Page Range | 15113-15280 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
82 FR 15181 - Certain Amorphous Silica Fabric From the People's Republic of China: Countervailing Duty Order | |
82 FR 15220 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
82 FR 15179 - Information Collection Activity; Comment Request | |
82 FR 15132 - Revisions to Rules Regarding the Evaluation of Medical Evidence; Correction | |
82 FR 15137 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Curtis Creek, Baltimore, MD | |
82 FR 15196 - Application for New Awards; Expanding Opportunity Through Quality Charter Schools Program (CSP)-Grants to State Entities | |
82 FR 15207 - Applications for New Awards; Expanding Opportunity Through Quality Charter Schools Program-Grants for Credit Enhancement for Charter School Facilities | |
82 FR 15138 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Brielle Draw Bridge, Manasquan River, Point Pleasant, NJ | |
82 FR 15224 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 15186 - Publicly Available Biologic and Geologic Samples From the 2015 and 2016 NOAA Ship Okeanos Explorer Expeditions | |
82 FR 15186 - National Sea Grant Advisory Board (NSGAB) | |
82 FR 15185 - Notice on Engagement With the National Climate Assessment | |
82 FR 15189 - New England Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
82 FR 15184 - Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council (MAFMC); Public Meeting | |
82 FR 15187 - Caribbean Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
82 FR 15185 - Pacific Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
82 FR 15184 - Prospective Grant of Exclusive Patent License | |
82 FR 15155 - Fisheries of the Northeastern United States; Atlantic Sea Scallop Fishery; Framework Adjustment 28 | |
82 FR 15135 - Special Local Regulation; Southern California Annual Marine Events for the San Diego Captain of the Port Zone-San Diego Crew Classic | |
82 FR 15194 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 15236 - Certain Single-Molecule Nucleic Acid Sequencing Systems and Reagents, Consumables, and Software for Use With Same Commission Determination Not To Review an Initial Determination Granting an Unopposed Motion To Amend the Complaint and Notice of Investigation | |
82 FR 15135 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Detroit River (Trenton Channel), Grosse Ile, MI | |
82 FR 15231 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; National Flood Insurance Program Claims Forms | |
82 FR 15189 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 15190 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 15192 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 15174 - Special Local Regulations; Sector Ohio Valley Annual and Recurring Special Local Regulations Update | |
82 FR 15180 - Seamless Refined Copper Pipe and Tube From Mexico: Rescission of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2015-2016 | |
82 FR 15183 - Steel Wire Garment Hangers From Taiwan: Rescission of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2015-2016 | |
82 FR 15193 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 15191 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 15195 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Impact Aid Discretionary Construction Grant Program (1894-0001) | |
82 FR 15215 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; High School Equivalency Program (HEP) Annual Performance Report | |
82 FR 15234 - Notice of Inventory Completion: U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Alaska Region, Anchorage, AK | |
82 FR 15154 - Fisheries of the Northeastern United States; Northeast Multispecies Fishery; Trip Limit Increase for the Small Vessel Category of the Common Pool Fishery | |
82 FR 15173 - Examinations of Working Places in Metal and Nonmetal Mines | |
82 FR 15164 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Pollock in Statistical Area 610 in the Gulf of Alaska | |
82 FR 15137 - Change Schedule Deviation Dates on Atchafalaya River, Morgan City, LA | |
82 FR 15179 - Notice of Request for Extension of a Currently Approved Information Collection | |
82 FR 15270 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Extension of a Currently-Approved Collection: Training Certification for Drivers of Longer Combination Vehicles | |
82 FR 15188 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 15184 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 15265 - Notice of Stakeholder Consultations on Responsible Conflict Mineral Sourcing | |
82 FR 15277 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Vision | |
82 FR 15232 - Environmental Assessment and Habitat Conservation Plan; Heart of Texas Wind Project; McCulloch County, Texas | |
82 FR 15230 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Emergency Management Institute (EMI) Independent Study Course Enrollment Application and Test Answer Sheet | |
82 FR 15120 - Airworthiness Directives; Sikorsky Aircraft Corporation Helicopters | |
82 FR 15271 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Diabetes Mellitus | |
82 FR 15241 - Notice of Meeting of the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS); Subcommittee on APR1400 | |
82 FR 15242 - Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS); Joint Meeting of the ACRS Subcommittees on Thermal-Hydraulic Phenomena and Reliability and Probabilistic Risk Assessment; Notice of Meeting | |
82 FR 15232 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Write Your Own (WYO) Company Participation Criteria; New Applicant | |
82 FR 15216 - Biological and Environmental Research Advisory Committee | |
82 FR 15221 - Notice of Proposals To Engage in or To Acquire Companies Engaged in Permissible Nonbanking Activities | |
82 FR 15229 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection: Public Comment Request; Reconciliation Tool for the Teaching Health Center Graduate Medical Education Program | |
82 FR 15263 - Social Security Ruling (SSR) 17-2p: Titles II and XVI: Evidence Needed by Adjudicators at the Hearings and Appeals Council Levels of the Administrative Review Process To Make Findings About Medical Equivalence | |
82 FR 15263 - Rescission of Social Security Rulings 96-2p, 96-5p, and 06-3p | |
82 FR 15243 - Submission for Review: Occupational Questionnaire, OPM Form 1203-FX | |
82 FR 15237 - Certain Composite Intermediate Bulk Containers; Commission Determination Not To Review an Initial Determination Terminating the Investigation Based on the Withdrawal of the Complaint; Termination of the Investigation | |
82 FR 15220 - Third Meeting of the World Radiocommunication Conference Advisory Committee | |
82 FR 15221 - Multi-Agency Informational Meeting Concerning Compliance With the Federal Select Agent Program; Public Webcast | |
82 FR 15267 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Overseas Pre-Assignment Medical History and Examination, Non-Foreign Service Personnel and Their Family Members | |
82 FR 15266 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Medical History and Examination for Foreign Service | |
82 FR 15242 - Quality Assurance Program Criteria (Design and Construction) | |
82 FR 15227 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission to OMB for Review and Approval; Information Collection Request Title: Ryan White HIV/AIDS Program: Allocation and Expenditure Forms, OMB No. 0915-0318-Revision | |
82 FR 15214 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Application for the Fulbright-Hays Group Projects Abroad Program | |
82 FR 15225 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection: Public Comment Request; Information Collection Request Title: Application and Other Forms Used by the National Health Service Corps (NHSC) Scholarship Program (SP), the NHSC Students To Service Loan Repayment Program (S2S LRP), and the Native Hawaiian Health Scholarship Program (NHHSP), OMB No. 0915-0146-Extension | |
82 FR 15133 - Special Local Regulation; Wy-Hi Rowing Regatta; Detroit River, Trenton Channel; Wyandotte, MI | |
82 FR 15226 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection: Public Comment Request; Ryan White HIV/AIDS Program Client-Level Data Reporting System, OMB No. 0915-0323-Extension | |
82 FR 15218 - Records Governing Off-the-Record Communications | |
82 FR 15216 - Twin Buttes Wind II LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
82 FR 15217 - Tule Wind LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
82 FR 15217 - Deerfield Wind, LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
82 FR 15217 - Total Gas & Power North America, Inc.; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
82 FR 15218 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
82 FR 15240 - Notice of Intent To Seek Approval To Establish an Information Collection | |
82 FR 15235 - Notice of Receipt of Complaint; Solicitation of Comments Relating to the Public Interest | |
82 FR 15237 - Generalized System of Preferences: Possible Modifications, 2016 Review | |
82 FR 15181 - Certain Frozen Fish Fillets From the Socialist Republic of Vietnam: Final Results and Partial Rescission of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2014-2015 | |
82 FR 15222 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
82 FR 15221 - Agency Forms Undergoing Paperwork Reduction Act Review | |
82 FR 15113 - Competitive and Noncompetitive Non-Formula Federal Assistance Programs-Specific Administrative Provisions for the Veterinary Services Grants Program | |
82 FR 15239 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-DVD Copy Control Association | |
82 FR 15239 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-Node.js Foundation | |
82 FR 15239 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-ODPi, Inc. | |
82 FR 15239 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-Cooperative Research Group on CHEDE-VII | |
82 FR 15240 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-Fd.Io Project, Inc. | |
82 FR 15238 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-Cooperative Research Group on Hedge IV | |
82 FR 15238 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-Members of Sgip 2.0, Inc. | |
82 FR 15247 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the MDX Fees Schedule | |
82 FR 15251 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Miami International Securities Exchange, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule 521, Nullification and Adjustment of Options Transactions Including Obvious Errors | |
82 FR 15244 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE MKT LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Its Organizational Documents, Company Guide, Price List, Fee Schedules, Independence Policy and Rules To Change the Name of the Exchange to NYSE American LLC | |
82 FR 15258 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ BX, Inc.; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1, To Shorten the Settlement Cycle From T+3 to T+2 | |
82 FR 15249 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend the NYSE Arca Equities Schedule of Fees and Charges for Exchange Services | |
82 FR 15220 - FY 2016 Service Contract Inventory Analysis | |
82 FR 15138 - Production or Disclosure of Material or Information; Technical Correction | |
82 FR 15244 - National Nanotechnology Initiative Workshops | |
82 FR 15269 - Projects Approved for Consumptive Uses of Water | |
82 FR 15268 - Actions Taken at March 9, 2017, Meeting | |
82 FR 15229 - National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
82 FR 15230 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 15266 - Advisory Committee on Historical Diplomatic Documentation-Notice of Closed and Open Meeting for 2017 | |
82 FR 15164 - Fisheries of the Northeastern United States; Atlantic Sea Scallop Fishery; 2017 Closure of the Northern Gulf of Maine Scallop Management Area | |
82 FR 15194 - Availability of the Revised Draft Environmental Impact Statement for the Lower Bois d'Arc Creek Reservoir Project, Fannin County, TX | |
82 FR 15172 - Proposed Amendment of Class D Airspace; Kingsville, TX | |
82 FR 15129 - Amendment of Class D and Class E Airspace; Elmira, NY | |
82 FR 15169 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
82 FR 15166 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
82 FR 15139 - Approval and Revision of Air Plans; Arizona; Regional Haze State and Federal Implementation Plans; Reconsideration | |
82 FR 15115 - Airworthiness Directives; Bombardier, Inc. Airplanes | |
82 FR 15123 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
82 FR 15128 - Establishment of Class E Airspace, Manti, UT | |
82 FR 15131 - Amendment of Class E Airspace, Trinidad, CO | |
82 FR 15126 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
82 FR 15118 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes |
Agricultural Marketing Service
National Institute of Food and Agriculture
Rural Utilities Service
International Trade Administration
National Institute of Standards and Technology
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Defense Acquisition Regulations System
Engineers Corps
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Health Resources and Services Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
Fish and Wildlife Service
National Park Service
Antitrust Division
Mine Safety and Health Administration
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents electronic mailing list, go to https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USGPOOFR/subscriber/new, enter your e-mail address, then follow the instructions to join, leave, or manage your subscription.
National Institute of Food and Agriculture, USDA.
Final rule.
The National Institute of Food and Agriculture (NIFA) is publishing a final rule for the Veterinary Services Grants Program. NIFA's development of these regulations serves to enhance its accountability and to standardize procedures across the Federal assistance programs it administers while providing transparency to the public.
This final rule is effective on March 27, 2017.
Lisa Read, Policy Analyst, Policy Branch, Phone: 202-401-5061, Email:
The Veterinary Services Grant Program (VSGP) is authorized under section 7104 of the Agricultural Act of 2014 (Pub. L. 113-79), 7 U.S.C. 3151b.
A primary function of NIFA is the fair, effective, and efficient administration of Federal assistance programs implementing agricultural research, education, and extension programs. The awards made under the above authority are subject to the NIFA assistance regulations at 7 CFR part 3430, Competitive and Noncompetitive Non-formula Federal Assistance Programs—General Award Administrative Provisions. NIFA's development and publication of this part serve to enhance its accountability and to standardize procedures across the Federal assistance programs it administers while providing transparency to the public. NIFA published 7 CFR part 3430 with subparts A through E as an interim final rule on September 4, 2009 [74 FR 45736-45752]. These regulations apply to all Federal assistance programs administered by NIFA except for the capacity grant programs identified in 7 CFR 3430.1(f), the Small Business Innovation Research programs, with implementing regulations at 7 CFR part 3403, and the Veterinary Medicine Loan Repayment Program, with implementing regulations at 7 CFR part 3431.
NIFA organized part 3430 as follows: Subparts A through E provide administrative provisions for all competitive and noncompetitive non-capacity Federal assistance programs. Subparts F and thereafter apply to specific NIFA programs.
NIFA is, to the extent practical, using the following subpart template for each program authority: (1) Applicability of regulations; (2) purpose; (3) definitions (those in addition to or different from § 3430.2); (4) eligibility; (5) project types and priorities; (6) funding restrictions; and (7) matching requirements. Subparts F and thereafter contain the above seven components in this order. Additional sections may be added for a specific program if there are additional requirements or a need for additional rules for the program (
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This action has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866. The rule will not create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency; nor will it materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs; nor will it have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more; nor will it adversely affect the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or Tribal governments or communities in a material way. Further, it does not raise a novel legal or policy issue arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or principles set forth in the Executive Order.
This final rule has been reviewed in accordance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, (5 U.S.C. 601-612). The Director of NIFA certifies that this final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The rule does not involve regulatory and informational requirements regarding businesses, organizations, and governmental jurisdictions subject to regulation.
The Department certifies that this final rule has been assessed in accordance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501
This final rule applies to the following Federal financial assistance programs administered by NIFA: CFDA No. 10.336 Veterinary Services Grant Program.
The Department has reviewed this final rule in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order No. 13132 and the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995, 2 U.S.C. 1501
Executive Order 12866 and the President's Memorandum of June 1, 1998, require each agency to write all rules in plain language. The Department invites comments on how to make this final rule easier to understand.
Administrative practice and procedure; Agricultural Research, Education, Extension; Federal assistance; Veterinarians.
Accordingly, 7 CFR part 3430 is amended as set forth below:
7 U.S.C. 3316; Pub. L. 106-107 (31 U.S.C. 6101 note).
The regulations in this subpart apply to the Veterinary Services Grant Program authorized under section 7104 of the Agricultural Act of 2014 (Pub. L. 113-79).
The purpose of VSGP is to administer a competitive grant program to develop, implement, and sustain veterinary services and relieve veterinarian shortage situations (see § 3430.1202 for definition) in the U.S., which includes insular areas (see § 3430.1202 for a definition of “insular area”). A qualified entity may use funds provided by a grant awarded under this section to relieve veterinarian shortage situations and support veterinary services for any of the following purposes:
(a) To promote recruitment (including for programs in secondary schools), placement, and retention of veterinarians, veterinary technicians, students of veterinary medicine, and students of veterinary technology.
(b) To allow veterinary students, veterinary interns, externs, fellows, and residents, and veterinary technician students to cover expenses (other than the types of expenses described in 7 U.S.C. 3151a(c)(5)) to attend training programs in food safety or food animal medicine.
(c) To establish or expand accredited veterinary education programs (including faculty recruitment and retention), veterinary residency and fellowship programs, or veterinary internship and externship programs carried out in coordination with accredited colleges of veterinary medicine.
(d) To provide continuing education and extension, including veterinary telemedicine and other distance-based education, for veterinarians, veterinary technicians, and other health professionals needed to strengthen veterinary programs and enhance food safety.
(e) To provide technical assistance for the preparation of applications submitted to the Secretary for designation as a veterinarian shortage situation under 7 U.S.C. 3151a.
The definitions applicable to the VSGP grants under this subpart include:
(1) A citizen or national of the United States, as defined in 8 U.S.C. 1401; or,
(2) A national of the United States, as defined in the Immigration and Nationality Act, 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(22), who, though not a citizen of the United States, owes permanent allegiance to the United States.
(1) The prescription, dispensing, administration, or application of any drug, medicine, biologic, apparatus, anesthetic, or other therapeutic or diagnostic substance or medical or surgical technique, or
(2) The use of complementary, alternative, and integrative therapies, or
(3) The use of any manual or mechanical procedure for reproductive management, or
(4) The rendering of advice or recommendation by any means including telephonic and other electronic communications with regard to any of paragraphs (1), (2), (3), or (4) of this definition.
(1) Substantially relieve veterinarian shortage situations;
(2) Support or facilitate private veterinary practices engaged in public health activities; or
(3) Support or facilitate the practices of veterinarians who are providing or have completed providing services under an agreement entered into with the Secretary under 7 U.S.C. 3151a(a)(2).
(1) Geographical areas that the Secretary determines have a shortage of food supply veterinarians; and
(2) Areas of veterinary practice that the Secretary determines have a
(a) For Education, Extension, and Training projects, eligible entities are:
(1) A State, national, allied, or regional veterinary organization or specialty board recognized by the American Veterinary Medical Association;
(2) A college or school of veterinary medicine accredited by the American Veterinary Medical Association;
(3) A university research foundation or veterinary medical foundation;
(4) A department of veterinary science or department of comparative medicine accredited by the Department of Education;
(5) A State agricultural experiment station; or
(6) A State, local, or tribal government agency.
(b) For Rural Practice Enhancement projects, eligible entities are:
(1) A for-profit or nonprofit entity located in the United States that, or individual who, operates a veterinary clinic providing veterinary services, in a rural area, as defined in section 343(a) of the Consolidated Farm and Rural Development Act (7 U.S.C. 1991(a)), and in a veterinarian shortage situation designated under the VMLRP. Eligible veterinarian shortage situation years will be specified in the request for application (RFA).
(2) [Reserved].
(a)
(b)
(1) Equipping veterinary offices;
(2) Sharing in the reasonable overhead costs of such veterinary practices, as determined by the Secretary; or
(3) Establishing mobile veterinary facilities in which a portion of the facilities will address education or extension needs.
(a)
(b)
There are no matching requirements for grants under this subpart.
In selecting recipients of Education, Extension and Training grants, preference will be given to applications providing documentation of coordination with other qualified entities.
(a)
(b)
(c)
The term of a grant under this subpart may not exceed 5 years. The duration of individual awards may vary as specified in the RFA and is subject to the availability of appropriations.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Bombardier, Inc. Model DHC-8-400 series airplanes. This AD was prompted by reports of interior emergency lights remaining “ON” following routine operational checks of the emergency light system. This AD requires changing the wiring gauge for the affected emergency lights power supplies wiring to prevent overheating in the wires. We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective May 1, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of May 1, 2017.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Bombardier, Inc., Q Series Technical Help Desk, 123 Garratt Boulevard, Toronto, Ontario M3K 1Y5, Canada; telephone 416-375-4000; fax 416-375-4539; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Assata Dessaline, Aerospace Engineer, Avionics and Services Branch, ANE-172, FAA, New York Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 516-228-7301; fax 516-794-5531.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain Bombardier, Inc. Model DHC-8-400 series airplanes. The NPRM published in the
Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA), which is the aviation authority for Canada, has issued Canadian Airworthiness Directive CF-2016-12, effective May 11, 2016 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or ”the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Bombardier, Inc. Model DHC-8-400 series airplanes. The MCAI states:
There have been several reports of Interior Emergency Lights remaining “ON” following routine operational checks of the Emergency Light System. During these events, the system could not be deactivated and the associated circuit breaker was also found tripped. The events were caused by the overheating of the negative interlock and ground wires at the Emergency Light System Power Supplies.
Investigation has determined that the wire gauge of the negative interlock and ground wiring is incompatible with the current load experienced during the Emergency Light System operational check and this has led to the degradation of the wiring insulation.
This [Canadian] AD is being issued to mandate the change of the wiring gauge from 22 to 20 American wire gauge (AWG) for the affected Emergency Lights Power Supplies wiring.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
The Air Line Pilots Association, International, stated that it supports the NPRM.
Horizon Air and Ryota Takeuchi requested that we revise the NPRM to specify that the wire gauge be changed in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Bombardier Service Bulletin 84-33-12, Revision B, dated June 28, 2016 (“SB 84-33-12, Revision B”).
Horizon Air also requested that we revise the NPRM to provide credit for previous actions done using Bombardier Service Bulletin 84-33-12, Revision A, dated January 19, 2016.
We agree with these requests. We have determined that SB 84-33-12, Revision B, requires no additional actions for airplanes modified using previous revisions. Therefore, we have revised this final rule to refer to SB 84-33-12, Revision B. We have also revised paragraph (h) of this AD to include credit for actions accomplished before the effective date of this AD using Bombardier Service Bulletin 84-33-12, Revision A, dated January 19, 2016.
Horizon Air also requested that we revise paragraph (g) of the proposed AD to require that the wire gauge be changed in accordance with paragraph 3.B. of the Accomplishment Instructions of SB 84-33-12, Revision B. Horizon pointed out that incorporating the Job Set-up and Close Out sections of the Accomplishment Instructions restricts an operator's ability to perform other maintenance in conjunction with the requirements of the proposed AD.
We agree with Horizon Air's request for the reason provided. We have revised this AD to reference only the actions necessary to address the unsafe condition specified in this AD.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD with the changes described previously and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of this AD.
We reviewed SB 84-33-12, Revision B. This service information describes procedures for changing the wiring gauge for the affected emergency lights power supplies wiring to prevent overheating in the wires. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 52 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective May 1, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to Bombardier, Inc. Model DHC-8-400, -401, and -402 airplanes, certificated in any category, serial numbers 4001, and 4003 through 4507 inclusive.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 33, Lights.
This AD was prompted by reports of interior emergency lights remaining “ON” following routine operational checks of the emergency light system. We are issuing this AD to prevent overheating in the wires. Overheating can damage the wire insulation, potentially causing a fire.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 6,000 flight hours or 36 months, whichever occurs first, after the effective date of this AD, incorporate Bombardier Modification Summary 4-126620 to replace affected wires with a heavier wire gauge, in accordance with paragraph 3.B. of the Accomplishment Instructions of Bombardier Service Bulletin 84-33-12, Revision B, dated June 28, 2016.
This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Bombardier Service Bulletin 84-33-12, dated September 29, 2015; or Bombardier Service Bulletin 84-33-12, Revision A, dated January 19, 2016.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) Canadian Airworthiness Directive CF-2016-12, effective May 11, 2016, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) Service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the addresses specified in paragraphs (k)(3) and (k)(4) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Bombardier Service Bulletin 84-33-12, Revision B, dated June 28, 2016.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Bombardier, Inc., Q-Series Technical Help Desk, 123 Garratt Boulevard, Toronto, Ontario M3K 1Y5, Canada; telephone 416-375-4000; fax 416-375-4539; email
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate,
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Airbus Model A300 B4-603, B4-620, and B4-622 airplanes; Model A300 B4-605R and A300 B4-622R airplanes; and Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes. This AD was prompted by an in-service detection of cracks in the fuselage skin lap joints. This AD requires an ultrasonic inspection of certain skin lap joints, and repair if necessary. We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective May 1, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of May 1, 2017.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAW, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Dan Rodina, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-2125; fax 425-227-1149; email
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to all Airbus Model A300 B4-603, B4-620, and B4-622 airplanes; Model A300 B4-605R and A300 B4-622R airplanes; and Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2016-0057, dated March 18, 2016 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Airbus Model A300 B4-603, B4-620, and B4-622 airplanes; Model A300 B4-605R and A300 B4-622R airplanes; and Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes. The MCAI states:
Prompted by in-service detection on Airbus A300-600 aeroplanes of cracks in certain fuselage skin lap joints, several studies were launched to understand the phenomenon and provide the corrective actions. More recently, new analyses were performed and the results identified that a new area has to be inspected at the skin lap joint below Stringer (STR) 28 at Frame (FR) 72 to FR 76.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could result in reduced structure integrity of the aeroplane.
To address this unsafe condition, Airbus published Service Bulletin (SB) A300-53-6184 [dated November 12, 2015] to introduce [ultrasonic] inspections and applicable corrective actions for the affected areas.
For the reason described above, this [EASA] AD requires repetitive Special Detail Inspections (SDI) of the affected skin lap joint and, depending on findings, accomplishment of applicable corrective action(s) [repairs].
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
FedEx requested that the reporting requirements in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6184, dated November 12, 2015, be specified in the AD as optional. FedEx stated that Airbus has received these reports regularly in the past and they have not provided industry statistics or benefits to the operators.
We agree that reporting is not necessary in this AD. The report in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6184, dated November 12, 2015, is designed to report crack findings. Crack findings are addressed by paragraph (h) of this AD.
Because reporting is specified within the procedures of Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6184, dated November 12, 2015, we have revised this AD by adding paragraph (i) to specify no reporting is required. We have redesignated subsequent paragraphs accordingly.
FedEx stated the inspection is best fitted for a maintenance program and should be included in an airworthiness limitation document.
We do not agree with the commenter. Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6184, dated November 12, 2015, has been issued to address in-service findings, which can lead to an unsafe condition. For this case, no airworthiness limitation instructions were introduced by Airbus. To delay this action until airworthiness limitations were
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD with the changes described previously and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of this AD.
We reviewed Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6184, dated November 12, 2015. The service information describes procedures for an ultrasonic inspection of the skin lap joint below STR 28 at FR 72 to FR 76, and repair if necessary. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 29 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We have no way to determine the costs to do any necessary repairs that will be required based on the results of the inspection. We have no way of determining the number of airplanes that might need these repairs.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective May 1, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to all Airbus Model A300 B4-603, B4-620, and B4-622 airplanes; Model A300 B4-605R and A300 B4-622R airplanes; and Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by an in-service detection of cracks in the fuselage skin lap joints. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracks in the skin lap joint below stringer (STR) 28 at frame (FR) 72 to FR 76. Such cracking could result in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Before 29,500 flight cycles since the first flight of the airplane, or within 2,000 flight cycles after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later, do an ultrasonic inspection for cracks of the skin lap joint below STR 28 at FR 72 to FR 76 and do all applicable repairs before further flight, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instruction of Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6184, dated November 12, 2015, except as required by paragraph (h) of this AD. Repeat the ultrasonic inspection thereafter at intervals not to exceed 5,400 flight cycles.
Where Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6184, dated November 12, 2015, specifies to contact Airbus for repair instructions, and specifies that action as “RC” (Required for Compliance), this AD requires repair before further flight using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (j) of this AD.
Although Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6184, dated November 12, 2015, specifies to submit certain information to the manufacturer, and specifies that action as RC, this AD does not include that requirement.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA AD 2016-0057, dated March 18, 2016, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6184, dated November 12, 2015.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAW, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule; request for comments.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Sikorsky Aircraft Corporation (Sikorsky) Model 269D and Model 269D Configuration A helicopters. This AD requires reducing the life limit of and inspecting certain drive shafts. This AD is prompted by four incidents involving failure of a drive shaft. The actions specified by this AD are intended to prevent the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD becomes effective April 11, 2017.
We must receive comments on this AD by May 26, 2017.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Sikorsky Aircraft Corporation, Customer Service Engineering, 124 Quarry Road, Trumbull, CT 06611; telephone 1-800-Winged-S or 203-416-4299; email:
Michael Schwetz, Aviation Safety Engineer, Boston Aircraft Certification Office, Engine & Propeller Directorate, FAA, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, Massachusetts 01803; telephone (781) 238-7761; email
This AD is a final rule that involves requirements affecting flight safety, and we did not provide you with notice and an opportunity to provide your comments prior to it becoming effective. However, we invite you to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. We also invite comments relating to the
We are adopting a new AD for Sikorsky Model 269D and Model 269D Configuration A helicopters with KAflex drive shaft (engine side) part number (P/N) SKCP2738-7 and KAflex drive shaft (pulley side) P/N SKCP2738-5 installed. This AD is prompted by four incidents involving failure of the engine side drive shaft. Three incidents experienced loss of rotor drive resulting in forced landings. The fourth incident resulted in vibration during flight prompting an immediate landing. A fractured engine side drive shaft was evident in each incident. Investigations revealed compression of the rubber engine mounts may lead to loss of alignment between the lower pulley shaft and the engine output shaft, resulting in fracture of the engine side drive shaft. Additionally, it has been discovered that increased cyclic torsional loading was inaccurately applied in previous fatigue analysis, making it necessary to reduce the life limit.
Accordingly, this AD requires reducing the life limit of the engine side drive shaft and pulley side drive shaft to 6,000 hours time-in-service (TIS) for Model 269D helicopters and 1,200 hours TIS for Model 269D Configuration A helicopters. If the drive shaft is interchanged or has ever been interchanged between the two model configurations, this AD requires using the lower life limit of 1,200 hours TIS. This AD also requires performing several inspections of the drive shaft within 25 hours TIS and, depending on the results of these inspections, replacing both the engine side and pulley side drive shafts.
The actions specified by this AD are intended to prevent failure of the drive shaft, loss of rotor drive, and subsequent loss of control of the helicopter. Additional inspections at longer intervals may also be necessary. We plan to publish a notice of proposed rulemaking to give the public an opportunity to comment on those long-term requirements.
In preparation of AD actions such as notices of proposed rulemaking and immediately adopted final rules, it is the practice of the FAA to obtain technical information and information on the operational and economic impact from design approval holders and aircraft operators. We discussed certain aspects of this AD by email and telephone with Sikorsky. A copy of each email contact and a discussion of each telephone contact can be found in the rulemaking docket. For information on locating the docket, see “Examining the AD Docket.”
We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type designs.
We reviewed Appendix B to Sikorsky S-330 Model 269D Helicopter Basic Handbook of Maintenance Instructions No. CSP-D-2, dated February 1, 1993, and revised October 15, 2014; and Appendix B to Sikorsky S-333 Model 269D Config. “A” Helicopter Basic Handbook of Maintenance Instructions No. CSP-D-9, dated July 20, 2001, and revised October 15, 2014. This service information specifies repetitive inspection procedures, overhaul and retirement schedules, and weight and balance procedures. The Airworthiness Limitations section, which is included in this service information, contains the life limits for drive shaft assembly P/Ns SKCP2738-5 and SKCP2738-7.
We also reviewed Sikorsky 269D Helicopter Alert Service Bulletin DB-052, Basic Issue, dated January 16, 2014, which distributes the service life reduction information and implements a new 1,200-hour overhaul inspection for drive shaft assembly P/Ns SKCP2738-3, SKCP2738-5, and SKCP2738-7.
This AD requires, before further flight:
• Removing from service any engine side drive shaft P/N SKCP2738-7 and pulley side drive shaft P/N SKCP2738-5 that has reached or exceeded its new life limit as follows:
○ 6,000 hours TIS for Model 269D helicopters;
○ 1,200 hours TIS for Model 269D Configuration A helicopters; and
○ 1,200 hours TIS if the parts have ever been interchanged between the two model configurations.
This AD also requires, within 25 hours TIS:
• Inspecting the KAflex drive shaft alignment.
• Inspecting the engine side and pulley side drive shafts for a crack, any corrosion or pitting, a nick, a dent, and a scratch.
• Inspecting each bolted joint (joint) for movement.
• Inspecting each joint for fretting corrosion and each frame and mount bolt torque stripe for movement.
• Inspecting each joint for fretting, for a crack around both the bolt head and washer side, and around the nut and washer side, and each inside and outside corner radii and radii edges on both sides of each frame for a crack.
If the drive shaft fails any of the above inspections, this AD requires replacing both the engine side and pulley side drive shafts before further flight.
Lastly, this AD requires within 25 hours TIS and thereafter at intervals not to exceed 25 hours TIS:
• Inspecting the lower pulley to engine alignment, and if there is any interference with the rotation of the belt drive alignment tool, adjusting the engine elevation alignment before further flight.
This AD also specifies installing KAflex engine side coupling assembly P/N SKCP2738-9 and KAflex pulley side coupling assembly P/N SKCP2738-101 as an optional terminating action for the requirements of this AD.
The Sikorsky service information specifies a drive shaft assembly service life of 3,000 hours TIS with a 1,200 hour overhaul inspection for Model 269D Configuration A helicopters, while this AD specifies a service life of 1,200 hours TIS.
This AD specifies several inspections with a compliance time of 25 hours TIS that are currently recurring inspections at 100-hour or 400-hour intervals in Sikorsky's service information.
The Sikorsky service information specifies different inspection procedures if there is spline engagement interference or resistance while inspecting the drive shaft alignment. This AD specifies replacing both the engine side and pulley side drive shafts if there is any spline engagement interference or resistance.
The Sikorsky service information specifies inspecting the working
The Sikorsky service information specifies returning the drive shaft assembly to Sikorsky if there is fretting dust or red metallic residue at a joint. This AD specifies replacing both the engine side and pulley side drive shafts if there is any fretting corrosion.
We consider this AD interim action. If final action is later identified, we might consider further rulemaking then.
We estimate that this AD affects 18 helicopters of U.S. Registry. We estimate that operators may incur the following costs to comply with this AD. Labor costs are estimated at $85 per work-hour. Removing the engine side and pulley side drive shafts that have reached the new life limit will take about 4 work-hours for a cost of $340 per helicopter. Inspecting the drive shaft alignment will take about 1 work-hour for a cost of $85 per helicopter and $1,530 for the U.S. fleet. Inspecting the drive shafts for damage will take about 1 work-hour for an estimated cost of $85 per helicopter and $1,530 for the U.S. fleet. Inspecting the joints will take about 1 work-hour for an estimated cost of $85 per helicopter and $1,530 for the U.S. fleet. Replacing the engine side and pulley side drive shafts, if required, will take about 8 work-hours and parts will cost about $20,000, for an estimated cost of $20,680 per helicopter. Inspecting the lower pulley to engine alignment will take about 0.5 work-hour for an estimated cost of $43 per helicopter and $774 for the U.S. fleet per inspection cycle. Adjusting the engine elevation alignment will take about 0.5 work-hour for an estimated cost of $43 per helicopter.
Providing an opportunity for public comments prior to adopting these AD requirements would delay implementing the safety actions needed to correct this known unsafe condition. Therefore, we find that the risk to the flying public justifies waiving notice and comment prior to the adoption of this rule because some of the required corrective actions must be completed before further flight.
Since an unsafe condition exists that requires the immediate adoption of this AD, we determined that notice and opportunity for public comment before issuing this AD are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and that good cause exists for making this amendment effective in less than 30 days.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
We prepared an economic evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by Reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to Sikorsky Model 269D and Model 269D Configuration A helicopters with a KAflex engine side drive shaft part number (P/N) SKCP2738-7 and KAflex pulley side drive shaft P/N SKCP2738-5 installed, certificated in any category.
This AD defines the unsafe condition as failure of a drive shaft. This condition could result in loss of rotor drive and subsequent loss of control of the helicopter.
This AD becomes effective April 11, 2017.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
(1) Before further flight:
(i) For Model 269D helicopters, remove from service any KAflex engine side drive shaft P/N SKCP2738-7 and any KAflex pulley side drive shaft P/N SKCP2738-5 that has 6,000 or more hours time-in-service (TIS). Thereafter, remove from service any KAflex engine side drive shaft P/N SKCP2738-7 and any KAflex pulley side drive shaft P/N SKCP2738-5 before accumulating 6,000 hours TIS.
(ii) For Model 269D Configuration A helicopters, remove from service any KAflex engine side drive shaft P/N SKCP2738-7 and any KAflex pulley side drive shaft P/N SKCP2738-5 that has 1,200 or more hours TIS. Thereafter, remove from service any KAflex engine side drive shaft P/N SKCP2738-7 and any KAflex pulley side drive shaft P/N SKCP2738-5 before accumulating 1,200 hours TIS.
(iii) If interchanged between Model 269D and Model 269D Configuration A helicopters, remove from service any KAflex engine side drive shaft P/N SKCP2738-7 and any KAflex pulley side drive shaft P/N SKCP2738-5 that has 1,200 or more hours TIS. Thereafter, if interchanged between Model 269D and Model 269D Configuration A helicopters, remove from service any KAflex engine side drive shaft P/N SKCP2738-7 and any KAflex pulley side drive shaft P/N SKCP2738-5 before accumulating 1,200 hours TIS.
(2) Within 25 hours TIS:
(i) Remove the drive shaft to adapter bolt and inspect the drive shaft alignment. Engage and disengage the splines a minimum of 3 times by sliding the engine power output shaft in and out of the engine. Inspect the alignment at each 90° interval by rotating the lower pulley with the power shaft disengaged. Determine whether the adapter slides on and off the drive shaft splines without spline engagement interference or resistance along the entire length of movement. If there is any spline engagement interference or resistance, before further flight, replace both the engine side and pulley side drive shafts.
(ii) Inspect each drive shaft for a crack, any corrosion or pitting, a nick, a dent, and a scratch. If there is a crack, any corrosion or pitting, a nick, a dent, or a scratch that exceeds allowable limits, before further flight, replace both the engine side and pulley side drive shafts.
(iii) Remove the engine side drive shaft and pulley side drive shaft and perform the following:
(A) Inspect each flex frame (frame) bolted joint (joint) for movement by hand. If there is any movement, before further flight, replace both the engine side and pulley side drive shafts.
(B) Visually inspect each joint for fretting corrosion (which might be indicated by metallic particles) and each frame and mount bolt torque stripe for movement. If there is any fretting corrosion or torque stripe movement, before further flight, replace both the engine side and pulley side drive shafts.
(C) Using a 10x or higher power magnifying glass, visually inspect each joint for fretting and for a crack around the bolt head and washer side, and around the nut and washer side. Also inspect both sides of each frame for a crack on the inside and outside corner radii and radii edge (four). If there is any fretting, a crack at any point over the full circumference (360°) of the bolt head and washer side or the nut and washer side, or a crack in any of the corner radii edges, before further flight, replace both the engine side and pulley side drive shafts.
(iv) Using a belt drive alignment tool 269T3303-003, inspect the lower pulley to engine alignment by engaging the tool on the drive shaft and inserting in the lower pulley bore. Rotate the tool 360° around the drive shaft and inspect for interference. If there is any interference with the rotation of the tool, before further flight, adjust the engine elevation alignment to eliminate the interference.
(3) Thereafter, at intervals not to exceed 25 hours TIS, repeat the actions specified in paragraph (e)(2)(iv) of this AD.
(4) As an optional terminating action to the repetitive inspections in this AD, you may install KAflex engine side drive shaft P/N SKCP2738-9 and KAflex pulley side drive shaft P/N SKCP2738-101.
(1) The Manager, Boston Aircraft Certification Office, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to: Michael Schwetz, Aviation Safety Engineer, Boston Aircraft Certification Office, Engine & Propeller Directorate, FAA, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, Massachusetts 01803; telephone (781) 238-7761; email
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an AMOC.
Sikorsky 269D Helicopter Alert Service Bulletin DB-052, Basic Issue, dated January 16, 2014; Appendix B of Sikorsky S-330 Model 269D Helicopter Basic Handbook of Maintenance Instructions, No. CSP-D-2, dated February 1, 1993, and revised October 15, 2014; and Appendix B of Sikorsky S-330 Model 269D Config. “A” Helicopter Basic Handbook of Maintenance Instructions, No. CSP-D-9, dated July 20, 2001, and revised October 15, 2014; which are not incorporated by reference, contain additional information about the subject of this AD. For service information identified in this AD, contact Sikorsky Aircraft Corporation, Customer Service Engineering, 124 Quarry Road, Trumbull, CT 06611; telephone 1-800-Winged-S or 203-416-4299; email:
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: 6310, Engine/Transmission Coupling.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 787-8 airplanes. This AD was prompted by a report indicating that the fire block in the closets and video control stations, and fire blocking tape in the floor panel opening in the forward and aft main passenger cabin, might be missing on some airplanes. This AD requires installing a fire block in the closets and video control stations, as applicable, and installing fire blocking tape in the floor panel openings in the forward and aft main passenger cabin. We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective May 1, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of May 1, 2017.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Susan L. Monroe, Aerospace Engineer, Cabin Safety and Environmental Systems Branch, ANM-150S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6457; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain The Boeing Company Model 787-8 airplanes. The NPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
The Air Line Pilots Association, International indicated its support for the intent of the NPRM.
Boeing asked that we clarify certain language related to the unsafe condition throughout the NPRM. Boeing stated that the location of the unsafe condition, referred to in the NPRM as “video control station and closets,” should be changed to “closets and video control stations.” Boeing stated that closets and video control stations are two separate monument designs, and the current wording implies that the requirement applies only to monuments with video controls.
We agree with the commenter's request for the reason provided. We have clarified this language in all applicable sections of this AD.
United Airlines (UA) asked that we include Issue 002 of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB530018-00, for accomplishing certain actions in the proposed AD. UA stated that it was informed by Boeing that Issue 002 is in work. UA noted that adding this later revision will minimize potential requests for alternative methods of compliance (AMOCs).
We do not agree with the commenter's request. We do not consider that delaying this final rule until after the release of the manufacturer's planned service information (Issue 002 of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB530018-00) is warranted. We have identified an unsafe condition and the actions specified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB530018-00, Issue 001, dated June 7, 2013, address the unsafe condition for airplanes identified in paragraph (g)(3) of this AD. However, under the provisions of paragraph (h) of this AD, operators may request approval to use later revisions of the service information as an AMOC with this AD. We have not changed this AD in this regard.
UA asked that we split the NPRM into two ADs; one AD for Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250028-00, Issue 001, dated August 1, 2013; and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250070-00, Issue 001, dated March 10, 2015; and one AD for Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB530018-00, Issue 001, dated June 7, 2013. UA stated that although all of this service information addresses fire blocking, different areas with different procedures are specified in each service bulletin.
We do not agree with the commenter's request. We do not consider that delaying this final rule, so that the required actions can be split into two ADs based on the location of the corrective actions, is warranted. In order to address the identified unsafe condition in a timely manner, we find that we must issue this AD by mandating the specified actions described in the referenced service information. We have not changed this AD in this regard.
Boeing asked that we change the phrase “video control closet” to “closet” in the Costs of Compliance section, for clarification. Boeing stated that the referenced service information does not have a monument listing for a “video control closet” but lists this monument as a “closet.”
We agree with the commenter's request for the reason provided. We have changed this language in the Costs of Compliance section accordingly.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD with the changes described previously and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of this AD.
We reviewed the following service information:
Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250028-00, Issue 001, dated August 1, 2013. The service information describes procedures for installing a fire block in the closets and video control stations.
Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250070-00, Issue 001, dated March 10, 2015. The service information describes procedures for installing a fire block in the video control station.
Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB530018-00, Issue 001, dated June 7, 2013. The service information describes procedures for installing fire blocking tape in the floor panel openings in the forward and aft main passenger cabin.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 6 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective May 1, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 787-8 airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in the service information specified in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), and (c)(3) of this AD.
(1) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250028-00, Issue 001, dated August 1, 2013.
(2) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250070-00, Issue 001, dated March 10, 2015.
(3) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB530018-00, Issue 001, dated June 7, 2013.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 25, Equipment/furnishings; 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by a report indicating that the fire block in the closets and video control stations, and fire blocking tape in the floor panel opening in the forward and aft main passenger cabin, might be missing on some airplanes. We are issuing this AD to prevent propagation of a fire in the lower lobe cheek area outboard of a closet or video control station. Such propagation could result in an increased risk of smoke and/or fire propagation into the passenger cabin.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 72 months after the effective date of this AD, do the actions specified in paragraphs (g)(1), (g)(2), and (g)(3) of this AD, as applicable.
(1) For airplanes specified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250028-00, Issue 001, dated August 1, 2013: Install a fire block in the closets and video control stations, as applicable, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250028-00, Issue 001, dated August 1, 2013.
(2) For airplanes specified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250070-00, Issue 001, dated March 10, 2015: Install a fire block in the video control station, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250070-00, Issue 001, dated March 10, 2015.
(3) For airplanes specified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB530018-00, Issue 001, dated June 7, 2013: Install fire blocking tape in the floor panel openings in the forward and aft main passenger cabin, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB530018-00, Issue 001, dated June 7, 2013.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (i) of this AD. Information may be
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (h)(4)(i) and (h)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
For more information about this AD, contact Susan L. Monroe, Aerospace Engineer, Cabin Safety and Environmental Systems Branch, ANM-150S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6457; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250028-00, Issue 001, dated August 1, 2013.
(ii) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250070-00, Issue 001, dated March 10, 2015.
(iii) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB530018-00, Issue 001, dated June 7, 2013.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all The Boeing Company Model DC-6, DC-6A, C-118A, R6D-1, DC-6B, and R6D-1Z airplanes. This AD was prompted by a report of a fuel leak in a Model C-118A airplane that resulted from a crack in the wing lower skin. This AD requires repetitive radiographic, electromagnetic testing high frequency (ETHF), and electromagnetic testing low frequency (ETLF) inspections for cracking of the wing lower skin, and repairs if necessary. We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective May 1, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of May 1, 2017.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
George Garrido, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5232; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to all The Boeing Company Model DC-6, DC-6A, C-118A, R6D-1, DC-6B, and R6D-1Z airplanes. The NPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We have considered the comments received. The National Transportation Safety Board, Boeing, and Ms. Ana Maria expressed their support for the NPRM.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed, except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin DC6-57A001, dated April 28, 2016. The service information describes procedures for radiographic, ETHF, and ETLF inspections for cracking of the wing lower skin at wing station 175, and repairs. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 36 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective May 1, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to all The Boeing Company Model DC-6, DC-6A, DC-6B, C-118A, R6D-1, and R6D-1Z airplanes, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 57, Wings.
This AD was prompted by a report of a fuel leak in a Model C-118A airplane that resulted from a crack in the wing lower skin just inboard of the number 2 nacelle attach angle at wing station 175. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking in the wing lower skin, which could adversely affect the structural integrity of the wing.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as specified in paragraph (i) of this AD: At the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin DC6-57A001, dated April 28, 2016, do radiographic, electromagnetic testing high frequency (ETHF), and electromagnetic testing low frequency (ETLF) inspections for cracking of the wing lower skin at station 175, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin DC6-57A001, dated April 28, 2016. Repeat the radiographic, ETHF, and ETLF inspections of any unrepaired areas thereafter at the applicable intervals specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin DC6-57A001, dated April 28, 2016.
If any cracking is found during any inspection required by this AD: Before further flight, repair the cracking using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (j) of this AD.
Where paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin DC6-57A001, dated April 28, 2016, specifies a compliance time “after the original issue date of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Los Angeles ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (j)(4)(i) and (j)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or substep is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or substep. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
For more information about this AD, contact George Garrido, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, Los Angeles ACO, FAA, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5232; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin DC6-57A001, dated April 28, 2016.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For Boeing service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This action establishes Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 4.7-mile radius of Manti-Ephraim Airport, Manti, UT, with segments extending north and southwest of the airport, to accommodate new Area Navigation (RNAV) Global Positioning System (GPS) standard instrument approach procedures developed for the airport. This airspace is necessary for new Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) operations for standard instrument approach procedures and to support the safety and management of IFR operations at the airport.
Effective 0901 UTC, June 22, 2017. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under Title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed on line at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Tom Clark, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Western Service Center, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057; telephone (425) 203-4511.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it establishes controlled airspace at Manti-Ephraim Airport, Manti, UT.
On November 22, 2016, the FAA published in the
On January 23, 2017, the FAA published in the
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order 7400.11A, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designation listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016. FAA Order 7400.11A is publicly available as listed in the
This amendment to Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 establishes Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 4.7-mile radius of Manti-Ephraim Airport, Manti, UT, with segments extending from the 4.7-mile radius to 11 miles southwest of the airport, and 7.2 miles northeast of the airport. This airspace is established to accommodate new Area Navigation (RNAV) Global Positioning System (GPS) standard instrument approach procedures developed for the airport.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a Regulatory Evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 4.7-mile radius of Manti-Ephraim Airport, and that airspace 2 miles either side of a 225° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.7-mile radius to 11 miles southwest of the airport, and that airspace within 1.8 miles east of the line beginning at lat. 39°17′50″ N., long. 111°39′27″ W., to lat. 39°14′35″ N., long. 111°41′06″ W., and that airspace beginning at the point where a 001° bearing from the airport intersects the 4.7-mile radius to lat. 39°26′54″ N., long. 111°36′20″ W., to lat. 39°26′34″ N., long. 111°31′41″ W., to the point where a 053° bearing from the airport intersects the 4.7-mile radius, thence counter-clockwise along the 4.7-mile radius to the point of beginning.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This action amends Class D and E airspace at Elmira, NY, as the ERINN Outer Marker (OM) has been decommissioned requiring airspace reconfiguration at Elmira/Corning Regional Airport. This action enhances the safety and airspace management of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) operations at the airport. This action also updates the geographic coordinates of the airport, and eliminates the Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) part-time status of the Class E airspace designated as an extension to a Class D surface area. Also, the FAA found the Class E airspace designated as an extension to a class D surface area description was inaccurate. This action corrects the error.
Effective 0901 UTC, June 22, 2017. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed on line at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
John Fornito, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, P.O. Box 20636, Atlanta, Georgia 30320; telephone (404) 305-6364.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part, A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it amends Class D and Class E airspace at Elmira/Corning Regional Airport, Elmira, NY.
On December 13, 2016, the FAA published in the
Subsequent to publication, the regulatory text for the Class E airspace designated as an extension was found to have some inaccuracies and is rewritten for clarity.
Class D and Class E airspace designations are published in paragraphs 5000, 6002 and 6004, respectively, of FAA Order 7400.11A dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR part 71.1. The Class D and Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016. FAA Order 7400.11A is publicly available as listed in the
This amendment to Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 amends Class D airspace, Class E surface area airspace, and Class E airspace designated as an extension to a Class D surface area at Elmira/Corning Regional Airport, Elmira, NY. This action amends the geographic coordinates of the airport to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database, and eliminates the NOTAM information from the regulatory text of the Class E airspace designated as an extension to Class D that reads, “This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and time established in advance by Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Airport/Facility Directory.” This action also corrects some inaccuracies in the segment dimensions northeast, east, and southwest of the airport in the description of Class E airspace designated as an extension to a Class D surface.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120, E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 3,500 MSL within a 4.2-mile radius of the Elmira/Corning Regional Airport. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement, (previously called Airport/Facility Directory).
That airspace extending upward from the surface within a 4.2-mile radius of the Elmira/Corning Regional Airport. This Class
That airspace extending upward from the surface within 1.8 miles each side of the 062° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.2-mile radius of Elmira/Corning Regional Airport to 8.6-miles northeast of the airport, within 1.8 miles each side of the 101° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.2-mile radius to 6 miles east of the airport, and within 1.8 miles each side of the 240° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.2-mile radius to 7 miles southwest of the airport, and within 1.8 miles each side of the 282° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.2-mile radius to 8 miles northwest of the airport.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This action modifies Class E surface area airspace, and Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface, at Perry Stokes Airport, Trinidad, CO. Airspace redesign is necessary to accommodate new Area Navigation (RNAV) Standard Instrument Approach Procedures at the airport due to the decommissioning of the Trinidad Non-Directional Radio Beacon (NDB) and cancellation of associated approaches. This action ensures the safety, efficiency, and management of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) operations at the airport. Additionally, the airport's geographic coordinates are updated to match the FAA's aeronautical database.
Effective 0901 UTC, June 22, 2017. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under Title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed on line at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Tom Clark, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Western Service Center, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057; telephone (425) 203-4511.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it modifies controlled airspace at Perry Stokes Airport, Trinidad, CO.
On November 7, 2016, the FAA published in the
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6002 and 6005 of FAA Order 7400.11A, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR part 71.1. The Class E airspace designation listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016. FAA Order 7400.11A is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is amending Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 by modifying Class E surface area airspace at Perry Stokes Airport, Trinidad, CO, to within a 4.6-mile radius of the airport (from a 4.2-mile radius), with a segment extending from the airport 4.6-mile radius to 7.2 miles southwest of the airport. Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface is modified to within a 7.2-mile radius of the airport (from an 8-mile radius) from the airport 231 ° bearing clockwise to the 056 ° bearing, and within a 4.6-mile radius from the airport 056 ° bearing clockwise to the 231 ° bearing, and with a segment extending from the 4.6-mile radius of the airport to 9.3 miles southwest of the airport. The Class E airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface is removed as this airspace is controlled by the Blue Mesa en route airspace area. Also, the airport's geographic coordinates are updated to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database. New RNAV standard instrument approach procedures, due to decommissioning of the Trinidad NDB, have made this action necessary for the safety, efficiency, and management of IFR operations at the airport.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface within a 4.6-mile radius of Perry Stokes Airport, and within 0.7 miles each side of the 224° bearing from the airport 4.6-mile radius to 7.2 miles southwest of the airport.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7.2-mile radius of Perry Stokes Airport from the 231° bearing clockwise to the 056° bearing, and within a 4.6-mile radius from the airport 056° bearing clockwise to the 231° bearing, and within 1-mile each side of the airport 224° bearing extending from the 4.6-mile radius to 9.3 miles southwest of the airport.
Social Security Administration.
Final rules; correction.
We published a document in the
Effective March 27, 2017.
Dan O'Brien, Office of Disability Policy, Social Security Administration, 6401 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, Maryland 21235-6401, (410) 597-1632. For information on eligibility or filing for benefits, call our national toll-free number, 1-800-772-1213, or TTY 1-800-325-0778, or visit our Internet site, Social Security Online, at
We published final rules in the
In FR Doc. 2017-00455 appearing on page 5844 in the
a. At the end of paragraph (a)(2) introductory text, add the sentence “(For claims filed (see § 404.614) before March 27, 2017, see § 404.1527(a) for the definition of medical opinion.)”.
b. In paragraph (a)(2)(iv), remove the parenthetical sentence at the end of the paragraph.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a special local regulation for certain waters of the Detroit River, Trenton Channel, Wyandotte, MI. This action is necessary and is intended to ensure safety of life on navigable waters to be used for a rowing event immediately prior to, during, and immediately after this event. This regulation requires vessels to maintain a minimum speed for safe navigation and maneuvering.
This temporary final rule is effective from 7:30 a.m. until 5 p.m. on May 6, 2017.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this temporary rule, call or email Tracy Girard, Prevention Department, Sector Detroit, Coast Guard; telephone 313-568-9564, or email
The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment pursuant to authority under section 4(a) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553(b)). This provision authorizes an agency to issue a rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment when the agency for good cause finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” Under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because doing so would be impracticable. The final details of this rowing event was not known to the Coast Guard with sufficient time for the Coast Guard until there was insufficient time remaining before the event to publish an NPRM.
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231. The Captain of the Port Detroit (COTP) has determined that the likely combination of recreation vessels, commercial vessels, and an unknown number of spectators in close proximity to a youth rowing regatta along the water pose extra and unusual hazards to public safety and property. Therefore, the COTP believes a Special Local Regulation around the event location is needed to help minimize risks to safety of life and property during this event.
This rule establishes a temporary special local regulation from 7:30 a.m. until 5 p.m. on May 6, 2017. In light of the aforementioned hazards, the COTP has determined that a special local regulation is necessary to protect spectators, vessels, and participants. The special local regulation will encompass the following waterway: All waters of the Detroit River, Trenton Channel between the following two lines going from bank-to-bank: The first line is drawn directly across the channel from position 42°11.0′ N., 083°09.4′ W. (NAD 83); the second line, to the north, is drawn directly across the channel from position 42°11.7′ N., 083°08.9′ W. (NAD 83).
An on-scene representative of the COTP or event sponsor representatives may permit vessels to transit the area when no race activity is occurring. The on-scene representative may be present on any Coast Guard, state or local law enforcement vessel assigned to patrol the event. Vessel operators desiring to transit through the regulated area must contact the Coast Guard Patrol Commander to obtain permission to do so. The COTP or his designated on-scene representative may be contacted via VHF Channel 16.
The COTP or his designated on-scene representative will notify the public of the enforcement of this rule by all appropriate means, including a Broadcast Notice to Mariners and Local Notice to Mariners.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on these statutes and executive orders.
E.O.s 12866 (“Regulatory Planning and Review”) and 13563 (“Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review”) direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity. E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. Executive Order 13771 (“Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs”), directs agencies to reduce regulation and control regulatory costs and provides that “for every one new regulation issued, at least two prior regulations be identified for elimination, and that the cost of planned regulations be prudently managed and controlled through a budgeting process.”
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has not designated this rule a significant regulatory action under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has not reviewed it.
As this rule is not a significant regulatory action, this rule is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771. See OMB's Memorandum titled “Interim Guidance Implementing Section 2 of the Executive Order of January 30, 2017 titled `Reducing
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, duration, and time-of-year of the special local regulation. Vessel traffic will be able to safely transit around this special local regulation zone which will impact a small designated area of the Detroit River from 7:30 a.m. to 5 p.m. May 6, 2017. Moreover, the Coast Guard will issue Broadcast Notice to Mariners via VHF-FM marine channel 16 about the special local regulation and the rule allows vessels to seek permission to enter the area.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the special local regulation may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves a special local regulation lasting nine hours that will limit entry to a designated area. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(h) of Figure 2-1 of the Commandant Instruction. An environmental analysis checklist supporting this determination and a Categorical Exclusion Determination are available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and record keeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 100 as follows:
3 U.S.C. 1233.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2) Vessel operators desiring to operate in the regulated area must
(3) The “on-scene representative” of the COTP Detroit is any Coast Guard commissioned, warrant or petty officer or a Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port Detroit to act on his behalf.
(4) Vessel operators shall contact the COTP Detroit or his on-scene representative to obtain permission to enter or operate within the special local regulation. The COTP Detroit or his on-scene representative may be contacted via VHF Channel 16 or at 313-568-9464. Vessel operators given permission to enter or operate in the regulated area must comply with all directions given to them by the COTP Detroit or his on-scene representative.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of enforcement of regulation.
The Coast Guard will enforce the San Diego Crew Classic special local regulations on the waters of Mission Bay, California from April 1, 2017 to April 2, 2017. These special local regulations are necessary to provide for the safety of the participants, crew, spectators, sponsor vessels, and general users of the waterway. During the enforcement period, persons and vessels are prohibited from anchoring, blocking, loitering, or impeding within this regulated area unless authorized by the Captain of the Port, or his designated representative.
The regulations in 33 CFR 100.1101 will be enforced from 7:00 a.m. through 7:00 p.m. from April 1, 2017 to April 2, 2017 for Item 3 in Table 1 of § 100.1101.
If you have questions about this publication of enforcement, call or email Lieutenant Robert Cole, Waterways Management, U.S. Coast Guard Sector San Diego, CA; telephone (619) 278-7656, email
The Coast Guard will enforce the special local regulations in 33 CFR 100.1101 for the San Diego Crew Classic in Mission Bay, CA in 33 CFR 100.1101, Table 1, Item 3 of that section from 7:00 a.m. until 7:00 p.m. on April 1, 2017 and April 2, 2017. This enforcement action is being taken to provide for the safety of life on navigable waterways during the event. The Coast Guard's regulation for recurring marine events in the San Diego Captain of the Port Zone identifies the regulated entities and area for this event. Under the provisions of 33 CFR 100.1101, persons and vessels are prohibited from anchoring, blocking, loitering, or impeding within this regulated area unless authorized by the Captain of the Port, or his designated representative. The Coast Guard may be assisted by other Federal, State, or local law enforcement agencies in enforcing this regulation.
This document is issued under authority of 5 U.S.C. 552 (a) and 33 CFR 100.1101. In addition to this document in the
If the Captain of the Port Sector San Diego or his designated representative determines that the regulated area need not be enforced for the full duration stated on this document, he or she may use a Broadcast Notice to Mariners or other communications coordinated with the event sponsor to grant general permission to enter the regulated area.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Final rule.
The Coast Guard is modifying the operating schedule of the Grosse Ile Toll Bridge (Bridge Road) at mile 8.8, over Trenton Channel at Grosse Ile, MI by adding permanent winter hours to the current regulation for the waterway. A review of the current regulation was requested by the Grosse Ile Bridge Company, the owner of the Grosse Ile Toll Bridge (Bridge Road).
This rule is effective April 26, 2017.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email Mr. Lee D. Soule, Bridge Management Specialist, Ninth Coast Guard District; telephone 216-902-6085, email
On December 16, 2016, we published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) entitled, Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Detroit River (Trenton Channel), Grosse Ile, MI, in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under the authority of 33 U.S.C. 499. The Grosse Ile Toll Bridge (Bridge Road) at mile 8.8, over Trenton Channel at Grosse Ile, MI is a center swing highway bridge that provides a vertical clearance of 10 feet and a horizontal clearance of 126 feet. The bridge provides a crossing between the mainland and Grosse Ile, an island in the Detroit River. The current regulation for Trenton Channel drawbridges (33 CFR 117.631) includes the operating schedules for the Grosse Ile Toll Bridge (Bridge Road) at mile 8.8 and the Wayne County Highway Bridge (Grosse Ile Parkway) Bridge at mile 5.6, both at Grosse Ile, MI. Only the Wayne County Highway Bridge currently has a permanent winter operating schedule that requires 12-hours advance notice from vessels to obtain a bridge opening from December 15 through March 15 each year. A review of the current operating schedule and regulation was requested by the Grosse Ile Bridge Company, owner of the Grosse Ile Toll Bridge (Bridge Road), to allow a permanent winter operating schedule that matches the Wayne County Highway Bridge.
Over the past two winter seasons, the commercial vessel traffic has been reduced significantly and waterway use through Grosse Ile Toll Bridge is equivalent to the volume and type of traffic that passes through the Wayne County Highway Bridge that has had permanent winter hours for approximately 10 years. Mariners will still be able to request bridge openings with 12-hours advance notice during times of light traffic volume on the river due to ice formation that typically prevents most vessel navigation in the channel from December 15 through March 15 each year. Additionally, Commander, Ninth Coast Guard District, has granted annual authorization to the owner/operator of the Grosse Ile Toll Bridge to assume the same schedule during the past 10 years under authority granted in 33 CFR 117.35.
The Coast Guard provided a 30 day comment period in the
The Coast Guard is modifying the operating schedule of the Grosse Ile Toll Bridge (Bridge Road) at mile 8.8, over Trenton Channel at Grosse Ile, MI by adding permanent winter hours and 12-hours advance notice requirement to the current regulation for the drawbridge. This rule will make the current regulation easier to understand by aligning the winter operating schedules and requirements for both drawbridges over the waterway from December 15 through March 15 each year. At all times both drawbridges over Trenton Channel will be required to open as soon as possible for public vessels of the United States, State or local government vessels used for public safety, and vessels in distress.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive Orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive Orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protesters.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, it has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
This regulatory action determination is based on the ability that vessels can still transit the bridge given advanced notice during the winter when ice typically prevents vessels from transiting the waterway and vessel traffic is at its lowest. Changing the current regulation will align drawbridge operating schedules throughout the waterway harmonizing the regulation and making it easier to understand for the mariners.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard did not receive any comments from the Small Business Administration on this rule. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the bridge may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section IV.A above this final rule would not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator because the bridge will open with advance notice.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
This rule calls for no new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guides the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a determination that this action is one of a category of actions which do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule simply promulgates the operating regulations or procedures for drawbridges. This action is categorically excluded from further review, under figure 2-1, paragraph (32)(e), of the Instruction.
Under figure 2-1, paragraph (32)(e), of the Instruction, an environmental analysis checklist and a categorical exclusion determination are not required for this rule.
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Bridges.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 117 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 499; 33 CFR 1.05-1; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a) The draw of the Grosse Ile Toll Bridge (Bridge Road), mile 8.8, at Grosse Ile, shall operate as follows:
(1) From March 16 through December 14—
(i) Between the hours of 7 a.m. and 11 p.m., seven days a week and holidays, the draw need open only from three minutes before to three minutes after the hour and half-hour for pleasure craft; for commercial vessels, during this period of time, the draw shall open on signal as soon as possible.
(ii) Between the hours of 11 p.m. and 7 a.m., the draw shall open on signal for pleasure craft and commercial vessels.
(2) From December 15 through March 15, no bridge tenders are required to be on duty at the bridge and the bridge shall open on signal if at least a twelve-hour advance notice is given.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of temporary deviation from drawbridge regulation; correction.
The Coast Guard is correcting a regulation that appeared in the
This corrected deviation is effective from 6 a.m. Thursday, April 20, 2017, through 9 p.m. on Friday, April 28, 2017.
If you have questions on this notice contact Donna Gagliano, Bridge Administration Branch, Coast Guard, telephone (504) 671-2128, email
1. In the
2. On the same page, in the third column, in the third paragraph, correct the
“For the purposes of this deviation, the bridge will be allowed to remain in the closed-to-navigation position from 6 a.m. to 1 p.m. each day. From 1 p.m. until 2:30 p.m. the bridge will be opened for the passage of vessels. The bridge will again be closed-to-navigation from 2:30 p.m. to 9 p.m. This schedule will occur for two (2) separate two-day periods, on April 20 through 21, and on April 27 through April 28, 2017. At all other times the bridge will operate in accordance with 33 CFR 117.5.”
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the I695 Bridge, at mile 1.0, across Curtis Creek, Baltimore, MD. This deviation is necessary to remove, repair, and replace the inner loop locking bar and couplings. This deviation allows the bridge to remain in the closed-to-navigation position.
The deviation is effective from 6 a.m. on April 10, 2017, through 7 p.m. on April 15, 2017.
The docket for this deviation, [USCG-2017-0225] is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Mr. Martin Bridges, Bridge Administration Branch Fifth District, Coast Guard, telephone 757-398-6422, email
The Maryland Transportation Authority, who owns and operates the I695 Bridge across Curtis Creek, mile 1.0, at Baltimore, MD, has requested a temporary deviation from the current operating regulation set out in 33 CFR 117.557, to remove, repair, and replace the inner loop locking bar and couplings.
Under this temporary deviation, the bridge will remain in the closed-to-navigation position from 6 a.m. April 10, 2017, to 7 p.m. on April 15, 2017. The drawbridge has two spans, each with double-leaf bascule draws, and both spans have a vertical clearance in the closed-to-navigation position of 58 feet above mean high water.
The I695 Bridge is used by Military vessels, recreational vessels, tug and barge traffic, fishing vessels, and small commercial vessels. The Coast Guard has carefully considered the nature and volume of vessel traffic on the waterway in publishing this temporary deviation.
Vessels able to pass through the bridge in the closed position may do so at anytime. The bridge spans will not be able to open in case of an emergency and there is no immediate alternate route for vessels to pass. The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterway through our Local Notice and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the New Jersey Coast Line's Brielle Viaduct across the Manasquan River, mile 0.9, at Point Pleasant, NJ. The deviation is necessary to facilitate maintenance and inspection of the rail road tracks. This deviation allows the bridge to remain in the closed-to-navigation position.
This deviation is effective from 2 a.m. on April 1, 2017, through 7 p.m. on April 9, 2017.
The docket for this deviation, [USCG-2017-0228] is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Mr. Mickey Sanders, Bridge Administration Branch Fifth District, Coast Guard; telephone (757) 398-6587, email
The New Jersey Transit, owner and operator of the New Jersey Coast Line's Brielle Viaduct across the Manasquan River, mile 0.9, at Point Pleasant, NJ, has requested a temporary deviation from the current operating schedule to accommodate a routine maintenance and inspection of the rail road tracks. The bridge has a vertical clearance of 3 feet above mean high water (MHW) in the closed position.
The current operating schedule is set out in 33 CFR 117.5. Under this temporary deviation, the bridge will be maintained in the closed-to-navigation position from 2 a.m. until 7 p.m. from April 1, 2017, through April 9, 2017. During the closure periods, the bridge will open on signal if at least 15 minutes notice is given. The bridge will open on signal at all other times.
The Manasquan River is used by a variety of vessels including small commercial vessels, recreational vessels and tug and barge traffic. The Coast Guard has carefully considered the nature and volume of vessel traffic on the waterway in publishing this temporary deviation.
Vessels able to pass through the bridge in the closed position may do so at any time. The bridge will be able to open for emergencies. The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterway through our Local and Broadcast Notice to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by this temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of this effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Postal Service
Final rule; technical correction.
The Postal Service is making a technical correction to its regulations concerning the Freedom of Information Act.
Natalie A. Bonanno, Chief Counsel, Federal Compliance,
On November 30, 2016 (81 FR 86270), the Postal Service published its revised Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) regulations to comply with the FOIA Improvement Act of 2016 (FOIAIA), effective December 27, 2016. In response to public comments, the Postal
Currently, in defining what records are excluded from the requirements of the FOIA, and thus should not be considered responsive to a request for disclosure, § 265.4(a) cites both 5 U.S.C. 552(c) and 39 U.S.C. 410(c). This citation is in error, because section 410(c) is an exempting statute, not an exclusionary one. This amendment corrects that error.
Administrative practice and procedure, Courts, Freedom of information, Government employees.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Postal Service amends 39 CFR part 265 as follows:
5 U.S.C. 552; 5 U.S.C. App. 3; 39 U.S.C. 401, 403, 410, 1001, 2601; Pub. L. 114-185.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking final action to approve a source-specific revision to the Arizona state implementation plan that addresses the best available retrofit technology requirements for the Cholla Power Plant (Cholla). The EPA finds that the state implementation plan revision fulfills the requirements of the Clean Air Act and the EPA's Regional Haze Rule. In conjunction with this final approval, the EPA is taking final action to withdraw the federal implementation plan provisions applicable to Cholla. This also constitutes our action to address petitions for reconsideration granted by the EPA related to Cholla.
This rule is effective on April 26, 2017.
The EPA has established a docket for this action, identified by Docket ID Number EPA-R09-OAR-2016-0292. The index to the docket is available electronically at
Anita Lee, (415) 972-3958, or by email at
Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean the EPA.
On July 19, 2016, the EPA proposed to approve the source-specific regional haze state implementation plan (SIP) revision for the Cholla Power Plant (“Cholla SIP Revision”) submitted to the EPA by the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality (ADEQ).
This section provides a brief overview of the statutory and regulatory background for this action. Please refer to the proposed rule for additional discussion of the visibility protection provisions of the Clean Air Act (CAA or “Act”) and the Regional Haze Rule (RHR), and the EPA's evaluation of the regional haze SIP revision for Cholla.
In section 169A of the 1977 Amendments to the CAA, Congress created a program to protect visibility in the nation's national parks and wilderness areas. This section of the CAA established as a national goal the “prevention of any future, and the remedying of any existing, impairment of visibility in mandatory Class I Federal areas which impairment results from manmade air pollution,” and directed states to evaluate the best available retrofit technology (BART) to address visibility impairment from certain categories of major stationary sources built between 1962 and 1977 (known as “BART-eligible” sources).
In 1999, the EPA promulgated the RHR that required states to, among other things, conduct an analysis to determine BART for each BART-eligible source that may be anticipated to cause or contribute to visibility impairment in a Class I area.
Cholla consists of four coal-fired electric generating units with a total plant-wide generating capacity of 1150 MW. Unit 1 is a 126 MW boiler that is not BART-eligible. Unit 2 (272 MW), Unit 3 (272 MW), and Unit 4 (410 MW) are tangentially-fired dry bottom boilers that are BART-eligible. Units 1, 2, and 3 are owned and operated by Arizona Public Service Company (APS). Unit 4 is owned by PacificCorp and operated by APS.
On February 28, 2011, ADEQ submitted a regional haze SIP under section 308 of the RHR to the EPA (“2011 RH SIP”). This submittal included, among other things, BART analyses and determinations for Cholla Units 2, 3, and 4 for oxides of nitrogen (NO
On January 15, 2015, APS and PacifiCorp submitted an “Application for Significant Permit Revision and Five-Factor BART Reassessment for Cholla” to ADEQ. APS and PacifiCorp committed to take specific actions in lieu of the FIP requirements for Cholla and requested that ADEQ conduct a revised BART analysis and determination (“BART Reassessment”) and submit it to the EPA as a revision to the Arizona RH SIP. Specifically, APS and PacifiCorp committed to (1) permanently close Cholla Unit 2 by April 1, 2016, (2) continue to operate LNB+SOFA on Units 3 and 4, and (3) by April 30, 2025, permanently cease burning coal at both units with the option to convert both units to enable combustion of pipeline-quality natural gas by July 31, 2025, with an annual average capacity factor of less than or equal to 20 percent.
On October 22, 2015, ADEQ submitted to the EPA the Cholla SIP Revision that incorporates the Cholla BART Reassessment. The Cholla SIP Revision consists of a revised BART analysis and determination for NO
The EPA's proposed action on the Cholla SIP Revision includes a comprehensive summary of ADEQ's BART Reassessment for Cholla Units 3 and 4, and the EPA's evaluation of ADEQ's submittal. In this section, we provide a brief summary of the EPA's evaluation of the Cholla SIP Revision. Please see the proposed rule for a detailed discussion of ADEQ's analysis and the EPA's evaluation of it.
In our evaluation of Cholla Unit 2, we noted that the permanent retirement date of April 1, 2016, in the Cholla SIP Revision coincides with the compliance deadlines for SO
In our evaluation of Units 3 and 4, we found that ADEQ's BART Reassessment was consistent with the requirements of the CAA, the RHR, and the BART Guidelines and that it addressed the flaws that were the bases for our disapproval of the BART analysis for Cholla. Specifically, in its 2011 RH SIP,
In its 2011 RH SIP, ADEQ considered the visibility benefits of controls on only one unit at a time and overlooked significant benefits at the multiple Class I areas, thereby understating and not giving appropriate consideration to the full visibility benefits of the candidate controls. In its BART Reassessment for Cholla, based on modeling performed by APS and PacifiCorp, ADEQ evaluated the visibility impacts and potential improvements from all units together and also considered potential improvements at all 13 Class I areas within 300 kilometers of Cholla.
As discussed in our proposed rulemaking, the EPA also proposed to find that ADEQ appropriately considered and weighed the five BART factors in determining BART for Cholla. We stated that it was reasonable for ADEQ to conclude that the costs of SCR and selective noncatalytic reduction (SNCR) were not warranted by the visibility benefits. Specifically, we noted that we were not aware of any instance in which the EPA had determined SCR or SNCR to be BART where the average and incremental cost-effectiveness of those controls equaled or exceeded the average and incremental cost-effectiveness of those controls for Cholla Units 3 and 4. Nor were we aware of any instance in which the EPA disapproved a state's BART determination that rejected SCR or SNCR as BART based on average and incremental cost-effectiveness similar to those for Cholla Units 3 and 4. In addition, although we noted that the visibility benefits of SCR are significant, and the visibility benefits of SNCR are not insignificant, we determined that it was reasonable for ADEQ to determine that the benefits were not warranted given the costs of SCR and SNCR. Moreover, after approximately 8 years, when Units 3 and 4 cease coal combustion permanently and are either closed or converted to natural gas, the benefits of SCR and SNCR would be negligible.
Finally, in our proposed rulemaking, we evaluated the Cholla SIP Revision with respect to certain other requirements of the CAA and proposed to find that it would not interfere with attainment of the national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS), reasonable further progress, or any other applicable requirement of the CAA. We further noted that the enforceable emission limitations and the requirements for monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting promulgated in the FIP for Cholla are included in the operating permit revision for Cholla that ADEQ included with its Cholla SIP Revision. Therefore, these requirements will remain federally enforceable when the Cholla SIP Revision is approved and the FIP provisions are withdrawn. Based on our evaluation of the Cholla SIP Revision, we proposed to approve the SIP revision, withdraw the FIP provisions, and to find that withdrawal of the FIP would constitute our action on the petitions for reconsideration submitted by APS and PacifiCorp.
We received four comment letters from the following organizations prior to the close of the comment period on September 2, 2016: (1) APS, (2) PacifiCorp, (3) Environmental Defense Fund and Western Resource Advocates, and (4) Earthjustice on behalf of National Parks Conservation Association and Sierra Club.
In addition to its BART determination for Cholla Units 3 and 4, ADEQ also included a permit revision for Cholla in its SIP submittal. The permit revision includes the 0.22 lb/MMBtu emission limitation that would apply until the permanent cessation of coal combustion in Units 3 and 4, and an emission limitation of 0.08 lb/MMBtu that would apply if the units are converted to natural gas. The commenter appears to have misconstrued these provisions related to future operation in 2025 to be part of ADEQ's BART determination. We consider the permit requirements to cease coal combustion in 2025 and comply with new emission limitations if Units 3 and 4 are converted to natural gas to be measures that strengthen the Cholla SIP Revision. The BART
The Cholla SIP Revision also requires Cholla Units 3 and 4 to comply with the BART emission limit prior to the end of the first planning period in 2018. We further note that APS and PacifiCorp have already installed LNB+SOFA on Cholla Units 3 and 4.
We also disagree with the commenter's assertion that a BART determination that has been in place for over 3 years cannot be revised when a new material fact has arisen,
Finally, as discussed elsewhere in this final rule, we disagree with the comment asserting that our action is unlawful. Based on our evaluation of the Cholla SIP Revision, we have determined that ADEQ conducted a BART analysis for Cholla that meets the requirements of the CAA, the RHR, and the BART Guidelines. Therefore, we disagree that the BART determination promulgated in the FIP should remain in place.
We note that this comment does not accurately distinguish between the EPA's cost analysis and the cost analysis by ADEQ. The only cost analysis that the EPA conducted directly was in support of the 2012 FIP establishing a BART emission limit for Cholla achievable with the installation and operation of SCR. The EPA's cost analysis was based on 20 years of operation because, at that time, there was no commitment from the facility owners that Cholla would cease coal combustion in the future. Therefore, although the commenter refers to the cost analysis discussed in the proposed rule as “the EPA's cost analysis,” the comment is actually about ADEQ's cost analysis for SNCR. For purposes of its BART Reassessment, ADEQ adapted the EPA's cost analysis from 2012 but
In its response to a similar comment made to ADEQ during the public comment period for the Cholla SIP Revision, ADEQ argued that it appropriately calculated the cost-effectiveness of SNCR based on a 20-year life, with 8 years of operation on coal, and 12 years of operation on natural gas, because it was reasonable to presume that if SNCR were required, the units would be required to operate for 20 years or more to recoup the investment.
However, we further note that the assertion in the comment that ADEQ erred because it did not evaluate the cost-effectiveness of SNCR based on an 8-year life is incorrect. In its response to comments on the Cholla BART Reassessment, ADEQ stated that if it calculated the cost-effectiveness of SNCR based on a shorter (
The EPA considered ADEQ's response to the comment and continues to find that ADEQ's BART Reassessment for Cholla Units 3 and 4, even when the cost-effectiveness for SNCR is evaluated for an 8-year period, is consistent with the BART Guidelines and approvable.
The commenter also refers to three facilities, Healy Unit 1, Colorado Energy Nations Company (CENC) Unit 5, and Craig Unit 3, to highlight other average and incremental cost-effectiveness values that have been determined to be reasonable for BART or reasonable progress. We considered whether these comparisons support a conclusion that ADEQ was unreasonable in rejecting SNCR based on the average ($2,234 to $2,342 per ton of NO
The average cost effectiveness values for the three facilities cited in the comment range from $3,526 to $4,887 per ton of NO
Furthermore, BART determinations are emission limitations rather than control technology determinations. For the three units cited by the commenter, the final BART or reasonable progress emission limits achievable with SNCR were 0.20 lb/MMBtu for Healy Unit 1, 0.19 lb/MMBtu for CENC Unit 5, and 0.28 lb/MMBtu for Craig Unit 3.
Although a comparison of cost-effectiveness values from other facilities is generally a useful exercise to assess the reasonableness of particular costs, the examples in the comment do not provide evidence to suggest that ADEQ's weighing of the cost-effectiveness of SNCR on Cholla Units 3 and 4 was unreasonable. In addition, cost-effectiveness is not the only factor in determining BART; each BART determination must be made on a case-by-case basis considering the relevant facts in each case. The CAA and the RHR provide flexibility to states in deciding how the five factors are weighed in determining BART. If the EPA were reassessing BART for Cholla Units 3 and 4 in a FIP action, the EPA might have weighed the factors differently than ADEQ and reached a different conclusion. However, the EPA has evaluated ADEQ's justification for rejecting SNCR based on its consideration of cost-effectiveness and the visibility improvements from SNCR in comparison to LNB+SOFA. We consider ADEQ's BART determination for Cholla Units 3 and 4 to be consistent with the BART Guidelines and a reasonable use of its discretion in weighing the BART factors.
For example, a State can use the CALPUFF model to predict visibility impacts from an EGU in examining the option to control NO
The EPA's regulations allow states to compare incremental cost-effectiveness and incremental visibility improvements between different technologies. The incremental visibility benefit is one way to compare the visibility improvements from various controls. Other states and the EPA have considered incremental visibility improvements in many BART determinations. For this BART determination, ADEQ weighed the small incremental visibility improvement against the incremental cost-effectiveness. Based on its weighing of these factors, ADEQ provided a reasoned justification for selecting LNB+SOFA as BART for Cholla Units 3 and 4, and properly exercised its discretion in its process for weighing the small visibility improvement against the cost-effectiveness to reject SCR and SNCR.
The commenter suggests that the EPA should have evaluated other NO
The commenter also suggests that the EPA (again, the commenter mistakenly refers to the EPA rather than ADEQ) should have evaluated additional operational restrictions on Cholla Units 3 and 4,
The commenter also suggests that the EPA (again, the commenter mistakenly refers to the EPA rather than ADEQ) should have evaluated SNCR with in-duct SCR catalysts, or a combination of SNCR with earlier retirement, repowering, or capacity restrictions. ADEQ was not required to consider earlier retirement, repowering, or capacity restrictions to be consistent with the BART Guidelines, and the combination of SNCR with those measures does not change our determination. Regarding SNCR combined with in-duct SCR catalysts, the commenter stated that in-duct SCR catalysts can be installed at lower cost than conventional SCR. Although the EPA is aware that the technologies for hybrid SNCR combined with in-duct SCR systems have been around since the 1990s, we are not aware of the widespread use of these hybrid systems on comparably-sized boilers, and the commenter did not provide any supporting data or information of sufficient specificity to indicate that this technology should have been considered under BART or that it would have changed ADEQ's BART determination.
In the Cholla SIP Revision, ADEQ conducted a BART Reassessment based on the new facts that arose following the EPA's FIP for Cholla. In 2015, APS and PacifiCorp committed to several operational changes at Cholla that affect specific factors in the five-factor BART analysis, namely, the remaining useful
Although we agree with the commenter that the RHR and BART Guidelines do not require BART determinations to align with a utility's lowest-cost option, we also note that this action is not based on the SIP revision's being the lowest-cost approach. If the FIP were to remain in place, APS would be free (with respect to CAA requirements) to cease coal combustion as a way to comply with the SCR-based BART emission limit, based on its own considerations.
The EPA agrees that NO
Although a lower SO
In modeling for the Cholla SIP Revision, ADEQ had to choose whether to include the non-BART-eligible Unit 1 emissions that do not vary across the control scenarios for Units 3 and 4. This choice is not addressed by the BART Guidelines. Some BART analyses modeled individual units separately, whereas other BART analyses modeled all units together. Unit 1 is not part of the natural background, but it is part of the facility's emissions. The overall BART determination encompasses an understanding of the visibility impacts, including the particular procedures followed in modeling them. Several considerations suggest that including all units in an analysis is a reasonable choice. Including Unit 1 in the modeling provides a more realistic estimate of overall visibility impacts for the facility as a whole, and more realistically accounts for the chemistry that Units 3 and 4 plumes experience. The Unit 1 emissions may potentially shift the chemistry and may affect the formation of visibility-affecting particulate matter from Unit 3 and 4 emissions, for example as the NO
In summary, although we agree with the comment that inclusion of Unit 1 in the visibility modeling decreases the modeled visibility benefits of controls on Units 3 and 4, the effect on the estimated visibility benefits of controls is small, and the BART Guidelines do not speak directly to this question. Therefore, the EPA has determined that ADEQ has reasonably exercised its discretion to include Unit 1 in its modeling analysis.
For example, a State can use the CALPUFF model to predict visibility impacts from an EGU in examining the option to control NO
The EPA's regulations allow states to compare incremental visibility improvements between different technologies. The incremental visibility benefit is one way to compare the visibility improvements from various controls. For this BART determination, ADEQ weighed the small incremental visibility improvement against the incremental cost-effectiveness, as well as the timing and short duration of this benefit. Based on its weighing of these factors, ADEQ provided a reasoned justification for selecting LNB+SOFA as BART for Cholla Units 3 and 4. We have concluded that ADEQ properly exercised its discretion in its process for weighing the small visibility improvement against the cost-effectiveness to reject SCR and SNCR.
The commenter notes that even the incremental benefit of SNCR relative to LNB/SOFA is comparable to benefits seen in previous BART assessments, at least for the Class I area with the greatest impact. Visibility is only one of the five factors in a BART assessment, and in particular must be considered together with the anticipated costs of controls. As stated previously, the EPA's role is to decide whether the state's SIP is approvable by evaluating if the Cholla SIP Revision meets the requirements of the CAA, the RHR, and the BART Guidelines. In undertaking such a review, the EPA does not usurp a state's authority but ensures that such authority is reasonably exercised. The CAA and the RHR provide flexibility to the state in deciding how the factors in the analysis are weighed. We have concluded that ADEQ properly exercised its discretion in its process for weighing the small visibility improvement against the cost-effectiveness to reject SCR and SNCR.
The commenter argued that the EPA's proposed approval of the Cholla SIP Revision is contrary to the requirements of CAA section 110(l). The commenter cited to case law (identified in our response below) to support its interpretation that additional air emissions or less stringent requirements occurring as a result of a SIP revision
According to EPA, the proposal complies with section 110(
The CAA section 110(l) states in relevant part: “The Administrator shall not approve a revision of a plan if the revision would interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment and reasonable further progress (as defined in section 7501 of this title), and any other applicable requirement of this chapter.” This language does not prohibit every SIP revision that weakens the existing plan's requirements.
The cases cited by the commenter fail to support the commenter's view. In
The other cases cited by the commenter also fail to support the commenter's interpretation. In
The statute prohibits approval of a revision that “would interfere” with an applicable requirement. Petitioner's reading of the phrase would substitute “could” for “would.” On this point it seems fairly clear that Congress did not intend that the EPA reject each and every SIP revision that presents some remote possibility for interference.
In
The critical question under section 110(l) is not whether the SIP revision will cause an increase in actual emissions, it is whether that increase in actual emissions will interfere with attainment of the NAAQS or RFP, or if the SIP revision interferes with any other applicable requirement of the CAA. The fact that actual emissions will increase means that the EPA's analysis must include an evaluation of how that emissions increase affects attainment and RFP and other applicable requirements of the CAA.
The EPA analyzed the requirements of section 110(l) in proposing to approve the Cholla SIP revision.
Thus, the Arizona SIP does not currently rely on emission limitations at Cholla to satisfy any attainment or RFP requirements. Given that the Cholla SIP Revision will result in equivalent or lower emissions of NO
The comment letter does not appear to challenge the EPA's analysis that the SIP revision does not interfere with attainment or RFP for the reasons discussed above, but rather simply asserts that any increase in emissions automatically violates section 110(l).
CAA section 110(l) also requires the EPA to evaluate if the SIP revision will interfere with “any other applicable requirement of this chapter.” The EPA's proposal to approve the Cholla SIP Revision also carefully analyzed this requirement.
The commenter challenges our proposed finding that the SIP revision meets the requirements for BART. Our proposal concluded that the Cholla SIP Revision is consistent with BART, and therefore does not interfere with an applicable requirement of the CAA and the RHR.
Furthermore, the Cholla SIP Revision would result in greater visibility improvement than the existing SIP and FIP requirements beginning in 2026, which is consistent with the long term national goal of restoring natural visibility conditions at Class I areas.
The commenter construes this statement incorrectly, asserting that this statement means the EPA is justifying compliance with section 110(l) by crediting later emission reductions to offset earlier emission increases. As noted earlier, section 110(l) does not prohibit approving a SIP revision that allows an increase in actual emissions provided it does not interfere with attainment of the NAAQS, RFP, or any other applicable requirement. All of those criteria have been met for the reasons discussed above. The EPA, however, noted that the substantial emissions reductions from the Cholla SIP Revision—both those occurring from the shutdown of Unit 2 in 2016 and additional NO
For the reasons discussed above, the EPA disagrees with the commenter that our approval of the Cholla SIP revision is inconsistent with CAA section 110(l).
As discussed elsewhere in this final rule, we disagree with the commenter's characterization that the Cholla SIP Revision is delaying the compliance deadline for BART beyond December 5, 2017. We are approving ADEQ's determination for Cholla Units 3 and 4 that BART is the use of LNB+SOFA. The emission limitations associated with this BART determination will become effective on April 26, 2017.
Finally, although the Cholla SIP Revision will result in greater NO
For the reasons described above, the EPA is taking final action to approve the Cholla SIP Revision. Because this approval fills the gap in the Arizona RH SIP that was left by the EPA's prior partial disapproval with respect to Cholla, we are also taking final action to withdraw the provisions of the FIP that applied to Cholla. This final action also constitutes our action on the petitions for reconsideration submitted by APS and PacifiCorp on the FIP.
As shown in Tables 6 and 7 of the proposed rule, the Cholla SIP Revision will result in lower emissions of both PM
In this rule, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with the requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference “Significant Permit Revision No. 61713 to Operating Permit No. 53399” issued by ADEQ on October 16, 2015. Therefore, these materials have been approved by the EPA for inclusion in the SIP, have been incorporated by reference by the EPA into that plan, are fully federally enforceable under sections 110 and 113 of the CAA as of the effective date of this final rule, and will be incorporated by reference by the Director of the
Additional information about these statutes and Executive Orders can be found at
This action is not a significant regulatory action and was therefore not submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review. This rule applies to only one facility and is therefore not a rule of general applicability.
This action does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the PRA. Burden is defined at 5 CFR 1320.3(b).
I certify that this final action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This action will not impose any requirements on small entities. Firms primarily engaged in the generation, transmission, and/or distribution of electric energy for sale are small if, including affiliates, the total electric output for the preceding fiscal year did not exceed 4 million megawatt hours. The two owners of Cholla, APS and PacifiCorp, exceed this threshold.
This action does not contain any unfunded mandate as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. This action does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. Accordingly, no additional costs to State, local, or tribal governments, or to the private sector, will result from this action.
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
This action does not have tribal implications, as specified in Executive Order 13175, because the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction, and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
The EPA interprets Executive Order 13045 as applying only to those regulatory actions that concern environmental health or safety risks that the EPA has reason to believe may disproportionately affect children, per the definition of “covered regulatory action” in section 2-202 of the Executive Order. This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
This rulemaking does not involve technical standards.
The EPA believes the human health or environmental risk addressed by this action will not have potentially disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority, low-income or indigenous populations. Although this final action to approve the Cholla SIP Revision will result in greater NO
This rule is exempt from the CRA because it is a rule of particular applicably. EPA is not required to submit a rule report regarding this action under section 801 because this is a rule of particular applicability that only applies to a single named facility.
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by May 26, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this rule for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements (see section 307(b)(2)).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur dioxide, Visibility.
Part 52, chapter I, title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
The additions read as follows:
(d) * * *
(e) * * *
(f) * * *
(1)
(2)
(3)
(ii) [Reserved]
(4)
(ii) The owners/operators of each unit subject to this paragraph (f) shall comply with the applicable PM
(5)
(B) The owner/operator of each unit shall comply with the quality assurance procedures for CEMS found in 40 CFR part 75. In addition to these 40 CFR part 75 requirements, relative accuracy test audits shall be calculated for both the NO
(ii)
(B)
(C) If a valid NO
(iii)
(B) [Reserved]
(C) If a valid SO
(D) If both a valid inlet and outlet SO
(10)
(ii)
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; inseason adjustment.
This action increases the Gulf of Maine (GOM) cod trip limit for Northeast multispecies common pool small vessel category vessels for the remainder of the 2016 fishing year. This increase corrects a previous action that did not raise the small vessel category trip limit. Increasing the possession and trip limits is intended to provide the common pool fishery with additional fishing opportunities through the end of the fishing year.
The trip limit increase is effective March 22, 2017, through April 30, 2017.
Spencer Talmage, Fishery Management Specialist, 978-281-9232.
The regulations at § 648.86(o) authorize the Regional Administrator to adjust the possession and trip limits for common pool vessels in order to help prevent the overharvest or underharvest of the common pool quotas.
On March 16, 2017, the common pool Gulf of Maine (GOM) cod and haddock trip limits were increased (82 FR 14478, March 21, 2017). In this action, we incorrectly stated that the small vessel category trip limit of GOM cod was unchanged. However, this trip limit should have increased from 25 lb (11.34 kg) per trip to 100 lb (45.36 kg) per trip. To correct this error and allow the common pool fishery to catch more of its quota for GOM cod, effective March 22, 2017, the trip limit of GOM cod for
Weekly quota monitoring reports for the common pool fishery can be found on our Web site at:
This action is required by 50 CFR part 648 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA, finds good cause pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) and 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3) to waive prior notice and the opportunity for public comment and the 30-day delayed effectiveness period because it would be impracticable and contrary to the public interest.
The regulations at § 648.86(o) authorize the Regional Administrator to adjust the Northeast multispecies possession and trip limits for common pool vessels in order to help prevent the overharvest or underharvest of the pertinent common pool quotas. The error in a recent inseason action to increase the GOM cod and haddock trip limits was only recently discovered. As a result, the time necessary to provide for prior notice and comment, and a 30-day delay in effectiveness, would prevent NMFS from implementing the necessary trip limit correction in a timely manner, which could prevent the fishery from achieving the OY, and cause negative economic impacts to the common pool fishery.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Final rule.
NMFS approves and implements through regulations the measures included in Framework Adjustment 28 to the Atlantic Sea Scallop Fishery Management Plan, which the New England Fishery Management Council adopted and submitted to NMFS for approval. The purpose of Framework 28 is to prevent overfishing, improve yield-per-recruit, and improve the overall management of the Atlantic sea scallop fishery. Framework 28: Sets specifications for the scallop fishery for fishing year 2017; revises the way we allocate catch to the limited access general category individual fishing quota fleet to reflect the spatial management of the scallop fishery; and implements a 50-bushel shell stock possession limit for limited access vessels inshore of the days-at-sea demarcation line north of 42° 20′ N. lat.
Effective March 23, 2017.
The Council developed an environmental assessment (EA) for this action that describes the action and other considered alternatives and provides a thorough analysis of the impacts of these measures. Copies of the Framework, the EA, and the Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA), are available upon request from Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council, 50 Water Street, Newburyport, MA 01950. The EA/IRFA is also accessible via the Internet at:
Copies of the small entity compliance guide are available from John K. Bullard, Regional Administrator, NMFS, Greater Atlantic Regional Fisheries Office, 55 Great Republic Drive, Gloucester, MA 01930-2298, or available on the internet at:
Travis Ford, Fishery Policy Analyst, 978-281-9233.
The Council adopted Framework 28 on November 17, 2016, and submitted a draft of the framework to NMFS on December 21, 2016, that presented Council recommended measures, rationale, impacts for review, and a draft EA. NMFS published a proposed rule, including a reference on how to obtain the framework and the draft final EA, for approving and implementing Framework 28 on January 19, 2017 (82 FR 6472). The proposed rule included a 15-day public comment period that closed on February 7, 2017. The Council submitted a final EA to NMFS on March 10, 2017, for approval. This annual action includes catch, effort, and quota allocations and adjustments to the rotational area management program for fishing year 2017. Framework 28 specifies measures for fishing year 2017, and includes fishing year 2018 measures that will go into place as a default should the next specifications-setting framework be delayed beyond the start of fishing year 2018. NMFS has approved all of the measures recommended by the Council and described below. The Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act) permits NMFS to approve, partially approve, or disapprove measures proposed by the Council based only on whether the measures are consistent with the fishery management plan, the Magnuson-Stevens Act and its National Standards, and other applicable law. We must defer to the Council's policy choices unless there is a clear inconsistency with the law or the FMP. Details concerning the development of these measures were contained in the preamble of the proposed rule and are not repeated here.
Table 1 outlines the scallop fishery catch limits derived from the ABC values and the projected landings of the fleet.
This action deducts 1.25 million lb (567 mt) of scallops annually for 2017 and 2018 from the ABC and sets it aside as the Scallop RSA to fund scallop research and to compensate participating vessels through the sale of scallops harvested under RSA projects. As of March 1, 2017, this set-aside has been available for harvest by RSA-funded project in the open area. Framework 28 allows RSA to be harvested from the Mid-Atlantic Access Area (MAAA), but would prevent RSA harvesting from access areas under 2018 default measures. Framework 28 also clarifies that RSA cannot be harvested from the Northern Gulf of Maine (NGOM) management area. Of this 1.25 million lb (567 mt) allocation, NMFS has already allocated 63,204 lb (28.7 mt) to previously-funded multi-year projects as part of the 2016 RSA awards process. NMFS reviewed proposals submitted for consideration of 2017 RSA awards and announced project selections on March 17, 2017. Details on the 2017 RSA awards can be found on our Web site here:
This action also sets aside 1 percent of the ABC for the industry-funded observer program to help defray the cost to scallop vessels that carry an observer. The observer set-asides for fishing years 2017 and 2018 are 467 mt and 431 mt, respectively. In fishing year 2017, the compensation rates for limited access vessels in open areas fishing under days-at-sea (DAS) is 0.12 DAS per DAS fished. For access area trips, the compensation rate is 200 lb (91 kg), in addition to the vessel's possession limit for the trip for each day or part of a day an observer is onboard. LAGC IFQ vessels may possess an additional 200 lb (91 kg) per trip in open areas when carrying an observer. NMFS may adjust the compensation rate throughout the fishing year, depending on how quickly the fleets are using the set aside. The Council may adjust the 2018 observer set-aside through its development non-default measures for 2018.
This action implements vessel-specific DAS allocations for each of the three limited access scallop DAS permit categories (
For fishing year 2017, Framework 28 keeps the MAAA open as an access area and also opens the Nantucket Lightship Access Area (NLS) and Closed Area 2 Access Area (CA2). In addition, this action opens the Elephant Trunk Closed Area and allows full-time vessels to choose to fish up to 18,000 lb (8,165 kg) in the Elephant Trunk area or they may choose to fish this allocation in the MAAA. Because of the flexible trip option for the Elephant Trunk area, this action renames the area the Elephant Trunk Flex Access Area (ETFA) for 2017. Framework 28 also implements a seasonal closure of the ETFA, from July 1 through September 30, to help reduce the discard mortality of small scallops during the warmest months of the year. For the 2018 fishing year, full-time limited access vessels will be allocated 18,000 lb (8,165 kg) in the MAAA only with a trip possession limit of 18,000 lb (8,165 kg) per trip.
Table 3 outlines the limited access full-time allocations for all of the access areas, which could be taken in as many trips as needed, so long as the vessels do not exceed the possession limit (also in Table 3) on each trip.
For the 2017 fishing year only, a part-time limited access vessel is allocated a total of 28,800 lb (13,064 kg) with a trip possession limit of 14,400 lb per trip (6,532 kg per trip). Of the 28,800-lb (13,064-kg) allocation, 14,400 lb (6,532 kg) is allocated exclusively to the MAAA. The remaining 14,400 lb (6,532 kg) may be harvested and landed either from the MAAA or any one other available access area, (CA2, NLS, or ETFA). However, if a vessel chooses to harvest and land the remaining 14,400 lb (6,532 kg) from the ETFA and does not harvest up to the full allocation on a trip, it is only allowed to land the remaining pounds either from the ETFA or the MAAA. For the 2018 fishing year, part-time limited access vessels will be allocated 14,400 lb (6,532 kg) in the MAAA only with a trip possession limit of 14,400 lb per trip (6,532 kg per trip).
For the 2017 fishing year only, an occasional limited access vessel is allocated 6,000 lb (2,722 kg) with a trip possession limit of 6,000 lb per trip (2,722 kg per trip). Occasional vessels are able to harvest 6,000 lb (2,722 kg) allocation from only one available access area (CA2, NLS, MAAA, or ETFA). For the 2018 fishing year, occasional limited access vessels are allocated 6,000 lb (2,722 kg) in the MAAA only with a trip possession limit of 6,000 lb per trip (2,722 kg per trip).
This action clarifies that the owner of a vessel issued a limited access scallop permit may exchange unharvested scallop pounds allocated into one access area for another vessel's unharvested scallop pounds allocated into another access area. These exchanges may only be made for the amount of the current trip possession limit (full-time: 18,000-lb (8,165-kg) and part-time: 14,400 lb (6,532 kg)). In addition, these exchanges may be made only between vessels with the same permit category: A full-time vessel may not exchange allocations with a part-time vessel, and vice versa.
In fishing year 2017, each limited access full-time vessel will be allocated 18,000 lb (8,165 kg) that may be landed from either the ETFA or the MAAA (flex allocation). Such flex allocation may be exchanged in full only for another access area allocation, but only the flex allocation could be landed from the ETFA. For example, if a Vessel A exchanges 18,000 lb (8,165 kg) of flex allocation for 18,000 lb (8,165 kg) of MAAA allocation with Vessel B, Vessel A would no longer be allowed to land allocation from the ETFA based on its MAAA allocation, but Vessel B could land up to 36,000 lb (16,330 kg) from the ETFA and/or the MAAA, combined.
This action extends the existing prohibition on possessing greater than 50-bushels of shell stock inshore of the DAS demarcation line for limited access vessels to waters north of 42° 20' N. lat. to prevent limited access vessels from shucking scallops off the DAS clock. This prohibition is now fishery-wide.
This action prohibits vessels participating in RSA projects from harvesting RSA compensation from CA2, NLS, and ETFA during the 2017 fishing year to control F, reduce impacts on flatfish, and reduce impacts on high densities of scallops with growth potential. Further, this action clarifies that the harvest of RSA compensation from the NGOM is prohibited. During the 2017 fishing year, all RSA compensation fishing must take place in either the open area or the MAAA. In addition, Framework 28 prohibits the harvest of RSA from any access areas under default 2018 measures. At the start of 2018, RSA compensation may only be harvested from the open area. The Council may re-evaluate this measure in the action that would set final 2018 specifications.
This rule includes a revision to the regulatory text to address a typographical error in the regulations. NMFS proposes this change consistent with section 305(d) of the MSA which provides that the Secretary of Commerce may promulgate regulations necessary to ensure that amendments to an FMP are carried out in accordance with the FMP and the MSA. This revision corrects the error at § 648.14(i)(4)(i)(G).
We received four comments on the proposed rule during the public comment period; three in support of the action and one against specific measures. An IFQ vessel owner, Lund's Fisheries Incorporated, and the Fisheries Survival Fund (FSF) (which represents a majority of the limited access scallop fleet) wrote in support of the rule. The following summarizes the issues raised in the comments and NMFS's responses.
We corrected a typographical error at § 648.60(b) to better define the Elephant Trunk Flex Scallop Rotational Area, and we included changes to the regulatory text at § 648.59(g)(2) to clarify that LAGC IFQ vessels may use trawl gear in access areas west of 72°30′ W. long.
Pursuant to section 304(b)(1)(A) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, the NMFS Assistant Administrator has determined that this final rule is consistent with the FMP, other provisions of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, the ESA, and other applicable law.
OMB has determined that this rule is not significant pursuant to E.O. 12866.
This final rule does not contain policies with federalism or “takings” implications, as those terms are defined in E.O. 13132 and E.O. 12630, respectively.
This action does not contain any collection-of-information requirements subject the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA).
The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries has determined that the need to implement these measures in an expedited manner, in order to help achieve conservation objectives for the scallop fishery and certain fish stocks, and to relieve other restrictions on the scallop fleet, constitutes good cause, under authority contained in 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(1) and (3), to waive the 30-day delay in effectiveness and to make Framework 28 final measures effective upon filing for public inspection in the
Framework 28 will implement slightly reduced DAS allocations to the limited access fleet and significantly reduced allocation (44 percent) to the LAGC IFQ fleet. Ultimately, the scallop industry will be subject to these lower allocations. Therefore, delaying the implementation of these measures for 30 days would be contrary to the public interest because it would cause confusion for the fishing year. In addition, these lower allocations were set to reduce F in the fishery and implementing them as soon as possible will have conservation benefits to the scallop resource.
Further, this action extends the 50-bushel possession limit of in-shell scallops for limited access vessels inshore of the DAS demarcation line north of 42°20′ N. lat., making the restriction coastwide. Under current regulations, limited access vessels are able to shuck scallops off the DAS clock inside of the demarcation line north of 42°20′ N. lat. which allows them to skirt possession and landing limits. This is an unintended consequence of a provision that is no longer relevant to the fishery. Prohibiting this behavior helps achieve conservation objectives for the scallop fishery by helping to ensure compliance with possession and landing limits.
Until Framework 28 is fully implemented, certain default measures, including access area designations and DAS, IFQ, research set-aside and observer set-aside allocations, are automatically put into place. Under default measures, each full-time vessel has one 17,000-lb (7,711-kg) access area trip in the MAAA. This action, therefore, relieves restrictions on the scallop fleet by providing full-time vessels with an additional 55,000 lb (24,948 kg) in access area allocation (72,000 lb (32,659 kg) total) into the MAAA, NLS, CA2, and ETFA, combined. Further, the LAGC IFQ fleet will receive an additional 95 trips into the MAAA (697 trips total), 697 trips into the ETFA, and 836 trips in the NLS.
Framework 28 could not have been put into place sooner to allow for a 30-day delayed effectiveness because the information and data necessary for the Council to develop the framework was not available in time. Delaying the implementation of Framework 28 for 30 days would delay positive economic benefits to the scallop fleet. Therefore, the Assistant Administrator for Fisheries has waived the 30-day delayed effectiveness requirement to 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(1) and (3).
NMFS, pursuant to section 604 of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), has completed a final regulatory flexibility analysis (FRFA) in support of Framework 28 in this final rule. The FRFA incorporates the IRFA, a summary of the significant issues raised by the public comments in response to the IRFA, NMFS responses to those comments, a summary of the analyses completed in the Framework 28 EA, and this portion of the preamble. A summary of the IRFA was published in the proposed rule for this action and is not repeated here. A description of why this action was considered, the objectives of, and the legal basis for this rule is contained in Framework 28 and in the preamble to the proposed and this final rule, and is not repeated here. All of the documents that constitute the FRFA are available from NMFS and a copy of the IRFA, the Regulatory Impact Review (RIR), and the EA are available upon request (see
There were no specific comments on the IRFA. The Comments and Responses section summarizes the comments that highlight concerns about the economic impacts and implications of impacts on small businesses (
The regulations affect all vessels with limited access and LAGC scallop permits. The Framework 28 EA provides extensive information on the number and size of vessels and small businesses that will be affected by the regulations, by port and state (see
The RFA defines a small business in shellfish fishery as a firm that is independently owned and operated with receipts of less than $11 million annually (see NMFS final rule revising the small business size standard for commercial fishing, 80 FR 81194, December 29, 2015). Individually-permitted vessels may hold permits for several fisheries, harvesting species of fish that are regulated by several different fishery management plans, even beyond those impacted by the final
On June 1 of each year, ownership entities are identified based on a list of all permits for the most recent complete calendar year. The current ownership dataset is based on the calendar year 2015 permits and contains average gross sales associated with those permits for calendar years 2013 through 2015. Matching the potentially impacted 2015 fishing year permits described above (limited access and LAGC IFQ) to calendar year 2015 ownership data results in 154 distinct ownership entities for the limited access fleet and 87 distinct ownership entities for the LAGC IFQ fleet. Of these, and based on the Small Business Administration guidelines, 141 of the limited access distinct ownership entities and 84 of the LAGC IFQ entities are categorized as small. The remaining 13 of the limited access and 3 of the LAGC IFQ entities are categorized as large entities, all of which are shellfish businesses.
This action contains no new collection-of-information, reporting, or recordkeeping requirements.
During the development of Framework 28, NMFS and the Council considered ways to reduce the regulatory burden on, and provide flexibility for, the regulated entities in this action. For instance, Framework 28 allocates LAGC IFQ access trips that would have been allocated in CA2 into NLS, ETFA, and MAAA. Because LAGC vessels are smaller in size and operate with a 600-lb (272-kg) possession limit this option will reduce fishing costs and have positive impacts on their profits. Final actions and alternatives are described in detail in Framework 28, which includes an EA, RIR, and IRFA (available at
Overall, this rule minimizes adverse long-term impacts by ensuring that management measures and catch limits result in sustainable fishing mortality rates that promote stock rebuilding, and as a result, maximize yield. The measures implemented by this final rule also provide additional flexibility for fishing operations in the short-term. This final rule implements measures that enable small entities to offset some portion of the estimated economic impacts. For example, Framework 28 implements an alternative that allocates the largest number of access area trips to the LAGC IFQ fleet compared to other alternatives considered under the spatial management option. This alternative allows up to 53.8 percent (607 mt) of the total LAGC allocation to be harvested from access areas.
Fisheries, Fishing, Recordkeeping and reporting requirements.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR part 648 is to be amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1801
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(i) * * *
(1) * * *
(viii)
(B) Fish for scallops in, or possess or land scallops from, the NGOM on a scallop research set-aside compensation trip as described in § 648.56(d).
(2) * * *
(iii) * * *
(B) Fish for, possess, or land more than 50 bu (17.62 hL) of in-shell scallops inside the VMS Demarcation Line on or by a vessel, except as provided in the state waters exemption, as specified in § 648.54.
(vi) * * *
(B) Transit the Closed Area II Scallop Rotational Area or the Closed Area II Extension Scallop Rotational Area, as defined § 648.60(d) and (e), respectively, or the Elephant Trunk Flex Scallop Rotational Area, as defined in § 648.60(b), unless there is a compelling safety reason for transiting the area and the vessel's fishing gear is stowed and not available for immediate use as defined in § 648.2.
(C) Fish for, possess, or land scallops in or from the Elephant Trunk Flex Access Area in excess of the vessel's total Elephant Trunk Flex Access Area specific allocation as specified in § 648.59(b)(3)(i)(B)(
(3) * * *
(v) * * *
(E) Transit the Elephant Trunk Flex Scallop Rotational Area, Closed Area II Scallop Rotational Area, or the Closed Area II Extension Scallop Rotational Area, as defined § 648.60(b), (d), and (e), respectively, unless there is a compelling safety reason for transiting the area and the vessel's fishing gear is stowed and not available for immediate use as defined in § 648.2.
(4) * * *
(i) * * *
(G) Fish for, possess, or land more than 40 lb (18.1 kg) of shucked scallops, or 5 bu (1.76 hL) of in-shell scallops shoreward of the VMS Demarcation
(e) Owners or operators of vessels issued limited access permits are prohibited from fishing for, possessing, or landing per trip more than 50 bu (17.6 hl) of in-shell scallops shoreward of the VMS Demarcation Line, unless when fishing under the state waters exemption specified under § 648.54.
The additions and revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(3)
(ii)
(6)
(iii)
(8) The following catch limits will be effective for the 2017 and 2018 fishing years:
(b) * * *
(3) The DAS allocations for limited access scallop vessels for fishing years 2017 and 2018 are as follows:
(h)
(2)
(i)
The additions and revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(2)
(3)
(b) * * *
(3) * * *
(i) * * *
(B) The following access area allocations and possession limits for limited access vessels shall be effective for the 2017 and 2018 fishing years:
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(ii)
(B)
(e)
(1) 2017: Mid-Atlantic Access Area.
(2) 2018: No access areas.
(g) * * *
(2)
(3) * * *
(v) The following LAGC IFQ access area allocations will be effective for the 2017 and 2018 fishing years:
(b)
(2)
(b) * * *
(1)
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; closure.
NMFS announces that the Northern Gulf of Maine Scallop Management Area will close for the remainder of the 2017 fishing year. No vessel issued a Federal scallop permit, with the exception of Northern Gulf of Maine permit holders also holding a Maine state scallop permit and fishing under the state waters exemption program in Maine state waters, may fish for, possess, or land scallops from the Northern Gulf of Maine Scallop Management Area. Regulations require this action once NMFS projects that 100 percent of the 2017 default total allowable catch for the Northern Gulf of Maine Scallop Management Area will be harvested.
Effective 0001 hr local time, March 23, 2017, through February 28, 2018.
Shannah Jaburek, Fishery Management Specialist, (978) 282-8456.
The reader can find regulations governing fishing activity in the Northern Gulf of Maine (NGOM) Scallop Management Area in 50 CFR 648.54 and § 648.62. These regulations authorize vessels issued a valid Federal scallop permit to fish in the NGOM Scallop Management Area under specific conditions, including a total allowable catch (TAC) of 70,000 lb (30.6 mt) set under Scallop Framework Adjustment 27 default measures for the start of the 2017 fishing year, and a State Waters Exemption Program for the State of Maine. Section 648.62(b)(2) requires the NGOM Scallop Management Area to be closed to federally permitted scallop vessels for the remainder of the fishing year once the NMFS Greater Atlantic Regional Administrator determines that the default TAC for fishing year 2017 is projected to be harvested. Any vessel that holds a Federal NGOM permit (category LAGC B) may continue to fish in the Maine state waters portion of the NGOM Scallop Management Area under the State Waters Exemption Program found in § 648.54 provided they have a valid Maine state scallop permit and fish in state waters only.
Based on trip declarations by federally permitted scallop vessels fishing in the NGOM Scallop Management Area, an analysis of fishing effort, and other information, we project that the 2017 default TAC will be harvested as of March 23, 2017. Therefore, in accordance with § 648.62(b)(2), the NGOM Scallop Management Area is closed to all federally permitted scallop vessels as of March 23, 2017. No vessel issued a Federal scallop permit may fish for, possess, or land scallops in or from the NGOM Scallop Management Area after 0001 local time, March 23, 2017, unless the vessel is fishing exclusively in state waters and is participating in an approved state waters exemption program as specified in § 648.54. Any federally permitted scallop vessel that has declared into the NGOM Scallop Management Area, complied with all trip notification and observer requirements, and crossed the VMS demarcation line on the way to the area before 0001, March 23, 2017, may complete its trip. All limited access scallop vessels fishing on a day-at-sea must exit the NGOM Scallop Management Area before 0001 hr local time, March 23, 2017. This closure is in effect through February 28, 2018.
This action is required by 50 CFR part 648 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
NMFS finds good cause pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) to waive prior notice and the opportunity for public comment because it would be contrary to the public interest and impracticable. The NGOM Scallop Management Area opened for the 2017 fishing year on March 1, 2017, under default measures implemented under Framework 27 (May 4, 2016, 81 FR 26727). The regulations at § 648.60(b)(2) require this closure to ensure that federally permitted scallop vessels do not harvest more than the allocated TAC for the NGOM Scallop Management Area. The projections of the date on which the NGOM Scallop Management Area TAC will be harvested become apparent only as trips into the area occur on a real-time basis and as activity trends begin to appear. As a result, an accurate projection only can be made very close in time to when the TAC is harvested. In addition, proposing a closure would likely increase activity, triggering an earlier closure than predicted. To allow federally permitted scallop vessels to continue to take trips in the NGOM Scallop Management Area during the period necessary to publish and receive comments on a proposed rule would likely result in vessels over-harvesting the 2017 default TAC for the NGOM Scallop Management Area. Over-harvest from the NGOM Scallop Management Area would result in excessive fishing effort in the area, where effort controls are critical, thereby undermining conservation objectives of the Atlantic Sea Scallop Fishery Management Plan and requiring more restrictive future management measures. Also, the public had prior notice and full opportunity to comment on this closure process when we put these provisions in place. NMFS further finds, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), good cause to waive the 30-day delayed effectiveness period for the reasons stated above.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; modification of closure.
NMFS is opening directed fishing for pollock in Statistical Area 610 of the Gulf of Alaska (GOA). This action is necessary to fully use the B season allowance of the 2017 total allowable catch of pollock in Statistical Area 610 of the GOA.
Effective 1200 hours, Alaska local time (A.l.t.), March 23, 2017, through 1200 hours, A.l.t., March 27, 2017.
Comments must be received at the following address no later than 4:30 p.m., A.l.t., April 6, 2017.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by FDMS Docket Number NOAA-NMFS-2016-0127 by any of the following methods:
•
•
Josh Keaton, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the GOA exclusive economic zone according to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Gulf of Alaska (FMP) prepared by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Regulations governing fishing by U.S. vessels in accordance with the FMP appear at subpart H of 50 CFR part 600 and 50 CFR part 679.
The B season allowance of the 2017 total allowable catch (TAC) of pollock in Statistical Area 610 of the GOA is 2,232 metric tons (mt) as established by the final 2017 and 2018 harvest specifications for groundfish of the GOA (82 FR 12032, February 27, 2017).
NMFS closed directed fishing for pollock in Statistical Area 610 of the GOA under § 679.20(d)(1)(iii) on March 12, 2017 (82 FR 13777, March 15, 2017).
As of March 17, 2017, NMFS has determined that approximately 1,874 metric tons of pollock remain in the B season directed fishing allowance for pollock in Statistical Area 610 of the GOA. Therefore, in accordance with § 679.25(a)(1)(i), (a)(2)(i)(C), and (a)(2)(iii)(D), and to fully utilize the B season allowance of the 2017 TAC of pollock in Statistical Area 610 of the GOA, NMFS is terminating the previous closure and is reopening directed fishing pollock in Statistical Area 610 of the GOA, effective 1200 hours, A.l.t., March 23, 2017.
The Administrator, Alaska Region (Regional Administrator) considered the following factors in reaching this decision: (1) The current catch of pollock in Statistical Area 610 of the GOA and, (2) the harvest capacity and stated intent on future harvesting patterns of vessels in participating in this fishery.
In accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(i), the Regional Administrator has determined that the B season allowance of the 2017 TAC of pollock in Statistical Area 610 of the GOA will be reached on March 27, 2017. Therefore, the Regional Administrator is establishing a directed fishing allowance of 2,132 mt and is setting aside the remaining 100 mt as bycatch to support other anticipated groundfish fisheries. In accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(iii), the Regional Administrator finds that this directed fishing allowance will be reached on March 27, 2017. Consequently, NMFS is prohibiting directed fishing for pollock in Statistical Area 610 of the GOA on March 27, 2017.
After the effective date of this closure the maximum retainable amounts at § 679.20(e) and (f) apply at any time during a trip.
This action responds to the best available information recently obtained from the fishery. The Acting Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) as such requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion and would delay the opening of directed fishing for pollock in Statistical Area 610 of the GOA. NMFS was unable to publish a notice providing time for public comment because the most recent, relevant data only became available as of March 17, 2017.
The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of prior notice and opportunity for public comment.
Without this inseason adjustment, NMFS could not allow the fishery for pollock in Statistical Area 610 of the GOA to be harvested in an expedient manner and in accordance with the regulatory schedule. Under § 679.25(c)(2), interested persons are invited to submit written comments on this action to the above address until April 6, 2017.
This action is required by § 679.25 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all The Boeing Company Model 737-100, -200, and -200C series airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by a report of incidents involving fatigue cracking in transport category airplanes that are approaching or have exceeded their design service objective and a structural reevaluation that was conducted by the manufacturer. We have determined that supplemental inspections are required for timely detection of fatigue cracking for certain structurally significant items (SSIs). This proposed AD would require revising the maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to add supplemental inspections. This proposed AD would also require inspections to detect cracks in each SSI, and repair of any cracked structure. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by May 11, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Jennifer Tsakoumakis, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5264; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
This proposed AD was prompted by a report of incidents involving fatigue cracking in transport category airplanes that are approaching or have exceeded their design service objective and a structural reevaluation that was conducted by the manufacturer. We have determined that supplemental inspections are required for timely detection of fatigue cracking for certain SSIs. We are proposing this AD to ensure the continued structural integrity of all The Boeing Company Model 737-100, -200, and -200C series airplanes.
We reviewed Boeing Document D6-37089, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document for Model 737-100/200/200C Airplanes,” Revision F, dated November 2015. The service information identifies SSIs having fatigue crack growth characteristics warranting special attention, describes procedures for inspections to detect cracks of all structure identified as SSIs, and provides corrective actions for cracked SSI structure. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
On December 30, 1998, we issued AD 98-11-04 R1, Amendment 39-10984 (64 FR 987, January 7, 1999) (“AD 98-11-04 R1”), for all Boeing Model 737-100 and -200 series airplanes. AD 98-11-04 R1 requires that the FAA-approved maintenance inspection program be revised to include inspections that will give no less than the required damage tolerance rating (DTR) for each structural significant item, and repair of cracked structure. We issued AD 98-11-04 R1 to ensure the continued structural integrity of the entire Boeing Model 737-100 and -200 fleet.
On April 8, 2008, we issued AD 2008-08-23, Amendment 39-15477 (73 FR 21237, April 21, 2008) (“AD 2008-08-23”), for all Boeing Model 737-200C series airplanes. AD 2008-08-23 requires revising the FAA-approved maintenance inspection program to include inspections that will give no less than the required DTR for each SSI, doing repetitive inspections to detect cracks of all SSIs, and repairing cracked structure. We issued AD 2008-08-23 to maintain the continued structural integrity of the entire fleet of Model 737-200C series airplanes.
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of these same type designs.
This proposed AD would require revising the maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to include inspections that will give no less than the required DTR for certain SSIs, and repairing any cracked structure. This proposed AD would also require initial and repetitive inspections to detect cracks of all structure identified in Boeing Document D6-37089, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document for Model 737-100/200/200C Airplanes,” Revision F, dated November 2015, and repair if necessary.
Accomplishing the actions required by paragraphs (g) and (h) of this proposed AD would terminate all requirements of AD 98-11-04 R1 and AD 2008-08-23.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 84 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have not specified cost estimates for the inspections and repair specified in this proposed AD. Compliance with this proposed AD constitutes a method of compliance with the FAA aging airplane safety final rule (AASFR) (70 FR 5518, February 2, 2005) for certain baseline structure of Model 737-100, -200, and -200C series airplanes. The AASFR requires certain operators to incorporate damage tolerance inspections into their maintenance programs. These requirements are described in 14 CFR 121.1109(c)(1) and 14 CFR 129.109(b)(1). Accomplishment of the actions specified in this proposed AD will meet the requirements of these regulations for certain baseline structure. The costs for accomplishing the inspection portion of this proposed AD were accounted for in the regulatory evaluation of the AASFR.
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary reporting that would be required based on the results of the inspections specified in the proposed revision of the maintenance or inspection program. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need this action:
A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB control number. The control number for the collection of information required by this proposed AD is 2120-0056. The paperwork cost associated with this proposed AD has been detailed in the Costs of Compliance section of this document and includes time for reviewing instructions, as well as completing and reviewing the collection of information. Therefore, all reporting associated with this proposed AD is mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at 800 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20591, ATTN: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by May 11, 2017.
This AD affects AD 98-11-04 R1, Amendment 39-10984 (64 FR 987, January 7, 1999) (“AD 98-11-04 R1”); and AD 2008-08-23, Amendment 39-15477 (73 FR 21237, April 21, 2008) (“AD 2008-08-23”).
This AD applies to all The Boeing Company Model 737-100, -200, and -200C series airplanes, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage; 54, Nacelles/Pylons; 55, Stabilizers; 57, Wings.
This AD was prompted by a report of incidents involving fatigue cracking in transport category airplanes that are approaching or have exceeded their design service objective and a structural reevaluation that was conducted by the manufacturer that identified additional structural elements that qualify as structural significant items (SSIs). We are issuing this AD to ensure the continued structural integrity of all The Boeing Company Model 737-100, -200, and -200C series airplanes.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Prior to reaching the compliance time specified in paragraph (h)(1), (h)(2), or (h)(3) of this AD, as applicable: Incorporate a revision into the maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, that provides no less than the required damage tolerance rating (DTR) for each SSI listed in Boeing Document D6-37089, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document for Model 737-100/200/200C Airplanes,” Revision F, dated November 2015 (“Document D6-37089, Revision F”). The required DTR value for each SSI is listed in Document D6-37089, Revision F. The revision to the maintenance or inspection program must include, and must be implemented in accordance with, the procedures in Section 5.0, “Damage Tolerance Rating (DTR) System Application,” and Section 6.0, “SSI Discrepancy Reporting” of Document D6-37089, Revision F. Accomplishing the revision required by this paragraph terminates the actions required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of AD 98-11-04 R1, and paragraph (g) of AD 2008-08-23.
Perform an inspection in accordance with Document D6-37089, Revision F, to detect cracks of all structure identified in Document D6-37089, Revision F, at the time specified in paragraph (h)(1), (h)(2), or (h)(3) of this AD, as applicable. Once the initial inspection has been performed, repeat the inspection thereafter at the intervals specified in Document D6-37089, Revision F. Accomplishing an initial inspection required by this paragraph terminates the corresponding inspection required by paragraph (c) of AD 98-11-04 R1 and paragraph (h) of AD 2008-08-23.
(1) For SSIs on Model 737-100 and -200 series airplanes: Before the accumulation of 66,000 total flight cycles, or within 12 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later.
(2) For SSIs on Model 737-200C series airplanes not affected by cargo configuration: Before the accumulation of 66,000 total flight cycles, or within 12 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later.
(3) For SSIs on Model 737-200C series airplanes affected by cargo configuration: Before the accumulation of 46,000 total flight cycles, or within 12 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later.
If any cracked SSI structure is found during any inspection required by paragraph (h) of this AD, repair before further flight using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (l) of this AD. Within 18 months after repair, incorporate a revision into the maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to include a damage-tolerance-based alternative inspection program for the repaired structure. Thereafter, inspect the affected structure in accordance with the alternative program. The inspection method and compliance times (
Accomplishing the revision required by paragraph (g) of this AD and all initial inspections required by paragraph (h) of this AD terminates all requirements of AD 98-11-04 R1 and AD 2008-08-23.
A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB Control Number. The OMB Control Number for this information collection is 2120-0056. Public reporting for this collection of information is estimated to be approximately 5 minutes per response, including the time for reviewing instructions, completing and reviewing the collection of information. All responses to this collection of information are mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at: 800 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20591, Attn: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (m)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Los Angeles ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) AMOCs approved for AD 98-11-04 R1 and AD 2008-08-23 are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Jennifer Tsakoumakis, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles ACO, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5264; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all The Boeing Company Model 737-300, -400, and -500 series airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by a determination that supplemental inspections are required for timely detection of fatigue cracking for certain structural significant item (SSIs). This proposed AD would require revising the maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to add supplemental inspections. This proposed AD would also require inspections to detect cracks in each SSI, and repair of any cracked structure. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by May 11, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
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For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Jennifer Tsakoumakis, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5264; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
On April 8, 2008, we issued AD 2008-09-13, Amendment 39-15494 (73 FR 24164, May 2, 2008) (“AD 2008-09-13”), for all Model 737-300, -400, and -500 series airplanes. AD 2008-09-13 requires revising the FAA-approved maintenance inspection program to include inspections that will give no less than the required damage tolerance rating (DTR) for each SSI, doing repetitive inspections to detect cracks of all SSIs, and repairing cracked structure. AD 2008-09-13 resulted from a report of incidents involving fatigue cracking in transport category airplanes that are approaching or have exceeded their design service objective. We issued AD 2008-09-13 to ensure the continued structural integrity of all Model 737-300, -400, and -500 series airplanes.
Since we issued AD 2008-09-13, a structural reevaluation was conducted by the manufacturer. As a result, we have determined that supplemental inspections are required for timely detection of fatigue cracking for certain SSIs.
We reviewed Boeing Document D6-82669, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document, Models 737-300/400/500 Airplanes,” Revision October 2015. The service information identifies SSIs having fatigue crack growth characteristics warranting special attention, describes procedures for inspections to detect cracks of all structure identified as SSIs, and provides corrective actions for cracked SSI structure. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information
This proposed AD would require revising the maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to include inspections that will give no less than the required DTR for certain SSIs, and repairing any cracked structure. This proposed AD would also require initial and repetitive inspections to detect cracks of all structure identified in Boeing Document D6-82669, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document, Models 737-300/400/500 Airplanes,” Revision October 2015, and repair if necessary.
Accomplishing the actions required by paragraphs (g) and (h) of this proposed AD would terminate all requirements of AD 2008-09-13.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 500 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have not specified cost estimates for the inspections and repair specified in this proposed AD. Compliance with this proposed AD constitutes a method of compliance with the FAA aging airplane safety final rule (AASFR) (70 FR 5518, February 2, 2005) for certain baseline structure of Model 737-300, -400, and -500 series airplanes. The AASFR requires certain operators to incorporate damage tolerance inspections into their maintenance programs. These requirements are described in 14 CFR 121.1109(c)(1) and 14 CFR 129.109(b)(1). Accomplishment of the actions specified in this proposed AD will meet the requirements of these regulations for certain baseline structure. The costs for accomplishing the inspection portion of this proposed AD were accounted for in the regulatory evaluation of the AASFR.
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary reporting that would be required based on the results of the inspections specified in the proposed revision of the maintenance or inspection program. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need this action:
A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB control number. The control number for the collection of information required by this proposed AD is 2120-0056. The paperwork cost associated with this proposed AD has been detailed in the Costs of Compliance section of this document and includes time for reviewing instructions, as well as completing and reviewing the collection of information. Therefore, all reporting associated with this proposed AD is mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at 800 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20591, Attn: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701, “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We have determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that the proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety,
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator,
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
The FAA must receive comments on this AD action by May 11, 2017.
This AD affects AD 2008-09-13, Amendment 39-15494 (73 FR 24164, May 2, 2008) (“AD 2008-09-13”).
This AD applies to all The Boeing Company Model 737-300, -400, and -500 series airplanes, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 52, Doors; 53, Fuselage; 54, Nacelles/Pylons; 55, Stabilizers; 57, Wings.
This AD was prompted by a structural reevaluation conducted by the manufacturer. We have determined that supplemental inspections are required for timely detection of fatigue cracking for certain structural significant items (SSIs). We are issuing this AD to ensure the continued structural integrity of all The Boeing Company Model 737-300, -400, and -500 series airplanes.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Before the accumulation of 66,000 total flight cycles, or within 12 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later: Incorporate a revision into the maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, that provides no less than the required damage tolerance rating (DTR) for each SSI listed in Boeing Document D6-82669, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document, Models 737-300/400/500 Airplanes,” Revision October 2015. The required DTR value for each SSI is listed in Boeing Document D6-82669, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document, Models 737-300/400/500 Airplanes,” Revision October 2015. The revision to the maintenance or inspection program must include, and must be implemented in accordance with, the procedures in Section 5.0, “Damage Tolerance Rating (DTR) System Application;” and Section 6.0, “SSI Discrepancy Reporting;” of Boeing Document D6-82669, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document, Models 737-300/400/500 Airplanes,” Revision October 2015. Accomplishment of the revision required by this paragraph terminates the requirements of paragraph (g) of AD 2008-09-13.
Before the accumulation of 66,000 total flight cycles, or within 12 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later: Perform an inspection in accordance with Boeing Document D6-82669, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document, Models 737-300/400/500 Airplanes,” Revision October 2015, to detect cracks of all structure identified in Boeing Document D6-82669, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document, Models 737-300/400/500 Airplanes,” Revision October 2015. Once the initial inspection has been performed, repeat the inspections thereafter at the intervals specified in Boeing Document D6-82669, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document, Models 737-300/400/500 Airplanes,” Revision October 2015. Accomplishing an initial inspection required by this paragraph terminates the corresponding inspection required by paragraph (h) of AD 2008-09-13.
If any cracked SSI structure is found during any inspection required by paragraph (h) of this AD, repair before further flight using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (l) of this AD. Within 18 months after repair, incorporate a revision into the maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to include a damage-tolerance-based alternative inspection program for the repaired structure. Thereafter, inspect the affected structure in accordance with the alternative program. The inspection method and compliance times (
Accomplishing the revision required by paragraph (g) of this AD and all initial inspections required by paragraph (h) of this AD terminates all requirements of AD 2008-09-13.
A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB Control Number. The OMB Control Number for this information collection is 2120-0056. Public reporting for this collection of information is estimated to be approximately 5 minutes per response, including the time for reviewing instructions, completing and reviewing the collection of information. All responses to this collection of information are mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at: 800 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20591, Attn: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (m)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Los Angeles ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) AMOCs approved for AD 2008-09-13 are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of paragraphs (g) and (h) of this AD for the SSIs identified in the AMOC, except for AMOCs written for empennage SSIs E-19, E-21, E-29, E-30, and E-31.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Jennifer Tsakoumakis, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles ACO, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5264; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to modify Class D airspace extending up to 2,500 feet above the surface at Kingsville Naval Air Station (NAS), Kingsville, TX. This action is necessary due to the decommissioning of the Kingsville radio beacon (RBN), and cancellation of the RBN approach, and would enhance the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at the airport. This action would also update the geographic coordinates of the airport.
Comments must be received on or before May 11, 2017.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590; telephone (202) 366-9826, or 1-800-647-5527. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2016-9511; Airspace Docket No. 16-ASW-20, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the Internet at
FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Ron Laster, Federal Aviation Administration, Contract Support, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5879.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would modify Class D airspace extending up to and including 2,500 feet MSL above the surface area at Kingsville NAS, Kingsville, TX, to accommodate the decommissioning of the Kingsville radio beacon (RBN) and cancellation of the RBN approach.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. Communications should identify both docket numbers and be submitted in triplicate to the address listed above. Commenters wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2016-9511/Airspace Docket No. 16-ASW-20.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the Internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016. FAA Order 7400.11 is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) Part 71 by modifying Class D airspace extending up to and including 2,500 feet MSL within a 4.3-mile radius of Kingsville NAS by removing the area within two miles each side of the 200 degree bearing from the Kingsville RBN extending from the 4.3-mile radius to 4.9 miles south of the airport. This action would also update the geographic coordinates of the airport to be in concert with the FAA's aeronautical database.
Airspace reconfiguration is necessary due to the decommissioning of the RBN and cancellation of the RBN approaches, and would enhance the safety and management of standard instrument approach procedures for IFR operations at the airport.
Class D airspace designations are published in paragraph 6000 of FAA Order 7400.11A, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class D airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extends upward from the surface to and including 2,500 feet MSL within a 4.3-mile radius of Kingsville NAS, and within 1.3 miles each side of the 191° radial of the Kingsville TACAN extending from the 4.3-mile radius to 4.9 miles south of the airport.
Mine Safety and Health Administration, Labor.
Proposed rule; delay of effective date.
On January 23, 2017, the Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA) published a final rule in the
Comment Deadline: April 26, 2017.
Submit comments, identified by RIN 1219-AB87 or Docket No. MSHA-2014-0030, by one of the following methods:
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Sheila A. McConnell, Director, Office of Standards, Regulations, and Variances, MSHA, at
On January 23, 2017, MSHA published a Final Rule in the
In keeping with MSHA's standard implementation practices, MSHA would
MSHA is committed to assuring that mine operators and miners affected by the examinations final rule have the training and compliance assistance they need prior to the rule's effective date. As part of the outreach and compliance assistance process, MSHA would consider issues raised by stakeholders and consider further extending the effective date in order to determine if these issues can be reasonably addressed through compliance assistance and training. MSHA also seeks comments regarding the appropriate length of the proposed extension.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Coast Guard is amending and updating its special local regulations relating to recurring marine parades, regattas, and other events that take place in the Coast Guard Sector Ohio Valley area of responsibility (AOR). This notice informs the public of regularly scheduled events that require additional safety measures through establishing a special local regulation. Through this notice the current list of recurring special local regulations is updated with revisions, additional events, and removal of events that no longer take place in Sector Ohio Valley's AOR. When these special local regulations are enforced, certain restrictions are placed on marine traffic in specified areas. Additionally, this one proposed rulemaking project reduces administrative costs involved in producing separate proposed rules for each individual recurring special local regulation and serves to provide notice of the known recurring special local regulations throughout the year.
Comments and related material must be received by the Coast Guard on or before April 26, 2017.
You may submit comments identified by docket number USCG-2017-0010 using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
If you have questions on this proposed rule, call or email Petty Officer James Robinson, Sector Ohio Valley, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone (502) 779-5347, email
The Captain of the Port (COTP) Ohio Valley is proposing to establish, amend, and update its current list of recurring special local regulations.
These special local regulations are proposed to be added, amended, and updated to the list of annually recurring special local regulations under 33 CFR 100.801 in Table no. 1 for annual special local regulations in the COTP Ohio Valley zone. The Coast Guard will address all comments accordingly, whether through response, additional revision to the regulation, or otherwise. Additionally, these recurring events are provided to the public through local avenues and planned by the local communities.
The current list of annual and recurring special local regulations occurring in Sector Ohio Valley's AOR is published under 33 CFR part 100.801. That most recent list was created January 25, 2016 through the rulemaking 81 FR 3976.
The Coast Guard's authority for establishing a special local regulation is contained at 33 U.S.C. 1233. The Coast Guard is amending and updating the special local regulations under 33 CFR part 100 to include the most up to date list of recurring special local regulations for events held on or around navigable waters within Sector Ohio Valley's AOR. These events include marine parades, boat races, swim events, and other marine related events. The current list under 33 CFR 100.801 requires amending to provide new information on existing special local regulations, updating to include new special local regulations expected to recur annually or biannually, and to remove special local regulations that are no longer required. Issuing individual regulations for each new special local regulation, amendment, or removal of an existing special local regulation creates unnecessary administrative costs and burdens. This single proposed rulemaking will considerably reduce administrative overhead and provides the public with notice through publication in the
The Coast Guard encourages the public to participate in this proposed rulemaking through the comment process so that any necessary changes can be identified and implemented in a timely and efficient manner.
33 CFR part 100 contains regulations to provide effective control over regattas and marine parades conducted on U.S. navigable waters in order to ensure the safety of life in the regattas or marine parade area. Section 100.801 provides the regulations applicable to events taking place in the Eighth Coast Guard District and also provides a table listing each event and special local regulation. This section requires amendment from time to time to properly reflect the recurring special local regulations in Sector Ohio Valley's AOR. This proposed rule amends and updates Section 100.801 replacing the current Table 1 for Sector Ohio Valley.
Additionally, this proposed rule would add 12 new recurring special local regulations and removes 06 special local regulations as follows: 12 added
This proposed rule would remove the following seven special local regulations from the existing Table 1 Part 100.801 as follows:
The effect of this proposed rule would be to restrict general navigation during these events. Vessels intending to transit the designated waterway through the special local regulations will only be allowed to transit the area when the COTP Ohio Valley, or designated representative, has deemed it safe to do so or at the completion of the event.
We developed this proposed rule after considering numerous statutes and executive orders (E.O.s) related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and E.O.s, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
E.O.s 12866 (“Regulatory Planning and Review”) and 13563 (“Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review”) direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity. E.O.13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. Executive Order 13771 (“Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs”), directs agencies to reduce regulation and control regulatory costs and provides that “for every one new regulation issued, at least two prior regulations be identified for elimination, and that the cost of planned regulations be prudently managed and controlled through a budgeting process.”
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has not designated this rule a significant regulatory action under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has not reviewed it.
As this rule is not a significant regulatory action, this rule is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771. See OMB's Memorandum titled “Interim Guidance Implementing Section 2 of the Executive Order of January 30, 2017 titled `Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs' ” (February 2, 2017).
The Coast Guard expects the economic impact of this proposed rule to be minimal, and therefore a full regulatory evaluation is unnecessary. This proposed rule establishes special local regulations limiting access to certain areas under 33 CFR part 100 within Sector Ohio Valley's AOR. The effect of this proposed rulemaking will not be significant because these special local regulations are limited in scope and duration. Additionally, the public is given advance notification through local forms of notice, the
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
This proposed rule would affect the following entities, some of which may be small entities: The owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the special local regulation areas during periods of enforcement. The special local regulations would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities because they are limited in scope and will be in effect for short periods of time. Before the enforcement period, the Coast Guard COTP will issue maritime advisories widely available to waterway users. Deviation from the special local regulations established through this proposed rulemaking may be requested from the appropriate COTP and requests will be considered on a case-by-case basis.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this proposed rule. If the proposed rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this proposed rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This proposed rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520.).
A rule has implications for federalism under E.O. 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in E.O. 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under E.O. 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this proposed rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA)(42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a preliminary determination that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule is categorically excluded under section 2.B.2, figure 2-1, paragraph (34)(h) of the Instruction because it involves establishment of special local regulations related to marine event permits for marine parades, regattas, and other marine events. We seek any comments or information that may lead to the discovery of a significant environmental impact from this proposed rule.
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
We view public participation as essential to effective rulemaking, and will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Your comment can help shape the outcome of this rulemaking. If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
Documents mentioned in this NPRM as being available in the docket, and all public comments, will be in our online docket at
Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, and Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the U.S. Coast Guard proposes to amend 33 CFR part 100 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1233.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Notice and request for comments.
This notice announces the Agricultural Marketing Service's (AMS) intention to request approval, from the Office of Management and Budget, for an extension of the currently approved information collection request Web-Based Supply Chain Management Commodity Offer Form, Paperwork Collection Notice. This information collection is necessary to support the procurement of agricultural commodities for domestic nutrition assistance programs. AMS issues invitations to purchase fresh and processed commodities for domestic nutrition assistance programs on a year round basis. The extension of the information collection request is required to continue using our Web-Based Supply Chain Management (WBSCM) system, which allows respondents to submit information electronically. The information collection burden for respondents should not increase.
Comments on this notice must be received by May 26, 2017 to be assured of consideration.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments concerning this notice. Comments should be submitted on the Internet at
Chad Burke, Project Manager, Web Based Supply Chain Management System, at the above address, by telephone at (202) 720-4517, fax (202) 720-5871, or by email at
All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.
Rural Utilities Service, USDA.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the United States Department of Agriculture's Rural Utilities Service (RUS) invites comments on this
Comments on this notice must be received by May 26, 2017.
Thomas P. Dickson, Deputy Director, Program Development and Regulatory Analysis, USDA Rural Utilities Service, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 1522, Room 5164-S, Washington, DC 20250-1522. Telephone: (202) 690-4492. FAX: (202) 720-8435. Email:
The Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) regulation (5 CFR 1320) implementing provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13) requires that interested members of the public and affected agencies have an opportunity to comment on information collection and recordkeeping activities (see 5 CFR 1320.8(d)). This notice identifies an information collection that RUS is submitting to OMB for extension.
Copies of this information collection can be obtained from MaryPat Daskal, Program Development and Regulatory Analysis, at (202) 720-7853, FAX: (202) 720-8435. Email:
All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will also become a matter of public record.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is rescinding the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on seamless refined copper pipe and tube from Mexico for the period November 1, 2015, through October 31, 2016.
Effective March 27, 2017.
Dennis McClure or George Ayache, AD/CVD Operations, Office VIII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-5973 or (202) 482-2623, respectively.
On November 4, 2016, the Department published a notice of opportunity to request an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on seamless refined copper pipe and tube from Mexico for the period of review (POR) November 1, 2015, through October 31, 2016.
On November 30, 2016, the Ad Hoc Coalition for Domestically Produced Seamless Refined Copper Pipe and Tube (the petitioner)
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), the Department will rescind an administrative review, in whole or in part, if the party that requested the review withdraws its request within 90 days of the publication of the notice of initiation of the requested review. In this case, the petitioner timely withdrew its request by the 90-day deadline, and no other party requested an administrative review of the antidumping duty order. Therefore, we are rescinding the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on seamless refined copper pipe and tube from Mexico for the period November 1, 2015, through October 31, 2016, in its
The Department intends to instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess antidumping duties on all appropriate entries of seamless refined copper pipe and tube from Mexico during the POR at rates equal to the cash deposit of estimated antidumping duties required at the time of entry, or withdrawal from warehouse, for consumption, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(c)(1)(i). The Department intends to issue appropriate assessment instructions to CBP 41 days after the publication of this notice in the
This notice serves as a final reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Department's presumption that reimbursement of the antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of doubled antidumping duties.
This notice also serves as a reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials, or conversion to judicial protective order, is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.
We intend to issue and publish this notice in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.213(d)(4).
In notice document 2017-05432 appearing on pages 14316-14317 in the issue of March 17, 2017, make the following correction:
On page 14316, in the third column, in footnote 3, the formula in lines 3 and 4 should read:
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
On September 19, 2016, the Department of Commerce (the Department) published the preliminary results of the 12th administrative review of the antidumping duty order on certain frozen fish fillets (fish fillets) from the Socialist Republic of Vietnam (Vietnam). We gave interested parties an opportunity to comment on the preliminary results. Based upon our analysis of the comments and information received, we made changes from the preliminary results. Specifically, we have modified the list of companies rescinded from this administrative review. The final dumping margins are listed below in the “Final Results of the Review” section of this notice. The period of review (POR) is August 1, 2014, through July 31, 2015.
Effective March 27, 2017.
Kenneth Hawkins, AD/CVD Operations, Office V, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone 202-482-6491.
The Department published the
The product covered by the order is frozen fish fillets, including regular, shank, and strip fillets and portions thereof, whether or not breaded or marinated, of the species
All issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs by parties in this review are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. A list of the issues which
Based on a review of the record and comments received from interested parties regarding our
In the
We noted in the
In accordance with 19 CFR 351.213(d)(3) and 19 CFR 351.401(f), and in accordance with our decision in Comment 4 of the Issues and Decision Memorandum, the Department is rescinding this review with respect to QVD Food Company Ltd., QVD Dong Thap Food Co., Ltd. (also known as Dong Thap), and Thuan Hung Co., Ltd. (also known as THUFICO), collectively (QVD). In accordance with Comment 5 of the Issues and Decision Memorandum, as of the
The weighted-average dumping margins for the final results of this administrative review are as follows:
Pursuant to
For assessment purposes, we calculated importer (or customer)-specific assessment rates for merchandise subject to this review. We will continue to direct CBP to assess importer-specific assessment rates based on the resulting per-unit (
The Department determines that the No Shipment Companies did not have any reviewable transactions during the POR. As a result, any suspended entries that entered under these exporters' case numbers (
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the final results of this administrative review for all shipments of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date, as provided for by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) For the exporters listed above, the cash deposit rate will be the rate established in the final results of review (except, if the rate is zero or
This notice also serves as a final reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this POR. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Department's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of doubled antidumping duties.
This notice also serves as a reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305, which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials, or conversion to judicial protective order, is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.
We are issuing and publishing these administrative reviews and notice in accordance with sections 751(a)(l) and 777(i) of the Act.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Effective March 27, 2017.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is rescinding the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on steel wire garment hangers from Taiwan for the period of review (POR), December 1, 2015, through November 30, 2016.
Julia Hancock, AD/CVD Operations, Office V, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone (202) 482-6491.
On December 1, 2016, the Department published in the
On February 13, 2017, the Department published in the
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), the Department will rescind an administrative review, if the party that requested the review withdraws its request within 90 days of the publication of the notice of initiation of the requested review. Petitioners withdrew their request within the 90-day deadline. No other party requested an administrative review of the antidumping duty order. Therefore, in response to the timely withdrawal of the review request, the Department is rescinding in its entirety the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on steel wire garment hangers from Taiwan.
The Department will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess antidumping duties on all appropriate entries. Antidumping duties shall be assessed at rates equal to the cash deposit of estimated antidumping duties required at the time of entry, or withdrawal from warehouse, for consumption, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(c)(1)(i). The Department intends to issue appropriate assessment instructions to CBP 15 days after the publication of this notice in the
This notice serves as the only reminder to importers whose entries will be liquidated as a result of this rescission, of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate
This notice serves as the only reminder to parties subject to the administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
This notice is published in accordance with sections 751(a) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.213(d)(4).
National Institute of Standards and Technology, Department of Commerce.
Notice; prospective grant of exclusive patent license.
The National Institute of Standards and Technology (“NIST”), U.S. Department of Commerce, is contemplating the grant of an exclusive license in the United States of America, its territories, possessions and commonwealths, to NIST's interest in the invention embodied in U.S. Patent Application No. 62/302,855, titled “Prostate Cancer Detection Using Western Blot Analysis,” (NIST Docket No. 16-007) to McJimpsey Biotechnologies, Inc. The grant of the license would be for prostate cancer detection.
Donald Archer, National Institute of Standards and Technology, Technology Partnerships Office, 100 Bureau Drive, Stop 2200, Gaithersburg, MD 20899, (301) 975-2522;
The prospective exclusive license will be royalty bearing and will comply with the terms and conditions of 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR 404.7. The prospective exclusive license may be granted unless, within fifteen (15) days from the date of this published Notice, NIST receives written evidence and argument which establish that the grant of the license would not be consistent with the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR 404.7. The Provisional Patent Application was filed on March 3, 2016 and describes systems and methods for detecting prostate cancer.
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council's (MAFMC) Atlantic Surfclam and Ocean Quahog Advisory Panel (AP) will hold a public meeting.
The meeting will be held on Tuesday, April 18, 2017, from 10 a.m. to 4 p.m. For agenda details, see
The meeting will be held at the Embassy Suites by Hilton Philadelphia Airport, 9000 Bartram Avenue, Philadelphia, PA 19153; telephone: (215) 365-4500.
Christopher M. Moore, Ph.D., Executive Director, Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council, telephone: (302) 526-5255.
The Atlantic Surfclam and Ocean Quahog Advisory Panel (AP) will meet to create a fishery performance report that provides structured input to the Scientific and Statistical Committee (SSC) and MAFMC, for consideration at their May and June 2017 meetings, respectively.
The meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aid should be directed to M. Jan Saunders, (302) 526-5251, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) on behalf of the United States Global Change Research Program (USGCRP).
Notice regarding availability of updates and public engagement opportunities for the fourth National Climate Assessment.
The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) are publishing this notice on behalf of the United States Global Change Research Program (USGCRP) to clarify the processes and platforms for public engagement with the development of the fourth National Climate Assessment.
Updates will be offered continuously during the development phase of the National Climate Assessment.
Updates on the status of the Assessment and engagement opportunities will be provided via
USGCRP Contact: Katie Reeves; Telephone 202-419-3486; or email:
To provide clarity on the process of developing the Assessment, and opportunities for community involvement, the USGCRP will be continually providing updates on the status of the Assessment and engagement opportunities via
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meeting.
The Pacific Fishery Management Council (Pacific Council) will hold a meeting to review the methodology of the California Department of Fish and Wildlife/California Wetfish Producers Association aerial survey. The meeting is open to the public.
The meeting will be held Monday and Tuesday, April 17-18, 2017, from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m. each day, or when business for the day has been completed.
The meeting will be held in the Pacific Conference Room of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) Southwest Fisheries Science Center, 8901 La Jolla Shores Dr., La Jolla, CA 92037-1508.
Kerry Griffin, Pacific Council; telephone: (503) 820-2409.
The purpose of the meeting is to provide technical and scientific review of the California Department of Fish and Wildlife/California Wetfish Producers Association aerial survey for Coastal Pelagic Species (CPS). This survey is being proposed for potential inclusion in stock assessments for CPS stocks managed by the Pacific Council. The methodology review panel will review the proposed survey, and will produce a report that will be considered by the Pacific Council at its June 2017 meeting in Spokane, WA.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Mr. Dale Sweetnam (858) 546-7170 at least 10 days prior to the meeting date.
Office of Ocean Exploration and Research (OER), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Department of Commerce (DOC).
Notice.
NOAA OER announces the availability of biologic and geologic samples that were collected during NOAA Ship
Information about individual samples as well as all imagery and oceanographic data collected during these expeditions can be found in the digital record for each cruise on the OER Digital Atlas, (
The biologic and geologic samples described in this notice are available immediately from the designated repositories.
Mr. Craig Russell, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, 7600 Sand Point Way NE., Seattle, WA 98115, (206) 526-4803,
The specimens listed below were collected by NOAA during seven telepresence-enabled
NOAA OER conducts collaborative and systematic global ocean exploration with NOAA Ship
These expeditions are conducted mainly in unexplored or poorly known areas where high-resolution mapping and initial sampling will result in initial site descriptions. The rationale that guides sampling during
Once the expeditions are complete, samples are cataloged and prepared for archival. Biologic samples are sent for primary archival to the Smithsonian Institution's National Museum of Natural History Research and Collections to provide access to as many researchers as possible. There the samples are taxonomically identified, curated and made accessible through the Invertebrate Zoology Collection. Metadata about the samples and information on how to request samples is available through the museum's online portal (
During at-sea sample processing, prior to additional preservation techniques such as ethanol or formalin, small tissue samples are preserved onboard for later genomic DNA and RNA extraction at the Ocean Genome Legacy Center (OGL) at Northeastern University. Available materials can be searched, browsed, and requested through the online catalog on the OGL Web site (
Additionally, selected coral and sponge specimens will be subsampled and made accessible through the Bernice Pauahi Bishop Museum's marine invertebrate collection. Descriptions of holdings, a searchable database, loan request forms, and Frequently Asked Questions for specimens are available on the museum's Invertebrate Zoology collection Web site (
Rock samples collected during the three legs of EX-15-04 are archived at Oregon State University's Marine Geology Repository where they have been entered into the Repository's sample library. The Repository provides online metadata about the samples, images of thin sections, and how to request specimens (
Digital records of all
All other associated video, oceanographic, and bathymetric data from these expeditions that provide context for collected samples are also available through the OER Digital Atlas.
National Sea Grant Advisory Board (NSGAB), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Department of Commerce (DOC).
Notice of solicitation for nominations for the National Sea Grant Advisory Board.
This notice responds the Sea Grant Program Improvement Act of 1976, which requires the Secretary of Commerce to solicit nominations at least once a year for membership on the National Sea Grant Advisory Board (Board), a Federal Advisory Committee that provides advice on the implementation of the National Sea Grant College Program. The NOAA intends to fill two expected vacancies on the Board in 2017 and another two in 2018 to apply for membership to the Board, applicants should submit a current resume, via the methodology discussed in the Contact Information Section of this notice. A cover letter highlighting specific areas of expertise relevant to the purpose of the Board is helpful, but not required. NOAA is an equal opportunity employer.
Applications, there is no due date for applications. However, the program intends to begin reviewing applications to fulfill existing vacancies by April 28th 2017. Applications will be kept on file for consideration of any Board vacancy for a period of three years from October 1st 2017 in order to fill any future or unexpected vacancies.
Nominations will be accepted by email or mail. They should be sent to the attention of Ms. Mary Anne Garlic, National Sea Grant College Program, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, 1315 East-West Highway, SSMC 3, Room 11717, Silver Spring, Maryland 20910. If you need additional assistance, please email
Established by Section 209 of the Act and as amended the National Sea Grant College Program Amendments Act of 2008 (Pub. L. 110-394), the duties of the Board are as follows:
(1) In general, the Board shall advise the Secretary and the Director concerning:
(A) Strategies for utilizing the Sea Grant College Program to address the Nation's highest priorities regarding the understanding, assessment, development, management, utilization, and conservation of ocean, coastal, and Great Lakes resources;
(B) The designation of Sea Grant Colleges and Sea Grant Institutes; and
(C) Such other matters as the Secretary refer to the Board for review and advice.
(2) Biennial Report. The Board shall report to the Congress every two years on the state of the National Sea Grant College Program. The Board shall indicate in each such report the progress made toward meeting the priorities identified in the strategic plan in effect under section 204(c). The Secretary shall make available to the Board such information, personnel and administrative services and assistance as it may reasonably require to carry out its duties under this title.
The Board shall consist of 15 voting members who shall be appointed by the Secretary for a 4-year term, renewable for a 2nd 4-year term at the discretion of the Secretary. The Director and a director of a Sea Grant program who is elected by the various directors of Sea Grant programs shall serve as nonvoting members of the Board. Not less than 8 of the voting members of the Board shall be individuals who, by reason of knowledge, experience, or training, are especially qualified in one or more of the disciplines and fields included in marine science. The other voting members shall be individuals who, by reason of knowledge, experience, or training, are especially qualified in, or representative of, education, marine affairs and resource management, coastal management, extension services, State government, industry, economics, planning, or any other activity which is appropriate to, and important for, any effort to enhance the understanding, assessment, development, management, utilization, or conservation of ocean, coastal, and Great Lakes resources. No individual is eligible to be a voting member of the Board if the individual is (A) the director of a Sea Grant College or Sea Grant Institute; (B) an applicant for, or beneficiary (as determined by the Secretary) of, any grant or contract under section 205 [33 USCS § 1124]; or (C) a full-time officer or employee of the United States.
(a) Security Clearance (on-line Background Security Check process and fingerprinting), and other applicable forms, both conducted through NOAA Workforce Management; and
(b) Confidential Financial Disclosure Report as an SGE, you are required to file a Confidential Financial Disclosure Report annually to avoid involvement in a real or apparent conflict of interest. You may find the Confidential Financial Disclosure Report at the following Web site.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meeting.
The Caribbean Fishery Management Council (Council) will hold its 159th meeting.
The meeting will be held on April 18-19, 2017. The Council will convene on Tuesday, April 18, 2017, from 9 a.m. to 5:30 p.m., and will reconvene on Wednesday, April 19, 2017, from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m.
Renaissance St. Croix Carambola Beach Resort & Spa, Estate Davis Bay, St. Croix, USVI 00850.
Caribbean Fishery Management Council, 270 Muñoz Rivera Avenue, Suite 401, San Juan, Puerto Rico 00918, telephone: (787) 766-5926.
The Council will hold its 159th regular Council Meeting to discuss the items contained in the following agenda:
The established times for addressing items on the agenda may be adjusted as necessary to accommodate the timely completion of discussion relevant to the agenda items. To further accommodate discussion and completion of all items on the agenda, the meeting may be extended from, or completed prior to the date established in this notice.
The meeting is open to the public, and will be conducted in English. Fishers and other interested persons are invited to attend and participate with oral or written statements regarding agenda issues.
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be subjects for formal action during this meeting. Actions will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in this notice, and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided that the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency.
The meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. For more information or request for sign language interpretation and/other auxiliary aids, please contact Mr. Miguel A. Rolón, Executive Director, Caribbean Fishery Management Council, 270 Muñoz Rivera Avenue, Suite 401, San Juan, Puerto Rico, 00918, telephone (787) 766-5926, at least five days prior to the meeting date.
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) operates two space-based data collection systems (DCS), the Geostationary Operational Environmental Satellite (GOES) DCS and the Polar-Orbiting Operational Environmental Satellite (POES) DCS, also known as the Argos system. NOAA allows users access to the DCS if they meet certain criteria. The applicants must submit information to ensure that they meet these criteria. NOAA does not approve agreements where there is a commercial service available to fulfill the user's requirements.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) is scheduling a public meeting of its Habitat Committee to consider actions affecting New England fisheries in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ). Recommendations from this group will be brought to the full Council for formal consideration and action, if appropriate.
The meeting will be held on Friday, April 14, 2017, at 9 a.m.
The meeting will be held at the Hilton Garden Inn Logan Airport, 100 Boardman Street, Boston, MA 02128; phone: (617) 567-6789.
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492.
The Habitat Committee will review the outcomes of March 13 and 15 deep-sea coral stakeholder workshops. They will also review impacts analysis and recommend preferred alternatives for the Deep-Sea Coral Amendment. Other business may be discussed as necessary.
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, at (978) 465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date. Consistent with 16 U.S.C. 1852, a copy of the recording is available upon request.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Notice.
The Defense Acquisition Regulations System has submitted to OMB for clearance, the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
Consideration will be given to all comments received by May 26, 2017.
DFARS 237.270 prescribes the use of the provision at DFARS 252.237-7000, Notice of Special Standards, in solicitations for the acquisition of audit services. The provision, at paragraph (c), requires the apparently successful offeror to submit evidence that it is properly licensed in the state or political jurisdiction it operates its professional practice.
DFARS 237.7003 prescribes the use of the clause 252.237-7011, Preparation History, and DD Form 2063, Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains (Within CONUS). The clause and the DD Form 2063 are used to verify that the deceased's remains have been properly cared by the mortuary contractor.
DFARS 237.7603(b) prescribes the use of the provision at 252.237-7024, Notice of Continuation of Essential Contractor Services, in solicitations that require the acquisition of services to support a mission essential function. The provision requires the offeror to submit a written plan demonstrating its capability to continue to provide the contractually required services to support a DoD component's mission essential functions in an emergency. The written plan, submitted concurrently with the proposal or offer, allows the contracting officer to assess the offeror's capability to continue providing contractually required services to support the DoD component's mission essential functions in an emergency.
DFARS 237.7603(a) prescribes the use of the clause at DFARS 252.237-7023, Continuation of Essential Contractor Services, in solicitations and contracts for services in support of mission essential functions. The clause requires the contractor to maintain and update its written plan as necessary to ensure that it can continue to provide services to support the DoD component's mission essential functions in an emergency. The contracting officer provides approval of the updates to the contractor's plan, to ensure that the contractor can continue to provide services in support of the DoD component's required mission essential functions in an emergency.
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed information collection should be sent to Ms. Seehra at the Office of Management and Budget, Desk Officer for DoD, Room 10236, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503.
You may also submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by the following method:
Written requests for copies of the information collection proposal should be sent to Mr. Licari at: Information Collections Program, WHS/ESD Office of Information Management, 4800 Mark Center Drive, 3rd Floor, East Tower, Suite 03F09, Alexandria, VA 22350-3100.
Notice.
The Defense Acquisition Regulations System has submitted to OMB for clearance, the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
Consideration will be given to all comments received by April 26, 2017.
DFARS 252.225-7000, Buy American Act—Balance of Payments Program Certificate, as prescribed in 225.1101(1), requires an offeror to identify, in its proposal, supplies that are not domestic end products, separately listing qualifying country and other foreign end products.
DFARS 252.225-7003, Report of Intended Performance Outside the United States and Canada—Submission with Offer, and 252.225-7004, Report of Intended Performance Outside the United States and Canada—Submission after Award, as prescribed in 225.7204(a) and (b) respectively, require offerors and contractors to submit a Report of Contract Performance Outside the United States for subcontracts to be performed outside the United States. The reporting threshold is $700,000 for contracts that exceed $13.5 million. The contractor may submit the report on DD Form 2139, Report of Contract Performance Outside the United States, or a computer-generated report that contains all information required by DD Form 2139.
DFARS 252.225-7005, Identification of Expenditures in the United States, as prescribed in 225.1103(1), requires contractors incorporated or located in the United States to identify, on each request for payment under contracts for supplies to be used, or for construction or services to be performed, outside the United States, that part of the requested payment representing estimated expenditures in the United States.
DFARS 252.225-7010, Commercial Derivative Military Article—Specialty Metals Compliance Certificate, as prescribed at 225.7003-5(b), requires the offeror to certify that it will take certain actions with regard to specialty metals if the offeror chooses to use the alternative compliance approach when providing commercial derivative military articles to the Government.
DFARS 252.225-7013, Duty-Free Entry, as prescribed in 225.1101(4), requires the contractor to provide information on shipping documents and customs forms regarding products that are eligible for duty-free entry.
DFARS 252.225-7018, Photovoltaic Devices—Certificate, as prescribed at 225.7017-4(b), requires offerors to certify that no photovoltaic devices with an estimated value exceeding $3,000 will be utilized in performance of the contract or to specify the country of origin.
DFARS 252.225-7020, Trade Agreements Certificate, as prescribed in 225.1101(5), requires an offeror to list the item number and country of origin of any nondesignated country end product that it intends to furnish under the contract. Either 252.225-7020 or 252.225-7022 is used in any solicitation for products subject to the World Trade Organization Government Procurement Agreement.
DFARS 252.225-7021, Alternate II, Trade Agreements, as prescribed in 225.1101(6)(ii), in order to comply with a condition of the waiver authority provided by the United States Trade Representative to the Secretary of Defense, requires contractors from a south Caucasus/central or south Asian state to inform the government of its participation in the acquisition and also advise their governments that they generally will not have such opportunities in the future unless their governments provide reciprocal procurement opportunities to U.S. products and services and suppliers of such products and services.
DFARS 252.225-7023, Preference for Products or Services from Afghanistan, as prescribed in 225.7703-5(a), requires an offeror to identify, in its proposal, products or services that are not products or services from Iraq or Afghanistan.
DFARS 252.225-7025, Restriction on Acquisition of Forgings, as prescribed in 225.7102-4, requires the contractor to retain records showing compliance with the requirement that end items and their components delivered under the contract contain forging items that are of domestic manufacture only. The contractor must retain the records for 3 years after final payment and must make the records available upon request of the contracting officer. The contractor may request a waiver of this requirement in accordance with DFARS 225.7102-3.
DFARS 252.225-7032, Waiver of United Kingdom Levies—Evaluation of Offers, and 252.225-7033, Waiver of United Kingdom Levies, as prescribed in 225.1101(7) and (8), require an offeror to provide information to the contracting officer regarding any United Kingdom levies included in the offered price, and require the contractor to provide information to the contracting officer regarding any United Kingdom levies to be included in a subcontract that exceeds $1 million, before award of the subcontract.
DFARS 252.225-7035, Buy American Act—North American Free Trade Agreement Implementation Act—
DFARS 252.225-7046, Exports of Approved Community Members in Response to the Solicitation, requires a representation whether exports or transfers of qualifying defense articles were made in preparing the response to the solicitation. If yes, the offeror represents that such exports or transfers complied with the requirements of the provision.
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed information collection should be sent to Ms. Seehra at the Office of Management and Budget, Desk Officer for DoD, Room 10236, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503.
You may also submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by the following method:
Written requests for copies of the information collection proposal should be sent to Mr. Licari at: Information Collections Program, WHS/ESD Office of Information Management, 4800 Mark Center Drive, 3rd Floor, East Tower, Suite 03F09, Alexandria, VA 22350-3100.
Notice.
The Defense Acquisition Regulations System has submitted to OMB for clearance, the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
Consideration will be given to all comments received by April 26, 2017.
The Contractor need not provide the listing to a particular cooperative agreement holder more frequently than once a year. Upon receipt of a contractor's list, the cooperative agreement holder utilizes the information to help businesses identify and pursue contracting opportunities with DoD and expand the number of businesses capable of participating in Government contracts.
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed information collection should be sent to Ms. Seehra at the Office of Management and Budget, Desk Officer for DoD, Room 10236, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503.
You may also submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by the following method:
Written requests for copies of the information collection proposal should be sent to Mr. Licari at: Information Collections Program, WHS/ESD Office of Information Management, 4800 Mark Center Drive, 3rd Floor, East Tower, Suite 03F09, Alexandria, VA 22350-3100.
Notice.
The Defense Acquisition Regulations System has submitted to OMB for clearance, the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
Consideration will be given to all comments received by April 26, 2017.
(a) DFARS provision 252.211-7004, Alternate Preservation, Packaging, and Packing, allows potential offerors to propose alternatives to military preservation, packaging, or packing specifications. Specifically, the offeror may include in its offer two unit prices in the format specified in the clause: one price based on use of the military specifications, and another price based on commercial or industry preservation, packaging, or packing of equal or better protection that the military. DoD uses the information to evaluate and award contracts using commercial or industrial preservation, packaging, or packing if the offeror chooses to propose such alternates.
(b) DFARS provision 252.211-7005, Substitutions for Military or Federal Specifications and Standards, permits offerors to propose Single Process Initiative (SPI) processes as alternatives to military or Federal specifications and standards cited in DoD solicitations for previously developed items. DoD uses the information to verify Government acceptance of an SPI process as a valid replacement for a military or Federal specification or standard.
(c) DFARS clause 252.211-7007, Reporting of Government-Furnished Property, requires contractors to report to the DoD Item Unique Identification (IUID) Registry all serially-managed Government-furnished property (GFP), as well as contractor receipt of non-serially managed items. The clause provides a list of specific reportable data elements and procedures for updating the IUID registry. DFARS 252.211-7007 strengthens the accountability and end-to-end traceability of GFP within DoD. Through electronic notification of physical receipt, the contracting officer is made aware that GFP has arrived at the contractor's repair facility. The DoD logistics community uses the information as a data source of available DoD equipment. In addition, the DoD organization responsible for contract administration uses the data to test the adequacy of the contractor's property management system.
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed information collection should be sent to Ms. Seehra at the Office of Management and Budget, Desk Officer for DoD, Room 10236, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503.
You may also submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by the following method:
Written requests for copies of the information collection proposal should be sent to Mr. Licari at: Information Collections Program, WHS/ESD Office of Information Management, 4800 Mark Center Drive, 3rd Floor, East Tower, Suite 03F09, Alexandria, VA 22350-3100.
Notice.
The Defense Acquisition Regulations System has submitted to OMB for clearance, the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
Consideration will be given to all comments received by April 26, 2017.
a. DFARS clause 252.244-7001, Contractor Purchasing System Administration—Basic, which is prescribed for use in solicitations and contracts containing the clause at FAR 52.244-2, Subcontracts.
b. DFARS clause 252.244-7001, Contractor Purchasing System Administration—Alternate I, which is prescribed for use in solicitations and contracts that contain DFARS clause 252.246-7007, Contractor Counterfeit Electronic Part Detection and Avoidance System, but do not contain FAR 52.244-2, Subcontracts.
The basic clause and its alternate provide the criteria necessary for
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed information collection should be sent to Ms. Seehra at the Office of Management and Budget, Desk Officer for DoD, Room 10236, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503.
You may also submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by the following method:
Written requests for copies of the information collection proposal should be sent to Mr. Licari at: Information Collections Program, WHS/ESD Office of Information Management, 4800 Mark Center Drive, 3rd Floor, East Tower, Suite 03F09, Alexandria, VA 22350-3100.
Notice.
The Defense Acquisition Regulations System has submitted to OMB for clearance, the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
Consideration will be given to all comments received by April 26, 2017.
(a) Paragraph (d)(1) requires the contractor to establish an adequate estimating system, disclose such estimating systems to the ACO, in writing;
(b) Paragraph (d)(3)(ii) requires the contractor to disclose significant changes to the cost estimating system to the ACO on a timely basis;
(c) Paragraph (e)(2) requires the contractor to respond within 30 days to the contracting officer's written initial determination that identifies significant deficiencies in the contractor's estimating system; and
(d) Paragraph (f) requires the contractor to respond within 45 days to the contracting officer's final determination of significant deficiencies, and either correct the significant deficiencies or submit an acceptable corrective action plan showing milestones and actions to eliminate the deficiencies.
DoD contracting officers use this information to determine if the contractor has an adequate system for generating cost estimates, which forecasts costs based on appropriate source information available at the time, and has the ability to monitor the correction of significant deficiencies.
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed information collection should be sent to Ms. Seehra at the Office of Management and Budget, Desk Officer for DoD, Room 10236, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503.
You may also submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by the following method:
Written requests for copies of the information collection proposal should be sent to Mr. Licari at: Information Collections Program, WHS/ESD Office of Information Management, 4800 Mark Center Drive, 3rd Floor, East Tower,
Notice.
The Defense Acquisition Regulations System has submitted to OMB for clearance, the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
Consideration will be given to all comments received by April 26, 2017.
a. DFARS 252.232-7007, Limitation of Government's Obligation. The Government will use this information to decide whether to allot additional funds for continued performance under the contract or to terminate the contract for convenience. If after such notification additional funds are not allotted by the date identified in the contractor's notification, or by an agreed substitute date, the contracting officer will terminate any items for which additional funds have not been allotted, pursuant to the clause of this contract entitled “Termination for Convenience of the Government.”
b. DFARS subpart 232.10, Performance-Based Payments. If a contractor desires to structure contract financing using performance-based payments, the contractor shall submit a proposed performance-based payments schedule which includes all performance-based payments events, completion criteria and event values along with the expected expenditure profile. The contracting officer will use this information to populate the Performance Based Payments analysis tool and negotiate the performance-based payment event schedule. This analysis tool is a cash-flow model used for evaluating alternative financing arrangements and to calculate improved financing opportunities that will provide benefit to both industry (prime and subcontractor level) and the taxpayer.
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed information collection should be sent to Ms. Seehra at the Office of Management and Budget, Desk Officer for DoD, Room 10236, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503.
You may also submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by the following method:
Written requests for copies of the information collection proposal should be sent to Mr. Licari at: Information Collections Program, WHS/ESD Office of Information Management, 4800 Mark Center Drive, 3rd Floor, East Tower, Suite 03F09, Alexandria, VA 22350-3100.
Department of the Army, U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, DoD.
Notice of availability.
The U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (USACE) Tulsa District has prepared a Revised Draft Environmental Impact Statement (RDEIS) to analyze the direct, indirect and cumulative effects of the construction of the proposed Lower Bois d'Arc Creek Reservoir (LBCR) and related actions proposed by the North Texas Municipal Water District (NTMWD) in Fannin County, Texas. The Proposed Action is a regional water supply project intended to provide up to 175,000 acre-feet/year (AFY), with an estimated firm yield of 120,665 AFY, of new water for NTMWD's member cities and direct customers in all or portions of nine counties in northern Texas—Collin, Dallas, Denton, Fannin, Hopkins, Hunt, Kaufman, Rains and Rockwall. Construction of the reservoir and related facilities would result in permanent impacts to approximately 5,874 acres of wetlands and 651,140 linear feet of streams, and 78 acres of open waters. This action requires authorization from the USACE under Section 404 of the Clean Water Act (CWA). The Section 404 of the CWA permit applicant is the NTMWD.
The RDEIS was prepared in accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969, as amended, and the USACE's regulations for NEPA implementation (33 Code of Federal Regulations [CFR] parts 230 and 325 (with associated Appendices B and C). The USACE, Tulsa District, Regulatory Office is the lead federal agency responsible for the RDEIS and information contained in the EIS will serve as the basis for a decision whether or not to issue a Section 404 of the CWA permit. It also provides information for Federal, State and local agencies having jurisdictional responsibility for affected resources.
Written comments on the RDEIS will be accepted on or before May 11, 2017.
Send written comments regarding the RDEIS to Mr. Andrew R. Commer, Regulatory Office Chief, USACE Tulsa District (CESWT-RO), 1645 South 101st East Avenue, Tulsa, Oklahoma 74128-4609, or via email:
Mr. Andrew R. Commer, USACE, Tulsa District Regulatory Office, at 918-669-7400.
The USACE has determined that the basic project purpose in the present case is to develop an additional, reliable water supply for the applicant (NTMWD) and its member cities and customers.
The purpose of the RDEIS is to provide decision-makers and the public with information pertaining to the Proposed Action and alternatives, and to disclose environmental impacts and identify mitigation measures to reduce impacts. NTMWD proposes to build the LBCR with a total storage capacity of approximately 367,609 AF. A dam approximately 10,400 feet (about two miles) long and up to 90 feet high would be constructed, and much of the reservoir footprint would be cleared of trees and built structures. NTMWD also proposes to construct several related facilities or connected actions. These include a raw water intake pump station and electrical substation at the reservoir site, as well as a 90-96 inch diameter buried pipeline to carry raw water from the new reservoir approximately 35 miles in a southwesterly direction to a new water treatment plant and terminal storage reservoir that would be located west of the City of Leonard, also in Fannin County, Texas. A number of rural roads within the footprint and in the vicinity of the proposed reservoir would have to be closed or relocated; the most significant of these is FM 1396, which would be relocated to cross the reservoir in a different alignment on an entirely new bridge that would need to be constructed.
An aquatic resources mitigation plan has been prepared by the applicant to comply with the federal policy of “no overall net loss of wetlands” and to provide compensatory mitigation, to the extent practicable, for impacts to other waters of the U.S. that would be impacted by construction of the proposed reservoir. NTMWD has purchased a 14,960-acre parcel of land known as the Riverby Ranch, which borders the Red River. This working ranch is located downstream of the proposed project within both the same watershed (Bois d'Arc Creek) and the same county (Fannin). NTMWD acquired the Riverby Ranch specifically because its biophysical features have the potential to provide a portion of the appropriate mitigation for the proposed project. Additional mitigation is proposed within a 1,900-acre upstream site and within the proposed reservoir itself. Though not part of the proposed mitigation plan, Bois d'Arc Creek downstream of the reservoir will receive environmental flow releases as a result of an operations plan and flow regime established in consultation with the Texas Commission on Environmental Quality (TCEQ), and stipulated in the Water Right Permit issued by TCEQ to NTMWD.
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency Region VI, U.S. Forest Service, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, and the Texas Parks and Wildlife Department (TPWD) participated as cooperating agencies in the formulation of the Draft EIS.
1. On December 8, 2009, the USACE held a NEPA EIS public scoping meeting in Bonham, Texas. On March 24, 2015, the USACE held a public meeting during the comment period on the previous DEIS. The revision and publication of this RDEIS is informed by public and agency comment on the original DEIS and changes have been made to address commented issues. No public meeting is planned during this comment period. Copies of the RDEIS will be available for review during the comment period at the USACE Tulsa District Office, the permit applicant's office in Wylie Texas, and at five locations in the project area in Fannin County, Texas, addresses of each as follows.
2. Bonham Public Library, 305 East 5th Street, Bonham, TX 75418; (903) 583-3128.
3. Sam Rayburn Library, 800 West Sam Rayburn Drive, Bonham, TX 75418; (903) 583-2455.
4. Bertha Voyer Memorial Library, 500 6th Street, Honey Grove, TX 75446; (903) 378-2206.
5. Leonard Public Library, 102 South Main Street, Leonard, TX 75452; (903) 587-2391.
6. North Texas Municipal Water District headquarters, 505 East Brown Street, Wylie, TX 75098.
7. U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Tulsa District, Regulatory Office, 1645 South 101st East Avenue, Tulsa, OK 74128-4609.
Electronic copies of the Draft EIS may be obtained from the USACE Tulsa District, Regulatory Office or its Web site at
Office of Elementary and Secondary Education (OESE), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing an extension of an existing information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before April 26, 2017.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Amanda Ognibene, 202-453-6637.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information
Office of Innovation and Improvement, Department of Education.
Notice.
CSP—Grants to State Entities; Notice inviting applications for new awards for fiscal year (FY) 2017.
Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance (CFDA) Number: 84.282A.
Kathryn Meeley, U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Room 4W257, Washington, DC 20202-5970. Telephone: (202) 453-6818 or by email:
If you use a TDD or a TTY, call the FRS, toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
The CSP State Entities program is newly authorized under the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 (ESEA), as amended by the Every Student Succeeds Act (ESSA) (20 U.S.C. 7221-7221j).
All charter schools receiving CSP funds must meet the definition of “charter school” in section 4310(2) of the ESEA, including by complying with various non-discrimination laws, such as the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, section 444 of the General Education Provisions Act (GEPA), and part B of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA).
• An additional five points to an application that meets one, and an
• An additional two points to an application that meets competitive preference priority 3;
• Up to an additional eight points, depending on how well the application addresses one or more of competitive preference priorities 4, 5, 6, and 7; and
• Up to an additional five points, depending on how well the application addresses competitive preference priority 8.
An application may receive up to a total of 25 points under the competitive preference priorities.
(a) That each charter school in the State—
(1) Operates under a legally binding charter or performance contract between itself and the school's authorized public chartering agency that describes the rights and responsibilities of the school and the authorized public chartering agency;
(2) Conducts annual, timely, and independent audits of the school's financial statements that are filed with the school's authorized public chartering agency; and
(3) Demonstrates improved student academic achievement; and
(b) That all authorized public chartering agencies in the State use increases in student academic achievement for all groups of students described in section 1111(c)(2) of the ESEA (20 U.S.C. 6311(c)(2)) as one of the most important factors when determining whether to renew or revoke a school's charter.
To meet this priority, an applicant must demonstrate that it is located in a State that—
(a) Allows at least one entity that is not a local educational agency to be an authorized public chartering agency for “developers” (as defined in this notice) seeking to open a charter school in the State; or
(b) In the case of a State in which local educational agencies are the only authorized public chartering agencies, the State has an appeals process for the denial of an application for a charter school.
To receive points under this priority, an applicant must demonstrate the extent to which the State in which it is located ensures equitable financing, as compared to traditional public schools, for charter schools and students in a prompt manner.
To receive points under this priority, an applicant must demonstrate the extent to which the State in which it is located provides charter schools one or more of the following:
(a) Funding for facilities;
(b) Assistance with facilities acquisition;
(c) Access to public facilities;
(d) The ability to share in bonds or mill levies;
(e) The right of first refusal to purchase public school buildings; or
(f) Low- or no-cost leasing privileges.
To receive points under this priority, an applicant must demonstrate the extent to which the State in which it is located uses best practices from charter schools to help improve struggling schools and local educational agencies.
To receive points under this priority, an applicant must demonstrate the extent to which it supports charter schools that serve at-risk students through activities such as dropout prevention, dropout recovery, or comprehensive career counseling services.
To receive points under this priority, an applicant must demonstrate the extent to which it has taken steps to ensure that all authorized public chartering agencies implement best practices for charter school authorizing.
These application requirements are from section 4303(f) of the ESEA (20 U.S.C. 7221b(f)). The Department will reject an application that does not meet the application requirements.
Applications for funding under the CSP State Entities program must contain the following:
(I) Description of Program—A description of the State entity's objectives in running a quality charter school program and how the objectives of the program will be carried out, including—
(A) A description of how the State entity will—
(1) Support the opening of charter schools through the startup of new charter schools and, if applicable, the replication of high-quality charter schools, and the expansion of high-quality charter schools (including the proposed number of new charter schools to be opened, high-quality charter schools to be opened as a result of the replication of a high-quality charter school, or high-quality charter schools to be expanded under the State entity's program);
(2) Inform eligible charter schools, developers, and authorized public chartering agencies of the availability of funds under the program;
(3) Work with eligible applicants to ensure that the eligible applicants access all Federal funds that such applicants are eligible to receive, and help the charter schools supported by the applicants and the students attending those charter schools—
(a) Participate in the Federal programs in which the schools and students are eligible to participate;
(b) Receive the commensurate share of Federal funds the schools and students are eligible to receive under such programs; and
(c) Meet the needs of students served under such programs, including
(4) Ensure that authorized public chartering agencies, in collaboration with surrounding local educational agencies where applicable, establish clear plans and procedures to assist students enrolled in a charter school that closes or loses its charter to attend other high-quality public schools;
(5) In the case of a State entity that is not a “State educational agency” (as defined in this notice)—
(a) Work with the State educational agency and charter schools in the State to maximize charter school participation in Federal and State programs for which charter schools are eligible; and
(b) Work with the State educational agency to operate the State entity's program under this competition, if applicable;
(6) Ensure that each eligible applicant that receives a subgrant under the State entity's program—
(a) Is using funds provided under this competition for one of the activities described in section 4303(b)(1) of the ESEA; and
(b) Is prepared to continue to operate charter schools funded under this competition in a manner consistent with the eligible applicant's application for such subgrant once the subgrant funds under this program are no longer available;
(7) Support—
(a) Charter schools in local educational agencies with a significant number of schools identified by the State for comprehensive support and improvement under section 1111(c)(4)(D)(i) of the ESEA; and
(b) The use of charter schools to improve struggling schools, or to turn around struggling schools;
(8) Work with charter schools on—
(a) Recruitment and enrollment practices to promote inclusion of all students, including by eliminating any barriers to enrollment for educationally disadvantaged students (who include foster youth and unaccompanied homeless youth); and
(b) Supporting all students once they are enrolled to promote retention, including by reducing the overuse of discipline practices that remove students from the classroom;
(9) Share best and promising practices between charter schools and other public schools;
(10) Ensure that charter schools receiving funds under the State entity's program meet the educational needs of their students, including “children with disabilities” (as defined in this notice) and English learners;
(11) Support efforts to increase charter school quality initiatives, including meeting the quality authorizing elements described in section 4303(f)(2)(E) of the ESEA;
(12) (a) In the case of a State entity that is not a “charter school support organization” (as defined in this notice), a description of how the State entity will provide oversight of authorizing activity, including how the State will help ensure better authorizing, such as by establishing authorizing standards that may include approving, monitoring, and re-approving or revoking the authority of an authorized public chartering agency based on the performance of the charter schools authorized by such agency in the areas of student achievement, student safety, financial and operational management, and compliance with all applicable statutes and regulations; and
(b) In the case of a State entity that is a charter school support organization, a description of how the State entity will work with the State to support the State's system of technical assistance and oversight, as described in application requirement (I)(A)(12)(a) above, of the authorizing activity of authorized public chartering agencies; and
(13) Work with eligible applicants receiving a subgrant under the State entity's program to support the opening of new charter schools or charter school models described in application requirement (I)(A)(1) that are high schools;
(B) A description of the extent to which the State entity—
(1) Is able to meet and carry out competitive preference priorities 3 through 8;
(2) Is working to develop or strengthen a cohesive statewide system to support the opening of new charter schools and, if applicable, the replication of high-quality charter schools, and the expansion of high-quality charter schools; and
(3) Is working to develop or strengthen a cohesive strategy to encourage collaboration between charter schools and local educational agencies on the sharing of best practices;
(C) A description of how the State entity will award subgrants, on a competitive basis, including—
(1) A description of the application each eligible applicant desiring to receive a subgrant will be required to submit and how the State entity will ensure that such application complies with section 4303(f)(1)(C)(i) of the ESEA; and
(2) A description of how the State entity will review applications from eligible applicants;
(D) In the case of a State entity that partners with an outside organization to carry out the State entity's quality charter school program in whole or in part, a description of the roles and responsibilities of the partner;
(E) A description of how the State entity will ensure that each charter school receiving funds under the State entity's program has considered and planned for the transportation needs of the school's students;
(F) A description of how the State in which the State entity is located addresses charter schools in the State's open meetings and open records laws; and
(G) A description of how the State entity will support diverse charter school models, including models that serve rural communities.
(II) Assurances that—
(A) Each charter school receiving funds through the State entity's program will have a high degree of autonomy over budget and operations, including autonomy over personnel decisions;
(B) The State entity will support charter schools in meeting the educational needs of their students, including children with disabilities and English learners;
(C) The State entity will ensure that the authorized public chartering agency of any charter school that receives funds under the State entity's program adequately monitors each charter school under the authority of such agency in recruiting, enrolling, retaining, and meeting the needs of all students, including children with disabilities and English learners;
(D) The State entity will provide adequate technical assistance to eligible applicants to meet the objectives described in application requirement (I)(A)(8) above;
(E) The State entity will promote quality authorizing, consistent with State law, such as through providing technical assistance to support each authorized public chartering agency in the State to improve such agency's
(1) Assessing annual performance data of the schools, including, as appropriate, graduation rates, student academic growth, and rates of student attrition;
(2) Reviewing the schools' independent, annual audits of financial statements prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and ensuring that any such audits are publically reported; and
(3) Holding charter schools accountable to the academic, financial, and operational quality controls agreed to between the charter school and the authorized public chartering agency involved, such as through renewal, non-renewal, or revocation of the school's charter;
(F) The State entity will work to ensure that charter schools are included with the traditional public schools in decisionmaking about the public school system in the State; and
(G) The State entity will ensure that each charter school receiving funds under the State entity's program makes publicly available, consistent with the dissemination requirements of the annual State report card under section 1111(h) of the ESEA, including on the Web site of the school, information to help “parents” (as defined in this notice) make informed decisions about the education options available to their children, including—
(1) Information on the educational program;
(2) Student support services;
(3) Parent contract requirements (as applicable), including any financial obligations or fees;
(4) Enrollment criteria (as applicable); and
(5) Annual performance and enrollment data for each of the subgroups of students, as defined in section 1111(c)(2) of the ESEA, except that such disaggregation of performance and enrollment data shall not be required in a case in which the number of students in a group is insufficient to yield statistically reliable information or the results would reveal personally identifiable information about an individual student.
(III) Requests for information about waivers, including—
(A) A request and justification for waivers of any Federal statutory or regulatory provisions that the State entity believes are necessary for the successful operation of the charter schools that will receive funds under the State entity's program under section 4303 of the ESEA or, in the case of a State entity that is a charter school support organization, a description of how the State entity will work with the State to request such necessary waivers, where applicable; and
(B) A description of any State or local rules, generally applicable to public schools, that will be waived or otherwise not apply to such schools.
The following definitions are from sections 4303(a), 4310, and 8101 of the ESEA (20 U.S.C. 7221b(a), 7221i, and 7801), and 34 CFR 77.1.
(a) In accordance with a specific State statute authorizing the granting of charters to schools, is exempt from significant State or local rules that inhibit the flexible operation and management of public schools, but not from any rules relating to the other requirements of this definition;
(b) Is created by a developer as a public school, or is adapted by a developer from an existing public school, and is operated under public supervision and direction;
(c) Operates in pursuit of a specific set of educational objectives determined by the school's developer and agreed to by the authorized public chartering agency;
(d) Provides a program of elementary or secondary education, or both;
(e) Is nonsectarian in its programs, admissions policies, employment practices, and all other operations, and is not affiliated with a sectarian school or religious institution;
(f) Does not charge tuition;
(g) Complies with the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. 12101
(h) Is a school to which parents choose to send their children, and that—
(1) Admits students on the basis of a lottery, consistent with section 4303(c)(3)(A) of the ESEA, if more students apply for admission than can be accommodated; or
(2) In the case of a school that has an affiliated charter school (such as a school that is part of the same network of schools), automatically enrolls students who are enrolled in the immediate prior grade level of the affiliated charter school and, for any additional student openings or student openings created through regular attrition in student enrollment in the affiliated charter school and the enrolling school, admits students on the basis of a lottery as described in paragraph (1);
(i) Agrees to comply with the same Federal and State audit requirements as do other elementary schools and secondary schools in the State, unless such State audit requirements are waived by the State;
(j) Meets all applicable Federal, State, and local health and safety requirements;
(k) Operates in accordance with State law;
(l) Has a written performance contract with the authorized public chartering agency in the State that includes a description of how student performance will be measured in charter schools pursuant to State assessments that are required of other schools and pursuant to any other assessments mutually agreeable to the authorized public chartering agency and the charter school; and
(m) May serve students in early childhood educational programs or postsecondary students. (ESEA section 4310(2))
(a) Assistance to developers during the planning, program design, and initial implementation of a charter school; and
(b) Technical assistance to operating charter schools. (ESEA section 4310(4))
(a) A child (i) with mental retardation, hearing impairments (including deafness), speech or language impairments, visual impairments (including blindness), serious emotional disturbance (referred to in this title as `emotional disturbance'), orthopedic impairments, autism, traumatic brain injury, other health impairments, or specific learning disabilities; and (ii) who, by reason thereof, needs special education and related services.
(b) For a child aged 3 through 9 (or any subset of that age range, including ages 3 through 5), may, at the discretion of the State and the local educational agency, include a child (i) experiencing developmental delays, as defined by the State and as measured by appropriate diagnostic instruments and procedures, in one or more of the following areas: Physical development; cognitive development; communication development; social or emotional development; or adaptive development; and (ii) who, by reason thereof, needs special education and related services. (ESEA section 8101(4))
(a) Applied to an authorized public chartering authority to operate a charter school; and
(b) Provided adequate and timely notice to that authority. (ESEA section 4310(6))
(a) Who is aged 3 through 21;
(b) Who is enrolled or preparing to enroll in an elementary school or secondary school;
(c)(1) Who was not born in the United States or whose native language is a language other than English;
(2)(i) Who is a Native American or Alaska Native, or a native resident of the outlying areas; and
(ii) Who comes from an environment where a language other than English has had a significant impact on the individual's level of English language proficiency; or
(3) Who is migratory, whose native language is a language other than English, and who comes from an environment where a language other than English is dominant; and
(d) Whose difficulties in speaking, reading, writing, or understanding the English language may be sufficient to deny the individual—
(1) The ability to meet the challenging State academic standards;
(2) The ability to successfully achieve in classrooms where the language of instruction is English; or
(3) The opportunity to participate fully in society. (ESEA section 8101(20))
(a) Shows evidence of strong academic results, which may include strong student academic growth, as determined by a State;
(b) Has no significant issues in the areas of student safety, financial and operational management, or statutory or regulatory compliance;
(c) Has demonstrated success in significantly increasing student academic achievement, including graduation rates where applicable, for all students served by the charter school; and
(d) Has demonstrated success in increasing student academic achievement, including graduation rates where applicable, for each of the subgroups of students, as defined in section 1111(c)(2) of the ESEA, except that such demonstration is not required in a case in which the number of students in a group is insufficient to yield statistically reliable information or the results would reveal personally identifiable information about an individual students. (ESEA section 4310(8))
(a) A State educational agency;
(b) A State charter school board;
(c) A Governor of a State; or
(d) A charter school support organization. (ESEA section 4303(a))
Contingent upon the availability of funds and the quality of applications, we may make additional awards in FY 2018 from the list of unfunded applications from this competition.
The Department is not bound by any estimates in this notice. The estimated range and average size of awards are based on a single 12-month budget period. We may use FY 2017 funds to support multiple 12-month budget periods for one or more grantees.
State entities may award subgrants to eligible applicants for a period of up to five years, no more than 18 months of which may be used for planning and program design.
1.
Under section 4303(e)(1) of the ESEA, no State entity may receive a grant under this program for use in a State in which a State entity is currently using a grant received under this program. Accordingly, if multiple State entities in a State submit applications that receive high enough scores to be recommended for funding under this competition, only the highest-scoring application amongst such State entities would be funded.
A charter school developer in a State in which no State entity has an application for a grant approved under section 4303 of the ESEA may apply for funding directly from the Department under the CSP Grants to Developers competitions. Additional information about the CSP Grants to Developers competitions is available at
2.
(b) All grantees must ensure that charter schools receiving subgrants conduct independent, annual audits of their financial statements prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, and ensure that any such audits are publicly reported.
3.
4.
For this competition, the maximum amount of grant funds a State entity may award to a subgrantee per new charter school, replicated high-quality charter school, or expanding high-quality charter school is $900,000.
Applicants must ensure that all costs included in the proposed budget are reasonable and necessary in light of the goals and objectives of the proposed project. Any costs determined by the Secretary to be unreasonable or unnecessary will be removed from the final approved budget.
1.
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
Individuals with disabilities can obtain a copy of the application package in an accessible format (
2.a.
• A “page” is 8.5″ x 11″, on one side only, with 1″ margins at the top, bottom, and both sides.
• Double space (no more than three lines per vertical inch) all text in the application narrative, including titles, headings, footnotes, quotations, references, and captions, as well as all text in charts, tables, figures, and graphs.
• Use a font that is either 12 point or larger or no smaller than 10 pitch (characters per inch).
• Use one of the following fonts: Times New Roman, Courier, Courier New, or Arial. An application submitted in any other font (including Times Roman or Arial Narrow) will not be accepted.
The page limit does not apply to Part I, the cover sheet; Part II, the budget section, including the narrative budget justification; Part IV, the assurances and certifications; or the one-page abstract, the resumes, the bibliography, or the letters of support. However, the page limit does apply to all of the application narrative.
b.
Because we plan to make successful applications available to the public, you may wish to request confidentiality of business information.
Consistent with Executive Order 12600, please designate in your application any information that you feel is exempt from disclosure under Exemption 4. In the appropriate
3.
For further information about the pre-application meeting, contact Kathryn Meeley, U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Room 4W257, Washington, DC 20202-5970. Telephone: (202) 453-6818 or by email:
Applications for grants under this competition must be submitted electronically using the
We do not consider an application that does not comply with the deadline requirements.
Individuals with disabilities who need an accommodation or auxiliary aid in connection with the application process should contact the person listed under
4.
5.
A subgrant awarded by a State entity under this program shall be for a period of not more than five years, of which an eligible applicant may use not more than 18 months for planning and program design. An eligible applicant may not receive more than one subgrant under this program for each individual charter school for a five-year period, unless the eligible applicant demonstrates to the State entity that such individual charter school has at least three years of improved educational results for students enrolled in such charter school, with respect to the elements described in section 4310(8)(A) and (D) of the ESEA.
Likewise, a charter school that receives funds from a State entity is ineligible to receive funds for the same or a substantially similar purpose under section 4305(a)(2) and (b) of the ESEA.
(a) Open and prepare for the operation of new charter schools;
(b) Open and prepare for the operation of replicated high-quality charter schools; or
(c) Expand high-quality charter schools.
An eligible applicant receiving a subgrant under this program shall use such funds to support activities related to opening and preparing for the operation of new charter schools or replicating or expanding high-quality charter schools, which shall include one or more of the following:
(a) Preparing teachers, school leaders, and specialized instructional support personnel, including through paying costs associated with—
(i) Providing professional development; and
(ii) Hiring and compensating, during the eligible applicant's planning period specified in the application for funds, one or more of the following:
(A) Teachers.
(B) School leaders.
(C) Specialized instructional support personnel.
(b) Acquiring supplies, training, equipment (including technology), and educational materials (including developing and acquiring instructional materials).
(c) Carrying out necessary renovations to ensure that a new school building complies with applicable statutes and regulations, and minor facilities repairs (excluding construction).
(d) Providing one-time, startup costs associated with providing transportation to students to and from the charter school.
(e) Carrying out community engagement activities, which may include paying the cost of student and staff recruitment.
(f) Providing for other appropriate, non-sustained costs related to opening, replicating, or expanding high-quality charter schools when such costs cannot be met from other sources.
(a) Are distributed throughout different areas, including urban, suburban, and rural areas; and
(b) Will assist charter schools representing a variety of educational approaches.
We reference additional regulations outlining funding restrictions in the
6.
a. Have a Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS) number and a Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN);
b. Register both your DUNS number and TIN with the System for Award Management (SAM), the Government's primary registrant database;
c. Provide your DUNS number and TIN on your application; and
d. Maintain an active SAM registration with current information while your application is under review by the Department and, if you are awarded a grant, during the project period.
You can obtain a DUNS number from Dun and Bradstreet at the following Web site:
If you are a corporate entity, agency, institution, or organization, you can obtain a TIN from the Internal Revenue Service. If you are an individual, you can obtain a TIN from the Internal Revenue Service or the Social Security Administration. If you need a new TIN, please allow two to five weeks for your TIN to become active.
The SAM registration process can take approximately seven business days, but may take upwards of several weeks, depending on the completeness and accuracy of the data you enter into the SAM database. Thus, if you think you might want to apply for Federal financial assistance under a program administered by the Department, please allow sufficient time to obtain and register your DUNS number and TIN. We strongly recommend that you register early.
Once your SAM registration is active, it may be 24 to 48 hours before you can access the information in, and submit an application through,
If you are currently registered with SAM, you may not need to make any changes. However, please make certain that the TIN associated with your DUNS number is correct. Also note that you will need to update your registration annually. This may take three or more business days.
Information about SAM is available at
In addition, if you are submitting your application via
7.
a.
We will reject your application if you submit it in paper format unless, as described elsewhere in this section, you qualify for one of the exceptions to the electronic submission requirement
You may access the electronic grant application for CSP Grants to Support High-Quality Charter Schools for State Entities at
Please note the following:
• When you enter the
• Applications received by
• The amount of time it can take to upload an application will vary depending on a variety of factors, including the size of the application and the speed of your Internet connection. Therefore, we strongly recommend that you do not wait until the application deadline date to begin the submission process through
• You should review and follow the Education Submission Procedures for
• You will not receive additional point value because you submit your application in electronic format, nor will we penalize you if you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, as described elsewhere in this section, and submit your application in paper format.
• You must submit all documents electronically, including all information you typically provide on the following forms: the Application for Federal Assistance (SF 424), the Department of Education Supplemental Information for SF 424, Budget Information—Non-Construction Programs (ED 524), and all necessary assurances and certifications.
• You must upload any narrative sections and all other attachments to your application as files in a read-only, non-modifiable Portable Document Format (PDF). Do not upload an interactive or fillable PDF file. If you upload a file type other than a read-only, non-modifiable PDF (
• Your electronic application must comply with any page-limit requirements described in this notice.
• After you electronically submit your application, you will receive from
Once your application is successfully validated by
These emails do not mean that your application is without any disqualifying errors. While your application may have been successfully validated by
• We may request that you provide us original signatures on forms at a later date.
If you are prevented from electronically submitting your application on the application deadline date because of technical problems with the
If you submit an application after 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date, please contact the person listed under
The extensions to which we refer in this section apply only to the unavailability of, or technical problems with, the
• You do not have access to the Internet; or
• You do not have the capacity to upload large documents to the
• No later than two weeks before the application deadline date (14 calendar days or, if the fourteenth calendar day before the application deadline date falls on a Federal holiday, the next business day following the Federal holiday), you mail or fax a written statement to the Department, explaining which of the two grounds for an exception prevents you from using the Internet to submit your application.
If you mail your written statement to the Department, it must be postmarked no later than two weeks before the application deadline date. If you fax your written statement to the Department, we must receive the faxed statement no later than two weeks before the application deadline date.
Address and mail or fax your statement to: Kathryn Meeley, U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Room 4W257, Washington, DC 20202-5970. FAX: (202) 453-6818.
Your paper application must be submitted in accordance with the mail or hand delivery instructions described in this notice.
b.
If you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, you may mail (through the U.S. Postal Service or a commercial carrier) your application to the Department. You must mail the original and two copies of your application, on or before the application deadline date, to the Department at the following address: U.S. Department of Education,
You must show proof of mailing consisting of one of the following:
(1) A legibly dated U.S. Postal Service postmark.
(2) A legible mail receipt with the date of mailing stamped by the U.S. Postal Service.
(3) A dated shipping label, invoice, or receipt from a commercial carrier.
(4) Any other proof of mailing acceptable to the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Education.
If you mail your application through the U.S. Postal Service, we do not accept either of the following as proof of mailing:
(1) A private metered postmark.
(2) A mail receipt that is not dated by the U.S. Postal Service.
The U.S. Postal Service does not uniformly provide a dated postmark. Before relying on this method, you should check with your local post office.
We will not consider applications postmarked after the application deadline.
c.
If you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, you (or a courier service) may deliver your paper application to the Department by hand. You must deliver the original and two copies of your application by hand, on or before the application deadline date, to the Department at the following address: U.S. Department of Education, Application Control Center, Attention: CFDA Number 84.282A, 550 12th Street, SW., Room 7039, Potomac Center Plaza, Washington, DC 20202-4260.
The Application Control Center accepts hand deliveries daily between 8:00 a.m. and 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, except Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.
If you mail or hand deliver your application to the Department—
(1) You must indicate on the envelope and—if not provided by the Department—in Item 11 of the SF 424 the CFDA number, including suffix letter, if any, of the competition under which you are submitting your application; and
(2) The Application Control Center will mail to you a notification of receipt of your grant application. If you do not receive this notification within 15 business days from the application deadline date, you should call the U.S. Department of Education Application Control Center at (202) 245-6288.
1.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) Adequately monitor the eligible applicants receiving subgrants under the State entity's program;
(2) Work with the authorized public chartering agencies involved to avoid duplication of work for the charter schools and authorized public chartering agencies; and
(3) Provide technical assistance and support for—
(i) The eligible applicants receiving subgrants under the State entity's program; and
(ii) Quality authorizing efforts in the State.
(e)
(f)
(1) The subgrant application and peer review process, timelines for these processes, and how the State entity intends to ensure that subgrants will be awarded to eligible applicants demonstrating the capacity to create high-quality charter schools; and
(2) A reasonable year-by-year estimate, with supporting evidence, of (i) the number of subgrants the State entity expects to award during the project period and the average size of those subgrants, including an explanation of any assumptions upon which the estimates are based; and (ii) if the State entity has previously received a CSP grant, the percentage of eligible applicants that were awarded subgrants and how this percentage related to the overall quality of the applicant pool.
(g)
(1) The quality, including the cohesiveness and strength of reasoning, of the “logic model” (as defined in this notice), and the extent to which it addresses the role of the grant in promoting the State-level strategy for using charter schools to improve educational outcomes for students through CSP subgrants for planning, program design, and initial implementation and other strategies;
(2) The extent to which the State entity's project-specific performance measures, including any measures required by the Department, support the logic model; and
(3) The adequacy of the management plan to—
(i) Achieve the objectives of the proposed project on time and within budget, including the existence of clearly defined responsibilities, timelines, and milestones for accomplishing project tasks; and
(ii) Address any compliance issues or findings related to the CSP that are identified in an audit or other monitoring review.
2.
In addition, in making a competitive grant award, the Secretary requires various assurances, including those applicable to Federal civil rights laws that prohibit discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department of Education (34 CFR 100.4, 104.5, 106.4, 108.8, and 110.23).
3.
4.
Please note that, if the total value of your currently active grants, cooperative agreements, and procurement contracts from the Federal Government exceeds $10,000,000, the reporting requirements in 2 CFR part 200, Appendix XII, require you to report certain integrity information to FAPIIS semiannually. Please review the requirements in 2 CFR part 200, Appendix XII, if this grant plus all the other Federal funds you receive exceed $10,000,000.
1.
If your application is not evaluated or not selected for funding, we notify you.
2.
We reference the regulations outlining the terms and conditions of an award in the
3.
(b) At the end of your project period, you must submit a final performance report, including financial information, as directed by the Secretary. If you receive a multiyear award, you must submit an annual performance report that provides the most current performance and financial expenditure information as directed by the Secretary under 34 CFR 75.118. The Secretary may also require more frequent performance reports under 34 CFR 75.720(c). For specific requirements on reporting, please go to
(c) In accordance with section 4303(i) of the ESEA, each State entity receiving a grant under this section shall submit to the Secretary, at the end of the third year of the five-year grant period (or at the end of the second year if the grant period is less than five years), and at the end of such grant period, a report that includes the following:
(1) The number of students served by each subgrant awarded under this section and, if applicable, the number of new students served during each year of the period of the subgrant.
(2) A description of how the State entity met the objectives of the quality charter school program described in the State entity's application, including—
(A) How the State entity met the objective of sharing best and promising practices as outlined in section 4303(f)(1)(A)(ix) of the ESEA in areas such as instruction, professional development, curricula development, and operations between charter schools and other public schools; and
(B) If known, the extent to which such practices were adopted and implemented by such other public schools.
(3) The number and amount of subgrants awarded under this program to carry out activities described in section 4303(b)(1)(A) through (C) of the ESEA.
(4) A description of—
(A) How the State entity complied with, and ensured that eligible applicants complied with, the assurances included in the State entity's application; and
(B) How the State entity worked with authorized public chartering agencies, and how the agencies worked with the management company or leadership of the schools that received subgrant funds under this program, if applicable.
(d) Under 34 CFR 75.250(b), the Secretary may provide a grantee with additional funding for data collection analysis and reporting. In this case the Secretary establishes a data collection period.
4.
(a)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
All grantees must submit an annual performance report with information that is responsive to these performance measures.
5.
In making a continuation award, the Secretary also considers whether the grantee is operating in compliance with the assurances in its approved application, including those applicable to Federal civil rights laws that prohibit discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department (34 CFR 100.4, 104.5, 106.4, 108.8, and 110.23).
6.
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Office of Innovation and Improvement, Department of Education.
Notice.
Expanding Opportunity through Quality Charter Schools Program (CSP)—Grants for Credit Enhancement for Charter School Facilities Notice inviting applications for new awards for fiscal year (FY) 2017.
Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance (CFDA) Number: 84.354A.
Since FY 2002, the Department has made new Credit Enhancement grants each year, which has resulted in a portfolio of grantees using Federal funds to enhance the credit of charter schools so that they can access private-sector and other non-Federal capital in order to acquire, construct, and renovate facilities at a reasonable cost. In December 2015, the Credit Enhancement program was reauthorized under the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 (ESEA), as amended by the Every Student Succeeds Act (ESSA) (20 U.S.C. 7221c). This notice contains application requirements from the ESEA, as amended by the ESSA,
This priority is:
The capacity of charter schools to offer public school choice in those communities with the greatest need for this choice based on—
(1) The extent to which the applicant would target services to geographic areas in which a large proportion or number of public schools have been identified for improvement, corrective action, or restructuring under Title I of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965, as amended by the No Child Left Behind Act of 2001 (NCLB).
(2) The extent to which the applicant would target services to geographic areas in which a large proportion of students perform below proficient on State academic assessments; and
(3) The extent to which the applicant would target services to communities with large proportions of students from low-income families.
With regard to paragraph (1), consistent with the transition authority in section 4(b) of the ESSA, through the 2017-2018 school year, the Department will allow applicants to target services to geographic areas in which a large proportion of public schools are, at the time of submission of an application under this competition: (i) Elementary and secondary schools identified as in need of improvement, corrective action, or restructuring under the ESEA, as amended by NCLB; or (ii) elementary and secondary schools identified as a priority or focus school by the State prior to August 1, 2016 under ESEA flexibility.
After school year 2017-2018, the Department will require an applicant that receives points under this priority and receives a grant under this competition to amend its approved application, as needed, to describe how it will target services to geographic areas in which a large proportion of public schools are elementary and secondary schools identified for comprehensive or targeted support and improvement under the ESEA, as amended by the ESSA.
This priority is:
Projects proposing the development of one or more partnerships that will enable the applicant to leverage newly created or previously untapped sources of capital or other assistance, which may include non-Federal programs, in financing charter school facilities.
The following definition is from section 4310 of the ESEA.
(a) In accordance with a specific State statute authorizing the granting of charters to schools, is exempt from significant State or local rules that inhibit the flexible operation and management of public schools, but not from any rules relating to the other requirements in section 4310 of the ESEA;
(b) Is created by a developer as a public school, or is adapted by a developer from an existing public school, and is operated under public supervision and direction;
(c) Operates in pursuit of a specific set of educational objectives determined by the school's developer and agreed to by the authorized public chartering agency;
(d) Provides a program of elementary or secondary education, or both;
(e) Is nonsectarian in its programs, admissions policies, employment practices, and all other operations, and is not affiliated with a sectarian school or religious institution;
(f) Does not charge tuition;
(g) Complies with the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. 12101
(h) Is a school to which parents choose to send their children, and that—
(1) Admits students on the basis of a lottery, consistent with section 4303(c)(3)(A), if more students apply for admission than can be accommodated; or
(2) In the case of a school that has an affiliated charter school (such as a school that is part of the same network of schools), automatically enrolls students who are enrolled in the immediate prior grade level of the affiliated charter school and, for any additional student openings or student openings created through regular attrition in student enrollment in the affiliated charter school and the enrolling school, admits students on the basis of a lottery as described in clause (1);
(i) Agrees to comply with the same Federal and State audit requirements as do other elementary schools and secondary schools in the State, unless such State audit requirements are waived by the State;
(j) Meets all applicable Federal, State, and local health and safety requirements;
(k) Operates in accordance with State law;
(l) Has a written performance contract with the authorized public chartering agency in the State that includes a description of how student performance will be measured in charter schools pursuant to State assessments that are required of other schools and pursuant to any other assessments mutually agreeable to the authorized public chartering agency and the charter school; and
(m) May serve students in early childhood education programs or postsecondary students.
Contingent upon the availability of funds and the quality of applications, we may make additional awards in subsequent years from the list of unfunded applications from this competition.
(a) A public entity, such as a State or local governmental entity;
(b) A private, nonprofit entity; or
(c) A consortium of entities described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
2.
3.
1.
You can contact ED Pubs at its Web site, also:
If you request an application package from ED Pubs, be sure to identify this program or competition as follows: CFDA number 84.354A.
Individuals with disabilities can obtain a copy of the application package in an accessible format (
2. a.
(A) A statement identifying the activities that the eligible entity proposes to carry out with funds received under the program, including how the eligible entity will determine which charter schools will receive assistance, and how much and what types of assistance charter schools will receive.
(B) A description of the involvement of charter schools in the application's development and the design of the proposed activities.
(C) A description of the eligible entity's expertise in capital market financing. (Consortium applicants must provide this information for each of the participating organizations.)
(D) A description of how the proposed activities will leverage the maximum amount of private-sector financing capital relative to the amount of government funding used and otherwise enhance credit available to charter schools, including how the eligible entity will offer a combination of rates and terms more favorable than the rates and terms that a charter school could receive without assistance from the eligible entity under this section.
(E) A description of how the eligible entity possesses sufficient expertise in education to evaluate the likelihood of success of a charter school program for which facilities financing is sought.
(F) In the case of an application submitted by a State governmental entity, a description of the actions that the eligible entity has taken, or will take, to ensure that charter schools within the State receive the funding that charter schools need to have adequate facilities.
(G) In the case of applicants applying as a consortium, applicants must also submit consortium agreements as part of their application package. These applicants must either designate one member of the group to apply for the grant or establish a separate legal entity to apply for the grant. All members of the consortium must then enter into an agreement that details the activities that each member of the group plans to perform and that binds each member to the application statements and assurances. This consortium agreement must be submitted as part of the consortium's application. The Department's administrative regulations at 34 CFR 75.127—129 provide more details about the requirements that govern group/consortium applications.
Requirements concerning the content and form of an application, together with the forms you must submit, are in the application package for this program.
• A “page” is 8.5″ x 11″, on one side only, with 1” margins at the top, bottom, and both sides.
• Double space (no more than three lines per vertical inch) all text in the application narrative, including titles, headings, footnotes, quotations, references, and captions, as well as all text in charts, tables, figures, and graphs.
• Use a font that is either 12 point or larger or no smaller than 10 pitch (characters per inch).
• Use one of the following fonts: Times New Roman, Courier, Courier New, or Arial.
Furthermore, applicants are strongly encouraged to include a table of contents that specifies where each required part of the application is located.
The applicant should review the
b.
Because we plan to make successful applications available to the public, you may wish to request confidentiality of business information.
Consistent with Executive Order 12600, please designate in your application any information that you believe is exempt from disclosure under Exemption 4. In the appropriate Appendix section of your application,
Applications for grants under this program must be submitted electronically using the
We do not consider an application that does not comply with the deadline requirements.
Individuals with disabilities who need an accommodation or auxiliary aid in connection with the application process should contact the person listed under
4.
5.
(1) Guaranteeing, insuring, and reinsuring bonds, notes, evidences of debt, loans, and interests therein.
(2) Guaranteeing and insuring leases of personal and real property.
(3) Facilitating financing by identifying potential lending sources, encouraging private lending, and other similar activities that directly promote lending to, or for the benefit of, charter schools.
(4) Facilitating the issuance of bonds by charter schools, or by other public entities for the benefit of charter schools, by providing technical, administrative, and other appropriate assistance (including the recruitment of bond counsel, underwriters, and potential investors and the consolidation of multiple charter school projects within a single bond issue).
Funds received and deposited in the reserve account shall be invested in obligations issued or guaranteed by the United States or a State, or in other similarly low-risk securities. Any earnings on funds received shall be deposited in the reserve account and used in accordance with this program.
(b)
(1) The acquisition (by purchase, lease, donation, or otherwise) of an interest (including an interest held by a third party for the benefit of a charter school) in improved or unimproved real property that is necessary to commence or continue the operation of a charter school.
(2) The construction of new facilities, or the renovation, repair, or alteration of existing facilities, necessary to commence or continue the operation of a charter school.
(3) The predevelopment costs required to assess sites and to commence or continue the operation of a charter school.
(c)
We specify unallowable costs in 34 CFR 225.21.
The full faith and credit of the United States are not pledged to the payment of funds under such obligation. In the event of a default on any debt or other obligation, the United States has no liability to cover the cost of the default.
Applicants that are selected to receive an award must enter into a written Performance Agreement with the Department prior to drawing down funds, unless the grantee receives written permission from the Department in the interim to draw down a specific limited amount of funds. Grantees must maintain and enforce standards of conduct governing the performance of their employees, officers, directors, trustees, and agents engaged in the selection, award, and administration of contracts or agreements related to this grant. The standards of conduct must mandate disinterested decision-making. The Secretary, in accordance with chapter 37 of title 31 of the United States Code, will collect all or a portion of the funds in the reserve account established with grant funds (including any earnings on those funds) if the Secretary determines that: (1) The grantee has permanently ceased to use such funds to accomplish the purposes described in the authorizing statute and the Performance Agreement; or (2) not earlier than two years after the date on which it first receives these funds, the grantee has failed to make substantial progress in undertaking the grant project.
6.
a. Have a Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS) number and a Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN);
b. Register both your DUNS number and TIN with the System for Award Management (SAM), the Government's primary registrant database;
c. Provide your DUNS number and TIN on your application; and
d. Maintain an active SAM registration with current information while your application is under review by the Department and, if you are awarded a grant, during the project period.
You can obtain a DUNS number from Dun and Bradstreet at the following Web site:
If you are a corporate entity, agency, institution, or organization, you can obtain a TIN from the Internal Revenue Service. If you are an individual, you can obtain a TIN from the Internal Revenue Service or the Social Security Administration. If you need a new TIN, please allow two to five weeks for your TIN to become active.
The SAM registration process can take approximately seven business days, but may take upwards of several weeks, depending on the completeness and accuracy of the data you enter into the SAM database. Thus, if you think you
Once your SAM registration is active, it may be 24 to 48 hours before you can access the information in, and submit an application through,
If you are currently registered with SAM, you may not need to make any changes. However, please make certain that the TIN associated with your DUNS number is correct. Also note that you will need to update your registration annually. This may take three or more business days.
Information about SAM is available at
In addition, if you are submitting your application via
Applications for grants under this program must be submitted electronically unless you qualify for an exception to this requirement in accordance with the instructions in this section.
Applications for grants under the Credit Enhancement program, CFDA number 84.354A, must be submitted electronically using the Governmentwide
We will reject your application if you submit it in paper format unless, as described elsewhere in this section, you qualify for one of the exceptions to the electronic submission requirement
You may access the electronic grant application for the Credit Enhancement program at
Please note the following:
• When you enter the
• Applications received by
• The amount of time it can take to upload an application will vary depending on a variety of factors, including the size of the application and the speed of your Internet connection. Therefore, we strongly recommend that you do not wait until the application deadline date to begin the submission process through
• You should review and follow the Education Submission Procedures for submitting an application through
• You will not receive additional point value because you submit your application in electronic format, nor will we penalize you if you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, as described elsewhere in this section, and submit your application in paper format.
• You must submit all documents electronically, including all information you typically provide on the following forms: The Application for Federal Assistance (SF 424), the Department of Education Supplemental Information for SF 424, Budget Information—Non-Construction Programs (ED 524), and all necessary assurances and certifications.
• You must upload any narrative sections and all other attachments to your application as files in a read-only, non-modifiable Portable Document Format (PDF). Do not upload an interactive or fillable PDF file. If you upload a file type other than a read-only, non-modifiable PDF (
• Your electronic application must comply with any page-limit requirements described in this notice.
• After you electronically submit your application, you will receive from
Once your application is successfully validated by
These emails do not mean that your application is without any disqualifying errors. While your application may have been successfully validated by
• We may request that you provide us original signatures on forms at a later date.
If you are prevented from electronically submitting your application on the application deadline date because of technical problems with the
If you submit an application after 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date, please contact the person listed under
The extensions to which we refer in this section apply only to the unavailability of, or technical problems with, the
• You do not have access to the Internet; or
• You do not have the capacity to upload large documents to the
• No later than two weeks before the application deadline date (14 calendar days or, if the fourteenth calendar day before the application deadline date falls on a Federal holiday, the next business day following the Federal holiday), you mail or fax a written statement to the Department, explaining which of the two grounds for an exception prevents you from using the Internet to submit your application.
If you mail your written statement to the Department, it must be postmarked no later than two weeks before the application deadline date. If you fax your written statement to the Department, we must receive the faxed statement no later than two weeks before the application deadline date.
Address and mail or fax your statement to: Clifton Jones, U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Room 4W244, Washington, DC 20202-5970. FAX: (202) 205-2204.
Your paper application must be submitted in accordance with the mail or hand-delivery instructions described in this notice.
If you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, you may mail (through the U.S. Postal Service or a commercial carrier) your application to the Department. You must mail the original and two copies of your application, on or before the application deadline date, to the Department at the following address:
You must show proof of mailing consisting of one of the following:
(1) A legibly dated U.S. Postal Service postmark.
(2) A legible mail receipt with the date of mailing stamped by the U.S. Postal Service.
(3) A dated shipping label, invoice, or receipt from a commercial carrier.
(4) Any other proof of mailing acceptable to the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Education.
If you mail your application through the U.S. Postal Service, we do not accept either of the following as proof of mailing:
(1) A private metered postmark.
(2) A mail receipt that is not dated by the U.S. Postal Service.
The U.S. Postal Service does not uniformly provide a dated postmark. Before relying on this method, you should check with your local post office.
We will not consider applications postmarked after the application deadline date.
If you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, you (or a courier service) may deliver your paper application to the Department by hand. You must deliver the original and two copies of your application by hand, on or before the application deadline date, to the Department at the following address:
The Application Control Center accepts hand deliveries daily between 8:00 a.m. and 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, except Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.
(1) You must indicate on the envelope and—if not provided by the Department—in Item 11 of the SF 424 the CFDA number, including suffix letter, if any, of the competition under which you are submitting your application; and
(2) The Application Control Center will mail to you a notification of receipt of your grant application. If you do not receive this notification within 15 business days from the application deadline date, you should call the U.S. Department of Education Application Control Center at (202) 245-6288.
1.
In determining the quality of project design and significance, the Secretary considers—
(1) The extent to which the grant proposal would provide financing to charter schools at better rates and terms than they can receive absent assistance through the program;
(2) The extent to which the project goals, objectives, and timeline are clearly specified, measurable, and appropriate for the purpose of the program;
(3) The extent to which the project implementation plan and activities, including the partnerships established, are likely to achieve measurable objectives that further the purposes of the program;
(4) The extent to which the project is likely to produce results that are replicable;
(5) The extent to which the project will use appropriate criteria for selecting charter schools for assistance and for determining the type and amount of assistance to be given;
(6) The extent to which the proposed activities will leverage private or public-sector funding and increase the number and variety of charter schools assisted in meeting their facilities needs more than would be accomplished absent the program;
(7) The extent to which the project will serve charter schools in States with strong charter laws, consistent with the criteria for such laws in section 4303(g)(2) of the ESEA; and
(8) The extent to which the requested grant amount and the project costs are reasonable in relation to the objectives, design, and potential significance of the project.
In determining the quality of the project services, the Secretary considers—
(1) The extent to which the services to be provided by the project reflect the identified needs of the charter schools to be served;
(2) The extent to which charter schools and chartering agencies were involved in the design of, and demonstrate support for, the project;
(3) The extent to which the technical assistance and other services to be provided by the proposed grant project involve the use of cost-effective strategies for increasing charter schools' access to facilities financing, including the reasonableness of fees and lending terms; and
(4) The extent to which the services to be provided by the proposed grant project are focused on assisting charter schools with a likelihood of success and the greatest demonstrated need for assistance under the program.
In determining an applicant's business and organizational capacity to carry out the project, the Secretary considers—
(1) The amount and quality of experience of the applicant in carrying out the activities it proposes to undertake in its application, such as enhancing the credit on debt issuances, guaranteeing leases, and facilitating financing;
(2) The applicant's financial stability;
(3) The ability of the applicant to protect against unwarranted risk in its loan underwriting, portfolio monitoring, and financial management;
(4) The applicant's expertise in education to evaluate the likelihood of success of a charter school;
(5) The ability of the applicant to prevent conflicts of interest, including conflicts of interest by employees and members of the board of directors in a decision-making role;
(6) If the applicant has co-applicants (consortium members), partners, or other grant project participants, the specific resources to be contributed by each co-applicant (consortium member), partner, or other grant project participant to the implementation and success of the grant project;
(7) For State governmental entities, the extent to which steps have been or will be taken to ensure that charter schools within the State receive the funding needed to obtain adequate facilities; and
(8) For previous grantees under the charter school facilities programs, their performance in implementing these grants.
In determining the quality of project personnel, the Secretary considers—
(1) The qualifications of project personnel, including relevant training and experience, of the project manager and other members of the project team, including consultants or subcontractors; and
(2) The staffing plan for the grant project.
2.
In addition, in making a competitive grant award, the Secretary requires various assurances, including those applicable to Federal civil rights laws that prohibit discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department of Education (34 CFR 100.4, 104.5, 106.4, 108.8, and 110.23).
Consistent with 2 CFR 200.205, before awarding grants under this program the Department conducts a review of the risks posed by applicants. Under 2 CFR 3474.10, the Secretary may impose special conditions and, in appropriate circumstances, high-risk conditions on a grant if the applicant or grantee is not financially stable; has a history of unsatisfactory performance; has a financial or other management system that does not meet the standards in 2 CFR part 200, subpart D; has not fulfilled the conditions of a prior grant; or is otherwise not responsible.
4.
Please note that, if the total value of your currently active grants, cooperative agreements, and procurement contracts from the Federal Government exceeds $10,000,000, the reporting requirements in 2 CFR part 200, Appendix XII, require you to report certain integrity information to FAPIIS semiannually. Please review the requirements in 2 CFR part 200, Appendix XII, if this grant plus all the other Federal funds you receive exceed $10,000,000.
1.
If your application is not evaluated or not selected for funding, we notify you.
2.
We reference the regulations outlining the terms and conditions of an award in the
3.
(b) If you receive a grant under this competition, you must submit an annual report that complies with the reporting requirements for Credit Enhancement grantees in section 4304(h)(2) of the ESEA and the performance and financial expenditure reporting requirements in 34 CFR 75.720. At the end of your project period, you must submit a final performance report, including financial information, as directed by the Secretary. The Secretary may also require more frequent performance reports under 34 CFR 75.720(c). For specific requirements on reporting, please go to
(a)
(b)
(1)
(2)
The Secretary encourages applicants to consider measures and targets tied to their grant activities (for instance, if an applicant is using eligibility for free and reduced-price lunch to measure the number of low-income families served by the project, the applicant could provide a percentage for students qualifying for free and reduced-price lunch), during the grant period. The measures should be sufficient to gauge the progress throughout the grant period, and show results by the end of the grant period.
(3)
(ii) The applicant's capacity to collect and report reliable, valid, and meaningful performance data, as evidenced by high-quality data collection, analysis, and reporting in other projects or research.
Clifton Jones, U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Room 4W244, Washington, DC 20202-5970. Telephone: (202) 205-2204 or by email:
If you use a TDD or a TTY, call the FRS, toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Office of Postsecondary Education (OPE), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing a revision of an existing information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before April 26, 2017.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Gary Thomas, (202) 453-7199.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
The Fulbright-Hays GPA program provides grants for overseas projects in training, research, and curriculum development in modern foreign languages and area studies for groups of teachers, students, and faculty.
Office of Elementary and Secondary Education (OESE), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing a revision of an existing information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before April 26, 2017.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Tara Ramsey, 202-260-2063.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
The proposed changes to the 2017 HEP APR are changes to the HEP Instructions Form and Performance Report Data Form and OME made minor editorial language and formatting changes. OME aligned the directions to the performance report data form, and required grantees to disaggregate HSE attainers and HSE withdrawals into New and Returning participants.
Office of Science, Department of Energy.
Notice of open meeting.
This notice announces a meeting of the Biological and Environmental Research Advisory Committee (BERAC). The Federal Advisory Committee Act requires that public notice of these meetings be announced in the
Thursday, April 20, 2017; 9:00 a.m.-6:00 p.m., Friday, April 21, 2017; 8:30 a.m.-12:00 p.m.
Gaithersburg Marriott Washingtonian Center, 9751 Washingtonian Blvd., Gaithersburg, Maryland 20878.
Dr. Tristram West, Designated Federal Officer, BERAC, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Science, Office of Biological and Environmental Research, SC-23/Germantown Building, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-1290. Phone 301-903-5155; fax (301) 903-5051 or email:
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding Twin Buttes Wind II LLC's application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is April 10, 2017.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding Total Gas & Power North America, Inc.'s application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is April 10, 2017.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding Deerfield Wind, LLC`s application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is April 10, 2017.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding Tule Wind LLC's application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is April 10, 2017.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
This constitutes notice, in accordance with 18 CFR 385.2201(b), of the receipt of prohibited and exempt off-the-record communications.
Order No. 607 (64 FR 51222, September 22, 1999) requires Commission decisional employees, who make or receive a prohibited or exempt off-the-record communication relevant to the merits of a contested proceeding, to deliver to the Secretary of the Commission, a copy of the communication, if written, or a summary of the substance of any oral communication.
Prohibited communications are included in a public, non-decisional file associated with, but not a part of, the decisional record of the proceeding. Unless the Commission determines that the prohibited communication and any responses thereto should become a part of the decisional record, the prohibited off-the-record communication will not be considered by the Commission in reaching its decision. Parties to a proceeding may seek the opportunity to respond to any facts or contentions made in a prohibited off-the-record communication, and may request that the Commission place the prohibited communication and responses thereto in the decisional record. The Commission will grant such a request only when it determines that fairness so requires. Any person identified below as having made a prohibited off-the-record communication shall serve the document on all parties listed on the official service list for the applicable proceeding in accordance with Rule 2010, 18 CFR 385.2010.
Exempt off-the-record communications are included in the decisional record of the proceeding, unless the communication was with a cooperating agency as described by 40 CFR 1501.6, made under 18 CFR 385.2201(e)(1)(v).
The following is a list of off-the-record communications recently received by the Secretary of the Commission. The communications listed are grouped by docket numbers in ascending order. These filings are available for electronic review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Description: § 205(d) Rate Filing: PSCo—OATT Att T—Form of Bal Auth Ancil Svcs Agrmt to be effective 5/21/2017.
Description: Petition for Limited Waiver of Tariff Deadlines and Request for Expedited Action of Westmoreland Partners.
Description: § 205(d) Rate Filing: AEP submits 13th Revised Service Agreement No. 1262 to be effective 2/22/2017.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, this notice advises interested persons that the third meeting of the World Radiocommunication Conference Advisory Committee (Advisory Committee) will be held on April 18, 2017, at the Federal Communications Commission (FCC). The Advisory Committee will consider any recommendations introduced by the Advisory Committee's Informal Working Groups.
April 18, 2017; 11:00 a.m.
Federal Communications Commission, 445 12th Street SW., Room TW-C305, Washington, DC 20554.
Michael Mullinix, Designated Federal Official, World Radiocommunication Conference Advisory Committee, FCC International Bureau, Global Strategy and Negotiation Division, at (202) 418-0491.
The FCC established the Advisory Committee to provide advice, technical support and recommendations relating to the preparation of United States proposals and positions for the 2019 World Radiocommunication Conference (WRC-19).
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Public Law 92-463, as amended, this notice advises interested persons of the third meeting of the Advisory Committee. Additional information regarding the Advisory Committee is available on the Advisory Committee's Web site,
Open captioning will be provided for this event. Other reasonable accommodations for people with disabilities are available upon request. Requests for such accommodations should be submitted via email to
The proposed agenda for the third meeting is as follows:
Third Meeting of the World Radiocommunication Conference Advisory Committee, Federal Communications Commission, 445 12th Street SW., Room TW-C305, Washington, DC 20554.
Federal Maritime Commission.
Notice of release of the Federal Maritime Commission's FY 2016 Service Contract Inventory Analysis.
Acting in compliance with Sec. 743 of Division C of the Consolidated Appropriations Act 2010, the Federal Maritime Commission (Commission) is publishing this notice to advise the public of the availability of its FY 2016 Service Contract Inventory Analysis. The FY 2016 Service Contract Inventory Analysis includes Background, Methodology, Agency Analysis of Contracts, Contract Services and Agency Objectives, and Agency Findings.
This analysis was developed in accordance with guidance issued on October 17, 2016 by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Procurement Policy (OFPP). The Federal Maritime Commission has posted its FY 2016 Service Contract Inventory Analysis at the following link:
The inventory is available on the Commission's Web site as of March 17, 2017.
James A. Nussbaumer, Assistant Managing Director for Administration; (202) 523-5800,
10:00 a.m., Thursday, April 13, 2017.
The Richard V. Backley Hearing Room, Room 511N, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20004 (enter from F Street entrance).
Open.
The Commission will consider and act upon the following in open session:
Any person attending this meeting who requires special accessibility features and/or auxiliary aids, such as sign language interpreters, must inform the Commission in advance of those needs. Subject to 29 CFR 2706.150(a)(3) and § 2706.160(d).
Emogene Johnson (202) 434-9935/(202) 708-9300 for TDD. Relay/1-800-877-8339 for toll free.
1-(866) 867-4769; Passcode: 129-339.
The companies listed in this notice have given notice under section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843) (BHC Act) and Regulation Y, (12 CFR part 225) to engage
Each notice is available for inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The notice also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the question whether the proposal complies with the standards of section 4 of the BHC Act.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding the applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than April 19, 2017.
1.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice of rescheduled public webcast.
The HHS/CDC's Division of Select Agents and Toxins (DSAT) and the U.S. Department of Agriculture's Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, Agriculture Select Agent Services (AgSAS) are jointly charged with the regulation of the possession, use and transfer of biological agents and toxins that have the potential to pose a severe threat to public, animal or plant health or to animal or plant products (select agents and toxins). This joint effort constitutes the Federal Select Agent Program. The purpose of the webcast is to provide guidance and information related to the Federal Select Agent Program for interested individuals.
The webcast, which was initially scheduled for Wednesday, February 8, 2017, is rescheduled for Friday, April 28, 2017 from 12 p.m. to 4 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time. Participants who have already registered for the webcast will not need to re-submit registration requests for the new date. All others who wish to join the webcast should register by April 14, 2017. Registration instructions can be found on the Web site
The webcast will be broadcast from CDC, 1600 Clifton Road NE., Atlanta, GA 30329. This will only be produced as a webcast; therefore, no accommodations will be provided for in-person participation.
CDC: Ms. Diane Martin, DSAT, Office of Public Health Preparedness and Response, CDC, 1600 Clifton Road NE., MS A-46, Atlanta, GA 30329; phone: 404-718-2000; email:
The public webcast, initially scheduled for Wednesday, February 8, 2017, and rescheduled for Friday, April 28, 2017, is an opportunity for the affected community (
Representatives from the Federal Select Agent Program will be present during the webcast to address questions and concerns from the web participants.
Participants who have already registered for the February date will not need to re-submit registration requests for the new date. Individuals that have not registered and want to participate in the webcast should complete their registration online by April 14, 2017. The registration instructions are located on this Web site:
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The notice for the proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address any of the following: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and
Survey of Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) Provider Practices in the United States—NEW—National Center for HIV/AIDS, Viral Hepatitis, STD, and TB Prevention (NCHHSTP), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
Each year, 19.7 million sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) occur in the U.S., half of which strike youth 15-24 years of age. The public health burden of STDs is compounded by their economic impact. In 2010, an estimated $15.6 billion in direct medical costs were attributed to STDs. Undiagnosed and untreated STDs can lead to serious long-term health consequences, especially for adolescent girls and young adult women. For example, every year, about 24,000 young women become infertile as a result of undiagnosed and untreated STDs.
There is no national survey that collects detailed information on the STD practices of physicians. The STD Provider Survey will collect much needed data from U.S. health care providers in five specialties: Primary care (including internal medicine), general or family practice, obstetrics/gynecology, emergency medicine, and pediatrics. Knowledge of provider practices relative to guidelines and state-level laws and policies will provide information useful to stakeholders at all levels regarding the delivery of STD preventive services and treatment by health care providers in the U.S. As providers are one of the few professionals who have face-to-face contact with persons infected with STDs, they are also a potential intervention point for attempts to reduce re-infection and halt the further transmission of STDs.
The purpose of this survey is to conduct a nationally representative survey of physicians in five specialities: Primary care (including internal medicine), general or family practice, obstetrics/gynecology, emergency medicine, and pediatrics. Our sample size of physicians will allow for national estimates and comparisons among these five specialties. Additionally, the survey will provide national estimates for comparisons between providers in the public and private sectors. Information collected will also be used to determine STD prevention activities needed by type of providers (by specialty or public/private) based on findings related to screening and treatment practices for STDs including EPT.
The survey contains sections on the physician's specialty areas, primary practice setting, primacy practice policies, patient demographics, STD testing and diagnosis, STD care and treatment, and respondent demographics.
In an effort to better understand policies and practices for STD care delivery among medical providers, the surveys will be sent to a random sample of 5,000 U.S. physicians across several specialties using the American Medical Association Master file. Using a multimode design (mail and web), multiple reminders will be sent to non-responders in order to reach the target of 3,500 completed surveys. The total burden hours are 1,342. There is no cost to respondents other than their time.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing efforts to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on a proposed information collection project titled “Knowledge, Attitudes, and Practices related to a Domestic Readiness Initiative on Zika Virus Disease.” This project consists of telephone interviews with participants in Puerto Rico and the domestic U.S.
Written comments must be received on or before May 26, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2017-0025 by any of the following methods:
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To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact the Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE., MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
Knowledge, Attitudes, and Practices related to a Domestic Readiness Initiative on Zika Virus Disease—New—Office of the Associate Director for Communication (OADC), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
Since late 2015, Zika has rapidly spread through Puerto Rico. As of November 2016, there have been 35,136 confirmed cases of Zika in Puerto Rico, with 2,797 cases among pregnant women and 67 cases of Guillain-Barré caused by Zika. In the continental United States, there have been 4,432 travel-associated cases of Zika and 185 locally-acquired Zika cases in Florida and Texas. Due to the urgent nature of this public health emergency, CDC is implementing a Zika prevention communication and education initiative in the continental United States and Puerto Rico.
CDC intends to request approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to conduct an assessment of a domestic U.S. and Puerto Rico-based communication and education initiative aimed at encouraging at-risk populations to prepare and protect themselves and their families from Zika virus infection. As part of the mission of CDC's Domestic Readiness Initiative on the Zika Virus Disease, CDC will assess the following communication and education objectives: (1) Determine the reach and saturation of the initiative's messages in Puerto Rico and the domestic U.S.; (2) measure the extent to which messages were communicated clearly across multiple channels to advance knowledge and counter misinformation; and (3) monitor individual and community-level awareness, attitudes and likelihood to follow recommended behaviors.
This data collection is related to Zika prevention efforts that have been and will be implemented in Puerto Rico and the domestic U.S. Specifically, CDC needs this assessment to ensure that Zika prevention campaigns effectively reach target audiences to educate individuals regarding Zika prevention behaviors. Ongoing evaluation is an important part of this program because it can inform awareness of campaign activities, how people perceive Zika as a health risk, and assess their uptake of recommended health behaviors after the campaign has been implemented.
These interviews can help articulate motivations for and against engaging in Zika prevention behaviors that are critical for preventing Zika-associated birth defects and morbidities. Implementing changes based on results from this assessment is expected to facilitate program improvement and ensure the most efficient allocation of resources for this public health emergency.
CDC will launch a new Zika Virus Disease Domestic Readiness Initiative in the continental U.S. and Puerto Rico. The goal of this project is to determine knowledge, attitudes, and practices related to this initiative. CDC will use the findings to improve planning, implementation, refinements, and demonstrate outcomes of a Zika Domestic Readiness Initiative communication and education effort. CDC will also use the information to make recommendations for improving communication and education regarding the prevention and spread of the Zika virus. CDC will develop presentations, reports, and manuscripts to document the communication effort and provide the lessons learned to inform future and similar communication efforts.
The plan is to conduct 2,400 interviews 12 months post-launch of the campaign to assess long term outcomes of the initiative. CDC will conduct telephone interviews with a mix of closed-ended and open-ended questions with individuals domestically in the U.S. and in Puerto Rico. The purpose of this assessment is to assess core components of CDC's Zika response in communicating prevention behaviors and risk messages to the public about vector control services.
The following factors will be assessed:
• Knowledge about Zika virus and related prevention behaviors
• Self-efficacy in engaging in Zika prevention behaviors
• Engagement in Zika prevention behaviors (
• Risk perceptions of Zika
Researchers will analyze the data, and generate a report for leaders of the response to offer insights on the delivery of the communication campaign.
Results of this project will have limited generalizability. However, results of this evaluation should provide information that can be used to enhance and revise the existing program as well as offer lessons learned to inform infectious disease control programs that use education materials.
Authorizing legislation comes from Section 301 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 241). There is no cost to respondents other than their time to participate.
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, HHS.
Notice.
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Comments on the collection(s) of information must be received by the OMB desk officer by April 26, 2017.
When commenting on the proposed information collections, please reference the document identifier or OMB control number. To be assured consideration, comments and recommendations must be received by the OMB desk officer via one of the following transmissions: OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention: CMS Desk Officer, Fax Number: (202) 395-5806
To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, you may make your request using one of following:
1. Access CMS' Web site address at Web site address at
2. Email your request, including your address, phone number, OMB number, and CMS document identifier, to
3. Call the Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
William Parham at (410) 786-4669.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires federal agencies to publish a 30-day notice in the
1.
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice.
In compliance with the requirement for opportunity for public comment on proposed data collection projects of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, HRSA announces plans to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR), described below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Prior to submitting the ICR to OMB, HRSA seeks comments from the public regarding the burden estimate, below, or any other aspect of the ICR.
Comments on this ICR must be received no later than May 26, 2017.
Submit your comments to
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the data collection plans and draft instruments, email
When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the information request collection title for reference, in compliance with Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice.
In compliance with the requirement for opportunity for public comment on proposed data collection projects of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, HRSA announces plans to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR), described below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Prior to submitting the ICR to OMB, HRSA seeks comments from the public regarding the burden estimate, below, or any other aspect of the ICR.
Comments on this ICR should be received no later than May 26, 2017.
Submit your comments to
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the data collection plans and draft instruments, email
When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the
HRSA specifically requests comments on (1) the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions, (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden, (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected, and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, HRSA has submitted an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. Comments submitted during the first public review of this ICR will be provided to OMB. OMB will accept further comments from the public during the review and approval period.
Comments on this ICR should be received no later than April 26, 2017.
Submit your comments, including the Information Collection Request Title, to the desk officer for HRSA, either by email to
To request a copy of the clearance requests submitted to OMB for review, email the HRSA Information Collection Clearance Officer at
When submitting comments or requesting
The forms require recipients to report how funds are allocated and spent on core medical and support services for people living with HIV, and on various program components, such as administration, planning and evaluation, and clinical quality management. The A&E Reports are identical in the types of information they collect. However, the Allocations Report tracks the allocation of the award at the beginning of the annual budget period, and the Expenditures Report tracks actual expenditures (including carryover dollars) at the end of the annual budget period. The CLC form identifies a recipient's contracts with service providers for the current grant year, the contract amount, and the types of services being provided. This revision proposes minor changes to the list of allowable services, specifically by consolidating “Legal Services” and “Permanency Planning” into “Other Professional Services” under Part A and Part B; deleting a “Treatment Adherence Counseling” category from allowable services under Part A; adding “Housing Services” and “Early Intervention Services” under Part C program; and adding “Substance Abuse Services—Residential” under Part D program. As a result of these changes and improving the electronic submission of data through HRSA's Electronic Handbooks, the estimated total annual burden hours will decrease from 4,266 hours in 2014 to 2,692 in 2017.
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
In compliance with the requirement for opportunity for public comment on proposed data collection projects of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, HRSA announces plans to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR), described below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Prior to submitting the ICR to OMB, HRSA seeks comments from the public regarding the burden estimate, below, or any other aspect of the ICR.
Comments on this Information Collection Request must be received May 26, 2017.
Submit your comments to
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the data collection plans and draft instruments, email
When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the information request collection title for reference, pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
HRSA specifically requests comments on (1) the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions, (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden, (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected, and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) will submit the information collection abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget for review and clearance in accordance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The submission will describe the nature of the information collection, the categories of respondents, the estimated burden (
Comments must be submitted on or before April 26, 2017.
Submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the Desk Officer for the Department of Homeland Security, Federal Emergency Management Agency, and sent via electronic mail to
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection should be made to Director, Records Management Division, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472-3100, or email address
This information collection previously published in the
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) will submit the information collection abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget for review and clearance in accordance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The submission will describe the nature of the information collection, the categories of respondents, the estimated burden (
Comments must be submitted on or before April 26, 2017.
Submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the Desk Officer for the Department of Homeland Security, Federal Emergency Management Agency, and sent via electronic mail to
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection should be made to Director, Records Management Division, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472-3100, or email address
This proposed information collection previously published in the
Section 205 of The Bunning-Bereuter-Blumenauer Flood Insurance Reform Act (FIRA) of 2004, Public Law 108-264, requires FEMA to establish by regulation an additional process for the appeal of decisions of flood insurance claims issued through the NFIP. Consequently, FEMA published an interim final rule on May 26, 2006 (71 FR 30294) and a final rule on October 13, 2006 (71 FR 60435) codifying into regulation what was previously an existing informal process to handle appeals regarding decisions related to coverage, or claims under the NFIP.
Comments may be submitted as indicated in the
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency will submit the information collection abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget for reinstatement and clearance in accordance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The reinstatement submission will describe the nature of the information collection, the categories of respondents, the estimated burden (
Comments must be submitted on or before April 26, 2017.
Submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the Desk Officer for the Department of Homeland Security, Federal Emergency Management Agency, and sent via electronic mail to
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection should be made to Director, Records Management Division, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472-3100, or email address
This proposed information collection previously published in the
Comments may be submitted as indicated in the
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability; draft environmental assessment, draft habitat conservation plan, and permit application.
Heart of Texas Wind, LLC (applicant), has applied to the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service) for an incidental take permit under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended. If granted, the permit would be in effect for 30 years and would authorize incidental take of the black-capped vireo (covered species), a bird listed as endangered under the Act. The applicant has completed a draft HCP (dHCP) as part of the application package. The Service also announces the availability of a draft Environmental Assessment (dEA) that has been prepared to evaluate the permit application in accordance with the requirements of the National Environmental Policy Act. We are making the permit application package, including the dHCP, and dEA, available for public review and comment.
To ensure consideration, written comments must be received or postmarked on or before April 26, 2017.
You may obtain copies of the dEA and dHCP by going to the Service's Web site at
• Department of the Interior, Natural Resources Library, 1849 C St. NW., Washington, DC 20240.
• U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 500 Gold Avenue SW., Room 4012, Albuquerque, NM 87102.
• U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 10711 Burnet Road, Suite 200, Austin, TX 78758.
Persons wishing to review the application may obtain a copy by writing to the Regional Director, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, P.O. Box 1306, Room 4012, Albuquerque, NM 87103.
To submit written comments, please use one of the following methods:
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Mr. Adam Zerrenner, via U.S. mail at U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 10711 Burnet Road, Suite 200, Austin, TX 78758; or via phone at (512) 490-0057.
Heart of Texas Wind, LLC (HoT, applicant), has applied to the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service) for an incidental take permit (ITP, TE-13632C) under section 10(a)(1)(B) of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
The proposed action involves the issuance of an ITP by the Service for the covered activities in the permit area, pursuant to section 10(a)(1)(B) of the Act. The ITP would cover “take” of the covered species associated with construction of a wind energy facility within the permit area. The requested term of the ITP is 30 years. To meet the requirements of a section 10(a)(1)(B) ITP, the applicant developed and proposes to implement their dHCP, which describes the conservation measures the applicant has agreed to undertake to minimize and mitigate for the impacts of the proposed incidental take of the covered species to the maximum extent practicable, and ensure that incidental take will not appreciably reduce the likelihood of the survival and recovery of these species in the wild.
Two alternatives to the proposed action we are considering as part of this process are:
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2.
Written comments we receive become part of the public record associated with this action. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can request in your comment that we withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so. We will not consider anonymous comments. All submissions from organizations or businesses, and from individuals identifying themselves as representatives or officials of organizations or businesses, will be made available for public disclosure in their entirety.
We provide this notice under section 10(c) of the Act and its implementing
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Alaska Region, Anchorage, AK (Alaska Region USFWS), has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, including Alaska Native Tribes, and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects, and present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization, including Alaska Native Tribes, not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects, should submit a written request to the Alaska Region USFWS. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, Native Hawaiian, Alaska Native Tribes, or organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Representatives of any Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, including Alaska Native Tribes, not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the Alaska Region USFWS at the address in this notice by April 26, 2017.
Edward J. DeCleva, Regional Historic Preservation Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Alaska Region, 1011 East Tudor Road, MS-235, Anchorage, AK 99503, telephone (907) 786-3399, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3), of the completion of an inventory of human remains under the control of the Alaska Region USFWS. The human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from Chirikof Island, Kodiak Island Borough, AK.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by the Alaska Region USFWS professional staff and U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (USACE St. Louis District) staff in consultation with representatives of the Sun'aq Tribe of Kodiak (previously listed as the Shoonaq' Tribe of Kodiak).
In August 1962, human remains representing, at minimum, 109 individuals were removed from multiple sites in the Southwest Anchorage of Chirikof Island, in Kodiak Island Borough, AK. The human remains represent a minimum of 61 individuals, 48 adults and 13 juveniles, from blowout A (also referred to as Site 1); a minimum of 42 individuals 30 adults and 12 juveniles, from blowout B; two adult individuals from Site 2 (also listed as the Midden Site, a secondary site at blowout B); and four adult individuals from the additional locations on the island. No known individuals were identified. The 47 associated funerary objects include 4 vials of blue European trading beads, 2 vials white European trading beads, 34 amber beads, and 1 animal bone shaft all from burial 2 at Site 2; 3 labrets, 2 jet and 1 ivory were recovered from Site 1 on Chirikof Island.
Anthropologists collected exposed human remains from two areas designated blowout Area A and B. Area A was a deflating dune trending east-west 200 meters from the shoreline of the Southwest Anchorage, and Area B is described as an area approximately 200 by 100 meters located east of Area A across a river. At the time of the collection, most of the human remains from Area B were found stacked together in piles, while the skeletal material from Area A were scattered, disarticulated, and badly mixed. In addition to Areas A and B, approximately four individuals were removed from two other areas of the island; these were designated as sites 14 and 21.
In the early 1960s, these human remains were held at the University of Wisconsin-Madison. In the late 1960s, most of the collection was loaned to Dr. Neal Tappen at the University of Wisconsin-Milwaukie. In 1982, a doctoral student brought the remains to Indiana University in Bloomington, IN. In March 2016, the collection was transferred to the USACE St. Louis District for inventory and rehousing in anticipation of their return to Alaska.
The human remains are believed to be interments stemming from a continuous occupation of the island between 1798 and 1870 by administrators as well as conscript and paid laborers hunting ground squirrels for the Russian-American Company. The preponderance of records, including lists of residents for the period 1833-1870, point to the Chirikof population as being mainly Kodiak Island Alutiiq from the southwest portion of the island including those on Tugidak and Sitkinak islands. Therefore, the Chirikof Island human remains are likely Native American and most closely affiliated with the modern Kodiak Alutiiq people.
Officials of the Alaska Region USFWS have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 109 individuals of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(A), the 47 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001 (2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and the Sun'aq Tribe of Kodiak (previously listed as the Shoonaq' Tribe of Kodiak).
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of
The Alaska Region USFWS is responsible for notifying the Sun'aq Tribe of Kodiak (previously listed as the Shoonaq' Tribe of Kodiak) that this notice has been published.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has received a complaint entitled
Lisa R. Barton, Secretary to the Commission, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. The public version of the complaint can be accessed on the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS) at
General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server at United States International Trade Commission (USITC) at
The Commission has received a complaint and a submission pursuant to § 210.8(b) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure filed on behalf of Intellectual Ventures II LLC on March 21, 2017. The complaint alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1337) in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain thermoplastic-encapsulated electric motors, components thereof, and products and vehicles containing same. The complaint names as respondents Aisin Seiki Co., Ltd. of Japan; Aisin Holdings of America, Inc. of Seymour, IN; Aisin Technical Center of America, Inc. of Northville, MI; Aisin World Corporation of America of Northville, MI; Bayerische Motoren Werke AG of Germany; BMW of North America, LLC of Woodcliff Lake, NJ; BMW Manufacturing Co., LLC of Greer, SC; Denso Corporation of Japan; Denso International America, Inc. of Southfield, MI; Honda Motor Co., Ltd. of Japan; Honda North America Inc. of Torrance, CA; American Honda Motor Co., Inc. of Torrance, CA; Honda of America Mfg., Inc. of Marysville, OH; Honda Manufacturing of Alabama, LLC of Lincoln, AL; Honda R & D Americas, Inc. of Torrance, CA; Mitsuba Corporation of Japan; American Mitsuba Corporation of Mount Pleasant, MI; Nidec Corporation of Japan; Nidec Automotive Motor Americas, LLC of Auburn Hills, MI; Toyota Motor Corporation of Japan; Toyota Motor North America, Inc. of New York, NY; Toyota Motor Sales, U.S.A., Inc. of Torrance, CA; Toyota Motor Engineering & Manufacturing of Erlanger, KY; Toyota Motor Manufacturing, Indiana, Inc. of Princeton, IN; and Toyota Motor Manufacturing, Kentucky, Inc. of Georgetown, KY. The complainant requests that the Commission issue a limited exclusion order, cease and desist orders and impose a bond upon respondents' alleged infringing articles during the 60-day Presidential review period pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1337(j).
Proposed respondents, other interested parties, and members of the public are invited to file comments, not to exceed five (5) pages in length, inclusive of attachments, on any public interest issues raised by the complaint or § 210.8(b) filing. Comments should address whether issuance of the relief specifically requested by the complainant in this investigation would affect the public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, or United States consumers.
In particular, the Commission is interested in comments that:
(i) Explain how the articles potentially subject to the requested remedial orders are used in the United States;
(ii) identify any public health, safety, or welfare concerns in the United States relating to the requested remedial orders;
(iii) identify like or directly competitive articles that complainant, its licensees, or third parties make in the United States which could replace the subject articles if they were to be excluded;
(iv) indicate whether complainant, complainant's licensees, and/or third party suppliers have the capacity to replace the volume of articles potentially subject to the requested exclusion order and/or a cease and desist order within a commercially reasonable time; and
(v) explain how the requested remedial orders would impact United States consumers.
Written submissions must be filed no later than by close of business, eight calendar days after the date of publication of this notice in the
Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above and submit 8 true paper copies to the Office of the Secretary by noon the next day pursuant to § 210.4(f) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 210.4(f)). Submissions should refer to the docket number (“Docket No. 3207”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. (
Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment.
This action is taken under the authority of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and of §§ 201.10 and 210.8(c) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 201.10, 210.8(c)).
By order of the Commission.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has determined not to review an initial determination (“ID”) (Order No. 6) granting an unopposed motion to add allegations of violation of section 337 through the sale for importation, importation, or sale after importation into the United States of articles that infringe certain claims of U.S. Patent No. 9,542,527.
Lucy Grace D. Noyola, Office of the General Counsel, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone 202-205-3438. Copies of non-confidential documents filed in connection with this investigation are or will be available for inspection during official business hours (8:45 a.m. to 5:15 p.m.) in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server (
The Commission instituted this investigation on December 8, 2016, based on a complaint filed by Pacific Biosciences of California, Inc. of Menlo Park, California (“PacBio”). 81 FR 88703-04 (Dec. 8, 2016). The complaint alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, 19 U.S.C. 1337, in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain single-molecule nucleic acid sequencing systems and reagents, consumables, and software for use with same by reason of infringement of certain claims of U.S. Patent No. 9,404,146 (“the '146 patent”).
On February 3, 2017, PacBio filed a motion to amend the complaint and notice of investigation to add allegations of violation of section 337 through the sale for importation, importation, or sale after importation into the United States of articles that infringe claims 1 and 3-11 of U.S. Patent No. 9,542,527 (“the '527 patent”). Specifically, PacBio sought to add allegations that Respondents directly infringe, contributorily infringe, and/or induce the infringement of the asserted claims of the '527 patent. Respondents and OUII did not oppose the motion.
On February 21, 2017, the presiding administrative law judge (“ALJ”) issued an ID, Order No. 6, granting the motion to amend the complaint and notice of investigation. The ALJ found good cause for the amendment. The ALJ found that PacBio could not have asserted the '527 patent when it filed the original complaint because the '527 patent was issued after institution of the investigation, and that PacBio sought to add the allegations relating to the '527 patent soon after its issuance. The ALJ also found that the amendment would not prejudice the public interest or the parties. The ALJ found that (1) the '527 patent involves the same technology as the '146 patent; (2) the '527 and '146 patents are related, claim priority to the same provisional application, name the same inventors, and share a substantially identical specification; and (3) PacBio represents that the accused products and domestic industry products for the '527 and '146 patents are identical, obviating the need for excessive additional discovery. The ALJ also found that the amendment was in the public interest because litigating the '527 and '146 patents in separate investigations would waste judicial and public resources. No petitions for review of the ID were filed.
The Commission has determined not to review the subject ID.
The authority for the Commission's determination is contained in section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and in part 210 of the Commission's Rules of
By order of the Commission.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission (the “Commission”) has determined not to review a February 22, 2017, initial determination (“ID”) (Order No. 13) granting an unopposed motion to terminate the investigation based on the withdrawal of the complaint. This investigation is terminated.
Ron Traud, Office of the General Counsel, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-3427. Copies of non-confidential documents filed in connection with this investigation are or will be available for inspection during official business hours (8:45 a.m. to 5:15 p.m.) in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server (
On July 27, 2016, the Commission instituted this investigation based on a complaint filed by Schütz Container Systems Inc. (“Schütz”) of North Branch, New Jersey. 81 FR 49265. The complaint alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, 19 U.S.C. 1337 (“section 337”) based upon the importation into the United States or sale of certain composite intermediate bulk containers by reason of infringement of certain trade dress, the threat or effect of which is to substantially destroy or injure a domestic industry.
On February 22, 2017, the administrative law judge (“ALJ”) issued Order No. 13, the subject ID, which granted an unopposed motion filed by Schütz to terminate the investigation based on the withdrawal of the complaint. The ALJ found that the motion complied with the Commission's rules for the termination of investigations, that no extraordinary circumstances prevented the termination of the investigation, and that termination of the investigation is in the public interest. No party filed a petition seeking review of the subject ID.
The Commission has determined not to review the subject ID. This investigation is terminated.
The authority for the Commission's determination is contained in section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and in part 210 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR part 210).
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
Change in scope of investigation following withdrawal of several requests for competitive need waivers.
Following receipt of a letter on behalf of the Acting United States Trade Representative (USTR) dated February 17, 2017, advising that several petitioners have withdrawn requests for waivers of the competitive need limitation under the Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) program and that USTR accordingly was withdrawing its request for advice regarding such petitions, the U.S. International Trade Commission (Commission) has amended the scope of its investigation and will not provide advice regarding the withdrawn petitions.
All Commission offices, including the Commission's hearing rooms, are located in the United States International Trade Commission Building, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC. All written submissions should be addressed to the Secretary, United States International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436. The public record for this investigation may be viewed on the Commission's electronic docket (EDIS) at
Information specific to this investigation may be obtained from Renee Berry, Project Leader, Office of Industries (202-205-3498 or
In response to the USTR's letter of January 5, 2017, the Commission published its notice of institution of this investigation and the scheduling of a public hearing in connection therewith in the
As previously announced, the Commission expects to transmit its report in this investigation to the USTR by May 5, 2017.
By order of the Commission.
Notice is hereby given that, on February 24, 2017, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
Also, Utility Integration Solutions Organization, Fort Washington, PA; NovaTech, LLC, Quakertown, PA; Portland General Electric Company, Portland, OR; Upperbay Systems, Franklin, MA; Aclara, Hazelwood, MO; Energy Alternative Solutions LLC, Bel Air, MD; Energy Surety Partners LLC, Phoenix, AZ; GridWise Alliance, Washington, DC; KALKITECH, Houston, TX; Reef Energy Systems, LLC, Danville, CA; and ViaSat, Inc., Carlsbad, CA, have withdrawn as parties to this venture.
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and MSGIP 2.0 intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On February 5, 2013, MSGIP 2.0 filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on November 9, 2016. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on February 14, 2017, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
Pursuant to Section 6(b) of the Act, the identities of the parties to the venture are: FCA US LLC, Auburn Hills, MI; IHI Corporation, Yokohama, JAPAN; Borgwarner, Inc., Auburn Hills, MI; Eaton Corporation, Southfield, MI; Ford Motor Company, Dearborn, MI; GM Global Technology Operations, LLC, Detroit, MI; Hanon Systems USA, LLC, Van Buren Twp., MI; Peugeot Citroen Automobiles (PCA), Velizy-Villacoublay Cedex, FRANCE; Tenneco Automotive Operating Company, Inc., Grass Lake, MI; and Cummins, Inc., Columbus, IN. The general area of HEDGE IV's planned activity is to develop the most cost effective solutions for future gasoline engine applications. The emissions goals include the most stringent regulations in each of the three developed markets, Asia, Europe, and North America. HEDGE IV will target the LEV III emission standards, consider RDE requirements and monitor PM/PN emissions on a regular basis. The efficiency goals include both practical thermal efficiency and performance targets, in terms of BSFC goals and power densities on specific platforms, as well as overall thermal efficiency
Notice is hereby given that, on March 7, 2017, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and ODPi intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On November 23, 2015, ODPi filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on December 14, 2016. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on February 24, 2017, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
Also, Azend Group Corporation, Chino, CA; Datapulse Technology Limited, Singapore, SINGAPORE; DVS Korea Co., Ltd., Seongnam-si, Gyeonggi-do, REPUBLIC OF KOREA; ESS Technology, Inc., Fremont, CA; Kaleidescape, Inc., Mountain View, CA; and Quanta Storage Inc., Tao Yuan Shieh, TAIWAN, have withdrawn as parties to this venture.
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and DVD CCA intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On April 11, 2001, DVD CCA filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on November 29, 2016. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on February 13, 2017, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and CHEDE-VII intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On January 6, 2016, CHEDE-VII filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on July 18, 2016. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on March 6, 2017, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and Node.js Foundation intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On August 17, 2015, Node.js Foundation filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on September 29, 2016. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on March 6, 2017, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and fd.io intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On May 4, 2016, fd.io filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on December 21, 2016. A notice was published in the
National Science Foundation.
Notice and request for comments.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) is announcing plans to seek approval for the Survey of Public Attitudes Toward and Understanding of Science and Technology, an existing collection in use without an OMB Control Number. In accordance with the requirement set forth in the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we are providing opportunity for public comment on this action. After obtaining and considering public comment, NSF will prepare the submission requesting that OMB approve clearance of this collection for three years.
Written comments on this notice must be received by May 26, 2017 to be assured consideration. Comments received after that date will be considered to the extent practicable. Send comments to address below.
Suzanne H. Plimpton, NSF Reports Clearance Officer, National Science Foundation, 4201 Wilson Boulevard, Suite 1265, Arlington, Virginia 22230; telephone (703) 292-7556; or send email to
The S&T Attitudes Survey has been collected as a module within the General Social Survey (GSS), an investigator-initiated grant survey conducted by the National Opinion Research Center (NORC) at the University of Chicago, since 2006. The module is funded by the National Center for Science and Engineering Statistics within NSF. NSF recognizes that this data collection is not currently cleared by the Office of Management and Budget, and seeks to bring it into compliance.
The S&T Attitudes Survey contains questions measuring a wide variety of topics, including following science in the media, attendance at informal science institutions such as museums, interest in science, knowledge of
Data collection is expected to begin in Spring 2018. In recent data collection cycles, the GSS has attained a response rate of approximately 70%. Data is collected primarily by face-to-face interviews, though there is an option for phone interviews. The survey will be collected in conformance with the Privacy Act of 1974 and the Confidential Information Protection and Statistical Efficiency Act (CIPSEA). Responses from individuals are voluntary. All individually identifiable information collected will be kept strictly confidential and will be used for research or statistical purposes, analyzing data, and preparing scientific reports and articles.
The NSF will publish statistics from the survey in NCSES' SEI report and possibly in InfoBriefs that focus on particular research topics. These reports will be made available in print and electronically on the NSF Web site. Public use data files will also be developed and made freely available via the Internet.
The sample is a multi-stage area probability sample to the block or segment level. The Primary Sampling Units employed are Standard Metropolitan Statistical Areas (SMSAs) or non-metropolitan counties. These are stratified by region, age, and race/ethnicity before selection. Smaller geographical units such as segments (which include, for example, city blocks) are further selected, stratified according to race/ethnicity and income. The average cluster size is about 6 to 7 respondents per segment. In a given segment, addresses are selected at random from a list of addresses, and one person is sought to participate from each address. There is, of course, the chance of sample biases due to not-at-homes. To reduce this potential bias, the interviewers are given instructions to canvass and interview usually after 3:00 p.m. on weekdays or during the weekend or holidays. The S&T Attitudes Survey forms a module on the GSS, and only a randomly-selected portion of GSS respondents take the module. To accomplish this, addresses are randomly assigned to take the module. The random assignment of addresses to the module is carried out within segments.
The ACRS Subcommittee on APR1400 will hold a meeting on April 5, 2017, at 11545 Rockville Pike, Room T-2B1, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
The meeting will be open to public attendance with the exception of portions that may be closed to protect information that is proprietary pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(4). The agenda for the subject meeting shall be as follows:
The Subcommittee will review the APR1400 Design Control Document and Safety Evaluation Report with Open Items, Chapter 14, “Verification Programs.” The Subcommittee will hear presentations by and hold discussions with the NRC staff and Korea Hydro & Nuclear Power Company regarding this matter. The Subcommittee will gather information, analyze relevant issues and facts, and formulate proposed positions and actions, as appropriate, for deliberation by the Full Committee.
Members of the public desiring to provide oral statements and/or written comments should notify the Designated Federal Official (DFO), Christopher Brown (Telephone 301-415-7111 or Email:
Detailed meeting agendas and meeting transcripts are available on the NRC Web site at
If attending this meeting, please enter through the One White Flint North building, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. After registering with Security, please contact Mr. Theron Brown (Telephone 240-888-9835) to be escorted to the meeting room.
The ACRS Subcommittees on Thermal-Hydraulic Phenomena and Reliability and Probabilistic Risk Assessment will hold a joint meeting on April 5, 2017, at 11545 Rockville Pike, Room T-2B1, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
The entire meeting will be open to public attendance.
The agenda for the subject meeting shall be as follows:
The Subcommittees will review the staff's Draft Safety Evaluation Report Regarding South Texas Project's GSI-191 risk-informed license amendment request. The Subcommittees will hear presentations by and hold discussions with the Licensee, NRC staff and other interested persons regarding this matter. The Subcommittees will gather information, analyze relevant issues and facts, and formulate proposed positions and actions, as appropriate, for deliberation by the Full Committee.
Members of the public desiring to provide oral statements and/or written comments should notify the Designated Federal Official (DFO), Derek Widmayer (Telephone 301-415-5375 or Email
Detailed meeting agendas and meeting transcripts are available on the NRC Web site at
If attending this meeting, please enter through the One White Flint North building, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. After registering with Security, please contact Mr. Theron Brown (Telephone 240-888-9835) to be escorted to the meeting room.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Draft regulatory guide; request for comment.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing for public comment draft regulatory guide (DG), DG-1326, “Quality Assurance Program Criteria (Design and Construction).” This proposed guide, Revision 5, updates the guidance to endorse, with clarification or exceptions, multiple revisions of the American Society of Mechanical Engineers standard NQA-1 titled “Quality Assurance Requirements for Nuclear Facility Applications.” The proposed revision describes methods that NRC considers acceptable for establishing and implementing a quality assurance (QA) program for the design and construction of nuclear power plants and fuel reprocessing plants.
Submit comments by May 26, 2017. Comments received after this date will be considered if it is practical to do so, but the NRC is able to ensure consideration only for comments received on or before this date. Although a time limit is given, comments and suggestions in connection with items for inclusion in guides currently being developed or improvements in all published guides are encouraged at any time.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specified subject):
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For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Ashley Thomas, Office of New Reactors, telephone: 301-415-6638, email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2017-0079 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this action. You may obtain publically-available information related to this action, by any of the following methods:
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2017-0079 in your comment submission.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC posts all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment submissions into ADAMS.
The NRC is issuing for public comment a DG in the NRC's “Regulatory Guide” series. This series was developed to describe and make available to the public information regarding methods that are acceptable to the NRC staff for implementing specific parts of the NRC's regulations, techniques that the staff uses in evaluating specific issues or postulated events, and data that the staff needs in its review of applications for permits and licenses.
The DG, entitled, “Quality Assurance Program Criteria (Design and Construction),” is a proposed revision temporarily identified by its task number, DG-1326. Draft Guide-1326 is proposed revision 5 of Regulatory Guide 1.28, “Quality Assurance Program Criteria (Design and Construction).” The guide describes methods that the NRC considers acceptable for establishing and implementing a QA program for the design and construction of nuclear power plants and fuel reprocessing plants as established within the provisions of part 50 of title 10 of the
This revision of the guide (Revision 5) updates the guidance to endorse, with clarification or exceptions, multiple revisions of the American Society of Mechanical Engineers standard NQA-1 titled “Quality Assurance Requirements for Nuclear Facility Applications.”
Draft Guide-1326 describes methods that the NRC considers acceptable for establishing and implementing a QA program for the design and construction of nuclear power plants and fuel reprocessing plants. Issuance of this DG, if finalized, would not constitute backfitting as defined in § 50.109 (the Backfit Rule) and would not otherwise be inconsistent with the issue finality provisions in part 52. As discussed in the “Implementation” section of this DG, the NRC has no current intention to impose this guidance, if finalized, on holders of current operating licenses or combined licenses.
This DG may be applied to applications for operating licenses, combined licenses, early site permits, and certified design rules docketed by the NRC as of the date of issuance of the final regulatory guide, as well as future applications submitted after the issuance of the regulatory guide. Such action would not constitute backfitting as defined in the Backfit Rule or be otherwise inconsistent with the applicable issue finality provision in part 52, inasmuch as such applicants or potential applicants are not within the scope of entities protected by the Backfit Rule or the relevant issue finality provisions in part 52.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
U.S. Office of Personnel Management.
60-Day Notice and Request for Comments.
The Automated Systems Management Group, Office of Personnel Management (OPM) offers the general public and other federal agencies the opportunity to comment on a new information collection request (ICR), Occupational Questionnaire, OPM Form 1203-FX. The Occupational Questionnaire is an optical scan form designed to collect applicant information and qualifications in a format suitable for automated processing and to create applicant records for an automated examining system.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until May 26, 2017.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Automated Systems Management Group, Office of Personnel Management, 1900 E Street NW., Washington, DC 20415, Attention: Sara Kunkle or sent via electronic mail to
A copy of this ICR, with applicable supporting documentation, may be obtained by contacting the Automated Systems Management Group, Office of Personnel Management, 1900 E Street NW., Washington, DC 20503, Attention: Sara Kunkle or sent via email to
As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, (Pub. L. 104-13, 44 U.S.C. chapter 35) as amended by the Clinger-Cohen Act (Pub. L. 104-106), OPM is soliciting comments for this collection (OMB No 3206-0040). The Office of Management and Budget is particularly interested in comments that:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
The 1203 series was commonly referred to as the “Qualifications and Availability Form C.” OPM re-titled the series as “Occupational Questionnaire” to fit a more generic need. OPM uses this form to carry out its responsibility for open competitive examining for admission to the competitive service in accordance with Section 3304, Title 5, United States Code. One change has been made to the form under Section 14,
Notice of public meetings.
The National Nanotechnology Coordination Office (NNCO), on behalf of the Nanoscale Science, Engineering, and Technology (NSET) Subcommittee of the Committee on Technology, National Science and Technology Council (NSTC), will hold one or more workshops to engage stakeholders and facilitate discussion on key nanotechnology matters. Topics covered may include nanosensor manufacturing; environmental, health, and safety issues; converging technologies; or other areas of potential interest to the nanotechnology community.
The NNCO will hold one or more workshops between the publication of this Notice and December 31, 2017.
For information about upcoming workshops, please visit
For information regarding this Notice, please contact Jewel Beamon at National Nanotechnology Coordination Office, by telephone (703-292-8626) or email (
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes, in connection with its name change to NYSE American LLC, to amend certain organizational documents, the NYSE MKT LLC Company Guide (“Company Guide”), the NYSE MKT Equities Price List (“Price List”), the NYSE Amex Options Fee Schedule (“Fee Schedule”), the NYSE MKT LLC Equities Proprietary Market Data Fees (“Market Data Fees”), the Independence Policy of the Board of Directors (“Independence Policy”), and rules of the Exchange to reflect that name change. The proposed change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at
NYSE MKT proposes, in connection with its name change to NYSE American LLC (“NYSE American”), to amend certain organizational documents, the Company Guide, Price List, Fee Schedule, Market Data Fees, Independence Policy, and rules of the Exchange to reflect that name change.
In 2008, NYSE Euronext acquired the American Stock Exchange LLC (“Amex”), as a result of which the Exchange, as the successor entity to Amex, became a wholly owned subsidiary of NYSE Group, Inc. At that time, the Exchange was named “NYSE Alternext US LLC.”
In connection with the name change, the Exchange proposes to amend the following documents as described below:
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In addition, the Exchange proposes to amend its rules as follows:
• The Exchange proposes to replace “NYSE MKT LLC” with “NYSE American LLC” in definitions 11 (“The Exchange”) and 37 (“Company Guide”); Rule 341, Commentary .02 and .08 (Approval of Registered Employees and Officers); Rule 1—Equities (The Exchange and Related Entities); Rule 37—Equities (Visitors); Rule 98—Equities (c)(6) (Operation of a DMM Unit); Rule 227—Equities Forms 6(a), 7(a), and 12(a) (Depository Eligibility); Rule 497—Equities (a)(3) (Additional Requirements for Listed Securities Issued by ICE or its Affiliates); and Rule 900.2NY(45) and (47) (Definitions).
• The Exchange proposes to replace “NYSE MKT LLC” with “the Exchange” in Rule 341, Commentary .08 (Approval of Registered Employees and Officers).
• The Exchange proposes to replace “NYSE MKT Bonds” with “NYSE American Bonds” in Rule 51—Equities (a), Supplementary Material .20 (Hours for Business); Rule 72—Equities, Supplementary Material .40 (Priority of Bids and Offers and Allocation of Executions); Rule 86—Equities (NYSE MKT Bonds); Rule 119—Equities (Change in Basis from “And Interest” to “Flat”); and Rule 123B—Equities, Supplementary Material .30 (Exchange Automated Order Routing System).
• In Rule 86—Equities (b)(2) and (c), the Exchange proposes to replace “NYSE MKT Bonds Limit Order” with “NYSE American Bonds Limit Order”; “NYSE MKT Bonds Reserve Order” with “NYSE American Bonds Reserve Order”; “NYSE MKT Bonds Good `Til Cancelled Order” with NYSE American Bonds Good `Til Cancelled Order”; and “NYSE MKT Bonds Day Order” with “NYSE American Bonds Day Order.”
• The Exchange proposes to replace “NYSE MKT Company Guide” with “Company Guide” in Rule 2210—Equities (c)(7)(N) (Communications with the Public).
• The Exchange proposes to replace “NYSE MKT” with “NYSE American” in Rule 3170—Equities (a)(3) (Tape Recording of Registered Persons by Certain Firms).
• In the Trading of Options Contracts portion of the rulebook, the Exchange proposes to replace “NYSE MKT” with “Exchange” in Section 15 (Flexible Exchange (“FLEX”) Options), Rule 900G(b) (Applicability and Definitions); Rule 903G(b)(4) and (5) (Terms of FLEX Options); and Rule 975NY(k)(3)(A) (Nullification and Adjustment of Options Transactions including Obvious Errors).
None of the foregoing changes are substantive.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Exchange Act
The proposed rule change is a non-substantive change and does not impact the governance or ownership of the Exchange. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would enable the Exchange to continue to be so organized as to have the capacity to carry out the purposes of the Exchange Act and comply and enforce compliance with the provisions of the Exchange Act by its members and persons associated with its members, because ensuring that the Exchange's governing documents, Company Guide, Price List, Fee Schedule, Market Data Fees, Independence Policy and rulebook accurately reflect the name of the Exchange would contribute to the orderly operation of the Exchange by adding clarity and transparency to such documents and rules.
For similar reasons, the Exchange also believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system by ensuring that market participants can more easily navigate, understand and comply with the Exchange's governing documents, Company Guide, Price List, Fee Schedule, Market Data Fees, Independence Policy and rulebook. The Exchange believes that, by ensuring that such documents and rulebook accurately reflect the name of the Exchange, the proposed rule change would reduce potential investor or market participant confusion.
The Exchange believes that the proposed changes to replace “[Insert name of relevant NYSE U.S. Regulated Subsidiary]” with “NYSE American LLC” would contribute to the orderly operation of the Exchange by adding clarity and transparency to such document.
Further, the Exchange believes that the proposed deletion of footnote two of the Independence Policy would remove impediments to, and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, protect investors and the public interest because the change would eliminate an obsolete reference to NYSE Regulation, thereby reducing potential confusion. Market participants and investors would not be harmed and in fact could benefit from the increased clarity and transparency in the Independence Policy, ensuring that market participants could more easily understand the Independence Policy.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is not intended to address competitive issues but rather is concerned solely with updating the Exchange's organizational documents, Company guide, Price List, Fee Schedule, Market Data Fees, Independence Policy and rules to reflect its name change.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
The proposed rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Ac t
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated (the “Exchange” or “CBOE”) proposes to amend user fees for the Complex Order Book (“COB”) Data Feed. The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site (
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to make a number of changes to the Fees Schedule of the Exchange's affiliate Market Data Express, LLC (“MDX”).
The BBO Data Feed is a real-time data feed that includes the following information: (i) Outstanding quotes and standing orders at the best available price level on each side of the market; (ii) executed trades time, size, and price; (iii) totals of customer versus non-customer contracts at the BBO; (iv) all-or-none contingency orders priced better than or equal to the BBO; (v) expected opening price and expected opening size; (vi) end-of-day summaries by product, including open, high, low, and closing price during the trading session; (vi) recap messages any time there is a change in the open, high, low or last sale price of a listed option, (vii) Complex Order Book (“COB”) information; and (viii) product IDs and codes for all listed options contracts. The quote and last sale data contained in the BBO data feed is identical to the data sent to the Options Price Reporting Authority for redistribution to the public.
The Floor Broker Workstation (“FBW”) is an order management tool used by CBOE Floor Brokers to handle orders on the trading floor of the Exchange. Through February 28, 2017, FBW was a third-party facility of the Exchange. CBOE made the BBO data feed available to Floor Brokers that used FBW at no cost, apart from the applicable FBW login fees ($450 per login ID). Floor Brokers used the BBO Data Feed via FBW primarily to comply with customer priority obligations, such as those outlined in CBOE Rule 6.45 (as mentioned above, the BBO data includes customer contracts at the BBO). Floor Brokers who receive the BBO data feed via FBW (as a facility of CBOE) are not considered “Customers” of MDX to whom the BBO Data Fee applies (unless the Floor Broker has a separate market data agreement in place with MDX) and accordingly are not charged the BBO Data Fee.
Prior to the beginning of trading on March 1, 2017, the Exchange will no longer offer FBWs to its Trading Permit Holders (“TPHs”) and will deactivate FBW logins on the trading floor.
The Exchange is proposing a fee of $100 per month, per Approved Third-Party Device, for Floor Broker Users accessing the BBO data feed on the Exchange floor. Floor Broker User fees are payable only for CBOE Floor Brokers accessing the BBO data feed via Approved Third-Party Devices for managing and executing orders on the CBOE trading floor. An “Approved Third-Party Device” means any computer, workstation or other item of equipment, fixed or portable, that receives, accesses and/or displays data
In addition, the Exchange proposes to clarify the definition of Customer in the BBO section of the MDX Fee Schedule does not include a third-party vendor of an Approved Third-Party Device, as defined below, unless it has a market data agreement in place with MDX.
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
The Exchange believes the proposed Floor Broker User Fee is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because it would apply equally to all Floor Brokers using Approved Third-Party Devices on the Exchange trading floor. Furthermore, the Exchange believes it is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to charge Floor Brokers more than “external” Display Only Service users, because, unlike those users, Floor Brokers use the BBO Data on the Exchange trading floor to manage and execute orders and directly interact with the Order Handling System. The Exchange believes it is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to charge Floor Brokers accessing the BBO data feed via Approved Third-Party Devices a fee of $100 per month as opposed to the $7000 per month fee for BBO Data Feed Customers because: (1) Unlike BBO Data Feed Customers, Floor Broker Users may not save, copy, export or transfer the BBO data and; (2) unlike BBO Data Feed Customers, Floor Broker Users generally use the data for the limited purpose of meeting their order priority obligations (as opposed to using the data for proprietary trading activity). The Exchange believes the Floor Broker User Fees are reasonable because it will no longer collect a $450 monthly fee for FBW, based on conversations with vendors of currently Approved Third-Party Devices, the Exchange believes the $100 Floor Broker user fee plus the amount a Floor Broker pays the third party for use of an Approved Third-Party Device will be comparable to the previously assessed monthly FBW fees.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change will not have an impact on intramarket competition as the fee for BBO Data Feed via an Approved Third-Party Device will apply to all Floor Brokers equally who use Approved Third-Party Devices. Further, the proposed rule will have not have an impact on intramarket competition because the amount a Floor Broker previously paid for FBW, which included the BBO Data Feed, is comparable to the amount it will pay for access to the BBO Data Feed through an Approved Third-Party Device plus the separate payment to the third-party vendor for use of the device.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed change will cause any unnecessary burden on intermarket competition because the proposed change only affects trading on the Exchange's trading floor. To the extent that the proposed changes make the Exchange a more attractive marketplace for market participants at other exchanges, such market participants are welcome to become CBOE market participants.
The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend the NYSE Arca Equities Schedule of Fees and Charges for Exchange Services (“Fee Schedule”). The Exchange proposes to implement the fee changes effective March 10, 2017.
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedule, as described below, and implement the fee changes on March 10, 2017.
A Mid-Point Liquidity Order is defined in Rule 7.31(d)(3) as a Limit Order that is not displayed and does not route, with a working price at the midpoint of the Protected Best Bid and Offer (“PBBO”).
The Exchange currently does not charge a fee for MPL Orders in Tape A, Tape B and Tape C securities that remove liquidity from the Exchange that are designated as “Retail Orders.”
The Fee Schedule currently provides that a fee of $0.00285 per share is charged for orders that take liquidity from the Book in Tape B securities in each of Tier 1, Tier 2, Tier 3, and Cross-Asset Tier 2 sections of the Fee Schedule, and for Limit Non-Displayed Orders
The Exchange currently charges a fee of $0.00285 per share to LMMs for orders in primary listed securities that remove liquidity from the NYSE Arca Book. The Exchange proposes to increase this fee to $0.0029 per share.
The Exchange proposes a new pricing tier—Tape C Tier 2—for securities with a per share price at or above $1.00.
As proposed, the Tape C Tier 2 would apply to ETP Holders and Market Makers that, on a daily basis, measured monthly, directly execute providing volume in Tape C Securities during the billing month (“Tape C Adding ADV”) that is equal to at least 0.20% of the US Tape C CADV for the billing month over the ETP Holder's or Market Maker's Q4 2016 Tape C Adding ADV taken as a percentage of Tape C CADV. Such ETP Holders and Market Makers would be charged a fee of $0.0029 per share for orders that take liquidity from the Book in Tape C Securities. For example, if an ETP Holder's Tape C Baseline % CADV during fourth quarter 2016 was 0.500%, the ETP Holder would need a Tape C Adding ADV of at least 0.700% to meet the requirements for Tape C Tier 2. For all other fees and credits, Tiered or Basic Rates apply based on a firm's qualifying levels.
The Exchange recently adopted a Tape C Tier credit of $0.0002 per share for orders that provide liquidity to the Book.
The Exchange also proposes to rename the current Tape C Tier to Tape C Tier 1 to distinguish this pricing tier from the proposed new pricing tier, Tape C Tier 2.
The Exchange proposes a new pricing tier—Cross Asset Tier 3—for securities with a per share price at or above $1.00.
As proposed the Cross Asset Tier 3 would apply to ETP Holders and Market Makers that (a) provide liquidity of 0.30% or more of the US CADV per month and (b) are affiliated with an OTP Holder or OTP Firm that provides an ADV of electronic posted Customer and Professional Customer executions in all issues on NYSE Arca Options (excluding mini options) of at least 0.80% of total Customer equity and ETF option ADV as reported by OCC, of which at least 0.20% of total Customer equity and ETF option ADV as reported by OCC is from Customer and Professional Customer executions in non-Penny Pilot issues on NYSE Arca Options. Such ETP Holders and Market Makers would receive a credit of $0.0030 per share for orders that provide liquidity to the order book in Tape A, Tape B and Tape C Securities. For all other fees and credits, Tiered or Basic Rates apply based on a firm's qualifying levels.
The proposed changes are not otherwise intended to address any other issues, and the Exchange is not aware of any significant problems that market participants would have in complying with the proposed changes.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed increase to the fee for executions of MPL Orders that remove liquidity and that are designated as Retail Orders is reasonable. MPL Orders provide opportunities for market participants to interact with orders priced at the midpoint of the PBBO, thus providing price improving liquidity to market participants and increasing the quality of order execution on the Exchange's market, which benefits all market participants.
Specifically, the Exchange believes that charging a fee for MPL Orders that remove liquidity from the Exchange and that are designated as Retail Orders is reasonable because the fee is substantially lower than the $0.0030 per share (fee) for MPL orders removing liquidity from the Book that are not designated as “Retail Orders.”
The Exchange believes that the proposal to increase the fee charged for orders in Tape B Securities in Tier 1, Tier 2, Tier 3 and Cross-Asset Tier 2 that take liquidity from the Book, and for Limit Non-Displayed Orders that take liquidity from the Book in Tape B securities in each of Tier 1, Tier 2 and Tier 3, is reasonable because the proposed rate will continue to be lower than the fee charged by other exchanges. For example, Bats EDGX Exchange (“EDGX”) currently charges a fee of $0.0030 per share for orders that remove liquidity in Tape B securities on that exchange.
The Exchange believes that it is reasonable to increase the fee charged to LMMs for orders in primary listed securities that remove liquidity from the NYSE Arca Book as this fee would be the same as the fee increase proposed by the Exchange to Tier 1, Tier 2, Tier 3 and Cross-Asset Tier 2 ETP Holders and Market Makers that take liquidity in Tape B securities. In addition, the proposed fee change is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because it would apply uniformly to all similarly situated LMMs.
The Exchange believes that the proposal to adopt a lower fee of $0.0029 per share for orders that take liquidity from the Book in Tape C Securities for firms that qualify for Tape C Tier 2 is reasonable because the proposed rate is lower than fees charged by other exchanges for taking liquidity in Tape C Securities, and would create an added incentive for ETP Holders and Market Makers to execute additional orders on the Exchange. For example, EDGX currently charges a fee of $0.0030 per share fee for orders that take liquidity from that exchange in Tape C Securities. The Exchange further believes that the proposed fee decrease is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because it would apply to all orders in Tape C Securities with a per share price of $1.00 and greater that take liquidity from the Book. The Exchange believes that the proposal to raise the cap on the combined credit from $0.0031 per share to $0.0033 per share for ETP Holders and Market Makers that meet the requirement for proposed new Tape C Tier 2 is reasonable because it would create an added incentive for ETP Holders and Market Makers to add liquidity on the Exchange for the benefit of all market participants.
The Exchange believes the proposed Cross Asset Tier 3 is reasonable and equitably allocated because it would apply to ETP Holders and Market Makers that provide liquidity to the Exchange and is designed to incentivize these market participants to increase the orders sent directly to the Exchange and therefore provide liquidity that supports the quality of price discovery and promotes market transparency. The Exchange believes the new Cross Asset Tier 3 is equitable because it would be available to all similarly situated ETP Holders and Market Makers on an equal basis and would provide credits that are reasonably related to the value of an exchange's market quality associated with higher volumes. The Exchange further believes that the proposed Cross Asset Tier 3 is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange has previously implemented cross asset tiers, including the current Cross Asset Tier 1 and Cross Asset Tier 2.
Finally, the Exchange believes that it is subject to significant competitive forces, as described below in the Exchange's statement regarding the burden on competition. For these reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
Finally, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive or rebate opportunities available at other venues to be more favorable. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually adjust its fees and rebates to remain competitive with other exchanges and with alternative trading systems that have been exempted from compliance with the statutory standards applicable to exchanges. Because competitors are free to modify their own fees and credits in response, and because market participants may readily adjust their order routing practices, the Exchange believes that the degree to which fee changes in this market may impose any burden on competition is extremely limited. As a result of all of these considerations, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed changes will impair the ability of ETP Holders or competing order execution venues to maintain their competitive standing in the financial markets. Finally, the Exchange believes the proposed fee changes do not impose any burden on competition as the fee changes are consistent with the fees charged by other exchanges.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
The foregoing rule change is effective upon filing pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to the provisions of Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange is filing a proposal to amend Exchange Rule 521 (the “Current Rule”), Nullification and Adjustment of Options Transactions Including Obvious Errors, by adding new Interpretation and Policy .03 to Rule 521 (the “Proposed Rule”).
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend Exchange Rule 521, Nullification and Adjustment of Options Transactions Including Obvious Errors, to add Interpretation and Policy .03. This filing is based on a proposal recently submitted by Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated (“CBOE”) and approved by the Commission.
Last year, the Exchange and other options exchanges adopted a new, harmonized rule related to the adjustment and nullification of erroneous options transactions, including a specific provision related to coordination in connection with large-scale events involving erroneous options transactions.
Specifically, the options exchanges have been working together to identify ways to improve the process related to the adjustment and nullification of erroneous options transactions as it relates to complex orders and stock-option orders.
The Proposed Rule is the culmination of this coordinated effort and reflects discussions by the options exchanges whereby the exchanges that offer complex orders and/or stock-option orders will universally adopt new provisions that the options exchanges collectively believe will improve the handling of erroneous options transactions that result from the execution of complex orders and stock-option orders.
The Exchange believes that the Proposed Rule supports an approach consistent with long-standing principles in the options industry under which the general policy is to adjust rather than nullify transactions. The Exchange acknowledges that adjustment of transactions is contrary to the operation of analogous rules applicable to the equities markets, where erroneous transactions are typically nullified rather than adjusted and where there is no distinction between the types of market participants involved in a transaction. For the reasons set forth below, the Exchange believes that the distinctions in market structure between equities and options markets continue to support these distinctions between the rules for handling obvious errors in the equities and options markets.
Various general structural differences between the options and equities markets point toward the need for a different balancing of risks for options market participants and are reflected in this proposal. Option pricing is formulaic and is tied to the price of the underlying stock, the volatility of the underlying security and other factors. Because options market participants can generally create new open interest in response to trading demand, as new open interest is created, correlated trades in the underlying or related series are generally also executed to hedge a market participant's risk. This pairing of open interest with hedging interest differentiates the options market specifically (and the derivatives markets broadly) from the cash equities markets. In turn, the Exchange believes that the hedging transactions engaged in by market participants necessitate protection of transactions through adjustments rather than nullifications when possible and otherwise appropriate.
The options markets are also quote driven markets dependent on liquidity providers to an even greater extent than equities markets. In contrast to the approximately 7,000 different securities traded in the U.S. equities markets each day, there are more than 500,000 unique, regularly quoted option series. Given this breadth in options series the options markets are more dependent on liquidity providers than equities markets; such liquidity is provided most commonly by registered market makers but also by other professional traders. With the number of instruments in which registered market makers must quote and the risk attendant with quoting so many products simultaneously, the Exchange believes that those liquidity providers should be afforded a greater level of protection. In particular, the Exchange believes that liquidity providers should be allowed protection of their trades given the fact that they typically engage in hedging activity to protect them from significant financial risk to encourage continued liquidity provision and maintenance of the quote-driven options markets.
In addition to the factors described above, there are other fundamental differences between options and equities markets which lend themselves to different treatment of different classes of participants that are reflected in this proposal. For example, there is no trade reporting facility in the options markets. Thus, all transactions must occur on an options exchange. This leads to significantly greater retail customer
As more fully described below, the Proposed Rule applies much of the Current Rule to complex orders and stock-option orders.
First, proposed Interpretation and Policy .03(a) governs the review of complex orders that are executed against individual legs (as opposed to a complex order that executes against another complex order).
If a complex order executes against individual legs and at least one of the legs qualifies as an Obvious Error under paragraph (c)(1) or a Catastrophic Error under paragraph (d)(1), then the leg(s) that is an Obvious or Catastrophic Error will be adjusted in accordance with paragraphs (c)(4)(A) or (d)(3), respectively, regardless of whether one of the parties is a Customer. However, any Customer order subject to this paragraph (a) will be nullified if the adjustment would result in an execution price higher (for buy transactions) or lower (for sell transactions) than the Customer's limit price on the complex order or individual leg(s). If any leg of a complex order is nullified, the entire transaction is nullified.
As previously noted, at least one of the legs of the complex order must qualify as an obvious or catastrophic error under the Current Rule in order for the complex order to receive obvious or catastrophic error relief. Thus, when the Exchange is notified (within the timeframes set forth in paragraph (c)(2) or (d)(2)) of a complex order that is a possible obvious error or catastrophic error, the Exchange will first review the individual legs of the complex order to determine if one or more legs qualify as an obvious or catastrophic error.
To illustrate, assume a Customer submits a complex order to the Exchange consisting of Leg 1 and Leg 2—Leg 1 is to buy 100 ABC calls and Leg 2 is to sell 100 ABC puts. Also, assume that Market-Maker 1 is quoting the ABC calls $1.00-1.20 and Market-Maker 2 is quoting the ABC puts $2.00-2.20. If the complex order executes against the quotes of Market-Makers 1 and 2, the Customer buys the ABC calls for $1.20 and sells the ABC puts for $2.00. As with the obvious/catastrophic error reviews for simple orders, the execution price of Leg 1 is compared to the Theoretical Price
Paragraph (c)(4)(A) of the Current Rule mandates that if it is determined that an obvious error has occurred, the execution price of the transaction will be adjusted pursuant to the table set forth in (c)(4)(A). Although for simple orders paragraph (c)(4)(A) is only applicable when no party to the transaction is a Customer, for the purposes of complex orders paragraph (a) of Interpretation and Policy .03 will supersede that limitation; therefore, if it is determined that a leg (or legs) of a complex order is an obvious error, the leg (or legs) will be adjusted pursuant to (c)(4)(A), regardless of whether a party to the transaction is a Customer. The Size Adjustment Modifier defined in subparagraph (a)(4) of the Current Rule will similarly apply (regardless of whether a Customer is on the transaction) by virtue of the application of paragraph (c)(4)(A).
Furthermore, as with the Current Rule, Proposed Rule 521 Interpretation and Policy .03(a) provides protection for Customer orders, stating that where at least one party to a complex order transaction is a Customer, the transaction will be nullified if adjustment would result in an execution price higher (for buy transactions) or lower (for sell transactions) than the Customer's limit price on the complex order or individual leg(s). For example, assume Customer enters a complex order to buy Leg 1 and Leg 2.
• Assume the NBBO for Leg 1 is $0.20-1.00 and the NBBO for Leg 2 is $0.50-1.00 and that these have been the NBBOs since the market opened.
• A split-second prior to the execution of the complex order a Customer enters a simple order to sell the Leg 1 options series at $1.30, and the simple order enters the Exchange's book so that the BBO is $.20-$1.30. The limit price on the simple order is $1.30.
• The complex order executes Leg 1 against the Exchange's best offer of $1.30 and Leg 2 at $1.00 for a net execution price of $2.30.
• However, Leg 1 executed on a wide quote (the NBBO for Leg 1 was $0.20-1.00 at the time of execution, which is wider than $0.75).
• The Exchange determines that the Theoretical Price for Leg 1 is $1.00, which was the best offer prior to the execution. Leg 1 qualifies as an obvious error because the difference between the Theoretical Price ($1.00) and the execution price ($1.30) is larger than $0.25.
• According to Proposed Rule 521 Interpretation and Policy .03(a), Customers will also be adjusted in accordance with Rule 521(c)(4)(A), which for a buy transaction under $3.00 calls for the Theoretical Price to by adjusted by adding $0.15
• However, adjusting the execution price of Leg 1 to $1.15 violates the limit price of the Customer's sell order on the simple order book for Leg 1, which was $1.30.
• Thus, the entire complex order transaction will be nullified
As the above example demonstrates, incoming complex orders may execute against resting simple orders in the leg market. If a complex order leg is deemed to be an obvious error, adjusting the execution price of the leg may violate the limit price of the resting order, which will result in nullification if the resting order is for a Customer. In contrast, Interpretation and Policy .02 to Rule 521 provides that if an adjustment would result in an execution price that is higher than an erroneous buy transaction or lower than an erroneous sell transaction the execution will not be adjusted or nullified.
As previously noted, paragraph (d)(3) of the Current Rule already mandates that if it is determined that a catastrophic error has occurred, the execution price of the transaction will be adjusted pursuant to the table set forth in paragraph (d)(3). For purposes of complex orders under Proposed Rule 521 Interpretation and Policy .03(a), if one of the legs of a complex order is determined to be a Catastrophic Error under paragraph (d)(3), all market participants will be adjusted in accordance with the table set forth in (d)(3). Again, however, where at least one party to a complex order transaction is a Customer, the transaction will be nullified if adjustment would result in an execution price higher (for buy transactions) or lower (for sell transactions) than the Customer's limit price on the complex order or individual leg(s). Again, if any leg of a complex order is nullified, the entire transaction is nullified. Additionally, as is the case today, a Member that submits an appeal seeking the review of an Official ruling will be assessed a fee of $500.00 for each Official ruling to be reviewed that is sustained and not overturned or modified by the Chief Regulatory Officer or his/her designee. In addition, in instances where the Exchange, on behalf of a Member, requests a determination by another market center that a transaction is clearly erroneous, the Exchange will pass any resulting charges through to the relevant Member.
Other than honoring the limit prices established for Customer orders, the Exchange has proposed to treat Customers and non-Customers the same in the context of the complex orders that trade against the leg market. When complex orders trade against the leg market, it is possible that at least some of the legs will execute at prices that would not be deemed obvious or catastrophic errors, which gives the counterparty in such situations no indication that the execution will later by adjusted or nullified. The Exchange believes that treating Customers and non-Customers the same in this context will provide additional certainty to non-Customers (especially Market-Makers) with respect to their potential exposure and hedging activities, including comfort that even if a transaction is later adjusted, such transaction will not be fully nullified. However, as noted above, under the Proposed Rule where at least one party to the transaction is a Customer, the trade will be nullified if the adjustment would result in an execution price higher (for buy transactions) or lower (for sell transactions) than the Customer's limit
Second, proposed Interpretation and Policy .03(b) governs the review of complex orders that are executed against other complex orders. Proposed Rule 521 Interpretation and Policy .03(b) provides:
If a complex order executes against another complex order and at least one of the legs qualifies as an Obvious Error under paragraph (c)(1) or a Catastrophic Error under paragraph (d)(1), then the leg(s) that is an Obvious or Catastrophic Error will be adjusted or busted in accordance with paragraph (c)(4) or (d)(3), respectively, so long as either: (i) The width of the National Spread Market for the complex order strategy just prior to the erroneous transaction was equal to or greater than the amount set forth in the wide quote table of paragraph (b)(3), or (ii) the net execution price of the complex order is higher (lower) than the offer (bid) of the National Spread Market for the complex order strategy just prior to the erroneous transaction by an amount equal to at least the amount shown in the table in paragraph (c)(1). If any leg of a complex order is nullified, the entire transaction is nullified. For purposes of this Rule 521, the National Spread Market for a complex order strategy is determined by the National Best Bid/Offer of the individual legs of the strategy.
As described above in relation to Proposed Rule 521 Interpretation and Policy .03(a), the first step is for the Exchange to review (upon receipt of a timely notification in accordance with paragraphs (c)(2) or (d)(2) of the Current Rule) the individual legs to determine whether a leg or legs qualifies as an obvious or catastrophic error. If no leg qualifies as an obvious or catastrophic error, the transaction stands—no adjustment and no nullification.
Unlike Proposed Rule 521 Interpretation and Policy .03(a), the Exchange is also proposing to compare the net execution price of the entire complex order package to the National Spread Market (“NSM”) for the complex order strategy.
• If the BBO for the ABC calls is $5.50-7.50 and the BBO for ABC puts is $3.00-4.50, then the Exchange's spread market is $1.00-4.50.
• If the NBBO for the ABC calls is $6.00-6.50 and the NBBO for the ABC puts is $3.50-4.00, then the NSM is $2.00-3.00.
• If the Customer buys the calls at $7.50 and sells the puts at $4.00, the complex order Customer receives a net execution price of $3.00 (debit), which is the expected net execution price as indicated by the NSM offer of $3.00.
If the exchange were to solely focus on the $7.50 execution price of the ABC calls or the $4.00 execution price of the ABC puts, the execution would qualify as an obvious or catastrophic error because the execution price on the legs was outside the NBBO, even though the net execution price is accurate. Thus, the additional review of the NSM to determine if the complex order was executed at a truly erroneous price is necessary. The same concern is not present when a complex order executes against the leg market under Proposed Rule 521 Interpretation and Policy .03(a) because the execution price of each component is not executed at a price that is outside of the NBBO.
In order to incorporate NSM, Proposed Rule 521 Interpretation and Policy .03(b) provides that if a complex order executes against another complex order and at least one of the legs qualifies as an obvious or catastrophic error, the leg or legs that is an obvious or catastrophic error will be adjusted or busted in accordance with paragraph (c)(4) or (d)(3) of the Current Rule, so long as either: (i) The width of the NSM for the complex order strategy just prior to the erroneous transaction was equal to or greater than the amount set forth in the wide quote table of paragraph (b)(3) of the Current Rule or (ii) the net execution price of the complex order is higher (lower) than the offer (bid) of the NSM for the complex order strategy just prior to the erroneous transaction by an amount equal to at least the amount shown in the table in paragraph (c)(1) of the Current Rule.
For example, assume an individual leg or legs qualifies as an obvious or catastrophic error and the width of the NSM of the complex order strategy just prior to the erroneous transaction is $6.00-9.00. The complex order will qualify to be adjusted or busted in accordance with paragraph (c)(4) of the Current Rule because the wide quote table of paragraph (b)(3) of the Current Rule indicates that the minimum amount is $1.50 for a bid price between $5.00 to $10.00. If the NSM were instead $6.00-7.00 the complex order strategy would not qualify to be adjusted or busted pursuant to Proposed Rule 521 Interpretation and Policy .03(b)(i) because the width of the NSM is $1.00, which is less than the required $1.50. However, the execution may still qualify to be adjusted or busted in accordance with paragraph (c)(4) or (d)(3) of the Current Rule pursuant to Proposed Rule 521 Interpretation and Policy .03(b)(ii). Focusing on the NSM in this manner will ensure that the obvious/catastrophic error review process focuses on the net execution price instead of the execution prices of the individual legs, which may have execution prices outside of the NBBO of the leg markets.
Again, assume an individual leg or legs qualifies as an obvious or catastrophic error as described above. If the NSM is $6.00-7.00 (not a wide quote pursuant to the wide quote table in paragraph (b)(3) of the Current Rule) but the execution price of the entire complex order package (
Although the Exchange believes adjusting execution prices is generally better for the marketplace than nullifying executions because liquidity providers often execute hedging transactions to offset options positions, the Exchange recognizes that complex orders executing against other complex orders is similar to simple orders executing against other simple orders because both parties are able to review the execution price to determine whether the transaction may have been executed at an erroneous price. Thus, for purposes of complex orders that meet the requirements of Proposed Rule 521 Interpretation and Policy .03(b), the Exchange proposes to apply the Current Rule and adjust or bust obvious errors in accordance with paragraph (c)(4) (as opposed to applying paragraph (c)(4)(A) as is the case under Proposed Rule 521 Interpretation and Policy .03(a)) and catastrophic errors in accordance with (d)(3).
Therefore, for purposes of complex orders under Proposed Rule 521 Interpretation and Policy .03(b), if one of the legs is determined to be an obvious error under paragraph (c)(1), all Customer transactions will be nullified, unless a Member submits 200 or more Customer transactions for review in accordance with (c)(4)(C).
Third, proposed Interpretation and Policy .03(c) governs stock-option orders. Proposed Rule 521 Interpretation and Policy .03(c) provides:
If the option leg of a stock-option order qualifies as an Obvious Error under paragraph (c)(1) or a Catastrophic Error under paragraph (d)(1), then the option leg that is an Obvious or Catastrophic Error will be adjusted in accordance with paragraph (c)(4)(A) or (d)(3), respectively, regardless of whether one of the parties is a Customer. However, the option leg of any Customer order subject to this paragraph (c) will be nullified if the adjustment would result in an execution price higher (for buy transactions) or lower (for sell transactions) than the Customer's limit price on the stock-option order, and the Exchange will attempt to nullify the stock leg. Whenever a stock trading venue nullifies the stock leg of a stock-option order or whenever the stock leg cannot be executed, the Exchange will nullify the option leg upon request of one of the parties to the transaction or in accordance with paragraph (c)(3).
Similar to proposed Interpretation and Policy .03(a), an options leg (or legs) of a stock-option order must qualify as an obvious or catastrophic error under the Current Rule in order for the stock-option order to qualify as an obvious or catastrophic error. Also similar to Proposed Rule 521 Interpretation and Policy .03(a), if an options leg (or legs) does qualify as an obvious or catastrophic error, the option leg (or legs) will be adjusted in accordance with paragraph (c)(4)(A) or (d)(3), respectively, regardless of whether one of the parties is a Customer. Again, as with Proposed Rule 521 Interpretation and Policy .03(a), where at least one party to a complex order transaction is a Customer, the Exchange will nullify the option leg and attempt to nullify the stock leg if adjustment would result in an execution price higher (for buy transactions) or lower (for sell transactions) than the Customer's limit price on the complex order or individual leg(s).
The stock leg of a stock-option order is not executed on the Exchange; rather, the stock leg is sent to a stock trading venue for execution. The Exchange is unaware of a mechanism by which the Exchange can guarantee that the stock leg will be nullified by the stock trading venue in the event of an obvious or catastrophic error on the Exchange. Thus, in the event of the nullification of the option leg pursuant to Proposed Rule 521 Interpretation and Policy .03(c), the Exchange will attempt to have the stock leg nullified by the stock trading venue by either contacting the stock trading venue or notifying the parties to the transaction that the option leg is being nullified. The party or parties to the transaction may ultimately need to contact the stock trading venue to have the stock portion nullified.
Finally, the Exchange proposes to provide guidance that whenever the stock trading venue nullifies the stock leg of a stock-option order, the option will be nullified upon request of one of the parties to the transaction or by an Official acting on their own motion in accordance with paragraph (c)(3). There are situations in which buyer and seller agree to trade a stock-option order, but the stock leg cannot be executed. The Exchange proposes to provide guidance that whenever the stock portion of a stock-option order cannot be executed, the Exchange will nullify the option leg upon request of one of the parties to the transaction or on an Official's own motion.
In order to ensure that the other options exchanges are able to adopt rules consistent with this proposal and to coordinate effectiveness of such harmonized rules, the Exchange proposes to delay the operative date of this proposal to April 17, 2017.
MIAX believes that its proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The Exchange does not believe that the proposal is unfairly discriminatory, even though it differentiates in many places between Customers and non-Customers. As with the Current Rule, Customers are treated differently, often affording them preferential treatment. This treatment is appropriate in light of the fact that Customers are not necessarily immersed in the day-to-day trading of the markets, are less likely to be watching trading activity in a particular option throughout the day, and may have limited funds in their trading accounts. At the same time, the Exchange reiterates that in the U.S. options markets generally there is significant retail customer participation that occurs directly on (and only on) options exchanges such as the Exchange. Accordingly, differentiating among market participants with respect to the adjustment and nullification of erroneous options transactions is not unfairly discriminatory because it is reasonable and fair to provide Customers with additional protections as compared to non-Customers.
The Exchange believes that its proposal to adopt the ability to adjust a Customer's execution price when a complex order is deemed to be an Obvious or Catastrophic Error is consistent with the Act. A complex order that executes against individual leg markets may receive an execution price on an individual leg that is not an Obvious or Catastrophic error but another leg of the transaction is an Obvious or Catastrophic Error. In such situations where the complex order is executing against at least one individual or firm that is not aware of the fact that they have executed against a complex order or that the complex order has been executed at an erroneous price, the Exchange believes it is more appropriate to adjust execution prices if possible because the derivative transactions are often hedged with other securities. Allowing adjustments instead of nullifying transactions in these limited situations will help to ensure that market participants are not left with a hedge that has no position to hedge against.
The Exchange also believes its proposal related to stock-option orders is consistent with the Act. Stock-option orders consist of an option component and a stock component. Due to the fact that the Exchange has no control over the venues on which the stock is executed the proposal focuses on the option component of the stock-option order by adjusting or nullifying the option in accordance with paragraph (c)(4)(A) or (d)(3). Also, nullifying the option component if the stock component cannot be executed ensures that market participants receive the execution for which they bargained. Stock-option orders are negotiated and agreed to as a package; thus, if for any reason the stock portion of a stock-option order cannot ultimately be executed, the parties should not be saddled with an options position sans stock.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. In this regard and as indicated above, the Exchange notes that the proposed rule change is substantially similar to a filing submitted by CBOE that was recently approved by the Commission.
The Exchange believes the proposal will not impose a burden on intermarket competition but will rather alleviate any burden on competition because it is the result of a collaborative effort by all options exchanges to harmonize and improve the process related to the adjustment and nullification of erroneous options transactions. The Exchange does not believe that the rules applicable to such process is an area where options exchanges should compete, but rather, that all options exchanges should have consistent rules to the extent possible. Particularly where a market participant trades on several different exchanges and an erroneous trade may occur on multiple markets nearly simultaneously, the Exchange believes that a participant should have a consistent experience with respect to the nullification or adjustment of transactions. The Exchange understands that all other options exchanges that trade complex orders and/or stock-option orders intend to file proposals that are substantially similar to this proposal. The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change imposes a burden on intramarket competition because the provisions apply to all market participants equally within each participant category (
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend BX Rules 11140 (Transactions in Securities “Ex-Dividend,” “Ex-Rights” or “Ex-Warrants”), 11150 (Transactions “Ex-Interest” in Bonds Which Are Dealt in “Flat”), 11210 (Sent by Each Party), 11320 (Dates of Delivery), 11620 (Computation of Interest), and IM-11810 (Sample Buy-In Forms), to conform to the Commission's proposed amendment to SEA Rule 15c6-1(a) to shorten the standard settlement cycle for most broker-dealer transactions from three business days after the trade date (“T+3”) to two business days after the trade date (“T+2”) and the industry-led initiative to shorten the settlement cycle from T+3 to T+2.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
On September 28, 2016, the Commission proposed amending SEA Rule 15c6-1(a) to shorten the standard settlement cycle for most broker-dealer transactions from T+3 to T+2 on the basis that the shorter settlement cycle would reduce the risks that arise from the value and number of unsettled securities transactions prior to the completion of settlement, including credit, market, and liquidity risk directly faced by U.S. market participants.
In 1995, the standard U.S. trade settlement cycle for equities, municipal and corporate bonds, and unit investment trusts, and financial instruments composed of these products was shortened from five business days after the trade date (“T+5”) to T+3.
In April 2014, the Depository Trust & Clearing Corporation (“DTCC”) published its formal recommendation to shorten the standard U.S. trade settlement cycle to T+2 and announced that it would partner with market participants and industry organizations to devise the necessary approach and timelines to achieve T+2.
In an effort to improve the overall efficiency of the U.S. settlement system by reducing the attendant risks in T+3 settlement of securities transactions, and to align U.S. markets with other major global markets that have already moved to T+2, DTCC, in collaboration with the financial services industry, formed an Industry Steering Committee (“ISC”) and an industry working group and sub-working groups to facilitate the move to T+2.
In light of the SEC Proposing Release that would amend SEA Rule 15c6-1(a) to require standard settlement no later than T+2 and similar proposals from other SROs,
The details of the proposed rule change are described below.
Rule 11140(b)(1) provides that for dividends or distributions, and the issuance or distribution of warrants, that are less than 25 percent of the value of the subject security, if definitive information is received sufficiently in advance of the record date, the date designated as the “ex-dividend date” shall be the second business day preceding the record date if the record date falls on a business day, or the third business day preceding the record date if the record date falls on a day designated by Exchange's Regulation Department
Rule 11150(a) prescribes the manner for establishing “ex-interest dates” for transactions in bonds or other similar evidences of indebtedness which are traded “flat.” Such transactions are “ex-interest” on the second business day preceding the record date if the record date falls on a business day, on the third business day preceding the record date if the record date falls on a day other than a business day, or on the third business day preceding the date on which an interest payment is to be made if no record date has been fixed. BX is proposing to shorten the time frames in Rule 11150(a) by one business day.
Paragraphs (c) and (d) of Rule 11210 set forth the “Don't Know” (“DK”) voluntary procedures for using “DK Notices” or other forms of notices, respectively. Depending upon the notice used, a confirming member may follow the “DK” procedures when it sends a comparison or confirmation of a trade (other than one that clears through the National Securities Clearing Corporation (“NSCC”) or other registered clearing agency), but does not receive a comparison or confirmation or a signed “DK” from the contra-member by the close of four business days following the trade date of the transaction (“T+4”). The procedures generally provide that after T+4, the confirming member shall send a “DK Notice” (or similar notice) to the contra-member. The contra-member then has four business days after receipt of the confirming member's notice to either confirm or “DK” the transaction.
BX is proposing to amend paragraphs (c) and (d) of Rule 11210 to provide that the “DK” procedures may be used by the confirming member if it does not receive a comparison or confirmation or signed “DK” from the contra-member by the close of one business day following the trade date of the transaction, rather than the current T+4.
Rule 11320 prescribes delivery dates for various transactions. Paragraph (b) states that for a “regular way” transaction, delivery must be made on, but not before, the third business day after the date of the transaction. BX is proposing to amend Rule 11320(b) to change the reference to third business day to second business day. Paragraph (c) provides that in a “seller's option” transaction, delivery may be made by the seller on any business day after the third business day following the date of the transaction. BX is proposing to amend Rule 11320(c) to change the reference to third business day to second business day.
In the settlement of contracts in interest-paying securities other than for cash, Rule 11620(a) requires the calculation of interest at the rate specified in the security up to, but not including, the third business day after the date of the transaction. The proposed amendment would shorten the time frame to the second business day. In addition, the proposed amendment would make non-substantive technical changes to the title of paragraph (a).
Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A) sets forth the fail-to-deliver and liability notice procedures where a securities contract is for warrants, rights, convertible securities or other securities which have been called for redemption; are due to expire by their terms; are the subject of a tender or exchange offer; or are subject to other expiring events such as a record date for the underlying security and the last day on which the securities must be delivered or surrendered is the settlement date of the contract or later.
Under Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A), the receiving member delivers a liability notice to the owing counterparty. The liability notice sets a cutoff date for the delivery of the securities by the counterparty and provides notice to the counterparty of the liability attendant to its failure to deliver the securities in time. If the owing counterparty, or delivering member, delivers the securities in response to the liability notice, it has met its delivery obligation. If the delivering member fails to deliver the securities on the expiration date, it will be liable for any damages that may accrue thereby.
Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A) further provides that when both parties to a contract are participants in a registered clearing agency that has an automated liability notification service, transmission of the liability notice must be accomplished through such system.
Given the proposed shortened settlement cycle, BX is proposing to amend Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A) in situations where both parties to a contract are not participants of a registered clearing agency with an automated notification service, by extending the time frame for delivery of the liability notice. Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A) would be amended to provide that in such cases, the receiving member must send the liability notice to the delivering member as soon as practicable but not later than two hours prior to the cutoff time set forth in the instructions on a specific offer or other event to obtain the protection provided by the Rule. BX believes that extending the time given to the receiving member to transmit liability notifications will maintain the efficiency of the notification process while mitigating the possible overuse of such notifications.
Currently, BX understands that the identity of the counterparty, or delivering member, becomes known to the receiving member by mid-day on the business day after trade date (“T+1”), and by that time, the receiving member will generally also know which transactions are subject to an event identified in Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A) that would prompt the receiving member to issue a liability notice to the delivering member. BX believes that the receiving member regularly issues liability notices to the seller or other parties from which the securities involved are due when the security is subject to an event identified in Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A) during the settlement cycle as a way to mitigate the risk of a potential fail-to-deliver. In the current T+3 settlement environment, the one business day time frame gives the receiving member the requisite time needed to identify the parties involved and undertake the liability notification process.
However, BX believes that the move to a T+2 settlement environment will create inefficiencies in the liability notification process under Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A) when both parties to a contract are not participants in a registered clearing agency with an automated notification service. The shorter settlement cycle, with the loss of one business day, would not afford the receiving member sufficient time to: (1) Ascertain that the securities are subject to an event listed in Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A) during the settlement cycle; (2) identify the delivering member and other parties from which the securities involved are due; and (3) determine the likelihood that such parties may fail to deliver. Where the receiving member has sufficient time (
BX will announce the operative date of the proposed rule change in an Equity Regulatory Alert, which date would correspond with the industry-led transition to a T+2 standard settlement, and the compliance date of the proposed amendment to SEA Rule 15c6-1(a) that the Commission may adopt, to require standard settlement no later than T+2.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change makes changes to rules pertaining to securities settlement and is intended to facilitate the implementation of the industry-led transition to a T+2 settlement cycle. Moreover, the proposed rule changes are consistent with the SEC's proposed amendment to SEA Rule 15c6-1(a) to require standard settlement no later than T+2. Accordingly, BX believes that the proposed changes do not impose any burdens on the industry in addition to those necessary to implement amendments to SEA Rule 15c6-1(a) as described and enumerated in the SEC Proposing Release.
These conforming changes include changes to rules that specifically establish the settlement cycle as well as rules that establish time frames based on settlement dates, including for certain post-settlement rights and obligations. BX believes that the proposed changes set forth in the filing are necessary to
A previous version of the proposed rule change was published for comment in Equity Regulatory Alert 2016-4 on May 18, 2016. Two comments were received in response to the Regulatory Alert.
Both of the letters received expressed support for the industry led move to T+2 stating, among other benefits, that the move will align U.S. markets with international markets that already work in the T+2 environment, improve the overall efficiency and liquidity of the securities markets, and the stability of the financial system by reducing counterparty risk and pro-cyclical and liquidity demands, and decreasing clearing capital requirements. SIFMA also provided their view on the proposed amendments to two rules under the BX Rule 11800 Series (Buying In).
In its comment letter, SIFMA raised a concern with the one-day time frame in Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A), asserting that the requirement for the delivering member to deliver a liability notice to the receiving member no later than one business day prior to the latest time and the date of the offer or other event in order to obtain the protection provided by the Rule may no longer be appropriate in a T+2 environment in some situations such as where the delivery obligation is transferred to another party as a result of continuous net settlement, settlements outside of the NSCC, and settlements involving a third party that is not a BX member firm. SIFMA noted that NYSE Rule 180 (Failure to Deliver) includes a similar requirement for NYSE member firms that are participants in a registered clearing agency to transmit liability notification through an automated notification service and proposed amending Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A) to omit the reference to a notification time frame, which would align with NYSE Rule 180.
While BX did not initially propose amendments to Rule IM-11810 for the T+2 initiative,
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 1, is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Social Security Administration.
Notice of rescission of Social Security Rulings.
In accordance with 20 CFR 402.35(b)(1), the Acting Commissioner of Social Security gives notice of the rescission of Social Security Rulings (SSR) 96-2p, 96-5p, and 06-03p.
Joshua Silverman, Office of Disability Policy, Social Security Administration, 6401 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21235-6401, (410) 594-2128. For information on eligibility or filing for benefits, call our national toll-free number 1-800-772, 1213, or TTY 1-800-325-0778, or visit our Internet site, Social Security Online, at
Although 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(1) and (a)(2) do not require us to publish this notice, we are doing so in accordance with 20 CFR 402.35(b)(1).
Through SSRs, we make available to the public precedential decisions relating to the Federal old-age, survivors, disability, supplemental security income, and special veterans benefits programs. We may base SSRs on determinations or decisions made at all levels of administrative adjudication, Federal court decisions, Commissioner's decisions, opinions of the Office of the General Counsel, or other interpretations of the law and regulations.
We are rescinding the following SSRs:
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These three SSRs are inconsistent or unnecessarily duplicative with our recent final rules,
SSR 96-2p explained how adjudicators should evaluate medical opinions from treating sources, including when it is appropriate to give controlling weight to medical opinions from treating sources. The final rules revised these policies for claims filed on or after March 27, 2017, in several ways. For example, adjudicators will not assign a weight, including controlling weight, to any medical opinion for claims filed on or after March 27, 2017. Therefore, this SSR is inconsistent with the final rules.
SSR 96-5p explained how adjudicators should consider and articulate their consideration of medical source opinions on issues reserved to the Commissioner in the notice of the determination or decision. The final rules revised these policies for claims filed on or after March 27, 2017, in several ways. For example, in claims filed on or after March 27, 2017, adjudicators will not provide any articulation about their consideration of this evidence because it is inherently neither valuable nor persuasive to us. Therefore, this SSR is inconsistent with the final rules.
SSR 06-03p explained how we consider opinions and other evidence from sources who are not acceptable medical sources and how we consider decisions by other governmental and nongovernmental agencies on the issue of disability or blindness. The final rules revised these policies for claims filed on or after March 27, 2017, in several ways. For example, in claims filed on or after March 27, 2017, the final rules state that all medical sources, not just acceptable medical sources, can make evidence that we categorize and consider as medical opinions. Also, in claims filed on or after March 27, 2017, the final rules state that adjudicators will not provide any articulation about their consideration of decisions from other governmental agencies and nongovernmental entities because this evidence is inherently neither valuable nor persuasive to us. Therefore, this SSR is inconsistent with the final rules.
Social Security Administration.
Notice of Social Security Ruling (SSR).
We are providing notice of SSR 17-2p. This SSR provides guidance about how adjudicators at the hearings and Appeals Council (AC) levels of the administrative review process make findings about medical equivalence in disability claims under titles II and XVI of the Social Security Act.
Joshua Silverman, Office of Disability Policy, Social Security Administration, 6401 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21235-6401, (410) 594-2128. For information on eligibility or filing for benefits, call our national toll-free number 1-800-772, 1213, or TTY 1-800-325-0778, or visit our Internet site, Social Security Online, at
Although 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(1) and (a)(2) do not require us to publish this SSR, we are doing so in accordance with 20 CFR 402.35(b)(1).
Through SSRs, we make available to the public precedential decisions relating to the Federal old-age, survivors, disability, supplemental security income, and special veterans benefits programs. We may base SSRs on determinations or decisions made at
Although SSRs do not have the same force and effect as statutes or regulations, they are binding on all components of the Social Security Administration. 20 CFR 402.35(b)(1).
This SSR will remain in effect until we publish a notice in the
This Social Security Ruling (SSR) rescinds and replaces SSR 96-6p: “Titles II and XVI: Consideration of Administrative Findings of Fact by State Agency Medical and Psychological Consultants and Other Program Physicians and Psychologists at the Administrative Law Judge and Appeals Council Levels of Administrative Review; Medical Equivalence.”
PURPOSE: This SSR provides guidance on how adjudicators at the hearings and Appeals Council (AC) levels of our administrative review process make findings about medical equivalence in disability claims under titles II and XVI of the Social Security Act (Act).
CITATIONS: Sections 216(i), 223(d), and 1614(a) of the Act, as amended; 20 CFR 404.1526 and 416.926.
BACKGROUND:
We use a five-step sequential evaluation process to determine whether an adult is disabled under titles II or XVI of the Act.
At step 3 of the sequential evaluation process for determining disability in adult and child claims, we make a medical assessment to determine whether an individual's impairment(s) meets a listing in the Listing of Impairments (listings).
1. If an individual has an impairment that is described in the listings, but either:
a. the individual does not exhibit one or more of the findings specified in the particular listing, or
b. the individual exhibits all of the findings, but one or more of the findings is not as severe as specified in the particular listing,
then we will find that his or her impairment is medically equivalent to that listing if there are other findings related to the impairment that are at least of equal medical significance to the required criteria.
2. If an individual has an impairment(s) that is not described in the listings, we will compare the findings with those for closely analogous listed impairments. If the findings related to the impairment(s) are at least of equal medical significance to those of a listed impairment, we will find that the impairment(s) is medically equivalent to the analogous listing.
3. If an individual has a combination of impairments, no one of which meets a listing, we will compare the findings with those for closely analogous listed impairments. If the findings related to the impairments are at least of equal medical significance to those of a listed impairment, we will find that the combination of impairments is medically equivalent to that listing.
If we determine an individual's impairment(s) does not meet or medically equal a listed impairment, we continue evaluating the claim using the sequential evaluation process.
At the initial and reconsideration levels of the administrative review process, Federal or State agency Medical Consultants (MC) or Psychological Consultants (PC) consider the evidence and make administrative medical findings about medical issues, including whether an individual's impairment(s) meets or medically equals a listing.
At the hearings level of the administrative review process, administrative law judges (ALJ) and some attorney advisors
At the AC level of the administrative review process, when the AC exercises its authority to issue a decision,
At the hearings level or at the AC level when the AC issues its own decision, the adjudicator is responsible for the finding of medical equivalence. The adjudicator must base his or her decision about whether the individual's impairment(s) medically equals a listing on the preponderance of the evidence in the record. To demonstrate the required support of a finding that an individual is disabled based on medical equivalence at step 3, the record must contain one of the following:
1. A prior administrative medical finding from an MC or PC from the initial or reconsideration adjudication levels supporting the medical equivalence finding, or
2. ME evidence, which may include testimony or written responses to interrogatories, obtained at the hearings level supporting the medical equivalence finding, or
3. A report from the AC's medical support staff supporting the medical equivalence finding.
When an MC or PC makes administrative medical findings at the initial or reconsideration levels, the findings are part of the Commissioner's determination; therefore, they are not evidence at that level of adjudication.
When an adjudicator at the hearings level obtains ME testimony or written responses to interrogatories about whether an individual's impairment(s) medically equals a listing, the adjudicator cannot rely on an ME's conclusory statement that an individual's impairment(s) medically equals a listed impairment(s). Whether an impairment(s) medically equals the requirements of a listed impairment is an issue reserved to the Commissioner. If the ME states that the individual's impairment(s) medically equals a listed impairment, the adjudicator must ask the ME to identify medical evidence in the record that supports the ME's statements. Adjudicators will consider ME testimony and interrogatories using our rules for considering evidence. The adjudicator will then consider whether an individual's impairment(s) medically equals a listing using one of the three methods specified in 20 CFR 404.1526 and 416.926.
Similarly, when the AC obtains a report from its medical support staff to evaluate medical equivalence, the AC retains final responsibility for determining whether an individual's impairment(s) medically equals a listed impairment. The AC will consider the medical support staff's report and all other supporting medical evidence using our rules for considering evidence. The AC will then consider whether an individual's impairment(s) medically equals a listing using one of the three methods specified in 20 CFR 404.1526 and 416.926.
If an adjudicator at the hearings or AC level believes that the evidence does not reasonably support a finding that the individual's impairment(s) medically equals a listed impairment, we do not require the adjudicator to obtain ME evidence or medical support staff input prior to making a step 3 finding that the individual's impairment(s) does not medically equal a listed impairment.
An adjudicator at the hearings or AC level must consider all evidence in making a finding that an individual's impairment(s) medically equals a listing. To make a finding of medical equivalence, the adjudicator must articulate how the record establishes medical equivalency using one of the three methods specified in 20 CFR 404.1526 and 416.926. An adjudicator must provide a rationale for a finding of medical equivalence in a decision that is sufficient for a subsequent reviewer or court to understand the decision. Generally, this will entail the adjudicator identifying the specific listing section involved, articulating how the record does not meet the requirements of the listed impairment(s), and how the record, including ME or medical support staff evidence, establishes an impairment of equivalent severity.
Similarly, an adjudicator at the hearings or AC level must consider all evidence in making a finding that an individual's impairment(s) does not medically equal a listing. If an adjudicator at the hearings or AC level believes that the evidence already received in the record does not reasonably support a finding that the individual's impairment(s) medically equals a listed impairment, the adjudicator is not required to articulate specific evidence supporting his or her finding that the individual's impairment(s) does not medically equal a listed impairment. Generally, a statement that the individual's impairment(s) does not medically equal a listed impairment constitutes sufficient articulation for this finding. An adjudicator's articulation of the reason(s) why the individual is or is not disabled at a later step in the sequential evaluation process will provide rationale that is sufficient for a subsequent reviewer or court to determine the basis for the finding about medical equivalence at step 3.
EFFECTIVE DATE: This SSR is effective on March 27, 2017.
CROSS-REFERENCES: 20 CFR 404.1526 and 416.926.
Department of State.
Notice; solicitation of comments.
The United States announces that the United States remains committed to working with our partners to break the links between armed groups and the minerals trade in the Democratic Republic of Congo and other
The Department will consider requests and comments received or postmarked by April 28, 2017.
Parties may submit input or request stakeholder consultations to:
All comments received during this comment period will be part of the official record and may become public, no matter how initially submitted.
Details on the SEC Final Rule on Section 1502 of the Dodd-Frank Act are available on the following Web site:
Please refer to this Web site or contact Ms. Elizabeth Orlando at the address listed in the Addresses section of this notice.
Determined to break the link between armed groups and minerals in the Africa Great Lakes Region, in 2010 Congress enacted Section 1502 of the Wall Street Consumer Reform and Protection Act of 2010. That law requires the Securities and Exchange Commission to promulgate regulations requiring approximately 6,000 companies listed on U.S. exchanges to annually disclose to the SEC whether any “conflict minerals” (tin, tantalum, tungsten and gold) necessary to the functionality or production of a product are from the DRC or nine adjacent countries.
The Advisory Committee on Historical Diplomatic Documentation will meet on May 15, 2017, in open session to discuss unclassified matters concerning declassification and transfer of Department of State records to the National Archives and Records Administration and the status of the
The Committee will meet in open session from 9:30 a.m. until 10:30 a.m. in SA-4D Conference Room, Department of State, 2300 E Street NW., Washington DC, 20372 (Potomac Navy Hill Annex). RSVP should be sent not later than May 8, 2017. Requests for reasonable accommodation should be made by May 1, 2017. Requests made after that date will be considered, but might not be possible to fulfill.
Personal data is requested pursuant to Public Law 99-399 (Omnibus Diplomatic Security and Antiterrorism Act of 1986), as amended; Public Law 107-56 (USA PATRIOT Act); and Executive Order 13356. The purpose of the collection is to validate the identity of individuals who enter Department facilities. The data will be entered into the Visitor Access Control System (VACS-D) database. Please see the Security Records System of Records Notice (State-36) at
Questions concerning the meeting should be directed to Dr. Stephen P. Randolph, Executive Secretary, Advisory Committee on Historical Diplomatic Documentation, Department of State, Office of the Historian, Washington, DC 20372, telephone (202) 955-0214, (email
Note that requests for reasonable accommodation received after the date indicated in this notice will be considered, but might not be possible to fulfill.
Notice of request for public comment.
The Department of State is seeking Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we are requesting comments on this collection from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this notice is to allow 60 days for public comment preceding submission of the collection to OMB.
The Department will accept comments from the public up to May 26, 2017.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
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Direct requests for additional information regarding the collection listed in this notice, including requests for copies of the proposed collection instrument and supporting documents, to Joan F. Grew who may be reached on 703-875-5412 or at
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We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:
• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.
• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Forms DS-1843 and DS-1622 collect medical history, lab tests and physical examination for employees and family members for the Foreign Affairs agencies, to include State, USAID, Foreign Commercial Service, Foreign Agricultural Service and Broadcasting Board of Governors. Forms DS-1843 and DS-1622 are designed to collect sufficient and current medical information on the individual in order for a medical provider to make a medical clearance determination for initial appointment to the Foreign Service. They are also used to determine whether a Foreign Service applicant, employee, or eligible family member will have appropriate medical and/or educational resources at a diplomatic mission/host country abroad to maintain the health and safety of the individual or family member.
The information will be collected through the use of an electronic forms engine or by hand written submission using a pre-printed form.
Notice of request for public comment.
The Department of State is seeking Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we are requesting comments on this collection from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this notice is to allow 60 days for public comment preceding submission of the collection to OMB.
The Department will accept comments from the public up to May 26, 2017.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
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You must include the DS form number (if applicable), information collection title, and the OMB control number in any correspondence.
Direct requests for additional information regarding the collection listed in this notice, including requests for copies of the proposed collection instrument and supporting documents, to Joan F. Grew, who may be reached on 703-875-5412 or at
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We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:
• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.
• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Susquehanna River Basin Commission.
Notice.
As part of its regular business meeting held on March 9, 2017, in Scranton, Pennsylvania, the Commission took the following actions: (1) Approved or tabled the applications of certain water resources projects; and (2) took additional actions, as set forth in the
March 9, 2017.
Susquehanna River Basin Commission, 4423 N. Front Street, Harrisburg, Pa.17110-1788.
Jason E. Oyler, General Counsel, telephone: (717) 238-0423, ext. 1312; fax: (717) 238-2436; email:
In addition to the actions taken on projects identified in the summary above and the listings below, the following items were also presented or acted upon at the business meeting: (1) Adoption of a budget for the 2018 fiscal year; (2) approval/ratification of two grant agreements; (3) adoption of a resolution setting a five-year docket term for withdrawals related to unconventional natural gas under the discretion provided in 18 CFR 806.31(a); and (4) a report on delegated settlements with the following project sponsors, pursuant to SRBC Resolution 2014-15: Talen Energy Corp./Susquehanna Nuclear, in the amount of $9,000; Sugar Hollow Trout Park and Hatchery, in the amount of $2,000; Mount Nittany Medical Center, in the amount of $8,993.75; Toggenburg Mountain Winter Sports Center, in the amount of $3,500; and Moxie Freedom LLC, in the amount of $8,500.
The Commission approved the following project applications:
1. Project Sponsor and Facility: Anadarko E&P Onshore LLC (West Branch Susquehanna River), Nippenose Township, Lycoming County, Pa. Renewal of surface water withdrawal of up to 0.720 mgd (peak day) (Docket No. 20130301).
2. Project Sponsor and Facility: Cabot Oil & Gas Corporation (Meshoppen Creek), Lemon Township, Wyoming County, Pa. Renewal of surface water withdrawal of up to 0.500 mgd (peak day) (Docket No. 20121202).
3. Project Sponsor and Facility: Crossgates Golf Course, Manor Township and Millersville Borough, Lancaster County, Pa. Renewal of consumptive water use of up to 0.300 mgd (peak day) (Docket No. 19910515).
4. Project Sponsor and Facility: Crossgates Golf Course (Conestoga River), Manor Township and Millersville Borough, Lancaster County, Pa. Renewal of surface water withdrawal of up to 0.300 mgd (peak day) (Docket No. 19910515).
5. Project Sponsor: Pennsylvania Department of Environmental Protection—South-central Regional Office, City of Harrisburg, Dauphin County, Pa. Facility Location: Leacock Township, Lancaster County, Pa. Groundwater withdrawal of up to 0.020 mgd (peak day) and emergency or backup groundwater withdrawal of up to 0.173 mgd (peak day) from Hollander Well.
6. Project Sponsor and Facility: Pennsylvania General Energy Company, L.L.C. (First Fork Sinnemahoning Creek), Wharton Township, Potter County, Pa. Renewal of surface water withdrawal of up to 0.231 mgd (peak day) (Docket No. 20121222).
7. Project Sponsor and Facility: Silver Springs Ranch, LLC, Monroe Township, Wyoming County, Pa. Consumptive water use of up to 0.087 mgd (peak day).
8. Project Sponsor and Facility: Silver Springs Ranch, LLC, Monroe Township, Wyoming County, Pa. Groundwater withdrawal of up to 0.088 mgd (30-day average) from Borehole 1 (BH-1).
9. Project Sponsor: SUEZ Water Pennsylvania Inc. Project Facility: Dallas Operation, Dallas Township, Luzerne County, Pa. Modification to remove pumping restriction for March and April for previously approved groundwater withdrawal (Docket No. 20050301).
10. Project Sponsor and Facility: SWEPI LP (Pine Creek), Pike Township, Potter County, Pa. Renewal of surface water withdrawal of up to 0.936 mgd (peak day) (Docket No. 20130313).
11. Project Sponsor and Facility: Repsol Oil & Gas USA, LLC (formerly Talisman Energy USA Inc.) (Sugar Creek), West Burlington Township, Bradford County, Pa. Renewal of surface water withdrawal of up to 0.750 mgd (peak day) (Docket No. 20130310).
12. Project Sponsor and Facility: West Manchester Township Authority, West Manchester Township, York County, Pa. Reactivation of a previously approved groundwater withdrawal at a reduced rate of up to 0.183 mgd (30-day average) from Well 7.
13. Project Sponsor and Facility: York County Solid Waste and Refuse Authority, Manchester Township, York County, Pa. Renewal of consumptive water use of up to 0.999 mgd (peak day) and addition of collected stormwater as an approved source for consumptive use (Docket No. 19860902).
The Commission tabled action on the following project applications:
1. Project Sponsor and Facility: DS Services of America, Inc., Clay Township, Lancaster County, Pa. Application for groundwater withdrawal of up to 0.028 mgd (30-day average) from existing Well 4.
2. Project Sponsor and Facility: DS Services of America, Inc., Clay Township, Lancaster County, Pa. Application for groundwater withdrawal of up to 0.042 mgd (30-day average) from existing Well 5.
3. Project Sponsor: King Valley Golf Club, Inc. Project Facility: King Valley Golf Course (Boiling Springs Run), Kimmel Township, Bedford County, Pa. Application for surface water
4. Project Sponsor: King Valley Golf Club, Inc. Project Facility: King Valley Golf Course, Kimmel Township, Bedford County, Pa. Application for consumptive water use of up to 0.090 mgd (peak day).
5. Project Sponsor and Facility: Mount Joy Borough Authority, Mount Joy Borough, Lancaster County, Pa. Application for modification to request a reduction of the maximum instantaneous rate for Well 3 from the previously approved rate of 1,403 gpm to 778 gpm and to revise the passby to be consistent with current Commission policy (Docket No. 20070607). The previously approved withdrawal rate of 1.020 mgd (30-day average) will remain unchanged.
6. Project Sponsor: Talen Energy Corporation. Project Facility: Royal Manchester Golf Links, East Manchester Township, York County, Pa. Minor modification to add new sources (Wells PW-1 and PW-6) to existing consumptive use approval (Docket No. 20060604). The previously approved consumptive use quantity of 0.360 mgd (peak day) will remain unchanged.
7. Project Sponsor: Talen Energy Corporation. Project Facility: Royal Manchester Golf Links, East Manchester Township, York County, Pa. Application for groundwater withdrawal of up to 0.145 mgd (30-day average) from Well PW-1.
8. Project Sponsor: Talen Energy Corporation. Project Facility: Royal Manchester Golf Links, East Manchester Township, York County, Pa. Application for groundwater withdrawal of up to 0.298 mgd (30-day average) from Well PW-6.
Pub. L. 91-575, 84 Stat. 1509
Susquehanna River Basin Commission.
Notice.
This notice lists the projects approved by rule by the Susquehanna River Basin Commission during the period set forth in
February 1-28, 2017.
Susquehanna River Basin Commission, 4423 North Front Street, Harrisburg, Pa.17110-1788.
Jason E. Oyler, General Counsel, telephone: (717) 238-0423, ext. 1312; fax: (717) 238-2436; email:
This notice lists the projects, described below, receiving approval for the consumptive use of water pursuant to the Commission's approval by rule process set forth in 18 CFR 806.22(f) for the time period specified above:
1. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Maple Ln Farms, ABR-201202021.R1, Athens Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.5000 mgd; Approval Date: February 6, 2017.
2. SWEPI, LP, Pad ID: My TB INV LLC 6076, ABR-201702001, Deerfield Township, Tioga County, Pa. Consumptive Use of Up to 4.0000 mgd; Approval Date: February 6, 2017.
3. Range Resources—Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Bobst Mtn Hunting Club 30H-33H, ABR-201202017.R1, Cogan House Township, Lycoming County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 1.0000 mgd; Approval Date: February 8, 2017.
4. Range Resources—Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Bobst A Unit 25H-27H, ABR-201202018.R1, Cogan House Township, Lycoming County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 1.0000 mgd; Approval Date: February 8, 2017.
5. SWN Production Company, LLC, Pad ID: HEBDA-VANDEMARK, ABR-201201025.R1, Stevens Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.9990 mgd; Approval Date: February 10, 2017.
6. Cabot Oil & Gas Corporation, Pad ID: Jeffers Farms P2, ABR-201702002, Harford Township, Susquehanna County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.2500 mgd; Approval Date: February 14, 2017.
7. Cabot Oil & Gas Corporation, Pad ID: FoltzJ P2, ABR-201702003, Brooklyn Township, Susquehanna County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.2500 mgd; Approval Date: February 14, 2017.
8. Carrizo (Marcellus), LLC, Pad ID: EP Bender B (CC-03) Pad (2), ABR-201201030.R1, Reade Township, Cambria County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 2.1000 mgd; Approval Date: February 14, 2017.
9. EXCO Resources (PA), LLC, Pad ID: Warner North Unit Pad, ABR-201202001.R1, Penn Township, Lycoming County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 8.0000 mgd; Approval Date: February 14, 2017.
10. Inflection Energy, (PA), LLC, Pad ID: Eichenlaub B Pad, ABR-201206013.R1, Upper Fairfield Township, Lycoming County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.0000 mgd; Approval Date: February 16, 2017.
11. Chief Oil & Gas, LLC, Pad ID: Boy Scouts Drilling Pad, ABR-201207023.R1, Elkland Township, Sullivan County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 2.0000 mgd; Approval Date: February 17, 2017.
12. Cabot Oil & Gas Corporation, Pad ID: ManzerA P1, ABR-201203013.R1, Gibson Township, Susquehanna County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 3.5750 mgd; Approval Date: February 20, 2017.
13. Cabot Oil & Gas Corporation, Pad ID: MackeyR P1, ABR-201203015.R1, Lathrop Township, Susquehanna County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 3.5750 mgd; Approval Date: February 20, 2017.
14. Cabot Oil & Gas Corporation, Pad ID: TeddickM P1, ABR-201203016.R1, Brooklyn Township, Susquehanna County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 3.5750 mgd; Approval Date: February 20, 2017.
15. SWN Production Company, LLC, Pad ID: Conklin South Pad, ABR-201204018.R1, New Milford Township, Susquehanna County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.9990 mgd; Approval Date: February 20, 2017.
16. EXCO Resources (PA), LLC, Pad ID: Budman Well Pad, ABR-201201015.R1, Franklin Township, Lycoming County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 8.0000 mgd; Approval Date: February 23, 2017.
17. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: SGL289C, ABR-201201034.R1, West Burlington Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.5000 mgd; Approval Date: February 24, 2017.
18. Chief Oil & Gas, LLC, Pad ID: SGL 12 K UNIT PAD, ABR-201702004, Leroy Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 2.5000 mgd; Approval Date: February 24, 2017.
19. Inflection Energy (PA) LLC, Pad ID: Nature Boy, ABR-201111035.R1, Upper Fairfield Township, Lycoming County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.0000 mgd; Approval Date: February 24, 2017.
20. SWN Production Company, LLC, Pad ID: Conigliaro Pad, ABR-201204016.R1, New Milford Township, Susquehanna County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.9990 mgd; Approval Date: February 24, 2017.
21. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Nina, ABR-201208003.R1, Asylum Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.5000 mgd; Approval Date: February 27, 2017.
22. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Stethers, ABR-201208004.R1, Wyalusing Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.5000 mgd; Approval Date: February 27, 2017.
23. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Harlan, ABR-201208005.R1, Overton Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.5000 mgd; Approval Date: February 27, 2017.
24. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: BKT, ABR-201208012.R1, Wilmot Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.5000 mgd; Approval Date: February 27, 2017.
25. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Ronmary, ABR-201208013.R1, Elkland Township, Sullivan County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.5000 mgd; Approval Date: February 27, 2017.
26. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Tufano, ABR-201208020.R1, Overton Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.5000 mgd; Approval Date: February 27, 2017.
27. Repsol Oil & Gas USA, LLC, Pad ID: ALDERFER (03 109) H, ABR-201203007.R1, Columbia Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 6.0000 mgd; Approval Date: February 27, 2017.
28. SWEPI, LP, Pad ID: Barner 709, ABR-201201013.R1, Liberty Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.0000 mgd; Approval Date: February 27, 2017.
29. SWEPI, LP, Pad ID: Tolbert 263, ABR-201201022.R1, Jackson Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.0000 mgd; Approval Date: February 27, 2017.
30. SWN Production Company, LLC, Pad ID: GOOD, ABR-201201027.R1, Jackson and Cogan House Townships, Lycoming County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.9990 mgd; Approval Date: February 28, 2017.
31. SWN Production Company, LLC, Pad ID: McNamara Well Pad, ABR-201203011.R1, Silver Lake Township, Susquehanna County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.0000 mgd; Approval Date: February 28, 2017.
32. SWEPI, LP, Pad ID: Jones 276, ABR-201201021.R1, Jackson Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.0000 mgd; Approval Date: February 28, 2017.
Pub. L. 91-575, 84 Stat. 1509
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), FMCSA announces its plan to submit the Information Collection Request (ICR) described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for its review and approval. This ICR relates to the qualification of drivers to operate longer combination vehicles (LCVs). On October 14, 2016, FMCSA published a
Please send your comments by April 26, 2017. OMB must receive your comments by this date to act quickly on the ICR.
All comments should reference Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket Number FMCSA-2016-0334. Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the attention of the OMB Desk Officer, DOT/FMCSA, and sent via electronic mail to
Mr. Robert F. Schultz, FMCSA Driver and Carrier Operations Division, DOT, FMCSA, West Building 6th Floor, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590. Telephone: 202-366-4325. Email:
LCV is any combination of a truck-tractor and two or more semi-trailers or trailers that operates on the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways and has a gross vehicle weight greater than 80,000 pounds (49 CFR 380.105). To enhance the safety of LCV operations on our nation's highways, Section 4007(b) of the Motor Carrier Act of 1991 directed the Secretary of Transportation to establish Federal minimum training requirements
The LCV regulations have not changed, but the Agency is increasing its estimate of the IC burden to 5,565 hours because the population of CMV drivers receiving LCV training and the number of drivers being certified to operate LCVs have both increased based upon U.S. Department of Labor data.
The Agency received one comment to the 60-day
FMCSA requests that you comment on any aspect of this information collection, including: (1) Whether the proposed collection is necessary for FMCSA to perform its functions, (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden, (3) ways for the FMCSA to enhance the quality, usefulness, and clarity of the collected information, and (4) ways that the burden could be minimized without reducing the quality of the collected information.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of applications for exemptions; request for comments.
FMCSA announces receipt of applications from 40 individuals for exemption from the prohibition against persons with insulin-treated diabetes mellitus (ITDM) operating commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce. If granted, the exemptions would enable these individuals with ITDM to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
Comments must be received on or before April 26, 2017.
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket No. FMCSA-2017-0030 using any of the following methods:
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Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations for a 2-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The statute also allows the Agency to renew exemptions at the end of the 2-year period. The 40 individuals listed in this notice have recently requested such an exemption from the diabetes prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b) (3), which applies to drivers of CMVs in interstate commerce. Accordingly, the Agency will evaluate the qualifications of each applicant to determine whether granting the exemption will achieve the required level of safety mandated by statute.
Mr. Alicea, 58, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Alicea understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Alicea meets the
Mr. Anderson, 21, has had ITDM since 2001. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Anderson understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Anderson meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Montana.
Mr. Azbel, 61, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Azbel understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Azbel meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from New York.
Mr. Barrett, 47, has had ITDM since 2007. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Barrett understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Barrett meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Arizona.
Mr. Bartley, 71, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Bartley understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Bartley meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from South Carolina.
Ms. Bast, 54, has had ITDM since 2015. Her endocrinologist examined her in 2016 and certified that she has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. Her endocrinologist certifies that Ms. Bast understands diabetes management and monitoring has stable control of her diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Ms. Bast meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). Her optometrist examined her in 2016 and certified that she does not have diabetic retinopathy. She holds a Class C CDL from New York.
Mr. Bravo, 34, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Bravo understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Bravo meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from California.
Mr. Carter, 51, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Carter understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Carter meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Alabama.
Mr. Cleaves, 49, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Cleaves understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Cleaves meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from Maine.
Mr. Cox, 22, has had ITDM since 2008. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in
Mr. Crosby, 44, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Crosby understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Crosby meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Georgia.
Mr. Franck, 42, has had ITDM since 1996. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Franck understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Franck meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Colorado.
Mr. Gandy, 67, has had ITDM since 1996. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Gandy understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Gandy meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from New Jersey.
Mr. Giddings, 50, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Giddings understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Giddings meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from Indiana.
Mr. Greenlee, 27, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Greenlee understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Greenlee meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Georgia.
Mr. Jahn, 33, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Jahn understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Jahn meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Colorado.
Mr. Langshaw, 24, has had ITDM since 2011. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Langshaw understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Langshaw meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Rhode Island.
Mr. Lensch, 64, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Lensch understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Lensch meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Iowa.
Mr. Lind, 21, has had ITDM since 2004. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or
Mr. Long, 29, has had ITDM since 2006. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Long understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Long meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Connecticut.
Mr. Lowry, 52, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Lowry understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Lowry meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Utah.
Mr. Marsh, 62, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Marsh understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Marsh meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from New York.
Mr. Marty, 34, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Marty understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Marty meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from Washington.
Mr. Meade, 46, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Meade understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Meade meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Ohio.
Mr. Mejia, 37, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Mejia understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Mejia meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from New Jersey.
Mr. Moore, 68, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Moore understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Moore meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from Missouri.
Mr. Noffke, 44, has had ITDM since 1982. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Noffke understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Noffke meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Wisconsin.
Mr. Rottenbucher, 57, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Rottenbucher understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Rottenbucher meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from South Dakota.
Mr. Schwartz, 66, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Schwartz understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Schwartz meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Smith, 28, has had ITDM since 2011. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Smith understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Smith meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Connecticut.
Mr. Spahr, 30, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Spahr understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Spahr meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Stoltzfus, 27, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Stoltzfus understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Stoltzfus meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from South Carolina.
Mr. Suarez, 57, has had ITDM since 2009. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Suarez understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Suarez meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from New Jersey.
Mr. Terrill, 31, has had ITDM since 1998. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Terrill understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Terrill meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Wisconsin.
Mr. Thomas, 36, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Thomas understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Thomas meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Kentucky.
Mr. Tiefenthaler, 56, has had ITDM since 2011. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies
Mr. Wallace, 51, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Wallace understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Wallace meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Illinois.
Mr. White, 58, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. White understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. White meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Arkansas.
Mr. Woodward, 58, has had ITDM since 2009. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Woodward understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Woodward meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Xilotl, 34, has had ITDM since 2006. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Xilotl understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Xilotl meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Minnesota.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA requests public comment from all interested persons on the exemption petitions described in this notice. We will consider all comments received before the close of business on the closing date indicated in the date section of the notice.
FMCSA notes that section 4129 of the Safe, Accountable, Flexible and Efficient Transportation Equity Act: A Legacy for Users requires the Secretary to revise its diabetes exemption program established on September 3, 2003 (68 FR 52441).
Section 4129 requires: (1) Elimination of the requirement for 3 years of experience operating CMVs while being treated with insulin; and (2) establishment of a specified minimum period of insulin use to demonstrate stable control of diabetes before being allowed to operate a CMV.
In response to section 4129, FMCSA made immediate revisions to the diabetes exemption program established by the September 3, 2003 notice. FMCSA discontinued use of the 3-year driving experience and fulfilled the requirements of section 4129 while continuing to ensure that operation of CMVs by drivers with ITDM will achieve the requisite level of safety required of all exemptions granted under 49 U.S.C. 31136 (e).
Section 4129(d) also directed FMCSA to ensure that drivers of CMVs with ITDM are not held to a higher standard than other drivers, with the exception of limited operating, monitoring and medical requirements that are deemed medically necessary.
The FMCSA concluded that all of the operating, monitoring and medical requirements set out in the September 3, 2003 notice, except as modified, were in compliance with section 4129(d). Therefore, all of the requirements set out in the September 3, 2003 notice, except as modified by the notice in the
You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so that FMCSA can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to
We will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. FMCSA may issue a final
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble, go to
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of renewal of exemptions; request for comments.
FMCSA announces its decision to renew exemptions for 126 individuals from the vision requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) for interstate commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers. The exemptions enable these individuals to continue to operate CMVs in interstate commerce without meeting the vision requirement in one eye.
Each group of renewed exemptions was effective on the dates stated in the discussions below and will expire on the dates stated in the discussions below. Comments must be received on or before April 26, 2017.
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, 202-366-4001,
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket No. FMCSA-1998-4334; FMCSA-2000-7006; FMCSA-2000-7918; FMCSA-2002-12844; FMCSA-2002-13411; FMCSA-2003-14223; FMCSA-2004-18885; FMCSA-2005-20027; FMCSA-2006-25246; FMCSA-2006-26066; FMCSA-2008-0231; FMCSA-2008-0292; FMCSA-2008-0340; FMCSA-2008-0398; FMCSA-2010-0161; FMCSA-2010-0187; FMCSA-2010-0287; FMCSA-2010-0354; FMCSA-2010-0372; FMCSA-2010-0385; FMCSA-2010-0413; FMCSA-2011-0010; FMCSA-2012-0106; FMCSA-2012-0161; FMCSA-2012-0215; FMCSA-2012-0280; FMCSA-2012-0337; FMCSA-2012-0338; FMCSA-2013-0021; FMCSA-2013-0022; FMCSA-2013-0023; FMCSA-2014-0003; FMCSA-2014-0006; FMCSA-2014-0011; FMCSA-2014-0296; FMCSA-2014-0298; FMCSA-2014-0300; FMCSA-2014-0301; FMCSA-2014-0302; FMCSA-2014-0304 using any of the following methods:
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Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption for two years if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The statute also allows the Agency to renew exemptions at the end of the two-year period.
The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding vision found in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) states that a person is physically qualified to driver a CMV if that person:
Has distant visual acuity of at least 20/40 (Snellen) in each eye without corrective lenses or visual acuity separately corrected to 20/40 (Snellen) or better with corrective lenses, distant binocular acuity of a least 20/40 (Snellen) in both eyes with or without corrective lenses, field of vision of at least 70° in the horizontal meridian in each eye, and the ability to recognize the colors of traffic signals and devices showing red, green, and amber.
The 126 individuals listed in this notice have requested renewal of their exemptions from the vision standard in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), in accordance with FMCSA procedures. Accordingly, FMCSA has evaluated these applications for renewal on their merits and decided to extend each exemption for a renewable two-year period.
Interested parties or organizations possessing information that would otherwise show that any, or all, of these drivers are not currently achieving the statutory level of safety should immediately notify FMCSA. The
Under 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1), an exemption may be granted for no longer than two years from its approval date and may be renewed upon application. In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, each of the 126 applicants has satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirement (63 FR 66226; 64 FR 16517; 65 FR 20245; 65 FR 57230; 65 FR 66286; 66 FR 13825; 66 FR 17994; 67 FR 57266; 67 FR 68719; 67 FR 76439; 68 FR 2629; 68 FR 10298; 68 FR 10300; 68 FR 10301; 68 FR 13360; 68 FR 15037; 68 FR 19596; 69 FR 52741; 69 FR 53493; 69 FR 62742; 69 FR 71100; 70 FR 2701; 70 FR 7545; 70 FR 7546; 70 FR 12265; 70 FR 14747; 70 FR 16886; 70 FR 16887; 71 FR 62148; 71 FR 63379; 72 FR 180; 72 FR 1051; 72 FR 1053; 72 FR 11425; 72 FR 11426; 72 FR 12665; 72 FR 18726; 72 FR 7111; 72 FR 7812; 72 FR 9397; 73 FR 46973; 73 FR 54888; 73 FR 61922; 73 FR 61925; 73 FR 74565; 73 FR 75803; 73 FR 76440; 73 FR 78423; 74 FR 6209; 74 FR 6211; 74 FR 6689; 74 FR 7097; 74 FR 8302; 74 FR 8842; 74 FR 9329; 74 FR 11991; 74 FR 15584; 75 FR 39725; 75 FR 47883; 75 FR 59327; 75 FR 61833; 75 FR 63257; 75 FR 64396; 75 FR 69737; 75 FR 72863; 75 FR 77492; 77 FR 942; 75 FR 77949; 75 FR 79083; 75 FR 80887; 76 FR 1493; 76 FR 1499; 76 FR 2190; 76 FR 5425; 76 FR 12215; 76 FR 12216; 76 FR 12408; 76 FR 15360; 76 FR 15361; 76 FR 17483; 76 FR 20076; 76 FR 20078; 76 FR 7894; 76 FR 8809; 76 FR 9856; 76 FR 9859; 76 FR 9865; 77 FR 33017; 77 FR 41879; 77 FR 44708; 77 FR 52381; 77 FR 52391; 77 FR 56262; 77 FR 60010; 77 FR 64582; 77 FR 64839; 77 FR 64841; 77 FR 68202; 77 FR 70534; 77 FR 74273; 77 FR 74731; 77 FR 74733; 77 FR 74734; 77 FR 75494; 77 FR 76167; 78 FR 800; 78 FR 8689; 78 9772; 78 FR 10250; 78 FR 10251; 78 FR 11731; 78 FR 12811; 78 FR 12813; 78 FR 12815; 78 FR 12822; 78 FR 14405; 78 FR 14410; 78 FR 16035; 78 FR 16761; 78 FR 16762; 78 FR 18667; 78 FR 20379; 78 FR 22602; 78 FR 24296; 79 FR 14571; 79 FR 28588; 79 FR 35212; 79 FR 38661; 79 FR 47175; 79 FR 56099; 79 FR 56104; 79 FR 58856; 79 FR 59357; 79 FR 65759; 79 FR 65760; 79 FR 69985; 79 FR 70928; 79 FR 72754; 79 FR 73393; 79 FR 73686; 79 FR 73687; 79 FR 74168; 80 FR 2473; 80 FR 3308; 80 FR 3723; 80 FR 6162; 80 FR 7678; 80 FR 7679; 80 FR 8751; 80 FR 8927; 80 FR 9304; 80 FR 12248; 80 FR 12251; 80 FR 12254; 80 FR 12547; 80 FR 13070; 80 FR 14220; 80 FR 14223; 80 FR 15859; 80 FR 15863; 80 FR 16500; 80 FR 16509; 80 FR 18693; 80 FR 20562; 80 FR 29152; 80 FR 33011). They have submitted evidence showing that the vision in the better eye continues to meet the requirement specified at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) and that the vision impairment is stable. In addition, a review of each record of safety while driving with the respective vision deficiencies over the past two years indicates each applicant continues to meet the vision exemption requirements. These factors provide an adequate basis for predicting each driver's ability to continue to drive safely in interstate commerce. Therefore, FMCSA concludes that extending the exemption for each renewal applicant for a period of two years is likely to achieve a level of safety equal to that existing without the exemption.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following groups of drivers received renewed exemptions in the month of July and are discussed below:
As of April 1, 2017, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 49 individuals have satisfied the conditions for obtaining a renewed exemption from the vision requirements (65 FR 66286; 66 FR 13824; 67 FR 68719; 67 FR 76439; 68 FR 2629; 68 FR 10298; 68 FR 13360; 69 FR 53493; 69 FR 62742; 69 FR 71100; 70 FR 2701; 70 FR 7545; 70 FR 12265; 70 FR 16887; 71 FR 62148; 71 FR 63379; 72 FR 180; 72 FR 1051; 72 FR 1053; 72 FR 7812; 72 FR 9397; 72 FR 11425; 72 FR 11426; 73 FR 46973; 73 FR 54888; 73 FR 61922; 73 FR 61925; 73 FR 74565; 73 FR 75803; 73 FR 76440; 73 FR 78423; 74 FR 6209; 74 FR 6211; 74 FR 6689; 74 FR 8302; 74 FR 8842; 75 FR 39725; 79 FR 59327; 75 FR 61833; 75 FR 64396; 75 FR 69737; 75 FR 72863; 75 FR 77942; 75 FR 77949; 75 FR 79083; 75 FR 80887; 76 FR 1493; 76 FR 1499; 76 FR 2190; 76 FR 5425; 76 FR 8809; 76 FR 9859; 76 FR 9865; 76 FR 12215; 76 FR 12216; 76 FR 12406; 77 FR 33017; 77 FR 41879; 77 FR 44708; 77 FR 52381; 77 FR 52391; 77 FR 56262; 77 FR 64582; 77 FR 64839; 77 FR 64841; 77 FR 68202; 77 FR 70534; 77 FR 74273; 77 FR 74731; 77 FR 74733; 77 FR 74734; 77 FR 75494; 77 FR 76167; 78 FR 8689; 78 FR 9772; 78 FR 10250; 78 FR 10250; 78 FR 11731; 78 FR 12811; 78 FR 12813; 78 FR 12822; 78 FR 14410; 79 FR 14571; 79 FR 56099; 79 FR 56104; 79 FR 58856; 79 FR 59357; 79 FR 65759; 79 FR 65760; 79 FR 69985; 79 FR 70928; 79 FR 72754; 79 FR 73393; 79 FR 73686; 79 FR 73687; 79 FR 74168; 80 FR 2473; 80 FR 3308; 80 FR 3723; 80 FR 6162; 80 FR 7678; 80 FR 7679; 80 FR 8751; 80 FR 8927; 80 FR 9304; 80 FR 12254; 80 FR 15859; 80 FR 18693; 80 FR 20562):
The drivers were included in one of the following docket Nos: FMCSA-2000-7918; FMCSA-2002-12844; FMCSA-2002-13411; FMCSA-2004-18885; FMCSA-2005-20027; FMCSA-2006-25246; FMCSA-2006-26066; FMCSA-2008-0231; FMCSA-2008-0292; FMCSA-2008-0340; FMCSA-2010-0161; FMCSA-2010-0287; FMCSA-2010-0354; FMCSA-2010-0385; FMCSA-2010-0413; FMCSA-2012-0106; FMCSA-2012-0161; FMCSA-2012-0215; FMCSA-2012-0280; FMCSA-2012-0337; FMCSA-2012-0338; FMCSA-2014-0003; FMCSA-2014-0006; FMCSA-2014-
As of April 4, 2017, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 3 individuals have satisfied the conditions for obtaining a renewed exemption from the vision requirements (78 FR 10251; 78 FR 20379; 80 FR 12251):
The drivers were included in docket No. FMCSA-2013-0021. Their exemptions are effective as of April 4, 2017, and will expire on April 4, 2019.
As of April 5, 2017, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 3 individuals have satisfied the conditions for obtaining a renewed exemption from the vision requirements (63 FR 66226; 64 FR 16517; 65 FR 20245; 65 FR 57230; 66 FR 17994; 67 FR 57266; 68 FR 15037; 69 FR 52741; 70 FR 2701; 70 FR 14747; 70 FR 16887; 72 FR 12665; 74 FR 9329; 76 FR 15360; 78 FR 16035; 80 FR 13070):
The drivers were included in one of the following docket Nos: FMCSA-1998-4334; FMCSA-2000-7006; FMCSA-2005-20027. Their exemptions are effective as of April 5, 2017, and will expire on April 5, 2019.
As of April 6, 2017, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 6 individuals have satisfied the conditions for obtaining a renewed exemption from the vision requirements (74 FR 7097; 74 FR 15584; 76 FR 15361; 78 FR 16761; 80 FR 12547):
The drivers were included in docket No. FMCSA-2008-0398. Their exemptions are effective as of April 6, 2017, and will expire on April 6, 2019.
As of April 7, 2017, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 11 individuals have satisfied the conditions for obtaining a renewed exemption from the vision requirements (80 FR 12248; 80 FR 29152):
The drivers were included in docket No. FMCSA-2014-0302. Their exemptions are effective as of April 7, 2017, and will expire on April 7, 2019.
As of April 11, 2017, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 13 individuals have satisfied the conditions for obtaining a renewed exemption from the vision requirements (63 FR 66226; 64 FR 16517; 66 FR 17994; 68 FR 15037; 70 FR 14747; 72 FR 12665; 74 FR 9329; 75 FR 77492; 76 FR 1493; 76 FR 5425; 76 FR 7894; 76 FR 9856; 76 FR 12408; 76 FR 15360; 76 FR 20076; 76 FR 20078; 78 FR 12822; 78 FR 800; 78 FR 16762; 80 FR 15863):
The drivers were included in one of the following docket Nos: FMCSA-1998-4334; FMCSA-2010-0372; FMCSA-2010-0385; FMCSA-2010-0413; FMCSA-2011-0010. Their exemptions are effective as of April 11, 2017, and will expire on April 11, 2019.
As of April 16, 2017, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 5 individuals have satisfied the conditions for obtaining a renewed exemption from the vision requirements (78 FR 12815; 78 FR 22602; 80 FR 14220):
The drivers were included in docket No. FMCSA-2013-0022. Their exemptions are effective as of April 16, 2017, and will expire on April 16, 2019.
As of April 18, 2017, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 20 individuals have satisfied the conditions for obtaining a renewed exemption from the vision requirements (80 FR 14223; 80 FR 33011):
The drivers were included in docket No. FMCSA-2014-0304. Their exemptions are effective as of April 18, 2017, and will expire on April 18, 2019.
As of April 21, 2017, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 14 individuals have satisfied the conditions for obtaining a renewed exemption from the vision requirements (65 FR 66286; 66 FR 13825; 67 FR 68719; 68 FR 2629; 68 FR 10300; 68 FR 10301; 68 FR 19596; 70 FR 2701; 70 FR 7546; 70 FR 14747; 70 FR 16886; 70 FR 16887; 72 FR 180; 72 FR 7111; 72 FR 9397; 72 FR 11425; 72 FR 18726; 74 FR 7097; 74 FR 11991; 74 FR 15584; 75 FR 47883; 75 FR 63257; 75 FR 69737; 76 FR 1499; 76 FR 7894; 76 FR 15361; 76 FR 17483; 76 FR 20078; 77 FR 60010; 78 FR 128152; 78 FR 16761; 78 FR 18667; 78 FR 22602; 80 FR 16500):
The drivers were included in one of the following docket Nos: FMCSA-2000-7918; FMCSA-2002-12844; FMCSA-2003-14223; FMCSA-2005-20027; FMCSA-2006-25246; FMCSA-2008-0398; FMCSA-2010-0187; FMCSA-2010-0287; FMCSA-2010-0372; FMCSA-2013-0022. Their exemptions are effective as of April 21, 2017, and will expire on April 21, 2019.
As of April 24, 2017, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 2 individuals have
The drivers were included in docket No. FMCSA-2013-0023. Their exemptions are effective as of April 24, 2017, and will expire on April 24, 2019.
The exemptions are extended subject to the following conditions: (1) Each driver must undergo an annual physical examination (a) by an ophthalmologist or optometrist who attests that the vision in the better eye continues to meet the requirements in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), and (b) by a certified Medical Examiner, as defined by 49 CFR 390.5, who attests that the driver is otherwise physically qualified under 49 CFR 391.41; (2) each driver must provide a copy of the ophthalmologist's or optometrist's report to the Medical Examiner at the time of the annual medical examination; and (3) each driver must provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file and retains a copy of the certification on his/her person while driving for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official. The exemption will be rescinded if: (1) The person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315.
During the period the exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation that conflicts with this exemption with respect to a person operating under the exemption.
Based upon its evaluation of the 126 exemption applications, FMCSA renews the exemptions of the aforementioned drivers from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, each exemption will be valid for two years unless revoked earlier by FMCSA.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |