Page Range | 50189-50542 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
80 FR 50539 - National Employer Support of the Guard and Reserve Week, 2015 | |
80 FR 50379 - Notice of Public Meetings for Unmanned Aircraft Systems Test Sites and Center of Excellence; Correction | |
80 FR 50377 - Request for Public Comments To Compile the National Trade Estimate Report on Foreign Trade Barriers | |
80 FR 50269 - Permanent Advisory Committee To Advise the U.S. Commissioners to the Western and Central Pacific Fisheries Commission; Meeting Announcement | |
80 FR 50381 - BNSF Railway Company-Abandonment Exemption-in King County, Wash. | |
80 FR 50278 - Applicability Determination Index (ADI) Database System Recent Posting: Applicability Determinations, Alternative Monitoring Decisions, and Regulatory Interpretations Pertaining to Standards of Performance for New Stationary Sources, National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants, and the Stratospheric Ozone Protection Program | |
80 FR 50277 - Request for Public Comments on the List of Candidates for EPA's Science Advisory Board (SAB) Agricultural Science Committee | |
80 FR 50276 - Proposed Information Collection Request; Comment Request; Establishing No-Discharge Zones (NDZs) Under Clean Water Act § 312 (Renewal) | |
80 FR 50250 - Amendments to Regional Consistency Regulations | |
80 FR 50339 - Pendency for Request for Approval of Special Withdrawal Liability Rules: The Service Employees International Union Local 1 Cleveland Pension Plan | |
80 FR 50240 - Approval and Promulgation of Implementation Plans; Louisiana; Major Source Permitting State Implementation Plan | |
80 FR 50199 - Prevention of Significant Deterioration and Title V Permitting for Greenhouse Gases: Removal of Certain Vacated Elements | |
80 FR 50287 - Product Cancellation Order for Certain Pesticide Registrations | |
80 FR 50248 - Approval and Promulgation of Implementation Plans; Texas; El Paso Particulate Matter Contingency Measures | |
80 FR 50275 - Notification of Public Teleconferences of the Science Advisory Board Radiation Advisory Committee | |
80 FR 50266 - Hand Trucks and Certain Parts Thereof From the People's Republic of China: Continuation of Antidumping Duty Order | |
80 FR 50265 - Multilayered Wood Flooring From the People's Republic of China: Correction to Final Results and Partial Rescission of Countervailing Duty Administrative Review; 2012 | |
80 FR 50264 - Potassium Permanganate From the People's Republic of China: Final Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2013 | |
80 FR 50375 - Advisory Committee on International Postal and Delivery Services September 2015 Meeting | |
80 FR 50212 - Magnuson-Stevens Act Provisions; Fisheries Off West Coast States; Pacific Coast Groundfish Fishery; 2015-2016 Biennial Specifications and Management Measures; Inseason Adjustments | |
80 FR 50375 - Notice of Public Meeting | |
80 FR 50288 - Notice of Agreements Filed | |
80 FR 50327 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
80 FR 50318 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Loan Guarantee Recovery Fund Established Pursuant to the Church Arson Prevention Act of 1996 | |
80 FR 50268 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration's Bay Watershed Education and Training Program National Evaluation System | |
80 FR 50288 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
80 FR 50291 - Agency Forms Undergoing Paperwork Reduction Act Review | |
80 FR 50290 - Agency Forms Undergoing Paperwork Reduction Act Review | |
80 FR 50240 - Disguised Payments for Services; Correction | |
80 FR 50298 - Proposed Collection; 60-Day Comment Request; National Toxicology Program (NTP) Level of Concern Categories Study (NIEHS) | |
80 FR 50297 - Submission for OMB Review; 30-Day Comment Request; Information Program on Clinical Trials: Maintaining a Registry and Results Databank (NLM) | |
80 FR 50328 - Notice of Intent To Seek Approval To Renew an Information Collection for the NSF Graduate Research Fellowship Program | |
80 FR 50325 - Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response (HAZWOPER) Standard; Extension of the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Approval of Information Collection (Paperwork) Requirements | |
80 FR 50324 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Extension Without Change, of a Previously Approved Collection Applicant Information Form (1-783) | |
80 FR 50239 - Exception From Passive Income for Certain Foreign Insurance Companies; Hearing | |
80 FR 50274 - Curtis/Palmer Hydroelectric Company, LP; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing, Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Protests | |
80 FR 50272 - PacifiCorp; Notice of Intent To File License Application, Filing of Pre-Application Document, Approving Use of the Alternative Licensing Process, and Requesting Cooperating Agency Status | |
80 FR 50272 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
80 FR 50271 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
80 FR 50382 - Agency Information Collection: (Per Diem for Nursing Home Care of Veterans in State Homes; Per Diem for Domiciliary Adult Day Health Care of Veterans in State Homes) | |
80 FR 50326 - Proposed Extension of Existing Collection; Comment Request | |
80 FR 50376 - Generalized System of Preferences (GSP): Notice of Initiation of the 2015 Annual GSP Product and Country Practices Review; Deadlines for Filing Petitions | |
80 FR 50319 - National Register of Historic Places; Notification of Pending Nominations and Related Actions | |
80 FR 50238 - Petition Requesting Rulemaking on Products Containing Organohalogen Flame Retardants | |
80 FR 50299 - National Institute on Aging: Notice of Closed Meeting | |
80 FR 50299 - National Institute on Aging; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
80 FR 50299 - National Human Genome Research Institute; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
80 FR 50300 - National Center for Advancing Translational Sciences: Notice of Meetings | |
80 FR 50300 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
80 FR 50299 - Office of the Director, National Institutes of Health: Notice of Meeting | |
80 FR 50304 - Final Flood Hazard Determinations | |
80 FR 50313 - Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands; Major Disaster and Related Determinations | |
80 FR 50262 - United States Standards for Grades of Canned Baked Beans | |
80 FR 50193 - Onions Grown in Certain Designated Counties in Idaho, and Malheur County, Oregon; Decreased Assessment Rate | |
80 FR 50191 - Irish Potatoes Grown in Southeastern States; Suspension of Marketing Order Provisions | |
80 FR 50320 - Amended Meeting Schedule for the Gateway National Recreation Area Fort Hancock 21st Century Advisory Committee | |
80 FR 50267 - International Pacific Halibut Commission Appointments | |
80 FR 50314 - Final Flood Hazard Determinations | |
80 FR 50313 - Texas; Amendment No. 12 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
80 FR 50225 - Paper and Paper-Based Packaging Promotion, Research and Information Order; Late Payment and Interest Charges on Past Due Assessments | |
80 FR 50189 - Apricots Grown in Designated Counties in Washington; Decreased Assessment Rate | |
80 FR 50263 - Availability of Updated FSIS Food Standards and Labeling Policy Book | |
80 FR 50270 - Presidential Task Force on Combating Illegal Unreported and Unregulated (IUU) Fishing and Seafood Fraud Action Plan; Extension of Comment Period | |
80 FR 50228 - Classes of Poultry | |
80 FR 50329 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Comment Request | |
80 FR 50293 - Center for Devices and Radiological Health Participation in International Medical Device Regulators Forum, Regulated Product Submission, Table of Contents Pilot Program | |
80 FR 50295 - Medical Devices; Export Certificates; Food and Drug Administration Export Reform and Enhancement Act of 1996; Certification Fees | |
80 FR 50273 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
80 FR 50275 - Notice of Study Plan Meeting; Yuba County Water Agency | |
80 FR 50271 - New Hampshire Transmission, LLC; Notice of Institution of Section 206 Proceeding, Setting Refund Effective Date, and Due Date for Intervention | |
80 FR 50273 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
80 FR 50370 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BATS Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1 Thereto, To Adopt New Rule 8.17 To Provide a Process for an Expedited Suspension Proceeding and Rule 12.15 To Prohibit Layering and Spoofing on BATS Exchange, Inc. | |
80 FR 50348 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; ICE Clear Europe Limited; Order Approving Proposed Rule Change Relating to Finance Procedures To Add Clearstream Banking as a Triparty Collateral Service Provider | |
80 FR 50369 - Nile Capital Investment Trust, et al.; Notice of Application | |
80 FR 50212 - NASA Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement; Correction | |
80 FR 50358 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change Relating to the Listing and Trading of the 1-3 Month Enhanced Short Duration ETF, a Series of Plus Trust | |
80 FR 50365 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change Amending Rule 79A To Delete Supplementary Material .20 Requiring Prior Floor Official Approval Before a Designated Market Maker Can Initiate Certain Trades More Than One or Two Dollars Away From the Last Sale | |
80 FR 50350 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE MKT LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change Amending Rule 79A-Equities To Delete Supplementary Material .20 Requiring Prior Floor Official Approval Before a Designated Market Maker Can Initiate Certain Trades More Than One or Two Dollars Away From the Last Sale | |
80 FR 50347 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.; Notice of Designation of a Longer Period for Commission Action on a Proposed Rule Change To Expand FINRA's Alternative Trading System (“ATS”) Transparency Initiative To Publish OTC Equity Volume Executed Outside ATSs | |
80 FR 50341 - Janus Investment Fund, et al.; Notice of Application | |
80 FR 50347 - Pulteney Street Capital Management, LLC and PSP Family of Funds; Notice of Application | |
80 FR 50354 - Ivy NextShares, et al.; Notice of Application | |
80 FR 50356 - FEG Absolute Access TEI Fund LLC and FEG Investors, LLC; Notice of Application | |
80 FR 50349 - ALPS ETMF Trust, et al.; Notice of Application | |
80 FR 50196 - Special Local Regulations; Eighth Coast Guard District Annual and Recurring Marine Events Update | |
80 FR 50268 - North Pacific Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
80 FR 50195 - Intercountry Adoptions: Regulatory Change To Prevent Accreditation and Approval Renewal Requests From Coming Due at the Same Time | |
80 FR 50295 - Arthritis Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting | |
80 FR 50292 - Obstetrics and Gynecology Device Panel of the Medical Device Advisory Committee; Correction | |
80 FR 50318 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Extension, Without Change, of an Existing Information Collection; Comment Request | |
80 FR 50379 - Denial of Motor Vehicle Defect Petition, DP15-003 | |
80 FR 50205 - Promulgation of State Implementation Plan Revisions; Infrastructure Requirements for the 2008 Ozone, 2008 Lead, and 2010 NO2 | |
80 FR 50382 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
80 FR 50203 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Rhode Island; Rhode Island Low Emission Vehicle Program | |
80 FR 50320 - Information Collection Activities: Relief or Reduction in Royalty Rates; Submitted for Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Review; Comment Request | |
80 FR 50270 - Notice of Intent To Grant an Exclusive Patent License | |
80 FR 50314 - West Virginia; Major Disaster and Related Determinations | |
80 FR 50306 - Oglala Sioux Tribe; Major Disaster and Related Determinations | |
80 FR 50301 - Changes in Flood Hazard Determinations | |
80 FR 50306 - Proposed Flood Hazard Determinations | |
80 FR 50235 - Proposed Amendment of Class D Airspace; Van Nuys, CA | |
80 FR 50237 - Proposed Revocation of Class E Airspace; Burbank, CA | |
80 FR 50233 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
80 FR 50230 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
80 FR 50324 - Hearings of the Judicial Conference Advisory Committees on the Federal Rules of Bankruptcy Procedure and the Federal Rules of Evidence | |
80 FR 50207 - Methane Sulfonic Acid; Exemption from the Requirement of a Tolerance | |
80 FR 50461 - Energy Conservation Program: Energy Conservation Standards for Refrigerated Bottled or Canned Beverage Vending Machines | |
80 FR 50385 - Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing and Phosphate Fertilizer Production RTR and Standards of Performance for Phosphate Processing |
Agricultural Marketing Service
Food Safety and Inspection Service
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Air Force Department
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement
Bureau of Safety and Environmental Enforcement
National Park Service
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Workers Compensation Programs Office
Federal Aviation Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Surface Transportation Board
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents LISTSERV electronic mailing list, go to http://listserv.access.thefederalregister.org and select Online mailing list archives, FEDREGTOC-L, Join or leave the list (or change settings); then follow the instructions.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Interim rule with request for comments.
This rule implements a recommendation from the Washington Apricot Marketing Committee (Committee) for a decrease in the assessment rate from $1.50 to $0.75 per ton of Washington apricots handled for the 2015-2016 and subsequent fiscal periods. The Committee locally administers the marketing order and is comprised of producers and handlers of apricots grown in designated counties in Washington. Assessments upon apricot handlers are used by the Committee to fund reasonable and necessary expenses of the program. The fiscal period begins April 1 and ends March 31. The new assessment rate will remain in effect indefinitely unless modified, suspended or terminated.
Effective August 20, 2015. Comments received by October 19, 2015, will be considered prior to issuance of a final rule.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments concerning this rule. Comments must be sent to the Docket Clerk, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Fruit and Vegetable Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Fax: (202) 720-8938; or Internet:
Teresa Hutchinson, Marketing Specialist, or Gary Olson, Regional Director, Northwest Marketing Field Office, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Fruit and Vegetable Program, AMS, USDA; Telephone: (503) 326-2724; Fax: (503) 326-7440; or Email:
Small businesses may request information on complying with this regulation by contacting Jeffrey Smutny, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Fruit and Vegetable Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Telephone: (202) 720-2491; Fax: (202) 720-8938; or Email:
This rule is issued under Marketing Agreement No. 132 and Order No. 922 (7 CFR 922), as amended, regulating the handling of apricots grown in designated counties in Washington, hereinafter referred to as the “order.” The order is effective under the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended (7 U.S.C. 601-674), hereinafter referred to as the “Act.”
The Department of Agriculture (USDA) is issuing this rule in conformance with Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 13175.
This rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. Under the marketing order now in effect, apricot handlers in designated counties in Washington are subject to assessments. Funds to administer the order are derived from such assessments. It is intended that the assessment rate as issued herein will be applicable to all assessable Washington apricots beginning April 1, 2015, and continue until amended, suspended, or terminated.
The Act provides that administrative proceedings must be exhausted before parties may file suit in court. Under section 608c(15)(A) of the Act, any handler subject to an order may file with USDA a petition stating that the order, any provision of the order, or any obligation imposed in connection with the order is not in accordance with law and request a modification of the order or to be exempted therefrom. Such handler is afforded the opportunity for a hearing on the petition. After the hearing, USDA would rule on the petition. The Act provides that the district court of the United States in any district in which the handler is an inhabitant, or has his or her principal place of business, has jurisdiction to review USDA's ruling on the petition, provided an action is filed not later than 20 days after the date of the entry of the ruling.
This rule decreases the assessment rate established for the Committee for the 2015-2016 and subsequent fiscal periods from $1.50 to $0.75 per ton of Washington apricots handled under the order.
The Washington apricot marketing order provides authority for the Committee, with the approval of USDA, to formulate an annual budget of expenses and collect assessments from handlers to administer the program. The members of the Committee are producers and handlers of apricots in designated counties in Washington. They are familiar with the Committee's needs and with the costs for goods and services in their local area and are thus in a position to formulate an appropriate budget and assessment rate. The assessment rate is formulated and discussed in a public meeting. Thus, all directly affected persons have an opportunity to participate and provide input.
For the 2013-2014 and subsequent fiscal periods, the Committee recommended, and the USDA approved, an assessment rate that would continue in effect from fiscal period to fiscal period unless modified, suspended, or terminated by USDA upon recommendation and information submitted by the Committee or other information available to USDA.
The Committee met on May 12, 2015, and unanimously recommended expenditures of $7,610 for the 2015-2016 fiscal period. In comparison, the
The Committee believes that decreasing the assessment rate will allow the Committee to fund its financial obligations and reduce its current monetary reserve of $10,353. If the current assessment rate was continued, then the Committee's monetary reserve would exceed the maximum permitted by the order of approximately one fiscal period's operational expenses.
The major expenditures recommended by the Committee for the 2015-2016 fiscal period include $3,000 for the management/administration fee, $2,500 for the annual audit review, $1,200 for Committee travel, and $500 for computer tech services, software, and equipment. In comparison, major expenditures for the 2014-2015 fiscal period included $3,000 for the management/administration fee, $2,500 for the annual audit review, $1,000 for Committee travel, and $50 for computer tech services, software, and equipment.
Committee members estimated the 2015 fresh apricot production to be approximately 5,800 tons. The Committee's recommended assessment rate was then derived by dividing the 2015-2016 anticipated expenses by the expected shipments of Washington apricots, while also taking into account the Committee's monetary reserve. The recommended assessment rate of $0.75 per ton of apricots multiplied by the 5,800 tons of estimated 2015 Washington apricot shipments would generate $4,350 in handler assessments. The projected revenue from handler assessments, along with funds from the Committee's monetary reserve of $10,353, will be adequate to cover the 2015-2016 budgeted expenses of $7,610. The Committee's monetary reserve is expected to be approximately $7,093 at the end of the 2015-2016 fiscal period which is within the maximum permitted by the order of approximately one fiscal period's operational expenses.
The assessment rate established in this rule will continue in effect indefinitely unless modified, suspended, or terminated by USDA upon recommendation and information submitted by the Committee or other available information.
Although this assessment rate is effective for an indefinite period, the Committee will continue to meet prior to or during each fiscal period to recommend a budget of expenses and consider recommendations for modification of the assessment rate. The dates and times of the Committee meetings are available from the Committee or USDA. Committee meetings are open to the public and interested persons may express their views at these meetings. USDA will evaluate Committee recommendations and other available information to determine whether modification of the assessment rate is needed. Further rulemaking will be undertaken as necessary. The Committee's 2015-2016 budget and those for subsequent fiscal periods will be reviewed, and continue to be approved by USDA.
Pursuant to requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has considered the economic impact of this rule on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has prepared this initial regulatory flexibility analysis.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions in order that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened. Marketing orders issued pursuant to the Act, and the rules issued thereunder, are unique in that they are brought about through group action of essentially small entities acting on their own behalf.
There are approximately 100 producers of apricots in the production area and approximately 17 handlers subject to regulation under the marketing order. Small agricultural producers are defined by the Small Business Administration (SBA) (13 CFR 121.201) as those having annual receipts of less than $750,000, and small agricultural service firms are defined as those having annual receipts of less than $7,000,000.
The National Agricultural Statistics Service reported that in 2014 the Washington apricot total utilization (including both fresh and processed markets) of 8,500 tons sold for an average of $1,080 per ton. Consequently, the total farm-gate value in 2014 was approximately $9,180,000. Based on the number of producers in the production area (100), the 2014 average revenue from the sale of apricots is estimated at approximately $91,800 per producer. In addition, based on information from the USDA's Market News Service, 2014 f.o.b. prices for WA No. 1 apricots ranged from $20.00 to $26.00 per 24-pound loose-pack container, and from $22.00 to $30.00 for 2-layer tray-pack containers. Using average price and shipment information provided by the Committee, it is determined that each of the Washington apricot handlers currently ship less than $7,000,000 worth of apricots on an annual basis. In view of the foregoing, it can be concluded that the majority of producers and handlers of Washington apricots may be classified as small entities.
This rule decreases the assessment rate established by the Committee and collected from handlers for the 2015-2016 and subsequent fiscal periods from $1.50 to $0.75 per ton of apricots handled under the order's authority. The Committee also unanimously recommended 2015-2016 expenditures of $7,610. With a 2015-2016 Washington apricot crop estimate of 5,800 fresh market tons, the Committee anticipates assessment income of approximately $4,350. Income derived from handler assessments, along with funds from the Committee's monetary reserve, will be adequate to cover budgeted expenses for the 2015-2016 fiscal period. At this assessment rate and expense level, the Committee's monetary reserve will approximate $7,093 by March 30, 2016, which is within the maximum permitted by the order of approximately one fiscal period's operational expenses.
The major expenditures recommended by the Committee for the 2015-2016 fiscal period include $3,000 for the management/administration fee, $2,500 for the annual audit review, $1,200 for Committee travel, and $500 for computer tech services, software, and equipment. In comparison, major expenditures for the 2014-2015 fiscal period included $3,000 for the management/administration fee, $2,500 for the annual audit review, $1,000 for Committee travel, and $50 for computer tech services, software, and equipment.
The Committee discussed alternatives to this rule, including alternative expenditure levels. Although lower assessment rates were considered, none were selected because they would not generate sufficient income to administer the order.
A review of historical crop and price information, as well as preliminary information pertaining to the 2015-2016 fiscal period, indicates that the producer price could average approximately $1,000 per ton for fresh Washington apricots. Therefore, the estimated assessment revenue for the 2015-2016 fiscal period as a percentage of total producer revenue is 0.08 percent for Washington apricots.
This action decreases the assessment obligation imposed on handlers. Assessments are applied uniformly on all handlers. Decreasing the assessment rate reduces the burden on handlers. In addition, the Committee's meeting was widely publicized throughout the Washington apricot industry, and all interested persons were invited to attend the meeting and participate in Committee deliberations on all issues. Like all Committee meetings, the May 12, 2015, meeting was a public meeting, and all entities, both large and small, were able to express views on this issue. Finally, interested persons are invited to submit comments on this interim rule, including the regulatory and informational impacts of this action on small businesses.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the order's information collection requirements have been previously approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and assigned OMB No. 0581-0189. No changes in those requirements as a result of this action are necessary. Should any changes become necessary, they would be submitted to OMB for approval.
This action imposes no additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements on either small or large Washington apricot handlers. As with all Federal marketing order programs, reports and forms are periodically reviewed to reduce information requirements and duplication by industry and public sector agencies.
AMS is committed to complying with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the Internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
USDA has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with this rule.
A small business guide on complying with fruit, vegetable, and specialty crop marketing agreements and orders may be viewed at:
After consideration of all relevant material presented, including the information and recommendation submitted by the Committee and other available information, it is hereby found that this rule, as hereinafter set forth, will tend to effectuate the declared policy of the Act.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553, it is also found and determined upon good cause that it is impracticable, unnecessary, and contrary to the public interest to give preliminary notice prior to putting this rule into effect, and that good cause exists for not postponing the effective date of this rule until 30 days after publication in the
Apricots, Marketing agreements, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 7 CFR part 922 is amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 601-674.
On and after April 1, 2015, an assessment rate of $0.75 per ton is established for the Washington Apricot Marketing Committee.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Affirmation of interim rule as final rule.
The Department of Agriculture (USDA) is adopting, as a final rule, without change, an interim rule that continued the previous suspension of the marketing order for Irish potatoes grown in Southeastern states (order). The interim rule continued the suspension of all provisions of the order, and the rules and regulations implemented thereunder, through March 1, 2017, as requested by representatives of the Virginia/North Carolina Irish potato industry. This provides the industry more time to consider changes which could affect the need for the order. If the industry does not petition to have the order reactivated by the end of the suspension period, the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) will propose to terminate the order.
Effective August 20, 2015 through March 1, 2017.
Doris Jamieson, Marketing Specialist, or Christian D. Nissen, Regional Director, Southeast Marketing Field Office, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Fruit and Vegetable Program, AMS, USDA; Telephone: (863) 324-3375, Fax: (863) 291-8614, or Email:
Small businesses may obtain information on complying with this and other marketing order and agreement regulations by viewing a guide at the following Web site:
This rule is issued under Marketing Agreement No. 104 and Marketing Order No. 953,
USDA is issuing this rule in conformance with Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 13175.
The handling of Irish potatoes grown in Southeastern states is regulated by 7 CFR part 953. Prior to this change, the marketing order, and the rules and regulations implemented thereunder, had been suspended until March 1, 2014. Even though the Southeastern Potato Committee does not function under the suspended order and regulations, representatives of the Virginia/North Carolina Irish potato industry met on December 18, 2013, and requested that the suspension of all provisions of the order, and the rules and regulations implemented thereunder, be continued through March 1, 2017. This gives the industry more time to consider the need for the order. Therefore, this rule continues in effect the rule that suspended, through March 1, 2017, the provisions of Federal Marketing Order No. 953 and the rules and regulations issued thereunder. If the industry does not petition to have the order reactivated by the end of the suspension period, AMS will propose to terminate the order.
In an interim rule published in the
Pursuant to requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has considered the economic impact of this action on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has prepared this final regulatory flexibility analysis.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of business subject to such actions in order that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened. Marketing orders issued pursuant to the Act, and the rules issued thereunder, are unique in that they are brought about through group action of essentially small entities acting on their own behalf.
There are approximately 10 handlers of Irish potatoes grown in Southeastern states who are subject to regulation under the order and approximately 20 potato producers in the regulated area. Small agricultural service firms are defined by the Small Business Administration (SBA) as those having annual receipts of less than $7,000,000, and small agricultural producers are defined as those whose annual receipts are less than $750,000 (13 CFR 121.201).
Using prices reported by AMS' Market News Service, the average f.o.b. price for Southeastern potatoes for the 2012-13 marketing season was around $25 per hundredweight. USDA has estimated production for the 2012-13 season at approximately 600,000 hundredweight of potatoes. Based on this information, average annual receipts for handlers would be less than $7,000,000. Information provided by the National Agricultural Statistics Service indicates that the average producer price for Irish potatoes grown in North Carolina and Virginia in 2012 was approximately $12.16 per hundredweight. Considering estimated production, average producer revenue would be about $400,000 for the 2012-13 season. Therefore, the majority of Southeastern potato handlers and producers may be classified as small entities.
This rule continues in effect the action that continued the previous suspension of the order and the associated rules and regulations through March 1, 2017. The continued suspension gives the industry more time to consider the need for the order. If the industry does not petition to have the order reactivated by the end of the suspension period, AMS will publish a proposal to terminate the order. Authority for this action is provided in section 8c(16)(A) of the Act.
Suspension of the order and its corresponding regulations relieves handlers of quality, inspection, and assessment burdens during the suspension period. Also, handler reports will not be required. Suspension of the order is therefore expected to reduce the regulatory burden on handlers and growers of all sizes.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the order's information collection requirements have been previously approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and assigned OMB No. 0581-0178 Vegetable and Specialty Crops. No changes in those requirements as a result of this action are necessary. Should any changes become necessary, they would be submitted to OMB for approval.
This rule will not impose any additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements on either small or large Southeastern Irish potato handlers. As with all Federal marketing order programs, reports and forms are periodically reviewed to reduce information requirements and duplication by industry and public sector agencies. In addition, USDA has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap or conflict with this rule.
Further, the industry's meeting was widely publicized throughout the Southeastern Irish potato industry and interested persons were invited to attend the meeting and participate in industry deliberations. The December 18, 2013, meeting was an open meeting and entities, both large and small, were able to express their views on this issue.
Comments on the interim rule were required to be received on or before June 1, 2015. No comments were received. Therefore, for the reasons given in the interim rule, we are adopting the interim rule as a final rule, without change.
To view the interim rule, go to:
This action also affirms information contained in the interim rule concerning Executive Orders 12866, 12988, 13175, and 13563; the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35); and the E-Gov Act (44 U.S.C. 101).
After consideration of all relevant material presented, it is found that finalizing the interim rule, without change, as published in the
Marketing agreements, Potatoes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, the interim rule that suspended 7 CFR part 953 and that was published at 80 FR 17307 on April 1, 2015, is adopted as a final rule, without change.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Interim rule with request for comments.
This rule implements a recommendation from the Idaho-Eastern Oregon Onion Committee (Committee) for a decrease in the assessment rate established for the 2015-2016 and subsequent fiscal periods from $0.10 to $0.05 per hundredweight of onions handled under the marketing order (order). The Committee locally administers the order and is comprised of producers and handlers of onions operating within the area of production. Assessments upon onion handlers are used by the Committee to fund reasonable and necessary expenses of the program. The fiscal period begins July 1 and ends June 30. The assessment rate will remain in effect indefinitely unless modified, suspended, or terminated.
Effective August 20, 2015. Comments received by October 19, 2015, will be considered prior to issuance of a final rule.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments concerning this rule. Comments must be sent to the Docket Clerk, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Fruit and Vegetable Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Fax: (202) 720-8938; or Internet:
Sue Coleman, Marketing Specialist, or Gary D. Olson, Regional Director, Northwest Marketing Field Office, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Fruit and Vegetable Program, AMS, USDA; Telephone: (503) 326-2724, Fax: (503) 326-7440, or Email:
Small businesses may request information on complying with this regulation by contacting Jeffrey Smutny, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Fruit and Vegetable Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Telephone: (202) 720-2491, Fax: (202) 720-8938, or Email:
This rule is issued under Marketing Agreement No. 130 and Order No. 958, both as amended (7 CFR part 958), regulating the handling of onions grown in designated counties in Idaho, and Malheur County, Oregon, hereinafter referred to as the “order.” The order is effective under the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended (7 U.S.C. 601-674), hereinafter referred to as the “Act.”
The Department of Agriculture (USDA) is issuing this rule in conformance with Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 13175.
This rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. Under the marketing order now in effect, Idaho-Eastern Oregon onion handlers are subject to assessments. Funds to administer the order are derived from such assessments. It is intended that the assessment rate as issued herein will be applicable to all assessable onions beginning July 1, 2015, and continue until amended, suspended, or terminated.
The Act provides that administrative proceedings must be exhausted before parties may file suit in court. Under section 608c(15)(A) of the Act, any handler subject to an order may file with USDA a petition stating that the order, any provision of the order, or any obligation imposed in connection with the order is not in accordance with law and request a modification of the order or to be exempted therefrom. Such handler is afforded the opportunity for a hearing on the petition. After the hearing, USDA would rule on the petition. The Act provides that the district court of the United States in any district in which the handler is an inhabitant, or has his or her principal place of business, has jurisdiction to review USDA's ruling on the petition, provided an action is filed not later than 20 days after the date of the entry of the ruling.
This rule decreases the assessment rate established for the Committee for the 2015-2016 and subsequent fiscal periods from $0.10 to $0.05 per hundredweight of onions.
The Idaho-Eastern Oregon onion marketing order provides authority for the Committee, with the approval of USDA, to formulate an annual budget of expenses and collect assessments from handlers to administer the program. The members of the Committee are producers and handlers of Idaho-Eastern Oregon onions. They are familiar with the Committee's needs and with the costs for goods and services in their local area and are thus in a position to formulate an appropriate budget and assessment rate. The assessment rate is formulated and discussed in a public meeting. Thus, all directly affected persons have an opportunity to participate and provide input.
For the 2005-2006 and subsequent fiscal periods, the Committee recommended, and USDA approved, an assessment rate that would continue in effect from fiscal period to fiscal period unless modified, suspended, or terminated by USDA upon recommendation and information submitted by the Committee or other information available to USDA. The Committee met on April 21, 2015, and recommended 2015-2016 expenditures of $705,473 and an assessment rate of $0.05 per hundredweight of onions. Ten Committee members voted for this change, one voted against, and there were no abstentions.
In comparison, last year's budgeted expenditures were $1,173,944. The assessment rate of $0.05 is $0.05 lower than the rate currently in effect. The Committee's recommendation was in response to a request from handlers and growers to reduce promotion expenditures from $635,000 to $250,000, and to allow handlers to keep $0.05 per hundredweight to spend on their own branded promotions.
The major expenditures recommended by the Committee for the 2015-2016 year include $6,000 for committee expenses, $115,412 for salary expenses, $67,810 for travel/office expenses, $466,251 for domestic and export promotions and production research expenses, and $50,000 for marketing order contingency. Budgeted expenses for these items in 2014-2015 were $6,000, $112,124, $107,810, $898,010, and $50,000, respectively.
The Committee based its recommended assessment rate decrease on the 2015-2016 crop estimates, the 2015-2016 program expenditure needs, and the current and projected size of its monetary reserve. The Committee
The assessment rate established in this rule will continue in effect indefinitely unless modified, suspended, or terminated by USDA upon recommendation and information submitted by the Committee or other available information.
Although this assessment rate is effective for an indefinite period, the Committee will continue to meet prior to or during each fiscal period to recommend a budget of expenses and consider recommendations for modification of the assessment rate. The dates and times of Committee meetings are available from the Committee or USDA. Committee meetings are open to the public and interested persons may express their views at these meetings. USDA will evaluate Committee recommendations and other available information to determine whether modification of the assessment rate is needed. Further rulemaking will be undertaken as necessary. The Committee's 2015-2016 budget and those for subsequent fiscal periods will be reviewed and, as appropriate, approved by USDA.
Pursuant to requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has considered the economic impact of this rule on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has prepared this initial regulatory flexibility analysis.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions in order that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened. Marketing orders issued pursuant to the Act, and the rules issued thereunder, are unique in that they are brought about through group action of essentially small entities acting on their own behalf.
There are approximately 250 producers of onions in the production area and approximately 31 handlers subject to regulation under the marketing order. Small agricultural producers are defined by the Small Business Administration as those having annual receipts less than $750,000, and small agricultural service firms are defined as those whose annual receipts are less than $7,000,000 (13 CFR 121.201).
According to the National Agricultural Statistics Service, as reported in the
This rule decreases the assessment rate established for the Committee and collected from handlers for the 2015-2016 and subsequent fiscal periods from $0.10 to $0.05 per hundredweight of onions handled. The Committee recommended 2015-2016 expenditures of $705,473 and an assessment rate of $0.05 per hundredweight. The assessment rate of $0.05 is $0.05 lower than the 2014-2015 rate. The quantity of assessable onions for the 2015-2016 fiscal period is estimated at 8,800,000 hundredweight. Thus, the $0.05 rate should provide $440,000 in assessment income. Assessment income, along with interest and other income, contributions and grants, and funds from the Committee's authorized reserve ($217,223), should be adequate to cover budgeted expenses of $705,473.
The major expenditures recommended by the Committee for the 2015-2016 year include $6,000 for committee expenses, $115,412 for salary expenses, $67,810 for travel/office expenses, $466,251 for program expenses, and $50,000 for marketing order contingency. Budgeted expenses for these items in 2014-2015 were $6,000, $112,124, $107,810, $898,010, and $50,000, respectively.
The Committee's recommendation to decrease the assessment was in response to a request from handlers and growers to reduce promotion expenditures from $635,000 to $250,000 and to allow handlers to keep $0.05 per hundredweight to spend on their own branded promotions.
Prior to arriving at this budget and assessment rate, the Committee considered information from various sources, such as the Committee's Executive, Research, Export, and Promotion Sub-Committees, grower associations, and industry leaders. Alternative expenditure levels were discussed by these groups, based upon the relative value of various activities to the onion industry. The Committee ultimately determined that income derived from handler assessments, along with interest and other income, contributions and grants, and funds from the Committee's authorized reserve will be adequate to cover 2015-2016 budgeted expenses of $705,473.
A review of historical information and preliminary information pertaining to the upcoming fiscal period indicates that the producer price for the 2015-2016 fiscal period could range between $8.00 and $8.50 per hundredweight of onions. Utilizing these estimates and the assessment rate of $0.05 per hundredweight, estimated assessment revenue as a percentage of total grower revenue could range between 0.59 and 0.63 percent for the 2015-2016 fiscal period.
This action decreases the assessment obligation imposed on handlers. Assessments are applied uniformly on all handlers, and some of the costs may be passed on to producers. However, decreasing the assessment rate reduces the burden on handlers, and may reduce the burden on producers. In addition, the Committee's meeting was widely publicized throughout the Idaho-Eastern Oregon onion industry and all interested persons were invited to attend the meeting and participate in Committee deliberations on all issues. Like all Committee meetings, the April 21, 2015, meeting was a public meeting and all entities, both large and small, were able to express views on this issue. Finally, interested persons are invited to submit comments on this interim rule, including the regulatory and informational impacts of this action on small businesses.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the order's information collection requirements have been previously approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and assigned OMB No. 0581-0178, Vegetable and Specialty Crops. No changes in those requirements as a result of this action are necessary. Should any changes become necessary,
This action imposes no additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements on either small or large Idaho-Eastern Oregon onion handlers. As with all Federal marketing order programs, reports and forms are periodically reviewed to reduce information requirements and duplication by industry and public sector agencies.
AMS is committed to complying with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
USDA has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with this rule.
A small business guide on complying with fruit, vegetable, and specialty crop marketing agreements and orders may be viewed at:
After consideration of all relevant material presented, including the information and recommendation submitted by the Committee and other available information, it is hereby found that this rule, as hereinafter set forth, will tend to effectuate the declared policy of the Act.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553, it is also found and determined upon good cause that it is impracticable, unnecessary, and contrary to the public interest to give preliminary notice prior to putting this rule into effect, and that good cause exists for not postponing the effective date of this rule until 30 days after publication in the
Marketing agreements, Onions, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 7 CFR part 958 is amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 601-674.
On and after July 1, 2015, an assessment rate of $0.05 per hundredweight is established for Idaho-Eastern Oregon onions.
Department of State.
Final rule.
This rule amends the Department of State (Department) regulation on the accreditation and approval of adoption service providers in intercountry adoptions. Most agencies and persons currently accredited received that accreditation at approximately the same time, which has resulted in a surge of concurrent renewal applications for consideration by the Council on Accreditation (COA), the designated accrediting entity. Permitting some agencies or persons to qualify for an extension by one year of the accreditation or approval period will result in a more even distribution of applications for renewal in a given year. By distributing renewals, and the resources needed to process them, COA will be further enabled to effectively and consistently carry out its other functions.
Effective September 18, 2015.
Carine Rosalia, Office of Legal Affairs, Overseas Citizen Services, U.S. Department of State, CA/OCS/L, SA-17, Floor 10, Washington, DC 20522-1710; (202) 485-6079.
This rule amends procedural aspects of the Intercountry Adoption Accreditation Regulations concerning the length of accreditation or approval found in 22 CFR part 96. Subpart G governs decisions on applications for accreditation and approval. Section 96.60 provides for accreditation or approval for a period of four years. Section 96.60 does not currently provide the opportunity to stagger the renewal applications, which results in many renewal applications coming due at the same time.
This rule aids the accrediting entity in managing its workload. In particular, the amendments to this section will allow for a one-year extension of previously-granted accreditation or approval, not to exceed five years total, based on criteria included in the rule, and summarized here.
The final rule establishes criteria for selecting which agencies or persons are eligible for the one-year extension. As a threshold matter, only agencies and persons that have no pending adoption-related complaint investigations or adverse actions will be eligible for an extension under this procedure. Also, those entities that have undergone a change in corporate or internal structure (such as a merger or a leadership change in chief executive or chief financial officer) since their initial accreditation/approval or last renewal will not qualify for an extension under this procedure. If the agency or person meets the threshold criteria, in order to ensure that the extension achieves its purpose of staggering renewals thereafter, the Secretary in his discretion may consider additional factors including, but not limited to, the agency's or person's volume of intercountry adoption cases in the year preceding the application for renewal or extension, the agency's or person's U.S. state licensure record, and the number of extensions available.
Since the President signed into law the Intercountry Adoption Universal Accreditation Act of 2012, approximately 40 new agencies received accreditation, all in the same year. The resulting surge in the number of agencies requiring review in certain years argued strongly for establishing a mechanism that would allow COA to better manage the distribution of renewals. The procedure outlined in this rulemaking allows a more even
The Department published this rule as a notice of proposed rulemaking on June 10, 2015, with a 30-day period for public comments. See 80 FR 32869. The Department received no comments on the rulemaking.
Consistent with section 605(b) of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 605(b)), the Department certifies that this rule does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. For the small business entities affected by the amended rule, the cost is neutral because it does not change the cost per year of accreditation or renewal, but only potentially the year in which renewal takes place.
This rulemaking is not affected by the provisions of section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (codified at 2 U.S.C. 1532).
This rule is not a major rule as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804, for purposes of congressional review of agency rulemaking under the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121).
The Department of State has reviewed this rule to ensure its consistency with the regulatory philosophy and principles set forth in Executive Order 12866 and has determined that the benefits of this final regulation justify its costs. The Department does not consider this rulemaking to be an economically significant action under the Executive Order. The rule does not add any new legal requirements to Part 96; it merely adds administrative flexibility to the work of the Department-designated accrediting entity.
This rule does not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Nor does it have federalism implications warranting the application of Executive Orders 12372 and No. 13132.
The Department has reviewed the rule in light of Executive Order No. 12988 to eliminate ambiguity, minimize litigation, establish clear legal standards, and reduce burden.
The Department has considered this rule in light of Executive Order 13563, dated January 18, 2011, and affirms that it is consistent with the guidance therein.
This rule does not impose or revise information collection requirements subject to the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Adoption, Child welfare, Children, Immigration, Foreign persons.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Department of State amends 22 CFR part 96 as follows:
The Convention on Protection of Children and Co-operation in Respect of Intercountry Adoption (done at the Hague, May 29, 1993), S. Treaty Doc. 105-51 (1998), 1870 U.N.T.S. 167 (Reg. No. 31922 (1993)); The Intercountry Adoption Act of 2000, 42 U.S.C. 14901-14954; The Intercountry Adoption Universal Accreditation Act of 2012, Pub. L. 112-276, 42 U.S.C. 14925.
(a) The accrediting entity will accredit or approve an agency or person for a period of four years, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. The accreditation or approval period will commence on the date that the agency or person is granted accreditation or approval.
(b) In order to stagger the renewal requests from agencies and persons applying for accreditation or approval and to prevent the renewal requests from coming due at the same time, the accrediting entity may extend the period of accreditation it has previously granted for no more than one year and such that the total period of accreditation does not exceed five years, as long as the agency or person remains in substantial compliance with the applicable standards in subpart F of this part. The only agencies and persons that may qualify for an extension are: Those that have no pending Complaint Registry investigations or adverse actions (see § 96.70); and those that have not undergone a change in corporate or internal structure (such as a merger or change in chief executive or financial officer) during their current accreditation or approval period. For agencies and persons that meet these two criteria, the Secretary, in his or her discretion, may consider additional factors in deciding upon an extension including, but not limited to, the agency's or person's volume of intercountry adoption cases in the year preceding the application for renewal or extension, the agency's or person's state licensure record, and the number of extensions available.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Final rule.
The Coast Guard is amending and updating its special local regulations relating to recurring marine parades, regattas, and other events that take place in the Eighth Coast Guard District area of responsibility (AOR). This final rule informs the public of regularly scheduled marine parades, regattas, and other recurring events that require additional safety measures through establishing a special local regulation. Through this final rule, the list of recurring marine events requiring special local regulation is updated with revisions, additional events, and removal of events that no longer take place in the Eighth Coast Guard District AOR. When these special local regulations are enforced, certain restrictions are placed on marine traffic
Effective September 18, 2015.
Documents mentioned in this preamble are part of Docket Number [USCG-2013-1061]. To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email Shelley R. Miller, Eighth Coast Guard District Waterways Management Division, (504) 671-2139 or email,
The Coast Guard preceded this final rule with an interim final rule with request for comments. The interim rule was published in the
The list of annual and recurring marine events and special local regulations occurring in the Eighth Coast Guard District Area of Responsibility (AOR) is published under 33 CFR 100.801. That list was last updated through a direct final rule with request for comments on March 1, 2012 (77 FR 12456) and further amended on May 16, 2012 (77 FR 28766). These actions generated no adverse comments. Like today's final rule and its preceding interim rule, the 2012 final rules updated, added to, removed from, and amended 33 CFR 100.801 to create a comprehensive list of recurring marine events requiring special local regulations.
The legal basis for the rule is found in 33 U.S.C. 1233, which authorizes the Coast Guard to permit marine events and establish special local regulations related to those marine events.
The Coast Guard is amending and updating the special local regulations under 33 CFR part 100 to incorporate the numerous annual marine events held on or around navigable waters within the Eighth Coast Guard District. These events include marine parades, boat races, swim events, and other marine related events. Currently, there is a list of events located at 33 CFR § 100.801, establishing a special local regulation for each annual or recurring marine event in the Eighth Coast Guard District's AOR. That list must be amended in order to: Provide new information on existing events; include 42 new events expected to recur annually or biannually; and remove 16 special local regulations that are no longer required. Issuing individual rulemakings for each new event, amendment, or removal of an event, would create unnecessary administrative costs and burdens. This rule considerably reduces administrative overhead and provides the public with notice through publication in the
No adverse comments were received in response to the April 22, 2014 interim final rule. Some comments regarding further updates to the recurring list were received. Because the interim rule and now this final rule establish separate tables for each Sector within the Eighth District, further updates will now be made by each Sector individually, impacting only their table of recurring marine events requiring special local regulations. Accordingly, this final rule makes no changes to the regulations in the interim rule.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes or executive orders.
This rule is not a significant regulatory action under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, as supplemented by Executive Order 13563, Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review, and does not require an assessment of potential costs and benefits under section 6(a)(3) of Executive Order 12866 or under section 1 of Executive Order 13563. The Office of Management and Budget has not reviewed it under those Orders.
The marine parades, regattas, and other marine events listed in this rule will restrict vessel traffic in certain areas of Eighth Coast Guard District waters at specified times; however, the effect of this regulation will not be significant because these events are short in duration and the special local regulations restricting and governing vessel movements are also limited in scope and short in duration. Additionally, the public is given advance notification through local forms of notice, the
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
This rule may affect the following entities, some of which might be small entities: The owners or operators of
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and determined that this rule does not have implications for federalism.
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
This rule will not cause a taking of private property or otherwise have taking implications under Executive Order 12630, Governmental Actions and Interference with Constitutionally Protected Property Rights.
This rule meets applicable standards in sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform, to minimize litigation, eliminate ambiguity, and reduce burden.
We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13045, Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks. This rule is not an economically significant rule and does not create an environmental risk to health or risk to safety that may disproportionately affect children.
This rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
This action is not a “significant energy action” under Executive Order 13211, Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use.
This rule does not use technical standards. Therefore, we did not consider the use of voluntary consensus standards.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule is categorically excluded from further review under section 2.B.2. figure 2-1, paragraph 34(h) of the Commandant Instruction because it involves the establishment of special local regulations related to marine event permits for marine parades, regattas, and other marine events. An environmental analysis checklist and a categorical exclusion determination are available in the docket where indicated under the
Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, and Waterways.
Environmental Protection Agency.
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is amending its Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) and title V regulations to remove from the Code of Federal Regulations portions of those regulations that were initially promulgated in 2010 and that the Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit (D.C. Circuit) specifically identified as vacated in the April 10, 2015, amended judgment,
This rule is effective on August 19, 2015.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2015-0414. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Questions concerning this final rule should be addressed to Mrs. Jessica Montañez, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, Air Quality Planning Division, (C504-03), Research Triangle Park, NC 27711, telephone number (919) 541-3407, email at
The information in this section of the preamble is organized as follows:
Entities potentially affected by this final action include new and modified stationary sources in all industry groups. To determine whether your facility would be affected by this action, you should carefully examine the applicability criteria in §§ 51.166 and 52.21 of title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR). Entities potentially affected by this final action also include state, local and tribal governments that are authorized to implement the PSD program through an EPA-approved State Implementation Plan (SIP) or Tribal Implementation Plan (TIP) or that have been authorized to implement the PSD program through a delegation of the federal PSD regulations.
Part C of title I of the Clean Air Act (CAA or the Act) contains the requirements for a component of the major New Source Review (NSR) program known as the PSD program. This program sets forth procedures for the preconstruction review and permitting of new and modified stationary sources of air pollution locating in areas meeting the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) (“attainment” areas) and areas for which there is insufficient information to classify an area as either attainment or nonattainment (“unclassifiable” areas). The applicability of PSD to a particular source must be determined in advance of construction of a new source or major modification of an existing source and is pollutant-specific. Once a source is determined to be subject to PSD, among other requirements, the source must demonstrate that it will not cause or contribute to a violation of any NAAQS or PSD increment,
Title V of the CAA, on the other hand, requires all major stationary sources of air pollution and certain other sources to apply for a title V operating permit that includes emission limitations and other conditions as necessary to assure compliance with applicable requirements of the CAA.
On June 3, 2010, the EPA published a final rule, known as the Tailoring Rule, which phased in permitting requirements for greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions from stationary sources under the CAA PSD and title V permitting programs (75 FR 31514). Under its interpretation of the CAA at the time, the EPA believed the Tailoring Rule was necessary to avoid a sudden and unmanageable increase in the number of sources that would be required to obtain PSD and title V permits under the CAA because the sources emitted or had the potential to emit GHGs above the applicable major source and major modification thresholds. In Step 1 of the Tailoring Rule, which began on January 2, 2011, the EPA limited application of PSD and title V requirements to sources only if they were subject to PSD or title V “anyway” due to their emissions of non-GHG pollutants. These sources are referred to as “anyway sources.” In Step 2 of the Tailoring Rule, which began on July 1, 2011, the EPA applied the PSD and title V permitting requirements under the CAA to sources that were classified as major, and, thus, required to obtain a permit, based solely on their GHG emissions or potential to emit GHGs, and to modifications of otherwise major sources that required a PSD permit because they increased only GHG emissions above the level in the EPA regulations.
On June 23, 2014, the U.S. Supreme Court issued a decision in
Because the Supreme Court decision affirmed in part and reversed in part an earlier decision of the D.C. Circuit in
In the
Consistent with the
This final action removes from the CFR several provisions of the PSD and title V permitting regulations that were originally promulgated as part of the Tailoring Rule and that the D.C. Circuit specifically identified as vacated in the
Furthermore, and since the D.C. Circuit's
The EPA is taking this action as a final rule without providing an opportunity for public comment or a public hearing because the EPA finds that the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) good cause exemption applies here. In general, the APA requires that general notice of proposed rulemaking shall be published in the
In addition, notice-and-comment would be contrary to the public interest because it would unnecessarily delay the removal from the CFR of the Tailoring Rule Step 2 PSD permitting provisions that the Supreme Court held were invalid and the regulations that require the EPA to consider further phasing-in the GHG permitting requirements for lower GHG emissions thresholds in 40 CFR 52.22, 70.12, and 71.13 that the D.C. Circuit's
For these reasons, the EPA finds good cause to issue a final rulemaking pursuant to section 553 of the APA, 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3)(B). The requirements of CAA section 307(d), including the requirement for public comment and hearing on proposed rulemakings, do not apply to this action because 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3)(B) applies. In addition, this rule relieves a restriction on construction of some stationary sources and therefore is not subject to the requirement for a 30-day delay in effective date. 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(1). Moreover, the agency finds that the problems outlined above regarding the effects of delaying issuance of the rule also provide good cause for not delaying its effective date. 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). Accordingly, the requirement for a delay in effective date does not apply and the rule will take effect upon publication in the
The D.C. Circuit's vacatur of the Tailoring Rule Step 2 PSD permitting requirements in 40 CFR 51.166(b)(48)(v) and 40 CFR 52.21(b)(49)(v) and the provisions that required further action to consider phasing-in GHG permitting requirements into the PSD and title V programs at lower GHG emission thresholds at 40 CFR 52.22, 70.12, and 71.13 means that these provisions can no longer be relied upon by the EPA, permit applicants or permitting authorities as a basis for issuing PSD permits. Further, this means that the EPA will not be required to take the actions specified in the regulations at 40 CFR 52.22, 70.12, and 71.13 to consider further phasing in GHG PSD and title V permitting requirements at lower GHG emissions thresholds.
Permit reviewing authorities with EPA-approved SIPs containing any or all of the affected provisions previously allowed by 40 CFR 51.166(b)(48)(v) may request to remove their corresponding Tailoring Rule Step 2 provisions as soon as feasible, which may be in conjunction with the next otherwise planned SIP revision. Permit reviewing authorities also have the option to retain the Tailoring Rule Step 2 permitting requirements solely as a requirement of state law, but these requirements will not be approved as part of their federally-enforceable SIP. As we explained in a memorandum issued by the agency on July 24, 2014, titled, “Next Steps and Preliminary Views on the Application of Clean Air Act Permitting Programs to Greenhouse Gases Following the Supreme Court's Decision in
With regard to PSD Step 2 permits already issued, the Preliminary Views Memo explained that the EPA “will no longer require PSD . . . permits for Step 2 sources” (Preliminary Views Memo at 2) and that the EPA expected “to provide additional views in the future with respect to Step 2 sources that had already obtained a PSD permit . . .” (Preliminary Views Memo at 4). The EPA provided additional views regarding EPA-issued Step 2 PSD permits
Consistent with the plan described in the OAR Next Steps Memo, the EPA completed the rulemaking that allows for rescission of Step 2 permits. “Prevention of Significant Deterioration Permitting for Greenhouse Gases: Providing Option for Rescission of EPA-Issued Tailoring Rule Step 2 Prevention of Significant Deterioration Permits” (80 FR 26183; May 7, 2015). This rule provides a mechanism for the EPA and delegated reviewing authorities to rescind EPA-issued Step 2 PSD permits in response to requests from applicants who can demonstrate that they are eligible for permit rescission and as further discussed in that rule. EPA received no comments on this rule, and it is now in effect. Sources with questions on PSD permitting obligations arising from Step 2 PSD permits issued by state, local or tribal permitting authorities under permitting programs approved into the state or tribal implementation plans should review the governing statutory provisions and the provisions in the applicable state or tribal implementation plans to determine how to address these Step 2 permits and consult with the EPA, states and tribes, as necessary.
In the case of sources that trigger PSD based on emissions of pollutants other than GHG (“anyway sources”), the PSD BACT requirement continues to apply to GHG emissions from such sources. This rulemaking does not change §§ 51.166(j), 51.166(b)(48)(iv), 52.21(j),
With respect to title V, the D.C. Circuit's Amended Judgment in
This action removes sections and paragraphs of the PSD and title V GHG Tailoring Rule regulations that the D.C. Circuit specifically identified as vacated in the
This action is not a significant regulatory action and was therefore not submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review.
This action does not impose any new information collection burden under the PRA. OMB has previously approved the information collection activities contained in the existing regulations and has assigned OMB control number 2060-0003. To the extent this rule has any substantive effect, it relieves regulatory burdens by removing regulations that purport to require permit applicants to request PSD permits if GHGs are the only pollutant emitted by the new source or modification to an existing source above the applicable major source thresholds and regulations that required the EPA to consider further phasing-in the GHG permitting requirements at lower GHG emission thresholds. This action is taken in light of the D.C. Circuit's
I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. In making this determination, the impact of concern is any significant adverse economic impact on small entities. An agency may certify that a rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities if the rule relieves regulatory burden, has no net burden or otherwise has a positive economic effect on the small entities subject to the rule. To the extent this rule has any substantive effect, it relieves regulatory burdens by removing regulations that purport to require permit applicants to request PSD permits if GHGs are the only pollutant emitted by the new source or modification to an existing source above the applicable major source thresholds and regulations that required the EPA to consider further phasing-in the GHG permitting requirements at lower GHG emission thresholds. This action is taken in light of the D.C. Circuit's
This action does not contain any unfunded mandate as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. The action imposes no enforceable duty on any state, local or tribal governments or the private sector.
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
This action does not have tribal implications, as specified in Executive Order 13175. Although the Tribal Air Rule (76 FR 38748, July 1, 2011) under the CAA gives tribes the opportunity to request and be granted delegation of the federal PSD program found at 40 CFR 52.21 to issue PSD permits, there are no tribal agencies currently implementing the federal PSD permitting program. As a result, the removal of the PSD provisions that the D.C. Circuit vacated will not affect any tribal reviewing authorities and any tribally-owned sources with EPA-issued Step 2 PSD permits have the discretion to request the EPA to rescind their permit. In addition, the D.C. Circuit vacatur of the requirements for the EPA to consider further phasing in GHG permitting requirements into the PSD and title V programs at lower GHG emission thresholds provides relief to tribally-owned sources that could have been subject to GHG permitting regulations at lower GHG emission thresholds if the EPA would have taken steps to apply GHG permitting requirements to such sources at such thresholds. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this action.
The EPA interprets Executive Order 13045 as applying only to those regulatory actions that concern environmental health or safety risks that the EPA has reason to believe may disproportionately affect children, per the definition of “covered regulatory action” in section 2-202 of the Executive Order. This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
This rulemaking does not involve technical standards.
The EPA believes the human health or environmental risk addressed by this action will not have potential disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority, low-income or indigenous populations. The results of this evaluation are contained in the section V titled, “Environmental Justice Considerations” for this action.
This action is subject to the CRA, and the EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. The CRA allows the issuing agency to make a rule effective sooner than otherwise provided by the CRA if the agency makes a good cause finding that notice-and-comment rulemaking procedures are impracticable, unnecessary or contrary to the public interest (5 U.S.C. 808(2)). The EPA has made a good cause finding for this rule as discussed in the Final Action section of this rulemaking, including the basis for that finding.
Pursuant to CAA section 307(d)(1)(V), the Administrator determines that this action is subject to provisions of section 307(d). Section 307(d) establishes procedural requirements specific to rulemaking under the CAA. Section 307(d)(1)(V) provides that the provisions of section 307(d) apply to “such other actions as the Administrator may determine.”
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the U.S. Court of Appeals for the D.C. Circuit within 60 days from August 19, 2015. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review, nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements (
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Greenhouse gases, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, National ambient air quality standards, New source review, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Preconstruction permitting, Prevention of significant deterioration, Reviewing authorities, Sulfur oxides, Tailoring rule, Volatile organic compounds.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Greenhouse gases, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, National ambient air quality standards, Nitrogen dioxide, Operating permits, Ozone, Particulate matter, Permitting authorities, Sulfur oxides, Tailoring rule, Title V, Volatile organic compounds.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, title 40, Chapter I of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
23 U.S.C. 101; 42 U.S.C. 7401-7671q.
42 U.S.C. 7401
42 U.S.C. 7401,
42 U.S.C. 7401,
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by the State of Rhode Island Department of Environmental Management. The regulations adopted by Rhode Island include the California Low Emission Vehicle (LEV) II light-duty motor vehicle emission standards effective in model year 2008, the California LEV II medium-duty vehicle standards effective in model year 2009, and greenhouse gas emission standards for light-duty motor vehicles and medium-duty vehicles effective with model year 2009. The Rhode Island LEV regulation submitted also includes a zero emission vehicle (ZEV) provision. Rhode Island has adopted these revisions to reduce emissions of volatile organic compounds (VOC) and nitrogen
This rule is effective on September 18, 2015.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket Identification No. EPA-R01-OAR-2009-0541. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Copies of the documents relevant to this action are also available for public inspection during normal business hours, by appointment at Office of Air Resources, Department of Environmental Management, 235 Promenade Street, Providence, RI 02908-5767.
Ariel Garcia, Air Quality Planning Unit, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, EPA New England Regional Office, 5 Post Office Square, Suite 100 (mail code: OEP05-2), Boston, MA 02109-3912, telephone number (617) 918-1660, fax number (617) 918-0660, email
Throughout this document whenever “we”, “us”, or “our” is used, we mean EPA.
Organization of this document. The following outline is provided to aid in locating information in this preamble.
On June 4, 2015 (80 FR 31867), EPA published a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPR) for the State of Rhode Island. The NPR proposed approval of Rhode Island's amended Air Pollution Control Regulation No. 37 (APCR No. 37), “Rhode Island's Low Emission Vehicle Program.” Rhode Island's amended APCR No. 37, with an effective date of December 22, 2005, adopts the California LEV II program. Rhode Island first adopted California's LEV I program standards on June 6, 1996. In 1999, APCR No. 37 was amended to allow automobile manufacturers to comply with the National Low Emission Vehicle (NLEV) program in lieu of complying with the California LEV program. In 2004, Rhode Island adopted California's LEV II standards. In September 2005, California amended their LEV II standards to include standards for greenhouse gas emissions to apply to model year 2009 and later vehicles.
On December 22, 2005, Rhode Island made the following amendments to APCR No. 37: Adopted California LEV II emission standards and related provisions for medium-duty vehicles commencing with the 2009 model year, adopted recently announced revisions concerning LEV II greenhouse gas emission standards and related provisions for passenger cars, light-duty trucks, and medium-duty passenger vehicles commencing with the 2009 model year in accordance with section 177 of the CAA, and provided additional clarification and flexibility with respect to the implementation of the zero emissions vehicle (ZEV) program in Rhode Island.
A detailed discussion of Rhode Island's September 5, 2008 SIP revision and EPA's rationale for proposing approval of the SIP revision were provided in the NPR and will not be restated here. No public comments were received on the NPR.
EPA is approving Rhode Island's Low Emission Vehicle Program as a revision to the Rhode Island SIP. Specifically, EPA is incorporating into the SIP Rhode Island Air Pollution Control Regulation No. 37, “Rhode Island's Low Emission Vehicle Program,” effective in the State of Rhode Island on December 22, 2005.
In this rule, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference Rhode Island's revised Air Pollution Control Regulation No. 37 described in the amendments to 40 CFR part 52 set forth below. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by October 19, 2015. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
Part 52 of chapter I, title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
EPA—Approved Rhode Island Regulations
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving elements of State Implementation Plan (SIP) revisions from the State of Colorado to demonstrate the State meets infrastructure requirements of the Clean Air Act (Act, CAA) for the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) promulgated for ozone on March 12, 2008; lead (Pb) on October 15, 2008; and nitrogen dioxide (NO
This rule is effective September 18, 2015.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket Identification Number EPA-R08-OAR-2012-0972. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Abby Fulton, Air Program, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), Region 8, Mail Code 8P-AR, 1595 Wynkoop Street, Denver, Colorado 80202-1129, 303-312-6563,
Infrastructure requirements for SIPs are provided in section 110(a)(1) and (2) of the CAA. Section 110(a)(2) lists the specific infrastructure elements that a SIP must contain or satisfy. The elements that are the subject of this action are described in detail in our notice of proposed rulemaking (NPR) published on June 1, 2015 (80 FR 30974).
The NPR proposed approval of Colorado's submissions with respect to the following infrastructure elements for the 2008 ozone, 2008 Pb, and 2010 NO
No comments were received on our June 1, 2015 NPR.
EPA is approving the following infrastructure elements for the 2008 ozone, 2008 Pb
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations (42 U.S.C. 7410(k), 40 CFR 52.02(a)). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves some state law as meeting federal requirements and disapproves other state law because it does not meet federal requirements; this action does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, Oct. 4, 1993);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, Aug. 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and,
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, Feb. 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by October 19, 2015. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See CAA section 307(b)(2).)
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Greenhouse gases, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
40 CFR part 52 is amended to read as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) The Colorado Department of Public Health and Environment provided submissions to meet infrastructure requirements for the State
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance for residues of methane sulfonic acid (CAS Reg. No.75-75-2) when used as an inert ingredient (acidifying agent) in pesticide formulations applied to animals at a maximum concentration not to exceed 3% by weight and when used as an inert ingredient in antimicrobial pesticide formulations applied to food-contact surfaces in public eating places, dairy-processing equipment, and food-processing equipment and utensils at a concentration not to exceed 5,000 parts per million (ppm). Lewis & Harrison, on behalf of BASF Corporation, submitted a petition to EPA under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA), requesting establishment of an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance. This regulation eliminates the need to establish a maximum permissible level for residues of methane sulfonic acid.
This regulation is effective August 19, 2015. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before October 19, 2015], and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2014-0633, is available at
Susan Lewis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2014-0633 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before October 19, 2015. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2014-0633, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
In the
Inert ingredients are all ingredients that are not active ingredients as defined in 40 CFR 153.125 and include, but are not limited to, the following types of ingredients (except when they have a pesticidal efficacy of their own): Solvents such as alcohols and hydrocarbons; surfactants such as polyoxyethylene polymers and fatty acids; carriers such as clay and diatomaceous earth; thickeners such as carrageenan and modified cellulose; wetting, spreading, and dispersing agents; propellants in aerosol dispensers; microencapsulating agents; and emulsifiers. The term “inert” is not intended to imply nontoxicity; the ingredient may or may not be chemically active. Generally, EPA has exempted inert ingredients from the requirement of a tolerance based on the low toxicity of the individual inert ingredients.
Section 408(c)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish an exemption from the requirement for a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe”. Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue. . . .”
EPA establishes exemptions from the requirement of a tolerance only in those cases where it can be clearly demonstrated that the risks from aggregate exposure to pesticide chemical residues under reasonably foreseeable circumstances will pose no appreciable risks to human health. In order to determine the risks from aggregate exposure to pesticide inert ingredients, the Agency considers the toxicity of the inert in conjunction with possible exposure to residues of the inert ingredient through food, drinking water, and through other exposures that occur as a result of pesticide use in residential settings. If EPA is able to determine that a finite tolerance is not necessary to ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the inert ingredient, an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance may be established.
Consistent with FFDCA section 408(c)(2)(A), and the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(c)(2)(B), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for methane sulfonic acid including exposure resulting from the exemption established by this action. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with methane sulfonic acid follows.
EPA has evaluated the available toxicity data and considered their validity, completeness, and reliability as well as the relationship of the results of the studies to human risk. EPA has also considered available information concerning the variability of the sensitivities of major identifiable subgroups of consumers, including infants and children. Specific information on the studies received and the nature of the adverse effects caused by methane sulfonic acid as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies can be found at
Methane sulfonic acid has moderate acute oral toxicity to rats and moderate acute dermal toxicity to rabbits. Methane sulfonic acid is corrosive to mouse skin, extremely corrosive to the eye, but showed no evidence of dermal sensitization. Following repeated nose-only inhalation exposures in rats to low concentrations, clear evidence of portal-of-entry effects, such as histopathological lesions in the nasal turbinates were observed however there was no evidence of systemic toxicity at dose levels up to 0.74 milligram/Liter (mg/L) in a 7-day study and 0.24 mg/L in a 28-day study, the highest doses tested in both studies. In a 7-day repeat dose oral feeding study in rats, no systemic toxicity was observed at doses up to 1,805 milligrams/kilograms/day (mg/kg/day). No effects were seen for parental toxicity, offspring/developmental toxicity or reproductive performance in a combined reproductive/developmental toxicity screening test at doses up to 1,000 mg/kg/day. In one developmental toxicity study in rats, no parental systemic or developmental toxicity was observed at doses up to 400 mg/kg/day. Available prenatal developmental toxicity data showed some evidence of slight maternal toxicity but no developmental effects. Methane sulfonic acid was not mutagenic and did not induce chromosomal aberrations. There are no metabolism, chronic toxicity or carcinogenicity studies available on methane sulfonic acid. However, based on the lack of systemic toxicity at 1,000 mg/kg/day and above in a combined reproductive/developmental screening study and 7-day dietary study, and the lack of mutagenicity concern, there are low concerns for cancer.
Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological points of departure (POD) and levels of concern to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticide. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment. PODs are developed based on a careful analysis of the doses in each toxicological study to determine the dose at which the NOAEL and the LOAEL are identified. Uncertainty/safety factors are used in conjunction with the POD to calculate a safe exposure level—generally referred to as a population-adjusted dose (PAD) or a reference dose (RfD)—and a safe margin of exposure (MOE). For non-threshold risks, the Agency assumes that any amount of exposure will lead to some degree of risk. Thus, the Agency
The oral toxicity NOAEL is taken from the developmental toxicity study with female Sprague-Dawley rats where the NOAEL was identified as 400 mg/kg/day. This dose is used for the dietary exposure assessment.
The inhalation toxicity NOAEL was taken from the repeat-dose inhalation study discussed earlier. There were no treatment related macroscopic findings in the treated animals. Microscopic findings believed attributable to the test material included mucosal necrosis, suppurative inflammation and/or nasal exudate in males and females in the 0.23 and 0.74 mg/L groups. Since this is a localized effect, it was not considered as systemic toxicity, and the NOAEL was determined to be 0.74 mg/L (~191 mg/kg/day).
The dermal toxicity NOAEL is selected from an oral developmental toxicity study with the assumption of 100% dermal absorption. Based on the results of this study, the dermal toxicity NOAEL was 400 mg/kg/day.
1.
Additional dietary exposure may occur from consuming meat and dairy products from treated dairy cattle, sheep or goats. The Agency used the dietary exposure model to assess possible residues from treated animals.
In conducting the chronic dietary exposure assessment using the Dietary Exposure Evaluation Model/Food Commodity Intake Database (DEEM-FCID)
2.
3.
Dermal and inhalation exposures may occur as a result of the use of sanitizing solutions which contain methane sulfonic acid. Such uses include mopping floors or wiping/sponging food contact surfaces
4.
EPA has not found methane sulfonic acid to share a common mechanism of toxicity with any other substances, and methane sulfonic acid does not appear to produce a toxic metabolite produced by other substances. For the purposes of this tolerance action, therefore, EPA has assumed that methane sulfonic acid does not have a common mechanism of toxicity with other substances. For information regarding EPA's efforts to determine which chemicals have a common mechanism of toxicity and to evaluate the cumulative effects of such chemicals, see EPA's Web site at
1.
2.
In one developmental toxicity study in rats, there were no treatment related effects observed in the maternal animals or in the fetuses at doses up to 400 mg/kg/day (the highest dose tested). In another developmental toxicity study in rats no maternal or developmental toxicity was observed at dose levels up to 300 mg/kg/day; the highest dose tested.
3.
i. The toxicity database for methane sulfonic acid is complete for FQPA assessment. The available studies include two developmental toxicity studies in rats, a combined rat reproductive/developmental toxicity, two repeated dose inhalation toxicity studies in rats, and several mutagenicity studies.
ii. No treatment related effects were observed in the Functional Observation Battery and motor activity in a combined reproductive/developmental toxicity with rats at doses up to 1,000 mg/kg/day. Based on the results of this study it is concluded that methane sulfonic acid is not a neurotoxic chemical and there is no need for a developmental neurotoxicity study or additional uncertainty factors (UFs) to account for neurotoxicity.
iii. There is no evidence that methane sulfonic acid results in increased susceptibility in
iv. There is no immunotoxicity study available in the database, however, there was no systemic toxicity observed at the limit dose in a combined reproductive/developmental toxicity study. Therefore, there is no need for an immunotoxicity study or additional UFs to account for the lack of an immunotoxicity study.
v. There are no residual uncertainties identified in the exposure databases.
These assessments will not underestimate the exposure and risks posed by methane sulfonic acid.
1.
2.
3.
Methane sulfonic acid maybe used as an inert ingredient in pesticide products that are registered for any use that could result in short-term residential exposure. It is possible that methane sulfonic acid could be used in such products and the Agency has determined that it is appropriate to aggregate chronic exposure through food and water with potential short-term exposures to methane sulfonic acid.
Using the exposure assumptions described in this unit for short-term exposures, EPA has concluded that the combined food, water and residential exposures result in aggregate short term MOEs of 1680 for adults and 300 for children (1-2 years old). EPA's level of concern for methane sulfonic acid is a MOE of 100 or below; therefore these MOEs are not of concern.
4.
5.
6.
An analytical method is not required for enforcement purposes since the Agency is not establishing a numerical tolerance for residues of methane sulfonic acid in or on any food commodities. EPA is establishing a limitation on the amount of methane sulfonic acid that may be used in pesticide formulations applied to animals and in food-contact surface antimicrobial applications. Those limitations will be enforced through the pesticide registration process under the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA), 7 U.S.C. 136
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint United Nation Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level.
The Codex has not established a MRL for methane sulfonic acid.
Therefore, an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance is established under 40 CFR 180.930 and 40 CFR 180.940(a) for methane sulfonic acid (CAS Reg. No. 75-75-2) when used as an inert ingredient (acidifying agent) in pesticide formulations applied to animals at a maximum concentration not to exceed 3% by weight and when used as an inert ingredient in antimicrobial pesticide formulations
This action establishes a tolerance under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) or Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerance in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
(a) * * *
National Aeronautics and Space Administration.
Correcting amendments.
The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) published a final rule in the
Manuel Quinones, NASA, Office of Procurement, Contract and Grant Policy Division, via email at
NASA published a final rule in the
Government procurement.
Accordingly, 48 CFR part 1852 is amended as follows:
51 U.S.C. 20113(a) and 48 CFR chapter 1.
(a) * * *
(1) * * * The performance incentive becomes effective when the item is put into service. * * *
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Final rule; inseason adjustments to biennial groundfish management measures.
This final rule announces inseason changes to management measures in the Pacific Coast groundfish fisheries. This action, which is authorized by the Pacific Coast Groundfish Fishery Management Plan (PCGFMP), is intended to protect overfished and depleted stocks while allowing fisheries to access more abundant groundfish stocks.
This final rule is effective August 14, 2015.
Gretchen Hanshew, phone: 206-526-6147, fax: 206-526-6736, or email:
This rule is accessible via the Internet at the Office of the Federal Register Web site at
The PCGFMP and its implementing regulations at title 50 in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), part 660, subparts C through G, regulate fishing for over 90 species of groundfish off the coasts of Washington, Oregon, and California. Groundfish specifications
The final rule to implement the 2015-2016 harvest specifications and management measures for most species of the Pacific coast groundfish fishery was published on March 10, 2015 (80 FR 12567).
The Council—in coordination with Pacific Coast Treaty Indian Tribes and the States of Washington, Oregon, and California—recommended changes to current groundfish management measures at its June 10-16, 2015, meeting. Specifically, the Council recommended an increase to commercial fishery trip limits for sablefish, blackgill rockfish, big skate, Minor Shelf Rockfish, and California scorpionfish. The Council also recommended a decrease to commercial fishery trip limits for black rockfish. NMFS has determined that good cause exists to waive notice and comment for trip limit changes for sablefish, blackgill rockfish, black rockfish and big skate and this action implements those changes. However, NMFS has determined that the Council-recommended increases to trip limits for Minor Shelf Rockfish and California scorpionfish cannot be implemented without a two-meeting process and notice and comment rulemaking. Therefore, those changes are not included in this action.
To increase harvest opportunities for the LEFG and OA fixed gear sablefish DTL fisheries north of 36° N. lat., the Council considered increases to trip limits. The Council's Groundfish Management Team (GMT) made model-based landings projections for the LEFG and OA fixed gear sablefish DTL fisheries north of 36° N. lat. for the remainder of the year. These projections were based on the most recent information available. The model predicted harvest of 83 percent (196 mt) of the LEFG harvest guideline (HG) (236 mt) and 62 percent (242 mt) of the OA HG (388 mt) under current trip limits. This indicates that projected catch in both the LEFG and OA fisheries was lower than anticipated when the trip limits were initially established (93 percent (220 mt) of the LEFG HG and 92 percent (358 mt) of the OA HG). With the increase in trip limits, predicted harvest assuming medium ex-vessel price curves is 90 percent (212 mt) of the LEFG HG (236 mt) and 83 percent (323 mt) of the OA HG (388 mt). Projections for the fixed gear sablefish fisheries south of 36° N. lat. were similar to what they were anticipated to be in the biennial harvest specifications and management measures, and no requests were made by industry for changes; therefore, and no inseason actions were considered.
Therefore, the Council recommended and NMFS is implementing trip limit changes for the LEFG and the OA sablefish DTL fisheries north of 36° N. lat. The trip limits for sablefish in the LEFG fishery north of 36° N. lat. increase from “1,025 lb (465 kg) per week, not to exceed 3,075 lb (1,394 kg) per two months” to “1,125 lb (510.3 kg) per week, not to exceed 3,375 lb (1,530 kg) per two months” beginning during period 4 through the end of the year.
The trip limits for sablefish in the OA sablefish DTL fishery north of 36° N. lat. are increased from “300 lb (136 kg) per day, or one landing per week of up to 900 lb (408 kg), not to exceed 1,800 lb (817 kg) per two months” to “350 lb (159 kg) per day, or one landing per week of up to 1,600 lb (726 kg), not to exceed 3,200 lb (1,452 kg) per two months” during period 4 through the end of the year.
Blackgill rockfish south of 40°10′ N. lat. was assessed in 2011. The 2011 assessment indicated the stock was in the precautionary zone with spawning biomass depletion estimated to be 30 percent of its unfished biomass at the start of 2011. The Council chose to leave blackgill rockfish as a stock within the Minor Slope Rockfish south complex. Beginning in 2013, the Council recommended, and NMFS established, annual HGs and management measures to keep anticipated catch of blackgill rockfish within its HG, including a species-specific sorting requirement and species-specific sub-limits. Annual HGs and trip limit management in non-IFQ fisheries continue to be utilized for management of blackgill rockfish south of 40°10′ N. lat.
The most recently available information (2013) indicates that the Minor Slope Rockfish trip limit and the blackgill rockfish sub-limit set in 2013 kept catch of Minor Slope Rockfish south of 40°10′ N. lat. at 148 mt, which is less than 25 percent of the 2013 ACL (618 mt). Additionally, catch of blackgill was 18.5 mt, 42 percent of the 44 mt HG (LEFG HG of 26.4 mt and OA HG of 17.6 mt, combined). The same trip limits were in place in 2014, and 2014 inseason estimates indicate that similar catch patters are likely to be seen in the completed 2014 total mortality report. The best available 2015 inseason information at the June Council meeting indicated that catch of blackgill rockfish was approximately half of the amount of catch during that same time period in 2014. The Council recommended that the blackgill rockfish sub-limit be increased modestly to reduce regulatory discards since catch was well below the HG in 2013 and was likely similar in scale in 2014 and because catch in 2015 is below the levels observed in 2014. In addition, a modest increase in the sub-limit will likely reduce regulatory discards of blackgill rockfish when caught incidentally with co-occurring species in the Minor Slope Rockfish complex.
Therefore, the Council recommended, and NMFS is implementing, an increase to blackgill rockfish sub-limits for the LEFG and the OA fisheries south of 40°10′ N. lat. The blackgill rockfish sub-limit, within the overall trip limit for Minor Slope Rockfish complex south of 40°10′ N. lat., is increased in the LEFG fishery from “40,000 lb (18,144 kg) per two months, of which no more than 1,375 lb (624 kg) may be blackgill rockfish” to “40,000 lb (18,144 kg) per two months, of which no more than 1,600 lb (726 kg) may be blackgill rockfish” beginning during period 4 through the end of the year.
The blackgill rockfish sub-limit, within the overall trip limit for Minor Slope Rockfish complex south of 40°10′ N. lat., is increased in the OA fishery from “10,000 lb (4,536 kg) per two months, of which no more than 475 lb (216 kg) may be blackgill rockfish” to “10,000 lb (4,536 kg) per two months, of which no more than 550 lb (250 kg) may be blackgill rockfish” beginning during period 4 through the end of the year.
Black rockfish are caught in nearshore commercial and recreational fisheries. Black rockfish is a healthy stock that co-occurs with nearshore overfished rockfish species (
In 2014, the shoreward boundary of the non-trawl rockfish conservation area (RCA) in this area between 42° N. lat. and 40°10′ N. lat. was the boundary line approximating the 20 fm depth contour. For 2015, the boundary line off northern California was shifted seaward to the boundary line approximating the 30 fm depth contour, opening the area to nearshore fishing between 20 fm line and the 30 fm line for the first time since 2009 (80 FR 12567, March 10, 2015). This change in the depth restriction in the non-trawl commercial fisheries is providing additional access to nearshore stocks, and may be part of the reason for the increased black rockfish landings in 2015 compared to 2014. Additionally, the change in depth restriction may be changing bycatch rates of co-occurring overfished species in the nearshore fishery, but little information is available to inform bycatch rates inseason.
Based on the best available information, catch of black rockfish is much higher in 2015 compared to 2014. To reduce projected catch of co-occurring overfished species and reduce the risk of exceeding HGs for those overfished species, the Council considered reductions to black rockfish trip limits between 42° N. lat. and 40°10′ N. lat. The Council recommended decreasing the black rockfish trip limit to the same limit that was in effect when the northern California non-trawl RCA shoreward boundary was at the 30 fm line, as it is in 2015.
Therefore, the Council recommended and NMFS is implementing decreased black rockfish trip limits for the LEFG and the OA fisheries between 42° N. lat. and 40°10′ N. lat. The black rockfish trip limit, within the overall trip limit for Minor Nearshore Rockfish complex, is decreased in the LEFG and OA fisheries from “8,500 lb (3,856 kg) per two months of which no more than 1,200 lb (544 kg) may be species other than black rockfish” to “6,000 lb (2,722 kg) per two months of which no more than 1,200 lb (544 kg) may be species other than black rockfish” beginning during period 4 through the end of the year.
Before 2015, big skate was managed as a component stock within the Other Fish complex. The big skate OFL estimate, along with the estimated OFLs for the other species in the complex, contributed to the OFL specified in regulation for the Other Fish complex. Species managed in complexes do not have OFLs specified in regulation. Therefore, the best estimate of a sustainable harvest for a single species that is managed in a complex is referred to as an “OFL contribution,” since the OFL for the complex is the sum of the contributing OFLs for all the component species.
During development of the 2015-2016 harvest specifications and management measures, best estimates of mortality indicated that harvest of big skate was 18 percent of the big skate OFL contribution and that it was not in need of conservation and management. Big skate was removed from the Other Fish complex and designated as an ecosystem component (EC) species (80 FR 12567, March 10, 2015). If the Council had chosen to keep big skate in the fishery, with species specific harvest specifications, the 2015 big skate OFL endorsed by the Scientific Statistical Committee (SSC) would have been 541 mt. Since the Council chose to designate this species as an EC species, the big skate OFL estimate became unnecessary. Since development and implementation of the 2015-2016 harvest specifications and management measures, new information indicated that mortality of big skate is approaching or exceeding the 2014 big skate OFL contribution.
At its April 2015 meeting, the Council recommended management measures to reduce mortality of big skate and reduce the risk of overfishing the stock. At that time, the best estimate of sustainable harvest for big skate was thought to be the 2014 OFL contribution. The Council recommended and NMFS implemented a trip limit reduction for big skate in the Shorebased IFQ Program and best estimates at that time indicated that total mortality of big skate through the end of 2015 under that trip limit structure would be 441 mt, 17 mt lower than the 2014 OFL contribution of 458 mt (80 FR 31858, June 4, 2015).
The analysis by the Council's GMT assumed 100 percent mortality of discarded big skate and assumed that, once a trip limit was reached, encounters of big skate would cease and no additional landings or discards would occur. The GMT acknowledged several issues with these assumptions, but noted that the April analysis was limited in scope due to time constraints. The Council acknowledged that the mortality estimates and the OFL contribution both have high degrees of uncertainty, and recommended precautionary management measures for conservation of big skate. The Council also acknowledged that additional information and analyses would likely become available, and that management measures for big skate would be considered in light of emerging and improving information.
At its June 2015 meeting, the Council considered additional analysis by the GMT, recommendations of its SSC, as well as updated fishery information, regarding big skate mortality and management measures. The West Coast Observer Program estimates that almost 80 percent of big skate caught in groundfish fisheries are discarded. Following a literature review, the SSC recommended that a 50 percent discard mortality rate for big skate caught with commercial trawl gear was more appropriate. This is consistent with the assumed discard mortality for another skate species for which trip limits are in place (longnose skate). In addition, projected estimates of big skate catch through the end of the year decreased because of reduced inseason estimates. This reduction likely resulted from an increased awareness and avoidance by the fishing fleet, and harvest projection changes resulting from the Council's improved understanding of big skate discard mortality rate.
At its June 2015 meeting, the Council also considered information regarding the best available estimate for a sustainable harvest level of big skate in 2015. In April 2015, the Council aimed to keep mortality of big skate below the 2014 OFL contribution, the best estimate available at that time. In June, the Council was reminded that the SSC endorsed a 2015 big skate OFL in November 2013. Since the Council recommended big skate be designated as an EC species, no harvest specifications were adopted for the 2015-2016 biennial cycle. However, in light of the need to better estimate big skate mortality, as it is approaching the best OFL contribution estimates, the SSC-endorsed estimated 2015 OFL is the best available estimate of sustainable harvest. Therefore, the Council considered projected big skate mortality in 2015 compared to the estimated 2015 OFL, rather than the 2014 OFL contribution. The 541 mt estimated 2015 OFL for big skate is 83 mt higher than the 2014 OFL contribution that was used in the April 2015 GMT analyses. Therefore, the Council considered higher trip limits for big skate than those adopted in April 2015. June 2015 GMT estimates indicate that with higher trip limits for big skate of 35,000 pounds per two months, through the remainder of the year, big skate total mortality will still be below the currently available best estimate of the 2015 OFL (541 mt).
As discussed above, the best estimate of the discard mortality rate decreased from 100 percent to 50 percent and the estimated 2015 OFL that is higher than
The Council recommended, and NMFS is implementing, an increase in the big skate trip limit in the Shorebased IFQ Program from “20,000 lbs (9,072 kg) per two months” to “35,000 lb (15,876 kg) per two months” in periods 4-6 (from July through December). Best estimates indicate that total mortality of big skate through the end of 2015 under this trip limit structure would be between 414 mt and 420 mt, 121-127 mt lower than the estimated 2015 OFL contribution of 541 mt and 21-27 mt lower than the estimated 2015 ABC contribution of 441 mt. The estimated total mortality is considered as a range to account for uncertainty in how fishing behavior will change after the big skate trip limit is reached. The Council recommended a trip limit that would allow approximately a 5 percent increase in total mortality, but would still be below the estimated 2015 ABC. The increase in trip limit is intended to allow vessels opportunistically targeting big skate to continue to do so, while keeping total mortality below the estimated 2015 ABC. The Council-recommended trip limits are codified in Tables 1 (North) and 1 (South) to Subpart C.
This final rule makes routine inseason adjustments to groundfish fishery management measures, based on the best available information, consistent with the PCGFMP and its implementing regulations.
This action is taken under the authority of 50 CFR 660.60(c) and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
The aggregate data upon which these actions are based are available for public inspection at the Office of the Administrator, West Coast Region, NMFS, during business hours.
NMFS finds good cause to waive prior public notice and comment on the revisions to groundfish management measures under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) because notice and comment would be impracticable and contrary to the public interest. Also, for the same reasons, NMFS finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in effectiveness pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), so that this final rule may become effective August 14, 2015.
At the June Council meeting, the Council recommended that these changes be implemented as quickly as possible during the two-month cumulative limit period. There was not sufficient time after that meeting to draft this document and undergo proposed and final rulemaking before these actions need to be in effect. For the actions to be implemented in this final rule, affording the time necessary for prior notice and opportunity for public comment would prevent NMFS from managing fisheries using the best available science to approach, without exceeding, the ACLs for federally managed species in accordance with the PCGFMP and applicable law. The adjustments to management measures in this document affect commercial fisheries in Washington, Oregon and California. These increases to trip limits must be implemented as quickly as possible during the two-month cumulative limit period to allow LEFG and OA fixed gear fishermen an opportunity to harvest higher limits for: Sablefish without exceeding the ACL north of 36° N. lat.; big skate without exceeding the estimated 2015 OFL; and blackgill rockfish without exceeding the HG south of 40°10′ N. lat. The decrease to the black rockfish trip limit must be implemented by the start of the next two-month cumulative limit period, September 1, to keep catch of co-occurring overfished species within their HGs and rebuilding ACLs. It would be contrary to the public interest to delay implementation of these changes until after public notice and comment, because making this regulatory change by August 14, 2015, allows harvest as intended by the Council, consistent with the best scientific information available. These changes allow additional harvest in fisheries that are important to coastal communities while continuing to prevent ACLs of overfished and target species from being exceeded.
No aspect of this action is controversial, and changes of this nature were anticipated in the biennial harvest specifications and management measures established for 2015-2016.
Accordingly, for the reasons stated above, NMFS finds good cause to waive prior notice and comment and to waive the delay in effectiveness.
Fisheries, Fishing, and Indian fisheries.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR part 660 is amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1801
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Proposed rule.
This proposal invites comments on prescribing late payment and interest charges on past due assessments under the Paper and Paper-Based Packaging Promotion, Research and Information Order (Order). The Order is administered by the Paper and Packaging Board (Board) with oversight by the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA). Under the Order, assessments are collected from manufacturers and importers and used for projects to promote paper and paper-based packaging. This proposal would implement authority contained in the Order that allows the Board to collect late payment and interest charges on past due assessments. Two additional changes are proposed to reflect current practices and update the Order and regulations. This action would contribute to effective administration of the program and was unanimously recommended by the Board.
Comments must be received by October 19, 2015.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments concerning this proposal. Comments may be submitted on the Internet at:
Marlene Betts, Marketing Specialist, Promotion and Economics Division, Fruit and Vegetable Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Room 1406-S, Stop 0244, Washington, DC 20250-0244; telephone: (202) 720-9915; or electronic mail:
This proposal is issued under the Order (7 CFR part 1222). The Order is authorized under the Commodity Promotion, Research and Information Act of 1996 (1996 Act) (7 U.S.C. 7411-7425).
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules and promoting flexibility. This action has been designated as a “non-significant regulatory action” under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the Office of Management and Budget has waived the review process.
This action has been reviewed in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments. The review reveals that this regulation would not have substantial and direct effects on Tribal governments and would not have significant Tribal implications.
This proposal has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. It is not intended to have retroactive effect. Section 524 of the 1996 Act (7 U.S.C. 7423) provides that it shall not affect or preempt any other Federal or State law authorizing promotion or research relating to an agricultural commodity.
Under section 519 of the 1996 Act (7 U.S.C. 7418), a person subject to an order may file a written petition with USDA stating that an order, any provision of an order, or any obligation imposed in connection with an order, is not established in accordance with the law, and request a modification of an order or an exemption from an order. Any petition filed challenging an order, any provision of an order, or any obligation imposed in connection with an order, shall be filed within two years after the effective date of an order, provision, or obligation subject to challenge in the petition. The petitioner will have the opportunity for a hearing on the petition. Thereafter, the USDA will issue a ruling on the petition. The 1996 Act provides that the district court of the United States for any district in which the petitioner resides or conducts business shall have the jurisdiction to review a final ruling on the petition, if the petitioner files a complaint for that purpose not later than 20 days after the date of the entry of USDA's final ruling.
This proposal invites comments on prescribing late payment and interest charges on past due assessments under the Order. The Order is administered by the Board with oversight by USDA. Under the Order, assessments are collected from manufacturers and importers and used for projects to promote paper and paper-based packaging. This proposal would implement authority contained in the Order and the 1996 Act that allows the Board to collect late payment and interest charges on past due assessments. This action was unanimously recommended by the Board and would contribute to effective administration of the program.
Section 1222.52(a) of the Order specifies that the Board's programs and expenses shall be paid by assessments on manufacturers and importers and other income or funds available to the Board. Paragraph (g) of that section specifies further that when a manufacturer or importer fails to pay the assessment within 60 calendar days of the date it is due, the Board may
The Order became effective on January 23, 2014. Assessment collection began on March 1, 2014. Manufacturers and importers must pay their assessments owed to the Board by the 30th calendar day of the month following the end of the quarter in which the paper and paper-based packaging was manufactured or imported. For example, assessments for paper manufactured or imported during the months of January, February and March are due to the Board by April 30.
Entities that domestically manufacture or import to the United States less than 100,000 short tons of paper and paper-based packaging in a year are exempt from paying assessments. If an entity is both a manufacturer and an importer, the entity's combined quantity of paper and paper-based packaging manufactured and imported during a marketing year counts toward the 100,000 short ton exemption.
Assessment funds are used for promotion activities that are intended to benefit all industry members. Thus, it is important that all assessed entities pay their assessments in a timely manner. Entities who fail to pay their assessments on time would be able to reap the benefits of Board programs at the expense of others. In addition, they would be able to utilize funds for their own use that should otherwise be paid to the Board to finance Board programs.
At a meeting held September 25, 2014, the Board unanimously recommended implementing the Order authority regarding late payment and interest charges. Specifically, the Board recommended that a late payment charge be imposed on any manufacturer or importer who fails to make timely remittance to the Board of the total assessments for which such manufacturer or importer is liable. The late payment charge would be imposed on any assessments not received within 60 calendar days of the date they are due. This one-time late payment charge would be equal to 10 percent of the assessments due before interest charges have accrued.
The Board also recommended that an interest rate of 1
This action is expected to help facilitate program administration by providing an incentive for entities to remit their assessments in a timely manner, with the intent of creating a fair and equitable process among all assessed entities. Accordingly, a new Subpart C would be added to the Order for provisions implementing the paper and paper-based packaging Order, and a new § 1222.520 would be added to Subpart C.
This proposal would also make two additional changes to the Order. This proposed rule would revise the term Board as defined in § 1222.2 from the Paper and Paper-Based Packaging Board to the Paper and Packaging Board. This change would simplify the term and bring the Order in line with current industry use. Conforming changes would also be made to § 1222.40(a) and the heading immediately prior to this section where the term is also referenced. In addition, in § 1222.108, the OMB control number would be changed from 0581-NEW to 0581-0281, the control number assigned by the OMB.
In accordance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), AMS is required to examine the impact of the proposed rule on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has considered the economic impact of this action on such entities.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions so that small businesses will not be disproportionately burdened. The Small Business Administration defines, in 13 CFR part 121, small agricultural producers as those having annual receipts of no more than $750,000 and small agricultural service firms (manufacturers and importers) as those having annual receipts of no more than $7.0 million.
According to the Board, there are 69 manufacturers in the United States that produce the types of paper and paper-based packaging covered under the Order. Using an average price of $806 per short ton,
Based on U.S. Customs and Border Protection (Customs) data, it is estimated that in 2014 there were 2,800 importers of paper and paper-based packaging. Ninety importers, or about 3 percent, imported more than $7.0 million worth of paper and paper-based packaging. Thus, the majority of importers would be considered small entities. However, all of the 20 entities that imported 100,000 short tons or more (the Order's exemption threshold) also imported more than $7.0 million worth of paper and paper-based packaging. Therefore, none of the 20 importers covered under the Order would be considered small businesses.
Based on domestic production of approximately 66.1 million short tons in 2014 and an average price of $806 per short ton, the domestic paper and paper-based packaging industry is valued at approximately $53.3 billion. According to Customs data, the value of paper and paper-based packaging imports in 2014 was about $5.9 billion.
This proposal invites comments on prescribing late payment and interest charges on past due assessments under the Order. The Order is administered by the Board with oversight by USDA. Under the Order, assessments are collected from manufacturers and importers and used for projects to promote paper and paper-based packaging. This rule would add a new § 1222.520 that would specify a late payment charge of 10 percent of the assessments due and interest at a rate of 1
Regarding the economic impact of this proposed rule on affected entities, this action would impose no costs on manufacturers and importers who pay their assessments on time. It would merely provide an incentive for entities to remit their assessments in a timely manner. For all entities who are delinquent in paying assessments, both large and small, the charges would be applied the same. As for the impact on the industry as a whole, this action would help facilitate program administration by providing an incentive for entities to remit their assessments in a timely manner, with the intent of creating a fair and equitable process among all assessed entities.
Additionally, as previously mentioned, the Order provides for an exemption for entities that domestically manufacture or import less than 100,000 short tons annually. It is estimated that 24 out of the 69 domestic manufacturers, or 35 percent, produce less than 100,000 short tons per year and are thus exempt from paying assessments under the Order. Of the 2,800 importers of paper and paper packaging, it is estimated that 2,780, or 99 percent, import less than 100,000 short tons per year and are also exempt from paying assessments. Thus, about 45 domestic manufacturers and 20 importers pay assessments under the Order.
The alternative to this proposed action would be to maintain the status quo and not impose late payment and interest charges on past due assessments. However, the Board determined that implementing these charges would help facilitate program administration by encouraging entities to pay their assessments in a timely manner. The Board reviewed the late payment and interest charges applied by other research and promotion programs and concluded that a 10 percent late payment charge and interest at a rate of 1
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the information collection and recordkeeping requirements that are imposed by the Order have been approved previously under OMB control number 0581-0281. This proposed rule would not result in a change to the information collection and recordkeeping requirements previously approved and would impose no additional reporting and recordkeeping burden on manufacturers and importers of paper and paper-based packaging.
As with all Federal promotion programs, reports and forms are periodically reviewed to reduce information requirements and duplication by industry and public sector agencies. USDA has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with this proposed rule.
AMS is committed to complying with the E-Government Act to promote the use of the Internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
Regarding outreach efforts, the Board met on September 25, 2014, and unanimously made its recommendation. The Board's meetings, including meetings held via teleconference, are open to the public and interested persons are invited to participate and express their views.
We have performed this initial RFA regarding the impact of this proposed action on small entities and we invite comments concerning potential effects of this action on small businesses.
While this proposed rule set forth below has not received the approval of USDA, it has been determined that it is consistent with and would effectuate the purposes of the 1996 Act.
A 60-day comment period is provided to allow interested persons to respond to this proposal. All written comments received in response to this proposed rule by the date specified will be considered prior to finalizing this action.
Administrative practice and procedure, Advertising, Consumer information, Marketing agreements, Paper and paper-based packaging promotion, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 7 CFR part 1222 is proposed to be amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 7411-7425; 7 U.S.C. 7401.
(a)
The control number assigned to the information collection requirement in this subpart by the Office of Management and Budget pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. is OMB control number 0581-0281.
(a) A late payment charge shall be imposed on any manufacturer or importer who fails to make timely remittance to the Board of the total assessments for which such manufacturer or importer is liable. The late payment shall be imposed on any assessments not received within 60 calendar days of the date they are due. This one-time late payment charge shall be 10 percent of the assessments due before interest charges have accrued.
(b) In addition to the late payment charge, 1
Food Safety and Inspection Service, USDA.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) is proposing to amend the definition and standard of identity for the “roaster” or “roasting chicken” poultry class to better reflect the characteristics of “roaster” chickens in the market today. “Roasters” or “roasting chickens” are described in terms of the age and ready-to-cook (RTC) carcass weight of the bird. Genetic changes and management techniques have continued to reduce the grow-out period and increased the RTC weight for this poultry class. Therefore, FSIS is proposing to amend the “roaster” definition to remove the 8-week minimum age criterion and increase the RTC carcass weight from 5 pounds to 5.5 pounds. This action is being taken in response to a petition submitted by the National Chicken Council.
Comments must be received on or before October 19, 2015.
FSIS invites interested persons to submit comments on this proposed rule. Comments may be submitted by one of the following methods:
Rosalyn Murphy-Jenkins, Director, FSIS Labeling and Program Delivery Division, Phone: (301) 504-0878, Fax: (202) 245-4795.
The Poultry Products Inspection Act (PPIA) prohibits the distribution of poultry products that are adulterated or misbranded (21 U.S.C. 458). The PPIA also authorizes the Secretary of Agriculture to prescribe, among other things, definitions and standards of identity or composition for poultry products whenever the Secretary determines that such action is necessary for the protection of the public (21 U.S.C. 457(b)). Poultry classes were established by USDA to aid in labeling poultry. The classes were based primarily on the age and sex of the bird. FSIS uses poultry class standards to ensure that poultry products are labeled in a truthful and non-misleading manner.
On November 3, 2011, FSIS published a final rule to amend the definitions and standards for the U.S. classes of poultry listed in 9 CFR 381.170(a)(1)(76 FR 68058). The 2011 final rule lowered the age definitions for five classes of poultry and removed the word “usually” from the age designation descriptions, so that the age designations are clear and enforceable (76 FR 68058, 68062). In addition to lowering the age definition for the “roaster” class, the final rule also defined a “roaster” based on a ready-to-cook (RTC) carcass weight.
A “roaster” or “roasting chicken” (hereafter referred to as “roasters”) is defined in 9 CFR 381.170(1)(a)(iii) as “a young chicken (between 8 and 12 weeks of age), of either sex, with a ready-to-cook carcass weight of 5 pounds or more, that is tender-meated with soft, pliable, smooth-textured skin and breastbone cartilage that is somewhat less flexible than that of a broiler or fryer.” This definition was informed by data collected by the USDA Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) from the segment of the industry that routinely produces “roasters,” comments received in response to a September 3, 2003, proposed rule to amend the poultry classes (68 FR 55902), and comments received in response to a 2009 supplemental proposed rule in which the Agency re-proposed to amend the “roaster” standard to establish an age range from 8 to 12 weeks and to provide for a RTC carcass weight (74 FR 3337, July 13, 2009). The 2011 final rule became effective on January 1, 2014, the uniform compliance date for FSIS labeling regulations issued between January 1 2011 and December 31, 2012 (75 FR 71344, November 23, 2010).
On November 18, 2013—before the January 1, 2014, effective date for the final rule—the National Chicken Council (NCC) submitted a petition requesting that FSIS amend the definition and standard of identity for the “roaster” chicken class to remove the 8-week minimum age requirement and to increase the RTC carcass weight to 5.5 pounds. The petition is available on the FSIS Web site at
The petition specifically asked FSIS to amend 9 CFR 381.170(a)(1)(iii) to define a “roaster” as a young chicken (less than 12 weeks of age) of either sex, with an RTC carcass weight of 5.5 pounds or more, that is tender-meated with soft, pliable, smooth-textured skin and breastbone cartilage that may be somewhat less flexible than that of a “broiler” or “fryer.” The petition also requested that FSIS, as necessary, exercise enforcement discretion or stay the effective date of the “roaster” definition scheduled to go into effect on January 1, 2014.
According to the petition, the “roaster” standard established in the 2011 final rule would detract from the orderly and efficient marketing of classes of poultry because companies would be unable to label and market chickens with the RTC weight and other physical attributes of a “roaster” as “roasters” because of the minimum age requirement. The NCC asserted that improvements in breeding and poultry management techniques that have continued since FSIS published the November 2011 final rule have enabled producers to raise chickens with the characteristics of roasters in under 8 weeks.
NCC submitted additional data in support of its petition on December 16,
Therefore, in the December 27, 2013, edition of its
In July 2014, FSIS, in consultation with AMS, completed its review of the NCC petition. AMS verified that the data that NCC submitted to support the petition are consistent with production data that AMS collected from the poultry industry. After reviewing the available information, FSIS and AMS concluded that the data show that chickens younger than 8 weeks are consistently reaching higher average dressed weights in shorter periods of time, and that there is a trend of increasing growth rate of commercially processed chickens between 2009 and 2012, supporting the elimination of a minimum age for the “roaster” class. FSIS, in consultation with AMS, also found that the data show that, in those regions of the country where “roasters” are marketed, customers value “roasters” more highly on a pound-per-pound basis than they do “broilers,” demonstrating the need to allow birds with the physical characteristics of “roasters” to be accurately labeled as “roasters.”
Therefore, on July 23, 2014, FSIS sent a letter to the NCC to inform the organization that FSIS had decided to grant its petition to amend the “roaster” poultry class (
FSIS is proposing to amend the poultry class standards to define a “roaster” or “roasting chicken” as a young chicken (less than 12 weeks of age) of either sex, with a ready-to-cook carcass weight of 5.5 pounds or more, that is tender-meated with soft, pliable, smooth-textured skin and breastbone cartilage that may be somewhat less flexible than that of a “broiler” or “fryer.” Removing the minimum age and increasing the RTC carcass weight for the “roaster” class, as requested in the petition, would allow birds younger than 8 weeks that have the physical characteristics of a “roaster” to continue to be labeled and marketed as “roasters.”
As noted above, FSIS is proposing to increase the RTC carcass weight for “roasters” from 5 to 5.5 pounds, as requested in the petition. However, FSIS is soliciting comments regarding the merit of increasing the minimum RTC carcass weight from 5 pounds to 5.5 pounds and the effect that such an increase may have on small poultry producers. To be of value, the comments must provide a factual basis for or against increasing the weight requirement for “roasters.”
This proposed rule has been designated as a “non-significant” regulatory action under section 3(f) of Executive Order (E.O.) 12866. Accordingly, the rule has been not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget under E.O. 12866.
This rule will not have significant costs because FSIS currently allows birds younger than 8 weeks with the physical attributes of “roasters” to be labeled as “roasters.”
The FSIS Administrator has made a preliminary determination that this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities in the United States, as defined by the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
FSIS projects that this rule will not result in additional costs to the industry because FSIS currently allows birds younger than 8 weeks with the physical attributes of “roasters” to be labeled as “roasters.”
FSIS has reviewed this rule under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) and has determined that the information collection related to labeling has been approved by OMB under OMB control number 0583-0092.
FSIS does not anticipate many label changes due to the proposed change to the “roaster” definition because establishments that produce chickens that comply with the proposed “roaster” poultry class standard are already labeling these birds as “roasters.”
FSIS and USDA are committed to achieving the purposes of the E-Government Act (44 U.S.C. 3601,
This proposed rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil
This proposed rule has been reviewed in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments. The review reveals that this proposed regulation will not have substantial and direct effects on Tribal governments and will not have significant Tribal implications.
No agency, officer, or employee of the USDA shall, on the grounds of race, color, national origin, religion, sex, gender identity, sexual orientation, disability, age, marital status, family/parental status, income derived from a public assistance program, or political beliefs, exclude from participation in, deny the benefits of, or subject to discrimination any person in the United States under any program or activity conducted by the USDA.
To file a complaint of discrimination, complete the USDA Program Discrimination Complaint Form, which may be accessed online at
Send your completed complaint form or letter to USDA by mail, fax, or email:
Persons with disabilities who require alternative means for communication (Braille, large print, audiotape, etc.), should contact USDA's TARGET Center at (202) 720-2600 (voice and TDD).
Public awareness of all segments of rulemaking and policy development is important. Consequently, FSIS will announce this
FSIS also will make copies of this publication available through the FSIS Constituent Update, which is used to provide information regarding FSIS policies, procedures, regulations,
Food grades and standards, Poultry and poultry products.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, FSIS proposes to amend 9 CFR part 381, as follows:
7 U.S.C. 138f; 7 U.S.C. 450; 21 U.S.C. 451-470; 7 CFR 2.18, 2.53.
(a) * * *
(1) * * *
(iii)
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all The Boeing Company Model 757 airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by a report of cracking in the fuselage frame at a certain location. This proposed AD would require inspections for cracking in the fuselage frame, left and right sides, and repair if necessary. We are proposing this AD to detect and correct fuselage frame fatigue cracking that could result in loss of structural integrity and the inability to sustain loading conditions.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by October 5, 2015.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P. O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Roger Durbin, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5233; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We have received reports of cracking in the fuselage frame at Station (STA) 1440, stringer S-24L. The airplane had 36,890 total flight cycles and 78,922 total flight hours. The cracking was discovered during unrelated local repairs. An investigation has determined the cracking may have been caused by fatigue. The cracking initiated in the fuselage frame at the corner radius of the fuselage frame opening for the stringer. It continued to the fastener hole common to the fuselage frame, splice plate, and fail safe chord. The cracking was not visible because it was completely hidden by the splice plate on one side and the fail safe chord on the other side.
Fuselage frame fatigue cracking could result in loss of structural integrity and the inability to sustain loading conditions.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 757-53A0099, dated September 18, 2014. The service information describes procedures for detailed and high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspections for cracking in the fuselage frame at stringer 24 and stringer 25, left and right sides. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously, except as discussed under “Difference Between this Proposed AD and the Service Information.” Refer to his service information for details on the procedures and compliance times.
Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 757-53A0099, dated September 18, 2014, specifies to contact the manufacturer for instructions on how to repair certain conditions, but this proposed AD would require repairing those conditions in one of the following ways:
• In accordance with a method that we approve; or
• Using data that meet the certification basis of the airplane, and that have been approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) whom we have authorized to make those findings.
The FAA worked in conjunction with industry, under the Airworthiness Directive Implementation Aviation Rulemaking Committee (ARC), to enhance the AD system. One enhancement was a new process for annotating which steps in the service information are required for compliance with an AD. Differentiating these steps from other tasks in the service information is expected to improve an owner's/operator's understanding of crucial AD requirements and help provide consistent judgment in AD compliance. The steps identified as Required for Compliance (RC) in any service information identified previously have a direct effect on detecting, preventing, resolving, or eliminating an identified unsafe condition.
For service information that contains steps that are labeled as RC, the following provisions apply: (1) the steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD, and an AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures; and (2) steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 652 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this proposed AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by October 5, 2015.
None.
This AD applies to all The Boeing Company Model 757-200, -200CB, -200PF, and -300 airplanes, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by a report of cracking in the fuselage frame at Station (STA) 1440, stringer S-24L. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fuselage frame fatigue cracking that could result in loss of structural integrity and the inability to sustain loading conditions.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 757-53A0099, dated September 18, 2014, except as required by paragraph (h) of this AD, do detailed and high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspections for cracking in the fuselage frames at stringers S-24 and S-25, left and right sides, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 757-53A0099, dated September 18, 2014.
(1) If cracking is not found, repeat the inspections at intervals not to exceed 12,000 flight cycles.
(2) If any cracking is found, before further flight, repair using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (i) of this AD. Repeat the inspections at intervals not to exceed 12,000 flight cycles in unrepaired areas.
Where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 757-53A0099, dated September 18, 2014, specifies a compliance time “after the Original Issue date of this Service Bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD.
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair required by this AD if it is approved by Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), to make those findings. For a repair method to be approved, the repair must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) Except as required by paragraph (h) of this AD: For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (i)(4)(i) and (i)(4)(ii) apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Roger Durbin, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5233; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P. O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 787-8 airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by reports of hydraulic contamination of the power control unit (PCU) electro-hydraulic servo valves (EHSVs) used in the flight control system; this contamination caused a restriction in the EHSVs resulting in the display of status messages from the engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS). This proposed AD would require installing markers to limit the hydraulic system fluid used to a specific brand, doing hydraulic fluid tests of the hydraulic systems, replacing hydraulic system fluid if necessary, and doing all applicable related investigative and corrective actions. We are proposing this AD to prevent the failure of flight control hydraulic PCUs, which could lead to reduced controllability of the airplane.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by October 5, 2015.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P. O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Fnu Winarto, Aerospace Engineer, Systems and Equipment Branch, ANM-130S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6659; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We received reports of the display of status messages from the engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS). Boeing and the actuation system supplier determined these messages are displayed when electro-hydraulic servo valves (EHSVs) of the power control units (PCUs) of the primary flight control system are restricted due to the accumulation of particle deposits. Failures have only occurred on airplanes operated with Skydrol LD-4 hydraulic fluid. Changing the hydraulic fluid to HyJet V would reduce the rate of particle deposit accumulation. This condition, if not corrected, could result in the eventual failure of flight control hydraulic PCUs, which could lead to reduced controllability of the airplane.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB270026-00, Issue 001, dated November 25, 2014. This service information describes procedures for installing markers to limit the hydraulic system fluid used to a specific brand, doing hydraulic fluid tests of the hydraulic systems, replacing the hydraulic system fluid if necessary, and related investigative and corrective actions. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously. Refer to this service information for details on the procedures and compliance times.
The phrase “related investigative actions” is used in this proposed AD. “Related investigative actions” are follow-on actions that (1) are related to the primary actions, and (2) further investigate the nature of any condition found. Related investigative actions in an AD could include, for example, inspections.
The phrase “corrective actions” is used in this proposed AD. “Corrective actions” are actions that correct or address any condition found. Corrective
The FAA worked in conjunction with industry, under the Airworthiness Directive Implementation Aviation Rulemaking Committee (ARC), to enhance the AD system. One enhancement was a new process for annotating which steps in the service information are required for compliance with an AD. Differentiating these steps from other tasks in the service information is expected to improve an owner's/operator's understanding of crucial AD requirements and help provide consistent judgment in AD compliance. The steps identified as RC (required for compliance) in any service information identified previously have a direct effect on detecting, preventing, resolving, or eliminating an identified unsafe condition.
For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the following provisions apply: (1) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD, and an AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures; and (2) steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 11 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary replacements that would be required based on the results of the proposed inspection. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these replacements:
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this proposed AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by October 5, 2015.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 787-8 series airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB270026-00, Issue 001, dated November 25, 2014.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 27, Flight Control Systems.
This proposed AD was prompted by reports of hydraulic contamination of the power control unit (PCU) electro-hydraulic servo valves (EHSVs) used in the flight control system. This contamination caused a restriction in the EHSVs resulting in the display of status messages from the engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS). We are issuing this AD to prevent failure of flight control hydraulic PCUs, which could lead to reduced controllability of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 36 months after the effective date of this AD, install markers to only allow servicing of hydraulic systems with HyJet V hydraulic fluid, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB270026-00, Issue 001, dated November 25, 2014.
For airplanes identified by Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB270026-00, Issue 001, dated November 25, 2014, as Group 1, Configuration 2, Group 2: Within 36 months after the effective date of this AD, do hydraulic fluid tests of the left, right, and center hydraulic systems, replace the hydraulic system fluid, if necessary, and do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB270026-00, Issue 001, dated November 25, 2014. Do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions within 36 months after the effective date of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (i)(3)(i) and (i)(3)(ii) apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(4) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO to make those findings. For a repair method to be approved, the repair must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Fnu Winarto, Aerospace Engineer, Systems and Equipment Branch, ANM-130S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6659; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P. O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to amend Class D airspace and Class E surface area airspace at Van Nuys Airport, Van Nuys, CA. After reviewing the airspace, the FAA found the need to increase the Class D airspace and Class E surface areas for the safety and management of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) operations for arriving and departing aircraft at the airport. The geographic coordinates of the satellite airports also would be adjusted for Class D airspace and Class E surface area airspace as well as noting a name change for Burbank-Glendale-Pasadena Airport.
Comments must be received on or before October 5, 2015.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590; telephone (202) 366-9826. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2015-1138; Airspace Docket No. 15-AWP-3, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the Internet at
FAA Order 7400.9Y, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.9, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15. For further information, you can contact the Airspace Policy and Regulations Group, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591; telephone: 202-267-8783.
Steve Haga, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Western Service Center, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057; telephone (425) 203-4563.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part, A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would amend Class D and Class E airspace at Van Nuys Airport, Van Nuys, CA.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. Communications should identify both docket numbers and be submitted in triplicate to the address listed above. Commenters wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2015-1138; Airspace Docket No. 15-AWP-3.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the Internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the “
Persons interested in being placed on a mailing list for future NPRMs should contact the FAA's Office of Rulemaking, (202) 267-9677, for a copy of Advisory Circular No. 11-2A, Notice of Proposed Rulemaking Distribution System, which describes the application procedure.
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.9Y, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 6, 2014, and effective September 15, 2014. FAA Order 7400.9Y is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) Part 71 by modifying Class D airspace and Class E surface area airspace at Van Nuys Airport, Van Nuys, CA. A review of the airspace revealed additional Class D airspace and Class E surface area airspace necessary to support instrument arrival procedures at the airport. Class D airspace would extend upward from the surface to but not including 3,000 feet within a 4.3-mile radius of Van Nuys Airport excluding that airspace within the Bob Hope Airport, Burbank, CA, formerly Burbank-Glendale-Pasadena Airport, CA, Class C airspace area, and excluding that airspace within a 1.8-mile radius of Whiteman Airport, Los Angeles, CA. Class E surface area airspace would extend upward from the surface within a 4.3-mile radius of Van Nuys Airport excluding that airspace within the Bob Hope Airport, Burbank, CA, formerly Burbank-Glendale-Pasadena Airport, CA, Class C airspace area, and excluding that airspace within a 1.8-mile radius of Whiteman Airport, Los Angeles, CA. The geographic coordinates for both airports would be adjusted to be in concert with the FAAs aeronautical data base.
Class D and Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 5000 and 6002, respectively, of FAA Order 7400.9Y, dated August 6, 2014, and effective September 15, 2014, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class D and Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. Therefore, this proposed regulation; (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified this proposed rule, when promulgated, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1E, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to but not including 3,000 feet MSL within a 4.3-mile radius of Van Nuys Airport, excluding that airspace within the Bob Hope Airport, CA, Class C airspace area, and excluding that airspace within a 1.8-mile radius of Whiteman Airport, CA. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Airport/Facility Directory.
That airspace extending upward from the surface within a 4.3-mile radius of Van Nuys Airport, excluding that airspace within the Bob Hope Airport, CA, Class C airspace area, and excluding that airspace within a 1.8-mile radius of Whiteman Airport, CA.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to remove Class E surface area airspace designated as an extension to the Class C airspace at Burbank-Glendale-Pasadena Airport, Burbank, CA. After reviewing the airspace, the FAA found no standard instrument approach procedures requiring Class E surface area airspace designated as an extension to the Class C airspace.
Comments must be received on or before October 5, 2015.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590; telephone (202) 366-9826. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2015-1140; Airspace Docket No. 15-AWP-5, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the Internet at
FAA Order 7400.9Y, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.9, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15. For further information, you can contact the Airspace Policy and Regulations Group, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591; telephone: 202-267-8783.
Steve Haga, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Western Service Center, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057; telephone (425) 203-4563.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would remove Class E airspace at Burbank-Glendale-Pasadena Airport, Burbank, CA.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. Communications should identify both docket numbers and be submitted in triplicate to the address listed above. Commenters wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2015-1140; Airspace Docket No. 15-AWP-5.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the Internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
Persons interested in being placed on a mailing list for future NPRMs should contact the FAA's Office of Rulemaking, (202) 267-9677, for a copy of Advisory Circular No. 11-2A, Notice of Proposed Rulemaking Distribution System, which describes the application procedure.
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.9Y, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 6, 2014, and effective September 15, 2014. FAA Order 7400.9Y is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) Part 71 by removing Class E airspace designated as an extension to Class C airspace at Burbank-Glendale-Pasadena Airport, Burbank, CA. A review of the airspace revealed removal necessary due to no standard instrument approach procedures requiring Class E surface area airspace designated as an extension to the Class C airspace.
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6003 of FAA Order 7400.9Y, dated August 6, 2014, and effective September 15, 2014, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. Therefore, this proposed regulation; (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified this proposed rule, when promulgated, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1E, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
Consumer Product Safety Commission.
Notice of petition for rulemaking.
The United States Consumer Product Safety Commission (“CPSC” or “Commission”) received a petition requesting that the Commission initiate rulemaking under the Federal Hazardous Substances Act (“FHSA”) to declare several categories of products containing additive organohalogen flame retardants to be “banned hazardous substances.” The Commission invites written comments concerning the petition.
The Office of the Secretary must receive comments on the petition by October 19, 2015.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CPSC-2015-0022, by any of the following methods:
Todd Stevenson, Office of the Secretary, U.S. Consumer Product Safety
The Commission received a petition requesting that the Commission initiate rulemaking under the FHSA to declare several categories of products containing additive organohalogen flame retardants to be “banned hazardous substances.” Specifically, the request asks the Commission to declare that:
• Any durable infant or toddler product, children's toy, child care article, or other children's product (other than children's car seats) that contains additive organohalogen flame retardants, is a “banned hazardous substance”;
• Any article of upholstered furniture sold for use in residences and containing additive organohalogen flame retardants is a “hazardous substance” and a “banned hazardous substance”;
• Any mattress or mattress pad with additive organohalogen flame retardants is a “hazardous substance” and a “banned hazardous substance”; and
• Any electronic device with additive organohalogen flame retardants in its plastic casing is a “hazardous substance” and a “banned hazardous substance.”
The petition was filed by Earthjustice and the Consumer Federation of America, which are joined by American Academy of Pediatrics, American Medical Women's Association, Consumers Union, Green Science Policy Institute, International Association of Fire Fighters, Kids in Danger, Philip Landrigan, M.D., M.P.H., League of United Latin American Citizens, Learning Disabilities Association of America, and Worksafe.
Petitioners assert that additive organohalogen flame retardants are used extensively in the consumer products categories that would be covered by their rulemaking request. Petitioners further assert that, based on the physico-chemical properties of additive organohalogen flame retardants, all such chemicals in this class will migrate out of consumer products and persist in the indoor environment. According to petitioners, because organohalogen flame retardants are, as a class, foreign to the human body and inherently toxic due to their physical, chemical, and biological properties, human exposure to these chemicals will result in adverse human health impacts. Finally, petitioners provide data and information regarding adverse human health impacts, which include reproductive impairment, neurological impacts, endocrine disruption and interference with thyroid hormone action, genotoxicity, cancer, and immune disorders.
Petitioners assert that declaring the specified categories of products containing additive organohalogen flame retardants to be “banned hazardous substances” is necessary to adequately protect public health and safety. More specifically, petitioners assert that action short of a ban under the FHSA would not adequately protect the public health and safety because warning labeling cannot adequately prevent or control exposure to flame retardants that migrate from products into homes. Furthermore, petitioners argue that the ban must apply to the entire class of additive organohalogen flame retardants because banning only individual chemicals within that class would allow other inherently toxic chemicals within that class to be used.
By this notice, the Commission seeks comments concerning this petition. Interested parties may obtain a copy of the petition by writing or calling the Office of the Secretary, U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission, Room 820, 4330 East West Highway, Bethesda, MD 20814; telephone (301) 504-7923. A copy of the petition is also available for viewing under “Supporting and Related Materials” in
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of a public hearing on notice of proposed rulemaking.
This document provides a notice of public hearing on proposed regulations that provide guidance regarding when a foreign insurance company's income is excluded from the definition of passive income under section 1297(b)(2)(B).
The public hearing is being held on Friday, September 18, 2015, at 10:00 a.m. The IRS must receive outlines of the topics to be discussed at the public hearing by Wednesday, August 26, 2015.
The public hearing is being held in the IRS Auditorium, Internal Revenue Service Building, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224. Due to building security procedures, visitors must enter at the Constitution Avenue entrance. In addition, all visitors must present photo identification to enter the building.
Send Submissions to CC:PA:LPD:PR (REG-108214-15), Room 5205, Internal Revenue Service, P.O. Box 7604, Ben Franklin Station, Washington, DC 20044. Submissions may be hand-delivered Monday through Friday to CC:PA:LPD:PR (REG-108214-15), Couriers Desk, Internal Revenue Service, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224 or sent electronically via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
Concerning the proposed regulations, Josephine Firehock at (202) 317-4932; concerning submissions of comments, the hearing and/or to be placed on the building access list to attend the hearing Oluwafunmilayo Taylor at (202) 317-6901 (not toll-free numbers).
The subject of the public hearing is the notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-108214-15) that was published in the
The rules of 26 CFR 601.601(a)(3) apply to the hearing. Persons who wish to present oral comments at the hearing that submitted written comments by July 23, 2015, must submit an outline of the topics to be addressed and the amount of time to be denoted to each topic by Wednesday, August 19, 2015.
A period of 10 minutes is allotted to each person for presenting oral comments. After the deadline for receiving outlines has passed, the IRS will prepare an agenda containing the schedule of speakers. Copies of the agenda will be made available, free of charge, at the hearing or in the Freedom of Information Reading Room (FOIA RR) (Room 1621) which is located at the 11th and Pennsylvania Avenue NW., entrance, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Because of access restrictions, the IRS will not admit visitors beyond the immediate entrance area more than 30
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Correction to a notice of proposed rulemaking.
This document contains corrections to a notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-115452-14) that was published in the
Written or electronic comments and requests for a public hearing for the notice of proposed rulemaking published at 80 FR 43625, July 23, 2015, are still being accepted and must be received by October 21, 2015.
Jaclyn Goldberg at (202) 317-6850 (not a toll free number).
The notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-115452-14) that is the subject of these corrections is under section 707 of the Internal Revenue Code.
As published, the notice of proposed (REG-115452-14) contains errors that may prove to be misleading and are in need of clarification.
Accordingly, the notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-115452-14), that was the subject of FR Doc. 2015-17828, is corrected as follows:
1. On page 43652, in the preamble, first column, under the caption
2. On page 43653, in the preamble, first column, the tenth line from the bottom of the first full paragraph, the language “gross income allocation in a nonpartner” is corrected to read “gross income allocation in a non-partner”.
3. On page 43655, in the preamble, second column, the third line from the bottom of the second full paragraph, the language “66-95 and revise Rev. Rul. 69-180,” is corrected to read “66-95 and Rev. Rul. 69-180,”.
4. On page 43657, in the preamble, third column, under the paragraph heading “Drafting Information” the third line of the paragraph, the language “Goldberg of the Office Assistant Chief” is corrected to read “Goldberg of the Office Associate Chief”.
5. On page 46358, column 3, paragraph (c), the eighth and ninth lines, the language “arrangement constitutes in whole or in part a payment for services. The” is corrected to read “arrangement constitutes (in whole or in part) a payment for services. The.”.
6. On page 43659, column 1, paragraph (d)
7. On page 43660, column 1, paragraph (d),
8. On page 43660, column 1, paragraph (d),
9. On page 43660, column 3, paragraph (d),
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve portions of revisions to the Louisiana New Source Review (NSR) State Implementation Plan (SIP) submitted by the State of Louisiana designee. These revisions are updates to the Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) and Nonattainment NSR (NNSR) permit programs.
Written comments must be received on or before September 18, 2015.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R06-OAR-2006-0131, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Stephanie Kordzi, Telephone (214) 665-7520, email at
Throughout this document wherever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean the EPA.
The Clean Air Act at section 110(a)(2)(C) requires states to develop and submit to the EPA for approval into the state SIP, preconstruction review programs applicable to new and modified stationary sources of air pollutants for attainment and nonattainment areas that cover both major and minor new sources and modifications, collectively referred to as the NSR SIP. The CAA NSR SIP program is composed of three separate programs: PSD, NNSR, and Minor NSR. PSD is established in part C of title I of the CAA and applies in areas that are designated as meeting the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS),
The EPA regulations, 40 CFR 51.160-51.166, contain the criteria that states must satisfy for the EPA to approve the NSR programs as part of the SIP. In addition, there are several provisions in 40 CFR part 51 that apply generally to all SIP revisions. 40 CFR 51.160 establishes the enforceable procedures that must be a part of a NSR program. Sections 51.160-51.164 require a SIP revision to demonstrate that the adopted rules will not interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment and reasonable further progress, or any other applicable requirement of the CAA. Based upon our evaluation of the submittals, the EPA has concluded that the regulatory submittals, as ultimately revised, meet the requirements of the CAA section 110(a). Below are summaries of the individual SIP submittals from Secretary of the Louisiana Department of Environmental Quality (LDEQ).
The LDEQ submitted Louisiana Administrative Code (LAC) rule changes made in 1996. It includes final revised regulation LAC 33:III, sections 501, 504, 509, and 517. Section 504 is already part of the Louisiana SIP approved by the EPA on September 30, 2002, 2002 at 67 FR 61270. The EPA will act on section 517 in a separate action in the future.
The LDEQ submitted rule changes made in 1997. It includes changes to sections 501, 509, and 517. The EPA will act on sections 501 and 517 in a separate action in the future.
The LDEQ submitted rule changes made in 1998. It includes sections 509 and 603.
The LDEQ submitted rule changes made from 1999-2001. It includes section 509.B.2., which addresses certain Parishes as nonattainment for ozone. Sections 613 and 615 were already approved as part of the SIP on September 27, 2002, at 67 FR 60877.
The LDEQ submitted rule changes made in 2005 for Baton Rouge in section 504.A.6., covering the nonattainment NSR procedures.
The LDEQ submitted rule changes made in 2005 concerning the NSR Reform Program in sections 504 and 509. The submitted rules include, among other things, provisions for baseline emissions calculations, an actual-to-projected actual methodology for calculating emissions changes, options for plantwide applicability limits, and recordkeeping and reporting requirements. The changes do not include any portion of the Federal NSR Reform rule that was vacated by the US District Court of Appeals for the D.C.
The LDEQ submitted rule changes made in 2005. It includes sections 501, 504, 505, 507, 509, and 613. The EPA will act on section 501, a minor NSR rule, and section 507, a title V rule that is not part of the SIP, in separate actions in the future. The EPA returned section 505 to LDEQ because it addresses the Acid Rain Program; the Acid Rain Program is not a title I program and therefore should not be included in the Louisiana SIP.
The LDEQ submitted a revision to the SIP's Alternative Emission Reduction Plan (“Bubble”) for Union Carbide Corporation, Taft Plant reflecting LDEQ's rescission of permit no. 1836T, effective on March 12, 2007. The EPA is proposing to approve this revision that codifies LDEQ's rescission of the permit for the alternative emission reduction plan (“Bubble”) for Union Carbide Corporation, Taft Plant.
The LDEQ submitted rule changes made in 2006. It includes sections 501, 504, 509, 513, 531, and 607. The EPA will act on sections 501, 513 and 531 in a separate action in the future because they concern minor NSR. In addition, on October 15, 2014, LDEQ removed from our consideration section 504.M.
The LDEQ submitted rule changes made in 2007, that included sections 501, 504, 505, 506, and 507. The EPA proposes to approve section 504 which contains a revision that requires all information submitted by air permittees be sent to the Office of Environmental Services.
The EPA will act on section 501 in a separate action in the future because it concerns minor NSR. The EPA will return section 505 to LDEQ because it addresses the Acid Rain Program Permitting Requirements, which are not part of a SIP. The approved the revisions to Section 506 on April 17, 2014 are found at 79 FR 21631. The EPA will act on section 507 in a separate action in the future because it concerns the title V program that is not part of a SIP.
The submittal also contains a rulemaking petition for the repeal of section 510, which was never part of the SIP. The repeal affects sections 603, 605, 607, 613, and 615 because those sections reference to LAC 33:III.510. In addition, to be consistent with the change to section 504, a change was made to section 613, which dictates that reports be submitted to the Office of Environmental Services.
The LDEQ submitted rule changes to sections 504 and 509 to address the PM
The LDEQ submitted revisions to section 509 that update the PSD rule to implement the Particulate Matter Less Than 2.5 Micrometers (PM
Table 1 below summarizes the changes that are in the SIP revision submittals. A summary of our evaluation of each section and the basis for our proposed approval is included in this rulemaking. The accompanying Technical Support Document (TSD) includes a detailed evaluation of the submittals and our rationale. The TSD may be accessed online at
We evaluated and are proposing to approve the Chapter 5 amendments contained in the July 25, 1997, June 22, 1998, February 2, 2000, January 27, 2003, June 15, 2005, May 5, 2006, July 20, 2007, November 9, 2007, August 14, 2009, submittals. These amendments, if approved by the EPA, would provide clarity to the SIP-approved rules and correct contradictory language. Specific proposed revisions address the assessment and validation of a facility's emissions inventory values. Further, the amendments would revise the SIP rules to conform to the latest changes to Louisiana laws. The changes also define, for NNSR purposes, the parishes that have been designated as non-attainment for ozone. The EPA's evaluation of the Louisiana SIP submittals include a line-by-line comparison, which can be found in the TSD, of the proposed revisions with the federal requirements. We find that in most cases, the state regulatory language is identical to that of the federal rule. Where the rules are not identical, we find they are consistent with the federal rules and definitions and meet their intent. The EPA is therefore proposing to approve the submitted rules as part of the Louisiana NNSR and PSD SIP.
We evaluated and are proposing to approve the December 20, 2005, as revised through the May 16, 2011 submittal that contains changes to the Louisiana NNSR and PSD permitting programs reflecting the requirements found in the federal NSR Reform Program SIP rules.
Our evaluation of the Louisiana SIP submittals included a line-by-line comparison, which can be found in the TSD, of the proposed revisions with the federal requirements. State agencies may deviate from the specific definitions of 40 CFR part 51, and the 2002 NSR Reform Rules, only if the States specifically demonstrate that the submitted definitions are more stringent or at least as stringent as the corresponding federal definitions in accordance with 40 CFR 51.165(b)(2).
The State of Louisiana elected to incorporate by reference (IBR) most of the federal rules but adopted some with differences. As part of its December 20, 2005, submittal, Louisiana provided the EPA with an Equivalency Determination that addresses the differences with the federal rules regarding emissions defined that are associated with startup, shutdown and malfunction emissions. The Secretary of the LDEQ also submitted on June 9, 2015 a letter containing further clarification. In addition, LDEQ provided follow up SIP submittals that are summarized above and discussed in further detail in the Technical Support Document. We find that the LDEQ has adopted the necessary elements of NSR Reform rule for both the NNSR and PSD programs.
As discussed in I. F., Louisiana's submitted rules do not include the Clean Unit applicability test and Pollution Control Projects vacated by the Court.
The U.S. Court of Appeals for the DC Circuit in New York v. EPA, 413 F.3d 3 (D.C. Cir. 2005) (New York) ordered the EPA either to provide an acceptable explanation for its “reasonable possibility” standard or to devise an appropriately supported alternative. The Court held, “[b]ecause EPA has failed to explain how it can ensure NSR compliance without the relevant data, we will remand for it either to provide an acceptable explanation for its “reasonable possibility” standard or to devise an appropriately supportive alternative.” Initially, in promulgating the “reasonable possibility” standard, we intended to limit recordkeeping requirements to those projects for which variability in calculating emissions creates an interest in obtaining additional information in order to confirm that the appropriate applicability outcome is reached.
To satisfy the Court's remand, the EPA has clarified what constitutes “reasonable possibility” and when the “reasonable possibility” recordkeeping requirements apply. We adopted a bright-line test at 50 percent that will capture projects that have a higher probability of variability and/or error in projected emissions. Projects with projected increases below the 50-percent threshold, especially when emissions from demand growth are included in projections, are, we believe, sufficiently small that any variability or error in calculations is less likely to be large enough for the change to have increased emissions to the significant level. This requirement is based on authority in circumstances such as these that allows agencies to establish a bright-line test, as opposed to making case-by-case determinations. See,
We also state “[s]ome State or local authorities may be able to adopt these changes through a change in interpretation of the term “reasonable possibility” without the need to revise the SIP. For any State or local authority that can implement the changes without revising its approved SIP, the changes will become effective when the reviewing authority publicly announces that it accepts these changes by interpretation. In the case of NSR SIP revisions that include the term “reasonable possibility” but that we have not yet approved, we will approve the SIP revision if the State or local authority commits to implementing the “reasonable possibility” standard in a manner consistent with our final rule.”
The EPA Region 6 requested in a letter of January 24, 2008, that LDEQ submit a commitment to implement the “reasonable possibility provisions in Sections 504.D.9 and 509.R.6 in a manner consistent with EPA's revised rules. On October 6, 2008, LDEQ committed to implement the provisions in a manner consistent with the EPA's “Reasonable Possibility in Recordkeeping” rule.
In addition, on February 22, 2013, the EPA identified seven Louisiana SIP-approved citations that could allow emissions that were either automatically or through director's discretion, exempted from compliance with otherwise applicable emission limitations.
In this proposal action, we are addressing the eight rule changes for baseline actual emissions and projected actual emissions definitions. These submitted definitions include the phrase “authorized emissions associated with startup, shutdown, and malfunction (SSM).” Because the term “authorized emissions” as used could encompass the exempted emissions subject to the SSM SIP Call if Louisiana fails to appropriately respond to the SSM SIP Call within 18 months from the issuance of the final action, the EPA will have to revisit its approval of these
We are proposing to approve the December 20, 2005, submittal, as revised by the May 16, 2011, submittal as part of the Louisiana SIP for Major NSR reform.
LDEQ provided a clarification letter (Clarification) on June 9, 2015, which was requested by the EPA to clarify perceived inconsistencies in certain provisions in the SIP submission. The full text of the letter can be found in the Docket for this action. This letter clarifies the following aspects of the Major NSR Air Permit Program.
The EPA asked for clarification on how the state provisions utilize the term “authorized” in the context of emissions associated with start-ups, shutdowns, and malfunctions, a term not found in the federal rules. We also asked for clarification on how variances and emergency orders affect permit actions.
LDEQ explained in its clarification letter that the term “authorized” does not expand the meaning of “baseline actual emissions” or “projected actual emissions” in a manner to render the submitted revisions to LAC 33:III.504 and 509 less stringent than their corresponding federal provisions. Accordingly, a permittee cannot circumvent what would otherwise be applicable NSR requirements when issuing either a new or modified (
Next, LDEQ responded that a variance is not a permit, but rather a waiver issued prospectively by LDEQ to allow emissions from an emissions unit to temporarily exceed permitted limitations or to authorize the use of a temporary emissions unit not addressed by an air permit. Baseline actual emissions cannot exceed permitted limits, even if additional emissions have been approved by means of a variance or Declaration of Emergency and Administrative Order.
In addition, LDEQ expanded on its use of the term “authorized” in relation to its context of LAC 33:III.919 (Emissions Inventory) and the reporting of actual emissions to LDEQ's Emissions Reporting and Inventory Center. LDEQ stated it would amend its “Louisiana Guidance for Air Permitting Actions” to clarify that, for purposes of baseline actual emissions and projected actual emissions, “authorized” emissions cannot exceed the limitations imposed by an air permit issued pursuant to LAC 33:III.Chapter 5.
We evaluated and are proposing to approve the revisions to the Louisiana PSD and NNSR programs submitted on May 16, 2011, and to the PSD program submitted on February 27, 2013, finding that the Louisiana NNSR and PSD permitting programs comply with the federal regulatory requirements for implementation of the PM
We evaluated and are proposing to approve revisions to the existing SIP-approved Louisiana Regulations on Control of Emissions through the Use of ERC Banking. The submittals containing Chapter 6 rules that are a part of this action are dated February 2, 2000, January 27, 2003, May 5, 2006, November 9, 2007, and August 14, 2009, found that the Louisiana ERC banking revisions comply with the federal regulatory requirements for implementation of the control of emissions through the use of ERC Banking. The changes include: (1) Establishing emission banking for all parishes designated as ozone nonattainment areas in the state; (2) revising submittal dates for banking credits; (3) revising references after department reorganization to reflect new organization structure; and (4) replacing the 1-hour ozone standard with the 8-hour standard. Our evaluation of the Louisiana SIP submittal included a line-by-line comparison, which is provided in the TSD, of the proposed revisions with the federal requirements. Most of the changes contained in the Chapter 6 submittals were not substantial. Our analysis shows that in most cases, the state regulatory language is identical to the federal rule. Where the rules are not identical, they are consistent with and support the intent of the federal rules and definitions. The EPA is therefore proposing to approve these submittals. Note that the revisions we are addressing update the existing SIP-approved requirements to address current nonattainment areas. These revisions do not change the underlying purpose of the emissions bank, which is to provide nonattainment offsets.
We have determined that the regulations submitted to EPA for approval as SIP revisions meet the requirements of section 110(l). We have determined that their implementation will not interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment and reasonable further progress, or any other applicable requirement of the CAA. The EPA's evaluation of the Louisiana SIP submittals included a line-by-line comparison, which can be found in section VI of the TSD, of the proposed revisions with the federal requirements. If the rules are new, including the NSR Reform rules contained in the December 20, 2005 submittal, then they were determined to be consistent with the federal SIP rules. Therefore, as discussed above and in the TSD, the revisions to the Louisiana NNSR and PSD programs are substantively the same as the 2002 NSR Reform Rules, without including any vacated provisions, we conclude that these rules do not interfere with attainment, reasonable further progress, or any other applicable requirement of the Act. See 67 FR 80186 and 68 FR 63021 for EPA's detailed explanation of the legal basis for the 2002 NSR Reform Rules. The EPA has concluded that the regulatory submittals, as ultimately revised, meet the requirements of the CAA section 110(l).
Additionally, the rescission of the Bubble for Union Carbide Corporation Taft Plant also meets CAA section 110(l). On July 18, 1990, the EPA approved the Bubble, as a revision to the Louisiana SIP (55 FR 29203). The
In this action, the EPA proposes to approve severable revisions to the major air permitting procedures in sections 501, 504, 509, 523, 603, 605, 607, 613, and 615 as submitted to the EPA to revise the Louisiana Major NSR SIP Permit program on July 25, 1997, June 22, 1998, February 2, 2000, January 27, 2003, June 15, 2005, December 20, 2005, May 5, 2006, July 20, 2007, November 9, 2007, August 14, 2009, May 16, 2011, and February 27, 2013. In addition, the EPA is proposing to remove the alternative emission reduction plan (“Bubble”) for Union Carbide Corporation, Taft Plant to reflect LDEQ's rescission of the permit, from the SIP. Table 2 in Section III summarizes each regulatory citation that is affected by this action. Note, Table 2 does not include the rescission of the Union Carbide bubble, submitted on July 20, 2007, which is also being proposed for approval. We have made the preliminary determination that the revisions were developed and submitted in accordance with the requirements of the CAA and the EPA's regulations regarding SIP development at 40 CFR part 51. Additionally, we have determined that the submitted revisions to the Louisiana PSD and NNSR programs, as clarified by LDEQ, are consistent with our major source permitting regulations at 40 CFR 51.160-51.166 and the associated policy and guidance. Therefore, under section 110 and parts C and D of the Act, and for the reasons presented above and in our accompanying TSD, the EPA proposes to fully approve the specific revisions to the Louisiana SIP identified in Table 2 below:
We also are proposing to approve the December 25, 2005, submittal, as revised by the May 16, 2011, submittal. as part of the Louisiana NSR SIP because they meet the Major NSR reform requirements. The LDEQ also provided an October 6, 2008, letter, and a June 9, 2015, providing further clarification.
The EPA is proposing to find that the May 16, 2011, revisions to the Louisiana NNSR program at LAC 33:III.504 address all required NNSR elements for the implementation of the 1997 and 2006 PM
The EPA invites the public to make comments on all aspects of our proposed full approval of the Louisiana Air Permit Procedure Program, and to submit them by the Date listed above. We are accepting comments on this proposed action for 30 days. After reviewing the comments received, we will make a final determination of the approvability of the specified revisions to the Louisiana Major Air Permit Procedures and Regulations and Control of Emissions through the Use of Emission Reduction Credits (ERC) Banking Revisions in the
In this action, we are proposing to include in a final rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with the requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, we are proposing to incorporate by reference revisions to the Louisiana regulations as described in the Proposed Action section above. We have made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely proposes to approve state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the proposed rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, and Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve under the Federal Clean Air Act (CAA) State Implementation Plan (SIP) revisions submitted by the State of Texas. These revisions pertain to contingency measures for particulate matter in the City of El Paso. The affected contingency measures are the paving of alleys and sweeping of streets.
Written comments must be received on or before September 18, 2015.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket No. EPA-R06-OAR-2012-0205, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Jeffrey Riley, 214-665-8542,
Throughout this document wherever “we”, “us”, or “our” is used, we mean the EPA.
Under the 1990 CAA Amendments, the City of El Paso, Texas was designated by operation of law as nonattainment of the 1987 National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS) for particulate matter (PM) with an aerodynamic diameter less than or equal to a nominal ten micrometers (PM
On March 7, 2012, the Texas Commission on Environmental Quality (TCEQ) submitted revisions to remove the requirement to pave alleys at the rate of 15 miles per year, and replace it with the following requirements: (1) All new alleys must be paved; (2) unpaved alleys cannot be used for residential garbage and recycling collection; and (3) recycled asphalt product (RAP) may be used as an alternate means of control for unpaved alleys. The revisions also changed the street sweeping frequency requirement from four times per year to three times per year in the city limits and from six times per week to four times per week in the central business district. TCEQ provided supplemental information dated December 3, 2014 updating the unpaved alleys inventory between 2010 through 2014.
Section 110(l) of the CAA states that the EPA cannot approve a SIP revision if the revision would interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment and RFP, or any other applicable requirement of the CAA. Contingency Measures are a required element of an attainment demonstration, to be implemented if the area fails to attain. In this case, the City implemented early the contingency measures for paving of alleys and street sweeping on an on-going basis since 1991, even though not required by the EPA. Implementation of these measures has continued even after the 1994 attainment date. To demonstrate noninterference, Texas provided a qualitative analysis of the emission reductions achieved by these measures coupled with evaluation of air quality data to show that the level of emissions provided for by the revised early implemented contingency measures would not interfere with attainment or RFP.
At the time of the EPA's approval of the paving of alleys as a contingency measure, there were an estimated 89 miles of unpaved alleys, and all unpaved roads in the city of El Paso were required to be paved in order to reduce this source category's projected 1994 PM
The overall inventory of unpaved alleys in El Paso has continued to decrease, and thereby further reductions in PM
As additional support for the change to the rate of paving of alleys, the submitted revision prohibits garbage collection in unpaved alleys; the City since 1997 stopped garbage collection in paved and unpaved alleys. The significant paving progress, the requirement to pave new alleys, and prohibition of garbage collection in alleys have reduced the overall amount of fugitive dust in the El Paso area. In the SIP submittal, the City commits to continue sweeping on a different schedule. Because the emissions reductions from paving and street sweeping are from already-implemented contingency measures, thus above what was needed to show attainment, and the reductions continue, the PM reductions from these measures are above and beyond what is required to show continued maintenance of the NAAQS.
The State's submittal also relied upon ambient monitoring data for the years 2007 through 2009 to demonstrate there will be no interference with attainment. The El Paso area continues to monitor attainment of the PM
Because the fugitive dust controls are early implemented contingency measures, they were not relied upon for demonstrating attainment or RFP; paving of new alleys is required; the inventory of pre-existing unpaved alleys has been reduced from 66% of total alleys to 13%; and paving continues using the effective RAP, the EPA finds that the SIP revision will not interfere with the area's ability to continue to attain or maintain the affected NAAQS or other CAA requirements.
We are proposing to approve revisions to the Texas SIP that pertain to changes to the PM
(1) All new alleys must be paved;
(2) Alleys may not be used for trash pickup; and
(3) The use of recycled asphalt product as defined in § 111.145 and § 111.147(1) may be used as an alternate means of particulate matter control for alleys.
We also are proposing to approve 30 TAC § 111.145 and § 111.147(1) that define RAP, and 30 TAC § 111.147(2) that changes the sweeping frequency requirement from four to three time per year in the city limits and from six to four times per week in the El Paso central business district. We have evaluated the State's submittals and have determined that they meet the applicable requirements of the Clean Air Act and EPA regulations, and are consistent with EPA policy.
In this action, we are proposing to include in a final rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with the requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, we are proposing to incorporate by reference revisions to the Texas regulations as described in the Proposed Action section above. We have made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely proposes to approve state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the proposed rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to revise its Regional Consistency regulations to ensure the EPA has the flexibility necessary to implement Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) programs on a national scale while addressing court rulings that concern certain agency actions under the Act. In addition, the proposed revisions would help to foster overall fairness and predictability regarding the scope and impact of judicial decisions under the CAA.
Comments must be received on or before October 19, 2015.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2014-0616, to the
For technical information, contact Greg Nizich, Air Quality Policy Division, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards (C504-03), Environmental Protection Agency, Research Triangle Park, North Carolina 27711; telephone number (919) 541-3078; fax number (919) 541-5509; email address:
To request a public hearing or information pertaining to a public hearing on this document, contact Ms. Pamela Long, Air Quality Policy Division, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards (C504-01), Environmental Protection Agency, Research Triangle Park, North Carolina 27711; telephone number (919) 541-0641; fax number (919) 541-5509; email address:
The information in this
Entities potentially affected directly by this proposal include the EPA and other governments that are delegated administrative authority to assist the EPA with the implementation of air program federal regulations. Entities potentially affected indirectly by this proposal include owners and operators of sources of air emissions that are subject to CAA regulations.
Do not submit this information to the EPA through
When submitting comments, remember to:
• Identify the rulemaking by docket number and other identifying information (subject heading,
• Follow directions—The agency may ask you to respond to specific questions or organize comments by referencing a Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part or section number.
• Explain why you agree or disagree; suggest alternatives and substitute language for your requested changes.
• Describe any assumptions and provide any technical information and/or data that you used.
• If you estimate potential costs or burdens, explain how you arrived at your estimate in sufficient detail to allow for it to be reproduced.
• Provide specific examples to illustrate your concerns, and suggest alternatives.
• Explain your views as clearly as possible, avoiding the use of profanity or personal threats.
• Make sure to submit your comments by the comment period deadline identified.
In addition to being available in the docket, an electronic copy of this proposed rule will also be available on the World Wide Web. Following signature by the EPA Administrator, a copy of this proposed rule will be posted in the regulations and standards section of our New Source Review (NSR) Web site, under Regulations & Standards, at
To request a public hearing or information pertaining to a public hearing on this document, contact Ms. Pamela Long, Air Quality Policy Division, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards (C504-03), Environmental Protection Agency, Research Triangle Park, North Carolina 27711; telephone number (919) 541-0641; fax number (919) 541-5509; email address:
The following acronyms, abbreviations and units are used in this preamble:
The purpose of this rulemaking is to revise the EPA's Regional Consistency regulations—40 CFR part 56. Specifically, we are proposing to add a provision to the Regional Consistency regulations to accommodate the implications of federal court decisions that result from challenges to locally or regionally applicable actions. As explained more fully below, revising the Regional Consistency regulations to accommodate the implications of such federal court decisions is consistent with general principles of common law, the judicial review provisions of the CAA, and CAA section 301(a)(2). Furthermore, the proposed revisions will help to foster overall fairness and predictability regarding the scope and impact of judicial decisions under the CAA.
The CAA calls for the EPA to implement the Act in partnership with state, local and tribal governments.
How the EPA carries out its role in this cooperative partnership under the CAA is influenced by how the EPA is organized. The EPA is composed of various headquarters offices, each of which is responsible for nationwide execution of our programs, and ten regional offices, each of which is responsible for the execution of our programs within several states and territories.
In the 1977 CAA Amendments, Congress added section 301(a)(2) (42 U.S.C. 7601) in recognition of the role that staff from both headquarters and regions played in carrying out the Act's programs. CAA section 301(a)(2) required the EPA Administrator to promulgate regulations “establishing general applicable procedures and policies” for the EPA regional officers and employees to follow when carrying out activities delegated to them under the Act. Among other things, the CAA stated that these regulations should “assure fairness and uniformity in the criteria, procedures, and policies applied” by the EPA regional offices in their CAA activities and “provide a mechanism” to identify and standardize any inconsistent or varying criteria, procedures, and policies used by the EPA employees.
Thereafter, the EPA took a number of actions to promulgate the Regional Consistency regulations required in CAA section 301(a)(2). In 1978, the EPA issued an Advanced Notice of Proposed Rulemaking seeking comment on a number of consistency issues and inviting interested persons to participate in a series of public workshops to discuss the development of the Regional Consistency regulations (43 FR 4872). In 1979, after receiving those comments and listening to input provided at the public workshops from representatives of industry, state, and public interest groups, the EPA issued its Notice of Proposed Rulemaking for the Regional Consistency regulations (44 FR 13043). Finally, in 1980, the EPA promulgated its final Regional Consistency regulations in 40 CFR part 56.
As the EPA explained when it finalized the regulations, the “intended effect” of these regulations was “to assure fair and consistent application of rules, regulations and policy throughout the country by assuring that the action of each individual EPA Regional Office is consistent with one another and national policy” (45 FR 85400). Generally, the Regional Consistency regulations: (1) State the EPA policy of assuring “fair and uniform” application of the EPA rules, procedures, and policies necessary to implement and enforce the Act (
The EPA has been acting under these regulations for more than 30 years to address consistency issues regarding various CAA programs, policy, and guidance. In this document, we are proposing to revise the rules to address a very specific consistency issue—how to treat Federal court decisions regarding locally or regionally applicable actions that may affect consistent application of national programs, policy, and guidance.
The EPA is undertaking this proposed revision to the Regional Consistency regulations, in part, as a result of a recent decision of the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit (D.C. Circuit Court) in
On February 19, 2013, the National Environmental Development Association's Clean Air Project (NEDACAP) filed a petition for review with the D.C. Circuit Court on the December 2012 memorandum. NEDACAP alleged that the December 2012 memorandum violated both CAA section 301(a)(2) and the EPA's Regional Consistency regulations by establishing inconsistent permit criteria in different parts of the country.
In May 2014, the D.C. Circuit Court issued a decision vacating the December 2012 memorandum. The D.C. Circuit Court agreed with NEDACAP that the memorandum was inconsistent with the EPA's Regional Consistency regulations located at 40 CFR part 56.
The D.C. Circuit Court presented three options that the EPA could pursue in response to an adverse decision: Revise the underlying regulation; appeal the decision; or revise the Regional Consistency regulations. By making the revisions proposed in this rulemaking, the EPA is following one of the options suggested by the court. Slip op. at 18.
First, the court suggested that the EPA consider revising the underlying regulations at issue in the Sixth Circuit decision.
Second, the court suggested that the EPA could have appealed the Sixth Circuit decision to the U.S. Supreme Court. Slip op. at 18. However, because the U.S. Supreme Court grants only about one percent of the petitions for certiorari (
Third, the court suggested that the EPA could revise the Regional Consistency regulations “to account for regional variances created by judicial decisions or circuit splits.” Slip op. at 18. This proposed rulemaking follows this option because we believe it most effectively addresses the issue presented by an adverse federal court decision addressing an action of local or regional applicability. As discussed further below, this proposed revision also would accommodate the EPA's proper and longstanding application of the doctrine of intercircuit nonaquiescence in future cases while eliminating the need for several lengthy, narrow rulemakings or review of a lower court's decision by the U.S. Supreme Court.
This section discusses the proposed revisions to the Regional Consistency regulations and our rationale for proposing those changes. We solicit public comment on the changes being proposed and will consider those comments in developing the final rule.
In this action, we propose three specific revisions to the general consistency policy put forward in the existing Regional Consistency regulations, 40 CFR part 56, to accommodate the implications of judicial decisions addressing “locally or regionally applicable” actions. Specifically, we propose to revise 40 CFR 56.3 to add a provision to acknowledge an exception to the “policy” of uniformity to provide that a decision of a federal court that arises from a challenge to “locally or regionally applicable” actions would not apply uniformly nationwide, and that only decisions of the U.S. Supreme Court and decisions of the D.C. Circuit Court that arise from challenges to “nationally applicable regulations . . . or final action” would apply uniformly nationwide. We also propose to revise 40 CFR 56.4 to add a provision to clarify that EPA headquarters offices' employees would not need to issue mechanisms or revise existing mechanisms developed under 40 CFR 56.4(a) to address federal court decisions arising from challenges to “locally or regionally applicable” actions. Lastly, we propose to revise 40 CFR 56.5(b) to clarify that EPA regional offices' employees would not need to seek headquarters office concurrence to act inconsistently with national policy or interpretation if such action is required by a federal court decision arising from challenges to “locally or regionally applicable” actions. In other words, through this rulemaking, the agency would be authorizing a region to act inconsistently with nationwide policy or interpretation to the extent that the region must do so in order to act consistently with a decision issued by a federal court that has direct jurisdiction over the region's action.
The manner in which the proposed revisions would affect the EPA's operational consistency may be explained by way of example related to a challenge to the title V applicability determination made by EPA Region 5
Thereafter, a number of EPA regional offices sought guidance from headquarters offices regarding the impact of the
If the proposed revisions to the Regional Consistency regulations had already been in place, this type of memorandum from EPA headquarters would not have been necessary because regions, states, and other potentially affected entities would have had certainty and predictability regarding the application of such a judicial decision—they would have known that this type of permit-specific, local and regional decision would only apply in the areas under the jurisdiction of the Sixth Circuit. Accordingly, with the changes proposed, it would have been clear to everyone that EPA regions would not be bound to apply the findings of the
If the proposed revisions to the Regional Consistency regulations are finalized, it will be clear that an adverse federal court decision in a case regarding locally or regionally applicable actions does not apply nationwide. As soon as these regulatory changes are effective, the EPA regional offices that are outside of the jurisdiction of a court will be able to apply the agency's nationwide practices in a consistent manner in any actions they take going forward, and they will not need to seek concurrence from headquarters offices for that continued application. Likewise, under the revised regulations, it would be clear that any such adverse decision that is or has been issued would be applied to those areas or parties that are under the issuing court's jurisdiction in any regional actions going forward. Moreover, those regions would not need to seek concurrence from EPA headquarters offices in order to follow the relevant decision, even if doing so would mean they were acting inconsistently with other EPA regional offices or national policy.
Note that these proposed regulatory changes, if finalized, would only apply to activities conducted at EPA offices (both regional and headquarters) and also to states delegated to implement EPA rules. The proposed revisions would not affect a state implementing its SIP-approved program, as they are bound to follow their own regulations.
In this rulemaking action, we are proposing to revise 40 CFR part 56 to “account for regional variances created by a judicial decision or circuit splits” by creating a specific accommodation to the general policy of uniformity of EPA actions. As explained more fully below, revising the Regional Consistency regulations to accommodate federal circuit and district court decisions that result from challenges to locally or regionally applicable actions, and thus providing for intercircuit nonaquiescence, is consistent with general principles of common law, CAA sections 301(a)(2) and 307(b)(1). It will also help to foster overall fairness and predictability regarding the scope and impact of judicial decisions under the CAA, and is a reasonable extension of the EPA's existing part 56 regulations.
Federal courts are courts of limited jurisdiction; they have only the authority to hear and decide cases granted to them by Congress.
A court of appeals generally hears appeals from the district courts located within its circuit, and the circuit is delineated by the states it contains.
As the U.S. Supreme Court has explained, circuit splits are a common and acknowledged aspect of the federal legal system.
We are also proposing these revisions to ensure that the Regional Consistency regulations are in harmony with the CAA's judicial review provisions. Congress specifically addressed in the CAA the ability of the various courts of appeals to hear appeals of decisions of the EPA. Congress created a very specific system of judicial review to address how the CAA is implemented. Specifically, Congress granted the authority to review agency actions of nationwide applicability under the CAA only to the D.C. Circuit Court. In 1977, at the same time it added the directive for the EPA to promulgate what would ultimately become the Regional Consistency regulations, Congress amended the Act to ensure that the D.C. Circuit Court, and no other circuit courts, would review nationally applicable regulations. Specifically, CAA section 307(b)(1) states that “A petition for review of action of the Administrator in promulgating any national primary or secondary ambient air quality standard, any emission standard or requirement under section 112, any standard of performance or requirement under section 111, any standard under section 202 (other than a standard required to be prescribed under section 202(b)(1)), any determination under section 202(b)(5), any control or prohibition under section 211, any standard under section 231, any rule issued under section 113, 119, or under section 120,
The Committee Report accompanying the bill that ultimately became the CAA Amendments of 1977 states that the amendments to section 307(b)(1) make “it clear that any nationally applicable regulations promulgated by the Administrator under the Clean Air Act could be reviewed only in the U.S. Court of Appeal for the District of Columbia.” H.R.Rep. No. 95-294, p. 323 (1977).
By placing review of nationally applicable decisions in the D.C. Circuit Court alone, Congress struck the balance between the countervailing values of improved development of the law on the one hand and national uniformity on the other. By consolidating review of nationally applicable final agency actions in the D.C. Circuit Court, Congress advanced the objective of “even and consistent national application” of certain EPA regulations (and other “final” actions) that are national in scope.
This proposal would firmly reestablish the balance that Congress struck in CAA section 307(b)(1), to the extent the current Regional Consistency regulations upset that balance. Thus, this proposal would ensure that only the U.S. Supreme Court and the D.C. Circuit Court would issue decisions with mandatory nationwide effect, which is consistent with the clear statutory language of CAA section 307(b)(1), as well as its legislative history. As explained below, there is nothing in the language or intent of CAA section 301(a)(2) that trumps the clear statutory directive of CAA section 307(b)(1) establishing which courts have jurisdiction over which final agency actions.
A specific accommodation for locally and regionally applicable court decisions also is compatible with the statutory language and Congressional intent of CAA section 301(a)(2). As described above, those provisions require the EPA Administrator to develop regulations to “assure fairness and uniformity” of agency actions. Notably, there is nothing in the text of CAA section 301(a)(2) or in the limited legislative history of that provision that would suggest Congress intended for the requirement to promulgate fairness and uniformity regulations under CAA section 301 to either upset the balance Congress struck when establishing judicial review provisions in CAA section 307, or disrupt the general principles of common law that have allowed for the percolation of issues up through the various circuit courts, as discussed above. Section 301(a)(2) of the Act does not specifically discuss whether the fairness and uniformity objectives must be applied to all court decisions; nor does it address how the agency should respond to adverse court decisions. Congress also did not include language in CAA section 301 that would expressly prohibit the EPA from promulgating regulations that accommodate intercircuit nonaquiescence, consistent with CAA section 307.
In addition, the text of CAA section 301(a)(2)(A) necessitates a balance between uniformity
Fairness is defined by one source as “agreeing with what is thought to be right or acceptable; treating people in a way that does not favor some over others” (
It is not clear that the automatic, immediate nationwide application of one court's decision based on the specific facts of a locally-applicable decision would always be “fair” in the absence of the type of accommodation proposed here. For example, consider widget factories that have been diligently complying with the EPA's longstanding interpretation that the Act supports permit limits of 1.00 ppm or lower (
While CAA section 301(a)(2) directed the EPA to create mechanisms for identifying and standardizing various criteria, there is nothing to suggest that
Revising the Regional Consistency regulations to include a specific accommodation for intercircuit nonaquiescence in appropriate circumstances would also help to assure fairness and predictability in the implementation of the CAA overall. Such an accommodation would foster predictability by ensuring that, unless there is an affirmative nationwide and deliberate change in the EPA's rules or policies, lower court decisions would apply only in those states/areas within the jurisdiction of the lower court, with the exception of the D.C. Circuit Court reviewing final agency actions of national applicability, consistent with CAA section 307(b)(1). Under the revised Regional Consistency regulations, as proposed, a source subject to the CAA would, as usual, need to know and follow the law in the circuit where it is located, and the law of the D.C. Circuit Court and the U.S. Supreme Court. It would not be required to follow every CAA case in every court across the country to ensure compliance with the Act.
By revising the regulations, the EPA also accommodates the possibility that a split in the circuits could preclude the EPA from complying with both court decisions at once. Consider the following example: In a case involving a permit issued in New York, the Second Circuit upholds the EPA's longstanding position and, in doing so, confirms that the EPA's interpretation is compelled by the Act under Step One of
Moreover, sometimes court decisions reviewing a regulation or statute are reversed on appeal. In other cases, a court decision may contain a ruling that appears to invalidate a national rule in the context of a source-specific action, which is inconsistent with CAA section 307(b)(1), as explained above. When either outcome occurs, intercircuit nonaquiescence allows the EPA to limit the impact of the court's ruling while it undertakes other actions. For example, in
As discussed earlier, since the U.S. Supreme Court only grants a very limited number of petitions for certiorari, it is highly likely that an adverse court of appeals decision could remain in place indefinitely. This possibility is exacerbated if the EPA is prohibited by its own regulations governing consistency from seeking to create a circuit split on the issue by non-acquiescing to the first adverse decision, and maintaining its national position before other courts. Moreover, if the lower court decision is based on an interpretation of the CAA statutory language, the EPA may not be able to “fix” the problem by revising the underlying regulation because the agency could arguably be required to follow the statutory construction set forth in the lower court's decision. Such a result would be inconsistent with the general structure of the federal judiciary, the specific structure of the Act's judicial review provision, and the general directive to assure both fairness and uniformity in CAA section 301(a)(2).
As noted above, because there is nothing in the statutory text of CAA section 301(a)(2) that would prohibit the
The Regional Consistency regulations generally establish certain mechanisms with the goal of “identifying, preventing, and resolving regional inconsistencies” (45 FR 85400). For the EPA headquarters office employees, the regulations do this by targeting particular aspects of the Act that have the potential to present consistency problems—any rule or regulation proposed or promulgated under part 51, which sets forth requirements for the preparation, adoption and submittal of state implementation plans, and part 58, which contains requirements for measuring, monitoring, and reporting ambient air quality. However, the consistency regulations do not state a requirement for headquarters offices to apply these parts consistently in all circumstances. Instead the regulations direct headquarters office employees to develop mechanisms to assure that such rules or regulations are implemented and enforced fairly and uniformly by the regional offices. In so doing, the regulations do not state that headquarters employees are required to assure that a decision of one judicial circuit is always applied consistently in all EPA regions.
Likewise, the provisions of the Regional Consistency regulations that apply to the EPA regional office employees also do not contain a requirement that all regional officials act the same way in all circumstances, nor do they address judicial decisions. While the EPA could change any such requirement if it did exist in our regulations, we do not need to make such a change because the narrow revisions we are proposing in this rulemaking are a natural extension of the existing regulations, which state that regional officials must assure that actions are “carried out fairly and in a manner that is
As discussed above, Congress specifically addressed the role of and allowed for regional office divergence among circuit courts in CAA section 307(b)(1), and it would be both reasonable and fair to allow for inconsistencies among the actions of regional officials to respect those directives. Perhaps more importantly, the Regional Consistency regulations already allow for some variation between the regional offices. Specifically, 40 CFR 56.5(b) provides that regional officials “seek concurrence” from the EPA headquarters with respect to any interpretations of the Act, rule, regulation, or guidance that “may result in inconsistent application among the regional Offices.” Thus, the EPA has already acknowledged that certain regions may in some instances act inconsistently with others, and the revisions proposed in this action would simply be identifying and authorizing such inconsistency specifically when necessitated by a federal court decision reviewing an action of local or regional applicability.
In fact, the proposed revisions would further the overall goals of the existing Regional Consistency regulations by specifically identifying the possibility of potential inconsistent actions across the EPA regions, especially where multiple courts have already addressed an issue in different ways, and standardizing a response that can be followed by all the regions, such that regions only have to apply local and regional decisions issued by courts in those areas in which the court has jurisdiction.
As we have explained above, revising the Regional Consistency regulations to specifically accommodate circuit court decisions via intercircuit nonaquiescence is consistent with general principles of common law, and CAA sections 307(b)(1) and 301(a)(2). In addition, it will help to foster overall fairness and predictability regarding the scope and impact of judicial decisions under the CAA, and is a reasonable extension of the EPA's existing part 56 regulations. To the extent one could read the
The federal district courts are the general trial courts of the federal judiciary system.
Likewise, as noted above, Congress created a very specific system of judicial review to address how the Act is implemented, and that system is focused on challenges to specific final actions in the circuit courts. There is nothing in CAA section 307(b)(1) or in the statutory language requiring the EPA to promulgate regional consistency rules that would suggest that Congress intended district court decisions in
Although the proposed rule revisions would make clear that the EPA is not obligated to follow judicial decisions of a federal circuit court addressing “locally or regionally applicable” actions in other circuits (or district court decisions in instances that do not involve parties to such decision), the proposal is not intended to preclude anyone from advocating that the agency exercise its discretion to follow such decisions in appropriate cases. The EPA recognizes that national policy can be influenced by insights and reasoning from judicial decisions and we do not mean to imply through this proposal that the agency would ignore persuasive judicial opinions issued in cases involving “locally or regionally applicable” actions. Such opinions may address issues of nationwide importance and could, in appropriate circumstances, lead the agency to adopt new national policy.
This document is proposing a rule revision to give the EPA flexibility to implement court decisions of a limited scope (
This action is not a “significant regulatory action” under the terms of Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and is therefore not subject to review under Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011) because it does not result in an impact greater than $100 million in any one year or raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in this Executive Order.
This action does not impose any new information collection burden. The proposed rule would not create any new requirements for regulated entities, but rather provides flexibility to EPA in implementing numerous programs on a national basis.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act generally requires an agency to prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis of any rule subject to notice and comment rulemaking requirements under the Administrative Procedures Act or any other statute unless the agency certifies that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Small entities include small businesses, small organizations and small governmental jurisdictions.
For purposes of assessing the impacts of this proposed action on small entities, small entity is defined as: (1) A small business as defined in the U.S. Small Business Administration size standards at 13 CFR 121.201; (2) a small governmental jurisdiction that is a government of a city, county, town, school district or special district with a population of less than 50,000; or (3) a small organization that is any not-for-profit enterprise that is independently owned and operated and is not dominant in its field.
After considering the economic impacts of this proposed rule on small entities, I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This proposed rule will not impose any requirements directly on small entities. Entities potentially affected directly by this proposal include federal, state, local and tribal governments, none of which qualify as small entities.
We continue to be interested in the potential impacts of the proposed rule on small entities and welcome comments on issues related to such impacts.
This action contains no federal mandates under the provisions of Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA), 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538 for state, local or tribal governments or the private sector. The action imposes no enforceable duty on any state, local or tribal governments or the private sector. Therefore, this action is not subject to the requirements of sections 202 and 205 of the UMRA.
This rule is also not subject to the requirements of section 203 of UMRA because it contains no regulatory requirements that might significantly or uniquely affect small governments. As noted previously, the effect of the proposed rule would be neutral or relieve regulatory burden.
This proposed rule does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, as specified in Executive Order 13132. This proposed rule would revise regulations that apply to the EPA, and any delegated state/local governments, only, and would not, therefore, affect the relationship between the national government and the states or the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
In the spirit of Executive Order 13132 and consistent with the EPA policy to promote communications between the EPA and state and local governments, the EPA specifically solicits comment on this proposed rule from state and local officials.
This proposed rule does not have tribal implications, as specified in Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000). It will not have substantial direct effects on tribal governments, on the relationship between the federal government and Indian tribes or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the federal government and Indian tribes, as specified in Executive Order 13175. This proposed rule only affects our flexibility regarding judicial decisions as they apply to implementing air programs on a national basis. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this rule.
The EPA interprets Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) as applying only to those regulatory actions that concern health or safety risks, such that the analysis required under section 5-501 of the Executive Order has the potential to influence the regulation. This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it does not establish an environmental standard intended to mitigate health or safety risks.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001), because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (NTTAA), Public Law 104-113, 12(d) (15 U.S.C. 272 note) directs the EPA to use voluntary consensus standards in its regulatory activities unless to do so would be inconsistent with applicable law or otherwise impractical. Voluntary consensus standards are technical standards (
This proposed rulemaking does not involve technical standards. Therefore, the EPA did not consider the use of any voluntary consensus standards.
Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994) establishes federal executive policy on environmental justice. Its main provision directs federal agencies, to the greatest extent practicable and permitted by law, to make environmental justice part of their mission by identifying and addressing, as appropriate, disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects of their programs, policies and activities on minority populations and low-income populations in the United States.
The EPA has determined that this proposed rule will not have disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority or low-income populations because it does not affect the level of protection provided to human health or the environment. The proposed rule would provide flexibility to the EPA in issuing guidance to implement its regulations with respect to judicial decisions. The results of this evaluation are contained in section V of the preamble titled “Environmental Justice Considerations.”
Pursuant to section 307(d)(1)(V) of the CAA, the Administrator determines that this action is subject to the provisions of section 307(d). Section 307(d)(1)(V) provides that the provisions of section 307(d) apply to “such other actions as the Administrator may determine.”
The statutory authority for this action is provided by section 301 of the CAA as amended (42 U.S.C. 7601).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, title 40, chapter I of the Code of Federal Regulations is proposed to be amended as follows:
Sec. 301(a)(2) of the Clean Air Act as amended (42 U.S.C. 7601).
(d) Recognize that only the decisions of the U.S. Supreme Court and decisions of the U.S. Court of Appeals for the D.C. Circuit Court that arise from challenges to “nationally applicable regulations . . . or final action,” as discussed in Clean Air Act section 307(b) (42 U.S.C. 7607(b)), shall apply uniformly, and to provide for exceptions to the general policy stated in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section with regard to decisions of the Federal courts that arise from challenges to “locally or regionally applicable” actions, as provided in Clean Air Act section 307(b) (42 U.S.C. 7607(b)).
(c) The Administrator shall not be required to issue new mechanisms or revise existing mechanisms developed under paragraph (a) of this section to address the inconsistent application of any rule, regulation, or policy that may arise in response to the limited jurisdiction of either a Federal circuit court decision arising from challenges to “locally or regionally applicable” actions, as provided in Clean Air Act section 307(b) (42 U.S.C. 7607(b)), or a Federal district court decision.
(b) * * * However, the responsible official in a regional office will not be required to seek such concurrence from the appropriate EPA headquarters office for actions that may result in inconsistent application if such inconsistent application is required in order to act in accordance with a Federal court decision:
(1) Issued by a Circuit Court in challenges to “locally or regionally applicable” actions, as provided in Clean Air Act section 307(b) (42 U.S.C. 7607(b)), if that Circuit Court has direct jurisdiction over the geographic areas that the regional office official is addressing, or
(2) Issued by a District Court in a specific case if the party the regional office official is addressing was also a party in the case that resulted in the decision.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Notice and request for comments.
The Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) of the Department of Agriculture (USDA) proposes to revise the United States Standards for Grades of Canned Baked Beans. AMS is proposing to replace process-specific language “Product description” in the standard with language reflective of current canned baked bean manufacturing practices. Additionally, AMS proposes separating the canned dried beans, canned pork and beans, and canned baked beans grade standards from one shared standard document into three separate standard documents. These changes would bring the grade standards for canned baked beans in line with the present quality levels being marketed today and would provide guidance in the effective use of these products.
Comments must be submitted on or before October 19, 2015.
Written comments may be submitted via the Internet:
Contact Brian E. Griffin at the address above, phone (202) 720-5021, or fax (202) 690-1527.
AMS is proposing to revise the U.S. Standards for Grades of Canned Baked Beans using the procedures that appear in part 36 of Title 7 of the Code of Federal Regulations (7 CFR part 36). Section 203(c) of the Agricultural Marketing Act of 1946 (7 U.S.C. 1621-1627), as amended, directs and authorizes the Secretary of Agriculture “to develop and improve standards of quality, condition, quantity, grade, and packaging, and recommend and demonstrate such standards in order to encourage uniformity and consistency in commercial practices.” AMS is committed to carrying out this authority in a manner that facilitates the marketing of agricultural commodities and makes copies of official standards available upon request. The U.S. standards for grades of fruits and vegetables that are not connected with Federal marketing orders or U.S. import requirements no longer appear in the Code of Federal Regulations, but are maintained by USDA, AMS, Fruit and Vegetable Program, and are available on the Internet at:
AMS believes the text “washing, soaking” needs to be retained and proposes the following revision to the text of the Product description: “The product is prepared by washing, soaking, and heating beans and sauce in a closed or open container for a period of time sufficient to provide texture, flavor, color, and consistency attributes that are typical for this product.”
A copy of the petitioner's request and supporting documentation is located on the Internet at
Additional proposed changes to the U.S. Standards for Grades of Canned Baked Beans include separating the canned dried beans grade standards, canned pork and beans grade standards, and the canned baked beans grade standards into individual standard documents. These grade standards are currently recognized as three individual standards, but are contained in one document. No changes to content are recommended at this time for the canned dried beans or canned pork and beans grade standards.
In December 2013, AMS developed a discussion draft of the revised canned baked bean grade standards that included the proposed changes. This draft was distributed to the U.S. Dry Bean Council (USDBC), a trade association representing U.S. growers, shippers, processors, packagers, and canners of dry beans; and to the Grocery Manufacturers Association (GMA), a trade association of the food industry. Members of the USDBC and GMA
Additionally, AMS submitted the discussion draft to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for guidance on the proposed changes. The FDA expressed concern over the removal of the term “baking” from the process while continuing to use the term “baked” as part of the name of the food. The FDA did not object to a name that appropriately describes the food as per the regulations in 21 CFR 101.3.
AMS discussed further FDA's concerns with the petitioner. A second discussion draft was developed and submitted to the FDA and received a positive response. The second discussion draft was then submitted to the aforementioned industry groups for a second round of comments. Both groups responded positively to the changes.
The proposed revised text for Section 52.6461 Product description reads as follows: “The product is prepared by washing, soaking, and baking beans and sauce through the application of heat in a closed or open container for a period of time sufficient to provide texture, flavor, color, and consistency attributes that are typical for this product.”
AMS is soliciting comments on the proposed revision of the U.S. Standards for Grades of Canned Baked Beans. In particular, AMS would welcome comments and information regarding the possible impact on processors and growers. Further details are provided in the petition and are available from Brian E. Griffin at the previously mentioned address in the
7 U.S.C. 1621-1627.
Food Safety and Inspection Service, USDA.
Notice of availability and opportunity for comment.
The Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) is announcing the Agency's intent to revise the Food Standards and Labeling Policy Book. The Agency has stopped adding policy guidance to it; however, FSIS will continue to amend or remove items in the book, as necessary, to remain consistent with Agency policies and regulations. The revised Food Standards and Labeling Policy Book will provide updated information for establishments to use when creating new labels and when modifying existing labels for meat and poultry products.
Submit comments on or before October 19, 2015.
A downloadable version of the Food Standards and Labeling Policy Book is available for viewing and printing at
FSIS invites interested persons to submit comments on this notice. Comments may be submitted by one of the following methods:
Federal eRulemaking Portal: This Web site provides the ability to type short comments directly into the comment field on this Web page or attach a file for lengthier comments. Go to
Mail, including CD-ROMs: Send to Docket Clerk, U.S. Department of Agriculture, Food Safety and Inspection Service, Patriots Plaza 3, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Mailstop 3782, Room 8-163B, Washington, DC 20250-3700.
Hand- or courier-delivered submittals: Deliver to Patriots Plaza 3, 355 E Street SW., Room 8-163A, Washington, DC 20250-3700.
Daniel L. Engeljohn, Ph.D., Assistant Administrator, Office of Policy and Program Development; Telephone: (202) 205-0495, or by Fax: (202) 720-2025.
FSIS is responsible for ensuring that the Nation's commercial supply of meat and poultry is safe, wholesome, and properly labeled and packaged.
On November 7, 2013, FSIS published the final rule “Prior Label Approval Systems: Generic Label Approval.” This final rule amended the meat and poultry products inspection regulations to expand the circumstances under which labels of meat and poultry products would be deemed to be generically approved by the Agency (78 FR 66826).
Effective January 6, 2014, FSIS regulations (9 CFR 412.1(c)) require only four categories of labels to be submitted to the Labeling and Program Delivery Staff (LPDS) for approval. One category requiring the submission of labels is special statements and claims (9 CFR 412.1(c)(3)), as described in 9 CFR 412.1(e). Under this paragraph, special statements and claims that are defined in FSIS's regulations or in its Food Standards and Labeling Policy Book, except for “natural” and negative claims, and that comply with those regulations and policies, are deemed to be approved by the Agency without being submitted for evaluation and approval.
Comments that FSIS had received in response to the December 5, 2011, proposal (76 FR 75809) that preceded the final rule asked the Agency to update its Food Standards and Labeling Policy Book. In response to these comments, FSIS decided to stop adding new policy guidance to the book but to continue to amend or remove items in the book, as necessary.
FSIS has revised the “Chicken Cordon Bleu” entry in response to a petition submitted to the Agency and removed the entry for “Ham, Smithfield” to ensure consistency with the regulations on the use of geographic terminology on labeling (9 CFR 317.8(b)(1). FSIS announced these changes in its
No agency, officer, or employee of the USDA shall, on the grounds of race, color, national origin, religion, sex, gender identity, sexual orientation, disability, age, marital status, family/parental status, income derived from a public assistance program, or political beliefs, exclude from participation in, deny the benefits of, or subject to discrimination any person in the United States under any program or activity conducted by the USDA.
To file a complaint of discrimination, complete the USDA Program Discrimination Complaint Form, which may be accessed online at
Send your completed complaint form or letter to USDA by mail, fax, or email:
U.S. Department of Agriculture, Director, Office of Adjudication, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20250-9410.
(202) 690-7442.
Persons with disabilities who require alternative means for communication (Braille, large print, audiotape, etc.) should contact USDA's TARGET Center at (202) 720-2600 (voice and TDD).
Public awareness of all segments of rulemaking and policy development is important. Consequently, FSIS will announce this
FSIS also will make copies of this publication available through the FSIS Constituent Update, which is used to provide information regarding FSIS policies, procedures, regulations,
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
In response to a request by Pacific Accelerator Limited (“PAL”), the Department of Commerce (the “Department”) is conducting an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on potassium permanganate from the People's Republic of China (“PRC”) for the period of review (“POR”) January 1, 2013, through December 31, 2013.
Paul Walker, AD/CVD Operations, Office V, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-0413.
Imports covered by the order are shipments of potassium permanganate, an inorganic chemical produced in free-flowing, technical, and pharmaceutical grades. Potassium permanganate is currently classifiable under item 2841.61.00 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (“HTSUS”). Although the HTSUS item number is provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the merchandise remains dispositive.
On February 10, 2015, the Department published the
As noted in the
Consistent with the Department's assessment practice in non-market economy (“NME”) cases,
All issues raised in the case brief and the rebuttal brief filed in this review are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum.
Because record evidence indicates that PAL, the only company under review, had no reviewable transactions during the POR, and consistent with our assessment practice, it is appropriate not to rescind the review.
Because the single company under review was found to have no reviewable transactions, we have not calculated any assessment (or cash deposit) rates in this review. The Department intends to issue assessment instructions to CBP 15 days after the publication date of the final results of this review.
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the final results of this review for shipments of the subject merchandise from the PRC entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date, as provided by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) For previously investigated or reviewed PRC and non-PRC exporters that received a separate rate in a prior completed segment of this proceeding, the cash deposit rate will continue to be the existing exporter-specific rate; (2) for all PRC exporters of subject merchandise that have not been found to be entitled to a separate rate, the cash deposit rate will be that for the PRC-wide entity, which is 128.94 percent;
These deposit requirements, when imposed, shall remain in effect until further notice.
This notice also serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during the POR. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Department's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
These final results are issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
On July 14, 2015, the Department of Commerce (Department) published in the
No other changes have been made to the
Consistent with 19 CFR 351.212(b)(2), we intend to issue assessment instructions to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) fifteen days after the date of publication of these final results. We will instruct CBP to assess countervailing duties on period of review entries in the amounts shown above.
In accordance with section 751(a)(1) of the Act, we intend to instruct CBP to collect cash deposits of estimated countervailing duties in the amounts shown above on shipments of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of the final results of this review. For all non-reviewed companies (except Zhejiang Layo Wood Industry Co., Ltd., its affiliate Jiaxing Brilliant Import & Export Co., Ltd., and Zhejiang Yuhua Timber Co., Ltd., which are excluded from the
This corrected notice is issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.213.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
As a result of the determinations by the Department of Commerce (the Department) and the International Trade Commission (ITC) that revocation of the antidumping duty order on hand trucks and certain parts thereof (hand trucks) from the People's Republic of China (PRC) would likely lead to a continuation or recurrence of dumping and material injury to an industry in the United States, the Department is publishing a notice of continuation for this antidumping duty order.
On March 2, 2015, the Department initiated this sunset review on the antidumping duty order on hand trucks from the PRC, pursuant to section 751(c) and 752 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act).
The merchandise subject to this antidumping duty order consists of hand trucks manufactured from any material, whether assembled or unassembled, complete or incomplete, suitable for any use, and certain parts thereof, namely the vertical frame, the handling area and the projecting edges or toe plate, and any combination thereof.
A complete or fully assembled hand truck is a hand-propelled barrow consisting of a vertically disposed frame having a handle or more than one handle at or near the upper section of the vertical frame; at least two wheels at or near the lower section of the vertical frame; and a horizontal projecting edge or edges, or toe plate, perpendicular or angled to the vertical frame, at or near the lower section of the vertical frame. The projecting edge or edges, or toe plate, slides under a load for purposes of lifting and/or moving the load.
That the vertical frame can be converted from a vertical setting to a horizontal setting, then operated in that horizontal setting as a platform, is not a basis for exclusion of the hand truck from the scope of this petition. That the vertical frame, handling area, wheels, projecting edges or other parts of the hand truck can be collapsed or folded is
Examples of names commonly used to reference hand trucks are hand truck, convertible hand truck, appliance hand truck, cylinder hand truck, bag truck, dolly, or hand trolley. They are typically imported under heading 8716.80.5010 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS), although they may also be imported under heading 8716.80.5090. Specific parts of a hand truck, namely the vertical frame, the handling area and the projecting edges or toe plate, or any combination thereof, are typically imported under heading 8716.90.5060 of the HTSUS. Although the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the Department's written description of the scope is dispositive.
Excluded from the scope are small two-wheel or four-wheel utility carts specifically designed for carrying loads like personal bags or luggage in which the frame is made from telescoping tubular material measuring less than
Excluded from the scope is a multifunction cart that combines, among others, the capabilities of a wheelbarrow and dolly. The product comprises a steel frame that can be converted from vertical to horizontal functionality, two wheels toward the lower end of the frame and two removable handles near the top. In addition to a foldable projection edge in its extended position, it includes a permanently attached steel tub or barrow. This product is currently available under proprietary trade names such as the “Aerocart.”
As a result of the determinations by the Department and the ITC that revocation of this antidumping duty order would likely lead to a continuation or recurrence of dumping and material injury to an industry in the United States, pursuant to sections 751(c) and 751(d)(2) of the Act, the Department hereby orders the continuation of the antidumping duty order on hand trucks from the PRC. U.S. Customs and Border Protection will continue to collect cash deposits for estimated antidumping duties at the rates in effect at the time of entry for all imports of subject merchandise.
The effective date of the continuation of this order will be the date of publication in the
This five-year (sunset) review and this notice are in accordance with section 751(c) of the Act and published pursuant to section 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.218(f)(4).
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of call for nominations.
In May 2015, NOAA Fisheries publicly solicited nominations for two presidential appointments to serve as U.S. Commissioners to the IPHC. This multi-step nomination process is intended to provide extensive participation by stakeholders in the Pacific halibut fishery and result in the appointment of two highly qualified individuals to represent the U.S. Government in this important international fisheries management organization. The most recent IPHC public nomination process yielded two names for the two expiring seats, both re-nominations. U.S. Commissioners to the IPHC are appointed for a term not to exceed 2 years, but are eligible for reappointment. While this recent solicitation of nominations resulted in two strong candidates, NOAA Fisheries is seeking a greater number of nominations from which to propose two candidates for appointment by the President. Additionally, the lack of a larger candidate pool impacts the ability of recommending officials to propose Alternate Commissioners. The Secretary of State, in consultation with the Secretary of Commerce, may designate Alternative U.S. Commissioners to serve in the absence of duly appointed U.S. Commissioners. Nominations for IPHC U.S. Commissioner and letters of public support that have already been submitted in response to the original solicitation notice do not need to be resubmitted. Nominations are open to all qualified individuals and may include current Commissioners.
Nominations must be received by September 18, 2015. A list of nominees will be published on the NMFS Alaska Regional Office Web site (
Nominations for U.S. Commissioners to the IPHC may be made in writing to Mr. Patrick E. Moran, Office of International Affairs and Seafood Inspection, National Marine Fisheries Service, at 1315 East-West Highway, Silver Spring, MD 20910. Nominations may also be sent via fax (301-713-2313) or email (
Mr. Patrick E. Moran, (301) 427-8370.
The IPHC is a bilateral regional fishery management organization established pursuant to the Convention between Canada and the United States for the Preservation of the Halibut Fishery of the North Pacific Ocean and Bering Sea (Convention). The Convention was signed at Ottawa, Ontario, on March 2, 1953, and was amended by a Protocol Amending the Convention signed at Washington, DC, on March 29, 1979. The Convention's central objective is to develop the stocks of Pacific halibut in waters off the west coasts of Canada and the United States
Section 773a of the Northern Pacific Halibut Act of 1982 (16 U.S.C. 773a) requires that the United States be represented on the IPHC by three U.S. Commissioners. U.S. Commissioners are appointed for a term not to exceed 2 years, but are eligible for reappointment. Of the Commissioners:
(1) One must be an official of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration; and
(2) Two must be knowledgeable or experienced concerning the Northern Pacific halibut fishery; of these, one must be a resident of Alaska and the other shall be a nonresident of Alaska. Of the three commissioners described in paragraphs (1) and (2), one must also be a voting member of the North Pacific Fishery Management Council.
(3) Commissioners who are not Federal employees are not considered to be Federal employees except for the purposes of injury compensation or tort claims liability as provided in section 8101
In their official IPHC duties, Commissioners represent the interests of the United States and all of its stakeholders in the Pacific halibut fishery. These duties require a modest amount of travel (typically two or three trips per year lasting less than a week), and travel expenses are paid by the U.S. Department of State. Commissioners receive no compensation for their services.
NOAA Fisheries is currently accepting nominations for two U.S. Commissioners for the IPHC who are not officials of NOAA. Successful nominees will be considered for appointment by the President and (pending Presidential action) interim designation by the Department of State.
Nomination packages should provide details of an individual's knowledge and experience in the Pacific halibut fishery. Examples of such knowledge and/or experience could include (but are not limited to) such activities as: Participation in commercial, tribal, Community Development Quota (CDQ) and/or sport and charterboat halibut fishing operations; participation in halibut processing operations; and participation in Pacific halibut management activities.
Nomination packages should document an individual's qualifications and state of residence. Self-nominations are acceptable, and current and former IPHC Commissioners are eligible for reappointment. Résumés, curriculum vitae, and/or letters of recommendation are useful but not required. Nomination packages will be evaluated on a case-by-case basis by officials in NOAA and the Department of Commerce who are familiar with the duties and responsibilities of IPHC Commissioners; evaluations will consider the aggregate of an individual's prior experience and knowledge of the Pacific halibut fishery, residency requirements, and any letters of recommendation provided. Nominees will be notified of their status (including rejection or approval) and any need for further information once the nomination process is complete.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of telephonic meeting.
The North Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) Electronic Monitoring Workgroup (EMWG) will meet by teleconference September 8, 2015.
The meeting will be held on Tuesday, September 8, 2015 from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m.
The meeting will be held telephonically at the North Pacific Fishery Management Council, 605 W. 4th Ave., Suite 306, Anchorage, AK 99501-2252. Please call (907) 271-2896.
Diana Evans, Council staff; telephone: (907) 271-2809.
The agenda will include: (a) Review the draft 2016 EM Pre-Implementation Plan (b) discuss other 2016 EM research, and (c) scheduling and other business. The Agenda is subject to change, and the latest version will be posted at
The meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Shannon Gleason at (907) 271-2809 at least 7 working days prior to the meeting date.
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before October 19, 2015.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via the Internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Bronwen Rice, NOAA Office of Education, (202) 482-6797 or
This request is for an extension of a currently approved information collection.
The NOAA Office of Education's Bay Watershed Education and Training (B-WET) program seeks to contribute to NOAA's mission by supporting education efforts to create an environmentally literate citizenry with the knowledge, attitudes, and skills needed to protect watersheds and related ocean, coastal, and Great Lakes ecosystems. B-WET currently funds projects in seven regions (California, Chesapeake Bay, Great Lakes, Gulf of Mexico, Hawaii, New England, and the Pacific Northwest). B-WET has created an across-region, internal evaluation system to provide ongoing feedback on program implementation and outcomes to ensure maximum quality and efficiency of the B-WET program. The evaluation system is sustained by B-WET staff with occasional assistance from an outside contractor.
B-WET awardees and the awardees' professional development teacher-participants are asked to voluntarily complete online survey forms to provide evaluation data. One individual from each awardee organization is asked to complete a form once per year of the award, and the teacher participants are asked to complete one form at the end of their professional development program and another form at the end of the following school year.
Respondents submit their information electronically on web-based survey forms.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meeting.
NMFS announces a meeting of the Permanent Advisory Committee (PAC) to advise the U.S. Commissioners to the Western and Central Pacific Fisheries Commission (WCPFC) on October 14-October 15, 2015. Meeting topics are provided under the
The meeting of the PAC will be held on October 14, 2015, from 8 a.m. to 4 p.m. HST (or until business is concluded) and October 15, 2015, from 8 a.m. to 4 p.m. HST (or until business is concluded).
The meeting will be held at the Outrigger Reef Waikiki Beach Resort, Diamond Head Terrace, 2169 Kalia Road, Honolulu, Hawaii 96815.
Emily Crigler, NMFS Pacific Islands Regional Office; telephone: 808-725-5036; facsimile: 808-725-5215; email:
In accordance with the Western and Central Pacific Fisheries Convention Implementation Act (16 U.S.C. 6901
The PAC meeting topics may include the following: (1) Outcomes of the 2014 Annual Meeting and 2015 sessions of the WCPFC Scientific Committee, Northern Committee, and Technical and Compliance Committee; (2) conservation and management measures for bigeye tuna, yellowfin tuna, skipjack tuna and other species for 2016 and beyond; (3) a permanent measure for the WCPFC compliance monitoring scheme and development of a companion measure addressing responses to non-compliance; (4) potential U.S. proposals to WCPFC12 (5) input and advice from the PAC on issues that may arise at
The meeting location is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Emily Crigler at (808) 725-5036 by September 22, 2015.
16 U.S.C. 6902
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; request for comments; extension of comment period.
The National Ocean Council Committee on IUU Fishing and Seafood Fraud (NOC Committee) extends the comment period from September 2, 2015, to September 11, 2015, on the notice, which published August 3, 2015, seeking public input on draft principles for determining seafood species at risk of IUU fishing and seafood fraud (“at risk”) and a draft list of “at risk” species developed using the draft principles. The comment period is being extended in order to provide further opportunity for the public to review and provide thoughtful comment.
The deadline for written comments on the notice published on August 3, 2015 (80 FR 45955) is extended from September 2, 2015, to September 11, 2015.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2014-0090, by any of the following methods:
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Danielle Rioux, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service (phone 301-427-8516, or email
According to NOAA, in 2013, U.S. fishers landed 9.9 billion pounds of fish and shellfish worth $5.5 billion. Illegal, unreported, and unregulated (IUU) fishing and seafood fraud undermine the sustainability of U.S. and global seafood stocks and negatively impact general ecosystem health. At the same time, IUU fishing and fraudulent seafood products distort legal markets and unfairly compete with the products of law-abiding fishers and seafood industries. On March 15, 2015, the Presidential Task Force on Combating IUU Fishing and Seafood Fraud (Task Force), co-chaired by the Departments of Commerce and State, took an historic step to address these issues and published its Action Plan for Implementing Task Force Recommendations (Action Plan).
The Action Plan (
The notice published on August 3, 2015, (80 FR 45955) is one of several steps in the plan to implement Task Force Recommendations 14 and 15, identifying “species of fish or seafood that are presently of particular concern because they are currently subject to significant seafood fraud or because they are at significant risk of being caught by IUU fishing.” To begin implementing these recommendations, the NOC Committee created a Working Group (Working Group), led by NOAA and composed of members from partner agencies: Department of State, Food and Drug Administration, Department of Homeland Security, Customs and Border Protection, and the Office of the U.S. Trade Representative.
We initially requested comments by September 2, 2015. In order to provide further opportunity for the public to review and provide thoughtful comment, NMFS is extending the comment period on the notice—that published August 3, 2015 (80 FR 45955)—until September 11, 2015.
Department of the Air Force, Department of Defense.
Notice of intent.
Pursuant to the provisions of Part 404 of Title 37, Code of Federal Regulations, which implements Public Law 96-517, as amended; the Department of the Air Force announces
The Air Force intends to grant a license for the patent and pending applications unless a written objection is received within fifteen (15) calendar days from the date of publication of this Notice.
Written objection should be sent to: Air Force Materiel Command Law Office, AFMCLO/JAZ, 2240 B Street, Rm 101, Wright-Patterson AFB, OH 45433-7109; Facsimile: (937) 255-3733.
Air Force Materiel Command Law Office, AFMCLO/JAZ, 2240 B Street, Rm. 101, Wright-Patterson AFB, OH 45433-7109; Facsimile: (937) 255-3733.
An exclusive, with respect to future sub licensees, license in any right, title, and interest of the Air Force in: U.S. Application No. 14/754,914, entitled “Layered Polymer-Based Capacitor Device,” by James Grote
On August 12, 2015, the Commission issued an order in Docket No. EL15-85-000, pursuant to section 206 of the Federal Power Act (FPA), 16 U.S.C. 824e (2012), instituting an investigation into the justness and reasonableness of New Hampshire Transmission, LLC's recovery of cost related to the development of its SeaLink project through the Regional Network Service formula rates.
The refund effective date in Docket No. EL15-85-000, established pursuant to section 206(b) of the FPA, will be the date of publication of this notice in the
Any interested person desiring to become a party in the above-referenced proceeding must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate, in accordance with Rule 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.214) by 5 p.m. Eastern time on September 2, 2015. The Commission encourages electronic submission of interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
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j. PacifiCorp filed its request to use the Alternative Licensing Process on June 1, 2015. PacifiCorp provided public notices of its request on May 29 and May 31, 2015. On July 10, 2015, PacifiCorp provided a subsequent public notice of its request, which included the required statement that comments on the request to use the ALP must be filed with the Commission within 30 days of the notice. In a letter dated August 13, 2015, the Director of the Division of Hydropower Licensing approved PacifiCorp's request to use the Alternative Licensing Process.
k. Cooperating agencies: Federal, state, local, and tribal agencies with jurisdiction and/or special expertise with respect to environmental issues that wish to cooperate in the preparation of the environmental document should follow the instructions for filing such requests described in paragraph o below. Cooperating agencies should note the Commission's policy that agencies that cooperate in the preparation of the environmental document cannot also intervene.
l. With this notice, we are initiating informal consultation with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service under section 7 of the Endangered Species Act and the joint agency regulations thereunder at 50 CFR, Part 402. We are also initiating consultation with the Utah State Historic Preservation Officer, as required by section 106, National Historic Preservation Act, and the implementing regulations of the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation at 36 CFR 800.2.
m. With this notice, we are designating PacifiCorp as the Commission's non-federal representative for carrying out informal consultation pursuant to section 7 of the Endangered Species Act; and consultation pursuant to section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act.
n. PacifiCorp filed a Pre-Application Document (PAD; including a proposed process plan and schedule) with the Commission, pursuant to 18 CFR 5.6 of the Commission's regulations.
o. Deadline for filing requests for cooperating agency status: 60 days from the date of this notice.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file requests for cooperating agency status using the Commission's eFiling system at
p. A copy of the PAD is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site (
q. The licensee states its unequivocal intent to submit an application for a new license for Project No.1744-039. Pursuant to 18 CFR 16.8, 16.9, and 16.10 each application for a new license and any competing license applications must be filed with the Commission at least 24 months prior to the expiration of the existing license. All applications for license for this project must be filed by May 31, 2018.
r. Register online at
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric reliability filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following qualifying facility filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
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j. Deadline for filing comments, motions to intervene, protests, and recommendations is 30 days from the date of issuance of this notice. The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene, protests, comments, or recommendations using the Commission's eFiling system at
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Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Science Advisory Board (SAB) Staff Office announces two public teleconferences of the Radiation Advisory Committee (RAC) to receive a briefing about the agency's Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) to consider revising the Environmental Radiation Protection Standards for Nuclear Power Operations (40 CFR part 190).
The public teleconferences will be held from 12:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. (Eastern Time) on the following dates: November 10, 2015, and November 13, 2015.
The teleconferences will be conducted by telephone only.
Any member of the public who wants further information concerning these public teleconferences may contact Mr. Edward Hanlon, Designated Federal Officer (DFO) for the Radiation Advisory Committee, EPA Science Advisory Board Staff Office (1400R), U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20460; by telephone at (202) 564-2134 or via email at
EPA's Office of Air and Radiation requested an opportunity to brief the SAB Radiation Advisory Committee on the agency's ANPRM to consider revising the Environmental Radiation Protection Standards for Nuclear Power Operations (40 CFR part 190), which was released for public review and comment on February 4, 2014 (79 FR 6509). The briefing will help to inform the Committee in preparation for a later consultation, where the SAB will provide early advice for the agency's consideration on technical issues associated with standards for radiation dose to the public from normal operation of nuclear power plants and other uranium fuel cycle facilities. The purpose of the teleconference on November 10, 2015 is for EPA to brief the Committee about the agency's ANPRM and for the public to provide comments for the Committee's consideration regarding the ANPRM. If all oral comments from registered public speakers cannot be accommodated at the November 10, 2015 teleconference, an additional teleconference will be held on November 13, 2015 for that purpose. Additional information about this SAB activity can be found at the following URL
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency plans to submit an information collection request (ICR), “Establishing No-Discharge Zones (NDZs) Under Clean Water Act § 312 (Renewal)” (EPA ICR No. 1791.07, OMB Control No. 2040-0187) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Comments must be submitted on or before October 19, 2015.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OW-2008-0150, online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI), or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Virginia Fox-Norse, Oceans and Coastal Protection Division, Office of Wetlands, Oceans and Watersheds, (4504T), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: 202-566-1266; fax number: 202-566-1337; email address:
Supporting documents which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Pursuant to section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, EPA solicits comments and information to enable it to: (i) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (ii) evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (iii) enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (iv) minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology (
(B)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) invites public comments on the list of candidates being considered for appointment to the EPA's Science Advisory Board (SAB) Agricultural Science Committee to provide advice to the chartered SAB regarding matters referred to the SAB that will have a significant direct impact on farming and agriculture-related industries.
Nominations should be submitted in time to arrive no later than September 9, 2015.
Members of the public wishing to obtain further information may contact Ms. Stephanie Sanzone, Designated Federal Officer (DFO) for the committee, by email at
The SAB Staff Office previously announced (79 FR 73304-73305, December 10, 2014) that pursuant to section 12307 of the Agricultural Act of 2014 (P.L. 133-79), the EPA is establishing a new agriculture-related standing committee of the SAB. On January 26, 2015, the SAB Staff Office announced (80 FR 2965-3966) an extension to the nomination period through March 30, 2015. The SAB Agricultural Science Committee will provide advice to the chartered SAB on matters referred to the Board that EPA and the Board, in consultation with the Secretary of Agriculture, determine will have a significant direct impact on farming and agriculture-related industries. The SAB Staff Office sought public nominations of experts with demonstrated expertise in agriculture-related sciences, including: Agricultural economics, including valuation of ecosystem goods and services; agricultural chemistry; agricultural engineering; agronomy, including soil science; aquaculture science; biofuels engineering; biotechnology; crop and animal science; environmental chemistry; forestry; and hydrology. The SAB Staff Office hereby invites public comments on the list of candidates under consideration for the SAB Agricultural Science Committee, available at
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of availability.
This notice announces applicability determinations, alternative monitoring decisions, and regulatory interpretations that EPA has made under the New Source Performance Standards (NSPS); the National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP); and/or the Stratospheric Ozone Protection Program.
An electronic copy of each complete document posted on the Applicability Determination Index (ADI) database system is available on the Internet through the Resources and Guidance Documents for Compliance Assistance page of the Clean Air Act Compliance Monitoring Web site under “Air” at:
The General Provisions of the NSPS in 40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part 60 and the General Provisions of the NESHAP in 40 CFR part 61 provide that a source owner or operator may request a determination of whether certain intended actions constitute the commencement of construction, reconstruction, or modification. EPA's written responses to these inquiries are commonly referred to as applicability determinations. See 40 CFR 60.5 and 61.06. Although the NESHAP part 63 regulations [which include Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT) standards and/or Generally Available Control Technology (GACT) standards] and Section 111(d) of the Clean Air Act (CAA) contain no specific regulatory provision providing that sources may request applicability determinations, EPA also responds to written inquiries regarding applicability for the part 63 and section 111(d) programs. The NSPS and NESHAP also allow sources to seek permission to use monitoring or recordkeeping that is different from the promulgated requirements. See 40 CFR 60.13(i), 61.14(g), 63.8(b)(1), 63.8(f), and 63.10(f). EPA's written responses to these inquiries are commonly referred to as alternative monitoring decisions. Furthermore, EPA responds to written inquiries about the broad range of NSPS and NESHAP regulatory requirements as they pertain to a whole source category. These inquiries may pertain, for example, to the type of sources to which the regulation applies, or to the testing, monitoring, recordkeeping, or reporting requirements contained in the regulation. EPA's written responses to these inquiries are commonly referred to as regulatory interpretations. EPA currently compiles EPA-issued NSPS and NESHAP applicability determinations, alternative monitoring decisions, and regulatory interpretations, and posts them to the ADI on a quarterly basis. In addition, the ADI contains EPA-issued responses to requests pursuant to the stratospheric ozone regulations, contained in 40 CFR part 82. The ADI is an electronic index on the Internet with over one thousand EPA letters and memoranda pertaining to the applicability, monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements of the NSPS, NESHAP, and stratospheric ozone regulations. Users can search for letters and memoranda by date, office of issuance, subpart, citation, control number, or by string word searches.
Today's notice comprises a summary of 42 such documents added to the ADI on August 10, 2015. This notice lists the subject and header of each letter and memorandum, as well as a brief abstract of the letter or memorandum. Complete copies of these documents may be obtained from the ADI on the Internet through the Resources and Guidance Documents for Compliance Assistance page of the Clean Air Act Compliance Monitoring Web site under “Air” at:
The following table identifies the database control number for each document posted on the ADI database system on August 10, 2015; the applicable category; the section(s) and/or subpart(s) of 40 CFR part 60, 61, or 63 (as applicable) addressed in the document; and the title of the document, which provides a brief description of the subject matter.
We have also included an abstract of each document identified with its control number after the table. These abstracts are provided solely to alert the public to possible items of interest and are not intended as substitutes for the full text of the documents. This notice does not change the status of any document with respect to whether it is “of nationwide scope or effect” for purposes of CAA Sec. 307(b)(1). For example, this notice does not convert an applicability determination for a particular source into a nationwide rule. Neither does it purport to make a previously non-binding document binding.
Q: Will EPA provide Matanuska Electric Association (MEA) a waiver pursuant to 40 CFR 60.8(b)(4), from the initial performance testing requirement under NSPS Subpart JJJJ for nine of the ten Wartsila 18V50DF dual-fired, lean-burn, 17.1 megawatt (23,250 HP), non-emergency, reciprocating internal combustion engines (RICE) to be installed at the Eklutna Generation Station in Eklutna, Alaska?
A: No. EPA finds that MEA has not provided an adequate demonstration that the engines in question will meet the applicable standards, and therefore the EPA is denying MEA's request for a waiver from the initial performance testing for its Wartsila 18V50DF engines. Although the manufacturer's data provided indicates that we can expect that the Wartsila 18V50DF engines may be able to meet the applicable emissions limits in NSPS Subpart JJJJ (if properly installed and operated) conducting a performance test is necessary to provide adequate assurance that an engine is properly installed and operating. MEA may re-submit a request for a waiver of performance tests at its facility once it has information that is sufficient to demonstrate that one or more of the engines, after reaching their maximum production rate, are in compliance with the standard.
Q: Will EPA approve a waiver from performance testing requirements according to 40 CFR 60.8(b)(4) for six of seven Waukesha units identified as identical and operated as compressor engines at ConocoPhillips Alaska Incorporated's (CPAI) Beluga River Unit (BRU)?
A: Based on the information provided by CPAI, EPA approves the performance test waiver for the CO and VOC standards, but not for the NO
Q: Does EPA approve Roxana Landfill's request for an alternative timeline of additional sixty (60) days, or until January 25, 2015, to bring Well 191 located in Edwardsville, Illinois, into compliance with 40 CFR 60.752(b)(2)(ii)(A)(3) under NSPS subpart WWW?
A: Yes. Based on the information provided by Roxana, EPA approves, pursuant to 40 CFR 60.755(a)(3), the proposed alternative timeline to complete installation of a new vacuum lateral on Well 191 by January 25, 2015 to bring the well into compliance with pressure requirements. Roxana site personnel must review investigative and monitoring data and closely monitor any field conditions that would result in a violation of 40 CFR part 60, subpart WWW.
Q: Does EPA approve the alternative compliance timeline to complete a dewatering project for landfill gas extraction Well S163R2 at the Waste Management of Illinois, Incorporated. (WMIL) Settler's Hill Recycling and Disposal Facility/Midway facility in Batavia, Illinois under 40 CFR subpart WWW?
A: Yes. Based on the information provided by WMIL, EPA approves WMIL's proposed alternative compliance timeline to complete a dewatering project on Well S163R2 by June 24, 2014. We understand that WMIL has made efforts to meet the regulatory deadline but was unable to meet it due to the nature of the work involved. Factors including a well depth of 144 feet deep and its location at the center of the landfill. Lack of infrastructure near the well to facilitate dewatering, no electricity near the well, and no means to convey liquid into the facility's condensate/leachate system contributed to the project's delay.
Q. Does EPA approve the Alternative Monitoring Plan (AMP) request to the sulfur monitoring requirements under 40 CFR 60.107a(e) of NSPS, subpart Ja, for the flare at the Phillips 66 Billings Refinery and Jupiter Sulfur Plant (Jupiter Sulfur) located in Billings, Montana?
A. Yes. Based on the information provided, EPA conditionally approves Jupiter Sulfur's AMP request for meeting the flare sulfur monitoring requirements. EPA finds the AMP acceptable since flaring does not occur more than four times in any 365-day period and it contains provisions for the monitoring of the rupture discs that are similar to, or the same as, provisions found in § 60.107a(g)(1)-(6) for monitoring the water seal at emergency flares. In addition, Jupiter Sulfur will install a flow meter meeting the requirements of § 60.107a(i) on the flare. The conditions for AMP approval addressing monitoring, corrective actions and recordkeeping requirements are specified in the EPA determination letter.
Q: Does an incinerator that burns pathological waste at the Kenai Veterinary Hospital in Kenai, Alaska meet the exclusion for pathological waste incineration units in NSPS for Other Solid Waste Incineration Units (OSWI), 40 CFR subpart EEEE, and for Commercial Industrial Solid Waste Incineration Units (CISWI), subpart CCCC?
A: Yes. The unit is exempt because it burns 90 percent or more by weight pathological, low-level radioactive, and/or chemotherapeutic waste as defined in 40 CFR 60.2977. EPA will consider the letter submitted by the hospital to constitute the notice that the unit meets the exclusion. Consistent with the regulations, records of materials burned must be kept to demonstrate that the exclusion continues to apply.
Q: Does the EPA approve the operating limits proposed by Sumitomo Metal Mining Pogo (Pogo) for its small
A: Yes. EPA accepts Pogo's petition to establish operating limits for the incinerator under subpart CCCC. The petition was submitted 60 days before the initial performance test is scheduled to begin and it meets the criteria in paragraphs (a) through (e) of § 60.2115. The incinerator has no add-on control device and only fires propane as fuel with anticipated feedstocks of solid wastes but not hazardous wastes, which is consistent with 40 CFR 60.2115. Pogo identified the specific parameters to be used, including waste composition and charge rate, charge interval limit, and primary and secondary combustion chamber temperature and burn-time limits. The relationship between these parameters and emissions was provided by Pogo, and upper and/or lower values were proposed. Methods and instrumentation to measure and continuously monitor the operating parameters were presented, which include the installation of an electronic data acquisition system and the calculation of 5-minute rolling average temperatures. Compliance with the minimum temperature limits will be determined using the rolling 5-minute average. A rolling weight will be calculated with an averaging period to be determined based on the results of the initial performance test. The frequency and methods for recalibrating instruments were identified.
Q: Does EPA approve an extension to the applicable performance test deadlines caused by a force majeure event in accordance with the provisions of 40 CFR 60.8(a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), and (a)(4) for an affected facility located in Alaska, owned and operated by Clear Air Force Station (Clear AFS), that is subject to 40 CPR 60 subpart Y?
A: No. EPA denies the extension request as it believes that Clear AFS could have taken steps to prevent the circumstances that led to the inability to perform the stack test in a safe manner. As stated in the supporting information you provided to EPA, which was included in a formal request submitted to the Alaska Department of Environmental Conservation (ADEC), a similar nearby facility (Eielson Air Force Base) had tested in 2011 the same coal at their facility under similar operational conditions and determined that the coal was explosive. The EPA believes that Clear AFS has an obligation (a general duty) to ensure a safe working environment under all conditions at all times and has knowledge and is aware of the nature of all materials under its possession. EPA also believes that Clear AFS neglected to take into safety consideration when making equipment purchase decisions.
Q: Will EPA exclude the cyclonic burn barrel unit that Lower Kuskokwim School District (LKSD) intends to operate at the Chefornak School in Chefornak, Alaska from the requirements of 40 CFR part 60 subpart EEEE?
A: Yes. EPA approves LKSD's request. EPA determines that KSD's request was submitted prior to initial startup of the unit, and that the incineration unit meets the criteria for exclusion from subpart EEEE (40 CFR 60.2887(h)(1)-(2)) for rural institutional waste incinerator units. The unit is located more than 50 miles from the boundary of the nearest Metropolitan Statistical Area, and alternative disposal options are not available or are economically infeasible.
Q1: Will EPA correct the operator and park name operated by and located in the Lake Clark National Park and Preserve for a previously denied exclusion from 40 CFR part 60 subpart EEEE for an incineration unit operating in Port Alsworth, Alaska?
A1: Yes. EPA determination letter issued to the National Park Service on April 16, 2013 (Refer to ADI Control Number 1500013) applies to the incinerator operated by and located in the Lake Clark National Park and Preserve, and not to an incinerator being operated by Glacier Bay National Park and Preserve as erroneously stated in the response.
Q: Does EPA determine that the institutional waste incineration unit at the National Park in Port Alsworth, Alaska can be excluded from the Part 60 subpart EEEE requirements at 40 CFR 60.2887(h)?
A: No. EPA determines that the unit is not eligible for this exclusion because the application for an exclusion was not submitted prior to the start-up of the incinerator as required by 40 CFR 60.2887(h)(1). It appears, based on the information provided by the Park, that the unit in question would meet the criteria of being located more than 50 miles from the boundary of the nearest Metropolitan Statistical Area and that alternative disposal options are not available or are economically infeasible. However, subpart EEEE requires that the owner or operator of the incinerator unit must submit, before start-up, an application demonstrating that the unit meets the exclusion criteria. Refer to ADI Control Number 1500012 for a correction to the operator name for the unit.
Q: Will EPA approve exempted status for a cyclonic burn barrel unit under 40 CFR part 60 subpart EEEE that the Lower Kuskokwim School District (LKSD) intends to operate at the Atmautluak, Alaska school facility to incinerate dewatered sludge from the Atmautluak school wastewater system?
A: Yes. EPA determines that the incinerator that LKSD intends to operate meets the criteria for exclusion for rural institutional waste incinerators and therefore is approving LKSD's application for exclusion according to 40 CFR 60.2887(h). LKSD submitted this request prior to initial start up of the incinerator as required by 40 CFR 60.2887(h)(1). The LSKD School in Atmautluak is located approximately 284 miles from the boundary of the Anchorage/Matanuska Susitna Metropolitan Statistical Area. Atmautluak is an isolated community with no road access and severely limited barge access. There is no legal and safe disposal site within Atmautluak. Sludge would have to be shipped to Washington or Oregon for disposal and this would be prohibitively expensive.
Q: Will EPA approve exempted status for a cyclonic burn barrel unit under 40 CFR part 60 subpart EEEE that the Lower Kuskokwim School District (LKSD) intends to operate at the Newtok, Alaska school facility to incinerate dewatered sludge from the Newtok school wastewater system?
A: Yes. EPA determines that the incinerator that LKSD intends to operate meets the criteria for exclusion for rural institutional waste incinerators and therefore is approving LKSD's application for exclusion according to 40 CFR 60.2887(h). LKSD submitted this request prior to initial start up of the incinerator as required by 40 CFR 60.2887(h)(1). The LSKD School in Newtok is located approximately 360 miles from the boundary of the Anchorage/Matanuska Susitna Metropolitan Statistical Area. Newtok is an isolated community with no road access and severely limited barge access. There is no legal and safe disposal site within Newtok. The community has started a long-term project to move the village to a new
Q: Will EPA grant a request for a waiver of the 30-day notification required prior to conducting a performance evaluation of a generator under NSPS subpart JJJJ at the Joint Base Elmendorf/Richardson (JBER) Landfill Gas Power Facility in Fairbanks, Alaska pursuant to 40 CFR 60.19(f)(3)?
A: Yes. Based on information provided by JBER, EPA waives the 30 day notice for performance testing pursuant to 40 CFR 60.l9(f)(3). JBER indicates that the notice is late because it just became aware that the State of Alaska has declined to be delegated authority to implement and enforce NSPS subpart JJJJ.
Q: Will EPA grant a request for a waiver of the 30-day notification of performance evaluation requirement for a Guascor Model SFGM-560 Reciprocating Internal Combustion Engine (RICE) at Farm Power's new biogas production facility in Tillamook, Oregon pursuant to 40 CFR 60.19(f)(3)?
A: Yes. Based on information provided by Farm Power, EPA approves this request pursuant to 40 CFR 60.l9(f)(3). Farm Power indicates that the notice is late because it just became aware that the State of Oregon has declined to be delegated authority to implement and enforce NSPS subpart JJJJ.
Q: Will EPA approve exempted status for a cyclonic burn barrel unit under 40 CFR subpart EEEE that the Lower Kuskokwim School District (LKSD) intends to operate at the Tuntutuliak, Alaska school facility to incinerate dewatered sludge from the Tuntutuliak school wastewater system?
A: Yes. EPA determines that the incinerator that LKSD intends to operate meets the criteria for exclusion for rural institutional waste incinerators and therefore is approving LKSD's application for exclusion according to 40 CFR 60.2887(h). LKSD submitted this request prior to initial start up of the incinerator as required by 40 CFR 60.2887(h)(1). The LSKD School in Tuntutuliak is located approximately 360 miles from the boundary of the Anchorage/Matanuska Susitna Metropolitan Statistical Area. Tuntutuliak is an isolated community with no road access, and severely limited barge access. Sludge would have to be shipped to Washington or Oregon for disposal and this would be prohibitively expensive.
Q: Will EPA approve alternative monitoring under 40 CFR 60.13(h)(i)(1) of NSPS subpart Db for the multi-fuel Power Boiler No. 20 at the Longview Fibre Paper and Packaging, Incorporated facility in Longview, Washington?
A: Yes. EPA conditionally approves alternative monitoring for the multi-fuel boiler to ensure compliance with the state PM limit since moisture from the controls and low stack gas temperature result in interference that makes a continuous opacity monitor (COM) infeasible. Longview's boiler is already subject to a federally enforceable, state imposed, PM emission limit that is more stringent than NSPS subpart Db, and therefore, compliance with the Subpart Db PM limit is met. The conditions for approval are specified in the EPA determination letter.
Q: Are the operations conducted by Magnetation, LLC, at their facility located near Keewatin, Minnesota, to produce an iron concentrate considered an affected facility and subject to the requirements of NSPS subpart LL?
A: Yes. EPA determines that the operations conducted by Magnetation, LLC are considered an affected facility and subject to the requirements of NSPS subpart LL because it produces a metallic mineral concentrate and the operations meet the definition of metallic mineral processing plant at 40 CFR 60.381. The definition for “metallic mineral concentrate” does not require that the concentration level be in excess of the historic source ore, and the finished product is higher in concentration than currently available, naturally occurring ore. The tailing material clearly came “from ore,” and the fact that Magnetation's process relies on the previous plant having taken initial steps in concentrating the ore does not exempt your process from acting on material which came from ore. The beneficiation equipment produces a finished product that meets the definition of “metallic mineral concentrate.” Therefore, the equipment produces metallic mineral concentrates from ore.
Q: Does EPA approve the Mattabassett District Water Pollution Control (Mattabassett) facility's request for an alternative monitoring location for the water flow rate from the wet electrostatic precipitator (WESP) that is used to control pollution from the sewage sludge incinerator at the facility located in Cromwell, CT?
A: Yes. EPA approves the alternative monitoring location for the water flow from the Mattabassett's WESP unit under 40 CFR part 60 subpart A, section 60.13(i)(4).
Q1: Does EPA approve Boston Electrometallurgical Corporation's (BEMC's) proposed alternative monitoring to use a triboelectric detector to continuously monitor the relative particulate matter (PM) concentration of the exhaust emitted to the atmosphere from the submerged arc furnace, located at its Woburn, MA ferroalloy production facility, in lieu of a continuous opacity monitoring system to meet 40 CFR 60.264(b)? BEMC proposes to use EPA Reference Method 9 to establish a relationship between opacity and the electrical signal provided by the triboelectric detector.
A1: Yes. EPA approves the use of baghouse leak monitoring for the furnace meeting the requirements of 40 CFR 60.48(o)(4)(i) through (v), as they relate to the use of its triboelectric sensor for opacity monitoring, including the development and submittal of a monitoring plan for approval.
Q2: Does EPA approve BEMC's proposed alternative to install and operate a continuous CO monitoring system (
A2: Yes. EPA approves BEMC's alternative monitoring to use the gas analyzer for measuring CO continuously in conjunction with other process parameters, such as temperature and flow, to ensure proper operating conditions. In addition, BEMC would have the flexibility to monitor CO periodically at other portions of the processes,
Q1: Does EPA approve Northeast Gateway Energy Bridge LLC's (Northeast Gateway's) proposed use of Method 22 in lieu of Method 9 for opacity observations to comply with 40 CFR 60.43b for each liquid natural gas regasification (LNGR) vessels that have boilers subject to NSPS subpart Db for the Northeast Gateway Port off the coast of Massachusetts?
A1: EPA finds that Northeast Gateway's request to use Method 22 is unnecessary because Northwest Gateway LLC only burns oil during
Q2: Does EPA approve Northeast Gateway's proposed waiver request of the 30 operating day NO
A2: EPA is unable to grant a waiver at this time because Northeast Gateway has not yet demonstrated compliance by other means. However, demonstration of compliance with the more stringent Northeast Gateway air permit NO
Q3: Does EPA approve Northeast Gateway's proposed alternative to the 30-day rolling average required by 40 CFR 60.44b(i), where compliance would be demonstrated each calendar month, regardless of the number of operating hours that fall within a given calendar month?
A3: EPA finds that the proposed waiver of the 30-day averaging period is unnecessary because the affected boilers at the Northeast Gateway Port are below 250 MMBtu, and burn only natural gas and distillate oil.
Q4: Does EPA approve Northeast Gateway's proposal to use Method 22 in lieu of Method 9 for opacity observations under 40 CFR 60.48b?
A4: EPA finds that Method 9 observations will not be necessary under 40 CFR 60.48b since, under the permit, oil will be fired only during start-up periods.
Q5: Does EPA approve Northeast Gateway's proposal to modify the data requirements for NO
A5: Yes. EPA approves Northeast Gateway's proposed criteria that require valid NO
Q6: Does EPA approve Northeast Gateway's request to waive all requirements under 40 CFR 60.49b(g) that refer to 30-day NO
A6: No. EPA does not grant the request to waive the 30-day NO
Q7: Does EPA approve Northeast Gateway's request to perform periodic quality assurance (QA) testing required by the Part 60 appendices while vessels are not moored at the Northeast Gateway Port?
A7: EPA will allow QA testing to be conducted while vessels are not moored at the Northeast Gateway Port if the testing is conducted in accordance with a test protocol and schedule approved by EPA.
Q8: Does EPA approve Northeast Gateway's proposal to perform a Relative Accuracy Audit (RAA) using three 60 minute runs in lieu of conducting the nine 21 minute runs of a RATA as required by Appendix F of Part 60?
A8: No. EPA does not approve this request because the nine run relative accuracy test audits (RATA) test are necessary to provide a statistically significant data set with which to certify the CEMS.
Q9: Does EPA approve Northeast Gateway's request that the RATA test frequency be reduced to initial performance testing and at least once every 5 years thereafter as required by Appendix F of Part 60?
A9: No. EPA does not approve this request. The RATAs must be conducted once every four calendar quarters, or upon the next visit for each vessel that has visited the Northeast Gateway Port after the previous successful RATA, if more than four calendar quarters have passed since that vessel's last successful RATA.
Q10: Does EPA approve Northeast Gateway's proposal that cylinder gas audits (CGAs) required by Appendix F of Part 60 be performed once per calendar quarter, or upon the next visit of a vessel to the Northeast Gateway Port after the previous CGA, if more than one calendar quarter has passed since that vessel's last visit to the Northeast Gateway Port?
A10: Yes. EPA approves the proposed CGA schedule.
Q11: Does EPA approve Northeast Gateway's proposal to modify the 7 day calibration drift test requirement in Performance Specification 2 (“PS2”) of Part 60 Appendix B?
A11: No. EPA does not approve this modification. However, as stated in A7 above, EPA is willing to provide some flexibility in allowing the drift test to be conducted when the LNGRV is not moored at the facility.
Q12: Does EPA approve Northeast Gateway's proposal to waive the retrospective invalidation of data for CD checks exceeding four times the specification and instead consider the “out of control” period only to apply to data after a CD check that exceeds four times the drift specification?
A12: No. EPA does not approve this request for waiver. Procedure 1 in Appendix F of 40 CFR part 60 defines the out of control period as beginning with the completion of the fifth consecutive daily calibration drift check that exceeds twice the drift specification (2.5 percent of span), or with the completion of the last daily CD check preceding a CD check that exceeds four times the drift specification.
Q1: Does EPA approve Phillips Academy's (Phillips') request to track actual monthly oil usage under 40 CFR 60.48c(g)(1) when natural gas supplies are interrupted to its boilers at Phillips' facility in Andover, Massachusetts? Phillips currently operates three dual-fuel capable boilers with input capacities of 40.79 MMBtu/hr, which are subject to NSPS subpart Dc and other applicable Massachusetts permit requirements. The facility is currently required to maintain daily records of fuel consumption.
A1: Yes. EPA conditionally approves a decrease in fuel usage recordkeeping from daily to monthly records for Phillips' boilers if the facility uses natural gas as the primary fuel and distillate oil with a sulfur content no greater than 0.5 percent as the back-up fuel.
Q2: Does EPA approve Phillips' request to submit annual reports to EPA under 40 CFR 60.48c(j), instead of semiannual reports?
A2: Yes. EPA conditionally approves a decrease in the reporting frequency under subpart Dc based on Phillips' records that the facility has operated exclusively on natural gas for the past eight years, with the exception of limited operation on oil with a with a sulfur content no greater than 0.5 percent for periodic testing and maintenance. If Phillips' 30-day rolling average sulfur content of the fuel exceeds 0.5%, the facility must immediately resume daily fuel use record keeping.
Q1: Does EPA approve the University of Massachusetts Lowell's (UMASS Lowell's) request to track actual monthly, instead of daily, oil usage under 40 CFR 60.48c(g)(1) when natural gas supplies are interrupted to its dual-fuel boilers subject to NSPS subpart Dc at its Lowell, Massachusetts facility?
A1: Yes. EPA conditionally approves a decrease in the reporting frequency for the boilers based on the facility's records that UMASS Lowell's has operated using natural gas as the primary fuel and distillate oil with a sulfur content no greater than 0.5 percent as the back-up fuel.
Q2: Does EPA approve UMASS Lowell's request to submit annual reports under 40 CFR 60.48c(j), instead of on a semi-annual basis?
A2: Yes. EPA conditionally approves a decrease in the reporting frequency under 40 CFR part 60 subpart Dc based on UMASS Lowell' records that the facility operates almost exclusively on natural gas, with the exception of when natural gas supplies were interrupted.
Q: Is the new tube manufacturing operation at Elektrisola Incorporated's Boscawen, New Hampshire facility subject to 40 CFR part 60 subpart TT?
A: No. Based on the information provided by the New Hampshire Department of Environmental Services (NHDES), EPA determines that Elektrisola's new tubing operation does not meet the definition of metal coil surface coating operation in section 60.461 because it is applying an organic coating to metal wire, rather than a metal strip. Therefore, Elektrisola's operation is not subject to NSPS subpart TT.
Q: Are JP Energy's pipeline station storage vessels at several locations in Kansas subject to NSPS subpart OOOO?
A: Yes. EPA determines that the storage vessels are located in the “oil production segment” and are affected facilities subject to NSPS subpart OOOO. The operations described by JP Energy, which transfer the oil from the wellhead tank loaded on a truck, and transported to another storage vessel prior to the pipeline (emphasis added), are transfer operations prior to the pipeline; as such, they are within the “oil production segment” per 40 CFR 60.5365(d) definition. Therefore, the storage vessels in question meet the criteria for storage vessels affected facility at 40 CFR 60.5365(e).
Q: Will EPA approve a one-year compliance extension for the Power Boiler (PB-7) under 40 CFR part 63, subpart DDDDD at the RockTenn CP, LLC's pulp and paperboard mill in Tacoma, Washington (Tacoma Mill)?
A: No. EPA determines that although Tacoma Mill identified various potential control technology options, specific controls were not clearly identified, which is a criteria under 40 CFR 63.6(i)(6)(i)(A) for approval of an extension of the compliance deadline.
Q: Will EPA grant an initial performance testing waiver for Aurora Energy, LLC's (Aurora) two coal fired boilers, Emission Units (EUs) 5 and 6, which are identical in design and manufacture to EU4, at the Chena Power Plant in Fairbanks, Alaska?
A: No. Based on the information provided, EPA denies Aurora's request for a waiver from the Part 63 subpart JJJJJJ initial performance testing for EUs 5 and 6. EPA determines that insufficient information has been provided to support a conclusion that EUs 4, 5, and 6 are identical, and have been operated and maintained in a similar manner necessary to support a waiver request. The age of the boilers makes it less likely they may be identical, which appears to be the case for EU 6 based on the nameplate photos. Additionally, there has been no historical test data submitted to demonstrate low variability in emissions over time. The fuel, coal, has also not been demonstrated to have low variability over time.
Q: Will EPA approve an alternative to the monitoring requirement for installation of a non-resettable hour meter for the approximately 74 existing stationary emergency engines subject to 40 CFR part 63 subpart ZZZZ, the NESHAP for Stationary Reciprocating Internal Combustion Engines, which are operated by BP Exploration Alaska (BPXA) on the North Slope of Alaska?
A: No. EPA determines that the alternative monitoring approach is not acceptable because the automated engine hour tracking system in use by BPXA is not sufficient on its own to meet the rule requirement of 40 CFR 63.6625(f) since it is not “non-resettable.” Since BPXA can adjust the automated system hour log, it would not be “non-resettable” as required by the NESHAP subpart ZZZZ.
Q: Will EPA grant a one year extension to the compliance deadline for four coal-fired boilers subject to the Area Source NESHAP for boilers, subpart JJJJJJ, located at the Pacific Air Forces, Eielson Air Force Based Central Heat and Power Plant in Eielson, Alaska?
A: Yes. EPA conditionally approves the one year extension to the compliance deadline for carbon monoxide (CO). EPA determines that additional time is warranted due to the short construction season in Alaska, uncertainty regarding the final rule requirements due to reconsideration amendments, and government procurement procedures. Approval is conditioned upon Eielson complying with the applicable emission and operating limits and compliance demonstration procedures by March 21, 2015; meeting interim compliance deadlines specified in the approval letter; and meeting tune-up requirements that are required of boilers below 10 MMBTU/hr during the time period while the compliance extension applies.
Q: Will EPA grant a one year compliance extension to Hilcorp Alaska for five stationary reciprocating internal combustion engines (RICE) subject to NESHAP subpart ZZZZ, which are located on the Anna, Dillon, and Monopod Platforms in Alaska's Cook Inlet region?
A: Yes. EPA conditionally approves the one-year extension to the compliance deadline for all three platforms that are area sources. EPA determines that additional time is warranted because of the short construction season in Alaska, uncertainty regarding the final rule requirements due to reconsideration of the regulation, and difficulties in procuring the control equipment due to increased demand throughout the industry as the compliance deadline approaches. Approval is conditioned on Hilcorp complying with the applicable equipment standards, catalyst installation and compliance demonstration procedures by October 19, 2014; meeting specified interim compliance deadlines; and complying with the work or management practices for remote stationary RICE by October 19, 2013.
Q: Will EPA grant a one year extension to the compliance deadline to Hilcorp Alaska for a stationary reciprocating internal combustion engine (RICE) subject to the NESHAP for RICE, 40 CFR part 63 subpart ZZZZ, which is located on the Falls Creek Pad in Alaska's South Kenai region?
A: Yes. EPA conditionally approves the one-year extension to the compliance deadline for the unit that is not a remote stationary RICE located at an area source facility. EPA determines that additional time is warranted because of the short construction season in Alaska, uncertainty regarding the
Q: Will EPA grant a one-year compliance extension for two stationary reciprocating internal combustion engines (RICE) subject to NESHAP subpart ZZZZ, which are located at the North Slope Borough (NSB) Nuiqsut Power Plant in Barrow, Alaska?
A: Yes. EPA conditionally approves the one-year extension to the compliance deadline for the two existing gas-fired spark ignition units that are not remote stationary RICE and that operate more than 24 hours per calendar year at an area source facility. EPA determines that additional time is warranted because of the short construction season in Alaska, uncertainty regarding the final rule requirements due to reconsideration of the regulation, funding cycles for municipalities, and difficulties in procuring the control equipment due to increased demand throughout the industry as the compliance deadline approaches. Approval is conditioned on NSB complying with the applicable equipment standards, catalyst installation and compliance demonstration procedures by October 19, 2014; meeting specified interim compliance deadlines; and complying with the work or management practices for remote stationary RICE by October 19, 2013.
Q: Will EPA accept a 2009 performance test as the initial performance test to demonstrate compliance for a stationary reciprocating internal combustion engine (RICE) subject to the NESHAP subpart ZZZZ at and located at Washington State University (WSU) in Pullman, Washington?
A: No. EPA does not approve the use of the 2009 performance test data to serve as the initial performance test for the RICE unit because a prior test can only be used if it is not older than two years pursuant to 40 CFR 63.6612(b)(2). Therefore, an initial test must be conducted within 180 days after the compliance date, by October 30, 2013.
Q: Does EPA determine that engines located at the High Frequency Active Auroral Research Program (HAARP) facility near Gakona, Alaska are subject to the National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Stationary Reciprocating Internal Combustion Engines (RICE) at 40 CFR part 63 subpart ZZZZ? The facility is owned by the Air Force and operated by Marsh Creek, LLC through the Office of Naval Research.
A: Yes. EPA determines that the engines, as described, are RICE and therefore subject to Part 63 subpart ZZZZ. The engines would be required to meet the applicable numerical emission limitations detailed in Table 2d and applicable operating limitations in Table 2b of NESHAP subpart ZZZZ for the type of existing stationary engine located at area sources of HAP, as detailed in the EPA determination letter.
Q: Can the Eielson Air Force Base's existing compression ignition, 2-stroke, greater than 500 horsepower, Electromotive Diesel (EMD) engine installed in 1987 at the Base's Central Heat and Power Plant be designated as a black start engine exclusively and therefore subject to the corresponding requirements for that type of engine if the EMD engine is no longer used for any peak shaving?
A: Yes. EPA is responding with guidance to clarify that if the engine subject to 40 CFR part 63 subpart ZZZZ is not being used for peak shaving after the May 3, 2013 compliance date for the engine, and the engine meets the definition of a black start engine, it is subject to the requirements under NESHAP subpart ZZZZ for a black start engine.
Q1: Will EPA approve a like for like waiver from the initial and all subsequent particulate matter (PM) tests according to the provisions under 40 CFR 63.7(e)(2)(iv) and 63.7(h) for the Moses Lake Industries (MLI) boiler located in Moses Lake, Washington?
A1: No. EPA determines that the information used to estimate the emissions is not from a boiler unit that is located at the same facility as the unit in question. There is no assurance that the tested unit was operated and maintained in a similar manner as the unit in question.
Q2: In case EPA is unable to grant the waiver, does EPA accept a source test plan and notification that MLI also provided in its submittal dated December 8th, 2011, stating that that they intend to conduct a PM source test on February 13th, 2012?
A2: Yes. EPA accepts the previously submitted test plan and notification in question to meet the general provision source test requirements from section 63.7(b) to notify EPA at least 60 days in advance of a source test.
Q1: Can EPA clarify the applicability for the NESHAP for Major Sources: Industrial, Commercial and Institutional Boilers and Process Heaters, 40 CFR part 63, subpart DDDDD; the NESHAP for Flexible Polyurethane Foam Fabrication Operations, 40 CFR part 63, subpart MMMMM; the NESHAP for Reciprocating Internal Combustion !Engines, 40 CFR part 63, subpart ZZZZ; and the NESHAP for Paper and Other Web Coating, 40 CFR part 63, subpart JJJJ for Shawmut's flexible substrate lamination facility located in West Bridgewater, MA if the facility is now an area source?
A1: EPA determines that Shawmut is no longer subject to 40 CFR part 63 subparts JJJJ, MMMMM, and DDDDD. Shawmut is no longer subject to NESHAP subpart JJJJ because the three adhesive laminators (EUI) are permanently decommissioned. Shawmut is not subject to NESHAP subpart MMMMM because the facility ceased to be a major HAP source before becoming subject to any substantive subpart MMMMM requirements. Shawmut is not subject to NESHAP subpart DDDDD for its boiler and two process heaters (EU3) because EPA allows Shawmut to become an area source of HAP before January 2014, the first substantive rule compliance date. Shawmut's existing spark ignition engine is subject to NESHAP subpart ZZZZ as an area source of HAP because Shawmut became an area source of HAP before the first compliance date of October 19, 2013, but subpart ZZZZ does not require area sources of HAP to obtain a Title V operating permit.
Q2: Would Shawmut facility be required to maintain its Title V operating permit because it is no longer a major source?
A2: No. EPA determines that Shawmut is no longer subject to the requirements of Title V operating permits based on applicability of these NESHAP subparts as an area source.
Q: Can EPA clarify the annual performance test deadline for Covidien's ethylene oxide sterilization facility located in North Haven, Connecticut?
A: EPA is clarifying that after the initial performance test, subsequent annual testing pursuant 40 CFR 63.363(b)(4)(i) must be conducted within 11 to 13 calendar months after the previous test.
Q: Does a dual-fuel steam boiler (Unit 1) at PSEG New Haven Harbor Station in New Haven, Connecticut meet the definition of a limited-use liquid oil-fired electric generating unit in 40 CFR part 63 subpart UUUUU?
A: Yes. Based on the information provided, EPA determines that Unit 1 at PSEG New Haven Harbor Station meets the definition of a limited-use liquid oil-fired electric generating unit in 40 CFR part 63 subpart UUUUU.
Q1: Will the addition of heaters to Dragon Products Company's existing finish mill in Thomaston, Maine subject the finish mill to requirements for raw material dryers in NESHAP for Portland Cement Manufacturing Industry at 40 CFR part 63 subpart LLL?
A1: No. EPA determines that the Dragon Products' finish mill is not an affected source under NESHAP subpart LLL because it is processing granulated slag, and is not grinding clinker or blending the slag with clinker.
Q2: Will Dragon Products' proposed finished material dryer be subject to subpart LLL?
A2: No. Based on the information submitted by Dragon Products, EPA determines that the proposed dryer is not an affected source under NESHAP subpart LLL because the raw material dryer would only be used to dry slag a product used in concrete and not used to dry a material for use in the production of Portland cement. This determination is revising a previously issued determination on the applicability of NESHAP subpart to the dryer issued April 8, 2014.
Q: Will the EPA determine that an amendment to Aurora Energy's September 26, 2014 determination is warranted, to provide an additional compliance extension for the performance testing deadline for three area source coal fired boilers (Emission Units (EUs) 4, 5, and 6) under NESHAP subpart JJJJJJ at the Chena Power Plant?
A: Yes. EPA determines that extending the NESHAP subpart JJJJJJ performance test deadline until January 31, 2015, will provide for time to complete the repair and installation and ensure that TG #1 is fully operational and enable a representative test to be conducted on the boilers.
Q1: Argos requests clarification of which emissions standards (40 CFR part 63 Subpart LLL—The National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for the Portland Cement Manufacturing Industry (PC NESHAP); 40 CFR part 60 Subpart Y—New Source Performance Standards for Coal Preparation and Processing Plants (subpart Y); and 40 CFR part 60, subpart DDDD—“Emissions Guidelines and Compliance Times for Commercial and Industrial Solid Waste Incineration (CISWI) Units” (subpart DDDD”) apply to the emissions coming from the PC Coal Mill at the Harleyville Cement Plant located in Harleyville, SC, that are combined with the CISWI kiln emissions, where the CISWI kiln provides heat for drying the coal, before being emitted directly to the atmosphere?
A1: Based on the information provided by Argos, EPA made an analysis of the standards that would apply to the Harleyville PC Coal Mill. EPA determines that the Harleyville PC Coal Mill is subject to the requirements of 40 CFR part 60 subpart Y, specifically the standards for thermal dryers at section 60.252(a), because the thermal dryer is a thermal dryer per section § 60.251(r) (1) and is thus subject to the provisions in § 60.251, § 60.252(a), § 60.255(a), and § 60.256(a). When emissions from the thermal dryer (
Q2. Is the Harleyville clinker cooler an affected facility under the PC NESHAP?
A2. Yes. EPA determines that the affected facility, in part, is each clinker cooler at any Portland cement plant according to § 63.1340(b)(2) (“What parts of my plant does this subpart cover?”). Information provided by Argos demonstrates that the clinker cooler meets the definition of clinker cooler at § 63.1341. Therefore, the clinker cooler is an affected facility under the PC NESHAP.
Q3. Which emissions standards (PC NESHAP, subpart Y, and/or subpart DDDD) apply to the emissions coming from the Harleyvill Kiln Coal Mill that are combined with the CISWI kiln emissions, where the CISWI kiln provides heat for drying the coal, before discharging to the atmosphere after co-mingling with the clinker cooler exhaust?
A3. Based on the description provided in Argos' letter, the Harleyville Kiln Coal Mill is a thermal dryer within the meaning of 60.251(r)(1) and thus, for the reasons explained in response to question 1, above, EPA determines it is subject to the applicable requirements of subpart Y in § 60.251, § 60.252(a), § 60.255(a), and § 60.256(a). Regarding PC NESHAP and subpart DDDD, for the reasons discussed in the response to question 1 we maintain that the performance standards for the emissions from CISWI waste burning kilns apply when and where they are emitted to the atmosphere. And, for the reasons stated in response to Question 2, above, we also believe that the clinker cooler is an affected facility under the PC NESHAP and is subject to the emissions standards for clinker coolers, therein. Application of the more stringent emission limits to the combined emissions is necessary to assure compliance with each applicable standard.
Q4: Can the PC NESHAP requirements for in-line coal mills be applied to the PC Coal Mill and the Kiln Coal Mill at Harleyville, independent of the PC NESHAP applicability to the kiln?
A4: No. Based on the construction date of the kiln provided by Argos, EPA determines that the emissions guidelines established under subpart DDDD, implemented through a state or federal plan (as applicable), will apply unless the waste-burning kiln ceases burning solid waste at least 6 months prior to the CISWI part DDDD compliance date. Therefore, the kiln is not subject to the PC NESHAP and instead it is subject to subpart DDDD. Coal mills are not subject to the requirements of the PC NESHAP if the kiln is not a PC NESHAP kiln affected
Q5: If the PC NESHAP requirements for the kiln (which includes the coal mills) are not applicable, are the emissions from the Harleyville coal mills only subject to the subpart Y concentration and opacity standards?
A5: No. The kiln emissions are routed through the coal mills so the subpart DDDD requirements will apply to the emissions exiting the coal mills, in addition to the subpart Y requirements.
Q6: Do the requirements of Subpart DDDD apply to the Harleyville CISWI kiln emissions routed through the in-line coal mills (
A6: Yes. Any re-routing or commingling of CISWI kiln emissions must not result in uncontrolled emissions directly to the atmosphere. We interpret subpart DDDD (or NSPS CCCC, when applicable) to continue to apply to all of the CISWI waste-burning kiln emissions, even if those emissions are routed through an in-line coal mill or other device prior to exhaust to the atmosphere. Therefore, regardless of the disposition of in-line coal mills as part of the waste burning kiln, the subpart DDDD standards applicable to waste-burning kilns apply to the emissions of the Harleyville kiln when and where they are emitted to the atmosphere.
Q7. Which emissions standards (subpart Y, PC NESHAP and/or subpart DDDD) apply to the emissions from stack 2 at the Roberta Cement Plant located in Calera, Alabama, when the CISWI waste-burning kiln emissions are routed through the coal mill and used to provide heat for drying of the coal before being emitted to the atmosphere?
A7: Based on the information provided by Argos, EPA determines that the Roberta coal mill is a thermal dryer within the meaning of § 60.251(r)(1) and is subject to the provisions in § 60.251, § 60.252(a), § 60.255(a), and § 60.256(a) of subpart Y.
Q8: Which emissions standards apply to the emissions from stack 1 at the Roberta Cement Plant located in Calera, Alabama, wherein the clinker cooler emissions are combined with the kiln emissions and sent to the raw mill to provide heat for drying before being emitted to the atmosphere?
A9: Argos's letter acknowledges that the Roberta in-line kiln/raw mill is a subpart DDDD affected facility. Also, for the same reasons as discussed in the response to Question 2 for Harleyville Cement Plant, the Roberta clinker cooler is an affected facility under the PC NESHAP. Argos must either comply with the most stringent standard applicable to the various emissions streams or establish a mechanism to apportion emissions to the various operations and seek an alternative methodology for determining compliance under section 60.8(b).
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
This notice announces EPA's order for cancellation of certain pesticide products, identified in Table 1, Unit II, which were voluntarily deleted by the registrant and accepted by the Agency, pursuant to the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA). This cancellation order follows a March 13, 2013
The cancellations are effective August 19, 2015.
Caitlin Newcamp, Pesticide Re-Evaluation Division (7508P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (703) 347-0325; email address:
This action is directed to the public in general, and may be of interest to a wide range of stakeholders including environmental, human health, and agricultural advocates; the chemical industry; pesticide users; and members of the public interested in the sale, distribution, or use of pesticides. Since others also may be interested, the Agency has not attempted to describe all the specific entities that may be affected by this action.
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2006-0955, is available at
This notice announces the cancellation, as requested by the registrant, of products registered under FIFRA section 3 (7 U.S.C. 136a). These registrations are listed in sequence by registration number in Table 1 of this unit.
Table 2 of this unit includes the names and addresses of record for all the registrants of the products in Table 1 of this unit, in sequence by EPA company number. This number corresponds to the first part of the EPA registration numbers of the products listed in Table 1 of this unit.
During the public comment period provided, EPA received no comments in response to the March 13, 2013
Pursuant to FIFRA section 6(f) (7 U.S.C. 136d(f)), EPA hereby approves the requested cancellation of the registrations identified in Table 1 of Unit II. Accordingly, the Agency hereby orders that the product registrations identified in Table 1 of Unit II are canceled. The effective date of the cancellations that are the subject of this notice is August 19, 2015. Any distribution, sale, or use of existing stocks of the products identified in Table 1 of Unit II in a manner inconsistent with any of the provisions for disposition of existing stocks set forth in Unit VI will be a violation of FIFRA.
Section 6(f)(1) of FIFRA (7 U.S.C. 136d(f)(1)) provides that a registrant of a pesticide product may at any time request that any of its pesticide registrations be canceled or amended to terminate one or more uses. FIFRA further provides that, before acting on the request, EPA must publish a notice of receipt of any such request in the
Existing stocks are those stocks of canceled pesticide products that are in the United States and that were appropriately packaged, labeled, and released for shipment prior to the effective date of cancellation of the underlying registration. The existing stocks provisions for the products subject to this order are as follows.
The registrant is prohibited from selling or distributing existing stocks above as of August 19, 2015, except for export in accordance with FIFRA section 17 (7 U.S.C. 136o), or proper disposal. Persons other than the registrant may sell, distribute, or use existing stocks of products listed above until existing stocks are exhausted, provided that such sale, distribution, or use is consistent with the terms of the previously approved labeling on, or that accompanied, the canceled products.
7 U.S.C. 136
The Commission hereby gives notice of the filing of the following agreement under the Shipping Act of 1984. Interested parties may submit comments on the agreement to the Secretary, Federal Maritime Commission, Washington, DC 20573, within twelve days of the date this notice appears in the
By Order of the Federal Maritime Commission.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing effort to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on the proposed information collection request entitled “Breast Cancer in Young Women Survey”,
Written comments must be received on or before October 19, 2015.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2015-0070 by any of the following methods: Federal eRulemaking Portal:
All public comment should be submitted through the Federal eRulemaking portal (Regulations.gov) or by U.S. mail to the address listed above.
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact the Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE., MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information. Burden means the total time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose or provide information to or for a Federal agency. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information, to search data sources, to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information.
Insurance Coverage, Employment Status, and Copayments/Deductibles Faced by Young Women Diagnosed with Breast Cancer—New—National Center for Chronic Disease Prevention and Health Promotion (NCCDPHP), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
The Education and Awareness Requires Learning Young (EARLY) Act of 2009, which is outlined in section 10413 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, authorizes the CDC to fund research and initiatives that increase knowledge of breast health and breast cancer among women, particularly among those under the age of 40. The EARLY Act along with section 301 of the Public Health Service Act authorizes the CDC to conduct research that will inform the prevention of physical and mental diseases such as breast cancer, and serves as the main basis for this data collection activity.
Research indicates that young women diagnosed with breast cancer face many barriers accessing high-quality breast cancer care and treatment. These barriers are compounded by the multiple roles that these young women serve in society including parenting young children, developing a career, and completing their education. Treatment decisions can be complicated for young women with breast cancer. Some research indicates that employment status, financial stability, and insurance coverage are variables that affect treatment compliance, access to quality care, and ultimately quality of life for young women with breast cancer. However, to date, no comprehensive assessment has been conducted to examine breast cancer care and treatment for young women.
CDC propose to address this gap by answering the following two research questions: (1) What are young, female breast cancer survivors experiencing after their diagnosis in terms of (a) continuation of insurance coverage, access to care, and quality of care; (b) changes in employment status after breast cancer diagnosis; and (c) out-of-pocket medical costs? (2) What factors affect young breast cancer survivors' access to comprehensive, high quality care?
To answer these research questions, CDC is sponsoring a study to collect information from two groups of breast cancer survivors: One randomly drawn from state-based cancer registries (Sample 1), the other a self-selected convenience sample drawn from two advocacy organizations (Sample 2).
Sample 1 will include up to 1,750 young (diagnosed between the ages of 18 and 39), female breast cancer survivors diagnosed for the first time with breast cancer 12 months before the survey is fielded. Respondents will be recruited through approximately four state-based central cancer registries. These respondents will be asked to complete a mail-in or web-based questionnaire. Self-reported survey data from Sample 1 will be supplemented by data maintained by their state's cancer registry, including information about tumor characteristics, date of diagnosis, and stage. The linked survey and cancer registry data will be used to answer research question #2 (What factors affect young breast cancer survivors' access to comprehensive, high quality care?).
Sample 2 will include a nation-wide convenience sample of 2,000 female breast cancer survivors diagnosed between the ages of 18 and 49 who are associated with one of two breast cancer advocacy groups (Living Beyond Breast Cancer and Young Survival Coalition). This cohort will exclude individuals from Sample 1 and will not be linked to any other data source.
Comparing results between Sample 1 and Sample 2 will help us address these additional research questions: (1) How generalizable are the results from the convenience Sample 2? (2) Are there
The target number of responses for the overall study will result in up to 3,750 completed surveys. Respondents will be asked to complete a questionnaire, which is estimated to take about 22 minutes. Sample 1 respondents will have the option of completing a hardcopy questionnaire or an online questionnaire. Sample 2 respondents will complete the questionnaire online. Demographic information will be collected from all patients who participate in the study.
Findings from this study will be used to identify interventions to ameliorate or eliminate existing barriers to treatment so that young women have access to high quality breast cancer treatment and care. Study findings will be disseminated through reports, presentations, and publications. Results will also be used by participating sites, CDC, and other federal agencies to improve care and services provided to young women diagnosed with breast cancer.
OMB approval is requested for three years and the burden table presents annuitized estimates. CDC's data collection contractor will securely maintain identifiable information from respondents recruited from state registries (Sample 1). No identifiable information will be collected by CDC. Participation is voluntary and there are no costs to respondents other than their time.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The notice for the proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address any of the following: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
Capacity Building Assistance Program: Assessment and Quality Control—New—National Center for HIV/AIDS, Viral Hepatitis, STD, and TB Prevention (NCHHSTP), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
The CDC is requesting the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to grant a three-year approval to collect data that comprises Health Professional Application for Training (HPAT), the Training Follow-up Instrument, the Technical Assistance (TA) Satisfaction Instrument, and the Capacity Building Assistance (CBA) Key Informant Interview. The purpose of this information collection is to assess the degree to which the CDC's CBA program meets the needs of its consumers in order to enhance its capacity building strategy over time. The HPAT serves as the official application form for training and technical activities conducted by the Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD)/Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) Prevention Training Centers' (PTCs) grantees and the HIV Capacity Building Assistance (CBA providers) grantees funded by the (CDC). The HPAT form is currently approved under OMB Control Number 0920-0995 and expires on October 31, 2016.
The Prevention Training Centers (PTCs) and CBA providers are funded by CDC/Division of STD Prevention (DSTDP) and Division of HIV/AIDS Prevention (DHAP) over the five-year period to provide capacity-building services that includes information, training, and technical assistance. CBA services are requested and provided to support health departments, community-based organizations, and healthcare organizations in the implementation, monitoring and evaluation of evidence-based HIV prevention interventions and programs; building organizational infrastructure; and community mobilization to decrease stigma and increase HIV testing in high risk communities. Under this project, there will be no duplication of information collection, because it builds on existing, OMB approved data collection activities.
The PTCs and CBA providers offer classroom and experiential training, web-based training, clinical consultation, and capacity building assistance to maintain and enhance the capacity of healthcare professionals to control and prevent STDs and HIV.
The CBA service recipients are healthcare professionals such as, physicians, nurses, and health educators, etc., who work at community-based organizations (CBOs), health departments, and healthcare organizations, most of whom are funded directly or indirectly by the CDC, involved in HIV prevention service delivery.
CDC is requesting to use two web-based assessments that will be administered to recipients of CBA services: (1) Training Follow-Up Instrument and (2) Technical Assistance (TA) Satisfaction Instrument. The first quantitative assessment will be disseminated 90 days after a training event to agency staff who participated in a training activity. It takes approximately 15 minutes to complete. The purpose of this web-based assessment is to determine the training participants' satisfaction with the trainers, training materials, and the course pace, benefits from the training, and CBA needs, how relevant the training was to their work, and whether they were able to utilize the information gained from the training. The second quantitative assessment will be disseminated 45 days after a technical assistance event to agency staff who participated in a technical assistance and will take about 15 minutes. The second assessment will measure participants' satisfaction with the technical assistance they received, intended or actual use of enhanced capacity, barriers and facilitators to use, and benefits of the technical assistance.
The purpose of the contractor administered CBA Key Informant Interview is to collect qualitative information to assess the impact of CBA services on organizational capacity (
The respondents represent an average of the number of health professionals who receive training and technical assistance from the CBA and PTC grantees. The data collection is necessary (a) to assess CBA consumers' (community-based organizations, health departments, and healthcare organizations) satisfaction with and short-term outcomes from the overall CBA program as well as specific elements of the CBA program; (b) to improve CBA services and enhance the Capacity Building Branch's national capacity building strategy over time; (c) to assess the performance of the grantees in delivering training and technical assistance and to standardize the registration processes across the two CBA programs (
There are no costs to respondents other than their time. The estimated annualized burden hours are 8,643 hours.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The notice for the proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address any of the following: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
National HIV Prevention Program Monitoring and Evaluation (NHM&E) (OMB 0920-0696, Expiration 03/31/2016)—Revision—National Center for HIV/AIDS, Viral Hepatitis, STD, and TB Prevention (NCHHSTP), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
CDC is requesting a three-year approval for revision to the previously approved project.
The purpose of this revision is to continue collecting standardized HIV prevention program evaluation data from health departments and community-based organizations (CBOs) who receive federal funds for HIV prevention activities. Grantees have the option of key-entering or uploading data to a CDC-provided web-based software application (EvaluationWeb®).
This revision includes changes to the data variables to adjust to the different monitoring and evaluation needs of new funding announcements without a change in burden. CDC is adjusting the variables by deleting some of the client-level variables related to determining risk factors during the HIV Testing process and replacing these variables with aggregate testing variables that have previously been reported by grantees as part of their progress reports. This will streamline and simplify data submission for the grantees.
The other significant change is to add budget allocation data variables for CBOs but offset that addition with reductions in client-level variables and conversion of some variables to aggregate-level reporting. There are other minor changes in variables and values to adjust to new technologies and interventions and to improve reporting related to linkage to care and retention in care for HIV positive persons. However, the number of variables deleted approximately equals the number of variables added, so the net result is no change in the grantee reporting burden.
The evaluation and reporting process is necessary to ensure that CDC receives standardized, accurate, thorough evaluation data from both health department and CBO grantees. For these reasons, CDC developed standardized NHM&E variables through extensive consultation with representatives from health departments, CBOs, and national partners (
CDC requires CBOs and health departments who receive federal funds for HIV prevention to report non-identifying, client-level and aggregate-level, standardized evaluation data to: (1) Accurately determine the extent to which HIV prevention efforts are carried out, what types of agencies are providing services, what resources are allocated to those services, to whom services are being provided, and how these efforts have contributed to a reduction in HIV transmission; (2) improve ease of reporting to better meet these data needs; and (3) be accountable to stakeholders by informing them of HIV prevention activities and use of funds in HIV prevention nationwide.
CDC HIV prevention program grantees will collect, enter or upload, and report agency-identifying information, budget data, intervention information, and client demographics and behavioral risk characteristics. Data collection will include searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining data, document compilation, grantee training, review of data, and data entry or upload into the web-based system.
There are no additional costs to respondents other than their time. As noted above, the number of added variables is approximately equal to the number of deleted variables, so there is no change in burden hours from the previously approved information collection. The total estimated annual burden hours are 206,226.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; correction.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is correcting a notice that appeared in the
Lisa Granger, Office of Policy, Planning,
In FR Doc. 2014-13290, appearing on page 32964, in the
On page 32964, in the second column, in the headings section of the document, [Docket No. FDA-2014-N-0736]” is corrected to read “FDA-2015-N-2781”.
Please be aware that this new docket is no longer open for comment.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration's (FDA) Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH), Offices of Device Evaluation (ODE) and In Vitro Diagnostics and Radiation (OIR) are announcing their participation in the International Medical Device Regulators Forum's (IMDRF) Regulated Product Submission Table of Contents Pilot Program. Participation in the Pilot is voluntary and open to applicants who submit premarket approval (PMA) applications or premarket notification (510(k)) to either ODE or OIR. The Pilot project is intended to provide industry, IMDRF, and CDRH staff the opportunity to evaluate the Table of Contents structure and to receive input from industry participants. Participants will be asked to submit their submissions electronically using IMDRF's Table of Contents (ToC) format.
The IMDRF is seeking interest for participation in the voluntary IMDRF Regulated Product Submission, Table of Contents Pilot Program. See section II.A. for instructions on how to submit a request to participate. The Pilot project will accept submissions with the ToC structure starting September 2015 through September 2016.
Jodi Hope N. Anderson, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 1520, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-9299,
The IMDRF was conceived in February 2011 as a forum to discuss future directions in medical device regulatory harmonization. It is a voluntary group of medical device regulators from around the world who have come together to build on the strong foundational work of the Global Harmonization Task Force. The Forum aims to accelerate international medical device regulatory harmonization and convergence.
The Regulated Product Submission (RPS) proposal was endorsed as a new work item by IMDRF at its 2012 inaugural meeting in Singapore. The Work Group, consisting of regulatory authorities from the United States, European Union (EU), Australia, Brazil, Japan, China, and Canada, created a comprehensive Table of Contents for Non-In Vitro Diagnostics (nIVD) and also for IVD Marketing Authorizations, which were formalized in August 2014.
The ToC provides a comprehensive submission structure that can be used as a harmonized international electronic submission format while minimizing regional divergences and indicating where regional variation exists. This document is intended to provide guidance regarding the location of submission elements. These documents can be found on IMDRF's Web site (Refs. 1 and 2).
This document is intended to work together with a regional classification matrix, a separate document created for each participating jurisdiction. The classification matrix defines whether a heading is required, not required, optional, conditionally required, etc., for the given submission type. FDA's Classification Matrices can be found on FDA's Web site (Ref. 3).
The ToC Work Group has previously conducted Pilots for both of the ToC structures, using historical submissions. These Pilots provided valuable feedback regarding the ToC structure and completeness; however, there were limitations to using historical submissions and also a limited number of samples involving submission to more than one jurisdiction. Furthermore, there were no specific guidelines regarding the means of building a submission in a non-standard implementation. Additional IMDRF testing is considered necessary to both evaluate the ToC structures using real regulatory submissions and also evaluate the ToC structure from an industry perspective.
FDA's participation in the IMDRF RPS ToC Implementation Pilot will provide both local and international benefits for FDA, as it will provide FDA feedback into decisions regarding the ToC's suitability.
CDRH is participating in the Pilot. In doing so, CDRH will receive premarket submissions from the medical device regulated industry using the IMDRF ToC and FDA Regional Classification Matrices. Applications are to be real regulatory submissions—either PMAs or 510(k) applications—that will result in regulatory decisions by CDRH. PMAs exclude combination products and bundled submissions. The 510(k)s exclude special, abbreviated, and third-party submissions, as well as combination products, bundled submissions, and amendments after a final decision. Pilot participation requires that an application submitted to FDA also be submitted sequentially or simultaneously to at least one additional participating IMDRF region. Currently the participating regulating authorities are Australia (Therapeutic Goods Administration), Brazil (ANVISA), Canada (Health Canada), China (China Food and Drug Administration), and the European Union (Notified Bodies).
The Pilot is described in greater detail in the IMDRF/RPS WG/N26 Informational Document “IMDRF Table of Contents (ToC) Pilot Plan” (Ref. 4).
The Regulators participating in this Pilot intend to use submissions only for the requested regulatory activity and objectives of this Pilot. Any submissions generated in relation to this testing will not be distributed to other manufacturers or other regulators. Industry participants should share any submission content directly with the appropriate regulators through the official regulatory processes in place—
Feedback provided on the ToC structure, experience developing regulatory submissions, or suggestions
This Pilot will be evaluated in accordance with current FDA protocols and performance standards. Feedback from reviewers will be provided on the reviewability of the submission, based on the IMDRF ToC and FDA classification matrix, and any observations regarding issues in the submission content elements of the ToC Pilot. Feedback from industry will be accepted throughout the submission building process.
The Pilot project is intended to provide industry, IMDRF, and CDRH staff the opportunity to evaluate the ToC structure, through the receipt of input from industry participants and CDRH staff. Comments received during the Pilot project will be used to evaluate the usability of the ToC format. FDA will be reviewing the contents of each submission as part of this Pilot; however, Pilot participation for the manufacturer will end after successfully passing the refuse to accept criteria. Subsequently, a complete scientific review, outside of the scope of the Pilot, will commence.
Volunteers interested in participating in the Pilot project should provide expressions of interest to the IMDRF ToC working group at the IMDRF ToC email account
After reading the ToC Pilot Plan document, applicants use either the nIVD or IVD ToC documents, as well as the respective Classification Matrix to construct their submission. The submission, placed into a single .zip file with the name “MISC FILES.zip” is then loaded onto media via eCopy (
During the Pilot, CDRH staff will be available to answer any questions or concerns that may arise. Pilot project participants will be asked to comment on and discuss their experiences with the Pilot submissions process. Their input and discussions will assist both IMDRF and CDRH in their use of the ToC in future electronic submission formats.
FDA intends to accept requests for participation in the IMDRF's Regulated Product Submission, ToC Implementation Pilot for 12 months, from September 2015 through September 2016. This Pilot program may be extended as resources and needs allow.
This notice refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.FDAC. 3501-3520). The collections of information in 21 CFR part 807, subpart E have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0120 and the collections of information in 21 CFR part 814, subparts A through E have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0231.
The following references have been placed on display in the Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, and may be seen by interested persons between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, and are available electronically at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
This notice announces a forthcoming meeting of a public advisory committee of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA). The meeting will be open to the public.
FDA intends to make background material available to the public no later than 2 business days before the meeting. If FDA is unable to post the background material on its Web site prior to the meeting, the background material will be made publicly available at the location of the advisory committee meeting, and the background material will be posted on FDA's Web site after the meeting. Background material is available at
Persons attending FDA's advisory committee meetings are advised that the Agency is not responsible for providing access to electrical outlets.
FDA welcomes the attendance of the public at its advisory committee meetings and will make every effort to accommodate persons with physical disabilities or special needs. If you require special accommodations due to a disability, please contact Philip Bautista at least 7 days in advance of the meeting.
FDA is committed to the orderly conduct of its advisory committee meetings. Please visit our Web site at
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app. 2).
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing the revised fees the Agency will assess for issuing export certificates for devices. The FDA Export Reform and Enhancement Act of 1996 (EREA) provides that any person who exports a device may request FDA certify in writing that the exported device meets certain specified requirements. It further provides that FDA shall issue such a certification within 20 days of the receipt of a request for such certification and that FDA may charge up to $175 for each certification that is issued within the 20 days. Since February 2003, FDA's costs to process the device certificates have increased; however, the export certificate fee for subsequent certificates has not changed. Because of the increase, FDA is raising the fees for subsequent certificates, from the current fee of $15 to $85, and revising the formula used to calculate the number of original and subsequent device export certificates issued. These changes are necessary to ensure that the program remains self-sustaining and to cover FDA's increased costs, which are
The fees described in this document for export certificates for devices will be effective September 1, 2015.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
Submit written submissions in the following ways:
•
Leila M. Lawrence, Office of Compliance, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-7400, Option 3, FAX 301-847-8129.
The EREA became law on April 26, 1996 (Pub. L. 104-134, amended by Pub. L. 104-180). The principal purpose of this law is to expedite the export of FDA regulated products, both approved and unapproved, through amendments to sections 801(e) and 802 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 381(e) and 382). Section 801(e)(4) of the FD&C Act provides that any person who exports a drug, animal drug, or device may request that FDA certify in writing that the exported drug, animal drug, or device meets the requirements of sections 801(e) or 802 of the FD&C Act or other applicable requirements of the FD&C Act. Upon a showing that the product meets the applicable requirements, the law provides that FDA shall issue export certification within 20 days of the receipt of a request for such certification. It also allows FDA to collect fees of up to $175 for each certificate that is issued within the 20-day period. The focus of this notice is on both the fee charged per subsequent export certificate and how the Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH) calculates the number of original and subsequent certificates issued.
The original notice on the EREA fees for export certificates was published in the
The costs of the export certification program for devices have grown since fiscal year 2003 (FY 03); however, the export certificate fee for subsequent certificates has not changed. Moreover, FDA has allowed multiple devices to be included in a single certificate rather than requiring that each device have a separate certificate for which a fee is charged. The increased costs in the export certification program for devices are attributable to two major areas: (1) The increased volume of requests for certificates and (2) the increase in payroll costs over the past 12 years. These two cost areas account for the major differences between FY 03 and this current year.
The volume of requests for certificates has increased by 369 percent since FY 1997 and 107 percent since FY 2003. Hence, the export certificate program staff size has increased to accommodate this increased volume of requests. Table 1 shows the increase in certificates from FY 97 to FY 14:
The cost of the export certification program for devices in FY 14 is $5,735,270 for payroll and operating expenses.
The four recoverable cost categories for preparing and issuing export certificates are:
• Direct personnel for research, review, tracking, writing, and assembly;
• purchase of equipment and supplies used for tracking, processing, printing, and packaging (recovery of the cost of the equipment is calculated over its useful life);
• billing and collection of fees; and
• overhead and administrative support.
As previously mentioned in this document, FDA may charge up to $175 for each certificate. Certificates for some classes of products cost the Agency more than $175 to prepare. Subsequent certificates issued for the same product(s) in response to the same request generally cost the Agency less than $175. However, due to the increase in payroll and operating expenses, the fee for issuing subsequent certificates for the same product(s) in response to the same request is being raised from the current fee of $15 to $85. Since the inception of the export certification program in 1996, this is only the second increase of the device export certificate fee under EREA. In addition, FDA is revising its formula for calculating the number of original and subsequent certificates issued.
The following fees will be assessed starting September 1, 2015, for device export certificates:
Under its formula for calculating applicable fees, CDRH has allowed multiple devices to be included in a single certificate rather than requiring that each device have a separate certificate for which a fee is charged. While CDRH will continue to allow multiple devices to be included in a single certificate, it is revising the formula by which the number of original device export certificates (at $175 per certificate) and subsequent certificates (at $85 per certificate) will be calculated. The number of original and subsequent device export certificates will be calculated using a revised formula that sets the maximum pages per certificate to 25 pages (the certificate page and a maximum of 24 pages for any attachments). Previously, the maximum number of pages was 50. If the request is more than 25 pages, then the total number of pages created by the request is divided by 25 and that number will be the number of original certificates that will be charged at $175 and the remaining number of subsequent certificates will be charged at $85 each. For example, if you request 15 certificates and each certificate has 12 attachment pages plus the certificate page that means each certificate is 13 pages, and your request will generate 195 pages in all. This number of pages is divided by 25 and that equals 7.8, which is rounded to 8. Therefore, you will be charged for 8 original certificates at $175 each and 7 subsequent certificates at $85 each. Please note the maximum number of attachment pages is 24 pages. If you have more than 24 pages you will need to split the request into two or more requests.
Although the EREA does not require FDA to solicit comments on the assessment and collection of fees for export certificates, FDA is inviting comments from interested persons in order to have the benefit of additional views.
Interested persons may submit either electronic comments regarding this document to
This notice refers to previously approved collections of information. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in sections 801(e) and 802 of the FD&C Act have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0498.
This extension request does not include any changes to the information submission requirements for ClinicalTrials.gov that were proposed in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking on Clinical Trial Registration and Results Submission that was issued on November 21, 2014 and for which the public comment period closed on March 23, 2015 (79 FR 225, Nov. 21, 2014). The NIH is continuing to review submitted public comments as it prepares the final rule. The NIH will make any corresponding changes to the ClinicalTrials.gov information collection via separate procedure.
OMB approval is requested for 3 years. There are no costs to respondents other than there their time. The total estimated annualized burden hours are 682,535.
Written comments and/or suggestions from the public and affected agencies are invited on one or more of the following points: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the function of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
OMB approval is requested for 3 years. There are no costs to respondents other than their time. The total estimated annualized burden hours are 300.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(a) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of a meeting of the Recombinant DNA Advisory Committee.
The meeting will be open to the public, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should
In the interest of security, NIH has instituted stringent procedures for entrance onto the NIH campus. All visitor vehicles, including taxicabs, hotel, and airport shuttles will be inspected before being allowed on campus. Visitors will be asked to show one form of identification (for example, a government-issued photo ID, driver's license, or passport) and to state the purpose of their visit.
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
OMB's “Mandatory Information Requirements for Federal Assistance Program Announcements” (45 FR 39592, June 11, 1980) requires a statement concerning the official government programs contained in the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance. Normally NIH lists in its announcements the number and title of affected individual programs for the guidance of the public. Because the guidance in this notice covers virtually every NIH and Federal research program in which DNA recombinant molecule techniques could be used, it has been determined not to be cost effective or in the public interest to attempt to list these programs. Such a list would likely require several additional pages. In addition, NIH could not be certain that every Federal program would be included as many Federal agencies, as well as private organizations, both national and international, have elected to follow the NIH Guidelines. In lieu of the individual program listing, NIH invites readers to direct questions to the information address above about whether individual programs listed in the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance are affected.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of meetings of the National Center for Advancing Translational Sciences Advisory Council.
The meetings will be open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to finalizing the agenda and scheduling of meeting topics.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to finalizing the agenda and scheduling of meeting topics.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice lists communities where the addition or modification of Base Flood Elevations (BFEs), base flood depths, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundaries or zone designations, or the regulatory floodway (hereinafter referred to as flood hazard determinations), as shown on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports, prepared by the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) for each community, is appropriate because of new scientific or technical data. The FIRM, and where applicable, portions of the FIS report, have been revised to reflect these flood hazard determinations through issuance of a Letter of Map Revision (LOMR), in accordance with Title 44, Part 65 of the Code of Federal Regulations (44 CFR part 65). The LOMR will be used by insurance agents and others to calculate appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings and the contents of those buildings. For rating purposes, the currently effective community number is shown in the table below and must be used for all new policies and renewals.
These flood hazard determinations will become effective on the dates listed in the table below and revise the FIRM panels and FIS report in effect prior to this determination for the listed communities.
From the date of the second publication of notification of these changes in a newspaper of local circulation, any person has 90 days in which to request through the community that the Deputy Associate Administrator for Mitigation reconsider the changes. The flood hazard determination information may be changed during the 90-day period.
The affected communities are listed in the table below. Revised flood hazard information for each community is available for inspection at both the online location and the respective community map repository address listed in the table below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
Submit comments and/or appeals to the Chief Executive Officer of the community as listed in the table below.
Luis Rodriguez, Chief, Engineering Management Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-4064, or (email)
The specific flood hazard determinations are not described for each community in this notice. However, the online location and local community map repository address where the flood hazard determination information is available for inspection is provided.
Any request for reconsideration of flood hazard determinations must be submitted to the Chief Executive Officer of the community as listed in the table below.
The modifications are made pursuant to section 201 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4105, and are in accordance with the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, 42 U.S.C. 4001
The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP).
These flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. The flood hazard determinations are in accordance with 44 CFR 65.4.
The affected communities are listed in the following table. Flood hazard determination information for each community is available for inspection at both the online location and the respective community map repository
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Final notice.
Flood hazard determinations, which may include additions or modifications of Base Flood Elevations (BFEs), base flood depths, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundaries or zone designations, or regulatory floodways on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs) and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports have been made final for the communities listed in the table below.
The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that a community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the Federal Emergency Management Agency's (FEMA's) National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP). In addition, the FIRM and FIS report are used by insurance agents and others to calculate appropriate flood insurance premium rates for buildings and the contents of those buildings.
The effective date of September 16, 2015 which has been established for the FIRM and, where applicable, the supporting FIS report showing the new or modified flood hazard information for each community.
The FIRM, and if applicable, the FIS report containing the final flood hazard information for each community is available for inspection at the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables below and will be available online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
Luis Rodriguez, Chief, Engineering Management Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-4064, or (email)
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) makes the final determinations listed below for the new or modified flood hazard information for each community listed. Notification of these changes has been published in newspapers of local circulation and 90 days have elapsed since that publication. The Deputy Associate Administrator for Mitigation has resolved any appeals resulting from this notification.
This final notice is issued in accordance with section 110 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4104, and 44 CFR part 67. FEMA has developed criteria for floodplain management in floodprone areas in accordance with 44 CFR part 60.
Interested lessees and owners of real property are encouraged to review the new or revised FIRM and FIS report available at the address cited below for each community or online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
I. Watershed-based studies:
II. Non-watershed-based studies:
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This is a notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the Oglala Sioux Tribe (FEMA-4237-DR), dated August 7, 2015, and related determinations.
Effective August 7, 2015.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated August 7, 2015, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
I have determined that the damage to the Pine Ridge Indian Reservation resulting from severe storms, straight-line winds, and flooding during the period of May 8-29, 2015, is of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant a major disaster declaration under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
In order to provide Federal assistance, you are hereby authorized to allocate from funds available for these purposes such amounts as you find necessary for Federal disaster assistance and administrative expenses.
You are authorized to provide Individual Assistance to the tribal members of the Oglala Sioux Tribe and Hazard Mitigation throughout the Pine Ridge Indian Reservation. Consistent with the requirement that Federal assistance be supplemental, any Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Hazard Mitigation and Other Needs Assistance will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs.
Further, you are authorized to make changes to this declaration for the approved assistance to the extent allowable under the Stafford Act.
The time period prescribed for the implementation of section 310(a), Priority to Certain Applications for Public Facility and Public Housing Assistance, 42 U.S.C. 5153, shall be for a period not to exceed six months after the date of this declaration.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Gary R. Stanley, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.
The following areas have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:
Tribal members of the Oglala Sioux Tribe of the Pine Ridge Indian Reservation for Individual Assistance.
All areas within the Pine Ridge Indian Reservation are eligible for assistance under the Hazard Mitigation Grant Program.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
Comments are requested on proposed flood hazard determinations, which may include additions or modifications of any Base Flood Elevation (BFE), base flood depth, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundary or zone designation, or regulatory floodway on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports for the communities listed in the table below. The purpose of this notice is to seek general information and comment regarding the preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report that the
Comments are to be submitted on or before November 17, 2015.
The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. FEMA-B-1523, to Luis Rodriguez, Chief, Engineering Management Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-4064, or (email)
Luis Rodriguez, Chief, Engineering Management Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-4064, or (email)
FEMA proposes to make flood hazard determinations for each community listed below, in accordance with section 110 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4104, and 44 CFR 67.4(a).
These proposed flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. These flood hazard determinations are used to meet the floodplain management requirements of the NFIP and also are used to calculate the appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings built after the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
The communities affected by the flood hazard determinations are provided in the tables below. Any request for reconsideration of the revised flood hazard information shown on the Preliminary FIRM and FIS report that satisfies the data requirements outlined in 44 CFR 67.6(b) is considered an appeal. Comments unrelated to the flood hazard determinations also will be considered before the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
Use of a Scientific Resolution Panel (SRP) is available to communities in support of the appeal resolution process. SRPs are independent panels of experts in hydrology, hydraulics, and other pertinent sciences established to review conflicting scientific and technical data and provide recommendations for resolution. Use of the SRP only may be exercised after FEMA and local communities have been engaged in a collaborative consultation process for at least 60 days without a mutually acceptable resolution of an appeal. Additional information regarding the SRP process can be found online at
The watersheds and/or communities affected are listed in the tables below. The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables. For communities with multiple ongoing Preliminary studies, the studies can be identified by the unique project number and Preliminary FIRM date listed in the tables. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
I. Watershed-based studies:
II. Non-watershed-based studies:
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This is a notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands (FEMA-4235-DR), dated August 5, 2015, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated August 5, 2015, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
I have determined that the damage in certain areas of the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands resulting from Typhoon Soudelor during the period of August 1-3, 2015, is of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant a major disaster declaration under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
In order to provide Federal assistance, you are hereby authorized to allocate from funds available for these purposes such amounts as you find necessary for Federal disaster assistance and administrative expenses.
You are authorized to provide Individual Assistance and assistance for debris removal and emergency protective measures (Categories A and B) under the Public Assistance program in the designated areas, Hazard Mitigation for the entire commonwealth, and any other forms of assistance under the Stafford Act that you deem appropriate subject to completion of Preliminary Damage Assessments (PDAs). Direct Federal assistance is authorized.
Consistent with the requirement that Federal assistance is supplemental, any Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Hazard Mitigation and Other Needs Assistance will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs. Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Public Assistance also will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs, with the exception of projects that meet the eligibility criteria for a higher Federal cost-sharing percentage under the Public Assistance Alternative Procedures Pilot Program for Debris Removal implemented pursuant to section 428 of the Stafford Act.
Further, you are authorized to make changes to this declaration for the approved assistance to the extent allowable under the Stafford Act.
The time period prescribed for the implementation of section 310(a), Priority to Certain Applications for Public Facility and Public Housing Assistance, 42 U.S.C. 5153, shall be for a period not to exceed six months after the date of this declaration.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Stephen M. De Blasio Sr., of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.
The following areas of the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:
The island of Saipan for Individual Assistance.
The islands of Rota, Saipan, and Tinian for debris removal and emergency protective measures (Categories A and B), including direct federal assistance, under the Public Assistance program.
All areas within the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands are eligible for assistance under the Hazard Mitigation Grant Program.
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households In Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Texas (FEMA-4223-DR), dated May 29, 2015, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Texas is hereby amended to include the following areas among those areas determined to have been adversely
Bosque, Collingsworth, Colorado, Coryell, Duval, Hall, Hardin, Lubbock, McLennan, Palo Pinto, Somervell, Tom Green, Washington, and Young Counties for Public Assistance.
Brazoria, Erath, Jim Wells, Shelby, and Smith Counties for Public Assistance (already designated for Individual Assistance).
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households In Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This is a notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of West Virginia (FEMA-4236-DR), dated August 7, 2015, and related determinations.
Effective August 7, 2015.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated August 7, 2015, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
I have determined that the damage in certain areas of the State of West Virginia resulting from severe storms, straight-line winds, flooding, landslides, and mudslides during the period of July 10-14, 2015, is of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant a major disaster declaration under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
In order to provide Federal assistance, you are hereby authorized to allocate from funds available for these purposes such amounts as you find necessary for Federal disaster assistance and administrative expenses.
You are authorized to provide Public Assistance in the designated areas and Hazard Mitigation throughout the State. Consistent with the requirement that Federal assistance be supplemental, any Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Hazard Mitigation will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs. Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Public Assistance also will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs, with the exception of projects that meet the eligibility criteria for a higher Federal cost-sharing percentage under the Public Assistance Alternative Procedures Pilot Program for Debris Removal implemented pursuant to section 428 of the Stafford Act.
Further, you are authorized to make changes to this declaration for the approved assistance to the extent allowable under the Stafford Act.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Regis Leo Phelan, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.
The following areas of the State of West Virginia have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:
Braxton, Clay, Lincoln, Logan, Nicholas, Roane, Webster, and Wood Counties for Public Assistance.
All areas within the State of West Virginia are eligible for assistance under the Hazard Mitigation Grant Program.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Final Notice.
Flood hazard determinations, which may include additions or modifications of Base Flood Elevations (BFEs), base flood depths, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundaries or zone designations, or regulatory floodways on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs) and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports have been made final for the communities listed in the table below.
The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that a community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the Federal Emergency Management Agency's (FEMA's) National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP). In addition, the FIRM and FIS report are used by insurance agents and others to calculate appropriate flood insurance premium rates for buildings and the contents of those buildings.
The effective date of September 30, 2015 which has been established for the FIRM and, where applicable, the supporting FIS report showing the new or modified flood hazard information for each community.
The FIRM, and if applicable, the FIS report containing the final flood hazard information for each community is available for inspection at the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables below and will be available online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
Luis Rodriguez, Chief, Engineering Management Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) makes the final determinations listed below for the new or modified flood hazard information for each community listed. Notification of these changes has been published in newspapers of local circulation and 90 days have elapsed since that publication. The Deputy Associate Administrator for Mitigation has resolved any appeals resulting from this notification.
This final notice is issued in accordance with section 110 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4104, and 44 CFR part 67. FEMA has developed criteria for floodplain management in floodprone areas in accordance with 44 CFR part 60.
Interested lessees and owners of real property are encouraged to review the new or revised FIRM and FIS report available at the address cited below for each community or online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
The flood hazard determinations are made final in the watersheds and/or communities listed in the table below.
I. Watershed-based studies:
II. Non-watershed-based studies:
60-Day notice of information collection for review; Form No. I-515A; Notice to Student or Exchange Visitor; OMB Control No. 1653-0037.
The Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement (USICE), is submitting the following information collection request for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection is published in the
Written comments and suggestions regarding items contained in this notice and especially with regard to the estimated public burden and associated response time should be directed to the Department of Homeland Security (DHS), Scott Elmore, Forms Management Office, U.S. Immigrations and Customs Enforcement, 801 I Street NW., Mailstop 5800, Washington, DC 20536-5800.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information should address one or more of the following four points:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
Office of Community Planning and Development, HUD.
Notice.
HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comment from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 4176, Washington, DC 20410-5000; telephone 202-402-3400 (this is not a toll-free number) or email at
Jackie L. Williams, Ph.D., Director, Office of Rural Housing and Economic Development, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Pollard.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
Note: Preparer of this notice may substitute the chart for everything beginning with estimated number of respondents above:
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comments in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Nominations for the following properties being considered for listing or related actions in the National Register were received by the National Park Service before July 18, 2015. Pursuant to section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60, written comments are being accepted concerning the significance of the nominated properties under the National Register criteria for evaluation. Comments may be forwarded by United States Postal Service, to the National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1849 C St. NW., MS 2280, Washington, DC 20240; by all other carriers, National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service,1201 Eye St. NW., 8th floor, Washington, DC 20005; or by fax, 202-371-6447. Written or faxed comments should be submitted by September 3, 2015. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
National Park Service, Interior.
Amended notice of meetings.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. Appendix 1-16), notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting schedule of the Gateway National Recreation Area Fort Hancock 21st Century Federal Advisory Committee September 11, 2015, meeting to September 18, 2015, at the Monmouth County Library, Eastern Branch, located at 1001 Route 35, Shrewsbury, New Jersey 07702 which was published in the
The September 18, 2015, meeting will begin at 9:00 a.m. (EASTERN), with a public comment period at 11:30 a.m. (EASTERN). This meeting is open to the public. The October 23, 2015, meeting announced in the same notice, is cancelled.
John Warren, External Affairs Officer, Gateway National Recreation Area, Sandy Hook Unit, 26 Hudson Road, Highlands, New Jersey 07732, 917-829-0425, email
The Committee was established (
The new Committee Web site,
30-day Notice.
To comply with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), the Bureau of Safety and Environmental Enforcement (BSEE) is notifying the public that we have submitted to OMB an information collection request (ICR) to renew approval of the paperwork requirements in the regulations under
You must submit comments by September 18, 2015.
Submit comments by either fax (202) 395-5806 or email (
• Electronically go to
• Email
Cheryl Blundon, Regulations and Standards Branch, (703) 787-1607, to request additional information about this ICR. To see a copy of the entire ICR submitted to OMB, go to
Section 302 of the DWRRA provides that new production from a lease in existence on November 28, 1995, in a water depth of at least 200 meters, and in the GOM west of 87 degrees, 30 minutes West longitude qualifies for royalty suspension in certain situations. To grant a royalty suspension, the Secretary must determine that the new production or development would not be economic in the absence of royalty relief. The Secretary must then determine the volume of production on which no royalty would be due in order to make the new production from the lease economically viable. This determination is done on a case-by-case basis. Production from leases in the same water depth and area issued after
In addition, Federal policy and statute require us to recover the cost of services that confer special benefits to identifiable non-Federal recipients. The Independent Offices Appropriation Act (31 U.S.C. 9701), Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circular A-25, and the Omnibus Appropriations Bill (Pub. L. 104-134, 110 Stat. 1321, April 26, 1996) authorize the Bureau of Safety and Environmental Enforcement (BSEE) to collect these fees to reimburse us for the cost to process applications or assessments.
Regulations at 30 CFR part 203 implement these statutes and policy and require respondents to pay a fee to request royalty relief. OMB approved the information collection burden under this collection 1014-0005. Section 203.3(a) states that, “We will specify the necessary fees for each of the types of royalty-relief applications and possible BSEE audits in a Notice to Lessees. We will periodically update the fees to reflect changes in costs, as well as provide other information necessary to administer royalty relief.”
Responses are mandatory and are required to obtain or retain a benefit. No questions of a sensitive nature are asked. BSEE will protect information from respondents considered proprietary under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) and DOI's implementing regulations (43 CFR 2) and under regulations at 30 CFR 203.61,
The information collected under this subpart is used to make decisions on the economic viability of leases requesting a suspension or elimination of royalty or net profit share. These decisions have enormous monetary impact on both the lessee and the Federal Government. Royalty relief can lead to increased production of natural gas and oil, creating profits for lessees, and royalty and tax revenues for the Federal Government that they might not otherwise receive. We could not make an informed decision without the collection of information required by 30 CFR part 203.
Under § 203.3, we charge lessees (respondents) applying for royalty relief an amount that covers the cost of processing their applications and auditing financial data when necessary to determine the proposed development's economic situation. As previously discussed, these fees may be revised as necessary to recover our costs in processing royalty relief applications.
This submission includes these audits and their associated fees. Since there have been no applications approved in the last 14 years under our formal programs for deepwater royalty relief or end of life, the estimated number of submittals is one every 10 years; but we include the audit and their respective fees due to the potential situation arising.
We estimate this cost burden to be approximately $23,450 annually. Refer to the burden table for a breakdown.
Under § 203.81, a report prepared by an independent certified public accountant (CPA) must accompany the application and post-production report (expansion project, short form, and preview assessment applications are excluded). The OCS Lands Act
Therefore, the total of the two burdens is estimated at $27,950. We have not identified any other non-hour cost burdens associated with this collection of information.
To comply with the public consultation process, on May 22, 2015, we published a
Judicial Conference of the United States, Advisory Committees on the Federal Rules of Bankruptcy, Procedure and the Federal Rules of Evidence.
Revised Notice of Proposed Amendments and Open Hearings.
The Advisory Committees on the Federal Rules of Bankruptcy Procedure and the Federal Rules of Evidence have proposed amendments to the following rules: Bankruptcy Rules 1001 and 1006. Evidence Rules 803 and 902.
The text of the proposed rules amendments and the accompanying Committee Notes can be found at the United States Federal Courts' Web site at:
All written comments and suggestions with respect to the proposed amendments may be submitted on or after the opening of the period for public comment on August 14, 2015, but no later than February 16, 2016. Written comments must be submitted electronically, following the instructions provided at the Web site address provided above. In accordance with established procedures, all comments submitted are available for public inspection.
Public hearings are scheduled to be held on these proposed amendments as follows:
• Bankruptcy Rule 1006 in Washington, DC, on January 22, 2016, and in Pasadena, CA, on January 29, 2016;
• Rules of Evidence 803 and 902 in Phoenix, AZ, on January 6, 2016, and in Washington, DC, on February 12, 2016.
Those wishing to testify should contact the Secretary at the address below in writing at least 30 days before the hearing.
Rebecca A. Womeldorf, Secretary, Committee on Rules of Practice and Procedure of the Judicial Conference of the United States, Thurgood Marshall Federal Judiciary Building, One Columbus Circle NE., Suite 7-240, Washington, DC 20544, Telephone (202) 502-1820.
Federal Bureau of Investigation, Department of Justice.
60-day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Criminal Justice Information Services (CJIS) Division, will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until October 19, 2015.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Gerry Lynn Brovey, Supervisory Information Liaison Specialist, FBI, CJIS, Resources Management Section, Administrative Unit, Module C-2, 1000 Custer Hollow Road, Clarksburg, West Virginia 26306 (facsimile: 304-625-5093).
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
1
2
3
4
5
6
If additional information is required contact: Jerri Murray, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., 3E.405B, Washington, DC 20530.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Request for public comments.
OSHA solicits public comments concerning its proposal to extend the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) approval of the information collection requirements specified in the Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response (HAZWOPER) Standard (29 CFR 1910.120).
Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by October 19, 2015.
Theda Kenney or Todd Owen, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor, Room N-3609, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210; telephone (202) 693-2222.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
The HAZWOPER Standard specifies a number of collection of information (paperwork) requirements. Employers can use the information collected under the HAZWOPER rule to develop the various programs the Standard requires and to ensure that their workers are trained properly about the safety and health hazards associated with hazardous waste operations and emergency response to hazardous waste releases. OSHA will use the records developed in response to this Standard to determine adequate compliance with the Standard's safety and health provisions. The employer's failure to collect and distribute the information required in this standard will affect significantly OSHA's effort to control and reduce injuries and fatalities. Such failure would also be contrary to the direction Congress provided in The Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA).
OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:
• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the Agency's functions, including whether the information is useful;
• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information collection and transmission techniques.
OSHA is requesting that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) extend the approval of the collection of information (paperwork) requirements contained in the standard on Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response (HAZWOPER) (29 CFR 1910.120). The Agency is requesting an adjustment decrease of 988 burden hours from the previous submission (from 262,539 hours to 261,551 hours). This adjustment is due primarily to a slight decline in the number of emergency response organizations from 30,125 to 30,052 (a decline of 73 organizations).
You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) Electronically at
Because of security procedures, the use of regular mail may cause a significant delay in the receipt of comments. For information about security procedures concerning the delivery of materials by hand, express delivery, messenger, or courier service, please contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627).
Comments and submissions are posted without change at
David Michaels, Ph.D., MPH, Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506
Notice.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a preclearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA95) [44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)]. This program helps to ensure that requested data can be provided in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the impact of collection requirements on respondents can be properly assessed. Currently, the Office of Workers' Compensation Programs is soliciting comments concerning the proposed collection: Pharmacy Billing Requirements. A copy of the proposed information collection request can be obtained by contacting the office listed below in the addresses section of this Notice.
Written comments must be submitted to the office listed in the
Ms. Yoon Ferguson, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Ave. NW., Room S-3323, Washington, DC 20210, telephone/fax (202) 354-9647, Email
* Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
* evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
* enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and
* minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval of the information collection request; they will also become a matter of public record.
National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).
Notice.
NARA gives public notice that it has submitted to OMB for approval the information collection described in this notice. We invite you to comment on the proposed information collection pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
OMB must receive written comments at the address below on or before September 18, 2015.
Send comments to Mr. Nicholas A. Fraser, Desk Officer for NARA by mail to Office of Management and Budget; New Executive Office Building; Washington, DC 20503; by fax to 202-395-5167; or by email to
Direct requests for additional information or copies of the proposed information collection and supporting statement to Tamee Fechhelm by phone at 301-837-1694 or by fax at 301-713-7409.
Pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13), NARA invites the public and other Federal agencies to comment on proposed information collections. We published a notice of proposed collection for this information collection on June 9, 2015 (80 FR 32615 and 32616); we received no comments. NARA has therefore submitted the described information collection to OMB for approval.
In response to this notice, comments and suggestions should address one or more of the following points: (a) Whether the proposed information collection is necessary for NARA to properly perform its functions; (b) NARA's estimate of the burden of the proposed information collection and its accuracy; (c) ways NARA could enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information it collects; (d) ways NARA could minimize the burden on respondents of collecting the information, including the through information technology; and (e) whether the collection affects small businesses. In this notice, NARA solicits comments concerning the following information collection:
1.
National Science Foundation.
Notice and request for comments.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) is announcing plans to request clearance of this collection. In accordance with the requirement of Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13), we are providing opportunity for public comment on this action plan for information collection.
Written comments on this notice must be received by October 19, 2015 to be assured of consideration. Comments received after that date will be considered to the extent practicable.
The Graduate Research Fellowship Program uses several sources of information in assessing and documenting program performance and impact. These sources include reports from program evaluation, the GRFP Committee of Visitors, and data compiled from the applications. In addition, GRFP Fellows submit annual activity reports to NSF.
The GRFP Completion report is proposed as a continuing component of the annual reporting requirement for the program. This report, submitted by the GRFP Institution, certifies the completion status of Fellows at the institution (
National Science Foundation
Submission for OMB review; comment request.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) has submitted the following information collection requirement to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. This is the second notice for public comment; the first was published in the
Comments regarding these information collections are best assured of having their full effect if received within 30 days of this notification. Copies of the submission(s) may be obtained by calling 703-292-7556.
NSF may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The Science and Technology Centers (STC): Integrative Partnerships Program supports innovation in the integrative conduct of research, education and knowledge transfer. Science and Technology Centers build intellectual and physical infrastructure within and between disciplines, weaving together knowledge creation, knowledge integration, and knowledge transfer. STCs conduct world-class research through partnerships of academic institutions, national laboratories, industrial organizations, and/or other public/private entities. New knowledge thus created is meaningfully linked to society.
STCs enable and foster excellent education, integrate research and education, and create bonds between learning and inquiry so that discovery and creativity more fully support the learning process. STCs capitalize on diversity through participation in center activities and demonstrate leadership in the involvement of groups underrepresented in science and engineering.
Centers selected will be required to submit annual reports on progress and plans, which will be used as a basis for performance review and determining the level of continued funding. To support this review and the management of a Center, STCs will be required to develop a set of management and performance indicators for submission annually to NSF via an NSF evaluation technical assistance contractor. These indicators are both quantitative and descriptive and may include, for example, the characteristics of center personnel and students; sources of financial support and in-kind support; expenditures by operational component; characteristics of industrial and/or other sector participation; research activities; education activities; knowledge transfer activities; patents, licenses; publications; degrees granted to students involved in Center activities; descriptions of significant advances and other outcomes of the STC effort. Part of this reporting will take the form of a database which will be owned by the institution and eventually made available to an evaluation contractor. This database will capture specific information to demonstrate progress towards achieving the goals of the program. Such reporting requirements will be included in the cooperative agreement which is binding between the academic institution and the NSF.
Each Center's annual report will address the following categories of activities: (1) Research, (2) education, (3) knowledge transfer, (4) partnerships, (5) diversity, (6) management and (7) budget issues.
For each of the categories the report will describe overall objectives for the year, problems the Center has encountered in making progress towards goals, anticipated problems in the following year, and specific outputs and outcomes.
National Science Foundation.
Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) has submitted the following information collection
The National Science Foundation (NSF) is announcing plans to request renewed clearance of this collection. The primary purpose of this revision is to implement changes described in the Supplementary Information section of this notice. Comments regarding (a) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology should be addressed to: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB, Attention: Desk Officer for National Science Foundation, 725—17th Street NW., Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, and to Suzanne H. Plimpton, Reports Clearance Officer, National Science Foundation, 4201 Wilson Boulevard, Suite 1265, Arlington, Virginia 22230 or send email to
Comments regarding these information collections are best assured of having their full effect if received within 30 days of this notification. Copies of the submission(s) may be obtained by calling 703-292-7556.
NSF may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The draft NSF PAPPG was made available for review by the public on the NSF Web site at
“To promote the progress of science; to advance the national health, prosperity, and welfare; to secure the national defense. . . .”
The Act authorized and directed NSF to initiate and support:
• Basic scientific research and research fundamental to the engineering process;
• Programs to strengthen scientific and engineering research potential;
• Science and engineering education programs at all levels and in all the various fields of science and engineering;
• Programs that provide a source of information for policy formulation; and
• Other activities to promote these ends.
NSF's core purpose resonates clearly in everything it does: promoting achievement and progress in science and engineering and enhancing the potential for research and education to contribute to the Nation. While NSF's vision of the future and the mechanisms it uses to carry out its charges have evolved significantly over the last six decades, its ultimate mission remains the same.
Support is made primarily through grants, contracts, and other agreements awarded to approximately 2,000 colleges, universities, academic consortia, nonprofit institutions, and small businesses. The awards are based mainly on merit evaluations of proposals submitted to the Foundation.
The Foundation has a continuing commitment to monitor the operations of its information collection to identify and address excessive reporting burdens as well as to identify any real or apparent inequities based on gender, race, ethnicity, or disability of the proposed principal investigator(s)/project director(s) or the co-principal investigator(s)/co-project director(s).
It has been estimated that the public expends an average of approximately 120 burden hours for each proposal submitted. Since the Foundation expects to receive approximately 51,700 proposals in FY 2016, an estimated 6,204,000 burden hours will be placed on the public.
The Foundation has based its reporting burden on the review of approximately 51,700 new proposals expected during FY 2016. It has been estimated that anywhere from one hour to 20 hours may be required to review a proposal. We have estimated that approximately 5 hours are required to review an average proposal. Each proposal receives an average of 3 reviews, resulting in approximately 775,500 burden hours each year.
The information collected on the reviewer background questionnaire (NSF 428A) is used by managers to maintain an automated database of reviewers for the many disciplines represented by the proposals submitted to the Foundation. Information collected on gender, race, and ethnicity is used in meeting NSF needs for data to permit response to Congressional and other queries into equity issues. These data also are used in the design, implementation, and monitoring of NSF efforts to increase the participation of various groups in science, engineering, and education. The estimated burden for the Reviewer Background Information (NSF 428A) is estimated at 5 minutes per respondent with up to 10,000 potential new reviewers for a total of 833 hours.
The aggregate number of burden hours is estimated to be 6,980,333. The actual burden on respondents has not changed.
Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation.
Notice of pendency of request.
This notice advises interested persons that the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (“PBGC”) has received a request from the Service Employees International Union Local 1 Cleveland Pension Plan for approval of a plan amendment providing for special withdrawal liability rules. Under section 4203(f) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 and PBGC's regulation on Extension of Special Withdrawal Liability Rules, a multiemployer pension plan may, with PBGC approval, be amended to provide for special withdrawal liability rules similar to those that apply to the construction and entertainment industries. Such approval is granted only if PBGC determines that the rules apply to an industry with characteristics that make use of the special rules appropriate and that the rules will not pose a significant risk to the pension insurance system. Before granting an approval, PBGC's regulations require PBGC to give interested persons an opportunity to comment on the request. The purpose of this notice is to advise interested persons of the request and to solicit their views for it.
Comments must be received on or before October 5, 2015.
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Comments received, including personal information provided, will be posted to
Bruce Perlin (
Section 4203(a) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended by the Multiemployer Pension Plan Amendments Act of 1980 (“ERISA”), provides that a complete withdrawal from a multiemployer plan generally occurs when an employer permanently ceases to have an obligation to contribute under the plan or permanently ceases all covered operations under the plan. Under § 4205 of ERISA, a partial withdrawal generally occurs when an employer: (1) Reduces its contribution base units by seventy percent in each of three consecutive years; or (2) permanently ceases to have an obligation under one or more but fewer than all collective bargaining agreements under which the employer has been obligated to contribute under the plan, while continuing to perform work in the jurisdiction of the collective bargaining agreement of the type for which contributions were previously required or transfers such work to another location or to an entity or entities owned or controlled by the employer; or (3) permanently ceases to have an obligation to contribute under the plan for work performed at one or more but fewer than all of its facilities, while continuing to perform work at the facility of the type for which the obligation to contribute ceased.
Although the general rules on complete and partial withdrawal identify events that normally result in a diminution of the plan's contribution base, Congress recognized that, in certain industries and under certain circumstances, a complete or partial cessation of the obligation to contribute normally does not weaken the plan's contribution base. For that reason, Congress established special withdrawal rules for the construction and entertainment industries.
For construction industry plans and employers, § 4203(b)(2) of ERISA provides that a complete withdrawal occurs only if an employer ceases to have an obligation to contribute under a plan and the employer either continues to perform previously covered work in the jurisdiction of the collective bargaining agreement, or resumes such work within five years without renewing the obligation to contribute at the time of resumption. In the case of a plan terminated by mass withdrawal (within the meaning of ERISA § 4041(A)(2)), § 4203(b)(3) provides that the five year restriction on an employer resuming covered work is reduced to three years. Section 4203(c)(1) of ERISA applies the same special definition of complete withdrawal to the entertainment industry, except that the pertinent jurisdiction is the jurisdiction of the plan rather than the jurisdiction of the collective bargaining agreement. In contrast, the general definition of complete withdrawal in § 4203(a) of ERISA includes the permanent cessation of the obligation to contribute regardless of the continued activities of the withdrawn employer.
Congress also established special partial withdrawal liability rules for the construction and entertainment industries. Under § 4208(d)(1) of ERISA, “[a]n employer to whom § 4203(b) (relating to the building and construction industry) applies is liable for a partial withdrawal only if the employer's obligation to contribute under the plan is continued for no more than an insubstantial portion of its work in the craft and area jurisdiction of the collective bargaining agreement of the type for which contributions are required.” Under § 4208(d)(2) of ERISA, “[a]n employer to whom § 4203(c) (relating to the entertainment industry) applies shall have no liability for a partial withdrawal except under the conditions and to the extent prescribed by the [PBGC] by regulation.”
Section 4203(f)(1) of ERISA provides that PBGC may prescribe regulations under which plans in other industries may be amended to provide for special withdrawal liability rules similar to the rules prescribed in § 4203(b) and (c) of ERISA. Section 4203(f)(2) of ERISA provides that such regulations shall permit the use of special withdrawal liability rules only in industries (or portions thereof) in which PBGC determines that the characteristics that would make use of such rules appropriate are clearly shown, and that the use of such rules will not pose a significant risk to the insurance system under Title IV of ERISA. Section 4208(e)(3) of ERISA provides that PBGC shall prescribe by regulation a procedure by which plans may be amended to adopt special partial withdrawal liability rules upon a finding by PBGC that the adoption of such rules is consistent with the purposes of Title IV of ERISA.
PBGC's regulations on Extension of Special Withdrawal Liability Rules (29 CFR part 4203) prescribe procedures for a multiemployer plan to ask PBGC to approve a plan amendment that establishes special complete or partial withdrawal liability rules. The regulation may be accessed on PBGC's Web site (
PBGC received a request, dated September 16, 2011, from the Service Employees International Union Local 1 Cleveland Pension Plan (the “Plan”), for approval of a plan amendment providing for special withdrawal liability rules. Subsequently, the Plan requested that PBGC suspend review of the amendment. On January 24, 2014, the Plan requested that PBGC again consider the amendment and provided updated actuarial information. PBGC's summary of the actuarial reports provided by the Plan may be accessed on PBGC's Web site (
In summary, the Plan is a multiemployer pension plan currently covering employees who work in the commercial building cleaning and security industries in the greater Cleveland, Ohio area. The Plan represents in its submission that the industry for which the rule is requested—the commercial building cleaning industry—has characteristics similar to those of the construction industry. According to the Plan's submission, the principal similarity is that when a contributing employer's contract to clean a building expires, the cleaning work will generally continue to be performed by employees covered by the Plan, irrespective of the employer retained to perform the cleaning services. Under the proposed amendment, a complete withdrawal of an employer whose employees substantially all work in the commercial building cleaning industry shall occur only when: (a) The employer ceases to have an obligation to contribute under the Plan and (b) the employer continues to perform work in the jurisdiction of the Plan of the type for which contributions were previously required or resumes such work within five (5) years after the date on which the obligation to contribute under the plan ceases and does not renew the obligation at the time of the resumption. In the case of termination by mass withdrawal (within the meaning of ERISA § 4041A(a)(2)), the proposed amendment provides that § 4203(b)(3),
All interested persons are invited to submit written comments on the pending exemption request. All comments will be made part of the administrative record.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of an application for an order under section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Act”) for an exemption from sections 12(d)(1)(A), 12(d)(1)(B) and 12(d)(1)(C) of the Act, under sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act for an exemption from section 17(a) of the Act, and under section 6(c) of the Act for an exemption from rule 12d1-2(a) under the Act.
The requested order would (a) permit certain registered open-end management investment companies that operate as “funds of funds” to acquire shares of certain registered open-end management investment companies, registered closed-end management companies, business development companies as defined by section 2(a)(48) of the Act (“business development companies”), and registered unit investment trusts (“UITs”) that are within and outside the same group of investment companies as the acquiring investment companies, and (b) permit funds of funds relying on rule 12d1-2 under the Act to invest in certain financial instruments.
Janus Investment Fund, Janus Aspen Series (together with Janus Investment Fund, the “Trusts”), Janus Capital Management LLC (“Initial Adviser”) and Janus Distributors LLC (“Distributor”).
The application was filed on January 6, 2015 and amended on April 14, 2015 and on July 31, 2015.
An order granting the requested relief will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on September 8, 2015 and should be accompanied by proof of service on the applicants, in the form of an affidavit, or, for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090. Applicants, 151 Detroit Street, Denver CO 80206.
Robert Shapiro, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-7758 or Mary Kay Frech, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6821 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. Janus Investment Fund is organized as a Massachusetts business trust and Janus Aspen Series is registered as a Delaware statutory trust. Each Trust is registered with the Commission as an open-end management investment company under the Act with multiple series.
2. The Initial Adviser is organized as a Delaware limited liability company and is registered as an “investment adviser” under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (the “Advisers Act”). The Initial Adviser, or an entity controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the Initial Adviser, serves, or will serve, as the investment adviser for each of the Funds.
3. Applicants request relief to the extent necessary to permit: (a) Each Fund (each, a “Fund of Funds,” and collectively, the “Funds of Funds”) to acquire shares of registered open-end management investment companies (each an “Unaffiliated Open-End Investment Company”), registered closed-end management investment
4. Certain Underlying Investment Companies may invest up to 25% of their assets in a wholly-owned and controlled subsidiary of the Underlying Investment Company, organized under the laws of the Cayman Islands as an exempted company or under the laws of another non-U.S. jurisdiction (each, a “Wholly-Owned Subsidiary”), in order to invest in commodity-related instruments and certain other instruments. For an Underlying Investment Company that invests in a Wholly-Owned Subsidiary, an investment adviser to the Underlying Investment Company would serve as investment adviser to the Wholly-Owned Subsidiary.
5. Applicants also request an exemption under section 6(c) from rule 12d1-2 under the Act to permit any existing or future Fund that relies on section 12(d)(1)(G) of the Act (“Section 12(d)(1)(G) Fund of Funds”) and that otherwise complies with rule 12d1-2(a) under the Act to also invest, to the extent consistent with its investment objective(s), policies, strategies, and limitations, in financial instruments that may not be securities within the meaning of section 2(a)(36) of the Act (“Other Investments”).
1. Section 12(d)(1)(A) of the Act, in relevant part, prohibits a registered investment company from acquiring shares of an investment company if the securities represent more than 3% of the total outstanding voting stock of the acquired company, more than 5% of the total assets of the acquiring company, or, together with the securities of any other investment companies, more than 10% of the total assets of the acquiring company. Section 12(d)(1)(B) of the Act prohibits a registered open-end investment company, its principal underwriter, and any broker or dealer from selling the investment company's shares to another investment company if the sale will cause the acquiring company to own more than 3% of the acquired company's total outstanding voting stock, or if the sale will cause more than 10% of the acquired company's total outstanding voting stock to be owned by investment companies generally. Section 12(d)(1)(C) prohibits an investment company from acquiring any security issued by a registered closed-end investment company if such acquisition would result in the acquiring company, any other investment companies having the same investment adviser, and companies controlled by such investment companies, collectively, owning more than 10% of the outstanding voting stock of the registered closed-end investment company.
2. Section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security, or transaction, or any class or classes of persons, securities, or transactions, from any provision of section 12(d)(1) if the exemption is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors. Applicants seek an exemption under section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act from the limitations of sections 12(d)(1)(A), (B) and (C) to the extent necessary to permit: (i) The Funds of Funds to acquire shares of Underlying Funds in excess of the limits set forth in section 12(d)(1)(A) and (C) of the Act; and (ii) the Underlying Funds, their principal underwriters and any Broker to sell shares of the Underlying Funds to the Funds of Funds in excess of the limits set forth in section 12(d)(1)(B) of the Act.
3. Applicants state that the proposed arrangement will not give rise to the policy concerns underlying sections 12(d)(1)(A), (B) and (C), which include concerns about undue influence by a fund of funds over underlying funds, excessive layering of fees, and overly complex fund structures. Accordingly, applicants believe that the requested exemption is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors.
4. Applicants submit that the proposed structure will not result in the exercise of undue influence by the Fund of Funds or its affiliated persons over the Underlying Funds. Applicants assert that the concern about undue influence does not arise in connection with a Fund of Funds' investment in the Affiliated Funds because they are part of the same group of investment companies. To limit the control a Fund of Funds or Fund of Funds Affiliate
5. With respect to closed-end Underlying Funds, applicants note that although closed-end funds may not be unduly influenced by a holder's right of redemption, closed-end Underlying Funds may be unduly influenced by a holder's ability to vote a large block of stock. To address this concern, applicants submit that, with respect to a Fund's investment in an Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company, (i) each member of the Group or Sub-Adviser Group that is an investment company or an issuer that would be an investment company but for section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of the Act will vote its shares of the Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company in the manner prescribed by section 12(d)(1)(E) of the Act and (ii) each other member of the Group or Sub-Adviser Group will vote its shares of the Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company in the same proportion as the vote of all other holders of the same type of such Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company's shares. Applicants state that, in this way, an Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company will be protected from undue influence by a Fund of Funds through the voting of the Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company's shares.
6. With respect to Separate Accounts, applicants state that a Registered Separate Account will seek voting instructions from its Contract Owners and will vote its shares of an Unaffiliated Fund in accordance with the instructions received and will vote those shares for which no instructions were received in the same proportion as the shares for which instructions were received. An Unregistered Separate Account will either: (i) Vote its shares of the Unaffiliated Fund in the same proportion as the vote of all other holders of the Unaffiliated Fund's shares; or (ii) seek voting instructions from its Contract Owners and vote its shares of the Unaffiliated Fund in accordance with the instructions received and vote those shares for which no instructions were received in the same proportion as the shares for which instructions were received.
7. Applicants propose other conditions to limit the potential for undue influence over the Unaffiliated Funds, including that no Fund of Funds or Fund of Funds Affiliate (except to the extent it is acting in its capacity as an investment adviser to an Unaffiliated Investment Company or sponsor to an Unaffiliated Trust) will cause an Unaffiliated Fund to purchase a security in an offering of securities during the existence of any underwriting or selling syndicate of which a principal underwriter is an Underwriting Affiliate (“Affiliated Underwriting”).
8. To further ensure that an Unaffiliated Investment Company understands the implications of a Fund of Funds' investment under the requested exemptive relief, prior to its investment in the shares of an Unaffiliated Investment Company in excess of the limit of section 12(d)(1)(A)(i) of the Act, a Fund of Funds and the Unaffiliated Investment Company will execute an agreement stating, without limitation, that each of their boards of directors or trustees (for any entity, the “Board”) and their investment advisers understand the terms and conditions of the order and agree to fulfill their responsibilities under the order (the “Participation Agreement”). Applicants note that an Unaffiliated Investment Company (including an ETF or an Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company) would also retain its right to reject any initial investment by a Fund of Funds in excess of the limits in section 12(d)(1)(A)(i) of the Act by declining to execute the Participation Agreement with the Fund of Funds. In addition, an Unaffiliated Investment Company (other than an ETF or closed-end fund whose shares are purchased by a Fund of Funds in the secondary market) will retain its right at all times to reject any investment by a Fund of Funds. Finally, subject solely to the giving of notice to a Fund of Funds and the passage of a reasonable notice period, an Unaffiliated Fund (including an ETF or an Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company) could terminate a Participation Agreement with the Fund of Funds.
9. Applicants state that they do not believe that the proposed arrangement will result in excessive layering of fees. The Board of each Fund of Funds, including a majority of the trustees who are not “interested persons” within the meaning of section 2(a)(19) of the Act (the “Independent Trustees”), will find that the management or advisory fees charged under a Fund of Funds' advisory contract are based on services provided that are in addition to, rather than duplicative of, services provided under the advisory contract(s) of any Underlying Fund in which the Fund of Funds may invest. In addition, the Adviser will waive fees otherwise payable to it by a Fund of Funds in an amount at least equal to any compensation (including fees received pursuant to any plan adopted by an Unaffiliated Investment Company under rule 12b-1 under the Act) received from an Unaffiliated Fund by the Adviser, or an affiliated person of the Adviser, other than any advisory fees paid to the Adviser or an affiliated person of the Adviser by the Unaffiliated Investment Company, in connection with the investment by the Fund of Funds in the Unaffiliated Fund.
10. Applicants state that, with respect to Registered Separate Accounts that invest in a Fund of Funds, no sales load will be charged at the Fund of Funds level or at the Underlying Fund level. Other sales charges and services fees, as defined in Rule 2830 of the NASD Conduct Rules (“NASD Conduct Rule 2830”), if any, will only be charged at the Fund of Funds level or at the Underlying Fund level, not both.
11. Applicants represent that each Fund of Funds will represent in the
12. Applicants submit that the proposed arrangement will not create an overly complex fund structure. Applicants note that no Underlying Fund will acquire securities of any other investment company or company relying on section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of the Act in excess of the limits contained in section 12(d)(1)(A) of the Act, except in certain circumstances identified in condition 12 below.
13. Applicants state that investments by an Underlying Investment Company in a Wholly-Owned Subsidiary also do not raise concerns about undue influence, layering of fees and complex structures. Applicants represent that, with respect to each Underlying Investment Company in which a Fund of Funds will invest that has a Wholly-Owned Subsidiary: (1) Such Underlying Investment Company will be the sole and legal beneficial owner of its Wholly-Owned Subsidiary; (2) an investment adviser to such Underlying Investment Company will manage the investments of both the Underlying Investment Company and its Wholly-Owned Subsidiary; (3) such Underlying Investment Company's investment in the Wholly-Owned Subsidiary enables the Underlying Investment Company to continue to qualify as a regulated investment company under subchapter M of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986; and (4) there will be no inappropriate layering of fees and expenses as a result of such Underlying Investment Company investing in a Wholly-Owned Subsidiary. Applicants further represent that an Underlying Investment Company that invests in a Wholly-Owned Subsidiary will consolidate its financial statements with the Wholly-Owned Subsidiary's financial statements, provided that the applicable accounting standards permit consolidation. In addition, in assessing compliance with the asset coverage requirements under section 18(f) of the Act, an Underlying Investment Company will deem the assets, liabilities and indebtedness of a Wholly-Owned Subsidiary in which the Underlying Investment Company invests as its own. In addition, the expenses of the Wholly-Owned Subsidiary are included in the total annual fund operating expenses in the prospectus of the relevant Underlying Investment Company.
1. Section 17(a) of the Act generally prohibits sales or purchases of securities between a registered investment company and its affiliated persons or affiliated persons of such persons. Section 2(a)(3) of the Act defines an “affiliated person” of another person to include (a) any person directly or indirectly owning, controlling, or holding with power to vote, 5% or more of the outstanding voting securities of the other person; (b) any person 5% or more of whose outstanding voting securities are directly or indirectly owned, controlled, or held with power to vote by the other person; and (c) any person directly or indirectly controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the other person.
2. Applicants state that the Funds of Funds and the Affiliated Funds may be deemed to be under the common control of the Adviser and, therefore, affiliated persons of one another. Applicants also state that a Fund of Funds and an Unaffiliated Fund also may be deemed to be affiliated persons of one another if the Fund of Funds owns 5% or more of the outstanding voting securities of such Unaffiliated Fund. Applicants state that the sale of shares by the Unaffiliated Open-End Investment Companies or Unaffiliated UITs to the Funds of Funds and the redemption of those shares by the Funds of Funds could be deemed to violate section 17(a) of the Act.
3. Section 17(b) of the Act authorizes the Commission to grant an order permitting a transaction otherwise prohibited by section 17(a) if it finds that (i) The terms of the proposed transaction are fair and reasonable and do not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned; (ii) the proposed transaction is consistent with the policies of each registered investment company concerned; and (iii) the proposed transaction is consistent with the general purposes of the Act. Section 6(c) of the Act permits the Commission to exempt any person or transactions from any provision of the Act if such exemption is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act.
4. Applicants submit that the proposed transactions satisfy the standards for relief under sections 17(b) and 6(c) of the Act. Applicants state that the terms of the transactions are reasonable and fair and do not involve overreaching. Applicants state that the terms upon which an Underlying Fund will sell its shares to or purchase its shares from a Fund of Funds will be in accordance with the rules and regulations under the Act.
1. Section 12(d)(1)(G) of the Act provides that section 12(d)(1) will not apply to securities of an acquired company purchased by an acquiring company if: (i) The acquiring company and acquired company are part of the same “group of investment companies,” as defined in section 12(d)(1)(G)(ii) of the Act; (ii) the acquiring company holds only securities of acquired companies that are part of the same “group of investment companies,” as defined in section 12(d)(1)(G)(ii) of the Act, government securities, and short-term paper; (iii) the aggregate sales loads and distribution-related fees of the acquiring company and the acquired company are not excessive under rules adopted pursuant to section 22(b) or section 22(c) of the Act by a securities
2. Rule 12d1-2 under the Act permits a registered open-end investment company or a registered UIT that relies on section 12(d)(1)(G) of the Act to acquire, in addition to securities issued by another registered investment company in the same group of investment companies, government securities, and short-term paper: (1) Securities issued by an investment company that is not in the same group of investment companies, when the acquisition is in reliance on section 12(d)(1)(A) or 12(d)(1)(F) of the Act; (2) securities (other than securities issued by an investment company); and (3) securities issued by a money market fund, when the investment is in reliance on rule 12d1-1 under the Act. For the purposes of rule 12d1-2, “securities” means any security as defined in section 2(a)(36) of the Act.
3. Applicants state that the proposed arrangement would comply with rule 12d1-2 under the Act, but for the fact that the Section 12(d)(1)(G) Funds of Funds may invest a portion of their assets in Other Investments. Applicants request an order under section 6(c) of the Act for an exemption from rule 12d1-2(a) to allow the Section 12(d)(1)(G) Funds of Funds to invest in Other Investments. Applicants assert that permitting a Section 12(d)(1)(G) Fund of Funds to invest in Other Investments as described in the application would not raise any of the concerns that section 12(d)(1) of the Act was intended to address.
4. Consistent with its fiduciary obligations under the Act, a Section 12(d)(1)(G) Fund of Funds' Board will review the advisory fees charged by the Section 12(d)(1)(G) Fund of Funds' investment adviser(s) to ensure that the fees are based on services provided that are in addition to, rather than duplicative of, services provided pursuant to the advisory agreement of any investment company in which the Section 12(d)(1)(G) Fund of Funds may invest.
Applicants agree that the order granting the requested relief to permit Funds of Funds to invest in Underlying Funds shall be subject to the following conditions:
1. The members of the Group will not control (individually or in the aggregate) an Unaffiliated Fund within the meaning of section 2(a)(9) of the Act. The members of a Sub-Adviser Group will not control (individually or in the aggregate) an Unaffiliated Fund within the meaning of section 2(a)(9) of the Act. With respect to a Fund's investment in an Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company, (i) each member of the Group or Sub-Adviser Group that is an investment company or an issuer that would be an investment company but for section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of the Act will vote its shares of the Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company in the manner prescribed by section 12(d)(1)(E) of the Act and (ii) each other member of the Group or Sub-Adviser Group will vote its shares of the Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company in the same proportion as the vote of all other holders of the same type of such Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company's shares. If, as a result of a decrease in the outstanding voting securities of any other Unaffiliated Fund, the Group or a Sub-Adviser Group, each in the aggregate, becomes a holder of more than 25% of the outstanding voting securities of such Unaffiliated Fund, then the Group or the Sub-Adviser Group (except for any member of the Group or Sub-Adviser Group that is a Separate Account) will vote its shares of the Unaffiliated Fund in the same proportion as the vote of all other holders of the Unaffiliated Fund's shares. A Registered Separate Account will seek voting instructions from its Contract Owners and will vote its shares of an Unaffiliated Fund in accordance with the instructions received and will vote those shares for which no instructions were received in the same proportion as the shares for which instructions were received. An Unregistered Separate Account will either: (i) Vote its shares of the Unaffiliated Fund in the same proportion as the vote of all other holders of the Unaffiliated Fund's shares; or (ii) seek voting instructions from its Contract Owners and vote its shares in accordance with the instructions received and vote those shares for which no instructions were received in the same proportion as the shares for which instructions were received. This condition will not apply to a Sub-Adviser Group with respect to an Unaffiliated Fund for which the Sub-Adviser or a person controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the Sub-Adviser acts as the investment adviser within the meaning of section 2(a)(20)(A) of the Act (in the case of an Unaffiliated Investment Company) or as the sponsor (in the case of an Unaffiliated UIT).
2. No Fund of Funds or Fund of Funds Affiliate will cause any existing or potential investment by the Fund of Funds in an Unaffiliated Fund to influence the terms of any services or transactions between the Fund of Funds or a Fund of Funds Affiliate and the Unaffiliated Fund or an Unaffiliated Fund Affiliate.
3. The Board of each Fund of Funds, including a majority of the Independent Trustees, will adopt procedures reasonably designed to ensure that the Adviser and any Sub-Adviser to the Fund of Funds are conducting the investment program of the Fund of Funds without taking into account any consideration received by the Fund of Funds or Fund of Funds Affiliate from an Unaffiliated Fund or an Unaffiliated Fund Affiliate in connection with any services or transactions.
4. Once an investment by a Fund of Funds in the securities of an Unaffiliated Investment Company exceeds the limit of section 12(d)(1)(A)(i) of the Act, the Board of the Unaffiliated Investment Company, including a majority of the Independent Trustees, will determine that any consideration paid by the Unaffiliated Investment Company to a Fund of Funds or a Fund of Funds Affiliate in connection with any services or transactions: (a) Is fair and reasonable in relation to the nature and quality of the services and benefits received by the Unaffiliated Investment Company; (b) is within the range of consideration that the Unaffiliated Investment Company would be required to pay to another unaffiliated entity in connection with the same services or transactions; and (c) does not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned. This condition does not apply with respect to any services or transactions between an Unaffiliated Investment Company and its investment adviser(s), or any person controlling, controlled by, or under common control with such investment adviser(s).
5. No Fund of Funds or Fund of Funds Affiliate (except to the extent it is acting in its capacity as an investment adviser to an Unaffiliated Investment Company or sponsor to an Unaffiliated UIT) will cause an Unaffiliated Fund to purchase a security in any Affiliated Underwriting.
6. The Board of an Unaffiliated Investment Company, including a majority of the Independent Trustees, will adopt procedures reasonably
7. Each Unaffiliated Investment Company will maintain and preserve permanently, in an easily accessible place, a written copy of the procedures described in the preceding condition, and any modifications to such procedures, and will maintain and preserve for a period of not less than six years from the end of the fiscal year in which any purchase in an Affiliated Underwriting occurred, the first two years in an easily accessible place, a written record of each purchase of securities in an Affiliated Underwriting once an investment by a Fund of Funds in the securities of an Unaffiliated Investment Company exceeds the limit of section 12(d)(1)(A)(i) of the Act, setting forth (1) the party from whom the securities were acquired, (2) the identity of the underwriting syndicate's members, (3) the terms of the purchase, and (4) the information or materials upon which the determinations of the Board of the Unaffiliated Investment Company were made.
8. Prior to its investment in shares of an Unaffiliated Investment Company in excess of the limit set forth in section 12(d)(1)(A)(i) of the Act, the Fund of Funds and the Unaffiliated Investment Company will execute a Participation Agreement stating, without limitation, that their Boards and their investment advisers understand the terms and conditions of the order and agree to fulfill their responsibilities under the order. At the time of its investment in shares of an Unaffiliated Investment Company in excess of the limit set forth in section 12(d)(1)(A)(i), a Fund of Funds will notify the Unaffiliated Investment Company of the investment. At such time, the Fund of Funds will also transmit to the Unaffiliated Investment Company a list of the names of each Fund of Funds Affiliate and Underwriting Affiliate. The Fund of Funds will notify the Unaffiliated Investment Company of any changes to the list as soon as reasonably practicable after a change occurs. The Unaffiliated Investment Company and the Fund of Funds will maintain and preserve a copy of the order, the Participation Agreement, and the list with any updated information for the duration of the investment and for a period of not less than six years thereafter, the first two years in an easily accessible place.
9. Before approving any advisory contract under section 15 of the Act, the Board of each Fund of Funds, including a majority of the Independent Trustees, shall find that the advisory fees charged under the advisory contract are based on services provided that are in addition to, rather than duplicative of, services provided under the advisory contract(s) of any Underlying Fund in which the Fund of Funds may invest. Such finding, and the basis upon which the finding was made, will be recorded fully in the minute books of the appropriate Fund of Funds.
10. The Adviser will waive fees otherwise payable to it by a Fund of Funds in an amount at least equal to any compensation (including fees received pursuant to any plan adopted by an Unaffiliated Investment Company pursuant to rule 12b-1 under the Act) received from an Unaffiliated Fund (or its Wholly-Owned Subsidiary) by the Adviser, or an affiliated person of the Adviser, other than any advisory fees paid to the Adviser or its affiliated person by the Unaffiliated Investment Company (or its Wholly-Owned-Subsidiary), in connection with the investment by the Fund of Funds in the Unaffiliated Fund. Any Sub-Adviser will waive fees otherwise payable to the Sub-Adviser, directly or indirectly, by the Fund of Funds in an amount at least equal to any compensation received by the Sub-Adviser, or an affiliated person of the Sub-Adviser, from an Unaffiliated Fund (or its Wholly-Owned Subsidiary), other than any advisory fees paid to the Sub-Adviser or its affiliated person by the Unaffiliated Investment Company (or its Wholly-Owned Subsidiary), in connection with the investment by the Fund of Funds in the Unaffiliated Fund made at the direction of the Sub-Adviser. In the event that the Sub-Adviser waives fees, the benefit of the waiver will be passed through to the applicable Fund of Funds.
11. With respect to Registered Separate Accounts that invest in a Fund of Funds, no sales load will be charged at the Fund of Funds level or at the Underlying Fund level. Other sales charges and service fees, as defined in NASD Conduct Rule 2830, if any, will only be charged at the Fund of Funds level or at the Underlying Fund level, not both. With respect to other investments in a Fund of Funds, any sales charges and/or service fees charged with respect to shares of a Fund of Funds will not exceed the limits applicable to funds of funds set forth in NASD Conduct Rule 2830.
12. No Underlying Fund will acquire securities of any other investment company or company relying on section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of the Act, in excess of the limits contained in section 12(d)(1)(A) of the Act, other than any Wholly-Owned Subsidiary as described in the application, and except to the extent that such Underlying Fund: (a) Acquires such securities in compliance with section 12(d)(1)(E) of the Act and is either an Affiliated Fund or is in the same “group of investment companies” as its corresponding master fund; (b) receives securities of another investment company as a dividend or as a result of a plan of reorganization of a company (other than a plan devised for the purpose of evading section 12(d)(1) of the Act); or (c) acquires (or is deemed to have acquired) securities of another investment company pursuant to exemptive relief from the Commission permitting such Underlying Fund to: (i) Acquire securities of one or more investment companies for short-term cash management purposes or (ii) engage in inter-fund borrowing and lending transactions. Further, no Wholly-Owned Subsidiary will acquire securities of any other investment company or company relying on section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of the Act other than money market funds that comply with
In addition, applicants agree that the order granting the requested relief to permit Section 12(d)(1)(G) Funds of Funds to invest in Other Investments shall be subject to the following condition:
1. Applicants will comply with all provisions of rule 12d1-2 under the Act, except for paragraph (a)(2) to the extent that it restricts any Section 12(d)(1)(G) Fund of Funds from investing in Other Investments as described in the application.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, pursuant to delegated authority.
On June 23, 2015, Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
Accordingly, the Commission, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of an application under section 6(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Act”) for an exemption from section 15(a) of the Act and rule 18f-2 under the Act, as well as from certain disclosure requirements in rule 20a-1 under the Act, Item 19(a)(3) of Form N-1A, Items 22(c)(1)(ii), 22(c)(1)(iii), 22(c)(8) and 22(c)(9) of Schedule 14A under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, and sections 6-07(2)(a), (b), and (c) of Regulation S-X (“Disclosure Requirements”). The requested exemption would permit an investment adviser to hire and replace certain subadvisers without shareholder approval and grant relief from the Disclosure Requirements as they relate to fees paid to the subadvisers.
PSP Family of Funds (the “Trust”), a Delaware statutory trust registered under the Act as an open-end management investment company, and Pulteney Street Capital Management, LLC, a Delaware limited liability company registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (the “Adviser,” and, collectively with the Trust, the “Applicants”).
The application was filed on September 5, 2014 and amended on December 18, 2014, June 10, 2015, and July 27, 2015.
An order granting the application will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on September 8, 2015, and should be accompanied by proof of service on the applicants, in the form of an affidavit or, for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090. Applicants: Sean M. McCooey, PSP Family of Funds, 1345 Avenue of the Americas, 3rd Floor, New York, NY 10105; and Jeffrey T. Skinner, Esq., Kilpatrick, Townsend & Stockton LLP, 1001 W. Fourth Street, Winston-Salem, NC 27101.
Parisa Haghshenas, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-6723, or Holly Hunter-Ceci, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6869 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the
1. The Adviser will serve as the investment adviser to the Funds pursuant to an investment advisory agreement with the Trust (the “Advisory Agreement”).
2. Applicants request an exemption to permit the Adviser, subject to Board approval, to hire certain Subadvisers pursuant to Subadvisory Agreements and materially amend existing Subadvisory Agreements without obtaining the shareholder approval required under section 15(a) of the Act and rule 18f-2 under the Act.
3. Applicants agree that any order granting the requested relief will be subject to the terms and conditions stated in the Application. Such terms and conditions provide for, among other safeguards, appropriate disclosure to Fund shareholders and notification about subadvisory changes and enhanced Board oversight to protect the interests of the Funds' shareholders.
4. Section 6(c) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security, or transaction or any class or classes of persons, securities, or transactions from any provisions of the Act, or any rule thereunder, if such relief is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act. Applicants believe that the requested relief meets this standard because, as further explained in the Application, the Advisory Agreements will remain subject to shareholder approval, while the role of the Subadvisers is substantially similar to that of individual portfolio managers, so that requiring shareholder approval of Subadvisory Agreements would impose unnecessary delays and expenses on the Funds. Applicants believe that the requested relief from the Disclosure Requirements meets this standard because it will improve the Adviser's ability to negotiate fees paid to the Subadvisers that are more advantageous for the Funds.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
On May 5, 2015, ICE Clear Europe Limited (“ICE Clear Europe”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) a proposed rule change pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
ICE Clear Europe proposes to modify the Finance Procedures to allow Clearstream Banking to serve as a triparty collateral service provider for initial or original margin provided in respect of all product categories, including CDS Contracts. Clearstream Banking currently serves as a triparty collateral service provider solely for original margin provided in respect of F&O Contracts.
Specifically, paragraph 3.1 of the Finance Procedures will be revised to remove the existing restriction that Clearstream Banking may only act as a triparty collateral service provider with respect to Original Margin in respect of F&O Contracts. As a result of such
Section 19(b)(2)(C) of the Act
The Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with section 17A of the Act
On the basis of the foregoing, the Commission finds that the proposal is consistent with the requirements of the Act and in particular with the requirements of section 17A of the Act
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of an application for an order under section 6(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Act”) for an exemption from sections 2(a)(32), 5(a)(1), 22(d) and 22(e) of the Act and rule 22c-1 under the Act, under sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act for an exemption from sections 17(a)(1) and (a)(2) of the Act, and under section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act for an exemption from sections 12(d)(1)(A) and (B) of the Act.
ALPS ETMF Trust (the “Trust”), ALPS Advisors, Inc. (the “Adviser”) and ALPS Distributors, Inc., and ALPS Portfolio Solutions Distributor, Inc. (each, a “Distributor”).
Applicants request an order (“Order”) that permits: (a) Actively managed series of certain open-end management investment companies to issue shares (“Shares”) redeemable in large aggregations only (“Creation Units”); (b) secondary market transactions in Shares to occur at the next-determined net asset value plus or minus a market-determined premium or discount that may vary during the trading day; (c) certain series to pay redemption proceeds, under certain circumstances, more than seven days from the tender of Shares for redemption; (d) certain affiliated persons of the series to deposit securities into, and receive securities from, the series in connection with the purchase and redemption of Creation Units; (e) certain registered management investment companies and unit investment trusts outside of the same group of investment companies as the series to acquire Shares; and (f) certain series to create and redeem Shares in kind in a master-feeder structure. The Order would incorporate by reference terms and conditions of a previous order granting the same relief sought by applicants, as that order may be amended from time to time (“Reference Order”).
The application was filed on July 21, 2015.
An order granting the requested relief will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on September 8, 2015, and should be accompanied by proof of service on applicants, in the form of an affidavit or, for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
The Commission: Brent J. Fields, Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE.,
Jean E. Minarick, Senior Counsel, or Dalia Osman Blass, Assistant Chief Counsel, at (202) 551-6821 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. The Trust will be registered as an open-end management investment company under the Act and is a business trust organized under the laws of the state of Delaware. Applicants seek relief with respect to one Fund (as defined below, the “Initial Fund”). The portfolio positions of each Fund will consist of securities and other assets selected and managed by its Adviser or Subadviser (as defined below) to pursue the Fund's investment objective.
2. The Adviser, a Colorado corporation, will be the investment adviser to the Initial Fund. An Adviser (as defined below) will serve as investment adviser to each Fund. The Adviser is, and any other Adviser will be, registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (“Advisers Act”). The Adviser and the Trust may retain one or more subadvisers (each a “Subadviser”) to manage the portfolios of the Fund. Any Subadviser will be registered, or not subject to registration, under the Advisers Act.
3. Each Distributor is a Colorado corporation and a broker-dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 and will act as the principal underwriter of Shares of the Fund. Applicants request that the requested relief apply to any distributor of Shares, whether affiliated or unaffiliated with the Adviser (included in the term “Distributor”). Any Distributor will comply with the terms and conditions of the Order.
4. Applicants seek the requested Order under section 6(c) of the Act for an exemption from sections 2(a)(32), 5(a)(1), 22(d) and 22(e) of the Act and rule 22c-1 under the Act, under sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act for an exemption from sections 17(a)(1) and 17(a)(2) of the Act, and under section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act for an exemption from sections 12(d)(1)(A) and (B) of the Act. The requested Order would permit applicants to offer exchange-traded managed funds. Because the relief requested is the same as the relief granted by the Commission under the Reference Order and because the Adviser has entered into, or anticipates entering into, a licensing agreement with Eaton Vance Management, or an affiliate thereof in order to offer exchange-traded managed funds,
5. Applicants request that the Order apply to the Initial Fund and to any other existing or future open-end management investment company or series thereof that: (a) Is advised by the Adviser or any entity controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the Adviser (any such entity included in the term “Adviser”); and (b) operates as an exchange-traded managed fund as described in the Reference Order; and (c) complies with the terms and conditions of the Order and of the Reference Order, which is incorporated by reference herein (each such company or series and Initial Fund, a “Fund”).
6. Section 6(c) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security or transaction, or any class of persons, securities or transactions, from any provisions of the Act, if and to the extent that such exemption is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act. Section 17(b) of the Act authorizes the Commission to exempt a proposed transaction from section 17(a) of the Act if evidence establishes that the terms of the transaction, including the consideration to be paid or received, are reasonable and fair and do not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned, and the proposed transaction is consistent with the policies of the registered investment company and the general purposes of the Act. Section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security, or transaction, or any class or classes of persons, securities or transactions, from any provision of section 12(d)(1) if the exemption is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors.
7. Applicants submit that for the reasons stated in the Reference Order: (1) With respect to the relief requested pursuant to section 6(c) of the Act, the relief is appropriate, in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act; (2) with respect to the relief request pursuant to section 17(b) of the Act, the proposed transactions are reasonable and fair and do not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned, are consistent with the policies of each registered investment company concerned and consistent with the general purposes of the Act; and (3) with respect to the relief requested pursuant to section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act, the relief is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors.
By the Division of Investment Management, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 79A—Equities to delete Supplementary Material .20 requiring prior Floor Official approval before a Designated Market Maker (“DMM”) can initiate certain trades more than one or two dollars away from the last sale. The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 79A—Equities (“Rule 79A”) to delete Supplementary Material .20, which requires prior Floor Official approval for certain DMM dealer trades more than one or two dollars away from the last sale, and to make conforming amendments to Rules 48—Equities (“Rule 48”), 80C—Equities (“Rule 80C”) and Rule 476A to delete references to Rule 79A.20.
Background
Currently, except with respect to inactively traded securities the Exchange shall from time to time identify, Rule 79A.20(a) requires DMMs to obtain prior Floor Official approval for all transactions in stocks by the DMM as dealer (when the market is slow)
The principles embodied in Rule 79A.20 are based on New York Stock Exchange LLC (“NYSE”) Rule 79A.20 and were originally aimed at preventing undue price dislocation by the specialist at the opening.
In 2006, the Commission approved the NYSE's adoption of a “hybrid market” under which NYSE systems assumed the function of matching and executing electronically-entered orders but specialists remained the responsible broker-dealer for orders on the Exchange's limit order book.
Since that time, additional, significant market structure changes have continued to obviate the need for Rule 79A.20. In particular, in 2008, the NYSE and the Exchange adopted the New Market Model, which transformed specialists into DMMs, who are no longer agents for the Exchange's limit order book and whose trading activity on the Exchange is limited to proprietary trading.
The Exchange proposes to delete Rule 79A.20. As discussed below, the situations where the Rule would be invoked are now limited to the open, reopenings and the close, where market transparency and existing safeguards render the Rule unnecessary and duplicative of other rules requiring Floor Official approval.
As noted above, the recent elimination of LRPs and the Gap Quote Policy removed the remaining intra-day events when the Exchange's market was “slow” and DMM pricing decisions that could trigger Rule 79A.20 approvals. As such, trading circumstances warranting Rule 79A.20 review are now limited to manual DMM participation when a security moves one or two dollars from the last sale (based on whether the security is under $20 or $20 and over) at either the open, close or, more rarely, intraday during reopenings.
In light of the transparency surrounding the open and close and the involvement of Floor Officials in those processes, the Exchange believes that there is no longer a need for Floor Officials to separately approve individual DMM transactions under Rule 79A.20. First, as described above, the NYSE significantly enhanced the transparency surrounding the open and close with the introduction of a real-time Order Imbalance Information data feed in 2008, which the Exchange adopted. This proprietary data feed, disseminated prior to the open pursuant to Rule 15(c)(1)—Equities
Second, in addition to disseminating Order Imbalance Information, the Exchange's Rules require the timely communication of price dislocations and unusual market situations, including delayed openings, to the marketplace. Rule 15(a)—Equities provides that if the opening transaction in a security will be at a price that represents a change of more than the “applicable price change” specified in the Rule (representing a numerical or percentage change from the security's closing price per share or, in the case of an IPO, the security's offering price), the DMM arranging the opening transaction or the Exchange must issue a pre-opening indication (a “Rule 15 Indication”), which represents a range of where a security may open. The Rule 15 Indication is a price range that is published on the Exchange's proprietary data feeds prior to the scheduled opening time. A Rule 15 Indication includes the security and the price range within which the DMM anticipates the opening transaction will occur, and would include any orally-represented Floor broker interest for the open.
Similarly, Rule 123D—Equities Mandatory Indications are required for an opening that will result in a “significant” price change from the previous close. For securities priced under $10, indications are required under Rule 123D(1) if the price change is one dollar or more; for securities between $10 and $99.99, indications are required for price movements of the lesser of 10% or three dollars; and for securities over $100, indications are required for price movements of five dollars or more. Rule 123D(1)—Equities requires DMMs to disseminate one or more indications in connection with any delayed opening where a security has not opened or been quoted by 10 a.m. (“Rule 123D Mandatory Indication”). The DMM is responsible for publishing the Rule 123D Mandatory Indication and, when determining the price range for the indication, take into consideration Floor broker interest that has been orally entered and what, at a given time, the DMM anticipates the dealer participation in the opening transaction would be. Rule 123D Mandatory Indications are published to the Consolidated Tape.
Importantly, all Rule 123D Mandatory Indications require the supervision and approval of a Floor Official. Rule 123D approvals are therefore similar to Rule 79A.20 approvals. In fact, on NYSE, almost half of Floor Official approvals under Rule 79A.20 also occur in situations where a mandatory indication was published pursuant to Rule 123D. In these circumstances, requiring the Floor Official to separately approve a price movement under Rule 79A.20 would be duplicative.
The Exchange further notes that the Floor Official approval requirements of Rule 79A.20 impede the ability of a DMM to open or close a security electronically at the Exchange if the security were to open one or two points away from the last sale. As a practical matter, the only way for Floor Officials to approve trades more than one or two dollars away from the last sale in the case of an electronic open or close would be to turn a fast market into a “slow” one and potentially open the security after 9:30 a.m., which was one of the rationales for eliminating virtually all Rule 79A.20 approvals in 2007 on the NYSE.
With respect to the separate Rule 79A.20 requirement that the DMM obtain Floor Official approvals when the market is fast and the DMM as dealer is reaching across the market,
Even if obtaining Floor Official approvals were practical, the Exchange believes that the combination of volatility and system controls in place that were unavailable in 2007 render such approvals unnecessary. DMM dealer trades one or two points away from the last sale that reach across the market would continue to be subject to the Limit Up/Limit Down (“LULD”) price controls, as provided for in Rule 80C(a)(4)—Equities, the Trading Collars, as provided for in Rule 1000(c)—Equities, and the numerical guidelines for determining whether a clearly erroneous execution has occurred under Rule 128—Equities. In addition, as the NYSE noted in a different context,
Finally, DMM pricing decisions at the open and close and during fast markets are subject to specific DMM obligations with respect to the quality of the markets in securities to which they are assigned. In general, transactions on the Exchange by a DMM for the DMM's account must be effected in a reasonable and orderly manner in relation to the condition of the general market and the market in the particular stock.
As noted, DMMs have affirmative obligations under Rule 104(a)—Equities to engage in a course of dealings for their own account to assist in the maintenance of a fair and orderly market insofar as reasonably practicable. Specifically, Rule 104(f)(ii)—Equities sets forth the DMM's obligation to act as reasonably necessary to ensure appropriate depth and maintain reasonable price variations between transactions (also known as price continuity) and prevent unexpected variations in trading. Further, under Rule 123D(1)—Equities, openings and reopenings must be fair and orderly, reflecting the DMM's professional assessment of market conditions at the time, and appropriate consideration of the balance of supply and demand as reflected by orders represented in the market. The Exchange also supplies DMMs with suggested Depth Guidelines for each security in which a DMM is registered, and DMMs are expected to quote and trade with reference to the Depth Guidelines. Further, the DMM's affirmative obligation includes obligations to re-enter the market when reaching across to execute against available interest. For instance, under Rule 104(h)—Equities, DMMs can engage in conditional transactions that establish or increase a position and that reach across the market without restriction provided such transactions are followed by appropriate re-entry on the opposite side of the market commensurate with the size of the DMM's transaction.
The Exchange believes that the availability and dissemination of Order Imbalance Information, Rule 15 Indications and 123D Mandatory Indications, together with the DMM's existing affirmative and other obligations pursuant to Rule 104, provide an appropriate framework in today's market structure for ensuring that opening or closing transactions that occur at a price significantly away from the last sale price are communicated to all market participants. In particular, because of this transparency, the open and close are subject to greater scrutiny by all market participants, which in of itself serves as a check on where a DMM opens or closes a security. The Exchange therefore believes that the need for a Floor Official to review a DMM's actions at the open or close, which was adopted in a time when there was no market-wide transparency regarding pricing of the open or close, is redundant of existing oversight of the open and close.
For all of these reasons, the Exchange believes that requiring separate Floor Official approvals for one and two dollar price movements is no longer necessary.
The Exchange also proposes to delete references to Rule 79A.20 from Rules 48, 80C and 476A. In the case of Rule 48, the reference to be removed would be to Rule 79A.30—Equities. Rule 48 was not updated when the text of the Rule was moved from Supplementary Material .30 to .20.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange further believes that deleting corresponding references to Rule 79A.20 in other rules would remove impediments to and perfects the mechanism of a free and open market by reducing potential confusion and adding transparency and clarity to the Exchange's rules, thereby ensuring that members, regulators and the public can more easily navigate and understand the Exchange's rulebook.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is not intended to address competitive issues but rather to eliminate redundant approvals of manual trades on its trading Floor.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under section 19(b)(2)(B)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission.
Notice of an application for an order under section 6(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Act”) for an exemption from sections 2(a)(32), 5(a)(1), 22(d) and 22(e) of the Act and rule 22c-1 under the Act, under sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act for an exemption from sections 17(a)(1) and (a)(2) of the Act, and under section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act for an exemption from sections 12(d)(1)(A) and (B) of the Act.
Ivy NextShares (the “Trust”), Ivy Investment Management Company (the “Manager”) and Ivy Funds Distributor, Inc. (the “Distributor”).
Applicants request an order (“Order”) that permits: (a) Actively managed series of certain open-end management investment companies to issue shares (“Shares”) redeemable in large aggregations only (“Creation Units”); (b) secondary market transactions in Shares to occur at the next-determined net asset value plus or minus a market-determined premium or discount that may vary during the trading day; (c) certain series to pay redemption proceeds, under certain circumstances, more than seven days from the tender of Shares for redemption; (d) certain affiliated persons of the series to deposit securities into, and receive securities from, the series in connection with the purchase and redemption of Creation Units; (e) certain registered management investment companies and unit investment trusts outside of the same group of investment companies as the series to acquire Shares; and (f) certain series to create and redeem Shares in kind in a master-feeder structure. The Order would incorporate by reference terms and conditions of a previous order granting the same relief sought by applicants, as that order may be amended from time to time (“Reference Order”).
Filing Dates: The application was filed on July 21, 2015.
An order granting the requested relief will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on September 8, 2015, and should be accompanied by proof of service on applicants, in the form of an affidavit or, for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
The Commission: Brent J. Fields, Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090. Applicants: 6300 Lamar Avenue Overland Park, Kansas 66202.
Jean E. Minarick, Senior Counsel, or Dalia Osman Blass, Assistant Chief Counsel, at (202) 551-6821 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. The Trust will be registered as an open-end management investment company under the Act and is a business trust organized under the laws of Delaware. Applicants seek relief with respect to three Funds (as defined below, and those Funds, the “Initial Funds”). The portfolio positions of each Fund will consist of securities and other assets selected and managed by its Manager or Subadviser (as defined below) to pursue the Fund's investment objective.
2. The Manager, a Delaware corporation, will be the investment manager to the Initial Funds. A Manager (as defined below) will serve as investment manager to each Fund. The Manager is, and any other Manager will be, registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (“Advisers Act”). The Manager and the Trust may retain one or more subadvisers (each a “Subadviser”) to manage the portfolios of the Funds. Any Subadviser will be registered, or not subject to registration, under the Advisers Act.
3. The Distributor is a Florida Corporation and a broker-dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 and will act as the principal underwriter of Shares of the Funds. Applicants request that the requested relief apply to any distributor of Shares, whether affiliated or unaffiliated with the Manager (included in the term “Distributor”). Any Distributor will comply with the terms and conditions of the Order.
4. Applicants seek the requested Order under section 6(c) of the Act for an exemption from sections 2(a)(32), 5(a)(1), 22(d) and 22(e) of the Act and rule 22c-1 under the Act, under sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act for an exemption from sections 17(a)(1) and 17(a)(2) of the Act, and under section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act for an exemption from sections 12(d)(1)(A) and (B) of the Act. The requested Order would permit applicants to offer exchange-traded managed funds. Because the relief requested is the same as the relief granted by the Commission under the Reference Order and because the Manager has entered into, or anticipates entering into, a licensing agreement with Eaton Vance Management, or an affiliate thereof in order to offer exchange-traded managed funds,
5. Applicants request that the Order apply to the Initial Funds and to any other existing or future open-end management investment company or series thereof that: (a) Is advised by the Manager or any entity controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the Manager (any such entity included in the term “Manager”); and (b) operates as an exchange-traded managed fund as described in the Reference Order; and (c) complies with the terms and conditions of the Order and of the Reference Order, which is incorporated by reference herein (each such company or series and Initial Fund, a “Fund”).
6. Section 6(c) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security or transaction, or any class of persons, securities or transactions, from any provisions of the Act, if and to the extent that such exemption is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act. Section 17(b) of the Act authorizes the Commission to exempt a proposed transaction from section 17(a) of the Act if evidence establishes that the terms of the transaction, including the consideration to be paid or received, are reasonable and fair and do not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned, and the proposed transaction is consistent with the policies of the registered investment company and the general purposes of the Act. Section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security, or transaction, or any class or classes of persons, securities or transactions, from any provision of section 12(d)(1) if the
7. Applicants submit that for the reasons stated in the Reference Order: (1) With respect to the relief requested pursuant to section 6(c) of the Act, the relief is appropriate, in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act; (2) with respect to the relief request pursuant to section 17(b) of the Act, the proposed transactions are reasonable and fair and do not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned, are consistent with the policies of each registered investment company concerned and consistent with the general purposes of the Act; and (3) with respect to the relief requested pursuant to section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act, the relief is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors.
By the Division of Investment Management, pursuant to delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of an application under section 6(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Act”) for an exemption from sections 18(c) and 18(i) of the Act and for an order pursuant to section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act.
Applicants request an order to permit certain registered closed-end management investment companies to issue multiple classes of limited liability company units (“Units”) with sales loads and/or asset-based distribution and/or service fees and contingent deferred sales loads (“CDSCs”).
FEG Absolute Access TEI Fund LLC (the “Fund”), FEG Absolute Access Fund LLC (the “Master Fund”), and FEG Investors, LLC (the “Adviser”).
The application was filed on August 22, 2014, and amended on January 9, 2015, and June 26, 2015.
An order granting the requested relief will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on September 8, 2015, and should be accompanied by proof of service on applicants, in the form of an affidavit or, for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090; Applicants, 201 East Fifth Street, Suite 1600, Cincinnati, OH 45202.
Christine Y. Greenlees, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-6879 or David P. Bartels, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6821 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. The Fund and the Master Fund are non-diversified closed-end management investment companies registered under the Act and organized as Delaware limited liability companies.
2. The Fund continuously offers Units in private placements in reliance on the provisions of Regulation D under the Securities Act of 1933, as amended (“Securities Act”).
3. The Fund currently issues a single class of Units (the “Initial Class”) at net asset value per Unit. The Initial Class is not currently subject to any distribution and/or service fees. Units that are not subject to a sales load or distribution and/or service fees when purchased will not subsequently be subject to a sales load or distribution and/or service fees. Investors who subscribe for Units and are admitted to the Fund become members (“Members”) of the Fund. If the requested relief is granted, the Fund intends to redesignate its Initial Class as “Class I.” Additionally, if the requested relief is granted, the Fund currently intends to continuously offer at least two additional classes of Units, “Class II” and “Class III,” with each class having its own fee and expense structure. For Class III Units, sales of the Units will be subject to a front-end sales load based on the offering price of the Units (
4. In order to provide a limited degree of liquidity to Members, the Fund may from time to time offer to repurchase Units at their then current net asset value pursuant to rule 13e-4 under the 1934 Act pursuant to written tenders by Members.
5. Applicants request that the order also apply to any other continuously offered registered closed-end management investment company existing now or in the future for which the Adviser or any entity controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the Adviser acts as investment adviser, and which provides periodic liquidity with respect to its Units pursuant to rule 13e-4 under the 1934 Act.
6. Applicants represent that any asset-based service and/or distribution fees will comply with the provisions of rule 2830(d) of the Conduct Rules of the National Association of Securities Dealers, Inc. (“NASD Conduct Rule 2830”).
7. The Fund will allocate all expenses incurred by it among the various classes of Units based on the net assets of the Fund attributable to each class, except that the net asset value and expenses of each class will reflect distribution fees, service fees, and any other incremental expenses of that class. Expenses of a Fund allocated to a particular class of Units will be borne on a pro rata basis by each outstanding Unit of that class. Applicants state that the Fund will comply with the provisions of rule 18f-3 under the Act as if it were an open-end investment company.
8. Although the Fund does not currently intend to impose CDSCs, the Fund will only impose a CDSC in compliance with rule 6c-10 as if that rule applied to closed-end management investment companies. Applicants further state that, in the event it imposes CDSCs, the Fund will apply the CDSCs (and any waivers or scheduled variations of the CDSCs) uniformly to all Members of a given class and consistently with the requirements of rule 22d-1 under the Act.
1. Section 18(c) of the Act provides, in relevant part, that a closed-end investment company may not issue or sell any senior security if, immediately thereafter, the company has outstanding more than one class of senior security. Applicants state that the creation of multiple classes of Units of the Fund may be prohibited by section 18(c).
2. Section 18(i) of the Act provides that each share of stock issued by a registered management investment company will be a voting stock and have equal voting rights with every other outstanding voting stock. Applicants state that permitting multiple classes of Units of the Fund may violate section 18(i) of the Act because each class would be entitled to exclusive voting rights with respect to matters solely related to that class.
3. Section 6(c) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security or transaction or any class or classes of persons, securities or transactions from any provision of the Act, or from any rule under the Act, if and to the extent such exemption is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act. Applicants request an exemption under section 6(c) from sections 18(c) and 18(i) to permit the Fund to issue multiple classes of Units.
4. Applicants believe that the proposed allocation of expenses relating to distribution and voting rights is equitable and will not discriminate against any group or class of Members. Applicants submit that the proposed arrangements would permit the Fund to facilitate the distribution of its Units and provide investors with a broader choice of Member options. Applicants assert that the proposed closed-end investment company multiple class structure does not raise the concerns underlying section 18 of the Act to any greater degree than open-end investment companies' multiple class structures that are permitted by rule 18f-3 under the Act. Applicants state that the Fund will comply with the provisions of rule 18f-3 as if it were an open-end investment company.
1. Rule 6c-10 under the Act permits open-end investment companies to impose CDSCs, subject to certain conditions. Applicants state that although the Fund does not currently intend to impose CDSCs, the Fund will only impose a CDSC in compliance with rule 6c-10 as if that rule applied to closed-end management investment companies. The Fund would also make required disclosures in accordance with the requirements of Form N-1A concerning CDSCs as if the Fund were an open-end investment company. Applicants further state that, in the event it imposes CDSCs, the Fund will apply the CDSCs (and any waivers or scheduled variations of the CDSCs) uniformly to all Members of a given class and consistently with the requirements of rule 22d-1 under the Act.
1. To the extent the Fund determines to waive, impose scheduled variations of, or eliminate the Early Repurchase Fee, it will do so consistently with the requirements of Rule 22d-1 under the Act and the Fund's waiver of, scheduled variation in, or elimination of, the Early Repurchase Fee will apply uniformly to all classes of Units of the Fund.
1. Section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act prohibit an affiliated person of a registered investment company or an affiliated person of such person, acting as principal, from participating in or effecting any transaction in connection with any joint enterprise or joint arrangement in which the investment company participates unless the Commission issues an order permitting the transaction. In reviewing applications submitted under section 17(d) and rule 17d-1, the Commission considers whether the participation of the investment company in a joint enterprise or joint arrangement is consistent with the provisions, policies and purposes of the Act, and the extent to which the participation is on a basis different from or less advantageous than that of other participants.
2. Rule 17d-3 under the Act provides an exemption from section 17(d) and rule 17d-1 to permit open-end investment companies to enter into distribution arrangements pursuant to rule 12b-1 under the Act. Applicants request an order under section 17(d) and rule 17d-1 under the Act to permit the Fund to impose asset-based service and/or distribution fees. Applicants have agreed to comply with rules 12b-1 and 17d-3 as if those rules applied to closed-end investment companies.
For the reasons stated above, applicants submit that the exemptions requested under section 6(c) are necessary and appropriate in the public interest and are consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act. Applicants also believe that the requested relief meets the standards for relief in section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 thereunder.
Applicants agree that any order granting the requested relief will be subject to the following condition:
Each Fund relying on the order will comply with the provisions of rules 6c-10, 12b-1, 17d-3, 18f-3 and 22d-1 under the Act, as amended from time to time or replaced, as if those rules applied to closed-end management investment companies, and will comply with the NASD Conduct Rule 2830, as amended from time to time, as if that rule applied to all closed-end management investment companies.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
NASDAQ proposes to list and trade the shares of the 1-3 Month Enhanced Short Duration ETF
The text of the proposed rule change is available at
In its filing with the Commission, NASDAQ included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. NASDAQ has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to list and trade the Shares of the Fund under NASDAQ Rule 5735, which governs the listing and trading of Managed Fund Shares
New York Alaska ETF Management, LLC will be the investment adviser (“Adviser”) to the Fund. Foreside Fund Services, LLC (the “Distributor”) will be the principal underwriter and distributor of the Fund's Shares. The Bank of New York Mellon (“BNY Mellon”) will act as the administrator, accounting agent, custodian, and transfer agent to the Fund.
Paragraph (g) of Rule 5735 provides that if the investment adviser to the investment company issuing Managed Fund Shares is affiliated with a broker-dealer, such investment adviser shall erect a “fire wall” between the investment adviser and the broker-dealer with respect to access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to such investment company portfolio.
The Fund's investment objective is to seek current income consistent with preservation of capital and daily liquidity. Under normal market conditions,
All of the Fund's assets will be invested in U.S. dollar-denominated securities.
In order to enhance income, the Fund intends to enter into securities lending, repurchase agreement, and/or reverse repurchase agreement
The Fund may enter into repurchase and reverse repurchase agreements with broker/dealers, institutional investors, banks, and insurance and/or reinsurance companies located in the member countries of the OECD. Repurchase transactions involve the purchase of securities with an agreement to resell the securities at an agreed-upon price, date and interest payment. Reverse repurchase transactions involve the sale of securities with an agreement to repurchase the securities at an agreed-upon price, date and interest payment and have the characteristics of borrowing. With respect to repurchase agreements and reverse repurchase agreements, proceeds (collateral) received under master agreements issued by SIFMA or ICMA (International Capital Markets Association) must be equal to or greater than the market value of the sold securities and either (i) cash, (ii) U.S Treasury securities, or (iii) debt securities secured by U.S. Treasury Securities (such debt securities typically will be issued pursuant to Rule 144A and will be secured by a pledge to the note holder of U.S. Treasury Securities with a market value equal to or greater than the face value of the debt security). All collateral will have a maturity of three months or less. The collateral is marked to market daily and valued in accordance with the Fund's valuation procedures. The price paid to repurchase the security reflects interest accrued during the term of the agreement.
In order to seek its investment objective, the Fund will not employ other strategies outside of the above-described “Principal Investments.”
Under normal market conditions, the Fund will invest substantially all, but not less than, 80% of its net assets (exclusive of collateral with respect to securities lending, repurchase, and reverse repurchase agreement transactions), plus any borrowings for investment purposes, in U.S. Treasury securities, which include bills, notes, and bonds issued by the U.S. Treasury, that have remaining maturities of greater than or equal to one month and less than three months.
The Fund may hold up to an aggregate amount of 15% of its net assets in illiquid securities, including repurchase and reverse repurchase agreements maturing in more than seven days, and other illiquid assets (calculated at the time of investment). The Fund will monitor its portfolio liquidity on an ongoing basis to determine whether, in light of current circumstances, an adequate level of liquidity is being maintained, and will consider taking appropriate steps in order to maintain adequate liquidity if, through a change in values, net assets, or other circumstances, more than 15% of the Fund's net assets are held in illiquid securities or other illiquid assets. Illiquid securities and other illiquid assets include securities subject to contractual or other restrictions on resale and other instruments that lack readily available markets as determined in accordance with Commission staff guidance.
The Fund intends to qualify for and to elect to be treated as a separate regulated investment company under Subchapter M of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.
The net asset value (“NAV”) per Share for the Fund is computed by dividing the value of the net assets of the Fund (
For purposes of calculating NAV, portfolio securities and other assets for which market quotes are readily available are valued at market value. Market value is generally determined on the basis of last reported sales prices, or if no sales are reported, based on quotes
Securities and other assets for which market quotes are not readily available are valued at fair value as determined in good faith by the Board of Trustees or persons acting at their direction. The Board of Trustees has adopted methods for fair valuation, and has delegated to the Adviser the responsibility for applying the valuation methods.
Market quotes are considered not readily available in circumstances where there is an absence of current or reliable market-based data (
When the Fund uses fair value pricing to determine its NAV, securities will not be priced on the basis of quotes from the primary market in which they are traded, but rather may be priced by another method that the Board of Trustees or persons acting at their direction believe reflects fair value. Fair value pricing may require subjective determinations about the value of a security. While the Trust's policy is intended to result in a calculation of the Fund's NAV that fairly reflects security values as of the time of pricing, the Trust cannot ensure that fair values determined by the Board of Trustees or persons acting at their direction would accurately reflect the price that the Fund could obtain for a security if it were to dispose of that security as of the time of pricing (for instance, in a forced or distressed sale). The prices used by the Fund may differ from the value that would be realized if the securities were sold.
Securities lending transactions, repurchase agreements and reverse repurchase agreements transactions will be valued at the combined value of (i) the value of the underlying Fund asset utilized in the transaction and (ii) the relative realized profit value, added daily.
The Trust will issue and sell Shares of the Fund only in Creation Unit aggregations, and only in aggregations of 25,000 Shares, on a continuous basis through the Distributor, without an initial sales load, at the NAV next determined after receipt, on any business day, of an order in proper form.
The consideration for purchase of Creation Units may consist of: (i) The in-kind deposit of a designated portfolio of securities closely approximating the holdings of the Fund (the “Deposit Securities”), and (ii) an amount of cash denominated in U.S. Dollars (the “Cash Component”) computed as described-below. Together, the Deposit Securities and the Cash Component-constitute the “Fund Deposit,” which represents the minimum initial and subsequent investment amount for a Creation Unit of the Fund. The Trust expects that Creation Units will be in kind, but may be in cash at the discretion of the Fund as and to the extent permitted by the Fund's Exemptive Order.
The Fund may permit or require the consideration for Creation Units to consist solely of cash. The Fund may permit or require the substitution of an amount of cash denominated in U.S. Dollars (
The Cash Component is sometimes also referred to as the “Balancing Amount.” The Cash Component serves the function of compensating for any differences between the NAV per Creation Unit value of the Deposit Securities. If the Cash Component is a positive number (
BNY Mellon, through the National Securities Clearing Corporation (“NSCC”), will make available on each business day, prior to the opening of business (subject to amendments) on the Exchange (currently 9:30 a.m. E.T.), the identity and the required number of each Deposit Security and the amount of the Cash Component (or Cash Deposit) to be included in the current Fund Deposit (based on information at the end of the previous business day). Such Fund Deposit will be applicable in order to effect creations of Creation Unit aggregations of the Fund until such time as the next-announced composition of the Deposit Securities is made available. BNY Mellon, through the NSCC, will also make available on each business day, prior to the opening of business of the Exchange (currently 9:30 a.m. E.T.), the list of the names and the quantity of each security to be included (based on information at the end of the previous business day) (“Fund Securities”) in order to affect redemptions of Creation Unit aggregations of the Fund until such time as the next-announced composition of the Fund Securities is
To be eligible to place orders with the Distributor and to create a Creation Unit of the Fund, an entity must be a Depository Trust Company (“DTC”) participant, such as a broker-dealer, bank, trust company, clearing corporation or certain other organization, some of whom (and/or their representatives) own DTC (each a “DTC Participant”). DTC acts as a securities depositary for the Shares. The DTC Participant must have executed an agreement with the Distributor with respect to creations and redemptions of Creation Units (“Participant Agreement”). A DTC Participant that has executed a Participant Agreement is referred to as an “Authorized Participant.” Investors should contact the Distributor for the names of Authorized Participants that have signed a Participant Agreement. All Shares of the Fund, however created, will be entered on the records of DTC in the name of DTC or its nominee and deposited with, or on behalf of, DTC.
All orders to create Shares must be placed for one or more Creation Units. Orders must be transmitted by an Authorized Participant pursuant to procedures set forth in the Participant Agreement. The date on which an order to create Creation Units (or an order to redeem Creation Units, as discussed below) is placed is referred to as the “Transmittal Date.” Orders must be transmitted by an Authorized Participant by telephone or other transmission method acceptable to the Distributor pursuant to procedures set forth in the Participant Agreement. Economic or market disruptions or changes, or telephone or other communication failure, may impede the ability to reach the Distributor or an Authorized Participant.
The process to redeem Creation Units works much like the process to purchase Creation Units, but in reverse. Orders to redeem Creation Units of the Fund must be delivered through an Authorized Participant. Investors other than Authorized Participants are responsible for making arrangements for a redemption request to be made through an Authorized Participant. Orders must be accompanied or followed by the requisite number of Shares of the Fund specified in such order, which delivery must be made to the Distributor no later than 10:00 a.m. E.T. on the next business day following the Transmittal Date.
The Fund's Web site (
A basket composition file, which will include the security names and quantities of securities and other assets required to be delivered in exchange for Fund Shares, if applicable, together with estimates and actual cash components, will be publicly disseminated prior to the opening of the Exchange via the NSCC. The basket will represent one Creation Unit of the Fund. The NAV of the Fund will normally be determined as of the close of the regular trading session on the Exchange (ordinarily 4:00 p.m. E.T.) on each business day.
In addition, an estimated value, defined in Rule 5735 as the “Intraday Indicative Value” (as defined in Nasdaq Rule 5753(c)(3)), that reflects an estimated intraday value of the Fund's portfolio, will be disseminated. Moreover, the Intraday Indicative Value, available on the NASDAQ OMX Information LLC proprietary index data service,
The dissemination of the Intraday Indicative Value, together with the Disclosed Portfolio, will allow investors to determine the value of the underlying portfolio of the Fund on a daily basis and to provide a close estimate of that value throughout the trading day.
Investors can also obtain the Trust's Statement of Additional Information
Information regarding market price and trading volume of the Shares will be continually available on a real-time basis throughout the day on brokers' computer screens and other electronic services. The previous day's closing price and trading volume information for the Shares will be published daily in the financial section of newspapers. Quotation and last sale information for the Shares will be available via NASDAQ proprietary quote and trade services, as well in accordance with the Unlisted Trading Privileges and the Consolidated Tape Association plans, as applicable.
Securities lending transactions, repurchase agreements and reverse repurchase agreements transactions will be priced at the combined value of (i) the value of the underlying Fund asset utilized in the transaction and (ii) the relative realized profit value, added daily.
Intra-day, executable price quotations on U.S. Treasury Securities are available through subscription services such as Bloomberg, TradeWeb, E-Speed, Tullett Prebon, the U.S. Treasury Department, and/or Interactive Brokers, which can be accessed by Authorized Participants and other investors.
Additional information regarding the Fund and the Shares, including investment strategies, risks, creation and redemption procedures, fees, Fund holdings disclosure policies, distribution and taxes will be included in the Registration Statement.
The Shares will be subject to Rule 5735, which sets forth the initial and continued listing criteria applicable to Managed Fund Shares. The Exchange represents that, for initial and/or continued listing, the Fund must be in compliance with Rule 10A-3 under the Act.
With respect to trading halts, the Exchange may consider all relevant factors in exercising its discretion to halt or suspend trading in the Shares of the Fund. NASDAQ will halt trading in the Shares under the conditions specified in NASDAQ Rules 4120 and 4121, including the trading pauses under NASDAQ Rules 4120(a)(11) and (12). Trading may be halted because of market conditions or for reasons that, in the view of the Exchange, make trading in the Shares inadvisable. These may include: (1) The extent to which trading is not occurring in the securities and other assets constituting the Disclosed Portfolio of the Fund; or (2) whether other unusual conditions or circumstances detrimental to the maintenance of a fair and orderly market are present. Trading in the Shares also will be subject to Rule 5735(d)(2)(D), which sets forth circumstances under which Shares of the Fund may be halted.
NASDAQ deems the Shares to be equity securities, thus rendering trading in the Shares subject to NASDAQ's existing rules governing the trading of equity securities. NASDAQ will allow trading in the Shares from 4:00 a.m. until 8:00 p.m. E.T. The Exchange has appropriate rules to facilitate transactions in the Shares during all trading sessions. As provided in NASDAQ Rule 5735(b)(3), the minimum price variation for quoting and entry of orders in Managed Fund Shares traded on the Exchange is $0.01.
The Exchange represents that trading in the Shares will be subject to the existing trading surveillances, administered by both NASDAQ and also the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (“FINRA”) on behalf of the Exchange, which are designed to detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws.
The surveillances referred to above generally focus on detecting securities trading outside their normal patterns, which could be indicative of manipulative or other violative activity. When such situations are detected, surveillance analysis follows and investigations are opened, where appropriate, to review the behavior of all relevant parties for all relevant trading violations.
FINRA may, if applicable, obtain information via the Intermarket Surveillance Group (“ISG”)
In addition, the Exchange also has a general policy prohibiting the distribution of material, non-public information by its employees.
Prior to the commencement of trading, the Exchange will inform its members in an Information Circular of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares. Specifically, the Information Circular will discuss the following: (1) The procedures for purchases and redemptions of Shares in Creation Units (and that Shares are not individually redeemable); (2) NASDAQ Rule 2111A, which imposes suitability obligations on NASDAQ members with respect to recommending transactions in the Shares to customers; (3) how information regarding the Intraday Indicative Value and the Disclosed Portfolio is disseminated; (4) the risks involved in trading the Shares during the Pre-Market and Post-Market Sessions when an updated Intraday Indicative Value will not be calculated or publicly disseminated; (5) the requirement that members deliver a prospectus to investors purchasing newly issued Shares prior to or concurrently with the confirmation of a transaction; and (6) trading information.
In addition, the Information Circular will advise members, prior to the commencement of trading, of the prospectus delivery requirements applicable to the Fund. Members purchasing Shares from the Fund for resale to investors will deliver a prospectus to such investors. The Information Circular will also discuss
Additionally, the Information Circular will disclose the trading hours of the Shares of the Fund and the applicable NAV calculation time for the Shares. The Information Circular will also disclose that information about the Shares of the Fund will be publicly available on the Fund's Web site.
NASDAQ believes that the proposal is consistent with section 6(b) of the Act in general and section 6(b)(5) of the Act in particular in that it is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in facilitating transactions in securities, and to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and in general, to protect investors and the public interest.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices in that the Shares will be listed and traded on the Exchange pursuant to the initial and continued listing criteria in NASDAQ Rule 5735. The Exchange represents that trading in the Shares will be subject to the existing trading surveillances, administered by both NASDAQ and FINRA on behalf of the Exchange, which are designed to detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws. In addition, paragraph (g) of NASDAQ Rule 5735 further requires that personnel who make decisions on the open-end fund's portfolio composition must be subject to procedures designed to prevent the use and dissemination of material, non-public information regarding the open-end fund's portfolio. The Fund's investments will be consistent with the Fund's investment objective. FINRA may, if applicable, obtain information via the ISG from other exchanges that are members of ISG. In addition, the Exchange may, if applicable, obtain information regarding trading in the Shares from markets and other entities that are members of ISG-or with which the Exchange has in place a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement. The Fund may hold up to an aggregate amount of 15% of its net assets in illiquid securities, including repurchase and reverse repurchase agreements maturing in more than seven days, and other illiquid assets (calculated at the time of investment). The Fund will monitor its portfolio liquidity on an ongoing basis to determine whether, in light of current circumstances, an adequate level of liquidity is being maintained, and will consider taking appropriate steps in order to maintain adequate liquidity if, through a change in values, net assets, or other circumstances, more than 15% of the Fund's net assets are held in illiquid securities or other illiquid assets.
The proposed rule change is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade and to protect investors and the public interest in that the Exchange will obtain a representation from the issuer of the Shares that the NAV per Share will be calculated daily and that the NAV and the Disclosed Portfolio will be made available to all market participants at the same time. In addition, a large amount of information will be publicly available regarding the Fund and the Shares, thereby promoting market transparency. Moreover, the Intraday Indicative Value, available on the NASDAQ OMX Information LLC proprietary index data service, will be widely disseminated by one or more major market data vendors at least every 15 seconds during the Regular Market Session. On each business day, before commencement of trading in Shares in the Regular Market Session on the Exchange, the Fund will disclose on its Web site the Disclosed Portfolio of the Fund that will form the basis for the Fund's calculation of NAV at the end of the business day. Information regarding market price and trading volume of the Shares will be continually available on a real-time basis throughout the day on brokers' computer screens and other electronic services, and quotation and last sale information for the Shares will be available via NASDAQ proprietary quote and trade services. Intra-day price information will be available through subscription services, such as Bloomberg, Markit and Thomson Reuters, which can be accessed by Authorized Participants and other investors.
The Fund's Web site will include a form of the prospectus for the Fund and additional data relating to NAV and other applicable quantitative information. Trading in Shares of the Fund will be halted under the conditions specified in NASDAQ Rules 4120 and 4121 or because of market conditions or for reasons that, in the view of the Exchange, make trading in the Shares inadvisable, and trading in the Shares will be subject to NASDAQ Rule 5735(d)(2)(D), which sets forth circumstances under which Shares of the Fund may be halted. In addition, as noted above, investors will have ready access to information regarding the Fund's holdings, the Intraday Indicative Value, the Disclosed Portfolio, and quotation and last sale information for the Shares.
The proposed rule change is designed to perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest in that it will facilitate the listing and trading of an additional type of actively-managed exchange-traded product that will enhance competition among market participants, to the benefit of investors and the marketplace. As noted above, FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, if applicable will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares with other markets and, other entities that are members of ISG-and FINRA may obtain trading information regarding trading in the Shares from such markets and other entities. In addition, the Exchange may obtain information regarding trading in the Shares from markets and other entities that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has in place a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement. Furthermore, as noted above, investors will have ready access to information regarding the Fund's holdings, the Intraday Indicative Value, the Disclosed Portfolio, and quotation and last sale information for the Shares.
For the above reasons, NASDAQ believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of section 6(b)(5) of the Act.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change will facilitate the listing and trading of an additional type of actively-managed exchange-traded fund that will enhance competition among market participants, to the benefit of investors and the marketplace.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act.
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, Station Place, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549.
Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for Web site viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10:00 a.m. and 3:00 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of NASDAQ. All comments received will be posted without change; the Commission does not edit personal identifying information from submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-NASDAQ-2015-089 and should be submitted on or before September 9, 2015.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 79A to delete Supplementary Material .20 requiring prior Floor Official approval before a Designated Market Maker (“DMM”) can initiate certain trades more than one or two dollars away from the last sale. The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 79A to delete Supplementary Material .20, which requires prior Floor Official approval for certain DMM dealer trades more than one or two dollars away from the last sale, and to make conforming amendments to Rules 48, 80C and 9217 to delete references to Rule 79A.20.
Currently, except with respect to inactively traded securities the Exchange shall from time to time identify, Rule 79A.20(a) requires DMMs to obtain prior Floor Official approval for all transactions in stocks by the DMM as dealer (when the market is slow
The principles embodied in Rule 79A.20 were originally aimed at preventing undue price dislocation by the specialist at the opening. Gradually, the rule was extended to all trades significantly away from the last sale.
In 2006, the Commission approved the Exchange's adoption of a “hybrid market” under which Exchange systems assumed the function of matching and executing electronically-entered orders but specialists remained the responsible broker-dealer for orders on the Exchange's limit order book.
Since that time, additional, significant market structure changes have continued to obviate the need for Rule 79A.20. In particular, in 2008, the Exchange adopted the New Market Model, which transformed specialists into DMMs, who are no longer agents for the Exchange's limit order book and whose trading activity on the Exchange is limited to proprietary trading.
The Exchange proposes to delete Rule 79A.20. As discussed below, the situations where the Rule would be invoked are now limited to the open, reopenings and the close, where market transparency and existing safeguards render the Rule unnecessary and duplicative of other rules requiring Floor Official approval.
As noted above, the recent elimination of LRPs and the Gap Quote Policy removed the remaining intra-day events when the Exchange's market was “slow” and DMM pricing decisions that could trigger Rule 79A.20 approvals. As such, trading circumstances warranting Rule 79A.20 review are now limited to manual DMM participation when a security moves one or two dollars from the last sale (based on whether the security is under $20 or $20 and over) at either the open, close or, more rarely, intraday during reopenings.
In light of the transparency surrounding the open and close and the involvement of Floor Officials in those processes, the Exchange believes that there is no longer a need for Floor Officials to separately approve individual DMM transactions under Rule 79A.20. First, as described above, the Exchange significantly enhanced the transparency surrounding the open and close with the introduction of a real-time Order Imbalance Information data feed in 2008. This proprietary data feed, disseminated prior to the open pursuant to Rule 15(c)(1)
Second, in addition to disseminating Order Imbalance Information, the Exchange's Rules require the timely communication of price dislocations and unusual market situations, including delayed openings, to the marketplace. Rule 15(a) provides that if the opening transaction in a security will be at a price that represents a change of more than the “applicable price change” specified in the Rule (representing a numerical or percentage change from the security's closing price per share or, in the case of an IPO, the security's offering price), the DMM arranging the opening transaction or the Exchange must issue a pre-opening indication (a “Rule 15 Indication”), which represents a range of where a security may open. The Rule 15 Indication is a price range that is published on the Exchange's proprietary data feeds prior to the scheduled opening time. A Rule 15 Indication includes the security and the price range within which the DMM anticipates the opening transaction will occur, and would include any orally-represented Floor broker interest for the open.
Similarly, Rule 123D Mandatory Indications are required for an opening that will result in a “significant” price change from the previous close. For securities priced under $10, indications are required under Rule 123D(1) if the price change is one dollar or more; for securities between $10 and $99.99, indications are required for price movements of the lesser of 10% or three dollars; and for securities over $100, indications are required for price movements of five dollars or more. Rule 123D(1) requires DMMs to disseminate one or more indications in connection with any delayed opening where a security has not opened or been quoted by 10 a.m. (“Rule 123D Mandatory Indication”). The DMM is responsible for publishing the Rule 123D Mandatory Indication and, when determining the price range for the indication, take into consideration Floor broker interest that has been orally entered and what, at a given time, the DMM anticipates the dealer participation in the opening transaction would be. Rule 123D Mandatory Indications are published to the Consolidated Tape.
Importantly, all Rule 123D Mandatory Indications require the supervision and approval of a Floor Official. Rule 123D approvals are therefore similar to Rule 79A.20 approvals. In fact, almost half of Floor Official approvals under Rule 79A.20 also occur in situations where a mandatory indication was published pursuant to Rule 123D. In these circumstances, requiring the Floor Official to separately approve a price movement under Rule 79A.20 would be duplicative.
The Exchange further notes that the Floor Official approval requirements of Rule 79A.20 impede the ability of a DMM to open or close a security electronically at the Exchange if the security were to open one or two points away from the last sale. As a practical matter, the only way for Floor Officials to approve trades more than one or two dollars away from the last sale in the case of an electronic open or close would be to turn a fast market into a “slow” one and potentially open the security after 9:30 a.m., which was one of the rationales for eliminating virtually all Rule 79A.20 approvals in 2007.
With respect to the separate Rule 79A.20 requirement that the DMM obtain Floor Official approvals when the market is fast and the DMM as dealer is reaching across the market,
Even if obtaining Floor Official approvals were practical, the Exchange believes that the combination of volatility and system controls in place that were unavailable in 2007 render such approvals unnecessary. DMM dealer trades one or two points away from the last sale that reach across the market would continue to be subject to the Limit Up/Limit Down (“LULD”) price controls, as provided for in Rule 80C(a)(4), the Trading Collars, as provided for in Rule 1000(c), and the numerical guidelines for determining whether a clearly erroneous execution has occurred under Rule 128. In addition, as the Exchange noted in a different context,
Finally, DMM pricing decisions at the open and close and during fast markets are subject to specific DMM obligations with respect to the quality of the markets in securities to which they are assigned. In general, transactions on the Exchange by a DMM for the DMM's account must be effected in a reasonable and orderly manner in relation to the condition of the general market and the market in the particular stock.
As noted, DMMs have affirmative obligations under Rule 104(a) to engage in a course of dealings for their own account to assist in the maintenance of a fair and orderly market insofar as reasonably practicable. Specifically, Rule 104(f)(ii) sets forth the DMM's obligation to act as reasonably necessary to ensure appropriate depth and maintain reasonable price variations between transactions (also known as price continuity) and prevent unexpected variations in trading. Further, under Rule 123D(1), openings and reopenings must be fair and orderly, reflecting the DMM's professional assessment of market conditions at the time, and appropriate consideration of the balance of supply and demand as reflected by orders represented in the market. The Exchange also supplies DMMs with suggested Depth Guidelines for each security in which a DMM is registered, and DMMs are expected to quote and trade with reference to the Depth Guidelines. Further, the DMM's affirmative obligation includes obligations to re-enter the market when reaching across to execute against available interest. For instance, under Rule 104(h), DMMs can engage in conditional transactions that establish or increase a position and that reach across the market without restriction
The Exchange believes that the availability and dissemination of Order Imbalance Information, Rule 15 Indications and 123D Mandatory Indications, together with the DMM's existing affirmative and other obligations pursuant to Rule 104, provide an appropriate framework in today's market structure for ensuring that opening or closing transactions that occur at a price significantly away from the last sale price are communicated to all market participants. In particular, because of this transparency, the open and close are subject to greater scrutiny by all market participants, which in of itself serves as a check on where a DMM opens or closes a security. The Exchange therefore believes that the need for a Floor Official to review a DMM's actions at the open or close, which was adopted in a time when there was no market-wide transparency regarding pricing of the open or close, is redundant of existing oversight of the open and close.
For all of these reasons, the Exchange believes that requiring separate Floor Official approvals for one and two dollar price movements is no longer necessary.
The Exchange also proposes to delete references to Rule 79A.20 from Rules 48, 80C and 9217. In the case of Rule 48, the reference to be removed would be to Rule 79A.30. Rule 48 was not updated when the text of the Rule was moved from Supplementary Material .30 to .20.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange further believes that deleting corresponding references to Rule 79A.20 in other rules would remove impediments to and perfects the mechanism of a free and open market by reducing potential confusion and adding transparency and clarity to the Exchange's rules, thereby ensuring that members, regulators and the public can more easily navigate and understand the Exchange's rulebook.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is not intended to address competitive issues but rather to eliminate redundant approvals of manual trades on its trading Floor.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under section 19(b)(2)(B)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of an application for an order under section 6(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Act”) for an exemption from sections 2(a)(32), 5(a)(1), 22(d) and 22(e) of the Act and rule 22c-1 under the Act, under sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act for an exemption from sections 17(a)(1) and (a)(2) of the Act, and under section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act for an exemption from sections 12(d)(1)(A) and (B) of the Act.
Nile Capital Investment Trust (the “Trust”), Nile Capital Management, LLC (the “Manager”) and Northern Lights Distributors, LLC (the “Distributor”).
Applicants request an order (“Order”) that permits: (a) Actively managed series of certain open-end management investment companies to issue shares (“Shares”) redeemable in large aggregations only (“Creation Units”); (b) secondary market transactions in Shares to occur at the next-determined net asset value plus or minus a market-determined premium or discount that may vary during the trading day; (c) certain series to pay redemption proceeds, under certain circumstances, more than seven days from the tender of Shares for redemption; (d) certain affiliated persons of the series to deposit securities into, and receive securities from, the series in connection with the purchase and redemption of Creation Units; (e) certain registered management investment companies and unit investment trusts outside of the same group of investment companies as the series to acquire Shares; and (f) certain series to create and redeem Shares in kind in a master-feeder structure. The Order would incorporate by reference terms and conditions of a previous order granting the same relief sought by applicants, as that order may be amended from time to time (“Reference Order”).
The application was filed on June 29, 2015.
An order granting the requested relief will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on September 8, 2015, and should be accompanied by proof of service on applicants, in the form of an affidavit or, for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
The Commission: Brent J. Fields, Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090. Applicants: Nile Capital Investment Trust and Nile Capital Management, LLC, 116 Village Blvd., Suite #306, Princeton, NJ 08540, and Northern Lights Distributors, LLC, 17605 Wright St., Omaha, NB 68130.
Diane L. Titus, Paralegal Specialist, or Dalia Osman Blass, Assistant Chief Counsel, at (202) 551-6821 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. The Trust is registered as an open-end management investment company under the Act and is a statutory trust organized under the laws of Delaware. Applicants seek relief with respect to two Funds (as defined below, and those Funds, the “Initial Funds”). The portfolio positions of each Fund will consist of securities and other assets selected and managed by its Adviser or Subadviser (as defined below) to pursue the Fund's investment objective.
2. The Adviser, a limited liability company organized under the laws of Delaware, will be the investment adviser to the Initial Funds. An Adviser (as defined below) will serve as investment adviser to each Fund. The Adviser is, and any other Adviser will
3. The Distributor is a Nebraska limited liability company and a broker-dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 and will act as the principal underwriter of Shares of the Funds. Applicants request that the requested relief apply to any distributor of Shares, whether affiliated or unaffiliated with the Adviser (included in the term “Distributor”). Any Distributor will comply with the terms and conditions of the Order.
4. Applicants seek the requested Order under section 6(c) of the Act for an exemption from sections 2(a)(32), 5(a)(1), 22(d) and 22(e) of the Act and rule 22c-1 under the Act, under sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act for an exemption from sections 17(a)(1) and 17(a)(2) of the Act, and under section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act for an exemption from sections 12(d)(1)(A) and (B) of the Act. The requested Order would permit applicants to offer exchange-traded managed funds. Because the relief requested is the same as the relief granted by the Commission under the Reference Order and because the Adviser has entered into, or anticipates entering into, a licensing agreement with Eaton Vance Management, or an affiliate thereof in order to offer exchange-traded managed funds,
5. Applicants request that the Order apply to the Initial Funds and to any other existing or future open-end management investment company or series thereof that: (a) Is advised by the Adviser or any entity controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the Adviser (any such entity included in the term “Adviser”); and (b) operates as an exchange-traded managed fund as described in the Reference Order; and (c) complies with the terms and conditions of the Order and of the Reference Order, which is incorporated by reference herein (each such company or series and Initial Fund, a “Fund”).
6. Section 6(c) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security or transaction, or any class of persons, securities or transactions, from any provisions of the Act, if and to the extent that such exemption is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act. Section 17(b) of the Act authorizes the Commission to exempt a proposed transaction from section 17(a) of the Act if evidence establishes that the terms of the transaction, including the consideration to be paid or received, are reasonable and fair and do not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned, and the proposed transaction is consistent with the policies of the registered investment company and the general purposes of the Act. Section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security, or transaction, or any class or classes of persons, securities or transactions, from any provision of section 12(d)(1) if the exemption is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors.
7. Applicants submit that for the reasons stated in the Reference Order: (1) With respect to the relief requested pursuant to section 6(c) of the Act, the relief is appropriate, in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act; (2) with respect to the relief request pursuant to section 17(b) of the Act, the proposed transactions are reasonable and fair and do not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned, are consistent with the policies of each registered investment company concerned and consistent with the general purposes of the Act; and (3) with respect to the relief requested pursuant to section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act, the relief is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors.
By the Division of Investment Management, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange is proposing to adopt a new rule to clearly prohibit layering and spoofing activity on the Exchange, as further described below. Further, the Exchange proposes to amend Exchange Rules to permit the Exchange to take prompt action to suspend Members or their clients that violate such rule.
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set
As a national securities exchange registered pursuant to section 6 of the Act, the Exchange is required to be organized and to have the capacity to enforce compliance by its members and persons associated with its members, with the Act, the rules and regulations thereunder, and the Exchange's Rules.
The process described above, from the identification of disruptive and potentially manipulative or improper quoting and trading activity to a final resolution of the matter, can often take several years. The Exchange believes that this time period is generally necessary and appropriate to afford the subject Member adequate due process, particularly in complex cases. However, as described below, the Exchange believes that there are certain obvious and uncomplicated cases of disruptive and manipulative behavior or cases where the potential harm to investors is so large that the Exchange should have the authority to initiate an expedited suspension proceeding in order to stop the behavior from continuing on the Exchange.
In recent years, several cases have been brought and resolved by the Exchange and other SROs that involved allegations of wide-spread market manipulation, much of which was ultimately being conducted by foreign persons and entities using relatively rudimentary technology to access the markets and over which the Exchange and other SROs had no direct jurisdiction. In each case, the conduct involved a pattern of disruptive quoting and trading activity indicative of manipulative layering
The following two examples are instructive on the Exchange's rationale for the proposed rule change.
In July 2012, Biremis Corp. (formerly Swift Trade Securities USA, Inc.) (the “Firm”) and its CEO were barred from the industry for, among other things, supervisory violations related to a failure by the Firm to detect and prevent disruptive and allegedly manipulative trading activities, including layering, short sale violations, and anti-money laundering violations.
In September of 2012, Hold Brothers On-Line Investment Services, Inc. (the “Firm”) settled a regulatory action in connection with the Firm's provision of a trading platform, trade software and trade execution, support and clearing services for day traders.
The Exchange also notes the current criminal proceedings that have commenced against Navinder Singh Sarao. Mr. Sarao's allegedly manipulative trading activity, which included forms of layering and spoofing in the futures markets, has been linked as a contributing factor to the “Flash Crash” of 2010, and yet continued through 2015.
The Exchange believes that the activities described in the cases above provide justification for the proposed rule change, which is described below.
The Exchange proposes to adopt new Rule 8.17 to set forth procedures for issuing suspension orders, immediately prohibiting a Member from conducting continued layering or spoofing activity on the Exchange. Importantly, these procedures would also provide the Exchange the authority to order a Member to cease and desist from providing access to the Exchange to a client of the Member that is conducting layering or spoofing activity in violation of proposed Rule 12.15.
Under proposed paragraph (a) of Rule 8.17, with the prior written authorization of the Chief Regulatory Officer (“CRO”) or such other senior officers as the CRO may designate, the Office of General Counsel or Regulatory Department of the Exchange (such departments generally referred to as the “Exchange” for purposes of proposed Rule 8.17) may initiate an expedited suspension proceeding with respect to alleged violations of Rule 12.15, which is proposed as part of this filing and described in detail below. Proposed paragraph (a) would also set forth the requirements for notice and service of such notice pursuant to the Rule, including the required method of service and the content of notice.
Proposed paragraph (b) of Rule 8.17 would govern the appointment of a Hearing Panel as well as potential disqualification or recusal of Hearing Officers. The proposed provision is consistent with existing Exchange Rule 8.6 and includes the requirement for a Hearing Officer to be recused in the event he or she has a conflict of interest or bias or other circumstances exist where his or her fairness might reasonably be questioned. In addition to recusal initiated by such a Hearing Officer, a party to the proceeding will be permitted to file a motion to disqualify a Hearing Officer. However, due to the compressed schedule pursuant to which the process would operate under Rule 8.17, the proposed rule would require such motion to be filed no later than 5 days after the announcement of the Hearing Panel and the Exchange's brief in opposition to such motion would be required to be filed no later than 5 days after service thereof. Pursuant to existing Rule 8.6(b), if the Hearing Panel believes the Respondent has provided satisfactory evidence in support of the motion to disqualify, the applicable Hearing Officer shall remove himself or herself and request the Chief Executive Officer to reassign the hearing to another Hearing Officer such that the Hearing Panel still meets the compositional requirements described in Rule 8.6(a). If the Hearing Panel determines that the Respondent's grounds for disqualification are insufficient, it shall deny the Respondent's motion for disqualification by setting forth the reasons for the denial in writing and the Hearing Panel will proceed with the hearing.
Under paragraph (c) of the proposed Rule, the hearing would be held not later than 15 days after service of the notice initiating the suspension proceeding, unless otherwise extended by the Chairman of the Hearing Panel with the consent of the Parties for good cause shown. In the event of a recusal or disqualification of a Hearing Officer, the hearing shall be held not later than five days after a replacement Hearing Officer is appointed. Proposed paragraph (c) would also govern how the hearing is conducted, including the authority of Hearing Officers, witnesses, additional information that may be required by the Hearing Panel, the requirement that a transcript of the proceeding be created and details related to such transcript, and details regarding the creation and maintenance of the record of the proceeding. Proposed paragraph (c) would also state that if a Respondent fails to appear at a hearing for which it has notice, the allegations in the notice and accompanying declaration may be deemed admitted, and the Hearing Panel may issue a suspension order without further proceedings. Finally, as proposed, if the Exchange fails to appear at a hearing for which it has notice, the Hearing Panel may order that the suspension proceeding be dismissed.
Under paragraph (d) of the proposed Rule, the Hearing Panel would be authorized to issue a written decision stating whether a suspension order would be imposed. The Hearing Panel would be required to issue the decision not later than 10 days after receipt of the hearing transcript, unless otherwise extended by the Chairman of the Hearing Panel with the consent of the Parties for good cause shown. The Rule would state that a suspension order shall be imposed if the Hearing Panel finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the alleged violation specified in the notice has occurred and that the violative conduct or continuation thereof is likely to result in significant market disruption or other significant harm to investors.
Proposed paragraph (d) would also describe the content, scope and form of a suspension order. As proposed, a suspension order shall be limited to ordering a Respondent to cease and desist from violating proposed Rule 12.15, and, where applicable, to ordering a Respondent to cease and desist from providing access to the Exchange to a client of Respondent that is causing violations of Rule 12.15. Under the proposed rule, a suspension order shall also set forth the alleged violation and the significant market disruption or other significant harm to investors that is likely to result without the issuance of an order, describe in reasonable detail the act or acts the Respondent is to take or refrain from taking, and include the date and hour of its issuance. As proposed, a suspension order would remain effective and enforceable unless modified, set aside, limited, or revoked pursuant to proposed paragraph (e), as described below. Finally, paragraph (d) would require service of the Hearing Panel's decision and any suspension order consistent with other portions of the proposed rule related to service.
Proposed paragraph (e) of Rule 8.17 would state that at any time after the Office of Hearing Officers served the Respondent with a suspension order, a Party could apply to the Hearing Panel to have the order modified, set aside, limited, or revoked. The Hearing Panel generally would be required to respond to the request in writing within 10 days after receipt of the request. An application to modify, set aside, limit or revoke a suspension order would not
Paragraph (f) of the proposed Rule would authorize the cancellation of a Respondent's membership with the Exchange or bar from associating with any member of the Exchange if the Respondent violated a suspension order. The Exchange believes that this authority is necessary in particular in the event a Member is ordered to but fails to prevent access to the Exchange by a client that is engaging in activity prohibited by Rule 12.15. Paragraph (f) would require notice of such action, served in accordance with the proposed Rule. The notice would be required to explicitly identify the provision of the suspension order that is alleged to have been violated and contain a statement of facts specifying the alleged violation. The notice would also state when the Exchange's action will take effect and explain what the respondent must do to avoid such action.
Finally, proposed paragraph (g) would provide that sanctions issued under the proposed Rule 8.17 would constitute final and immediately effective disciplinary sanctions imposed by the Exchange, and that the right to have any action under the Rule reviewed by the Commission would be governed by section 19 of the Act. The filing of an application for review would not stay the effectiveness of a suspension order, cancellation of membership or a bar from associating with any member, unless the Commission otherwise ordered.
The Exchange currently has authority to prohibit and take action against manipulative trading activity, including layering and spoofing, pursuant to its general market manipulation rules, including Rule 3.1. The Exchange proposes to adopt new Rule 12.15, which would more specifically define and prohibit layering and spoofing activity on the Exchange. As noted above, the Exchange also proposes to apply the proposed suspension rules to proposed Rule 12.15.
Proposed Rule 12.15 would prohibit Members from engaging in or facilitating layering or spoofing activity on the Exchange, as described in proposed Interpretation and Policy .01 of the Rule, including acting in concert with other persons to effect such activity. The Exchange believes that it is necessary to extend the prohibition to situations when persons are acting in concert to avoid a potential loophole where layering and spoofing activity is simply split between several brokers or customers.
To provide proper context for the situations in which the Exchange proposes to utilize its proposed authority, the Exchange believes it is necessary to describe the types of disruptive and manipulative layering and spoofing activity that would cause the Exchange to use its authority. Accordingly, the Exchange proposes to adopt Interpretation and Policy .01 and .02, providing additional details regarding layering and spoofing activity. Proposed Interpretation and Policy .01, related to layering, would describe a layering activity as a frequent pattern in which the following facts are present: (a) A party enters multiple limit orders on one side of the market at various price levels (the “Layering Orders”); and (b) following the entry of the Layering Orders, the level of supply and demand for the security changes; and (c) the party enters one or more orders on the opposite side of the market of the Layering Orders (the “Contra-Side Orders”) that are subsequently executed; and (d) following the execution of the Contra-Side Orders, the party cancels the Layering Orders. Proposed Interpretation and Policy .02, related to spoofing, would describe spoofing activity as a frequent pattern in which the following facts are present: (a) A party narrows the spread for a security by placing an order inside the national best bid or offer (the “Spoofing Order”); and (b) the party then submits an order on the opposite side of the market (“Contra-Side Order”) that executes against another market participant that joined the new inside market established by the Spoofing Order. The Exchange believes that the proposed descriptions of layering and spoofing activity articulated in the rule are consistent with the activities that have been identified and described in the client access cases described above. The Exchange further believes that the proposed descriptions will provide Members with clear descriptions of layering and spoofing activity that will help them to avoid engaging in such activities or allowing their clients to engage in such activities.
The Exchange proposes to make clear in Interpretation and Policy .03 that, unless otherwise indicated, the descriptions of layering activity and spoofing activity do not require the facts to occur in a specific order in order for the rule to apply. For instance, it is of no consequence whether a party first enters Layering Orders and then Contra-side Orders or vice-versa. However, as proposed, it is required for supply and demand to change following the entry of Layering Orders. The Exchange also proposes to make clear that layering activity and spoofing activity includes a pattern or practice in which some portion of the layering or spoofing activity is conducted on the Exchange and the other portions of the layering or spoofing activity are conducted on one or more other exchanges
In sum, proposed Rule 12.15 coupled with proposed Rule 8.17 would provide the Exchange with authority to promptly act to prevent layering activity and spoofing activity from continuing on the Exchange. Below is an example of how the proposed rule would operate.
Assume that through its surveillance program, Exchange staff identifies a pattern of potential layering activity. After an initial investigation the Exchange would then contact the Member responsible for the orders that caused the activity to request an explanation of the activity as well as any additional relevant information, including the source of the activity. If the Exchange were to continue to see the same pattern from the same Member and the source of the activity is the same or has been previously identified as a frequent source of layering activity then the Exchange could initiate an expedited suspension proceeding by serving notice on the Member that would include details regarding the alleged violations as well as the proposed sanction. In such a case the proposed sanction would likely be to order the Member to cease and desist providing access to the Exchange to the client that is responsible for the layering activity. The Member would have the opportunity to be heard in front of a Hearing Panel at a hearing to be conducted within 15 days of the notice. If the Hearing Panel determined that the violation alleged in the notice did not occur or that the conduct or its continuation would not have the potential to result in significant market disruption or other significant harm to investors, then the Hearing Panel would dismiss the suspension order proceeding. If the Hearing Panel determined that the violation alleged in the notice did occur and that the conduct or its continuation is likely to result in significant market disruption or other significant harm to investors, then the Hearing Panel would issue the order including the proposed sanction, ordering the Member to cease providing
The Exchange reiterates that it already has broad authority to take action against a Member in the event that such Member is engaging in or facilitating disruptive or manipulative trading activity on the Exchange. For the reasons described above, and in light of recent cases like the client access cases described above, as well as other cases currently under investigation, the Exchange believes that it is equally important for the Exchange to have the authority to promptly initiate expedited suspension proceedings against any Member who has demonstrated a clear pattern or practice of layering or spoofing activity, as described above and to take action including ordering such Member to terminate access to the Exchange to one or more of such Member's clients if such clients are responsible for the activity. The Exchange recognizes that its proposed authority to issue a suspension order is a powerful measure that should be used very cautiously. Consequently, the proposed rules have been designed to ensure that the proceedings are used to address only the most clear and serious types of layering and spoofing activity and that the interests of Respondents are protected. For example, to ensure that proceedings are used appropriately and that the decision to initiate a proceeding is made only at the highest staff levels, the proposed rules require the CRO or another senior officer of the Exchange to issue written authorization before the Exchange can institute an expedited suspension proceeding. In addition, the Exchange believes that it would use this authority in limited circumstances, when necessary to protect investors, other Members and the Exchange. Further, the Exchange believes that the proposed expedited suspension provisions described above that provide the opportunity to respond as well as a Hearing Panel determination prior to taking action will ensure that the Exchange would not utilize its authority in the absence of a clear pattern or practice of layering or spoofing activity.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule changes are consistent with section 6(b) of the Act
Further, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with sections 6(b)(1) and 6(b)(6) of the Act,
The Exchange further believes that the proposal is consistent with section 6(b)(7) of the Act,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule changes will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. To the contrary, the Exchange believes that each self-regulatory organization should be empowered to regulate trading occurring on their market consistent with the Act and without regard to competitive issues. The Exchange is requesting authority to take appropriate action if necessary for the protection of investors, other Members and the Exchange.
The Exchange has neither solicited nor received written comments on the proposed rule changes.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
(b) Institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 1, is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
The Department of State will conduct an open meeting at 9 a.m. on Wednesday, September 2, 2015, in Conference Room 8-9-10 of the Department of Transportation (DOT) Headquarters Conference Center, West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590. The primary purpose of the meeting is to prepare for the second Session of the International Maritime Organization's (IMO) Sub-Committee on Carriage of Cargoes and Containers to be held at the IMO Headquarters, United Kingdom, September 14-18, 2015.
The agenda items to be considered include:
Members of the public may attend this meeting up to the seating capacity of the room. Upon request, members of the public may also participate via teleconference, up to the capacity of the teleconference phone line. To facilitate the building security process, and to request reasonable accommodation, those who plan to attend, or participate via the teleconference line, should contact the meeting coordinator, Ms. Amy Parker, by email at
As required by the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Public Law 92-463, the Department of State gives notice of a meeting of the Advisory Committee on International Postal and Delivery Services. This Committee will meet on Wednesday, September 9, 2015, from 1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time at the American Institute of Architects, Board Room, 1735 New York Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20006.
Any member of the public interested in providing input to the meeting should contact Ms. Shereece Robinson, whose contact information is listed below (see the
The agenda of the meeting will include: Consideration of postal terminal dues, customs treatment of mail, and Universal Postal Union institutional issues.
Please contact Ms. Shereece Robinson of the Office of Specialized and Technical Agencies (IO/STA), Bureau of International Organization Affairs, U.S. Department of State, at tel. (202) 663-2649, by email at
Office of the United States Trade Representative.
Notice of procedures for submission of petitions from the public.
This notice announces that the Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) is prepared to receive petitions to modify the list of products that are eligible for duty-free treatment under the Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) program and to modify the GSP status of certain GSP beneficiary developing countries because of country practices. USTR is also prepared to receive petitions requesting waivers of competitive need limitations (CNLs). This notice provides that, pursuant to 15 CFR part 2007.3, the following deadlines apply with respect to the 2015 review: 5:00 p.m., Friday, October 16, 2015 for the submission of petitions to modify the list of articles eligible for duty-free treatment under GSP or to review the GSP status of any beneficiary developing country, and 5:00 p.m., Monday, November 23, 2015 for the submission of petitions requesting CNL waivers. The lists of petitions accepted for review will be announced in the
Public comments should be submitted electronically to
The GSP Program at the Office of the United States Trade Representative. The telephone number is (202) 395-2974, the fax number is (202) 395-9674, and the email address is
The GSP regulations (15 CFR part 2007.3) provide the timetable for conducting an annual review, unless otherwise specified by notice in the
Friday, October 16, 2015, 5:00 p.m.: Petitions to modify the list of articles eligible for duty-free treatment under GSP.
Friday, October 16, 2015, 5:00 p.m.: Petitions to review the GSP status of any beneficiary developing country.
Monday, November 23, 2015, 5:00 p.m.: Petitions requesting waivers of CNLs.
Petitions submitted after the above-listed deadlines will not be considered for review. Decisions on which petitions are accepted for review, along with a schedule for any related public hearings and the opportunity for the public to provide comments, will be announced in the
Interested parties, including foreign governments, may submit petitions to: (1) Designate additional articles as eligible for GSP benefits, including to designate articles as eligible for GSP benefits only if imported from countries designated as least-developed beneficiary developing countries, or only from countries designated as beneficiary sub-Saharan African countries under the African Growth and Opportunity Act (AGOA); (2) withdraw, suspend or limit the application of duty-free treatment accorded under the GSP with respect to any article; and (3) otherwise modify GSP coverage. Petitioners seeking to add products to eligibility for GSP benefits should note that, as provided in section 503(b) of the Trade Act (19 U.S.C. 2463(b)), certain articles may not be designated as eligible articles under GSP.
As specified in 15 CFR part 2007.1, all product petitions must include,
Any interested party may submit a petition to review the GSP eligibility of any beneficiary developing country with respect to any of the designation criteria listed in sections 502(b) or 502(c) of the Trade Act (19 U.S.C. 2462(b) and (c)).
Any interested party may submit a petition seeking a waiver of the 2015 CNL for individual beneficiary developing countries with respect to specific GSP-eligible articles (these limits do not apply to least-developed beneficiary developing countries or AGOA beneficiary countries). Before submitting petitions for CNL waivers, prospective petitioners may wish to review the 2015 year-to-date import trade data for products of interest. This data is available via the U.S. International Trade Commission's “Dataweb” database at
All submissions for the GSP Annual Review must conform to the GSP regulations set forth at 15 CFR part 2007, except as modified below. These regulations are available on the USTR Web site at
All submissions in response to this notice must be in English and must be submitted electronically via
To make a submission via
Submissions must include, at the beginning of the submission, or on the first page (if an attachment), the following text (in bold and
Each submitter will receive a submission tracking number upon completion of the submissions procedure at
An interested party requesting that information contained in a submission be treated as business confidential information must certify that such information is business confidential and would not customarily be released to the public by the submitter. Confidential business information must be clearly designated as such. The submission must be marked “BUSINESS CONFIDENTIAL” at the top and bottom of the cover page and each succeeding page, and the submission should indicate, via brackets, the specific information that is confidential. Additionally, “Business Confidential” must be included in the “Type Comment” field. For any submission containing business confidential information, a non-confidential version must be submitted separately (
Business confidential submissions that are submitted without the required markings, or are not accompanied by a properly marked non-confidential version, as set forth above, might not be accepted or may be considered public documents.
Submissions in response to this notice, except for information granted “business confidential” status under 15 CFR part 2003.6, will be available for public viewing pursuant to 15 CFR part 2007.6 at
Office of the United States Trade Representative.
Notice.
Pursuant to section 181 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (19 U.S.C. 2241), the Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) is required to publish annually the National Trade Estimate Report on Foreign Trade Barriers (NTE). With this notice, the Trade Policy Staff Committee (TPSC) is requesting interested persons to submit comments to assist it in identifying significant barriers to U.S. exports of goods, services, and U.S. foreign direct investment for inclusion in the NTE. The TPSC invites written comments from the public on issues that USTR should examine in preparing the NTE.
Section 1377 of the Omnibus Trade and Competitiveness Act of 1988 (19 U.S.C. 3106) (“Section 1377”) requires the USTR to review annually the operation and effectiveness of all U.S. trade agreements regarding telecommunications products and services that are in force with respect to the United States. In past years, USTR has solicited comments with regard to Section 1377 in a separate
Public comments are due not later than 11:59 p.m., October 28, 2015.
Submissions should be made via the Internet at
Questions regarding this notice should be directed to Yvonne Jamison at (202) 395-3475.
The NTE sets out an inventory of the most important foreign barriers affecting U.S. exports of goods and services, U.S. foreign direct investment, and protection of intellectual property rights. The inventory facilitates U.S. negotiations aimed at reducing or eliminating these barriers. The report also provides a valuable tool in enforcing U.S. trade laws and strengthening the rules-based trading system. The 2015 NTE Report may be found on USTR's Internet Home Page (
(1) Import policies (
(2) Government procurement restrictions (
(3) Export subsidies (
(4) Lack of intellectual property protection (
(5) Services barriers (
(6) Investment barriers (
(7) Government-tolerated anticompetitive conduct of state-owned or private firms that restrict the sale or purchase of U.S. goods or services in the foreign country's markets;
(8) Trade restrictions affecting electronic commerce (
(9) Trade restrictions implemented through unwarranted Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures, including unwarranted measures justified for purposes of protecting food safety, and animal and plant life or health;
(10) Trade restrictions implemented through unwarranted standards, conformity assessment procedures, or technical regulations (Technical Barriers to Trade) that may have as their objective protecting national security requirements, preventing deceptive practices, or protecting human health or safety, animal or plant life or health, or the environment, but that can be formulated or implemented in ways that create significant barriers to trade (including unnecessary or discriminatory technical regulations or standards for telecommunications products); and
(11) Other barriers (
In addition, Section 1377 of the Omnibus Trade and Competitiveness Act of 1988 (19 U.S.C. 3106) (“Section 1377”) requires the USTR to review annually the operation and effectiveness of all U.S. trade agreements regarding telecommunications products and services that are in force with respect to the United States. The purpose of the review is to determine whether any act, policy, or practice of a country that has entered into a trade agreement or other telecommunications trade agreement with the United States is inconsistent with the terms of such agreement or otherwise denies U.S. firms, within the context of the terms of such agreements, mutually advantageous market opportunities for telecommunications products and services. In past years, USTR has solicited comments with regard to Section 1377 in a separate
Furthermore, commenters are invited to identify those barriers covered in submissions that may operate as “localization barriers to trade”. Localization barriers are measures designed to protect, favor, or stimulate domestic industries, services providers, and or intellectual property at the expense of goods services or intellectual property from other countries, including the provision of subsidies linked to local production. For more information on localization barriers, please go to
In responding to this notice, commenters should place particular emphasis on any practices that may violate U.S. trade agreements. The TPSC is also interested in receiving new or updated information pertinent to the barriers covered in the 2015 NTE as well as information on new barriers. If USTR does not include in the NTE information that it receives pursuant to this notice, it will maintain the information for potential use in future discussions or negotiations with trading partners.
Comments should be submitted under docket number USTR 2015-0014. Persons submitting comments must do so in English and must identify (on the first page of the submission) “Comments Regarding Foreign Trade Barriers To U.S. Exports for 2016 Reporting.”
In order to be assured of consideration, comments should be submitted by 11:59 p.m., October 28, 2015. In order to ensure the timely receipt and consideration of comments, USTR strongly encourages commenters to make on-line submissions, using the
The
As noted, USTR strongly urges submitters to file comments through
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of public meetings; correction.
On August 6, 2015, the FAA published a notice of meeting to announce that the FAA will support seven public meetings during August and September, 2015. These meetings will be hosted by the six unmanned aircraft system (UAS) Test Sites and UAS Center of Excellence (COE). This notice corrects the point of contact for the Griffiss UAS Test Site.
Please see below for the date, time, and location of the meetings.
The Unmanned Aircraft Systems Integration Office, AFS-80, Federal Aviation Administration at:
On August 6, 2015, the FAA published a notice of meeting (80 FR 47021) to announce the dates, times, and locations of seven meetings to be held at UAS test sites and the UAS Center of Excellence in August and September, 2015. The FAA incorrectly listed the point of contact for the Griffiss UAS Test Site public meeting. This notice corrects that error.
In the notice published on August 6, 2015, at 80 FR 47021, the contact information for the Griffiss UAS Test Site contained in the table on page 47022 is corrected to read as follows:
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Denial of petition for a defect investigation.
This notice states the reasons for denying a petition (DP 15-003) submitted to NHTSA under 49 U.S.C. 30162, 49 CFR part 522, requesting that the agency open an investigation into delamination or separation of the back glass from the convertible top material on model year 2005 Chrysler Crossfire vehicles.
Mr. John Abbott, Office of Defects Investigation (ODI), NHTSA; 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590. Telephone: (202) 366-5221. Email:
Interested persons may petition NHTSA requesting that the Agency initiate an investigation to determine whether a motor vehicle or item of replacement equipment does not comply with an applicable motor vehicle safety standard or contains a defect that relates to motor vehicle safety. 49 U.S.C. 30162(a) (2): 49 CFR 522.1. Upon receipt of a properly filed petition, the agency conducts a technical review of the petition, material submitted with the petition, and any additional information. 49 U.S.C. 30162(c); 49 CFR 552.6. After considering the technical review and taking into account appropriate factors, which may include, among others, allocation of agency resources, agency
In a letter dated June 14, 2014, Mr. Wayne DeVries petitioned NHTSA to, “. . . hold a hearing on whether this manufacturer [Chrysler] has reasonably met its obligation to notify and/or remedy a safety defect or noncompliance with a Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard.” The petition request was in reference to model year (MY) 2005 Chrysler Crossfire Roadster vehicles in which the convertible top back glass can delaminate or separate from its adhesive bond to the convertible top material.
Part 557 of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), establishes the procedures for conducting a hearing to determine whether a manufacturer has reasonably met its obligation to notify owners of a safety related defect and provide a remedy for that defect. Before the agency can hold such a hearing, a determination that a defect exists must be made either by the manufacturer or the agency. Because a safety related defect has not been determined by either Chrysler, or the agency, regarding the convertible top back glass in MY 2005 Crossfire Roadster vehicles, ODI interpreted Mr. DeVries letter as a request for a Defect Petition. In accordance with Title 49 CFR part 522, Petitions for Rulemaking, Defects, and Noncompliance Orders, NHTSA conducted a review of the petition and other information to decide whether to open a formal investigation to determine if a safety related defect exists in MY 2005 Crossfire Roadsters.
To assess the petitioner's request and his complaint as to whether separation of the convertible top back glass in MY 2005 Crossfire Roadster vehicles demonstrates or presents an unreasonable risk to motor vehicle safety, ODI reviewed and analyzed the following information and conducted telephone interviews with complainants:
• A review of all of the petitioner's letters and VOQ's;
• A review of the petitioner's vehicle experience;
• A review of a Chrysler warranty policy extension;
• A review of all potentially related VOQs for
• Telephone interviews with complainants;
• A review of Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards (FMVSS); and,
• A review and analysis of complaint, claim, field report, and warranty information from Chrysler LLC. (Chrysler), and Fiat Chrysler Automobiles US, LLC. (FCA) provided in response to an ODI information request.
Between May 2013 and August 2014, the petitioner sent five letters to NHTSA, and filed an additional five Vehicle Owner Questionnaires (VOQ), concerning the convertible top back glass in MY 2005 Crossfire Roadster vehicles. The petitioner's concern is that the adhesive that bonds the back glass to the inside of the convertible top fails. When the adhesive fails, the glass falls inside the vehicle and, if it separates completely from the top, will no longer be attached to any structure that controls movement. His correspondence offers many varied and different scenarios of possible consequences from delamination or separation of the glass from the convertible top. The petitioner believes that the design, construction, and attachment of any window is critical to the safe operation of the vehicle as intended, under any conditions such as inclement weather, highway speeds, etc., and that the separation of the rear glass in the subject vehicles poses an unreasonable risk to motor vehicle safety. Finally, the petitioner suggests that Chrysler's limited extended warranty policy covering the glass is “unreasonable” because it is limited to vehicles that were originally sold in certain states.
The petitioner owns a MY 2005 Crossfire Roadster and resides in California. His vehicle was not included in Chrysler's extended warranty as his vehicle was originally sold in California. According to the petitioner, he noted the convertible top back glass was starting to delaminate/separate from the convertible top at the driver's side lower corner. As a precaution, and to prevent it from separating completely, the glass was propped-up from the inside of the vehicle and taped to the convertible top material on the outside of the vehicle. The petitioner's attempts to have the vehicle's convertible top replaced at Chrysler's expense were unsuccessful. According to the petitioner, replacement of the entire convertible top is the only viable remedy offered by Chrysler once the rear glass separates from the top. Ultimately, the petitioner paid to have the top replaced.
In September 2011 Chrysler notified its dealer network via “Warranty Bulletin” that it would extend the warranty for convertible top back glass adhesion in MY 2005 Crossfire Roadsters. The warranty extension covers these vehicles for 10 years or 100,000 miles, whichever occurs first, for vehicles shipped to dealers in the states of Alabama, Florida, Georgia, Louisiana, Missouri, North Carolina, South Carolina, Tennessee, and Texas. No other Crossfire Roadsters were included in the extended warranty. For vehicles subject to this extended warranty, Chrysler will replace the entire convertible top if the rear glass separates from the top within 10 years or 100,000 miles.
ODI reviewed all VOQ reports in its database relating to convertible top back glass separation in all MY Crossfire Roadsters. The review encompassed VOQ reports received from June 23, 2008 through July 8, 2015. As noted in Table 1, ODI analyzed 273 VOQ reports alleging some degree of rear glass separation. None of the VOQs alleged that rear glass separation was related to crashes, injuries, or fatalities. Out of the 273 VOQ's ODI reviewed, four alleged that the back glass separated from the vehicle onto the roadway.
This standard establishes the retention requirements for windshields in motor vehicle crashes. The purpose of the standard is to reduce injuries and fatalities in crashes by providing retention of a vehicles windshield during a crash by utilizing the penetration-resistance and injury-avoidance properties of the windshield glazing material and preventing occupant ejection from the vehicle. This standard does not apply to the back glass at issue in this petition. No other FMVSS establishes a minimum level of performance for back glass retention in either convertible or hard top vehicles.
The adhesive bond of the convertible top back glass to the top material can lose its bonding properties over time. From complainant descriptions, it appears that separation of the glass generally starts in a small area, possibly at a lower corner. Over time, the separation can progress around the glass to a point at which the glass is visibly and physically loose from the top material and in some cases can separate completely from the top. Because of the angle at which the glass is installed in the top it will tend to fall inside of the vehicle onto the tonneau cover, behind the only two available seats for the vehicle occupants. In addition, the glass panel in question is larger than the rear window opening in the convertible top. Therefore, the glass would have to rotate and move in several planes of motion to pass through the rear window opening after detaching from the top.
ODI has also previously examined rear window separation in the subject vehicles. Based on 11 VOQs reporting some degree of rear glass separation, ODI first examined rear glass separation in MY 2005 Chrysler Crossfire Roadsters in late 2009. Soon thereafter, ODI contacted Chrysler seeking complaint information concerning the issue. Chrysler provided a confidential response to ODI on January 29, 2010. Chrysler's response did not contain any information indicating that the separation of the rear glass in the subject vehicles posed an unreasonable risk to safety. However, Chrysler subsequently provided a limited extended warranty to some owners.
As part of this petition analysis, ODI sent an information request
ODI's analysis, our second examination of Crossfire Roadster rear window separations, indicates that there are not any crashes, deaths or injuries related to this issue. The configuration of the window opening and the size of the window glass itself indicate that it is unlikely that the glass would pass through the window opening once the rear glass has completely separated from the convertible top. Further, although the petitioner states that Chrysler's extended warranty policy for these vehicles is unreasonable, the question that ODI must answer is whether the separation of the rear glass from the convertible top results in an unreasonable risk to safety. The evidence revealed by our analysis does not presently support such a finding.
For the reasons presented in the petition analysis, and after thorough assessment of the potential risks to safety, it is unlikely that an order concerning the notification and remedy of a safety-related defect would be issued as a result of granting Mr. Devries petition. After full consideration of the potential for finding a safety related defect in these vehicles and in view of the need to allocate and prioritize NHTSA's limited resources to best accomplish the agency's mission, the petition is respectfully denied.
This action does not constitute a finding by NHTSA that a safety-related defect does not exist. The Agency will take further action if warranted by future circumstances.
49 U.S.C. 30162(d); delegations of authority at CFR 1.95 and 501.8.
BNSF Railway Company (BNSF) has filed a verified notice of exemption under 49 CFR pt. 1152 subpart F—
BNSF has certified that: (1) No local traffic has been handled over the Line since prior to 1995; (2) no overhead traffic has been handled on the Line since prior to 1995; (3) no formal complaint filed by a user of rail service on the Line (or by a state or local government entity acting on behalf of such user) regarding cessation of service
As a condition to this exemption, any employee adversely affected by the abandonment shall be protected under
Provided no formal expression of intent to file an offer of financial assistance (OFA) has been received, this exemption will be effective on September 18, 2015, unless stayed pending reconsideration. Petitions to stay that do not involve environmental issues,
A copy of any petition filed with the Board should be sent to applicant's representative: Karl Morell, Karl Morell & Associates, 655 Fifteenth Street NW., Suite 225, Washington, DC 20005.
If the verified notice contains false or misleading information, the exemption is void
BNSF has filed environmental and historic reports that address the effects, if any, of the abandonment on the environment and historic resources. OEA will issue an environmental assessment (EA) by August 24, 2015. Interested persons may obtain a copy of the EA by writing to OEA (Room 1100, Surface Transportation Board, Washington, DC 20423-0001) or by calling OEA at (202) 245-0305. Assistance for the hearing impaired is available through the Federal Information Relay Service at (800) 877-8339. Comments on environmental and historic preservation matters must be filed within 15 days after the EA becomes available to the public.
Environmental, historic preservation, public use, or trail use/rail banking conditions will be imposed, where appropriate, in a subsequent decision.
Pursuant to the provisions of 49 CFR 1152.29(e)(2), BNSF shall file a notice of consummation with the Board to signify that it has exercised the authority granted and fully abandoned the line. If consummation has not been effected by filing of a notice of consummation by August 19, 2016, and there are no legal or regulatory barriers to consummation, the authority to abandon will automatically expire.
Board decisions and notices are available on our Web site at “
By the Board, Rachel D. Campbell, Director, Office of Proceedings.
Department of the Treasury
Notice.
The Department of the Treasury will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, on or after the date of publication of this notice.
Comments should be received on or before September 18, 2015 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimate, or any other aspect of the information collection, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for Treasury, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submission(s) may be obtained by emailing
Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
The Veterans Health Administration (VHA), Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before October 19, 2015.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS)
Colette Alvarez at (775) 842-5755.
Under the PRA of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13; 44 U.S.C. 3501-3521), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, VHA invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of VHA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of VHA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
a. Title 38, CFR parts 51 and 52, State Home Programs.
b. State Home Inspection—Staffing Profile, VA Form 10-3567.
c. State Home Report and Statement of Federal Aid Claimed, VA Form 10-5588.
d. Claim for Payment for Nursing Home Care Provided to Veterans Awarded Retroactive Service Connection, VA Form 10-5588A.
e. State Home Program Application for Veteran Care—Medical Certification, VA Form 10-10SH.
f. Department of Veterans Affairs Certification Regarding Drug-Free Workplace Requirements for Grantees Other Than Individuals, VA Form 10-0143.
g. Statement of Assurance of Compliance with Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, VA Form 10-0143a.
h. Certification Regarding Lobbying, VA Form 10-0144.
i. Statement of Assurance of Compliance with Equal Opportunity Laws, VA Form 10-0144a.
j. Request for Prescription Drugs from an Eligible Veteran in a State Home, VA Form 10-0460.
VA processes two different types of state nursing home per diem payments. Each is determined by a Veteran's eligibility. One is a higher per diem or prevailing rate for certain Veterans who have service-connected disabilities. The other is a basic rate that is paid to Veterans who are not eligible for the higher rate. VA also ensures that SVHs meet VA standards through surveys, audits, and reconciliation of records. VA requires facilities providing nursing home, domiciliary and adult day health care to furnish an application for recognition based on certification; appeal information, application and justification for payment; records and reports which facility management must maintain regarding activities of residents or participants; information relating to whether the facility meets standards concerning residents' rights and responsibilities prior to admission or enrollment, during admission or enrollment, and upon discharge; the records and reports which facilities management and health care professionals must maintain regarding residents or participants and employees; documents pertain to the management of the facilities; food menu planning; pharmaceutical records; and life safety documentation. Without access to such information, VA would not be able to determine whether high quality care is being provided to Veterans.
For an eligible Veteran to be considered for per diem payments for nursing home, domiciliary or ADHC, two forms are required to be submitted to the VA medical center of jurisdiction for each Veteran, at the time of the Veteran's admission to a SVH (VA Form 10-10EZ, Application for Health Benefits or 10-10EZR, Health Benefits Renewal Form) and VA Form 10-10SH, State Home Program Application for Veteran Care Medical Certification).
Home Programs:
a. State Home Inspection Staffing Profile, VA Form 10-3567—69.5 hrs.
b. State Home Report and State of Federal Aid Claimed, VA Form 10-5588—834 hrs.
c. Claim for Payment for Nursing Home Care Provided to Veterans Awarded Retroactive Service Connection, VA Form 10-5588A—180 hrs.
d. State Home Program Application for Veteran Care—Medical Certification, VA Form 10-10SH—3,802 hrs.
e. Department of Veterans Affairs Certification Regarding Drug-Free Workplace Requirements for Grantees Other Than Individuals, VA Form 10-0143—12 hrs.
f. Statement of Assurance of Compliance with Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, VA Form 10-1043a—12 hrs.
g. Certification Regarding Lobbying, VA Form 10-0144—12 hrs.
h. Statement of Assurance of Compliance with Equal Opportunity Laws, VA Form 10-0460—12 hrs.
i. Request for Prescription Drugs from an Eligible Veteran in a State Home, VA Form 10-0144a—12 hrs.
j. Application for Recognition (Letter to Under Secretary for Health)—2 hrs.
k. Recognition & Certification (Sections 51.30 and 52.30)—120 hrs.
l. Quality of Life (Sections 51.100 and 52.100)—350 hrs.
m. Section, Administration and (Section 51.210 and 52.210)—1,400.
By direction of the Secretary.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This action finalizes the residual risk and technology review conducted for the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing and Phosphate Fertilizer Production source categories regulated under national emission standards for hazardous air pollutants (NESHAP). In addition, this action finalizes an 8-year review of the current new source performance standards (NSPS) for five source categories. We are also taking final action addressing Clean Air Act (CAA) provisions related to emission standards for hazardous air pollutants, review and revision of emission standards, and work practice standards. The final amendments to the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing NESHAP include: Numeric emission limits for previously unregulated mercury (Hg) and total fluoride emissions from calciners; work practice standards for hydrogen fluoride (HF) emissions from previously unregulated gypsum dewatering stacks and cooling ponds; clarifications to the applicability and monitoring requirements to accommodate process equipment and technology changes; removal of the exemptions for startup, shutdown, and malfunction (SSM); adoption of work practice standards for periods of startup and shutdown; and revised recordkeeping and reporting requirements for periods of SSM. The final amendments to the Phosphate Fertilizer Production NESHAP include: Clarifications to the applicability and monitoring requirements to accommodate process equipment and technology changes; removal of the exemptions for SSM; adoption of work practice standards for periods of startup and shutdown; and revised recordkeeping and reporting requirements for periods of SSM. The revised NESHAP for Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing facilities will mitigate future increases of Hg emissions from phosphate rock calciners by requiring pollution prevention measures. Further, based on the 8-year review of the current NSPS for these source categories, the EPA determined that no revisions to the numeric emission limits in those rules are warranted.
This final action is effective on August 19, 2015. The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the rule is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of August 19, 2015.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522. All documents in the docket are listed on the
For questions about this final action, contact Dr. Tina Ndoh, Sector Policies and Programs Division (D243-02), Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Research Triangle Park, North Carolina, 27711; telephone number: (919) 541-2750; fax number: (919) 541-5450; and email address:
Table 1 of this preamble is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather to provide a guide for readers regarding entities likely to be affected by the final action for the source category listed. To determine whether your facility is affected, you should examine the applicability criteria in the appropriate NESHAP. If you have any questions regarding the applicability of any aspect of this NESHAP, please contact the appropriate person listed in the preceding
In addition to being available in the docket, an electronic copy of this final action will also be available on the Internet through the Technology Transfer Network (TTN) Web site, a forum for information and technology exchange in various areas of air pollution control. Following signature by the EPA Administrator, the EPA will post a copy of this final action at
Additional information is available on the RTR Web site at
Under CAA section 307(b)(1), judicial review of this final action is available only by filing a petition for review in the United States (U.S.) Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit by October 19, 2015. Under CAA section 307(b)(2), the requirements established by this final rule may not be challenged separately in any civil or criminal proceedings brought by the EPA to enforce the requirements.
Section 307(d)(7)(B) of the CAA further provides that “[o]nly an objection to a rule or procedure which was raised with reasonable specificity during the period for public comment (including any public hearing) may be raised during judicial review.” This section also provides a mechanism for the EPA to reconsider the rule “[i]f the person raising an objection can demonstrate to the Administrator that it was impracticable to raise such objection within [the period for public comment] or if the grounds for such objection arose after the period for public comment (but within the time specified for judicial review) and if such objection is of central relevance to the outcome of the rule.” Any person seeking to make such a demonstration should submit a Petition for Reconsideration to the Office of the Administrator, U.S. EPA, Room 3000, EPA WJC Building, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460, with a copy to both the person(s) listed in the preceding
Section 112 of the CAA establishes a two-stage regulatory process to address emissions of hazardous air pollutants (HAP) from stationary sources. In the first stage, we must identify categories of sources emitting one or more of the HAP listed in CAA section 112(b) and then promulgate technology-based NESHAP for those sources. “Major sources” are those that emit, or have the potential to emit, any single HAP at a rate of 10 tons per year (tpy) or more, or 25 tpy or more of any combination of HAP. For major sources, these standards are commonly referred to as maximum achievable control technology (MACT) standards and must reflect the maximum degree of emission reductions of HAP achievable (after considering cost, energy requirements, and non-air quality health and environmental impacts). In developing MACT standards, CAA section 112(d)(2) directs the EPA to consider the application of measures, processes, methods, systems or techniques, including, but not limited to those that reduce the volume of or eliminate HAP emissions through process changes, substitution of materials, or other modifications; enclose systems or processes to eliminate emissions; collect, capture, or treat HAP when released from a process, stack, storage, or fugitive emissions point; are design, equipment, work practice, or operational standards; or any combination of the above.
For these MACT standards, the statute specifies certain minimum stringency requirements, which are referred to as MACT floor requirements, and which may not be based on cost considerations. See CAA section 112(d)(3). For new sources, the MACT floor cannot be less stringent than the emission control achieved in practice by the best-controlled similar source. The MACT standards for existing sources can be less stringent than floors for new sources, but they cannot be less stringent than the average emission limitation achieved by the best-performing 12 percent of existing sources in the category or subcategory (or the best-performing five sources for categories or subcategories with fewer than 30 sources). In developing MACT standards, we must also consider control options that are more stringent than the floor, under CAA section 112(d)(2). We may establish standards more stringent than the floor, based on the consideration of the cost of achieving the emissions reductions, any non-air quality health and environmental impacts, and energy requirements.
In the second stage of the regulatory process, the CAA requires the EPA to undertake two different analyses, which we refer to as the technology review and the residual risk review. Under the technology review, we must review the technology-based standards and revise them “as necessary (taking into account developments in practices, processes, and control technologies)” no less frequently than every 8 years, pursuant to CAA section 112(d)(6). Under the residual risk review, we must evaluate the risk to public health remaining after application of the technology-based
NSPS implement CAA section 111, which requires that each NSPS reflect the degree of emission limitation achievable through the application of the best system of emission reduction (BSER) which (taking into consideration the cost of achieving such emission reductions, any non-air quality health and environmental impact and energy requirements) the Administrator determines has been adequately demonstrated.
Existing affected facilities that are modified or reconstructed are also subject to NSPS. Under CAA section 111(a)(4), “modification” means any physical change in, or change in the method of operation of, a stationary source which increases the amount of any air pollutant emitted by such source or which results in the emission of any air pollutant not previously emitted. Changes to an existing facility that do not result in an increase in emissions are not considered modifications.
Rebuilt emission units would become subject to the NSPS under the reconstruction provisions in 40 CFR 60.15, regardless of changes in emission rate. Reconstruction means the replacement of components of an existing facility such that: (1) The fixed capital cost of the new components exceeds 50 percent of the fixed capital cost that would be required to construct a comparable entirely new facility; and (2) it is technologically and economically feasible to meet the applicable standards (40 CFR 60.15).
Section 111(b)(1)(B) of the CAA requires the EPA to periodically review and, if appropriate, revise the standards of performance as necessary to reflect improvements in methods for reducing emissions. The EPA need not review an NSPS if the Agency determines that such review is not appropriate in light of readily available information on the efficacy of the standard. When conducting the review under CAA section 111(b)(1)(B), the EPA considers both: (1) Whether developments in technology or other factors support the conclusion that a different system of emissions reduction has become the BSER and (2) whether emissions limitations and percent reductions beyond those required by the current standards are achieved in practice.
In 2014, 12 facilities in the U.S. manufactured phosphoric acid. The basic step for producing phosphoric acid is acidulation of phosphate rock. Typically, sulfuric acid, phosphate rock, and water are combined together and allowed to react to produce phosphoric acid and gypsum. When phosphate rock is acidulated to manufacture wet-process phosphoric acid (WPPA), fluorine contained in the rock is released. Fluoride compounds, predominately HF, are produced as particulates and gases that are emitted to the atmosphere unless removed from the exhaust stream. Some of these same fluoride compounds also remain in the product acid and are released as air pollutants during subsequent processing of the acid. Gypsum is pumped as a slurry to ponds atop stacks of waste gypsum where the liquids separate from the slurry and are decanted for return to the process. The gypsum, which is discarded on the stack, is a solid waste stream produced in this process. Five facilities concentrate WPPA to make superphosphoric acid (SPA), typically using the vacuum evaporation process. While one manufacturer is permitted to use a submerged combustion process for the production of SPA, that process was indefinitely shutdown on June 1, 2006. The majority of WPPA is used to produce phosphate fertilizers.
Additional processes may also be used to further refine phosphoric acid. At least two facilities have a defluorination process to remove fluorides from the phosphoric acid product, and one company uses a solvent extraction process to remove metals and organics and to further refine WPPA into purified phosphoric acid (PPA) for use in food manufacturing or specialized chemical processes. In addition, four facilities have oxidation processes to remove organics from the acid (
Sources of HF emissions from phosphoric acid plants include gypsum dewatering stacks, cooling ponds, cooling towers, calciners, reactors, filters, evaporators and other process equipment.
The following federal air emission standards are associated with the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing source category and are the subject of this final action:
• National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants from Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing Plants (40 CFR part 63, subpart AA);
• Standards of Performance for the Phosphate Fertilizer Industry: Wet-Process Phosphoric Acid Plants (40 CFR part 60, subpart T); and
• Standards of Performance for the Phosphate Fertilizer Industry: Superphosphoric Acid Plants (40 CFR part 60, subpart U).
The EPA promulgated 40 CFR part 60, subpart U for SPA Plants on August 6, 1975 (40 FR 33155). The NSPS established standards to control total fluoride emissions from SPA plants, including evaporators, hot wells, acid sumps, and cooling tanks.
For more information on these NSPS, see 79 FR 66512.
There are 11 operating facilities that produce phosphate fertilizers, and most facilities have the ability to produce either monoammonium phosphates (MAP) or diammonium phosphates (DAP) in the same process train. However, approximately 80 percent of all ammonium phosphates are produced as MAP. MAP and DAP plants are generally collocated with WPPA plants since both are manufactured from phosphoric acid and ammonia. The MAP and DAP manufacturing process consists of three basic steps: Reaction, granulation, and finishing operations such as drying, cooling, and screening. Sources of fluoride emissions from MAP and DAP plants include the reactor, granulator, dryer, cooler, screens, and mills. Some of the fluoride is liberated as HF and silicon tetrafluoride (SiF
Triple superphosphates (TSP) are made as run-of-pile TSP (ROP-TSP) and granular TSP (GTSP) by reacting WPPA with ground phosphate rock. The phosphoric acid used in the GTSP process is appreciably lower in concentration (40-percent phosphorus pentoxide (P
The following federal air emission standards are associated with the Phosphate Fertilizer Production source category and are subject of this final action:
• National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants from Phosphate Fertilizers Production Plants (40 CFR part 63, subpart BB);
• Standards of Performance for the Phosphate Fertilizer Industry: Diammonium Phosphate Plants (40 CFR part 60, subpart V);
• Standards of Performance for the Phosphate Fertilizer Industry: Triple Superphosphate Plants (40 CFR part 60, subpart W); and
• Standards of Performance for the Phosphate Fertilizer Industry: Granular Triple Superphosphate Storage Facilities (40 CFR part 60, subpart X).
The EPA promulgated 40 CFR part 60, subpart W for TSP plants on July 25, 1977 (42 FR 37938). The NSPS established standards to control total fluoride emissions from the production of ROP-TSP and GTSP, and the storage of ROP-TSP.
The EPA promulgated 40 CFR part 60, subpart X for GTSP storage facilities on July 25, 1977 (42 FR 37938). The NSPS established standards to control total fluoride emissions from the storage of GTSP, including storage or curing buildings (noted as “piles” in subpart X), conveyors, elevators, screens, and mills.
For more information on these NSPS, see 79 FR 66512.
On November 7, 2014 (79 FR 66512), the EPA published a proposed rule in the
For Phosphoric Acid Manufacturers:
• Numeric emission limits for Hg and work practice standards for HF from calciners; and
• Work practice standards for HF emissions from gypsum dewatering stacks and cooling ponds.
For both Phosphoric Acid Manufacturers and Phosphate Fertilizer Producers:
• Emission limits regulating HF emissions as the target HAP (HF), instead of the long-standing surrogate for HF, total F;
• Clarifications to applicability and certain definitions;
• Revisions to requirements related to emissions during periods of SSM;
• Revisions to monitoring requirements for absorbers;
• Requirements for reporting of performance testing through the electronic reporting tool (ERT);
• Modification to the format to reference tables for emissions limits and monitoring requirements; and
• Several minor clarifications and corrections.
In addition, we proposed revisions to the NSPS subparts T, U, V, W, and X, including clarifications to applicability and certain definitions, and revisions to monitoring and recordkeeping requirements for absorbers.
This action finalizes the EPA's determinations pursuant to the RTR provisions of CAA section 112 and the 8-year review provisions of CAA section 111 for the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing source category. Today's action also finalizes several of the proposed changes to the NESHAP subpart AA and the NSPS subparts T and U that are described in section II.C. of this preamble. This action also finalizes other changes to the NESHAP subpart AA in consideration of comments on issues raised in the proposed rulemaking, as described in section V of this preamble.
The residual risk review for the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing source category did not change since proposal; we found that the current standards provide an ample margin of safety to protect public health (79 FR 66512) and prevent an adverse environmental effect. We are, therefore, not tightening the standards under section 112(f)(2)
The technology review for the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing source category did not change since proposal (79 FR 66512). We determined that there are no cost-effective developments in practices, processes, and control technologies that warrant revisions to the MACT standards for this source category (79 FR 66512). Therefore, we are not amending the MACT standards under CAA section 112(d)(6). See sections V.B.3 and V.B.4 of this preamble for discussion on key comments and responses regarding the technology review.
We are finalizing MACT standards for HF and Hg pursuant to CAA sections 112(d)(2) and 112(d)(3) for phosphate rock calciners, an emissions source that was initially regulated for HAP metals using PM as a surrogate. Specifically, we are finalizing, as proposed, the elimination of the use of PM as a surrogate for Hg; however, we are making changes to the proposed Hg emission limit for phosphate rock calciners in NESHAP subpart AA to reflect MACT floor level emission standards for existing sources. We are finalizing the proposed beyond-the-floor (BTF) emission standard for Hg emissions from new phosphate rock calciners. We discuss the changes to the Hg emission limit in section V.C.3.a.i of this preamble. In addition, we are finalizing, as proposed, to retain the PM standard as a surrogate for other HAP metal emissions from phosphate rock calciners. However, in consideration of comments received during the public comment period for the proposed rulemaking, we are not finalizing work practice standards for HF from phosphate rock calciners, as proposed. Instead, as discussed in section V.C.3.a.ii of this preamble, we are including a total fluoride emission limit for phosphate rock calciners in NESHAP subpart AA.
Also, in consideration of comments received (see section V.C.3.b.i of this preamble for details), we are not adopting the proposed work practice in NESHAP subpart AA that would limit the size of active gypsum dewatering stacks (which would have been applicable to facilities when new gypsum dewatering stacks are constructed). Lastly, we are finalizing work practice standards pursuant to CAA section 112(h) for gypsum dewatering stacks and cooling ponds—emissions sources that were not regulated under the initial MACT standard. Specifically, we are finalizing in NESHAP subpart AA, as proposed, the work practice standard that requires owners or operators to prepare and operate in accordance with a gypsum dewatering stack and cooling pond management plan. However, based on analysis of public comments, we are making several changes to the specific control techniques that we proposed as options in the plan for controlling fugitive HF emissions (see section V.C.3.b.ii of this preamble for details on these changes). In the final rule, the Agency is using the terminology “control measures” in lieu of the proposed terminology “control techniques” because we feel this more accurately describes the list of options in the rule and avoids confusion with other CAA programs.
We are finalizing our determination that revisions to NSPS subpart T and subpart U standards are not appropriate pursuant to CAA section 111(b)(1)(B). All Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing NSPS (under subpart T and subpart U) emission sources, and the control technologies that would be employed, are the same as those for the NESHAP regulating phosphoric acid plants, such that we reached the same determination that there are no identified cost-effective practices or technologies that would provide additional emission reductions. Additionally, there were no identified technologies that have been adequately demonstrated to achieve in practice emission controls that would result in more stringent total fluoride limits for these NSPS. See section V.D of this preamble for discussion on key comments and responses regarding the NSPS review.
We are finalizing, as proposed, changes to the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing NESHAP, subpart AA to eliminate the SSM exemption. Consistent with
Today's rule also finalizes, as proposed, revisions to several other Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing NESHAP and NSPS requirements. We are finalizing, as proposed, several miscellaneous changes to clarify applicability and certain definitions, as follows:
• Adopting the proposed SPA process line definition in NESHAP subpart AA to include oxidation reactors;
• Adopting the proposed SPA plant definition in NSPS subpart U to include oxidation reactors;
• Finalizing the proposed revisions to rename “gypsum stack” to “gypsum dewatering stack” in NESHAP subpart AA; and
• Finalizing the proposed definitions for “cooling pond” and “raffinate stream” in NESHAP subpart AA.
We are finalizing, as proposed, several changes to testing, monitoring, recordkeeping and reporting requirements to provide consistency, clarification and flexibility, as follows:
• Finalizing the proposed revisions to NESHAP subpart AA that require a minimum pressure drop of 5 inches of water column for facilities that use pressure differential in parametric monitoring;
• Finalizing the proposal to remove the requirement in NESHAP subpart AA that facilities must request and obtain approval of the Administrator for changing operating limits;
• Adopting the proposed addition of a site-specific monitoring plan and calibration requirements for a continuous monitoring system (CMS) in NESHAP subpart AA;
• Adopting the proposed term “absorber” in lieu of “scrubber” in NESHAP subpart AA;
• Adopting the proposed format of NESHAP subpart AA to reference tables for emissions limits and monitoring requirements;
• Adopting the proposed provisions in NSPS subpart T and NSPS subpart U that require the owner or operator to establish an allowable range for the pressure drop through the process scrubbing system, keep records of the daily average pressure drop through the process scrubbing system, and keep records of deviations; and
• Adopting the proposed term “absorber” in lieu of “process scrubbing system” in NSPS subpart T and NSPS subpart U.
We are also finalizing changes to the NESHAP and NSPS for the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing source category on issues raised in response to the proposed rulemaking, as follows (refer to section V.F.2 of this preamble for further details):
• Revising the definition of oxidation reactor in the final rule for NESHAP subpart AA and NSPS subpart U;
• Finalizing liquid-to-gas ratio monitoring in NESHAP subpart AA for low-energy absorbers (
• Clarifying in NESHAP subpart AA that during the most recent performance test, if owners or operators demonstrate compliance with the emission limit while operating their control device outside the previously established operating limit, owners or operators must establish a new operating limit based on that most recent performance test and notify the Administrator that the operating limit changed based on data collected during the most recent performance test; and
• Clarifying in NESHAP subpart AA that facilities not be required to obtain approval, and, instead, immediately comply with a new operating limit when it is developed and submitted to the Administrator.
The revisions to the NSPS and NESHAP standards we promulgate in this action for the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing source category are effective on August 19, 2015.
The compliance date for the Hg limit in NESHAP subpart AA for existing phosphate rock calciners is August 19, 2015. Based on the data that the EPA has received, all existing phosphate rock calciners are meeting the Hg limit; therefore, no additional time would be required to achieve compliance with this standard.
The compliance date for the Hg limit in NESHAP subpart AA for new phosphate rock calciners is August 19, 2015, or upon startup, whichever is later. We are not aware of any new phosphate rock calciners operating today. New phosphate rock calciners that commence construction or reconstruction after the effective date of this rule would be required to comply with the Hg limits immediately upon startup.
The compliance date for the total fluoride limits in NESHAP subpart AA for all (existing and new) phosphate rock calciners is August 19, 2015, or upon startup, whichever is later. Based on the data that the EPA has received, all phosphate rock calciners are meeting the total fluoride limit; therefore, no additional time would be required to achieve compliance with this standard.
The compliance date in NESHAP subpart AA for preparing and operating in accordance with a gypsum dewatering stack and cooling pond management plan is August 19, 2016. A 1-year compliance lead-time will provide facilities adequate time to prepare and submit their plan for approval to the Administrator.
The compliance date for when facilities must include oxidation reactors in determining compliance with the total fluoride limit in NESHAP subpart AA for SPA process lines is August 19, 2016. We believe that 1 year is necessary because a facility may need to install additional control technology. A 1-year compliance period will provide the facility adequate time to design and install controls.
The compliance date in NESHAP subpart AA for when to install, calibrate, and maintain a bag leak detection system on a fabric filter is August 19, 2016. We believe that 1 year is necessary because some facilities that currently operate a fabric filter do not have a bag leak detection system and will need time to purchase and install this compliance monitoring equipment and implement quality assurance measures.
The compliance date in NESHAP subpart AA for the revised startup and shutdown requirements is August 19, 2015. We determined that the feasibility of operating the control devices used to control HAP emissions from phosphoric acid manufacturing is not limited by specific process operating conditions.
Finally, to ensure continuous compliance with the standard, the compliance date for the monitoring and recordkeeping requirements in NSPS subparts T and U for all new WPPA plants and SPA plants is August 19, 2015, or upon startup, whichever is later.
As stated in the preamble to the proposed rule, the EPA is taking a step to increase the ease and efficiency of data submittal and data accessibility. Specifically, the EPA is requiring owners and operators of phosphoric acid facilities to submit electronic copies of certain required performance test reports.
As mentioned in the preamble of the proposal, data will be collected by direct computer-to-computer electronic transfer using EPA-provided software. As discussed in the proposal, the EPA-provided software is an electronic performance test report tool called the ERT. The ERT will generate an electronic report package which will be submitted to the Compliance and Emissions Data Reporting Interface (CEDRI) and then archived to the EPA's Central Data Exchange (CDX). A description and instructions for use of the ERT can be found at
The requirement to submit performance test data electronically to the EPA does not create any additional performance testing and will apply only to those performance tests conducted using test methods that are supported by the ERT. A listing of the pollutants and test methods supported by the ERT is available at the ERT Web site. The EPA believes, through this approach, industry will save time in the
As mentioned in the proposed preamble, state, local, and tribal agencies will benefit from more streamlined and accurate review of performance test data that will be available on the EPA WebFIRE database. The public will also benefit. Having these data publicly available enhances transparency and accountability. For a more thorough discussion of electronic reporting of performance tests using direct computer-to-computer electronic transfer and using EPA-provided software, see the discussion in the preamble of the proposal.
In summary, in addition to supporting regulation development, control strategy development, and other air pollution control activities, having an electronic database populated with performance test data will save industry, state, local, and tribal agencies, and the EPA significant time, money, and effort, while improving the quality of emission inventories, air quality regulations, and enhancing the public's access to this important information.
This action finalizes the EPA's determinations pursuant to the RTR provisions of CAA section 112 and the 8-year review provisions of CAA section 111 for the Phosphate Fertilizer Production source category. Today's action also finalizes several of the proposed changes to the NESHAP subpart BB and the NSPS subparts V, W, and X that are described in section II.C of this preamble. This action also finalizes other changes to the NESHAP subpart BB in consideration of comments on issues raised in the proposed rulemaking, as described in section VI of this preamble.
The residual risk review for the Phosphate Fertilizer Production source category did not change since proposal; we found that the current standards provide an ample margin of safety to protect public health (79 FR 66512) and prevent an adverse environmental effect. We are, therefore, not tightening the standards under section 112(f)(2) (for NESHAP subpart BB) based on the residual risk review, and are thus readopting the existing standards under section 112(f)(2).
The technology review for the Phosphate Fertilizer Production source category did not change since proposal (79 FR 66512). We determined that there are no cost-effective developments in practices, processes, and control technologies that warrant revisions to the MACT standards for this source category (79 FR 66512). Therefore, we are not amending the MACT standards under CAA section 112(d)(6).
We are finalizing our determination that revisions to NSPS subpart V, subpart W, and subpart X standards are not appropriate pursuant to CAA section 111(b)(1)(B). All Phosphate Fertilizer Production NSPS (under subpart V, subpart W, and subpart X) emission sources, and the control technologies that would be employed, are the same as those for the NESHAP regulating phosphate fertilizer plants, such that we reached the same determination that there are no identified cost-effective practices or technologies that would provide additional emission reductions. Additionally, there were no identified technologies that have been adequately demonstrated to achieve in practice emission controls that would result in more stringent total fluoride limits for these NSPS.
We are finalizing, as proposed, changes to the Phosphate Fertilizer Production NESHAP, subpart BB to eliminate the SSM exemption. Consistent with
Today's rule also finalizes, as proposed, revisions to several other Phosphate Fertilizer Production NESHAP and NSPS requirements. We are finalizing, as proposed, changes to clarify applicability and certain definitions, as follows:
• Adopting the proposed conditions in NESHAP subpart BB that exclude the use of evaporative cooling towers for any liquid effluent from any wet scrubbing device installed to control HF emissions from process equipment; and
• Finalizing the proposed revisions changing the word “cookers” in NSPS subpart W to “coolers.”
We are finalizing, as proposed, several changes to testing, monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting to provide consistency, clarification, and flexibility, as follows:
• Finalizing the proposed revisions to NESHAP subpart BB that require a minimum pressure drop of 5 inches of water column for facilities that use pressure differential in parametric monitoring;
• Finalizing the proposal to remove the requirement in NESHAP subpart BB that facilities must request and obtain approval of the Administrator for changing operating limits;
• Adopting the proposed monitoring requirements for fabric filters in NESHAP subpart BB;
• Adopting the proposed addition of a site-specific monitoring plan and calibration requirements for CMS in NESHAP subpart BB;
• Adopting the proposed term “absorber” in lieu of “scrubber” in NESHAP subpart BB;
• Adopting the proposed format of NESHAP subpart BB to reference tables for emissions limits and monitoring requirements;
• Adopting the proposed provisions in NSPS subpart V, NSPS subpart W, and NSPS subpart X that require the owner or operator to establish an allowable range for the pressure drop through the process scrubbing system, keep records of the daily average pressure drop through the process scrubbing system, and keep records of deviations;
• Adopting the proposed term “absorber” in lieu of “scrubbing system” in NSPS subpart V; and
• Adopting the proposed term “absorber” in lieu of “process scrubbing system” in NSPS subpart W and NSPS subpart X.
We are also finalizing changes to the NESHAP and NSPS for the Phosphate Fertilizer Production source category on issues raised in response to the proposed rulemaking, as follows (refer to section VI.E.2 of this preamble for further details):
• Revising the definitions of “phosphate fertilizer process line” and “phosphate fertilizer production plant” in NESHAP subpart BB to reference granular phosphate fertilizer;
• Finalizing liquid-to-gas ratio monitoring in NESHAP subpart BB for low-energy absorbers (
• Clarifying in NESHAP subpart BB that during the most recent performance test, if owners or operators demonstrate compliance with the emission limit while operating their control device outside the previously established operating limit, owners or operators must establish a new operating limit based on that most recent performance test and notify the Administrator that the operating limit changed based on data collected during the most recent performance test; and
• Clarifying in NESHAP subpart BB that facilities not be required to obtain approval, and, instead, immediately comply with a new operating limit when it is developed and submitted to the Administrator.
The revisions to the NSPS and NESHAP standards being promulgated in this action for the Phosphate Fertilizer Production source category are effective on August 19, 2015.
The compliance date in NESHAP subpart BB for when to install, calibrate, and maintain a bag leak detection system on a fabric filter is August 19, 2016. We believe that 1 year is necessary because some facilities that currently operate a fabric filter do not have a bag leak detection system and will need time to purchase and install this compliance monitoring equipment and implement quality assurance measures.
The compliance date in NESHAP subpart BB for the revised startup and shutdown requirements is August 19, 2015. We determined that the feasibility of operating the control devices used to control HAP emissions from phosphate fertilizer production is not limited by specific process operating conditions.
Finally, to ensure continuous compliance with the standard, the compliance date for the monitoring and recordkeeping requirements in NSPS subparts V, W, and X for all new granular DAP plants, TSP plants, and GTSP storage facilities is August 19, 2015, or upon startup, whichever is later.
As stated in the preamble to the proposed rule, the EPA is taking a step to increase the ease and efficiency of data submittal and data accessibility. Specifically, the EPA is requiring owners and operators of phosphate fertilizer facilities to submit electronic copies of certain required performance test reports.
As mentioned in the preamble of the proposal, data will be collected by direct computer-to-computer electronic transfer using EPA-provided software. As discussed in the proposal, the EPA-provided software is an electronic performance test report tool called the Electronic Reporting Tool (ERT). The ERT will generate an electronic report package which will be submitted to the Compliance and Emissions Data Reporting Interface (CEDRI) and then archived to the EPA's Central Data Exchange (CDX). A description and instructions for use of the ERT can be found at
The requirement to submit performance test data electronically to the EPA does not create any additional performance testing and will apply only to those performance tests conducted using test methods that are supported by the ERT. A listing of the pollutants and test methods supported by the ERT is available at the ERT Web site. The EPA believes, through this approach, industry will save time in the performance test submittal process. Additionally, this rulemaking benefits industry by cutting back on recordkeeping costs as the performance test reports that are submitted to the EPA using CEDRI are no longer required to be kept in hard copy.
As mentioned in the proposed preamble, state, local, and tribal agencies will benefit from more streamlined and accurate review of performance test data that will be available on the EPA WebFIRE database. The public will also benefit. Having these data publicly available enhances transparency and accountability. For a more thorough discussion of electronic reporting of performance tests using direct computer-to-computer electronic transfer and using EPA-provided software, see the discussion in the preamble of the proposal.
In summary, in addition to supporting regulation development, control strategy development, and other air pollution control activities, having an electronic database populated with performance test data will save industry, state, local, and tribal agencies, and the EPA significant time, money, and effort while improving the quality of emission inventories, air quality regulations, and enhancing the public's access to this important information.
For each issue related to the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing source category, this section provides a description of what we proposed and what we are finalizing for the issue, the EPA's rationale for the final decisions and amendments, and a summary of key comments and responses. For all comments not discussed in this preamble, comment summaries and the EPA's responses can be found in the Comment Summary and Response document available in the docket.
Pursuant to CAA section 112(f), we conducted a residual risk review and presented the results of this review, along with our proposed decisions regarding risk acceptability and ample margin of safety, in the November 7, 2014, proposed rule for the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing NESHAP (79 FR 66512). The results of the risk assessment are presented briefly below in Table 2 of this preamble, and in more detail in the residual risk document, “Residual Risk Assessment for Phosphate Fertilizer Production and Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing Source Categories in support of the July 2015 Risk and Technology Review Final Rule,” which is available in the docket for this rulemaking.
Based on actual emissions for the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing source category, the maximum individual risk (MIR) was estimated to be less than 1-in-1 million, the maximum chronic non-cancer target organ-specific hazard index (TOSHI) value was estimated to be up to 0.2, and the maximum off-site acute hazard quotient (HQ) value was estimated to be up to 2. The total estimated national cancer incidence from this source category, based on actual emission levels, was 0.0002 excess cancer cases per year, or one case in every 5,000 years. Based on MACT-allowable emissions for the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing source category, the MIR was estimated to be less than 1-in-1 million, and the maximum chronic non-cancer TOSHI value was estimated to be up to 0.3. We also found there were emissions of several persistent and bio-accumulative HAP (PB-HAP) with an available RTR multipathway screening value, and with the exception of Hg and cadmium compounds, the reported emissions of these HAP (
We then considered whether the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing NESHAP provides an ample margin of safety to protect public health and prevents, taking into consideration costs, energy, safety, and other relevant factors, an adverse environmental effect. In considering whether the standards should be tightened to provide an ample margin of safety to protect public health, we considered the same risk factors that we considered for our acceptability determination and also considered the costs, technological feasibility, and other relevant factors related to emissions control options that might reduce risk associated with emissions from the source category. We proposed that the current standards provided an ample margin of safety to protect public health. With respect to adverse environmental effects, none of the individual modeled concentrations for any facility in the source category exceeded any of the ecological benchmarks (either the lowest-observed-adverse-effect level (LOAEL) or no-observed-adverse-effect level (NOAEL)). Based on the results of our screening analysis for risks to the environment, we also proposed that the current standards prevent an adverse environmental effect.
The residual risk review for the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing source category did not change since proposal (79 FR 66512). Accordingly, we are not tightening the standards under section 112(f)(2) based on the residual risk review, and are thus readopting the existing standards under section 112(f)(2).
The comments received on the proposed residual risk review were generally supportive of our determination of risk acceptability and ample margin of safety analysis. However, we received several comments requesting we make changes to the residual risk review, including:
• Update the residual risk review with the recommendations and information from the National Academy of Sciences (NAS);
• Incorporate the best currently available information on children's exposure to lead, and go beyond using the 2008 Lead National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS);
• Reevaluate whether the residual risk review is consistent with the key recommendations made by the Science Advisory Board (SAB);
• Clarify in the rulemaking docket that data received by industry were commensurate with the relevant statutory obligations;
• Revise HF emission data because they are not representative of actual HF emissions, but rather overestimate emissions causing the residual risk review to have an overtly conservative bias;
• Reconsider the assumption used in the NESHAP residual risk assessment that all chromium is hexavalent chromium;
• Revise certain stack parameters used in the analysis;
• Clarify meteorological data used in the analysis;
• Adequately explain rationale for the maximum 1-hour emission rate used for determining potential acute exposures;
• Clarify the selection of ecological assessment endpoints; and
• Provide some quantitative or qualitative rationale for the characterization of the exposure modeling uncertainty.
We evaluated the comments and determined that no changes were needed. Since none of these comments had an effect on the final rule, their summaries and corresponding EPA responses are not included in this preamble. A summary of these comments and our responses can be found in the Comment Summary and Response document available in the docket for this action (EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522).
For the reasons explained in the proposed rule, we determined that the risks from the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing source category are acceptable, the current standards provide an ample margin of safety to protect public health, and prevent an adverse environmental effect. Since proposal, neither the risk assessment nor our determinations regarding risk acceptability, ample margin of safety or adverse environmental effects have changed. Therefore, pursuant to CAA section 112(f)(2), we are finalizing our residual risk review as proposed.
Pursuant to CAA section 112(d)(6), we conducted a technology review, which focused on identifying and evaluating developments in practices, processes, and control technologies for the emission sources in the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing source category. At proposal, we did not identify cost-effective developments in practices, processes, or control technologies that warrant revisions to the NESHAP for this source category. More information concerning our technology review can be found in the memorandum, “CAA Section 111(b)(1)(B) and 112(d)(6) Reviews for the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing and Phosphate Fertilizer Production Source Categories,” which is available in the docket, and in the preamble to the proposed rule, 79 FR 66538-66539.
The technology review for the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing source category did not change since proposal (79 FR 66512). Therefore, we are not revising NESHAP subpart AA based on the technology review.
Commenters agreed with our conclusion that there are no new cost-effective developments in practices, processes, or control technologies that can be applied to the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing source category that would reduce HAP emissions below current levels.
For the reasons explained in the proposed rule, we concluded that additional standards are not necessary pursuant to CAA section 112(d)(6); therefore, we are not finalizing changes to NESHAP subpart AA as part of our technology review.
We proposed MACT standards for HF and Hg pursuant to CAA sections 112(d)(2) and 112(d)(3), and work practice standards pursuant to CAA section 112(h), for phosphate rock calciners, an emissions source that was initially regulated for HAP metals using PM as a surrogate. We proposed regulating two pollutants, Hg and HF, which were not directly regulated under the initial NESHAP subpart AA. We proposed eliminating the use of PM as a surrogate for Hg and proposed a Hg emission limit for phosphate rock calciners. Because control devices may be necessary to meet the proposed Hg limits for phosphate rock calciners, we proposed monitoring and testing requirements in NESHAP subpart AA for the two types of control systems evaluated as alternatives for control of Hg: Adsorbers (typically fixed bed carbon), and sorbent injection (
Also, we did not propose revised emissions limits for rock dryers because this process is no longer used in the NESHAP regulated source categories for phosphoric acid or phosphate fertilizer (
Finally, we proposed a work practice applicable to facilities when new gypsum dewatering stacks are constructed that would limit the size of active gypsum dewatering stacks and control fugitive HF emissions. When new gypsum dewatering stacks are constructed, we proposed that the ratio of total active gypsum dewatering stacks area (
In consideration of comments received during the public comment period for the proposed rulemaking, we are finalizing the proposed BTF Hg limit in NESHAP subpart AA for new phosphate rock calciners. We are not finalizing the proposed BTF Hg limit in NESHAP subpart AA for existing phosphate rock calciners. Instead, we are finalizing a MACT floor Hg limit for existing phosphate rock calciners based on the results of the MACT floor calculations for Hg that are discussed in the preamble of the proposed rule (79 FR 66533). We are also revising our estimated costs in the final rule as discussed in section V.C.3.a.i of this preamble. In addition, we are not finalizing work practice standards for HF from phosphate rock calciners, as proposed. Instead, as discussed in section V.C.3.a.ii of this preamble, we are including a total fluoride emission limit for phosphate rock calciners in NESHAP subpart AA.
Also, in consideration of comments received (see section V.C.3.b.i of this preamble for details), we are not adopting the proposed work practice in NESHAP subpart AA that limits the size of active gypsum dewatering stacks (which would have been applicable to facilities when new gypsum dewatering stacks are constructed). Lastly, we are finalizing in NESHAP subpart AA the work practice standard as proposed that requires owners or operators to prepare and operate in accordance with a gypsum dewatering stack and cooling pond management plan. However, based on analysis of public comments, we are making several changes to the specific control techniques that we proposed as options in the plan for controlling fugitive HF emissions (see section V.C.3.b.ii of this preamble for details on these changes).
We received several comments regarding the proposed addition of numeric emission limits for Hg and work practice standards for HF emissions from phosphate rock calciners, and the addition of gypsum dewatering stack and cooling pond work practices for the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing source category. The following is a summary of the significant comments we received regarding these topics and our responses to them. Other comments received and our responses to those comments can be found in the Comment Summary and Response document available in the docket for this action (EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522).
Commenters stated the Hg control devices that the EPA evaluated for the phosphate rock calciner BTF limit were not technically feasible, but did note two potential solutions. Specifically, the commenters stated that use of ACI just prior to the existing WESP or after the WESP with a fabric filter is not technically feasible. The commenters explained the exhaust gas downstream of the WESP is completely saturated and contains entrained water droplets; this would plug the fabric filter, result in performance degradation of the activated carbon, and could lead to plugging of the injection lances and formation of deposits on the ducts. The commenters further explained that it would not be feasible to install heating systems or design engineering control to avoid these problems, due to high costs and the technical complexity. The commenters noted that installing the ACI just prior to the WESP was also not feasible, again due to performance degradation of the activated carbon, but also due to the fact that the existing WESPs could not capture the additional particulate load. The commenters reported that installing the ACI upstream of the existing venturi scrubber is technically feasible, because the gas upstream of the scrubber is not completely saturated. However, the commenters noted several design and operational modifications that would be necessary; these modifications focused on reducing the temperature of the exhaust gas streams to less than 375 degrees Fahrenheit. When installing ACI upstream of the existing venturi scrubber, the ACI vendor used by the commenter recommended the use of treated (
Regarding fixed-bed carbon adsorption, commenters stated a traditional fixed-bed carbon adsorption system would not be feasible due to the presence of entrained water droplets that would severely degrade sorbent performance and cause plugging within the bed. The commenters indicated that new Gore Mercury Control System (GMCS) technology might be technically feasible because it uses a fixed sorbent structure with a sorbent polymer composite material to adsorb Hg; the GMCS polymer composite material might protect the sorbent from entrained water droplets and other contaminants in the flue gas. The commenters stated that to use a GMCS fixed-bed carbon adsorption system, several adjustments to the calciners would be necessary, as well as a pilot study to confirm the feasibility. Another commenter also reported they were evaluating the use of the GMCS system, but were only in preliminary stages as their phosphate rock calciner is not yet operating. A commenter also explained that each phosphate rock calciner would need its own controls and a single control system for all phosphate rock calciners
Several commenters argued that ACI and fixed-bed carbon adsorption were not cost effective for controlling Hg emissions from phosphate rock calciners. Two commenters reported a site-specific cost estimate for installing GMCS fixed-bed carbon adsorption downstream of the existing WESP, with capital costs of $32 million and annual costs of $5.8 million; the resulting cost-effectiveness was approximately $40,000 per pound of Hg. The commenters noted the GMCS cost-effectiveness ($40,000/lb Hg) was much higher than the cost-effectiveness the EPA presented in the proposed rule ($8,000/lb Hg) for a traditional fixed-bed carbon adsorption system. Commenters also reported a site-specific cost estimate for installing ACI upstream of the existing venturi scrubbers, with capital costs of $21.1 million and annual costs of $9.1 million; this resulted in a cost-effectiveness of approximately $63,000 per pound of Hg. The commenters noted this ACI cost-effectiveness ($63,000/lb Hg) was much higher than the cost-effectiveness the EPA presented in the proposed rule ($12,100/lb Hg) for ACI. The commenters stated that because their costs for ACI and GMCS fixed-bed carbon adsorption were site-specific, they are much more representative than the costs developed by the EPA for the proposed rule. Finally, one commenter stressed that the site-specific Hg control cost-effectiveness numbers were well above the cost-effectiveness for other rules where the EPA implemented BTF Hg controls. Another commenter noted that preliminary information for installing Hg controls resulted in estimates of $17.5 million in capital costs and $10 million for annual costs.
The results of the residual risk analyses are not part of the BTF MACT determination, and, accordingly, the commenters' concern about not considering risk results is not appropriate. See
The Agency appreciates the commenters' site-specific review of Hg control device technologies and agrees with the commenters' revisions to certain aspects of the technical feasibility of ACI and fixed-bed carbon adsorption. At proposal, we noted that high moisture streams may result in plugging of the fabric filter, as it relates to ACI use. However, we did not consider that entrained water droplets in the high moisture streams would degrade carbon sorbent performance for both ACI and fixed-bed carbon adsorption, or lead to plugging within a fixed-bed. As a result of the additional information provided by the commenters, we agree that it is not technically feasible to use ACI just prior to the existing WESP or after the WESP with a fabric filter to control Hg emissions from phosphate rock calciners, based on current operations. Based on information available at this time, we also agree that a traditional fixed-bed carbon adsorption system is not technically feasible to control Hg emissions from phosphate rock calciners.
The commenters also stated, and the EPA agrees, that use of ACI (specifically halogenated carbon) is technically feasible to control Hg emissions from phosphate rock calciners if ACI is installed upstream of the existing venturi scrubber, where the moisture content is lower. However, we disagree with the commenters' assessment that a carbon injection rate of 30 lb/MMacf would be necessary to achieve a 90 percent reduction in Hg emissions from phosphate rock calciners. The commenters' carbon injection rate estimate is much higher than ACI installations at coal power plants and cement kilns, and while phosphate rock calciners may have unique exhaust gas properties, these properties do not warrant such an extreme carbon feed rate.
To provide additional context on carbon injection rates, we reviewed numerous ACI Hg reduction studies conducted through a National Energy Technology Laboratory (NETL) research program under the Department of Energy (DOE), as well as other studies, which are available in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522. In our review, we considered the impact on carbon injection rates due to temperature, moisture content, Hg concentration, sulfur content (
The commenter also noted that modifications focused on reducing the temperature of the exhaust gas streams would be necessary in order for ACI to be effective when installed prior to the existing venturi scrubber. This reduced operating temperature for the phosphate rock calciner exhaust would be in a similar range as coal utility boilers; it is common for coal utility boilers to have exhaust gases at temperatures exceeding 300 degrees Fahrenheit (see the documents “Coal Plant Hg Controls Update_EPA_2005” and “DOE NETL Hg Field Testing Update_2008,” which are available in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522). Therefore, the cited coal utility boiler studies are appropriate and show that ACI is effective in the new temperature range. This further refutes the commenter's citation of the 1994 document regarding temperature concerns and the necessity of an injection rate as high as 30 lb/MMacf.
Data are available demonstrating that increased SO
Additionally, we identified a pilot study that was conducted in 2007 on a cement kiln at the Ash Grove Durkee facility that resulted in more than 90 percent Hg removal efficiencies using carbon injection rates of only 3 lb/MMacf. Of note, the Hg concentration in the cement kiln exhaust gas was more than 10 times higher than the Hg concentration in the phosphate rock calciner exhaust gas. This study is presented in the document “Carbon Injection Pilot Test Durkee OR_2007,” available in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522.
While we acknowledge that phosphate rock calciner exhaust streams may have certain unique characteristics, we do not agree with a PAC injection rate of 30 lb/MMacf based on the data available, as discussed above. We believe a halogenated PAC injection rate of 10 lb/MMacf or lower (for ACI installed upstream of the existing venturi scrubbers) is sufficient for meeting the BTF Hg limit for phosphate rock calciners.
Commenters also noted, and the EPA agrees, that GMCS technology would be technically feasible to control Hg emissions from phosphate rock calciners. We also agree that individual GMCS fixed-bed carbon adsorption systems would be necessary for each of the six phosphate rock calciners. The commenters noted that two full-scale operations are actively using GMCS fixed-bed carbon adsorption systems to control Hg. Furthermore, based on additional discussion with industry (see “EPA Meeting Minutes for PCS Aurora Hg Discussion, March 12, 2015,” which is available in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522), we now know that three full-scale operations use GMCS to control Hg, with two additional operations to come online soon. These full-scale operations are located at coal power plants, not phosphoric acid manufacturing processes. Based on the vendor-provided information and the fact that GMCS technology is currently used at coal power plants to comply with Hg emission limits, we believe GMCS technology is technically feasible. In regards to the need for a pilot study, facilities would have time to design, construct, and test the system.
Although we have determined that two control technologies are technically feasible to control Hg emissions from phosphate rock calciners, we evaluated costs for the BTF Hg limit based on the estimated lower cost technology, installation of halogenated ACI upstream of the existing venturi scrubber. We used the ACI cost data provided by the commenter to estimate the costs for complying with the BTF Hg limit. However, instead of basing the annual carbon cost on an injection rate of 30 lb/MMacf, we applied injection rates of 5 and 10 lb/MMacf of halogenated carbon for reasons stated above. As provided by the commenter, the capital cost for installing six ACI units on each existing phosphate rock calciner is approximately $21,150,000. The annual cost ranges from approximately $4,320,000 (when a carbon injection rate of 5 lb/MMacf is used) to approximately $5,280,000 (when a carbon injection rate of 10 lb/MMacf is used); this results in Hg reductions of 145 pounds of Hg per year. As previously stated, these annual costs imposed a significant economic burden and we are not finalizing the BTF Hg limit for existing phosphate rock calciners.
Existing phosphate rock calciners must comply with a Hg emission limit that equals the MACT floor at 0.14 mg Hg/dscm at 3-percent O
We evaluated application of the BTF Hg limit for new phosphate rock calciners. Facilities would have time to plan for and consider the costs when determining whether to construct a new phosphate rock calciner. Additionally, sources may choose to only add one new calciner unit at a time, which would have considerably less impact than the costs associated with retrofitting all units at an existing site. Therefore, we evaluated the cost-effectiveness for installing Hg controls on a new phosphate rock calciner. Using the same cost data provided by the commenter, installing a single ACI would have capital costs of approximately $3,500,000. The annual cost ranges from approximately $720,000 (when a carbon injection rate of 5 lb/MMacf is used) to approximately $880,000 (when a carbon injection rate of 10 lb/MMacf is used). This results in Hg reductions of 24 pounds of Hg per year for a single calciner unit, assuming the new phosphate rock calciner has similar emissions as the existing phosphate rock calciners at PCS Aurora. The resulting cost-effectiveness is estimated to be $29,800 to $36,400 per pound of Hg reduced, which we consider cost effective for new sources. This facility-level cost-effectiveness for Hg for new sources is comparable to values the EPA found to be cost effective for removal of Hg at the facility-level in other air toxics rules.
Another commenter does not support the use of work practices for HF, and declared the EPA should set numeric emission limits for HF from phosphate rock calciners. The commenter maintained that the EPA failed to satisfy the CAA section 112(h) test it must meet to promulgate work practice standards “in lieu of” numerical emission standards. The commenter stated that not using the available emissions data to set a floor limit is unlawful and arbitrary, even if the data are below the detection limit.
For the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing source category, we have a limited dataset for the pollutant total fluoride from phosphate rock calciners. Therefore, we evaluated this specific dataset to determine whether it is appropriate to make any modifications to the UPL approach used to calculate the MACT floor. For the phosphate rock calciner dataset, we performed the following steps: We selected the data distribution that best represents the dataset; ensured that the correct equation for the distribution was then applied to the data; and compared individual components of the limited dataset to determine if the total fluoride standard based on the limited dataset reasonably represents the performance of the units included in the dataset. The results of this analysis are presented below.
The MACT floor dataset for total fluoride from new and existing phosphate rock calciners includes 3 test runs from 1 phosphate rock calciner. After determining that the dataset is best represented by a normal distribution and ensuring that we used the correct equation for the distribution, we considered the selection of a lower confidence level for determining the emission limit by evaluating whether the calculated limit reasonably represents the performance of the unit upon which it is based. In this case, the calculated emission limit is about twice the short-term average emissions from the best performing source, indicating that the emission limit is not unreasonable compared to the actual performance of the unit upon which the limit is based and is within the range that we see when we evaluate larger datasets using our MACT floor calculation procedures. Therefore, we determined that no changes to our standard UPL floor calculation procedure are warranted for this pollutant and subcategory. We are applying the same method of calculating a total fluoride limit as we did for the Hg MACT floor calculation, for which we gave notice in the preamble to the proposed rule. Additional details and background on the MACT floor calculation are provided in the memorandums, “Maximum Achievable
These commenters claimed the term “gypsum dewatering stack” is so broadly and ambiguously defined they are unable to determine the scope and impact of the proposed area limitation of 80 acres per 100,000 tpy capacity, or how the proposed limitation would be applied to facilities. They claimed the EPA's definition includes a wide array of features that have never before been considered part of the gypsum dewatering stack (
Additionally, commenters argued that the EPA's technical rationale for limiting stack area was based on an arbitrary correlation with production capacity. One of these commenters said there is no relationship between gypsum dewatering stack area and phosphoric acid manufacturing capacity, and that outliers were removed from the analysis further confirming no quantitative relationship between stack area and facility capacity. This commenter also asserted that limiting the size of the gypsum dewatering stacks is not proven to limit HF emissions.
Furthermore, two commenters claimed the 80-acre limit does not consider an evaluation of water balance and process water cooling needs for individual facilities. These commenters pointed out that a flat area does not require as large of a footprint for its gypsum dewatering stacks as compared to an area with large topographic relief. One of these commenters provided examples of two gypsum dewatering stacks located in mountainous areas that require larger footprints to construct ponds due to longer runs of pipe, roads, and dike.
Finally, one commenter claimed that an updated acreage-based analysis would need to account for the transition period between a stack becoming “inactive” and the point in time of “closure” so as not to exceed the acreage limit while constructing a new stack. Another commenter stated that the startup of a gypsum dewatering stack is a lengthy process that may take more than a year, and that the “ratio” requirement inaccurately assumes simultaneous closure of an old stack with the opening (
Nevertheless, in light of other concerns raised by commenters, we are not adopting the proposed work practice that limits the size of active gypsum dewatering stacks, which would have been applicable to facilities when new gypsum dewatering stacks are constructed.
As we stated in the preamble to the proposed rule, we did not detect a correlation between gypsum stack dewatering area and phosphoric acid manufacturing capacity; however, we proposed the size limit because we believe that reducing the gypsum dewatering stack area is directly related to reducing HF emissions. We also believed that phosphoric acid manufacturing capacity was related to the size of gypsum dewatering stacks and that it was operationally appropriate to allow large facilities to build larger gypsum dewatering stacks, while limiting smaller facilities to building a proportionally smaller gypsum dewatering stack. However, we have now concluded, based on analysis of public comments and other supplemental information provided, that it is not feasible to require facilities to close gypsum dewatering stacks based on a ratio of total active gypsum dewatering stack area (
We are removing the definition of “closed gypsum dewatering stack,” and revising the definition of “active gypsum dewatering stack,” as well as the definitions for when a gypsum dewatering stack is considered “new” or “existing” (see sections V.C.3.b.ii and V.C.3.b.iii of this preamble for further details).
Three commenters opposed the use of submerged discharge pipes and siphon breaks below the surface of the cooling pond as a fugitive HF emissions control technique. They claimed that submerging cooling pond discharge lines for above-grade ponds would create a significant risk for a siphon effect to occur when a pumping system is shutdown, causing backpressure on the pump seals back down the line, and, thus, defeating the purpose of the siphon break. One of these commenters added that submerging siphon breaks will impede the ability of these devices to prevent backflow because submersion may interfere with the atmospheric connection needed to make siphon breaks operate properly.
One commenter stated that although they use a rim ditch (cell) building technique, it is not an appropriate work practice for reducing HF emissions, and mentioned that the EPA does not provide data or an explanation of the linkage between minimizing the gypsum dewatering stack surface area and reducing emissions. This commenter suggested that the EPA define the technique as “a gypsum stack building
Several commenters also objected to the wetting of the active gypsum dewatering stack as a fugitive HF emissions control technique because the technique may be infeasible and counter-productive due to water balance issues at nearly every affected facility. One commenter argued that applying fresh water is not feasible (
One commenter challenged the EPA's lack of evidence on the effectiveness of applying slaked lime to gypsum dewatering stacks as a fugitive HF emissions control technique, and claimed that it would not be feasible, referring to rain as threat to eliminate the potential for effectiveness. On the contrary, another commenter described how they apply a lime solution on top of reachable drying gypsum stack areas, and that the reaction of fluoride with slaked lime does result in the “tie-up” of volatile F, although they are not aware of any studies that have measured or quantified reductions.
In addition, commenters also claimed that enormous costs would be associated with the fugitive HF emissions control technique requiring facilities to apply soil caps and vegetation to all side slopes of the active gypsum dewatering stack up to 50 feet below the stack top. Some of these commenters mentioned that there are state rules that require soil caps and side vegetation on side slopes for erosion/water impact control, but not for the purpose of fugitive HF emissions control.
Furthermore, commenters requested that the closure of a gypsum dewatering stack not be considered a fugitive HF emissions control technique. One commenter contended that the EPA should allow the final cover on a closed stack to consist of a synthetic liner, as this would achieve the same purpose as a vegetative liner and may be more appropriate in some instances. Another commenter explained that some states and the EPA have closure requirements under Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), including, for example, requirements for long term care practices (beyond 20-50 years); shaping and configuration of gypsum dewatering stacks; site security. They suggested that due to these detailed requirements, it would be best to defer to stack closure requirements within other regulations and not have NESHAP requirements that involve or require stack closure.
Finally, commenters requested that if the EPA proceeds with a final rule that includes work practices for reducing fugitive HF emissions from gypsum dewatering stacks or cooling ponds, the work practices should include a flexibility mechanism for facilities to use additional practices not codified during this rulemaking. One commenter asserted that work practice standards that might commonly be practicable for other industries are not universally practicable (or legally permissible) throughout the phosphoric acid and phosphate fertilizer industries, and some practices might be appropriate for some facilities, but not others (depending on location, climate, etc.).
We noted in the preamble to the proposed rule that we believe that it is most effective for sources to determine the best practices that are to be incorporated into their site-specific gypsum dewatering stack and cooling pond management plan. We also stated in the preamble to the proposed rule that sources would be required to incorporate control measures from the list of options being proposed, and we solicited comment on the proposed site-specific gypsum dewatering stack and cooling pond management plan. In addition, we made considerable effort
Additionally, personnel from the Florida Department of Environmental Protection (DEP) had concerns regarding how the plan would be implemented, as well as how a facility would show compliance with the control measure it chooses (see “Notes from Meeting with Florida DEP Regarding Gypsum Dewatering Stack and Cooling Pond Management Plan, March 4, 2015,” which is available in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522). Therefore, in an effort to improve compliance demonstration with a facility's site-specific gypsum dewatering stack and cooling pond management plan, we are including a condition in the final NESHAP subpart AA rule that requires facilities to submit their plan for approval to the Administrator. Facilities will be required to provide details on how they plan to implement and show compliance with the control measure(s) that they choose. The Administrator will approve or disapprove the facility's site-specific gypsum dewatering stack and cooling pond management plan within 90 days after it is received. There may be a benefit to facilities and permitting authorities for the gypsum dewatering stack and cooling pond management plan and the title V major modification application to be submitted and reviewed at the same time. To change any of the information submitted in the plan, the facility must submit a revised plan 60 days before the change is to be implemented in order to allow time for review and approval by the Administrator before the change is implemented.
We are not including an option in the NESHAP subpart AA final rule, as commenters requested, that would provide a flexibility mechanism for facilities to use additional practices not codified during this rulemaking. This type of flexibility does not provide regulatory certainty that is needed for both industry and the EPA.
Although some commenters opposed using a submerged discharge pipe (with necessary siphon breaks to a level below the surface of the pond) as a fugitive HF emissions control measure, we believe submerging a discharge pipe can be appropriate and effective for reducing emissions from process water discharges into a cooling pond, although some facilities may not choose this option. Moreover, we agree with commenters that submerging siphon breaks could impede the ability of these devices to prevent backflow; therefore, we are removing this requirement from the final rule. On a recent site visit (see “Site Visits to Mosaic Plant City and Mosaic New Wales, March 4, 2015,” which is available in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522), we noted strong vapor odors coming from splash operations occurring at a non-submerged pipe that was discharging process water into a cooling pond. According to AP-42, Chapter 5.2—Transportation and Marketing of Petroleum Liquids (01/95), significant turbulence and vapor/liquid contact that occur during splash discharge operations will result in higher levels of vapor generation and emissions loss compared to using a submerged discharge operation. Liquid turbulence is controlled significantly during submerged discharge operations, resulting in much lower vapor generation than encountered during splash discharge operations. We believe this demonstrates that submerging the pipe is an effective technique for mitigating HF emissions, and we are therefore retaining this option for cooling ponds.
However, we are removing the option of submerging a discharge pipe that is associated with the gypsum pond because it is not a feasible option due to high solids volume in the slurry. (A gypsum pond, also called a settling pond, often is located in the middle of a gypsum disposal pile and receives waste gypsum slurry.) Based on information received from industry after the public comment period ended for the proposal (see Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522-0048), it is much more likely for this particular pipe to become clogged, creating backpressure on pump seals. Submerging the discharge pipe under water in the gypsum pond creates a potential restriction against the discharging slurry that could get worse as solids build up around and against the end of the pipe. The discharge pipe for the gypsum pond is also routinely moved, which complicates submersing it.
As we stated earlier in our response, we are not aware of any facility that uses a gypsum dewatering stack building technique that is different from rim ditch (cell) building. With regard to commenters' assertions that the EPA did not provide data or explain the link between minimizing the gypsum dewatering stack surface area and reducing fugitive HF emissions, we believe that using the rim ditch technique over the lifespan of a gypsum dewatering stack will reduce the surface area of the gypsum pond and thereby reduce fugitive HF emissions. Fugitive HF emissions are calculated using an emission factor that is directly related to the total acreage from the gypsum dewatering stack, which includes the pond surface area (tons HF per acre per year); therefore, minimizing the pond surface area would minimize HF emissions. The rim ditch (cell) building technique is mainly used for gypsum dewatering stack stability since inner and outer dikes are used to create a rim ditch that provides better protection against overflow of the gypsum pond. However, as rim ditches are filled with slurry, the gypsum pond area will gradually decrease within each cell, thereby shrinking the amount of surface area of the pond that is exposed to the atmosphere (reducing the amount of fugitive HF emissions). An alternative to the rim ditch technique is to simply discharge gypsum slurry into the gypsum pond. With this technique, there is no inner dike to control slurry flow and the pond surface area would not be reduced as quickly or consistently. This increased surface area would allow greater potential for fugitive HF emissions due to the larger amount of surface water exposed to the atmosphere. We are revising this control measure option in the NESHAP subpart AA final rule to clarify that owners or operators must minimize the surface area of the gypsum pond associated with the active gypsum dewatering stack (and not the surface area of the active gypsum dewatering stack as we had proposed) by using a rim ditch (cell) building technique or other building technique. This clarification also addresses industry's suggestion to reword the control measure in response to a meeting that occurred after the public comment period closed (see “EPA Meeting Minutes for TFI Discussion March 12, 2015,” and “Summary of Potential Costs for Implementing Phosphate NESHAPs/Recommendations for Phosphogypsum Stack Work Practices, May 5, 2015,” which are both available in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522). Moreover, in this same correspondence that occurred after the public comment period closed, industry provided a suggestion for the definition of “rim ditch.” We agree with industry's suggested definition; however, we believe the definition more appropriately covers the meaning of “rim ditch (cell) building technique” and not just “rim ditch.” We are including this definition in the final rule for “rim ditch (cell) building technique” in an effort to clarify what we mean by this control measure. The
Based on commenters' objection to wetting active gypsum dewatering stacks as a fugitive HF emissions control measure, and additional discussion with industry (see “EPA Meeting Minutes for Simplot Discussion April 1, 2015,” which is available in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522), we determined that the proposed rule was not clear on how this control measure would be used. This control measure is not applied to the side slopes of the gypsum dewatering stacks, and instead is used on certain gypsum areas within cells of a gypsum dewatering stack. According to one facility located in arid climate (see “EPA Meeting Minutes for Simplot Discussion April 1, 2015,” which is available in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522), these areas may be more susceptible to drying out in warmer months due to higher surface temperatures of the gypsum dewatering stack; therefore, a system of weirs can be used to help direct gypsum pond water (not fresh water) to these areas to keep them wet. We agree with the commenter who pointed out that that applying water to a gypsum stack may actually increase fugitive emissions because HF resides primarily in the water used to transport the gypsum slurry to the gypsum dewatering stack. We realize that this option might increase the surface area of the gypsum pond water which conflicts with our understanding that minimizing surface area of the gypsum pond will minimize HF emissions. Therefore, we are not adopting this proposed control measure in the NESHAP subpart AA final rule.
In response to a commenter's assertion that there is lack of evidence of the effectiveness of applying slaked lime to gypsum dewatering stacks as a fugitive HF emissions control measure, we received information after the public comment period ended (see Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522-0048) that at least one facility uses this technique to help meet its state ambient air standard for F. This commenter stated that, based on data from their site-specific ambient air monitoring, they apply a lime solution to their gypsum dewatering stack areas during periods where they are close to violating their 30-day state ambient air standard for F, measured as HF, in order to stay below the standard. Slaked lime can precipitate fluorides from gypsum dewatering stacks and cooling ponds, thus reducing the availability of fluorides in solution that could then be released into the air during evaporation. This is an example of the type of detail that the Administrator may require be included in the facility's site-specific plan (in addition to how compliance would be demonstrated) before it could be approved. We have clarified in the final rule that if this control measure is chosen, then the plan must include the method used to determine the specific locations slaked lime is applied. The plan must also include the methods used to determine the quantity of, and when to apply, slaked lime (
With respect to the measure involving application of soil caps and vegetation to side slopes of a gypsum dewatering stack, on recent site, visits personnel from Mosaic and the Florida DEP had concerns that this control measure was too specific in that it could be difficult for facilities to demonstrate compliance with the “50 feet below the stack top” requirement as well as the requirement to apply soil caps and vegetation to all side slopes (see “Site Visits to Mosaic Plant City and Mosaic New Wales, March 4, 2015,” and “Notes from Meeting with Florida DEP Regarding Gypsum Dewatering Stack and Cooling Pond Management Plan, March 4, 2015,” which are available in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522). We recognize that applying soil caps and vegetation to side slopes of a gypsum dewatering stack is an ongoing process that continuously changes over time based on facility-specific operations. Therefore, we have revised this control measure option in the NESHAP subpart AA final rule to acknowledge that this technique will only be applied to portions of the side slopes that are no longer active on a gypsum dewatering stack instead of all side slopes up to 50 feet below the top of the gypsum dewatering stack. We also have revised this option to allow the use of a synthetic cover in lieu of soil caps and vegetation. Furthermore, we expect that if a facility chose to use this specific control measure in their plan, the Administrator may require details on schedule, and how the portion of side slopes that received soil caps and vegetation, or a synthetic cover, is determined (in addition to how compliance would be demonstrated), before the plan could be approved. Therefore, we have clarified in the final rule that the plan must include the method used to determine the specific locations of soil caps and vegetation, or synthetic cover, and specify the acreage and locations where soil caps and vegetation, or synthetic cover, is applied. The plan must also include a schedule describing when soil caps and vegetation, or synthetic cover, is to be applied.
Additionally, we believe that this control measure creates a barrier on the surface of the gypsum dewatering stack side slopes that reduces HF emissions; therefore, we disagree with commenters' assertion that applying soil caps and vegetation may not be an effective option for fugitive HF emissions control. The Florida DEP has used this control measure as part of its overall management of fluorides from gypsum dewatering stacks; and Wyoming has approved this control measure in a facility's title V permit as an optional method for reducing fugitive fluoride emissions. We also disagree with a request
We disagree with commenters' requests to exclude closure from the list of measures for controlling fugitive HF emissions from gypsum dewatering stacks. We believe that closing a gypsum dewatering stack is one of the best solutions for reducing fugitive HF emissions because it permanently reduces the emissions from the greatest contributing source. However, we are revising this control measure option in the NESHAP subpart AA final rule to allow a facility to design its own closure requirement plan, provided that the closure requirements, at a minimum, contain: (1) A specific trigger mechanism for when owners or operators must begin the closure process on the gypsum dewatering stack, and (2) a requirement to install a final cover. As with all gypsum dewatering stack and
As we have stated before, the final list of NESHAP subpart AA control measures is exhaustive enough that a facility has a number of options for selecting a control measure that would be feasible for their particular operations. We assume that facilities would choose the lowest cost option, and that all facilities are using at least one of the control measure options already (
Lastly, the Agency has revised the definitions in the NESHAP subpart AA final rule for when a gypsum dewatering stack is considered “new” or “existing” in order to address whether a lateral expansion of an existing gypsum dewatering stack is considered a new gypsum dewatering stack. The revised definitions in the final rule also deal with a concern one commenter raised during the comment period about triggering the proposed regulation for a “new” source each time they rotate the functionality of their three gypsum dewatering stack sites at their facility (this topic was also discussed after the comment period closed, see “USEPA Meeting Minutes for PCS Aurora Discussion (2.2.2015),” which is available in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522). We are revising the NESHAP subpart AA final rule such that a gypsum dewatering stack or cooling pond is considered “new” if it meets two criteria: (1) It was constructed or reconstructed after August 19, 2015, and (2) it was required to obtain a permit by a state authority for the construction or reconstruction. Some lateral expansions may build beyond a facility's existing permitted capacity (and design dimensions of the gypsum dewatering stack); therefore, these lateral expansions would be considered “new” in the final rule because the facility would be required to obtain (or revise) their existing permitted capacity (and design dimensions). Because of this change in the NESHAP subpart AA final rule, we are also revising the criteria for when a gypsum dewatering stack or cooling pond is considered “existing.” Specifically, a gypsum dewatering stack or cooling pond is
In addition, another commenter suggested additional control measure options for reducing fugitive HF emissions from cooling ponds. This commenter suggested EPA include an option to develop and implement a plan for dredging cooling ponds which helps maintain cooling capacity, and, therefore, can reduce fugitive emissions by reducing the vapor pressure of fluoride in the pond water. This commenter also suggested EPA include an option to implement a system for the recovery of fluoride for water that is directed to cooling ponds. The commenter pointed out that one of its facilities has the capability to recover fluoride as hydrofluorosilicic acid during the phosphoric acid evaporation process. The commenter stated that this recovery process is operated as needed to meet the market demand for hydrofluorosilicic acid. Finally, the commenter suggested EPA include an option to implement a system for the removal of fluoride for water that is directed to cooling ponds (for example, by adding lime to increase the pH).
We have determined that using lime (or any other caustic substance) to raise the pH of liquid discharged into the cooling pond could be a feasible control measure option for reducing fluoride emissions from cooling ponds; therefore, we are including this option in the NESHAP subpart AA final rule. The control measure option simultaneously raises the pH of the cooling pond water and lowers the concentration of soluble F, and, thus reducing the concentration of fluoride (including HF) that could be potentially evaporated into the atmosphere. Based on information provided in the 1978 EPA document, a greater than 90 percent emission reduction in fluoride can be achieved by raising the pond water from pH 1.4 to pH 3.9. In the final rule, if this control measure is chosen, then the plan must include: the method used to raise the pH of the liquid discharged into the cooling pond, the target pH value (of the liquid discharged into the cooling pond) expected to be achieved by using the method, and the analyses used to determine and support the raise in pH. Moreover, this control measure is similar to an option that industry suggested in response to a meeting that occurred after the public comment period closed (see “EPA Meeting Minutes for TFI Discussion March 12, 2015,” and “Summary of Potential Costs for Implementing Phosphate NESHAPs/Recommendations for Phosphogypsum Stack Work Practices, May 5, 2015,” which are both available in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522). Industry suggested including an option that would require providing inputs to the gypsum dewatering stack system to react with and precipitate fluoride compounds to insoluble forms.
With regard to the remaining potential control techniques identified in the 1978 EPA document (
Lastly, we agree with a commenter's request to add a control measure option (for cooling ponds) that would require developing a plan to optimize the size of cooling ponds to address fugitive HF emissions (as appropriate based on the conditions at the facility); therefore, we are including this option in the NESHAP subpart AA final rule. However, in order for a facility to be able to use this control measure option, its cooling pond evaluation must result in a reduction in overall cooling pond surface area. Fugitive HF emissions are calculated using an emission factor that is directly related to gypsum dewatering stack and pond surface area (tons HF per acre per year); therefore, minimizing
We also evaluated an additional control measure option suggested by industry in response to a meeting that occurred after the public comment period closed (see “EPA Meeting Minutes for TFI Discussion March 12, 2015,” and “Summary of Potential Costs for Implementing Phosphate NESHAPs/Recommendations for Phosphogypsum Stack Work Practices, May 5, 2015,” which are both available in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522). Industry suggested including the option to “operate the cooling pond systems to adjust the active cooling surface area to address weather conditions, seasonal cooling needs and associated production changes. Cooling circuit adjustments may be accomplished through utilization of either fixed or floating flow diversion devices or by changing flows such that some of the heated water is diverted away from portions of the ponded area.” However, we are not including this option in the final rule because it is not clear how the option reduces fugitive HF emissions from cooling ponds.
For the reasons provided above and in the preamble for the proposed rule, we are finalizing our proposal to eliminate the use of PM as a surrogate for Hg and are adding Hg and total fluoride emission limits for phosphate rock calciners to the NESHAP subpart AA final rule.
For the reasons provided above, we are making the revisions, clarifications, and corrections noted in section V.C.2 in the NESHAP subpart AA final rule.
The NSPS review focused on the emission limitations that have been adequately demonstrated to be achieved in practice, taking into account the cost of achieving such reduction and any non-air quality health and environmental impact and energy requirements. Determining the BSER that has been adequately demonstrated and the emission limitations achieved in practice necessarily involves consideration of emission reduction methods in use at existing phosphoric acid manufacturing plants. To determine the BSER, the EPA performed an extensive review of several recent sources of information, including a thorough search of the RACT/BACT/LAER Clearinghouse (RBLC), section 114 data received from industry, and other relevant sources.
Our review considered the emission limitations that are currently achieved in practice, and found that more stringent standards are not achievable for this source category. When evaluating the emissions from various process lines, we observed differences in emissions levels, but did not identify any patterns in emission reductions based on control technology configuration. More information concerning our NSPS review can be found in the memorandum, “CAA Section 111(b)(1)(B) and 112(d)(6) Reviews for the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing and Phosphate Fertilizer Production Source Categories.” Though some of the sources are emitting at levels well below the current NSPS, other sources are not. We evaluated emissions based on control technologies and practices used by facilities, and found that the same technologies and practices yielded different results for different facilities. Therefore, we determined that we cannot conclude that new and modified sources would be able to achieve a more stringent NSPS. As explained in the proposed rule, all Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing NSPS (under subpart T and subpart U) emission sources, and the control technologies that would be employed, are the same as those for the NESHAP regulating phosphoric acid plants, such that we reached the same conclusion that there are no identified developments in technology or practices that results in cost-effective emission
In its 2008 decision in
We proposed to eliminate the SSM exemption in NESHAP subpart AA. Consistent with
In proposing the standards in this rule, the EPA took into account startup and shutdown periods and, for the reasons explained below, proposed work practice standards for periods of startup and shutdown in lieu of numeric emission limits. CAA section 112(h)(1) states that the Administrator may promulgate a design, equipment or operational work practice standard in those cases where, in the judgment of the Administrator, it is not feasible to prescribe or enforce an emission standard. CAA section 112(h)(2)(B) further defines the term “not feasible” in this context to apply when “the application of measurement technology to a particular class of sources is not practicable due to technological and economic limitations.”
Startup and shutdown periods at phosphoric acid manufacturing facilities generally only last between 30 minutes and 6 hours. Because of the variability and the relatively short duration, compared to the time needed to conduct a performance test, which typically requires a full working day, the EPA has determined that it is not feasible to prescribe a numeric emission standard for these periods. Furthermore, according to information provided by industry, it is possible that the feed rate (
Although we requested information on emissions and the operation of control devices during startup and shutdown periods in the CAA section 114 survey issued to the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing source category, we did not receive any emissions data collected during a startup and shutdown period (nor did we receive data during public comment of the proposed rule), and we do not expect that these data exist. However, based on the information for control device operation received in the survey, we concluded that the control devices could be operated normally during periods of startup or shutdown. Also, we believe that the emissions generated during startup and shutdown periods are lower than during steady-state conditions because the amount of feed materials introduced to the process during those periods is lower compared to normal operations. Therefore, if the emission control devices are operated during startup and shutdown, then HAP emissions will be the same or lower than during steady-state operating conditions.
Consequently, we proposed a work practice standard rather than an emissions limit for periods of startup or shutdown. We proposed that control devices used on the various process lines in this source category are effective at achieving desired emission reductions immediately upon startup; therefore, during startup and shutdown periods, we proposed that sources begin operation of any control device(s) in the production unit prior to introducing any feed into the production unit. We also proposed that sources must continue operation of the control device(s) through the shutdown period until all feed material has been processed through the production unit.
Periods of startup, normal operations and shutdown are all predictable and routine aspects of a source's operations. Malfunctions, in contrast, are neither predictable nor routine. Instead, they are, by definition, sudden, infrequent and not reasonably preventable failures of emissions control, process or monitoring equipment (40 CFR 63.2) (definition of malfunction). The EPA interprets CAA section 112 as not requiring emissions that occur during periods of malfunction to be factored into development of CAA section 112 standards. Under CAA section 112, emission standards for new sources must be no less stringent than the level “achieved” by the best controlled similar source and for existing sources generally must be no less stringent than the average emission limitation “achieved” by the best performing 12 percent of sources in the category. There is nothing in CAA section 112 that directs the EPA to consider malfunctions in determining the level “achieved” by the best performing sources when setting emission standards. As the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit has recognized, the phrase “average emissions limitation achieved by the best performing 12 percent of” sources “says nothing about how the performance of the best units is to be calculated.”
Further, accounting for malfunctions in setting emission standards would be difficult, if not impossible, given the myriad different types of malfunctions that can occur across all sources in the category and given the difficulties associated with predicting or accounting for the frequency, degree and duration of various malfunctions that might occur. As such, the performance of units that are malfunctioning is not “reasonably” foreseeable. See,
In the event that a source fails to comply with the applicable CAA section 112(d) standards as a result of a malfunction event, the EPA would determine an appropriate response based on, among other things, the good faith efforts of the source to minimize emissions during malfunction periods, including preventative and corrective actions, as well as root cause analyses to ascertain and rectify excess emissions. The EPA would also consider whether the source's failure to comply with the CAA section 112(d) standard was, in fact, sudden, infrequent, not reasonably preventable and was not instead caused in part by poor maintenance or careless operation 40 CFR 63.2 (definition of malfunction).
If the EPA determines in a particular case that an enforcement action against a source for violation of an emission standard is warranted, the source can raise any and all defenses in that enforcement action, and the federal district court will determine what, if any, relief is appropriate. The same is true for citizen enforcement actions. Similarly, the presiding officer in an administrative proceeding can consider any defense raised and determine whether administrative penalties are appropriate.
In summary, the EPA interpretation of the CAA and, in particular, CAA section 112 is reasonable and encourages practices that will avoid malfunctions. Administrative and judicial procedures for addressing exceedances of the standards fully recognize that violations may occur despite good faith efforts to comply and can accommodate those situations.
To address the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit vacatur of portions of the EPA's CAA section 112 regulations governing the emissions of HAP during periods of SSM,
We proposed to revise the entry for 40 CFR 63.8(d)(3) in the General Provisions table (appendix A) by changing the “yes” in column three to “no.” The final sentence in 40 CFR 63.8(d)(3) refers to the General Provisions' SSM plan requirement, which is no longer applicable. The EPA proposed to add to the rule at 40 CFR 63.608(c)(3) text that is identical to 40 CFR 63.8(d)(3), except that the final sentence is replaced with the following sentence: “You must include the program of corrective action required under § 63.8(d)(2) in the plan.”
We proposed to revise the entry for 40 CFR 63.10(b)(2)(ii) in the General Provisions table (appendix A) by changing the “yes” in column three to “no.” Section 63.10(b)(2)(ii) describes the recordkeeping requirements during a malfunction. The EPA proposed to add such requirements to 40 CFR 63.607(b). The regulatory text we proposed to add differs from the General Provisions it is replacing in that the General Provisions requires the creation and retention of a record of the occurrence and duration of each malfunction of process, air pollution control and monitoring equipment. The EPA proposed that this requirement apply to any failure to meet an applicable standard and that the source record the date, time and duration of the failure rather than the “occurrence.” The EPA also proposed to add to 40 CFR 63.607(b) a requirement that sources keep records that include a list of the affected source or equipment and actions taken to minimize emissions, an estimate of the volume of each regulated pollutant emitted over the applicable standard and a description of the method used to estimate the emissions. Examples of such methods would include product-loss calculations, mass balance calculations, measurements when available or engineering judgment based on known process parameters. The EPA proposed requiring that sources keep records of this information to ensure that there is adequate information to allow the EPA to determine the severity of any failure to meet a standard, and to provide data that may document how the source met the general duty to minimize emissions when the source has failed to meet an applicable standard.
We proposed to revise the entry for 40 CFR 63.10(b)(2)(iv) in the General Provisions table (appendix A) by changing the “yes” in column three to “no.” When applicable, the provision requires sources to record actions taken during SSM events when actions were inconsistent with their SSM plan. The requirement is no longer appropriate because SSM plans will no longer be required. The requirement previously applicable under 40 CFR 63.10(b)(2)(iv)(B) to record actions to minimize emissions and record corrective actions is now applicable by reference to 40 CFR 63.607.
We proposed to revise the entry for 40 CFR 63.10(b)(2)(v) in the General Provisions table (appendix A) by changing the “yes” in column three to “no.” When applicable, the provision requires sources to record actions taken during SSM events to show that actions taken were consistent with their SSM plan. The requirement is no longer appropriate because SSM plans will no longer be required.
We proposed to revise the entry for 40 CFR 63.10(c)(15) in the General Provisions table (appendix A) by changing the “yes” in column three to “no.” The EPA proposed that 40 CFR 63.10(c)(15) no longer apply. When applicable, the provision allows an owner or operator to use the affected source's SSM plan or records kept to satisfy the recordkeeping requirements of the SSM plan, specified in 40 CFR 63.6(e), to also satisfy the requirements of 40 CFR 63.10(c)(10) through (12). The EPA proposed to eliminate this requirement because SSM plans would no longer be required, and, therefore, 40 CFR 63.10(c)(15) no longer serves any useful purpose for affected units.
The proposed rule eliminates the cross reference to 40 CFR 63.10(d)(5)(i) that contains the description of the previously-required SSM report format and submittal schedule from this section. We proposed that these specifications would no longer be necessary because the events will be reported in otherwise required reports with similar format and submittal requirements. We proposed that owners or operators no longer be required to determine whether actions taken to correct a malfunction are consistent with an SSM plan because the plans would no longer be required.
We proposed to revise the entry for 40 CFR 63.10(d)(5)(ii) in the General Provisions table (appendix A) by changing the “yes” in column three to “no.” Section 63.10(d)(5)(ii) describes an immediate report for SSM when a source failed to meet an applicable standard but did not follow the SSM plan. We proposed that we would no longer require owners and operators to report when actions taken during a startup, shutdown, or malfunction were not consistent with an SSM plan because the plans would no longer be required.
We are finalizing the proposed work practice standards for periods of startup and shutdown; however, in consideration of comments received during the public comment period for the proposed rulemaking (as discussed in sections V.E.3.a and V.E.3.b of this preamble), we are making changes to this work practice in order to clarify the standard applies in lieu of numeric emission limits and to clarify how compliance with the standard is demonstrated. Additionally, as discussed in section V.E.3.c of this preamble, we added a definition of “startup” and “shutdown” in the final rule to specify when startup begins and ends, and when shutdown begins and ends.
We received comments regarding the proposed revisions to remove the SSM exemptions for the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing source category, and the proposed work practice standards for periods of startup and shutdown. The following is a summary of some of the comments specific to the proposed work practice standards and our response to those comments. Other comments and our specific responses to those comments can be found in the Comment Summary and Response document available in the docket for this action (EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522).
The commenter argued that the approach in the proposed rule at 40 CFR 63.602(h) to require the use of work practices “to demonstrate compliance with any emission limits” during periods of startup and shutdown is “directly inconsistent” with the approach that the EPA has applied to other source categories, where such practices clearly were prescribed “in lieu of” numeric emission limits that would otherwise apply. (The commenter cites, for example, 78 FR 10015, February 12, 2013.) According to the commenter, the EPA made it clear in other industries' rules that such work practice standards apply “in place of” or “in lieu of” numeric standards, including with respect to monitoring and recordkeeping requirements. (See id. at 10013 and 10015.) The commenter argues that according to the preamble language cited for those other industries, “there will no longer be a numeric emission standard applicable during startup and shutdown,” and the EPA recognizes that “the recordkeeping requirement must change to reflect the content of the work practice standard”(Id. at 10014).
Therefore, the commenter recommended that the EPA should clearly explain that work practices are not applied to “demonstrate compliance” with numeric limits under subpart AA, which the EPA acknowledges are “not feasible” for startup and shutdown periods, and, instead, the work practices should be written to apply “in lieu of” the numeric limits during those periods. The commenter argues that without this clarification, it will appear that both the numeric standards and the work practice standards would apply during startup and shutdown. The commenter suggests that this can be corrected in the rule by using the “in lieu of” language used for other industries.
One commenter argued that when the EPA established the flow rate and pressure drop parametric monitoring requirements in its 1999 final rule, the EPA concluded that requiring continuous monitoring of these parameters “help[ed] assure continuous compliance with the emission limit” (64 FR 31365, June 10, 1999). The commenter also asserted that the rules specify that “[t]he emission limitations and operating parameter requirements of this subpart do not apply during periods of startup, shutdown, or malfunction . . .” (40 CFR 63.600(e)). The commenter argued that this was a reasonable action because the operating parameter ranges are established during annual performance tests, and these tests cannot be performed during startup and shutdown conditions.
The commenter suggested that in the proposed rule, the EPA exempted compliance with the emission limits during startup and shutdown periods, imposed work practice standards in lieu thereof, and retained the prohibition on conducting a performance test during periods of startup or shutdown (79 FR 66570 (proposed 40 CFR 63.606(d)). The commenter suggested that the proposed rule is silent on the applicability of the parametric monitoring requirements during startup and shutdown. The commenter asserted that because the parametric monitoring provisions
The commenters pointed to two recent EPA NESHAP rulemakings to support their conclusion. First, the commenters argued that in its industrial, commercial and institutional boilers and process heaters NESHAP reconsideration proposal (hereinafter, the “Boiler NESHAP”), the EPA, responding to a comment soliciting clarification “that the operating limits and opacity limits do not apply during periods of startup and shutdown,” stated that with the finalization of work practice standards, “EPA agrees that the requested clarification is what was intended in the final rule” (76 FR 80598 and 80615, December 23, 2011). The commenters asserted that to this end, in its response to the reconsideration, the EPA made clear that affected sources must comply with “all applicable emissions and operating limits at all times the unit is operating except for periods that meet the definitions of startup and shutdown in this subpart, during which times you must comply with these work practices” (78 FR 7138 and 7142, January 31, 2013). The commenters noted that in the Boiler NESHAP regulations, the EPA required the implementation of work practice standards in lieu of compliance with the operating parameter requirements during startup and shutdown by (1) Excluding periods of startup and shutdown from the averaging period (Id. at 7187, 40 CFR 63.7575, the definition of a 30-day rolling average” excludes “hours during startup and shutdown”), and (2) expressly stating that the “standards” (the emission limits and operating requirements) do not apply during periods of startup or shutdown. (Id. at 7163, 40 CFR 63.7500(f), titled “What emission limitations, work practice standards, and operating limits must I meet?” applies “at all times the affected unit is operating, except during periods of startup and shutdown during which time you must comply only with Table 3 of this subpart.”)
Second, the commenters argued that in its Portland Cement NESHAP, the EPA specified an operating limit for kilns, identified as a temperature limit established during a performance test, and that the temperature limit applied at all times the raw mill is operating, “except during periods of startup and shutdown” (78 FR 10039, February 12, 2013, 40 CFR 63.1346(a)(1)). Further, for the continuous monitoring requirements, including operating limits, the Portland Cement NESHAP required operating of the monitoring system at all times the affected source is operating, “[e]xcept for periods of startup and shutdown” (Id. at 10041, 40 CFR 63.1348(b)(1)(ii)).
The commenters argued that given the EPA's conclusion in the proposed rule that the emission limits should not apply during startup and shutdown, and because the parametric monitoring requirements are established during a performance test (which cannot be performed during a startup or a shutdown) and used to infer compliance with the emission limits, the EPA should make clear in the final rule that the operating parameters requirements do not apply during startup or shutdown. The commenter recommended that the EPA should make this explicit: (1) In the operating and monitoring requirement section of subpart AA (proposed 40 CFR 63.605), and (2) by defining the averaging period (currently daily) as excluding periods of startup and shutdown (proposed 40 CFR part 63, subpart AA, Table 4.) As an alternative, the commenters recommended that if the EPA continues to require compliance with the parametric monitoring requirements during startup and shutdown periods, then the EPA should adopt a longer averaging period, from daily to 30 days, to allow for the effects of startups and shutdowns to be reduced by a longer period of steady-state operations. The commenter noted that the Boiler NESHAP has a 30-day averaging period for pressure drop and liquid flow rate, and excludes periods of startup and shutdown from the averaging period (40 CFR 63.7575, definition of “30-day rolling average” and 40 CFR part 63, subpart DDDDD, Table 4.) The commenter stated that a 30-day averaging period would be substantially more stringent than the Boiler NESHAP approach since it would include periods of startup and shutdown, while at the same time avoid misleading “exceedances” caused by the inclusion of periods of startup and shutdown compared to daily average parametric limits.
The analogies that the commenters made to the Industrial Boiler NESHAP and the Portland Cement NESHAP are not relevant to this rulemaking. In each rulemaking, we consider the feasibility of applying standards during startup and shutdown based on relevant process considerations for each source category, the pollutants regulated, and control devices on which the rule is based. In developing this rule, we obtained information on the operation of control devices during startup and shutdown periods in the CAA section 114 survey issued to the phosphoric acid manufacturing industry. Based on survey results, we concluded that for this source category, control devices (
Regarding the comparison to the Industrial Boiler NESHAP, the operation of boilers and their associated control devices are different than phosphoric acid plants. While boiler control devices do not have to comply with specific operating limits during startup or shutdown, they must meet a work practice that includes firing clean fuels, operating relevant control devices (
Two commenters agreed with other commenters that it is not feasible to base the conclusion of a “shutdown” on the point at which all feed has “been processed.” Instead, they suggested that the EPA should clarify the work practice standard of keeping all emission control equipment active during shutdowns. The commenters reported that facilities in the industry consider the commencement of “shutdown” as the moment at which the plant ceases adding feed to the affected process, rather than basing shutdown on when all feed materials have been processed through the process. The commenters recommended that the EPA should define “shutdown” to begin when the facility ceases adding feed to an affected process line, and to conclude when the affected process line equipment is deactivated, even though some feed or residues may still be present within particular parts of the process.
One of the commenters also noted that it is common practice to have short-term shutdown of process inputs for temporary maintenance work (including work on emission control equipment) where the entire system is not emptied. In these cases, feed of phosphoric acid and ammonia to the process is suspended as is flow from the reactor to the granulator. The commenter argued that because the source of fluoride to the system has ceased and dust generating material flows are suspended, there should be no significant source of emissions to control, and it is not necessary to require the use of control devices until all feed material has been processed. Instead, the commenter recommended that an affected entity should be allowed to turn off control devices when reactor and granulator feeds have been stopped, unless the system is being emptied, in which case control devices should be required as long as the material handling system is in operation.
Based on additional information provided by industry (see “Email Correspondence Received After Comment Period re Startup Shutdown (May 5, 2015),” which is available in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522), we are including a definition of startup in the final rule. The final rule defines startup as commencing when any feed material is first introduced into an affected source and ends when feed material is fully loaded into the affected source. Regarding shutdown, we agree with the commenters that it is not feasible to process all feed material from a process prior to shutting down most equipment at a facility. Such requirement would imply that the control device must be operated after the shutdown ends. The final rule defines shutdown as commencing when the facility ceases adding feed to an affected source and ends when the affected source is deactivated, regardless of whether feed material is present in the affected source. This definition will address concerns about temporary shutdowns as well as shutdowns of longer duration.
In addition, the final rule at 40 CFR 63.602(f) specifies that any control device used at the affected source must be operated during the entire period of startup and shutdown, and must meet the operating limits in Table 4 of the final rule.
For the reasons provided above and in the preamble for the proposed rule, we are finalizing the proposed revisions to the General Provisions table (appendix A of NESHAP subpart AA) to change several references related to requirements that apply during periods of SSM. For these same reasons, we are also finalizing the addition of the following proposed provisions to NESHAP subpart AA: (1) Work practice standards for periods of startup and shutdown in lieu of numeric emission limits; (2) the general duty to minimize emissions at all times; (3) performance testing conditions requirements; (4) site-specific monitoring plan requirements; and (5) malfunction recordkeeping and reporting requirements.
We also proposed revising the term “gypsum stack” to “gypsum dewatering stack” in order to help clarify the meaning of this fugitive emission source, and to alleviate any potential misconception that the “stack” is a point source. Other changes we proposed included the addition of definitions for “cooling pond,” “phosphoric acid defluorination process,” “process line,” and “raffinate stream.”
In addition, we proposed removing the requirement that facilities may not implement new operating parameter ranges until the Administrator has approved them, or 30 days have passed since submission of the performance test results. We proposed that facilities must immediately comply with new operating ranges when they are developed and submitted; and new operating ranges must be established using the most recent performance test conducted by a facility, which allows for changes in control device operation to be appropriately reflected.
As stated in the preamble to the proposed rule, we modified the language for the conditions under which testing must be conducted to require that testing be conducted at “maximum representative operating conditions” for the process.
In keeping with the general provisions for CMS (including CEMS and continuous parameter monitoring system (CPMS)), we proposed the addition of a site-specific monitoring plan and calibration requirements for CMS. Provisions were also proposed that included electronic reporting of stack test data. We also proposed modifying the format of NESHAP subpart AA to reference tables for emissions limits and monitoring requirements.
Finally, we proposed HF standards in NESHAP subpart AA by translating the current total fluoride limits (lb total F/ton P
For consistency with terminology used in the associated NESHAP subpart AA, we proposed changing the term “process scrubbing system” to “absorber” in NSPS subpart T.
For consistency with terminology used in the associated NESHAP subpart AA, we proposed changing the term “process scrubbing system” to “absorber” in NSPS subpart U.
We have not made any change to the proposed revision to rename “gypsum stack” to “gypsum dewatering stack.” We have also not made any changes to the proposed definitions for “cooling pond” and “raffinate stream”; however, we are removing the proposed definitions for “phosphoric acid defluorination process” and “process line” for reasons discussed in sections V.F.3.a.ii and V.F.3.a.iii of this preamble, respectively.
Finally, we are removing the proposed language “includes, but is not limited to” in the definitions of WPPA, SPA, and PPA process lines for reasons discussed in section V.F.3.a.iv of this preamble.
In addition to these revisions, we are making corrections at 40 CFR 63.607(a) to clarify the procedures for establishing a new operating limit based on the most recent performance test. We are also revising the requirements at 40 CFR 63.605(d)(1)(ii)(B) of the final rule to remove the requirement that facilities must request and obtain approval of the Administrator for changing operating limits. (See section V.F.3.b.iii and V.F.3.b.iv of this preamble for details.)
Also, for reasons discussed in the in the Comment Summary and Response document available in the docket, we are revising the annual testing schedule in the final rule at 40 CFR 63.606(b), and the terminology for “maximum representative operating conditions” in the final rule at 40 CFR 63.606(d).
We are not making any changes to the proposed addition of a site-specific monitoring plan and calibration requirements for CMS. We are also keeping the proposed term “absorber” in lieu of “scrubber,” as well as the proposed format of NESHAP subpart AA to reference tables for emissions limits and monitoring requirements.
Lastly, we are retaining the current total fluoride limits and not adopting the proposed HF standards and associated EPA Method 320 testing in NESHAP subpart AA (see section V.F.3.c of this preamble for details).
Several comments were received regarding the proposed clarifications to applicability and certain definitions, revisions to testing, monitoring, recordkeeping and reporting, translation of total fluoride to HF emission limits, and revisions to other provisions for the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing source category. The following is a summary of significant comments and our response to those comments. Other comments received and our responses to those comments can be found in the Comment Summary and Response document available in the docket for this action (EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522).
Commenters mentioned that the EPA's memorandum “Applicability Clarifications to the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing Source Category,” which is available in the docket for this action, captured four facilities, but it was not clear whether the PCS Aurora facility was included in the count. These commenters stated that the oxidation step at this facility is carried out in agitated tanks that do not have any emissions control, and the emissions from the oxidation step are not included in their annual performance testing (when demonstrating compliance with the current total fluoride limits). The commenters said that it was not clear whether this oxidation step involves an “oxidation reactor” as proposed; and, if it does, the commenters argued that the EPA has not considered additional costs imposed by including “any equipment that uses an oxidizing agent to treat phosphoric acid” within the scope of the NESHAP at 40 CFR part 63, subpart AA.
In addition, the EPA's technology review revealed that SPA process lines at four different facilities include an oxidation reactor to remove organic impurities from the acid. We determined that one of these facilities (Simplot Don-Pocatello) already ducts their oxidation reactor emissions through their SPA process line wet scrubber, and is achieving compliance with the SPA total fluoride emission limit. For two of these facilities (PCS White Springs and Agrium Nu-West), we determined that when their oxidation reactor emissions are combined with the rest of their SPA process line emissions, the facilities are in compliance with the total fluoride emission limit. Therefore, for these three facilities it would not be necessary to upgrade existing control systems, or to install a control system, in order to comply with the rule.
With regard to the oxidation reactor at the fourth facility (PCS Aurora), the Agency has determined that this process (
The definition of oxidation reactor in the final rule for NESHAP subpart AA has been revised to clarify that oxidizing agents may include: Nitric acid, ammonium nitrate, or potassium permanganate. The words “or step” has also been added to the definition of oxidation reactor, for instances when a facility may not typically identify their oxidation process as occurring in a reactor. The definition now states that “oxidation reactor means any equipment or step that uses an oxidizing agent (
Two commenters stated that since the original rule was adopted, the definition of “wet-process phosphoric line” has not been interpreted to extend or apply to clarifiers or defluorination processes. One of these commenters claimed that the only rationale the EPA provides is that the rules were “initially intended” to cover these sources, but argued that neither the original proposal, nor the original final rule mentioned the term “clarifier” or “defluorination process.” The commenters requested that the EPA conduct CAA section 112(d)(2) or 112(d)(3) analyses for these new affected units. If the EPA conducts these analyses, and decides to expand the definition of “wet-process phosphoric acid line” to include “clarifiers” and “defluorination processes,” a commenter suggested that the definition exclude units that partially clarify or defluorinate an in-process stream incidentally.
In the proposed rules, the EPA was specifically referring to defluorination
In response to comments regarding the inclusion of clarifiers in the WPPA process line definition, we searched historical data. Specifically, we reviewed the 1996 memorandum “National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants from Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing and Phosphate Fertilizers Production; Proposed Rules—Draft Technical Support Document and Additional Technical Information” (1996 TSD) to determine if clarifier emissions were included in the MACT floor evaluation for WPPA process lines (the 1996 TSD is item II-B-20 in Docket A-94-02). The 1996 TSD lists, in Attachment 2, the WPPA test data that were assembled for the MACT floor analysis. Based on this review, we were not able to confirm that clarifiers were included as part of the WPPA emissions dataset that was evaluated in order to conduct the MACT floor analysis; therefore, we are not including clarifiers in the WPPA process line definition. Similarly, we are not including clarifiers in the WPPA plant definition of NSPS subpart T.
High-energy (
With regard to the safety concerns raised by one commenter when operating low-energy absorbers at high pressure drop settings, the proposed rule (NESHAP subpart AA) did not require low-energy absorbers (
The Agency believes the cost to implement these finalized monitoring requirements is minimal for facilities. For low-energy absorbers, we are allowing the gas stream to be measured by either measuring the gas stream flow at the absorber inlet or using the design blower capacity, with appropriate adjustments for pressure drop. Therefore, facilities would not need to purchase new equipment to measure gas flow at the inlet of the absorber since they may choose to use design blower capacity. Furthermore, we are not requiring any new monitoring for high-energy absorbers; therefore, these facilities are already equipped to monitor as required in the final rule.
In addition, a commenter requested that the EPA clarify how revising the proposed regulatory language to require submission of the new ranges to the EPA, but deleting the requirement to request and obtain EPA's approval of the new ranges, will affect possible obligations to undertake permit modifications of title V permits under 40 CFR part 70. This commenter stated that such administrative processes are not fully anticipated in the proposed rule.
We also received comments regarding the option to use Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy (FTIR) HF CEMS as a continuous monitoring compliance approach for HF at NESHAP subpart BB affected sources. One commenter contended that the EPA must consider requiring continuous HF emission monitoring before finalizing the proposal, and pointed out that there is a HF sensor (suitable for 0-10 part per million (ppm) monitoring range and a 0.1 ppm resolution) available for the Ultima X Series Gas Monitors. Several commenters opposed this option and cited EPA's technical memorandum “Approach for Hydrogen Fluoride Continuous Emission Monitoring and Compliance Determination with EPA Method 320.” They argued that the option to use FTIR HF CEMS exceeds the capabilities of existing technology, and that there are no details on the required methods to implement such a system or known field demonstrations of this type of system, and that the option has not been proven.
Finally, one commenter requested the EPA explain its technical basis for abandoning the longstanding total fluoride surrogate for HF. The commenter argued that the EPA has established similar surrogacy relationships to measure HAP in other regulated source categories in the past.
As a result of our determination to not adopt the proposed HF standards, the
For the reasons provided above and in the preamble for the proposed rule, we are finalizing: The proposed requirement in NESHAP subpart AA that pressure drop across an absorber must be greater than 5 inches of water in order to use the option of measuring pressure drop as an operating parameter; the proposed definitions for “superphosphoric acid process line” (in NESHAP subpart AA) and “superphosphoric acid plant” (in NSPS subpart U) to include oxidation reactors; and other proposed clarifications and corrections.
Additionally, for the reasons provided above, we are making the revisions, clarifications and corrections noted in section V.F.2 in the final rules for NESHAP subpart AA, NSPS subpart T, and NSPS subpart U.
For each issue related to the Phosphate Fertilizer Production source category, this section provides a description of what we proposed and what we are finalizing for the issue, the EPA's rationale for the final decisions, and amendments and a summary of key comments and responses. For all comments not discussed in this preamble, comment summaries and the EPA's responses can be found in the Comment Summary and Response document available in the docket.
Pursuant to CAA section 112(f), we conducted a residual risk review and presented the results of this review, along with our proposed decisions regarding risk acceptability and ample margin of safety, in the November 7, 2014, proposed rule for the Phosphate Fertilizer Production NESHAP (79 FR 66512). The results of the risk assessment are presented briefly below in Table 4 of this preamble, and in more detail in the residual risk document, “Residual Risk Assessment for Phosphate Fertilizer Production and Phosphate Fertilizer Production Source Categories in support of the July 2015 Risk and Technology Review Final Rule,” which is available in the docket for this rulemaking.
Based on actual emissions for the Phosphate Fertilizer Production source category, the MIR was estimated to be less than 1-in-1 million, the maximum chronic non-cancer TOSHI value was estimated to be up to 0.003, and the maximum off-site acute HQ value was estimated to be up to 0.4. The total estimated national cancer incidence from this source category, based on actual emission levels, was 0.001 excess cancer cases per year, or one case in every 1,000 years. Based on MACT-allowable emissions for the Phosphate Fertilizer Production source category, the MIR was estimated to be less than 1-in-1 million, and the maximum chronic non-cancer TOSHI value was estimated to be up to 0.003. We also found there were emissions of several PB-HAP with an available RTR multipathway screening value, and, with the exception of Hg compounds, the reported emissions of these HAP
Additionally, to refine our Hg Tier II Screen for this facility, we first examined the set of lakes from which the angler ingested fish. Any lakes that appeared to not be fishable or publicly accessible were removed from the assessment, and the screening assessment was repeated. After we made the determination the three critical lakes were fishable, we analyzed the hourly meteorology data from which the Tier II meteorology statistics were derived. Using buoyancy and momentum equations from literature, and assumptions about facility fenceline boundaries, we estimated by hour the height achieved by the emission plume before it moved laterally beyond the assumed fenceline. If the plume height was above the mixing height, we assumed there was no chemical exposure for that hour. The cumulative loss of chemical being released above the mixing height reduces the exposure and decreases the Tier II screening quotient. Although the refined Tier II analysis for Hg emissions indicated a 23-percent loss of emissions above the mixing layer due to plume rise, this reduction still resulted in an angler screening non-cancer value equal to 2.
For this facility, after we performed the lake and plume rise analyses, we reran the relevant Tier II screening scenarios for the travelling subsistence angler in TRIM.FaTE with the same hourly meteorology data and hourly plume-rise adjustments from which the Tier II meteorology statistics were derived. The use of the time-series meteorology reduced the screening value further to a value of 0.6. For this source category our analysis indicated no potential for multipathway impacts of concern from this facility. The maximum facility-wide MIR was less than or equal to 1-in-1 million and the maximum facility-wide TOSHI was 0.2. We weighed all health risk factors in our risk acceptability determination, and we proposed that the residual risks from the Phosphate Fertilizer Production source category are acceptable.
We then considered whether the Phosphate Fertilizer Production NESHAP provides an ample margin of safety to protect public health and prevents, taking into consideration costs, energy, safety, and other relevant factors, an adverse environmental effect. In considering whether the standards should be tightened to provide an ample margin of safety to protect public health, we considered the same risk factors that we considered for our acceptability determination and also considered the costs, technological feasibility and other relevant factors related to emissions control options that might reduce risk associated with emissions from the source category. We proposed that the current standards provided an ample margin of safety to protect public health. With respect to adverse environmental effects, none of the individual modeled concentrations for any facility in the source category exceeded any of the ecological benchmarks (either the LOAEL or NOAEL). Based on the results of our screening analysis for risks to the environment, we also proposed that the current standards prevent an adverse environmental effect.
The residual risk review for the Phosphate Fertilizer Production source category did not change since proposal (79 FR 66512). Accordingly, we are not tightening the standards under section 112(f)(2) based on the residual risk review, and are thus readopting the existing standards under section 112(f)(2).
The comments received on the proposed residual risk review were generally supportive of our determination of risk acceptability and ample margin of safety analysis. However, we received several comments requesting we make changes to the residual risk review, including:
• Update the residual risk review with the recommendations and information from the NAS;
• Incorporate the best currently available information on children's exposure to lead, and go beyond using the 2008 Lead NAAQS;
• Reevaluate whether the residual risk review is consistent with the key recommendations made by the SAB;
• Clarify in the rulemaking docket that data received by industry were commensurate with the relevant statutory obligations;
• Revise HF emission data because they are not representative of actual HF emissions, but rather overestimate emissions causing the residual risk review to have an overly conservative bias;
• Reconsider the assumption used in the NESHAP residual risk assessment that all chromium is hexavalent chromium;
• Revise certain stack parameters used in the analysis;
• Clarify meteorological data used in the analysis;
• Adequately explain rationale for the maximum 1-hour emission rate used for determining potential acute exposures;
• Clarify the selection of ecological assessment endpoints; and
• Provide some quantitative or qualitative rationale for the characterization of the exposure modeling uncertainty.
We evaluated the comments and determined that no changes were needed. Since none of these comments had an effect on the final rule, their summaries and corresponding EPA responses are not included in this preamble. A summary of these comments and our responses can be found in the Comment Summary and Response document available in the docket for this action (EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522).
For the reasons explained in the proposed rule, we determined that the risks from the Phosphate Fertilizer Production source category are acceptable, the current emissions standards provide an ample margin of safety to protect public health, and prevent an adverse environmental effect. Since proposal, neither the risk assessment nor our determinations regarding risk acceptability, ample margin of safety or adverse environmental effects have changed. Therefore, pursuant to CAA section 112(f)(2), we are finalizing our residual risk review as proposed.
Pursuant to CAA section 112(d)(6), we conducted a technology review, which focused on identifying and evaluating developments in practices, processes, and control technologies for the emission sources in the Phosphate
The technology review for the Phosphate Fertilizer Production source category did not change since proposal (79 FR 66512). Therefore, we are not revising NESHAP subpart BB based on the technology review.
Commenters agreed with our conclusion that there are no new cost-effective developments in practices, processes, or control technologies that can be applied to the Phosphate Fertilizer Production source category that would reduce HAP emissions below current levels.
For the reasons explained in the proposed rule, we concluded that additional standards are not necessary pursuant to CAA section 112(d)(6); therefore, we are not finalizing changes to NESHAP subpart BB as part of our technology review.
The NSPS review focused on the emission limitations that have been adequately demonstrated to be achieved in practice, taking into account the cost of achieving such reduction and any non-air quality health and environmental impact and energy requirements. Determining the BSER that has been adequately demonstrated and the emission limitations achieved in practice necessarily involves consideration of emission reduction methods in use at existing phosphate fertilizer production plants. To determine the BSER, the EPA performed an extensive review of several recent sources of information including a thorough search of the RBLC, section 114 data received from industry and other relevant sources.
Our review considered the emission limitations that are currently achieved in practice, and found that more stringent standards are not achievable for this source category. When evaluating the emissions from various process lines, we observed differences in emissions levels, but did not identify any patterns in emission reductions based on control technology configuration. More information concerning our NSPS review can be found in the memorandum, “CAA Section 111(b)(1)(B) and 112(d)(6) Reviews for the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing and Phosphate Fertilizer Production Source Categories.” Though some of the sources are emitting at levels well below the current NSPS, other sources are not. We evaluated emissions based on control technologies and practices used by facilities, and found that the same technologies and practices yielded different results for different facilities. Therefore, we determined that we cannot conclude that new and modified sources would be able to achieve a more stringent NSPS. As explained in the proposed rule, all Phosphate Fertilizer Production NSPS (under subpart V, subpart W, and subpart X) emission sources, and the control technologies that would be employed, are the same as those for the NESHAP regulating phosphate fertilizer plants, such that we reached the same conclusion that there are no identified developments in technology or practices that results in cost-effective emission reductions strategies. Therefore, we are finalizing our determination that revisions to NSPS subpart V, subpart W, and subpart X standards are not appropriate pursuant to CAA section 111(b)(1)(B).
To address the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit vacatur of portions of the EPA's CAA section 112 regulations governing the emissions of HAP during periods of SSM,
We are finalizing the proposed work practice standards for periods of startup and shutdown; however, in consideration of comments received during the public comment period for the proposed rulemaking (as discussed in sections VI.D.3.a and VI.D.3.b of this preamble), we are making changes to this work practice in order to clarify the standard applies in lieu of numeric emission limits and how compliance with the standard is demonstrated. Additionally, as discussed in section VI.D.3.c of this preamble, we added definitions of “startup” and “shutdown” to provide additional clarity regarding when startup begins and ends, and when shutdown begins and ends.
Comments were received regarding the proposed revisions to remove the SSM exemptions for the Phosphate Fertilizer Production source category, and the proposed work practice standards for periods of startup and shutdown. The following is a summary of some of the comments specific to the proposed work practice standards and our response to those comments. Other comments and our specific responses to those comments can be found in the Comment Summary and Response document available in the docket for this action (EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522).
The commenter argued that the approach in the proposed rule at 40 CFR 63.622(d) to require the use of work practices “to demonstrate compliance with any emission limits” during periods of startup and shutdown is “directly inconsistent” with the approach that the EPA has applied to other source categories, where such practices clearly were prescribed “in lieu of” numeric emission limits that would otherwise apply. (The commenter cites, for example, 78 FR 10015, February 12, 2013.) According to the commenter, the EPA made it clear in other industries' rules that such work practice standards apply “in place of” or “in lieu of” numeric standards, including with respect to monitoring and recordkeeping requirements. (See id. at 10013 and 10015.) The commenter argues that according to the preamble language cited for those other industries, “there will no longer be a numeric emission standard applicable during startup and shutdown,” and the EPA recognizes that “the recordkeeping requirement must change to reflect the content of the work practice standard” (Id. at 10014).
Therefore, the commenter recommended that the EPA should clearly explain that work practices are not applied to “demonstrate compliance” with numeric limits under subpart BB, which the EPA acknowledges are “not feasible” for startup and shutdown periods, and, instead, the work practices should be written to apply “in lieu of” the numeric limits during those periods. The commenter argues that without this clarification, it will appear that both the numeric standards and the work practice standards would apply during startup and shutdown. The commenter suggests that this can be corrected in the rule by using the “in lieu of” language used for other industries.
One commenter argued that when the EPA established the flow rate and pressure drop parametric monitoring requirements in its 1999 final rule, the EPA concluded that requiring continuous monitoring of these parameters “help[ed] assure continuous compliance with the emission limit” (64 FR 31365, June 10, 1999). The commenter also asserted that the rule specifies that “[t]he emission limitations and operating parameter requirements of this subpart do not apply during periods of startup, shutdown, or malfunction . . . ” (40 CFR 63.620(e)). The commenter argued that this was a reasonable action because the operating parameter ranges are established during annual performance tests, and these tests cannot be performed during startup and shutdown conditions.
The commenter suggested that in the proposed rule, the EPA exempted compliance with the emission limits during startup and shutdown periods, imposed work practice standards in lieu thereof, and retained the prohibition on conducting a performance test during periods of startup or shutdown (79 FR 66582 (proposed 40 CFR 63.626(d)). The commenter suggested that the proposed rule is silent on the applicability of the parametric monitoring requirements during startup and shutdown. The commenter asserted that because the parametric monitoring provisions provide an inference of compliance with the emission limits (64 FR 31365, June 10, 1999), and these emission limits do not apply during startup and shutdown, the commenter concluded that the parametric monitoring provisions similarly should not apply during startups and shutdowns.
The commenters pointed to two recent EPA NESHAP rulemakings to support their conclusion. First, the commenters argued that in its industrial, commercial and institutional boilers and process heaters NESHAP reconsideration proposal (hereinafter, the “Boiler NESHAP”), the EPA, responding to a comment soliciting clarification “that the operating limits and opacity limits do not apply during periods of startup and shutdown,” stated that with the finalization of work practice standards, “EPA agrees that the requested clarification is what was intended in the final rule” (76 FR 80598 and 80615, December 23, 2011.) The commenters asserted that to this end, in its response to the reconsideration, the EPA made clear that affected sources must comply with “all applicable emissions and operating limits at all times the unit is operating except for periods that meet the definitions of startup and shutdown in this subpart, during which times you must comply with these work practices” (78 FR 7138 and 7142, January 31, 2013.) The commenters noted that in the Boiler NESHAP, the EPA required the implementation of work practice standards in lieu of compliance with the operating parameter requirements during startup and shutdown by (1) Excluding periods of startup and shutdown from the averaging period (Id. at 7187, 40 CFR 63.7575, the definition of a 30-day rolling average” excludes “hours during startup and shutdown”), and (2) expressly stating that the “standards” (the emission limits and operating requirements) do not apply during periods of startup or shutdown. (Id. at 7163, 40 CFR 63.7500(f), titled “What emission limitations, work
Second, the commenters argued that in its Portland Cement NESHAP, the EPA specified an operating limit for kilns, identified as a temperature limit established during a performance test, and that the temperature limit applied at all times the raw mill is operating, “except during periods of startup and shutdown” (78 FR 10039, February 12, 2013, 40 CFR 63.1346(a)(1).) Further, for the continuous monitoring requirements, including operating limits, the Portland Cement NESHAP required operating of the monitoring system at all times the affected source is operating, “[e]xcept for periods of startup and shutdown” (Id. at 10041, 40 CFR 63.1348(b)(1)(ii).)
The commenters argued that given the EPA's conclusion in the Proposed Rule that the emission limits should not apply during startup and shutdown, and because the parametric monitoring requirements are established during a performance test (which cannot be performed during a startup or a shutdown) and used to infer compliance with the emission limits, the EPA should make clear in the final rule that the operating parameters requirements do not apply during a startup or a shutdown. The commenter recommended that the EPA should make this explicit: (1) In the operating and monitoring requirement section of subpart BB (proposed 40 CFR 63.625), and (2) by defining the averaging period (currently daily) as excluding periods of startup and shutdown (Proposed 40 CFR part 63, subpart BB, Table 4). As an alternative, the commenters recommended that if the EPA continues to require compliance with the parametric monitoring requirements during startup and shutdown periods, then the EPA should adopt a longer averaging period, from daily to 30 days, to allow for the effects of startups and shutdowns to be reduced by a longer period of steady-state operations. The commenter noted that the Boiler NESHAP has a 30-day averaging period for pressure drop and liquid flow rate, and excludes periods of startup and shutdown from the averaging period (40 CFR 63.7575, definition of “30-day rolling average” and 40 CFR part 63, subpart DDDDD, Table 4). The commenter stated that a 30-day averaging period would be substantially more stringent than the Boiler NESHAP approach since it would include periods of startup and shutdown, while at the same time avoid misleading “exceedances” caused by the inclusion of periods of startup and shutdown compared to daily average parametric limits.
The analogies that the commenters made to the Boiler NESHAP and the Portland Cement NESHAP are not relevant to this rulemaking. In each rulemaking, we consider the feasibility of applying standards during startup and shutdown based on relevant process considerations for each source category, the pollutants regulated, and control devices on which the rule is based. In developing this rule, we obtained information on the operation of control devices during startup and shutdown periods in the CAA section 114 survey issued to the phosphate fertilizer production industry. Based on survey results, we concluded that for this source category, control devices (
Regarding the comparison to the industrial boiler NESHAP, the operation of boilers and their associated control devices are different than phosphate fertilizer production plants. While boiler control devices do not have to comply with specific operating limits during startup or shutdown, they must meet a work practice that includes firing clean fuels, operating relevant control devices (
One of the commenters also noted that it is common practice to have short-term shutdown of process inputs for temporary maintenance work (including work on emission control equipment) where the entire system is not emptied. In these cases, feed of phosphoric acid and ammonia to the process is suspended as is flow from the reactor to the granulator. The commenter argued that because the source of fluoride to the system has ceased and dust generating material flows are suspended, there should be no significant source of emissions to control, and it is not necessary to require the utilization of control devices until all feed material has been processed. Instead, the commenter recommended that an affected entity should be allowed to turn off control devices when reactor and granulator feeds have been stopped, unless the system is being emptied, in which case control devices should be required as long as the material handling system is in operation.
Based on additional information provided by industry (see “Email Correspondence Received After Comment Period re Startup Shutdown (May 5, 2015),” which is available in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522), we are including a definition of startup in the final rule. The final rule defines startup as commencing when any feed material is first introduced into an affected source and ends when feed material is fully loaded into the affected source. Regarding shutdown, we agree with the commenters that it is not feasible to process all feed material from a process prior to shutting down most equipment at a facility. Such requirement would imply that the control device must be operated after the shutdown ends. The final rule defines shutdown as commencing when the facility ceases adding feed to an affected source and ends when the affected source is deactivated, regardless of whether feed material is present in the affected source. This definition will address concerns about temporary shutdowns as well as shutdowns of longer duration.
In addition, the final rule at 40 CFR 63.622(d) specifies that any control device used at the affected source must be operated during the entire period of startup and shutdown, and must meet the operating limits in Table 4 of the rule.
For the reasons provided above and in the preamble for the proposed rule, we are finalizing the proposed revisions to the General Provisions table (appendix A of NESHAP subpart BB) to change several references related to requirements that apply during periods of SSM. For these same reasons, we are also finalizing the addition of the following proposed provisions to NESHAP subpart BB: (1) Work practice standards for periods of startup and shutdown in lieu of numeric emission limits; (2) the general duty to minimize emissions at all times; (3) performance testing conditions requirements; (4) site-specific monitoring plan requirements; and (5) malfunction recordkeeping and reporting requirements.
For consistency between NESHAP subpart AA and NESHAP subpart BB, we also proposed conditions in NESHAP subpart BB that exclude (like NESHAP subpart AA does) the use of evaporative cooling towers for any liquid effluent from any wet scrubbing device installed to control HF emissions from process equipment. Lastly, we proposed to amend the definitions of “diammonium and/or monoammonium phosphate process line,” “granular triple superphosphate process line,” and “granular triple superphosphate storage building” to include relevant emission points, and to remove text from the applicability section that is duplicative of the revised definitions.
In addition, we proposed removing the requirement that facilities may not implement new operating parameter ranges until the Administrator has approved them, or 30 days have passed since submission of the performance test results. We proposed that facilities must immediately comply with new operating ranges when they are developed and submitted; and new operating ranges must be established using the most recent performance test conducted by a facility, which allows for changes in control device operation to be appropriately reflected.
We also proposed monitoring requirements for fabric filters in NESHAP subpart BB because we identified two processes that used fabric filters rather than wet scrubbing as control technology.
As stated in the preamble to the proposed rule, we modified the language for the conditions under which testing must be conducted to require that testing be conducted at “maximum representative operating conditions” for the process.
In keeping with the general provisions for CMS (including CEMS and CPMS), we proposed the addition of a site-specific monitoring plan and calibration requirements for CMS. Provisions were also proposed that included electronic reporting of stack test data. We also
Finally, we proposed HF standards in NESHAP subpart BB by translating the current total fluoride limits (lb total F/ton P
For consistency with terminology used in the associated NESHAP subpart BB, we proposed changing the term “scrubbing system” to “absorber” in NSPS subpart V.
For consistency with terminology used in the associated NESHAP subpart BB, we proposed changing the term “process scrubbing system” to “absorber” in NSPS subpart W.
For consistency with terminology used in the associated NESHAP subpart BB, we proposed changing the term “process scrubbing system” to “absorber” in NSPS subpart X.
In addition to these revisions, we are making corrections at 40 CFR 63.627(a) to clarify the procedures for establishing a new operating limit based on the most recent performance test. We are also revising the requirements at 40 CFR 63.625(d)(1)(ii)(B) to remove the requirement that facilities must request and obtain approval of the Administrator for changing operating limits. (See section VI.E.3.b.iv and VI.E.3.b.v of this preamble for details.)
Also, for reasons discussed in the Comment Summary and Response document available in the docket, we are revising the annual testing schedule in the final rule at 40 CFR 63.626(b), and the terminology for “maximum representative operating conditions” in the final rule at 40 CFR 63.626(d).
We are not making any changes to the proposed addition of a site-specific monitoring plan and calibration requirements for CMS. We are also keeping the proposed term “absorber” in lieu of “scrubber,” as well as the proposed format of NESHAP subpart BB to reference tables for emissions limits and monitoring requirements.
Lastly, we are retaining the current total fluoride limits and not adopting the proposed HF standards and associated EPA Method 320 testing in NESHAP subpart BB (see section VI.E.3.c of this preamble for details).
Several comments were received regarding the proposed clarifications to applicability and certain definitions, revisions to testing, monitoring, recordkeeping and reporting, translation of total fluoride to HF emission limits, and revisions to other provisions for the Phosphate Fertilizer Production source category. The following is a summary of several of these comments and our response to those comments. Other comments received and our responses to those comments can be found in the Comment Summary and Response document available in the docket for this action (EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522).
As an outgrowth of this comment, the Agency revised rule language surrounding the use of “phosphate fertilizer process line,” to create clarity and consistency in rule language. Specifically, where the phrase “diammonium and/or monoammonium phosphate process line and any process line that produces a reaction product of ammonia and phosphoric acid” was used at proposal, this phrase now reads “phosphate fertilizer process line (
In addition, a commenter requested that the EPA clarify how revising the proposed regulatory language to require submission of the new ranges to the
For the reasons provided above and in the preamble for the proposed rule, we are finalizing the proposed requirement in NESHAP subpart BB that pressure drop across an absorber must be greater than 5 inches of water in order to use the option of measuring pressure drop as an operating parameter; and other proposed clarifications and corrections.
Additionally, for the reasons provided above, we are making the revisions, clarifications and corrections noted in section VI.E.2 in the final rules for NESHAP subpart BB, NSPS subpart V, NSPS subpart W, and NSPS subpart X.
We anticipate that the 13 facilities currently operating in the U.S. will be affected by these amendments. We do not expect any new facilities to be constructed or expanded in the foreseeable future.
We anticipate HF emissions reductions as a result of one facility installing controls on its oxidation reactor to comply with the SPA total fluoride limit. However, we do not have emissions data for its oxidation reactor to calculate these reductions. In addition, the revised rule will mitigate future increases of Hg emissions from phosphate rock calciners by requiring compliance with numeric emission limits.
We have estimated compliance costs for all existing sources to add the necessary controls and monitoring devices, perform inspections, and implement recordkeeping and reporting requirements to comply with the final rules. Based on this analysis, we anticipate an overall total capital investment of $346,000, with an associated total annualized cost of approximately $294,000. We do not anticipate the construction of any new phosphoric acid manufacturing plants or phosphate fertilizer production facilities in the next 5 years. Therefore, there are no anticipated new source cost impacts. We estimated the cost to install a venturi scrubber to meet the SPA process line total fluoride standard, when oxidation reactor emissions are included, for one facility. For all emission sources, we calculated capital and annual costs for testing, monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting. The memorandum, “Control Costs and Emissions Reductions for Phosphoric Acid and Phosphate Fertilizer Production Source Categories—Final Rule,” which is available in the docket for this action, documents the control cost analyses.
Economic impact analyses focus on changes in market prices and output levels. If changes in market prices and output levels in the primary markets are significant, we also examine impacts on other markets. Both the magnitude of costs needed to comply with the rule and the distribution of these costs among affected facilities can have a role in determining how the market will change in response to the rule. We project that no facility will incur significant costs.
Because no small firms will incur control costs, there is no significant impact on small entities. Thus, we do not expect this regulation to have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The revised rule will mitigate future increases of Hg emissions from phosphate rock calciners by requiring compliance with numeric emission limits. These avoided emissions will result in improvements in air quality and reduced negative health effects associated with exposure to air pollution of these emissions. However, we have not quantified or monetized the benefits of reducing these emissions for this rulemaking because information is not available to monetize potential benefits and we are not aware of any new phosphate rock calciners that will be constructed in the next three years.
Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994) establishes federal executive policy on environmental justice. Its main provision directs federal agencies, to the greatest extent practical and permitted by law, to make environmental justice part of their mission by identifying and addressing, as appropriate, disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects of their programs, policies and activities on minority populations and low-income populations in the U.S.
The EPA has determined that this rule will not have disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority, low-
The proximity analysis reveals that most demographic categories are below or within 20 percent of their corresponding national averages. The two exceptions are the minority and African American populations. The ratio of African Americans living within 3 miles of any source affected by this rule is 131 percent higher than the national average (29 percent versus 13 percent). The percentage of minorities living within 3 miles of any source affected by this rule is 37 percent above the national average (35 percent versus 28 percent). The large minority population is a direct result of the higher percentage of African Americans living near these facilities (the other racial minorities are below or equal to the national average). However, as noted previously, we found the risks from these source categories to be acceptable for all populations.
The changes to the standard increase the level of environmental protection for all affected populations by ensuring no future emission increases from the source categories. The proximity analysis results and the details concerning their development are presented in the October 2012 memorandum, “Environmental Justice Review: Phosphate Fertilizer Production and Phosphoric Acid,” a copy of which is available in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522.
While this action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997), we note that the current standards provide an ample margin of safety to protect public health. Consideration of children's health is accounted for in our risk analyses, which compare projected exposures to various health benchmarks that are based on the most sensitive populations.
This action is not a significant regulatory action and was, therefore, not submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review. The EPA analyzed the potential costs and benefits associated with this action. The results are presented in sections VII.C and E of this preamble.
The information collection activities in these rules have been submitted for approval to OMB under the PRA. The Information Collection Request (ICR) document that the EPA prepared has been assigned EPA ICR number 1790.06. You can find a copy of the ICR in the docket for this rule, and it is briefly summarized here. The information collection requirements are not enforceable until OMB approves them.
We are finalizing new paperwork requirements to the Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing and Phosphate Fertilizer Production source categories in the form of additional requirements for stack testing, performance evaluations, and work practices for fugitive sources.
We estimate 12 regulated entities are currently subject to 40 CFR part 63, subpart AA and 11 regulated entities are currently subject to 40 CFR part 63, subpart BB and each will be subject to all applicable standards. The annual monitoring, reporting, and recordkeeping burden for these amendments to subpart AA and BB is estimated to be $224,000 per year (averaged over the first 3 years after the effective date of the standards). This includes 670 labor hours per year at a total labor cost of $55,000 per year, and total non-labor capital and operating and maintenance costs of $169,000 per year. This estimate includes performance tests, notifications, reporting and recordkeeping associated with the new requirements for emission points and associated control devices. The total burden to the federal government is estimated to be 330 hours per year at a total labor cost of $17,000 per year (averaged over the first 3 years after the effective date of the standard). Burden is defined at 5 CFR 1320.3(b).
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The OMB control numbers for the EPA's regulations in 40 CFR are listed in 40 CFR part 9. When OMB approves this ICR, the Agency will announce that approval in the
I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. In making this determination, the impact of concern is any significant adverse economic impact on small entities. An agency may certify that a rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities if the rule relieves regulatory burden, has no net burden or otherwise has a positive economic effect on the small entities subject to the rule. This rule will not impose any requirements on small entities because we do not project that any small entities will incur costs due to these rule amendments. We have therefore concluded that this action will have no net regulatory burden for all directly regulated small entities.
This action does not contain any unfunded mandate as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. The action imposes no enforceable duty on any state, local, or tribal governments or the private sector.
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
This action has tribal implications. However, it will neither impose substantial direct compliance costs on federally recognized tribal governments, nor preempt tribal law. The tribal implications are primarily due to the close proximity of one facility to a tribe (the Shoshone-Bannock).
The EPA consulted with tribal officials under the EPA Policy on
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it is not economically significant as defined in Executive Order 12866, and because the EPA does not believe the environmental health or safety risks addressed by this action present a disproportionate risk to children. This action's health and risk assessments are contained in sections V.A. and VI.A.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
This action involves technical standards. The EPA has decided to use analytical methods of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists (AOAC) and of the Association of Fertilizer and Phosphate Chemists (AFPC). The AOAC methods include: AOAC Official Method 957.02 Phosphorus (Total) in Fertilizers, Preparation of Sample Solution, AOAC Official Method 929.01 Sampling of Solid Fertilizers, AOAC Official Method 929.02 Preparation of Fertilizer Sample, AOAC Official Method 978.01 Phosphorous (Total) in Fertilizers, Automated Method, AOAC Official Method 969.02 Phosphorous (Total) in Fertilizers, Alkalimetric Quinolinium Molybdophosphate Method, AOAC Official Method 962.02 Phosphorous (Total) in Fertilizers, Gravimetric Quinolinium Molybdophosphate Method and Quinolinium Molybdophosphate Method 958.01 Phosphorous (Total) in Fertilizers, Spectrophotometric Molybdovanadophosphate Method. The AFPC methods for analysis of phosphate rock include: No. 1 Preparation of Sample, No. 3 Phosphorus-P
As discussed in the preamble of the proposal, under NESHAP subpart AA and NESHAP subpart BB, we conducted searches for EPA Methods 5, 13A, 13B, and 30B. The EPA conducted searches through the Enhanced National Standards Systems Network (NSSN) Database managed by the American National Standards Institute (ANSI). We contacted voluntary consensus standards (VCS) organizations, and accessed and searched their databases. We did not identify any applicable VCS for EPA Methods 5, 13A, 13B, or 30B. Additional information for the VCS search and determinations can be found in the memorandum, “Voluntary Consensus Standard Results for Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing and Phosphate Fertilizer Production RTR and Standards of Performance for Phosphate Processing,” which is available in the docket for this action. The EPA solicited comments on VCS and invited the public to identify potentially applicable VCS; however, we did not receive comments regarding this aspect of NESHAP subpart AA and NESHAP subpart BB.
The EPA is incorporating, into NESHAP subpart AA and NESHAP subpart BB, the following guidance document: EPA-454/R-98-015, Office Of Air Quality Planning And Standards (OAQPS), Fabric Filter Bag Leak Detection Guidance, September 1997. This guidance document provides procedures for selecting, installing, setting up, adjusting, and operating a bag leak detection system; and also includes quality assurance procedures. This guidance document is readily accessible at
The EPA believes the human health or environmental risk addressed by this action will not have potential disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority, low-income, or indigenous populations because it increases the level of protection provided to human health or the environment. The results of this evaluation are contained in the memorandum titled “Environmental Justice Review: Phosphate Fertilizer Production and Phosphoric Acid,” which is available in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0522, and are discussed in section VII.F of this preamble.
This action is subject to the CRA, and the EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the U.S. This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Fertilizers, Fluoride, Particulate matter, Phosphate, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedures, Air pollution control, Hazardous substances, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, parts 60 and 63 of title 40, chapter I, of the Code of Federal Regulations are amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(a) The affected facility to which the provisions of this subpart apply is each wet-process phosphoric acid plant having a design capacity of more than 15 tons of equivalent P
(a)
(c) The owner or operator of any wet-process phosphoric acid plant subject to the provisions of this part shall install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a monitoring device which continuously measures and permanently records the total pressure drop across the absorber. The monitoring device shall have an accuracy of ±5 percent over its operating range.
(d) Any facility under § 60.200(a) that commences construction, modification or reconstruction after November 7, 2014 is subject to the requirements of this paragraph instead of the requirements in paragraph (c) of this section. If an absorber is used to comply with § 60.202, then the owner or operator shall continuously monitor pressure drop through the absorber and meet the requirements specified in paragraphs (d)(1) through (4) of this section.
(1) The owner or operator shall install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a continuous monitoring system (CMS) that continuously measures and permanently records the pressure at the gas stream inlet and outlet of the absorber. The pressure at the gas stream inlet of the absorber may be measured using amperage on the blower if a correlation between pressure and amperage is established.
(2) The CMS must have an accuracy of ±5 percent over the normal range measured or 0.12 kilopascals (0.5 inches of water column), whichever is greater.
(3) The owner or operator shall establish an allowable range for the pressure drop through the absorber. The allowable range is ±20 percent of the arithmetic average of the three test runs conducted during the performance test required in § 60.8. The Administrator retains the right to reduce the ±20 percent adjustment to the baseline average values of operating ranges in those instances where performance test results indicate that a source's level of emissions is near the value of an applicable emissions standard. However, the adjustment must not be reduced to less than ±10 percent under any instance.
(4) The owner or operator shall demonstrate continuous compliance by maintaining the daily average pressure drop through the absorber to within the allowable range established in paragraph (d)(3) of this section. The daily average pressure drop through the absorber for each operating day shall be calculated using the data recorded by the monitoring system. If the emissions unit operation is continuous, the operating day is a 24-hour period. If the emissions unit operation is not continuous, the operating day is the total number of hours of control device operation per 24-hour period. Valid data points must be available for 75 percent of the operating hours in an operating day to compute the daily average.
Any facility under § 60.200(a) that commences construction, modification or reconstruction after November 7, 2014 is subject to the requirements of this section. You must maintain the records identified as specified in § 60.7(f) and in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. All records required by this subpart must be maintained on site for at least 5 years.
(a)
(b)
(1) A deviation occurs when the daily average value of a monitored operating parameter is less than the minimum pressure drop, or greater than the maximum pressure drop established in § 60.203(d)(3).
(2) A deviation occurs when the monitoring data are not available for at least 75 percent of the operating hours in a day.
(a) The affected facility to which the provisions of this subpart apply is each superphosphoric acid plant having a design capacity of more than 15 tons of equivalent P
(a)
(c) Except as specified in paragraph (d) of this section, the owner or operator of any superphosphoric acid plant subject to the provisions of this part shall install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a monitoring device which continuously measures and permanently records the total pressure drop across the absorber. The monitoring device shall have an accuracy of ±5 percent over its operating range.
(d) Any affected facility as defined in § 60.210(a) that commences construction, modification or reconstruction after November 7, 2014 is subject to the requirements of this paragraph instead of the requirements in paragraph (c) of this section. If an absorber is used to comply with § 60.212, then the owner or operator shall continuously monitor pressure drop through the absorber and meet the requirements specified in paragraphs (d)(1) through (4) of this section.
(1) The owner or operator shall install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a continuous monitoring system (CMS) that continuously measures and permanently records the pressure at the gas stream inlet and outlet of the absorber. The pressure at the gas stream inlet of the absorber may be measured using amperage on the blower if a correlation between pressure and amperage is established.
(2) The CMS must have an accuracy of ±5 percent over the normal range measured or 0.12 kilopascals (0.5 inches of water column), whichever is greater.
(3) The owner or operator shall establish an allowable range for the pressure drop through the absorber. The allowable range is ±20 percent of the arithmetic average of the three test runs conducted during the performance test required in § 60.8. The Administrator retains the right to reduce the ±20 percent adjustment to the baseline average values of operating ranges in those instances where performance test results indicate that a source's level of emissions is near the value of an applicable emissions standard. However, the adjustment must not be reduced to less than ±10 percent under any instance.
(4) The owner or operator shall demonstrate continuous compliance by maintaining the daily average pressure drop through the absorber to within the allowable range established in paragraph (d)(3) of this section. The daily average pressure drop through the absorber for each operating day shall be calculated using the data recorded by the monitoring system. If the emissions unit operation is continuous, the operating day is a 24-hour period. If the emissions unit operation is not continuous, the operating day is the total number of hours of control device operation per 24-hour period. Valid data points must be available for 75 percent of the operating hours in an operating day to compute the daily average.
An affected facility as defined in § 60.210(a) that commences construction, modification, or reconstruction after November 7, 2014 is subject to the requirements of this section. You must maintain the records identified as specified in § 60.7(f) and in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. All records required by this subpart must be maintained on site for at least 5 years.
(a)
(b)
(1) A deviation occurs when the daily average value of a monitored operating parameter is less than the minimum pressure drop, or greater than the maximum pressure drop established in § 60.213(d)(3).
(2) A deviation occurs when the monitoring data are not available for at least 75 percent of the operating hours in a day.
(c) Except as specified in paragraph (d) of this section, the owner or operator of any granular diammonium phosphate plant subject to the provisions of this subpart shall install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a monitoring device which continuously measures and permanently records the total pressure drop across the scrubbing system. The monitoring device shall have an accuracy of ±5 percent over its operating range.
(d) Any affected facility as defined in § 60.220(a) that commences construction, modification, or reconstruction after November 7, 2014 is subject to the requirements of this paragraph instead of the requirements in paragraph (c) of this section. If an absorber is used to comply with § 60.222, then the owner or operator shall continuously monitor pressure drop through the absorber and meet the requirements specified in paragraphs (d)(1) through (4) of this section.
(1) The owner or operator shall install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a continuous monitoring system (CMS) that continuously measures and permanently records the pressure at the gas stream inlet and outlet of the absorber. The pressure at the gas stream inlet of the absorber may be measured using amperage on the blower if a correlation between pressure and amperage is established.
(2) The CMS must have an accuracy of ±5 percent over the normal range measured or 0.12 kilopascals (0.5 inches of water column), whichever is greater.
(3) The owner or operator shall establish an allowable range for the pressure drop through the absorber. The allowable range is ±20 percent of the arithmetic average of the three test runs conducted during the performance test required in § 60.8. The Administrator retains the right to reduce the ±20 percent adjustment to the baseline average values of operating ranges in those instances where performance test results indicate that a source's level of emissions is near the value of an applicable emissions standard. However, the adjustment must not be reduced to less than ±10 percent under any instance.
(4) The owner or operator shall demonstrate continuous compliance by maintaining the daily average pressure drop through the absorber to within the allowable range established in paragraph (d)(3) of this section. The daily average pressure drop through the absorber for each operating day shall be calculated using the data recorded by the monitoring system. If the emissions unit operation is continuous, the operating day is a 24-hour period. If the emissions unit operation is not continuous, the operating day is the total number of hours of control device operation per 24-hour period. Valid data points must be available for 75 percent of the operating hours in an operating day to compute the daily average.
(b) * * *
(3) * * *
(ii) The Association of Official Analytical Chemists (AOAC) Method 9 (incorporated by reference—see § 60.17) shall be used to determine the P
An affected facility as defined in § 60.220(a) that commences construction, modification, or reconstruction after November 7, 2014 is subject to the requirements of this section. You must maintain the records identified as specified in § 60.7(f) and in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. All records required by this subpart must be maintained on site for at least 5 years.
(a) Records of the daily average pressure drop through the absorber.
(b) Records of deviations. A deviation is determined to have occurred when the monitoring data or lack of monitoring data result in any one of the criteria specified in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section being met.
(1) A deviation occurs when the daily average value of a monitored operating parameter is less than the minimum pressure drop, or greater than the maximum pressure drop established in § 60.223(d)(3).
(2) A deviation occurs when the monitoring data are not available for at least 75 percent of the operating hours in a day.
(a) The affected facility to which the provisions of this subpart apply is each triple superphosphate plant having a design capacity of more than 15 tons of equivalent P
(a) The owner or operator of any triple superphosphate plant subject to the provisions of this subpart shall install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a flow monitoring device that can be used to determine the mass flow of phosphorus-bearing feed material to the process. The flow monitoring device shall have an accuracy of ±5 percent over its operating range.
(b) The owner or operator of any triple superphosphate plant shall maintain a daily record of equivalent P
(c) Except as specified in paragraph (d) of this section, the owner or operator of any triple superphosphate plant subject to the provisions of this part shall install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a monitoring device that continuously measures and permanently records the total pressure drop across the absorber. The monitoring device shall have an accuracy of ±5 percent over its operating range.
(d) Any facility under § 60.230(a) that commences construction, modification, or reconstruction after November 7, 2014 is subject to the requirements of this paragraph instead of the requirements in paragraph (c) of this section. If an absorber is used to comply with § 60.232, then the owner or operator shall continuously monitor pressure drop through the absorber and meet the requirements specified in paragraphs (d)(1) through (4) of this section.
(1) The owner or operator shall install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a continuous monitoring system (CMS) that continuously measures and permanently records the pressure at the gas stream inlet and outlet of the absorber. The pressure at the gas stream inlet of the absorber may be measured using amperage on the blower if a correlation between pressure and amperage is established.
(2) The CMS must have an accuracy of ±5 percent over the normal range measured or 0.12 kilopascals (0.5 inches of water column), whichever is greater.
(3) The owner or operator shall establish an allowable range for the pressure drop through the absorber. The allowable range is ±20 percent of the arithmetic average of the three test runs conducted during the performance test required in § 60.8. The Administrator retains the right to reduce the ±20 percent adjustment to the baseline average values of operating ranges in those instances where performance test results indicate that a source's level of emissions is near the value of an applicable emissions standard. However, the adjustment must not be reduced to less than ±10 percent under any instance.
(4) The owner or operator shall demonstrate continuous compliance by maintaining the daily average pressure drop through the absorber to within the allowable range established in paragraph (d)(3) of this section. The daily average pressure drop through the absorber for each operating day shall be calculated using the data recorded by the monitoring system. If the emissions unit operation is continuous, the operating day is a 24-hour period. If the emissions unit operation is not continuous, the operating day is the total number of hours of control device operation per 24-hour period. Valid data points must be available for 75 percent of the operating hours in an operating day to compute the daily average.
Any facility under § 60.230(a) that commences construction, modification, or reconstruction after November 7, 2014 is subject to the requirements of this section. You must maintain the records identified as specified in § 60.7(f) and in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. All records required by this subpart must be maintained onsite for at least 5 years.
(a) Records of the daily average pressure drop through the absorber.
(b) Records of deviations. A deviation is determined to have occurred when the monitoring data or lack of monitoring data result in any one of the criteria specified in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section being met.
(1) A deviation occurs when the daily average value of a monitored operating parameter is less than the minimum pressure drop, or greater than the maximum pressure drop established in § 60.233(d)(3).
(2) A deviation occurs when the monitoring data are not available for at least 75 percent of the operating hours in a day.
(c) Except as specified in paragraph (e) of this section, the owner or operator of any granular triple superphosphate storage facility subject to the provisions of this subpart shall install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a monitoring device that continuously measures and permanently records the total pressure drop across any absorber. The monitoring device shall have an accuracy of ±5 percent over its operating range.
(e) Any facility under § 60.240(a) that commences construction, modification, or reconstruction after November 7, 2014 is subject to the requirements of this paragraph instead of the requirements in paragraph (c) of this section. If an absorber is used to comply with § 60.232, then the owner or operator shall continuously monitor pressure drop through the absorber and meet the requirements specified in paragraphs (e)(1) through (4) of this section.
(1) The owner or operator shall install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a continuous monitoring system (CMS) that continuously measures and permanently records the pressure at the gas stream inlet and outlet of the absorber. The pressure at the gas stream inlet of the absorber may be measured using amperage on the blower if a correlation between pressure and amperage is established.
(2) The CMS must have an accuracy of ±5 percent over the normal range measured or 0.12 kilopascals (0.5 inches of water column), whichever is greater.
(3) The owner or operator shall establish an allowable range for the
(4) The owner or operator shall demonstrate continuous compliance by maintaining the daily average pressure drop through the absorber to within the allowable range established in paragraph (e)(3) of this section. The daily average pressure drop through the absorber for each operating day shall be calculated using the data recorded by the monitoring system. If the emissions unit operation is continuous, the operating day is a 24-hour period. If the emissions unit operation is not continuous, the operating day is the total number of hours of control device operation per 24-hour period. Valid data points must be available for 75 percent of the operating hours in an operating day to compute the daily average.
Any facility under § 60.240(a) that commences construction, modification, or reconstruction after November 7, 2014 is subject to the requirements of this section. You must maintain the records identified as specified in § 60.7(f) and in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. All records required by this subpart must be maintained onsite for at least 5 years.
(a) Records of the daily average pressure drop through the absorber.
(b) Records of deviations. A deviation is determined to have occurred when the monitoring data or lack of monitoring data result in any one of the criteria specified in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section being met.
(1) A deviation occurs when the daily average value of a monitored operating parameter is less than the minimum pressure drop, or greater than the maximum pressure drop established in § 60.243(e)(3).
(2) A deviation occurs when the monitoring data are not available for at least 75 percent of the operating hours in a day.
42 U.S.C. 7401
(b) The Association of Florida Phosphate Chemists, P.O. Box 1645, Bartow, Florida 33830.
(1) Book of Methods Used and Adopted By The Association of Florida Phosphate Chemists, Seventh Edition 1991:
(i) Section IX, Methods of Analysis for Phosphate Rock, No. 1 Preparation of Sample, IBR approved for § 63.606(f), § 63.626(f).
(ii) Section IX, Methods of Analysis for Phosphate Rock, No. 3 Phosphorus-P2O5 or Ca3(PO4)2, Method A—Volumetric Method, IBR approved for § 63.606(f), § 63.626(f).
(iii) Section IX, Methods of Analysis for Phosphate Rock, No. 3 Phosphorus-P2O5 or Ca3(PO4)2, Method B—Gravimetric Quimociac Method, IBR approved for § 63.606(f), § 63.626(f).
(iv) Section IX, Methods of Analysis For Phosphate Rock, No. 3 Phosphorus-P2O5 or Ca3(PO4)2, Method C—Spectrophotometric Method, IBR approved for § 63.606(f), § 63.626(f).
(v) Section XI, Methods of Analysis for Phosphoric Acid, Superphosphate, Triple Superphosphate, and Ammonium Phosphates, No. 3 Total Phosphorus-P2O5, Method A—Volumetric Method, IBR approved for § 63.606(f), § 63.626(f), and (g).
(vi) Section XI, Methods of Analysis for Phosphoric Acid, Superphosphate, Triple Superphosphate, and Ammonium Phosphates, No. 3 Total Phosphorus-P2O5, Method B—Gravimetric Quimociac Method, IBR approved for § 63.606(f), § 63.626(f), and (g).
(vii) Section XI, Methods of Analysis for Phosphoric Acid, Superphosphate, Triple Superphosphate, and Ammonium Phosphates, No. 3 Total Phosphorus-P2O5, Method C—Spectrophotometric Method, IBR approved for § 63.606(f), § 63.626(f), and (g).
(2) [Reserved]
(c) * * *
(1) AOAC Official Method 929.01 Sampling of Solid Fertilizers, Sixteenth edition, 1995, IBR approved for § 63.626(g).
(2) AOAC Official Method 929.02 Preparation of Fertilizer Sample, Sixteenth edition, 1995, IBR approved for § 63.626(g).
(3) AOAC Official Method 957.02 Phosphorus (Total) in Fertilizers, Preparation of Sample Solution, Sixteenth edition, 1995, IBR approved for § 63.626(g).
(4) AOAC Official Method 958.01 Phosphorus (Total) in Fertilizers, Spectrophotometric Molybdovanadophosphate Method, Sixteenth edition, 1995, IBR approved for § 63.626(g).
(5) AOAC Official Method 962.02 Phosphorus (Total) in Fertilizers, Gravimetric Quinolinium Molybdophosphate Method, Sixteenth edition, 1995, IBR approved for § 63.626(g).
(6) AOAC Official Method 969.02 Phosphorus (Total) in Fertilizers, Alkalimetric Quinolinium Molybdophosphate Method, Sixteenth edition, 1995, IBR approved for § 63.626(g).
(7) AOAC Official Method 978.01 Phosphorus (Total) in Fertilizers, Automated Method, Sixteenth edition, 1995, IBR approved for § 63.626(g).
(l) * * *
(2) EPA-454/R-98-015, Office Of Air Quality Planning And Standards (OAQPS), Fabric Filter Bag Leak Detection Guidance, September 1997, IBR approved for §§ 63.548(e), 63.606(m), 63.607(b), 63.626(h), 63.627(b), 63.7525(j), and 63.11224(f).
(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, you are subject to the requirements of this subpart if you own or operate a phosphoric acid manufacturing plant that is a major source as defined in § 63.2. You must comply with the emission limitations, work practice standards, and operating parameter requirements specified in this subpart at all times.
(b) The requirements of this subpart apply to emissions of hazardous air pollutants (HAP) emitted from the following affected sources at a phosphoric acid manufacturing plant:
(1) Each wet-process phosphoric acid process line.
(2) Each evaporative cooling tower.
(3) Each phosphate rock dryer.
(4) Each phosphate rock calciner.
(5) Each superphosphoric acid process line.
(6) Each purified phosphoric acid process line.
(7) Each gypsum dewatering stack.
(8) Each cooling pond.
(c) The requirements of this subpart do not apply to a phosphoric acid manufacturing plant that is an area source as defined in § 63.2.
(d) The provisions of this subpart do not apply to research and development facilities as defined in § 63.601.
Terms used in this subpart are defined in § 63.2 of the Clean Air Act and in this section as follows:
(1) It was constructed or reconstructed on or before August 19, 2015; or
(2) It was constructed or reconstructed after August 19, 2015 and it was not required to obtain a permit by a state authority for the construction or reconstruction.
(1) It was constructed or reconstructed after August 19, 2015; and
(2) It was required to obtain a permit by a state authority for the construction or reconstruction.
(a) On and after the dates specified in paragraphs (a)(1) through (6) of this section, for each wet-process phosphoric acid process line, superphosphoric acid process line, phosphate rock dryer, and phosphate rock calciner, you must comply with the emission limits as specified in paragraphs (a)(1) through (6) of this section. If a process line contains more than one emission point, you must sum the emissions from all emission points in a process line to determine compliance with the specified emission limits.
(1) For each existing wet-process phosphoric acid process line, superphosphoric acid process line, and phosphate rock dryer that commenced construction or reconstruction on or before December 27, 1996, you must comply with the emission limits specified in Table 1 to this subpart beginning on June 10, 2002.
(2) For each existing phosphate rock calciner that commenced construction or reconstruction on or before December 27, 1996, you must comply with the emission limits as specified in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section.
(i) You must comply with the total particulate emission limit specified in Table 1 to this subpart beginning on June 10, 2002.
(ii) You must comply with the mercury emission limit specified in Table 1 to this subpart beginning on August 19, 2015.
(iii) You must comply with the total fluorides emission limit specified in Table 1 to this subpart beginning on August 19, 2015.
(3) For each new wet-process phosphoric acid process line, superphosphoric acid process line, and phosphate rock dryer that commences construction or reconstruction after December 27, 1996 and on or before August 19, 2015, you must comply with the emission limits specified in Table 2 to this subpart beginning on June 10, 1999 or at startup, whichever is later.
(4) For each new wet-process phosphoric acid process line, superphosphoric acid process line, and phosphate rock dryer that commences construction or reconstruction after August 19, 2015, you must comply with the emission limits specified in Table 2 to this subpart immediately upon startup.
(5) For each new phosphate rock calciner that commences construction or reconstruction after December 27, 1996 and on or before August 19, 2015, you must comply with the emission limits as specified in paragraphs (a)(5)(i) through (iii) of this section.
(i) You must comply with the total particulate emission limit specified in Table 2 to this subpart beginning on June 10, 1999 or at startup, whichever is later.
(ii) You must comply with the mercury emission limit specified in Table 2 to this subpart beginning on August 19, 2015, or upon startup, whichever is later.
(iii) You must comply with the total fluorides emission limit specified in Table 2 to this subpart beginning on August 19, 2015, or upon startup, whichever is later.
(6) For each new phosphate rock calciner that commences construction or reconstruction after August 19, 2015, you must comply with the emission limits specified in Table 2 to this subpart immediately upon startup.
(b) For each existing purified phosphoric acid process line that commenced construction or reconstruction on or before December 27, 1996, you must comply with the provisions of subpart H of this part and paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section beginning on June 10, 2002. For each new purified phosphoric acid process line that commences construction or reconstruction after December 27, 1996, you must comply with the provisions of subpart H of this part and paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section beginning on June 10, 1999 or at startup, whichever is later.
(1) Maintain a 30-day rolling average of daily concentration measurements of methyl isobutyl ketone equal to or below 20 parts per million by weight (ppmw) for each product acid stream.
(2) Maintain a 30-day rolling average of daily concentration measurements of methyl isobutyl ketone equal to or below 30 ppmw for each raffinate stream.
(3) Maintain the daily average temperature of the exit gas stream from the chiller stack below 50 degrees Fahrenheit.
(c) Beginning on June 10, 2002, you must not introduce into an existing evaporative cooling tower that commenced construction or reconstruction on or before December 27, 1996, any liquid effluent from any absorber installed to control emissions from process equipment. Beginning on June 10, 1999 or at startup, whichever
(d) For each gypsum dewatering stack system, you must prepare, and operate in accordance with, a gypsum dewatering stack and cooling pond management plan that contains the information specified in paragraph (e) of this section beginning on August 19, 2016.
(e) The gypsum dewatering stack and cooling pond management plan must include the information specified in paragraphs (e)(1) through (3) of this section. You must submit the gypsum dewatering stack and cooling pond management plan for approval to the Administrator as specified in paragraph (e)(4) of this section.
(1) Location (including latitude and longitude of centroid in decimal degrees to four decimal places) of each gypsum dewatering stack and each cooling pond in the gypsum dewatering stack system.
(2) Permitted maximum footprint acreage of each gypsum dewatering stack and each cooling pond in the gypsum dewatering stack system.
(3) Control measures that you use to minimize fugitive hydrogen fluoride emissions from the gypsum dewatering stack system. If you operate one or more active gypsum dewatering stacks or cooling ponds that are considered new sources as defined in § 63.601, then you must use, and include in the management plan, at least two of the control measures listed in paragraphs (e)(3)(i) through (vii) of this section for your gypsum dewatering stack system. If you only operate active gypsum dewatering stacks and cooling ponds that are considered existing sources as defined in § 63.601, then you must use, and include in the management plan, at least one of the control measures listed in paragraphs (e)(3)(i) through (vii) of this section for your gypsum dewatering stack system.
(i) For at least one cooling pond that is considered part of your gypsum dewatering stack system, you may choose to submerge the discharge pipe to a level below the surface of the cooling pond.
(ii) For at least one cooling pond that is considered part of your gypsum dewatering stack system, you may choose to use lime (or any other caustic substance) to raise the pH of the liquid (
(iii) For all cooling ponds that are considered part of your gypsum dewatering stack system, you may choose to reduce the total cooling pond surface area based on a facility specific evaluation plan. If you choose this control measure, then you must include in the facility specific evaluation plan certified by an independent licensed professional engineer or similarly qualified individual. You must also include in the plan the method used to reduce total cooling pond footprint, the analyses used to determine and support the reduction in the total cooling pond surface area, and the amount of total cooling pond surface area that was reduced due to the facility specific evaluation plan.
(iv) For at least one gypsum dewatering stack that is considered part of your gypsum dewatering stack system, you may choose to minimize the surface area of the gypsum pond associated with the active gypsum dewatering stack by using a rim ditch (cell) building technique or other building technique.
(v) For at least one gypsum dewatering stack that is considered part of your gypsum dewatering stack system, you may choose to apply slaked lime to the active gypsum dewatering stack surfaces. If you choose this control measure, then you must include in the plan the method used to determine the specific locations slaked lime is applied. The plan must also include the methods used to determine the quantity of, and when to apply, slaked lime (
(vi) For at least one gypsum dewatering stack that is considered part of your gypsum dewatering stack system, you may choose to apply soil caps and vegetation, or a synthetic cover, to a portion of side slopes of the active gypsum dewatering stack. If you choose this control measure, then you must include in the plan the method used to determine the specific locations of soil caps and vegetation, or synthetic cover; and specify the acreage and locations where soil caps and vegetation, or synthetic cover, is applied. The plan must also include a schedule describing when soil caps and vegetation, or synthetic cover, is to be applied.
(vii) For all gypsum dewatering stacks that are considered part of your gypsum dewatering stack system, you may choose to establish closure requirements that at a minimum, contain requirements for the specified items in paragraphs (e)(3)(vii)(A) and (B) of this section.
(A) A specific trigger mechanism for when you must begin the closure process on the gypsum dewatering stack; and
(B) A requirement to install a final cover. For purposes of this paragraph, final cover means the materials used to cover the top and sides of a gypsum dewatering stack upon closure.
(4) You must submit your plan for approval to the Administrator at least 6 months prior to the compliance date specified in § 63.602(d), or with the permit application for modification, construction, or reconstruction. The plan must include details on how you will implement and show compliance with the control technique(s) that you have selected to use. The Administrator will approve or disapprove your plan within 90 days after receipt of the plan. To change any of the information submitted in the plan, you must submit a revised plan 60 days before the planned change is to be implemented in order to allow time for review and approval by the Administrator before the change is implemented.
(f) Beginning on August 19, 2015, during periods of startup and shutdown (as defined in § 63.601), you must comply with the work practice specified in this paragraph in lieu of the emission limits specified in paragraph (a) of this section. During periods of startup and shutdown, you must operate any control device(s) being used at the affected source, monitor the operating parameters specified in Table 3 of this subpart, and comply with the operating limits specified in Table 4 of this subpart.
(a) For each wet-process phosphoric acid process line or superphosphoric acid process line subject to the provisions of this subpart, you must comply with the monitoring requirements specified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section.
(1) Install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a continuous monitoring system (CMS) according to your site-specific monitoring plan specified in § 63.608(c). The CMS must have an accuracy of ±5 percent over its operating range and
(2) Maintain a daily record of equivalent P
(b) For each phosphate rock dryer or phosphate rock calciner subject to the provisions of this subpart, you must comply with the monitoring requirements specified in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
(1) Install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a CMS according to your site-specific monitoring plan specified in § 63.608(c). The CMS must have an accuracy of ±5 percent over its operating range and must determine and permanently record either:
(i) The mass flow of phosphorus-bearing feed material to the phosphate rock dryer or calciner, or
(ii) The mass flow of product from the phosphate rock dryer or calciner.
(2) Maintain the records specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section.
(i) If you monitor the mass flow of phosphorus-bearing feed material to the phosphate rock dryer or calciner as specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, maintain a daily record of phosphate rock feed by determining the total mass rate in metric tons/hour of phosphorus-bearing feed.
(ii) If you monitor the mass flow of product from the phosphate rock dryer or calciner as specified in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, maintain a daily record of product by determining the total mass rate in metric ton/hour of product.
(c) For each purified phosphoric acid process line, you must comply with the monitoring requirements specified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section.
(1) Install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a CMS according to your site-specific monitoring plan specified in § 63.608(c). The CMS must continuously measure and permanently record the stack gas exit temperature for each chiller stack.
(2) Measure and record the concentration of methyl isobutyl ketone in each product acid stream and each raffinate stream once each day.
(d) If you use a control device(s) to comply with the emission limits specified in Table 1 or 2 of this subpart, you must install a continuous parameter monitoring system (CPMS) and comply with the requirements specified in paragraphs (d)(1) through (5) of this section.
(1) You must monitor the operating parameter(s) applicable to the control device that you use as specified in Table 3 to this subpart and establish the applicable limit or range for the operating parameter limit as specified in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, as applicable.
(i) Except as specified in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, determine the value(s) as the arithmetic average of operating parameter measurements recorded during the three test runs conducted for the most recent performance test.
(ii) If you use an absorber or a wet electrostatic precipitator to comply with the emission limits in Table 1 or 2 to this subpart and you monitor pressure drop across the absorber or secondary voltage for a wet electrostatic precipitator, you must establish allowable ranges using the methodology specified in paragraphs (d)(1)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section.
(A) The allowable range for the daily averages of the pressure drop across an absorber, or secondary voltage for a wet electrostatic precipitator, is ±20 percent of the baseline average value determined in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section. The Administrator retains the right to reduce the ±20 percent adjustment to the baseline average values of operating ranges in those instances where performance test results indicate that a source's level of emissions is near the value of an applicable emissions standard. However, the adjustment must not be reduced to less than ±10 percent under any instance.
(B) As an alternative to paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, you may establish allowable ranges for the daily averages of the pressure drop across an absorber, or secondary voltage for an electrostatic precipitator, for the purpose of assuring compliance with this subpart using the procedures described in this paragraph. You must establish the allowable ranges based on the baseline average values recorded during previous performance tests, or the results of performance tests conducted specifically for the purposes of this paragraph. You must conduct all performance tests using the methods specified in § 63.606. You must certify that the control devices and processes have not been modified since the date of the performance test from which you obtained the data used to establish the allowable ranges. When a source using the methodology of this paragraph is retested, you must determine new allowable ranges of baseline average values unless the retest indicates no change in the operating parameters outside the previously established ranges.
(2) You must monitor, record, and demonstrate continuous compliance using the minimum frequencies specified in Table 4 to this subpart.
(3) You must comply with the calibration and quality control requirements that are applicable to the operating parameter(s) you monitor as specified in Table 5 to this subpart.
(4) If you use a non-regenerative adsorption system to achieve the mercury emission limits specified in Table 1 or 2 to this subpart, you must comply with the requirements specified in paragraph (e) of this section.
(5) If you use a sorbent injection system to achieve the mercury emission limits specified in Table 1 or 2 to this subpart and you use a fabric filter to collect the associated particulate matter, the system must meet the requirements for fabric filters specified in paragraph (f) of this section.
(e) If you use a non-regenerative adsorption system to achieve the mercury emission limits specified in Table 1 or 2 to this subpart, you must comply with the requirements specified in paragraphs (e)(1) through (3) of this section.
(1) Determine the adsorber bed life (
(i) If the adsorber bed is expected (designed) to have a life of less than 2 years, determine the outlet concentration of mercury on a quarterly basis until breakthrough occurs for the first three adsorber bed change-outs. The adsorber bed life shall equal the average length of time between each of the three change-outs.
(ii) If the adsorber bed is expected (designed) to have a life of 2 years or greater, determine the outlet concentration of mercury on a semi-annual basis until breakthrough occurs for the first two adsorber bed change-outs. The adsorber bed life must equal the average length of time between each of the two change-outs.
(iii) If more than one adsorber is operated in parallel, or there are several identical operating lines controlled by adsorbers, you may determine the adsorber bed life by measuring the outlet concentration of mercury from one of the adsorbers or adsorber systems rather than determining the bed life for each adsorber.
(iv) The adsorber or adsorber system you select for the adsorber bed life test must have the highest expected inlet gas
(2) You must replace the sorbent in each adsorber on or before the end of the adsorbent bed life, calculated in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
(3) You must re-establish the adsorber bed life if the sorbent is replaced with a different brand or type, or if any process changes are made that would lead to a shorter bed lifetime.
(f) Beginning August 19, 2016, if you use a fabric filter system to comply with the emission limits specified in Table 1 or 2 to this subpart, then the fabric filter must be equipped with a bag leak detection system that is installed, calibrated, maintained, and continuously operated according to the requirements in paragraphs (f)(1) through (10) of this section.
(1) Install a bag leak detection sensor(s) in a position(s) that will be representative of the relative or absolute particulate matter loadings for each exhaust stack, roof vent, or compartment (
(2) Use a bag leak detection system certified by the manufacturer to be capable of detecting particulate matter emissions at concentrations of 1 milligram per actual cubic meter (0.00044 grains per actual cubic feet) or less.
(3) Use a bag leak detection system equipped with a device to continuously record the output signal from the system sensor.
(4) Use a bag leak detection system equipped with a system that will trigger an alarm when an increase in relative particulate matter emissions over a preset level is detected. The alarm must be located such that the alert is observed readily by plant operating personnel.
(5) Install a bag leak detection system in each compartment or cell for positive-pressure fabric filter systems that do not duct all compartments or cells to a common stack. Install a bag leak detector downstream of the fabric filter if a negative-pressure or induced-air filter system is used. If multiple bag leak detectors are required, the system's instrumentation and alarm may be shared among detectors.
(6) Calibration of the bag leak detection system must, at a minimum, consist of establishing the baseline output level by adjusting the range and the averaging period of the device and establishing the alarm set points and the alarm delay time.
(7) After initial adjustment, you must not adjust the sensitivity or range, averaging period, alarm set points, or alarm delay time except as established in your site-specific monitoring plan required in § 63.608(c). In no event may the sensitivity be increased more than 100 percent or decreased by more than 50 percent over a 365-day period unless such adjustment follows a complete inspection of the fabric filter system that demonstrates that the system is in good operating condition.
(8) Operate and maintain each fabric filter and bag leak detection system such that the alarm does not sound more than 5 percent of the operating time during a 6-month period. If the alarm sounds more than 5 percent of the operating time during a 6-month period, it is considered an operating parameter exceedance. Calculate the alarm time (
(i) If inspection of the fabric filter demonstrates that corrective action is not required, the alarm duration is not counted in the alarm time calculation.
(ii) If corrective action is required, each alarm time is counted as a minimum of 1 hour.
(iii) If it takes longer than 1 hour to initiate corrective action, each alarm time is counted as the actual amount of time taken to initiate corrective action.
(9) If the alarm on a bag leak detection system is triggered, you must initiate procedures within 1 hour of an alarm to identify the cause of the alarm and then initiate corrective action, as specified in § 63.608(d)(2), no later than 48 hours after an alarm. Failure to take these actions within the prescribed time periods is considered a violation.
(10) Retain records of any bag leak detection system alarm, including the date, time, duration, and the percent of the total operating time during each 6-month period that the alarm sounds, with a brief explanation of the cause of the alarm, the corrective action taken, and the schedule and duration of the corrective action.
(g) If you choose to directly monitor mercury emissions instead of using CPMS as specified in paragraph (d) of this section, then you must install and operate a mercury CEMS in accordance with Performance Specification 12A of appendix B to part 60 of this chapter, or a sorbent trap-based integrated monitoring system in accordance with Performance Specification 12B of appendix B to part 60 of this chapter. You must continuously monitor mercury emissions as specified in paragraphs (g)(1) through (4) of this section.
(1) The span value for any mercury CEMS must include the intended upper limit of the mercury concentration measurement range during normal operation, which may be exceeded during other short-term conditions lasting less than 24 consecutive operating hours. However, the span should be at least equivalent to approximately two times the emissions standard. You may round the span value to the nearest multiple of 10 micrograms per cubic meter of total mercury.
(2) You must operate and maintain each mercury CEMS or sorbent trap-based integrated monitoring system according to the quality assurance requirements specified in Procedure 5 of appendix F to part 60 of this chapter.
(3) You must conduct relative accuracy testing of mercury monitoring systems, as specified in Performance Specification 12A, Performance Specification 12B, or Procedure 5 of appendix B to part 60 of this chapter, at normal operating conditions.
(4) If you use a mercury CEMS, you must install, operate, calibrate, and maintain an instrument for continuously measuring and recording the exhaust gas flow rate to the atmosphere according to your site-specific monitoring plan specified in § 63.608(c).
(a) You must conduct an initial performance test to demonstrate compliance with the applicable emission limits specified in Tables 1 and 2 to this subpart, within 180 days of the applicable compliance date specified in § 63.602.
(b) After you conduct the initial performance test specified in paragraph (a) of this section, you must conduct a performance test once per calendar year.
(c) For affected sources (as defined in § 63.600) that have not operated since the previous annual performance test was conducted and more than 1 year has passed since the previous performance test, you must conduct a performance test no later than 180 days after the re-start of the affected source according to the applicable provisions in § 63.7(a)(2).
(d)(1) You must conduct the performance tests specified in this section at representative (normal) conditions for the process. Representative (normal) conditions means those conditions that:
(i) Represent the range of combined process and control measure conditions under which the facility expects to
(ii) Are likely to most challenge the emissions control measures of the facility with regard to meeting the applicable emission standards, but without creating an unsafe condition. Operations during startup, shutdown, and malfunction do not constitute representative (normal) operating conditions for purposes of conducting a performance test.
(2) You must record the process information that is necessary to document the operating conditions during the test and include in such record an explanation to support that such conditions represent representative (normal) conditions. Upon request, you must make available to the Administrator such records as may be necessary to determine the conditions of performance tests.
(e) In conducting all performance tests, you must use as reference methods and procedures the test methods in 40 CFR part 60, appendix A, or other methods and procedures as specified in this section, except as provided in § 63.7(f).
(f) You must determine compliance with the applicable total fluorides standards specified in Tables 1 and 2 to this subpart as specified in paragraphs (f)(1) through (3) of this section.
(1) Compute the emission rate (E) of total fluorides for each run using Equation AA-1:
(2) You must use Method 13A or 13B (40 CFR part 60, appendix A) to determine the total fluorides concentration (C
(3) Compute the equivalent P
(i) Determine the mass flow rate (M
(ii) Determine the P
(A) Section IX, Methods of Analysis for Phosphate Rock, No. 1 Preparation of Sample.
(B) Section IX, Methods of Analysis for Phosphate Rock, No. 3 Phosphorus-P
(C) Section IX, Methods of Analysis for Phosphate Rock, No. 3 Phosphorus-P
(D) Section IX, Methods of Analysis for Phosphate Rock, No. 3 Phosphorus-P
(E) Section XI, Methods of Analysis for Phosphoric Acid, Superphosphate, Triple Superphosphate, and Ammonium Phosphates, No. 3 Total Phosphorus-P
(F) Section XI, Methods of Analysis for Phosphoric Acid, Superphosphate, Triple Superphosphate, and Ammonium Phosphates, No. 3 Total Phosphorus-P
(G) Section XI, Methods of Analysis for Phosphoric Acid, Superphosphate, Triple Superphosphate, and Ammonium Phosphates, No. 3 Total Phosphorus-P
(g) You must demonstrate compliance with the applicable particulate matter standards specified in Tables 1 and 2 to this subpart as specified in paragraphs (g)(1) through (3) of this section.
(1) Compute the emission rate (E) of particulate matter for each run using Equation AA-3:
(2) Use Method 5 at 40 CFR part 60, appendix A-3 to determine the particulate matter concentration (C) and volumetric flow rate (Q) of the effluent gas. Except as specified in paragraph (h) of this section, the sampling time and
(3) Use the CMS described in § 63.605(b) to determine the phosphate rock feed rate (P) for each run.
(h) To demonstrate compliance with the particulate matter standards for phosphate rock calciners specified in Tables 1 and 2 to this subpart, you must use Method 5 at 40 CFR part 60, appendix A-3 to determine the particulate matter concentration. The sampling volume for each test run must be at least 1.70 dry standard cubic meter.
(i) To demonstrate compliance with the mercury emission standards for phosphate rock calciners specified in Tables 1 and 2 to this subpart, you must use Method 30B at 40 CFR part 60, appendix A-8 to determine the mercury concentration, unless you use a CEMS to demonstrate compliance. If you use a non-regenerative adsorber to control mercury emissions, you must use this test method to determine the expected bed life as specified in § 63.605(e)(1).
(j) If you choose to monitor the mass flow of product from the phosphate rock dryer or calciner as specified in § 63.605(b)(1)(ii), you must either:
(1) Simultaneously monitor the feed rate and output rate of the phosphate rock dryer or calciner during the performance test, or
(2) Monitor the output rate and the input and output moisture contents of the phosphate rock dryer or calciner during the performance test and calculate the corresponding phosphate rock dryer or calciner input rate.
(k) For sorbent injection systems, you must conduct the performance test at the outlet of the fabric filter used for sorbent collection. You must monitor and record operating parameter values for the fabric filter during the performance test. If the sorbent is replaced with a different brand or type of sorbent than was used during the performance test, you must conduct a new performance test.
(l) If you use a mercury CEMS as specified in § 63.605(g), or paragraph (i) of this section, you must demonstrate initial compliance based on the first 30 operating days during which you operate the affected source using a CEMS. You must obtain hourly mercury concentration and stack gas volumetric flow rate data.
(m) If you use a CMS, you must conduct a performance evaluation, as specified in § 63.8(e), in accordance with your site-specific monitoring plan in § 63.608(c). For fabric filters, you must conduct a performance evaluation of the bag leak detection system consistent with the guidance provided in Office Of Air Quality Planning And Standards (OAQPS), Fabric Filter Bag Leak Detection Guidance (incorporated by reference, see § 63.14). You must record the sensitivity of the bag leak detection system to detecting changes in particulate matter emissions, range, averaging period, and alarm set points during the performance test.
(a) You must comply with the notification requirements specified in § 63.9. During the most recent performance test, if you demonstrate compliance with the emission limit while operating your control device outside the previously established operating limit, you must establish a new operating limit based on that most recent performance test and notify the Administrator that the operating limit changed based on data collected during the most recent performance test. When a source is retested and the performance test results are submitted to the Administrator pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, § 63.7(g)(1), or § 63.10(d)(2), you must indicate whether the operating limit is based on the new performance test or the previously established limit. Upon establishment of a new operating limit, you must thereafter operate under the new operating limit. If the Administrator determines that you did not conduct the compliance test in accordance with the applicable requirements or that the operating limit established during the performance test does not correspond to representative (normal) conditions, you must conduct a new performance test and establish a new operating limit.
(b) You must comply with the reporting and recordkeeping requirements in § 63.10 as specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (5) of this section.
(1) You must comply with the general recordkeeping requirements in § 63.10(b)(1).
(2) As required by § 63.10(d), you must report the results of the initial and subsequent performance tests as part of the notification of compliance status required in § 63.9(h). You must verify in the performance test reports that the operating limits for each process have not changed or provide documentation of revised operating limits established according to § 63.605, as applicable. In the notification of compliance status, you must also:
(i) Certify to the Administrator annually that you have complied with the evaporative cooling tower requirements specified in § 63.602(c).
(ii) Submit analyses and supporting documentation demonstrating conformance with the Office Of Air Quality Planning And Standards (OAQPS), Fabric Filter Bag Leak Detection Guidance (incorporated by reference, see § 63.14) and specifications for bag leak detection systems as part of the notification of compliance status report.
(iii) Submit the gypsum dewatering stack and cooling pond management plan specified in § 63.602(e).
(iv) If you elect to demonstrate compliance by following the procedures in § 63.605(d)(1)(ii)(B), certify to the Administrator annually that the control devices and processes have not been modified since the date of the performance test from which you obtained the data used to establish the allowable ranges.
(v) Each time a gypsum dewatering stack is closed, certify to the Administrator within 90 days of closure, that the final cover of the closed gypsum dewatering stack is a drought resistant vegetative cover that includes a barrier soil layer that will sustain vegetation.
(3) As required by § 63.10(e)(3), you must submit an excess emissions report for any exceedance of an emission limit, work practice standard, or operating parameter limit if the total duration of the exceedances for the reporting period is 1 percent of the total operating time for the reporting period or greater. The report must contain the information specified in § 63.10 and paragraph (b)(4) of this section. When exceedances of an emission limit or operating parameter have not occurred, you must include such information in the report. You must submit the report semiannually and the report must be delivered or postmarked by the 30th day following the end of the calendar half. If you report exceedances, you must submit the excess emissions report quarterly until a request to reduce reporting frequency is approved as described in § 63.10(e)(3)(ii).
(4) In the event that an affected unit fails to meet an applicable standard, record and report the following information for each failure:
(i) The date, time and duration of the failure.
(ii) A list of the affected sources or equipment for which a failure occurred.
(iii) An estimate of the volume of each regulated pollutant emitted over any emission limit.
(iv) A description of the method used to estimate the emissions.
(v) A record of actions taken to minimize emissions in accordance with § 63.608(b), and any corrective actions
(5) You must submit a summary report containing the information specified in § 63.10(e)(3)(vi). You must submit the summary report semiannually and the report must be delivered or postmarked by the 30th day following the end of the calendar half.
(c) Your records must be in a form suitable and readily available for expeditious review. You must keep each record for 5 years following the date of each recorded action. You must keep each record on site, or accessible from a central location by computer or other means that instantly provides access at the site, for at least 2 years after the date of each recorded action. You may keep the records off site for the remaining 3 years.
(d) In computing averages to determine compliance with this subpart, you must exclude the monitoring data specified in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section.
(1) Periods of non-operation of the process unit;
(2) Periods of no flow to a control device; and any monitoring data recorded during CEMS or continuous parameter monitoring system (CPMS) breakdowns, out-of-control periods, repairs, maintenance periods, instrument adjustments or checks to maintain precision and accuracy, calibration checks, and zero (low-level), mid-level (if applicable), and high-level adjustments.
(e) Within 60 days after the date of completing each performance test (as defined in § 63.2) required by this subpart, you must submit the results of the performance tests, including any associated fuel analyses, following the procedure specified in either paragraph (e)(1) or (2) of this section.
(1) For data collected using test methods supported by the EPA's Electronic Reporting Tool (ERT) as listed on the EPA's ERT Web site (
(2) For data collected using test methods that are not supported by the EPA's ERT as listed on the EPA's ERT Web site, you must submit the results of the performance test to the Administrator at the appropriate address listed in § 63.13.
(f) Within 60 days after the date of completing each continuous emissions monitoring system performance evaluation (as defined in § 63.2), you must submit the results of the performance evaluation following the procedure specified in either paragraph (f)(1) or (2) of this section.
(1) For performance evaluations of continuous monitoring systems measuring relative accuracy test audit (RATA) pollutants that are supported by the EPA's ERT as listed on the EPA's ERT Web site, you must submit the results of the performance evaluation to the EPA via the CEDRI. (CEDRI can be accessed through the EPA's CDX.) Performance evaluation data must be submitted in a file format generated through the use of the EPA's ERT. Alternatively, you may submit performance evaluation data in an electronic file format consistent with the XML schema listed on the EPA's ERT Web site once the XML schema is available. If you claim that some of the performance evaluation information being transmitted is CBI, you must submit a complete file generated through the use of the EPA's ERT or an alternate electronic file consistent with the XML schema listed on the EPA's ERT Web site, including information claimed to be CBI, on a compact disc, flash drive, or other commonly used electronic storage media to the EPA. The electronic storage media must be clearly marked as CBI and mailed to U.S. EPA/OAPQS/CORE CBI Office, Attention: Group Leader, Measurement Policy Group, MD C404-02, 4930 Old Page Rd., Durham, NC 27703. The same ERT or alternate file with the CBI omitted must be submitted to the EPA via the EPA's CDX as described earlier in this paragraph.
(2) For any performance evaluations of continuous monitoring systems measuring RATA pollutants that are not supported by the EPA's ERT as listed on the EPA's ERT Web site, you must submit the results of the performance evaluation to the Administrator at the appropriate address listed in § 63.13.
(a) You must comply with the general provisions in subpart A of this part as specified in appendix A to this subpart.
(b) At all times, you must operate and maintain any affected source, including associated air pollution control equipment and monitoring equipment, in a manner consistent with safety and good air pollution control practices for minimizing emissions. The general duty to minimize emissions does not require you to make any further efforts to reduce emissions if levels required by this standard have been achieved. Determination by the Administrator of whether a source is operating in compliance with operation and maintenance requirements will be based on information available to the Administrator that may include, but is not limited to, monitoring results, review of operation and maintenance procedures, review of operation and maintenance records, and inspection of the source.
(c) For each CMS (including CEMS or CPMS) used to demonstrate compliance with any applicable emission limit or work practice, you must develop, and submit to the Administrator for approval upon request, a site-specific monitoring plan according to the requirements specified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section. You must submit the site-specific monitoring plan, if requested by the Administrator, at least 60 days before the initial performance evaluation of the CMS. The requirements of this paragraph also apply if a petition is made to the Administrator for alternative monitoring parameters under § 63.8(f).
(1) You must include the information specified in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (vi) of this section in the site-specific monitoring plan.
(i) Location of the CMS sampling probe or other interface. You must include a justification demonstrating that the sampling probe or other interface is at a measurement location relative to each affected process unit such that the measurement is representative of control of the exhaust
(ii) Performance and equipment specifications for the sample interface, the pollutant concentration or parametric signal analyzer, and the data collection and reduction systems.
(iii) Performance evaluation procedures and acceptance criteria (
(iv) Ongoing operation and maintenance procedures in accordance with the general requirements of § 63.8(c)(1)(ii), (c)(3), (c)(4)(ii), and Table 4 to this subpart.
(v) Ongoing data quality assurance procedures in accordance with the general requirements of § 63.8(d)(1) and (2) and Table 5 to this subpart.
(vi) Ongoing recordkeeping and reporting procedures in accordance with the general requirements of § 63.10(c), (e)(1), and (e)(2)(i).
(2) You must include a schedule for conducting initial and subsequent performance evaluations in the site-specific monitoring plan.
(3) You must keep the site-specific monitoring plan on site for the life of the affected source or until the affected source is no longer subject to the provisions of this part, to be made available for inspection, upon request, by the Administrator. If you revise the site-specific monitoring plan, you must keep previous (
(d) For each bag leak detection system installed to comply with the requirements specified in § 63.605(f), you must include the information specified in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section in the site-specific monitoring plan specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
(1) Performance evaluation procedures and acceptance criteria (
(2) A corrective action plan describing corrective actions to be taken and the timing of those actions when the bag leak detection alarm sounds. Corrective actions may include, but are not limited to, the actions specified in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (vi) of this section.
(i) Inspecting the fabric filter for air leaks, torn or broken bags or filter media, or any other conditions that may cause an increase in regulated material emissions.
(ii) Sealing off defective bags or filter media.
(iii) Replacing defective bags or filter media or otherwise repairing the control device.
(iv) Sealing off a defective fabric filter compartment.
(v) Cleaning the bag leak detection system probe or otherwise repairing the bag leak detection system.
(vi) Shutting down the process controlled by the fabric filter.
Any affected source subject to the provisions of this subpart is exempted from any otherwise applicable new source performance standard contained in 40 CFR part 60, subpart T, subpart U, or subpart NN. To be exempt, a source must have a current operating permit pursuant to title V of the Clean Air Act and the source must be in compliance with all requirements of this subpart. For each affected source, this exemption is effective upon the date that you demonstrate to the Administrator that the requirements of §§ 63.605 and 63.606 have been met.
(a) This subpart is implemented and enforced by the U.S. EPA, or a delegated authority such as the applicable state, local, or Tribal agency. If the U.S. EPA Administrator has delegated authority to a state, local, or Tribal agency, then that agency, in addition to the U.S. EPA, has the authority to implement and enforce this subpart. Contact the applicable U.S. EPA Regional Office to find out if implementation and enforcement of this subpart is delegated to a state, local, or Tribal agency.
(b) The authorities specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (5) of this section are retained by the Administrator of U.S. EPA and cannot be delegated to State, local, or Tribal agencies.
(1) Approval of alternatives to the requirements in §§ 63.600, 63.602, 63.605, and 63.610.
(2) Approval of requests under §§ 63.7(e)(2)(ii) and 63.7 (f) for alternative requirements or major changes to the test methods specified in this subpart, as defined in § 63.90.
(3) Approval of requests under § 63.8(f) for alternative requirements or major changes to the monitoring requirements specified in this subpart, as defined in § 63.90.
(4) Waiver or approval of requests under § 63.10(f) for alternative requirements or major changes to the recordkeeping and reporting requirements specified in this subpart, as defined in § 63.90.
(5) Approval of an alternative to any electronic reporting to the EPA required by this subpart.
(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, you are subject to the requirements of this subpart if you own or operate a phosphate fertilizer production plant that is a major source as defined in § 63.2. You must comply with the emission limitations, work practice standards, and operating parameter requirements specified in this subpart at all times.
(b) The requirements of this subpart apply to emissions of hazardous air pollutants (HAP) emitted from the following affected sources at a phosphate fertilizer production plant:
(1) Each phosphate fertilizer process line (
(2) Each granular triple superphosphate process line.
(3) Each granular triple superphosphate storage building.
(4) Evaporative cooling tower.
(c) The requirements of this subpart do not apply to a phosphate fertilizer production plant that is an area source as defined in § 63.2.
(d) The provisions of this subpart do not apply to research and development facilities as defined in § 63.621.
Terms used in this subpart are defined in § 63.2 of the Clean Air Act and in this section as follows:
(a) On and after the dates specified in paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section, for each phosphate fertilizer process line (
(1) For each existing phosphate fertilizer process line (
(2) For each new phosphate fertilizer process line (
(3) For each new phosphate fertilizer process line (
(b) Beginning on June 10, 2002, you must not ship fresh granular triple superphosphate from your existing granular triple superphosphate storage building that commenced construction or reconstruction on or before December 27, 1996. Beginning on June 10, 1999 or at startup, whichever is later, you must not ship fresh granular triple superphosphate from your new granular triple superphosphate storage building that commences construction or reconstruction after December 27, 1996.
(c) Beginning on August 19, 2015, you must not introduce into any evaporative cooling tower any liquid effluent from any absorber installed to control emissions from process equipment.
(d) Beginning on August 19, 2015, during periods of startup and shutdown (as defined in § 63.621), you must comply with the work practice specified in this paragraph in lieu of the emission limits specified in paragraph (a) of this section. During periods of startup and shutdown, you must operate any control device(s) being used at the affected source, monitor the operating parameters specified in Table 3 of this subpart, and comply with the operating limits specified in Table 4 of this subpart.
(a) For each phosphate fertilizer process line (
(1) Install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a continuous monitoring system (CMS) according to your site-specific monitoring plan specified in § 63.628(c). The CMS must have an accuracy of ±5 percent over its operating range and must determine and permanently record the mass flow of phosphorus-bearing material fed to the process.
(2) Maintain a daily record of equivalent P
(b) For each granular triple superphosphate storage building subject to the provisions of this subpart, you must maintain an accurate record of the mass of granular triple superphosphate in storage to permit the determination of the amount of equivalent P
(c) For each granular triple superphosphate storage building subject to the provisions of this subpart, you must comply with the requirements specified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section.
(1) Maintain a daily record of total equivalent P
(2) Develop for approval by the Administrator a site-specific methodology including sufficient recordkeeping for the purposes of demonstrating compliance with § 63.622(b).
(d) If you use a control device(s) to comply with the emission limits specified in Table 1 or 2 of this subpart, you must install a continuous parameter monitoring system (CPMS) and comply with the requirements specified in paragraphs (d)(1) through (4) of this section.
(1) You must monitor the operating parameter(s) applicable to the control device that you use as specified in Table 3 to this subpart and establish the applicable limit or range for the operating parameter limit as specified in
(i) Except as specified in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, determine the value(s) as the arithmetic average of operating parameter measurements recorded during the three test runs conducted for the most recent performance test.
(ii) If you use an absorber to comply with the emission limits in Table 1 or 2 to this subpart and you monitor pressure drop across the absorber, you must establish allowable ranges using the methodology specified in paragraphs (d)(1)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section.
(A) The allowable range for the daily averages of the pressure drop across each absorber is ±20 percent of the baseline average value determined in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section. The Administrator retains the right to reduce the ±20 percent adjustment to the baseline average values of operating ranges in those instances where performance test results indicate that a source's level of emissions is near the value of an applicable emissions standard. However, the adjustment must not be reduced to less than ±10 percent under any instance.
(B) As an alternative to paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, you may establish allowable ranges for the daily averages of the pressure drop across an absorber for the purpose of assuring compliance with this subpart using the procedures described in this paragraph. You must establish the allowable ranges based on the baseline average values recorded during previous performance tests or the results of performance tests conducted specifically for the purposes of this paragraph. You must conduct all performance tests using the methods specified in § 63.626. You must certify that the control devices and processes have not been modified since the date of the performance test from which you obtained the data used to establish the allowable ranges. When a source using the methodology of this paragraph is retested, you must determine new allowable ranges of baseline average values unless the retest indicates no change in the operating parameters outside the previously established ranges.
(2) You must monitor, record, and demonstrate continuous compliance using the minimum frequencies specified in Table 4 to this subpart.
(3) You must comply with the calibration and quality control requirements that are applicable to the operating parameter(s) you monitor as specified in Table 5 to this subpart.
(4) If you use a fabric filter system to comply with the emission limits specified in Table 1 or 2 to this subpart, the system must meet the requirements for fabric filters specified in paragraph (e) of this section.
(e) Beginning August 19, 2016, if you use a fabric filter system to comply with the emission limits specified in Table 1 or 2 to this subpart, then the fabric filter must be equipped with a bag leak detection system that is installed, calibrated, maintained and continuously operated according to the requirements in paragraphs (e)(1) through (10) of this section.
(1) Install a bag leak detection sensor(s) in a position(s) that will be representative of the relative or absolute particulate matter loadings for each exhaust stack, roof vent, or compartment (
(2) Use a bag leak detection system certified by the manufacturer to be capable of detecting particulate matter emissions at concentrations of 1 milligram per actual cubic meter (0.00044 grains per actual cubic feet) or less.
(3) Use a bag leak detection system equipped with a device to continuously record the output signal from the system sensor.
(4) Use a bag leak detection system equipped with a system that will trigger an alarm when an increase in relative particulate material emissions over a preset level is detected. The alarm must be located such that the alert is observed readily by plant operating personnel.
(5) Install a bag leak detection system in each compartment or cell for positive-pressure fabric filter systems that do not duct all compartments or cells to a common stack. Install a bag leak detector downstream of the fabric filter if a negative-pressure or induced-air filter is used. If multiple bag leak detectors are required, the system's instrumentation and alarm may be shared among detectors.
(6) Calibration of the bag leak detection system must, at a minimum, consist of establishing the baseline output level by adjusting the range and the averaging period of the device and establishing the alarm set points and the alarm delay time.
(7) After initial adjustment, you must not adjust the sensitivity or range, averaging period, alarm set points or alarm delay time, except as established in your site-specific monitoring plan required in § 63.628(c). In no event may the sensitivity be increased more than 100 percent or decreased by more than 50 percent over a 365-day period unless such adjustment follows a complete inspection of the fabric filter system that demonstrates that the system is in good operating condition.
(8) Operate and maintain each fabric filter and bag leak detection system such that the alarm does not sound more than 5 percent of the operating time during a 6-month period. If the alarm sounds more than 5 percent of the operating time during a 6-month period, it is considered an operating parameter exceedance. Calculate the alarm time (
(i) If inspection of the fabric filter demonstrates that corrective action is not required, the alarm duration is not counted in the alarm time calculation.
(ii) If corrective action is required, each alarm time is counted as a minimum of 1 hour.
(iii) If it takes longer than 1 hour to initiate corrective action, each alarm time (
(9) If the alarm on a bag leak detection system is triggered, you must initiate procedures within 1 hour of an alarm to identify the cause of the alarm and then initiate corrective action, as specified in § 63.628(d)(2), no later than 48 hours after an alarm. Failure to take these actions within the prescribed time periods is considered a violation.
(10) Retain records of any bag leak detection system alarm, including the date, time, duration, and the percent of the total operating time during each 6-month period that the alarm triggers, with a brief explanation of the cause of the alarm, the corrective action taken, and the schedule and duration of the corrective action.
(a) You must conduct an initial performance test to demonstrate compliance with the emission limits specified in Tables 1 and 2 to this subpart, within 180 days of the applicable compliance date specified in § 63.622.
(b) After you conduct the initial performance test specified in paragraph (a) of this section, you must conduct a performance test once per calendar year.
(c) For affected sources (as defined in § 63.620) that have not operated since the previous annual performance test was conducted and more than 1 year has passed since the previous performance test, you must conduct a performance test no later than 180 days after the re-start of the affected source
(d)(1) You must conduct the performance tests specified in this section at representative (normal) conditions for the process. Representative (normal) conditions means those conditions that:
(i) Represent the range of combined process and control measure conditions under which the facility expects to operate (regardless of the frequency of the conditions); and
(ii) Are likely to most challenge the emissions control measures of the facility with regard to meeting the applicable emission standards, but without creating an unsafe condition.
(2) Operations during startup, shutdown, and malfunction do not constitute representative (normal) operating conditions for purposes of conducting a performance test. You must record the process information that is necessary to document the operating conditions during the test and include in such record an explanation to support that such conditions represent representative (normal) conditions. Upon request, you must make available to the Administrator such records as may be necessary to determine the conditions of performance tests.
(e) In conducting all performance tests, you must use as reference methods and procedures the test methods in 40 CFR part 60, appendix A, or other methods and procedures as specified in this section, except as provided in § 63.7(f).
(f) For each phosphate fertilizer process line (
(1) Compute the emission rate (E) of total fluorides for each run using Equation BB-1:
(2) You must use Method 13A or 13B (40 CFR part 60, appendix A) to determine the total fluorides concentration (C
(3) Compute the equivalent P
(i) Determine the mass flow rate (M
(ii) Determine the P
(A) Section IX, Methods of Analysis for Phosphate Rock, No. 1 Preparation of Sample.
(B) Section IX, Methods of Analysis for Phosphate Rock, No. 3 Phosphorus-P
(C) Section IX, Methods of Analysis for Phosphate Rock, No. 3 Phosphorus-P
(D) Section IX, Methods of Analysis for Phosphate Rock, No. 3 Phosphorus-P
(E) Section XI, Methods of Analysis for Phosphoric Acid, Superphosphate, Triple superphosphate, and Ammonium Phosphates, No. 3 Total Phosphorus-P
(F) Section XI, Methods of Analysis for Phosphoric Acid, Superphosphate, Triple Superphosphate, and Ammonium Phosphates, No. 3 Total Phosphorus-P
(G) Section XI, Methods of Analysis for Phosphoric Acid, Superphosphate, Triple Superphosphate, and Ammonium Phosphates, No. 3 Total Phosphorus-P
(g) For each granular triple superphosphate storage building, you must determine compliance with the applicable total fluorides standards specified in Tables 1 and 2 to this subpart as specified in paragraphs (g)(1) through (7) of this section.
(1) You must conduct performance tests only when the following quantities of product are being cured or stored in the facility:
(i) Total granular triple superphosphate is at least 10 percent of the building capacity, and
(ii) Fresh granular triple superphosphate is at least six percent of the total amount of granular triple superphosphate, or
(iii) If the provision in paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section exceeds production capabilities for fresh granular triple superphosphate, the fresh granular triple superphosphate is equal to at least 5 days maximum production.
(2) Compute the emission rate (E) of total fluorides for each run using Equation BB-3:
(3) You must use Method 13A or 13B (40 CFR part 60, appendix A) to determine the total fluorides concentration (C
(4) Compute the equivalent P
(5) Determine the amount of product (M
(6) Determine the P
(i) Section XI, Methods of Analysis For Phosphoric Acid, Superphosphate, Triple superphosphate, and Ammonium Phosphates, No. 3 Total Phosphorus-P
(ii) Section XI, Methods of Analysis For Phosphoric Acid, Superphosphate, Triple superphosphate, and Ammonium Phosphates, No. 3 Total Phosphorus-P
(iii) Section XI, Methods of Analysis For Phosphoric Acid, Superphosphate, Triple superphosphate, and Ammonium Phosphates, No. 3 Total Phosphorus-P
(7) Determine the P
(i) AOAC Official Method 957.02 Phosphorus (Total) In Fertilizers, Preparation of Sample Solution.
(ii) AOAC Official Method 929.01 Sampling of Solid Fertilizers.
(iii) AOAC Official Method 929.02 Preparation of Fertilizer Sample.
(iv) AOAC Official Method 978.01 Phosphorus (Total) in Fertilizers, Automated Method.
(v) AOAC Official Method 969.02 Phosphorus (Total) in Fertilizers, Alkalimetric Quinolinium Molybdophosphate Method.
(vi) AOAC Official Method 962.02 Phosphorus (Total) in Fertilizers, Gravimetric Quinolinium Molybdophosphate Method.
(vii) AOAC Official Method 958.01 Phosphorus (Total) in Fertilizers, Spectrophotometric Molybdovanadophosphate Method.
(h) If you use a CMS, you must conduct a performance evaluation, as specified in § 63.8(e), in accordance with your site-specific monitoring plan in § 63.628(c). For fabric filters, you must conduct a performance evaluation of the bag leak detection system consistent with the guidance provided in Office Of Air Quality Planning And Standards (OAQPS), Fabric Filter Bag Leak Detection Guidance (incorporated by reference, see § 63.14). You must record the sensitivity of the bag leak detection system to detecting changes in particulate matter emissions, range, averaging period, and alarm set points during the performance test.
(a) You must comply with the notification requirements specified in § 63.9. During the most recent performance test, if you demonstrate compliance with the emission limit while operating your control device outside the previously established operating limit, you must establish a new operating limit based on that most recent performance test and notify the Administrator that the operating limit changed based on data collected during the most recent performance test. When a source is retested and the performance test results are submitted to the Administrator pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, § 63.7(g)(1), or § 63.10(d)(2), you must indicate whether the operating limit is based on the new performance test or the previously established limit. Upon establishment of a new operating limit, you must thereafter operate under the new operating limit. If the Administrator determines that you did not conduct the compliance test in accordance with the applicable requirements or that the operating limit established during the performance test does not correspond to representative (normal) conditions, you must conduct a new performance test and establish a new operating limit.
(b) You must comply with the reporting and recordkeeping requirements in § 63.10 as specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (5) of this section.
(1) You must comply with the general recordkeeping requirements in § 63.10(b)(1); and
(2) As required by § 63.10(d), you must report the results of the initial and subsequent performance tests as part of the notification of compliance status required in § 63.9(h). You must verify in the performance test reports that the operating limits for each process have not changed or provide documentation of revised operating limits established according to § 63.625, as applicable. In the notification of compliance status, you must also:
(i) Certify to the Administrator that you have not shipped fresh granular triple superphosphate from an affected facility.
(ii) Certify to the Administrator annually that you have complied with the evaporative cooling tower requirements specified in § 63.622(c).
(iii) Submit analyses and supporting documentation demonstrating conformance with the Office Of Air Quality Planning And Standards (OAQPS), Fabric Filter Bag Leak Detection Guidance (incorporated by reference, see § 63.14) and specifications for bag leak detection systems as part of the notification of compliance status report.
(iv) If you elect to demonstrate compliance by following the procedures in § 63.625(d)(1)(ii)(B), certify to the Administrator annually that the control devices and processes have not been modified since the date of the performance test from which you obtained the data used to establish the allowable ranges.
(3) As required by § 63.10(e)(1), you must submit an excess emissions report for any exceedance of an emission or operating parameter limit if the total duration of the exceedances for the reporting period is 1 percent of the total operating time for the reporting period or greater. The report must contain the information specified in § 63.10 and paragraph (b)(4) of this section. When exceedances of an emission limit or operating parameter have not occurred, you must include such information in the report. You must submit the report semiannually and the report must be delivered or postmarked by the 30th day following the end of the calendar half. If exceedances are reported, you must submit the excess emissions report quarterly until a request to reduce reporting frequency is approved as described in § 63.10(e)(3).
(4) In the event that an affected unit fails to meet an applicable standard, record and report the following information for each failure:
(i) The date, time and duration of the failure.
(ii) A list of the affected sources or equipment for which a failure occurred.
(iii) An estimate of the volume of each regulated pollutant emitted over any emission limit.
(iv) A description of the method used to estimate the emissions.
(v) A record of actions taken to minimize emissions in accordance with § 63.628(b), and any corrective actions taken to return the affected unit to its normal or usual manner of operation.
(5) You must submit a summary report containing the information specified in § 63.10(e)(3)(vi). You must submit the summary report semiannually and the report must be delivered or postmarked by the 30th day following the end of the calendar half.
(c) Your records must be in a form suitable and readily available for expeditious review. You must keep each record for 5 years following the date of each recorded action. You must keep each record on site, or accessible from a central location by computer or other means that instantly provide access at the site, for at least 2 years after the date of each recorded action. You may keep the records off site for the remaining 3 years.
(d) In computing averages to determine compliance with this subpart, you must exclude the monitoring data specified in paragraphs (d)(1) through (3) of this section.
(1) Periods of non-operation of the process unit;
(2) Periods of no flow to a control device; and
(3) Any monitoring data recorded during continuous parameter monitoring system (CPMS) breakdowns, out-of-control periods, repairs, maintenance periods, instrument adjustments or checks to maintain precision and accuracy, calibration checks, and zero (low-level), mid-level (if applicable), and high-level adjustments.
(e) Within 60 days after the date of completing each performance test (as defined in § 63.2) required by this subpart, you must submit the results of the performance tests, including any associated fuel analyses, following the procedure specified in either paragraph (e)(1) or (2) of this section.
(1) For data collected using test methods supported by the EPA's Electronic Reporting Tool (ERT) as listed on the EPA's ERT Web site (
(2) For data collected using test methods that are not supported by the EPA's ERT as listed on the EPA's ERT Web site, you must submit the results of the performance test to the Administrator at the appropriate address listed in § 63.13.
(a) You must comply with the general provisions in subpart A of this part as specified in appendix A to this subpart.
(b) At all times, you must operate and maintain any affected source, including associated air pollution control equipment and monitoring equipment, in a manner consistent with safety and good air pollution control practices for minimizing emissions. The general duty to minimize emissions does not require you to make any further efforts to reduce emissions if levels required by this standard have been achieved. Determination by the Administrator of whether a source is operating in compliance with operation and maintenance requirements will be based on information available to the Administrator that may include, but is not limited to, monitoring results, review of operation and maintenance procedures, review of operation and maintenance records, and inspection of the source.
(c) For each CMS used to demonstrate compliance with any applicable emission limit, you must develop, and submit to the Administrator for approval upon request, a site-specific monitoring plan according to the requirements specified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section. You must submit the site-specific monitoring plan, if requested by the Administrator, at least 60 days before the initial performance evaluation of the CMS. The requirements of this paragraph also apply if a petition is made to the Administrator for alternative monitoring parameters under § 63.8(f).
(1) You must include the information specified in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (vi) of this section in the site-specific monitoring plan.
(i) Location of the CMS sampling probe or other interface. You must include a justification demonstrating that the sampling probe or other interface is at a measurement location relative to each affected process unit such that the measurement is representative of control of the exhaust emissions (
(ii) Performance and equipment specifications for the sample interface, the pollutant concentration or parametric signal analyzer, and the data collection and reduction systems.
(iii) Performance evaluation procedures and acceptance criteria (
(iv) Ongoing operation and maintenance procedures in accordance with the general requirements of § 63.8(c)(1)(ii), (c)(3), (c)(4)(ii), and Table 4 to this subpart.
(v) Ongoing data quality assurance procedures in accordance with the general requirements of § 63.8(d)(1) and (2) and Table 5 to this subpart.
(vi) Ongoing recordkeeping and reporting procedures in accordance with the general requirements of § 63.10(c), (e)(1), (e)(2)(i).
(2) You must include a schedule for conducting initial and subsequent performance evaluations in the site-specific monitoring plan.
(3) You must keep the site-specific monitoring plan on site for the life of the affected source or until the affected source is no longer subject to the provisions of this part, to be made available for inspection, upon request, by the Administrator. If you revise the site-specific monitoring plan, you must keep previous (
(d) For each bag leak detection system installed to comply with the requirements specified in § 63.625(e), you must include the information specified in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section in the site-specific monitoring plan specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
(1) Performance evaluation procedures and acceptance criteria (
(2) A corrective action plan describing corrective actions to be taken and the timing of those actions when the bag leak detection alarm sounds. Corrective actions may include, but are not limited to, the actions specified in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (vi) of this section.
(i) Inspecting the fabric filter for air leaks, torn or broken bags or filter media, or any other conditions that may cause an increase in regulated material emissions.
(ii) Sealing off defective bags or filter media.
(iii) Replacing defective bags or filter media or otherwise repairing the control device.
(iv) Sealing off a defective fabric filter compartment.
(v) Cleaning the bag leak detection system probe or otherwise repairing the bag leak detection system.
(vi) Shutting down the process controlled by the fabric filter.
The Administrator retains the authority to approve site-specific test plans for uncontrolled granular triple superphosphate storage buildings developed pursuant to § 63.7(c)(2)(i).
Any affected source subject to the provisions of this subpart is exempted from any otherwise applicable new source performance standard contained in 40 CFR part 60, subpart V, subpart W, or subpart X. To be exempt, a source must have a current operating permit pursuant to title V of the Clean Air Act and the source must be in compliance with all requirements of this subpart. For each affected source, this exemption is effective upon the date that you demonstrate to the Administrator that the requirements of §§ 63.625 and 63.626 have been met.
(a) This subpart is implemented and enforced by the U.S. EPA, or a delegated authority such as the applicable state, local, or Tribal agency. If the U.S. EPA Administrator has delegated authority to a state, local, or Tribal agency, then that agency, in addition to the U.S. EPA, has the authority to implement and enforce this subpart. Contact the applicable U.S. EPA Regional Office to find out if implementation and enforcement of this subpart is delegated to a state, local, or Tribal agency.
(b) The authorities specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (5) of this section are retained by the Administrator of U.S. EPA and cannot be delegated to State, local, or Tribal agencies.
(1) Approval of alternatives to the requirements in §§ 63.620, 63.622, 63.625, 63.629, and 63.631.
(2) Approval of requests under §§ 63.7(e)(2)(ii) and 63.7 (f) for alternative requirements or major changes to the test methods specified in this subpart, as defined in § 63.90.
(3) Approval of requests under § 63.8(f) for alternative requirements or major changes to the monitoring requirements specified in this subpart, as defined in § 63.90.
(4) Waiver or approval of requests under § 63.10(f) for alternative requirements or major changes to the recordkeeping and reporting requirements specified in this subpart, as defined in § 63.90.
(5) Approval of an alternative to any electronic reporting to the EPA required by this subpart.
Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Department of Energy.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NOPR) and announcement of public meeting.
The Energy Policy and Conservation Act of 1975 (EPCA), as amended, prescribes energy conservation standards for various consumer products and certain commercial and industrial equipment, including refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machines (beverage vending machine). EPCA also requires the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) to periodically determine whether more-stringent, amended standards would be technologically feasible and economically justified, and would save a significant amount of energy. In this NOPR, DOE proposes amended energy conservation standards for Class A and Class B beverage vending machines. DOE is also proposing to amend the definition for Class A equipment to more clearly differentiate Class A and Class B equipment, as well as to amend the definition of combination vending machine. In addition, DOE proposes to establish definitions and new energy conservations standards for Combination A and Combination B classes of beverage vending machines. This NOPR also announces a public meeting to receive comment on these proposed standards and associated analyses and results, and announces the availability of the NOPR technical support document (TSD).
DOE will hold a public meeting on Tuesday, September 29, 2015, from 10 a.m. to 3 p.m., in Washington, DC. The meeting also will be broadcast as a webinar. See section VII of this NOPR, “Public Participation,” for webinar registration information, participant instructions, and information about the capabilities available to webinar participants.
DOE will accept comments, data, and information regarding this NOPR before and after the public meeting, but no later than October 19, 2015. See section VII of this NOPR, “Public Participation,” for details.
Comments regarding the likely competitive impact of the proposed standard should be sent to the Department of Justice contact listed in the
The public meeting will be held at the U.S. Department of Energy, Forrestal Building, Room 8E-089, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585.
Any comments submitted must identify the NOPR for Energy Conservation Standards for Beverage Vending Machines, and provide docket number EERE-2013-BT-STD-0022 and/or regulatory information number (RIN) number 1904-AD00. Comments may be submitted using any of the following methods:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Written comments regarding the burden-hour estimates or other aspects of the collection-of-information requirements contained in this proposed rule may be submitted to the Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy through the methods listed above and by email to
For detailed instructions on submitting comments and additional information on the rulemaking process, see section VII of this NOPR (Public Participation).
A link to the docket Web page can be found at:
EPCA requires the Attorney General to provide DOE a written determination of whether the proposed standard is likely to lessen competition. The U.S. Department of Justice Antitrust Division invites input from market participants and other interested persons with views on the likely competitive impact of the proposed standard. Interested persons may contact the Division at
Mr. John Cymbalsky, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Office, EE-2J, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 287-1692. Email:
Ms. Sarah Butler, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of General Counsel, GC-33, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121, (202) 586-1777, Email:
For further information on how to submit a comment, review other public comments and the docket, or participate in the public meeting, contact Ms. Brenda Edwards at (202) 586-2945 or by email:
This notice of proposed rulemaking proposes to incorporate by reference into 10 CFR part 431 the testing methods contained in the following commercial standards:
(1) ASTM Standard E 1084-86 (Reapproved 2009), “Standard Test Method for Solar Transmittance (Terrestrial) of Sheet Materials Using Sunlight,” approved April 1, 2009.
Copies of ASTM standards may be purchased from ASTM International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, PO Box C700, West Conshohocken, PA, 19428, (877) 909-2786, or at
See IV.N for a further discussion of this standard.
Title III, Part A
Pursuant to EPCA, any new or amended energy conservation standard must be designed to achieve the maximum improvement in energy efficiency that is technologically feasible and economically justified. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(A)) Furthermore, the new or amended standard must result in a significant conservation of energy. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(3)(B)) In accordance with these and other statutory provisions discussed in this NOPR, DOE proposes new and amended energy conservation standards for beverage vending machines. The proposed standards,
Table I.2 and Table I.3 present DOE's evaluation of the economic impacts of the proposed energy conservation standards on customers, or purchasers, of beverage vending machines, as measured by the average life-cycle cost (LCC) savings and the simple payback period (PBP).
The average LCC savings are positive for all equipment classes and refrigerants, and the PBP is less than the average lifetime of the equipment, which is estimated to be 13.5 years.
DOE's analysis of the impacts of the proposed standards on customers is described in section V of this NOPR.
The industry net present value (INPV) is the sum of the discounted cash flows to the industry from the base year through the end of the analysis period (2015 to 2048). Using a real discount rate of 8.5 percent, DOE estimates that the INPV in the case without amended standards for manufacturers of beverage vending machines is $ 62.7 million.
DOE's analysis of the impacts of the proposed standards on manufacturers is described in section V.B.2 of this NOPR.
DOE's analyses indicate that the proposed energy conservation standards for beverage vending machines would save a significant amount of energy. The cumulative energy savings amount to 0.223 quadrillion Btus (quads) for beverage vending machines purchased in the 30-year period that begins in the year of compliance with new and amended standards for Class A, Class B, Combination A, and Combination B beverage vending machines (2019-2048),
The cumulative net present value (NPV) of total customer costs and savings of the proposed standards for beverage vending machines range from $0.42 billion (at a 7-percent discount rate) to $1.10 billion (at a 3-percent discount rate
In addition, the proposed standards would have significant environmental benefits. The energy savings described above are estimated to result in cumulative emission reductions (for equipment purchased in 2019-2048) of 13 million metric tons (MMt)
The value of the CO
Table I.4 summarizes the national economic costs and benefits expected to result from these proposed standards for beverage vending machines.
The benefits and costs of these proposed standards for beverage vending machines sold in 2019-2048 can also be expressed in terms of annualized values. The monetary values for the total annualized net benefits are the sum of (1) the national economic value of the benefits in reduced operating costs, minus (2) the increases in equipment purchase and installation costs, plus (3) the value of the benefits of CO
Although DOE believes that the values of operating cost savings and CO
Estimates of annualized benefits and costs of the proposed standards (over a 30-year period) are shown in Table I.5. The results under the primary estimate are as follows. Using a 7-percent discount rate for benefits and costs other than CO
DOE also calculated the low net benefits and high net benefits estimates by calculating the operating cost savings and shipments at the
DOE's analysis of the national impacts of the proposed standards is described in section V.B.3 of this NOPR.
DOE has tentatively concluded that the proposed standards for beverage vending machines represent the maximum improvement in energy efficiency that is technologically feasible and economically justified, and would result in the significant conservation of energy. DOE further notes that equipment achieving these standard levels is already commercially available for all equipment classes covered by this proposal. DOE acknowledges that equipment using the SNAP-approved refrigerants (
DOE also considered more-stringent energy efficiency levels as potential standards, and is considering them in this rulemaking. However, DOE has tentatively concluded that the potential burdens of the more-stringent energy efficiency levels would outweigh the projected benefits. Based on consideration of the public comments DOE receives in response to this NOPR and related information collected and analyzed during the course of this rulemaking effort, DOE may adopt energy efficiency levels presented in this NOPR that are either higher or lower than the proposed standards, or some combination of levels that incorporate the proposed standards in part.
The following section briefly discusses the statutory authority underlying this proposal, as well as some of the relevant historical background related to the establishment of standards for beverage vending machines.
Title III, Part B of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act of 1975, as amended, (EPCA or the Act), Public Law 94-163 (42 U.S.C. 6291-6309, as codified) established the Energy Conservation Program for Consumer Products Other Than Automobiles, a program covering most major household appliances (collectively referred to as “covered products”), which includes the beverage vending machine. (42 U.S.C. 6291(40)) As part of this program, EPCA directed DOE to prescribe energy conservation standards for beverage vending machines. (42 U.S.C. 6295(v)) In addition, under 42 U.S.C. 6295(m), DOE must periodically review its already established energy conservation standards for a covered product. DOE is undertaking this rulemaking to meet this EPCA requirement.
Pursuant to EPCA, DOE's energy conservation program for covered products consists essentially of four parts: (1) Testing, (2) labeling, (3) the establishment of Federal energy conservation standards, and (4) certification and enforcement procedures. The Secretary or the Federal Trade Commission, as appropriate, may prescribe labeling requirements for beverage vending machines. (42 U.S.C. 6294(a)(5)(A)) Subject to certain criteria and conditions, DOE is required to develop test procedures to measure the energy efficiency, energy use, or estimated annual operating cost of each covered product. (42 U.S.C. 6293) Manufacturers of covered equipment must use the prescribed DOE test procedure as the basis for certifying to DOE that their equipment complies with the applicable energy conservation standards adopted under EPCA and when making representations to the public regarding the energy use or efficiency of that equipment. (42 U.S.C. 6293(c) and 6295(s)) Similarly, DOE must use these test procedures to determine whether the products comply with standards adopted pursuant to EPCA.
DOE recently updated its test procedure for beverage vending machines in a final rule published July 31, 2015. 80 FR 45758 (July 31, 2015). In that final rule, DOE adopted several amendments and clarifications to the DOE test procedure in the new appendix A and B of subpart Q of 10 CFR part 431. As specified in the BVM test procedure final rule, manufacturers of beverage vending machines would be required to use appendix B to demonstrate compliance with any new and amended energy conservation standards adopted as a result of this rulemaking.
DOE must follow specific statutory criteria for prescribing new or amended standards for covered equipment. As indicated previously, any new or amended standard for a covered product must be designed to achieve the maximum improvement in energy efficiency that is technologically feasible and economically justified. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(A)) Furthermore, DOE may not adopt any standard that would not result in the significant conservation of energy. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(3)) Moreover, DOE may not prescribe a standard: (1) For certain products, including beverage vending machines, if no test procedure has been established for the product; or (2) if DOE determines, by rule, that the standard is not technologically feasible or economically justified. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(3)(A)-(B))
DOE, in deciding whether a standard is economically justified, must determine, after receiving comments on the proposed standard, whether the benefits of the standard exceed its burdens by considering, to the maximum extent practicable, the following seven factors:
1. The economic impact of the standard on manufacturers and customers of products subject to the standard;
2. The savings in operating costs throughout the estimated average life of the covered products in the type (or class) compared to any increase in the price, initial charges, or maintenance expenses for the covered products that are likely to result from the standard;
3. The total projected amount of energy savings likely to result directly from the standard;
4. Any lessening of the utility or the performance of the covered products likely to result from the standard;
5. The impact of any lessening of competition, as determined in writing by the Attorney General, that is likely to result from the standard;
6. The need for national energy conservation; and
7. Other factors the Secretary of Energy considers relevant. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(B)(i))
Further, EPCA, as codified, establishes a rebuttable presumption that a standard is economically justified if the Secretary finds that the additional cost to the customer of purchasing a product complying with an energy conservation standard level will be less than three times the value of the energy (and, as applicable, water) savings during the first year that the customer will receive as a result of the standard, as calculated under the applicable test procedure. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(B)(iii))
EPCA, as codified, also contains what is known as an “anti-backsliding” provision, which prevents the Secretary from prescribing any amended standard that either increases the maximum allowable energy use or decreases the minimum required energy efficiency of a covered product. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(1)) Also, the Secretary may not prescribe an amended or new standard if interested persons have established by a preponderance of the evidence that the standard is likely to result in the unavailability in the United States of any covered product type (or class) of performance characteristics (including reliability), features, sizes, capacities, and volumes that are substantially the same as those generally available in the United States. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(4))
Additionally, EPCA specifies requirements when promulgating a standard for a type or class of covered product that has two or more subcategories. DOE must specify a different standard level than that which applies generally to such type or class of products for any group of covered products that have the same function or intended use if DOE determines that products within such group: (A) Consume a different kind of energy from that consumed by other covered products within such type (or class); or (B) have a capacity or other performance-related feature which other products within such type (or class) do not have and which justifies a higher or lower standard. (42 U.S.C. 6294(q)(1)). In determining whether a performance-related feature justifies a different standard for a group of products, DOE generally considers such factors as the utility to the customer of the feature and other factors DOE deems appropriate.
Federal energy conservation requirements generally supersede State laws or regulations concerning energy conservation testing, labeling, and standards. (42 U.S.C. 6297(a) through (c)) DOE may, however, grant waivers of Federal preemption for particular State laws or regulations, in accordance with the procedures and other provisions set forth under 42 U.S.C. 6297(d)).
Finally, pursuant to EPCA any final rule for new or amended energy conservation standards promulgated after July 1, 2010 must address standby mode and off mode energy use. (42 U.S.C. 6295(gg)(3)) Specifically, when DOE adopts a standard for covered equipment after that date, it must, if justified by the criteria for adoption of standards under EPCA (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)), incorporate standby mode and off mode energy use into the standard, or, if that is not feasible, adopt a separate standard for such energy use for that product. (42 U.S.C. 6295(gg)(3)(A) and (B)) DOE reviewed the operating modes available for beverage vending machines and determined that this equipment does not have operating modes that meet the definition of standby mode or off mode, as established at 42 U.S.C. 6295(gg)(3). Specifically, beverage vending machines are typically always providing at least one main function—refrigeration. (42 U.S.C. 6295(gg)(1)(A)) DOE recognizes that in a unique equipment design, the low power mode includes disabling the refrigeration system, while for other equipment the low power mode controls only elevate the thermostat set point. Because low power modes still include some amount of refrigeration for most equipment for the vast majority of equipment, DOE believes that such a mode does not constitute a “standby mode,” as defined by EPCA, for beverage vending machines. Therefore, DOE believes that beverage vending machines do not operate under standby and off mode conditions as defined in EPCA, and that the energy use of a beverage vending machine would be captured in any standard established for active mode energy use. As such, the new and amended energy conservation standards proposed in this NOPR do not specifically address standby and off mode energy consumption for the equipment.
DOE also reviewed this regulation pursuant to Executive Order 13563. 76 FR 3821, (January 21, 2011). Executive Order 13563 is supplemental to and explicitly reaffirms the principles, structures, and definitions governing regulatory review established in Executive Order 12866. To the extent permitted by law, agencies are required
DOE emphasizes as well that Executive Order 13563 requires agencies to use the best available techniques to quantify anticipated present and future benefits and costs as accurately as possible. In its guidance, the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has emphasized that such techniques may include identifying changing future compliance costs that might result from technological innovation or anticipated behavioral changes. For the reasons stated in the preamble, DOE believes that this NOPR is consistent with these principles, including the requirement that, to the extent permitted by law, benefits justify costs and that net benefits are maximized. Consistent with Executive Order 13563, and the range of impacts analyzed in this rulemaking, the energy efficiency standards proposed herein by DOE achieve maximum net benefits.
In a final rule published on August 31, 2009 (henceforth referred to as the 2009 BVM final rule), DOE prescribed the current energy conservation standards for beverage vending machines. 74 FR 44914 (August 31, 2009). The 2009 BVM final rule established energy conservation standards for Class A and Class B beverage vending machines, with a compliance date of August 31, 2012, as shown in Table II.1. DOE also established a class of combination machines, but did not set standards for combination machines, instead reserving a place for possible development of future standards for that equipment.
The 2009 BVM final rule document is currently available at
EPCA directed the Secretary to issue, by rule, no later than August 8, 2009, energy conservation standards for beverage vending machines. (42 U.S.C. 6295(v)) On August 31, 2009, DOE issued a final rule establishing performance standards for beverage vending machines to complete the first required rulemaking cycle. 74 FR 44914.
DOE is conducting the current energy conservation standards rulemaking pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 6295(m), which requires that within 6 years of issuing any final rule establishing or amending a standard, DOE shall publish either a notice of determination that amended standards are not needed or a NOPR proposing amended standards.
In initiating this rulemaking, DOE prepared a framework document, “Energy Conservation Standards Rulemaking Framework Document for Refrigerated Beverage Vending Machines” (framework document), which describes the procedural and analytical approaches DOE anticipates using to evaluate energy conservation standards for beverage vending machines. DOE published a notice that announced both the availability of the framework document and a public meeting to discuss the proposed analytical framework for the rulemaking. That notice also invited written comments from the public. 78 FR 33262 (June 4, 2013). This document is available at
DOE held the framework public meeting on June 20, 2013, at which it (1) presented the contents of the framework document; (2) described the various analyses DOE planned to conduct during the rulemaking; (3) sought comments from interested parties on these subjects; and (4) in general, sought to inform interested parties about, and facilitate their involvement in, the rulemaking. Major issues discussed at the public meeting included: (1) Equipment classes; (2) analytical approaches and methods used in the rulemaking; (3) impact of standards and burden on manufacturers; (4) technology options; (5) distribution channels and shipments; (6) impacts of outside regulations; and (7) environmental issues. At the meeting and during the comment period on the framework document, DOE received many comments that helped it identify and resolve issues pertaining to beverage vending machines relevant to this rulemaking.
DOE then gathered additional information and performed preliminary analyses to help review standards for this equipment. This process culminated in DOE publishing a notice to announce the availability of the preliminary analysis TSD and a public meeting to discuss the preliminary analysis results. 79 FR 46379 (August 8, 2014). In the preliminary analysis, DOE discussed and requested comment on
The preliminary analysis provided an overview of DOE's technical and economic analyses supporting new and amended standards for beverage vending machines, discussed the comments DOE received in response to the framework document, and addressed issues raised by those comments. The preliminary analysis TSD also described the analytical framework that DOE used (and continues to use) in considering new and amended standards for beverage vending machines, including a description of the methodology, the analytical tools, and the relationships between the various analyses that are part of this rulemaking. Additionally, the preliminary analysis TSD presented in detail each analysis that DOE had performed for this equipment up to that point, including descriptions of inputs, data sources, methodologies, and results. These analyses included: (1) The market and technology assessment; (2) the screening analysis; (3) the engineering analysis; (4) the energy use analysis; (5) the markups analysis; (6) the LCC analysis; (7) the PBP analysis; (8) the shipments analysis; (9) the national impact analysis (NIA); and (10) a preliminary manufacturer impact analysis (MIA).
The preliminary TSD that presents the methodology and results of each of these analyses is available at:
The public meeting to review the preliminary analysis took place on September 16, 2014 (preliminary analysis public meeting). At the preliminary analysis public meeting, DOE presented the methodologies and results of the analyses prescribed in the preliminary analysis TSD. Comments received in response to the preliminary analysis have helped DOE identify and resolve issues related to the preliminary analyses and have helped refine the analyses presented in this NOPR. DOE discusses and responds to the comments received in response to the preliminary analysis in section IV of this NOPR.
DOE is proposing amended standards for Class A and Class B beverage vending machines. DOE is also proposing to amend the definition for Class A equipment to more unambiguously differentiate Class A and Class B beverage vending machines. In addition, DOE is proposing to amend the definition of combination beverage machine, expand the combination vending machine equipment category into Combination A and Combination B beverage vending machine classes, and promulgate new standards for those classes. In the subsequent sections, DOE discusses the scope of coverage, test procedure, compliance dates, technical feasibility, energy savings, and economic justification of the proposed standards.
EPCA defines a beverage vending machine as “a commercial refrigerator
When evaluating and establishing energy conservation standards, DOE divides covered equipment into equipment classes by the type of energy used or by capacity or other performance-related features that justifies a different standard. In making a determination whether a performance-related feature justify differing standards, DOE must consider such factors as the utility to the customer of the feature and other factors DOE determines are appropriate. (42 U.S.C. 6295(q))
In the 2009 BVM final rule, DOE determined that unique energy conservation standards were warranted for Class A and Class B beverage vending machines and added the following definitions to 10 CFR 431.292 to differentiate such equipment:
74 FR 44914,44967 (August 31, 2009).
DOE differentiated Class A and Class B beverage vending machines based on whether the refrigerated volume (V) of equipment was fully cooled, as DOE determined that this was the most significant criteria affecting energy consumption.
The 2009 BVM final rule also established a definition for combination vending machine at 10 CFR 431.292.
DOE considered the definition of beverage vending machine broad enough to include any vending machine that cools at least one bottled or canned beverage and dispenses it upon payment. DOE elected to establish combination machines as a separate equipment class because such machines may be challenged by component availability and such machines have a distinct utility that limits their energy efficiency improvement potential compared to Class A and B beverage vending machines. However, DOE did not establish standards for combination machines in the 2009 BVM final rule.
While DOE's existing definitions of Class A and Class B equipment distinguish equipment based on whether or not the refrigerated volume is “fully cooled,” DOE regulations have never defined the term “fully cooled.” In the framework document, DOE suggested a definition for “fully cooled” and further refined that definition in the BVM test procedure NOPR DOE published on August 11, 2014 (2014 BVM test procedure NOPR). 79 FR 46908, 46934. In response to comments received on both the framework document and 2014 BVM test procedure NOPR, DOE is proposing in this NOPR, to modify the definition of Class A to more unambiguously differentiate Class A and Class B equipment. Specifically, DOE proposes to use the presence of a transparent front on Class A beverage vending machines as a key distinguishing characteristic between Class A and Class B equipment and proposes to adopt that distinction as part of the Class A equipment class definition.
In this NOPR, DOE is also proposing to amend the definition of combination vending machine to better align with industry definitions and provide more clarity regarding the physical characteristics of the “refrigerated” and “non-refrigerated” volumes, or compartments. In addition, DOE is proposing to expand the class of combination vending machines established in the 2009 BVM final rule to differentiate Combination A and Combination B beverage vending machines based on similar criteria used to distinguish Class A and Class B beverage vending machines (
The estimates of energy use and energy saving potential considered in the NOPR analysis are based on the performance of beverage vending machines when tested in accordance with appendix B of the recently amended DOE BVM test procedure located at 10 CFR 431.294. (See sections IV.B, IV.C, and IV.E of this NOPR for more discussion.) On July 31, 2015, DOE published an amended test procedure for beverage vending machines, referred to as the 2015 BVM test procedure final rule in the
In general, the DOE BVM test procedure, as amended, incorporates by reference American National Standards Institute (ANSI)/American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers (ASHRAE) Standard 32.1-2010 to describe the measurement equipment, test conditions, and test protocol applicable to testing beverage vending machines. DOE's test procedure also specifies that the measurement of “refrigerated volume” of beverage vending machines must be in accordance with the methodology specified in Appendix C of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2010.
In the 2015 BVM test procedure final rule, DOE also adopted several new clarifying amendments including:
(1) Eliminating testing at the 90 °F ambient test condition;
(2) clarifying the test procedure for combination vending machines;
(3) clarifying the requirements for loading BVM models under the DOE test procedure;
(4) clarifying the specifications of the test package;
(5) clarifying the next-to-vend beverage temperature test condition;
(6) specifying placement of thermocouples during the DOE test procedure;
(7) establishing testing provisions at the lowest application product temperature;
(8) clarifying certification and reporting requirements; and
(9) clarifying the treatment of certain accessories when conducting the DOE test procedure.
These test procedure amendments are all reflected in DOE's new appendix A, which became effective August 31, 2015 and must be used by manufacturers for representations and to demonstrate compliance with the energy conservation standards beginning January 27, 2016. 80 FR 45758 (July 31, 2015).
In addition to the amendments proposed in appendix A, appendix B includes provisions for testing low power modes. The test procedure found in appendix B is to be used in conjunction with any amended standards established as a result of this rulemaking. As such, manufacturers are not required to use appendix B until the compliance date of any new or amended standards.
The new and amended standards proposed in this NOPR, if adopted, would apply to equipment manufactured beginning on the date 3 years after the publication date of any final rule in the
In each energy conservation standards rulemaking, DOE conducts a screening analysis based on information gathered on all current technology options and prototype designs that could improve the efficiency of the products or equipment that are the subject of the rulemaking. As the first step in such an analysis, DOE develops a list of technology options for consideration in consultation with manufacturers, design engineers, and other interested parties. DOE then determines which of those means for improving efficiency are technologically feasible. DOE considers technologies incorporated in commercially available products or in working prototypes to be technologically feasible. 10 CFR part 430, subpart C, appendix A, section 4(a)(4)(i)
After DOE determined that particular technology options are technologically feasible, it further evaluates each technology option in light of the following additional screening criteria: (1) Practicability to manufacture, install, and service; (2) adverse impacts on product utility or availability; and (3) adverse impacts on health or safety. 10 CFR part 430, subpart C, appendix A, section 4(a)(4)(ii)-(iv) Section IV.B of this NOPR discusses the results of the screening analysis for beverage vending machines, particularly the designs DOE considered, those it screened out, and those that are the basis for the TSLs in this rulemaking. For further details on the screening analysis for this rulemaking, see chapter 4 of the NOPR TSD.
When DOE proposes to adopt an amended standard for a type or class of covered product, it must determine the maximum improvement in energy efficiency or maximum reduction in energy use that is technologically feasible for such product. (42 U.S.C. 6295(p)(1)) Accordingly, in the engineering analysis, DOE determined the maximum technologically feasible (“max-tech”) improvements in energy efficiency for beverage vending machines, using the design parameters for the most efficient equipment available on the market or in working prototypes. The max-tech levels that DOE determined for this rulemaking are described in section IV.C.3 of this NOPR and in chapter 5 of the NOPR TSD.
For each trial standard level (TSL), DOE projected energy savings from application of the TSL to equipment purchased in the 30-year period that begins in the year of compliance with new and amended standards for beverage vending machines (2019-2048).
DOE used its NIA spreadsheet models to estimate energy savings from new and amended standards. The NIA spreadsheet model (described in section IV.G of this NOPR) calculates savings in site energy, which is the energy directly consumed by products at the locations where they are used. Based on the site energy, DOE calculates national energy savings (NES) in terms of primary energy savings at the site or at power plants, and also in terms of full-fuel-cycle (FFC) energy savings. The FFC metric includes the energy consumed in extracting, processing, and transporting primary fuels (
To adopt standards for a covered product, DOE must determine that such action would result in “significant” energy savings. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(3)(B)) Although the term “significant” is not defined in the Act, the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit, in
As noted previously, EPCA provides seven factors to be evaluated in determining whether a potential energy conservation standard is economically justified. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(B)(i)) The following sections discuss how DOE addressed each of those seven factors in this rulemaking.
In determining the impacts of a potential amended standard on manufacturers, DOE conducts an MIA, as discussed in section IV.I.3 of this NOPR, DOE first uses an annual cash-flow approach to determine the quantitative impacts. This step incorporates both a short-term assessment—based on the cost and capital requirements during the period between when a regulation is issued and when entities must comply with the regulation—and a long-term assessment over a 30-year period. The industry-wide impacts analyzed include: (1) INPV, which values the industry on the basis of expected future cash flows; (2) cash flows by year; (3) changes in revenue and income; and (4) other measures of impact, as appropriate. Second, DOE analyzes and reports the impacts on different types of manufacturers, such as impacts on small manufacturers. Third, DOE considers the impact of standards on domestic manufacturer employment and manufacturing capacity, as well as the potential for standards to result in plant closures and loss of capital investment, as discussed in section IV.I of this NOPR. Finally, DOE takes into account cumulative impacts of various DOE regulations and other regulatory requirements on manufacturers.
For individual customers, measures of economic impact include the changes in LCC and PBP associated with new or amended standards. These measures are discussed further in the following section. For customers in the aggregate, DOE also calculates the national NPV of the economic impacts applicable to a particular rulemaking. DOE also evaluates the LCC impacts of potential standards on identifiable subgroups of customers that may be affected disproportionately by a national standard.
EPCA requires DOE to consider the savings in operating costs throughout the estimated average life of the covered product compared to any increase in the price of the covered product that are likely to result from the imposition of a standard. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(B)(i)(II)) DOE conducts this comparison in its LCC and PBP analysis.
The LCC is the sum of the purchase price of a piece of equipment (including its installation) and the operating expense (including energy, maintenance, and repair expenditures) discounted over the lifetime of the equipment. The LCC analysis requires a variety of inputs such as equipment prices, equipment energy consumption, energy prices, maintenance and repair costs, equipment lifetime, and customer discount rates. To account for uncertainty and variability in specific inputs, such as equipment lifetime and discount rate, DOE uses a distribution of values, with probabilities attached to each value. For its analysis, DOE assumes that customers will purchase the covered equipment in the first year of compliance with amended standards.
The PBP is the estimated amount of time (in years) it takes consumers to recover the increased purchase cost (including installation) of a more-efficient product through lower operating costs. DOE calculates the PBP by dividing the change in purchase cost due to a more-stringent standard by the change in annual operating cost for the year that standards are assumed to take effect.
The LCC savings and PBP analysis for the considered efficiency levels are calculated relative to the case that reflects projected market trends in the absence of amended standards. DOE identifies the percentage of customers estimated to receive LCC savings or experience an LCC increase, in addition to the average LCC savings associated with a particular standard level. DOE's LCC analysis is discussed in further detail in section IV.F of this NOPR.
Although significant conservation of energy is a separate statutory requirement for adopting an energy conservation standard, EPCA requires DOE, in determining the economic justification of a standard, to consider the total projected energy savings that are expected to result directly from the standard. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(B)(i)(III)) As discussed in more detail in section IV.G.3 of this NOPR, DOE uses spreadsheet models to project national energy savings.
In establishing classes of products, and in evaluating design options and the impact of potential standard levels, DOE evaluates potential standards that would not lessen the utility or performance of the considered equipment. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(B)(i)(IV)) Based on data available to DOE, DOE determined that the standards proposed in this NOPR would not reduce the utility or performance of the products under consideration in this rulemaking.
EPCA directs DOE to consider the impact of any lessening of competition, as determined in writing by the
DOE considers any lessening of competition that is likely to result from amended standards. The Attorney General determines the impact, if any, of any lessening of competition likely to result from a proposed standard, and transmits such determination to the Secretary, together with an analysis of the nature and extent of such impact.
To assist the Attorney General in making such determination, DOE will provide DOJ with copies of this NOPR and the TSD for review. DOE will consider DOJ's comments on the proposed rule in preparing the final rule, and DOE will publish and respond to DOJ's comments in that document. DOE invites comment from the public regarding the competitive impacts that are likely to result from this proposed rule. In addition, stakeholders may also provide comments separately to DOJ regarding these potential impacts. See
DOE also considers the need for national energy conservation in determining whether a new or amended standard is economically justified. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(B)(i)(VI)) In evaluating the need for national energy conservation, DOE expects that the energy savings from the proposed new and amended standards are likely to provide improvements to the security and reliability of the nation's energy system. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(B)(i)(VI)) Reductions in the demand for electricity also may result in reduced costs for maintaining the reliability of the nation's electricity system. DOE conducts a utility impact analysis to estimate how standards may affect the nation's needed power generation capacity, as discussed in section IV.L of this NOPR.
The proposed new and amended standards are also likely to result in environmental benefits in the form of reduced emissions of air pollutants and greenhouse gases associated with energy production and use. DOE conducts an emissions analysis to estimate how standards may affect these emissions, as discussed in section IV.J of this NOPR. DOE reports the emissions impacts from each TSL it considered in section V.A of this NOPR. DOE also estimates the economic value of emissions reductions resulting from the considered TSLs, as discussed in section IV.K of this NOPR.
EPCA allows the Secretary of Energy, in determining whether a standard is economically justified, to consider any other factors that the Secretary deems to be relevant. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(B)(i)(VII)) To the extent interested parties submit any relevant information regarding economic justification that does not fit into the other categories described above, DOE could consider such information under “other factors.”
EPCA sets forth a rebuttable presumption that an energy conservation standard is economically justified if the additional cost to the consumer of a product that meets the standard is less than three times the value of the first year's energy savings resulting from the standard, as calculated under the applicable DOE test procedure. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(B)(iii)) DOE's LCC and PBP analysis generate values used to calculate the effects that proposed energy conservation standards would have on the payback period for customers. These analyses include, but are not limited to, the 3-year payback period contemplated under the rebuttable-presumption test.
In addition, DOE routinely conducts an economic analysis that considers the full range of impacts to customers, manufacturers, the nation, and the environment. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(B)(i)) The results of this analysis serve as the basis for DOE's evaluation of the economic justification for a potential standard level (thereby supporting or rebutting the results of any preliminary determination of economic justification). The rebuttable presumption payback calculation is discussed in section V.B.1.c of this NOPR.
This section addresses the analyses DOE performed for this rulemaking. In the subsections, DOE discusses each component of the analysis and summarizes and responds to comments received in response to the preliminary analysis pertaining to each of the analyses DOE conducts.
DOE develops information in the market and technology assessment that provides an overall picture of the market for the equipment considered, including the nature of the equipment, the industry structure, and market characteristics for the equipment. This activity consists of both quantitative and qualitative efforts based primarily on publicly available information.
DOE reviewed relevant literature and interviewed manufacturers to develop an overall picture of the BVM market in the United States. Industry publications, trade journals, government agencies, and trade organizations provided the bulk of the information, including (1) manufacturers and their market shares, (2) shipments by equipment type, (3) detailed equipment information, (4) industry trends, and (5) existing regulatory and non-regulatory equipment efficiency improvement initiatives. The analysis developed as part of the market and technology assessment is described in chapter 3 of the NOPR TSD.
In this NOPR, DOE is proposing to amend the energy conservation standards established by the 2009 BVM final rule for the Class A and Class B beverage vending machines. DOE believes that Class A and Class B equipment classes continue to provide different utility to customers and have different energy profiles and applicable design options, as described below. As such, DOE believes it is appropriate to separately analyze and regulate Class A and Class B equipment. In addition, as noted previously, DOE is proposing to amend the definition for Class A equipment to more clearly and unambiguously describe the equipment characteristics that make up that class and differentiate it from Class B equipment, as well as to amend the definition of combination vending machine to better align with industry definitions and provide more clarity regarding the physical characteristics of the “refrigerated” and “non-
DOE is also proposing to define two new equipment classes at 10 CFR 431.292, Combination A and Combination B, as well as establish new energy conservation standards for those equipment classes. In the 2009 BVM final rule, DOE also established a definition for combination vending machines but elected not to set standards for them at that time. 74 FR 44914, 44920 (August 31, 2009). In considering standards for combination vending machines as part of this rulemaking, similar to Class A and Class B, DOE determined that the method of cooling and presence of a transparent front are important differentiating features for combination equipment.
Table IV.1 summarizes the new and amended definitions for the four equipment classes analyzed in this NOPR. The definitions, as well as the general characteristics and differentiating features, of the four equipment classes proposed in this NOPR are described in the following subsections.
Class A and Class B equipment are currently differentiated based on the cooling mechanism employed by the different equipment. The distinguishing criterion between these two equipment classes is whether the equipment is fully cooled. 10 CFR 431.292.
At the time the definitions of Class A and Class B were established, DOE did not define the term “fully cooled.” In the framework document, DOE suggested defining “fully cooled” to mean a beverage vending machine within which each item in the beverage vending machine is brought to and stored at temperatures that fall within ±2 °F of the average beverage temperature, which is the average of the temperatures of all the items in the next-to-vend position for each selection.
In response to the framework document, DOE received many comments from interested parties regarding the definition of “fully cooled.” DOE proposed an alternative definition of “fully cooled” in the BVM test procedure NOPR that described “fully cooled” as “a condition in which the refrigeration system of a beverage vending machine cools product throughout the entire refrigerated volume of a machine instead of being directed at a fraction (or zone) of the refrigerated volume as measured by the average temperature of the standard test packages in the furthest from the next-to-vend positions being no more than 10 °F above the integrated average temperature of the standard test packages.” 79 FR 46908, 46934 (August 11, 2014). To accompany DOE's proposed definition of “fully cooled,” the 2014 BVM test procedure NOPR also proposed to adopt an optional test method that could be used to quantitatively differentiate between Class A and Class B equipment. 79 FR at 46917.
In response to the definition of “fully cooled” proposed in the BVM test procedure NOPR, several interested parties recommended that DOE consider an alternative differentiation between equipment types to better capture differences in energy consumption. Interested parties also suggested that the presence of a transparent or opaque front and/or the arrangement of products within the machine could be potential differentiating criteria that are more appropriate and consistent with the differentiation between equipment configurations applied in industry. Specifically, the California investor-owned utilities (CA IOUs), including Pacific Gas & Electric, Southern California Gas Company, Southern California Edison, and San Diego Gas and Electric, recommended that DOE consider an alternate differentiation between equipment types to better capture differences in energy consumption, and they suggested the consideration of the presence of a glass or opaque front and the arrangement of products within the machine. (Docket No. EERE-2013-BT-TP-0045, CA IOUs, No. 0005 at p. 1) Similarly, Sanden Vendo America Inc. (SVA) recommended that the product configuration would be more appropriate and consistent with the differentiation between equipment configurations applied in industry. (Docket No. EERE-2013-BT-TP-0045, SVA, Public Meeting Transcript, No. 0004 at p. 52).
Many interested parties also commented on the difficulty of establishing a quantitative temperature threshold to differentiate fully cooled equipment from non-fully cooled equipment that would be applicable across all BVM models. Specifically, Automated Merchandising Systems, Inc. (AMS) commented that a 10 °F temperature differential lacks empirical data. (Docket No. EERE-2013-BT-TP-0045, AMS, Public Meeting Transcript, No. 0004 at p. 54) The Coca-Cola Company (Coca-Cola) stated that they believe an 8 °F temperature threshold was acceptable to differentiate Class A, and they added that Class B machines sometimes vary by as much as 18 °F, depending on products vended and the dimensions of the machine. (Docket No. EERE-2013-BT-TP-0045, Coca-Cola, No. 0010 at p. 4) Coca-Cola also stated that the DOE expectation for all product temperatures to be maintained within a 2 °F window for fully-cooled beverage vending machine was unrealistic. (Docket No. EERE-2013-BT-TP-0045, Coca-Cola, No. 0010 at p. 4) SVA commented that 10 °F may be acceptable but stated that using physical differentiating characteristics, such as “shelf” versus “stack” style machines, may be more straightforward. (Docket No. EERE-2013-BT-TP-0045, SVA, No. 0008 at p. 2) The Northwest Energy Efficiency Alliance (NEEA) stated that many Class B vending machines typically had a temperature difference of much less than 10 °F, and urged DOE to conduct further investigation. (Docket No. EERE-2013-BT-TP-0045, NEEA, No. 0009 at p. 1)
Regarding the additional fully cooled verification test procedure, SVA stated that additional testing to confirm a model was fully cooled created additional burden. (Docket No. EERE-2013-BT-TP-0045, SVA, No. 0008 at p.
In light of the extent and scope of the comments received in response to the amendments proposed in the 2014 BVM test procedure NOPR regarding the proposed definition of fully cooled, alternative criteria for differentiating Class A and Class B equipment, and the optional fully cooled verification test protocol, DOE wished to further consider potential classification options and criteria suggested by interested parties, as well as provide interested parties an additional opportunity to provide feedback on any proposals to amend the equipment class definitions. As such, DOE is responding to the comments presented by interested parties in response to the 2014 BVM test procedure NOPR and proposing an alternative approach to differentiate Class A and Class B equipment in this BVM energy conservation standard NOPR.
In considering the definition of “fully cooled” and the best way to clarify the differentiation of Class A and Class B equipment, DOE considered all the comments submitted by interested parties, as well as the manner in which equipment is currently categorized by DOE and industry. In general, DOE agrees with the comments from interested parties in that, in practice, the cooling method is often correlated with the product configuration and presence of a transparent front. Specifically, beverage vending machines with horizontal product rows are typically fully cooled and have a transparent front, while beverage vending machines with vertical product stacks are typically zone cooled and are fully opaque. This correlation occurs due to the inherent utility of a fully cooled beverage vending machine, which was acknowledged in DOE's proposed definition of “fully cooled” (79 FR 46915-46917 (August 11, 2014)) and in the 2009 BVM final rule (74 FR 44914, 44924 (August 31, 2009)). Moreover, DOE is not aware of any instances of BVM models that are not fully cooled but which have a transparent front and/or horizontal product configuration or BVM models that are fully cooled but which have and opaque front and/or vertical stacks. Thus DOE believes that, based on current equipment designs, using criteria of: (a) Whether the equipment is fully cooled, (b) whether the equipment has a transparent front; or (c) whether the vertical or horizontal product arrangement is horizontal or vertical, would result in virtually identical equipment categorization.
DOE also notes that, since DOE's engineering analysis represents typical, representative equipment designs for each equipment class (see section IV.C), the cooling method, the presence of a transparent or opaque front, and product arrangement are correlated in DOE's engineering analysis, as shown in Table IV.2.
DOE agrees with CA IOU and SVA's comments that alternative criteria, such as the presence of glass or the product configuration, may offer a more clear and unambiguous approach to differentiate Class A and Class B equipment than the cooling method, while continuing to preserve the same utility in each class of equipment. Specifically, DOE believes that the presence of a transparent front that allows a customer to view and select from all of the various next-to-vend product selections, which are all maintained at the appropriate vending temperature, is inherently related to the functionality of a beverage vending machine being “fully cooled.” DOE also notes that, theoretically, the presence of glass has a larger impact on the energy consumption of a given beverage vending machine than whether the equipment is fully cooled or whether the equipment has vertical or horizontal product arrangement. DOE believes that defining equipment classes based on a feature that is related to the unique utility and which has the largest impact on the energy use of the equipment is the most appropriate criterion to use to ensure that the utility provided by Class A equipment is maintained in the marketplace. In addition, since DOE believes that the cooling method and the presence of a glass or solid front is correlated in practice. As such, DOE believes that clarifying DOE's equipment class definitions using such an unambiguous product characteristic would not result in any changes to the classification of BVM models that are currently available on the market. 74 FR 44914, 44924 (August 31, 2009).
In light of this, DOE is proposing to amend the definition of Class A beverage vending machines to read as follows:
In this BVM energy conservation standard NOPR, DOE is not proposing to substantively modify the definition of Class B, since Class B is defined as the mutually exclusive converse of Class A. However, DOE is proposing to make a minor editorial change to include the term “that” to improve readability of the definition. That is, a Class B beverage vending machine would be defined as a refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine that: (1) Is not considered to be Class A; and (2) is not a combination vending machine.
DOE notes that the proposed definition of Class A is similar to and consistent with DOE's classification and definition of “closed transparent” and “closed solid” commercial refrigeration equipment. 10 CFR 431.62.
In addition to the amended definition for Class A beverage vending machines, which DOE is proposing based on comments from interested parties, DOE notes that a quantitative criteria is necessary to clearly determine whether a given BVM model “has a transparent front.” As such, DOE is also proposing to specify the procedures DOE will use in enforcement testing to clearly and
To determine the surface area, DOE is proposing that the total surface area of the front side of the beverage vending machine, from edge to edge, be determined as the total length multiplied by the total height of a beverage vending machine. DOE is also proposing to specify that the transparent surface area consists of all areas composed of transparent material on the front side of a beverage vending machine, and that the non-transparent surface area consists of all areas composed of material that is not transparent on the front side of a beverage vending machine. The sum of the transparent and non-transparent surface areas should equal the total surface area of the front side of a beverage vending machine, as shown in Figure IV.1.
To determine whether a material is transparent, DOE is proposing to adopt the definition of transparent that is applicable to commercial refrigeration equipment, as adopted in the 2014 commercial refrigeration equipment test procedure final rule. 10 CFR 431.62; 79 FR 22277, 22286-87, and 22308 (April 21, 2014). Under this definition, the term “transparent” applies to any material with greater than or equal to 45 percent light transmittance, as determined in accordance with the ASTM Standard E 1084-86 (Reapproved 2009), “Standard Test Method for Solar Transmittance (Terrestrial) of Sheet Materials Using Sunlight,” at normal incidence and in the intended direction of viewing. In the commercial refrigeration equipment test procedure NOPR, DOE had originally proposed that a transparent material was any material with greater than or equal to 65 percent light transmittance, consistent with the definition of total display area in the Air-Conditioning, Heating, and Refrigeration Institute (AHRI) Standard 1200 (I-P)-2010 (AHRI 1200-2010), “Performance Rating of Commercial Refrigerated Display Merchandisers and Storage Cabinets.” 78 FR 64295, 64301-02 (October 28, 2013). However, DOE adopted a threshold of 45 percent in the final rule based on comments from interested parties regarding the characteristics of low-emissivity and high performance glass. 79 FR 22277, 22287 (April 21, 2014). DOE believes that the threshold of 45 percent light transmittance to determine transparency is equally applicable to materials that are typically used to manufacture both commercial refrigeration equipment and beverage vending machines.
Therefore, to determine whether a given material is transparent or not, DOE proposes that such material be tested in accordance with ASTM Standard E 1084-86 (Reapproved 2009) and, if the visible transmittance is greater than or equal to 45 percent, that material would be deemed to be transparent and considered in the transparent area of the beverage vending machine. When determining material properties, DOE notes that the utility of the transparent material is only applicable if the viewer can clearly see the refrigerated products contained within the refrigerated volume of the beverage vending machine. As such, DOE believes that the transparency of the beverage vending machine cabinet materials should be determined with consideration of all the materials used to construct the wall segment(s). That is, transparency should be determined for all the materials between the refrigerated volume and the ambient environment; only if the aggregate performance of all those materials yields a light transmittance of greater than or equal to 45 percent would that area be treated as transparent. For example, if a beverage vending machine wall segment was composed of sheet metal, insulation, and an opaque plastic covering, with light transmittance of 0, 0, and 0.5, respectively, the aggregate light transmittance of the side wall would be 0 and the area of that side wall would not be treated as transparent.
In accordance with the proposed, amended definition for Class A, any given BVM model would be classified as Class A or Class B based on the relative transparent and non-transparent areas on the front side of the beverage vending machine. If at least 25 percent of the surface area on the front side of the beverage vending machine is transparent, and the beverage vending machine is not a combination vending machine, then the beverage vending machine would be considered to be Class A. Conversely, if greater than 75 percent of the surface area on the front side of the beverage vending machine is not transparent, and the beverage vending machine is not a combination vending machine, than the beverage vending machine would be considered to be Class B. DOE's proposed Class A definition only considers transparent area on the front side of beverage vending machine when determining the appropriate equipment class for beverage vending machines.
DOE reiterates that this test method would be optional and would not be required for equipment certification or testing by manufacturers. Specifically, the determination of the light transmittance of a transparent material based on testing in accordance with ASTM Standard E 1084-86 (Reapproved 2009) would not be required in all cases to classify a BVM basic model as Class A or Class B, and manufacturers would continue to be able to specify the appropriate equipment class without utilizing this test method. However, the determination of the light transmittance of a transparent material would still be determined in accordance with ASTM Standard E 1084-86 (Reapproved 2009) and DOE proposes to use this test method to determine equipment classification in enforcement testing. Thus, incorporation of a quantitative test procedure is not anticipated to add to the complexity or burden of conducting the DOE test procedure for most models of beverage vending machines.
Regarding the proposed definition of “fully cooled,” DOE notes that many interested parties expressed concern about DOE's temperature differential of 10 °F between the average next-to-vend temperature and the average temperature of standard test packages placed in the furthest from next-to-vend position during the test period. Many interested parties questioned the supporting data underlying DOE's proposed temperature threshold and encouraged DOE to collect additional data. In response to these comments, DOE notes that the originally proposed 10 °F temperature differential was proposed based on the best information available to DOE. Specifically, DOE based the proposed temperature threshold on input from manufacturers provided in response to the framework document. (AMS, No. 0017 at p. 6)
To better inform the appropriate temperature threshold for classification of Class A and Class B beverage vending machines, and in response to comments received on the 2014 BVM test procedure NOPR, DOE analyzed additional data from 28 BVM units (11 Class A and 17 Class B). For these 28 units, DOE included standard test packages in the next-to-vend and furthest from next-to-vend beverage locations, as proposed in the 2014 BVM test procedure NOPR. 79 FR 46908, 46917 (August 11, 2014). DOE compared the integrated average temperature of the next-to-vend standard test packages to the average of all the furthest from next-to-vend standard test package measurements collected throughout the test (
In light of this additional analysis, DOE agrees with the comments of interested parties stating that it is difficult to establish a strict range that will be universally applicable to all types of Class A and Class B beverage vending machines. Specifically, DOE's data suggests that Class B equipment may have temperature differences of less than 2 °F between the next-to-vend and furthest from next-to-vend beverage locations. Conversely, as Coca-Cola points out, Class A machines can also have temperature differentials of up to 7 °F. (Docket No. EERE-2013-BT-TP-0045, Coca-Cola, No. 0010 at p. 4)
DOE believes that modifying the definitions of Class A and Class B to rely on the presence of a transparent front allows for clear and unambiguous differentiation of equipment classes, while continuing to reflect the intent and utility of fully cooled versus non-fully cooled equipment. Further, DOE believes referencing the presence of a transparent front to identify Class A equipment aligns with DOE's and industry's interpretation of fully cooled, Class A machines to date. Therefore, DOE does not believe the proposed amendment of the Class A definition and associated optional test protocols would change the equipment class or energy conservation standard level for any equipment that is currently covered under existing standards. As such, DOE is proposing that the amended Class A and Class B definitions be effective 30 days after the publication in the
Regarding Coca-Cola's comment that 2 °F is too stringent a tolerance for all the standard test packages in the machine, DOE notes that DOE did not propose such a requirement and agrees with Coca-Cola that maintaining all the standard test packages in the next-to-vend positions within 2 °F of the specified average beverage temperature may not be feasible for all fully cooled equipment designs.
In response to SVA and Coca-Cola's concerns regarding testing burden of the proposed fully cooled verification test procedure and the potential for increased air infiltration, DOE notes that, based on the amendments being proposed in this NOPR, the fully cooled verification test procedure would not be required. However, DOE is proposing to adopt optional specifications and criteria to determine surface area and transparency to allow for clear and unambiguous verification of the appropriate equipment class for any covered BVM models where the appropriate equipment class is not clear based on the physical equipment characteristics. Because the test methods to determine surface area and transparency would not be required for certification testing and is not proposed to be part of the BVM test procedure at 10 CFR 431.296, manufacturers would not be required to take any additional temperature measurements beyond what is currently specified in ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2010, DOE believes that the proposed optional test method would not increase the burden associated with conducting the DOE BVM test procedure.
DOE requests comment on the proposed amendment to the Class A equipment class definition. Specifically, DOE requests comment on whether the presence of a transparent front is always correlated with fully cooled equipment (section VII.E of this NOPR).
DOE requests comment on the proposed optional test protocol to determine transparent and non-transparent surface areas and whether Class A equipment typically has at least 25 percent of the surface area on the front side of the unit that is transparent or if another quantitative threshold would be more appropriate (section VII.E of this NOPR).
DOE requests comment on the proposed definition of transparent. Specifically, whether 45 percent light transmittance is an acceptable value for the glass or other transparent materials that are typically used to construct the front panel on Class A equipment (section VII.E of this NOPR).
In the 2009 BVM final rule, DOE established a definition for combination vending machines (74 FR 44914, 44920; August 31, 2009). That definition describes a combination beverage vending machine as a refrigerated bottled or canned beverage machine that also has non-refrigerated volumes for the purpose of vending other, non-“sealed beverage” merchandise. 10 CFR 431.292. However, the 2009 BVM final rule did not consider or differentiate equipment within the combination vending machine equipment category or address any specific criteria that could be used to differentiate “refrigerated” and “non-refrigerated.”
In its recent test procedure rulemaking, culminating in the 2015 BVM test procedure final rule, DOE considered the applicability of the combination vending machine definition to equipment designs it has encountered on the market, and considered stakeholder comments on the definition of “combination vending machine.” 80 FR 45758 (July 31, 2015). In the 2015 BVM test procedure final rule, DOE clarified the test procedure for combination vending machines and noted that such equipment must include compartments that are physically separated, while acknowledging that some combination equipment designs may employ a common product delivery chute between the refrigerated and non-refrigerated compartments for the purposes of delivering vendible merchandise to the customer. DOE also gave notice that it would seek to further clarify the definition of “combination vending machine” in this BVM energy conservation standard NOPR.
As such, in consideration of the input of various interested parties throughout both the test procedure and energy conservation standards rulemaking processes, as well as of the range of equipment designs that DOE has observed for sale on the market, DOE is proposing, in this NOPR, an amended definition of “combination vending machine.” Specifically, DOE proposes to amend the definition of “combination vending machine” to more clearly and unambiguously establish the distinction between “refrigerated” and “non-refrigerated” compartments contained in a combination beverage vending machine. Specifically, DOE proposes that the determination of whether a compartment is refrigerated or non-refrigerated is based on whether a compartment is designed to be refrigerated, as demonstrated by the presence of temperature controls. The proposed definition is as follows:
DOE requests comment on the proposed amendment to the definition of “combination vending machine” (section VII.E of this NOPR).
DOE also believes that, similar to Class A and Class B equipment classes, the transparency of the front side of the vending machine can differentiate certain styles of combination vending machines that provide a unique utility in the marketplace because their
DOE proposes that the same definition of transparent and same optional test protocol to determine the transparency of materials and the relative surface areas of transparent and non-transparent surfaces would be applicable to combination vending machines except that, the external surface areas surrounding the non-refrigerated compartment(s) would not be considered. That is, all the surfaces that surround and enclose the compartment designed to be refrigerated (as demonstrated by the presence of temperature controls), as well as any surfaces that do not enclose any product-containing compartments (
DOE requests comment on the proposed definition for Combination A and Combination B (section VII.E of this NOPR).
DOE also requests comment on DOE's proposal to apply the optional test protocol for determining the surface area and transparency of materials to combination vending machines, except that the surface areas surrounding the refrigerated compartments that are not designed to be refrigerated would be excluded (section VII.E of this NOPR).
In response to the framework document and preliminary analysis, DOE received input from interested parties regarding the design, construction, and sales volume of combination machines. In preparing the analyses presented in this NOPR, DOE used additional data from publicly available literature, as well as interviews with manufacturers, as the basis for its analysis of combination vending machine equipment classes. In considering setting standards for Combination A and Combination B beverage vending machines, as proposed, DOE is also interested in information regarding the design, market prevalence, and energy performance of such combination vending machines.
AMS commented that DOE and manufacturers have expended and will continue to expend large amounts of effort and expense to improve combination machines even though they compose a small amount of the market. (AMS, No. 29 at p. 6)
In response to AMS's comment regarding the small market share of combination vending machines, DOE notes that it revised the market share of combination vending machines based on input received during the manufacturer interview process (see section IV.I.3 of this NOPR). In the analysis for this NOPR, DOE found that combination vending machines represent 18 percent of the market, as opposed to 1 percent that was found in the preliminary analysis. Thus, DOE believes new energy conservation standards for combination machines represent a potential for national energy savings. In addition, since DOE is proposing standards for combination vending machines for the first time, the baseline efficiency for such equipment is much lower than for similar Class A or Class B equipment. Therefore, larger potential savings are available for combination vending machines than for Class A and Class B equipment on a per model basis. As such, DOE continues to analyze and propose standards for this equipment in this NOPR.
DOE requests comment on its updated estimate of market share for combination vending machines (section VII.E of this NOPR).
As noted in the 2015 BVM test procedure final rule, DOE believes that both appendix A and appendix B of the amended BVM test procedure are applicable to combination vending machines. 80 FR 45758 (July 31, 2015). To clarify the applicability of certain test procedure provisions and requirements to combination vending machines, DOE adopted several clarifications to the 2015 BVM test procedure to make the treatment of combination vending machines more specific and precise. These clarifications include explicitly stating the applicability of the BVM test procedure to combination vending machines and clarifying that only the refrigerated compartment of a combination vending machine is to be evaluated in the refrigerated volume calculation and loaded with standard test packages and standard product.
Appendix A of the BVM test procedure is applicable to combination vending machines for the purposes of making any representations regarding the energy consumption of such equipment beginning January 27, 2016. 80 FR 45758 (July 31, 2015). Beginning on the compliance date of any energy conservation standards established for combination vending machines as a result of this rulemaking, manufacturers would be required to use appendix B of the BVM test procedure for the purposes of demonstrating compliance with any such energy conservation standards and when making representations regarding the energy consumption of covered equipment.
DOE notes that there are beverage vending machines that are capable of vending certain perishable products and, as such, may require more strict temperature control than beverage vending machines that only vend non-perishable products, such as bottled or canned soda, juice, or water. DOE notes such perishable products may or may not be sealed beverages but that, if a vending machine is refrigerated and is capable of or can be configured to vend sealed beverages for at least one of the product selections, then the vending machine meets DOE's definition of beverage vending machine and must comply with DOE's regulations for this equipment.
Based on input from interested parties provided in response to the framework document and as stated in chapter 2 of the preliminary analysis TSD, DOE believes that machines capable of vending perishable goods are generally not materially different from other beverage vending machines, and that the necessary levels of temperature maintenance needed to preserve perishables are achieved through the application of control settings rather than through design changes. In addition, such equipment can be tested using DOE's existing method of testing and does not have significantly different energy consumption profiles from other beverage vending machines when tested using DOE's methodology. Therefore, DOE does not believe separate equipment classes and standard levels are warranted for beverage vending machines that are capable of vending perishable goods, and DOE is not proposing a separate class for such equipment in this NOPR. As such, equipment that vends perishable products along with at least one sealed beverage must be tested in accordance with the DOE test procedure and must meet applicable energy conservation standards. Vending machines that are not capable of vending sealed beverages or are not refrigerated do not meet DOE's definition of beverage vending machine and, as such, are not subject to standards, test procedures, and certification and reporting requirements for beverage vending machines.
DOE requests comment on its position that machines capable of vending perishable goods do not warrant separate classes due to their physical similarity to refrigerated beverage vending machines used to vend non-perishable products (section VII.E of this NOPR).
As part of the technology assessment, DOE developed a list of technologies to consider for improving the efficiency of beverage vending machines. DOE considers as design options all technologies that meet the screening criteria and that produce quantifiable results under the DOE test procedure.
DOE typically uses information about existing and past technology options and prototype designs to help determine which technologies manufacturers use to attain higher energy performance levels. In consultation with interested parties, DOE develops a list of technologies for consideration in its screening and engineering analyses.
• higher-efficiency lighting
• higher-efficiency evaporator fan motors
• higher-efficiency evaporator fan blades
• improved evaporator design
• evaporator fan motor controllers
• low-pressure-differential evaporators
• insulation improvements (including foam insulation thickness increase and use of improved materials such as vacuum insulated panels)
• improved Glass Pack (for Class A and Combination A equipment)
• higher-efficiency compressors
• variable speed compressors
• increased condenser performance
• higher-efficiency condenser fan motors
• higher-efficiency condenser fan blades
• microchannel heat exchangers
• higher efficiency expansion valves
• improved anti-sweat heaters
• lighting controls (including timers and/or sensors)
• refrigeration low-power modes
Chapter 3 of the TSD includes the detailed description of all technology options DOE identified for consideration in this rulemaking.
The purpose of the screening analysis is to evaluate the technologies identified in the technology assessment to determine which technologies to consider further and which technologies to screen out. DOE consulted with industry, technical experts, and other interested parties in developing a list of energy-saving technologies for the technology assessment. DOE then applied the screening criteria to determine which technologies were unsuitable for further consideration in this rulemaking. Chapter 4 of the NOPR TSD contains details about DOE's screening criteria.
DOE uses the following four screening criteria to determine which technology options are unsuitable for further consideration in an energy conservation standards rulemaking:
1.
2.
3.
4.
These four screening criteria do not include the propriety status of design options. As noted previously, DOE will only consider efficiency levels achieved through the use of proprietary designs in the engineering analysis if they are not part of a unique path to achieve that efficiency level. DOE does not believe that any of the technologies identified in the technology assessment are proprietary, and thus, did not eliminate any technologies for that reason. Through a review of each technology, DOE found that the following technologies identified met all four screening criteria to be examined further in the analysis and decrease daily energy consumption (DEC) as measured by the BVM test procedure:
• Higher efficiency lighting
• higher efficiency evaporator fan motors
• higher efficiency evaporator fan blades
• evaporator fan motor controllers
• improved evaporator design
• low-pressure differential evaporators
• improvements to anti-sweat heaters
• improved or thicker insulation
• defrost mechanism
• higher efficiency compressors
• variable speed compressors
• microchannel heat exchangers
• improved condenser design
• higher efficiency condenser fan motors
• higher efficiency condenser fan blades
• improved glass pack design (for Class A and Combination A machines)
• lighting controls
• refrigeration low-power modes
The engineering analysis establishes the relationship between an increase in energy efficiency of the equipment and the corresponding increase in manufacturer selling price (MSP) associated with that efficiency level. This relationship serves as the basis for cost-benefit calculations for individual customers, manufacturers, and the nation. DOE typically structures its engineering analysis using one of three approaches: (1) the design-option approach, (2) the efficiency-level approach, or (3) the cost-assessment (reverse engineering) approach. The next paragraphs provide overviews of these three approaches.
A design-option approach identifies individual technology options (from the market and technology assessment) that can be used alone or in combination with other technology options to increase the energy efficiency of a given BVM unit. Under this approach, cost estimates of the baseline equipment and more-efficient equipment that incorporates design options are based on manufacturer or component supplier data or engineering computer simulation models. Individual design options, or combinations of design options, are added to the baseline model in descending order of cost-effectiveness.
An efficiency-level approach establishes the relationship between manufacturer cost and increased efficiency at predetermined efficiency levels above the baseline. Under this approach, DOE typically assesses increases in manufacturer cost for incremental increases in efficiency, without identifying the technology or design options that would be used to achieve such increases.
A reverse-engineering, or cost-assessment, approach involves disassembling representative units of beverage vending machines, and estimating the manufacturing costs based on a “bottom-up” manufacturing cost assessment; such assessments use detailed data to estimate the costs for parts and materials, labor, shipping/packaging, and investment for models that operate at particular efficiency levels.
As discussed in the framework document and preliminary analysis, DOE employed the design-option approach to develop the relationship between energy use of a beverage vending machine and MSP. The decision to use this approach was made due to several factors, including the lack of numerous discrete levels of equipment efficiency currently available on the market and the prevalence of relatively easily implementable energy-saving technologies applicable to this equipment. More specifically, DOE identified design options for analysis and used a combination of industry research and teardown-based cost modeling to determine manufacturing costs, then employed numerical modeling to determine the energy consumption of each combination of design options employed in increasing equipment efficiency. The resulting range of equipment efficiency levels and associated manufacturer production costs (MPCs) were converted to MSPs using information regarding typical manufacturer markups. Typical manufacturer markups are presented in chapter 5 of the NOPR TSD.
DOE requests feedback on the manufacturer markup values used to convert MPC to MSP (section VII.E of this NOPR).
DOE revised the engineering analysis presented in the preliminary analysis based on the feedback of stakeholders, information obtained through interviews with manufacturers, additional industry research, and recent regulatory changes implemented by EPA's SNAP program. 80 FR 19454, 19491 (April 10, 2015) and 80 FR 42870, 42917-42920 (July 20, 2015). In particular, DOE conducted analyses for equipment using propane (R-290) refrigerant, in addition to CO
For each of the two classes of equipment with current standards (Class A and Class B), DOE developed baseline configurations containing design options consistent with units designed to perform at a level that approximates the existing 2009 BVM standard. DOE based its representative size assumptions for Class A and Class B equipment on the representative sizes assumed in the 2009 BVM rulemaking and input from manufacturers during the framework and preliminary analysis phases of this rulemaking, as well as data gathered from supplemental sources. DOE believes that these representative sizes continue to reflect the design and features of current baseline equipment for Class A and Class B equipment.
For Combination A and Combination B equipment, DOE set its baseline efficiency level differently than for Class A and Class B equipment, since there are no current regulatory standards for this equipment. Specifically, DOE modeled the baseline level of efficiency for the Combination A and Combination B equipment as representing the least-efficient technology generally found in the BVM market currently for each design option analyzed. That is, the baseline efficiency level for Combination A and Combination B equipment represented the least-efficient combination of technologies available, which in some cases a baseline efficiency level with higher energy consumption than any physical combination BVM unit DOE analyzed.
Representative sizes for Combination A and Combination B were established in the preliminary analysis based on equipment available in the current market and have been maintained for this NOPR. Specific details of the representative sizes chosen for analysis and design options representing each of the baseline equipment definitions for Class A, Class B, Combination A, and Combination B beverage vending machines are described in more detail in appendix 5A of the NOPR TSD.
In response to the preliminary analysis, DOE received several comments regarding the methodology it used for setting baseline levels in the engineering analysis. SVA questioned DOE's assumption about the baseline not including low-power states and asserted that most manufacturers turn off lights prior to testing energy consumption, which is representative of low power mode. (SVA, No. 33 at p. 49)
In the engineering analysis for Class A and Class B equipment, DOE used the current standard level as the baseline energy consumption level. The current DOE standards are available at 10 CFR 431.296. All impacts of design options that DOE examined to improve efficiency are calculated from that level. Based on its analysis of the DOE BVM certification database as well as the list of ENERGY STAR® qualified beverage vending machines, DOE agrees with Crane and SVA that much of the equipment currently available on the market exceeds the minimum energy performance required by the current DOE standards. DOE further agrees with AMS and SVA that equipment that exceeds the current standards does so through the use of efficiency improvements beyond the baseline design, including design options that DOE uses in its analysis supporting this NOPR.
Most of the design options analyzed in this NOPR were observed by DOE in some portion of the equipment currently on the market. The presence of these design options in equipment that exceeds the current standard level serves as validation of the energy performance improvements over the baseline level that are possible with these design options. However, DOE also realizes that no two manufacturers may necessarily use the same design option pathways to improve energy performance. As such, DOE notes that its engineering analyses represent just one potential pathway to achieve the efficiency levels modeled in downstream analyses.
In response to SVA and Crane's comments regarding current manufacturer use of lighting controls, energy management systems, and low power modes to meet or exceed current energy conservation standards, DOE acknowledges that energy management systems that cannot be altered by the operator are allowed to be enabled during testing according to the current DOE test procedure. However, the engineering analysis supporting the 2009 BVM final rule did not assume the use of any such energy management system in any of the design options analyzed or in the pathway to the adopted standard level (Chapter 5 of the 2009 BVM final rule TSD; Docket No. EERE-2006-STD-0125, No. 79). While manufacturers may elect to employ whatever mix of technology options they see fit, DOE's analyses from the 2009 rulemaking did not indicate that the use of energy management systems or low power modes would be required to meet the standard levels set forth in the 2009 BVM final rule. Similarly, in this NOPR, the baseline equipment performance assumes that all lighting and accessories are on for the duration of the test and no low power modes or energy management systems are enabled. As such, DOE believes that the baseline energy performance level is achievable without the use of any energy management systems and, thus, has included them as a design option for improving the efficiency of BVM equipment.
Additionally, AMS expressed concern that the MDEC requirement for Class B machines is easier to attain than the MDEC for Class A machines. (AMS, No. 29 at p. 2-3) DOE understands that Class A units experience different heat transfer profiles than comparably sized and equipped Class B units. However, DOE is directed to independently establish energy conservation standards that are technologically feasible and economically justified for each class of covered equipment. In the 2009 BVM final rule, DOE established standards for Class A and Class B equipment based on full and independent engineering and economic analyses of the baseline equipment configurations and design options available for each equipment class. In light of inputs obtained during that rulemaking and to date in the current rulemaking, DOE intends to preserve Class A and Class B as distinct classes with separate, independently determined standard levels.
DOE requests comment on whether equipment is tested with all lighting and accessories on for the duration of the test and no low power modes or energy management systems enabled (section VII.E of this NOPR).
DOE requests information on whether the current standard level for Class A and Class B machines is achievable without the use of any energy management systems (section VII.E of this NOPR).
At the time of this analysis, hydrofluorocarbon (HFC) refrigerants, and specifically R-134a, are used in most beverage vending machines on the market currently in the United States. In addition, based on equipment certification reports received by DOE, public statements from major end users of beverage vending machines such as Coca-Cola,
As discussed earlier, the refrigerants that are available for use in the U.S. refrigerated vending machine market are changing as a result of two recent rulemaking actions by EPA's SNAP. First, EPA published proposed Rule 19 (Docket No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2014-0198) on July 9, 2014, that proposed, among other things, to list several hydrocarbons—isobutane and propane—and the hydrocarbon blend R-441A as acceptable alternatives under SNAP in the BVM application, subject to certain use conditions. 79 FR 38811. A final rule adopting these proposals became effective on May 11, 2015, and was published in the
Due to the EPA SNAP rulemaking actions that were ongoing at the time of the preliminary analysis and to the small but growing prevalence of equipment using non-HFC refrigerants in the U.S. market, DOE received a number of stakeholder comments related to refrigerants in this rulemaking.
In comments in response to the preliminary analysis, NEEA drew DOE's attention to the ongoing
In a joint written submission, the Alliance to Save Energy, American Council for an Energy-Efficient Economy, Appliance Standard Awareness Project (ASAP), Natural Resources Defense Council, and NEEA (Joint Comment) stated that DOE should examine possible efficiency improvements from the use of hydrocarbon refrigerants (Joint Comment, No. 27 at p. 2). NAMA and AMS expressed concern about the cost of hydrocarbon refrigeration systems, as well as their performance and reliability. (NAMA, No. 32 at p. 2; AMS, No. 29 at p. 2)
Additionally, DOE received comments specific to the use of CO
In response to the comments from stakeholders and due to the changes in allowable refrigerants for BVM applications arising as a result of EPA SNAP Final Rule 20 (80 FR 42870, 42917-42920; July 20, 2015), DOE analyzed the performance of Class A, Class B, Combination A, and Combination B equipment utilizing CO
DOE notes that while CO
In the engineering analysis for this NOPR, DOE first conducted analysis for each equipment class based on equipment using R-134a refrigerant, the refrigerant found in the majority of equipment available today and therefore providing the most specific and comprehensive data available. DOE then conducted analysis on each equipment class, using CO
In conducting its CO
For propane equipment, DOE used a similar methodology to that applied for CO
Commensurate with NAMA and SVA's comments, DOE found in its analysis that, because of the decreased efficiency of CO
To refine its engineering analysis for beverage vending machines further, DOE requests comment and data from interested parties on several topics related to the refrigerants analyzed in the engineering analysis and their relative performance characteristics. Specifically, DOE requests information on the efficiency of CO
DOE requests comment on the conclusion that both the current standard level and all of the efficiency levels analyzed could be met by equipment using any refrigerant (section VII.E of this NOPR).
DOE requests information on the additional costs associated with CO
DOE requests comment and information on the use of propane, isobutane, and other hydrocarbon refrigerants in current commercially available BVM models or on significant research and development efforts on the part of domestic BVM manufacturers to commercialize this technology in the near future (section VII.E of this NOPR).
DOE requests comment on the likelihood of manufacturers using propane versus isobutane refrigerant since both have been added to the list of acceptable substitutes for use in BVM applications by EPA SNAP. If it is likely that isobutane would also be implemented in BVM applications, DOE requests similar information on the efficiency of isobutane compressors and additional costs associated with isobutane refrigeration systems, including but not limited to additional costs for the compressor, evaporator, condenser, and refrigerant tubing (section VII.E of this NOPR).
In response to the preliminary analysis, DOE received several comments with specific feedback regarding the design options analyzed. Specifically, SVA commented that the physical size constraint of certain evaporator fan applications did not allow for ECM motors, and NAMA stated that more insulation would make beverage vending machines larger and impact its market acceptance. (SVA, No. 33 at p. 40 and NAMA, No. 32 at p. 1) Additionally, AMS commented that additional insulation may be added to the beverage vending machines, but this would affect the size of machine, its product capacity, and market acceptance. (AMS, No. 29 at p. 2) SVA and NAMA commented that by 2019 all machines will have light-emitting diode (LED) lighting. (SVA, No. 33 at p. 88, NAMA, No. 32 at p. 2)
DOE based the specifications used in most of the design options for the engineering analysis on observations of what is currently in use in the market, including components and features incorporated by manufacturers of beverage vending machines as well as suppliers of those components. This information was gathered from the physical procurement and teardown of models and from confidential interviews conducted with manufacturers of beverage vending machines and other types of commercial refrigerated equipment. This methodology indicated that ECM evaporator motors are included in some Class A models currently produced. Additionally, DOE did not find there to be significant size differences between ECMs and other fan motor types.
In response to NAMA and AMS, DOE notes that the design options considered included the specifications for the foam insulation, which were 1 inch and 1.125 inches in the design options in the analysis. Both of these are commonly found insulation thicknesses in units being sold currently on the market, demonstrating in the market that these foam thicknesses are not prohibitive to implement.
DOE is aware of the increasing market share of beverage vending machines using LED lighting, and all of the standard levels proposed in this NOPR are at levels where the engineering analysis indicates LEDs will be a part of the least-cost path to achieving the proposed level. The comments by SVA and NAMA support this finding.
Regarding the concerns expressed by AMS over the levels of cost incurred by manufacturers in potentially improving the efficiency of combination vending machines, DOE is analyzing these machine types in parallel as a separate equipment class alongside the Class A and Class B equipment analyzed in this rulemaking. Any new standards for combination vending machines would only be promulgated after a thorough assessment of the costs and benefits to manufacturers, customers, and the nation, and would be set at a level deemed technologically feasible and economically justified. This will include an investigation of manufacturer product and capital conversion costs as part of the MIA.
In addition to these comments regarding the implementation of design options, DOE received comments regarding use of variable speed compressors, which were not analyzed in the engineering analysis for the preliminary analysis. In its written statement, the Joint Comment drew DOE's attention to Embraco, a manufacturer of variable speed compressors, and commented that DOE should incorporate variable speed compressors into their engineering analysis and refer to 2011 residential refrigerator rule for guidance. (Joint Comment, No. 27 at p. 1) ASAP also asked if DOE had considered variable speed compressors manufactured by Embraco. (ASAP, No. 33 at p. 31) AMS commented that fractional horsepower variable speed compressors were not available in the United States anymore since they have been made obsolete by the supplier. (AMS, No. 33 at p. 27)
DOE agrees with the Joint Comment that at least one variable speed compressor model with a suitable operating capacity range is available to BVM manufacturers. However, DOE is not aware of any beverage vending machines on the market or in prototype that use this or any other model of variable speed compressor. Additionally, in public comments and during manufacturer interviews, DOE was not provided any specific data on the performance or reliability of this technology were it to be implemented in beverage vending machines. In response to the comment regarding residential refrigerators, DOE agrees that the residential refrigerator rulemaking provides good guidance regarding the calculation of potential savings associated with the technology. However, DOE is concerned that the operating characteristics of beverage vending machines, including extended pull-down periods, may differ sufficiently from those experienced by other applications in which variable speed compressors have been effectively implemented. For this reason, DOE does not believe that the residential refrigerator experience provides adequate data regarding the potential energy impacts of variable speed compressors in BVM applications. Without application-specific energy and cost data for this technology in beverage vending machines or similar applications, DOE is not able to adequately predict the potential energy savings from such a technology and assess its cost-effectiveness against other design options. Additionally, DOE is not aware of any variable speed compressors using refrigerants allowable under the new EPA SNAP rules with operating capacity ranges nominally applicable to beverage vending machines.
DOE requests comment on whether the conversion to use of any alternative refrigerant may impact the availability or relevance of any design options currently observed in equipment on the market (section VII.E of this NOPR).
DOE requests data on the use of variable speed compressors in beverage vending machines (section VII.E of this NOPR).
In the previous stages of this rulemaking, DOE requested comment regarding the maximum technologically feasible level of performance attainable with technologies currently on the market. During the preliminary analysis, DOE reviewed a wide range of information sources from which to draw data on baseline and improved vending machine performance. DOE assembled this information into cost-efficiency curves extending from the baseline to max tech for each equipment class and configuration examined through the use of the design options listed in Table IV.3. DOE reviewed and revised these cost-efficiency curves in this NOPR based on feedback from interested parties and input from manufacturers provided during the course of manufacturer interviews. DOE believes that these cost-efficiency curves capture the feasible levels of equipment performance to the extent possible at this stage in the analysis.
In its engineering analysis, DOE estimates costs for manufacturers to produce equipment at the baseline and at increasingly higher levels of energy efficiency. In this NOPR, DOE based this manufacturer production cost model upon data from physical disassembly of units available on the market, corroborated with information from
DOE uses manufacturer-to-customer markups to convert the MSP estimates from the engineering analysis into customer purchase prices, which are subsequently used in the LCC and PBP analysis to evaluate how the increased cost of higher efficiency equipment compares to the annual and lifetime energy and operating cost savings resulting from such efficiency improvements. Accordingly, DOE estimates markups for baseline and all higher efficiency levels that are applied to the MSPs from the engineering analysis to obtain final customer purchase prices.
In order to develop markups, DOE identified distribution channels (
DOE identified three distribution channels, as described below:
(1) Equipment Manufacturer →Vending Machine Operator (
(2) Equipment Manufacturer →Distributor →Vending Machine Operator
(3) Equipment Manufacturer →Distributor →Site Owner
In the preliminary analysis public meeting, DOE was informed of an additional distribution channel wherein the equipment passes directly to large food service operators. (Crane Merchandising Systems, Public Meeting Transcript, No. 33 at pp. 63-64) DOE assumed that this distribution channel can be treated the same as the first distribution channel above, in which equipment goes directly from the manufacturer to the end user.
DOE requests comment on distribution channels for beverage vending machines (section VII.E of this NOPR).
The purpose of the energy use analysis is to establish an estimate of annual energy consumption (AEC) of beverage vending machines now and over the 30-year analysis period and to assess the energy-savings potential of different equipment efficiencies. DOE uses the resulting estimated AEC in the LCC and PBP analysis (section IV.F of this NOPR) to establish the customer operating cost savings of efficiency improvements considered. DOE also uses the estimate of energy use at the baseline and at higher levels of efficiency to estimate NES in the NIA (section IV.G of this NOPR).
The energy use analysis assessed the estimated AEC of a beverage vending machine as installed in the field. DOE recognizes that a variety of factors may affect the actual energy use of a beverage vending machine in the field, including ambient conditions, use and stocking profiles, and other factors. However, very limited data exist on field energy consumption of beverage vending machines. As such, in the energy use analysis DOE estimated that the DEC produced by the DOE test procedure is representative of the average daily energy consumption of that BVM unit in an indoor environment. However, for beverage vending machines installed outdoors, DOE developed a methodology to account for the impact of ambient conditions on the average AEC. Therefore, to model the AEC of each BVM unit, DOE separately estimated the energy use of equipment installed indoors and outdoors, to account for the impact of ambient temperature and relative humidity on field-installed BVM energy use.
As presented in the preliminary analysis, to determine AEC of BVM units installed indoors, DOE estimated that the DEC modeled in the engineering analysis and measured according to the DOE test procedure would be representative of the average energy consumption for that equipment every day of the year. Specifically, DOE believes beverage vending machines that are typically located inside industrial and commercial buildings are exposed to relatively constant temperature and relative humidity conditions throughout the year. DOE also believes that the nominal test conditions of (75 °F and 45 percent relative humidity) are sufficiently representative of conditioned spaces such that further adjustment of the tested energy consumption is not necessary for beverage vending machines located indoors.
To estimate the AEC from the DEC, DOE then multiplied the DEC values for a given BVM unit by 365 days per year. DOE estimated that Class A and Combination A beverage vending machines and a majority of Class B and Combination B beverage vending machines would all be installed inside.
However, DOE understands that some Class B and Combination B beverage vending machines are installed outdoors. Class B and Combination B beverage vending machines installed outdoors will be subject to potentially more variable ambient temperature and relative humidity conditions than BVM units installed indoors. These differences also vary depending on which climatic region the beverage vending machine is located.
During the 2009 BVM rulemaking, DOE modified its energy consumption model developed in the engineering analysis to reflect the equipment's thermal and compressor performance characteristics and to simulate the realistic performance of the machine exposed to varying temperature and relative humidity conditions (Chapter 7 of the 2009 BVM final rule TSD; Docket No. EERE-2006-STD-0125, No. 79). For the current analysis, DOE simplified its analysis by developing linear relationships between the modeled DEC as determined in accordance with the DOE test procedure and the AEC for Class B and Combination B beverage vending machines installed outdoors, as presented in the preliminary analysis. As such, DOE estimated the AEC of a given Class B or Combination B beverage vending machine installed outside by multiplying the DEC value by the linear equation determined from based on the 2009 BVM rulemaking analysis.
DOE estimated the fraction of Class B machines located in outdoor settings, based on publicly available data from college campuses,
DOE requests comment on the conclusion that data from college campuses are reasonably representative of BVM locations nationally and on their use in estimating the proportion of Class B and Combination B beverage vending machines installed outdoors (section VII.E of this NOPR).
DOE determined AEC estimates for each of the eight equipment class and refrigerant combinations modeled in the engineering analysis and presented in Table IV.4. That is, Class A, Class B, Combination A, and Combination B beverage vending machines were modeled individually for each of the two refrigerants used in these NOPR analyses: Propane (R-290) and CO
DOE's methodology for estimating the energy use of Class A, Class B, Combination A, and Combination B beverage vending machines is discussed in more detail in chapter 7 of the NOPR TSD. In the following paragraph, DOE responds to specific comments received by interested parties on the energy use methodology DOE developed in the preliminary analysis.
In response to the preliminary analysis, DOE received several comments regarding the prevalence of beverage vending machines installed outdoors. AMS and NAMA agreed that Class A machines are almost exclusively used indoors. (AMS, No. 29 at p. 4; NAMA, No. 32 at p. 5) AMS added that, although they produce Combination A machines that are rated for outdoor use, they acknowledge that this is a minor portion of shipments and should be considered negligible. (AMS, No. 29 at p. 4) Natural Resources Canada (NRCan) asked for the source of the 25 percent outdoor installations used in 2009 and if that information is more accurate than the 16 percent assumption used now. (NRCan, No. 33 at p. 81) NEEA was unsure if 16 percent of machines were really representative of outdoor use and whether using distributions from college campuses was representative. (NEEA, No. 33 at p. 71-72)
DOE appreciates the comments from AMS and NAMA corroborating DOE's assumptions regarding Class A and Combination A equipment. Based on these comments, DOE has continued to assume that all Class A and Combination A beverage vending machines are installed indoors in this NOPR analysis. In response to the comments from NRCan regarding the source of the percentage of Class B machines installed outdoors in the 2009 BVM rulemaking, DOE based that estimate on engineering judgment and requested comment from manufacturers on this assumption. 74 FR 44927 (August 31, 2009). No additional data were provided to inform this analysis, and as such, DOE concluded that the percentage of Class B machines installed outdoors was reasonably representative of BVM installations throughout the country.
In response to NEEA's comment, DOE estimated the fraction of Class B beverage vending machines installed outdoors based on data regarding the BVM locations and types of vending machines found at six colleges and universities around the country. These campuses are thought to be fairly representative of the general BVM population because they have a mix of building types that mirror some of the major markets for beverage vending machines, including retail, commercial lodging, offices, public assembly, and outdoor spaces (see chapter 7 in the TSD for a full discussion of the building types represented in the sample from college campuses). From this research, DOE determined that 16 percent of Class B beverage vending machines are installed outside and believes that this assumption is more reliable than the assumption of 25 percent used in the 2009 BVM final rule.
In the preliminary analysis, DOE developed state-level (including the District of Columbia) adjustment factors to determine the AEC of beverage vending machines located outdoors in different regions of the country. Such adjustment factors would make it possible for DOE to model variability in the percentage of beverage vending machines installed outdoors in different climates, if such data were available. In the preliminary analysis, DOE requested such data from interested parties. DOE received several comments regarding the use of adjustment factors to estimate the location-specific AEC for Class B and Combination B equipment in each state (including the District of Columbia) and DOE's request for additional data regarding the variability of equipment installed outdoors by state or climate region. NEEA asked how the adjustment factors were calculated and what they would be used for. (NEEA, No. 33 at p. 73-74) Southern California Edison (SCE) asked if the adjustment factor accounted for some of the accessories that may be left off by cold weather heaters. (SCE, No. 33 at p. 74-75) NEEA suggested that DOE consider that more product would be dispensed in warmer weather and that may have an impact on the adjustment as well. (NEEA, No. 33 at p. 77-78)
In response to NEEA's comment regarding the methodology used in developing the adjustment factors to determine the AEC by state, the adjustment factor for each state was determined by dividing the outdoor AEC for each state by the national average AEC reported in Tables 7.4.1 and 7.4.2 of the 2009 BVM final rule TSD. The adjustment factor was applied to the calculated average AEC of a given beverage vending machine, determined using the scaling factor described above to translate the tested DEC of a given BVM model to an AEC value. In the preliminary analysis, DOE intended to apply the adjustment factors to generate state-level estimates of energy use for outdoor equipment that reflect relative numbers of units installed outdoors by state. Such data could then be averaged based on population-weights to generate
This level of data specificity would be necessary to accommodate for regional or state-level variation in the installation of outdoor units. In the preliminary analysis, DOE requested comment on any regional variation in the incidence of BVM equipment installed outdoors, but did not receive any input or data from interested parties. DOE was also not able to identify any data that would support state-level or regional variation in the percentage of Class B and Combination B BVM units installed outdoors. As such, in the energy use analysis performed for this NOPR, DOE determined that there are insufficient data to support variations in outdoor installations in different climate areas and has assumed one nationally representative value. DOE thus believes that using state-level adjustment factors are not necessary and opted to use a national average AEC for outdoor equipment to simplify the analysis. This simplification does not affect the accuracy of the annual energy use results, since the adjustment factors were generated based on the national average AEC.
DOE requests comment on its decision to disregard the adjustment factors calculated in the preliminary analysis thereby simplifying the energy use analysis by using the national average AEC values (section VII.E of this NOPR).
In response to SCE's comment regarding the adjustment factor for accessories, such as cold weather heaters, DOE reiterates that these factors are based on modeling performed in support of the 2009 BVM final rule. In the 2009 BVM final rule, DOE did not model the energy use of cold weather heaters due to lack of information on their use and control and because they are not measured as part of the DOE test procedure rating. DOE had no data on how the energy use of these heaters would be impacted by the design options considered at each efficiency level. As such, DOE's analysis assumes that the incremental energy use of any electric resistance heating elements energized to prevent freezing in cold temperatures is not directly affected by improved efficiency levels considered by DOE in the BVM analysis and has not been considered in the analysis.
DOE lacks sufficient data to consider the incidence of cold weather heaters in the energy use analysis or control methodologies for this technology. DOE notes that, potentially, not all beverage vending machines installed outdoors in climates experiencing extended periods below 32 °F outside would include such a feature, as some Class B and Combination B beverage vending machines installed outdoors may be moved inside during cold-weather periods. In addition, even based on conservative assumptions regarding the likely use of electric heaters in beverage vending machines installed outdoors, the energy use of cold weather heaters in outdoor Class B and Combination B equipment would be small compared to the annual energy use of the machine. As such, DOE believes that accounting for the energy use of cold weather heaters in the energy use analysis would not significantly impact the national average energy consumption values used in the LCC and downstream analyses. Since DOE lacks sufficient data on which to base assumptions regarding representative control strategies and operational characteristics of such BVM accessories, and because DOE believes the impact of any such heaters on the national average energy consumption values would be small, DOE elected to continue to use the unmodified regression developed in the preliminary analysis, which does not account for the energy use of cold weather heaters, to estimate the national average AEC of outdoor Class B and Combination B equipment.
DOE requests comment regarding whether the analysis should account for the impact of any incremental energy use associated with cold weather heaters on the national average energy consumption of Class B and Combination B equipment (section VII.E of this NOPR). If so, DOE also requests data on the incidence and control methodology of cold weather heaters in BVM equipment installed in cold climates (section VII.E of this NOPR).
Regarding NEEA's comment that variables such as purchasing patterns may vary seasonally and impact energy use, DOE did not account for such influences since there are no robust data regarding how increased equipment usage increases energy use above the tested value or the extent of changes in number or frequency of purchases in different climatic conditions. As such, DOE continues to estimate that the energy use of the beverage vending machines as tested in accordance with the DOE test procedure is reasonably representative of equipment energy usage in the field for indoor installations, and has applied the climate based scaling factors as described to estimate outdoor annual energy use.
DOE also acknowledges that most beverage vending machines are located inside conditioned spaces and will add to the building cooling load in the summer and reduce the building heating load in the winter. However, DOE notes that in its energy use analysis, DOE is most interested in the incremental improvements in energy consumption achieved by different design options and not the entire heat load contributed by a beverage vending machine. Based on similar analysis performed on self-contained commercial refrigeration equipment in support of recently published amended energy conservation standards for commercial refrigeration equipment, DOE believes that the net effect of these impacts are fairly modest in most cases. 78 FR 55890, 55926 (September 11, 2013). DOE also believes that the added complexity of determining the overall impact on building space-conditioning loads is not justified given the variety of building types, BVM locations (
DOE requests comment on the energy use analysis methodology used to estimate the AEC of Class A, Class B, Combination A, and Combination B beverage vending machines located indoors and outdoors, as applicable (section VII.E of this NOPR).
DOE requests comment on any other variables DOE should account for in its estimate of national average energy use for beverage vending machines (section VII.E of this NOPR).
New or amended energy conservation standards usually decrease equipment operating expenses and increase the initial installed price. DOE analyzes the net effect of new or amended standards on customers by evaluating the net LCC. To evaluate the net LCC, DOE uses the cost-efficiency relationship derived in the engineering analysis and the energy costs derived from the energy use analysis. Inputs to the LCC calculation include the installed cost of equipment to the customer (customer purchase price plus installation cost), operating expenses (energy expenses and maintenance and repair costs), the lifetime of the unit, and a discount rate.
Because the installed cost of equipment typically increases while operating costs typically decrease under new standards, there is a time in the life of equipment having higher-than-baseline efficiency when the net operating-cost benefit (in dollars) since the time of purchase is equal to the incremental first cost of purchasing the equipment. The time required for
DOE uses Monte Carlo simulation and probability distributions to incorporate uncertainty and variability in the LCC and PBP analysis. DOE used Microsoft Excel combined with Crystal Ball
DOE determined several input values for the LCC and PBP analysis including (1) customer purchase prices; (2) electricity prices; (3) maintenance, service, and installation costs; (4) equipment lifetimes; (5) discount rates; (6) equipment efficiency in the no-new-standards case; and (7) split incentives. The approach and data DOE used to derive these input values are described below.
DOE multiplied the MSPs estimated in the engineering analysis by the supply-chain markups to calculate customer purchase prices for the LCC and PBP analysis. DOE determined, on average, 15 percent of this equipment passes through a distributor or wholesaler, and 85 percent of the equipment is sold by a manufacturer directly to the end user. In the LCC and PBP analysis, approximately 15 percent of the Monte Carlo iterations include a distributor or wholesaler markup, while 85 percent of the iterations use a markup factor of 1.0, indicative of no additional markup on top of the MSPs (besides sales tax).
DOE developed a projection of price trends for beverage vending machines in the preliminary analysis that, based on historical price trends, projected the MSP to decline by 1 percent from the 2014 MSP estimates through the 2019 assumed compliance date of new or amended standards. The preliminary analysis also projects an approximately 40 percent decline from the MSP values estimated in 2013 to the end of the 30-year NIA analysis period used in the NOPR.
DOE received comments from stakeholders regarding the price learning in the life-cycle cost analysis. AMS disagreed with the current price trend because the impacts of the EPA SNAP program are not able to be included in the calculations. (AMS, No. 29 at p. 4) SVA commented that DOE should consider price trend differences between Class A glass front beverage vending machines and conventional (Class B) beverage vending machines. (SVA, No. 30 at p. 2) Advocates commented that price trends as used in the preliminary analysis are sufficient and that prices for overall BVM units are not likely to decline as quickly as LED and accessory prices. (Joint Comment, No. 27 at p. 2)
DOE acknowledges the Advocates' comment supporting price trends. Regarding AMS's comment concerning the impact of SNAP on price trends of BVM equipment, DOE's analysis accounts for the impact of the SNAP rules on the U.S. beverage vending machine market.
DOE re-examined the data available and updated the price trend analysis for this NOPR analysis. DOE continued to use the automatic merchandising machines PPI but included historical shipments data from the U.S. Census Bureau's Current Industrial Reports to examine the decline in inflation adjusted PPI as a function of cumulative beverage vending machine shipments. Using these data for the beverage vending machines price trends analysis and DOE's projections for future shipments yields a price decline of roughly 10 percent over the period of 2014 through 2048. For the LCC model, between 2014 and 2019, the price decline is 1 percent. DOE used this revised price trend in the NOPR analysis, which reflects analytical techniques more consistent with the methodology DOE has preferentially used for other appliances. See appendix 8C of the TSD for further details on the price learning analysis.
DOE derived electricity prices from the EIA energy price data for regional average energy price data for the commercial and industrial sectors (manufacturing facilities). DOE used projections of these energy prices for commercial and industrial customers to estimate future energy prices in the LCC and PBP analysis. EIA's Annual Energy Outlook 2014 (
DOE developed estimates of commercial and industrial electricity prices for each state and the District of Columbia. DOE derived average regional energy prices from data that are published annually based on EIA Form 826. DOE then used EIA's
DOE considered any expected changes to maintenance, repair, and installation costs for the beverage vending machines covered in this rulemaking. Typically, small incremental changes in equipment efficiency incur little or no changes in repair and maintenance costs over baseline equipment. The repair cost is the cost to the customer for replacing or repairing components in the BVM equipment that have failed. The maintenance cost is the cost to the customer of maintaining equipment operation. There is a greater probability that equipment with efficiencies that are significantly higher than the baseline will incur increased repair and maintenance costs, as such equipment is more likely to incorporate technologies that are not widely available or are less reliable than conventional, baseline technologies.
DOE based repair costs for baseline equipment on data in a Foster-Miller Inc.
In the 2009 BVM rulemaking, DOE assumed that more-efficient beverage vending machines would not incur increased installation costs. Further, DOE did not find evidence of a change in repair or maintenance costs by efficiency level with the exception of repair cost decreases for efficiency levels that used LED lighting.
NAMA commented that more efficient equipment uses newer, more expensive technology with no proven track record and, as such, higher efficiency levels will yield higher repair costs. (NAMA, No. 32 at p. 3) DOE also received comment that different refrigerants might have different maintenance costs. (SCE, Public Meeting Transcript, No. 33 at p. 93)
DOE has not included different installation, maintenance, and repair costs for equipment with greater efficiency than the baseline efficiency models given the uncertainty of whether costs might actually increase or decrease with more efficient equipment. DOE has no information to suggest that maintenance costs vary with efficiency. DOE's repair costs are based on the annualized repair cost for baseline equipment from data in the Foster-Miller Inc. 2002 report,
Regarding SCE's comment that refrigerants might have different maintenance and repair costs, DOE accounted for this by applying the same assumptions regarding increased cost of refrigeration system components used in the engineering analysis (see chapter 5 of the TSD) to the refrigeration system components and costs from the Foster Miller report. Specifically, DOE assumed that CO
DOE requests comment on the maintenance and repair costs modeled in the LCC analysis and especially appreciates additional data regarding differences in maintenance or repair costs that vary as a function of refrigerant, equipment class, or efficiency level (section VII.E of this NOPR).
DOE used information from various literature sources and input from manufacturers and other interested parties to establish average equipment lifetimes for use in the LCC and subsequent analyses. The 2009 final rule assumed that average BVM lifetime is 10 years. 74 FR 44914, 44927 (August 31, 2009). For this NOPR, a longer average lifetime of 13.5 years is assumed based on refurbishments occurring twice during the life of the equipment at an interval of 4.5 years. This estimate is based on a 2010 ENERGY STAR webinar,
In the preliminary analysis stage in the rulemaking, DOE received comments about equipment lifetimes. NEEA requested confirmation that refurbishments are included in maintenance and repair costs. (NEEA No. 33 at p. 116) NEEA requested clarification on when DOE was accounting for refurbishments in their analysis. (NEEA, No. 33 at p. 108) AMS agreed that the lifetime estimations presented are a reasonable approximation of real-world BVM lifetimes. AMS also stated that they believe the efficiency level will have an impact on BVM lifetimes. AMS believes that designs for higher efficiency include technologies that are less mature and would likely lower the lifetimes of the equipment until these technologies are more mature. (AMS, No. 29 at p.5)
As discussed in section IV.F.3 of this NOPR, refurbishment costs are included in the maintenance costs, and a discussion of how maintenance and repair costs are derived is in chapter 8 of the NOPR TSD. DOE acknowledges AMS's comment regarding efficiency levels' potential impact on BVM lifetimes. However, without reliable data, DOE did not have justification to establish different lifetimes based on the considered efficiency levels. DOE believes a lifetime of 13.5 years across efficiency levels is a representative lifetime assumption for beverage vending machines. DOE used this assumption in its analysis for this NOPR.
DOE notes that assumptions regarding equipment lifetime and refurbishment cycles also affect DOE's shipments model, which is discussed in section IV.G.1 of this NOPR.
DOE requests comment on the assumed lifetime of beverage vending machines and if the lifetime of beverage vending machines is likely to be longer or shorter in the future (section VII.E of this NOPR).
DOE requests comment on its assumption that a beverage vending machine will typically undergo two
DOE requests further input or evidence regarding any technology options considered that would be expected to reduce overall equipment lifetimes and if so, by how much (section VII.E of this NOPR).
DOE developed discount rates by estimating the average cost of capital to companies that purchase beverage vending machines covered under this rulemaking. DOE commonly uses the cost of capital to estimate the present value of cash flows to be derived from a typical company project or investment. Most companies use both debt and equity capital to fund investments, so the cost of capital is the weighted-average cost to the firm of equity and debt financing.
To accurately analyze the incremental costs and benefits of the proposed standard levels, DOE's analyses consider the projected distribution of equipment efficiencies in the no-new-standards case (the case without new energy efficiency standards). That is, DOE calculates the percentage of customers who would be affected by a standard at a particular efficiency level (in the LCC and PBP analysis, discussed in this section IV.F), as well as the national benefits (in the NIA, discussed in section IV.G) and impacts on manufacturers (in the MIA, discussed in section IV.I) recognizing that a range of efficiencies currently exist in the market place for beverage vending machines and will continue to exist in the no-new-standards case.
To estimate the efficiency distributions for each equipment class, DOE relied on all publicly available energy use data. Specifically, the market efficiency distribution was determined separately for each equipment class and for each refrigerant. For equipment for which certification information was available in the DOE certification
For Class A and Class B equipment that is not represented in DOE's combined BVM models database (Class A CO
DOE requests comment on its assumption that all baseline Class A and Class B propane and Class A CO
For Combination A and Combination B beverage vending machines, DOE notes that very little data exist regarding the efficiency distribution of such equipment. However, DOE has observed that all manufacturers of Combination A and Combination B equipment also produce Class A and/or Class B equipment. Therefore, based on the same analysis methodology used for Class A and Class B propane equipment and Class A CO
To project this efficiency distribution over the analysis time frame in the no-new-standard case, DOE assumed that the efficiency distribution that currently exists in the market would be maintained over the analysis period (2019-2048). Chapter 8 of this NOPR TSD provides more detail about DOE's approach to developing no-new-standards case efficiency distributions.
DOE requests comment on its assumption that Combination A and Combination B beverage vending machines have efficiency distributions similar to Class A and Class B equipment because manufacturers will use the same cabinet and similar components in the combination machines as the conventional Class A and Class B equipment (section VII.E of this NOPR).
In the preliminary analysis stage of this rulemaking, DOE received several comments regarding the efficiency distribution of BVM equipment and underlying data. AMS disagreed with the current approach to estimate the efficiencies of equipment shipments because of the impact of the EPA SNAP program and the optimistic assumption of 93 percent Energy Star compliance. AMS also stated that since combination machines are not subject to DOE rules, shipments of combination machines with operating efficiencies less than EL0
In response to AMS's comment regarding the impact of EPA's SNAP on ENERGY STAR compliance, DOE notes that it independently developed efficiency distributions for each equipment class and refrigerant. As stated previously, for Class A CO
Regarding the efficiency distribution of combination machines, as stated above, DOE assumed that combination vending machines enter the market at efficiency levels similar to, but slightly less than, the comparable Class A and Class B efficiency distributions. In response to AMS's comment, each efficiency level is uniquely defined for each equipment class and EL0 represents the baseline efficiency for Combination A and Combination B equipment. DOE acknowledges that Combination A and Combination B equipment classes may be less efficient than Class A and B equipment because these classes have not previously been subject to standards. Therefore, DOE designed the EL0 level for these classes to reflect the minimum efficiency combination equipment that may currently exist in the market. Based on the definition of EL0 as the baseline or minimum efficiency for each equipment class, it is not possible for equipment to have lower efficiency than the baseline. See chapter 5 of the NOPR TSD for a discussion of the technology options that define the baseline Combination A and B equipment, which define EL0.
In response to SVA's comment regarding the accuracy of the ENERGY STAR and CCMS data for Class A and Class B equipment, DOE acknowledges that currently manufacturers can utilize certain types of lighting controls within the ENERGY STAR and CCMS testing databases that comply with the DOE test procedure for beverage vending machines at 10 CFR 431.294. Specifically, ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2010, which is currently incorporated by reference in the DOE test procedure, specifies that machines may be tested with energy management controls that are “permanently operational and not capable of being adjusted by a machine operator” operable. However, in absence of other information, DOE decided to continue using the ENERGY STAR and CCMS data to develop no-new-standards case efficiency levels. DOE notes that the recently published 2015 BVM test procedure final rule adopted a new Appendix A that contains the test procedure that should currently be used to certify equipment with existing energy conservation standards. Several clarifications were adopted in Appendix A, including the specification that, while energy management systems that cannot be adjusted by the machine operator may be employed, all lighting is to be illuminated to the maximum extent throughout the test. DOE notes that such treatment may be different than SVA's interpretation of the test procedure at the time of commenting, as SVA submitted their comment prior to the publication of the test procedure final rule.
DOE acknowledges that in most cases the purchasers of beverage vending machines (a bottler or a vending services company) do not pay the energy costs for operation and thus would not directly reap any energy cost savings from more-efficient equipment. However, DOE believes that BVM owners would seek to pass on higher equipment costs to the users who pay the energy costs, if possible. DOE understands that the BVM owner typically has a financial arrangement with the company or institution on whose premises the beverage vending machine is located, in which the latter may pay a fee or receive a share of the revenue from the beverage vending machine. Thus, DOE expects that BVM owners could modify the arrangement to effectively pass on higher equipment costs. Therefore, DOE's LCC and PBP analysis uses the perspective that the company or institution on whose premises the beverage vending machine is located pays the higher equipment cost and receives the energy cost savings. DOE acknowledges that there is uncertainty about the pass-through of higher equipment costs, and thus it requests comments concerning the extent to which such pass-through occurs in the BVM market.
DOE also received comments about the split incentives used in the LCC analysis in the preliminary analysis stage of the rulemaking. AMS commented that it has no direct knowledge of the financial arrangements between BVM owners and the party that pays for the energy costs and whether increased costs can be passed to the party that pays the energy costs. (AMS, No. 29 at p. 5) SVA commented that additional equipment costs would not be passed along to those who pay the energy costs. (SVA, No. 30 at p. 2) NEEA commented that it was aware of one large bottler that passes the electricity cost directly through the vended product. (NEEA, Public Meeting Transcript, No. 33 at p. 97)
DOE acknowledges the comments regarding whether energy costs are passed onto the beverage vending machine owners, but given the uncertainty on the subject and absence of better information, DOE believes that its approach is reasonable to apply.
The NIA assesses the NES and the NPV from a national perspective of total customer costs and savings expected to result from new or amended energy conservation standards at specific efficiency levels (
DOE evaluates the impacts of new and amended standards by comparing base-case without such standards with standards-case projections. The no-new-standards case characterizes energy use and customer costs for each equipment class in the absence of any amended energy conservation standards. DOE compares these no-new-standards case projections with projections characterizing the market for each equipment class if DOE adopted the new and amended standards at each TSL. For the standards cases, DOE assumed a “roll-up” scenario in which equipment at efficiency levels that do not meet the standard level under consideration would “roll up” to the efficiency level that just meets the proposed standard level, and equipment already being purchased at efficiency levels at or above the proposed standard level would remain unaffected.
DOE uses a spreadsheet model to calculate the energy savings and the
For the current analysis, the NIA used projections of energy price trends from the
A detailed description of the procedure to calculate NES and NPV and inputs for this analysis are provided in chapter 10 of the NOPR TSD.
DOE uses forecasts of annual product shipments to calculate the national impacts of standards (NES and NPV) and to calculate the future cash flows of manufacturers.
In the preliminary analysis, DOE estimated that the current stock of units installed in the field is 2.6 million. While it is true that new geographical locations may add vending machines to the current stock, DOE stated that many places are removing vending machines, and as such, that total stock will continue to decline. In the preliminary analysis, DOE used publicly available reports from ENERGY STAR on the market penetration of ENERGY STAR qualified machines to estimate total sales from 2005 to 2012. These reports indicated that shipments of new equipment have remained stagnant at approximately 100,000, and DOE assumed this would continue into the future. Therefore, in the preliminary analysis, DOE estimated that the total stock of beverage vending machines would decline to 1.51 million by 2019, and then stabilize at around 1.45 million through to 2050. DOE also estimated that all new shipments of BVM units were to replace existing equipment at the end of its useful life, consistent with the assumption of declining stock and the fact that the number of retiring units far exceeds units shipped.
SVA commented that DOE's shipments assumptions are too high. Sanden estimated that shipments are closer to 35,000 units a year and have been decreasing the past 7 years. (SVA, No. 30 at p. 3) An unidentified commenter during the public meeting stated that DOE's estimate of 100,000 shipments is too high. (Public Meeting Transcript, No. 33 at p. 107) In discussion of shipments, AMS stated that their equipment would all be classified as size Medium Class A and their combination machines would be classified in the small volume category. (AMS, No. 29 at p. 4)
DOE revised its shipments estimate in the NOPR analysis based on available information and estimates provided by manufacturers in response to the preliminary analysis phase of this rulemaking through the manufacturer interview process (see section IV.I.3 of this NOPR) to 45,000 new shipments per year in 2014. DOE modeled historical shipments for the period between 2006 and 2014 by assuming shipments of beverage vending machines decreased linearly from approximately 100,000 units per year, which was assumed in the 2009 BVM final rule (74 FR 44914, 44928, (August 31, 2009)) to 45,000 units per year. Based on these shipments, by 2014, the estimated stock has dropped from approximately 3M to 2.2M units surviving. DOE notes that if shipments were maintained around 45,000 units per year over the 30-year analysis period, this would result in a dramatic decline in overall stock of beverage vending machines in the United States and would reflect many current BVM owners removing BVM units from the marketplace permanently. Specifically, constant shipments of 45,000 would result in an 80 percent permanent reduction in BVM stock to approximately 600,000 units starting around 2030. Such a scenario would represent a significant change in the availability of vending machines in the nation and viability of the BVM industry, and DOE has not been able to identify any literature, data, or information that would support such a drastic change in the distribution of BVM units in the United States. As noted in chapter 9 of the preliminary analysis TSD, DOE referenced any available market literature as well as information regarding trends to limit availability of sugary beverages and snack food, particularly in schools, but notes that such information is extremely limited. DOE also notes that the types of vended products available in beverage vending machines are not limited to soda or other sugary beverages and that sales of water, energy drinks, and sports drinks have been increasing over the past several years.
For the shipments model in this NOPR, DOE increased the historical shipments values between 1998 and 2006 by 18 percent to reflect the fact that the 2009 BVM final rule shipments model addresses only Class A and Class B equipment, not combination equipment. DOE estimates that combination machines represent 18 percent of total beverage vending machine shipments, as discussed further in section IV.G.1.a. Increasing the shipments and stock of beverage vending machines assumed in the 2009 BVM final rule resulted in a stock of 3.1 M BVM units in the United States in 2006. Between 2006 and 2014 DOE estimated that, consistent with SVA's observation that shipments have been declining over the past several years, shipments declined linearly from 118,000 in 2006 to 45,000 in 2014. Based on these shipments, by 2014, the estimated stock has dropped to 2.2M units surviving in 2014.
DOE modeled future shipments of new beverage vending machines from 2014-2048 based on data from Vending Times Census of the Industry 2014
For more information on DOE's shipments estimates, the shipments analysis assumptions, and details on the calculation methodology, refer to chapter 9 of the NOPR TSD.
DOE requests comment on its assumptions regarding historical shipments between 1998 and 2014 (section VII.E of this NOPR). DOE also requests data from manufacturers on historical shipments, by equipment class, size, and efficiency level, for as many years as possible, ideally beginning in 1998 until the present (section VII.E of this NOPR).
DOE requests comment on its assumptions regarding future shipments. Specifically, DOE requests comment on the stock of BVM units likely to be available in the United States or in particular commercial and industrial building sectors over time (section VII.E of this NOPR). DOE also requests comment on the number of beverage vending machines that are typically installed in each location or building in each industry and if this is likely to increase or decrease over time (section VII.E of this NOPR).
DOE requests comment on its assumptions regarding likely reduction in stock in different commercial and industrial building sectors in which beverage vending machines are typically installed (section VII.E of this NOPR). DOE also requests comment on other factors that might be influencing an overall reduction in BVM stock and if this trend is likely to continue over time (section VII.E of this NOPR).
In this shipments analysis, DOE assumed that the lifetimes of beverage vending machines will remain constant over the 30-year analysis period. However, DOE notes that the number of refurbishments a piece of equipment undergoes and its approximate lifetime will impact its persistence in the market and the need for new units to replace retiring old stock.
DOE also notes that changes in the availability of new refrigerants and limitation of certain other refrigerants for BVM applications may impact the overall BVM market in the United States and, specifically, the future shipments of new beverage vending machines through 2048. However, DOE has no data on which to base any assumptions regarding how changes in refrigerant availability would impact shipments now or in the future. However, DOE notes that it does not expect the specific refrigerant used in a given beverage vending machine to impact demand for beverage vending machines and overall equipment stocks over time. As such, DOE maintains that the historical Vending Times data and stock-based analysis approach that DOE employed to develop shipment assumptions for this NOPR are appropriate and represent the best available information about future shipments of beverage vending machines.
DOE requests comment on the impact of the EPA SNAP rules on future shipments of beverage vending machines, by equipment class, refrigerant, and efficiency level (section VII.E of this NOPR).
Given a total volume of shipments, DOE estimates the shipments of each equipment class based on the estimated market share of each equipment class. In the preliminary analysis, DOE assumed that 98 percent of shipments were Class A and Class B, split equally between these two classes, and that Combination A and Combination B each represented 1 percent of the total BVM market.
In response to the preliminary analysis, NAMA commented that almost all shipments by their members are
DOE received comments regarding shipments of combination machines. AMS produces machines that would be classified as Combination A, but cannot comment on the market share of their shipments. (AMS, No. 29 at p. 6) SVA commented that it does not manufacture combination machines, but believes that 25 percent is a high number of combination machines in the market relative to bottle vending machines. (SandenVendo, No. 33 at p. 68)
DOE agrees with commenters that the market share of Class A equipment is quite large and possibly larger than Class B. Based on the comments made in response to the preliminary analysis and additional quantitative information provided during manufacturer interviews (see section IV.I.3 of this NOPR), DOE revised the market share assigned to each of the equipment classes, as shown in Table IV.6.
In this NOPR analysis, DOE tentatively assumed that the market share for each equipment class was maintained over the 30-year analysis period and did not change as a function of standard level or as a function of changes in refrigerant availability resulting from the two recent EPA SNAP rulemakings. 80 FR 19454, 19491 (April 10, 2015) and 80 FR 42870, 42917-42920 (July 20, 2015). That is, in 2048, Class A, Class B, Combination A, and Combination B continued to represent 54.3, 27.7, 9.3, and 8.7 percent of the market, respectively. DOE made this assumption because it does not have data or information to suggest that the relative shipments of different equipment classes would change over time and, if so, in what direction and on what basis.
In response to SVA's comment, DOE notes that in the preliminary analysis the market share of Combination A and Combination B machines was only 2 percent and, in the NOPR analysis it has been revised to 18 percent based on input manufacturers provided during the manufacturer interviews (see section IV.I.3 of this NOPR).
Once DOE has defined shipments by equipment class, DOE also defines the shipments within each equipment class by refrigerant. In the preliminary analysis, DOE assumed a shipments scenario through 2048 in the absence of any changes in refrigerant availability that would result from the promulgation of final rules under EPA's SNAP program, which proposed to change the status of R-134a to unacceptable, and proposed to list propane as acceptable for BVM applications. 79 FR 46126 (August 6, 2014); 79 FR 38811 (July 9, 2014).
In response, DOE received comments about shipments of CO
In this NOPR analysis, DOE revised the assumptions regarding the relative shipments of each refrigerant based on recent regulatory actions under EPA's SNAP program, which listed propane and other hydrocarbon refrigerants as acceptable for BVM applications (80 FR 19454, 19491(April 10, 2015)) and changed the status of the industry-standard refrigerant R-134a to unacceptable beginning on January 1, 2019 (80 FR 42870, 42917-42920; July 20, 2015). Specifically, in this NOPR DOE modeled a shipments scenario assuming that all shipments of new BVM equipment would use CO
Given the greater market experience with CO
However, DOE acknowledges that propane-based BVM models have only very recently become authorized under SNAP and that there is much more limited industry experience with this refrigerant. DOE has based this NOPR analysis on the use of propane as an alternative refrigerant, in addition to CO
DOE's shipments analysis and assumptions are discussed in more detail in chapter 9 of the NOPR TSD.
DOE requests comment on its assumptions regarding the relative market share of each refrigerant by equipment class (section VII.E of this NOPR).
DOE recognizes that there is a considerable amount of uncertainty associated with forecasting future shipments of beverage vending machines. As such, in addition to the primary shipments scenario presented above, DOE also estimated low and high shipments scenarios as sensitivities on the primary scenario. The low and high shipments scenarios include the same assumptions regarding market share by equipment class and refrigerant, which is that just the magnitude of total shipments of new beverage vending machines is varied among the scenarios. Specifically, for the low shipments scenario, DOE assumed that shipments declined to 45,000, as suggested by manufacturers, but recover only to 100,000 shipments per year and result in a stock of 1.3 M at the end of the analysis period. This is in contrast to the primary shipments scenario, in which shipments recover past 100,000 BVM units per year and contribute to an overall BVM stock of 1.8 M BVM units at the end of the analysis period. Under the low shipments scenario, the surviving stock of beverage vending machines is 1.34 M BVM units, a 40 percent reduction in units installed in the United States. Conversely, the high shipments scenario assumes the same overall decline in stock assumed in the primary shipment case; that is, a stock of 1.8 M BVM units in 2048. However, the high shipments scenario assumes that shipments recover more quickly than in the primary shipments case. The high shipments scenario assumes shipments of new beverage vending machines recover over the next 10 years and are maintained at approximately 135,000 new BVM units per year from 2024 through 2048. While the high shipments scenario reflects the same stock estimate as the primary shipments scenario in 2048, because the high shipments scenario assumes a faster recovery of shipments; approximately 33 percent more BVM units are shipped between 2019 and 2048 than under the primary shipments scenario. These two sensitivity scenarios are discussed in more detail in chapter 9 of the NOPR TSD.
DOE requests comment on the high and low shipments scenarios (section VII.E of this NOPR).
A key component of DOE's NIA is the energy efficiencies forecasted over time for the no-new-standards case (without new standards) and each of the standards cases. The forecasted efficiencies represent the annual shipment-weighted energy efficiency of the equipment under consideration during the forecast period (
As discussed above, DOE developed a distribution of efficiencies in the no-new-standards case for the assumed compliance year of new standards for each BVM equipment class. Because no information was available to suggest a different trend, DOE assumed that the efficiency distribution in the no-new-standards case would remain the same in future years. In each standards case, a “roll-up” scenario approach was applied to establish the efficiency distribution for the compliance year. Under the “roll-up” scenario, DOE assumed: (1) Equipment efficiencies in the no-new-standards case that do not meet the standard level under consideration would “roll-up” to meet the new standard level; and (2) equipment efficiencies above the standard level under consideration would not be affected. The “roll-up” was a more conservative approach over the “market shift” approach. In a market shift approach it is assumed that a given number of customers will prefer to buy equipment above the baseline. Therefore, in a standards case scenario customers will continue to purchase above the new baseline by shifting to an efficiency level that keeps their purchase the same number of efficiency levels above the new baseline until they no longer can do so because the market becomes compressed by the maximum available efficiency level.
DOE received comments during the preliminary analysis regarding the NIA analysis. Sanden commented that energy consumption levels will increase as new interactive technologies are used in beverage vending machines. (SVA, No. 30 at p. 3) NEEA commented that a company may decide to move from the baseline to EL4 not the next EL that minimizes costs. (NEEA No. 33 at p. 117)
DOE acknowledges the comments on forecasted efficiency distributions and that customers may choose to skip efficiency levels; however, without better information DOE chose to stay with the more conservative approach of rolling up to the next efficiency level to minimize costs, which is consistent with expected business behavior in competitive markets. In response to SVA's comments, DOE also acknowledges that customers may be influenced by a variety of factors that would prevent them from simply shifting their purchasing behavior to an energy efficiency level equivalently higher than the new standard-level equipment due to the increased availability of beverage vending machines with new customer interactive technologies, such as digital graphics display screens, that increase the energy consumption of BVM models compared to units without such screens.
DOE also recognizes that recent changes in refrigerant availability resulting from the two recent EPA SNAP rulemakings may have an impact on forecasted efficiency distributions under the no-new-standards case. 80 FR 19454, 19491 (April 10, 2015) and 80 FR 42870, 42917-42920 (July 20, 2015). However, DOE did not account for such in this NOPR analysis, as DOE does not have data or information to suggest how efficiency distributions of different equipment classes or refrigerants would change over time and, if so, in what direction and on what basis as a result of these changes.
DOE requests comment on the impact of the recent EPA SNAP rulemakings changing the availability of certain refrigerants for the BVM application on future efficiency distributions (section VII.E of this NOPR).
The inputs for determining the NES are: (1) Annual energy consumption per unit; (2) shipments; (3) product or equipment stock; (4) national energy consumption; and (5) site-to-source conversion factors. As discussed in the energy use analysis, DOE calculated the national energy consumption by multiplying the number of units (stock) of each type of equipment (by vintage or age) by the unit energy consumption (also by vintage). Vintage represents the age of the equipment.
DOE calculated annual NES based on the difference in national energy consumption for the no-new-standards case (without new efficiency standards) and for each higher efficiency standard.
DOE uses a multiplicative factor called “site-to-source conversion factor” to convert site energy consumption (at the commercial building) into primary or source energy consumption (the energy input at the energy generation station required to convert and deliver the energy required at the site of consumption). These site-to-source conversion factors account for the energy used at power plants to generate electricity and for the losses in transmission and distribution, as well as for natural gas losses from pipeline leakage and energy used for pumping. For electricity, the conversion factors vary over time due to projected changes in generation sources (that is, the power plant types projected to provide electricity to the country). The factors that DOE developed are marginal values, which represent the response of the system to an incremental decrease in consumption associated with amended energy conservation standards.
For this NOPR, DOE used conversion factors based on the U.S. energy sector modeling using the National Energy Modeling System (NEMS) Building Technologies (NEMS-BT) version that corresponds to
DOE has historically presented NES in terms of primary energy savings. On August 18, 2011, DOE published a final statement of policy in the
The approach used for this NOPR, and the FFC multipliers that were applied, are described in appendix 10D of the TSD. NES results are presented in both primary and in terms of FFC savings; the savings by TSL are summarized in terms of FFC savings in section I.C of this NOPR.
The inputs for determining NPV are: (1) Total annual installed cost, (2) total annual savings in operating costs, (3) a discount factor to calculate the present value of costs and savings, (4) present value of costs, and (5) present value of savings. DOE calculated the net savings for each year as the difference between the no-new-standards case and each standards case in terms of total savings in operating costs versus total increases in installed costs. DOE calculated savings over the lifetime of equipment shipped in the forecast period. DOE calculated NPV as the difference between the present value of operating cost savings and the present value of total installed costs.
For the NPV analysis, DOE calculates increases in total installed costs as the difference in total installed cost between the no-new-standards case and standards case (
DOE expresses savings in operating costs as decreases associated with the lower energy consumption of equipment bought in the standards case compared to the no-new-standards case. Total savings in operating costs are the product of savings per unit and the number of units of each vintage that survive in a given year.
DOE multiplied monetary values in future years by the discount factor to determine the present value of costs and savings. DOE estimates the NPV of customer benefits using both a 3-percent and a 7-percent real discount rate as the average real rate of return on private investment in the U.S. economy. DOE uses these discount rates in accordance with guidance provided by the U.S. Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to Federal agencies on the development of regulatory analysis. (OMB Circular A-4 (Sept. 17, 2003), section E, “Identifying and Measuring Benefits and Costs”) The 7-percent real value is an estimate of the average before-tax rate of return to private capital in the U.S. economy. The 3-percent real value represents the “societal rate of time preference,” which is the rate at which society discounts future consumption flows to their present.
In analyzing the potential impact of new or amended standards on commercial customers, DOE evaluates the impact on identifiable groups (
DOE determined the impact on this BVM customer subgroup using the LCC spreadsheet model. DOE conducted the LCC and PBP analysis for customers represented by the subgroup. The results of DOE's LCC subgroup analysis are summarized in section V.B.1.b of this NOPR and described in detail in chapter 12 of the TSD.
DOE requests comment on the identification and analysis of beverage vending machine customer subgroups (section VII.E of this NOPR).
DOE performed a MIA to determine the financial impact of amended energy conservation standards on manufacturers of beverage vending machines, and to estimate the potential impact of such standards on employment and manufacturing capacity. The MIA has both quantitative and qualitative aspects. The quantitative part of the MIA primarily relies on the Government Regulatory Impact Model (GRIM), an industry cash-flow model with inputs specific to this rulemaking. The key GRIM inputs are data on the industry cost structure, equipment costs, shipments, and assumptions about markups and conversion expenditures. The key output is the INPV. Different sets of assumptions (
DOE conducted the MIA for this rulemaking in three phases. In Phase 1 of the MIA, DOE conducted structured, detailed interviews with manufacturers and prepared a profile of the BVM industry. During manufacturer interviews, DOE discussed engineering, manufacturing, procurement, and financial topics to identify concerns and to inform and validate assumptions used in the GRIM. See section IV.I.3 of this NOPR for a description of the key issues manufacturers raised during the interviews. See appendix 12A of the TSD for a copy of the interview guide.
DOE used information obtained during these interviews to prepare a profile of the BVM industry. Drawing on financial analysis performed as part of the 2009 energy conservation standard for BVMs, as well as feedback obtained from manufacturers, DOE derived financial inputs for the GRIM (
In Phase 2 of the MIA, DOE prepared an industry cash-flow analysis to quantify the potential impacts of an amended energy conservation standard on manufacturers of BVMs. In general, energy conservation standards can affect manufacturer cash flow in three distinct ways: (1) Create a need for increased investment; (2) raise production costs per unit; and (3) alter revenue due to higher per-unit prices and possible changes in sales volumes. To quantify these impacts, DOE used the GRIM to perform a cash-flow analysis for the BVM industry using financial values derived during Phase 1.
In Phase 3 of the MIA, DOE evaluated subgroups of manufacturers that may be disproportionately impacted by amended energy conservation standards or that may not be represented accurately by the average cost assumptions used to develop the industry cash-flow analysis. For example, small manufacturers, niche players, or manufacturers exhibiting a cost structure that largely differs from the industry average could be more negatively affected. DOE identified one subgroup for a separate impact analysis, small businesses.
DOE initially identified eight companies that sell BVM equipment in the United States. For the small businesses subgroup analysis, DOE applied the small business size standards published by the Small Business Administration (SBA) to determine whether a company is considered a small business. 65 FR 30836, 30848 (May 15, 2000), as amended at 65 FR 53533, 53544 (Sept. 5, 2000) and codified at 13 CFR part 121. To be categorized as a small business under North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) code 333318,
Additionally, in Phase 3 of the MIA, DOE evaluated impacts of amended energy conservation standards on manufacturing capacity and direct employment. DOE also evaluated cumulative regulatory burdens affecting the BVM industry.
DOE uses the GRIM to quantify the changes in cash flow due to new standards that result in a higher or lower industry value. The GRIM analysis uses a standard, annual cash-flow analysis that incorporates manufacturer costs, markups, shipments, and industry financial information as inputs. The GRIM models changes in costs, distribution of shipments, investments, and manufacturer margins that could result from an amended energy conservation standard. The GRIM spreadsheet uses the inputs to arrive at a series of annual cash flows, beginning in 2015 (the reference year of the analysis) and continuing to 2048. DOE calculated INPVs by summing the stream of annual discounted cash flows during this period. For BVM manufacturers, DOE used a real discount rate of 8.5 percent, which was derived from industry financials and then modified according to feedback received during manufacturer interviews.
The GRIM calculates cash flows using standard accounting principles and compares changes in INPV between a no-new-standards case and each standards case. The difference in INPV between the no-new-standards case and a standards case represents the financial impact of the amended energy conservation standard on manufacturers. As discussed previously, DOE collected this information on the critical GRIM inputs from a number of sources, including publicly available data and interviews with a number of manufacturers (described in the next section). The GRIM results are shown in section V.B.2 of this NOPR. Additional details about the GRIM, the discount rate, and other financial parameters can
Manufacturing more efficient equipment is typically more expensive than manufacturing baseline equipment due to the use of more complex components, which are typically more costly than baseline components. The changes in the MPCs of the analyzed equipment can affect the revenues, gross margins, and cash flow of the industry, making these equipment cost data key GRIM inputs for DOE's analysis.
In the MIA, DOE used the MPCs for each considered efficiency level calculated in the engineering analysis, as described in section IV.C of this notice and further detailed in chapter 5 of the NOPR TSD. In addition, DOE used information from its teardown analysis, described in chapter 5 of the TSD, to disaggregate the MPCs into material, labor, and overhead costs. To calculate the MPCs for equipment above the baseline, DOE added the incremental material, labor, and overhead costs from the engineering cost-efficiency curves to the baseline MPCs. These cost breakdowns and product markups were validated and revised with manufacturers during manufacturer interviews. DOE notes that, since all BVM equipment would be required to be compliant with EPA's new Rule 20 regulations prohibiting the use of R-134a after January 1, 2019 (80 FR 42870, 42917-42920; July 20, 2015), the MPCs modeled in the GRIM represent equipment that is compliant with Rule 20 (
The GRIM estimates manufacturer revenues based on total unit shipment forecasts by equipment class and the distribution of these values by efficiency level. Changes in sales volumes and efficiency mix over time can significantly affect manufacturer finances. For this analysis, the GRIM uses the NIA's annual shipment forecasts derived from the shipments analysis. See section IV.G of this NOPR and chapter 10 of the NOPR TSD for additional details.
An amended energy conservation standard would cause manufacturers to incur one-time conversion costs to bring their production facilities and product designs into compliance. DOE evaluated the level of conversion-related expenditures that would be needed to comply with each considered efficiency level in each equipment class. For the MIA, DOE classified these conversion costs into two major groups: (1) Product conversion costs; and (2) capital conversion costs. Product conversion costs are one-time investments in research, development, testing, marketing, and other non-capitalized costs necessary to make product designs comply with the amended energy conservation standard. Capital conversion costs are one-time investments in property, plant, and equipment necessary to adapt or change existing production facilities such that new compliant equipment designs can be fabricated and assembled.
To evaluate the level of capital conversion expenditures manufacturers would likely incur to comply with amended energy conservation standards, DOE used manufacturer interview feedback to determine an average per-manufacturer capital conversion cost for each design option and equipment class. DOE scaled the per-manufacturer capital conversion costs to the industry level using a count of manufacturers producing the given equipment class (
As detailed in Section IV.G.1 of this notice, shipments of BVM units with HFC refrigerants are forecasted to fall to zero by 2019 as a result of the EPA SNAP Rule 20 compliance date of 2019. Therefore, DOE estimates no conversion costs associated with the remaining shipments of BVM units with HFC refrigerants that are forecasted to occur during the conversion period (the three years leading up to the amended energy conservation standard year of 2019).
Table IV.7 contains the per-manufacturer capital conversion costs associated with key design options for each equipment class. DOE assumes that all Combination A units share a common cabinet and glass pack design with a Class A unit, and would not carry any additional capital conversion costs.
DOE used a top-down approach that relied on manufacturer feedback from interviews to assess product conversion costs for the BVM industry. Using the DOE's CCMS
Table IV.8 contains the per-platform product conversion costs associated with key design options for each equipment class.
DOE assumes that all energy conservation standards-related conversion costs occur between the year of publication of the final rule and the year by which manufacturers must comply with the new standard. The conversion cost figures used in the GRIM can be found in section V.B.2 of this NOPR. For additional information on the estimated product and capital conversion costs, see chapter 12 of the NOPR TSD.
DOE requests manufacturers provide an estimate of the capital and product conversion costs associated compliance with DOE amended energy conservation standards (section VII.E of this NOPR). In addition, DOE specifically requests feedback from industry regarding the product conversion costs associated with standards compliance for Combination A and Combination B equipment (section VII.E of this NOPR).
As a result of EPA Rule 20, the industry will be required to make an upfront investment in order to transition from the use of R-134a to R-744 or R-290. This industry investment (detailed below) is not a result of the amended DOE energy conservation standards. However, DOE reflects the impact of this investment in both the no-new-standards and standards cases.
EPA Rule 20 did not provide an estimate of the upfront investments associated with a R-134a refrigerant phase-out for BVM manufacturers. Based on feedback in interviews, DOE estimated an upfront cost to the industry to comply with Rule 20 using refrigerants R-744 and R-290. DOE estimated that each BVM manufacturer would need to invest $750,000 to update their products to comply with Rule 20 if they have no compliant products today. DOE assumed this one-time investment applied to all eight manufacturers, resulting in an industry cost of $6 million.
DOE requests manufacturers provide an estimate of the one-time investments required to transition to alternative refrigerants, such as CO
DOE requests that manufacturers provide sufficient detail such that DOE could model and verify these one-time costs related to the change in refrigerants, including the specific capital expenditures required and the potential redesign costs on a per-platform basis (section VII.E of this NOPR).
Additionally, DOE requests manufacturers provide information about the ability to coordinate one-time investments related to EPA Rule 20 compliance and conversion costs necessitated by the DOE energy conservation standards (section VII.E of this NOPR).
MSPs include direct manufacturing production costs (
Under the preservation of gross margin percentage scenario, DOE applied a single uniform “gross margin percentage” markup across all efficiency levels (for a given equipment class), which assumes that manufacturers would be able to maintain the same amount of profit as a percentage of revenues at all efficiency levels within an equipment class. As production costs increase with efficiency, this scenario implies that the absolute dollar markup will increase as well. Based on publicly available financial information for manufacturers of beverage vending machines as well as comments from manufacturer interviews, DOE assumed the average manufacturer markups to vary by equipment class as shown in Table IV.9.
Because this manufacturer markup scenario assumes that manufacturers would be able to maintain their gross margin percentage markups as production costs increase in response to an amended energy conservation standard, it represents a high bound to industry profitability.
In the preservation of per-unit operating profits scenario, manufacturer markups are calibrated such that the per-unit operating profit in the year after the compliance date of the amended energy conservation standard is the same as in the no-new-standards case for each product class. Under this scenario, as the cost of production goes up, manufacturers are generally required to reduce the markups on their minimally compliant products to maintain a cost-competitive offering. The implicit assumption behind this scenario is that the industry can only maintain operating profits after compliance with the amended standard is required. Therefore, gross margin (as a percentage) is reduced between the no-new-standards case and the standards case. This manufacturer markup scenario represents a low bound to industry profitability under an amended energy conservation standard.
To inform the MIA, DOE interviewed manufacturers with an estimated combined market share of 78 percent. The information gathered during these interviews enabled DOE to tailor the GRIM to reflect the unique financial characteristics of the BVM industry. During the manufacturer interviews, DOE asked manufacturers to describe their major concerns about this rulemaking. Below, DOE summarizes these issues, which were informally raised in manufacturer interviews, in order to obtain public comment and related data.
Manufacturers expressed significant concern relating to the combined effect of amended energy efficiency standards for BVMs and the proposal by the EPA to change the status of certain HFC's, including R-134a, to unacceptable. At the time of the MIA interviews, EPA SNAP Rule 20 had been proposed, containing a proposed compliance date of January 1, 2016. 79 FR 46126, 46135 (August 6, 2014). The rule has since been finalized with a change of status for R-134a to unacceptable in new vending applications beginning in 2019. 80 FR 42870, 42917-42920 (July 20, 2015).
Manufacturers stated that complying with the current DOE efficiency standard for Class A products has been difficult enough without having to switch refrigerants. They stated that alternative refrigerants may be less efficient than HFC-134a and the proposed ban of HFCs coupled with amended standards for Class A products could potentially limit or prevent certain manufacturers' abilities to maintain Class A product offerings. Manufacturers requested that DOE take the change in refrigerant into account in its analysis.
Manufacturers commented that current Class A standards greatly inhibit their ability to provide all the features demanded by their customers, and, by extension, any amended standard for Class A machines would have an even greater detrimental impact on customer utility and product innovation. Because many of the product add-ons oriented towards greater purchaser interaction—a feature valued by some Class A customers—require more energy, more stringent standards would be in direct conflict with customer utility.
Due to the low volume nature of the BVM industry overall, manufacturers expressed concern relating to the availability of components that would be required if energy efficiency standards for beverage vending machines are amended.
Historically, because there has been a minimal market for higher efficiency beverage vending machines, there are few suppliers of higher efficiency components to the industry. These suppliers have had the ability to charge high prices for components.
Manufacturers added that this issue becomes even more burdensome when considering the high efficiency components that will be needed for use in beverage vending machines using natural refrigerants (
During the public comment period following the preliminary analysis public meeting, NAMA (a trade association) and AMS (a small business manufacturer of beverage vending machines) provided several comments on the potential impact of amended energy conservation standards on manufacturers.
AMS commented that potential EPA regulations to phase out R-134a could create costs totaling at least $100,000 associated with the need for a new engineering laboratory, manufacturing changes, and new safety equipment to handle hydrocarbon refrigerants. Additionally, AMS pointed out that the EPA proposal to phase out R-134a by 2016 will require product redesign, followed by testing and safety certifications in addition to the
DOE recognizes that EPA regulations that restrict the use of HFC refrigerants will lead to changes in production costs for manufacturers and necessitate investments. DOE accounted for the forthcoming HFC phase out by estimating refrigerant-specific design pathways, cost efficiency curves and the upfront investments needed to adapt products, production lines, and facilities to the use of propane and CO
In comments, AMS noted that while they may be the smallest U.S. manufacturer of beverage vending machines, they do not meet the definition of a “small business.” (AMS, No. 29 at p. 1)
For the purposes of the Regulatory Flexibility Analysis, DOE is required to use the SBA definition of “small business” for manufacturing. The SBA definition sets size thresholds based on classifications by the NAICS. BVM manufacturing is classified under NAICS 333318, “Other Commercial and Service Industry Machinery Manufacturing.” For this category, the SBA size threshold is 1,000 employees or less for an entity to be considered as a small business. Under the SBA definition of a small business and for the purposes of the Regulatory Flexibility Analysis, DOE believes AMS is a small manufacturer. The Regulatory Flexibility Analysis uses the SBA thresholds in determining whether small manufacturers as a subgroup may be disproportionately impacted by the proposed standard and in determining whether there are regulatory alternatives to DOE's proposed energy conservation regulation.
Separate from the Regulatory Flexibility Analysis, EPCA also provides compliance flexibility for small companies meeting specific criteria. Under 10 CFR part 430 subpart E, titled “Small Business Exemptions,” a manufacturer whose annual gross revenue from all of its operations does not exceed $8,000,000 may apply for an exemption from all or part of an energy conservation standard for a limited period of time. This criterion is used to determine whether individual companies can apply for temporary exemption from the energy conservation standard. Companies with annual revenue greater than $8,000,000 do not meet the “Small Business Exemption” criteria under 10 CFR 40 subpart E and do not qualify for exemption requests. However, such companies may still be considered a small manufacturer for the purposes of the Regulatory Flexibility Analysis, as discussed previously.
The emissions analysis consists of two components. The first component estimates the effect of potential energy conservation standards on power sector and site (where applicable) combustion emissions of CO
The analysis of power sector emissions uses marginal emissions factors calculated using a methodology based on results published for the
Combustion emissions of CH
The emissions intensity factors are expressed in terms of physical units per MWh or MMBtu of site energy savings. Total emissions reductions are estimated using the energy savings calculated in the national impact analysis.
For CH
The
SO
Because
The attainment of emissions caps is typically flexible among EGUs and is enforced through the use of emissions allowances and tradable permits. Under existing EPA regulations, any excess SO
Beginning in 2016, however, SO
CAIR established a cap on NO
The MATS also limit mercury emissions from power plants, but they do not include emissions caps and, as such, DOE's energy conservation standards would likely reduce mercury emissions. DOE estimated mercury emissions reduction using emissions factors based on
Power plants may emit particulates from the smoke stack, which are known as direct particulate matter (PM) emissions. NEMS does not account for direct PM emissions from power plants. DOE is investigating the possibility of using other methods to estimate reduction in PM emissions due to standards. The great majority of ambient PM associated with power plants is in the form of secondary sulfates and nitrates, which are produced at a significant distance from power plants by complex atmospheric chemical reactions that often involve the gaseous emissions of power plants, mainly SO
DOE notes that the Supreme Court recently remanded EPA's 2012 rule regarding national emission standards for hazardous air pollutants from certain electric utility steam generating units. See Michigan v. EPA (Case No. 14-46, 2015). DOE has tentatively determined that the remand of the MATS rule does not change the assumptions regarding the impact of energy efficiency standards on SO
As part of the development of this proposed rule, DOE considered the estimated monetary benefits from the reduced emissions of CO
For this proposed rule, DOE is relying on a set of values for the SCC that was developed by an interagency process. A summary of the basis for these values is provided below, and a more detailed description of the methodologies used is provided as an appendix to chapter 14 of the TSD.
The SCC is an estimate of the monetized damages associated with an incremental increase in carbon emissions in a given year. It is intended to include (but is not limited to) climate-change-related changes in net agricultural productivity, human health, property damages from increased flood risk, and the value of ecosystem services. Estimates of the SCC are provided in dollars per metric ton of CO
Under section 1(b) of Executive Order 12866, agencies must, to the extent permitted by law, “assess both the costs and the benefits of the intended regulation and, recognizing that some costs and benefits are difficult to quantify, propose or adopt a regulation only upon a reasoned determination that the benefits of the intended regulation justify its costs.” The purpose of the SCC estimates presented here is to allow agencies to incorporate the monetized social benefits of reducing CO
As part of the interagency process that developed these SCC estimates, technical experts from numerous agencies met on a regular basis to consider public comments, explore the technical literature in relevant fields, and discuss key model inputs and assumptions. The main objective of this process was to develop a range of SCC values using a defensible set of input assumptions grounded in the existing scientific and economic literatures. In this way, key uncertainties and model differences transparently and consistently inform the range of SCC estimates used in the rulemaking process.
When attempting to assess the incremental economic impacts of CO
Despite the limits of both quantification and monetization, SCC estimates can be useful in estimating the social benefits of reducing CO
It is important to emphasize that the interagency process is committed to updating these estimates as the science and economic understanding of climate change and its impacts on society improves over time. In the meantime, the interagency group will continue to explore the issues raised by this analysis and consider public comments as part of the ongoing interagency process.
In 2009, an interagency process was initiated to offer a preliminary assessment of how best to quantify the benefits from reducing CO
Since the release of the interim values, the interagency group reconvened on a regular basis to generate improved SCC estimates. Specifically, the group considered public comments and further explored the technical literature in relevant fields. The interagency group relied on three integrated assessment models commonly used to estimate the SCC: The FUND, DICE, and PAGE models. These models are frequently cited in the peer-reviewed literature and were used in the last assessment of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change. Each model was given equal weight in the SCC values that were developed.
Each model takes a slightly different approach to model how changes in emissions result in changes in economic damages. A key objective of the interagency process was to enable a consistent exploration of the three models while respecting the different approaches to quantifying damages taken by the key modelers in the field. An extensive review of the literature was conducted to select three sets of input parameters for these models: Climate sensitivity, socio-economic and emissions trajectories, and discount rates. A probability distribution for climate sensitivity was specified as an input into all three models. In addition, the interagency group used a range of scenarios for the socio-economic parameters and a range of values for the discount rate. All other model features were left unchanged, relying on the model developers' best estimates and judgments.
The interagency group selected four sets of SCC values for use in regulatory analyses. Three sets of values are based on the average SCC from the three integrated assessment models, at discount rates of 2.5, 3, and 5 percent. The fourth set, which represents the 95th percentile SCC estimate across all three models at a 3-percent discount rate, is included to represent higher-than-expected impacts from temperature change further out in the tails of the SCC distribution. The values grow in real terms over time. Additionally, the interagency group determined that a range of values from 7 percent to 23 percent should be used to adjust the global SCC to calculate domestic effects, although preference is given to consideration of the global benefits of reducing CO
The SCC values used for this NOPR were generated using the most recent versions of the three integrated assessment models that have been published in the peer-reviewed literature.
It is important to recognize that a number of key uncertainties remain and that current SCC estimates should be treated as provisional and revisable because they will evolve with improved scientific and economic understanding. The interagency group also recognizes that the existing models are imperfect and incomplete. The National Research Council report mentioned in section IV.K.1.a of this NOPR points out that there is tension between the goal of producing quantified estimates of the economic damages from an incremental ton of carbon and the limits of existing efforts to model these effects. A number of analytic challenges are being addressed by the research community, including research programs housed in many of the Federal agencies participating in the interagency process to estimate the SCC. The interagency group intends to periodically review and reconsider those estimates to reflect increasing knowledge of the science and economics of climate impacts, as well as improvements in modeling.
In summary, in considering the potential global benefits resulting from reduced CO
DOE multiplied the CO
As noted above, DOE has taken into account how the new and amended
DOE is evaluating appropriate monetization of avoided SO
The utility impact analysis estimates several effects on the power generation industry that would result from the adoption of new or amended energy conservation standards proposed in this NOPR. The utility impact analysis estimates the changes in electric installed capacity and generation that result for each TSL. The utility impact analysis uses a variant of NEMS associated with
DOE considers employment impacts in the domestic economy as one factor in selecting a proposed standard. Employment impacts include both direct and indirect impacts. Direct employment impacts are changes in the number of employees at the plants that produce the covered products, along with affiliated distribution and service companies. DOE evaluated direct employment impacts in the MIA.
Indirect employment impacts are changes in national employment that occur due to the shift in expenditures and capital investment caused by the purchase and operation of more-efficient equipment. Indirect employment impacts from standards consist of the jobs created or eliminated in the national economy due to: (1) Reduced spending by end users on energy; (2) reduced spending on new energy supply by the utility industry; (3) increased customer spending on the purchase of new equipment; and (4) the effects of those three factors throughout the economy.
One method for assessing the possible effects on the demand for labor of such shifts in economic activity is to compare sector employment statistics developed by the Labor Department's Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS). BLS regularly publishes its estimates of the number of jobs per million dollars of economic activity in different sectors of the economy, as well as the jobs created elsewhere in the economy by this same economic activity. Data from BLS indicate that expenditures in the utility sector generally create fewer jobs (both directly and indirectly) than expenditures in other sectors of the economy.
For the standard levels proposed in this NOPR, DOE estimated indirect national employment impacts using an input/output model of the U.S. economy called Impact of Sector Energy Technologies version 3.1.1 (ImSET).
DOE reiterates that the indirect employment impacts estimated with ImSET for the entire economy differ from the direct employment impacts in the BVM manufacturing sector estimated using the GRIM in the MIA, as described at the beginning of this section. The methodologies used and the sectors analyzed in the ImSET and GRIM models are different.
As discussed in section IV.A.1.a, DOE is proposing in this NOPR to incorporate by reference ASTM Standard E 1084-86 (Reapproved 2009), “Standard Test Method for Solar Transmittance (Terrestrial) of Sheet Materials Using Sunlight,” to determine whether a material is transparent when assessing whether a beverage vending machine has a transparent front and meets the proposed Class A definition.
The following section addresses the results from DOE's analyses with respect to potential energy conservation standards for beverage vending machines in this rulemaking.
DOE analyzed 8 efficiency levels (ELs) for Class A equipment, 12 ELs for Class B equipment, 15 ELs for Combination A equipment, and 14 ELs for Combination B equipment in the LCC and NIA analyses, where each EL represents a 5-percent improvement in efficiency from baseline efficiency (EL 0) to up to max tech. Of the ELs analyzed for each class DOE selected five TSLs based on the following criteria:
(1) TSL 1 is equivalent to the current ENERGY STAR criterion for all equipment that is eligible for ENERGY STAR qualification. This corresponded to EL 2 for Class B equipment and EL 1 for Class A. Combination equipment is currently not eligible for ENERGY STAR qualification and, as such, DOE selected TSL 1 as equivalent to EL 1, since EL 1 was the first EL analyzed above the baseline (EL 0).
(2) TSL 2 was selected to be the EL, which is 10 percent better than TSL 1.
(3) TSL 3 was selected to be an interim analysis point corresponding to the EL halfway between TSL 2 and 4 (rounding up when between ELs).
(4) TSL 4 represents the EL with the maximum NPV at a 7-percent discount rate. This level also corresponds to the maximum LCC savings for most equipment classes. In addition, the EL corresponding to a 3-year payback, zero customers with net cost, and maximum NPV at a 3-percent discount rate were the same or within one EL from the selected EL.
(5) TSL 5 corresponds to the max tech EL.
Table V.1 shows the TSL levels DOE selected for the equipment classes analyzed. Note that DOE performed its analyses for a “representative size” beverage vending machine and defined refrigerant-neutral ELs such that the selected ELs could be met by any refrigerant. Similarly, the defined TSLs share this approach and can be met by either refrigerant.
In this NOPR, DOE elected to maintain the energy conservation standard structure established in the 2009 BVM final rule, which establishes the MDEC of covered BVM models in terms of a linear equation of the following form:
Coefficients A and B are uniquely derived for each equipment class based on a linear equation passing between the daily energy consumption values for equipment of different refrigerated volumes. For the A and B coefficients, DOE used the unique energy consumption values of the small, medium, and large or medium and large size BVM units for Class A and B or Combination A and B beverage vending machines, respectively. Table V.2 depicts the TSL equations for each analyzed TSL and equipment class. The methodology used to establish the TSL equations and more detailed results is described in more detail in appendix 10B of the TSD.
In Table V.2, “V” is the representative value of refrigerated volume (ft
DOE is also proposing provisions to assess whether the representative value of refrigerated volume, as certified by manufacturers, is valid. Under the proposed provisions, DOE would compare the manufacturer's certified rating with results from the unit or units in DOE's tested sample. If the results of the tested unit or units in DOE's sample are within 5 percent of the representative value of refrigerated volume certified by manufacturers, the certified refrigerated volume value would be considered valid. Based on whether the representative value of refrigerated volume is valid, DOE proposes to do one of the following:
(1) If the representative value of refrigerated volume, as certified by manufacturers, is valid, DOE would use this value to determine the MDEC for that model; or
(2) If the representative value of refrigerated volume is invalid, DOE would use the results of the tested unit or units as the basis for calculating the MDEC for that BVM model.
DOE proposes that these sampling and enforcement provisions would be effective 30 days after publication of any final rule in the
DOE requests comment on the proposal to clarify the calculation of the refrigerated volume for each BVM basic model (section VII.E of this NOPR).
DOE analyzed the economic impacts on customers by looking at the effects potential standards would have on the LCC and PBP. DOE also examined the impacts of potential standards on customer subgroups. These analyses are discussed below.
Customers affected by new standards usually incur higher purchase prices and lower operating costs. DOE evaluates these impacts on individual customers by calculating changes in LCC and the PBP associated with the TSLs. The results of the LCC analysis for each TSL were obtained by comparing the installed and operating costs of the equipment in the base-case scenario against the standards-case scenarios at each TSL. Inputs used for calculating the LCC include total installed costs (
The LCC analysis is carried out using Monte Carlo simulations. Consequently, the results of the LCC analysis are distributions covering a range of values, as opposed to a single deterministic value. DOE presents the mean or median values, as appropriate, calculated from the distributions of results. The LCC analysis also provides information on the percentage of customers for whom an increase in the minimum efficiency standard would have a positive impact (net benefit), a negative impact (net cost), or no impact.
DOE also performed a PBP analysis as part of the LCC analysis. The PBP is the number of years it would take for the customer to recover the increased costs of higher-efficiency equipment as a result of operating cost savings. The PBP is an economic benefit-cost measure that uses benefits and costs without discounting. Chapter 8 of the NOPR TSD provides detailed information on the LCC and PBP analysis.
DOE used a “roll-up” scenario in this rulemaking. Under the roll-up scenario, DOE assumes that the market shares of the efficiency levels (in the no-new-standards case) that do not meet the standard level under consideration would be “rolled up” into (meaning “added to”) the market share of the efficiency level at the standard level under consideration, and the market shares of efficiency levels that are above the standard level under consideration would remain unaffected. Customers in the no-new-standards scenario who buy the equipment at or above the TSL under consideration would be unaffected if the standard were to be set at that TSL. Customers in the base-case scenario who buy equipment below the TSL under consideration would be affected if the standard were to be set at that TSL. Among these affected customers, some may benefit from lower LCCs of the equipment and some may incur net cost due to higher LCCs, depending on the inputs to the LCC analysis, such as electricity prices, discount rates, and installed costs.
DOE's LCC and PBP analysis provided key outputs for each efficiency level above the baseline. The results for all equipment classes are given in Table V.3 through Table V.18. DOE's results indicate that affected customers typically have a positive LCC savings, with the exception of the TSL 5 Class A CO
Using the LCC spreadsheet model, DOE estimated the impacts of the TSLs on manufacturing and/or industrial facilities that purchase their own beverage vending machines. This subgroup typically has higher discount rates and lower electricity prices relative to the average customer. DOE estimated the average LCC savings and simple PBP for this subgroup as shown in Table V.19 through Table V.26.
The results of the LCC subgroup analysis indicate that the manufacturing/industrial subgroup fares slightly worse than the average customer, with the subgroup showing lower LCC savings and longer payback periods than a typical customer shows. At TSL 4, all equipment classes have positive LCC savings for the subgroup, although not as great in magnitude as for the average customer. Chapter 11 of the NOPR TSD provides a more detailed discussion on the LCC subgroup analysis and results.
As discussed in section III.F.2 of this NOPR, EPCA provides a rebuttable presumption that an energy conservation standard is economically justified if the additional cost to the customer of the equipment that meets the new or amended standard level is less than three times the value of the first-year energy savings resulting from the standard. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(1)(B)(iii)) DOE's LCC and PBP analyses generate values that calculate the PBP for customers of potential new and amended energy conservation standards. These analyses include, but are not limited to, the 3-year PBP contemplated under the rebuttable presumption test. However, DOE routinely conducts a full economic analysis that considers the full range of impacts, including those to the customer, manufacturer, nation, and environment, as required under 42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(B)(i). The results of this analysis serve as the basis for DOE to definitively evaluate the economic justification for a potential standard level, thereby supporting or rebutting the results of any preliminary determination of economic justification. Table V.27 shows the rebuttable presumption payback periods for TSL 4, for all equipment classes and both CO
DOE performed an MIA to estimate the impact of amended energy conservation standards on manufacturers of beverage vending machines. The section below describes the expected impacts on manufacturers at each TSL. Chapter 12 of the NOPR TSD explains the analysis in further detail.
The following tables illustrate the estimated financial impacts (represented by changes in industry net present value, or INPV) of amended energy conservation standards on manufacturers of beverage vending machines, as well as the conversion costs that DOE expects manufacturers would incur for all equipment classes at each TSL.
As discussed in sections IV.I and V.B.2.a of this NOPR, DOE modeled two different markup scenarios to evaluate the range of cash flow impacts on the BVM industry: (1) The preservation of gross margin percentage markup scenario; and (2) the preservation of per-unit operating profit markup scenario.
To assess the less severe end of the range of potential impacts, DOE modeled a preservation of gross margin percentage markup scenario, in which a uniform “gross margin percentage” markup is applied across all potential efficiency levels. In this scenario, DOE assumed that a manufacturer's absolute dollar markup would increase as production costs increase in the standards case.
To assess the more severe end of the range of potential impacts, DOE modeled the preservation of per unit operating profit markup scenario, which reflects manufacturer concerns surrounding their inability to maintain margins as manufacturing production
Each of the modeled scenarios results in a unique set of cash flows and corresponding industry values at each TSL. In the following discussion, the INPV results refer to the difference in industry value between the no-new-standards case and each standards case that result from the sum of discounted cash flows from the reference year 2015 through 2048, the end of the analysis period. To provide perspective on the short-run cash flow impact, DOE includes in the discussion of the results a comparison of free cash flow between the no-new-standards case and the standards case at each TSL in the year before amended standards would take effect. This figure provides an understanding of the magnitude of the required conversion costs—relative to the cash flow generated by the industry in the no-new-standards case.
Table V.28 and Table V.29 present a range of results reflecting both the preservation of gross margin percentage markup scenario and the preservation of per-unit operating profit markup scenario. As noted, the preservation of per-unit operating profit scenario accounts for the more severe impacts presented. Estimated conversion costs and free cash flow in the year prior to the effective date of amended standards do not vary with markup scenario.
At TSL 1, DOE estimates the impact on INPV for manufacturers of beverage vending machine to range from −$.03 million to −$.01 million, or a change in INPV of −0.05 percent and −0.02 percent under the preservation of per-unit operating profit markup scenario and preservation of gross margin percentage markup scenario, respectively. At this TSL, industry free cash flow is estimated to decrease by approximately 0.9 percent to $1.6 million, compared to the base-case value of $1.6 million in the year before the compliance date (2018).
At TSL 1, the industry as a whole is expected to incur $0.05 million in product conversion costs and would have no capital conversion costs necessary to manufacture redesigned platforms associated with amended energy conservation standards compliance. DOE's engineering analysis indicates that the most cost-effective design options to reach TSL 1 are component swaps and software modifications such as automatic lighting controls, evaporator fan controls, incorporation of a permanent split capacitor evaporator fan motor, or enhanced evaporator coils. Manufacturer feedback indicated that such component swaps do not incur large product or capital conversion costs.
At TSL 2, DOE estimates the impact on INPV for manufacturers of beverage vending machines to range from −$.24 million to −$.06 million, or a change in INPV of −0.38 to −0.10 percent under the preservation of gross margin percentage markup scenario and the preservation of per-unit operating profit markup scenario, respectively. At this TSL, industry free cash flow is estimated to decrease by approximately 4.5 percent to $1.7 million, compared to the base-case value of $1.6 million in the year before the compliance date (2018).
At TSL 2, the industry as a whole is expected to incur $0.23 million in product conversion costs and no capital conversion costs to manufacturer products requiring platform redesigns. DOE's engineering analysis indicates that the most cost-effective design options to reach TSL 2 are component swaps and software modifications such as incorporating an enhanced evaporator coil, improved single speed reciprocating compressor, or a low power state for CO
At TSL 3, DOE estimates the impact on INPV for manufacturers of beverage vending machines to range from −$1.04 million to $0.33 million, or a change in INPV of −1.66 percent to 0.53 percent under the preservation of gross margin percentage markup scenario and the preservation of per-unit operating profit markup scenario, respectively. At this TSL, industry free cash flow is estimated to decrease by approximately 20.0 percent to $2.0 million, compared to the base-case value of $1.6 million in the year before the compliance date (2018).
At TSL 3, the industry as a whole is expected to spend $0.79 million in product conversion costs, as well as $0.18 million in capital conversion costs to manufacture redesigned platforms. While conversion costs remain relatively constant for manufacturers of Class B, Combination A and Combination B machines, the conversion costs for Class A equipment increase at TSL 3 (especially for CO
At TSL 4, DOE estimates the impact on INPV for manufacturers of beverage vending machines to range from −$3.54 million to −$0.15 million, or a change in INPV of −5.65 percent to −0.24 percent under the preservation of gross margin percentage markup scenario and the preservation of per-unit operating profit markup scenario, respectively. At this TSL, industry free cash flow is estimated to decrease by approximately 63.6 percent to −$2.7 million, compared to the base-case value of $1.6 million in the year before the compliance date (2018).
At TSL 4, the industry as a whole is expected to spend $1.61 million in product conversion costs, as well as $1.19 million in capital conversion costs for platform redesigns. At TSL 4, some manufacturers will likely be required to increase the thickness of their products' insulation and incorporate vacuum insulated panels (VIPs). Additionally, many manufacturers of Combination A machines will most likely be required to integrate enhanced glass packs in order to achieve the required efficiency.
At TSL 4, there is a slight decrease of less than 1 percent in total industry shipments in 2019 relative to the no-new-standards case. Under the preservation of gross margin percentage markup scenario, the decrease in shipments and increased conversion costs are outweighed by a relatively larger increase in industry revenue, resulting in a positive change in INPV. Under the preservation of per-unit operating profit markup scenario, the increase in MPCs at TSL 4 is outweighed by the decrease in shipments and the increase in industry conversion costs, resulting in a decrease in INPV.
At TSL 5, DOE estimates the impact on INPV for manufacturers of beverage vending machines to range from −$12.06 million to $11.07 million, or a change in INPV of −19.23 percent to 17.64 percent under the preservation of gross margin percentage markup scenario and the preservation of per-unit operating profit markup scenario, respectively. At this TSL, industry free cash flow is estimated to decrease by approximately 151.5 percent to $4.1 million, compared to the base-case value of $1.6 million in the year before the compliance date (2018).
At TSL 5, the industry as a whole is expected to spend $3.36 million in product conversion costs associated with the research and development and testing and certification, as well as $3.16 million in one-time investments in PP&E for platform redesigns. The conversion cost burden for manufacturers of all products increases substantially at TSL 5. At this level, manufacturers will likely be required to integrate VIPs to achieve the required efficiency. VIPs are an unproven technology in the BVM industry and would likely require substantial effort and cost to incorporate.
At TSL 5, there is an 6-percent decrease in total industry shipments in 2019 relative to the no-new-standards case. Under the preservation of gross margin percentage markup scenario, this decrease in shipments and increased conversion costs are outweighed by a relatively larger increase in industry MPCs, resulting in a positive change in INPV. Under the preservation of per-unit operating profit markup scenario, the increase in MPCs at TSL 5 is outweighed by the decrease in shipments and the increase in industry conversion costs. This results in a decrease in INPV.
To quantitatively assess the potential impacts of amended energy conservation standards on direct employment, DOE used the GRIM to estimate the domestic labor expenditures and number of direct employees in the no-new-standards case and at each TSL from 2014 through 2048. DOE used data from the U.S. Census Bureau's 2011 Annual Survey of Manufacturers,
The total labor expenditures in the GRIM were then converted to domestic production employment levels by dividing production labor expenditures by the annual payment per production worker (production worker hours times the labor rate found in the U.S. Census Bureau's 2011 Annual Survey of Manufacturers). The production worker estimates in this section only cover workers up to the line-supervisor level who are directly involved in fabricating and assembling a product within an original equipment manufacturer (OEM) facility. Workers performing services that are closely associated with production operations, such as materials handling tasks using forklifts, are also included as production labor. DOE's estimates only account for production workers who manufacture the specific products covered by this rulemaking.
Because production employment expenditures are assumed to be a fixed
Using the GRIM, DOE estimates that in the absence of amended energy conservation standards, there would be 414 domestic production workers in the BVM industry. As noted previously, DOE estimates that 90 percent of BVM units sold in the United States are manufactured domestically. Table V.30 shows the range of the impacts of potential amended energy conservation standards on U.S. production workers of beverage vending machines.
The upper end of the range estimates the maximum increase in the number of production workers in the BVM industry after implementation of an emended energy conservation standard. It assumes that manufacturers would continue to produce the same scope of covered products within the United States and would require some additional labor to produce more efficient products.
The lower end of the range represents the maximum decrease in total number of U.S. production workers that could result from an amended energy conservation standard. During interviews, manufacturers noted that, due to the high shipping costs associated with beverage vending machines, they would be hesitant to move any major production operations outside the U.S. Therefore, the lower bound of direct employment impacts assumes domestic production of beverage vending machines would decrease by the same relative percentage decrease in industry shipments as a result of an amended energy conservation standard.
This conclusion is independent of any conclusions regarding indirect employment impacts in the broader United States economy, which are documented in chapter 16 of the TSD.
DOE requests comments on the total annual direct employment levels in the industry for BVM production (section VII.E of this NOPR).
According to interview feedback from BVM manufacturers, amended energy conservations standards will not significantly constrain manufacturing production capacity. Manufacturers stated that they would use normally-scheduled factory downtime to make any facility modifications that are necessary as a result of amended standards. DOE believes that manufactures will be able to maintain production capacity levels sufficient to meet market demand under these proposed levels. However, manufacturers did express concern regarding the potential strain on technical resources if the amended standard's effective date did not provide ample time for the industry to first fully comply with the EPA's proposed HFC phaseout. At the time of manufacturer interviews, EPA SNAP Proposed Rule 20 (Docket No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2013-0748) proposed to change the status of certain refrigerants to be unacceptable for certain applications, including HFC-134a for BVM applications, with a proposed phaseout on January 1, 2016. 79 FR 46126, 46135 (August 6, 2014). Although Rule 20 has subsequently been finalized with a mandated phaseout date of January 1, 2019 (80 FR 42870, 42917-42920; July 20, 2015), few manufacturers have experience with CO
Small manufacturers, niche equipment manufacturers, and manufacturers exhibiting a cost structure substantially different from the industry average could be affected disproportionately. As discussed in sections IV.I.3 and V.B.2.a of this NOPR, using average cost assumptions to develop an industry cash-flow estimate is inadequate to assess differential impacts among manufacturer subgroups.
For BVM equipment, DOE identified and evaluated the impact of amended energy conservation standards on one subgroup: Small manufacturers. The SBA defines a “small business” as having 1,000 employees or less for NAICS 333318, “Other Commercial and Service Industry Machinery Manufacturing.” Based on this definition, DOE identified 5 manufacturers in the BVM equipment industry that are small businesses.
For a discussion of the impacts on the small manufacturer subgroup, see the Regulatory Flexibility Analysis in
While any one regulation may not impose a significant burden on manufacturers, the combined effects of several impending regulations may have serious consequences for some manufacturers, groups of manufacturers or an entire industry. Assessing the impact of a single regulation may overlook this cumulative regulatory burden. Multiple regulations affecting the same manufacturer can strain profits and can lead companies to abandon product lines or markets with lower expected future returns than competing products. For these reasons, DOE conducts an analysis of cumulative regulatory burden as part of its rulemakings pertaining to appliance efficiency.
For the cumulative regulatory burden analysis, DOE considers other DOE regulations that could affect BVM manufacturers that will take effect approximately three years before or after the 2019 compliance date of amended energy conservation standards. The compliance years and expected industry conversion costs of energy conservation standards that may also impact BVM manufacturers are indicated in Table V.31.
Manufacturers cited ENERGY STAR standards for beverage vending machines as a source of regulatory burden. In response, DOE does not consider the ENERGY STAR program in its analysis of cumulative regulatory burden because ENERGY STAR is a voluntary program and is not federally mandated.
In interviews, manufactures cited the proposed phaseout of HFCs (including the common BVM refrigerant, HFC-134a) which could happen as early as January 2016 (subsequently finalized for January 2019), as a major source of additional burden accompanying potential amended efficiency standards. As detailed in section IV.I, based on feedback in interviews, DOE assumed that each manufacturer would need to invest $750,000 to update their products to comply with Rule 20. DOE assumed this one-time SNAP investment would apply to all eight manufacturers in the year leading up to the phaseout (
DOE estimated the NES by calculating the difference in annual energy consumption for the base-case scenario and standards-case scenario at each TSL for each equipment class and summing up the annual energy savings for the beverage vending machines purchased during the 30-year 2019 through 2048 analysis period. Energy impacts include the 30-year period, plus the life of equipment purchased in the last year of the analysis, or roughly 2019 through 2078. The energy consumption calculated in the NIA is full-fuel-cycle (FFC) energy, which quantifies savings beginning at the source of energy production. DOE also reports primary or source energy that takes into account losses in the generation and transmission of electricity. FFC and primary energy are discussed in section IV.G.3 of this NOPR.
Table V.32 presents the source NES for all equipment classes at each TSL and the sum total of NES for each TSL.
Table V.33 presents FFC energy savings at each TSL for each equipment class. The NES increases from 0.007 quads at TSL 1 to 0.297 quads at TSL 5.
OMB Circular A-4
DOE estimated the cumulative NPV to the nation of the total savings for the customers that would result from potential standards at each TSL. In accordance with OMB guidelines on regulatory analysis (OMB Circular A-4, section E, September 17, 2003), DOE calculated NPV using both a 7-percent and a 3-percent real discount rate. The 7-percent rate is an estimate of the average before-tax rate of return on private capital in the U.S. economy, and reflects the returns on real estate and small business capital, including corporate capital. DOE used this discount rate to approximate the opportunity cost of capital in the private sector, because recent OMB analysis has found the average rate of return on capital to be near this rate. In addition, DOE used the 3-percent rate to capture the potential effects of amended standards on private consumption. This rate represents the rate at which society discounts future consumption flows to their present value. It can be approximated by the real rate of return on long-term government debt (
Table V.35 and Table V.36 show the customer NPV results for each of the TSLs DOE considered for beverage vending machines at both 7-percent and 3-percent discount rates. In each case, the impacts cover the expected lifetime of equipment purchased from 2019 through 2048. Detailed NPV results are presented in chapter 10 of the NOPR TSD.
The NPV results at a 7-percent discount rate for TSL 5 were negative for Class A. In all cases the TSL 5 NPV was significantly lower than the TSL 4 results. This is consistent with the results of LCC analysis results for TSL 5, which showed significant increase in LCC and significantly higher PBPs. Efficiency levels for TSL 4 were chosen to correspond to the highest NPV at a 7-percent discount rate for all classes. Consequently, the total NPV for beverage vending machines was highest for TSL 4, with a value of $0.417 billion (2014$) at a 7-percent discount rate. TSL 3 showed the second highest total NPV, with a value of $0.261 billion (2014$) at a 7-percent discount rate. TSL 1, TSL 2 and TSL 5 have a total NPV lower than TSL 3 or 4.
The NPV results based on the aforementioned 9-year analysis period are presented in Table V.37 and Table V.38. The impacts are counted over the lifetime of equipment purchased in 2019-2027. As mentioned previously in section V.B.3.a of this NOPR, this information is presented for informational purposes only and is not indicative of any change in DOE's analytical methodology or decision criteria.
DOE expects energy conservation standards for beverage vending machines to reduce energy costs for equipment owners, with the resulting net savings being redirected to other forms of economic activity. Those shifts in spending and economic activity could affect the demand for labor. Thus, indirect employment impacts may result from expenditures shifting between goods (the substitution effect) and changes in income and overall expenditure levels (the income effect) that occur due to the imposition of new and amended standards. These impacts may affect a variety of businesses not directly involved in the decision to make, operate, or pay the utility bills for beverage vending machines. As described in section IV.M of this NOPR, DOE used an input/output model of the U.S. economy to estimate indirect employment impacts of the TSLs that DOE considered in this rulemaking (see chapter 16 of the NOPR TSD for more details). DOE understands that there are uncertainties involved in projecting employment impacts, especially changes in the later years of the analysis. Therefore, DOE generated results for near-term time frames (2020-2025), where these uncertainties are reduced.
The results suggest that these proposed standards would be likely to have negligible impact on the net demand for labor in the economy. All TSLs increase net demand for labor by fewer than 1000 jobs. The net change in jobs is so small that it would be imperceptible in national labor statistics and might be offset by other, unanticipated effects on employment. Chapter 16 of the NOPR TSD presents more detailed results about anticipated indirect employment impacts. As shown in Table V.39, DOE estimates that net indirect employment impacts from a BVM amended standard are small relative to the national economy.
In its analyses, DOE has considered potential impacts of amended standards, including the use of design options considered in the engineering analysis, on the performance and utility of BVM equipment. This includes the ability to achieve and maintain the necessary vending temperatures, the ability to display and vend product upon receipt of payment, and other factors core to the utility of vending machine operation. DOE has tentatively concluded that the amended standards it is proposing in this NOPR would not lessen the utility or performance of beverage vending machines.
DOE requests comment on its preliminary conclusion that the proposed standard levels will not have any negative impact on the performance or utility of equipment available in the market (section VII.E of this NOPR).
The Attorney General determines the impact, if any, of any lessening of competition likely to result from a proposed standard, and transmits such determination in writing to the Secretary, together with an analysis of the nature and extent of such impact. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(B)(i)(V) and (o)(2)(B)(ii))
To assist the Attorney General in making such a determination, DOE provided DOJ with copies of this NOPR and the TSD for review. DOE will consider DOJ's comments on the proposed rule in preparing the final rule, and DOE will publish and respond to DOJ's comments in that document.
An improvement in the energy efficiency of the products subject to this rule is likely to improve the security of the nation's energy system by reducing overall demand for energy. Reduced electricity demand may also improve the reliability of the electricity system. Reductions in national electric generating capacity estimated for each considered TSL are reported in chapter 15 of the NOPR TSD.
Energy conservation savings from new and amended standards for the BVM equipment classes covered in this NOPR could also produce environmental benefits in the form of reduced emissions of air pollutants and greenhouse gases associated with electricity production. Table V.40 provides DOE's estimate of cumulative emissions reductions projected to result from the TSLs considered in this rulemaking. The table includes both power sector emissions and upstream emissions. The upstream emissions were calculated using the multipliers discussed in section IV.G of this NOPR. DOE reports annual CO
As part of the analysis for this NOPR, DOE estimated monetary benefits likely to result from the reduced emissions of CO
Table V.41 presents the global value of CO
DOE is aware that scientific and economic knowledge about the contribution of CO
DOE also estimated a range for the cumulative monetary value of the economic benefits associated with NO
The NPV of the monetized benefits associated with emissions reductions can be viewed as a complement to the NPV of the customer savings calculated for each TSL considered in this rulemaking. Table V.43 presents the NPV values that result from adding the estimates of the potential economic benefits resulting from reduced CO
In considering the previous results, two issues are relevant. First, the national operating cost savings are domestic U.S. customer monetary savings that occur as a result of market transactions, while the value of CO
The Secretary of Energy, in determining whether a standard is economically justified, may consider any other factors that the Secretary deems to be relevant. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(B)(i)(VII)) No other factors were considered in this analysis.
When considering proposed standards, the new or amended energy conservation standards for any type (or class) of covered product must be designed to achieve the maximum improvement in energy efficiency that the Secretary determines is technologically feasible and economically justified. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(A)) In determining whether a proposed standard is economically justified, the Secretary must determine whether the benefits of the standard exceed its burdens to the greatest extent practicable, in light of the seven statutory factors discussed previously. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(B)(i)) The new or amended standard must also result in a significant conservation of energy. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(3)(B))
DOE considered the impacts of the standards for beverage vending machines at each TSL, beginning with the maximum technologically feasible level, to determine whether that level was economically justified. Where the max-tech level was not justified, DOE then considered the next-most-efficient level and undertook the same evaluation until it reached the highest efficiency level that is both technologically feasible and economically justified and saves a significant amount of energy.
To aid the reader in understanding the benefits and/or burdens of each TSL, tables in this section summarize the quantitative analytical results for each TSL, based on the assumptions and methodology discussed herein. The efficiency levels contained in each TSL are described in section V.A of this NOPR. In addition to the quantitative results presented in the tables, DOE also considers other burdens and benefits that affect economic justification. These include the impacts on identifiable subgroups of customers who may be disproportionately affected by a national standard, impacts on employment, technological feasibility, manufacturer costs, and impacts on competition may affect the economic results presented. Section V.B.1.b of this NOPR presents the estimated impacts of each TSL for these subgroups. DOE discusses the
Table V.44, Table V.45, and Table V.46 summarize the quantitative impacts estimated for each TSL for beverage vending machines. The national impacts are measured over the lifetime of beverage vending machines purchased in the 30-year period that begins in the year of compliance with amended standards (2019-2048). The energy savings, emissions reductions, and value of emissions reductions refer to full-fuel-cycle results.
DOE also notes that the economics literature provides a wide-ranging discussion of how customers trade-off upfront costs and energy savings in the absence of government intervention. Much of this literature attempts to explain why customers appear to undervalue energy efficiency improvements. There is evidence that customers undervalue future energy savings as a result of: (1) A lack of information; (2) a lack of sufficient salience of the long-term or aggregate benefits; (3) a lack of sufficient savings to warrant delaying or altering purchases (
While DOE is not prepared at present to provide a fuller quantifiable framework for estimating the benefits and costs of changes in customer purchase decisions due to an amended energy conservation standard, DOE is committed to developing a framework that can support empirical quantitative tools for improved assessment of the customer welfare impacts of appliance standards. DOE posted a paper that discusses the issue of customer welfare impacts of appliance energy efficiency standards, and potential enhancements to the methodology by which these impacts are defined and estimated in the regulatory process.
TSL 5 corresponds to the max-tech level for all the equipment classes and offers the potential for the highest cumulative energy savings through the analysis period from 2019 to 2048. The estimated energy savings from TSL 5 are 0.30 quads of energy. TSL 5 has an estimated NPV of customer benefit of $0.081 billion using a 7-percent discount rate, and $0.53 billion using a 3-percent discount rate.
The cumulative emissions reductions at TSL 5 are 17.4 million metric tons of CO
At TSL 5, the average LCC savings range from a negative $314 to a positive $797, depending on equipment class. The fraction of customers incurring a net cost range from 0 percent for Combination B machines with propane refrigerant to 93 percent for Class A machines with CO
At TSL 5, the projected change in INPV ranges from a decrease of $12.1 million to an increase of $11.1 million. If the lower bound of the range of impacts is reached, TSL 5 could result in a net loss of up to 19.2 percent in INPV for manufacturers.
Accordingly, the Secretary tentatively concludes that at TSL 5 for beverage vending machines, the benefits of energy savings, emission reductions, and the estimated monetary value of the CO
Next DOE considered TSL 4, which saves an estimated total of 0.22 quads of energy, an amount DOE considers significant. TSL 4 has an estimated NPV of customer benefit of $0.42 billion using a 7-percent discount rate, and $1.1 billion using a 3-percent discount rate.
The cumulative emissions reductions at TSL 4 are 13.0 million metric tons of CO
At TSL 4, the average LCC savings ranges from $173 to $1,405, depending on equipment class. The fraction of customers incurring a net cost range from 0 percent for all equipment classes except 1 percent for Class A equipment with CO
At TSL 4, the projected change in INPV ranges from a decrease of $3.5 million to an increase of $0.2 million. At TSL 4, DOE recognizes the risk of negative impacts if manufacturers' expectations concerning reduced profit margins are realized. If the lower bound of the range of impacts is reached, as DOE expects, TSL 4 could result in a net loss of up to 5.7 percent in INPV for manufacturers.
After carefully considering the analysis results and weighing the benefits and burdens of TSL 4, DOE believes that setting the standards for beverage vending machines at TSL 4 represents the maximum improvement in energy efficiency that is technologically feasible and economically justified. TSL 4 is technologically feasible because the technologies required to achieve these levels already exist in the current market and are available from multiple manufacturers. TSL 4 is economically justified because the benefits to the nation in the form of energy savings, customer NPV at 3 percent and at 7 percent, and emissions reductions outweigh the costs associated with reduced INPV and potential effects of reduced manufacturing capacity.
Therefore, DOE proposes the adoption of amended energy conservation standards for beverage vending machines at TSL 4 as indicated in Table V.47.
Section 1(b)(1) of Executive Order 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review,” 58 FR 51735 (October 4, 1993), requires each agency to identify the problem that it intends to address, including, where applicable, the failures of private markets or public institutions that warrant new agency action, as well as to assess the significance of that problem. The problems that these proposed standards address are as follows:
(1) Insufficient information and the high costs of gathering and analyzing relevant information lead some customers to miss opportunities to make cost-effective investments in energy efficiency.
(2) In some cases the benefits of more efficient equipment are not realized due to misaligned incentives between purchasers and users. An example of such a case is when the equipment purchase decision is made by a building contractor or building owner who does not pay the energy costs.
(3) There are external benefits resulting from improved energy efficiency of beverage vending machines that are not captured by the users of such equipment. These benefits include externalities related to public health, environmental protection, and national security that are not reflected in energy prices, such as reduced emissions of air pollutants and greenhouse gases that impact human health and global warming. DOE attempts to quantify some of the external benefits through use of social cost of carbon values.
In addition, DOE determined that this regulatory action is a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866. DOE presented to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) in the OMB for review the draft rule and other documents prepared for this rulemaking, including a regulatory impact analysis (RIA), and has included these documents in the rulemaking record. The assessments prepared pursuant to Executive Order 12866 can be found in the technical support document for this rulemaking.
DOE also reviewed this regulation pursuant to Executive Order 13563, issued on January 18, 2011. 76 FR 3281 (January 21, 2011). Executive Order 13563 is supplemental to and explicitly reaffirms the principles, structures, and definitions governing regulatory review established in Executive Order 12866. To the extent permitted by law, agencies are required by Executive Order 13563
DOE emphasizes as well that Executive Order 13563 requires agencies to use the best available techniques to quantify anticipated present and future benefits and costs as accurately as possible. In its guidance, the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has emphasized that such techniques may include identifying changing future compliance costs that might result from technological innovation or anticipated behavioral changes. For the reasons stated in the preamble, DOE believes that this NOPR is consistent with these principles, including the requirement that, to the extent permitted by law, benefits justify costs and that net benefits are maximized.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
For the manufacturers of BVM equipment, the SBA set a size threshold, which defines those entities classified as “small businesses” for the purposes of the statute. DOE used the SBA's small business size standards to determine whether any small entities would be subject to the requirements of the rule. 65 FR 30836, 30848 (May 15, 2000), as amended at 65 FR 53533, 53544 (September 5, 2000) and codified at 13 CFR part 121. The size standards are listed by NAICS code and industry description and are available at
During its market survey, DOE used available public information to identify potential small manufacturers. DOE's research involved public databases (
DOE identified eight companies selling BVM equipment products in the United States. Four are small domestic manufacturers and one is a small foreign manufacturer with domestic-sited subsidiary that serves as its marketing arm in the United States. DOE contacted all identified BVM manufacturers for interviews. Ultimately, DOE interviewed manufacturers representing approximately 78 percent of BVM equipment industry shipments and approximately 50 percent of the small business shipments.
The four small domestic BVM manufacturers account for approximately 15-20 percent of BVM equipment shipments. The small domestic manufacturers are Automated Merchandising Systems, Multi-Max Systems, Seaga Manufacturing, and Wittern.
In general, the small manufacturers focus on the Combination A and Combination B market segments. Together, the four domestic and one foreign small manufacturer account for 74 percent of Combination A and Combination B sales. Based on the shipments analysis, Combination A and Combination B shipments account for roughly 18 percent of the total BVM market.
The remaining 82 percent of BVM shipments are Class A and Class B units. Small business manufacturers (including the one foreign small manufacturer) account for approximately 5 percent of the market for each of the Class A and Class B market segments. The remaining 95 percent of both Class A and Class B market segments are held by the three large manufacturers: Crane, Royal, and SVA.
DOE derived industry conversion using a top-down approach described in methodology section IV.I.2.a. Using product platform counts by equipment type (
At the proposed level, DOE estimates total conversion costs associated with new and amended energy conservation standards for an average small manufacturer to be $217,000, which is approximately 7 percent of annual revenue and 119 percent of annual operating profit. This suggests that an average small manufacturer would need to reinvest roughly 40 percent of its operating profit per year over the conversion period to comply with standards.
The total conversion costs associated with new and amended energy conservation standards for an average large manufacturer is $571,000, which is approximately 2 percent of annual revenue and 40 percent of annual operating profit. This suggests that an average large manufacturer would need to reinvest roughly 13 percent of its operating profit per year over the 3-year conversion period.
Product conversion costs, which include one-time investments such as product redesigns and industry certification, are a key driver of conversion investments to comply with standards. Product conversion costs tend to be fixed and do not scale with sales volume. For each equipment platform, small businesses must make redesign investments that are similar to their large competitors. However, because small manufacturers' costs are spread over a lower volume of units, it takes longer for small manufacturers to recover their investments. Similarly, capital conversion costs are spread across a lower volume of shipments for small business manufacturers.
DOE requests comment regarding any potential impacts on small business manufacturers from the proposed standards. In particular, DOE seeks further information and data regarding the sales volume and annual revenues for small businesses so the agency can be better informed about the potential impacts to small business manufacturers of the proposed energy conservation standards. DOE will consider any such additional information when formulating and selecting TSLs for the final rule (section VII.E of this NOPR).
The preceding discussion analyzes impacts on small businesses that would result from DOE's proposed rule. In addition to the other TSLs being considered, the proposed rulemaking TSD includes a regulatory impact analysis (RIA). For beverage vending machines, the RIA discusses the following policy alternatives: (1) No change in standard; (2) customer
DOE also examined standards at lower efficiency levels, TSL 3, TSL 2 and TSL 1. TSL 3 achieves approximately 40 percent lower savings than TSL 4, TSL 2 achieves 80 percent lower savings than TSL 4 and TSL 1 achieves 99 percent less savings of TSL 4. Additionally, DOE considered standards at higher efficiency levels, corresponding to TSL 5. TSL 5 achieves approximately 44 percent higher savings than TSL 4. However. DOE rejected this TSL due to the negative NPV results. Furthermore, the estimated conversion costs for small business manufacturers are higher at TSL 5 than at TSL 4. To comply with TSL 5, the average small manufacturer must make $570,000 in conversion cost investments, which $370,000 more than at TSL 4. (See chapter 17 of the NOPR TSD for further detail on the policy alternatives DOE considered.)
Additional compliance flexibilities may be available through other means. For example, individual manufacturers may petition for a waiver of the applicable test procedure. Further, EPCA provides that a manufacturer whose annual gross revenue from all of its operations does not exceed $8,000,000 may apply for an exemption from all or part of an energy conservation standard for a period not longer than 24 months after the compliance date of a final rule establishing the standard. (42 U.S.C. 6295(t)) Additionally, Section 504 of the Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7194, provides authority for the Secretary to adjust a rule issued under EPCA in order to prevent “special hardship, inequity, or unfair distribution of burdens” that may be imposed on that manufacturer as a result of such rule. Manufacturers should refer to 10 CFR part 430, subpart E, and part 1003 for additional details.
Manufacturers of beverage vending machines must certify to DOE that their products comply with any applicable energy conservation standards. In certifying compliance, manufacturers must test their equipment according to the applicable DOE test procedures for beverage vending machines, including any amendments adopted for those test procedures on the date that compliance is required. DOE has established regulations for the certification and recordkeeping requirements for all covered customer products and commercial equipment, including beverage vending machines. 76 FR 12422 (March 7, 2011). The collection-of-information requirement for the certification and recordkeeping is subject to review and approval by OMB under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). This requirement has been approved by OMB under OMB Control Number 1910-1400. 80 FR 5099 (January 30, 2015). The public reporting burden for the certification is estimated to average 30 hours per response, including the time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing the collection of information.
Notwithstanding any other provision of the law, no person is required to respond to, nor shall any person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information subject to the requirements of the PRA, unless that collection of information displays a currently valid OMB Control Number.
Pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969, DOE has determined that the proposed rule fits within the category of actions included in Categorical Exclusion (CX) B5.1 and otherwise meets the requirements for application of a CX. See 10 CFR part 1021, appendix B, B5.1(b); 1021.410(b) and appendix B, B(1)-(5). The proposed rule fits within the category of actions because it is a rulemaking that establishes energy conservation standards for customer products or industrial equipment, and for which none of the exceptions identified in CX B5.1(b) apply. Therefore, DOE has made a CX determination for this rulemaking, and DOE does not need to prepare an Environmental Assessment or Environmental Impact Statement for this proposed rule. DOE's CX determination for this proposed rule is available at
Executive Order 13132, “Federalism,” imposes certain requirements on Federal agencies formulating and implementing policies or regulations that preempt State law or that have Federalism implications. 64 FR 43255 (August 10, 1999). The Executive Order requires agencies to examine the constitutional and statutory authority supporting any action that would limit the policymaking discretion of the States and to carefully assess the necessity for such actions. The Executive Order also requires agencies to have an accountable process to ensure meaningful and timely input by State and local officials in the development of regulatory policies that have Federalism implications. On March 14, 2000, DOE published a statement of policy describing the intergovernmental consultation process that it will follow in the development of such regulations. 65 FR 13735. DOE has examined this proposed rule and has tentatively determined that it would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. EPCA governs and prescribes Federal preemption of State regulations as to energy conservation for the products that are the subject of this proposed rule. States can petition DOE for exemption from such preemption to the extent, and based on criteria, set forth in EPCA (42 U.S.C. 6297(d)). Therefore, Executive Order 13132 requires no further action.
With respect to the review of existing regulations and the promulgation of new regulations, section 3(a) of Executive Order 12988, “Civil Justice Reform,” imposes on Federal agencies the general duty to adhere to the following requirements: (1) Eliminate drafting errors and ambiguity; (2) write regulations to minimize litigation; (3) provide a clear legal standard for affected conduct rather than a general standard; and (4) promote simplification and burden reduction. 61 FR 4729 (February 7, 1996). Section 3(b) of Executive Order 12988 specifically requires that Executive agencies make every reasonable effort to ensure that the regulation: (1) Clearly specifies the preemptive effect, if any; (2) clearly
Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) requires each Federal agency to assess the effects of Federal regulatory actions on State, local, and Tribal governments and the private sector. Public Law 104-4, sec. 201 (codified at 2 U.S.C. 1531). For a proposed regulatory action likely to result in a rule that may cause the expenditure by State, local, and Tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more in any one year (adjusted annually for inflation), section 202 of UMRA requires a Federal agency to publish a written statement that estimates the resulting costs, benefits, and other effects on the national economy. (2 U.S.C. 1532(a), (b)) The UMRA also requires a Federal agency to develop an effective process to permit timely input by elected officers of State, local, and Tribal governments on a proposed “significant intergovernmental mandate,” and requires an agency plan for giving notice and opportunity for timely input to potentially affected small governments before establishing any requirements that might significantly or uniquely affect them. On March 18, 1997, DOE published a statement of policy on its process for intergovernmental consultation under UMRA. 62 FR 12820. DOE's policy statement is also available at
Although this proposed rule, which proposes new and amended energy conservation standards for beverage vending machines, does not contain a Federal intergovernmental mandate, it may require annual expenditures of $100 million or more by the private sector. Specifically, the proposed rule would likely result in a final rule that could require expenditures of $100 million or more, including: (1) Investment in research and development and in capital expenditures by BVM manufacturers in the years between the final rule and the compliance date for the amended standards; and (2) incremental additional expenditures by customers to purchase higher-efficiency beverage vending machines, starting at the compliance date for the applicable standard.
Section 202 of UMRA authorizes a Federal agency to respond to the content requirements of UMRA in any other statement or analysis that accompanies the proposed rule. 2 U.S.C. 1532(c). The content requirements of section 202(b) of UMRA relevant to a private sector mandate substantially overlap the economic analysis requirements that apply under section 325(o) of EPCA and Executive Order 12866. The analyses described throughout the Preamble section of the NOPR and the “Regulatory Impact Analysis” section of the TSD for this proposed rule respond to those requirements.
Under section 205 of UMRA, the Department is obligated to identify and consider a reasonable number of regulatory alternatives before promulgating a rule for which a written statement under section 202 is required. 2 U.S.C. 1535(a). DOE is required to select from those alternatives the most cost-effective and least burdensome alternative that achieves the objectives of the proposed rule unless DOE publishes an explanation for doing otherwise, or the selection of such an alternative is inconsistent with law. As required by 42 U.S.C. 6295(o) and (v), this proposed rule would establish new and amended energy conservation standards for beverage vending machines that are designed to achieve the maximum improvement in energy efficiency that DOE has determined to be both technologically feasible and economically justified. A full discussion of the alternatives considered by DOE is presented in the “Regulatory Impact Analysis” section of the TSD for this proposed rule.
Section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 1999 (Pub. L. 105-277) requires Federal agencies to issue a Family Policymaking Assessment for any rule that may affect family well-being. This proposed rule would not have any impact on the autonomy or integrity of the family as an institution. Accordingly, DOE has concluded that it is not necessary to prepare a Family Policymaking Assessment.
Pursuant to Executive Order 12630, “Governmental Actions and Interference with Constitutionally Protected Property Rights,” 53 FR 8859 (March 15, 1988), DOE has determined that this proposed rule would not result in any takings that might require compensation under the Fifth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution.
Section 515 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 2001 (44 U.S.C. 3516 note) provides for Federal agencies to review most disseminations of information to the public under information quality guidelines established by each agency pursuant to general guidelines issued by OMB. OMB's guidelines were published at 67 FR 8452 (February 22, 2002), and DOE's guidelines were published at 67 FR 62446 (October 7, 2002). DOE has reviewed this NOPR under the OMB and DOE guidelines and has concluded that it is consistent with applicable policies in those guidelines.
Executive Order 13211, “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use,” 66 FR 28355 (May 22, 2001), requires Federal agencies to prepare and submit to OIRA at OMB, a Statement of Energy Effects for any proposed significant energy action. A “significant energy action” is defined as any action by an agency that promulgates or is expected to lead to promulgation of a final rule, and that: (1) Is a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866, or any successor order; and (2) is likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy; or (3) is designated by the Administrator of OIRA as a significant energy action. For any proposed significant energy action, the agency must give a detailed statement of any adverse effects on energy supply, distribution, or use should the proposal be implemented, and of reasonable alternatives to the action and their expected benefits on energy supply, distribution, and use.
DOE has tentatively concluded that this regulatory action, which sets forth proposed energy conservation standards for beverage vending machines, is not a significant energy action because the
On December 16, 2004, OMB, in consultation with the Office of Science and Technology Policy (OSTP), issued its Final Information Quality Bulletin for Peer Review (the Bulletin). 70 FR 2664 (January 14, 2005). The Bulletin establishes that certain scientific information shall be peer reviewed by qualified specialists before it is disseminated by the Federal Government, including influential scientific information related to agency regulatory actions. The purpose of the bulletin is to enhance the quality and credibility of the Government's scientific information. Under the Bulletin, the energy conservation standards rulemaking analyses are “influential scientific information,” which the Bulletin defines as “scientific information the agency reasonably can determine will have or does have a clear and substantial impact on important public policies or private sector decisions.”
In response to OMB's Bulletin, DOE conducted formal in-progress peer reviews of the energy conservation standards development process and analyses and has prepared a Peer Review Report pertaining to the energy conservation standards rulemaking analyses. Generation of this report involved a rigorous, formal, and documented evaluation using objective criteria and qualified and independent reviewers to make a judgment as to the technical/scientific/business merit, the actual or anticipated results, and the productivity and management effectiveness of programs and/or projects. The “Energy Conservation Standards Rulemaking Peer Review Report” dated February 2007 has been disseminated and is available at the following Web site:
The time, date, and location of the public meeting are listed in the
Please note that foreign nationals visiting DOE Headquarters are subject to advance security screening procedures that require advance notice prior to attendance at the public meeting. Any foreign national wishing to participate in the meeting should advise DOE as soon as possible by contacting
DOE requires visitors to have laptops and other devices, such as tablets, checked upon entry into the building. Any person wishing to bring these devices into the Forrestal Building will be required to obtain a property pass. Visitors should avoid bringing these devices, or allow an extra 45 minutes to check in. Please report to the visitor's desk to have devices checked before proceeding through security.
Due to the REAL ID Act implemented by the Department of Homeland Security (DHS), there have been recent changes regarding ID requirements for individuals wishing to enter Federal buildings from specific states and U.S. territories. Driver's licenses from the following states or territory will not be accepted for building entry and one of the alternate forms of ID listed below will be required. DHS has determined that regular driver's licenses (and ID cards) from the following jurisdictions are not acceptable for entry into DOE facilities: Alaska, American Samoa, Arizona, Louisiana, Maine, Massachusetts, Minnesota, New York, Oklahoma, and Washington. Acceptable alternate forms of Photo-ID include: U.S. Passport or Passport Card; an Enhanced Driver's License or Enhanced ID-Card issued by the states of Minnesota, New York or Washington (Enhanced licenses issued by these states are clearly marked Enhanced or Enhanced Driver's License); a military ID or other Federal government issued Photo-ID card.
In addition, you can attend the public meeting via webinar. Webinar registration information, participant instructions, and information about the capabilities available to webinar participants will be published on DOE's Web site at:
Any person who has an interest in the topics addressed in this NOPR, or who is a representative of a group or class of persons that has an interest in these issues, may request an opportunity to make an oral presentation at the public meeting. Such persons may hand-deliver requests to speak to the address shown in the
DOE requests persons scheduled to make an oral presentation to submit an advance copy of their statements at least one week before the public meeting. DOE may permit persons who cannot supply an advance copy of their statement to participate, if those persons have made advance alternative arrangements with the Building Technologies Program. As necessary, requests to give an oral presentation should ask for such alternative arrangements.
DOE will designate a DOE official to preside at the public meeting and may also use a professional facilitator to aid discussion. The meeting will not be a judicial or evidentiary-type public hearing, but DOE will conduct it in accordance with section 336 of EPCA (42 U.S.C. 6306). A court reporter will be present to record the proceedings and prepare a transcript. DOE reserves the right to schedule the order of presentations and to establish the procedures governing the conduct of the public meeting. There shall not be discussion of proprietary information, costs or prices, market share, or other commercial matters regulated by U.S. anti-trust laws. After the public meeting, interested parties may submit further comments on the proceedings, as well as on any aspect of the rulemaking, until the end of the comment period.
The public meeting will be conducted in an informal, conference style. DOE will present summaries of comments received before the public meeting, allow time for prepared general statements by participants, and encourage all interested parties to share
At the end of all prepared statements on a topic, DOE will permit participants to clarify their statements briefly and comment on statements made by others. Participants should be prepared to answer questions by DOE and by other participants concerning these issues. DOE representatives may also ask questions of participants concerning other matters relevant to this rulemaking. The official conducting the public meeting will accept additional comments or questions from those attending, as time permits. The presiding official will announce any further procedural rules or modification of the above procedures that may be needed for the proper conduct of the public meeting.
A transcript of the public meeting will be included in the docket, which can be viewed as described in the
DOE will accept comments, data, and information regarding this proposed rule before or after the public meeting, but no later than the date provided in the
However, your contact information will be publicly viewable if you include it in the comment itself or in any documents attached to your comment. Any information that you do not want to be publicly viewable should not be included in your comment, nor in any document attached to your comment. Otherwise, persons viewing comments will see only first and last names, organization names, correspondence containing comments, and any documents submitted with the comments.
Do not submit to
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Include contact information each time you submit comments, data, documents, and other information to DOE. If you submit via mail or hand delivery/courier, please provide all items on a CD, if feasible, in which case it is not necessary to submit printed copies. No telefacsimiles (faxes) will be accepted.
Comments, data, and other information submitted to DOE electronically should be provided in PDF (preferred), Microsoft Word or Excel, WordPerfect, or text (ASCII) file format. Provide documents that are not secured, that are written in English, and that are free of any defects or viruses. Documents should not contain special characters or any form of encryption and, if possible, they should carry the electronic signature of the author.
Factors of interest to DOE when evaluating requests to treat submitted information as confidential include: (1) A description of the items; (2) whether and why such items are customarily treated as confidential within the industry; (3) whether the information is generally known by or available from other sources; (4) whether the information has previously been made available to others without obligation concerning its confidentiality; (5) an explanation of the competitive injury to the submitting person which would result from public disclosure; (6) when such information might lose its confidential character due to the passage of time; and (7) why disclosure of the information would be contrary to the public interest.
It is DOE's policy that all comments may be included in the public docket, without change and as received, including any personal information provided in the comments (except information deemed to be exempt from public disclosure).
Although DOE welcomes comments on any aspect of this proposal, DOE is particularly interested in receiving comments and views of interested parties concerning the following issues:
1. DOE requests comment on the proposed amendment to the Class A equipment class definition. Specifically, DOE requests comment on whether the
2. DOE requests comment on the proposed optional test protocol to determine transparent and non-transparent surface areas and whether Class A equipment typically has at least 25 percent of the surface area on the front side of the unit that is transparent or if another quantitative threshold would be more appropriate.
3. DOE requests comment on the proposed definition of transparent. Specifically, whether 45 percent light transmittance is an acceptable value for the glass or other transparent materials that are typically used to construct the front panel on Class A equipment.
4. DOE requests comment on the proposed amendment to the definition of “combination vending machine.”
5. DOE requests comment on the proposed definition for Combination A and Combination B.
6. DOE also requests comment on DOE's proposal to apply the optional test protocol for determining the surface area and transparency of materials to combination vending machines, except that the surface areas surrounding the refrigerated compartments that are not designed to be refrigerated would be excluded.
7. DOE requests comment on its updated estimate of market share for combination vending machines.
8. DOE requests comment on its position that machines capable of vending perishable goods do not warrant separate classes due to their physical similarity to refrigerated beverage vending machines used to vend non-perishable products.
9. DOE requests feedback on the manufacturer markup values used to convert MPC to MSP.
10. DOE requests comment on whether equipment is tested with all lighting and accessories on for the duration of the test and no low power modes or energy management systems enabled.
11. DOE requests information on whether the current standard level for Class A and Class B machines is achievable without the use of any energy management systems.
12. To refine its engineering analysis for beverage vending machines further, DOE requests comment and data from interested parties on several topics related to the refrigerants analyzed in the engineering analysis and their relative performance characteristics. Specifically, DOE requests information on the efficiency of CO
13. DOE requests comment on the conclusion that both the current standard level and all of the efficiency levels analyzed could be met by equipment using any refrigerant.
14. DOE requests information on the additional costs associated with CO
15. DOE requests comment and information on the use of propane, isobutane, and other hydrocarbon refrigerants in current commercially available BVM models or on significant research and development efforts on the part of domestic BVM manufacturers to commercialize this technology in the near future.
16. DOE requests comment on the likelihood of manufacturers using propane versus isobutane refrigerant since both have been added to the list of acceptable substitutes for use in BVM applications by EPA SNAP. If it is likely that isobutane would also be implemented in BVM applications, DOE requests similar information on the efficiency of isobutane compressors and additional costs associated with isobutane refrigeration systems, including but not limited to additional costs for the compressor, evaporator, condenser, and refrigerant tubing.
17. DOE requests comment on whether the conversion to use of any alternative refrigerant may impact the availability or relevance of any design options currently observed in equipment on the market.
18. DOE requests data on the use of variable speed compressors in beverage vending machines.
19. DOE requests comment on distribution channels for beverage vending machines.
20. DOE requests comment on the conclusion that data from college campuses are reasonably representative of BVM locations nationally and on their use in estimating the proportion of Class B and Combination B beverage vending machines installed outdoors.
21. DOE requests comment on its decision to disregard the adjustment factors calculated in the preliminary analysis thereby simplifying the energy use analysis by using the national average AEC values.
22. DOE requests comment regarding whether the analysis should account for the impact of any incremental energy use associated with cold weather heaters on the national average energy consumption of Class B and Combination B equipment.
23. DOE also requests data on the incidence and control methodology of cold weather heaters in BVM equipment installed in cold climates.
24. DOE requests comment on the energy use analysis methodology used to estimate the AEC of Class A, Class B, Combination A, and Combination B beverage vending machines located indoors and outdoors, as applicable.
25. DOE requests comment on any other variables DOE should account for in its estimate of national average energy use for beverage vending machines.
26. DOE requests comment on the maintenance and repair costs modeled in the LCC analysis and especially appreciates additional data regarding differences in maintenance or repair costs that vary as a function of refrigerant, equipment class, or efficiency level.
27. DOE requests comment on the assumed lifetime of beverage vending machines and if the lifetime of beverage vending machines is likely to be longer or shorter in the future.
28. DOE requests comment on its assumption that a beverage vending machine will typically undergo two refurbishments during the course of its life and if refurbishments are likely to increase or decrease in the future.
29. DOE also requests comment on the applicability of this assumption to all equipment classes.
30. DOE requests further input or evidence regarding any technology options considered that would be expected to reduce overall equipment lifetimes and if so, by how much.
31. DOE requests comment on its assumption that all baseline Class A and Class B propane and Class A CO
32. DOE requests comment on its assumption that Combination A and Combination B beverage vending machines have efficiency distributions similar to Class A and Class B equipment because manufacturers will use the same cabinet and similar components in the combination machines as the conventional Class A and Class B equipment.
33. DOE requests comment on its assumptions regarding historical shipments between 1998 and 2014.
34. DOE also requests data from manufacturers on historical shipments, by equipment class, size, and efficiency level, for as many years as possible, ideally beginning in 1998 until the present.
35. DOE requests comment on its assumptions regarding future shipments. Specifically, DOE requests comment on the stock of BVM units likely to be available in the United
36. DOE also requests comment on the number of beverage vending machines that are typically installed in each location or building in each industry and if this is likely to increase or decrease over time.
37. DOE requests comment on its assumptions regarding likely reduction in stock in different commercial and industrial building sectors in which beverage vending machines are typically installed.
38. DOE also requests comment on other factors that might be influencing an overall reduction in BVM stock and if this trend is likely to continue over time.
39. DOE requests comment on the impact of the EPA SNAP rules on future shipments of beverage vending machines, by equipment class, refrigerant, and efficiency level.
40. DOE requests comment on its assumptions regarding the relative market share of each refrigerant by equipment class.
41. DOE requests comment on the high and low shipments scenarios.
42. DOE requests comment on the impact of the recent EPA SNAP rulemakings changing the availability of certain refrigerants for the BVM application on future efficiency distributions.
43. DOE requests comment on the identification and analysis of beverage vending machine customer subgroups.
44. DOE requests manufacturers provide an estimate of the capital and product conversion costs associated compliance with DOE amended energy conservation standards.
45. DOE specifically requests feedback from industry regarding the product conversion costs associated with standards compliance for Combination A and Combination B equipment.
46. DOE requests manufacturers provide an estimate of the one-time investments required to transition to alternative refrigerants, such as CO
47. DOE requests that manufacturers provide sufficient detail such that DOE could model and verify these one-time costs related to the change in refrigerants, including the specific capital expenditures required and the potential redesign costs on a per-platform basis.
48. DOE requests manufacturers provide information about the ability to coordinate one-time investments related to EPA Rule 20 compliance and conversion costs necessitated by the DOE energy conservation standards.
49. DOE requests comment on the proposal to clarify the calculation of the refrigerated volume for each BVM basic model.
50. DOE requests comments on the total annual direct employment levels in the industry for BVM production.
51. DOE requests comment on its preliminary conclusion that the proposed standard levels will not have any negative impact on the performance or utility of equipment available in the market.
52. DOE requests comment regarding any potential impacts on small business manufacturers from the proposed standards. In particular, DOE seeks further information and data regarding the sales volume and annual revenues for small businesses so the agency can be better informed about the potential impacts to small business manufacturers of the proposed energy conservation standards. DOE will consider any such additional information when formulating and selecting TSLs for the final rule.
The Secretary of Energy has approved publication of this proposed rule.
Confidential business information, Energy conservation, Household appliances, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Confidential business information, Energy conservation, Incorporation by reference, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, DOE is proposing to amend parts 429 and 431 of chapter II of title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations as set forth below:
42 U.S.C. 6291-6317.
(a) * * *
(3) The representative value of refrigerated volume of a basic model reported in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall be the mean of the refrigerated volumes measured for each tested unit of the basic model and determined in accordance with the test procedure in § 431.296.
(g)
(i) If the representative value of refrigerated volume is found to be valid, the certified refrigerated volume will be used as the basis for calculation of maximum daily energy consumption for the basic model.
(ii) If the representative value of refrigerated volume is found to be invalid, the average measured refrigerated volume determined from the tested unit(s) will serve as the basis for calculation of maximum daily energy consumption for the tested basic model.
(2)
(i)
(ii)
42 U.S.C. 6291-6317.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(c)
(1) ASTM E 1084 (Reapproved 2009), “Standard Test Method for Solar Transmittance (Terrestrial) of Sheet Materials Using Sunlight,” approved April 1, 2009, IBR approved for § 431.292.
(2) [Reserved]
(a) Each refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine manufactured on or after August 31, 2012 and before [DATE 3 YEARS AFTER PUBLICATION OF THE FINAL RULE ESTABLISHING NEW AND AMENDED ENERGY CONSERVATION STANDARDS FOR REFRIGERATED BOTTLED OR CANNED BEVERAGE VENDING MACHINES IN THE
(b) Each refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine manufactured on or after [DATE 3 YEARS AFTER PUBLICATION OF THE FINAL RULE ESTABLISHING NEW AND AMENDED ENERGY CONSERVATION STANDARDS FOR REFRIGERATED BOTTLED OR CANNED BEVERAGE VENDING MACHINES FINAL RULE IN THE
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |