Form SF-85, “Questionnaire for Non-Sensitive Positions,” for each individual who would have access to SGI. The completed Form SF-85 will be used by the Office of Administration to conduct the background check required for access to SGI, as required by 10 CFR part 2, subpart C, and 10 CFR 73.22(b)(2), to determine the requestor's trustworthiness and reliability. For security reasons, Form SF-85 can only be submitted electronically through the electronic questionnaire for investigations processing (e-QIP) Web site, a secure Web site that is owned and operated by the Office of Personnel Management. To obtain online access to the form, the requestor should contact the NRC's Office of Administration at 301-415-3710.
(c) A completed Form FD-258 (fingerprint card), signed in original ink, and submitted in accordance with 10 CFR 73.57(d). Copies of Form FD-258 may be obtained by writing the Office of Administrative Services, Mail Services Center, Mail Stop P1-37, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, or by email to
(d) A check or money order payable in the amount of $324.00
(e) If the requestor or any individual(s) who will have access to SGI believes they belong to one or more of the categories of individuals that are exempt from the criminal history records check and background check requirements in 10 CFR 73.59, the requestor should also provide a statement identifying which exemption the requestor is invoking and explaining the requestor's basis for believing that the exemption applies. While processing the request, the Office of Administration, Personnel Security Branch, will make a final determination whether the claimed exemption applies. Alternatively, the requestor may contact the Office of Administration for an evaluation of their exemption status prior to submitting their request. Persons who are exempt from the background check are not required to complete the SF-85 or Form FD-258; however, all other requirements for access to SGI, including the need to know, are still applicable.
These documents and materials should
D. To avoid delays in processing requests for access to SGI, the requestor should review all submitted materials for completeness and accuracy (including legibility) before submitting them to the NRC. The NRC will return incomplete packages to the sender without processing.
E. Based on an evaluation of the information submitted under paragraphs C.(3) or C.(4) above, as applicable, the NRC staff will determine within 10 days of receipt of the request whether:
(1) There is a reasonable basis to believe the petitioner is likely to establish standing to participate in this NRC proceeding; and
(2) The requestor has established a legitimate need for access to SUNSI or need to know the SGI requested.
F. For requests for access to SUNSI, if the NRC staff determines that the requestor satisfies both E.(1) and E.(2) above, the NRC staff will notify the requestor in writing that access to SUNSI has been granted. The written notification will contain instructions on how the requestor may obtain copies of the requested documents, and any other conditions that may apply to access to those documents. These conditions may include, but are not limited to, the signing of a Non-Disclosure Agreement or Affidavit, or Protective Order setting forth terms and conditions to prevent the unauthorized or inadvertent disclosure of SUNSI by each individual who will be granted access to SUNSI.
G. For requests for access to SGI, if the NRC staff determines that the requestor has satisfied both E.(1) and E.(2) above, the Office of Administration will then determine, based upon completion of the background check, whether the proposed recipient is trustworthy and reliable, as required for access to SGI by 10 CFR 73.22(b). If the Office of Administration determines that the individual or individuals are trustworthy and reliable, the NRC will promptly notify the requestor in writing. The notification will provide the names of approved individuals as well as the conditions under which the SGI will be provided. Those conditions may include, but are not limited to, the signing of a Non-Disclosure Agreement or Affidavit, or Protective Order
H. Release and Storage of SGI. Prior to providing SGI to the requestor, the NRC staff will conduct (as necessary) an inspection to confirm that the recipient's information protection system is sufficient to satisfy the requirements of 10 CFR 73.22. Alternatively, recipients may opt to view SGI at an approved SGI storage location rather than establish their own SGI protection program to meet SGI protection requirements.
I. Filing of Contentions. Any contentions in these proceedings that are based upon the information received as a result of the request made for SUNSI or SGI must be filed by the requestor no later than 25 days after receipt of (or access to) that information. However, if more than 25 days remain between the petitioner's receipt of (or access to) the information and the deadline for filing all other contentions (as established in the notice of hearing or opportunity for hearing), the petitioner may file its SUNSI or SGI contentions by that later deadline.
J. Review of Denials of Access.
(1) If the request for access to SUNSI or SGI is denied by the NRC staff either after a determination on standing and requisite need, or after a determination on trustworthiness and reliability, the NRC staff shall immediately notify the requestor in writing, briefly stating the reason or reasons for the denial.
(2) Before the Office of Administration makes a final adverse determination regarding the trustworthiness and reliability of the proposed recipient(s) for access to SGI, the Office of Administration, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.336(f)(1)(iii), must provide the proposed recipient(s) any records that were considered in the trustworthiness and reliability determination, including those required to be provided under 10 CFR 73.57(e)(1), so that the proposed recipient(s) have an opportunity to correct or explain the record.
(3) The requestor may challenge the NRC staff's adverse determination with respect to access to SUNSI or with respect to standing or need to know for SGI by filing a challenge within 5 days of receipt of that determination with: (a) The presiding officer designated in this proceeding; (b) if no presiding officer has been appointed, the Chief Administrative Judge, or if he or she is unavailable, another administrative judge, or an Administrative Law Judge with jurisdiction pursuant to 10 CFR 2.318(a); or (c) if another officer has been designated to rule on information access issues, with that officer.
(4) The requestor may challenge the Office of Administration's final adverse determination with respect to trustworthiness and reliability for access to SGI by filing a request for review in accordance with 10 CFR 2.336(f)(1)(iv).
(5) Further appeals of decisions under this paragraph must be made pursuant to 10 CFR 2.311.
K. Review of Grants of Access. A party other than the requestor may challenge an NRC staff determination granting access to SUNSI whose release would harm that party's interest independent of the proceeding. Such a challenge must be filed within 5 days of
If challenges to the NRC staff determinations are filed, these procedures give way to the normal process for litigating disputes concerning access to information. The availability of interlocutory review by the Commission of orders ruling on such NRC staff determinations (whether granting or denying access) is governed by 10 CFR 2.311.
L. The Commission expects that the NRC staff and presiding officers (and any other reviewing officers) will consider and resolve requests for access to SUNSI or SGI, and motions for protective orders, in a timely fashion in order to minimize any unnecessary delays in identifying those petitioners who have standing and who have propounded contentions meeting the specificity and basis requirements in 10 CFR part 2. The attachment to this Order summarizes the general target schedule for processing and resolving requests under these procedures.
It is so ordered.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Renewal of existing information collection; request for comment.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) invites public comment on the renewal of Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for an existing collection of information. The information collection is entitled, “Voluntary Reporting of Performance Indicators.”
Submit comments by October 10, 2017. Comments received after this date will be considered if it is practical to do so, but the Commission is able to ensure consideration only for comments received on or before this date.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
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For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
David Cullison, Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-2084; email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2017-0069 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2017-0069 in the subject line of your comment submission, in order to ensure that the NRC is able to make your comment submission available to the public in this docket.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC posts all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment submissions into ADAMS.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the NRC is requesting public comment on its intention to request the OMB's approval for the information collection summarized below.
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The NRC is seeking comments that address the following questions:
1. Is the proposed collection of information necessary for the NRC to properly perform its functions? Does the information have practical utility?
2. Is the estimate of the burden of the information collection accurate?
3. Is there a way to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be Collected?
4. How can the burden of the information collection on respondents be minimized, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology?
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Elizabeth A. Reed, 202-268-3179.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on August 2, 2017, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Elizabeth A. Reed, 202-268-3179.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on August 2, 2017, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
In accordance with the requirement of Section 3506 (c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 which provides opportunity for public comment on new or revised data collections, the Railroad Retirement Board (RRB) will publish periodic summaries of proposed data collections.
1.
Under Section 2(e)(2) of the Railroad Retirement Act (RRA), an age and service annuity, spouse annuity, or divorced spouse annuity cannot be paid unless the Railroad Retirement Board (RRB) has evidence that the applicant has ceased railroad employment and relinquished rights to return to the service of a railroad employer. Under Section 2(f)(6) of the RRA, earnings deductions are required for each month an annuitant works in certain non-railroad employment termed Last Pre-Retirement Non-Railroad Employment.
Normally, the employee, spouse, or divorced spouse relinquishes rights and certifies that employment has ended as part of the annuity application process. However, this is
2.
Under Section 5(a) of the Railroad Unemployment Insurance Act (RUIA), claims for benefits are to be made in accordance with such regulations as the Railroad Retirement Board (RRB) shall prescribe. The provisions for claiming sickness benefits as provided by Section 2 of the RUIA are prescribed in 20 CFR 335.2. Included in these provisions is the RRB's acceptance of forms executed by someone else on behalf of an employee if the RRB is satisfied that the employee is sick or injured to the extent of being unable to sign forms.
The RRB utilizes Form SI-10, Statement of Authority to Act for Employee, to provide the means for an individual to apply for authority to act on behalf of an incapacitated employee and also to obtain the information necessary to determine that the delegation should be made. Part I of the form is completed by the applicant for the authority and Part II is completed by the employee's doctor. One response is requested of each respondent. Completion is required to obtain benefits. The RRB proposes no changes to Form SI-10.
3.
Section 215(a)(7) of the Social Security Act provides for a reduction in social security benefits based on employment not covered under the Social Security Act or the Railroad Retirement Act (RRA). This provision applies a different social security benefit formula to most workers who are first eligible after 1985 to both a pension based in whole or in part on non-covered employment and a social security retirement or disability benefit. There is a guarantee provision that limits the reduction in the social security benefit to one-half of the portion of the pension based on non-covered employment after 1956. Section 8011 of Public Law 100-647 changed the effective date of the onset from the first month of eligibility to the first month of concurrent entitlement to the non-covered service benefit and the RRA benefit.
Section 3(a)(1) of the RRA provides that the Tier I benefit of an employee annuity shall be equal to the amount (before any reduction for age or deduction for work) the employee would receive if entitled to a like benefit under the Social Security Act. The reduction for a non-covered service pension also applies to a Tier I portion of the employee annuity under the RRA when the annuity or non-covered service pension begins after 1985. Since the amount of a spouse's Tier I benefit is one-half of the employee's Tier I, the spouse annuity is also affected.
Form G-209, Employee Non-Covered Service Pension Questionnaire, is used by the RRB to obtain needed information (1) from a railroad employee who while completing Form AA-1, Application for Employee Annuity (OMB No. 3220-0002), indicates entitlement to or receipt of a pension based on employment not covered under the Railroad Retirement Act or the Social Security Act; or (2) from a railroad employee when an independently-entitled divorced spouse applicant believes the employee to be entitled to a non-covered service pension. However, this development is unnecessary if RRB records indicate the employee has 30 or more years of coverage; or (3) from an employee annuitant who becomes entitled to a pension based on employment not covered under the Railroad Retirement Act or the Social Security Act. One response is requested of each respondent. Completion is required to obtain or retain benefits. The RRB proposes no changes to Form G-209.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange filed a proposal to amend the fee schedule applicable to Members
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its fee schedule applicable to its equities trading platform (“BZX Equities”) and its equity options trading platform (“BZX Options”) to re-name NYSE MKT as NYSE American throughout the fee schedule.
The Exchange also proposes to modify fees applicable to BZX Equities for orders routed to NYSE American in connection with changes made by NYSE American to its fee structure. As of July 24, 2017, NYSE American transitioned to a fully automated cash equities market. In connection with this transition, NYSE American updated its fee structure in a variety of ways, including to charge a fee to add non-displayed liquidity and to provide no rebate (nor charge any fee) to add displayed liquidity.
The Exchange proposes to modify the fee structure for orders that are routed to and add liquidity at NYSE American, which yielded fee code 8 for displayed liquidity and fee code NA for non-displayed liquidity. Orders yielding fee code 8 previously received a rebate of $0.00150 per share and orders yielding fee code NA were not provided a rebate or charged any fee.
The Exchange proposes to continue to apply fee code 8 to orders that add displayed liquidity at NYSE American but to change the rate from a rebate to a fee, charging orders that yield fee code 8 a fee of $0.00020 per share.
The Exchange also proposes to remove NYSE American (previously NYSE MKT) from the list of venues where an order that adds non-displayed liquidity yields fee code NA. The Exchange does not propose to modify the rate applied to orders yielding fee code NA, but, as a result of this change, orders adding non-displayed liquidity at NYSE American will yield fee code NB instead, which is applied to all routed executions at an exchange not covered by Fee Code NA that adds non-displayed liquidity. Similarly, the Exchange does not propose to modify the rate applied to orders yielding fee code NB, which is currently a fee of $0.00300 per share.
The Exchange notes that the changes proposed above will not impact the current fee structure for orders that add displayed liquidity at NYSE American in securities priced below $1.00, which, pursuant to footnote 10, are provided without charge and without rebate. However, the proposed change to remove NYSE American from fee code NA will impact pricing for non-displayed orders routed to NYSE American that add liquidity. Specifically, consistent with other orders yielding fee code NB, pursuant to footnote 18, orders in securities priced below $1.00 will be charged 0.30% of the total dollar value of an execution.
The Exchange proposes to implement the above changes to its fee schedule immediately.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule changes are consistent with the objectives of Section 6 of the Act,
The changes to fee code 8 and to remove NYSE American (NYSE MKT) from fee code NA are primarily to designed to react to pricing changes at NYSE American, effective July 24, 2017. These changes are necessary to avoid providing routing services with pricing that effectively subsidizes routing to NYSE American. The Exchange's prior pricing model for orders routed to NYSE American was based on a fee structure that provided rebates for orders that added liquidity. The Exchange believes it is reasonable and fair and equitable to charge fees for orders routed to NYSE American that no longer receive a rebate but instead are either assessed a fee by NYSE American or are provided free of charge. The Exchange also believes the proposed rates are reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory in that they are consistent with other rates already charged by the Exchange. Finally, the Exchange believes the proposed changes are not unfairly discriminatory in that they are equally applicable to all Members that use the Exchange's routing services to add liquidity at NYSE American.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange does not believe that any of the proposed changes to the Exchange's routing pricing burden competition, as they are based on the pricing on other venues. The Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily direct order flow to competing venues if they deem fee structures to be unreasonable or excessive. The Exchange does not believe the proposed amendments would burden intramarket competition as they would be available to all Members uniformly.
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any unsolicited written comments from Members or other interested parties.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposal is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange filed a proposal to amend the fee schedule applicable to Members
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its fee schedule applicable to its equities trading platform (“EDGX Equities”) and its equity options trading platform (“EDGX Options”) to re-name NYSE MKT as NYSE American throughout the fee schedule.
The Exchange also proposes to modify fees applicable to EDGX Equities for orders routed to NYSE American in connection with changes made by NYSE American to its fee structure. As of July 24, 2017, NYSE American transitioned to a fully automated cash equities market. In connection with this transition, NYSE American updated its fee structure in a variety of ways, including to charge a fee to add non-displayed liquidity and to provide no rebate (nor charge any fee) to add displayed liquidity.
The Exchange proposes to modify the fee structure for orders that are routed to and add liquidity at NYSE American, which yielded fee code 8 for displayed liquidity and fee code NA for non-displayed liquidity. Orders yielding fee code 8 previously received a rebate of $0.00150 per share and orders yielding fee code NA were not provided a rebate or charged any fee.
The Exchange proposes to continue to apply fee code 8 to orders that add displayed liquidity at NYSE American but to change the rate from a rebate to a fee, charging orders that yield fee code 8 a fee of $0.00020 per share.
The Exchange also proposes to remove NYSE American (previously NYSE MKT) from the list of venues where an order that adds non-displayed liquidity yields fee code NA. The Exchange does not propose to modify the rate applied to orders yielding fee code NA, but, as a result of this change, orders adding non-displayed liquidity at NYSE American will yield fee code NB instead, which is applied to all routed executions at an exchange not covered by Fee Code NA that adds non-displayed liquidity. Similarly, the Exchange does not propose to modify the rate applied to orders yielding fee code NB, which is currently a fee of $0.00300 per share.
The Exchange notes that the changes proposed above will not impact the current fee structure for orders that add displayed liquidity at NYSE American in securities priced below $1.00, which, pursuant to fee code 8 are provided without charge and without rebate. However, the proposed change to remove NYSE American from fee code NA will impact pricing for non-displayed orders routed to NYSE American that add liquidity. Specifically, consistent with other orders yielding fee code NB, orders in securities priced below $1.00 will be charged 0.30% of the total dollar value of an execution.
The Exchange proposes to implement the above changes to its fee schedule immediately.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule changes are consistent with the objectives of Section 6 of the Act,
The changes to fee code 8 and to remove NYSE American (NYSE MKT) from fee code NA are primarily to designed to react to pricing changes at NYSE American, effective July 24, 2017. These changes are necessary to avoid providing routing services with pricing that effectively subsidizes routing to NYSE American. The Exchange's prior pricing model for orders routed to NYSE American was based on a fee structure that provided rebates for orders that added liquidity. The Exchange believes it is reasonable and fair and equitable to charge fees for orders routed to NYSE American that no longer receive a rebate but instead are either assessed a fee by NYSE American or are provided free of charge. The Exchange also believes the proposed rates are reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory in that they are consistent with other rates already charged by the Exchange. Finally, the Exchange believes the proposed changes are not unfairly discriminatory in that they are equally applicable to all Members that use the Exchange's routing services to add liquidity at NYSE American.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange does not believe that any of the proposed changes to the Exchange's routing pricing burden competition, as they are based on the pricing on other venues. The Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily direct order flow to competing venues if they deem fee structures to be unreasonable or excessive. The Exchange does not believe the proposed amendments would burden intramarket competition as they would be available to all Members uniformly.
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any unsolicited written comments from Members or other interested parties.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposal is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On January 18, 2017, NASDAQ PHLX LLC (“Phlx” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange is proposing to amend its rules to permit the listing and trading, on a pilot basis, of NASDAQ-100 options with third-Friday-of-the-month expiration dates, whose exercise settlement value will be based on the closing index value, symbol XQC, of the NASDAQ-100 on the expiration day (“P.M.-settled”).
The Exchange represents that the conditions for listing the proposed contract (“NDXPM”) on Phlx will be similar to those for Full Value Nasdaq 100 Options (“NDX”), which are already listed and trading on Phlx, except that NDXPM will be P.M.-settled.
As proposed, NDXPM would become subject to a pilot for a period that would end on the earlier of: (i) Twelve months following the date of the first listing of NDXPM; or (ii) December 29, 2018 (“Pilot Program”). If the Exchange were to propose an extension of the Pilot Program or should the Exchange propose to make the Pilot Program permanent, then the Exchange would submit a filing proposing such amendments to the Pilot Program. The Exchange notes that any positions established under the pilot would not be impacted by the expiration of the pilot. For example, a position in a P.M.-settled series that expires beyond the conclusion of the pilot period could be established during the pilot. If the Pilot Program were not extended, then the position could continue to exist. However, the Exchange notes that any further trading in the series would be restricted to transactions where at least one side of the trade is a closing transaction.
The Exchange proposes to submit a Pilot Program report to Commission at least two months prior to the expiration date of the Pilot Program (the “annual report”). The annual report would contain an analysis of volume, open interest, and trading patterns. The analysis would examine trading in the proposed option product as well as trading in the securities that comprise the NASDAQ-100. In addition, for series that exceed certain minimum open interest parameters, the annual report would provide analysis of index price volatility and share trading activity. In addition to the annual report, the Exchange would provide the Commission with periodic interim reports while the Pilot Program is in effect that would contain some, but not all, of the information contained in the annual report. The annual report would be provided to the Commission on a confidential basis. The annual report would contain the following volume and open interest data:
(1) Monthly volume aggregated for all trades;
(2) monthly volume aggregated by expiration date;
(3) monthly volume for each individual series;
(4) month-end open interest aggregated for all series;
(5) month-end open interest for all series aggregated by expiration date; and
(6) month-end open interest for each individual series.
In addition to the annual report, the Exchange would provide the Commission with interim reports of the information listed in Items (1) through (6) above periodically as required by the Commission while the Pilot Program is in effect. These interim reports would also be provided on a confidential basis. The annual report would also contain the information noted in Items (1) through (6) above for Expiration Friday, A.M.-settled NASDAQ-100 options traded on Phlx.
In addition, the annual report would contain the following analysis of trading patterns in Expiration Friday, P.M.-settled NASDAQ-100 option series in the Pilot Program: (1) A time series analysis of open interest; and (2) an analysis of the distribution of trade sizes. Also, for series that exceed certain minimum parameters, the annual report would contain the following analysis related to index price changes and underlying share trading volume at the close on Expiration Fridays: A comparison of index price changes at the close of trading on a given Expiration Friday with comparable price changes from a control sample. The data would include a calculation of percentage price changes for various time intervals and compare that information to the respective control sample. Raw percentage price change data as well as percentage price change data normalized for prevailing market volatility, as measured by an appropriate index as agreed by the Commission and the Exchange, would be provided. The Exchange would provide a calculation of share volume for a sample set of the component securities representing an upper limit on share trading that could be attributable to expiring in-the-money series. The data would include a comparison of the calculated share volume for securities in the sample set to the average daily trading volumes of those securities over a sample period. The minimum open interest parameters, control sample, time intervals, method for randomly selecting the component securities, and sample periods would be determined by the Exchange and the Commission.
As noted above, the Commission received three comment letters on the proposed rule change, including two letters from the Exchange.
In its first comment letter, the Exchange notes that its proposal is largely based on CBOE's pilot program for SPXPM options.
In its second comment letter, the Exchange responds to the Order Instituting Proceedings and states that it does not expect any significant impact on trading in the underlying securities of NDXPM given the similarity to SPXPM options that are currently trading.
After careful consideration of the proposal, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange,
As noted in the Order Instituting Proceedings, the Commission has had concerns about the potential adverse effects and impact of P.M. settlement upon market volatility and the operation of fair and orderly markets on the underlying cash market at or near the close of trading, including for cash-settled derivatives contracts based on a broad-based index.
For the reasons described below, the Commission believes that Phlx's proposed NDXPM Pilot Program is designed to mitigate concerns regarding P.M. settlement and will provide additional trading opportunities for investors while providing the Commission with data to monitor the effects of NDXPM and the impact of P.M. settlement on the markets. To assist the Commission in assessing any potential impact of a P.M.-settled NASDAQ-100 index option on the options markets as well as the underlying cash equities markets, Phlx will be required to submit data to the Commission in connection with the Pilot Program. The Commission believes that Phlx's proposed Pilot Program, together with the data and analysis that Phlx will provide to the Commission, will allow Phlx and the Commission to monitor for and assess any potential for adverse market effects of allowing P.M. settlement for Nasdaq-100 index options, including on the underlying component stocks. In particular, the data collected from Phlx's NDXPM Pilot Program will help inform the Commission's consideration of whether the Pilot Program should be modified, discontinued, extended, or permanently approved. Furthermore, the Exchange's ongoing analysis of the Pilot Program should help it monitor any potential risks from large P.M.-settled positions and take appropriate action on a timely basis if warranted.
The Exchange represents that it has adequate surveillance procedures to monitor trading in these options thereby helping to ensure the maintenance of a fair and orderly market, and has represented that it has sufficient capacity to handle additional traffic associated with this new listing.
For the reasons discussed above, the Commission finds that Phlx's proposal is consistent with the Act, including Section 6(b)(5) thereof, in that it is designed to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest. In light of the enhanced closing procedures at the underlying markets and the potential benefits to investors discussed by the Exchange in the Notice,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 806(e)(1) of Title VIII of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act entitled the Payment, Clearing, and Settlement Supervision Act of 2010 (“Clearing Supervision Act”)
The Advance Notice consists of amendments to the NSCC Rules and Procedures (“Rules”)
In its filing with the Commission, the clearing agency included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the Advance Notice and discussed any comments it received on the Advance Notice. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The clearing agency has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
NSCC has not received or solicited any written comments relating to this proposal. NSCC will notify the Commission of any written comments received by NSCC.
Currently, in calculating its Members' required deposits to the Clearing Fund, NSCC excludes positions in Family-Issued Securities of certain Members from its parametric volatility Clearing Fund component (“VaR Charge”), and instead charges an amount calculated by multiplying the absolute value of the long, net unsettled positions in that Member's Family-Issued Securities by a percentage that is no less than 40 percent (“FIS Charge”). The FIS Charge is currently only applied to Members that are rated 5, 6, or 7 on the Credit Risk Rating Matrix (“CRRM”). The proposed change would expand the application of the FIS Charge to the positions in Family-Issued Securities of all Members to help NSCC cover the specific wrong-way risk posed by Family-Issued Securities, as described further below.
As a central counterparty, NSCC occupies an important role in the securities settlement system by interposing itself between counterparties to financial transactions and thereby reducing the risk faced by participants and contributing to global financial stability. The effectiveness of a central counterparty's risk controls and the adequacy of its financial resources are critical to achieving these risk-reducing goals. In that context, NSCC continuously reviews its margining methodology in order to ensure the reliability of its margining in achieving the desired coverage. In order to be most effective, NSCC must take into consideration the risk characteristics specific to certain securities when margining those securities.
Among the various risks that NSCC considers when evaluating the effectiveness of its margining methodology are its counterparty risks and identification and mitigation of “wrong-way” risk, particularly specific wrong-way risk, defined as the risk that an exposure to a counterparty is highly likely to increase when the creditworthiness of that counterparty deteriorates.
In 2015, NSCC proposed to address its exposure to specific wrong-way risk in two ways.
The FIS Charge is currently applied only to Members on the Watch List because these Members present a heightened credit risk to NSCC or have demonstrated higher risk related to their ability to meet settlement, and, as such, at the time the FIS Phase 1 Rule Change was proposed, NSCC believed there was a clear and more urgent need to address NSCC's exposure to specific wrong-way risk presented by these Members' positions in Family-Issued Securities.
Second, NSCC proposed to further evaluate its exposure to wrong-way risk presented by positions in Family-Issued Securities by reviewing the impact of expanding the application of the FIS Charge to positions in Family-Issued Securities of all Members.
In order to implement this proposal, NSCC would amend Procedure XV to move the FIS Charge from Section I.(B)(1), where it is currently described as an additional deposit for Members on surveillance, to Sections I.(A)(1) and (2), to include the FIS Charge as a component of the Clearing Fund formula that is calculated for each Member.
The proposed change would also amend NSCC Rule 1 (Definitions and Descriptions) to include a definition of Family-Issued Securities in order to provide more clarity to the Rules. Under the proposed change, “Family-Issued Security” would be defined as a security that was issued by a Member or an affiliate of that Member.
By expanding the application of the FIS Charge to all Members, the proposed change would more allow NSCC to more effectively mitigate its exposure to specific wrong-way risk as posed by Family-Issued Securities. As described above, Family-Issued Securities present NSCC with specific wrong-way risk such that, in the event that a Member with unsettled long positions in Family-Issued Securities defaults, NSCC would close out those positions following a likely drop in the credit-worthiness of the issuer, possibly resulting in a loss to NSCC. The FIS Charge addresses this risk by using haircut rates that are calibrated based on historical corporate issue recovery rate data, and address the risk that the Family-Issued Securities of a Member would be devalued in the event of that Member's default. Because NSCC may face specific wrong-way risk with respect to positions in Family-Issued Securities of all of its Members, the proposed change to expand the FIS Charge to all Members would reduce NSCC's exposure to specific wrong-way risk.
By mitigating specific wrong-way risk for NSCC as described above, the proposed change would also mitigate risk for Members because lowering the risk profile for NSCC would in turn lower the risk exposure that Members may have with respect to NSCC in its role as a central counterparty.
The stated purpose of Title VIII of the Clearing Supervision Act is to mitigate systemic risk in the financial system and promote financial stability by, among other things, promoting uniform risk management standards for systemically important financial market utilities and strengthening the liquidity of systemically important financial market utilities.
NSCC believes that the proposed change is consistent with Section 805(b) of the Clearing Supervision Act because it is designed to promote robust risk management. By enhancing the margin methodology applied to Family-Issued Securities of all Members, the proposal would assist NSCC in collecting margin that more accurately reflects NSCC's exposure to a Member that clears Family-Issued Securities and would assist NSCC in its continuous efforts to improve the reliability and effectiveness of its risk-based margining methodology by taking into account specific wrong-way risk. By assisting NSCC in more effectively mitigating its exposure to specific wrong-way risk, the proposal is designed to promote robust risk management, consistent with Section 805(b) of the Clearing Supervision Act.
The Commission has adopted risk management standards under Section 805(a)(2) of the Clearing Supervision Act
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(4)(i) under the Act requires, in part, that each covered clearing agency establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to effectively identify, measure, monitor, and manage its credit exposures to participants and those arising from its payment, clearing, and settlement processes, including by maintaining sufficient financial resources to cover its credit exposure to each participant fully with a high degree of confidence.
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(6)(i) under the Act requires, in part, that each covered clearing agency that provides central counterparty services establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to cover its credit exposures to its participants by establishing a risk-based margin system that, at a minimum, considers, and produces margin levels commensurate with, the risks and particular attributes of each relevant product, portfolio, and market.
As stated above, Family-Issued Securities present NSCC with specific wrong-way risk that, in the event that a Member with unsettled long positions in Family-Issued Securities defaults, NSCC would close out those positions following a likely drop in the credit-worthiness of the issuer, possibly resulting in a loss to NSCC. Therefore, the haircut rates were calibrated based on historical corporate issue recovery rate data, and address the risk that the Family-Issued Securities of a Member would be devalued in the event of that Member's default, and would more accurately reflect the risk characteristics of Family-Issued Securities than applying its VaR Charge. In this way, the proposal would assist NSCC in maintaining a risk-based margin system that considers, and produces margin levels commensurate with, the risks and particular attributes of Family-Issued Securities. Additionally, NSCC believes application of the FIS Charge to positions in Family-Issued Securities of all Members is an appropriate method for measuring its credit exposures, because the FIS Charge accounts for the risk factors presented by these securities,
The proposed change may be implemented if the Commission does not object to the proposed change within 60 days of the later of (i) the date that the proposed change was filed with the Commission or (ii) the date that any additional information requested by the Commission is received. The clearing agency shall not implement the proposed change if the Commission has any objection to the proposed change.
The Commission may extend the period for review by an additional 60 days if the proposed change raises novel or complex issues, subject to the Commission providing the clearing agency with prompt written notice of the extension. A proposed change may be implemented in less than 60 days from the date the advance notice is filed, or the date further information requested by the Commission is received, if the Commission notifies the clearing agency in writing that it does not object to the proposed change and authorizes the clearing agency to implement the proposed change on an earlier date, subject to any conditions imposed by the Commission.
The clearing agency shall post notice on its Web site of proposed changes that are implemented.
The proposal shall not take effect until all regulatory actions required with respect to the proposal are completed.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the Advance Notice
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549.
By the Commission.
On November 16, 2016, BOX Options Exchange LLC (the “Exchange” or “BOX”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange proposes to adopt rules that would allow for open-outcry trading on BOX's physical trading floor, located in Chicago (“Trading Floor”) as described below.
The Exchange proposes to allow two categories of market participants (“Floor Participants”)
Contemporaneously upon receipt of an order and prior to the announcement of an order in the trading crowd, a Floor Broker wishing to execute an order will be required to record certain information about the order in the Floor Broker's order entry mechanism.
The Floor Broker will then be required to ascertain that at least one Floor Market Maker is present in the Crowd Area
Under the proposal, after an order is announced to the trading crowd, the Floor Broker will be permitted to submit a Qualified Open Outcry Order (“QOO Order”) through the BOG to the Trading Host for execution. QOO Orders are two-sided orders
For a non-complex QOO Order, the execution price must be equal to or better than the National Best Bid or Offer (“NBBO”).
Once a QOO Order is submitted through the BOG, it would be immediately processed by the Trading Host.
Under the proposal, the highest bid (lowest offer) in the trading crowd will have priority.
The following BOX Book interest will have priority over the contra-side of the QOO Order: (i) Any equal or better priced bids or offers on the BOX Book that were submitted on behalf of persons who are not brokers or dealers in securities (“Public Customers”);
The proposed rule change also describes the allocation process for QOO Orders.
The Floor Participants who established the market will have priority over all other orders that were not announced in the trading crowd at the time that the market was established (but not over Public Customer orders on the BOX Book or any non-Public Customer orders that have priority over such Public Customer orders on the BOX Book) and will maintain priority over such orders except for orders that improve upon the market.
A Floor Broker handling an order will be required to use due diligence to cause the order to be executed at the best price or prices available to him in accordance with the Rules of the Exchange.
Floor Brokers will be required to make reasonable efforts to ascertain whether each order entrusted to them is for the account of a Public Customer or a broker-dealer.
Proposed BOX Rule 8500(a) will require a Floor Market Maker to register as a Market Maker with the Exchange, and such registration could be revoked or suspended at any time. The proposed rules will require Floor Market Maker transactions to constitute a course of dealings reasonably calculated to contribute to the maintenance of a fair and orderly market.
A Floor Market Maker will have certain affirmative obligations in classes of options contracts to which the Floor Market Maker is assigned.
The proposed rule change imposes other limitations on Floor Market Makers. Specifically, subject to certain exceptions, no Floor Market Maker will be allowed to initiate an Exchange options transaction while on the Trading Floor for any account in which he has an interest and execute as Floor Broker an off-floor order in options on the same underlying interest during the same trading session, or retain priority over an off-floor order while establishing or increasing a position for an account in which he has an interest while on the Trading Floor of the Exchange.
Under the proposed rule change, the President of the Exchange and his or her designated staff will be responsible for monitoring: (1) Dealings of Floor Participants and their associated persons on the Trading Floor, and of the premises of the Exchange immediately adjacent thereto; (2) the activities of Floor Participants and their associated persons, in addition to establishing standards and procedures for the training and qualification of Floor Participants and their associated persons active on the Trading Floor; (3) all Trading Floor employees of Floor Brokers and Floor Market Makers, and will make and enforce such rules with respect to such employees as may be deemed necessary; (4) all connections or means of communications with the Trading Floor, and may require the discontinuance of any such connection or means of communication when, in the opinion of the President or his or her designee, it is contrary to the welfare or interest of the Exchange; (5) the location of equipment and the assignment and use of space on the Trading Floor; and (6) relations with other options exchanges.
The proposed rule change provides for the designation of Options Exchange Officials. Specifically, any Exchange employee or officer may be designated as an Options Exchange Official and will have the ability to recommend and enforce rules and regulations relating to trading access, order, decorum, health, safety and welfare on the Exchange.
In addition, disputes occurring on and relating to the Trading Floor, if not settled by agreement between the interested Floor Participants, will be settled by an Options Exchange Official.
The Exchange will permit Clerks—defined as any registered on-floor persons employed by or associated with a Floor Broker or Floor Market Maker and who are not eligible to effect transactions on the Trading Floor as a Floor Market Maker or Floor Broker—on the Trading Floor.
The Exchange proposes BOX Rule 7660 to govern communications and equipment on the Trading Floor, including registration requirements, restrictions on use, capacity and functionality, recordkeeping requirements and exchange liability. Among other things, the proposed rule will allow Floor Market Makers to use their own cellular and cordless phones to place calls to any person at any location (whether on or off the Trading Floor) and allow Floor Brokers to use any communication device on the Trading Floor and in the Crowd Area to receive orders, provided that the Exchange's audit trail and record retention requirements are satisfied.
The Exchange's proposal includes several other provisions relating to the proposed Trading Floor, including Trading Floor hours;
The Exchange represents that it will provide the Commission with data related to activity on the Trading Floor.
After careful review and consideration of the comments received, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment Nos. 1 and 2, is consistent with the
As previously noted, the Commission received three comment letters on the initial proposed rule change, and one response letter from BOX.
Four commenters expressed concern that BOX's initial proposal would allow a Floor Broker to execute trades on the Trading Floor when no Floor Market Makers are present.
One commenter suggested that prior to the commencement of trading, BOX should be required to demonstrate that the Trading Floor is sufficiently populated with market participants, particularly Floor Market Makers, to ensure that a reasonable amount of liquidity exists.
In response to concerns about the potential for trades to be executed in the absence of a Floor Market Maker on the Trading Floor, BOX submitted Amendment No. 2 to require a Floor Broker to ascertain that at least one Floor Market Maker is present in the trading crowd prior to announcing an order to the trading crowd.
The Commission notes that the Exchange amended its proposal to require a Floor Broker to ascertain that at least one Floor Market Maker be present in the Crowd Area prior to announcing an order to the trading crowd. The Commission believes that this requirement—along with the BOX's other amendments to the proposal, such as the changes to the crowd area presence requirement and the Floor Market Maker quoting requirement, described below—are designed to increase the opportunities for another Floor Participant to compete to interact with the orders on the Trading Floor.
Four commenters raised concerns with the proposed requirement in BOX's initial proposed rule change that a Floor Market Maker must be physically located in a specific Crowd Area to be deemed participating in the Crowd.
In response to these concerns, BOX submitted Amendment No. 2 to provide that the Trading Floor will be comprised of a single Crowd Area.
The Commission believes that providing all Floor Market Makers the opportunity to respond to all orders on the Trading Floor is designed to increase the potential for competition for an order, which may increase the quality of order executions on BOX.
Four commenters expressed concern about the aspect of the proposal that requires market makers to affirmatively opt-in to participate in a floor trade.
In response, BOX submitted Amendment No. 2 to provide that a Floor Broker will be required to give Floor Participants a reasonable amount of time to respond once the Floor Broker announces an order to the trading crowd.
The Commission believes the proposal should ensure that Floor Participants may respond to orders announced in the trading crowd. In addition, the Commission notes that Amendment No. 2 will require an Options Exchange Official to certify that a Floor Broker adequately announced a QOO Order to the trading crowd.
Five commenters expressed concern with the proposed requirement in BOX's initial proposed rule change that Floor Market Makers would have to quote electronically in all classes offered on the proposed Trading Floor.
The Commission believes that BOX's proposal to require a Floor Market Maker to provide a two-sided market that complies with certain delineated quote spread parameters in response to any request for quote by a Floor Broker or Options Exchange Official, is consistent with the Act.
Two commenters raised concerns about the inability of Floor Participants to represent single-sided orders on the proposed BOX Floor.
Specifically, the Exchange noted that, as was true in its initial proposed rule
One commenter stated that the proposed rule change is unclear regarding how the proposed BOG would systematically prevent violations of priority and trade-through requirements.
In response to the commenter's concern that the proposed rule change is unclear about whether the BOG would systematically prevent violations of priority and trade-through requirements, BOX stated that the method by which trades are received and processed by the Trading Host serves as a safeguard to prevent violations of the priority and trade-through requirements.
In response to the commenter's suggestion that the proposed rule change does not adequately discuss surveillance, BOX stated that it currently has surveillance procedures in place to monitor compliance with the Exchange's rules and that these procedures will be used to monitor transactions originating from the Trading Floor.
In response to BOX's assurances regarding its proposed surveillance procedures, the commenter stated that it is unclear whether BOX would have real-time surveillance coverage on the trading floor in addition to other types of surveillance coverage.
In response, BOX stated that it will have both a real-time surveillance presence on the trading floor and other surveillance coverage.
The Commission notes that the Exchange represents that the Trading Host will establish an electronic audit trail for options orders represented and executed by Floor Brokers, that according to the Exchange, will provide an accurate time-sequenced record of all orders from the Trading Floor, beginning with the receipt of an order by the Exchange and documenting all stages of the order.
Three commenters expressed concern about the proposed “book sweep size” mechanism.
In response to the commenters' concerns regarding the book sweep size aspect of the proposal, BOX stated that the book sweep size is a voluntary tool that will aid Floor Brokers in satisfying duties owed to their customers, such as best execution.
The Commission believes that the book sweep size functionality should provide Floor Brokers with an efficient mechanism to automatically execute orders (provided they designate a sufficient book sweep size) without having to send a separate order to clear orders on the BOX Book that have priority.
The Commission reminds broker-dealers that they have a legal duty to seek to obtain best execution of customer orders.
One commenter expressed concern that BOX may not have adequately explained how options participants would comply with Section 11(a)(1) of the Act when effecting transactions through the BOG.
Section 11(a)(1) of the Act
The Commission notes that the Exchange proposes to adopt IM-7600-5, which states that a Participant shall not utilize the Trading Floor to effect any transaction for a covered account by relying on an exemption under Section 11(a)(1)(G) of the Act (“G Exemption”).
In addition to statutory exemptions, Rule 11a2-2(T) under the Act,
Rule 11a2-2(T)'s first requirement is that orders for covered accounts be transmitted from off the exchange floor. The Commission has found that the off-floor transmission requirement is met if a covered account order is transmitted from a remote location directly to an exchange's floor by electronic means.
Second, Rule 11a2-2(T) requires that neither the initiating member nor an associated person of the initiating member participate in the execution of the transaction at any time after the order for the transaction has been transmitted. The Exchange represents that at no time following the submission of an order utilizing the Trading Floor will the submitting Participant or any associated person of such Participant acquire control or influence over the result or timing of the order's execution.
Third, Rule 11a2-2(T) requires that the order be executed by an exchange member that is not associated with the member initiating the order. According to the Exchange, to rely on the exemption in Rule 11a2-2(T), a Participant could submit an order for a covered account from off the Trading Floor to an unaffiliated Floor Broker.
Fourth, in the case of a transaction effected for an account with respect to which the initiating member or an associated person thereof exercises investment discretion, neither the initiating member nor any associated person may retain any compensation in connection with effecting the transaction, unless the person authorized to transact business for the account has expressly provided otherwise by written contract referring to Section 11(a) of the Act and Rule 11a2-2(T) thereunder.
Three commenters expressed concern that the proposed rule change would negatively impact opportunities for orders to receive price improvement.
Two commenters expressed concern that the proposed rule change would increase fragmentation in the options trading market. One commenter stated that the proposed BOX floor would add an additional trading venue that firms, who have finite resources, would be required to staff and which would further fragment liquidity without offering anything unique or beneficial to customers.
In response, BOX argues that concerns about the general success of options trading floors are beyond the scope of its proposal.
The Commission believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Under the proposed rule change, the Exchange will establish an “open outcry” trading floor where orders will be sent to Floor Brokers who will represent those orders in an agency capacity, and who will be required to announce such orders to a trading crowd composed of Floor Market Makers prior to any execution. In this regard, the Commission notes that the Exchange made modifications to the initial proposal that are designed to remove or reduce the potential impediments to order interaction on the BOX Floor and which are designed to increase opportunities for price improvement. The Commission also notes that the data the Exchange has committed to provide may assist the Commission in assessing the level of participation in crossing transactions by market makers and other market participants, aside from the firm that initiated the cross, and to better review whether existing exchange rules appropriately allow for robust and beneficial competition on the options trading floors.
It is therefore ordered, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange filed a proposal to amend the fee schedule applicable to Members
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The
The Exchange proposes to amend its fee schedule applicable to its equities trading platform (“EDGA Equities”) to re-name NYSE MKT as NYSE American throughout the fee schedule.
The Exchange also proposes to modify fees for orders routed to NYSE American in connection with changes made by NYSE American to its fee structure. As of July 24, 2017, NYSE American transitioned to a fully automated cash equities market. In connection with this transition, NYSE American updated its fee structure in a variety of ways, including to charge a fee to add non-displayed liquidity and to provide no rebate (nor charge any fee) to add displayed liquidity.
The Exchange proposes to modify the fee structure for orders that are routed to and add liquidity at NYSE American, which yielded fee code 8 for displayed liquidity and fee code NA for non-displayed liquidity. Orders yielding fee code 8 previously received a rebate of $0.00150 per share and orders yielding fee code NA were not provided a rebate or charged any fee.
The Exchange proposes to continue to apply fee code 8 to orders that add displayed liquidity at NYSE American but to change the rate from a rebate to a fee, charging orders that yield fee code 8 a fee of $0.00020 per share.
The Exchange also proposes to remove NYSE American (previously NYSE MKT) from the list of venues where an order that adds non-displayed liquidity yields fee code NA. The Exchange does not propose to modify the rate applied to orders yielding fee code NA, but, as a result of this change, orders adding non-displayed liquidity at NYSE American will yield fee code NB instead, which is applied to all routed executions at an exchange not covered by Fee Code NA that adds non-displayed liquidity. Similarly, the Exchange does not propose to modify the rate applied to orders yielding fee code NB, which is currently a fee of $0.00300 per share.
The Exchange notes that the changes proposed above will not impact the current fee structure for orders that add displayed liquidity at NYSE American in securities priced below $1.00, which, pursuant to fee code 8 are provided without charge and without rebate. However, the proposed change to remove NYSE American from fee code NA will impact pricing for non-displayed orders routed to NYSE American that add liquidity. Specifically, consistent with other orders yielding fee code NB, orders in securities priced below $1.00 will be charged 0.30% of the total dollar value of an execution.
The Exchange proposes to implement the above changes to its fee schedule immediately.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule changes are consistent with the objectives of Section 6 of the Act,
The changes to fee code 8 and to remove NYSE American (NYSE MKT) from fee code NA are primarily designed to react to pricing changes at NYSE American, effective July 24, 2017. These changes are necessary to avoid providing routing services with pricing that effectively subsidizes routing to NYSE American. The Exchange's prior pricing model for orders routed to NYSE American was based on a fee structure that provided rebates for orders that added liquidity. The Exchange believes it is reasonable and fair and equitable to charge fees for orders routed to NYSE American that no longer receive a rebate but instead are either assessed a fee by NYSE American or are provided free of charge. The Exchange also believes the proposed rates are reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory in that they are consistent with other rates already charged by the Exchange. Finally, the Exchange believes the proposed changes are not unfairly discriminatory in that they are equally applicable to all Members that use the Exchange's routing services to add liquidity at NYSE American.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange does not believe that any of the proposed changes to the Exchange's routing pricing burden competition, as they are based on the pricing on other venues. The Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily direct order flow to competing venues if they deem fee structures to be unreasonable or excessive. The Exchange does not believe the proposed amendments would burden intramarket competition as they would be available to all Members uniformly.
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any unsolicited written comments from Members or other interested parties.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing,
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the Government in the Sunshine Act, Public Law 94-409, that the Securities and Exchange Commission will hold a closed meeting on Thursday, August 10, 2017 at 2 p.m.
Commissioners, Counsel to the Commissioners, the Secretary to the Commission, and recording secretaries will attend the closed meeting. Certain staff members who have an interest in the matters also may be present.
The General Counsel of the Commission, or his designee, has certified that, in his opinion, one or more of the exemptions set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(3), (5), (7), 9(B) and (10) and 17 CFR 200.402(a)(3), (a)(5), (a)(7), (a)(9)(ii) and (a)(10), permit consideration of the scheduled matters at the closed meeting.
Commissioner Stein, as duty officer, voted to consider the items listed for the closed meeting in closed session.
The subject matters of the closed meeting will be:
Institution and settlement of injunctive actions;
Institution and settlement of administrative proceedings;
Resolution of litigation claims; and
Other matters relating to enforcement proceedings.
At times, changes in Commission priorities require alterations in the scheduling of meeting items.
For further information and to ascertain what, if any, matters have been added, deleted or postponed; please contact Brent J. Fields from the Office of the Secretary at (202) 551-5400.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange filed a proposal to amend the fee schedule applicable to Members
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its fee schedule applicable to its equities trading platform (“BYX Equities”) to re-
The Exchange also proposes to modify fees for orders routed to NYSE American in connection with changes made by NYSE American to its fee structure. As of July 24, 2017, NYSE American transitioned to a fully automated cash equities market. In connection with this transition, NYSE American updated its fee structure in a variety of ways, including to charge a fee to add non-displayed liquidity and to provide no rebate (nor charge any fee) to add displayed liquidity.
The Exchange proposes to modify the fee structure for orders that are routed to and add liquidity at NYSE American, which yielded fee code 8 for displayed liquidity and fee code NA for non-displayed liquidity. Orders yielding fee code 8 previously received a rebate of $0.00150 per share and orders yielding fee code NA were not provided a rebate or charged any fee.
The Exchange proposes to continue to apply fee code 8 to orders that add displayed liquidity at NYSE American but to change the rate from a rebate to a fee, charging orders that yield fee code 8 a fee of $0.00020 per share.
The Exchange also proposes to remove NYSE American (previously NYSE MKT) from the list of venues where an order that adds non-displayed liquidity yields fee code NA. The Exchange does not propose to modify the rate applied to orders yielding fee code NA, but, as a result of this change, orders adding non-displayed liquidity at NYSE American will yield fee code NB instead, which is applied to all routed executions at an exchange not covered by Fee Code NA that adds non-displayed liquidity. Similarly, the Exchange does not propose to modify the rate applied to orders yielding fee code NB, which is currently a fee of $0.00300 per share.
The Exchange notes that the changes proposed above will not impact the current fee structure for orders that add displayed liquidity at NYSE American in securities priced below $1.00, which, pursuant to footnote 10, are provided without charge and without rebate. However, the proposed change to remove NYSE American from fee code NA will impact pricing for non-displayed orders routed to NYSE American that add liquidity. Specifically, consistent with other orders yielding fee code NB, pursuant to footnote 14, orders in securities priced below $1.00 will be charged 0.30% of the total dollar value of an execution.
The Exchange proposes to implement the above changes to its fee schedule immediately.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule changes are consistent with the objectives of Section 6 of the Act,
The changes to fee code 8 and to remove NYSE American (NYSE MKT) from fee code NA are primarily designed to react to pricing changes at NYSE American, effective July 24, 2017. These changes are necessary to avoid providing routing services with pricing that effectively subsidizes routing to NYSE American. The Exchange's prior pricing model for orders routed to NYSE American was based on a fee structure that provided rebates for orders that added liquidity. The Exchange believes it is reasonable and fair and equitable to charge fees for orders routed to NYSE American that no longer receive a rebate but instead are either assessed a fee by NYSE American or are provided free of charge. The Exchange also believes the proposed rates are reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory in that they are consistent with other rates already charged by the Exchange. Finally, the Exchange believes the proposed changes are not unfairly discriminatory in that they are equally applicable to all Members that use the Exchange's routing services to add liquidity at NYSE American.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange does not believe that any of the proposed changes to the Exchange's routing pricing burden competition, as they are based on the pricing on other venues. The Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily direct order flow to competing venues if they deem fee structures to be unreasonable or excessive. The Exchange does not believe the proposed amendments would burden intramarket competition as they would be available to all Members uniformly.
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any unsolicited written comments from Members or other interested parties.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposal is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On June 2, 2017, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“Exchange” or “NYSE Arca”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
The Commission finds that it is appropriate to designate a longer period within which to take action on the proposed rule change so that it has sufficient time to consider the proposed rule change. Accordingly, the Commission, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
60-Day notice and request for comments.
The Small Business Administration (SBA) intends to request approval, from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the collection of information described below. The Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 requires Federal agencies to publish a notice in the
Submit comments on or before October 10, 2017.
Send all comments to Mary Frias, Loan Specialist, Office of Financial Assistance, Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street, 8th Floor, Washington, DC 20416.
Mary Frias, Loan Specialist, 202-401-8234,
For SBA Financial assistance programs, information regarding the assets and liabilities of certain owners, officers and
SBA is requesting comments on (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the agency to properly perform its functions; (b) whether the burden estimates are accurate; (c) whether there are ways to minimize the burden, including through the use of automated techniques or other forms of information technology; and (d) whether there are ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information.
(1)
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that a certain object to be included in the exhibition “Artist's Choice: David Hammons,” imported from abroad for temporary exhibition within the United States, is of cultural significance. The object is imported pursuant to a loan agreement with the foreign owner or custodian. I also determine that the exhibition or display of the exhibit object at The Museum of Modern Art, New York, New York, from on or about October 7, 2017, until on or about January 1, 2018, and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, is in the national interest.
For further information, including a description of the imported object, contact Elliot Chiu in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that certain objects to be included in the exhibition “Golden Kingdoms: Luxury and Legacy in the Ancient Americas,” imported from abroad for temporary exhibition within the United States, are of cultural significance. The objects are imported pursuant to loan agreements with the foreign owners or custodians. I also determine that the exhibition or display of the exhibit objects at The J. Paul Getty Museum, Los Angeles, California, from on or about September 16, 2017, until on or about January 28, 2018, at The Metropolitan Museum of Art, New York, New York, from on or about February 26, 2018, until on or about May 28, 2018, and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, is in the national interest.
For further information, including a list of the imported objects, contact Elliot Chiu in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
Nebraska, Kansas & Colorado Railway, L.L.C. (NKCR) has filed a verified notice of exemption under 49 CFR pt. 1152 subpart F—
NKCR has certified that: (1) No local traffic has moved over the Line for at least two years; (2) no overhead traffic has moved over the Line for at least two
As a condition to this exemption, any employee adversely affected by the discontinuance of service shall be protected under
Provided no formal expression of intent to file an offer of financial assistance (OFA) to subsidize continued rail service has been received, this exemption will be effective on September 7, 2017, unless stayed pending reconsideration. Petitions to stay that do not involve environmental issues and formal expressions of intent to file an OFA to subsidize continued rail service under 49 CFR 1152.27(c)(2),
A copy of any petition filed with the Board should be sent to NKCR's representative: Karl Morell, 440 1st Street NW., Suite 440, Washington, DC 20001.
If the verified notice contains false or misleading information, the exemption is void ab initio.
Board decisions and notices are available on our Web site at
By the Board, Rachel D. Campbell, Director, Office of Proceedings.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice: Extension.
This notice contains a summary of a petition seeking relief from specified requirements of Federal Aviation Regulations. The purpose of this notice is to extend the comment period to improve the public's awareness of, and participation in, the FAA's exemption process. Neither publication of this notice nor the inclusion or omission of information in the summary is intended to affect the legal status of the petition or its final disposition.
Comments on this petition must identify the petition docket number involved and must be received on or before September 22, 2017.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2017-0613 using any of the following methods:
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Lynette Mitterer, AIR673, Federal Aviation Administration, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356, email
This notice is published pursuant to 14 CFR 11.85.
Issued in Renton, Washington.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice.
This notice contains a summary of a petition seeking relief from specified requirements of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations. The purpose of this notice is to improve the public's awareness of, and participation in, the FAA's exemption process. Neither publication of this notice nor the inclusion or omission of information in the summary is intended to affect the legal status of the petition or its final disposition.
Comments on this petition must identify the petition docket number and must be received on or before August 22, 2017.
Send comments identified by docket number {FAA-2003-14563} using any of the following methods:
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Valentine Castaneda at 202-267-7977 or
This notice is published pursuant to 14 CFR 11.85.
(1) In the 0800 hour to provide service between Washington, DC (DCA) and St. Louis (STL);
(2) In the 1100 hour to provide service between Columbus (CMH) and DCA; and
(3) In the 1600 hour to provide service between DCA and Indianapolis (IND).
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Seventeenth TOC Meeting.
The FAA is issuing this notice to advise the public of the Seventeenth TOC Meeting. TOC is a subcommittee of the Federal advisory committee, RTCA Inc.
The meeting will be held August 22, 2017, 10:30 a.m.-12:30 p.m., Eastern Daylight Time.
The meeting will be held at: RTCA Headquarters, 1150 18th Street NW., Suite 910, Washington, DC 20036.
Trin Mitra, TOC Secretariat, 202-330-0665,
Pursuant to section 10(a) (2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 5 U.S.C., App.), notice is hereby given of the Seventeenth TOC Meeting. The TOC is a component of RTCA, which is a Federal Advisory Committee. The agenda will include the following:
Attendance is open to the interested public but limited to space availability. With the approval of the Chairman, members of the public may present oral statements at the meeting. Persons wishing to present statements or obtain information should contact the person listed in the
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice.
This notice contains a summary of a petition seeking relief from specified requirements of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations. The purpose of this notice is to improve the public's awareness of, and participation in, the FAA's exemption process. Neither publication of this notice nor the inclusion or omission of information in the summary is intended to affect the legal status of the petition or its final disposition.
Comments on this petition must identify the petition docket number and must be received on or before August 22, 2017.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2002-13734 using any of the following methods:
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Clarence Garden on 202-267-7489 or
This notice is published pursuant to 14 CFR 11.85.
Request for public comments on a proposed collection of information.
Before a Federal agency can collect certain information from the public, it must receive approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Under procedures established by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, before seeking OMB approval, Federal agencies must solicit public comment on proposed collections of information, including extensions and reinstatement of previously approved collections. This document describes a new information collection for which NHTSA intends to seek OMB approval.
Written comments should be submitted by October 10, 2017.
You may submit comments identified by Docket No. NHTSA-2017-0070 through one of the following methods:
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Alrik L. Svenson, Office of Vehicle Safety Research, National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590, Telephone: 202-366-0436. For access to background documents, please contact Mr. Svenson.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, before an agency submits a proposed collection of information to OMB for approval, it must first publish a document in the
(i) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(ii) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(iii) How to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
(iv) How to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
In compliance with these requirements, NHTSA asks for public comments on the following proposed collection of information for which the agency is seeking approval from OMB:
The information to be collected will be used as follows:
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• Each participating driver will have a data acquisition system installed in their vehicle for three months while they perform their normal work duties. This system will collect video of the driver and forward roadway, telemetry and vehicle network data related to driving, and activations of the vehicle's CAS.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44. U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended; 5 CFR part 1320; and 49 CFR 1.95.
Issued in Washington, DC.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, DOT.
Notice and request for comments.
Before a Federal agency can collect certain information from the public, it must receive approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice announces that the Information Collection Request (ICR) abstracted below is being forwarded to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comments. A
Written comments should be submitted on or before September 7, 2017.
Send comments to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503, Attention: NHTSA Desk Officer.
For access to background documents, contact Eric Traube, Office of Vehicle Safety Research, National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590; Telephone: 202-366-5673.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, before a Federal agency can collect certain information from the public, it must receive approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). In compliance with these requirements, this notice announces that the following information collection request has been forwarded to OMB. In the November 23, 2016
This collection, which shall commence on September 1, 2017, pertains to a field operational test (FOT) of both the breath- and touch-based research vehicles developed under this program. A key to the establishment of effective, unobtrusive in-vehicle alcohol detection systems is an understanding of real-world use of the technology. This FOT will allow NHTSA and ACTS to evaluate the functionality of these research vehicles under varying operating conditions by having study participants drive DADSS research vehicles through some preset routes. The research vehicles are the first vehicles of this kind, and will be used to gather data regarding sensor validity and reliability. This study will provide a greater understanding of drivers using the technology under varying environmental conditions. Data collected from the DADSS FOT will be used to further refine the DADSS Performance Specifications and evaluate system performance; specifically cases when the system may detect alcohol when none is present.
The information to be collected will be used for the following purposes:
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The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44. U.S.C. chapter 35, as amended; 5 CFR part 1320; and 49 CFR 1.95.
Issued in Washington, DC.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Department of the Treasury.
Notice.
The purpose of this notice is to publish the names of those IRS employees who will serve as members on IRS's Fiscal Year 2017 Senior Executive Service (SES) Performance Review Boards.
This notice is effective September 1, 2017.
Cheryl Huffman, IRS, 250 Murall Drive, Kearneysville, WV 25430, (304) 579-6987.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 4314(c)(4), this notice announces the appointment of members to the IRS's SES Performance Review Boards. The names and titles of the executives serving on the boards are as follows:
This document does not meet the Treasury's criteria for significant regulations.
Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before October 10, 2017.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Brian McCarthy at (202) 461-6345.
Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, VHA invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of VHA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of VHA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
38 U.S.C. 7331.
By direction of the Secretary.
Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, this notice announces that the Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, will submit the collection of information abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The PRA submission describes the nature of the information collection and its expected cost and burden and it includes the actual data collection instrument.
Comments must be submitted on or before September 7, 2017.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor, Enterprise Records Service (005R1B), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-5870 or email
44 U.S.C. 3501-21.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The
By direction of the Secretary.
Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before October 10, 2017.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Nancy Kessinger at (202) 632-8924.
Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, VBA invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of VBA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of VBA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
38 U.S.C. 102, 38 U.S.C. 1315.
VA Form 21P-509 is used by VBA to gather income and dependency information from claimants who are seeking payment of benefits as, or for, a dependent parent. This information is necessary to determine dependency of the parent and make determinations which affect the payment of monetary benefits. The form is used by a veteran seeking to establish his/her parent(s) as dependent(s), and by a surviving parent seeking death compensation.
By direction of the Secretary.
Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before October 10, 2017.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Nancy J. Kessinger at (202) 632-8924 or FAX (202) 632-8925.
Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, VBA invites
Public Law 107-103 and Public Law 110-181.
By direction of the Secretary.
Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before October 10, 2017.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Brian McCarthy at (202) 461-6345.
Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, VHA invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of VHA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of VHA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
Under 38 U.S.C., Part I, Chapter 5, Section 527.
By direction of the Secretary.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |