Federal Register Vol. 82, No.85,

Members of the public can listen to the discussion. This meeting is available to the public through the following toll-free call-in number: 877-874-1569, conference ID: 2389079. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. Callers can expect to incur charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-977-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.

Members of the public are also entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office by May 19, 2017. Written comments may be mailed to the Southern Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 61 Forsyth Street, Suite 16T126, Atlanta, GA 30303. They may also be faxed to the Commission at (404) 562-7005, or emailed to Regional Director, Jeffrey Hinton at [email protected]. Persons who desire additional information may contact the Southern Regional Office at (404) 562-7000.

Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Southern Regional Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meeting will be available via www.facadatabase.gov under the Commission on Civil Rights, Tennessee Advisory Committee link: http://facadatabase.gov/committee/meetings.aspx?cid=275. Persons interested in the work of this Committee are directed to the Commission's Web site, http://www.usccr.gov, or may contact the Southern Regional Office at the above email or street address.

Background

On June 18, 2008, section 805 of Title VIII of the Tariff Act of 1930 (the Softwood Lumber Act of 2008) was enacted into law. Under this provision, the Secretary of Commerce is mandated to submit to the appropriate Congressional committees a report every 180 days on any subsidy provided by countries exporting softwood lumber or softwood lumber products to the United States, including stumpage subsidies.

Commerce submitted its last subsidy report on December 16, 2016. As part of its newest report, Commerce intends to include a list of subsidy programs identified with sufficient clarity by the public in response to this notice.1

Given the large number of countries that export softwood lumber and softwood lumber products to the United States, we are soliciting public comment only on subsidies provided by countries the exports of which accounted for at least one percent of total U.S. imports of softwood lumber by quantity, as classified under Harmonized Tariff Schedule code 4407.1001 (which accounts for the vast majority of imports), during the period July 1, 2016 through December 31, 2016. Official U.S. import data published by the United States International Trade Commission Tariff and Trade DataWeb indicate that only one country, Canada, exported softwood lumber to the United States during that time period in amounts sufficient to account for at least one percent of U.S. imports of softwood lumber products. We intend to rely on similar previous six-month periods to identify the countries subject to future reports on softwood lumber subsidies. For example, we will rely on U.S. imports of softwood lumber and softwood lumber products during the period January 1, 2017 through June 30, 2017, to select the countries subject to the next report.

Under U.S. trade law, a subsidy exists where an authority: (i) Provides a financial contribution; (ii) provides any form of income or price support within the meaning of Article XVI of the GATT 1994; or (iii) makes a payment to a funding mechanism to provide a financial contribution to a person, or entrusts or directs a private entity to make a financial contribution, if providing the contribution would normally be vested in the government and the practice does not differ in substance from practices normally followed by governments, and a benefit is thereby conferred.2

Parties should include in their comments: (1) The country which provided the subsidy; (2) the name of the subsidy program; (3) a brief description (at least 3-4 sentences) of the subsidy program; and (4) the government body or authority that provided the subsidy.

Persons wishing to comment should file comments by the date specified above. Comments should only include publicly available information. Commerce will not accept comments accompanied by a request that a part or all of the material be treated confidentially due to business proprietary concerns or for any other reason. Any such comments or materials will be returned to the submitter and will not be considered in Commerce's report. Comments must be filed in electronic Portable Document Format (PDF) submitted on CD-ROM or by email to the email address of the EC Webmaster, below.

The comments received will be made available to the public in PDF on the Enforcement and Compliance Web site at the following address: http://enforcement.trade.gov/sla2008/sla-index.html. Any questions concerning file formatting, access on the Internet, or other electronic filing issues should be addressed to Laura Merchant, Enforcement and Compliance Webmaster, at (202) 482-0367, email address: [email protected].

All comments and submissions in response to this Request for Comment should be received by Commerce no later than 5 p.m. Eastern Standard Time on the above-referenced deadline date.

On January 13, 2017, based on a timely request for review by Mitsubishi Polyester Film, Inc. and SKC, Inc. (collectively, the petitioners), the Department of Commerce (Commerce) published in the Federal Register a notice of initiation of an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on polyethylene terephthalate film, sheet, and strip (PET film) from the People's Republic of China (PRC) with respect to four companies for the period of review (POR) November 1, 2015, through October 31, 2016.1 On February 16, 2017, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), the petitioners timely withdrew their request for an administrative review for all of the companies for which Commerce initiated a review.2

Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), Commerce will rescind an administrative review, in whole or in part, if the party that requested the review withdraws its request within 90 days of the publication of the notice of initiation of the requested review. In this case, the petitioners timely withdrew their review request by the 90-day deadline, and no other party requested an administrative review of the antidumping duty order. Therefore, in response to the timely withdrawal of the request for review, and in accordance with 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), we are rescinding the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on PET film from the PRC for the period November 1, 2015, through October 31, 2016, in its entirety.

Commerce will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess antidumping duties on all appropriate entries. Because this administrative review is being rescinded in its entirety, the entries to which this administrative review pertain shall be assessed antidumping duties that are equal to the cash deposits of estimated antidumping duties required at the time of entry, or withdrawal from warehouse, for consumption, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(c)(1)(i). Commerce intends to issue appropriate assessment instructions to CBP within 15 days after the publication of this notice.

This notice serves as a final reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Commerce's presumption that reimbursement of the antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of doubled antidumping duties.

This notice also serves as a final reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305, which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials, or conversion to judicial protective order, is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.

This notice is issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, and 19 CFR 351.213(d)(4).

Title; Associated Form; and OMB Number: Lock Performance Monitoring System (LPMS) Waterway Traffic Report; ENG FORM 3102C and 3102D; OMB Control Number 0710-0008.

Needs and Uses: The U.S. Army Corps of Engineers utilizes the data collected to monitor and analyze the use and operation of federally owned or operated locks. General data of vessel identification, tonnage, and commodities are supplied by the master of vessels and all locks owned and operated by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers. The information is used for sizing and scheduling replacements, the timing of rehabilitation or maintenance actions, and the setting of operation procedures and closures for locks and canals.

Affected Public: Business or other for profit.

Annual Burden Hours: 26,312.

Number of Respondents: 6,529.

Responses per Respondent: 93.

Annual Responses: 607,197.

Average Burden per Response: 2.6 minutes.

Frequency: On occasion.

Respondents are vessel operators who provide the vessel identification, tonnage and community information as stipulated on ENG Form 3012C, Waterway Traffic Report—Vessel Log or ENG form 3102D, Waterway Traffic Report—Detail Vessel Log. The information is applied to navigation system management to identify and prioritize lock maintenance, rehabilitation, or replacement. It is also used to measure waterway performance and the level of service of the national waterway systems.

Title, Associated Form and OMB Number: Researcher Responsibility Acknowledgment; OMB Control Number 0720-0042.

Type of Request: Reinstatement.

Number of Respondents: 89.

Responses per Respondent: 1.

Annual Responses: 89.

Average Burden per Response: 30 minutes.

Annual Burden Hours: 45.

Needs and Uses: The information collection requirement is necessary to document researcher's understanding and acceptance of the regulatory and ethical responsibilities pertaining to humans as subjects in research. Principal and associate investigators must have the proposed, signed form on file before they may engage in research conducted or supported by entities under the purview of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&R)).

Affected Public: Federal Government; Business or Other For-Profit; Not-For-Profit Institutions.

Frequency: On occasion.

Respondent's Obligation: Required to Obtain or Retain Benefits.

OMB Desk Officer: Stephanie Tatham.

Comments and recommendations on the proposed information collection should be emailed to Ms. Stephanie Tatham, DoD Desk Officer, at [email protected]. Please identify the proposed information collection by DoD Desk Officer and the Docket ID number and title of the information collection.

You may also submit comments and recommendations, identified by Docket ID number and title, by the following method:

• Federal eRulemaking Portal: http://www.regulations.gov. Follow the instructions for submitting comments.

Instructions: All submissions received must include the agency name, Docket ID number and title for this Federal Register document. The general policy for comments and other submissions from members of the public is to make these submissions available for public viewing on the Internet at http://www.regulations.gov as they are received without change, including any personal identifiers or contact information.

DOD Clearance Officer: Mr. Frederick Licari.

Written requests for copies of the information collection proposal should be sent to Mr. Licari at WHS/ESD Directives Division, 4800 Mark Center Drive, East Tower, Suite 03F09, Alexandria, VA 22350-3100.

Due to circumstances beyond the control of the Designated Federal Officer and the Department of Defense, Defense Acquisition University Board of Visitors is unable to provide public notification, as required by 41 CFR 102-3.150(a), for its meeting on May 17, 2017. Accordingly, the Advisory Committee Management Officer for the Department of Defense, pursuant to 41 CFR 102-3.150(b), waives the 15-calendar day notification requirement.

This meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended), the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976 (5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended), and 41 CFR 102-3.140 and 102-3.150.

Purpose of the Meeting: The purpose of this meeting is to report back to the USD(AT&L) on continuing items of interest.

Agenda:

Meeting Accessibility: Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552b and 41 CFR 102-3.140 through 102-3.165, and the availability of space, this meeting is open to the public. However, because of space limitations, allocation of seating will be made on a first-come, first served basis. Persons desiring to attend the meeting should call Ms. Caren Hergenroeder at 703-805-5134.

Written Statements: Pursuant to 41 CFR 102-3.140, and section 10(a)(3) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972, the public or interested organizations may submit written statements to the Defense Acquisition University Board of Visitors about its mission and functions. Written statements may be submitted at any time or in response to the stated agenda of a planned meeting of the Defense Acquisition University Board of Visitors.

All written statements shall be submitted to the Designated Federal Officer for the Defense Acquisition University Board of Visitors, and this individual will ensure that the written statements are provided to the membership for their consideration.

Statements being submitted in response to the agenda mentioned in this notice must be received by the Designated Federal Officer at least five calendar days prior to the meeting which is the subject of this notice. Written statements received after this date may not be provided to or considered by the Defense Acquisition University Board of Visitors until its next meeting.

Committee's Designated Federal Officer or Point of Contact:Ms. Christen Goulding, 703-805-5412, [email protected].

Title; Associated Form; and OMB Number: USMC Children, Youth and Teen Programs (CYTP) Registration Packet; NAVMC 11720, NAVMC 1750/4, and NAVMC 1750/5; OMB Control Number 0703-XXXX.

Needs and Uses: The information collected on these forms is used by Marine Corps Family Care Programs (MFP) and Inclusion Action Team (IAT) professionals for purposes of patron registration, to determine the general health status of patrons participating in CYTP activities and if necessary the appropriate accommodations for the patron for full enjoyment of CYTP services, and provides consent for information to be exchanged between MFP personnel and other designated individuals or organizations about a patron participating in MFP. These forms may potentially be completed by a member of the public. Collected information will be filed pursuant to the Privacy Act System of Records Notice NM01754-3.

Annual Burden Hours: 56,000.

Number of Respondents: 112,000.

Responses per Respondent: 1.

Average Burden per Response: 30 minutes.

Frequency: Annually.

Annual Burden Hours: 56,000.

Number of Respondents: 112,000.

Responses per Respondent: 1.

Average Burden per Response: 30 minutes.

Frequency: Annually.

Annual Burden Hours: 19,040.

Number of Respondents: 112,000.

Responses per Respondent: 1.

Average Burden per Response: 10 minutes.

Frequency: Annually.

Affected Public: Individuals or Households.

Annual Burden Hours: 131,040.

Number of Respondents: 112,000.

Responses per Respondent: 1.

Annual Responses: 112,000.

Average Burden per Response: 70 minutes.

Frequency: Annually.

Respondents are MFP patrons who provide information to MFP and IAT personnel in order to allow the child to participate in CYTP activities, determine the general health status of patrons participating in CYTP activities, and if necessary, determine the appropriate accommodations for the patron for full enjoyment of CYTP services, and provide consent for information about the patron from other specified individuals and organizations. These forms provide CYTP personnel with demographic information and emergency contact information. It also allows parents/guardians to provide consent for specific activities that may take place while participating in CYTP. Failure to provide information may limit MFP's ability to properly consider participants' health and special needs, adversely impact individuals from participation in CYTP activities, and will limit MFP's ability to communicate with organizations or individuals outside of DoD which may adversely affect available services. Having these forms is essential in providing the requested child care services and activities to all CYTP participants, and maintaining the continuity of care, safety and health of CYTP participants.

The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.

Title of Collection: Talent Search (TS) Annual Performance Report.

OMB Control Number: 1840-0826.

Type of Review: A revision of an existing information collection.

Respondents/Affected Public: State, Local, and Tribal Governments; Private Sector.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses: 478.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours: 8,604.

Abstract: Talent Search grantees must submit the report annually. The report provides the Department of Education with information needed to evaluate a grantee's performance and compliance with program requirements and to award prior experience points in accordance with the program regulations. The data collection is also aggregated to provide information on project participants and program outcomes.

Full Text of Announcement I. Funding Opportunity Description

Purpose of Program: The purposes of the NAL@ED program are to:

(1) Support schools that use Native American and Alaska Native languages as the primary language of instruction;

(2) Maintain, protect, and promote the rights and freedom of Native Americans and Alaska Natives to use, practice, maintain, and revitalize their languages, as envisioned in the Native American Languages Act of 1990 (25 U.S.C. 2901 et seq.); and

(3) Support the Nation's First Peoples' efforts to maintain and revitalize their languages and cultures, and to improve educational opportunities and student outcomes within Native American and Alaska Native communities.

Section 6133 of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act (ESEA),1 as amended by the Every Student Succeeds Act (ESSA), authorizes the NAL@ED program. The program provides discretionary grants to develop, maintain, improve, or expand programs that support elementary or secondary schools in using Native American and Alaska Native languages as the primary language of instruction. Section 6133 of the ESEA references the Native American Languages Act of 1990, in which Congress recognized the fundamental importance of preserving Native American languages. The Native American Languages Act of 1990 states that it is the policy of the United States to “preserve, protect, and promote the rights and freedom of Native Americans to use, practice, and develop Native American languages,” as well as “to encourage and support the use of Native American languages as a medium of instruction in order to encourage and support—

(A) Native American language survival,

(B) Educational opportunity,

(C) Increased student success and performance,

(D) Increased student awareness and knowledge of their culture and history, and

(E) Increased student and community pride.” (25 U.S.C. 2903.)

This Federal policy is supported by growing recognition of the importance of Native language use and preservation in facilitating educational success and other positive outcomes for Native students, including student well-being as reflected in the invitational priority for this competition.

The Native Language Shift and Retention study, funded through an Institute of Education Sciences grant, found that the majority of Native youth surveyed valued their Native language, viewed it as integral to their sense of self, wanted to learn it, and viewed it as a means of facilitating their success in school and life.2 Collaborative efforts between educators, families, and communities, the study suggests, may be especially promising ways to ensure that all Native students have the critical opportunity to learn their Native language.

Indian students and tribal communities have made progress in reinvigorating efforts to preserve and restore Native languages and culture; building tribal capacity to shape and engage in the education of Native students; and raising awareness about school climate issues that are often unique to Indian students and communities, including issues related to student mental health and educator cultural competency. This new NAL@ED program builds on these efforts. The U.S. Department of Education (Department) held tribal consultations on this new NAL@ED program in 2016. In addition to four tribal consultations conducted in Indian country, the Department also held two interactive consultation webinars, which were attended by tribal school educators, tribal officials, representatives of Native American organizations, and others to obtain feedback on specific questions relating to the design of the grant program.

We learned through the consultations that tribes and interested Native Americans are very enthusiastic about the opportunity that the NAL@ED program presents. Nearly half of webinar participants favored having the program focus on instruction in the Native language and professional development, while about one-fourth favored a priority for projects that develop assessments in the Native language. Webinar participants were also interested in supporting projects in a variety of school settings, e.g., public schools, Bureau of Indian Education (BIE)-funded schools, and tribally funded schools. The vast majority of participants favored allowing pre- and post-assessments of Native language proficiency to be in either oral or written format, and favored requiring a tribe as a partner in every project. Finally, webinar participants overwhelmingly supported the concept of long-term data collection in order to show the positive impact of instruction through Native languages.

The priorities and selection criteria for this competition reflect the input received through these tribal consultations. The absolute priorities reflect the input we received regarding the desire for diversity in the school settings for projects. The selection criteria reflect input regarding Native language instruction, professional development of staff, and long-term data collection.

Priorities: This competition contains two absolute priorities, two competitive preference priorities, and one invitational priority. We are establishing these priorities for the FY 2017 grant competition and any subsequent year in which we make awards from the list of unfunded applications from this competition, in accordance with section 437(d)(1) of the General Education Provisions Act (GEPA), 20 U.S.C. 1232(d)(1).

Absolute Priority: For FY 2017 and any subsequent year in which we make awards from the list of unfunded applications from this competition, these priorities are absolute priorities. Under 34 CFR 75.105(c)(3) we consider only applications that meet one of these priorities. Under this competition, each absolute priority constitutes its own funding category. The Secretary intends to award grants under each absolute priority for which applications of sufficient quality are submitted. Applicants must choose one of the two absolute priorities, and must clearly identify the specific absolute priority that the proposed project addresses.

These priorities are:

Absolute Priority 1.

Projects that will take place in one or more schools of a State-funded local educational agency (LEA), including a public charter school that is an LEA under State law, and that will support Native American or Alaska Native language education and development, as well as provide professional development for teachers and, as appropriate, staff and administrators, to strengthen the overall language and academic goals of the school that will be served by the project.

Absolute Priority 2.

Projects that will take place in one or more schools funded by the BIE, an Indian tribe, a tribal college or university (TCU), an Alaska Native Regional Corporation (as described in section 3(g) of the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act (43 U.S.C. 1602(g))), or a private, tribal, or Alaska Native nonprofit organization, and that will support Native American or Alaska Native language education and development, as well as provide professional development for teachers and, as appropriate, staff and administrators, to strengthen the overall language and academic goals of the school(s) that will be served by the project.

Competitive Preference Priorities: For FY 2017 and any subsequent year in which we make awards from the list of unfunded applications from this competition, these priorities are competitive preference priorities. Under 34 CFR 75.105(c)(2)(i) we award five points to an application that meets either of the priorities and 10 points to an application that meets both of these priorities.

These priorities are:

Competitive Preference Priority 1 (0 or 5 points).

We will award five points to an application for a project in which either the lead applicant or a partner receives, or is eligible to receive, a formula grant under title VI of the ESEA, and commits to use all or part of that formula grant to help sustain this project after conclusion of the grant period. To meet this priority, an applicant must include a statement that indicates the school year in which the entity will begin using title VI formula grant funds to help support this project; what percentage of the title VI grant will be used for this; and the timeline for obtaining parent committee input and approval of this action, if necessary.

Competitive Preference Priority 2 (0 or 5 points).

We will award five points to an application submitted by an Indian tribe, Indian organization, or TCU that is eligible to participate in the NAL@ED program. A consortium application of eligible entities that meets the requirements of 34 CFR 75.127 through 75.129 and includes an Indian tribe, Indian organization, or TCU will also be considered eligible to receive preference under this priority. In order to be considered a consortium application, the application must include the consortium agreement, signed by all parties.

Invitational Priority: For FY 2017 and any subsequent year in which we make awards from the list of unfunded applications from this competition, this priority is an invitational priority. Under 34 CFR 75.105(c)(1) we do not give an application that meets this invitational priority a competitive or absolute preference over other applications.

This priority is:

Projects that include a measure of student well-being, which may include mental health, as one of the project-specific objectives.

Waiver of Proposed Rulemaking: Under the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553) the Department generally offers interested parties the opportunity to comment on proposed priorities, requirements, definitions, and selection criteria. Section 437(d)(1) of GEPA, however, allows the Secretary to exempt from rulemaking requirements, regulations governing the first grant competition under a new or substantially revised program authority. This is the first grant competition for this program under section 6133 of the ESEA (20 U.S.C. 7453) and therefore qualifies for this exemption. In order to ensure timely grant awards, the Secretary has decided to forgo public comment on the priorities, requirements, definitions, and selection criteria under section 437(d)(1) of GEPA.

Application Requirements: (1) General requirements. The following requirements apply to all applications submitted under this competition. An applicant must include in its application—

(a) A completed information form that includes:

(i) Instructional language. The name of the Native American or Alaska Native language to be used for instruction at the school(s) supported by the eligible entity.

(ii) Number of students. The number of students to be served by the project and the total number of students attending the school(s).

(iii) Grade level. Grade level(s) of targeted students in the proposed project.

(iv) Instructional hours. The number of hours of instruction per week in and through one or more Native American or Alaska Native languages currently being provided to targeted students at such school(s), if any.

(v) Pre- and post-assessments. Whether a pre- and post-assessment of Native language proficiency is available and, if not, whether grant funds will be used for developing such assessment.

(vi) Organizational information. For each school included in the project, information regarding the school's organizational governance or affiliations, specifically information about the school's governing entity (such as an LEA, tribal educational agency or department, charter organization, private organization, or other governing entity); the school's accreditation status; any partnerships with institutions of higher education; and any indigenous language schooling and research cooperatives.

(vii) Program description. A description of how the eligible entity will: Support Native language education and development, and provide professional development for staff, in order to strengthen the overall language and academic goals of the school(s) that will be served by the project; ensure the implementation of rigorous academic content that prepares all students for college and career; and ensure that students progress toward meeting high-level fluency goals in the Native language.

(b) An assurance that for each school to be included in the project—

(i) The school is engaged in meeting State or tribally designated long-term goals for students, as may be required by applicable Federal, State, or tribal law;

(ii) The school assesses students using the Native American or Alaska Native language of instruction, where possible;

(iii) The qualifications of all instructional and leadership personnel at such school are sufficient to deliver high-quality education through the Native American or Alaska Native language used in the school; and

(iv) The school will collect and report to the public data relative to student achievement and, if appropriate, rates of high school graduation, career readiness, and enrollment in postsecondary education or workforce development programs, of students who are enrolled in the school's programs.

(2) Certification. An applicant that is an LEA (including a public charter school that is an LEA), a school operated by the BIE, or a nontribal for-profit or nonprofit organization must submit a certification from an entity described in application requirement (2)(a), containing the assurances described in application requirement (2)(b).

(a) The certification must be from one of the following entities, on whose land the school or program is located, or that is an entity served by the school, or whose members (as defined by that entity) are served by the school:

(i) An Indian tribe or tribal organization.

(ii) A TCU.

(iii) An Alaska Native Regional Corporation or an Alaska Native nonprofit organization.

(iv) A Native Hawaiian organization.

(b) The certification must state that—

(i) The school or applicant organization has the capacity to provide education primarily through a Native American or an Alaska Native language; and

(ii) There are sufficient speakers of the target language at the school or available to be hired by the school or applicant organization.

(c) If the applicant is an LEA, the tribe also certifies that it has been consulted on the contents of this application as required under ESEA section 8538.

(a) Awards that are primarily for the benefit of Indians are subject to the provisions of section 7(b) of the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (ISDEAA) (Pub. L. 93-638). That section requires that, to the greatest extent feasible, a grantee—

(1) Give to Indians preferences and opportunities for training and employment in connection with the administration of the grant; and

(2) Give to Indian organizations and to Indian-owned economic enterprises, as defined in section 3 of the Indian Financing Act of 1974 (25 U.S.C. 1452(e)), preference in the award of contracts in connection with the administration of the grant.

(b) For purposes of the ISDEAA statutory hiring preference only, an Indian is a member of any federally recognized Indian tribe.

Definitions: The following definitions apply to this competition. For the purposes of this competition, we establish the definitions for “elementary school,” “Indian organization,” “performance target,” “secondary school,” and “tribe,” in accordance with section 437(d)(1) of GEPA, 20 U.S.C. 1232(d)(1). The definitions of “Native American” and “Native American language” are from sections 8101(34) and 6151(3) of the ESEA (20 U.S.C. 7801(34) and 7491(3)), and section 103 of the Native American Languages Act (25 U.S.C. 2902). The definition of “tribal college or university” is from section 6133 of the ESEA (20 U.S.C. 7453) and section 316 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1059c). All other definitions are from 34 CFR 77.1.

Ambitious means promoting continued, meaningful improvement for program participants or for individuals or entities affected by the grant, or representing a significant advancement in the field of education research, practices, or methodologies. When used to describe a performance target, whether a performance target is ambitious depends upon the context of the relevant performance measure and the baseline for that measure.

Baseline means the starting point from which performance is measured and targets are set.

Elementary school means, for State-funded public schools, a day or residential school that provides elementary education, as determined under State law. The term means, for tribally controlled schools, a day or residential school that provides elementary education as determined under tribal law. The definition of “elementary school” may include pre-kindergarten if included in the State or tribal definition of elementary education.

Indian organization means an organization that—

(1) Is legally established—

(i) By tribal or inter-tribal charter or in accordance with State or tribal law; and

(ii) With appropriate constitution, by-laws, or articles of incorporation;

(2) Includes in its purposes the promotion of the education of Indians;

(3) Is controlled by a governing board, the majority of which is Indian;

(4) If located on an Indian reservation, operates with the sanction of or by charter from the governing body of that reservation;

(5) Is neither an organization or subdivision of, nor under the direct control of, any institution of higher education; and

(6) Is not an agency of State or local government.

Native American means: (1) “Indian” as defined in section 6151(3) of the ESEA (20 U.S.C. 7491(3)), which includes individuals who are Alaska Natives and members of federally recognized or State recognized tribes; (2) Native Hawaiian; or (3) Native American Pacific Islander.

Native American language means the historical, traditional languages spoken by Native Americans.

Performance measure means any quantitative indicator, statistic, or metric used to gauge program or project performance.

Performance target means the goal for the number and percentage of participants to meet each performance measure each period of the project and as a result of a project. The performance targets should increase for each project period with the goal that students progress toward high-level fluency in the Native language.

Secondary school means a day or residential school that provides secondary education as determined under State or tribal law.

Tribal college or university means an institution that—

(1) Qualifies for funding under the Tribally Controlled Colleges and Universities Assistance Act of 1978 (25 U.S.C. 1801 et seq.) or the Navajo Community College Act (25 U.S.C. 640a note); or

(2) Is cited in section 532 of the Equity in Educational Land-Grant Status Act of 1994 (7 U.S.C. 301 note).

Tribe means either a federally recognized tribe or a State-recognized tribe.

Program Authority: 20 U.S.C. 7453.

Applicable Regulations: (a) The Education Department General Administrative Regulations (EDGAR) in 34 CFR parts 75, 77, 79, 81, 82, 84, 86, 97, 98, and 99. (b) The OMB Guidelines to Agencies on Governmentwide Debarment and Suspension (Nonprocurement) in 2 CFR part 180, as adopted and amended as regulations of the Department in 2 CFR part 3485. (c) The Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards in 2 CFR part 200, as adopted and amended as regulations of the Department in 2 CFR part 3474.

Type of Award: Discretionary grants.

Estimated Available Funds: The Further Continuing and Security Assistance Appropriations Act, 2017, would provide, on an annualized basis, $5,554,421 for Indian Education National Activities, of which we would use an estimated $1,100,000 for this NAL@ED competition.

The actual level of funding, if any, depends on final congressional action. However, we are inviting applications to allow enough time to complete the grant process if Congress appropriates funds for this program.

Contingent upon the availability of funds and the quality of applications, we may make additional awards in FY 2018 from the list of unfunded applications from this competition.

Estimated Range of Awards: $125,000-$300,000 per year.

Estimated Average Size of Awards: $215,000 per year.

Maximum Award: We will reject any application that proposes a budget exceeding $300,000 for a single budget period of 12 months.

Estimated Number of Awards: 4-8.

Project Period: Up to 36 months.

1. Eligible Applicants: The following entities, either alone or in a consortium, that have a plan to develop and maintain, or to improve and expand, programs that support the entity's use of a Native American or Alaska Native language as the primary language of instruction in one or more elementary or secondary schools (or both) are eligible under this program:

(a) An Indian tribe.

(b) A TCU.

(c) A tribal educational agency.

(d) An LEA, including a public charter school that is an LEA under State law.

(e) A school operated by the BIE.

(f) An Alaska Native Regional Corporation, as described in section 3(g) of the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act (43 U.S.C. 1602(g)).

(g) A tribal, Alaska Native, Native Hawaiian, or other nonprofit organization.

(h) A nontribal for-profit organization.

2. Cost Sharing or Matching: This program does not require cost sharing or matching.

3. Other: Projects funded under this competition are encouraged to budget for a two-day Project Directors' meeting in Washington, DC during each year of the project period.

1. Address to Request Application Package: You can obtain an application package via the Internet or from the Education Publications Center (ED Pubs). To obtain a copy via the Internet, use the following address: http://www.ed.gov/fund/grant/apply/grantapps/index.html. To obtain a copy from ED Pubs, write, fax, or call the following: ED Pubs, U.S. Department of Education, P.O. Box 22207, Alexandria, VA 22304. Telephone, toll free: 1-877-433-7827. FAX: (703) 605-6794. If you use a TDD or a TTY, call, toll free: 1-877-576-7734.

You can contact ED Pubs at its Web site, also: www.EDPubs.gov or at its email address: [email protected].

If you request an application from ED Pubs, be sure to identify this program or competition as follows: CFDA number 84.415B.

Individuals with disabilities can obtain a copy of the application package in an accessible format (e.g., braille, large print, audiotape, or compact disc) by contacting the person listed under Accessible Format in section VII of this notice.

2. Content and Form of Application Submission: Requirements concerning the content and form of an application, together with the forms you must submit, are in the application package for this competition.

Notice of Intent to Apply: We will be able to develop a more efficient process for reviewing grant applications if we know the approximate number of applicants that intend to apply for funding under this competition. Therefore, we strongly encourage each potential applicant to notify us of the applicant's intent to submit an application by emailing [email protected] with the subject line “Intent to Apply” and include in the content of the email the following information: (1) The applicant organization's name and address, and (2) the Native language on which the project would focus. Applicants that do not provide notice of their intent to apply may still submit an application.

Page Limit: The application narrative is where you, the applicant, address the selection criteria that reviewers use to evaluate your application. We recommend that you limit the application narrative to no more than 35 pages, using the following standards:

• A “page” is 8.5″ × 11″, on one side only, with 1″ margins at the top, bottom, and both sides.

• Double space (no more than three lines per vertical inch) all text in the application narrative, including titles, headings, footnotes, quotations, references, and captions, as well as all text in charts, tables, figures, and graphs.

• Use a font that is either 12 point or larger or no smaller than 10 pitch (characters per inch).

• Use one of the following fonts: Times New Roman, Courier, Courier New, or Arial.

The suggested page limit does not apply to the cover sheet; the budget section, including the narrative budget justification; the assurances and certifications; or the one-page abstract, resumes, bibliography, or letters of support. However, the page limit does apply to all of the application narrative.

b. Submission of Proprietary Information: Given the types of projects that may be proposed in applications for the NAL@ED program, your application may include business information that you consider proprietary. In 34 CFR 5.11 we define “business information” and describe the process we use in determining whether any of that information is proprietary and, thus, protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552, as amended).

Consistent with the process followed from the Office of Indian Education discretionary grant competitions, we may post the project narrative section of funded NAL@ED program applications on the Department's Web site so you may wish to request confidentiality of business information. Identifying proprietary information in the submitted application will help facilitate this public disclosure process.

Consistent with Executive Order 12600, please designate in your application any information that you believe is exempt from disclosure under Exemption 4. In the appropriate Appendix section of your application, under “Other Attachments Form,” please list the page number or numbers on which we can find this information. For additional information please see 34 CFR 5.11(c).

3. Submission Dates and Times:

Deadline for Notice of Intent to Apply: June 8, 2017.

Date of Pre-Application Meeting: We intend to hold webinars to provide technical assistance to interested applicants. Detailed information regarding these meetings will be provided on the NAL@ED program Web site at http://www2.ed.gov/about/offices/list/oese/oie/index.html.

Deadline for Transmittal of Applications: June 19, 2017.

Applications for grants under this competition must be submitted electronically using the Grants.gov Apply site (Grants.gov). For information (including dates and times) about how to submit your application electronically, or in paper format by mail or hand delivery if you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, please refer to Other Submission Requirements in section IV of this notice.

We do not consider an application that does not comply with the deadline requirements.

Individuals with disabilities who need an accommodation or auxiliary aid in connection with the application process should contact the person listed under FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT. If the Department provides an accommodation or auxiliary aid to an individual with a disability in connection with the application process, the individual's application remains subject to all other requirements and limitations in this notice.

Deadline for Intergovernmental Review: August 17, 2017.

4. Intergovernmental Review: This competition is subject to Executive Order 12372 and the regulations in 34 CFR part 79. Information about Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs under Executive Order 12372 is in the application package for this competition.

5. Funding Restrictions: Not more than five percent of the funds provided to a grantee may be used for administrative costs (ESEA section 6133(g)). We reference regulations outlining other funding restrictions in the Applicable Regulations section of this notice.

6. Data Universal Numbering System Number, Taxpayer Identification Number, and System for Award Management: To do business with the Department of Education, you must—

a. Have a Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS) number and a Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN);

b. Register both your DUNS number and TIN with the System for Award Management (SAM), the Government's primary registrant database;

c. Provide your DUNS number and TIN on your application; and

d. Maintain an active SAM registration with current information while your application is under review by the Department and, if you are awarded a grant, during the project period.

You can obtain a DUNS number from Dun and Bradstreet at the following Web site: http://fedgov.dnb.com/webform. A DUNS number can be created within one to two business days.

If you are a corporate entity, agency, institution, or organization, you can obtain a TIN from the Internal Revenue Service. If you are an individual, you can obtain a TIN from the Internal Revenue Service or the Social Security Administration. If you need a new TIN, please allow two to five weeks for your TIN to become active.

The SAM registration process can take approximately seven business days, but may take upwards of several weeks, depending on the completeness and accuracy of the data you enter into the SAM database. Thus, if you think you might want to apply for Federal financial assistance under a program administered by the Department, please allow sufficient time to obtain and register your DUNS number and TIN. We strongly recommend that you register early.

If you are currently registered with SAM, you may not need to make any changes. However, please make certain that the TIN associated with your DUNS number is correct. Also note that you will need to update your registration annually. This may take three or more business days.

Information about SAM is available at www.SAM.gov. To further assist you with obtaining and registering your DUNS number and TIN in SAM or updating your existing SAM account, we have prepared a SAM.gov Tip Sheet, which you can find at: http://www2.ed.gov/fund/grant/apply/sam-faqs.html.

In addition, if you are submitting your application via Grants.gov, you must (1) be designated by your organization as an Authorized Organization Representative (AOR); and (2) register yourself with Grants.gov as an AOR. Details on these steps are outlined at the following Grants.gov Web page: www.grants.gov/web/grants/register.html.

7. Other Submission Requirements: Applications for grants under this competition must be submitted electronically unless you qualify for an exception to this requirement in accordance with the instructions in this section.

a. Electronic Submission of Applications.

Applications for grants under the NAL@ED program, CFDA number 84.415B, must be submitted electronically using the Governmentwide Grants.gov Apply site at www.Grants.gov. Through this site, you will be able to download a copy of the application package, complete it offline, and then upload and submit your application. You may not email an electronic copy of a grant application to us.

We will reject your application if you submit it in paper format unless, as described elsewhere in this section, you qualify for one of the exceptions to the electronic submission requirement and submit, no later than two weeks before the application deadline date, a written statement to the Department that you qualify for one of these exceptions. Further information regarding calculation of the date that is two weeks before the application deadline date is provided later in this section under Exception to Electronic Submission Requirement.

You may access the electronic grant application for NAL@ED program at www.Grants.gov. You must search for the downloadable application package for this program by the CFDA number. Do not include the CFDA number's alpha suffix in your search (e.g., search for 84.415 not 84.415B).

Please note the following:

• When you enter the Grants.gov site, you will find information about submitting an application electronically through the site, as well as the hours of operation.

• Applications received by Grants.gov are date and time stamped. Your application must be fully uploaded and submitted and must be date and time stamped by the Grants.gov system no later than 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date. Except as otherwise noted in this section, we will not accept your application if it is received—that is, date and time stamped by the Grants.gov system—after 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date. We do not consider an application that does not comply with the deadline requirements. When we retrieve your application from Grants.gov, we will notify you if we are rejecting your application because it was date and time stamped by the Grants.gov system after 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date.

• The amount of time it can take to upload an application will vary depending on a variety of factors, including the size of the application and the speed of your Internet connection. Therefore, we strongly recommend that you do not wait until the application deadline date to begin the submission process through Grants.gov.

• You should review and follow the Education Submission Procedures for submitting an application through Grants.gov that are included in the application package for this competition to ensure that you submit your application in a timely manner to the Grants.gov system. You can also find the Education Submission Procedures pertaining to Grants.gov under News and Events on the Department's G5 system home page at www.G5.gov. In addition, for specific guidance and procedures for submitting an application through Grants.gov, please refer to the Grants.gov Web site at: www.grants.gov/web/grants/applicants/apply-for-grants.html.

• You will not receive additional point value because you submit your application in electronic format, nor will we penalize you if you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, as described elsewhere in this section, and submit your application in paper format.

• You must submit all documents electronically, including all information you typically provide on the following forms: The Application for Federal Assistance (SF 424), the Department of Education Supplemental Information for SF 424, Budget Information—Non-Construction Programs (ED 524), and all necessary assurances and certifications.

• You must upload any narrative sections and all other attachments to your application as files in a read-only, flattened Portable Document Format (PDF), meaning any fillable PDF documents must be saved as flattened non-fillable files. Therefore, do not upload an interactive or fillable PDF file. If you upload a file type other than a read-only, flattened PDF (e.g., Word, Excel, WordPerfect, etc.) or submit a password-protected file, we will not review that material. Please note that this could result in your application not being considered for funding because the material in question—for example, the application narrative—is critical to a meaningful review of your proposal. For that reason it is important to allow yourself adequate time to upload all material as PDF files. The Department will not convert material from other formats to PDF. There is no need to password protect a file in order to meet the requirement to submit a read-only, flattened PDF. And, as noted above, the Department will not review password-protected files.

• Your electronic application must comply with any page-limit requirements described in this notice.

• After you electronically submit your application, you will receive from Grants.gov an automatic notification of receipt that contains a Grants.gov tracking number. This notification indicates receipt by Grants.gov only, not receipt by the Department. Grants.gov will also notify you automatically by email if your application met all the Grants.gov validation requirements or if there were any errors (such as submission of your application by someone other than a registered Authorized Organization Representative, or inclusion of an attachment with a file name that contains special characters). You will be given an opportunity to correct any errors and resubmit, but you must still meet the deadline for submission of applications.

Once your application is successfully validated by Grants.gov, the Department will retrieve your application from Grants.gov and send you an email with a unique PR/Award number for your application.

These emails do not mean that your application is without any disqualifying errors. While your application may have been successfully validated by Grants.gov, it must also meet the Department's application requirements as specified in this notice and in the application instructions. Disqualifying errors could include, for instance, failure to upload attachments in a read-only, non-modifiable PDF; failure to submit a required part of the application; or failure to meet applicant eligibility requirements. It is your responsibility to ensure that your submitted application has met all of the Department's requirements.

• We may request that you provide us original signatures on forms at a later date.

Application Deadline Date Extension in Case of Technical Issues with the Grants.gov System: If you are experiencing problems submitting your application through Grants.gov, please contact the Grants.gov Support Desk, toll free, at 1-800-518-4726. You must obtain a Grants.gov Support Desk Case Number and must keep a record of it.

If you are prevented from electronically submitting your application on the application deadline date because of technical problems with the Grants.gov system, we will grant you an extension until 4:30:00 p.m. Washington, DC time, the following business day to enable you to transmit your application electronically or by hand delivery. You also may mail your application by following the mailing instructions described elsewhere in this notice.

If you submit an application after 4:30:00 p.m. Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date, please contact the person listed under FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT and provide an explanation of the technical problem you experienced with Grants.gov, along with the Grants.gov Support Desk Case Number. We will accept your application if we can confirm that a technical problem occurred with the Grants.gov system and that the problem affected your ability to submit your application by 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date. We will contact you after we determine whether your application will be accepted.

Exception to Electronic Submission Requirement: You qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, and may submit your application in paper format, if you are unable to submit an application through the Grants.gov system because—

• You do not have access to the Internet; or

• You do not have the capacity to upload large documents to the Grants.gov system; and

• No later than two weeks before the application deadline date (14 calendar days or, if the fourteenth calendar day before the application deadline date falls on a Federal holiday, the next business day following the Federal holiday), you mail or fax a written statement to the Department, explaining which of the two grounds for an exception prevents you from using the Internet to submit your application.

If you mail your written statement to the Department, it must be postmarked no later than two weeks before the application deadline date. If you fax your written statement to the Department, we must receive the faxed statement no later than two weeks before the application deadline date.

Address and mail or fax your statement to: John Cheek, U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Room 3W207, Washington, DC 20202. FAX: (202) 401-0274.

Your paper application must be submitted in accordance with the mail or hand-delivery instructions described in this notice.

b. Submission of Paper Applications by Mail.

If you submit your application in paper format by mail (through the U.S. Postal Service or a commercial carrier), you must mail the original and two copies of your application, on or before the application deadline date, to the Department at the following address: U.S. Department of Education, Application Control Center, Attention: (CFDA Number 84.415B), LBJ Basement Level 1, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20202-4260.

You must show proof of mailing consisting of one of the following:

(1) A legibly dated U.S. Postal Service postmark.

(2) A legible mail receipt with the date of mailing stamped by the U.S. Postal Service.

(3) A dated shipping label, invoice, or receipt from a commercial carrier.

(4) Any other proof of mailing acceptable to the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Education.

If you mail your application through the U.S. Postal Service, we do not accept either of the following as proof of mailing:

(1) A private metered postmark.

(2) A mail receipt that is not dated by the U.S. Postal Service.

We will not consider applications postmarked after the application deadline date.

c. Submission of Paper Applications by Hand Delivery.

If you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, you (or a courier service) may deliver your paper application to the Department by hand. You must deliver the original and two copies of your application by hand, on or before the application deadline date, to the Department at the following address: U.S. Department of Education, Application Control Center, Attention: (CFDA Number 84.415B), 550 12th Street SW., Room 7039, Potomac Center Plaza, Washington, DC 20202-4260.

The Application Control Center accepts hand deliveries daily between 8:00 a.m. and 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, except Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.

1. Selection Criteria: For the purposes of this competition, we are establishing selection criteria, in accordance with section 437(d)(1) of GEPA, 20 U.S.C. 1232(d)(1). We are also using selection criteria for this competition from 34 CFR 75.210. The maximum score for all of these criteria is 100 points. The maximum score for each criterion is indicated in parentheses.

(a) Quality of the project design. (Up to 15 Points)

The Secretary considers the quality of the design of the proposed project. In determining the quality of the design of the proposed project, the Secretary considers the following factors:

(1) The extent to which the goals, objectives, and outcomes to be achieved by the proposed project are clearly specified and measurable.

(2) The extent to which the project design will ensure that students progress toward high-level fluency goals in the Native language.

(3) The extent to which the proposed project is designed to build capacity and yield results that will extend beyond the period of Federal financial assistance.

(4) The extent to which the project includes a plan for data collection and reporting to track long-term student academic and other outcomes after the project is complete.

(b) Quality of project services. (Up to 20 Points)

The Secretary considers the quality of the services to be provided by the proposed project. In determining the quality of the services to be provided by the proposed project, the Secretary considers the following factors:

(1) The quality of the plan for supporting Native American or Alaska Native language education and development by providing instruction of or through the Native language. (Up to 7 points)

(2) The extent to which the project will provide professional development for teachers and, as appropriate, staff and administrators to strengthen the overall language proficiency and academic goals of the school(s) that will be served by the project, including cultural competence training to all staff in the school(s). (Up to 6 points)

(3) The extent to which the services to be provided by the proposed project involve the collaboration of appropriate partners for maximizing the effectiveness of project services. (Up to 4 points)

(4) The extent to which the percentage of the school(s) day that instruction will be provided in the Native language is ambitious and is reasonable for the grade level and population served. (Up to 3 points)

(c) Quality of project personnel. (Up to 10 Points)

The Secretary considers the quality of the personnel who will carry out the proposed project. In determining the quality of project personnel, the Secretary considers the extent to which the applicant encourages applications for employment from persons who are members of groups that have traditionally been underrepresented based on race, color, national origin, gender, age, or disability.

In addition, the Secretary considers the following factors:

(1) The extent to which teachers of the Native language are identified as staff for this project, have teaching experience, and are fluent in the Native language.

(2) The qualifications, including relevant training and experience, of key project personnel.

(3) The qualifications, including relevant training and experience, of project consultants or subcontractors.

(d) Adequacy of resources. (Up to 20 Points)

The Secretary considers the adequacy of resources for the proposed project. In determining the adequacy of resources for the proposed project, the Secretary considers the following factors:

(1) The extent to which the applicant or a partner has experience in operating a Native language program. (Up to 10 points)

(2) The extent to which the costs of the project are reasonable in relation to the objectives, design, and potential significance of the proposed project. (Up to 6 points)

(3) The potential for continued support of the project after Federal funding ends, including, as appropriate, the demonstrated commitment of appropriate entities to such support. (Up to 4 points)

(e) Quality of the management plan. (Up to 15 Points)

The Secretary considers the quality of the management plan for the proposed project. In determining the quality of the management plan for the proposed project, the Secretary considers the following factors:

(1) The adequacy of the management plan to achieve the objectives of the proposed project on time and within budget, including clearly defined responsibilities, timelines, and milestones for accomplishing project tasks.

(2) The extent to which the time commitments of the project director and principal investigator and other key project personnel are appropriate and adequate to meet the objectives of the proposed project.

(f) Quality of the project evaluation. (Up to 20 Points)

The Secretary considers the quality of the evaluation to be conducted of the proposed project. In determining the quality of the evaluation, the Secretary considers the following factors:

(1) The extent to which each proposed performance target is ambitious, yet achievable, compared to the baseline for each performance measure. (Up to 8 Points)

(2) The quality of the applicant's plan to collect and report reliable, valid, and meaningful performance data, including the applicant's capacity to collect such data, as evidenced by high-quality data collection, analysis, and reporting in other projects or research. (Up to 7 Points)

(3) The extent to which the data collection and reporting methods the applicant would use to track long-term student academic outcomes after the project is complete are likely to yield reliable, valid, and meaningful performance data. (Up to 5 Points)

2. Review and Selection Process: We remind potential applicants that in reviewing applications in any discretionary grant competition, the Secretary may consider, under 34 CFR 75.217(d)(2)(3), the rank order of the applications, any information relevant to a criterion, priority, or other requirement that applies to the selection of applications for new grants, the past performance of the applicant in carrying out a previous award, such as the applicant's use of funds, achievement of project objectives, and compliance with grant conditions. The Secretary may also consider whether the applicant failed to submit a timely performance report or submitted a report of unacceptable quality.

In addition, in making a competitive grant award, the Secretary requires various assurances, including those applicable to Federal civil rights laws that prohibit discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department of Education (34 CFR 100.4, 104.5, 106.4, 108.8, and 110.23).

3. Risk Assessment and Special Conditions: Consistent with 2 CFR 200.205, before awarding grants under this program the Department conducts a review of the risks posed by applicants. Under 2 CFR 3474.10, the Secretary may impose special conditions and, in appropriate circumstances, high-risk conditions on a grant if the applicant or grantee is not financially stable; has a history of unsatisfactory performance; has a financial or other management system that does not meet the standards in 2 CFR part 200, subpart D; has not fulfilled the conditions of a prior grant; or is otherwise not responsible.

4. Integrity and Performance System: If you are selected under this competition to receive an award that over the course of the project period may exceed the simplified acquisition threshold (currently $150,000), under 2 CFR 200.205(a)(2) we must make a judgment about your integrity, business ethics, and record of performance under Federal awards—that is, the risk posed by you as an applicant—before we make an award. In doing so, we must consider any information about you that is in the integrity and performance system (currently referred to as the Federal Awardee Performance and Integrity Information System (FAPIIS)), accessible through SAM. You may review and comment on any information about yourself that a Federal agency previously entered and that is currently in FAPIIS.

Please note that, if the total value of your currently active grants, cooperative agreements, and procurement contracts from the Federal Government exceeds $10,000,000, the reporting requirements in 2 CFR part 200, Appendix XII, require you to report certain integrity information to FAPIIS semiannually. Please review the requirements in 2 CFR part 200, Appendix XII, if this grant plus all the other Federal funds you receive exceed $10,000,000.

1. Award Notices: If your application is successful, we notify your U.S. Representative and U.S. Senators and send you a Grant Award Notification (GAN); or we may send you an email containing a link to access an electronic version of your GAN. We may notify you informally, also.

If your application is not evaluated or not selected for funding, we notify you.

2. Administrative and National Policy Requirements: We identify administrative and national policy requirements in the application package and reference these and other requirements in the Applicable Regulations section of this notice.

We reference the regulations outlining the terms and conditions of an award in the Applicable Regulations section of this notice and include these and other specific conditions in the GAN. The GAN also incorporates your approved application as part of your binding commitments under the grant.

3. Reporting: (a) If you apply for a grant under this competition, you must ensure that you have in place the necessary processes and systems to comply with the reporting requirements in 2 CFR part 170 should you receive funding under the competition. This does not apply if you have an exception under 2 CFR 170.110(b).

(b) At the end of your project period, you must submit a final performance report, including financial information, as directed by the Secretary. If you receive a multiyear award, you must submit an annual performance report that provides the most current performance and financial expenditure information as directed by the Secretary under 34 CFR 75.118. The Secretary may also require more frequent performance reports under 34 CFR 75.720(c). For specific requirements on reporting, please go to www.ed.gov/fund/grant/apply/appforms/appforms.html.

(c) Each grantee is required under section 6133 of the ESEA to submit annually to the Secretary information on the activities carried out with these grant funds, the number of children served by the project, and the number of instructional hours in the Native language.

(d) Under 34 CFR 75.250(b), the Secretary may provide a grantee with additional funding for data collection analysis and reporting. In this case the Secretary establishes a data collection period.

4. Performance Measures: Under the Government Performance and Results Act (GPRA), Federal departments and agencies must clearly describe the goals and objectives of programs, identify resources and actions needed to accomplish goals and objectives, develop a means of measuring progress made, and regularly report on achievement. One important source of program information on successes and lessons learned is the project evaluation conducted under individual grants.

(a) Measures. The Department has identified the following GPRA performance measures for evaluating the overall effectiveness of the NAL@ED program:

Measure 1: The number and percentage of participating students who attain proficiency in a Native language, as determined by each grantee through pre- and post-assessments of Native language proficiency.

Measure 2: The number and percentage of participating students who make progress in learning a Native language, as determined by each grantee through pre- and post-assessments of Native language proficiency.

Measure 3: The number and percentage of participating students who show an improvement in academic outcomes, as measured by academic assessments or other indicators.

Measure 4: The difference between the average daily attendance of participating students and the average daily attendance of all students in the comparison group (e.g., school, LEA, tribe, or other).

(b) Baseline data. Applicants must provide baseline data for each of the GPRA performance measures listed in paragraph (a) and include why each proposed baseline is valid; or, if the applicant has determined that there are no established baseline data for a particular performance measure, explain why there is no established baseline and explain how and when, during the project period, the applicant will establish a valid baseline for the performance measure.

(c) Performance measure targets. The applicant must propose in its application annual targets for the measures listed in paragraph (a). Applications must also include the following information as directed under 34 CFR 75.110(b) and (c):

(1) Why each proposed performance target is ambitious yet achievable compared to the baseline for the performance measure.

(2) The data collection and reporting methods the applicant would use and why those methods are likely to yield reliable, valid, and meaningful performance data.

(3) The data collection and reporting methods the applicant would use after the project is complete to track long-term student academic outcomes, and why those methods are likely to yield reliable, valid, and meaningful performance data.

(4) The applicant's capacity to collect and report reliable, valid, and meaningful performance data, as evidenced by high-quality data collection, analysis, and reporting in other projects or research.

(d) Performance reports. All grantees must submit an annual performance report and final performance report with information that is responsive to these performance measures. The Department will consider this data in making annual continuation awards.

(e) Department evaluations. Consistent with 34 CFR 75.591, grantees funded under this program must comply with the requirements of any evaluation of the program conducted by the Department or an evaluator selected by the Department.

5. Continuation Awards: In making a continuation award under 34 CFR 75.253, the Secretary considers, among other things: Whether a grantee has made substantial progress in achieving the goals and objectives of the project; whether the grantee has expended funds in a manner that is consistent with its approved application and budget; and, if the Secretary has established performance measurement requirements, the performance targets in the grantee's approved application.

In making a continuation award, the Secretary also considers whether the grantee is operating in compliance with the assurances in its approved application, including those applicable to Federal civil rights laws that prohibit discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department (34 CFR 100.4, 104.5, 106.4, 108.8, and 110.23).

Accessible Format: Individuals with disabilities can obtain this document and a copy of the application package in an accessible format (e.g., braille, large print, audiotape, or compact disc) on request to the program contact person listed under For Further Information Contact in section VII of this notice.

Electronic Access to This Document: The official version of this document is the document published in the Federal Register. Free Internet access to the official edition of the Federal Register and the Code of Federal Regulations is available via the Federal Digital System at: www.thefederalregister.org/fdsys. At this site you can view this document, as well as all other documents of this Department published in the Federal Register, in text or PDF. To use PDF you must have Adobe Acrobat Reader, which is available free at the site.

You may also access documents of the Department published in the Federal Register by using the article search feature at: www.federalregister.gov. Specifically, through the advanced search feature at this site, you can limit your search to documents published by the Department.

The FPPS is an online personnel and payroll system providing support to Federal agency customers through DOI's IBC. FPPS is customized to meet customer needs for creating and generating the full life cycle of personnel transactions. FPPS allows for immediate updates and edits of personnel and payroll data.

As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.

OMB Control Number: 3060-0185.

Title: Section 73.3613, Filing of Contracts.

Form Number: N/A.

Type of Review: Extension of a currently collection.

Respondents: Business or other for profit entities; not-for-profit institutions.

Number of Respondents and Responses: 2,400 respondents and 2,400 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 0.25 to 0.5 hours.

Frequency of Response: On occasion reporting requirement; Recordkeeping requirement; Third party disclosure requirement.

Total Annual Burden: 975 hours.

Total Annual Cost: $135,000.

Privacy Act Impact Assessment: No impact(s).

Obligation to Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. The statutory authority for this information collections is contained in Section 154(i) and 303 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended.

Nature and Extent of Confidentiality: There is no need for confidentiality with this information collection.

Needs and Uses: The information collection contained in 47 CFR 73.3613 currently requires each licensee or permittee of a commercial or noncommercial AM, FM, TV or International broadcast station shall file with the FCC copies of the following contracts, instruments, and documents together with amendments, supplements, and cancellations (with the substance of oral contracts reported in writing), within 30 days of execution thereof:

(a) Network service: Network affiliation contracts between stations and networks will be reduced to writing and filed as follows:

(1) All network affiliation contracts, agreements, or understandings between a TV broadcast or low power TV station and a national network. For the purposes of this paragraph the term network means any person, entity, or corporation which offers an interconnected program service on a regular basis for 15 or more hours per week to at least 25 affiliated television licensees in 10 or more states; and/or any person, entity, or corporation controlling, controlled by, or under common control with such person, entity, or corporation.

(2) Each such filing on or after May 1, 1969, initially shall consist of a written instrument containing all of the terms and conditions of such contract, agreement or understanding without reference to any other paper or document by incorporation or otherwise. Subsequent filings may simply set forth renewal, amendment or change, as the case may be, of a particular contract previously filed in accordance herewith.

(3) The FCC shall also be notified of the cancellation or termination of network affiliations, contracts for which are required to be filed by this section.

(b) Ownership or control: Contracts, instruments or documents relating to the present or future ownership or control of the licensee or permittee or of the licensee's or permittee's stock, rights or interests therein, or relating to changes in such ownership or control shall include but are not limited to the following:

(1) Articles of partnership, association, and incorporation, and changes in such instruments;

(2) Bylaws, and any instruments effecting changes in such bylaws;

(3) Any agreement, document or instrument providing for the assignment of a license or permit, or affecting, directly or indirectly, the ownership or voting rights of the licensee's or permittee's stock (common or preferred, voting or nonvoting), such as:

(i) Agreements for transfer of stock;

(ii) Instruments for the issuance of new stock; or

(iii) Agreements for the acquisition of licensee's or permittee's stock by the issuing licensee or permittee corporation. Pledges, trust agreements, options to purchase stock and other executory agreements are required to be filed. However, trust agreements or abstracts thereof are not required to be filed, unless requested specifically by the FCC. Should the FCC request an abstract of the trust agreement in lieu of the trust agreement, the licensee or permittee will submit the following information concerning the trust:

(A) Name of trust;

(B) Duration of trust;

(C) Number of shares of stock owned;

(D) Name of beneficial owner of stock;

(E) Name of record owner of stock;

(F) Name of the party or parties who have the power to vote or control the vote of the shares; and

(G) Any conditions on the powers of voting the stock or any unusual characteristics of the trust.

(4) Proxies with respect to the licensee's or permittee's stock running for a period in excess of 1 year, and all proxies, whether or not running for a period of 1 year, given without full and detailed instructions binding the nominee to act in a specified manner. With respect to proxies given without full and detailed instructions, a statement showing the number of such proxies, by whom given and received, and the percentage of outstanding stock represented by each proxy shall be submitted by the licensee or permittee within 30 days after the stockholders' meeting in which the stock covered by such proxies has been voted. However, when the licensee or permittee is a corporation having more than 50 stockholders, such complete information need be filed only with respect to proxies given by stockholders who are officers or directors, or who have 1% or more of the corporation's voting stock. When the licensee or permittee is a corporation having more than 50 stockholders and the stockholders giving the proxies are not officers or directors or do not hold 1% or more of the corporation's stock, the only information required to be filed is the name of any person voting 1% or more of the stock by proxy, the number of shares voted by proxy by such person, and the total number of shares voted at the particular stockholders' meeting in which the shares were voted by proxy.

(5) Mortgage or loan agreements containing provisions restricting the licensee's or permittee's freedom of operation, such as those affecting voting rights, specifying or limiting the amount of dividends payable, the purchase of new equipment, or the maintenance of current assets.

(6) Any agreement reflecting a change in the officers, directors or stockholders of a corporation, other than the licensee or permittee, having an interest, direct or indirect, in the licensee or permittee as specified by § 73.3615.

(7) Agreements providing for the assignment of a license or permit or agreements for the transfer of stock filed in accordance with FCC application Forms 314, 315, 316 need not be resubmitted pursuant to the terms of this rule provision.

(c) Personnel: (1) Management consultant agreements with independent contractors; contracts relating to the utilization in a management capacity of any person other than an officer, director, or regular employee of the licensee or permittee; station management contracts with any persons, whether or not officers, directors, or regular employees, which provide for both a percentage of profits and a sharing in losses; or any similar agreements.

(2) The following contracts, agreements, or understandings need not be filed: Agreements with persons regularly employed as general or station managers or salesmen; contracts with program managers or program personnel; contracts with attorneys, accountants or consulting radio engineers; contracts with performers; contracts with station representatives; contracts with labor unions; or any similar agreements.

(d)(1) Time brokerage agreements (also known as local marketing agreements): Time brokerage agreements involving radio stations where the licensee (including all parties under common ownership) is the brokering entity, the brokering and brokered stations are both in the same market as defined in the local radio multiple ownership rule contained in § 73.3555(a), and more than 15 percent of the time of the brokered station, on a weekly basis is brokered by that licensee; time brokerage agreements involving television stations where the licensee (including all parties under common control) is the brokering entity, the brokering and brokered stations are both licensed to the same market as defined in the local television multiple ownership rule contained in § 73.3555(b), and more than 15 percent of the time of the brokered station, on a weekly basis, is brokered by that licensee; time brokerage agreements involving radio or television stations that would be attributable to the licensee under § 73.3555 Note 2, paragraph (i). Confidential or proprietary information may be redacted where appropriate but such information shall be made available for inspection upon request by the FCC.

(d)(2) Joint sales agreements: Joint sales agreements involving radio stations where the licensee (including all parties under common control) is the brokering entity, the brokering and brokered stations are both in the same market as defined in the local radio multiple ownership rule contained in § 73.3555(a), and more than 15 percent of the advertising time of the brokered station on a weekly basis is brokered by that licensee; joint sales agreements involving television stations where the licensee (including all parties under common control) is the brokering entity, the brokering and brokered stations are both in the same market as defined in the local television multiple ownership rule contained in § 73.3555(b), and more than 15 percent of the advertising time of the brokered station on a weekly basis is brokered by that license. Confidential or proprietary information may be redacted where appropriate but such information shall be made available for inspection upon request by the FCC.

(e) The following contracts, agreements or understandings need not be filed but shall be kept at the station and made available for inspection upon request by the FCC; subchannel leasing agreements for Subsidiary Communications Authorization operation; franchise/leasing agreements for operation of telecommunications services on the television vertical blanking interval and in the visual signal; time sales contracts with the same sponsor for 4 or more hours per day, except where the length of the events (such as athletic contests, musical programs and special events) broadcast pursuant to the contract is not under control of the station; and contracts with chief operators.

This is a summary of the Commission's document DA 17-400, released April 27, 2017, announcing the Agenda, Date, and Time of the Committee's Next Meeting.

At its May 19, 2017 meeting, it is anticipated that the Committee will consider a recommendation from its Robocalls Working Group regarding the Commission's Notice of Proposed Rulemaking and Notice of Inquiry on unwanted robocalls, released March 23, 2017. It is expected that the Committee will also receive presentations by FCC staff and outside speakers on matters of interest to the Committee. A limited amount of time will be available on the agenda for comments from the public.

If time permits, the public may ask questions of presenters via the email address [email protected] or via Twitter using the hashtag #fcclive. In addition, the public may also follow the meeting on Twitter @fcc or via the Commission's Facebook page at www.facebook.com/fcc. Alternatively, members of the public may send written comments to: Scott Marshall, Designated Federal Officer of the Committee at the address provided below.

The meeting is open to the public, and the site is fully accessible to people using wheelchairs or other mobility aids. Reasonable accommodations for people with disabilities, such as sign language interpreters, open captioning, assistive listening devices, and Braille copies of the agenda are available upon request. The request should include a detailed description of the accommodation needed and contact information. Please provide as much advance notice as possible; last minute requests will be accepted, but may not be possible to fill. To request an accommodation, send an email to [email protected] or call the Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau at 202-418-0530 (voice), 202-418-0432 (TTY).

As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.

OMB Control Number: 3060-1174.

Title: Section 73.503, Licensing requirements and service; Section 73.621, Noncommercial educational TV stations; Section 73.3527, Local public inspection file of noncommercial educational stations.

Form Number: N/A.

Type of Review: Revision of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit entities; Not-for-profit institutions.

Number of Respondents and Responses: 2,200 respondents; 33,000 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 0.5 hours.

Frequency of Response: Recordkeeping requirement; Third party disclosure requirement.

Obligation to Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. The statutory authority which covers these information collections is contained in 47 U.S.C. 151, 154(i), 303, and 399B.

Total Annual Burden: 16,500 hours.

Total Annual Cost: No cost.

Nature and Extent of Confidentiality: Although the Commission does not believe that any confidential information will need to be disclosed in order to comply with the information collection requirements, applicants are free to request that materials or information submitted to the Commission be withheld from public inspection. (See 47 CFR 0.459 of the Commission's Rules).

Privacy Impact Assessment: No impact(s).

Needs and Uses: On April 20, 2017, the Commission adopted a Report and Order in MB Docket No. 12-106, FCC 17-41, In the Matter of Noncommercial Educational Station Fundraising for Third-Party Non-Profit Organizations. Under the Commission's existing rules, a noncommercial educational (NCE) broadcast station may not conduct fundraising activities to benefit any entity besides the station itself if the activities would substantially alter or suspend regular programming. The Report and Order relaxes the rules to allow NCE stations to spend up to one percent of their total annual airtime conducting on-air fundraising activities that interrupt regular programming for the benefit of third-party non-profit organizations. The Report and Order imposes the following information collection requirements on NCE stations:

Audience disclosure: The information collection requirements contained in 47 CFR 73.503(e)(1) requires that a noncommercial educational FM broadcast station that interrupts regular programming to conduct fundraising activities on behalf of third-party non-profit organizations must air a disclosure during such activities clearly stating that the fundraiser is not for the benefit of the station itself and identifying the entity for which it is fundraising. The information collection requirements contained in 47 CFR 73.621(f)(1) requires that a noncommercial educational TV broadcast station that interrupts regular programming to conduct fundraising activities on behalf of third-party non-profit organizations must air a disclosure during such activities clearly stating that the fundraiser is not for the benefit of the station itself and identifying the entity for which it is fundraising. The audience disclosure must be aired at the beginning and the end of each fundraising program and at least once during each hour in which the program is on the air.

Retention of information on fundraising activities in local public inspection file: The information collection requirements contained in 47 CFR 73.3527(e)(14) requires that each noncommercial educational FM broadcast station and noncommercial educational TV broadcast station that interrupts regular programming to conduct fundraising activities on behalf of a third-party non-profit organization must place in its local public inspection file, on a quarterly basis, the following information for each third-party fundraising program or activity: The date, time, and duration of the fundraiser; the type of fundraising activity; the name of the non-profit organization benefitted by the fundraiser; a brief description of the specific cause or project, if any, supported by the fundraiser; and, to the extent that the station participated in tallying or receiving any funds for the non-profit group, an approximation, to the nearest $10,000, of the total funds raised. The information for each calendar quarter is to be filed by the tenth day of the succeeding calendar quarter (e.g., January 10 for the quarter October-December, April 10 for the quarter January-March, etc.).

As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.

OMB Control Number: 3060-0548.

Title: Section 76.1708, Principal Headend; Sections 76.1709 and 76.1620, Availability of Signals; Section 76.56, Signal Carriage Obligations; Section 76.1614, Identification of Must-Carry Signals.

Type of Review: Extension of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit.

Number of Respondents and Responses: 5,100 respondents; 61,200 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 0.5-1 hour.

Frequency of Response: Recordkeeping requirement; Third party disclosure requirement; On occasion reporting requirement.

Obligation to Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. The statutory authority for this collection is contained in in Sections 4(i), 614 and 615 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended.

Total Annual Burden: 30,600 hours.

Total Annual Cost: None.

Privacy Act Impact Assessment: No impact(s).

Nature and Extent of Confidentiality: There is no need for confidentiality with this collection of information.

Needs and Uses: The information collection requirements contained in the collection are covered under the following rule sections:

47 CFR 76.56 requires cable television systems to carry signals of all qualified local Noncommercial Educational (NCE) sting carriage. As a result of this requirement, the following information collection requirements are needed for this collection:

47 CFR 76.1708 requires that the operator of every cable television system shall maintain for public inspection the designation and location of its principal headend. If an operator changes the designation of its principal headend, that new designation must be included in its public file.

47 CFR 76.1709(a) states effective June 17, 1993, the operator of every cable television system shall maintain for public inspection a file containing a list of all broadcast television stations carried by its system in fulfillment of the must-carry requirements pursuant to 47 CFR 76.56. Such list shall include the call sign; community of license, broadcast channel number, cable channel number, and in the case of a noncommercial educational broadcast station, whether that station was carried by the cable system on March 29, 1990.

47 CFR 76.1614 and 1709(c) states that a cable operator shall respond in writing within 30 days to any written request by any person for the identification of the signals carried on its system in fulfillment of the requirements of 47 CFR 76.56.

47 CFR 76.1620 states that if a cable operator authorizes subscribers to install additional receiver connections, but does not provide the subscriber with such connections, or with the equipment and materials for such connections, the operator shall notify such subscribers of all broadcast stations carried on the cable system which cannot be viewed via cable without a converter box and shall offer to sell or lease such a converter box to such subscribers. Such notification must be provided by June 2, 1993, and annually thereafter and to each new subscriber upon initial installation. The notice, which may be included in routine billing statements, shall identify the signals that are unavailable without an additional connection, the manner for obtaining such additional connection and instructions for installation.

OMB Control Number: 3060-0652.

Title: Section 76.309, Customer Service Obligations; Section 76.1602, Customer Service-General Information, Section 76.1603, Customer Service-Rate and Service Changes and Section 76.1619, Information and Subscriber Bills.

Form Number: N/A.

Type of Review: Extension of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit entities; State, Local or Tribal Government.

Number of Respondents and Responses: 8,260 respondents; 1,117,540 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 0.0167 to 1 hour.

Frequency of Response: On occasion reporting requirement; Third party disclosure requirement.

Obligation To Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. The statutory authority for this collection of information is contained in Sections 4(i) and 632 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended.

Total Annual Burden: 50,090 hours.

Total Annual Cost: None.

Privacy Act Impact Assessment: No impact(s).

Nature and Extent of Confidentiality: There is no need for confidentiality with this collection of information.

Needs and Uses: The Commission released on October 14, 2010, a Third Report and Order and Order on Reconsideration, FCC 10-181, CS Docket 97-80 and PP Docket 00-67, modifying the Commission's rules to implement Section 629 of the Communications Act (Section 304 of the Telecommunications Act of 1996). Section 629 of the Communications Act directs the Commission to adopt rules to assure the commercial availability of “navigation devices,” such as cable set-top boxes. One rule modification in the Third Report and Order and Order on Reconsideration is intended to prohibit price discrimination against retail devices. This modification requires cable operators to disclose annually the fees for rental of navigation devices and single and additional CableCARDs as well as the fees reasonably allocable to the rental of single and additional CableCARDs and the rental of operator-supplied navigation devices if those devices are included in the price of a bundled offer.

OMB Control Number: 3060-0750.

Title: 47 CFR 73.671, Educational and Informational Programming for Children; 47 CFR 73.673, Public Information Initiatives Regarding Educational and informational Programming for Children.

Form Number: Not applicable.

Type of Review: Extension of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit entities.

Number of Respondents and Responses: 2,195 respondents; 3,996 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 1 to 5 minutes.

Frequency of Response: Third party disclosure requirement.

Obligation to Respond: Required to obtain benefits. The statutory authority for this collection is contained in Sections 154(i) and 303 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended.

Total Annual Burden: 29,131 hours.

Total Annual Cost: None.

Privacy Act Impact Assessment: No impact(s).

Nature and Extent of Confidentiality: There is no need for confidentiality with this collection of information.

Needs and Uses: The information collection requirements contained in 47 CFR 73.671(c)(5) states that a core educational television program must be identified as specifically designed to educate and inform children by the display on the television screen throughout the program of the symbol E/I.

The information collection requirements contained in 47 CFR 73.673 states each commercial television broadcast station licensee must provide information identifying programming specifically designed to educate and inform children to publishers of program guides. Such information must include an indication of the age group for which the program is intended.

These requirements are intended to provide greater clarity about broadcasters' obligations under the Children's Television Act (CTA) of 1990 to air programming “specifically designed” to serve the educational and informational needs of children and to improve public access to information about the availability of these programs. These requirements provide better information to the public about the shows broadcasters' air to satisfy their obligation to provide educational and informational programming under the CTA.

OMB Control Number: 3060-0849.

Title: Commercial Availability of Navigation Devices.

Form Number: Not applicable.

Type of Review: Extension of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit entities.

Number of Respondents and Responses: 962 respondents; 65,252 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 0.00278 hours-40 hours.

Frequency of Response: Recordkeeping requirement; Third party disclosure requirement; On occasion reporting requirement; Annual reporting requirement; Semi-annual reporting requirement.

Obligation To Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. The statutory authority is contained in Sections 4(i), 303(r) and 629 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended.

Total Annual Burden: 15,921 hours.

Total Annual Cost: $2,990.

Privacy Act Impact Assessment: No impact(s).

Nature and Extent of Confidentiality: There is no need for confidentiality with this collection of information.

Needs and Uses: The information collection requirements contained in the collection are as follows:

47 CFR 15.123(c)(3) states subsequent to the testing of its initial unidirectional digital cable product model, a manufacturer or importer is not required to have other models of unidirectional digital cable products tested at a qualified test facility for compliance with the procedures of Uni-Dir-PICS-I01-030903: “Uni-Directional Receiving Device: Conformance Checklist: PICS Proforma” (incorporated by reference, see § 15.38) unless the first model tested was not a television, in which event the first television shall be tested as provided in § 15.123(c)(1). The manufacturer or importer shall ensure that all subsequent models of unidirectional digital cable products comply with the procedures in the Uni-Dir-PICS-I01-030903: “Uni-Directional Receiving Device: Conformance Checklist: PICS Proforma” (incorporated by reference, see § 15.38) and all other applicable rules and standards. The manufacturer or importer shall maintain records indicating such compliance in accordance with the verification procedure requirements in part 2, subpart J of this chapter. The manufacturer or importer shall further submit documentation verifying compliance with the procedures in the Uni-Dir-PICS-I01-030903: “Uni-Directional Receiving Device: Conformance Checklist: PICS Proforma” (incorporated by reference, see § 15.38) to the testing laboratory representing cable television system operators serving a majority of the cable television subscribers in the United States.

47 CFR 15.123(c)(5)(iii) states subsequent to the successful testing of its initial M-UDCP, a manufacturer or importer is not required to have other M-UDCP models tested at a qualified test facility for compliance with M-Host UNI-DIR-PICS-IOI-061101 (incorporated by reference, see § 15.38) unless the first model tested was not a television, in which event the first television shall be tested as provided in § 15.123(c)(5)(i). The manufacturer or importer shall ensure that all subsequent models of M-UDCPs comply with M-Host UNI-DIR-PICS-IOI-061101 (incorporated by reference, see § 15.38) and all other applicable rules and standards. The manufacturer or importer shall maintain records indicating such compliance in accordance with the verification procedure requirements in part 2, subpart J of this chapter. For each M-UDCP model, the manufacturer or importer shall further submit documentation verifying compliance with M-Host UNI-DIR-PICS-IOI-061101 to the testing laboratory representing cable television system operators serving a majority of the cable television subscribers in the United States.

47 CFR 76.1203 provides that a multichannel video programming distributor may restrict the attachment or use of navigation devices with its system in those circumstances where electronic or physical harm would be caused by the attachment or operation of such devices or such devices that assist or are intended or designed to assist in the unauthorized receipt of service. Such restrictions may be accomplished by publishing and providing to subscribers standards and descriptions of devices that may not be used with or attached to its system. Such standards shall foreclose the attachment or use only of such devices as raise reasonable and legitimate concerns of electronic or physical harm or theft of service.

47 CFR 76.1205(a) states that technical information concerning interface parameters which are needed to permit navigation devices to operate with multichannel video programming systems shall be provided by the system operator upon request.

47 CFR 76.1205(b)(1) states a multichannel video programming provider that is subject to the requirements of Section 76.1204(a)(1) must provide the means to allow subscribers to self-install the CableCARD in a CableCARD-reliant device purchased at retail and inform a subscriber of this option when the subscriber requests a CableCARD. This requirement shall be effective August 1, 2011, if the MVPD allows its subscribers to self-install any cable modems or operator-leased set-top boxes and November 1, 2011 if the MVPD does not allow its subscribers to self-install any cable modems or operator-leased set-top boxes.

47 CFR 76.1205(b)(1)(A) states that this requirement shall not apply to cases in which neither the manufacturer nor the vendor of the CableCARD-reliant device furnishes to purchasers appropriate instructions for self-installation of a CableCARD, and a manned toll-free telephone number to answer consumer questions regarding CableCARD installation but only for so long as such instructions are not furnished and the call center is not offered.

The requirements contained in Section 76.1205 are intended to ensure that consumers are able to install CableCARDs in the devices they purchase because we have determined this is essential to a functioning retail market.

47 CFR 76.1205(b)(2) states effective August 1, 2011, provide multi-stream CableCARDs to subscribers, unless the subscriber requests a single-stream CableCARD. This requirement will ensure that consumers have access to CableCARDs that are compatible with their retail devices, and can request such devices from their cable operators.

47 CFR 76.1205(b)(5) requires to separately disclose to consumers in a conspicuous manner with written information provided to customers in accordance with Section 76.1602, with written or oral information at consumer request, and on Web sites or billing inserts. This requirement is intended to ensure that consumers understand that retail options are available and that cable operators are not subsidizing their own devices with service fees in violation of Section 629 of the Act.

47 CFR 76.1207 states that the Commission may waive a regulation related to Subpart P (“Competitive Availability of Navigation Devices”) for a limited time, upon an appropriate showing by a provider of multichannel video programming and other services offered over multichannel video programming systems, or an equipment provider that such a waiver is necessary to assist the development or introduction of a new or improved multichannel video programming or other service offered over multichannel video programming systems, technology, or products. Such waiver requests are to be made pursuant to 47 CFR 76.7.

47 CFR 76.1208 states that any interested party may file a petition to the Commission for a determination to provide for a sunset of the navigation devices regulations on the basis that (1) the market for multichannel video distributors is fully competitive; (2) the market for converter boxes, and interactive communications equipment, used in conjunction with that service is fully competitive; and (3) elimination of the regulations would promote competition and the public interest.

47 CFR 15.118(a) and 47 CFR 15.19(d) (label and information disclosure)—The U.S. Bureau of the Census reports that, at the end of 2002, there were 571 U.S. establishments that manufacture audio and visual equipment. These manufacturers already have in place mechanisms for labeling equipment and including consumer disclosures in the form of owners' manuals and brochures in equipment packaging. The Commission estimate that manufacturers who voluntarily decide to label their equipment will need no more than 5 hours to develop a label or to develop wording for a consumer disclosure for owners' manuals/brochures to be included with the device. Once developed, we do not anticipate any ongoing burden associated with the revision/modification of the label, if used, or the disclosure.

Status Reports—Periodic reports are required from large cable multiple system operators detailing CableCARD deployment/support for navigation devices. (This requirement is specified in FCC 05-76, CS Docket No. 97-80).

OMB Control No.: 3060-0967.

Title: Section 79.2, Accessibility of Programming Providing Emergency Information, and Emergency Information; Section 79.105, Video Description and Emergency Information Accessibility Requirements for All Apparatus; Section 79.106, Video Description and Emergency Information Accessibility Requirements for Recording Devices.

Form No.: N/A.

Type of Review: Extension of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Individuals or households; Business or other for-profit; Not-for-profit institutions; and State, local, or tribal governments.

Number of Respondents and Responses: 61 respondents; 161 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 0.5 to 5 hours.

Frequency of Response: On occasion reporting requirement; Third party disclosure requirement.

Obligation To Respond: Voluntary. The statutory authority for the collection is contained in the Twenty-First Century Communications and Video Accessibility Act of 2010, Public Law 111-260, 124 Stat. 2751, and sections 4(i), 4(j), 303, 330(b), 713, and 716 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 154(i), 154(j), 303, 330(b), 613, and 617.

Total Annual Burden: 175 hours.

Annual Cost Burden: $15,300.

Nature and Extent of Confidentiality: Confidentiality is an issue to the extent that individuals and households provide personally identifiable information, which is covered under the FCC's updated system of records notice (SORN), FCC/CGB-1, “Informal Complaints, Inquiries, and Requests for Dispute Assistance,” which became effective on September 24, 2014. The Commission believes that it provides sufficient safeguards to protect the privacy of individuals who file complaints alleging violations of the Commission's televised emergency information rules, 47 CFR 79.2, and complaints alleging violations of the apparatus emergency information and video description requirements, 47 CFR 79.105-79.106.

Privacy Act Impact Assessment: The Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) for Informal Complaints, Inquiries, and Requests for Dispute Assistance was completed on June 28, 2007. It may be reviewed at http://www.fcc.gov/omd/privacyact/Privacy-Impact-Assessment.html. The Commission is in the process of updating the PIA to incorporate various revisions to it as a result of revisions to the SORN.

Needs and Uses: In 2000, the Commission adopted rules to require video programming distributors (VPDs) to make emergency information provided in the audio portion of the programming accessible to viewers who have hearing disabilities. Second Report and Order, MM Docket No. 95-176, FCC 00-136. Later that year, to ensure that televised emergency information is accessible to viewers who are blind or visually impaired, the Commission modified its rules to require VPDs to make emergency information audible when provided in the video portion of a regularly scheduled newscast or a newscast that interrupts regular programming, and to provide an aural tone when emergency information is provided visually during regular programming (e.g., through screen crawls or scrolls). Report and Order, MM Docket No. 99-339, FCC 00-258.

In 2013, the Commission adopted rules related to accessible emergency information and apparatus requirements for emergency information and video description. Report and Order and Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, MB Docket Nos. 12-107 and 11-43, FCC 13-45. Specifically, the Commission's rules require that VPDs and video programming providers (VPPs) (including program owners) make emergency information accessible to individuals who are blind or visually impaired by using a secondary audio stream to convey televised emergency information aurally, when such information is conveyed visually during programming other than newscasts. The Commission's rules also require certain apparatus that receive, play back, or record video programming to make available video description services and accessible emergency information.

Finally, in 2015, the Commission adopted rules to require the following: (1) Apparatus manufacturers must provide a mechanism that is simple and easy to use for activating the secondary audio stream to access audible emergency information; and (2) starting no later than July 10, 2017, multichannel video programming distributors (MVPDs) must pass through the secondary audio stream containing audible emergency information when it is provided on linear programming accessed on second screen devices (e.g., tablets, smartphones, laptops and similar devices) over their networks as part of their MVPD services. Second Report and Order and Second Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, MB Docket No. 12-107, FCC 15-56.

These rules are codified at 47 CFR 79.2, 79.105, and 79.106.

(a) Complaints alleging violations of the emergency information rules.

Section 79.2(c) of the Commission's rules provides that a complaint alleging a violation of § 79.2 of its rules, may be transmitted to the Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau by any reasonable means, such as the Commission's online informal complaint filing system, letter, facsimile transmission, telephone (voice/TRS/TTY), Internet email, audio-cassette recording, Braille, or some other method that would best accommodate the complainant's disability. After the Commission receives the complaint, the Commission notifies the VPD or VPP of the complaint, and the VPD or VPP has 30 days to reply.

(b) Complaints alleging violations of the apparatus emergency information and video description requirements.

Complaints alleging violations of the rules containing apparatus emergency information and video description requirements, 47 CFR 79.105-79.106, may be transmitted to the Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau by any reasonable means, such as the Commission's online informal complaint filing system, letter in writing or Braille, facsimile transmission, telephone (voice/TRS/TTY), email, or some other method that would best accommodate the complainant's disability. Given that the population intended to benefit from the rules adopted will be blind or visually impaired, if a complainant calls the Commission for assistance in preparing a complaint, Commission staff will document the complaint in writing for the consumer. The Commission will forward such complaints, as appropriate, to the named manufacturer or provider for its response, as well as to any other entity that Commission staff determines may be involved, and may request additional information from any relevant parties when, in the estimation of Commission staff, such information is needed to investigate the complaint or adjudicate potential violations of Commission rules.

(c) Requests for Commission determination of technical feasibility of emergency information and video description apparatus requirements.

The requirements pertaining to apparatus designed to receive or play back video programming apply only to the extent they are “technically feasible.” Parties may raise technical infeasibility as a defense when faced with a complaint alleging a violation of the apparatus requirements or they may file a request for a ruling under section1.41 of the Commission's rules as to technical infeasibility before manufacturing or importing the product.

(d) Requests for Commission determination of achievability of emergency information and video description apparatus requirements.

The requirements pertaining to certain apparatus designed to receive, play back, or record video programming apply only to the extent they are achievable. Manufacturers of apparatus that use a picture screen of less than 13 inches in size and of recording devices may petition the Commission, pursuant to 47 CFR 1.41, for a full or partial exemption from the video description and emergency information requirements before manufacturing or importing the apparatus. Alternatively, manufacturers may assert that a particular apparatus is fully or partially exempt as a response to a complaint, which the Commission may dismiss upon a finding that the requirements of this section are not achievable. A petition for exemption or a response to a complaint must be supported with sufficient evidence to demonstrate that compliance with the requirements is not achievable (meaning with reasonable effort or expense), and the Commission will consider four specific factors when making such a determination.

(e) Petitions for purpose-based waivers of emergency information and video description apparatus requirements.

The Commission may waive emergency information and video description apparatus requirements for any apparatus or class of apparatus that is (a) primarily designed for activities other than receiving or playing back video programming transmitted simultaneously with sound, or (b) designed for multiple purposes, capable of receiving or playing video programming transmitted simultaneously with sound but whose essential utility is derived from other purposes. The Commission will address any requests for a purpose-based waiver on a case-by-case basis, and waivers will be available prospectively for manufacturers seeking certainty prior to the sale of a device.

(f) Submission and review of consumer eligibility information pertaining to DIRECTV, LLC's (DIRECTV's) waiver for provision of aural emergency information during The Weather Channel's programming.

The Commission granted DIRECTV a waiver with respect to the set-top box models on which it is not able to implement audio functionality for emergency information, but conditioned such relief by requiring DIRECTV to provide, upon request and at no additional cost to customers who are blind or visually impaired, a set-top box model that is capable of providing aural emergency information. DIRECTV may require customers who are blind or visually impaired to submit reasonable documentation of disability to DIRECTV as a condition to providing the box at no additional cost.

OMB Control No.: 3060-0994.

Title: Flexibility for Delivery of Communications by Mobile Satellite Service Providers in the 2 GHz Band, the L Band, and the 1.6/2.4 GHz Band.

Form No.: Not Applicable.

Type of Review: Revision of a currently approved information collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit entities.

Number of Respondents: 126 respondents; 126 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 0.50-50 hours per response.

Frequency of Response: On occasion, one time and annual reporting requirements, third-party disclosure and recordkeeping requirements.

Obligation To Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. The statutory authority for this collection is contained in Sections 4(i), 7, 302, 303(c), 303(e), 303(f) and 303(r) of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended; 47 U.S.C. 154(i), 157, 302, 303(c), 303(e), 303(f) and 303(r).

Total Annual Burden: 520 hours.

Annual Cost Burden: $530,340.

Privacy Act Impact Assessment: No impact(s).

Nature and Extent of Confidentiality: In general, there is no need for confidentiality with this collection of information.

Needs and Uses: This collection will be submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) as a revision following the 60-day comment period in order to obtain the full three-year clearance from OMB.

On December 23, 2016, the Commission released a Report and Order in IB Docket No. 13-213, FCC 16-181, titled “Terrestrial Use of the 2473-2495 MHz Band for Low-Power Mobile Broadband Networks; Amendments to Rules for the Ancillary Terrestrial Component (ATC) of Mobile Satellite Service Systems.” The revisions to 47 CFR part 25 adopted in the Report and Order remove a portion of the information collection requirements as it relates to a newly proposed low power broadband network, as described in document FCC 16-181. These revisions enable ATC licensees to operate low-power ATC using licensed spectrum in the 2483.5-2495 MHz band. Although the original low-power ATC proposal described the use of the adjacent 2473-2483.5 MHz band, low-power terrestrial operations at 2473-2483.5 MHz were not authorized by the Report and Order. The revisions provide an exception for low-power ATC from the requirements contained in section 25.149(b) of the Commission's rules, which require detailed showings concerning satellite system coverage and replacement satellites. The revisions also provide an exception from a rule requiring integrated service, which generally requires that service handsets be capable of communication with both satellites and terrestrial base stations. Accordingly, the provider of low-power ATC would be relieved from certain burdens that are currently in place in the existing information collection. To qualify for authority to deploy a low-power terrestrial network in the 2483.5-2495 MHz band, an ATC licensee would need to certify that it will utilize a Network Operating System to manage its terrestrial low-power network. Although the Report and Order also created new technical requirements for equipment designed to communicate with a low-power ATC network, satisfaction of these technical requirements relieves ATC licensees from meeting other technical requirements that apply to ATC systems generally. We also had a revision to this information collection to reflect the elimination of the elements of this information collection for 2 GHz MSS. See 78 FR 48621-22.

The purposes of the existing information collection are to obtain information necessary for licensing operators of Mobile-Satellite Service (MSS) networks to provide ancillary services in the U.S. via terrestrial base stations (Ancillary Terrestrial Components, or ATCs); obtain the legal and technical information required to facilitate the integration of ATCs into MSS networks in the L-Band and the 1.6/2.4 GHz Bands; and to ensure that ATC licensees meet the Commission's legal and technical requirements to develop and maintain their MSS networks and operate their ATC systems without causing harmful interference to other radio systems.

Pursuant to Section 6(f) of the Federal Trade Commission Act, 15 U.S.C. 46(f), and FTC Rule 2.34, 16 CFR 2.34, notice is hereby given that the above-captioned consent agreement containing consent order to cease and desist, having been filed with and accepted, subject to final approval, by the Commission, has been placed on the public record for a period of thirty (30) days. The following Analysis to Aid Public Comment describes the terms of the consent agreement, and the allegations in the complaint. An electronic copy of the full text of the consent agreement package can be obtained from the FTC Home Page (for April 28, 2017), on the World Wide Web, at http://www.ftc.gov/os/actions.shtm.

You can file a comment online or on paper. For the Commission to consider your comment, we must receive it on or before May 30, 2017. Write “In the Matter of Emerson Electric Co. and Pentair plc, File No. 161 0221” on your comment. Your comment—including your name and your state—will be placed on the public record of this proceeding, including, to the extent practicable, on the public Commission Web site, at https://www.ftc.gov/policy/public-comments. As a matter of discretion, the Commission tries to remove individuals' home contact information from comments before placing them on the Commission Web site.

Postal mail addressed to the Commission is subject to delay due to heightened security screening. As a result, we encourage you to submit your comments online. To make sure that the Commission considers your online comment, you must file it at https://ftcpublic.commentworks.com/ftc/emersonelectricconsent by following the instructions on the web-based form. If this Notice appears at http://www.regulations.gov/#!home, you also may file a comment through that Web site.

If you file your comment on paper, write “In the Matter of Emerson Electric Co. and Pentair plc, File No. 161 0221” on your comment and on the envelope, and mail it to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite CC-5610 (Annex D), Washington, DC 20580, or deliver your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, Constitution Center, 400 7th Street SW., 5th Floor, Suite 5610 (Annex D), Washington, DC. If possible, submit your paper comment to the Commission by courier or overnight service.

Because your comment will be placed on the publicly accessible FTC Web site at www.ftc.gov, you are solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive or confidential information. In particular, your comment should not include any sensitive personal information, such as your or anyone else's Social Security number; date of birth; driver's license number or other state identification number, or foreign country equivalent; passport number; financial account number; or credit or debit card number. You are also solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive health information, such as medical records or other individually identifiable health information. In addition, your comment should not include any “trade secret or any commercial or financial information which . . . is privileged or confidential”—as provided by Section 6(f) of the FTC Act, 15 U.S.C. 46(f), and FTC Rule 4.10(a)(2), 16 CFR 4.10(a)(2)—including in particular competitively sensitive information such as costs, sales statistics, inventories, formulas, patterns, devices, manufacturing processes, or customer names.

Once your comment has been posted on the public FTC Web site—as legally required by FTC Rule 4.9(b)—we cannot redact or remove your comment from the FTC Web site, unless you submit a confidentiality request that meets the requirements for such treatment under FTC Rule 4.9(c), and the General Counsel grants that request in accordance with the law and the public interest. Comments containing material for which confidential treatment is requested must be filed in paper form, must be clearly labeled “Confidential,” and must comply with FTC Rule 4.9(c). In particular, the written request for confidential treatment that accompanies the comment must include the factual and legal basis for the request, and must identify the specific portions of the comment to be withheld from the public record. See FTC Rule 4.9(c).

Visit the Commission Web site at http://www.ftc.gov to read this Notice and the news release describing it. The FTC Act and other laws that the Commission administers permit the collection of public comments to consider and use in this proceeding as appropriate. The Commission will consider all timely and responsive public comments that it receives on or before May 30, 2017. You can find more information, including routine uses permitted by the Privacy Act, in the Commission's privacy policy, at https://www.ftc.gov/site-information/privacy-policy.

The Federal Trade Commission (“Commission”) has accepted, subject to final approval, an Agreement Containing Consent Orders (“Consent Agreement”) from Emerson Electric Co. (“Emerson”) and Pentair plc (“Pentair”) (collectively, the “Respondents”) that is designed to remedy the anticompetitive effects that would likely result from Emerson's proposed acquisition of Pentair's valves and controls business.

Pursuant to a Share Purchase Agreement, dated as of August 18, 2016, Emerson proposes to acquire the equity interests of certain subsidiaries of Pentair in exchange for cash considerations of approximately $3.15 billion (the “Acquisition”). The proposed Acquisition would combine the two largest suppliers of switchboxes, which are industrial valve control products, in the United States. The Commission's Complaint alleges that the proposed Acquisition, if consummated, would violate Section 7 of the Clayton Act, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 18, and Section 5 of the Federal Trade Commission Act, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 45, by substantially lessening competition in the United States market for switchboxes.

The proposed Decision and Order (“Order”) requires Emerson to divest Pentair's switchbox manufacturer subsidiary, Westlock Controls Corporation (“Westlock”), to Crane Co. (“Crane”) no later than ten days after the Acquisition is consummated. The divestiture requires Emerson to transfer to Crane all of the facilities, personnel, confidential information, and intellectual property associated with the design, manufacture, and sale of Westlock's products, which will allow Crane to effectively compete in the switchbox market.

The Commission has placed the Consent Agreement on the public record for 30 days to solicit comments from interested persons. Comments received during this period will become part of the public record. After 30 days, the Commission will again review the Consent Agreement, along with any comments received, and decide whether it should withdraw from the Consent Agreement, modify it, or make the Order final.

Emerson, headquartered in St. Louis, Missouri, is a diversified global manufacturing company that provides a variety of products and services for the industrial, commercial, and consumer markets. Through its Automated Solutions segment, Emerson is a leading manufacturer of industrial equipment and instrumentation, including valves, actuators, regulators, and switchboxes, which it sells to customers in, among others, the oil and gas, refining, chemical, and power generation industries.

Pentair, headquartered in London, United Kingdom, with a main U.S. office located in Minneapolis, Minnesota, is a global water, fluid, thermal management, and equipment protection company. The Pentair Valves & Controls business manufactures valves, fittings, actuators, and controls, including switchboxes, for a broad array of industrial markets.

The relevant product market at issue in this transaction is switchboxes. Switchboxes are devices that monitor and control isolation (or “on/off”) valves, which control the flow of liquids or gases through pipes in industrial applications, including the oil and gas, chemical, petrochemical, and power generation industries. Switchboxes consist of a hard outer case, which often is made of explosion-proof material, containing switches and other electrical components that detect the position of a valve—that is, whether it is open or closed—and communicate that position via a visual display and/or digital signals to the facility's workers and control room. Switchboxes are ancillary components that are typically bundled together with a valve, an actuator (a device that physically opens and closes a valve), and other control products into an “automated” isolation valve, which can open and close automatically without manual intervention. Because switchboxes perform a unique and essential role in the efficient and safe operation of industrial plants and facilities, there currently are no practical alternatives to switchboxes.

The United States is the relevant geographic market in which to assess the competitive effects of the Acquisition. The United States operates distinctly compared to international markets. Unlike international markets, the domestic market relies heavily on distributors, so competition takes place at both the distributor and customer level. Moreover, customers in the United States have distinct brand preferences for leading switchbox brands. Because switchboxes are frequently used under hazardous conditions in which safety is critical, brand reputation and product reliability are very important to customers. As a result, U.S. customers are unlikely to turn to brands that are not well established in the United States in response to a small but significant non-transitory increase in price.

Pentair's “Westlock” and Emerson's “TopWorx” switchbox businesses are the two largest suppliers of switchboxes in the United States, with a combined market share of approximately 60%. Other than Westlock and TopWorx, there are few suppliers with appreciable market shares. Each of these suppliers has substantially smaller market shares than either Westlock or TopWorx. In addition, there is a fringe of small manufacturers with very small market shares. The switchboxes produced by these smaller suppliers are not widely accepted by customers in the United States. The Acquisition would substantially increase concentration levels in the U.S. switchbox market and would result in a highly concentrated market. Under the Horizontal Merger Guidelines, the increase in concentration would presumptively create or enhance market power.

Absent a divestiture, the proposed Acquisition would likely harm competition in the U.S. switchbox market. Emerson and Pentair are each other's closest competitors in this market, and customers benefit from that competition through lower prices and increased product innovation. TopWorx and Westlock are the most widely used and highly regarded brands of switchboxes in the United States and, for many customers, are the only acceptable brands of switchboxes. By eliminating competition between Emerson and Pentair, the Acquisition likely would produce unilateral effects in the form of higher prices and reduced innovation.

Entry into the U.S. market for switchboxes would not be timely, likely, or sufficient in to deter or counteract the anticompetitive effects of the Acquisition. The competitive strength of TopWorx and Westlock largely reflects their brand reputation for reliability and durability, which could not be quickly replicated by a new entrant. In addition, customers will typically only purchase switchboxes from approved suppliers and are reluctant to consider unproven manufacturers. This is because customers place a premium on safety, and product failure could cause costly and potentially dangerous disruption to critical applications. Any new entrant would need to not only undertake a lengthy and costly process of new product development, but would also need to undergo rigorous vetting, testing, and approval to become viable alternatives for many customers. Given the difficulty in overcoming these obstacles, it is unlikely that a new entrant or existing lower-tier competitor could effectively restore the competition lost through this Acquisition.

The proposed Consent Agreement remedies the competitive concerns raised by the Acquisition by requiring Emerson to divest Pentair's Westlock subsidiary to Crane, a publicly traded manufacturer of highly engineered industrial products, including industrial valves. The proposed divestiture includes everything needed for Crane to compete effectively in the U.S. market for switchboxes.

Crane, headquartered in Stamford, Connecticut, is a 162-year-old company with a long history as a significant competitor in the U.S. industrial valves market, providing it with the industry experience and expertise necessary to replace the competition that would be lost due to the Acquisition. Crane's portfolio of valves complements the switchbox and other valve control products that Westlock manufactures, but Crane does not sell any products that compete with Westlock. Crane has a substantial U.S. infrastructure and customer base, including many of the same customers as Westlock, and pre-existing relationships with many of Westlock's distributors. Crane is thus well positioned to acquire and integrate Westlock and maintain the benefits of competition in this market.

Under the terms of the Order, Emerson must divest all of Westlock's businesses and assets to Crane, including Westlock's manufacturing facility located in Saddle Brook, New Jersey, and all of the confidential information and intellectual property related to Westlock's product portfolio. Emerson must also allow Crane to have access to and hire any Westlock employees who were engaged in the research, development, manufacturing, marketing, or sales of Westlock's products. In order to ensure that the divestiture will succeed, the Order requires the Respondents to enter into a one-year transitional services agreement with Crane for certain functions that Pentair performed for Westlock (such as accounts receivable, tax, legal, payroll, benefits, and other related functions). In order to preserve competition with Emerson, the Order requires Emerson to institute procedures that protect sensitive non-public information regarding Westlock's business from the Emerson business people in competing lines of business. It also restricts Emerson from instituting patent infringement suits against Crane for the Westlock switchbox product lines that are currently being marketed or in development.

The Respondents must complete the divestiture no later than ten days after the consummation of the Acquisition. If the Commission determines that Crane is not an acceptable acquirer, the Order requires the Respondents to unwind the sale and accomplish a divestiture of Westlock to another Commission-approved acquirer within 180 days of the date the Order becomes final. Further, the Order allows the Commission to appoint a monitor to ensure that the Respondents expeditiously comply with their obligations under the Order and a Divestiture Trustee to accomplish the divestiture should the Respondents fail to comply with their divestiture obligations.

The purpose of this analysis is to facilitate public comment on the Consent Agreement to aid the Commission in determining whether it should make the Consent Agreement final. This analysis is not intended to constitute an official interpretation of the proposed Consent Agreement and does not modify its terms in any way.

Proposed Project The Re-Engineered Visit for Primary Care (AHRQ REV)

In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3521, AHRQ invites the public to comment on this proposed information collection. This project, The Re-engineered Visit for Primary Care (AHRQ REV), directly addresses the agency's goal to conduct research to enhance the quality of health care and reduce avoidable readmissions, which are a major indicator of poor quality and patient safety.

Research from AHRQ's Healthcare Cost and Utilization Project (HCUP) indicates that in 2011 there were approximately 3.3 million adult hospital readmissions in the United States. Adults covered by Medicare have the highest readmission rate (17.2 per 100 admissions), followed by adults covered by Medicaid (14.6 per 100 admissions) and privately insured adults (8.7 per 100 admissions). High rates of readmissions are a major patient safety problem and are associated with a range of adverse events, such as prescribing errors and misdiagnoses of conditions in the hospital and ambulatory care settings. Collectively these readmissions are associated with $41.3 billion in annual hospital costs, many of which potentially could be avoided.

In recent years, payer and provider efforts to reduce readmissions have proliferated. Many of these national programs have been informed or guided by evidence-based research, toolkits and guides, such as AHRQ's RED (Re-Engineered Discharge), STAAR (STate Action on Avoidable Readmission), AHRQ's Project BOOST (Better Outcomes by Optimizing Safe Transitions), the Hospital Guide to Reducing Medicaid Readmissions, and Eric Coleman's Care Transitions Intervention. These efforts have largely focused on enhancing practices occurring within the hospital setting, including the discharge process transitions among providers and between settings of care. While many of these efforts have recognized the critical role of primary care in managing care transitions, they have not had an explicit focus on enhancing primary care with the aim of reducing avoidable readmissions.

Evidence-based guidance to reduce readmissions and improve patient safety are comparatively lacking for the primary care setting. This gap in the literature is becoming more pronounced as primary care is increasingly serving as the key integrator across the health system as part of payment and delivery system reforms. This research project aims to address the important and unfulfilled need to improve patient safety and reduce avoidable readmissions within the primary care context.

AHRQ's goals in supporting this 30-month project are to build on the knowledge base from the inpatient settings, add to the expanding evidence base on preventing readmissions by focusing on the primary care setting, and provide insight on the components and themes that should be part of a re-engineered visit in primary care. This work will ultimately inform an effective intervention that can be tested in a diverse set of primary care clinics.

To meet AHRQ's goals and objectives, the agency awarded a task order to John Snow, Inc. (JSI) to conduct qualitative research using quality improvement to investigate the primary care-based transitional care workflow from the primary care staff, patient, and community agency perspective.

This research has the following goals:

1. Analyze current processes in the primary care visit associated with hospital discharge; and

2. Identify components of the re-engineered visit.

This study is being conducted by AHRQ through its contractor pursuant to AHRQ's statutory authority to conduct and support research on health care and on systems for the delivery of such care, including activities with respect to the quality, effectiveness, efficiency, appropriateness and vale of health care services and with respect to quality measurement and improvement. 42 U.S.C 299a(a)(1) and (2).

To analyze current processes in the primary care visit associated with hospital discharge, the data collection is separated into seven smaller data collection activities to minimize research participant burden while still allowing for the collection of necessary data. Each of these tasks will be conducted at nine primary care sites:

1. Primary care site organizational characteristics survey: The purpose of this background information on the primary care site's organizational characteristics is to offer context for the work flow mapping. It will help make the work flow mapping process more efficient and reduce burden by only requesting information that is already known by each site contact. One person per primary care site will be engaged for this task.

2. Primary care site patient characteristics survey: The purpose of this background information on the primary care site's patients is to offer context for the work flow mapping. It will help make the work flow mapping process more efficient and reduce burden by only requesting information that is already known in the primary care practices' billing or clinical information systems. One person per primary care site will be engaged for this task.

3. Work flow mapping preliminary interviews: The purpose of this flow mapping “pre-work” is to engage individual primary care staff members to think about the current work flow map in order to set a foundation for the actual work flow mapping process. It is anticipated that eight individuals per primary care site will participate, for a total of 72 participants.

4. Work flow mapping: This collection will take place in a group meeting that brings together staff from various role types to collaborate in identifying their workflow processes involved in planning for and executing post-hospital follow up services for their patients. Based on feasibility, these may be smaller or larger group meetings, but the total burden on each role type participant is the same. The end goal of this meeting is to have enough information to develop an initial process flow map on paper. It is anticipated that 10 individuals per primary care site will participate, for a total of 90 participants.

5. Work flow mapping follow-up interviews: Once the initial process flow map is on paper, each role type will be asked to review to correct, add, or confirm detail to the document. Once the flow map has been edited and ratified by the primary care site staff, each role type will be asked specific questions regarding the flaws identified in the process flow for the failure mode effects analysis. It is anticipated that eight individuals per primary care site will participate, for a total of 72 participants.

6. Patient interviews: As a complement to the work flow mapping, there will also be a process flow map developed from the patient's perspective. The purpose of the patient interviews is to capture patient perspectives on potential breakdowns in making the transition from the hospital to care in the primary care settings and to get, in their own words, information about the initial hospitalization and barriers to accessing follow-up care. One of the widely acknowledged limitations of the existing evidence based toolkits is that they are not designed with input from patients.

This has occurred despite the fact that clinical experience suggests that providers often fail to identify patient needs and concerns. Research has shown that there are cultural, social, and behavioral factors that may contribute to readmissions and assessing the patient's perspective can help to better understand the barriers to receiving appropriate follow-up care.

Patient and family interviews are increasingly common practices in efforts to improve care transitions and reduce readmissions, endorsed by CMS, the Institute for Healthcare Improvement, Kaiser Permanente, and others. This patient interview will collect unique information on the barriers to effective care transitions in the post-discharge period care, information which cannot be collected in other ways. It is anticipated that ten post-discharge patients per primary care site will be interviewed for a total of 90 patients.

7. Community agency interviews: As a complement to the work flow mapping, the process flow map developed will reflect the perspective of community agencies affiliated with the primary care sites to assist patients. It is anticipated that five community agency representatives per primary care site will be interviewed.

The purpose of this data collection is to understand the key components that should be included in the re-engineered visit in primary care. The project team will examine the diverse settings, staff, and transitional care activities across a variety of primary care practices to identify key transitional care processes that impact patient outcomes, the challenges to implementing those processes, and ways to improve those processes.

The project team will distill the themes and principles that should be a part of the re-engineered visit and develop an outline and summary of its components, with a comparison/contrast of the components across sites and discussion of the generalizability of these components to different settings.

The results of this research will add to the expanding evidence base on preventing readmissions by focusing on the primary care setting, and provide insight on the components and themes that should be part of a re-engineered visit. This information will ultimately inform an effective intervention that can be tested in a diverse set of primary care clinics.

Exhibit 1 shows the estimated burden hours to the respondents for providing all of the data needed to meet the project's objectives. The hours estimated per responses are based on the pilot project results.

For the primary care site organizational characteristics survey and patient characteristics survey, one person per each of the nine primary care sites will participate. Both surveys are anticipated to take 1.5 hours to complete.

For the work flow mapping preliminary interviews, we estimate that eight primary care staff per primary care site will participate, with each individual spending 0.5 hours in these interviews.

For the work flow mapping group interview, we estimate that 10 primary care staff per primary care site will participate, with each individual spending 1.5 hours in these interviews. Finally, we estimate that eight primary care staff per primary care site will participate in the work flow mapping follow-up interviews, with each individual spending 0.5 hours in this data collection activity.

There will be 10 patients interviewed in association with each primary care site. These patient interviews are expected to take 0.5 hours per individual research participant.

Lastly, there will be five community agency staff members interviewed in association with each primary care site. These interviews are expected to take 1 hour per individual research participant.

Exhibit 2 shows the estimated cost burden for the respondents' time to participate in the project. The total annualized cost burden is estimated at $11,500.30.

In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, comments on AHRQ's information collection are requested with regard to any of the following: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of AHRQ health care research and health care information dissemination functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of AHRQ's estimate of burden (including hours and costs) of the proposed collection(s) of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information upon the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the Agency's subsequent request for OMB approval of the proposed information collection. All comments will become a matter of public record.

For the remainder of the public comment period through May 12, 2017, the proposed information collection entitled the National Survey of Older Americans Act Participants 2017 Draft can be found at: https://acl.gov/NewsRoom/Index.aspx.

For the remainder of the public comment period through May 5, 2017, the proposed revision to the Centers for Independent Living Program Performance Report (CIL PPR) can be found at: https://acl.gov/NewsRoom/Index.aspx.

Correction

For the remainder of the public comment period through May 26, 2017, the proposed Protection and or Traumatic Brain Injury (PATBI) Program Performance Report (PPR) form can be found at: https://acl.gov/NewsRoom/Index.aspx.

For the remainder of the public comment period through May 26, 2017, the proposed Funding Opportunity Announcement and Grant Application Template for ACL Discretionary Grant Programs can be found at: https://acl.gov/NewsRoom/Index.aspx.

In accordance with the statutory requirement under 42 U.S.C. 254f-1(d), HRSA has determined that a minimum HPSA score of 17 for assignment of all service-ready NHSC scholars enables identification of a number of entities eligible for NHSC scholar placement that is at least equal to, but not greater than, twice the number of NHSC scholars available to serve in the 2017-2018 placement cycle. More specifically, for the program year October 1, 2017, through September 30, 2018, HPSAs of greatest shortage for determination of priority for assignment of NHSC Scholarship-obligated Corps personnel is defined as follows: (1) Primary medical care HPSAs with scores of 17 and above are authorized for the assignment of NHSC scholars who are primary care physicians, family nurse practitioners, physician assistants, or certified nurse midwives; (2) mental health HPSAs with scores of 17 and above are authorized for the assignment of NHSC scholars who are psychiatrists or mental health nurse practitioners; and (3) dental HPSAs with scores of 17 and above are authorized for the assignment of NHSC scholars who are dentists.

The proposed listing of entities and associated HPSA scores that will receive priority for assignment of NHSC Scholarship recipients available for service during the period October 1, 2017, through September 30, 2018, is posted on the Health Workforce Connector Web site (formerly known as the NHSC Jobs Center) at https://connector.hrsa.gov/. Entities interested in providing additional data and information in support of their inclusion on this list of entities or in support of a higher priority determination must do so in writing by the date above.

Please note that HRSA may update the list of HPSAs and entities eligible to receive priority for the placement of NHSC scholars and may remove or add entities to the Health Workforce Connector during the annual Site Application competition. Accordingly, entities that no longer meet eligibility criteria, including those sites whose 3-year approval as an NHSC service site has lapsed or whose HPSA designation has been withdrawn or proposed for withdrawal, will be removed from the priority listing.

Sites wishing to request an additional scholar must complete an Additional Scholar Request form available at http://nhsc.hrsa.gov/downloads/additionalrequestform.pdf. NHSC-approved sites that do not meet the authorized threshold HPSA score of 17 may post job openings on the Health Workforce Connector; however, scholars seeking placement between October 1, 2017, and September 30, 2018, will be advised that they can only apply for open positions at sites that meet the threshold placement HPSA score of 17. While not eligible for scholar placements in the 2017-2018 cycle, vacancies in HPSAs scoring less than 17 will be used by the NHSC in evaluating the HPSA threshold score for the next annual scholarship placement cycle.

The program is not subject to the provisions of Executive Order 12372, Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs (as implemented through 45 CFR part 100).

When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the document identifier 0990-New-60D for reference.

Information Collection Request Title: Evaluation of the Certified Community Behavioral Health Clinic Demonstration.

Abstract: The Office of the Assistant Secretary for Planning and Evaluation (ASPE) at the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) is requesting Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for data collection activities to support the evaluation of the Certified Community Behavioral Health Clinic (CCBHC) demonstration program.

In April 2014, Section 223 of the Protecting Access to Medicare Act (PAMA) mandated the CCBHC demonstration to address some of the challenges of access, coordination, financing, and quality facing community mental health centers (CMHCs) across the country. The CCBHC demonstration is intended to improve the availability, quality, and outcomes of CMHC ambulatory care by establishing a standard definition and criteria for CCBHCs, and developing a new payment system that accounts for the total cost of providing comprehensive services to all individuals who seek care. The demonstration also aims to more fully integrate primary and behavioral health care services; ensure more consistent use of evidence-based practices; and, through enhanced standardized reporting requirements, offer an opportunity to assess the quality of care provided by CCBHCs across the country.

Need and Proposed Use of the Information: Section 223 of PAMA requires the Secretary of HHS to provide annual reports to Congress that include an assessment of access to community-based mental health services under Medicaid, the quality and scope of CCBHC services, and the impact of the demonstration on federal and state costs of a full range of mental health services. In addition, PAMA requires the Secretary to provide recommendations regarding continuation, expansion, modifications, or termination of the demonstration no later than December 31, 2021. The data collected under this submission will help ASPE address research questions for the evaluation, and inform the required reports to Congress.

Likely Respondents: Respondents include the following: Certified Community Behavioral Health Clinic demonstration grantees; State Medicaid Officials; State Mental Health Officials; and State Consumer/Family Representatives.

The total annual burden hours estimated for this ICR are summarized in the table below.

OS specifically requests comments on (1) the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions, (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden, (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected, and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.

When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the Information Collection Request Title and document identifier 0999-New-30D for reference.

Information Collection Request Title: Pregnancy Assistance Fund (PAF) Performance Measures Collection, FY2017-FY2019 cohort.

OMB No.: 0990—New.

Abstract: The Office of Adolescent Health (OAH), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), is requesting approval by OMB of a new information collection request. In FY2017, OAH expects to award a new, 3-year cohort of Pregnancy Assistance Fund (PAF) grants. Performance measure data collection is a requirement of PAF grants and is included in the funding announcement.

Need and Proposed Use of the Information: The data collection will provide OAH with performance data to inform planning and resource allocation decisions; identify technical assistance needs for grantees; facilitate grantees' continuous quality improvement in program implementation; and provide HHS, Congress, OMB, and the general public with information about the individuals who participate in PAF-funded activities and the services they receive.

Likely Respondents: 20 PAF grantees (States and Tribes).

The total annual burden hours estimated for this ICR are summarized in the table below.

CBP invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq). Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) suggestions to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) suggestions to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submission of responses. The comments that are submitted will be summarized and included in the request for approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.

Title: Application for Exportation of Articles under Special Bond.

OMB Number: 1651-0004.

Form Number: CBP Form 3495.

Current Actions: CBP proposes to extend the expiration date of this information collection with no change to the burden hours or to the information being collected.

Type of Review: Extension (without change).

Affected Public: Businesses.

Abstract: CBP Form 3495, Application for Exportation of Articles Under Special Bond, is an application for exportation of articles entered under temporary bond pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1202, Chapter 98, subchapter XIII, Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States, and 19 CFR 10.38. CBP Form 3495 is used by importers to notify CBP that the importer intends to export goods that were subject to a duty exemption based on a temporary stay in this country. It also serves as a permit to export in order to satisfy the importer's obligation to export the same goods and thereby get a duty exemption. This form is accessible at: https://www.cbp.gov/newsroom/publications/forms?title=3495&=Apply.

Estimated Number of Respondents: 500.

Estimated Number of Responses per Respondent: 30.

Estimated Total Annual Responses: 15,000.

Estimated Time per Response: 8 minutes.

Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours: 2,000.

CBP invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq). Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) suggestions to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) suggestions to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submission of responses. The comments that are submitted will be summarized and included in the request for approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.

Title: Declaration of Unaccompanied Articles.

OMB Number: 1651-0030.

Form Number: CBP Form 255.

Current Actions: This submission is being made to extend the expiration date of this information collection with no change to the burden hours or the information being collected.

Type of Review: Extension (without change).

Affected Public: Individuals.

Abstract: CBP Form 255, Declaration of Unaccompanied Articles, is completed by travelers arriving in the United States with a parcel or container which is to be sent from an insular possession at a later date. It is the only means whereby the CBP officer, when the person arrives, can apply the exemptions or five percent flat rate of duty to all of the traveler's purchases.

A person purchasing articles in American Samoa, Guam, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, or the Virgin Islands of the United States receives a sales slip, invoice, or other evidence of purchase which is presented to the CBP officer along with CBP Form 255, which is prepared in triplicate. The CBP officer verifies the information, indicates on the form whether the article or articles were free of duty, or dutiable at the flat rate. Two copies of the form are returned to the traveler, who sends one form to the vendor. Upon receipt of the form the vendor places it in an envelope, affixed to the outside of the package, and clearly marks the package “Unaccompanied Tourist Shipment,” and sends the package to the traveler, generally via mail, although it could be sent by other means. If sent through the mail, the package would be examined by CBP and forwarded to the Postal Service for delivery. Any duties due would be collected by the mail carrier. If the shipment arrives other than through the mail, the traveler would be notified by the carrier when the article arrives. Entry would be made by the carrier or the traveler at the customhouse. Any duties due would be collected at that time.

CBP Form 255 is authorized by 19 U.S.C. 1202 (Chapter 98, Subchapters IV and XVI) and provided for by 19 CFR 145.12, 145.43, 148.110, 148.113, 148.114, 148.115 and 148.116. A sample of this form may be viewed at: https://www.cbp.gov/newsroom/publications/forms?title=255&=Apply.

Estimated Number of Respondents: 7,500.

Estimated Number of Responses: 15,000.

Estimated Time per Response: 5 minutes.

Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours: 1,250.

CBP invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq.). Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) suggestions to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) suggestions to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submission of responses. The comments that are submitted will be summarized and included in the request for approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.

Title: Notice of Detention.

OMB Number: 1651-0073.

Form Number: None.

Current Actions: CBP proposes to extend the expiration date of this information collection with no change to the burden hours or the information collected.

Type of Review: Extension (without change).

Affected Public: Businesses.

Abstract: Customs and Border Protection (CBP) may detain merchandise when it has reasonable suspicion that the subject merchandise may be inadmissible but requires more information to make a positive determination. If CBP decides to detain merchandise, a Notice of Detention is sent to the importer or to the importer's broker/agent no later than 5 business days from the date of examination stating that merchandise has been detained, the reason for the detention, and the anticipated length of the detention. The recipient of this notice may respond by providing information to CBP in order to facilitate the determination for admissibility, or may ask for an extension of time to bring the merchandise into compliance. The information provided assists CBP in making a determination whether to seize, deny entry of, or release detained goods into the commerce. Notice of Detention is authorized by 19 U.S.C. 1499 and provided for in 19 CFR 151.16, 133.21, 133.25, and 133.43.

Estimated Number of Respondents: 1,350.

Estimated Number of Total Annual Responses: 1,350.

Estimated Time per Response: 2 hours.

Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours: 2,700.

CBP invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq). This proposed information collection was previously published in the Federal Register (82 FR 9751) on February 8, 2017, allowing for a 60-day comment period. This notice allows for an additional 30 days for public comments. This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.10. Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) suggestions to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) suggestions to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submission of responses. The comments that are submitted will be summarized and included in the request for approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.

Title: Importation Bond Structure.

OMB Number: 1651-0050.

Form Number: CBP Forms 301 and 5297.

Current Actions: This submission is being made to extend the expiration date with no change to the burden hours or to the information collected.

Type of Review: Extension (without change).

Affected Public: Businesses.

Abstract: Bonds are used to ensure that duties, taxes, charges, penalties, and reimbursable expenses owed to the Government are paid; to facilitate the movement of cargo and conveyances through CBP processing; and to provide legal recourse for the Government for noncompliance with laws and regulations. Each person who is required by law or regulation to post a bond in order to secure a Customs transaction must submit the bond on CBP Form 301 which is available at: https://www.cbp.gov/newsroom/publications/forms?title=301&=Apply.

Surety bonds are usually executed by an agent of the surety. The surety company grants authority to the agent via a Corporate Surety Power of Attorney, CBP Form 5297. This power is vested with CBP so that when a bond is filed, the validity of the authority of the agent executing the bond and the name of the surety can be verified to the surety's grant. CBP Form 5297 is available at: https://www.cbp.gov/document/forms/form-5297-corporate-surety-power-attorney. Bonds are required pursuant to 19 U.S.C.1608, and 1623; 22 U.S.C. 463; 19 CFR part 113.

Estimated Number of Annual Respondents: 800,000.

Total Number of Estimated Annual Responses: 800,000.

Estimated time per Response: 15 minutes.

Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours: 200,000.

Estimated Number of Respondents: 500.

Total Number of Estimated Annual Responses: 500.

Estimated Time per Response: 15 minutes.

Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours: 125.

Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. Appendix.

As required by the Biggert-Waters Flood Insurance Reform Act of 2012, the TMAC makes recommendations to the FEMA Administrator on: (1) How to improve, in a cost-effective manner, the (a) accuracy, general quality, ease of use, and distribution and dissemination of flood insurance rate maps and risk data; and (b) performance metrics and milestones required to effectively and efficiently map flood risk areas in the United States; (2) mapping standards and guidelines for (a) flood insurance rate maps, and (b) data accuracy, data quality, data currency, and data eligibility; (3) how to maintain, on an ongoing basis, flood insurance rate maps and flood risk identification; (4) procedures for delegating mapping activities to State and local mapping partners; and (5) (a) methods for improving interagency and intergovernmental coordination on flood mapping and flood risk determination, and (b) a funding strategy to leverage and coordinate budgets and expenditures across Federal agencies. Furthermore, the TMAC is required to submit an Annual Report to the FEMA Administrator that contains: (1) A description of the activities of the Council; (2) an evaluation of the status and performance of flood insurance rate maps and mapping activities to revise and update Flood Insurance Rate Maps; and (3) a summary of recommendations made by the Council to the FEMA Administrator.

Agenda: On Tuesday, May 23, 2017, the TMAC will review and discuss the outlines and draft content for each of the three TMAC 2017 Annual Report topics: (1) Floodplain Management and Mitigation, (2) Residual Risk, and (3) Future Conditions. A brief public comment period will take place during the meeting. A more detailed agenda will be posted by Tuesday, May 16, 2017, at http://www.fema.gov/TMAC.

I. Background

In accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE) proposes to establish a new DHS system of records titled, “DHS/Immigration and Customs Enforcement-016 FALCON Search and Analysis System of Records.”

U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE) is establishing a consolidated information management system to enable its personnel to search, analyze, and visualize volumes of existing information in support of ICE's mission to enforce and investigate violations of U.S. criminal, civil, and administrative laws. The FALCON Search and Analysis (FALCON-SA) System of Records describes the operation of an ICE information technology system of the same name, which is owned by ICE's Office of Homeland Security Investigations (HSI). This system contains a repository of data that is ingested on a routine or ad hoc basis from other existing sources, and an index created from that data to be used for research and analysis in support of ICE HSI's law enforcement mission. FALCON-SA incorporates tools that allow the data to be queried, analyzed, and presented in a variety of formats that can help illuminate relationships among the various data elements. The purpose of FALCON-SA is to help ICE HSI personnel conduct research and analysis using advanced analytic tools in support of their law enforcement mission.

This system of records ingests and aggregates data from a number of interfaces that fall under the FALCON umbrella, including the FALCON-Tip Line, FALCON-Data Analysis & Research for Trade Transparency System (DARTTS), and FALCON-Roadrunner. All data aggregated from these interfaces, and user access is controlled through a combination of data tagging, access control lists, and other technologies. Using a central data store for FALCON data eliminates the need for multiple copies of the data and streamlines the application of many security and privacy controls. Only data accessed via FALCON-SA is covered by the DHS/ICE-016 FALCON-SA System of Records Notice (SORN). However, the other interfaces are covered by other ICE SORNs, as specified in the System Location section of the SORN. Separate SORNs are appropriate because the data, purposes, and routine uses differ depending on which FALCON interface is being used.

Information included in FALCON-SA is ingested either on a routine or ad hoc basis. Routine ingests are regular updates to datasets that originate from other Government (typically ICE or DHS) data systems. A list of routine ingests into the FALCON general data storage environment that is accessible via FALCON-SA is available in the FALCON-SA Privacy Impact Assessment at www.dhs.gov/privacy.

Ad hoc ingests are user-driven ingests of particular data that may be relevant to a given user or group's investigative or analytical project in FALCON-SA. The nature of the data in ad hoc ingests varies from data collected from a commercial or public source (e.g., Internet research or from a commercial data service), to public reports of law enforcement violations or suspicious activity (tips), to digital records seized or subpoenaed during an investigation. All ad hoc ingests are tagged by the FALCON-SA user with the appropriate category description, and that tag controls the retention policy for that data. The ad hoc ingest category description list is included in the FALCON-SA Privacy Impact Assessment at www.dhs.gov/privacy.

FALCON-SA records may include some or all of the following types of personally identifiable information: Identifying and biographic data such as name and date of birth; citizenship and immigration data; border crossing data; customs import-export history; criminal history; contact information; criminal associates; family relationships; photographs and other media; and employment and education information.

FALCON-SA also contains an index, which is a numerical and alphabetical list of every word or string of numbers/characters found in the FALCON-SA database, with a reference to the electronic location where the corresponding source record is stored. FALCON-SA uses this index to conduct searches, identify relationships and links between records and data, and generate visualizations for analytic purposes. FALCON-SA also contains metadata that is created when the myriad sources of data are ingested. The metadata is used to apply access controls and other system rules (such as retention policies) to the contents of FALCON-SA. The metadata also provides important contextual information about the date the information was added to FALCON-SA and the source system where the data originated.

The data sets in FALCON-SA include tips submitted to ICE either through an online form on the ICE Web site or by calling the HSI Tip Line. These tips are created electronically using the FALCON-Tip Line interface, or may be manually entered by HSI's Cyber Crimes Center when the tips pertain to child exploitation crimes. Once HSI adjudicates the tips for action, the tips are then accessible to all HSI users via the FALCON-SA interface.

ICE HSI agents, criminal research specialists, and intelligence analysts query FALCON-SA for a variety of purposes: To conduct research that supports the production of law enforcement intelligence products; to provide lead information for investigative inquiry and follow-up; to assist in the conduct of ICE criminal, civil, and administrative investigations; to assist in the disruption of terrorist or other criminal activity; and to discover previously unknown connections among existing ICE investigations. These queries can be saved in FALCON-SA to eliminate the need to recreate them each time a user logs on.

Strong access controls and a robust audit function ensure that ICE's use of the system is predicated on homeland security, law enforcement, and law enforcement intelligence activities. This requirement is enforced by a governance group composed of leadership from HSI with oversight by ICE's legal, privacy and civil liberties offices.

While ICE previously relied on the DHS/ICE-006 ICE Intelligence Records System (IIRS) SORN, last published at 75 FR 9233 (Mar. 1, 2010), to maintain FALCON-SA records, it was determined that a separate system of records notice will provide greater transparency and allow ICE to more accurately describe the records accessible via FALCON-SA. FALCON-Tip Line records were previously covered by the DHS/ICE-007 Alien Criminal Response Information Management (ACRIMe) SORN, but the FALCON-SA SORN will now cover those records instead. This change is due to the fact that Tip Line records have migrated out of the ACRIMe system into the FALCON environment and that once created, the official repository for FALCON-Tip Line records is the FALCON general data storage environment.

This SORN will cover data that is accessible via FALCON-SA's user interface only, and does not cover data that is accessed via other FALCON interfaces, such as Roadrunner and DARTTS, which are covered by the DHS/ICE-005 Trade Transparency and Analysis Records (TTAR) SORN.

Additional information about FALCON-SA can be found in the Privacy Impact Assessments published for FALCON-SA and FALCON-Tip Line, available at http://www.dhs.gov/privacy-documents-ice.

Consistent with DHS's information sharing mission, information stored in the DHS/ICE-016 FALCON-SA System of Records may be shared with other DHS Components that have a need to know the information to carry out their national security, law enforcement, immigration, intelligence, or other homeland security functions. In addition, ICE may share information with appropriate federal, state, local, tribal, territorial, foreign, or international government agencies consistent with the routine uses set forth in this system of records notice.

Additionally, DHS is issuing a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking to exempt this system of records from certain provisions of the Privacy Act elsewhere in the Federal Register. This newly established system will be included in DHS's inventory of record systems.

The Privacy Act embodies fair information practice principles in a statutory framework governing the means by which Federal Government agencies collect, maintain, use, and disseminate individuals' records. The Privacy Act applies to information that is maintained in a “system of records.” A “system of records” is a group of any records under the control of an agency from which information is retrieved by the name of an individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual. In the Privacy Act, an individual is defined to encompass U.S. citizens and lawful permanent residents. Additionally, and similarly, the Judicial Redress Act (JRA) provides a statutory right to covered persons to make requests for access and amendment to covered records, as defined by the JRA, along with judicial review for denials of such requests. In addition, the JRA prohibits disclosures of covered records, except as otherwise permitted by the Privacy Act.

Below is the description of the DHS/ICE-016 FALCON-SA System of Records. In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a(r), DHS has provided a report of this system of records to the Office of Management and Budget and to Congress.

In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq.), an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid OMB control number. The ICR documentation is available at http://www.reginfo.gov. Therefore, in preparation for OMB review and approval of the following information collection, TSA is soliciting comments to—

(1) Evaluate whether the proposed information requirement is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;

(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden;

(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including using appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

Title: TSA Canine Training Center Adoption Application.

Type of Request: New collection.

OMB Control Number: 1652-XXXX.

Form(s): TSA Form 433.

Affected Public: Individuals seeking to adopt a TSA canine.

Abstract: The TSA Canine Program is a Congressionally-mandated program that operates pursuant to section 110(e)(3) of the Aviation and Transportation Security Act (ATSA), Public Law 107-71 (115 Stat. 597, Nov. 19, 2001); the Homeland Security Act of 2002, Public Law 107-296 (116 Stat. 2135, Nov. 25, 2002); and the Implementing Recommendations of the 9/11 Commission Act of 2007, Public Law 110-53 (121 Stat. 266, Aug. 3, 2007). The TSA Canine Program developed the TSA CTC to train and deploy explosive detection canine teams to Federal, State, and local agencies in support of daily activities that protect the transportation domain. TSA created the TSA CTC Adoption Program under the authority of 41 CFR 102-36.35(d) and 102-36.365 to find suitable individuals or families to adopt and provide good homes to canines who do not graduate from the training program. Individuals seeking to adopt a TSA canine must complete the TSA CTC Adoption Application. This collection of information allows the TSA CTC to collect personal information from the applicants to determine their suitability to adopt a TSA canine.

Number of Respondents: 300.

Estimated Annual Burden Hours: An estimated 50 hours annually.

Comments Invited

In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq.), an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid OMB control number. The ICR documentation is available at http://www.reginfo.gov. Therefore, in preparation for OMB review and approval of the following information collection, TSA is soliciting comments to—

(1) Evaluate whether the proposed information requirement is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;

(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden;

(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including using appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

Pursuant to the statutory authorities explained below, the Transportation Security Administration (TSA) has implemented a voluntary enrollment program for individuals to apply for the TSA Pre✓® Application Program. Section 109(a)(3) of the Aviation and Transportation Security Act (ATSA), Public Law 107-71 (115 Stat. 597, 613, Nov. 19, 2001), codified at 49 U.S.C. 114 note) provides TSA with the authority to “establish requirements to implement trusted passenger programs and use available technologies to expedite security screening of passengers who participate in such programs, thereby allowing security screening personnel to focus on those passengers who should be subject to more extensive screening.” In addition, TSA has express, unlimited statutory authority to establish and collect a fee for any registered traveler program by publication of a notice in the Federal Register, as outlined in the Department of Homeland Security Appropriations Act, 2006, Public Law 109-90 (119 Stat. 2064, 2088-89, Oct. 18, 2005).

Under the TSA Pre✓® Application Program, individuals may submit biographic and biometric information directly to TSA that TSA uses to conduct a security threat assessment (STA) of criminal, immigration, intelligence, and regulatory violation databases. TSA uses the STA results to decide if an individual poses a low risk to transportation or national security. TSA issues approved applicants a known traveler number (KTN) that they may use when making travel reservations. Airline passengers who submit a KTN when making airline reservations are eligible for expedited screening on flights originating from U.S. airports with TSA Pre✓® lanes.1 TSA uses the traveler's KTN and other information during passenger prescreening to verify that the individual traveling matches the information on TSA's list of known travelers and to confirm TSA Pre✓® expedited screening eligibility.

Interested applicants must provide certain minimum required data elements, including, but not limited to, name, date of birth, gender, address, contact information, country of birth, images of identity documents, proof of citizenship or immigration status, and biometrics via a secure interface. TSA uses this information to conduct a STA, make a final eligibility determination for the TSA Pre✓® Application Program, and verify the identities of TSA Pre✓® enrolled and approved individuals when they are traveling.

TSA sends the applicants' fingerprints and associated information to the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) for the purpose of comparing their fingerprints to other fingerprints in the FBI's Next Generation Identification (NGI) system or its successor systems including civil, criminal, and latent fingerprint repositories. The FBI may retain applicants' fingerprints and associated information in NGI after the completion of their application and, while retained, their fingerprints may continue to be compared against other fingerprints submitted to or retained by NGI. TSA will also transmit applicants' biometrics for enrollment into the Department of Homeland Security Automated Biometrics Identification System (IDENT).

TSA is revising the collection of information to expand enrollment options and the potential use of biographic and biometric (e.g., fingerprints, iris scans, and/or photo) information. This revision would facilitate use of the STA for comparability determinations, such as allowing a TSA Pre✓® Application Program applicant to participate in programs with a comparable STA, such as the Hazardous Materials Endorsement Threat Assessment Program, or obtain a Transportation Worker Identification Credential (TWIC) without requiring an additional STA. Also, TSA may use applicants' biometric information in TSA's Biometric Authentication Technology (BAT) effort, which will use biometrics in place of credentials and boarding passes to authenticate the identity of TSA Pre✓® Application Program applicants at airport checkpoints.

When the STA is complete, TSA makes a final determination on eligibility for the TSA Pre✓® Application Program and notifies applicants of its decision. Most applicants generally should expect to receive notification from TSA within two to three weeks of the submission of their completed applications. If initially deemed ineligible by TSA, applicants will have an opportunity to correct cases of misidentification or inaccurate criminal records. Applicants must submit a correction of any information they believe to be inaccurate within 60 days of issuance of TSA's letter. If a corrected record is not received by TSA within the specified amount of time, the agency may make a final determination to deny eligibility. Individuals who TSA determines are ineligible for the TSA Pre✓® Application Program will be screened at airport security checkpoints pursuant to standard screening protocols.

The TSA Pre✓® Application Program enhances aviation security by permitting TSA to better focus its limited security resources on passengers who are more likely to pose a threat to aviation, while also facilitating and improving the commercial aviation travel experience for the public. Travelers who choose not to enroll in this initiative are not subject to any limitations on their travel because of their choice; they will be processed through normal TSA screening before entering the sterile areas of airports. TSA also retains the authority to perform standard or other screening on a random basis on TSA Pre✓® Application Program participants and any other travelers authorized to receive expedited physical screening.

TSA estimates that there will be 2,497,903 annualized enrollments over a three-year period. This estimate is based on current and projected enrollment with TSA's existing program. TSA estimates that there will be 4,717,423 annualized hours based on a three-year projection. TSA estimates an average of 1.8885533 hours per applicant to complete the enrollment process, which includes providing biographic and biometric information to TSA (via an enrollment center or pre-enrollment options) and the burden for any records correction for the applicant, if applicable. TSA estimates the annualized cost burden will be $160,628,269 based on a three-year projection. The applicant fee remains $85, which covers TSA's program costs, TSA's enrollment vendor's costs, and the FBI fee for the criminal history records check.

The MTW demonstration program was established under Section 204 of Title II of section 101(e) of the Omnibus Consolidated Rescissions and Appropriations Act of 1996, Public Law 104-134 (approved April 26, 1996). The demonstration was significantly expanded under the 2016 MTW expansion statute, Section 239 of Division L, Title IV of the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2016, Public Law 114-113 (approved December 18, 2015) (2016 MTW expansion). The 2016 MTW expansion authorizes HUD to expand the MTW demonstration program from the current level of 39 PHAs to an additional 100 PHAs over a period of seven years.

On January 23, 2017 (82 FR 8056), HUD published in the Federal Register a notice that sought comment on the proposed methods of operations for PHAs joining the MTW demonstration through the 2016 MTW expansion. Included in that notice are appendices that list available waivers, and the parameters of those waivers. These include Appendix A, “General Waivers” (82 FR 8071 et seq.), and Appendix B, “Conditional Waivers” (82 FR 8076 et seq.). General waivers are those that will be granted without HUD review beyond the MTW application review. Conditional waivers are those waivers that will be granted following additional HUD review and approval.

This notice makes a revision to one of the Appendix A waivers, and two of the Appendix B waivers.

For the waiver entitled “Authorizations Related to Family Self Sufficiency,” one of the available activities listed in the fourth column is: “The Agency is authorized to develop its own recruitment and selection procedures for its FSS program(s).” In the fifth column, “Parameters,” the corresponding statement as originally published (82 FR 8072 (January 23, 2017)) reads:

For waiver 3 under the “Activities Related to Public Housing” heading, entitled “PH—Work Requirements,” the first sentence of the “Available Activities” statement as originally published (82 FR 8079 (January 23, 2017)) reads:

For waiver 6 under the “Activities Related to Housing Choice Vouchers” heading, entitled “HCV & PBV—Work Requirements,” the first sentence of the “Available Activities” statement as originally published (82 FR 8079 (January 23, 2017)) reads:

The 10-member council advises the Secretary of the Interior, through the BLM, on a variety of planning and management issues associated with public land management in BLM's Albuquerque District. Additional information is available in the meeting notice published on April 10, 2017 (82 FR 17277).

The 10-member council advises the Secretary of the Interior, through the BLM, on a variety of planning and management issues associated with the Resource Management Plan process for the Dominguez-Escalante NCA and Dominguez Canyon Wilderness. Additional information is available in the meeting notice published on April 12, 2017 (82 FR 17683).

The 15-member council advises the Secretary of the Interior, through the BLM, on a variety of planning and management issues associated with public land management in central and eastern Oregon. Additional information is available in the meeting notice published on April 13, 2017 (82 FR 17852).

The Commission has received a complaint and a submission pursuant to § 210.8(b) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure filed on behalf of Sony Corporation; Sony Storage Media Solutions Corporation; Sony Storage Media Manufacturing Corporation; Sony DADC US Inc.; and Sony Latin America Inc. on April 28, 2017. The complaint alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1337) in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain magnetic tape cartridges and components thereof. The complaint names as respondents Fujifilm Holdings Corporation of Japan; Fujifilm Corporation of Japan; Fujifilm Media Manufacturing Co., Ltd. of Japan; Fujifilm Holdings America Corporation of Valhalla, NY; and Fujifilm Recording Media U.S.A., Inc. of Bedford, MA. The complainants request that the Commission issue a limited exclusion order, cease and desist orders and impose a bond upon respondents' alleged infringing articles during the 60-day Presidential review period pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1337(j).

Proposed respondents, other interested parties, and members of the public are invited to file comments, not to exceed five (5) pages in length, inclusive of attachments, on any public interest issues raised by the complaint or § 210.8(b) filing. Comments should address whether issuance of the relief specifically requested by the complainant in this investigation would affect the public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, or United States consumers.

In particular, the Commission is interested in comments that:

(i) Explain how the articles potentially subject to the requested remedial orders are used in the United States;

(ii) identify any public health, safety, or welfare concerns in the United States relating to the requested remedial orders;

(iii) identify like or directly competitive articles that complainant, its licensees, or third parties make in the United States which could replace the subject articles if they were to be excluded;

(iv) indicate whether complainant, complainant's licensees, and/or third party suppliers have the capacity to replace the volume of articles potentially subject to the requested exclusion order and/or a cease and desist order within a commercially reasonable time; and

(v) explain how the requested remedial orders would impact United States consumers.

Written submissions must be filed no later than by close of business, eight calendar days after the date of publication of this notice in the Federal Register. There will be further opportunities for comment on the public interest after the issuance of any final initial determination in this investigation.

Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above and submit 8 true paper copies to the Office of the Secretary by noon the next day pursuant to § 210.4(f) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 210.4(f)). Submissions should refer to the docket number (“Docket No. 3221”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. (See Handbook for Electronic Filing Procedures, Electronic Filing Procedures).1 Persons with questions regarding filing should contact the Secretary (202-205-2000).

Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment. See 19 CFR 201.6. Documents for which confidential treatment by the Commission is properly sought will be treated accordingly. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment. See 19 CFR 201.6. Documents for which confidential treatment by the Commission is properly sought will be treated accordingly. All information, including confidential business information and documents for which confidential treatment is properly sought, submitted to the Commission for purposes of this Investigation may be disclosed to and used: (i) By the Commission, its employees and Offices, and contract personnel (a) for developing or maintaining the records of this or a related proceeding, or (b) in internal investigations, audits, reviews, and evaluations relating to the programs, personnel, and operations of the Commission including under 5 U.S.C. Appendix 3; or (ii) by U.S. government employees and contract personnel,2 solely for cybersecurity purposes. All nonconfidential written submissions will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Secretary and on EDIS.3

This action is taken under the authority of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and of §§ 201.10 and 210.8(c) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 201.10, 210.8(c)).

The Commission has received a complaint and a submission pursuant to § 210.8(b) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure filed on behalf of Carl Zeiss AG and ASML Netherlands B.V. on April 28, 2017. The complaint alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1337) in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain digital cameras, software, and components thereof. The complaint names as respondents Nikon Corporation of Japan; Sendai Nikon Corporation of Japan; Nikon Inc. of Melville, NY; Nikon (Thailand) Co., Ltd. of Thailand; Nikon Imaging (China) Co., Ltd of China; and PT Nikon Indonesia of Indonesia. The complainants request that the Commission issue a limited exclusion order and cease and desist orders.

Proposed respondents, other interested parties, and members of the public are invited to file comments, not to exceed five (5) pages in length, inclusive of attachments, on any public interest issues raised by the complaint or § 210.8(b) filing. Comments should address whether issuance of the relief specifically requested by the complainant in this investigation would affect the public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, or United States consumers.

In particular, the Commission is interested in comments that:

(i) Explain how the articles potentially subject to the requested remedial orders are used in the United States;

(ii) identify any public health, safety, or welfare concerns in the United States relating to the requested remedial orders;

(iii) identify like or directly competitive articles that complainant, its licensees, or third parties make in the United States which could replace the subject articles if they were to be excluded;

(iv) indicate whether complainant, complainant's licensees, and/or third party suppliers have the capacity to replace the volume of articles potentially subject to the requested exclusion order and/or a cease and desist order within a commercially reasonable time; and

(v) explain how the requested remedial orders would impact United States consumers.

Written submissions must be filed no later than by close of business, eight calendar days after the date of publication of this notice in the Federal Register. There will be further opportunities for comment on the public interest after the issuance of any final initial determination in this investigation.

Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above and submit 8 true paper copies to the Office of the Secretary by noon the next day pursuant to § 210.4(f) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 210.4(f)). Submissions should refer to the docket number (“Docket No. 3220”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. (See Handbook for Electronic Filing Procedures, Electronic Filing Procedures).1 Persons with questions regarding filing should contact the Secretary (202-205-2000).

Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment. See 19 CFR 201.6. Documents for which confidential treatment by the Commission is properly sought will be treated accordingly. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment. See 19 CFR 201.6. Documents for which confidential treatment by the Commission is properly sought will be treated accordingly. All information, including confidential business information and documents for which confidential treatment is properly sought, submitted to the Commission for purposes of this Investigation may be disclosed to and used: (i) By the Commission, its employees and Offices, and contract personnel (a) for developing or maintaining the records of this or a related proceeding, or (b) in internal investigations, audits, reviews, and evaluations relating to the programs, personnel, and operations of the Commission including under 5 U.S.C. Appendix 3; or (ii) by U.S. government employees and contract personnel,2 solely for cybersecurity purposes. All nonconfidential written submissions will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Secretary and on EDIS.3

This action is taken under the authority of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and of §§ 201.10 and 210.8(c) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 201.10, 210.8(c)).

The Commission instituted Inv. No. 337-TA-982 on January 21, 2016, based on a complaint filed by ParkerVision, Inc. of Jacksonville, Florida (“ParkerVision”). 81 FR 3474-75 (Jan. 21, 2016). The complaint alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain RF capable integrated circuits and products containing the same by reason of infringement of certain claims of U.S. Patent No. 8,571,135 (“the '135 patent”); U.S. Patent No. 6,879,817 (“the '817 patent”); U.S. Patent No. 7,929,638 (“the '638 patent”); and U.S. Patent No. 9,118,528. The notice of investigation named the following respondents: Apple Inc. of Cupertino, California; LG Electronics, Inc. of Seoul, Republic of Korea; LG Electronics U.S.A., Inc. of Englewood Cliffs, New Jersey; LG Electronics MobileComm U.S.A., Inc. of San Diego, California; Qualcomm Incorporated of San Diego, California; Samsung Electronics Co., Ltd. of Suwon-Shi, Republic of Korea; Samsung Electronics America, Inc. of Ridgefield Park, New Jersey; and Samsung Semiconductor, Inc. of San Jose, California. Id. at 3474. The Office of Unfair Import Investigations is also a party to the investigation. Id. at 3475.

After institution, LG Electronics U.S.A., Inc. and the Samsung respondents separately were terminated from the investigation. See Notice (Aug. 18, 2016); Notice (Aug. 19, 2016). The asserted claims of the '135 patent, the '817 patent, and the '638 patent were also terminated from the investigation. See Notice (Feb. 22, 2017); Notice (Sept. 7, 2016).

On March 12, 2017, ParkerVision moved to terminate the investigation in its entirety based upon withdrawal of the complaint. On March 23, 2017, the Commission investigative attorney filed a response in support of the motion. That same day, the respondents indicated that they do not oppose the motion.

On April 3, 2017, the ALJ issued the subject ID, granting the unopposed motion. The ALJ found that the motion complied with the requirements of Commission Rule 210.21(a)(1) (19 CFR 210.21(a)(1)) and further found that no extraordinary circumstances prohibited granting the motion. None of the parties petitioned for review of the ID.

The Commission has determined not to review the ID.

The authority for the Commission's determination is contained in section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and in Part 210 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR part 210).

This meeting will be open to the public up to the seating capacity of the room. This meeting is also accessible via teleconference. To participate telephonically, please contact Mr. Finley via email at [email protected] before 4:30 p.m. Local Time, on May 30, 2017. You will need to provide your name, affiliation, and phone number.

Attendees will be requested to sign a register and to comply with NASA Headquarters security requirements, including the presentation of a valid picture ID to Security before access to NASA Headquarters. Due to the Real ID Act, Public Law 109-13, any attendees with driver's licenses issued from non-compliant states/territories must present a second form of ID. [Federal employee badge; passport; active military identification card; enhanced driver's license; U.S. Coast Guard Merchant Mariner card; Native American tribal document; school identification accompanied by an item from LIST C (documents that establish employment authorization) from the “List of the Acceptable Documents” on Form I-9]. Non-compliant states/territories are: Maine, Minnesota, Missouri, and Montana. Foreign nationals attending this meeting will be required to provide a copy of their passport and visa in addition to providing the following information no less than 10 days prior to the meeting: Full name; gender; date/place of birth; citizenship; passport information (number, country, telephone); visa information (number, type, expiration date); employer/affiliation information (name of institution, address, country, telephone); title/position of attendee. To expedite admittance, attendees that are U.S. citizens and Permanent Residents (green card holders) are requested to provide full name and citizenship status no less than 3 working days in advance. Information should be sent to Patrick Finley via email at [email protected], or by fax at (202) 358-3099. It is imperative that the meeting be held on these dates to the scheduling priorities of the key participants.

Title of Collection: Nonprofit Research Activities Survey.

OMB Approval Number: 3145-0240.

Expiration Date of Current Approval: July 31, 2019.

Type of Request: Intent to renew an information collection.

Abstract:The new Nonprofit Research Activities (NPRA) survey represents one facet of the R&D measurement component of the NSF's National Center for Science and Engineering Statistics (NCSES) statistical program authorized by the America COMPETES Reauthorization Act of 2010 § 505, codified in the National Science Foundation Act of 1950 (NSF Act), as amended, at 42 U.S.C. 1862. Under paragraph “b”, NCSES is directed to

“(1) collect, acquire, analyze, report, and disseminate statistical data related to the science and engineering enterprise in the U.S. and other nations that is relevant and useful to practitioners, researchers, policymakers, and the public, including statistical data on:

(A) Research and development trends;

(B) the science and engineering workforce;

(C) U.S. competitiveness in science, engineering, technology, and research and development . . .”

The primary objective of the new survey is to fill data gaps in the National Patterns of R&D Resources in such a way that it is (a) compatible with data collected on the business, government, and higher education sectors of the U.S. economy and (b) appropriate for international comparisons. Since the last survey of research activity in the nonprofit sector occurred in 1996 and 1997, interest from the community has grown significantly in recent years. Thus, it is important that a new survey of nonprofit R&D be fielded to update current national estimates for the nonprofit sector.

NCSES recently concluded a pilot test of the new Nonprofit Research Activities Survey (NPRA) with 3,640 nonprofit organizations. Using the lessons learned from the pilot, NCSES now plans to conduct a full survey.

Use of the information: The primary purpose of this survey is to collect nationally representative data on nonprofit research spending and funding.

The nonprofit sector is one of four major sectors that perform and/or fund research and development (R&D) in the U.S. Historically, the National Science Foundation (NSF) has combined this sector's data with the business, government, and higher education sectors' data to estimate total national R&D expenditures via the annual National Patterns of R&D Resources report. The other three sectors are surveyed annually; however, it has been 20 years since NSF last collected R&D data from nonprofit organizations.

The full NPRA survey will collect R&D and other related data from U.S. nonprofit organizations. This survey will collect the following:

• Total amount spent on R&D activities within nonprofit organizations,

• Number of employees and R&D employees,

• Sources of funds for R&D expenditures,

• Expenditures by field of R&D (biological and health sciences, engineering, physical sciences, social sciences, etc.),

• Expenditures by type of R&D (basic research, applied research, or experimental development),

• Total amount of R&D funding provided to entities outside the nonprofit organization,

• Types of recipients receiving R&D funding, and

• Funding by field of R&D (biological and health sciences, engineering, physical sciences, social sciences, etc.).

Expected respondents: The sample will be 6,500 nonprofit organizations. The target population for the NPRA Survey includes all NPOs categorized by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) as 501(c)(3) public charities, 501(c)(3) private foundations, and other exempt organizations [e.g., 501(c)(1), 501(c)(2)]. To increase the efficiency of sampling organizations performing or funding research, organizations that are highly unlikely to be conducting research activities or already included in the other NCSES R&D surveys will be removed. In addition, organizations that do not meet a minimum size threshold, based on assets for private foundations and expenses for public charities, will be eliminated. The sample will be allocated to obtain a minimum of 800 completed responses from performers and 800 from funders.

Estimate of burden: We expect a response rate of 60%. Based on the responses to the pilot survey, we estimate the survey to require 4 hours to complete if the respondent both funds and performs research. The response time for nonprofit organizations that do not conduct or fund research should be under 20 minutes. We estimate that of the 6,500 organizations surveyed, no more than 1,300 will identify as performer or funders and submit a full survey response. Therefore our estimate of burden for the survey is 6,067 hours (5,200 hours for the 1,300 estimated performers and funders; 867 hours for the remaining 2,600 organizations estimated to complete the survey).