Page Range | 72327-72553 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
80 FR 72357 - Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement: Removal of Cuba From the List of State Sponsors of Terrorism (DFARS 2015-D032) | |
80 FR 72551 - Honoring the Victims of the Attack in Paris, France | |
80 FR 72433 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
80 FR 72470 - Sunshine Act Meeting; Meeting No. 15-04 | |
80 FR 72470 - In the Matter of the Designation of Nasir al-Wahishi as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist Pursuant to Section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224, as Amended | |
80 FR 72470 - Delegation of Authority Under Section 306 of the Enhanced Border Security and Visa Entry Reform Act of 2002 to the Under Secretary for Political Affairs and the Assistant Secretary for Consular Affairs | |
80 FR 72470 - Delegation to the Assistant Secretary for International Security and Nonproliferation of Authority Under Section 1322(a) of the Fiscal Year 2015 National Defense Authorization Act (Pub. L. 113-291) | |
80 FR 72446 - Information Collection Request to Office of Management and Budget; OMB Control Number: 1625-0041 | |
80 FR 72444 - Collection of Information Under Review by Office of Management and Budget; OMB Control Number: 1625-0015 | |
80 FR 72443 - Collection of Information Under Review by Office of Management and Budget; OMB Control Number: 1625-0010 | |
80 FR 72449 - Collection of Information Under Review by Office of Management and Budget; OMB Control Number: 1625-0070 | |
80 FR 72356 - Safety Zones; Fireworks Events in Captain of the Port New York Zone | |
80 FR 72455 - Privacy Act of 1974, as Amended: New System of Records | |
80 FR 72412 - Approval of Expansion of Subzone 77E; Cummins, Inc.; Memphis, Tennessee | |
80 FR 72412 - Foreign-Trade Zone (FTZ) 45-Portland, Oregon; Notification of Proposed Production Activity; Lam Research Corporation; Subzone 45H; (Semiconductor Production Equipment, Subassemblies and Related Parts) Tualatin and Sherwood, Oregon | |
80 FR 72441 - Collection of Information Under Review by Office of Management and Budget; OMB Control Number: 1625-0046 | |
80 FR 72447 - Collection of Information Under Review by Office of Management and Budget; OMB Control Number: 1625-0088 | |
80 FR 72450 - Collection of Information Under Review by Office of Management and Budget; OMB Control Number: 1625-0067 | |
80 FR 72445 - Collection of Information Under Review by Office of Management and Budget; OMB Control Number: 1625-0099 | |
80 FR 72451 - Information Collection Request to Office of Management and Budget; OMB Control Number: 1625-0009 | |
80 FR 72448 - Collection of Information Under Review by Office of Management and Budget; OMB Control Number: 1625-0103 | |
80 FR 72442 - Information Collection Request to Office of Management and Budget; OMB Control Number: 1625-0042 | |
80 FR 72468 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Request and Comment Request | |
80 FR 72489 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Form 8874 | |
80 FR 72488 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Regulation Project | |
80 FR 72487 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for 13768, Electronic Tax Administration Advisory Committee Membership Application | |
80 FR 72486 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Regulation Project | |
80 FR 72489 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Form 8900 | |
80 FR 72490 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Form 5213. | |
80 FR 72487 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Regulation Project | |
80 FR 72453 - Information Collection: NRC Form 244, Registration Certificate-Use of Depleted Uranium Under General License | |
80 FR 72418 - South Atlantic Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
80 FR 72437 - Advisory Committee on Interdisciplinary, Community-Based Linkages; Notice for Request for Nominations | |
80 FR 72439 - Advisory Committee on Training in Primary Care Medicine and Dentistry; Notice for Request for Nominations | |
80 FR 72438 - Council on Graduate Medical Education, Notice for Request for Nominations | |
80 FR 72414 - Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council (MAFMC); Public Meeting | |
80 FR 72417 - North Pacific Fishery Management Council; Public Meetings | |
80 FR 72418 - New England Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting; Addendum | |
80 FR 72486 - Union Pacific Railroad Company-Temporary Trackage Rights Exemption-BNSF Railway Company | |
80 FR 72471 - WTO Dispute Settlement Proceeding Regarding United States-Anti-Dumping and Countervailing Measures on Certain Coated Paper From Indonesia | |
80 FR 72327 - Amendment of Asian Longhorned Beetle Quarantine Areas in Massachusetts and New York | |
80 FR 72433 - Notice of Termination; 10454 The Royal Palm Bank of Florida, Naples, FL | |
80 FR 72410 - Office of the Under Secretary, Research, Education, and Economics; Notice of the Advisory Committee on Biotechnology and 21st Century Agriculture Meeting | |
80 FR 72452 - Exelon Generating Company, LLC; Braidwood Station, Units 1 and 2 | |
80 FR 72454 - In the Matter of All Operating Reactor Licensees With Mark I and Mark II Containments | |
80 FR 72358 - Regulatory Improvements for Decommissioning Power Reactors | |
80 FR 72408 - Control Date for the Trawl Limited Access Fishery for Yellowfin Sole in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands | |
80 FR 72451 - Advisory Committee on Family Residential Centers Meeting | |
80 FR 72434 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
80 FR 72422 - Notice of Availability of Government-Owned Inventions; Available for Licensing | |
80 FR 72480 - Notice of Buy America Waiver | |
80 FR 72422 - Eligibility Designations and Applications for Waiver of Eligibility Requirements; Programs Under Parts A and F of Title III of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as Amended (HEA), and Programs Under Title V of the HEA | |
80 FR 72433 - Notice of Termination, 10472 Gold Canyon Bank, Gold Canyon, Arizona | |
80 FR 72421 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; “Madrid Protocol” | |
80 FR 72415 - Final Notice of Fee Calculations for Special Use Permits | |
80 FR 72440 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
80 FR 72411 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Oklahoma Advisory Committee To Discuss Findings and Recommendations Resulting From Its Inquiry Into the Civil Rights Impact of School Disciplinary Policies That May Contribute to High Rates of Juvenile Incarceration in Oklahoma | |
80 FR 72421 - Marine Protected Areas Federal Advisory Committee; Public Meeting | |
80 FR 72438 - Advisory Commission on Childhood Vaccines; Notice of Meeting | |
80 FR 72342 - Consumer Price Index Adjustments of Oil Pollution Act of 1990 Limits of Liability-Vessels, Deepwater Ports and Onshore Facilities | |
80 FR 72473 - Surface Transportation Project Delivery Program; TxDOT Audit Report | |
80 FR 72436 - Agency Forms Undergoing Paperwork Reduction Act Review | |
80 FR 72427 - Consolidated Water Power Company; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing and Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Protests | |
80 FR 72428 - PacifiCorp Energy; Notice of Availability of Draft Environmental Assessment | |
80 FR 72429 - Pacific Gas and Electric Company; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing, Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Protests | |
80 FR 72431 - Magnolia LNG, LLC, Kinder Morgan Louisiana Pipeline LLC; Notice of Availability of The Final Environmental Impact Statement for the Proposed Magnolia LNG and Lake Charles Expansion Projects | |
80 FR 72426 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
80 FR 72428 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
80 FR 72431 - Idarado Mining Company, Newmont Mining Corporation; Notice of Transfer of Exemption | |
80 FR 72428 - BIF III Holtwood LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
80 FR 72430 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
80 FR 72404 - Aviation Maintenance Technician Schools | |
80 FR 72405 - Amendment To Clarify When Component Part Testing Can Be Used and Which Textile Products Have Been Determined Not To Exceed the Allowable Lead Content Limits; Notice of Reopening of Comment Period | |
80 FR 72342 - Amendment To Clarify When Component Part Testing Can Be Used and Which Textile Products Have Been Determined Not To Exceed the Allowable Lead Content Limits; Delay of Effective Date and Extension of Comment Period | |
80 FR 72434 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
80 FR 72452 - Meeting of the Office of Justice Programs' Science Advisory Board | |
80 FR 72432 - Office of Research and Development; Ambient Air Monitoring Reference and Equivalent Methods: Designation of One New Reference Method and One New Equivalent Method | |
80 FR 72457 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend the NYSE Arca Options Fee Schedule Effective December 1, 2015 | |
80 FR 72465 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change Amending the NYSE Arca Options Fee Schedule | |
80 FR 72458 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; ICE Clear Credit LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Revise ICC End-of-Day Price Discovery Policies and Procedures | |
80 FR 72460 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing of Amendment Nos. 3 and 5 and Order Granting Accelerated Approval of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment Nos. 1, 3 and 5, Amending Exchange Disciplinary Rules To Facilitate the Reintegration of Certain Regulatory Functions From Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. | |
80 FR 72434 - Statement of Organization, Functions, and Delegations of Authority | |
80 FR 72412 - Foreign-Trade Zone 78-Nashville, Tennessee; Application for Expansion of Subzone 78A Nissan North America, Inc. Smyrna, Tennessee | |
80 FR 72484 - Aston Martin Lagonda Limited, Grant of Petition for Decision of Inconsequential Noncompliance | |
80 FR 72483 - Michelin North America, Inc., Receipt of Petition for Decision of Inconsequential Noncompliance | |
80 FR 72482 - Mitsubishi Motors North America, Inc., Grant of Petition for Decision of Inconsequential Noncompliance | |
80 FR 72422 - U.S. Air Force Academy Board of Visitors: Notice of Meeting | |
80 FR 72401 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
80 FR 72395 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
80 FR 72398 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
80 FR 72393 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
80 FR 72373 - Energy Conservation Program: Enforcement of Regional Standards for Central Air Conditioners | |
80 FR 72390 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Helicopters (Formerly Eurocopter France) Helicopters | |
80 FR 72406 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; District of Columbia; Regulation To Limit Nitrogen Oxides Emissions From Large Non-Electric Generating Units | |
80 FR 72327 - Responsibilities of Boards of Directors, Corporate Practices and Corporate Governance Matters | |
80 FR 72411 - Notice of New Fee Site; Federal Lands Recreation Enhancement Act | |
80 FR 72491 - Rights-of-Way on Indian Land |
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
Forest Service
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Patent and Trademark Office
Air Force Department
Defense Acquisition Regulations System
Navy Department
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Health Resources and Services Administration
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration
Coast Guard
U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement
Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight Office
Indian Affairs Bureau
Justice Programs Office
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Highway Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Surface Transportation Board
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Affirmation of interim rule as final rule.
We are adopting as a final rule, without change, an interim rule that amended the Asian longhorned beetle (ALB) regulations by removing the boroughs of Manhattan and Staten Island in New York City, as well as the counties of Suffolk and Norfolk in the State of Massachusetts, from the list of quarantined areas for ALB. The interim rule was necessary to relieve restrictions on the movement of regulated articles from areas no longer under ALB quarantine. As a result of the interim rule, movement of such articles from areas no longer under quarantine can proceed while preventing the artificial spread of ALB from infested areas to noninfested areas of the United States.
Effective on November 19, 2015, we are adopting as a final rule the interim rule published at 80 FR 48001-48002 on August 11, 2015.
Ms. Claudia Ferguson, Senior Regulatory Policy Specialist, Regulatory Coordination and Compliance, Imports, Regulations, and Manuals, PPQ, APHIS, 4700 River Road Unit 133, Riverdale, MD 20737-1231; (301) 851-2352;
In an interim rule
Comments on the interim rule were required to be received on or before September 10, 2015. We did not receive any comments. Therefore, for the reasons given in the interim rule, we are adopting the interim rule as a final rule without change.
This action also affirms the information contained in the interim rule concerning Executive Order 12866 and the Regulatory Flexibility Act, Executive Orders 12372 and 12988, and the Paperwork Reduction Act.
Further, for this action, the Office of Management and Budget has waived its review under Executive Order 12866.
Agricultural commodities, Plant diseases and pests, Quarantine, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transportation.
Accordingly, we are adopting as a final rule, without change, the interim rule that amended 7 CFR part 301 and that was published at 80 FR 48001-48002 on August 11, 2015.
Federal Housing Finance Board; Federal Housing Finance Agency; Office of Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight.
Final rule.
The Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) is amending its regulations by relocating and consolidating certain regulations of its predecessor agencies—the Federal Housing Finance Board (Finance Board) and Office of Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight (OFHEO)—that pertain to the responsibilities of boards of directors, corporate practices, and corporate governance matters. The OFHEO regulations addressed corporate governance matters at the Federal National Mortgage Association (Fannie Mae) and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (Freddie Mac) (collectively, the Enterprises), while the Finance Board regulations addressed the powers and responsibilities of the boards of directors and management of the Federal Home Loan Banks (Banks). The final rule consolidates most of those regulations into a new FHFA regulation, parts of which will apply to both the Banks and the Enterprises (together, regulated entities), and parts of which will apply only to the Banks or only to the Enterprises. Most of the content of the new regulations has been derived from the regulations of the predecessor agencies, with such modifications as are necessary to apply the regulations to all of the regulated entities, to respond to issues raised by the commenters, or to clarify the regulatory text. The final rule
The final rule is effective on December 21, 2015.
Amy Bogdon, Associate Director, Division of Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation, at
On January 28, 2014, FHFA published a proposed rule that would relocate, revise, and consolidate into a new FHFA regulation certain of the rules of the predecessor agencies that dealt with corporate practices and governance at the Banks and the Enterprises.
The proposed rule included a number of provisions that would apply to all of the regulated entities because they addressed matters of general applicability, but also included other provisions that would apply only to the Banks or only to the Enterprises because they addressed topics that are unique to the particular type of entity. The substance of most of the provisions of the proposed rule was unchanged from that of the predecessor regulations, except for the provision on risk management, which was new. The proposed rule would also have carried over a Finance Board regulation on regulatory reporting and applied that provision to all of the regulated entities.
In conjunction with the relocation of the predecessor regulations, the proposed rule also would have revised certain provisions of FHFA's Prudential Standards. Specifically, the proposal would have redesignated the introductory section to the Prudential Standards—which recites general concepts of corporate governance and responsibilities of the board of directors and senior management—as a separate standard. Doing so would clarify FHFA's authority to enforce those provisions in the same manner as any of the other ten enumerated standards. Lastly, the proposal would have repealed a provision of the OFHEO regulations, 12 CFR part 1720, which had established certain safety and soundness standards for the Enterprises, because many of the matters addressed by those regulations are also addressed by the Prudential Standards or by the proposed rule.
When promulgating regulations or taking other actions that relate to the Banks, section 1313(f) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (Safety and Soundness Act) requires the Director of FHFA (Director) to consider the differences between the Banks and the Enterprises with respect to the Banks' cooperative ownership structure; mission of providing liquidity to members; affordable housing and community development mission; capital structure; and joint and several liability. 12 U.S.C. 4513(f). In preparing the proposed and final rules, the Director has considered those differences as they relate to the above factors and has determined that none of the statutory factors would be adversely affected by the final rule. None of the comment letters addressed this requirement.
In response to the proposed rule, FHFA received three substantive comment letters, one each from Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac, and a joint letter from the Banks. Each letter generally supported the proposed rule, but also recommended different ways in which FHFA should revise certain aspects of the rule. In response to these recommendations, FHFA has incorporated a number of revisions into the final rule. The following sections of this document describe the issues raised by the commenters, along with FHFA's responses, which are included as part of FHFA's descriptions of the particular provisions of the final rule for which the commenters had suggested revisions. For other provisions of the proposed rule about which the commenters raised no issues, FHFA has adopted them without change.
The organizational structure of the final rule is the same as that of the proposed rule, meaning that it includes one subpart for definitions and four subparts for the substantive provisions. Subpart A defines terms used within the final rule. Subpart B includes provisions relating to certain core corporate governance principles and applies to both the Banks and the Enterprises. Subpart C addresses codes of conduct for the entities, risk management, compliance programs, and regulatory reports, and also applies to all regulated entities. Subparts D and E include regulations from the predecessor agencies that address matters specific to the Banks (such as those relating to a Bank's member products policy) or to the Enterprises (such as those relating to the Enterprise boards), respectively. None of these provisions is intended to address conservatorship matters at the Enterprises. Instead, they are intended to address matters of corporate practice and governance for regulated entities that are not in conservatorship by replacing the existing OFHEO regulations on those same topics.
The proposed rule included seventeen defined terms, most of which were derived from the predecessor agencies' regulations and were to be incorporated into the FHFA's regulations without change. The final rule revises one of the proposed definitions, deletes two proposed definitions, and adds one new definition.
The proposed rule would have defined “executive officer” to include the chairperson and vice-chairperson of an Enterprise, along with a number of other specified senior executive positions at any Bank or Enterprise. Both Enterprises commented that defining “executive officer” to include the chairperson and vice-chairperson created a conflict with another provision of the proposed rule, 12 CFR 1239.20(a)(3), which requires the chairperson of an Enterprise to be a person other than the chief executive officer, who also must be independent, as defined by the rules of the New York Stock Exchange (NYSE). The applicable NYSE rule provides that a company's chairperson is not “independent” if the person is, or has been within the past three years, an executive officer of the company. In order to resolve this conflict, FHFA agrees with the commenters and has amended the definition of “executive officer” to delete the references to an Enterprise's chairperson and vice-chairperson.
The proposed rule had used the term “risk profile” in several places within the risk management section of the rule, but did not define that term. In considering how to define that term for the final rule, FHFA determined that a similar term—“risk appetite”—as defined by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency in its guidelines establishing heightened standards for national banks, better described the concept that FHFA had intended with its use of the term “risk profile” in the proposed rule. Accordingly, the final rule replaces the references to “risk profile” with the new term “risk appetite” and defines that term to mean the aggregate level and types of risk the board of directors and management are willing to assume to achieve the regulated entity's strategic objectives and business plan, consistent with applicable capital, liquidity, and other regulatory requirements.
The final rule deletes the defined term “authorizing statutes” because FHFA has recently defined that term within its general definitions section, at 12 CFR 1201, which definitions apply to all of FHFA's regulations. FHFA has also deleted the definition of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act from the final rule, because that term is only used once within the regulatory text, which now refers to that act by its name, rather than the acronym.
The proposed rule defined credit risk as “the potential that a borrower or counterparty will fail to meet its financial obligations in accordance with agreed terms.” Credit risk is one of the several specified risks that the rule requires a regulated entity's risk management program to address. Freddie Mac contended that the proposed definition was both too broad and too narrow and also suggested that FHFA replace “financial obligations” with “contractual obligations.” Freddie Mac also suggested that FHFA define “credit risk” in terms of an actual failure of a counterparty to perform,
Subpart B of the proposed rule included three provisions that addressed certain core principles of corporate practices or governance that were to apply to both the Enterprises and the Banks. Those provisions addressed choice of law for governance and indemnification matters, duties of directors, and committees of the boards of directors. Nearly all of the content of those provisions was derived from the Finance Board or OFHEO regulations.
Proposed § 1239.3(a) and (b) generally would have required that a regulated entity's corporate governance and indemnification practices comply with any applicable federal law, but also would have required each regulated entity to designate in its bylaws a body of law to follow with respect to those practices. The proposed rule would have allowed a regulated entity to follow: (1) The law of the jurisdiction in which the entity maintains its principal office; (2) the Delaware General Corporation Law; or (3) the Revised Model Business Corporation Act. This choice of law provision would be new only for the Banks because the OFHEO regulations had previously imposed this requirement on the Enterprises.
The Banks expressed concern that by choosing a particular body of state law to follow they could subject themselves to the jurisdiction of those states' courts and would allow their members to assert all of the rights available to stockholders of corporations organized under those state laws. Although FHFA does not believe that its regulations would cause either of those possibilities to occur, it agrees that for the sake of clarity the final rule should be revised to state explicitly that the regulation does not create any rights in the members or other third parties and that it does not otherwise cause the regulated entities to become subject to the jurisdiction of state courts on matters of corporate governance and indemnification. In addition, FHFA has determined that it would be appropriate to allow the Banks an additional period of time within which to compare the relative merits of the three bodies of law from which they may choose. Accordingly, the final rule allows the Banks a period of 90 days after the effective date of the rule by which to designate in their bylaws their chosen body of law.
The Banks also suggested that the regulation should allow them to model their bylaw provisions after certain specific state law provisions, rather than on an entire body of state corporate law. FHFA has declined to make that revision for the final rule because it
The proposed rule would have required the regulated entities to indemnify their directors, officers, and employees under terms and conditions to be determined by the entities' boards of directors. Section 1239.3(c)(2) further would have required that each regulated entity adopt policies and procedures for indemnifying its personnel, which had to address how the board would make decisions on indemnification requests and what standards the board would use for indemnification requests, as well as for board investigations and review by outside counsel. These provisions were modeled on FHFA's regulations governing the Office of Finance, 12 CFR 1273.7(i)(3), and the OFHEO indemnification provisions at 12 CFR 1710.20.
The Banks' comment letter questioned FHFA's authority to subject the Banks to regulations relating to indemnification, citing a provision of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (Bank Act), 12 U.S.C. 1427(k), which they believed committed matters of indemnification exclusively to the discretion of the Bank's board of directors. FHFA believes that the language of the proposed rule is fully consistent with the authority granted to the Banks' boards of directors by section 1427(k) because the rule largely restates and elaborates on the statutory requirement that the boards of directors are to determine the terms and conditions on which the regulated entities are to provide indemnification to their personnel.
The one aspect of the proposed rule that differed from the statute pertained to the provisions requiring the entities to adopt policies describing the manner in which they would exercise their indemnification authority. In effect, those provisions would have required the entities to commit to writing the decisions that their boards of directors make with respect to the circumstances under which they intend to provide indemnification to their officers and employees and the manner in which they will make those decisions. Requiring the entities to document the policies, procedures, and standards that the board of directors will use when considering requests for indemnification does not diminish the authority of the boards of directors to set the terms and conditions on which the entity will indemnify its personnel. In such cases, the boards would still decide the terms and conditions for indemnification, and the written policies, procedures, and standards would reflect and implement those board decisions. Requiring a regulated entity to have in place procedural safeguards, such as policies, procedures, and standards for indemnification, benefits the board of directors by helping to ensure that they make their indemnification decisions on a consistent basis, which in turn increases the likelihood that the entities will make these decisions in a safe and sound manner. FHFA has explicit authority to adopt regulations to ensure that the purposes of the Bank Act are carried out.
The proposed rule also included a provision carried over from the OFHEO regulations that authorized FHFA to review an entity's indemnification policies, procedures, and practices and to limit or prohibit an entity from making indemnification payments based on FHFA's safety and soundness authority. The commenters questioned whether FHFA has the legal authority to prohibit indemnification payments based solely on its safety and soundness authority, particularly in light of a 2008 statutory amendment that explicitly authorized FHFA to prohibit indemnification payments only in cases where FHFA has initiated the action against an officer or director of a regulated entity. 12 U.S.C. 4518(e). Fannie Mae also objected to certain language in the supplementary information to the proposed rule, which described this provision as allowing FHFA to prohibit indemnification payment to “any person found to have violated any law or regulation,” as going beyond the language of the regulatory text.
To address these comments, FHFA has revised § 1239.3(c)(4) of the final rule in two respects. First, the final rule no longer asserts the authority of FHFA to limit or prohibit indemnification payments based solely on safety and soundness grounds. To the extent that FHFA deems it necessary to limit or prohibit indemnification payments by a regulated entity, it will act under the authority conferred by 12 U.S.C. 4518(e), which applies only to instances in which FHFA has initiated the underlying civil or administrative action. Second, the final rule revises the regulatory language to provide that FHFA may review a regulated entity's indemnification policies, procedures, and practices to ensure that they are consistent with law and with safety and soundness, and that they are carried out in a safe and sound manner. FHFA anticipates that this type of review could focus on issues such as whether a regulated entity has been consistent in how it acts on indemnification requests from different persons, and whether it has documented that it has made its decisions in accordance with the body of state law that the entity has chosen to follow for indemnification purposes.
Lastly, the Banks asked that FHFA clarify the circumstances in which it would exercise its statutory authority under the factors enumerated in 12 U.S.C. 4518(e)(2), which authorizes FHFA to limit or prohibit indemnification payments in connection with civil or administrative actions brought by FHFA. Because the proposed rule did not include any provisions relating to section 4518(e)(2), FHFA cannot address that provision for the first time as part of this final rule. That statutory provision is the subject of a separate rulemaking.
Proposed § 1239.4 set forth certain duties and responsibilities of directors of a regulated entity. The text of the proposed regulation consisted mostly of provisions carried over from Finance Board regulations § 917.2, § 917.10, and, to a lesser extent, OFHEO regulation § 1710.15. This section of the proposed rule generally stated that the responsibility for managing a regulated entity is vested in the board of directors. The provision also included a list of duties for the directors, which included a duty to act with the degree of care of an ordinarily prudent person, and a duty to have a working familiarity with basic finance and accounting matters. The proposed rule also included a set of director responsibilities, which included having in place policies and procedures to relating to the board's oversight of risk management, compensation, financial reporting, and regulatory reporting. Commenters raised four questions about these provisions.
The Enterprises expressed concern about the language of the proposed rule that stated that the management of a regulated entity “shall be vested in its board of directors.” The Enterprises believed this language could be read as expanding the traditional role of corporate directors and imposing on them some responsibility for becoming involved in the day-to-day operations of the entity. As a general proposition, FHFA agrees that the role of the board
The Enterprises also expressed concern about language of § 1239.4(b)(1) of the proposed rule relating to the directors' duty of care, which provided, in part, that a director should carry out his or her duties “with such care, including reasonable inquiry, as an ordinarily prudent person in a like position would use under similar circumstances.” Freddie Mac believed that the use of the “ordinarily prudent person” standard of care for how a director must discharge his or her duties could conflict with the body of state law that the Enterprises have chosen for corporate governance purposes, which would not use an “ordinarily prudent person” standard of care. Fannie Mae believed that the proposed language went beyond the fiduciary duties imposed on board members under Delaware law. FHFA has decided not to establish a separately defined standard of care for the directors of the regulated entities, but instead to rely on § 1239.3(b)(1) of the proposed rule, which would require each entity to designate a body of state law for its corporate governance practices. As the Enterprises noted, neither Virginia law, which Freddie Mac has designated, nor Delaware law, which Fannie Mae has designated, uses a standard of care for corporate directors that is based on an “ordinarily prudent person” concept. Indeed, both of those states, as well as all other states, have adopted some version of the business judgment rule for corporate directors. The Delaware courts have construed that state's business judgment rule as establishing a standard of gross negligence as the basis on which a corporate director could be held liable for breach of his or her duty of care to the corporation.
The proposed rule would have carried over and applied to all of the regulated entities a Finance Board provision that requires directors of Banks to “administer the affairs of the regulated entity fairly and impartially.” The Enterprises contended that that provision, which is derived from the Bank Act and reflects the cooperative structure of the Banks, was not well-suited for the Enterprises because they are not cooperatives. They also contended that the proposed provision was unnecessary because general concepts of fairness are inherent in the fiduciary duties of their directors to act in the best interest of the corporation. In response to the Enterprises' concerns, FHFA has amended the final rule so that this language will apply only to the Banks.
The proposed rule also included a provision derived from the Finance Board regulations that provided that all directors have a duty to have a “working familiarity with basic finance and accounting practices,” so that they are able to ask substantive questions of management and the auditors. The provision would allow a director to acquire that level of knowledge either prior to becoming an entity's director or within a reasonable time thereafter, such as through appropriate training. Both Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac expressed concern about this provision, believing that it could be read to require all directors to become “audit committee financial experts” and that it could effectively preclude them from recruiting directors who have specialized expertise outside of the realms of finance and accounting. FHFA does not believe that the language of the proposed rule, which uses the terms “working familiarity” and “basic finance and accounting” can reasonably be construed as being equivalent to requiring the same level of knowledge as is required to be an “audit committee financial expert.” The knowledge and experience required under the regulations of the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) to be deemed an “audit committee financial expert” are quite detailed and go far beyond concepts of basic finance and accounting. For example, an audit committee financial expert must have an understanding of generally accepted accounting principles and financial statements, the ability to assess the application of those principles, experience in preparing, auditing, or analyzing financial statements, an understanding of internal controls over financial reporting, and an understanding of audit committee functions. The expert also must have acquired those attributes through education and experience as a principal financial officer, principal accounting officer, controller, public accountant, or auditor, or by supervising persons performing those functions.
The proposed rule would have required each regulated entity to have four specified committees of the board of directors, which are to address risk management, audit, compensation, and governance. The proposal also authorized the regulated entities to establish any other committees they deemed appropriate and prohibited the entities from combining their risk management committee or the audit committee with any other committee. The proposal further required that each committee have a formal written charter and that it meet with sufficient frequency to carry out its responsibilities.
FHFA is revising this provision of the final rule in two respects, both of which respond to comments from Freddie Mac. Apart from those revisions, FHFA is adopting this section as proposed. First, the final rule revises § 1239.5(c) to require that the full board of directors adopt a formal written charter for each committee. This replaces a provision of the proposed rule that would have allowed a committee to adopt its own charter. Second, the final rule revises § 1239.5(d) by adding language to the effect that a committee that is designed to meet only on an as-needed basis, rather than on a fixed schedule, such as an executive committee, which may meet regularly or only as necessary to address matters arising between meetings of the full board, shall meet in the manner specified in that committee's charter, rather than “regularly,” as the proposed rule had provided.
The Banks objected to the proposed rule's prohibition on combining the audit and risk committees with other committees, citing the need for flexibility in determining committee structure. While FHFA understands that the entities may need some flexibility when staffing their committees, FHFA also believes that the responsibilities of the audit committee and risk management committee are sufficiently important that each should be structured as a stand-alone committee, without any competing responsibilities.
Subpart C of the proposed rule included four other provisions that would have applied to all of the regulated entities. These provisions addressed: (1) Code of conduct; (2) risk management; (3) compliance programs; and (4) regulatory reports. The final rule revises portions of the provisions dealing with the code of conduct and risk management, which revisions are described below. FHFA is adopting the provisions relating to compliance programs and regulatory reports as proposed, and the discussion below also addresses suggested revisions to the compliance program, which FHFA has declined to adopt.
Proposed § 1239.10 carried over the substance of an OFHEO regulation that required each regulated entity to establish a written code of conduct for directors, executive officers, and employees that is reasonably designed to ensure that they discharge their duties in an objective and impartial manner and that includes the standards required under section 406 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act. Neither the OFHEO regulation nor the proposed rule described the substance of those standards, but simply incorporated them by cross-reference. The section 406 standards pertain to promoting honest and ethical conduct, accurate financial disclosures, and compliance with applicable laws. The Banks expressed two concerns about this provision of the proposed rule. First, they believed that it was unnecessary and duplicative because, as SEC registrants, they already must disclose whether they have adopted such a code of conduct. Second, they believed that the scope of the provision was too broad because it covered all employees, not just those involved with preparing the financial statements.
FHFA agrees that the scope of the proposed rule was broader than it needed to be insofar as it would have applied to employees that are not involved in the preparation of the entity's financial statements. To address these concerns about overbreadth, FHFA revised the final rule so that it imposes general requirements on all employees of a regulated entity and separately imposes other requirements on those officers that are responsible for preparing the financial statements. As part of that approach, the final rule no longer cross-references section 406 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, but instead incorporates the essential language of section 406 into the FHFA regulation. Accordingly, the final rule first provides that each entity must adopt a code of conduct that is reasonably designed to assure that its directors, officers, and employees discharge their duties in an objective and impartial manner and that promotes honest and ethical conduct, compliance with applicable laws and regulations, accountability for adhering to the code, and prompt internal reporting of violations of the code. Each of those elements is derived from section 406 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act. The final rule separately provides that the code of conduct must include provisions that apply only to the entities' principal executive officer, principal financial officer, and principal accounting officer or controller. Those provisions must be reasonably designed to promote full, fair, and accurate disclosures in an entity's reports filed with the SEC and other public communications pertaining to the entity's financial condition. Those provisions also are derived from section 406, but will not apply to the officers and employees who have no role in preparing the financial statements or other disclosures.
FHFA appreciates that the Banks, as SEC registrants, are already required to
The proposed rule contained a new risk management section that was based in large part on a recent proposal of the Federal Reserve Board relating to its supervision of large banking institutions.
Section 1239.11(a) of the proposed rule would have required the establishment of a risk management program that aligns with the entity's overall risk profile and mission objectives, while § 1239.11(c)(1) had specified several required elements for the risk management program. In the final rule, FHFA combined those provisions into a revised § 1239.11(a), which deals only with the risk management program. FHFA also revised the regulatory text, which formerly provided that the board of directors must have a risk management program “in effect at all times,” to clarify that the board must approve and periodically review the risk management program, as well as having it in effect. As noted previously, the final rule also replaces all references to the term “risk profile” with the newly defined term “risk appetite.” The final rule also makes some revisions to the provisions that specified the minimum requirements for the risk management program, principally to address concerns expressed by the commenters. The final rule now provides that the board of directors must ensure that the risk management program aligns with the entity's risk appetite, and it deletes a reference to this being a joint responsibility of the board and senior management. These provisions of the final rule are not intended to require that the board of directors actually develop or implement the risk management program, which tasks may be delegated to management, but the board is responsible for approving the program, as well as the entity's risk appetite, and ensuring that the two are consistent with each other. In the paragraphs describing the requirements of the risk management program, the final rule deletes certain references that the commenters believed could be read to impose management level responsibilities on the board or its committee. Thus, the final rule deletes from proposed § 1239.11(c)(ii), (iii), and (iv) references to “risk management practices and risk control structure,” “procedures . . . practices, risk controls,” and “control objectives,” respectively.
Section 1239.11(b) of the proposed rule would have required the board of each regulated entity to establish a risk committee that oversees the entity's risk management practices, while § 1239.11(c) and (d) had addressed the risk committee structure and responsibilities, respectively. The final rule combines all of those provisions into a revised § 1239.11(b), which deals only with risk committee matters. FHFA also revised certain of these provisions in response to concerns of the commenters that the proposed rule could be read to assign management type responsibilities on the board of directors or the risk committee. Thus, the final rule has deleted language from proposed § 1239.11(b) that stated that the committee was “responsible for oversight of . . . risk management practices” and replaced it with language saying that the committee is to assist the board of directors in carrying out its duties to oversee the “risk management program,” rather than the “practices” of the entity.
The final rule revises certain of the provisions relating to the qualifications of the risk committee members that had been located in § 1239.11(c)(2) of the proposed rule, also in response to suggestions from the commenters. The proposed rule would have required that the committee have at least one member with “risk management expertise” that is commensurate with the business of the regulated entity, and further that the other committee members have “experience developing and applying risk management practices and procedures measuring and identifying risks.” The Banks and the Enterprises contended that such levels of expertise would likely be found only in a person who was serving, or had previously served, as a chief risk officer at a financial institution and that it would be difficult to find persons who are eligible for board positions who also have such expertise. FHFA believes that this is a valid concern and has revised the rule to require that the risk committee have at least one member with risk management “experience” rather than “expertise,” and that the other committee members have, or acquire through training, a practical understanding of risk management principles and practices. FHFA also deleted in its entirety the provision of the proposed rule that would have required risk committee members to also have had experience developing and applying risk management practices and procedures. Notwithstanding those revisions, FHFA believes that it is appropriate and reasonable to retain some language in the final rule requiring that the persons charged with assisting the board in its oversight of the risk management program have had some
Freddie Mac objected to the requirements in proposed § 1239.11(c)(2)(v) and (d)(1) that the risk committee fully document and maintain records of its meetings, including its risk management decisions and recommendations, and that it be responsible for documenting and overseeing the entity's risk management “policies and practices.” It believed that these requirements go beyond the existing obligation on board committees to prepare minutes of meetings. FHFA disagrees with the first of those suggestions and has retained the requirement that the committee document and maintain records of its meetings and decisions because risk management is a vital function and decisions of the risk committee and the justification for those actions need to be well documented. FHFA agrees with the second suggestion and removed from the final rule the language stating that that the committee is to be responsible for documenting and overseeing the risk management “policies and practices” of the entity because “practices” are more appropriately characterized as a management function than as a function for the risk committee. In its place, FHFA included an alternative provision, to be located in § 1239.111(b)(2)(i) of the final rule, providing that the risk committee must periodically review the entity's risk management program and make recommendations to the board of directors for any appropriate revisions to the program to ensure that the program remains aligned to the risks associated with the entity's business activities. The final rule also includes a parallel provision requiring the committee to periodically review the capabilities of, and the adequacy of the resources allocated to, the risk management program.
The proposed rule would require each entity to appoint a chief risk officer and described both the organizational structure of the risk management program and the responsibilities of the chief risk officer. The final rule makes some modest revisions to these provisions, stating that the chief risk officer shall “head” (rather than “oversee”) an independent risk management function and be responsible for the entity's risk management function. Both the proposed and final rules require that the head of the risk management function must be “independent.” FHFA construes that term to mean that the chief risk officer may not have dual responsibilities within the organization, such as also serving as the chief financial officer or as any other senior executive officer.
The proposed rule would require that regulated entities establish a compliance program to be headed by a chief compliance officer and set forth criteria for the program. Proposed § 1239.12 would require the program to be reasonably designed to ensure that the regulated entity complies with applicable laws, rules, regulations, and internal controls. In addition, the proposal would require the compliance officer to report directly to the chief executive officer, to report regularly to the board of directors (or a committee thereof) on the adequacy of the entity's compliance policies and procedures, and to make recommendations to the board for any adjustments to those policies or procedures, as appropriate. The final rule adopts this provision as it was proposed.
The Banks expressed concern that these provisions were too prescriptive and believed that oversight of the compliance program need not reside solely with a single chief compliance officer, so long as the Banks have established clear lines of responsibilities for compliance matters with other executives. The Banks also objected to requiring the compliance officer to report to the chief executive and asked that the final rule allow for reporting lines to other senior executives. The Banks also suggested replacing the words “internal controls” with “policies” in the provision that requires that the compliance program ensure compliance with “laws, rules, regulations, and internal controls.” The Banks believe that internal controls themselves are designed to achieve compliance with laws, rules, regulations, and policies and therefore it did not make sense to require compliance with internal controls.
FHFA does not believe that this provision can be characterized as being overly prescriptive, as the Banks contend. The regulation is short, only three sentences, which require the establishment of a compliance program, the designation of a compliance officer, and the establishment of reporting requirements. As to the concern about reporting lines, FHFA believes that the compliance function is sufficiently important that it should be headed by a person holding an executive level position, who would be a peer of the executives taking the business risks, and who would have direct access to the CEO. Lastly, although internal controls are designed to ensure compliance with laws, regulations, and policies, this can only be achieved if the regulated entity complies with the internal control procedures themselves. Therefore, FHFA believes that it is appropriate to retain the term “internal controls” in the first sentence of the provision.
Proposed § 1239.13 required each regulated entity to provide FHFA with such regulatory reports as are necessary for it to evaluate the condition of a regulated entity, or compliance with applicable law, and to do so in accordance with the forms and instructions issued by FHFA from time to time. It was derived from the Finance Board regulations at 12 CFR 914.1 and 914.2. FHFA received no comments on this provision and the final rule adopts this provision as proposed.
Subpart D of the proposed rule included two provisions that were to apply only to the Enterprises. FHFA received no comments on these provisions from the Enterprises. Accordingly, with the exception of the one matter noted below, FHFA adopted both provisions as proposed. The first provision, § 1239.20, addresses age and term limits for Enterprise directors and requires that a majority of the directors be independent, as defined under the rules of the NYSE. It also addresses the frequency of Enterprise board meetings, quorum requirements, and voting by directors. The rule carries over these provisions from the OFHEO regulation without substantive change. Proposed § 1239.20(a)(3) included a new provision that would prohibit the chief executive officer of an Enterprise from also serving as the chairperson of the board of directors.
In the final rule, FHFA also revised the language of § 1239.20(b)(5), which requires the Enterprise boards of directors annually to review the requirements of applicable laws, rules, regulations, and guidelines. FHFA has been asked whether this provision requires a board of directors to review all laws that apply to the Enterprises or only on those that have been revised during the past year. FHFA believes that going forward this provision should be read to require that the boards of directors be kept informed of any significant changes to the applicable
Subpart E of the proposed rule included five provisions that were to apply only to the Banks. For three of those provisions, those relating to a Bank's member products policy (§ 1239.30), its strategic business plan (§ 1239.31), and its dividends (§ 1239.33), FHFA received no comments and the final rule adopts those provisions as proposed. The final rule deletes the proposed provision on internal controls in its entirety, for the reasons described below, and makes some modest revisions to the provision on Bank audit committees, also as described below.
The proposed rule would have carried over without substantive change a Finance Board regulation dealing with Bank internal control systems. The proposed regulation set forth detailed responsibilities of senior management and the board of directors with respect to internal controls and solicited comments on whether the internal controls regulation should be expanded to apply to the Enterprises, as well as to the Banks. Freddie Mac urged FHFA not to extend the internal controls regulation to the Enterprises because they are already subject to numerous requirements related to internal controls. The Banks generally favored the adoption of a principles-based approach for the rules relating to internal controls, rather than the more prescriptive approach of the existing Finance Board regulations, and asked that FHFA revise the rule accordingly.
FHFA initially decided to adopt the Banks' suggestion and revise this provision to make it more principles-based. When making those revisions, however, FHFA determined that creating a more principles-based regulation would result in the revised regulation overlapping considerably with the provisions of FHFA's existing Prudential Standards that deal with internal controls. In order to avoid that result, and the potential confusion that having two separate provisions addressing internal controls could cause, FHFA decided a better approach would be to delete the provision on internal controls from the final rule and rely instead on the internal controls provisions of the Prudential Standards. Accordingly, the final rule does not include a separate regulation on internal controls for the Banks. In making this change, FHFA emphasizes that a strong system of internal controls is a critical first line defense for all of the regulated entities. FHFA expects that all of the regulated entities will devote the necessary resources and attention to this area.
The proposed rule would have carried over without substantive change Finance Board regulations that required the establishment of an audit committee and established requirements for the composition, independence, charter, duties, and meetings of Bank audit committees. FHFA requested comment on whether it should adopt a single regulation addressing the audit committees for all regulated entities, whether the independence requirements for Bank audit committees should consider the amount of Bank stock or advances held by a member that has a representative on the committee, and whether Bank audit committees should have a majority of members who are not affiliated with the Bank's members. No commenters supported any of those revisions, and FHFA has not made any such changes to the final rule.
FHFA made three revisions to § 1239.32 of the final rule in response to comments from the Banks. The Banks asked that FHFA modify the requirement relating to representation on the audit committee of directors from the various types of members and of both member directors and independent directors by providing that the committee should be required have such a balance “to the extent that it is practicable to do so.” The Banks contended that the skill sets of the individual directors, particularly the member directors, will vary. As a result, there may be times when the persons whose experience is most suited to having them serve on the audit committee will not necessarily result in a committee composition that includes persons from all segments of the membership base. FHFA agrees with that statement and added the language requested by the Banks to the final rule. The Banks also asked that FHFA clarify that a reference to “independent directors” in this section refers to those directors who are not affiliated with a member institution, as defined in the Bank Act, so as not to suggest that it relates to the “independence” requirement for audit committee members. FHFA made that revision. The final rule also revises a provision that requires the audit committee to review “the policies and procedures used by senior management” by deleting the reference to “procedures” because FHFA agrees with the Banks that the development and review of particular procedures is more properly considered a management function. The final rule also makes one conforming change by revising the language of the existing rule to state that the board of directors, not the audit committee, is responsible for amending and periodically reapproving the audit committee charter. This change conforms this provision to an earlier provision of the rule that vests in the board of directors the sole authority to adopt committee charters.
As was proposed, the final rule will repeal several portions of the predecessor agency regulations that are not being carried over into the FHFA regulations. No commenters objected to the proposed repeal of these provisions, which included several OFHEO regulations that essentially repeated certain statutory requirements, certain provisions of the OFHEO regulations relating to the responsibilities of boards of directors that address matters now covered by the Prudential Standards, a Finance Board regulation requiring the preparation of annual budgets, and 12 CFR part 1720 of the OFHEO regulations, which established certain safety and soundness standards for the Enterprises.
Freddie Mac sought clarification as to the effect of the repeal of these provisions on specific regulatory guidance, such as the 2006 OFHEO Corporate Governance Examination Guidance. FHFA continues to evaluate the various types of guidance issued by the predecessor agencies to determine whether to retain, revise, or repeal the guidance. Those efforts are being done independently of this rulemaking. On March 26, 2015, FHFA issued Advisory Bulletin AB 2015-03, which rescinded five examination guidance documents that had been issued by OFHEO because they have been superseded by FHFA guidance, simply restated the text of regulations, or are no longer relevant or applicable in the current environment.
The Prudential Standards include an introductory section, which recites general responsibilities of the boards of directors and senior management, as well as ten enumerated standards that address the topics required by statute. In the proposed rule, FHFA proposed to designate this introductory section as an additional Prudential Standard. Doing so would clarify that the introductory provisions have the same effect and could be enforced in the same manner as the ten enumerated standards. The Banks commented that this action would create some uncertainty about the role of the boards of directors because the introductory section currently includes references to the board of directors being responsible for adopting and implementing “procedures,” which the Banks contend is a management function. FHFA agrees that the development and implementation of procedures is a management responsibility, and has revised the first three paragraphs of the Prudential Standards introductory section by deleting the four references to “procedures” as responsibilities of the board of directors. FHFA received no other comments on this aspect of the proposal and the final rule otherwise adopts the final rule as proposed.
The final rule does not contain any information collection requirement that requires the approval of the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
Federal Home Loan Banks, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Federal Home Loan Banks.
Administrative practice and procedure, Federal Home Loan Banks, Government-Sponsored Enterprises, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Federal Home Loan Banks, Government-Sponsored Enterprises, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Mortgages.
Administrative practice and procedure, Mortgages.
Accordingly, for reasons stated in the Supplementary Information and under the authority of 12 U.S.C. 1426, 1427, 1432(a), 1436(a), 1440, 4511(b), 4513(a), 4513(b), and 4526, FHFA hereby amends subchapter C of chapter IX, subchapter B of chapter XII, and subchapter C of chapter XVII of title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
12 U.S.C. 4511, 4513(a) and (f), 4513b, and 4526.
1. With respect to the subject matter addressed by each Standard, the board of directors is responsible for adopting business strategies and policies that are appropriate for the particular subject matter. The board should review all such strategies and policies periodically. It should review and approve all major strategies and policies at least annually and make any revisions that are necessary to ensure that such strategies and policies remain consistent with the entity's overall business plan.
2. The board of directors is responsible for overseeing management of the regulated entity, which includes ensuring that management includes personnel who are appropriately trained and competent to oversee the operation of the regulated entity as it relates to the functions and requirements addressed by each Standard, and that management implements the policies set forth by the board.
3. The board of directors is responsible for remaining informed about the operations and condition of the regulated entity, including operating consistently with the Standards, and senior management's implementation of the strategies and policies established by the board of directors.
12 U.S.C. 1426, 1427, 1432(a), 1436(a), 1440, 4511(b), 4513(a), 4513(b), and 4526.
FHFA is responsible for supervising and ensuring the safety and soundness of the regulated entities. In furtherance of those responsibilities, this part sets forth minimum standards with respect to responsibilities of boards of directors, corporate practices, and corporate governance matters of the regulated entities.
As used in this part, (unless otherwise noted):
(a)
(b)
(i) The law of the jurisdiction in which the principal office of the regulated entity is located;
(ii) The Delaware General Corporation Law (Del. Code Ann. Title 8); or
(iii) The Revised Model Business Corporation Act.
(2) Each regulated entity shall designate in its bylaws the body of law elected for its corporate governance and indemnification practices and procedures pursuant to this paragraph, and shall do so by no later than March 18, 2016.
(c)
(2) Each regulated entity shall have in place policies and procedures consistent with this section for indemnification of its directors, officers, and employees. Such policies and procedures shall address how the board of directors is to approve or deny requests for indemnification from current and former directors, officers, and employees, and shall include standards relating to indemnification, investigations by the board of directors, and review by independent counsel.
(3) Nothing in this paragraph (c) shall affect any rights to indemnification (including the advancement of expenses) that a director or any other officer or employee had with respect to any actions, omissions, transactions, or facts occurring prior to the effective date of this paragraph.
(4) FHFA has the authority under the Safety and Soundness Act to review a regulated entity's indemnification policies, procedures, and practices to ensure that they are conducted in a safe and sound manner, and that they are consistent with the body of law adopted by the board of directors under paragraph (b) of this section.
(d)
(a)
(b)
(1) Carry out his or her duties as director in good faith, in a manner such director believes to be in the best interests of the regulated entity, and with such care, including reasonable inquiry, as is required under the Revised Model Business Corporation Act or the other body of law that the entity's board of directors has chosen to follow for its corporate governance and indemnification practices and procedures in accordance with § 1239.3(b);
(2) For Bank directors, administer the affairs of the regulated entity fairly and impartially and without discrimination in favor of or against any member institution;
(3) At the time of election, or within a reasonable time thereafter, have a working familiarity with basic finance and accounting practices, including the ability to read and understand the regulated entity's balance sheet and income statement and to ask substantive questions of management and the internal and external auditors;
(4) Direct the operations of the regulated entity in conformity with the requirements set forth in the authorizing statutes, the Safety and Soundness Act, and this chapter; and
(5) Adopt and maintain in effect at all times bylaws governing the manner in which the regulated entity administers its affairs. Such bylaws shall be consistent with applicable laws and regulations administered by FHFA, and with the body of law designated for the entity's corporate governance practices and procedures in accordance with § 1239.3(b).
(c)
(1) The risk management and compensation programs of the regulated entity;
(2) The processes for providing accurate financial reporting and other disclosures, and communications with stockholders; and
(3) The responsiveness of executive officers in providing accurate and timely reports to FHFA and in addressing all supervisory concerns of FHFA in a timely and appropriate manner.
(d)
(2) The board of directors and its committees may require that staff of the regulated entity that provides services to the board or any committee under paragraph (d)(1) of this section report directly to the board or such committee, as appropriate.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(2)
(3)
(i) Risk limitations appropriate to each business line of the regulated entity;
(ii) Appropriate policies and procedures relating to risk management governance, risk oversight infrastructure, and processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks, including emerging risks;
(iii) Provisions for monitoring compliance with the regulated entity's risk limit structure and policies relating to risk management governance, risk oversight, and effective and timely implementation of corrective actions; and
(iv) Provisions specifying management's authority and independence to carry out risk management responsibilities, and the integration of risk management with management's goals and compensation structure.
(b)
(1)
(i) Be chaired by a director not serving in a management capacity of the regulated entity;
(ii) Have at least one member with risk management experience that is commensurate with the regulated entity's capital structure, risk appetite, complexity, activities, size, and other appropriate risk-related factors;
(iii) Have committee members that have, or that will acquire within a reasonable time after being elected to the committee, a practical understanding of risk management principles and practices relevant to the regulated entity;
(iv) Fully document and maintain records of its meetings, including its risk management decisions and recommendations; and
(v) Report directly to the board and not as part of, or combined with, another committee.
(2)
(i) Periodically review and recommend for board approval an appropriate enterprise-wide risk management program that is commensurate with the regulated entity's capital structure, risk appetite, complexity, activities, size, and other appropriate risk-related factors;
(ii) Receive and review regular reports from the regulated entity's chief risk officer, as required under paragraph (c)(5) of this section ; and
(iii) Periodically review the capabilities for, and adequacy of resources allocated to, enterprise-wide risk management.
(c)
(2)
(3)
(i) Allocating risk limits and monitoring compliance with such limits;
(ii) Establishing appropriate policies and procedures relating to risk management governance, practices, and risk controls, and developing appropriate processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks, including emerging risks;
(iii) Monitoring risk exposures, including testing risk controls and verifying risk measures; and
(iv) Communicating within the organization about any risk management issues and/or emerging risks, and ensuring that risk management issues are effectively resolved in a timely manner.
(4) The CRO should have risk management expertise that is commensurate with the regulated entity's capital structure, risk appetite, complexity, activities, size, and other appropriate risk related factors.
(5) The CRO shall report regularly to the risk committee and to the chief executive officer on significant risk exposures and related controls, changes to risk appetite, risk management strategies, results of risk management reviews, and emerging risks. The CRO shall also report regularly on the regulated entity's compliance with, and the adequacy of, its current risk management policies and procedures, and shall recommend any adjustments to such policies and procedures that he or she considers necessary or appropriate.
(6) The compensation of a regulated entity's CRO shall be appropriately structured to provide for an objective and independent assessment of the risks taken by the regulated entity.
A regulated entity shall establish and maintain a compliance program that is reasonably designed to assure that the regulated entity complies with applicable laws, rules, regulations, and internal controls. The compliance program shall be headed by a compliance officer, however styled, who reports directly to the chief executive officer. The compliance officer also shall report regularly to the board of directors, or an appropriate committee thereof, on the adequacy of the entity's compliance policies and procedures, including the entity's compliance with them, and shall recommend any revisions to such policies and procedures that he or she considers necessary or appropriate.
(a)
(b)
(1) Provision in the Bank Act, Safety and Soundness Act, or other law, order, rule, or regulation;
(2) Condition imposed in writing by FHFA in connection with the granting of any application or other request by a regulated entity; or
(3) Written agreement entered into between FHFA and a regulated entity.
(a)
(ii)
(2)
(3)
(b)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
Each Enterprise may pay its directors reasonable and appropriate compensation for the time required of them, and their necessary and reasonable expenses, in the performance of their duties.
(a)
(2)
(i) Review the Bank's member products policy annually;
(ii) Amend the member products policy as appropriate; and
(iii) Re-adopt the member products policy, including interim amendments, not less often than every three years.
(b)
(1) Address credit underwriting criteria to be applied in evaluating applications for advances, standby letters of credit, and renewals;
(2) Address appropriate levels of collateralization, valuation of collateral and discounts applied to collateral values for advances and standby letters of credit;
(3) Address advances-related fees to be charged by each Bank, including any schedules or formulas pertaining to such fees;
(4) Address standards and criteria for pricing member products, including differential pricing of advances pursuant to § 1266.5(b)(2) of this chapter, and criteria regarding the pricing of standby letters of credit, including any special pricing provisions for standby letters of credit that facilitate the financing of projects that are eligible for any of the Banks' CICA programs under part 1292 of this chapter;
(5) Provide that, for any draw made by a beneficiary under a standby letter of credit, the member will be charged a processing fee calculated in accordance with the requirements of § 1271.6(b) of this chapter;
(6) Address the maintenance of appropriate systems, procedures, and internal controls; and
(7) Address the maintenance of appropriate operational and personnel capacity.
(a)
(1) Enumerate operating goals and objectives for each major business activity and for all new business activities, which must include plans for maximizing activities that further the Bank's housing finance and community lending mission, consistent with part 1265 of this chapter;
(2) Discuss how the Bank will address credit needs and market opportunities identified through ongoing market research and consultations with members, associates, and public and private organizations;
(3) Establish quantitative performance goals for Bank products related to multi-family housing, small business, small farm and small agri-business lending;
(4) Describe any proposed new business activities or enhancements of existing activities; and
(5) Be supported by appropriate and timely research and analysis of relevant market developments and member and associate demand for Bank products and services.
(b)
(1) Review the Bank's strategic business plan at least annually;
(2) Re-adopt the Bank's strategic business plan, including interim amendments, not less often than every three years; and
(3) Establish management reporting requirements and monitor implementation of the strategic business plan and the operating goals and objectives contained therein.
(c)
(a)
(b)
(2) The audit committee shall include, to the extent practicable, a balance of representatives of:
(i) Community financial institutions and other members; and
(ii) Independent directors and member directors of the Bank, both as defined in the Bank Act.
(3) The terms of audit committee members shall be appropriately staggered so as to provide for continuity of service.
(4) At least one member of the audit committee shall have extensive accounting or related financial management experience.
(c)
(1) Being employed by the Bank in the current year or any of the past five years;
(2) Accepting any compensation from the Bank other than compensation for service as a board director;
(3) Serving or having served in any of the past five years as a consultant, advisor, promoter, underwriter, or legal counsel of or to the Bank; or
(4) Being an immediate family member of an individual who is, or has been in any of the past five years, employed by the Bank as an executive officer.
(d)
(2) The board of directors of each Bank shall review and assess the adequacy of the audit committee charter on an annual basis, shall amend the audit committee charter whenever it deems it appropriate to do so, and shall reapprove the audit committee charter not less often than every three years; and
(3) Each Bank's audit committee charter shall:
(i) Provide that the audit committee has the responsibility to select, evaluate and, where appropriate, replace the internal auditor and that the internal auditor may be removed only with the approval of the audit committee;
(ii) Provide that the internal auditor shall report directly to the audit committee on substantive matters and that the internal auditor is ultimately accountable to the audit committee and board of directors; and
(iii) Provide that both the internal auditor and the external auditor shall have unrestricted access to the audit committee without the need for any prior management knowledge or approval.
(e)
(1) Direct senior management to maintain the reliability and integrity of the accounting policies and financial reporting and disclosure practices of the Bank;
(2) Review the basis for the Bank's financial statements and the external auditor's opinion rendered with respect to such financial statements (including the nature and extent of any significant changes in accounting principles or the application thereof) and ensure that policies are in place that are reasonably designed to achieve disclosure and transparency regarding the Bank's true financial performance and governance practices;
(3) Oversee the internal audit function by:
(i) Reviewing the scope of audit services required, significant accounting policies, significant risks and exposures, audit activities, and audit findings;
(ii) Assessing the performance and determining the compensation of the internal auditor; and
(iii) Reviewing and approving the internal auditor's work plan.
(4) Oversee the external audit function by:
(i) Approving the external auditor's annual engagement letter;
(ii) Reviewing the performance of the external auditor; and
(iii) Making recommendations to the Bank's board of directors regarding the appointment, renewal, or termination of the external auditor.
(5) Provide an independent, direct channel of communication between the Bank's board of directors and the internal and external auditors;
(6) Conduct or authorize investigations into any matters within the audit committee's scope of responsibilities;
(7) Ensure that senior management has established and is maintaining an adequate internal control system within the Bank by:
(i) Reviewing the Bank's internal control system and the resolution of identified material weaknesses and significant deficiencies in the internal control system, including the prevention or detection of management override or compromise of the internal control system; and
(ii) Reviewing the programs and policies of the Bank designed to ensure compliance with applicable laws, regulations and policies, and monitoring the results of these compliance efforts;
(8) Review the policies established by senior management to assess and monitor implementation of the Bank's strategic business plan and the operating goals and objectives contained therein; and
(9) Report periodically its findings to the Bank's board of directors.
(f)
A Bank's board of directors may not declare or pay a dividend based on projected or anticipated earnings and may not declare or pay a dividend if the par value of the Bank's stock is impaired or is projected to become impaired after paying such dividend.
U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission.
Direct final rule; delay of effective date and extension of comment period.
The Consumer Product Safety Commission (“Commission” or “CPSC”) published a direct final rule (“DFR”) and notice of proposed rulemaking (“NPR”) in the same issue of the
The effective date for the direct final rule published October 14, 2015, at 80 FR 61729, is delayed from December 14, 2015, until January 13, 2016. The rule will be effective unless we receive a significant adverse comment. If we receive a significant adverse comment, we will publish notification in the
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CPSC-2011-0081, by any of the following methods:
Federal eRulemaking Portal:
Mail/Hand delivery/Courier, preferably in five copies, to: Office of the Secretary, Consumer Product Safety Commission, Room 820, 4330 East West Highway, Bethesda, MD 20814; telephone (301) 504-7923.
On October 14, 2015, the Commission published a DFR and an NPR in the
The Commission has considered the request and is extending the comment period for an additional 30 days. Because 30-day extension date falls on a Sunday, the comment period will close on December 14, 2015. The Commission believes that this extension allows adequate time for interested persons to submit comments on the proposed rule, without significantly delaying the rulemaking. Because the Commission is extending the period for comments 30 days, the Commission is extending the effective date for the DFR 30 days, as well. Thus, unless the Commission receives a significant adverse comment by December 14, 2015, the rule will become effective on January 13, 2016.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Final rule.
The Coast Guard is issuing a final rule to increase the limits of liability for vessels, deepwater ports, and onshore facilities, under the Oil Pollution Act of 1990, as amended (OPA 90), to reflect significant increases in the Consumer Price Index (CPI). This final rule also establishes a simplified regulatory procedure for the Coast Guard to make future required periodic CPI increases to these OPA 90 limits of liability. These regulatory inflation increases to the limits of liability are required by OPA 90 and are necessary to preserve the deterrent effect and “polluter pays” principle embodied in OPA 90. In addition, this final rule clarifies applicability of the OPA 90 vessel limits of liability to edible oil cargo tank vessels and tank vessels designated as oil spill response vessels. This clarification to the prior regulatory text is needed for consistency with OPA 90. Finally, this rule makes several non-substantive clarifying and editorial revisions to the regulatory text. This rulemaking promotes the Coast Guard's missions of maritime safety and maritime stewardship.
This final rule is effective December 21, 2015.
For information about this document call or email Benjamin White, Coast Guard; telephone 202-309-1937, email
In general, under Title I of the Oil Pollution Act of 1990, as amended (OPA 90),
In instances when a limit of liability applies, the Oil Spill Liability Trust Fund (Fund) is available to compensate the OPA 90 removal costs and damages incurred by the responsible party and third-party claimants in excess of the applicable limit of liability.
OPA 90 sets forth the statutory limits of liability for vessels and three types of facilities: Onshore facilities, deepwater ports licensed under the Deepwater Port Act of 1974 (hereinafter “deepwater ports”), and offshore facilities other than deepwater ports.
The President has delegated this regulatory authority to the Secretary of the department in which the Coast Guard is operating, in respect to the statutory limits of liability for vessels, deepwater ports, and onshore facilities. The Secretary of Homeland Security has further delegated this authority to the Commandant of the Coast Guard.
In this final rule we are making four changes to the Coast Guard regulations at 33 CFR part 138, subpart B. First, we are carrying out the required inflation adjustments to the OPA 90 limits of liability for vessels, deepwater ports and onshore facilities. Second, we are establishing a simplified regulatory procedure to ensure timely future required inflation adjustments to those limits of liability. Third, we are clarifying applicability of the OPA 90 vessel limits of liability to edible oil cargo tank vessels and to tank vessels designated in their certificates of inspection as oil spill response vessels.
In 2008, we promulgated 33 CFR part 138, subpart B, setting forth the OPA 90 limits of liability for vessels and deepwater ports. (See, Docket No. USCG-2005-21780.) This was done in anticipation of the Coast Guard periodically adjusting those limits of liability to reflect significant increases in the CPI, as required by 33 U.S.C. 2704(d)(4), and to ensure that the applicable amounts of OPA 90 financial responsibility that must be demonstrated and maintained by vessel and deepwater port responsible parties, as required by 33 U.S.C. 2716 and 33 CFR part 138, subpart A (COFR Rule), would always equal the applicable OPA 90 limits of liability as adjusted over time.
We published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) on September 24, 2008 (73 FR 54997) (CPI-1 NPRM), and an interim rule with request for comments on July 1, 2009 (74 FR 31357) (CPI-1 Interim Rule) adjusting the vessel and deepwater port limits of liability at 33 CFR part 138, subpart B, to reflect significant increases in the CPI.
We received no adverse public comments on the CPI-1 Interim Rule. We, therefore, published a final rule on January 6, 2010, adopting the CPI-1 Interim Rule amendments to 33 CFR part 138, subpart B, without change (CPI-1 Final Rule, 75 FR 750).
The CPI-1 Rule was the Coast Guard's first set of inflation adjustments to the OPA 90 limits of liability for vessels and deepwater ports. We, however, deferred adjusting the statutory limit of liability for onshore facilities in 33 U.S.C. 2704(a)(4) at that time. This was because Executive Order (E.O.) 12777, Sec. 4, and its implementing re-delegations vested the President's responsibility to adjust the OPA 90 limits of liability in multiple agencies.
Specifically, the delegations vested the President's limit of liability adjustment authorities in the Commandant of the Coast Guard for vessels, deepwater ports and marine transportation-related onshore facilities, in the Secretary of the Department of Transportation for non-marine transportation-related onshore facilities, in the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency for non-transportation-related onshore facilities, and in the Secretary of the Interior for offshore facilities. That division of responsibilities complicated the CPI adjustment rulemaking requirement, particularly in respect to the three sub-categories of onshore facilities. Further interagency coordination was, therefore, needed to avoid inconsistent regulatory treatment.
By deferring the first onshore facility limit of liability inflation adjustment we were able to complete the required first set of inflation increases to the vessel and deepwater port limits of liability by the 2009 statutory deadline established by the Delaware River Protection Act of 2006 (DRPA).
On March 15, 2013, the President signed E.O. 13638, restating and simplifying the delegations in E.O. 12777, Sec. 4, and vesting the authority to make CPI adjustments to the onshore facility statutory limit of liability in “the Secretary of the Department in which the Coast Guard is operating”.
On August 19, 2014, we published an NPRM to amend 33 CFR part 138, subpart B (CPI-2 NPRM, at 79 FR 49206). The CPI-2 NPRM proposed four changes to 33 CFR part 138, subpart B. First, we proposed to carry out the second set of inflation adjustments to the vessel and deepwater port limits of liability, and the first inflation adjustment under the Commandant's newly-delegated authorities to the onshore facility statutory limit of
We discussed the following two issues in the CPI-2 NPRM, and they are of relevance to changes we are making to the regulatory text in this final rule.
1.
2.
We discuss public comments received on these topics and how we have resolved them in Part IV, of this preamble, below.
We received nine written submissions to the docket. Two submissions were from citizen advisory groups organized under OPA 90, Sec. 5002. Four submissions (including one set of comments submitted on behalf of two commenters) were from environmental advocacy organizations. One comment document was from a drilling contractor association, and two submissions were from anonymous individuals. We received no requests for public meetings, and held no public meetings for this rulemaking.
One commenter expressed the view that penalties for oil spills should not be limited. (This comment concerns civil or criminal penalty liability for oil spills, and is therefore in addition to the comments discussed above in the previous paragraph about the adequacy or need for OPA 90 limits of liability for removal costs and damages.) Another commenter stated that independent third parties should audit clean-ups by responsible parties. Both of these comments also are outside the scope of this rulemaking. This rulemaking only concerns the inflation adjustments to the OPA 90 limits of liability for removal costs and damages that are required under 33 U.S.C. 2704(d)(4). It does not concern penalty liability or the procedures for carrying-out removal actions.
As we noted above in Part III.D.1., the inflation adjustment methodology established by the CPI-1 Rule at § 138.240 requires that we use the Annual CPI-U that has been most recently published by the BLS as the “current period” value. This requirement is to keep the limits of liability current. On January 16, 2015, the BLS published the 2014 Annual CPI-U value of 236.736. This is the most recently published Annual CPI-U. We have, therefore, used the 2014 Annual CPI-U as the “current period” value to calculate the new vessel, deepwater port and offshore facility limits of liability established by this final rule.
We also agree with the public comments summarized above, in subpart A.4. of this part, that it is appropriate to use the 1990 Annual CPI-U as the “previous period” value for adjusting the onshore facility and
Applying the formula set forth in § 138.240(b) for calculating the cumulative percent change in the Annual CPI-U, we have determined that the percent change in the Annual CPI-U exceeds the significance threshold specified in § 138.240(c). We have, therefore, calculated the limit of liability adjustments using the formula set forth in § 138.240(d).
Table 1 shows the vessel, deepwater port and onshore facility limits of liability before their adjustment by this final rule (Previous Limits of Liability), the percent change in the Annual CPI-U, and the final inflation-adjusted limits of liability established by today's final rule at § 138.230 (New Limits of Liability). These New Limits of Liability will take effect on December 21, 2015.
Four
The CPI-2 NPRM did not propose any substantive changes to the § 138.240 limit of liability adjustment methodology promulgated by the CPI-1 Rule (§ 138.240(b)-(d), and previously designated as paragraphs (a)-(c)). Two commenters, however, expressed support for the inflation significance threshold in § 138.240(c) and the adjustment methodology established by the CPI-1 Rule generally, including the annual reviews the Coast Guard will conduct if the significance threshold is not met after 3 years. We appreciate receiving that input and are today adopting those provisions of § 138.240 with no substantive change.
The only changes we have made to the regulatory text of § 138.240, as adopted by the CPI-1 Rule, are: (1) Changing the title, (2) adding the simplified regulatory procedure that was proposed as new paragraph § 138.240(a) in the CPI-2 NPRM; (3) redesignating the paragraph lettering in the provisions that follow to accommodate insertion of the simplified regulatory procedure and for clarity; and (4) an editorial amendment to § 138.240(b)(2) to more clearly cross-reference § 138.240(b)(1).
The CPI-2 NPRM proposed to clarify the regulatory text for consistency with OPA 90 as amended by the 1995 Edible Oil Regulatory Reform Act
One commenter expressed support for our proposal to clarify applicability of the vessel limits of liability to these two vessel categories. We appreciate receiving this comment and believe that the proposed clarification will reduce regulatory uncertainty. No commenter opposed this proposal. We are therefore adopting the proposed regulatory text clarification, with minor non-substantive editorial revisions.
One commenter recommended that the Coast Guard amend the regulatory text to further clarify that a mobile offshore drilling unit (MODU) that is not “constructed or adapted to carry, or carries, oil in bulk as cargo or cargo residue” is subject to the lower tank vessel limits of liability in § 138.230(a)(1)(ii) and (iv). The commenter's understanding of the rule is correct. We, however, already clarified this issue in the CPI-1 Rule. Resolving this issue was, indeed, the only reason we published the CPI-1 Rule initially as an interim rule, rather than a final rule, in July, 2009.
Specifically, in response to late comments we received on our separate but related 2008 COFR Rule amendments (Docket No. USCG-2005-21780), our CPI-1 Interim Rule proposed a new definition in § 138.220 for the term “single-hull”. The revision limited the term “single-hull” to a tank vessel that is “constructed or adapted to carry, or that carries, oil in bulk as cargo or cargo residue.” In addition, we added limiting language in § 138.230(a). We received no adverse public comments on those proposed CPI-1 Interim Rule revisions and, therefore, adopted the clarifications in the CPI-1 Final Rule without change.
Those regulatory text revisions made clear that any tank vessel that does not meet the regulatory definition of “single hull”—including but not limited to a MODU that is neither constructed nor adapted to carry, and that does not carry, oil in bulk as cargo or cargo residue—are excluded from the single-hull tank vessel limit of liability categories in § 138.230(a)(1)(i) and (iii). All such vessels are instead subject to the “other than a single-hull tank vessel” limit of liability categories in § 138.230(a)(1)(ii) and (iv).
Therefore, since the same standard applies to all tank vessels (
We note that this issue is very different from the clarifications we are adopting today in respect to the treatment of edible oil tank vessels and oil spill response vessels. We are adopting those clarifications because those two vessel categories are, as a matter of law, not “tank vessels” under OPA 90.
The CPI-2 NPRM proposed a number of non-substantive clarifying and editorial changes to the regulatory text to improve its readability. These included: Updates to titles, and the list of authorities and definitions; adding cross-references, including a cross-reference in § 138.230(d) to the OPA 90 offshore facility limit of liability for damages as adjusted for inflation by BOEM; paragraph restructuring and renumbering to accommodate new regulatory text; and plain language revisions. We received no comments opposing these changes. This final rule, therefore, adopts the proposed changes and we have further clarified and edited the text for readability. The additional revisions include: Further updates to and simplification of the list of authorities citations; wording to clarify applicability of the limits of liability to motor vehicles, rolling stock and pipelines for consistency with OPA 90; simplification of the paragraph structure and introductory clauses in § 138.230 for readability and to eliminate subparagraph titles; and an editorial amendment to § 138.240(b)(2) to more clearly cross-reference § 138.240(b)(1).
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive Orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on these statutes or Executive Orders.
Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the rule has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget. A final Regulatory Assessment is available in the docket, and a summary follows.
We have analyzed the potential costs of this rulemaking, and expect it to:
This rule could increase the dollar amount of OPA 90 removal costs and damages the responsible party of a vessel (other than a public vessel), deepwater port, or onshore facility must pay in the event of an OPA 90 incident. This regulatory cost, however, would only be incurred by a responsible party if an incident resulted in OPA 90 removal costs and damages that exceeded the applicable vessel, deepwater port, or onshore facility Previous Limit of Liability. In any such case, assuming as we do in this analysis that the responsible party is entitled to a limit of liability (
This rule could affect the responsible parties of any vessel (other than a public vessel),
Coast Guard data as of May 2014 indicate that—since OPA 90 was enacted in August of 1990—67 vessel incidents (
This rule could affect the responsible parties of any deepwater port (including its component pipelines) involved in an OPA 90 incident. The impact would, however, only occur if the incident resulted in OPA 90 removal costs and damages in excess of the deepwater port's Previous Limit of Liability.
Currently there are only two licensed deepwater ports in operation—LOOP and Northeast Gateway. Northeast Gateway is a liquefied natural gas (LNG) port and, as currently designed and operated, uses less than 100 gallons of oil. Therefore, it is highly unlikely that Northeast Gateway would ever be the source of an OPA 90 incident with removal costs and damages in excess of the Previous Limit of Liability. We therefore do not include Northeast Gateway in this analysis.
To date, LOOP (the only oil deepwater port in operation) has not had an OPA 90 incident that resulted in removal costs and damages in excess of LOOP's Previous Limit of Liability of $87,606,000. However, the potential for such a spill exists. Therefore, for the purposes of this analysis, we show the cost of one OPA 90 incident occurring at LOOP over the 10-year analysis period (2016-2025), with OPA 90 removal costs and damages in excess of the Previous Limit of Liability for LOOP.
This rule could affect the responsible parties for any onshore facility (including onshore pipelines) involved in an OPA 90 incident. The impact would, however, only occur if the incident resulted in OPA 90 removal costs and damages in excess of the onshore facility Previous Limit of Liability.
Because of the large number and diversity of onshore facilities, it is not possible to predict which specific types or sizes of onshore facilities might be affected by this rule. Coast Guard data, however, indicate that from the enactment of OPA 90 in August, 1990, through May, 2015, only one onshore facility incident—the 2010 Enbridge Pipeline spill in Michigan—has likely resulted in OPA 90 removal costs and damages exceeding the onshore facility Previous Limit of Liability of $350,000,000.
The Enbridge Pipeline incident indicates that the Previous Limit of Liability for an onshore facility, although high, can still be exceeded by a low likelihood, but high consequence oil spill. Therefore, for the purposes of this analysis, we assume one onshore facility incident would occur over the 10-year analysis time period (2016-
We estimate the greatest cost to a vessel responsible party entitled to a limit of liability under OPA 90, for purposes of this analysis, by assuming that the average annual cost from the historical incidents analyzed would remain constant throughout the analysis period (2016-2025). The average annual increased cost of liability was estimated first by calculating the difference between the Previous Limit of Liability and the New Limit of Liability for each of the 67 historical vessel incidents with removal costs and damages in excess of the applicable OPA 90 limit of liability. These values were then totaled
We estimate the greatest cost to a deepwater port responsible party entitled to a limit of liability under OPA 90, for purposes of this analysis, by assuming that the cost of the incident would be equal to the New Limit of Liability. As mentioned above, LOOP has never had an incident with OPA 90 removal costs and damages in excess of its Previous Limit of Liability. Therefore, given the lack of any deepwater port historical data, we have assumed that a LOOP incident with costs above its Previous Limit of Liability of $87,606,000 would be analogous to a vessel incident with costs in excess of $87,606,000 with respect to the duration of responsible party payments.
Specifically, relying on historical duration of payment data for vessel incidents, we assume that the LOOP responsible parties would make OPA 90 removal cost and damage payments for the one hypothetical incident over the course of 10 years after the incident date.
We estimate the greatest cost to an onshore facility responsible party entitled to a limit of liability under OPA 90, for purposes of this analysis, by assuming that the cost of the incident would be equal to the New Limit of Liability. Based on NPFC's experience with onshore facility incidents, we assume that an onshore facility responsible party would be making OPA 90 removal cost and damage payments for the one estimated incident over the course of 10 years after the incident date.
The 10-year present value of Regulatory Cost 1, at a 3 percent discount rate, is estimated to be $271.1 million. The 10-year present value of Regulatory Cost 1, at a 7 percent discount rate, is estimated to be $223.2 million. The annualized discounted cost of Regulatory Cost 1, at a 3 percent discount rate, is estimated to be $31.8 million. The annualized discounted cost of Regulatory Cost 1, at a 7 percent discount rate is estimated to be $31.8 million.
OPA 90 requires that the responsible parties for certain types and sizes of vessels and for deepwater ports establish and maintain evidence of financial responsibility to ensure that they have the ability to pay for OPA 90 removal costs and damages, up to the applicable limits of liability, in the event of an OPA 90 incident.
As discussed above and further below, there will be no Regulatory Cost 2 impacts on deepwater ports because LOOP is the only deepwater port in operation required to provide evidence of financial responsibility, and LOOP is not expected to have any increased evidence of financial responsibility costs as a result of this rule. Therefore, only vessel responsible parties are expected to see Regulatory Cost 2 impacts.
Vessel responsible parties who are required to establish and maintain evidence of financial responsibility, may do so using any of the following methods: Insurance, Self-Insurance, Financial Guaranty, Surety Bond, or any other method approved by the Director, NPFC.
As discussed above in respect to Cost 1, currently there are two licensed deepwater ports in operation—LOOP and Northeast Gateway. The Coast Guard, however, has not yet proposed regulations implementing OPA 90 financial responsibility requirements for deepwater ports. Therefore, although LOOP is providing evidence of financial responsibility under a procedure that was grandfathered by OPA 90, 33 U.S.C. 2716(h), there are no OPA 90 evidence of financial responsibility regulatory requirements that currently apply to deepwater ports generally, including Northeast Gateway. We have, therefore, analyzed Cost 2 impacts only in respect to LOOP.
None. There is no requirement in OPA 90 for onshore facility responsible parties to establish and maintain evidence of financial responsibility.
We estimated costs by multiplying the number of vessels by vessel category for each year of the analysis (2016-2025) by the Expected Average Increase in Premium for that particular vessel type. The annual cost associated with increased Insurance premiums is estimated to be $6.5 million (non-discounted dollars).
The cost estimates for responsible parties migrating to the Insurance method of financial responsibility were calculated by first multiplying the number of vessels using Self-Insurance or Financial Guaranty by vessel category for each year of the analysis period (2016-2025) by the presumed percent of impacted vessels (2 percent) and then multiplying the product by the estimated Expected Average Annual Premium for that particular vessel type.
The annual cost associated with vessel responsible parties migrating to Insurance is estimated to be $532,100 (non-discounted dollars).
We do not have data on the fees charged by Surety Bond providers. But, if the cost of obtaining Surety Bond coverage were higher than the cost of Insurance, we would expect the one responsible party currently relying on the Surety Bond method to use the Insurance method instead. Therefore, we assume that the cost to the responsible party of using the surety method does not exceed the Insurance premium associated with the Insurance method. In the case of the one responsible party that is using the Surety Bond method for two tank vessels under 3,000 gross tons, this would be cost of $3,700 per vessel per year (
The 10 percent increase in the LOOP limit of liability resulting from this rulemaking is not expected to increase the cost to the LOOP responsible parties associated with establishing and maintaining LOOP's evidence of financial responsibility. This is because the LOOP responsible parties are already providing evidence of financial responsibility to the Coast Guard at a level that exceeds both LOOP's Previous Limit of Liability and its New Limit of Liability of $96,366,600. The Coast Guard has historically accepted the following documentation as evidence of financial responsibility for LOOP:
An insurance policy issued by Oil Insurance Limited (OIL) of Bermuda with coverage up to $150 million per OPA 90 incident and a $225 million annual aggregate,
Documentation that LOOP operates with a net worth of at least $50 million, and
Documentation that the total value of the OIL policy aggregate plus LOOP's working capital does not fall below $100 million.
The Coast Guard, therefore, does not expect this action to change the terms of the OIL policy, to result in an increased premium for the OIL policy, or to require LOOP to have higher minimum
None. There is no requirement in OPA 90 for onshore facility responsible parties to establish and maintain evidence of financial responsibility.
The 10-year present value, at a 3 percent discount rate, is estimated to be $60.0 million. The 10-year present value, at a 7 percent discount rate, is estimated to be $49.3 million. The annualized discounted cost, at a 3 percent discount rate, is estimated to be $7.0 million. The annualized discounted cost, at a 7 percent discount rate, is estimated to be $7.0 million.
The 10-year present value, at a 3 percent discount rate, is estimated to be $331.0 million. The 10-year present value, at a 7 percent discount rate, is estimated to be $272.5 million. The annualized discounted cost, at a 3 percent discount rate is estimated to be $38.8 million. The annualized discounted cost, at a 7 percent discount rate is estimated to be $38.8 million.
In our Regulatory Analysis, we have analyzed the regulatory benefits of this final rule qualitatively.
a.
OPA 90 (33 U.S.C. 2704(d)(4)) mandates that limits of liability be updated periodically to reflect significant increases in the CPI to account for inflation. The intent of this requirement is to ensure that the real values of the limits of liability do not decline over time. Absent CPI adjustments, a responsible party ultimately gains an advantage that is not contemplated by OPA 90 because the responsible party pays a reduced percentage of the total incident costs the responsible party would be required to pay with inflation incorporated into the determination of the applicable limit of liability. This final rule requires responsible parties to internalize inflation, thereby benefitting the public.
b.
By increasing the limits of liability to account for inflation, this final rule ensures that the appropriate amount of removal costs and damages are borne by the responsible party and that liability risk is not shifted away from the responsible party to the Fund. This helps preserve the ”polluter pays” principle as intended by Congress and preserves the Fund for its other authorized uses. Failing to adjust the limits of liability for inflation, by comparison, shifts those costs to the public and the Fund.
Increasing the limits of liability serves to reduce the number of substandard ships in U.S. waters and ports because Insurers, Surety Bond providers and Financial Guarantors are less likely to provide coverage for substandard vessels at the new levels of OPA 90 liability. Maintaining the limits of liability also helps preserve the deterrent effect of the OPA 90 liability provisions for Self Insurers.
With respect to oil handling practices, the higher the responsible parties' limits of liability are, the greater the incentive for them to operate in the safest and most risk-averse manner possible. Conversely, the lower the limits of liability, the lower the incentive is for responsible parties to spend money on capital improvements and operation and maintenance systems that will protect against oil spills.
Under the simplified regulatory procedure established by this final rule, the Director, NPFC, will publish the inflation-adjusted limits of liability in the
As discussed above, 33 U.S.C. 2704(c)(4) excludes edible oil tank vessels (
The special treatment accorded by OPA 90 to edible oil tank vessels and oil spill response vessels was not reflected in the prior regulatory text of 33 CFR part 138. The Coast Guard's clarification to the regulatory text by this final rule will, therefore, promote consistency with OPA 90 and be helpful to industry and the public by reducing regulatory uncertainty.
Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, we have considered whether this rule would have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. A Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis discussing the impact of this rule on small entities is available in the docket, and a summary follows.
We have analyzed the potential impacts of this final rule on small entities, and expect it to:
Regulatory Cost 1. Increase the cost of liability, and
Regulatory Cost 2. Increase the cost of establishing and maintaining evidence of financial responsibility.
As explained above in Part V.A of this preamble and in the Regulatory Analysis for this rule, Regulatory Cost 1 will only occur if there is an OPA 90 incident that has OPA 90 removal costs and damages in excess of the existing limits of liability.
The rule could affect the responsible parties of any vessel (other than a public
According to Coast Guard's MISLE database, there are over 200,000 vessels of various types in the vessel population that are not public vessels. Examples of vessel types include, but are not limited to: fish processing vessel, freight barge, freight ship, industrial vessel, mobile offshore drilling unit, offshore supply vessel, oil recovery vessel, passenger vessel, commercial fishing vessel, passenger barge, research vessel, school ship, tank barge, tank ship, and towing vessel.
Coast Guard data indicate that—from the date of enactment of OPA 90 through May 1, 2014—there were 67 OPA 90 vessel incidents (
As calculated in the Regulatory Analysis, the average cost of a vessel incident that exceeds its Previous Limit of Liability is approximately $838,600 but could range from $85,800 to $11,368,500. We note that the majority of the incidents, 60 percent, would only have incurred an additional $85,800 in OPA 90 removal costs and damages. However, in the event that a small entity had a vessel incident which resulted in OPA 90 removal costs and damages above the Previous Limit of Liability in that amount, it would likely have a significant economic impact.
As discussed above in Part V.A of this preamble and in the Regulatory Analysis, the only deepwater port affected by the final rule is LOOP. LOOP, however, does not meet the Small Business Administration (SBA) criteria to be categorized as a small entity.
Because there are no small entity deepwater ports, there would be no Regulatory Cost 1 small entity impacts to Deepwater Ports.
As discussed above in Part V.A of this preamble and in the Regulatory Analysis, the final rule could affect the responsible parties for any onshore facility.
The onshore facility population encompasses dozens of NAICS codes representing diverse industries.
As previously stated above, there has never been a small entity onshore facility incident with OPA 90 removal costs and damage that exceeded the Previous Limit of Liability of $350 million. However, in the event that a small entity onshore facility were to have an incident with OPA 90 removal costs and damages equal to the New Limit of Liability, that onshore facility would be responsible for an average annual additional cost of $28,385,000. This would likely have a significant economic impact on the small entity.
Regulatory Cost 2 will only apply to vessel responsible parties required to establish and maintain OPA 90 evidence of financial responsibility under 33 U.S.C. 2716 and 33 CFR part 138, subpart A. As of July 3, 2013, there were 1,744 unique entities in the Coast Guard's COFR database that could be affected by the rulemaking. Because of the large number of entities, we determined the statistically significant sample size necessary to represent the population. The appropriate statistical sample size, at a 95 percent confidence level and a 5 percent confidence interval, for the population is 315 entities. This means we are 95 percent certain that the characteristics of the sample reflect the characteristics of the entire population within a margin of error of + or −5 percent.
Using a random number generator, we then randomly selected the 315 entities from the population for analysis. Of the sample, 309 were businesses, 0 were not-for-profit organizations and 6 were governmental jurisdictions. For each business entity, we next determined the number of employees, annual revenue, and NAICS Code to the extent possible using public and proprietary business databases. The SBA's publication “U.S. Small Business Administration Table of Small Business Size Standards Matched to North American Industry Classification System codes effective January 22, 2014”
Of the sampled population, 220 would be considered small entities using SBA's criteria, 72 would not be small entities, and no data was found for the remaining 23 entities.
Solving for X, X equals 1,345 small entities within the total population of 1,744 vessel responsible parties.
As discussed above in Part V.A. and in the Regulatory Analysis, the rule could increase the cost to vessel responsible parties associated with establishing and maintaining evidence of financial responsibility in three ways:
Responsible parties using the Insurance method of establishing and maintaining evidence of financial responsibility could incur higher Insurance premiums.
Some responsible parties currently using the Self-Insurance or Financial Guaranty methods of establishing and maintaining evidence of financial responsibility might need to migrate to the Insurance method for their vessels. This would only be the case if the Self-Insuring responsible parties or Financial Guarantors' financial condition (working capital and net worth) no longer qualified them to establish and maintain evidence of financial responsibility.
The one responsible party using the Surety Bond method will need to ensure that the amount of the Surety Bonds are adequate to cover OPA 90 removal costs and damages up to the New Limits of Liability. Alternatively, the responsible party could opt to switch to one of the other methods of establishing and maintaining evidence of financial responsibility.
Based on the data in the Regulatory Analysis above, we have estimated the average annual per-vessel increase in Insurance premiums to be $300.
The estimated increased cost of establishing evidence of financial responsibility for each small entity is calculated by multiplying the number of vessels using the Insurance method by the average increase in insurance premiums. This calculation was conducted for each small entity. The value was then divided by the annual revenue for the small entity and multiplied by 100 to determine the percent impact of the final rule on the small entities' annual revenue.
Based on review of financial data of entities using the Self-Insurance or Financial Guaranty method for establishing and maintaining evidence of financial responsibility, Coast Guard subject matter experts estimate that responsible parties for 2 percent of vessels using those two methods would not have the requisite working capital and net worth necessary to qualify for these methods as a result of the rule. In those cases, we assume they will use the Insurance method to establish and maintain evidence of financial responsibility. Based on the data in Part V.A., above, and in the Regulatory Analysis, the estimated average annual cost per vessel of migrating from the Self-insurance/Financial Guaranty methods to the Insurance method is $5,100.
The increased cost of establishing and maintaining evidence of financial responsibility for each small entity is calculated by:
For example, the cost for a small entity responsible party with 100 vessels that would not have the requisite working capital and net worth necessary to use the Self-Insurance or Financial Guaranty method for all of its vessels would be calculated as follows:
This calculation was conducted for each small entity. The value was then divided by the annual revenue for the small entity and multiplied by 100 to determine the percent impact of the rule on the small entities' annual revenue.
As previously noted, there is one responsible party using the Surety Bond method of establishing and maintaining financial responsibility for two vessels. This responsible party is not a small entity. In addition, based on Coast Guard subject matter expertise, we do not expect any other responsible party to use the Surety Bond method during the analysis period. Because there are no small entities involved, there would be no Regulatory Cost 2 small entity impacts for these two vessels.
As discussed above, the only deepwater port potentially affected by the rule is LOOP. LOOP, however, does not meet SBA's criteria to be categorized as a small entity.
Because there are no small entity deepwater ports, there would be no Regulatory Cost 2 small entity impacts to Deepwater Ports.
As stated above in Part V.A. and in the Regulatory Analysis, onshore facilities are not required to establish and maintain evidence of financial responsibility under 33 U.S.C. 2716.
Because onshore facilities are not required to establish and maintain evidence of financial responsibility, there are no Regulatory Cost 2 small entity impacts to onshore facilities resulting from this rulemaking.
The figure below shows the economic impact to small entities of Regulatory Cost 2.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, Public Law 104-121, we offered to assist small entities in understanding this rule so that they could better evaluate its effects on them and participate in the rulemaking. The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247).
This rule calls for no new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3520.
A rule has implications for federalism under E.O. 13132 (“Federalism”) if it has a substantial direct effect on States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this final rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in E.O. 13132. This final rule makes necessary adjustments to the OPA 90 limits of liability to reflect significant increases in the CPI, establishes a framework for such future CPI increases, and clarifies the OPA 90 limits of liability for certain vessels. Nothing in this final rule affects the preservation of State authorities under 33 U.S.C. 2718, including the authority of any State to impose additional liability or financial responsibility requirements with respect to discharges of oil within such State. Therefore, it has no implications for federalism.
The Coast Guard recognizes the key role that State and local governments may have in making regulatory determinations. Additionally, for rules with federalism implications and preemptive effect, E.O. 13132 specifically directs agencies to consult with State and local governments during the rulemaking process. The NPRM, therefore, invited anyone who believed this rule has implications for federalism under E.O. 13132 to contact us. We received no such public comment.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
This rule will not cause a taking of private property or otherwise have taking implications under E.O. 12630 (“Governmental Actions and Interference with Constitutionally Protected Property Rights”).
This rule meets applicable standards in sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of E.O. 12988, (“Civil Justice Reform”), to minimize litigation, eliminate ambiguity, and reduce burden.
We have analyzed this rule under E.O. 13045 (“Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks”). This rule is not an economically significant rule and would not create an environmental risk to health or risk to safety that might disproportionately affect children.
This rule does not have tribal implications under E.O. 13175 (“Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments”), because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
We have analyzed this rule under E.O. 13211 (“Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use”). We have determined that it is not a “significant energy action” under that order because it is not a “significant regulatory action” under E.O. 12866 and is not likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy.
The National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act, codified as a note to 15 U.S.C. 272, directs agencies to use voluntary consensus standards in their regulatory activities unless the agency provides Congress, through OMB, with an explanation of why using these standards would be inconsistent with applicable law or otherwise impractical. Voluntary consensus standards are technical standards (
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01, Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, and 67 FR 48243 (July 23, 2002) which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, 42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f, and have concluded that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. A final environmental analysis checklist supporting this determination is available in the docket where indicated under the “Public Participation and Request for Comments” section of this preamble. This rule increases the OPA 90 limits of liability for vessels, deepwater ports, and onshore facilities to reflect significant increases in the CPI using the methodology established in the CPI-1 Rule. This action is one of a category of actions which do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment and is categorically excluded from further environmental documentation under paragraph 6(b) of 67 FR 48243 (July 23, 2002).
Financial responsibility, Guarantors, Hazardous materials transportation, Insurance, Limits of liability, Oil pollution, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Surety bonds, Water pollution control.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 138 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 2704, 2716, 2716a; 42 U.S.C. 9608, 9609; 6 U.S.C. 552; E.O. 12580, Sec. 7(b), 3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 193; E.O. 12777, Secs. 4 and 5, 3 CFR, 1991 Comp., p. 351, as amended by E.O. 13286, Sec. 89, 3 CFR, 2004 Comp., p. 166, and by E.O. 13638, Sec. 1, 3 CFR, 2014 Comp., p.227; Department of Homeland Security Delegation Nos. 0170.1 and 5110, Revision 01. Section 138.30 also issued under the authority of 46 U.S.C. 2103 and 14302.
This subpart sets forth the limits of liability under Title I of the Oil Pollution Act of 1990, as amended (33 U.S.C. 2701,
This subpart applies to you if you are a responsible party for a vessel, a deepwater port, or an onshore facility (including, but not limited to, motor vehicles, rolling stock and onshore pipelines), unless your liability is unlimited under OPA 90 (33 U.S.C. 2704(c)).
(a) As used in this subpart, the following terms have the meanings set forth in OPA 90 (33 U.S.C. 2701):
(b) As used in this subpart—
(a)
(i) For a single-hull tank vessel greater than 3,000 gross tons, the greater of $3,500 per gross ton or $25,845,600;
(ii) For a tank vessel greater than 3,000 gross tons, other than a single-hull tank vessel, the greater of $2,200 per gross ton or $18,796,800;
(iii) For a single-hull tank vessel less than or equal to 3,000 gross tons, the greater of $3,500 per gross ton or $7,048,800; and
(iv) For a tank vessel less than or equal to 3,000 gross tons, other than a single-hull tank vessel, the greater of $2,200 per gross ton or $4,699,200.
(2) The OPA 90 limits of liability for any vessel other than a vessel listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, including for any edible oil tank vessel and any oil spill response vessel, are the greater of $1,100 per gross ton or $939,800.
(b)
(2) The OPA 90 limits of liability for deepwater ports with limits of liability established by regulation under OPA 90 (33 U.S.C. 2704(d)(2)), including for any component pipelines, are—
(i) For the Louisiana Offshore Oil Port (LOOP), $96,366,600; and
(ii) [Reserved]
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(2) The cumulative percent change value calculated using the formula in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is rounded to one decimal place.
(c)
(d)
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of enforcement of regulation.
The Coast Guard will enforce various safety zones within the Captain of the Port New York Zone on the specified dates and times. This action is necessary to ensure the safety of vessels and spectators from hazards associated with fireworks displays. During the enforcement period, no person or vessel may enter the safety zones without permission of the Captain of the Port (COTP).
The regulation for the safety zones described in 33 CFR 165.160 will be enforced on the dates and times listed in the table below.
If you have questions on this notice, call or email Petty Officer First Class Daniel Vazquez U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 718-354-4154, email
The Coast Guard will enforce the safety zones listed in 33 CFR 165.160 on the specified dates and times as indicated in Table 1 below. This regulation was published in the
Under the provisions of 33 CFR 165.160, vessels may not enter the safety zones unless given permission from the COTP or a designated representative. Spectator vessels may transit outside the safety zones but may not anchor, block, loiter in, or impede the transit of other vessels. The Coast Guard may be assisted by other Federal, State, or local law enforcement agencies in enforcing this regulation.
This notice is issued under authority of 33 CFR 165.160(a) and 5 U.S.C. 552(a). In addition to this notice in the
In rule document 2015-27467 appearing on pages 67252-67253 in the issue of October 30, 2015, make the following correction:
On page 67253, in the first column, the last line, “BILLING CODE 6820-ep-P” should read “BILLING CODE 5001-06-P”.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Advance notice of proposed rulemaking; request for comment.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing this advance notice of proposed rulemaking (ANPR) to obtain input from stakeholders on the development of a draft regulatory basis. The draft regulatory basis would support potential changes to the NRC's regulations for the decommissioning of nuclear power reactors. The NRC's goals in amending these regulations would be to provide an efficient decommissioning process, reduce the need for exemptions from existing regulations, and support the principles of good regulation, including openness, clarity, and reliability. The NRC is soliciting public comments on the contemplated action and invites stakeholders and interested persons to participate. The NRC plans to hold a public meeting to promote full understanding of the questions contained in this ANPR and facilitate public comment.
Submit comments by January 4, 2016. Comments received after this date will be considered if it is practical to do so, but the NRC is able to ensure consideration only for comments received on or before this date.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specific subject):
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For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Jason B. Carneal, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-1451; email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2015-0070 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2015-0070 in your comment submission.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC posts all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or
Significant regulations for the decommissioning of nuclear power reactors were not included in NRC rules promulgated before 1988. The NRC published a final rule in the
In a series of Commission papers issued between 1997 and 2001, the NRC staff provided options and recommendations to the Commission to address regulatory improvements related to power reactor decommissioning. In the Staff Requirements Memorandum (SRM) to SECY-99-168, “Improving Decommissioning Regulations for Nuclear Power Plants,” dated December 21, 1999 (ADAMS Accession No. ML003752190), the Commission directed the NRC staff to proceed with a single, integrated, risk-informed decommissioning rule, addressing the areas of emergency preparedness (EP), insurance, safeguards, staffing and training, and backfit. The objective of the rulemaking was to clarify and remove certain regulations for decommissioning power reactors based on the reduction in radiological risk compared to operating reactors. At an operating reactor, the high temperature and pressure of the reactor coolant system, as well as the inventory of relatively short-lived radionuclides, contribute to both the risk and consequences of an accident. With the permanent cessation of reactor operations and the permanent removal of the fuel from the reactor core, such accidents are no longer possible. As a result of the shutdown and removal of fuel, the reactor, reactor coolant system, and supporting systems no longer operate and, therefore, have no function. Hence, postulated accidents involving failure or malfunction of the reactor, reactor coolant system, or supporting systems are no longer applicable.
During reactor decommissioning, the principal radiological risks are associated with the storage of spent fuel onsite. Generally, a few months after the reactor has been permanently shut down, there are no possible design-basis events that could result in a radiological release exceeding the limits established by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency's (EPA) early- phase Protective Action Guidelines of 1 roentgen equivalent man at the exclusion area boundary. The only accident that might lead to a significant radiological release at a decommissioning reactor is a zirconium fire. The zirconium fire scenario is a postulated, but highly unlikely, beyond-design-basis accident scenario that involves a major loss of water inventory from the spent fuel pool (SFP), resulting in a significant heat-up of the spent fuel, and culminating in substantial zirconium cladding oxidation and fuel damage. The analyses of spent fuel heat-up scenarios that might result in a zirconium fire are related to the decay heat of the irradiated fuel stored in the SFP. Therefore, the probability of a zirconium fire scenario continues to decrease as a function of the time that the decommissioning reactor has been permanently shut down.
On June 28, 2000, the NRC staff submitted SECY-00-0145, “Integrated Rulemaking Plan for Nuclear Power Plant Decommissioning” (ADAMS Accession No. ML003721626) to the Commission, proposing an integrated decommissioning rulemaking plan. The rulemaking plan was contingent on the completion of a zirconium fire risk study provided in NUREG-1738, “Technical Study of Spent Fuel Pool Accident Risk at Decommissioning Nuclear Power Plants” (ADAMS Accession No. ML010430066), on the accident risks at decommissioning reactor SFPs. The NUREG was issued on February 28, 2001.
Although NUREG-1738 could not completely rule out the possibility of a zirconium fire after a long spent fuel decay times, it did demonstrate that storage of spent fuel in a high-density configuration in SFPs is safe, and that the risk of accidental release of a significant amount of radioactive material to the environment is low. The study used simplified and sometimes bounding assumptions and models to characterize the likelihood and consequences of beyond-design-basis SFP accidents. Subsequent NRC regulatory activities and studies (described in more detail below) have reaffirmed the safety and security of spent fuel stored in pools and shown that SFPs are effectively designed to prevent accidents.
Because of uncertainty in the NUREG-1738 conclusions about the risk of SFP fires, the NRC staff faced a challenge in developing a generic decommissioning rule for EP, physical security, and insurance. To seek additional Commission direction, on June 4, 2001, the NRC staff submitted to the Commission SECY-01-0100, “Policy Issues Related to Safeguards, Insurance, and Emergency Preparedness Regulations at Decommissioning Nuclear Power Plants Storing Fuel in Spent Fuel Pools” (ADAMS Accession No. ML011450420). However, based on the reactor security implications of the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001 (9/11), and the results of NUREG-1738, the NRC redirected its rulemaking priorities to focus on programmatic regulatory changes related to safeguards and security. In a memorandum to the Commission, “Status of Regulatory Exemptions for Decommissioning Plants,” dated August 16, 2002 (ADAMS Accession No. ML030550706), the NRC staff stated that no additional permanent reactor shut downs were anticipated in the foreseeable future, and that no immediate need existed to proceed with the decommissioning regulatory improvement work that was planned. Consequently, the NRC shifted resources allocated for reactor decommissioning rulemaking to other activities. The NRC staff concluded that if any additional reactors permanently shut down after the rulemaking effort was suspended, establishment of the decommissioning regulatory framework would continue to be addressed through the license amendment and exemption processes.
Between 1998 and 2013, no power reactors permanently ceased operation. Since 2013, five power reactors have permanently shut down, defueled, and are transitioning to decommissioning. For these decommissioning reactor licensees, the NRC has processed various license amendments and exemptions to establish a decommissioning regulatory framework, similar to the method used in the 1990s.
Following the 9/11 attack, the NRC took several actions to further reduce the possibility of a SFP fire. In the wake of the attacks, the NRC issued orders
In addition, the NRC amended § 50.55(hh)(2) of title 10 of the
Further, other organizations, such as Sandia National Laboratory, have confirmed the effectiveness of the additional mitigation strategies to maintain spent fuel cooling in the event the pool is drained and its initial water inventory is reduced or lost entirely. The analyses conducted by the Sandia National Laboratories (collectively, the “Sandia studies”), are sensitive security related information and are not available to the public. The Sandia studies considered spent fuel loading patterns and other aspects of a pressurized-water reactor SFP and a boiling water reactor SFP, including the role that the circulation of air plays in the cooling of spent fuel. The Sandia studies indicated that there may be a significant amount of time between the initiating event (
The Sandia studies, which account for relevant heat transfer and fluid flow mechanisms, also indicated that air-cooling of spent fuel would be sufficient to prevent SFP zirconium fires at a point much earlier following fuel offload from the reactor than previously considered (
Additional mitigation strategies implemented subsequent to 9/11 enhance spent fuel coolability, and the potential to recover SFP water level and cooling prior to a potential SFP zirconium fire. The Sandia studies also confirmed the effectiveness of additional mitigation strategies to maintain spent fuel cooling in the event the pool is drained and its initial water inventory is reduced or lost entirely. Based on this more recent information, and the implementation of additional strategies following 9/11, the probability of a SFP zirconium fire initiation is expected to be less than reported in NUREG-1738 and previous studies.
The NUREG-2161, “Consequence Study of a Beyond-Design-Basis Earthquake Affecting the Spent Fuel Pool for a U.S. Mark I Boiling Water Reactor,” dated September 2014 (ADAMS Accession No. ML14255A365), evaluated the potential benefits of strategies required in § 50.54(hh)(2). The NUREG-2161 found that successful implementation of mitigation strategies significantly reduces the likelihood of a release from the SFP in the event of a loss of cooling water. Additionally, NUREG-2161 found that the placement of spent fuel in a dispersed configuration in the SFP, such as the 1 x 4 pattern, would have a positive effect in promoting natural circulation, which enhances air coolability and thereby reduces the likelihood of a release from a completely drained SFP. An information notice titled, “Potential Safety Enhancements to Spent Fuel Pool Storage,” dated November 14, 2014 (ADAMS Accession No. ML14218A493), was issued to all licensees informing them of the insights from NUREG-2161. This information notice describes the benefits of storing spent fuel in more favorable loading patterns, placing spent fuel in dispersed patterns immediately after core offload, and taking action to improve mitigation strategies.
In addition, in response to the Fukushima Dai-ichi accident, the NRC is currently implementing regulatory actions to further enhance reactor and SFP safety. On March 12, 2012, the NRC issued Order EA-12-051, “Issuance of Order to Modify Licenses with Regard to Reliable Spent Fuel Pool Instrumentation,” (ADAMS Accession No. ML12054A679), which requires that licensees install reliable means of remotely monitoring wide-range SFP levels to support effective prioritization of event mitigation and recovery actions in the event of a beyond-design-basis external event. Although the primary purpose of the order was to ensure that operators were not distracted by uncertainties related to SFP conditions during the accident response, the improved monitoring capabilities will help in the diagnosis and response to potential losses of SFP integrity. In addition, on March 12, 2012, the NRC issued Order EA-12-049, “Order Modifying Licenses with Regard to Requirements for Mitigation Strategies for Beyond-Design-Basis External Events,” (ADAMS Accession No. ML12054A735), which requires licensees to develop, implement, and maintain guidance and strategies to maintain or restore SFP cooling capabilities, independent of alternating current power, following a beyond-design-basis external event. These requirements ensure a more reliable and robust mitigation capability is in place to address degrading conditions in SFPs.
The NRC believes that much of the information in the SFP studies that have been accomplished since NUREG-1738, as discussed previously, will contribute to the development of a regulatory basis for the current power reactor decommissioning rulemaking effort.
In the SRM to SECY-14-0118, “Request by Duke Energy Florida, Inc., for Exemptions from Certain Emergency Planning Requirements,” dated December 30, 2014 (ADAMS Accession No. ML14364A111), the Commission directed the NRC staff to proceed with
• Issues discussed in SECY-00-0145 such as the graded approach to emergency preparedness;
• Lessons learned from the plants that have already (or are currently) going through the decommissioning process;
• The advisability of requiring a licensee's post-shutdown decommissioning activity report (PSDAR) to be approved by the NRC;
• The appropriateness of maintaining the three existing options (DECON, SAFSTOR, and ENTOMB
DECON: The equipment, structures, and portions of the facility and site that contain radioactive contaminants are promptly removed or decontaminated to a level that permits termination of the license shortly after cessation of operations.
SAFSTOR: The facility is placed in a safe, stable condition and maintained in that state (safe storage) until it is subsequently decontaminated and dismantled to levels that permit license termination. During SAFSTOR, a facility is left intact, but the fuel has been removed from the reactor vessel, and radioactive liquids have been drained from systems and components and then processed. Radioactive decay occurs during the SAFSTOR period, thus reducing the quantity of contaminated and radioactive material that must be disposed of during decontamination and dismantlement. The definition of SAFSTOR also includes the decontamination and dismantlement of the facility at the end of the storage period.
ENTOMB: Radioactive systems, structures, and components are encased in a structurally long-lived substance, such as concrete. The entombed structure is appropriately maintained, and continued surveillance is carried out until the radioactivity decays to a level that permits termination of the license.
• The appropriate role of State and local governments and nongovernmental stakeholders in the decommissioning process; and
• Any other issues deemed relevant by the NRC staff.
In SECY-15-0014, “Anticipated Schedule and Estimated Resources for a Power Reactor Decommissioning Rulemaking,” dated January 30, 2015 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15082A089—redacted), the NRC staff committed to proceed with a rulemaking on reactor decommissioning and provided an anticipated schedule and estimate of the resources required for the completion of a decommissioning rulemaking. In SECY-15-0127, “Schedule, Resource Estimates, and Impacts for the Power Reactor Decommissioning Rulemaking,” dated October 7, 2015, (non-publicly available), the staff provided further information to the Commission on resource estimates and work that will be delayed or deferred in fiscal year (FY) 2016 to enable the staff to make timely progress consistent with Commission direction to have a final rule submitted to the Commission by the end of FY 2019.
In 2013, four power reactor units permanently shut down without significant advance notice or pre-planning. These licensees and the associated shut down reactors are: Duke Energy Florida for Crystal River Unit 3 Nuclear Generation Plant; Dominion Energy Kewaunee for Kewaunee Power Station; and Southern California Edison for San Onofre Nuclear Generating Station, Units 2 and 3.
On December 29, 2014, Entergy Nuclear Operations, Inc., shut down Vermont Yankee Nuclear Power Station (VY), and on January 12, 2015, the licensee certified that VY had permanently ceased operation and removed fuel from the reactor vessel. Furthermore, Exelon Generation Company, the licensee for the Oyster Creek Nuclear Generating Station, has indicated that it is currently planning to shut down that facility in 2019.
Both the decommissioning reactor licensees and the NRC have expended substantial resources processing licensing actions for these power reactors during their transition period to a decommissioning status. Consistent with the power reactors that permanently shutdown in the 1990s, the licensees that are currently transitioning to decommissioning are establishing a long-term regulatory framework based on the low risk of an offsite radiological release posed by a decommissioning reactor. The licensees are seeking NRC approval of exemptions and amendments, to reduce requirements no longer needed or no longer relevant for permanently shutdown reactors.
The NRC has not identified any significant risks to public health and safety in the current regulatory framework for decommissioning power reactors. Consequently, the need for a power reactor decommissioning rulemaking is not based on any identified safety-driven or security-driven concerns. When compared to an operating reactor, the risk of an offsite radiological release is significantly lower, and the types of possible accidents are significantly fewer, at a nuclear power reactor that has permanently ceased operations and removed fuel from the reactor vessel. Although the need for a power reactor decommissioning rulemaking is not based on safety concerns, the NRC understands that the decommissioning process can be improved and made more efficient and predictable by reducing its reliance on processing licensing actions to achieve a long-term regulatory framework for decommissioning. Therefore, the primary objective of the decommissioning rulemaking is to implement appropriate regulatory changes that reduce the number of licensing actions needed during decommissioning.
The NRC anticipates that a power reactor decommissioning rulemaking will require substantial interactions with all stakeholders. The information developed in SECY-00-0145 provides a historical perspective on the regulatory challenges that the NRC is facing for those licensees currently transitioning to decommissioning. In addition, SECY-00-0145 serves as a good starting point for the current reactor decommissioning rulemaking effort. However, as a result of the changes to operating reactor regulations in the areas of EP and security after September 11, 2001, and the earthquake and tsunami affecting the Fukushima Dai-ichi nuclear power station in Japan, there will likely be many differences in the current rulemaking effort as compared to the rulemaking approach proposed in SECY-00-0145. The proposed decommissioning rulemaking effort needs to be carefully scoped to ensure an efficient and timely rulemaking process. Incorporating too broad of a regulatory scope into a single rule was one of the challenges encountered during the prior rulemaking effort.
Until a new decommissioning rulemaking is complete, licensees that are considering decommissioning can use recently completed decommissioning licensing actions as a template for beginning decommissioning activities. In addition, the NRC can use these recent licensing action evaluations as a precedent when processing similar decommissioning actions. The recently completed licensing actions will also provide supporting information for the framework and context of a power reactor decommissioning rulemaking. The NRC has also completed interim staff guidance on processing EP license exemptions (NSIR/DPR-ISG-02, “Emergency Planning Exemption Requests for Decommissioning Nuclear Power Plants,” ADAMS Accession No. ML13304B442), and has issued draft interim staff guidance for physical security license exemptions (NSIR/DSP-ISG-03, “Review of Security
The NRC intends to work closely with all stakeholders to ensure that the decommissioning rulemaking can be achieved within a reasonable timeframe.
The NRC has determined that interaction with the public and stakeholders will help to inform the development of a regulatory basis for the power reactor decommissioning rulemaking. This ANPR is structured around questions intended to solicit information that: (1) Defines the scope of stakeholder interest in a decommissioning rulemaking, and (2) supports the development of a complete and adequate regulatory basis. Commenters should feel free to provide feedback on any aspect of power reactor decommissioning that would support this ANPR's regulatory objective, whether or not in response to a question listed in this ANPR.
The NRC is developing a proposed rule that would amend the current requirements for power reactors transitioning to decommissioning. Experience has demonstrated that licensees for decommissioning power reactors seek several exemptions and license amendments per site to establish a long-term licensing basis for decommissioning. By issuing a decommissioning rule, the NRC would be able to establish regulations that would maintain safety and security at sites transitioning to decommissioning without the need to grant specific exemptions or license amendments in certain regulatory areas. Specifically, the decommissioning rulemaking would have the following goals: (1) Continue to provide reasonable assurance of adequate protection of the public health and safety and common defense and security at decommissioning power reactor sites; (2) Ensure that the requirements for decommissioning power reactors are clear and appropriate; (3) Codify those issues that are found to be generically applicable to all decommissioning power reactors and have resulted in the need for similarly-worded exemptions or license amendments; and (4) Identify, define, and resolve additional areas of concern related to the regulation of decommissioning power reactors.
The NRC would apply these updated requirements to power reactors permanently shut down and defueled and entered into decommissioning.
Accordingly, the NRC envisions that the requirements would apply to the following:
• Nuclear power plants currently licensed under 10 CFR part 50;
• Nuclear power plants currently being constructed under construction permits issued under 10 CFR part 50, or whose construction permits may be reinstated;
• Future nuclear power plants whose construction permits and operating licenses are issued under 10 CFR part 50; and
• Current and future nuclear power plants licensed under 10 CFR part 52.
The NRC recognizes that it will take several years to issue a final rule. If additional reactors begin decommissioning before implementation of the final rule, the NRC anticipates that licensees will continue to use existing regulatory processes (for example, exemptions and license amendments) to establish their decommissioning regulatory framework.
The NRC is seeking stakeholders' input on the following specific areas related to power reactor decommissioning regulations. The NRC asks that commenters provide the bases for their comments (
The EP requirements of 10 CFR 50.47, “Emergency Plans,” and appendix E, “Emergency Planning and Preparedness for Production and Utilization Facilities,” to 10 CFR part 50 continue to apply to a nuclear power reactor after permanent cessation of operations and removal of fuel from the reactor vessel. Currently, there are no explicit regulatory provisions distinguishing EP requirements for a power reactor that has been shut down from those for an operating power reactor. The NRC is considering several changes to the EP requirements in 10 CFR part 50, “Domestic Licensing of Production and Utilization Facilities,” including § 50.47, “Emergency Plans;” appendix E to 10 CFR part 50, “Emergency Planning and Preparedness for Production and Utilization Facilities”; § 50.54(s), (q), and (t), and § 50.72(a) and (b). These areas are discussed in more detail in this section. The questions on EP have been listed in this document using the acronym “EP” and sequential numbers.
EP-1: The NRC has previously approved exemptions from the emergency planning regulations in § 50.47 and appendix E to 10 CFR part 50 at permanently shut down and defueled power reactor sites based on the determination that there are no possible design-basis events at a decommissioning licensee's facility that could result in an offsite radiological release exceeding the limits established by the EPA's early-phase protective action guidelines of 1 rem at the exclusion area boundary. In addition, the possibility of the spent fuel in the SFP reaching the point of a beyond-design-basis zirconium fire is highly unlikely based on an analysis of the amount of time before spent fuel could reach the zirconium ignition temperature during a SFP partial drain-down event, assuming a reasonably conservative adiabatic heat-up calculation. A minimum of 10 hours is the time that was used in previously approved exemptions, which allows for onsite mitigative actions to be taken by the licensee or actions to be taken by offsite authorities in accordance with the comprehensive emergency management plans (
a. What specific EP requirements in § 50.47 and appendix E to 10 CFR part 50 should be evaluated for modification, including any EP requirements not addressed in previously approved exemption requests for licensees with decommissioning reactors?
b. What existing NRC EP-related guidance and other documents should
c. What new guidance would be necessary to support implementation of changes to the EP requirements?
EP-2: Rulemaking may involve a tiered approach for modifying EP requirements based on several factors, including, but not limited to, the source term after cessation of power operations, removal of fuel from the reactor vessel, elapsed time after permanent defueling, and type of long-term onsite fuel storage.
a. What tiers and associated EP requirements would be appropriate to consider for this approach?
b. What factors should be considered in establishing each tier?
c. What type of basis could be established to support each tier or factor?
d. Should the NRC consider an alternative to a tiered approach for modifying EP requirements? If so, provide a description of a proposed alternative.
EP-3: Several aspects of offsite EP, such as formal offsite radiological emergency plans, emergency planning zones, and alert and notification systems, may not be necessary at a decommissioning site when beyond-design-basis events—which could result in the need for offsite protective actions—are few in number and highly unlikely to occur.
a. Presently, licensees at decommissioning sites must maintain the following capabilities to initiate and implement emergency response actions: Classify and declare an emergency, assess releases of radioactive materials, notify licensee personnel and offsite authorities, take mitigative actions, and request offsite assistance if needed. What other aspects of onsite EP and response capabilities may be appropriate for licensees at decommissioning sites to maintain once the requirements to maintain formal offsite EP are discontinued?
b. To what extent would it be appropriate for licensees at decommissioning sites to arrange for offsite assistance to supplement onsite response capabilities? For example, licensees at decommissioning sites would maintain agreements with offsite authorities for fire, medical, and law enforcement support.
c. What corresponding changes to § 50.54(s)(2)(ii) and 50.54(s)(3) (about U.S. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)-identified offsite EP deficiencies and FEMA offsite EP findings, respectively) may be appropriate when offsite radiological emergency plans would no longer be required?
EP-4: Under § 50.54(q), nuclear power reactor licensees are required to follow and maintain the effectiveness of emergency plans that meet the standards in § 50.47 and the requirements in appendix E to 10 CFR part 50. These licensees must submit to the NRC, for prior approval, changes that would reduce the effectiveness of their emergency plans.
a. Should § 50.54(q) be modified to recognize that nuclear power reactor licensees, once they certify under § 50.82, “Termination of License,” to have permanently ceased operation and permanently removed fuel from the reactor vessel, would no longer be required to meet all standards in § 50.47 and all requirements in appendix E? If so, describe how.
b. Should nuclear power reactor licensees, once they certify under § 50.82 to have permanently ceased operation and permanently removed fuel from the reactor vessel, be allowed to make emergency plan changes based on § 50.59, “Changes, Tests, and Experiments,” impacting EP related equipment directly associated with power operations? If so, describe how this might be addressed under § 50.54(q).
EP-5: Under § 50.54(t), nuclear power reactor licensees are required to review all EP program elements every 12 months. Some EP program elements may not apply to permanently shut down and defueled sites; for example, the adequacy of interfaces with State and local government officials when offsite radiological emergency plans may no longer be required. Should § 50.54(t) be clarified to distinguish between EP program review requirements for operating versus permanently shut down and defueled sites? If so, describe how.
EP-6: The Emergency Response Data System (ERDS) transmits key operating plant data to the NRC during an emergency. Under § 50.72(a)(4), nuclear power reactor licensees are required to activate ERDS within 1 hour after declaring an emergency at an “Alert” or higher emergency classification level. Much of the plant data, and associated instrumentation for obtaining the data, would no longer be available or needed after a reactor is permanently shut down and defueled. Section VI.2 to appendix E of 10 CFR part 50 does not require a nuclear power facility that is shut down permanently or indefinitely to have ERDS. At what point(s) in the decommissioning process should ERDS activation, ERDS equipment, and the instrumentation for obtaining ERDS data, no longer be necessary?
EP-7: Under § 50.72(a)(1)(i), nuclear power reactor licensees are required to make an immediate notification to the NRC for the declaration of any of the emergency classes specified in the licensee's NRC-approved emergency plan. Notification of the lowest level of a declared emergency at a permanently shut down and defueled reactor facility may no longer need to be an immediate notification (
EP-8: Under § 50.72(b)(3)(xiii), nuclear power reactor licensees are required to make an 8-hour report of any event that results in a major loss of emergency assessment capability, offsite response capability, or offsite communications capability (
Currently, the physical protection programs applied at decommissioning reactors are managed through security plan changes submitted to the NRC under the provisions of §§ 50.90 and 50.54(p) and exemptions submitted to the NRC for approval under § 73.5. All physical protection program requirements contained in the current § 73.55, appendix B to 10 CFR part 73, “General Criteria for Security Personnel,” and appendix C to 10 CFR part 73, “Licensee Safeguards Contingency Plans,” are applicable to operating reactors and decommissioning reactors unless otherwise modified. The questions on physical security requirements (PSR) have been listed in this document using the acronym “PSR” and sequential numbers.
PSR-1: Identify any specific security requirements in § 73.55 and appendices B and C to 10 CFR part 73 that should be considered for change to reflect differences between requirements for operating reactors and permanently shut down and defueled reactors.
PSR-2: The physical security requirements protecting the spent fuel stored in the SFP from the design basis threat (DBT) for radiological sabotage are contained in 10 CFR part 73 and would remain unchanged by this rulemaking. However:
a. Are there any suggested changes to the physical security requirements in 10 CFR part 73 or its appendices that would be generically applicable to a decommissioning power reactor while spent fuel is stored in the SFP (
b. Which physical security requirements in 10 CFR part 73 should be generically applicable to spent fuel stored in a dry cask independent spent fuel storage installation?
c. Should the DBT for radiological sabotage continue to apply to decommissioning reactors? If it should cease to apply in the decommissioning process, when should it end?
PSR-3: Should the NRC develop and publish additional security-related regulatory guidance specific to decommissioning reactor physical protection requirements, or should the NRC revise current regulatory guidance documents? If so, describe them.
PSR-4: What clarifications should the NRC make to target sets in § 73.55(f) that addresses permanently shut down and defueled reactors?
PSR-5: For a decommissioning power reactor, are both the central alarm station and a secondary alarm station necessary? If not, why not? If both alarm stations are considered necessary, could the secondary alarm station be located offsite?
PSR-6: Under § 73.54, power reactor licensees are required to protect digital computer and communication systems and networks. These requirements apply to licensees licensed to operate a nuclear power plant as of November 23, 2009, including those that have subsequently shut down and entered into decommissioning.
a. Section 73.54 clearly states that the requirements for protection of digital computer and communications systems and networks apply to power reactors licensed under 10 CFR part 50 that were licensed to operate as of November 23, 2009. However, § 73.54 does not explicitly mention the applicability of these requirements to power reactors that are no longer authorized to operate and are transitioning to decommissioning. Are any changes necessary to § 73.54 to explicitly state that decommissioning power reactors are within the scope of § 73.54? If so, describe them.
b. Should there be reduced cyber security requirements in § 73.54 for decommissioning power reactors based on the reduced risk profile during decommissioning? If so, what would be the recommended changes?
PSR-7: Under § 73.55(p)(1)(i) and (p)(1)(ii), power reactor licensees suspend security measures during certain emergency conditions or during severe weather under the condition that the suspension “must be approved as a minimum by a licensed senior operator.” Literal interpretation of these regulations would require that only a licensed senior operator could suspend certain security measures at a decommissioning reactor facility. However, for permanently shut down and defueled reactors, licensed operators are no longer required, and licensees typically eliminate these positions shortly after shut down. Decommissioning licensees create a new certified fuel handler (CFH) position (consistent with the definition in § 50.2) as the senior non-licensed operator at the plant. These positions cannot be compared directly, so licensees typically are unable to demonstrate that the CFH position meets the “as a minimum” criteria in § 73.55(p). Because the regulation does not include a provision that authorizes a CFH to approve the suspension of security measures for permanently shut down and defueled reactors (similar to § 50.54(y) authorizing the CFH to approve departures from license conditions or technical specifications), licensees have requested exemptions from § 73.55(p)(1)(i) and (p)(1)(ii) to allow CFHs to have this authority.
Based on this discussion, are there any concerns about changing the regulations to include the CFH as having the authority to suspend certain security measures during certain emergency conditions or during severe weather for permanently shut down and defueled reactor facilities? If so, describe them.
PSR-8: Regulations in § 73.55(j)(4)(ii) require continuous communications capability between security alarm stations and the control room. The intent of § 73.55(j)(4)(ii) is to ensure that effective communication between the alarm stations and operations staff with shift command function responsibility is maintained at all times. The control room at an operating reactor contains the controls and instrumentation necessary to ensure safe operation of the reactor and reactor support systems during normal, off-normal, and accident conditions and, therefore, is the location of the shift command function. Following certification of permanent shut down and removal of the fuel from the reactor, operation of the reactor is no longer permitted. Although the control room at a permanently shut down and defueled reactor provides a central location from where the shift command function can be conveniently performed because of existing communication equipment, office computer equipment, and access to reference material, the control room does not need to be the location of the shift command function since shift command functions are not tied to this location for safety reasons, and modern communication systems permit continuous communication capability from anywhere on the site.
The NRC is considering revising the requirements of § 73.55(j)(4)(ii) for a permanently shut down and defueled reactor. The revised requirements would be focused on maintaining a system of continuous communications between the shift manager/CFH and the security alarm stations (rather than the control room). Such a change would provide the facility's shift manager/CFH the flexibility to leave the control room without necessitating that other operational staff remain in the control room to receive communications from the security alarm stations. Personal communications systems would permit the shift manager/CFH to perform managerial and supervisory activities throughout the plant while maintaining the command function responsibility, regardless of the supervisor's location.
Based on the discussion above, are there any concerns related to changing the regulations in § 73.55(j)(4)(ii) to allow another communications system between the alarm stations and the shift manager/CFH in lieu of the control room at permanently shut down and defueled reactors? If so, describe them.
The NRC's regulations at § 26.3 lists those licensees and other entities that are required to comply with designated subparts of 10 CFR part 26, “Fitness for Duty Programs.” Part 26 does not apply to power reactor licensees that have certified under § 50.82 to have permanently shut down and defueled. The questions on fitness for duty (FFD) have been listed in this document using the acronym “FFD” and sequential numbers.
FFD-1: Currently, holders of power reactor licenses issued under 10 CFR part 50 or 10 CFR part 52, “Licenses, Certifications, and Approvals for
a. Should the NRC pursue rulemaking to describe what provisions of 10 CFR part 26 apply to decommissioning reactor licensees or use another method of establishing clear, consistent and enforceable requirements? Describe other methods, as appropriate.
b. As an alternative to rulemaking, should the drug and alcohol testing for decommissioning reactors be described in RG 5.77, with appropriate reference to the applicable requirements in 10 CFR part 26? This option would be contingent on an NEI commitment to revise NEI 03-12 to include the most recent revision to RG 5.77 (which would include the applicable drug and alcohol testing provisions) and an industry commitment to update their security plans with the revised NEI 03-12.
c. Describe what drug and alcohol testing requirements in 10 CFR part 26 are not necessary to fulfill the IMP requirements to assure trustworthiness and reliability.
d. Should another regulatory framework be used, such as a corporate drug testing program modelled on the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services' Mandatory Guidelines for Federal Workplace Drug Testing or the U.S. Department of Transportation's drug and alcohol testing provisions in 49 CFR part 40? If this option is proposed, describe how (i) the laboratory auditing, quality assurance, and reporting requirements would be met by the proposal; (ii) licensees would conduct alcohol testing; and (iii) the performance objectives of 10 CFR 26.23(a), (b), (c), and (d) would be met.
FFD-2: On March 31, 2008, the NRC published a final rule in the
a. Should any of the fatigue management requirements of 10 CFR part 26, subpart I, apply to a permanently shut down and defueled reactor? If so, which ones?
b. Based on the lower risk of an offsite radiological release from a decommissioning reactor, compared to an operating reactor, should only specific classes of workers, as identified in § 26.4(a) through (c), be subject to fatigue management requirements (
c. Should the fatigue management requirements of 10 CFR part 26, subpart I, continue to apply to the specific classes of workers identified in response to question b above, for a specified period of time (
d. Should an alternate approach to fatigue management be developed commensurate with the plant's lower risk profile? Please provide a discussion of the alternate approach and how the measures would adequately manage fatigue for workers.
Reactor operators are licensed under 10 CFR part 55 to manipulate the controls of operating power reactors. The regulations at § 55.4 define “controls” to mean, “when used with respect to a nuclear reactor . . . apparatus and mechanisms the manipulation of which directly affects the reactivity or power level of the reactor.” “Controls” are not relevant at decommissioning reactors because the reactors are permanently shutdown and defueled and no longer authorized to load fuel into the reactor vessel. Consequently, without fuel in the reactor vessel, decommissioning reactors are in a configuration in which the reactivity or power level of the reactor is no longer meaningful and there are no conditions where the manipulation of apparatus or mechanisms can affect the reactivity or power level of the reactor. Therefore, licensed operators are not required at decommissioning reactors. The NRC regulations do not explicitly state the staffing alternative for licensed operators after a reactor has permanently shutdown and defueled under § 50.82(a)(1). When licensees permanently shut down their reactors, they must continue to meet minimum staffing requirements in technical specifications and regulatory required programs (
However, the NRC regulations do not contain criteria for an acceptable CFH training program. Because of the reduced risks and relative simplicity of the systems needed for safe storage of the spent fuel, the Commission stated in the 1996 decommissioning final rule that “[t]he degree of regulatory oversight required for a nuclear power reactor during its decommissioning stage is considerably less than that required for the facility during its operating stage” (61 FR 39278). In the proposed rule, the Commission also provided insights as to the responsibilities of the CFH position. Specifically, the CFHs are needed at decommissioning reactors to ensure that emergency action decisions necessary to protect the public health and safety are made by an individual who has both the requisite knowledge and plant experience (60 FR 37374, 37379).
In previous evaluations of licensee CFH training programs (ADAMS Accession Nos. ML14104A046, ML13268A165), the NRC has determined that an acceptable CFH training program should ensure that the trained individual has requisite knowledge and experience in spent fuel handling and storage and reactor decommissioning, and is capable of evaluating plant conditions and exercising prudent judgment for emergency action decisions. In addition, since the CFH is defined as a non-licensed operator, the NRC staff has also evaluated the CFH training program in accordance with § 50.120, which includes a requirement in § 50.120(b)(2) that the training program must be derived from a systems approach to training as defined in § 55.4.
However, as previously noted, the specific training requirements for the CFH program are not in the regulations. In addition, § 50.120 specifies the training and qualification requirements for non-licensed reactor personnel but does not address the CFH staffing position. Because the regulations are silent on the training attributes of the CFH, regulatory uncertainty regarding the CFH training program exists. In addition, because the NRC's regulations do not address the replacement of licensed operators by CFHs, licensees also have questions regarding the transition from licensed operator training programs to CFHs' training programs. The questions on CFH have been listed in this document using the acronym “CFH” and sequential numbers.
CFH-1: Based on the NRC's experience with the review of the CFH training/retraining programs submitted by licensees that have recently permanently shutdown, the following questions are focused on areas that may need additional clarity. Specifically:
a. When should licensees that are planning to enter decommissioning submit requests for approval of CFH training/retraining programs?
b. What training and qualifications should be required for operations staff at power reactors that decommission earlier than expected and that do not have an approved CFH training/retraining program?
c. Should the NRC issue new requirements that prohibit licensees from surrendering operators' licenses before implementation of an approved CFH training/retraining program, or should other incentives or deterrents be considered? If so, what factors must be included?
d. Should the contents of a CFH training/retraining program be standardized throughout the industry? If so, how should this be implemented?
e. Should a process be implemented that requires decommissioning power reactor licensees to independently manage the specific content of their CFH training/retraining program based on the systems and processes actually used at each particular plant instead of standardization? If so, how should this work?
f. Is there any existing or developing document or program (from the Institute of Nuclear Power Operations, NEI, NRC, or other related sources) that provides relevant guidance on the content and format of a CFH training/retraining program that could be made applicable to CFH training?
g. Should the requirements for CFH training programs be incorporated into an overall decommissioning rule, or addressed using other regulatory vehicles such as associated NUREGs, regulatory guides, standard review plan chapters or sections, and inspection procedures?
In the SRM to SECY-15-0014, the Commission directed the staff to determine the appropriateness of (1) maintaining the three existing options for decommissioning and the timeframes associated with those options, and (2) address the appropriate role of State and local governments and non-governmental stakeholders in the decommissioning process. Based on the Commission's direction, the NRC staff is seeking additional information on the need for any regulatory changes concerning the use of decommissioning options, the timeframe to complete decommissioning, and the role of external stakeholders in the decommissioning process. The questions on regulatory approach (REG) have been listed in this document using the acronym “REG” and sequential numbers.
REG-1: The NRC has evaluated the environmental impacts of three general methods for decommissioning power reactor facilities, DECON, SAFSTOR, or ENTOMB, as described in Section II.A, footnote 1 of this document. The choice of the decommissioning method is left entirely to the licensee, provided that the decommissioning method can be performed in accordance with NRC's regulations. The NRC would require the licensee to re-evaluate its decision on the method of the decommissioning process that it chose if it (1) could not be completed as described, (2) could not be completed within 60 years of the permanent cessation of plant operations, (3) included activities that would endanger the health and safety of the public by being outside of the NRC's health and safety regulations, or (4) would result in a significant impact to the environment. The licensee's choice is communicated to the NRC and the public in the PSDAR. To date, most utilities have used DECON or SAFSTOR to decommission reactors. Several sites have performed some incremental decontamination and dismantlement during the storage period of SAFSTOR, a combination of SAFSTOR and DECON as personnel, money, or other factors become available. No utilities have used the ENTOMB option for a commercial nuclear power reactor.
a. Should the current options for decommissioning—DECON, SAFSTOR, and ENTOMB—be explicitly addressed and defined in the regulations instead of solely in guidance documents, and how so?
b. Should other options for decommissioning be explored? If so, what other technical or programmatic options are reasonable and what type of supporting documents would be most effective for providing guidance on these new options or requirements?
c. The NRC regulations state that decommissioning must be completed within 60 years of permanent cessation of operations. A duration of 60 years was chosen because it roughly corresponds to 10 half-lives for cobalt-60, one of the predominant isotopes remaining in the facility. By 60 years, the initial short-lived isotopes,
REG-2: In support of decommissioning planning for a permanently shut down and defueled power reactor, the licensee submits to the NRC a PSDAR that: (1) Informs the public of the licensee's planned decommissioning activities; (2) assists in the scheduling of NRC resources necessary for the appropriate oversight activities; (3) ensures that the licensee has considered the costs of the planned decommissioning activities and has funding for the decommissioning process; and (4) ensures that the environmental impacts of the planned decommissioning activities are bounded by those considered in existing environmental impact statements. After receiving a PSDAR, the NRC publishes a notice of receipt, makes the PSDAR available for public review and comment, and holds a public meeting in the vicinity of the plant to discuss the licensee's plans and address the public's comments. Although the NRC will determine if the information is consistent with the regulations, NRC approval of the PSDAR is not required. However, should the NRC determine that the informational requirements of the regulations are not met in the PSDAR, the NRC will inform the licensee, in writing, of the deficiencies and require that they be addressed before the licensee initiates any major decommissioning activities. Any decommissioning activities that could preclude release of the site for possible unrestricted use, impact a reasonable assurance finding that adequate funds will be available for decommissioning, or potentially result in a significant environmental impact not previously reviewed, must receive prior NRC approval. Specifically, the licensee is required to submit a license amendment request for NRC review and approval, which provides an opportunity for public comment and/or a public hearing. Unless the NRC staff approves the license amendment request, the licensee is not to conduct the requested activity. Consistent with Commission direction, the NRC staff is seeking comment on the appropriate role for the NRC in reviewing and approving the licensee's proposed decommissioning strategy and associated planning activities.
a. Is the content and level of detail currently required for the licensee's PSDAR, adequate? If not, what should be added or removed to enhance the document?
b. Should the regulations be amended to require NRC review and approval of the PSDAR before allowing any “major decommissioning activity,” as that term is defined in § 50.2, to commence? What value would this add to the decommissioning process?
REG-3: The NRC's regulations currently offer the public opportunities to review and provide comments on the decommissioning process. Specifically, under the NRC's regulations in § 50.82, the NRC is required to publish a notice of the receipt of the licensee's PSDAR, make the PSDAR available for public comment, schedule separate meetings in the vicinity of the location of the licensed facility to discuss the PSDAR within 60 days of receipt, and publish a notice of the meetings in the
a. Should the current role of the States, members of the public, or other stakeholders in the decommissioning process be expanded or enhanced, and how so?
b. Should the current role of the States, members of the public, or other stakeholders in the decommissioning process for non-radiological areas be expanded or enhanced, and how so? Currently, for all non-radiological effluents created during the decommissioning process, licensees are required to comply with EPA or State regulations related to liquid effluent discharges to bodies of water.
c. For most decommissioning sites, the State and local governments are involved in an advisory capacity, often as part of a Community Engagement Panel or other organization aimed at fostering communication and information exchange between the licensee and the public. Should the NRC's regulations mandate the formation of these advisory panels?
In the SRM to SECY-98-253, “Applicability of Plant-Specific Backfit Requirements to Plants Undergoing Decommissioning,” dated February 12, 1999 (ADAMS Accession No. ML12311A689), the Commission approved development of a Backfit Rule for plants undergoing decommissioning. The Commission directed the staff to continue to apply the then-current Backfit Rule to plants undergoing decommissioning until the final rule was issued. The Commission ordered the development of a rulemaking plan, which became SECY-00-0145. In SECY-00-0145, the staff proposed amendments to § 50.109 to clearly show that the Backfit Rule applies during decommissioning and to remove factors that are not applicable to nuclear power plants in decommissioning. As explained in section II.A of this document, that rulemaking never occurred, but the Commission, in SRM-SECY-14-0118, directed the staff to proceed with a rulemaking that addresses, among other things, the issues discussed in SECY-00-0145.
The questions on backfitting protection (BFP) have been listed in this document using the acronym “BFP” and sequential numbers.
BFP-1: The protections provided by the backfitting and issue finality provisions in 10 CFR parts 50 and 52, respectively, can apply to a holder of a nuclear power reactor license when the reactor is in decommissioning. Backfitting and issue finality during decommissioning can be divided into two areas:
a. When a licensee's licensing basis for operations continues to apply during
b. When a licensee engages in an activity during decommissioning for which no prior NRC approval was provided. The activity could be required by an NRC regulation or new NRC approval (through an order or licensing action). Why would backfitting protection apply in this area?
BFP-2: Should the NRC propose amendments to § 50.109 consistent with the preliminary amendments proposed in SECY-00-0145 that would have created a two-section Backfit Rule: one section that would apply to nuclear power plants undergoing decommissioning and the other section that would apply to operating reactors?
The questions on decommissioning trust fund (DTF) have been listed in this document using the acronym “DTF” and sequential numbers.
DTF-1: The Commission's regulation at § 50.75 includes the reporting requirements for providing reasonable assurance that sufficient funds will be available for the decommissioning process. The regulation at § 50.82 contains, in part, requirements on the use of decommissioning funds. Every 2 years each operating power reactor licensee must report to the NRC the status of the licensee's decommissioning funding to provide assurance to the NRC that the licensee will have sufficient financial resources to accomplish radiological decommissioning. After decommissioning has begun, licensees must annually submit a financial assurance status report to the NRC.
The NRC's authority is limited to assuring that licensees adequately decommission their facilities with respect to cleanup and removal of radioactive material prior to license termination. Activities that go beyond the scope of decommissioning, as defined in § 50.2, such as waste generated during operations or demolition costs for greenfield restoration, are not appropriate costs for inclusion in the decommissioning cost estimate. The collection of funds for spent fuel management is addressed in § 50.54(bb) where it indicates that licensees need to have a plan, including financing, for spent fuel management.
The NRC has not precluded the commingling of the funds in a single trust fund account to address radiological decommissioning, spent fuel management, and site restoration, as long as the licensee is able to identify and account for these specific funds. In the 1996 decommissioning rule, the Commission indicated that the rule “does not prohibit licensees from having separate subaccounts for other activities in the decommissioning trust fund if minimum amounts specified in the rule are maintained for radiological decommissioning.” Similarly, in the 2002 Decommissioning Trust Provisions Rule, the Commission stated that it “appreciates the benefits that some licensees may derive from their use of a single trust fund for all of their decommissioning costs, both radiological and not; but, as stated above, a licensee must be able to identify the individual amounts contained within its single trust. Therefore, where a licensee has not separately identified and accounted for expenses related to non-radiological decommissioning in its DTF, licensees are required to request exemptions from § 50.82(a)(8)(i)(A) and either § 50.75(h)(1)(iv) or § 50.75(h)(2), to gain access to monies in the decommissioning trust fund for purposes other than decommissioning (
In some cases, a licensee will not need an exemption. Those cases exist when a licensee can clearly show that (1) its decommissioning trust includes State-required funds and (2) the amount of radiological decommissioning funds in the trust exceeds the amount of money estimated to be needed for radiological decommissioning in the licensee's site specific decommissioning cost estimate (or if the licensee does not have a site specific decommissioning cost estimate yet, then the minimum amount necessary to provide financial assurance under § 50.75). If the licensee meets these criteria, then reasonable assurance of adequate radiological decommissioning funding still exists after removal of the State-required funds, and the licensee does not need an exemption to use those State-required funds.
The NRC issued Regulatory Issue Summary (RIS) 2001-07, Revision 1, “10 CFR 50.75 Reporting and Recordkeeping for Decommissioning Planning,” on January 8, 2009 (ADAMS Accession No. ML083440158), to clarify the need for licensees to preserve the distinction in their decommissioning trust accounts between the radiological decommissioning fund balance and amounts accumulated for other purposes, such as paying for spent fuel management and site restoration, when using the trust for commingled funds. However, based on NRC experience with the power reactors that have recently and permanently shut down and entered into decommissioning, licensees continue to report funds they have accumulated to address spent fuel management and site restoration as part of the amount of funds reported for radiological decommissioning.
Should the regulations in §§ 50.75 and 50.82 be revised to clarify the collection, reporting, and accounting of commingled funds in the decommissioning trust fund, that is in excess of the amount required for radiological decommissioning and that has been designated for other purposes, in order to preclude the need to obtain exemptions for access to the excess monies?
DTF-2: The regulation at § 50.82(a)(8)(i)(A) states that decommissioning trust funds may only be used by licensees if their withdrawals “are for expenses for legitimate decommissioning activities consistent with the definition of decommissioning in § 50.2.” In accordance with § 50.2, decommission means to remove a nuclear facility or site safely from service and reduce residual radioactivity to a level that permits: (1) Release of the property for unrestricted use and termination of the license; or (2) release of the property under restricted conditions and termination of the NRC license. Thus, “legitimate decommissioning activities” include only those activities whose expenses are related to removing a nuclear facility or site safely from service and reducing residual radioactivity to a level that permits license termination and release of the property for restricted or unrestricted use.
While the regulations are silent with regards to what specific expenses are related to legitimate decommissioning
a. What changes should be considered for §§ 50.2 and 50.82(a)(8) to clarify what constitutes a legitimate decommissioning activity?
b. Regulations in § 50.82(8)(ii) states that 3 percent of the decommissioning funds may be used during the initial stages of decommissioning for decommissioning planning activities. What should be included or specifically excluded in the definition of “decommissioning planning activities?”
The questions on offsite liability protection insurance (LPI) have been listed in this document using the acronym “LPI” and sequential numbers.
LPI-1: The Price Anderson Act of 1957 (PAA) requires that nuclear power reactor licensees have insurance to compensate the public for damages arising from a nuclear incident, including such expenses as those for personal injury, property damage, or the legal cost associated with lawsuits. Regulations in 10 CFR part 140, “Amounts of Financial Protection for Certain Reactors,” set forth the amounts of insurance each power reactor licensee must have. Specifically, § 140.11(a)(4) requires a reactor licensee to maintain $375 million in offsite liability insurance coverage. In addition, the primary insurance is supplemented by a secondary insurance tier. In the event of an accident causing offsite damages in excess of $375 million, each licensee would be assessed a prorated share of the excess damages, up to $121.3 million per reactor, for a total of approximately $13 billion.
Regulations in § 140.11(a)(4) do not distinguish between a reactor that is authorized to operate and a reactor that has permanently shut down and defueled. Most of the accident scenarios postulated for operating power reactors involve failures or malfunctions of systems that could affect the fuel in the reactor core, which in the most severe postulated accidents, would involve the release of large quantities of fission products. With the permanent cessation of reactor operations and the permanent removal of the fuel from the reactor core, such reactor accidents are no longer possible with a decommissioning reactor.
The PAA requires licensees of facilities with a rated capacity of 100,000 electrical kilowatts or more to have the primary and secondary insurance coverage described above, which the NRC establishes in 10 CFR part 140. Typically, the NRC will issue a decommissioning licensee a license amendment to remove the rated capacity of the reactor from the license. This has the effect of removing the reactor licensee from the category of licensees that are required to maintain the primary and secondary insurance amounts under the PAA and 10 CFR part 140.
Most permanently shut down and defueled power reactor licensees have requested exemptions from § 140.11(a)(4) to reduce the required amount of primary offsite liability insurance coverage from $375 million to $100 million and to withdraw from the secondary insurance pool. As noted above, these licensees are no longer within the category of licensees that are legally required under the PAA to have these amounts of offsite liability insurance. The technical criteria for granting these exemptions are based on the determination that there are no possible design-basis events at a licensee's facility that could result in an offsite radiological release exceeding the limits established by the EPA's early-phase Protective Action Guidelines of 1 rem at the exclusion area boundary. In addition, the exemptions are predicated on the licensee demonstrating that the heat generated by the spent fuel in the SFP has decayed to the point where the possibility of a zirconium fire is highly unlikely. Specifically, if all coolant were drained from the SFP as the result of a highly unlikely beyond design-basis accident, the fuel assemblies would remain below a temperature of incipient cladding oxidation for zirconium based on air-cooling alone. For a postulated situation where the cooling configuration of a highly unlikely beyond design basis accident results in an unknown cooling configuration of the spent fuel, analysis should demonstrate that even with no cooling of any kind (conduction, convection, or radiative heat transfer), the spent fuel stored in the SFP would not reach the zirconium ignition temperature in fewer than 10 hours starting from the time at which the accident was initiated. The NRC has considered 10 hours sufficient time to take mitigative actions to cool the spent fuel. Based on this discussion:
a. Should the NRC codify the current conservative exemption criteria (
b. As an alternative to codifying the current conservative exemption criteria (
c. The use of $100 million for primary liability insurance level is based on Commission policy and precedent from the early 1990s. The amount established was a qualitative value to bound the claims from the Three Mile Island accident. Should this number be adjusted?
d. What other factors should be considered in establishing an appropriate primary insurance liability level (based on the potential for damage claims) for a decommissioning plant once the risk of any kind of offsite radiological release is highly unlikely?
The questions on onsite damage protection insurance (ODI) have been listed in this document using the acronym “ODI” and sequential numbers.
ODI-1: The requirements of § 50.54(w)(1) call for each power reactor licensee to have insurance to provide minimum coverage for each reactor site of $1.06 billion or whatever amount of insurance is generally available from private sources, whichever is less. The insurance would be used, in the event of an accident at the licensee's reactor, to provide financial resources to stabilize the reactor and decontaminate the reactor site, if needed.
The requirements in § 50.54(w)(1) do not distinguish between a reactor authorized to operate and a reactor that has permanently shut down and defueled. With the permanent cessation of reactor operations and the permanent removal of the fuel from the reactor core, operating reactor accidents are no longer possible. Therefore, the need for onsite insurance at a decommissioning reactor to stabilize accident conditions or decontaminate the site following an accident, should be significantly lower compared to the need for insurance at an operating reactor.
Based on NRC policy and precedent, permanently shut down and defueled reactor licensees have requested exemptions from § 50.54(w)(1). The exemption granted to a permanently shut down reactor licensee permits the licensee to reduce the required level of onsite property damage insurance from the amount established in § 50.54(w)(1) to $50 million. The NRC has previously determined that $50 million bounds the worst radioactive waste contamination event (caused by a liquid radioactive waste storage tank rupture) once the heat generated by the spent fuel in the SFP has decayed to the point where the possibility of a zirconium fire in any beyond design-basis accident is highly unlikely, and in any case, there is sufficient time to take mitigative actions. The technical criteria used in assessing the possibility of a zirconium fire, as discussed in question LPI-1 above, is also used for exemptions from § 50.54(w)(1). Based on this discussion:
a. Should the NRC codify the current exemption criteria that have been used in granting decommissioning reactor licensees exemptions from § 50.54(w)(1)? If so, describe why.
b. The use of $50 million insurance level for bounding onsite radiological damages is based on a postulated liquid radioactive waste storage tank rupture using analyses from the early 1990s. Should this number be adjusted? If so, describe
c. Is the postulated rupture of a liquid radioactive waste storage tank an appropriate bounding postulated accident at a decommissioning reactor site once the possibility of a zirconium fire has been determined to be highly unlikely?
The general (GEN) questions related to decommissioning power reactor regulations have been listed in this document using the acronym “GEN” and sequential numbers.
GEN-1: Section 50.51, “Continuation of License,” states in paragraph (b)(1) that all permanently shut down and defueled reactor licensees shall continue to take actions to maintain the facility, and the storage and control and maintenance of spent fuel, in a safe condition beyond the license expiration date until the Commission notifies the licensee in writing that the license is terminated. The NRC has recently focused on the licensee's maintenance of long lived, passive structures and components at decommissioning reactors. The NRC expects that many long-lived, passive structures and components may generally not have performance and condition characteristics that can be readily monitored, or could be considered inherently reliable by licensees and do not need to be monitored under § 50.65(a)(1). There may be few, if any, actual maintenance activities (
Based on the discussion above, what regulatory changes should be considered that address the performance or condition of certain long-lived, passive structures and components needed to provide reasonable assurance that they will remain capable of fulfilling their intended functions during the decommissioning period?
GEN-2: Section 50.54(m) of the NRC's regulations for operating reactors specifies the minimum licensed operator staffing levels (
Considering the discussion above, should minimum operations shift staffing at a permanently shutdown and defueled reactor be codified by regulation?
GEN-3: Related to the decommissioning plant operator staffing levels is the requirement for and the use of a control room during decommissioning. Section 50.54(m) specifies the control room staffing requirements for licensed operators at an operating reactor with a fueled reactor vessel. No such requirements exist for the location of operations staff at a permanently shutdown and defueled reactor. The control room at an
During reactor decommissioning, the control room may be subject to extensive changes, which are evaluated by the licensee for safety implications under the § 50.59 process. There is precedent among some previous decommissioning reactor licensees to design and construct a decommissioning control room that is independent of the original operating control room. Most decommissioning reactors can probably demonstrate that the command, communications, and monitoring functions performed in the control room could be readily performed at an alternate onsite location, based on the site-specific needs of a licensee during its decommissioning process. Consequently, several decommissioning licensees have questioned the meaning of the control room as it relates to decommissioning nuclear power plants.
Based on the discussion above, what regulatory changes should be considered for a permanently shutdown and defueled reactor to prevent ambiguities concerning the meaning of the control room for decommissioning reactors and should minimum staffing levels be specified for the control room?
GEN-4: Are there any other changes to 10 CFR Chapter I, “Nuclear Regulatory Commission,” that could be clarified or amended to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the reactor decommissioning process?
GEN-5: The NRC is attempting to gather information on the costs and benefits of the changes in the regulatory areas discussed in this document as early as possible in the rulemaking process. Given the topics discussed, please provide estimated costs and benefits of potential changes in these areas from either the perspective of a licensee or from the perspective of an external stakeholder.
a. From your perspective, which areas discussed are the most beneficial or detrimental?
b. From your perspective, assuming you believe changes are needed to the NRC's reactor decommissioning regulatory infrastructure, what are the factors that drive the need for changes in these regulatory areas? If at all possible, please provide specific examples (
c. Are there areas that are of particular interest to you, and for what reason?
d. Please provide any suggested changes that would further enhance benefits or reduce risks that may not have been addressed in this ANPR.
The NRC will conduct a public meeting to discuss the contents of this ANPR and to answer questions from the public regarding the contents of this ANPR. The NRC will publish a notice of the location, time, and agenda of the meeting on the NRC's public meeting Web site at least 10 calendar days before the meeting. Stakeholders should monitor the NRC's public meeting Web site for information about the public meeting at:
The NRC has implemented a program to address the possible Cumulative Effects of Regulation (CER), in the development of regulatory bases for rulemakings. The CER describes the challenges that licensees, or other impacted entities (such as State partners) may face while implementing new regulatory positions, programs, and requirements (
(1) In light of any current or projected CER challenges, what should be a reasonable effective date, compliance date, or submittal date(s) from the time the final rule is published to the actual implementation of any new proposed requirements including changes to programs, procedures, or the facility?
(2) If current or projected CER challenges exist, what should be done to address this situation (
(3) Do other (NRC or other agency) regulatory actions (
(4) Are there unintended consequences? Does the potential proposed action create conditions that would be contrary to the potential proposed action's purpose and objectives? If so, what are the
(5) Please provide information on the costs and benefits of the potential proposed action. This information will be used to support any regulatory analysis performed by the NRC.
The Plain Writing Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-274) requires Federal agencies to write documents in a clear, concise, and well-organized manner. The NRC has written this document to be consistent with the Plain Writing Act as well as the Presidential Memorandum, “Plain Language in Government Writing,” published June 10, 1998 (63 FR 31883). The NRC requests comment on this document with respect to the clarity and effectiveness of the language used.
The documents identified in the following table are available to interested persons through one or more of the following methods, as indicated.
The NRC may post additional materials to the Federal rulemaking Web site at
The NRC does not intend to provide detailed comment responses for information provided in response to this ANPR. The NRC will consider comments on this ANPR in the rule development process. If the NRC develops a regulatory basis sufficient to support a proposed rule, there will be an opportunity for additional public comment when the draft regulatory basis and the proposed rule are published. If supporting guidance is developed for the proposed rule, stakeholders will have an opportunity to provide feedback on the guidance as well. Alternatively, if the regulatory basis does not provide sufficient support for a proposed rule, the NRC will publish a
For the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Department of Energy.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) is proposing requirements related to the enforcement of regional standards for central air conditioners, as authorized by the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (EPCA) of 1975.
DOE will accept comments, data, and information regarding this notice of proposed rulemaking (NOPR) no later than January 4, 2016.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, DOE is also seeking comment on a new information collection. See the Paperwork Reduction Act section under Procedural Issues and Regulatory Review, section III.C. Please submit all comments relating to information collection requirements to DOE no later than January 19, 2016. Comments to OMB are most useful if submitted within 45 days of publication.
Any comments submitted must identify the NOPR for Enforcement of Regional Standards for Central Air Conditioners and provide docket number EERE-2011-BT-CE-0077 and/or regulatory information number (RIN) 1904-AC68. Comments may be submitted using any of the following methods:
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For further information on how to submit a comment, review other public comments and the docket, or participate in the public meeting, contact Ms. Brenda Edwards at (202) 586-2945 or by email:
Ashley Armstrong, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, EE-5B, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: 202-586-6590. Email:
Laura Barhydt, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of the General Counsel, GC-32, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 287-5772. Email:
Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act of 1975, as amended (“EPCA” or, in context, “the Act”) sets forth a variety of provisions designed to improve energy efficiency.
Under EPCA, this program consists essentially of four parts: (1) Testing; (2) labeling; (3) Federal energy conservation standards; and (4) certification and enforcement procedures. The Federal Trade Commission (FTC) is primarily responsible for labeling consumer products, and DOE implements the remainder of the program.
Pursuant to EPCA, any new or amended energy conservation standards for covered consumer products must be designed to achieve the maximum improvement in energy efficiency that are technologically feasible and economically justified. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(A)) Furthermore, the new or amended standard must result in significant conservation of energy. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(3)(B)) The Energy Independence and Security Act of 2007 (EISA 2007) amended EPCA to require that DOE consider regional standards for certain products if the regional standards can save significantly more energy than a national standard and are economically justified. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(6)(A)) Under EPCA, DOE is authorized to establish up to two additional regional standards for central air conditioners and heat pumps. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(6)(B)(ii)) DOE must initiate an enforcement rulemaking after DOE issues a final rule that establishes a regional standard. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(6)(G)(ii)(I)) DOE must also issue a final rule for enforcement after DOE issues a final rule that establishes a regional standard. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(6)(G)(ii)(III))
On June 27, 2011, DOE promulgated a Direct Final Rule (June 2011 DFR) that, among other things, established regional standards for central air conditioners. 76 FR 37408. DOE subsequently published a notice of effective date and compliance date for the June 2011 DFR on October 31, 2011, setting a standards compliance for central air conditioners and heat pumps of January 1, 2015. 76 FR 67037.
As required by EPCA, DOE initiated an enforcement rulemaking by publishing a notice of data availability (NODA) in the
As required, the Working Group submitted a final report to ASRAC on October 24
After consideration of the comments received in response to the guidance documents, DOE determined that regulatory changes were necessary to implement the approach agreed to by the Working Group. Accordingly, DOE has proposed changes to the unit selection and testing requirements in a parallel test procedure rulemaking (CAC TP SNOPR). 80 FR 69278 (November 9, 2015). DOE reaffirms its commitment to the approach advocated by the Working Group, subject to consideration of comments received in this and the test procedure rulemaking.
Between August 13, 2014, and October 24, 2014,
As discussed in section I.B, DOE adopted regional standards for central air conditioners in its June 2011 DFR. That rule set regional standards for split-system central air conditioners and single-package central air conditioners. 10 CFR 430.32(c). A split-system central air conditioner is a type of air conditioner that has one or more of its major assemblies separated from the others. Typically, the air conditioner has a condensing unit (“outdoor unit”) that is separate from the evaporator coil and/or blower (“indoor unit”). Accordingly, a split-system condensing unit is often sold separately from the indoor unit and may be matched with several different models of indoor units and/or blowers. For this reason, a condensing unit could achieve a 14 SEER or above if it is paired with certain indoor units and/or blowers and could perform below 14 SEER when paired with other indoor units and/or blowers.
The Working Group suggested the regional standards required clarification because a particular condensing unit may have a range of efficiency ratings when paired with various indoor evaporator coils and/or blowers. The Working Group provided the following four recommendations to clarify the regional standards: that (1) the least efficient rated combination for a specified model of condensing unit must be 14 SEER for models installed in the Southeast and Southwest regions; (2) the least efficient rated combination for a specified model of condensing unit must meet the minimum EER for models installed in the Southwest region; (3) any condensing unit model that has a certified combination that is below the regional standard(s) cannot be installed in that region; and (4) a condensing unit model certified below a regional standard by the original equipment manufacturer cannot be installed in a region subject to a regional standard(s) even with an independent coil manufacturer's indoor coil or air handler combination that may have a certified rating meeting the applicable regional standard(s). Working Group Recommendations, No. 70 at 4.
DOE is proposing to adopt these recommendations as part of this NOPR and requests comment on these recommendations. DOE notes that the test procedure supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking (CAC TP SNOPR) proposes multiple regulatory changes necessary to implement these recommendations. See the CAC TP
EPCA prohibits manufacturers from selling to “distributors, contractors, or dealers that routinely violate the regional standards.” (42 U.S.C. 6302(a)(6)) EPCA defines a distributor as a person (other than a manufacturer or retailer) to whom a consumer appliance product is delivered or sold for purposes of distribution in commerce. (42 U.S.C. 6291(14))
Because neither EPCA nor existing DOE regulations define the terms “contractor” and “dealer,” the Working Group recommended the following definitions to further clarify the prohibited act:
The Working Group further requested DOE make clear that in the context of the definition of “contractor,” the term “end user” means the entity that purchases or selects for purchase the central air conditioner. Some examples of typical “end users” are homeowners, building owners, building managers, and property developers.
Additionally, the Working Group recommended that DOE define the term “installation” as:
In this NOPR, DOE proposes to adopt the Working Group's recommended definitions for these three terms and requests comments on these definitions. DOE also proposes to codify the definition of “distributor.”
The Working Group requested that DOE make explicit in this proposed rule that, depending upon their particular conduct, parties conducting internet sales may be considered a contractor or distributor under the proposed definitions. Specifically, internet sellers that sell to contractors or dealers meet the definition of a “distributor,” while internet sellers that sell directly to home owners would qualify as “contractors.” Further, retailers who sell central air conditioners directly to homeowners would also fit within the definition of a “contractor.”
While not specifically discussed by the Working Group, it is also of note that some internet sellers will be considered manufacturers if they are the importers of the product they are selling via the internet. Pursuant to EPCA, the term “manufacturer” includes importers. (42 U.S.C. 6291(10), (12)) Those parties that import products subject to regional standards are expected to meet the regulatory obligations of manufacturers.
In their discussion of definitions, members of the Working Group also raised the point that some manufacturers distribute their own product. DOE clarified that, consistent with EPCA's definitions of “manufacturer” and “distributor,” if a manufacturer distributes its own product, then the company (the manufacturer-owned or “factory owned” distributor) is considered to be a manufacturer rather than a distributor.
Since DOE received the recommendations of the Working Group from ASRAC, DOE has received questions about the applicability of the regional standards to private labelers. The Working Group did not address this issue. The statutory prohibited acts treat manufacturers and private labelers in the same way. (42 U.S.C. 6302(a)(6) (making it unlawful for “any manufacturer or private labeler to knowingly sell a product to a distributor, contractor, or dealer with knowledge that the entity routinely violates any regional standard applicable to the product.”)) DOE notes that, although private labelers are liable for distribution in commerce of noncompliant products generally, DOE does not require private labelers to submit certification reports unless the private labeler is also the importer. Therefore, DOE believes that it may not be necessary for exactly the same requirements to apply to private labelers. Consequently, DOE is proposing that the same requirements apply to private labelers as discussed in more detail throughout this notice. However, DOE requests comment on whether these proposed requirements should be the same or whether different requirements should apply. DOE may adopt the same requirements as proposed today or some variation for private labelers in the final rule as a result of comments received.
The Working Group discussed the importance of public education to a successful enforcement program for central air conditioner regional standards. The Working Group recommended DOE establish a Web page with information on regional standards for central air conditioners that could be referenced by manufacturers, distributors, contractors, and other interested parties. As recommended, DOE established a Web page about enforcement of regional standards which can be found at
The Working Group also opined on the need to deliver a consistent message to central air conditioner consumers and contractors about the regional standards. The Working Group recommended that DOE provide public educational materials that manufacturers and distributors could provide their customers. Accordingly, DOE is posting links from its Web page for regional standards to two different documents: (1) A printable trifold tailored to provide information to consumers and (2) and a printable flier to educate
Beyond creating a regional standards Web page, the Working Group recommended DOE conduct a public presentation (accessible via internet as well as in-person) on regional standards for central air conditioner standards and the enforcement of such standards to educate stakeholders and the public on these regulations. The Department will issue a Notice of Public Meeting announcing its presentation on regional standards after the issuance of a final rule and will post the slides from the presentation to this docket and on the regional standards Web page.
The Working Group also recommended that all information sources—the Web page, trifold, flier, and presentation—should include information, including email links, on how to report suspected violations of the regional standards for central air conditioners.
Finally, the Working Group recommended that central air conditioner manufacturers provide training about regional standards to distributors and contractors/dealers. Distributors and contractors also agreed to conduct their own training on regional standards. The Working Group did not establish specific guidelines for the training.
The Working Group discussed methods for facilitating the reporting of suspected regional standards violations and recommended that the Department provide multiple pathways for the public to report such information. Specifically, the Working Group recommended that DOE accept complaints regarding central air conditioners regional standards from both an email address and call-in number. As requested, the Department will accept reports of suspected violations of the regional central air conditioner standards that are received via the email address:
In addition to responding to reports of noncompliance with the regional standards, the Working Group recommended that the Department consider conducting proactive investigations. Specifically, the Working Group recommended that, if funding is available, DOE consider conducting a survey of homes in any region of the United States to determine if a central air conditioner not in compliance with the regional standards has been installed. DOE, as a member of the Working Group, agreed to consider proactive investigations if funding for such investigations is available.
To ensure that the Department is able to obtain sufficient information to establish a noncompliant installation and the relevant parties, the Working Group recommended that manufacturers, dealers, and contractors retain records detailing specific information about central air conditioner sales and installations. The Working Group recommended the following records retention scheme.
Beginning 30 days after the issuance of a final rule, a manufacturer must retain:
• For split-system central air conditioner condensing units: the model number, serial number, date of manufacture, date of sale, and party to whom the unit was sold (including person's name, full address, and phone number);
• For split-system central air conditioner indoor coils or air handlers (not including uncased coils sold as replacement parts): the model number, date of manufacture, date of sale, and party to whom the unit was sold (including person's name, full address, and phone number); and
• For single-package central air conditioners: the model number, serial number, date of manufacture, date of sale, and party to whom the unit was sold (including person's name, full address, and phone number).
Beginning November 30, 2015, a distributor must retain:
• For split-system central air conditioner condensing units: the manufacturer, model number, serial number, date the unit was purchased from the manufacturer, party from whom the unit was purchased (including person's name, full address, and phone number), date unit was sold to a dealer or contractor, party to whom the unit was sold (including person's name, full address, and phone number), and, if delivered to the purchaser, the delivery address; and
• For single-package central air conditioners: the manufacturer, model number, serial number, date the unit was purchased from the manufacturer, party from whom the unit was purchased (including person's name, full address, and phone number), date unit was sold to dealer or contractor, party to whom the unit was sold (including person's name, full address, and phone number), and, if delivered to the purchaser, the delivery address.
• For split-system central air conditioner condensing units: the manufacturer name, model number, serial number, location of installation (including street address, city, state, and zip code), date of installation, and party from whom the unit was purchased (including person's name, full address, and phone number);
• For split-system central air conditioner indoor coils or air handlers (not including uncased coils sold as replacement parts): the manufacturer name, model number, location of installation (including street address, city, state, and zip code), date of installation, and party from whom the unit was purchased (including person's name, full address, and phone number); and
• For single-package central air conditioners: the manufacturer name, model number, serial number, location of installation (including street address, city, state, and zip code), date of installation, and party from whom the unit was purchased (including person's name, full address, and phone number).
The Working Group recommended that contractors retain records for 48 months after the date of installation, distributors retain records for 54 months after the date of sale, and manufacturers retain records for 60 months after the date of sale. The Working Group explicitly noted that retaining records allows each entity to archive records as long as they are not deleted or disposed of. The Working Group also clarified that the records retention requirements neither mandate that contractors, distributors, or manufacturers create new forms for the purpose of tracking central air conditioners nor require records to be electronic. See 2013-BT-NOC-0005, No. 30 at 17-18. DOE proposes to adopt these record retention requirements as with a few minor modifications and requests comment on these requirements.
DOE proposes two modifications to the recommendations of the Working Group. First, due to the delay issuing this notice of proposed rulemaking, DOE proposes that distributors be
Although not discussed by the Working Group, DOE recognizes that some internet sellers may perform the role of contractor or distributor, depending on who is purchasing the product. DOE proposes that those entities will have to keep records consistent with the requirements of the transaction, for the length of time required for that transaction.
To limit the potential of burden associated with producing records at the request of the Department, the Working Group recommended that DOE must have a reasonable belief a violation occurred before requesting records. DOE will determine if it has reasonable belief by assessing a variety of factors, such as:
• Whether it has an address of a suspected noncompliant installation or attempted installation;
• Whether it has identifying information for an installed unit;
• Whether it has physical evidence (
• Whether there have been repeat complaints about the party; or
• Whether the complainant has a history of filing complaints of violations that have been substantiated by the Department through investigation.
Once DOE determines it has a reasonable belief, then it may request records from relevant manufacturers, distributors, and contractors. Records must be produced within 30 days of a request by the Department. However, DOE may, at its discretion, grant additional time for production of records if the affected entity makes a good faith effort to produce records within 30 days. To receive this extra time, the entity, after working to gather the records within the 30 days, must provide DOE all the records gathered and a written explanation for the need for additional time including the requested date for completing the records request.
DOE proposes to adopt the Working Group's recommendations for records requests. The Department requests comment on the threshold for records requests and the proposed timeframe for responding to such requests.
As mentioned above, it is unlawful for any manufacturer to knowingly sell to a distributor, contractor, or dealer with knowledge that the entity routinely violates any regional standard applicable to the product. (42 U.S.C. 6302(a)(6), 10 CFR 430.102(a)(10)) To clarify this prohibited act, the Working Group discussed what activities would constitute a violation by a distributor, contractor or dealer. For a distributor, the Working Group agreed that it would be a violation to knowingly sell a product to a contractor or dealer with knowledge that the entity will sell and/or install the product in violation of any regional standard applicable to the product. Additionally, it would be a violation for a distributor to knowingly sell a product to a contractor or dealer with knowledge that the entity routinely violates any regional standard applicable to the product. For contractors, the Working Group agreed it would be a violation to knowingly sell to and/or install for an end user a central air conditioner subject to regional standards with knowledge that such product would be installed in violation of any regional standard applicable to the product.
To further clarify what constituted an installation of a central air conditioner in violation of an applicable regional standard, the Working Group agreed that:
(1) A person cannot install a complete central air conditioner system—meaning the condensing unit and evaporator coil and/or blower—unless it has been certified as a complete system that meets the applicable standard. A previously discontinued combination may be installed as long as the combination was previously validly certified to the Department as compliant with the applicable regional standard and the combination was not discontinued because it was found to be noncompliant with the applicable standard(s);
(2) a person cannot install a replacement condensing unit unless it is certified as part of a combination that meets the applicable standard; and
(3) a person cannot install a condensing unit that has a certified combination with a rating that is less than the applicable regional standard.
To determine if a violation occurred, the Department will conduct an investigation into the alleged misconduct. In a typical investigation, DOE may discuss the installation in question with the end user or the homeowner and other relevant parties, including the alleged violator. DOE may also request records from the dealer, contractor, distributor, and/or manufacturer if the Department has reasonable belief a violation occurred.
The Working Group recommended that if no violation is found, the Department should issue a case closed letter to the party being investigated. If DOE finds that a contractor or dealer completed a noncompliant installation in one residence or an equivalent setting (
In determining whether a party “routinely violates” a regional standard, the Working Group recommended that DOE consider the following factors:
• Number of violations (in both current and past investigations);
• Length of time over which the violations were committed;
• Ratio of compliant to noncompliant installations or sales;
• Percentage of employees committing violations;
• Evidence of effort or intent to commit violations;
• Evidence of training or education provided on regional standards; and
• Subsequent remedial actions.
The Working Group also agreed that DOE should consider whether the routine violation was limited to a specific contractor or distribution
The Working Group recommended that DOE issue a “Notice of Finding of Routine Violator” if the Department determines that a violator routinely violated a regional standard. This notice would identify the party found to be a routine violator and explain the scope of the violation. Additionally, if DOE, in its discretion, finds that the routine violation was limited to a specific location, DOE may in the Notice of Finding of Routine Violation state that the prohibition on manufacturer sales is limited to a particular contractor or distribution location This notice would be both posted to the Department's enforcement Web site and would be emailed to those signed up for email updates.
If DOE makes a finding of routine violation, the violator has the right to file an administrative appeal of the finding. Any appeal of a Notice of Finding of Routine Violation would be required to be filed within 30 days of the issuance of the notice. The appeal would be reviewed by DOE's Office of Hearings and Appeals. The appeal must present information rebutting the finding of routine violation. The appeal will be decided within 45 days of filing of the appeal. The violator may also file a Notice of Intent to Appeal with the DOE Office of Hearings and Appeals. If this notice of intent is filed within three business days of the Notice of Finding of Routine Violation, then manufacturers may continue to sell products to the routine violator during the pendency of the appeal. See section II.J for more details on sales during the pendency of an appeal.
DOE proposes to adopt the Working Group's recommendations pertaining to violations and routine violations and requests comment on these proposals.
As previously mentioned, the Working Group recommended that violators may be given the opportunity to remediate. The sole method of remediation would be the replacement of noncompliant unit with compliant units. If a violator is unable to replace all noncompliant units, then the Department may, in its discretion, consider the remediation complete if the violator satisfactorily demonstrates to the Department that it attempted to replace all noncompliant units. In practice, the violator would have to show that they replaced almost all of the noncompliant units and document significant, yet refused, efforts to complete the replacement of the remaining noncompliant units. The Department would also scrutinize those “failed” attempts at replacement to ensure that there was indeed a good faith effort to complete remediation of the noncompliant unit.
The replacement of noncompliant units with compliant units would be at the cost of the violator. The violator would not be allowed to use warranty or other replacement claims to recoup the cost of the replacement from the manufacturer. To ensure that warranties or other replacement claims are not used, the violator must provide DOE with the serial numbers for the new and old units. The Department will then provide these numbers to the manufacturer(s) and distributor(s) to verify that warranties and other replacement claims were not wrongfully used. If the violator successfully remediates, then DOE will issue a public “Notice of Remediation.”
The Working Group recommended that routine violators should also be entitled to remediation. As manufacturers are prohibited from selling to routine violators, remediation would be coordinated through the Department. If the routine violator wants to remediate then it must contact the DOE Office of the General Counsel, Office of Enforcement, via the DOE point of contact listed in the Notice of Finding of Routine Violation. The routine violator must inform DOE of the distributor or manufacturer from whom it wishes to purchase compliant replacement units. Within three business days of the routine violator's request to remediate, the Department will contact the necessary distributor(s) or manufacturer(s) and authorize sale for purposes of remediation. DOE will also provide the manufacturer(s) or distributor(s) with an official letter authorizing the sale for purposes of remediation for the seller's records. The routine violator must provide documentation of the installation of the compliant units to DOE once the remediation is completed. DOE will also follow up with the routine violator within 30 days of the date of the official letter authorizing the sale for purposes of remediation to determine the status of the remediation. If a routine violator successfully remediates, then DOE will issue a Notice indicating the entity is no longer a routine violator no more than 30 days after DOE received documentation demonstrating the remediation is completed.
DOE proposes to adopt the Working Group's recommendation on remediation and requests comment on this proposal.
The Working Group recommended, with DOE abstaining, that the FTC initiate a rulemaking to adopt a simplified label for equipment rated below the regional standards and a separate simplified label for equipment rated at or above the regional standards. The Working Group found that the simplified labels, as drafted by AHRI (a manufacturer trade association), provide better alignment with the Working Group's proposed regional enforcement plan. The simplified labels are posted in the docket for this rulemaking.
The Working Group also recommended, and manufacturers agreed, to add a label to the central air conditioner condensing unit to indicate where the unit can legally be installed. The label would be near to, or part of, the nameplate and ruggedized to withstand elements. For units that do not meet the EER standards applicable to the Southwest region, the label would state, “Install Prohibited in Southwest.” For units that cannot be sold in the Southeast or Southwest because their SEER value is below the minimum required in those regions, the label would state, “Install Prohibited in Southwest and Southeast.” As a result, a contractor should never install for an end user in a region a unit that bears the label indicating that installation is prohibited in that region. The manufacturers agreed they would start using the label scheme by March 1, 2015. Additionally, AHRI stated it would require all manufacturers participating in the AHRI certification program to apply these labels to split-system and single package central air conditioners with rated combinations below the minimum standard(s) required in each region as of March 1, 2015.
In accordance with the Department's regulations on prohibited acts, manufacturers may be fined for “knowingly sell[ing] a product to a distributor, contractor, or dealer with knowledge that the entity routinely violates any regional standard applicable to the product.” (42 U.S.C. 6302, 10 CFR 429.102(a)(10)) The Working Group had significant discussions on the scope of the term “product” as it relates to this prohibited act. The Department explained that it interprets the term “product” to include
EPCA defines a “central air conditioner” as a “product . . . which . . . is a heat pump or a cooling only unit” and refers to all central air conditioners as one “product.” (42 U.S.C. 6291(21)) Therefore, to be consistent with EPCA, DOE interprets the term “product” to be inclusive of all central air conditioner and heat pump product classes listed in 10 CFR 430.32(c), meaning that manufacturers may be subject to civil penalties for sales to a routine violator of any unit within the central air conditioning product classes.
If a manufacturer sells a central air conditioner (including heat pumps) to a routine violator after a Notice of Finding of Routine Violation has been issued, then the manufacturer would be liable for civil penalties. The maximum fine a manufacturer is subject to is $200 per unit sold to a routine violator.
The Working Group recommended that DOE provide manufacturers with 3 business days from the issuance of a Notice of Finding of Routine Violation to stop all sales of central air conditioners and heat pumps to the routine violator. During this time, manufacturers would not be liable for sales to a routine violator. DOE noted that, consistent with its penalty guidance,
If the routine violator is appealing the finding, the Working Group recommended that manufacturers be allowed to continue to sell central air conditioners and heat pumps to the routine violator during the pendency of the appeal. In order to provide parties notice that a routine violator is appealing the determination, the routine violator must file a Notice of Intent to Appeal with the Office of Hearings and Appeals within three business days after the issuance of the Notice of Finding of Routine Violator. If the finding is ultimately upheld, then the manufacturers could face civil penalties for sale of any products rated below the regional standards to the routine violator.
The Working Group also recommended that DOE provide an incentive for manufacturers to report routine violators. The Working Group recommended that if a manufacturer has knowledge of a routine violator, then the manufacturer can be held liable for all sales made after the date such knowledge is obtained by the manufacturer. However, if the manufacturer reports such knowledge to DOE within 15 days of receipt of the knowledge, then the Department will not hold the manufacturer liable for sales to the suspected routine violator made prior to notifying DOE.
On a separate note, nothing in this rulemaking impacts DOE's ability to determine that a manufacturer has manufactured and distributed a noncompliant central air conditioner in accordance with the existing procedures at 10 CFR 429.104-429.114. Furthermore, those processes apply to DOE's determination of a manufacturer's manufacture and distribution of a central air conditioner that fails to meet a regional standard. With respect to liability, if DOE determines that a model of condensing unit fails to meet the applicable regional standard(s) when tested in a combination certified by the same manufacturer (
DOE proposes to adopt these clarifications of manufacturer liability as recommended by the Working Group and requests comment on this proposal.
The Working Group had significant discussions on whether to include additional prohibited acts and ultimately could not come to consensus on whether to include additional prohibited acts.
The Working Group developed a summary table for inclusion in this document. This summary table helps explain the responsibilities for the various parties impacted by this rulemaking and does not include any proposed requirements not previously described in today's NOPR. DOE has further added columns depicting the roles and responsibilities of those making sales through the internet to this chart.
In the June 2011 DFR, DOE considered the economic impacts of amending the standards for central air conditioners and heat pumps. Included in the economic analyses was National Impacts Analysis (NIA) which estimated the energy savings and the net present value (NPV) of those energy savings that consumers would receive from the new energy efficiency standards of central air conditioners (CAC) and heat pumps (HP). This NPV was the estimated total value of future operating-cost savings during the analysis period (2015-2045), minus the estimated increased product costs (including installation), discounted to 2011. However, DOE did not account for the financial burden on distributors and installers related to record retention requirements necessary to demonstrate compliance with the regional standards in the June 2011 DFR.
From the enforcement plan proposed in this rulemaking, DOE estimated that manufacturers, distributors, and contractors face some financial burden primarily related to the proposed record retention requirements. DOE assumed that the proposed records retention requirements would cause manufacturers, distributors, and contractors additional labor costs from collecting and filing such records. These labor costs would be an annual burden to the market participants. At the Working Group public meetings, distributors stated that the proposed records retention requirements would cause distributors to update their enterprise resource planning (ERP) systems to track the necessary information. DOE considered this update to the EPR systems an initial conversion cost. The cost of retaining records on each market participant is summarized in Table II-3.
In this NOPR, DOE re-evaluated the NIA to include the cost of the proposed record retention requirements to manufacturer, distributors, and contractors. DOE conservatively estimated the consumer benefits by assuming that the annual cost from the proposed record retention requirements would be passed on to consumers and thus decreasing the NPV. However, DOE assumed that distributors would entirely bear the initial up-front cost of updating their ERP systems, causing no impact to the NPV for that portion of the impacts. The updated NPV results are summarized in Table II-4. The impact of including the proposed record retention requirement costs on the NPV is estimated to reduce the benefit by $0.30 billion at a 3% discount rate and $0.16 billion at a 7% discount rate. The costs of the record retention requirements are estimated to have no impact on national energy savings. Because the record retention requirement costs have only a small impact on NPV, ranging from a minimum of 2-percent at a discount rate of 3% and a maximum of 4-percent at a discount rate of 7%, and no impact on national energy savings, DOE's economic justification of the energy conservation standards chosen and
DOE requests comment on its assumptions for the financial burden from the proposed record retention requirements and the resulting impact on NPV at the amended standard level.
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has determined that today's regulatory action is not a “significant regulatory action” under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review,” 58 FR 51735 (Oct. 4, 1993). Accordingly, this action was not subject to review under the Executive Order by the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) in the OMB.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
DOE reviewed the proposed requirements under the provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act and the procedures and policies published on February 19, 2003. As discussed in more detail below, DOE found that the entities impacted by the proposals in this NOPR (central air conditioning manufacturers, distributors, and contractors) could potentially experience a financial burden associated with these new requirements. Additionally, the majority of central air conditioning contractors and distributors are small business as defined by the Small Business Administration (SBA). DOE determined that it could not certify that the proposed rule, if promulgated, would not have a significant effect on a substantial number of small entities. Therefore, DOE has prepared an IRFA for this rulemaking. The IRFA describes potential impacts on small businesses associated with the proposed requirements.
DOE has transmitted a copy of this IRFA to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for review.
The SBA has set a size threshold for manufacturers, distributors, and contractors of central air conditioning products that define those entities classified as “small businesses.” DOE used SBA's size standards to determine whether any small businesses would be impacted by this NOPR. 65 FR 30836, 30849 (May 15, 2000), as amended at 65 FR 53533, 53545 (Sept. 5, 2000) and codified at 13 CFR part 121. The size standards are listed by North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) code and industry description, and are available at
To estimate the number of companies that could be small business manufacturers, distributors, and contractors of equipment covered by this rulemaking, DOE conducted a market survey using available public information. DOE's research involved examining industry trade association Web sites, public databases, and individual company Web sites. DOE also solicited information from industry representatives such as AHRI, HARDI, ACCA, and PHCC. DOE screened out companies that do not offer products covered by this rulemaking or are not impacted by this rulemaking, do not meet the definition of a “small business,” or are foreign owned and operated.
As discussed in the preamble of this proposed rule,
The Working Group worked to negotiate records retention requirements that would have limited financial burden on the impacted parties—manufacturers, distributors, and contractors. The Working Group made a few general provisions regarding the records retention requirements to help mitigate some of the financial burden. The Working Group tried to reduce the impact of the records retention requirements by staggering the length of time for which records must be maintained. Manufacturers, the entities understood to have the most resources and sophistication, would have to retain records for the longest time period (60 months); distributors would have to retain records for less time (54 months); and contractors would have to retain records for the least amount of time (48 months). Additionally, in the case that records are requested, the Working Group recommended that the party from whom the records were requested should have an extended period of 30 days to produce such records. The Working Group also explicitly recommended that manufacturers, distributors, and contractors should not have to create new forms to retain such records, and that the records would not have to be retained electronically.
DOE expects central air conditioning manufacturers to be the least burdened entity of all the affected entities by the record retention requirements proposed in this document. Manufacturers have the fewest record retention requirements. Many of the record retention requirements being proposed in this rulemaking expand on DOE's existing certification requirements and thus should only slightly increase the recordkeeping burden. DOE does not expect manufacturers to incur any capital expenditures as a result of the proposals since the rulemaking does not impose any product-specific requirements that would require changes to existing plants, facilities, product specifications, or test procedures. Rather, this proposed rule imposes record retention requirements, which may have a slight impact on labor costs. DOE included certification and enforcement requirements associated with the regional standards for central air conditioners in the June 27, 2011 energy conservation standards final rule for central air conditioners and heat pumps.
Based on comments at the Working Group meetings, DOE expects the record retention requirements to cause distributors the most financial burden. Distributors track equipment and sales in ERP systems and are expected to incorporate the proposed recordkeeping requirements into their ERP systems. HARDI expected that 40% of distributors currently retain the proposed records and will not need to update their ERP systems. HARDI expected 50% of distributors would need to make some changes to their ERP systems and 10% of distributors would need to make major changes to their ERP system. HARDI expected that small distributors are more likely to require major changes to their ERP systems because typically small distributors have older and more inflexible systems. HARDI estimated that changes to ERP systems to accommodate the record retention proposals may cost $20,000 to $100,000 depending on the type of change needed to the system. According to HARDI, the entire central air conditioner distribution industry would incur an initial conversion cost of around $46,340,000 to modify the ERP systems. To help alleviate some of the financial burden, the Working Group recommended that DOE not require distributors to retain records for sales of central air conditioner indoor coils or air handlers, which were identified as difficult components to track for the distributors. Additionally, the Working Group recommended that distributors should not have to start retaining records until November 30, 2015, at the earliest, which DOE is proposing in this NOPR to delay until July 1, 2016. Finally, as previously stated, DOE is not proposing to require records to be retained in electronic form and is not mandating that distributors make changes in their ERP systems to retain the information proposed in this document.
DOE believes central air conditioning contractors will experience a minimal recordkeeping burden. DOE is proposing to limit the records retention requirements on contractors to installations in the Southeast and Southwest. For all central air conditioner installations in those regions, contractors would have to keep a record of installation location, date of installation, and purchaser. Contractors would have to keep records specific to the type of units (outdoor condensing unit, indoor coil or air handler, or single-package air conditioner) installed as well. A contractor trade association remarked at the public meetings that most contractors already retain such records and the record retention requirements would have limited financial impacts. (ACCA, Public Meeting Transcript, No. 77 at 12-13) DOE estimates that any additional expense caused by the records requirements proposed in this rulemaking would be related to the time required to file these records. DOE estimates that contractors may spend an additional 10 minutes per installation to comply with the proposed records retention requirements.
DOE is not aware of any rules or regulations that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with the proposed rule being considered today.
DOE could mitigate the potential impacts on small manufacturers, distributors, or contractors by reducing or eliminating the proposed types of information to be maintained. However, these requirements were negotiated as an acceptable compromise among the participants in the Working Group. While there may be some financial burden, the Working Group unanimously agreed to the record retention requirements for manufacturers, distributors, and contractors. Furthermore, DOE believes that the record retention requirements are the least burdensome requirements possible to provide DOE sufficient
In this document, DOE proposed record retention requirements for central air conditioner manufacturers, distributors, and contractors. DOE is requesting approval for a new information collection associated with these requirements. These requirements were developed as part of a negotiated rulemaking effort for regional central air conditioner enforcement. These requirements are described in detail in section II.F.
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This proposed rule primarily requires central air conditioner manufacturers, distributors, and contractors to retain records for CAC installations. If DOE has a “reasonable belief” that an installation in violation of regional standards occurred, then it may request records specific to an ongoing investigation from the relevant manufacturer(s), distributor(s), and/or contractor(s). The Working Group recommended that DOE determine if it has a “reasonable belief” of a CAC violation based on the factors described in section II.F. Once DOE establishes reasonable belief and requests records from the relevant parties, then the entity from whom DOE requested records has 30 days to produce those records. The party from whom DOE requested records may ask for additional time with a written explanation of the circumstances.
The following are DOE estimates of the total annual recordkeeping burden imposed on manufacturers, distributors, and contractors of central air conditioners. These estimates take into account the time necessary collect, organized and store the record required by this notice of proposed rulemaking.
Estimated Number of Impacted Manufacturers: 29.
Estimated Time per Record: 10 minutes.
Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours: 574,167 hours.
Estimated Total Annual Cost to the Manufacturers: $4,162,708.
Estimated Number of Impacted Distributors: 2,317.
Estimated Time per Record: 5 minutes.
Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours: 287,083 hours.
Estimated Total Annual Cost to the Distributors: $2,081,354.
Estimated Number of Impacted Contractors: 22,207.
Estimated Time per Record: 10 minutes per installation.
Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours: 359,949 hours.
Estimated Total Annual Cost to the Contractors: $2,609,631.
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DOE has determined that this proposed rule falls into a class of actions that are categorically excluded from review under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
Executive Order 13132, “Federalism,” 64 FR 43255 (August 4, 1999) imposes certain requirements on agencies formulating and implementing policies or regulations that preempt State law or that have Federalism implications. The Executive Order requires agencies to examine the constitutional and statutory authority supporting any action that would limit the policymaking discretion of the States and to carefully assess the necessity for such actions. The Executive Order also requires agencies to have an accountable process to ensure meaningful and timely input by State and local officials in the development of regulatory policies that have Federalism implications. On March 14, 2000, DOE published a statement of policy describing the intergovernmental consultation process it will follow in the development of such regulations. 65 FR 13735. DOE has examined this proposed rule and has determined that it would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. EPCA governs and prescribes Federal preemption of State regulations as to energy conservation for the products that are the subject of today's proposed rule. States can petition DOE for exemption from such preemption to the extent, and based on criteria, set forth in EPCA. (42 U.S.C. 6297(d)) No further action is required by Executive Order 13132.
Regarding the review of existing regulations and the promulgation of new regulations, section 3(a) of Executive Order 12988, “Civil Justice Reform,” 61 FR 4729 (Feb. 7, 1996), imposes on Federal agencies the general
Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) requires each Federal agency to assess the effects of Federal regulatory actions on State, local, and Tribal governments and the private sector. Public Law 104-4, sec. 201 (codified at 2 U.S.C. 1531). For a proposed regulatory action likely to result in a rule that may cause the expenditure by State, local, and Tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100 million or more in any one year (adjusted annually for inflation), section 202 of UMRA requires a Federal agency to publish a written statement that estimates the resulting costs, benefits, and other effects on the national economy. (2 U.S.C. 1532(a), (b)) The UMRA also requires a Federal agency to develop an effective process to permit timely input by elected officers of State, local, and Tribal governments on a proposed “significant intergovernmental mandate,” and requires an agency plan for giving notice and opportunity for timely input to potentially affected small governments before establishing any requirements that might significantly or uniquely affect small governments. On March 18, 1997, DOE published a statement of policy on its process for intergovernmental consultation under UMRA. 62 FR 12820; also available at
Section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 1999 (Pub. L. 105-277) requires Federal agencies to issue a Family Policymaking Assessment for any rule that may affect family well-being. This proposed rule would not have any impact on the autonomy or integrity of the family as an institution. Accordingly, DOE has concluded that it is not necessary to prepare a Family Policymaking Assessment.
DOE has determined, under Executive Order 12630, “Governmental Actions and Interference with Constitutionally Protected Property Rights” 53 FR 8859 (March 18, 1988), that this proposed rule would not result in any takings that might require compensation under the Fifth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution.
Section 515 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 2001 (44 U.S.C. 3516 note) provides for agencies to review most disseminations of information to the public under guidelines established by each agency pursuant to general guidelines issued by OMB. OMB's guidelines were published at 67 FR 8452 (Feb. 22, 2002), and DOE's guidelines were published at 67 FR 62446 (Oct. 7, 2002). DOE has reviewed this proposed rule under the OMB and DOE guidelines and has concluded that it is consistent with applicable policies in those guidelines.
Executive Order 13211, “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use,” 66 FR 28355 (May 22, 2001), requires Federal agencies to prepare and submit to OMB, a Statement of Energy Effects for any proposed significant energy action. A “significant energy action” is defined as any action by an agency that promulgated or is expected to lead to promulgation of a final rule, and that: (1) Is a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866, or any successor order; and (2) is likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy; or (3) is designated by the Administrator of OIRA as a significant energy action. For any proposed significant energy action, the agency must give a detailed statement of any adverse effects on energy supply, distribution, or use should the proposal be implemented, and of reasonable alternatives to the action and their expected benefits on energy supply, distribution, and use.
Today's proposal to adopt a regional standards enforcement plan for central air conditioners is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866. Moreover, it would not have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy, nor has it been designated as a significant energy action by the Administrator of OIRA. Therefore, it is not a significant energy action, and, accordingly, DOE has not prepared a Statement of Energy Effects.
Under section 301 of the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91; 42 U.S.C. 7101), DOE must comply with section 32 of the Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, as amended by the Federal Energy Administration Authorization Act of 1977. (15 U.S.C. 788; FEAA) Section 32 essentially provides in relevant part that, where a proposed rule authorizes or requires use of commercial standards, the notice of proposed rulemaking must inform the public of the use and background of such standards. In addition, section 32(c) requires DOE to consult with the Attorney General and the Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) concerning the impact of the commercial or industry standards on competition. Today's proposed rule does not requires use of any commercial standards.
DOE will accept comments, data, and information regarding this proposed rule no later than the date provided in the
However, your contact information will be publicly viewable if you include it in the comment or in any documents attached to your comment. Any information that you do not want to be publicly viewable should not be included in your comment, nor in any document attached to your comment. Persons viewing comments will see only first and last names, organization names, correspondence containing comments, and any documents submitted with the comments.
Do not submit to regulations.gov information for which disclosure is restricted by statute, such as trade secrets and commercial or financial information (hereinafter referred to as Confidential Business Information (CBI)). Comments submitted through regulations.gov cannot be claimed as CBI. Comments received through the Web site will waive any CBI claims for the information submitted. For information on submitting CBI, see the Confidential Business Information section.
DOE processes submissions made through regulations.gov before posting. Normally, comments will be posted within a few days of being submitted. However, if large volumes of comments are being processed simultaneously, your comment may not be viewable for up to several weeks. Please keep the comment tracking number that regulations.gov provides after you have successfully uploaded your comment.
Include contact information each time you submit comments, data, documents, and other information to DOE. If you submit via mail or hand delivery, please provide all items on a CD, if feasible. It is not necessary to submit printed copies. No facsimiles (faxes) will be accepted.
Comments, data, and other information submitted to DOE electronically should be provided in PDF (preferred), Microsoft Word or Excel, WordPerfect, or text (ASCII) file format. Provide documents that are not secured, written in English and free of any defects or viruses. Documents should not contain special characters or any form of encryption and, if possible, they should carry the electronic signature of the author.
Factors of interest to DOE when evaluating requests to treat submitted information as confidential include: (1) A description of the items; (2) whether and why such items are customarily treated as confidential within the industry; (3) whether the information is generally known by or available from other sources; (4) whether the information has previously been made available to others without obligation concerning its confidentiality; (5) an explanation of the competitive injury to the submitting person which would result from public disclosure; (6) when such information might lose its confidential character due to the passage of time; and (7) why disclosure of the information would be contrary to the public interest.
It is DOE's policy that all comments may be included in the public docket, without change and as received, including any personal information provided in the comments (except information deemed to be exempt from public disclosure).
Although DOE welcomes comments on any aspect of this proposal, DOE is particularly interested in receiving comments and views of interested parties concerning the following issues:
1. DOE requests comments on the four clarifications to the regional standards discussed in section II.A.
2. DOE requests comments on its proposed definitions for contractor, dealer, and installation of a central air conditioner.
3. DOE requests comments on its proposed records retention requirements for manufacturers, distributors, and contractors. The Department is specifically interested in any financial burden imposed but these proposed requirements.
4. DOE requests comments on the threshold for records request and the proposed timeframe for responding to such requests.
5. DOE requests comments on the proposed violations for distributors, contractors, and dealers.
6. DOE requests comments on the factors used to determine if a violation is routine.
7. DOE requests comments on the proposed concept for remediation.
8. DOE requests comments on the proposed scheme for manufacturer liability.
The Secretary of Energy has approved publication of this proposed rule.
Administrative practice and procedure, Confidential business information, Energy conservation, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Confidential business information, Energy conservation, Household appliances, Imports, Intergovernmental relations, Small businesses.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, DOE is proposing to amend parts 429 and 430 of Chapter II, subchapter D, of Title 10, Code of Federal Regulations as set forth below:
42 U.S.C. 6291-6317.
(c) Violations of regional standards:
(1) It is a violation for a distributor to knowingly sell a product to a contractor or dealer with knowledge that the entity will sell and/or install the product in violation of any regional standard applicable to the product.
(2) It is a violation for a distributor to knowingly sell a product to a contractor or dealer with knowledge that the entity routinely violates any regional standard applicable to the product.
(3) It is a violation for a contractor or dealer to knowingly sell to and/or install for an end user a central air conditioner subject to regional standards with the knowledge that such product will be installed in violation of any regional standard applicable to the product.
(4) A “product installed in violation” includes:
(i) A complete central air conditioning system that is not certified as a complete system that meets the applicable standard. Combinations that were previously validly certified may be installed after the manufacturer has discontinued the combination, provided the combination meets the currently applicable standard.
(ii) An outdoor unit with no match (
(iii) An outdoor unit that is part of a certified combination rated less than the standard applicable in the region in which it is installed.
Sections 429.140 through 429.158 provide enforcement procedures specific to the violations enumerated in § 429.102(c). These provisions explain the responsibilities of manufacturers, private labelers, distributors, contractors and dealers with respect to central air conditioners subject to regional standards; however, these provisions do not limit the responsibilities of parties otherwise subject to 10 CFR parts 429 and 430.
(a)
(1)
(i) For installations of a central air conditioner in the states of Alabama, Arizona, Arkansas, California, Delaware, Florida, Georgia, Hawaii, Kentucky, Louisiana, Maryland, Mississippi, Nevada, New Mexico, North Carolina, Oklahoma, South Carolina, Tennessee, Texas, or Virginia or in the District of Columbia, contractors and dealers must retain the following records for at least 48 months from the date of installation.
(ii) For installations of a central air conditioner in the states of Arizona, California, Nevada, and New Mexico, contractors and dealers must retain the following, additional records for at least 48 months from the date of installation.
B. [Reserved]
(2)
(i)
(ii)
(3)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(a) DOE must have reasonable belief a violation has occurred to request records specific to an on-going investigation of a violation of central air conditioner regional standards.
(b) Upon request, the manufacturer, private labeler, distributor, dealer, or contractor must provide to DOE the
(1) DOE, at its discretion, may grant additional time for records production if the party from whom records have been requested has made a good faith effort to produce records.
(2) To request additional time, the party from whom records have been requested must produce all records gathered in 30 days and provide to DOE a written explanation of the need for additional time with the requested date for completing the production of records.
(a) If DOE determines a party has committed a violation of regional standards, DOE will issue a Notice of Violation advising that party of DOE's determination.
(b) If, however, DOE determines a noncompliant installation occurred in only one instance, the noncompliant installation is remediated prior to DOE issuing a Notice of Violation, and the party has no history of prior violations, DOE will not issue such notice.
(c) If DOE does not find a violation of regional standards, DOE will notify the party under investigation.
(a) DOE will consider,
(b) In the event that DOE determines a person to be a routine violator, DOE will issue a Notice of Finding of Routine Violation.
(c) In making a finding of Routine Violation, DOE will consider whether the Routine Violation was limited to a specific location. If DOE finds that the routine violation was so limited, DOE may, in its discretion, in the Notice of Finding of Routine Violation limit the prohibition on manufacturer and/or private labeler sales to a particular contractor or distribution location.
(a) Any person found to be a routine violator may, within 30 calendar days after the date of Notice of Finding of Routine Violation, request an administrative appeal to the Office of Hearings and Appeals.
(b) The appeal must present information rebutting the finding of violation(s).
(c) The Office of Hearings and Appeal will issue a decision on the appeal within 45 days of receipt of the appeal.
(d) A routine violator must file a Notice of Intent to Appeal with the Office of Hearings and Appeals within three business days of the date of the Notice of Finding of Routine Violation, serving a copy on the GC Office of Enforcement to retain the ability to buy central air conditioners during the pendency of the appeal.
(a) A routine violator may be removed from DOE's list of routine violators through completion of remediation in accordance with the requirements in § 429.154 of this subpart.
(b) A routine violator that wants to remediate must contact DOE Office of Enforcement via the point of contact listed in the Notice of Finding of Routine Violation and identify the distributor(s), manufacturer(s), or private labeler(s) from whom it wishes to buy compliant replacement product.
(c) DOE will contact the distributor(s), manufacturer(s), or private labeler(s) and authorize sale of central air conditioner units to the routine violator for purposes of remediation within 3 business days of receipt of the request for remediation. DOE will provide the manufacturer(s), distributor(s), and/or private labeler(s) with an official letter authorizing the sale of units for purposes of remediation.
(d) DOE will contact routine violators that requested units for remediation within 30 days of sending the official letter to the manufacturer(s), distributor(s), and/or private labeler(s) to determine the status of the remediation.
(e) If remediation is successfully completed, DOE will issue a Notice indicating a person is no longer considered to be a routine violator. The Notice will be issued no more than 30 days after DOE has received documentation demonstrating that remediation is complete.
(a) Any party found to be in violation of the regional standards may remediate by replacing the noncompliant unit at cost to the violator; the end user cannot be charged for any costs of remediation.
(1) If a violator is unable to replace all noncompliant installations, then the Department may, in its discretion, consider the remediation complete if the violator satisfactorily demonstrates to the Department that it attempted to replace all noncompliant installations.
(2) The Department will scrutinize any “failed” attempts at replacement to ensure that there was indeed a good faith effort to complete remediation of the noncompliant unit.
(b) The violator must provide to DOE the serial number of any outdoor unit and/or indoor unit installed not in compliance with the applicable regional standard as well as the serial number(s) of the replacement unit(s) to be checked by the Department against warranty and other replacement claims.
(c) If the remediation is approved by the Department, then DOE will issue a Notice of Remediation and the violation will not count towards a finding of “routine violator”.
(a) In accordance with § 429.102(c), manufacturers and private labelers are prohibited from selling central air conditioners and heat pumps to a routine violator.
(1) To avoid financial penalties, manufacturers and/or private labelers must cease sales to a routine violator within 3 business days from the date of issuance of a Notice of Finding of Routine Violation.
(2) If a Routine Violator files a Notice of Intent to Appeal pursuant to § 429.150, then a manufacturer and/or private labeler may assume the risk of selling central air conditioners to the Routine Violator during the pendency of the appeal.
(3) If the appeal of the Finding of Routine Violator is denied, then the manufacturer and/or private labeler may be fined in accordance with § 429.120, for sale of any units to a routine violator during the pendency of the appeal that do not meet the applicable regional standard.
(b) If a manufacturer and/or private labeler has knowledge of routine violation, then the manufacturer can be held liable for all sales that occurred after the date the manufacturer had knowledge of the routine violation. However, if the manufacturer and/or private labeler reports its suspicion of a routine violation to DOE within 15 days of receipt of such knowledge, then it
(a) If DOE determines a model of outdoor unit fails to meet the applicable regional standard(s) when tested in a combination certified by the same manufacturer, then the outdoor unit basic model will be deemed noncompliant with the regional standard(s). In accordance with § 429.102(c), the outdoor unit manufacturer and/or private labeler is liable for distribution of noncompliant units in commerce.
(b) If DOE determines a combination fails to meet the applicable regional standard(s) when tested in a combination certified by a manufacturer other than the outdoor unit manufacturer (
(c) All such units manufactured and distributed in commerce are presumed to have been installed in a region where they would not comply with the applicable energy conservation standard; however, a manufacturer and/or private labeler may demonstrate through installer records that individual units were installed in a region where the unit is compliant with the applicable standards.
42 U.S.C. 6291-6309; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.
(c)
(1) Each basic model of single-package central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps and each individual combination of split-system central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps manufactured on or after January 1, 2015, shall have a Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio and Heating Seasonal Performance Factor not less than:
(2) In addition to meeting the applicable requirements in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, products in product class (i) of that paragraph (
(3) In addition to meeting the applicable requirements in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, split-system air conditioners that are installed on or after January 1, 2015, in the States of Alabama, Arkansas, Delaware, Florida, Georgia, Hawaii, Kentucky, Louisiana, Maryland, Mississippi, North Carolina, Oklahoma, South Carolina, Tennessee, Texas, or Virginia, or in the District of Columbia, must have a Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio of 14 or higher. Any outdoor unit model that has a certified combination with a rating below 14 SEER cannot be installed in these States. An outdoor unit model certified below 14 SEER by the outdoor unit manufacturer cannot be installed in this region even with an independent coil manufacturer's indoor unit that may have a certified rating at or above 14 SEER.
(4) In addition to meeting the applicable requirements in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, split-system air conditioners and single-package air conditioners that are installed on or after January 1, 2015, in the States of Arizona, California, Nevada, or New Mexico must have a Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio of 14 or higher and have an Energy Efficiency Ratio (at a
Any outdoor unit model that has a certified combination with a rating below 14 SEER or the applicable EER cannot be installed in this region. An outdoor unit model certified below 14 SEER or the applicable EER by the outdoor unit manufacturer cannot be installed in this region even with an independent coil manufacturer's indoor unit that may have a certified rating at or above 14 SEER and the applicable EER.
(5) Each basic model of single-package central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps and each individual combination of split-system central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps manufactured on or after January 1, 2015, shall have an average off mode electrical power consumption not more than the following:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Airbus Helicopters Model SA341G and SA342J helicopters. This proposed AD would require repetitive inspections of a certain part-numbered main rotor hub torsion bar (torsion bar). This proposed AD is prompted by several cases of corrosion in the metal strands of the torsion bar. The proposed actions are intended to detect corrosion and prevent failure of the torsion bar, loss of a main rotor blade, and subsequent loss of control of the helicopter.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by January 19, 2016.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Robert Grant, Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Group, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Fort Worth, Texas 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email
We invite you to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. We also invite comments relating to the economic, environmental, energy, or federalism impacts that might result from adopting the proposals in this document. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should send only one copy of written comments, or if comments are filed electronically, commenters should submit only one time.
We will file in the docket all comments that we receive, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this proposed rulemaking. Before acting on this proposal, we will consider all comments we receive on or before the closing date for comments. We will consider comments filed after the comment period has closed if it is possible to do so without incurring expense or delay. We may change this proposal in light of the comments we receive.
EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, issued EASA AD No. 2014-0216, dated September 24, 2014, to correct an unsafe condition for Airbus Helicopters Model SA341G and SA342J helicopters. EASA advises that several cases of cracks were found on the polyurethane (PU) coating of part-numbered 704A33633274 torsion bars installed on military Model SA341 helicopters. EASA states that these parts can also be
These helicopters have been approved by the aviation authority of France and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with France, EASA, its technical representative, has notified us of the unsafe condition described in its AD. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all known relevant information and determined that an unsafe condition is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
We reviewed Airbus Helicopters Gazelle work card 65.12.607, dated August 2008. This service information describes inspecting the torsion bars for a crack in the PU coating and for corrosion and thickness of the bushings.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
Airbus Helicopters has issued Alert Service Bulletin No. SA341/SA342-05.40, Revision 0, dated April 28, 2014 (ASB), for Model SA341G and SA342J helicopters certificated by the FAA, and military Model SA341B, C, D, E, F, and H and SA342K, L, L1, M, M1, and Ma helicopters. The ASB specifies repetitively inspecting the torsion bars in accordance with certain work cards, including work card 65.12.07. These inspections are part of Airbus Helicopters' current maintenance program, and the ASB revises the compliance time interval for the inspections.
This proposed AD would require removing and performing repetitive inspections of each torsion bar for a crack in the PU coating, the dimension of the angle between the bushings, corrosion on the inside diameter of each bushing, the thickness of each bushing, the size of the inside diameter of each bushing, and missing varnish on the two faces of each bushing. This proposed AD would require replacing the torsion bar before further flight if there is a crack in the PU coating of a torsion bar that matches or exceeds the damage criteria, if the angle of the torsion bar is 7 degrees or more, if any corrosion on a bushing cannot be removed by rubbing it with an abrasive pad, if the thickness of a bushing is less than 37.520 mm (1.477 in), or if the diameter of a bushing is larger than 21,040 mm (.828 in). If varnish is missing from more than 15 percent of the surface area from a face of a bushing, this proposed AD would require removing all varnish, finishing with an abrasive pad, and applying a coat of paint to the face of the bushing.
This proposed AD would require you to replace a torsion bar instead of returning it to the manufacturer for examination.
We consider this proposed AD to be an interim action. If final action is later identified, we might consider further rulemaking.
We estimate that this proposed AD would affect 33 helicopters of U.S. Registry.
We estimate that operators may incur the following costs in order to comply with this AD. We estimate $85 per work hour for labor. We estimate 8 work hours to inspect each helicopter at an estimated cost of $680 per helicopter and $22,440 for the fleet per inspection cycle. Replacing a torsion bar would cost $7,020 for required parts; no additional labor would be necessary.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
We prepared an economic evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this proposed AD and placed it in the AD docket.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to Model SA341G and SA342J helicopters with a main rotor head torsion bar (torsion bar) part number 704A33633274 installed, certificated in any category.
This AD defines the unsafe condition as a crack in the coating of the torsion bar resulting in corrosion. This condition could result in failure of a torsion bar, loss of a main rotor blade, and subsequent loss of control of the helicopter.
We must receive comments by January 19, 2016.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
(1) For each torsion bar with less than 5 years since the first date of installation on any helicopter, within the compliance time shown in Table 1 to paragraph (e)(1) of this AD:
(i) Remove the torsion bar and, using a magnifying glass with a maximum magnification level of 10X, visually inspect for a crack in the polyurethane (PU) coating of the torsion bar as depicted in Figure 1 of Airbus Helicopters Gazelle work card 65.12.607, dated August 2008 (work card). Consider two cracks that are less than 5 mm (.196 in) apart as a single crack. If there is a crack in the PU coating that is more than 5 mm (.196 in), replace the torsion bar before further flight. Do not rework the PU coating of the torsion bar in any way.
(ii) Inspect the angle, dimension alpha, as depicted in View on Arrow F of Figure 1 of the work card. If the angle is 7 or more degrees, replace the torsion bar before further flight.
(iii) Inspect each bushing for corrosion on the inside diameter. If any corrosion cannot be removed by rubbing it with an abrasive pad, replace the torsion bar before further flight.
(iv) Using an outside micrometer, measure the thickness, dimension a, of each bushing as depicted in Detail AA of Figure 1 of the work card. If the thickness is less than 37.520 mm (1.477 in), replace the torsion bar before further flight.
(v) Using an inside micrometer, measure the inside diameter, dimension b, of each bushing as depicted in Detail AA of Figure 1 of the work card. If the diameter is larger than 21.040 mm (.828 in), replace the torsion bar before further flight.
(vi) Inspect the two faces of each bushing for missing varnish. If varnish is missing from more than 15% of the surface area on a face of a bushing, before further flight, remove all varnish using 400-grit abrasive paper. Finish with an abrasive pad and apply a coat of P05 paint to the face of the bushing.
(2) For each torsion bar with 5 or more years since the first date of installation on any helicopter, within the compliance time shown in Table 2 to paragraph (e)(2) of this AD, do the inspections required by paragraphs (e)(1)(i) through (vi) of this AD.
(3) Repeat the inspections required by paragraphs (e)(1)(i) through (vi) of this AD as follows:
(i) For torsion bars with less than 6 years since the date of installation on any helicopter, at intervals not to exceed 420 hours TIS or 24 months, whichever occurs first.
(ii) For torsion bars with 6 or more years since the date of installation on any helicopter, at intervals not to exceed 420 hours TIS or 12 months, whichever comes first.
(1) The Manager, Safety Management Group, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to: Robert Grant, Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Group, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office before
(1) Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin ASB No. SA341/SA342-05.40, Revision 0, dated April 28, 2014, which is not incorporated by reference, contains additional information about the subject of this AD. For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus Helicopters, 2701 N. Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; telephone (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax (972) 641-3775; or at
(2) The subject of this AD is addressed in European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD No. 2014-0216, dated September 24, 2014. You may view the EASA AD on the Internet at
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: 6700 Main Rotor.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 787-8 airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by reports of water leakage from the potable water system due to improperly installed waterline couplings, and water leaking into the electronics equipment (EE) bays from above the floor in the main cabin, resulting in water on the equipment in the EE bays. This proposed AD would require replacing the potable waterline couplings above the forward and aft EE bays with new, improved couplings. This proposed AD would also require sealing the main cabin floor areas above the aft EE bay, installing drip shields and foam blocks, and rerouting the wire bundles near the drip shields above the equipment in the aft EE bay. We are proposing this AD to prevent a water leak from an improperly installed potable water system coupling, or main cabin water source, which could cause the equipment in the EE bays to become wet, resulting in an electrical short and potential loss of system functions essential for safe flight.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by January 4, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal: Go to
• Fax: 202-493-2251.
• Mail: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590.
• Hand Delivery: Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Susan L. Monroe, Aerospace Engineer, Cabin Safety and Environmental Systems Branch, ANM-150S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6457; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We received reports of water leakage from the potable water system due to improperly installed waterline couplings, and water leaking into the EE bays from above the floor in the main cabin, resulting in water on the equipment in the EE bays. Such leakage could result in an electrical short and potential loss of system functions essential for safe flight.
We reviewed the following service information:
• Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB380009-00, Issue 001, dated March 26, 2015.
• Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB530029-00, Issue 001, dated March 26, 2015.
• Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB530031-00, Issue 001, dated March 26, 2015.
This service information describes procedures for replacing the potable waterline couplings above the forward and aft EE bays with new, improved couplings; sealing the floors, seat tracks, and lavatories above the aft EE bay; installing drip shields and foam blocks; and rerouting the wire bundles adjacent to the drip shields above the aft EE bay.
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously, except as discussed under “Difference Between this Proposed AD and the Service Information.” Refer to this service information for details on the procedures and compliance times.
Although Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB530029-00, Issue 001, dated March 26, 2015; and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB530031-00, Issue 001, dated March 26, 2015, recommend accomplishing the sealing of the floors and seat tracks, installing drip shields, and rerouting adjacent wiring within 24 months; this proposed AD would require accomplishing those actions within 60 months. We have determined that a 60-month compliance time for accomplishing these actions would address the unsafe condition in a timely manner.
This compliance time has been coordinated with Boeing.
The FAA worked in conjunction with industry, under the Airworthiness Directive Implementation Aviation Rulemaking Committee (ARC), to enhance the AD system. One enhancement was a new process for annotating which steps in the service information are required for compliance with an AD. Differentiating these steps from other tasks in the service information is expected to improve an owner's/operator's understanding of crucial AD requirements and help provide consistent judgment in AD compliance. The steps identified as RC (required for compliance) in any service information identified previously have a direct effect on detecting, preventing, resolving, or eliminating an identified unsafe condition.
For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the following provisions apply: (1) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD, and an alternative method of compliance (AMOC) is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures; and (2) steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 17 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by January 4, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 787-8 series airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in the service information specified in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), and (c)(3) of this AD.
(1) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB380009-00, Issue 001, dated March 26, 2015.
(2) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB530029-00, Issue 001, dated March 26, 2015.
(3) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB530031-00, Issue 001, dated March 26, 2015.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 38, Water/Waste; and Code 53, Fuselage.
This proposed AD was prompted by reports of water leakage from the potable water system due to improperly installed waterline couplings, and water leaking into the electronics equipment (EE) bays from above the floor in the main cabin, resulting in water on the equipment in the EE bays. We are issuing this AD to prevent a water leak from an improperly installed potable water system coupling, or main cabin water source, which could cause the equipment in the EE bays to become wet, resulting in an electrical short and potential loss of system functions essential for safe flight.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 24 months after the effective date of this AD: Replace the existing potable waterline couplings located above the forward and aft EE bays with new, improved couplings, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB380009-00, Issue 001, dated March 26, 2015. Before further flight after doing the replacement, do a potable water system leak test and repair any leaks found before further flight, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB380009-00, Issue 001, dated March 26, 2015.
Within 60 months after the effective date of this AD: Do the actions specified in paragraphs (h)(1) and (h)(2) of this AD.
(1) Apply sealant to the main cabin floor areas located above the aft EE bay, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB530029-00, Issue 001, dated March 26, 2015.
(2) Install drip shields and foam blocks, and reroute the wire bundles above the equipment in the aft EE bay, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB530031-00, Issue 001, dated March 26, 2015.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, alteration, or modification required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO to make those findings. For a repair method to be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (i)(4)(i) and (i)(4)(ii) apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Susan L. Monroe, Aerospace Engineer, Cabin Safety and Environmental Systems Branch, ANM-150S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6457; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 95-18-08, for all Airbus Model A300-600 series airplanes. AD 95-18-08 currently requires repetitive inspections to detect cracks in the bottom skin of the wing in the area of the cut out for the pylon rear attachment fitting, and repair if necessary. Since we issued AD 95-18-08, we received a report that updated fatigue and damage tolerance analyses and a fleet survey found that certain inspection thresholds and intervals must be reduced to allow more timely findings of cracking. This proposed AD would, for certain airplanes, reduce the compliance times for the inspections. We are proposing this AD to detect and correct such fatigue-related cracking, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the wing.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by January 4, 2016.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAW, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Dan Rodina, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-2125; fax 425-227-1149.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
On August 29, 1995, we issued AD 95-18-08, Amendment 39-9355 (60 FR 47677, September 14, 1995). AD 95-18-08 requires actions intended to address an unsafe condition on all Airbus Model A300-600 series airplanes (which includes Airbus Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes, Model A300 B4-622 airplanes, and Model A300 F4-622R airplanes that were added to the U.S. Type Certificate Data Sheet since issuance of AD 95-18-08).
Since we issued AD 95-18-08, Amendment 39-9355 (60 FR 47677, September 14, 1995), we received a report that updated fatigue and damage tolerance analyses and a fleet survey done to support a second extended service goal for Model A300-600 series airplanes found that certain inspection thresholds and intervals must be reduced to allow more timely findings of cracking.
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2014-0119, dated May 13, 2014 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition on all Airbus Model A300 B4-600, B4-600R, and F4-600R series airplanes, and Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes (collectively called Model A300-600 series airplanes). The MCAI states:
Full-scale fatigue tests carried out on the A300-600 test specimen by Airbus revealed crack initiation in the bottom skin adjacent to the aft pylon attachment fitting.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could affect the structural integrity of the aeroplane.
To address this unsafe condition, DGAC [Direction Générale de l'Aviation Civile] France issued AD 94-069-158(B) (
Since that [DGAC] AD was issued, a fleet survey and updated Fatigue and Damage Tolerance analyses have been performed in order to substantiate the second A300-600 Extended Service Goal (ESG2) exercise. As a result, it was revealed that the inspection threshold and interval must be reduced to allow timely detection of cracks and the accomplishment of an applicable corrective action. Prompted by these findings, Airbus issued Revision 07 of Service Bulletin (SB) A300-57-6028.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD retains the requirements of DGAC France AD 94-069-158(B), which is superseded, but reduces the inspection thresholds and intervals [
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We reviewed Airbus Service Bulletin A300-57-6028, Revision 07, dated June 6, 2011. The service information describes procedures for inspections to detect cracks in the bottom skin of the wing in the area of the cut out for the pylon rear attachment fitting, and repair. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 124 airplanes of U.S. registry.
The actions that are required by AD 95-18-08, Amendment 39-9355 (60 FR 47677, September 14, 1995), and retained in this proposed AD take about 6 work-hours per product, at an average labor rate of $85 per work-hour. Based on these figures, the estimated cost of the actions that are required by AD 95-18-08 is $510 per product.
In addition, we estimate that any necessary follow-on actions would take about 15 work-hours and require parts costing $10,000, for a cost of $11,275 per product. We have no way of
The new requirements of this proposed AD add no additional economic burden.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by January 4, 2016.
This AD replaces AD 95-18-08, Amendment 39-9355 (60 FR 47677, September 14, 1995).
This AD applies to the airplanes identified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(4) of this AD, certificated in any category, all manufacturer serial numbers.
(1) Airbus Model A300 B4-601, B4-603, B4-620, and B4-622 airplanes.
(2) Airbus Model A300 B4-605R and B4-622R airplanes.
(3) Airbus Model A300 F4-605R and F4-622R airplanes.
(4) Airbus Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 57, Wings.
This AD was prompted by a report that updated fatigue and damage tolerance analyses and a fleet survey found that certain inspection thresholds and intervals must be reduced to allow more timely findings of cracking. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct such fatigue-related cracking, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the wing.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (a) of AD 95-18-08, Amendment 39-9355 (60 FR 47677, September 14, 1995), with additional repair contact information. Prior to the accumulation of 24,000 total flight cycles since date of manufacture of the airplane, or within 750 flight cycles after October 16, 1995 (the effective date of AD 95-18-08), whichever occurs later, perform a detailed visual inspection to detect cracks in the bottom skin of the wing in the area of the cut out for the pylon rear attachment fitting, in accordance with Airbus Service Bulletin A300-57-6028, Revision 3, dated September 13, 1994. Repeat the inspection thereafter at intervals not to exceed 9,000 flight cycles. If any crack is detected, prior to further flight, repair the wing bottom skin in accordance with a method approved by the Manager, Standardization Branch, ANM-113, FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, or the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA); or Airbus's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA). Accomplishing any inspection required by paragraph (h) of this AD terminates the inspections required by this paragraph.
Within the applicable compliance times required in paragraphs (h)(1) and (h)(2) of this AD, do a detailed visual inspection of the wing bottom skin in the area of the cut-out for the pylon rear attachment fitting on left-hand and right-hand wings, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A300-57-6028, Revision 07, dated June 6, 2011. Repeat the inspections thereafter at the applicable intervals required in paragraphs (h)(3) and (h)(4) of this AD. Accomplishing any inspection required by this paragraph terminates the inspections required by paragraph (g) of this AD.
(1) For “normal range operations” airplanes having an average flight time of 1.5 flight hours or more: Do the inspection at the applicable time required in paragraphs (h)(1)(i) and (h)(1)(ii) of this AD.
(i) For Model A300 F4-605R and F4-622R airplanes: Do the inspection at the later of the times specified in paragraphs (h)(1)(i)(A) and (h)(1)(i)(B) of this AD.
(A) Within 24,000 flight cycles or 51,800 flight hours after first flight of the airplane, whichever occurs first.
(B) Within 2,000 flight cycles or 4,300 flight hours after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs first.
(ii) For Model A300 B4-600, B4-600R, and Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes: Do the inspection at the later of the times specified in paragraphs (h)(1)(ii)(A) and (h)(1)(ii)(B) of this AD.
(A) Within 19,100 flight cycles or 41,200 flight hours after first flight of the airplane, whichever occurs first.
(B) Within 1,500 flight cycles or 3,200 flight hours after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs first.
(2) For “short range operations” airplanes having an average flight time of less than 1.5 flight hours: Do the inspection at the applicable time required in paragraphs (h)(2)(i) and (h)(2)(ii) of this AD.
(i) For Model A300 F4-605R and F4-622R airplanes: Do the inspection at the later of the times specified in paragraphs (h)(2)(i)(A) and (h)(2)(i)(B) of this AD.
(A) Within 25,900 flight cycles or 38,800 flight hours after first flight of the airplane, whichever occurs first.
(B) Within 2,100 flight cycles or 3,200 flight hours after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs first.
(ii) For Model A300 B4-600, B4-600R, and Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes: Do
(A) Within 20,600 flight cycles or 30,900 flight hours after first flight of the airplane, whichever occurs first.
(B) Within 1,600 flight cycles or 2,400 flight hours after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs first.
(3) For “normal range operations” airplanes having an average flight time of 1.5 flight hours or more: Repeat the inspection at the applicable time required in paragraphs (h)(3)(i) and (h)(3)(ii) of this AD.
(i) For Model A300 F4-605R and F4-622R airplanes: Repeat the inspection thereafter at intervals not to exceed 9,000 flight cycles or 19,400 flight hours, whichever occurs first.
(ii) For Model A300 B4-600, B4-600R, and Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes: Repeat the inspection thereafter at intervals not to exceed 7,100 flight cycles or 15,300 flight hours, whichever occurs first.
(4) For “short range operations” airplanes having an average flight time of less than 1.5 flight hours: Repeat the inspection at the applicable time required in paragraphs (h)(4)(i) and (h)(4)(ii) of this AD.
(i) For Model A300 F4-605R and F4-622R airplanes: Repeat the inspection thereafter at intervals not to exceed 9,700 flight cycles or 14,500 flight hours, whichever occurs first.
(ii) For Model A300 B4-600, B4-600R, and Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes: Repeat the inspection thereafter at intervals not to exceed 7,600 flight cycles or 11,500 flight hours, whichever occurs first.
For the purpose of paragraph (h) of this AD, the Average Flight Time must be established as follows:
(1) For the initial inspection, the average flight time is the total accumulated flight hours, counted from take-off to touch-down, divided by the total accumulated flight cycles at the effective date of this AD.
(2) For the first repeated inspection interval, the average flight time is the total accumulated flight hours divided by the total accumulated flight cycles at the time of the inspection threshold.
(3) For all inspection intervals onwards, the average flight time is the flight hours divided by the flight cycles accumulated between the last two inspections.
If any crack is found during any inspection required by paragraph (h) of this AD: Before further flight, repair using a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or EASA; or Airbus's EASA DOA. Accomplishing a repair does not constitute terminating action for the repetitive inspections required by paragraph (h) of this AD.
This paragraph provides credit for inspections required by paragraph (h) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using any of the service information identified in paragraphs (k)(1), (k)(2), and (k)(3) of this AD, which are not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(1) Airbus Service Bulletin A300-57-6028, Revision 04, dated October 25, 1999.
(2) Airbus Service Bulletin A300-57-6028, Revision 05, dated January 11, 2002.
(3) Airbus Service Bulletin A300-57-6028, Revision 06, dated May 17, 2006.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(i) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office. The AMOC approval letter must specifically reference this AD.
(ii) AMOCs approved previously for AD 95-18-08, Amendment 39-9355 (60 FR 47677, September 14, 1995), are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of paragraph (g) of this AD.
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) European Aviation Safety Agency Airworthiness Directive 2014-0119, dated May 13, 2014, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAW, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2015-03-06, for all Airbus Model A330-200, A330-200 Freighter, A330-300, A340-200, A340-300, A340-500, and A340-600 series airplanes. AD 2015-03-06 currently requires repetitive inspections of the left-hand and right-hand wing main landing gear (MLG) rib 6 aft bearing lugs (forward and aft) to detect any cracks on the two lugs, and replacement if necessary. Since we issued AD 2015-03-06, we have received reports of additional cracking of the MLG rib 6 aft bearing lugs. This proposed AD would reduce certain compliance times. We are proposing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the MLG rib 6 aft bearing lugs, which could result in collapse of the MLG upon landing.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by January 4, 2016.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Airbus SAS,
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Vladimir Ulyanov, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1138; fax 425-227-1149.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
On February 2, 2015, we issued AD 2015-03-06, Amendment 39-18102 (80 FR 8511, February 18, 2015). AD 2015-03-06 requires actions intended to address an unsafe condition on all Airbus Model A330-200, A330-200 Freighter, A330-300, A340-200, A340-300, A340-500, and A340-600 series airplanes.
Since we issued AD 2015-03-06, Amendment 39-18102 (80 FR 8511, February 18, 2015), we have determined that it is necessary to introduce a more restrictive initial inspection threshold and a grace period for airplanes that have already exceeded the new threshold.
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2015-0120, dated June 26, 2015 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Airbus Model A330-200, A330-200 Freighter, A330-300, A340-200, A340-300, A340-500, and A340-600 series airplanes. The MCAI states:
During Main Landing Gear (MLG) lubrication, a crack was visually found in the MLG rib 6 aft bearing forward lug on one A330 in-service aeroplane. The crack had extended through the entire thickness of the forward lug at approximately the 4 o'clock position (when looking forward). It has been determined that a similar type of crack can develop on other aeroplane types that are listed in the Applicability paragraph.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could affect the structural integrity of the MLG attachment.
To address this situation, Airbus issued inspection Service Bulletin (SB) A330-57-3096, SB A340-57-4104 and SB A340-57-5009 to provide instructions for repetitive inspections of the gear rib lugs.
Prompted by these findings, EASA issued Emergency AD 2006-0364-E to require repetitive detailed visual inspections of the Left Hand (LH) and Right Hand (RH) wing MLG rib 6 aft bearing lugs.
Later, EASA issued AD 2007-0247-E, which superseded [EASA] AD 2006-0364-E, to:
—expand the Applicability to all A330 and A340 aeroplanes, because the interference fit bushes cannot be considered as a terminating action, owing to unknown root cause; and
—add a second parameter quoted in flight hours (FH) to the inspection interval in order to reflect the aeroplane utilisation in service.
EASA AD 2007-0247-E was revised to correct a typographical error.
Since the first crack finding and issuance of the inspection SBs and related ADs, six further cracks were reported.
Consequently, EASA issued AD 2013-0271 [which corresponds to FAA AD 2015-03-06, Amendment 39-18102 (80 FR 8511, February 18, 2015)], which retained the requirements of [EASA] AD 2007-0247R1-E, which was superseded, and expanded the Applicability of the [EASA] AD to the newly certified models A330-223F and A330-243F. That AD also reduced the inspection threshold(s) to reflect the updated risk assessment and in-service experience.
Since this [EASA] AD was issued, a new occurrence of crack finding was reported. Further analysis resulted in the need to reduce the threshold of the initial inspection.
Prompted by this finding, Airbus issued SB A330-57-3096 Revision 06 to introduce a more restrictive initial inspection threshold and a grace period for aeroplanes which have already passed the new threshold.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD partially retains the requirements of EASA AD 2013-0271, which is superseded, and introduces reduced initial inspection thresholds.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
Airbus has issued Service Bulletin A330-57-3096, Revision 06, dated May 29, 2015. The service information describes procedures for detailed inspections to detect any cracking on the forward and aft lugs of the Left Hand (LH) and Right Hand (RH) wing MLG Rib 6. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
The FAA worked in conjunction with industry, under the Airworthiness Directive Implementation Aviation Rulemaking Committee (ARC), to enhance the AD system. One enhancement was a new process for annotating which procedures and tests in the service information are required for compliance with an AD. Differentiating these procedures and tests from other tasks in the service information is expected to improve an owner's/operator's understanding of crucial AD requirements and help provide consistent judgment in AD
As specified in a Note under the Accomplishment Instructions of the specified service information, procedures and tests that are identified as RC in any service information must be done to comply with the proposed AD. However, procedures and tests that are not identified as RC are recommended. Those procedures and tests that are not identified as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an alternative method of compliance (AMOC), provided the procedures and tests identified as RC can be done and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition. Any substitutions or changes to procedures or tests identified as RC will require approval of an AMOC.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 101 airplanes of U.S. registry.
The actions required by AD 2015-03-06, Amendment 39-18102 (80 FR 8511, February 18, 2015), and retained in this proposed AD take about 2 work-hours per product, at an average labor rate of $85 per work-hour. Based on these figures, the estimated cost of the actions that are required by AD 2015-03-06 is $170 per product.
This proposed AD reduces the initial compliance time but adds no new actions.
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this proposed AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by January 4, 2016.
This AD replaces AD 2015-03-06, Amendment 39-18102 (80 FR 8511, February 18, 2015).
This AD applies to Airbus Model A330-201, -202, -203, -223, -223F, -243, -243F -301, -302, -303, -321, -322, -323, -341, -342, and -343 airplanes; and Model A340-211, -212, -213 -311, -312, -313, -541, and -642 airplanes; certificated in any category; all manufacturer serial numbers.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 57, Wings.
This AD was prompted by reports of cracking of the main landing gear (MLG) rib 6 aft bearing forward lug. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the MLG rib 6 aft bearing lugs, which could result in collapse of the MLG upon landing.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the later of the times specified in paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD: Do a detailed inspection for cracking of the left-hand and right-hand wing MLG rib 6 aft bearing lugs (forward and aft), in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3096, Revision 06, dated May 29, 2015 (for Model A330-201, -202, -203, -223, -223F, -243, -243F, -301, -302, -303, -321, -322, -323, -341, -342, and -343 airplanes); A340-57-4104, Revision 04, dated October 17, 2013 (for Model A340-211, -212, -213, -311, -312, -313 airplanes); or A340-57-5009, Revision 03, dated October 17, 2013 (for Model A340-541 and -642 airplanes); as applicable.
(1) Within 24 months or 2,000 flight cycles, whichever occurs first since airplane first flight or since the last MLG support rib replacement, as applicable.
(2) Within 30 days after the effective date of this AD.
Repeat the inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD thereafter at the time specified in paragraphs (h)(1) through (h)(7) of this AD, as applicable.
(1) For Model A330-201, -202, -203, -223, and -243 airplanes: Repeat the inspections at intervals not to exceed 300 flight cycles or 1,500 flight hours, whichever occurs first.
(2) For Model A330-223F and -243F airplanes: Repeat the inspections at intervals not to exceed 300 flight cycles or 900 flight hours, whichever occurs first.
(3) For Model A330-301, -302, -303, -321, -322, -323, -341, -342, and -343 airplanes: Repeat the inspections at intervals not to exceed 300 flight cycles or 900 flight hours, whichever occurs first.
(4) For Model A340-211, -212, and -213 airplanes: Repeat the inspections at intervals not to exceed 200 flight cycles or 800 flight hours, whichever occurs first.
(5) For Model A340-311 and -312 airplanes; and Model A340-313 airplanes (except weight variant (WV) 27): Repeat the inspections at intervals not to exceed 200 flight cycles or 800 flight hours, whichever occurs first.
(6) For Model A340-313 (only WV27) airplanes: Repeat the inspections at intervals
(7) For Model A340-541 and -642 airplanes: Repeat the inspections at intervals not to exceed 100 flight cycles or 500 flight hours, whichever occurs first.
If any crack is found during any inspection required by paragraphs (g) or (h) of this AD: Before further flight, replace the cracked MLG support rib using a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA); or Airbus's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA). Replacement of an MLG support rib does not terminate the repetitive inspections required by paragraph (h) of this AD.
This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraphs (g) and (h) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using the applicable service information identified in paragraphs (j)(1) through (j)(15) of this AD.
(1) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57A3096, dated December 5, 2006, which was incorporated by reference in AD 2007-03-04, Amendment 39-14915 (74 FR 4416, January 31, 2007).
(2) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57A3096, Revision 01, dated April 18, 2007, which is not incorporated by reference by this AD.
(3) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3096, Revision 02, dated August 13, 2007, which was incorporated by reference in AD 2007-22-10, Amendment 39-15246 (72 FR 61796, November 1, 2007; corrected November 16, 2007 (72 FR 64532)).
(4) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3096, Revision 03, dated October 24, 2012, which is not incorporated by reference by this AD.
(5) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3096, Revision 04, dated February 6, 2013, which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(6) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3096, Revision 05, dated October 17, 2013, which was incorporated by reference in AD 2015-03-06, Amendment 39-18102 (80 FR 8511, February 18, 2015).
(7) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57A4104, dated December 5, 2006, which was incorporated by reference in AD 2007-03-04, Amendment 39-14915 (72 FR 4416, January 31, 2007).
(8) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4104, Revision 01, dated August 13, 2007, which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(9) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4104, Revision 02, dated September 5, 2007, which was incorporated by reference in AD 2007-22-10, Amendment 39-15246 (72 FR 61796, November 1, 2007; corrected November 16, 2007 (72 FR 64532)).
(10) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4104, Revision 03, dated October 24, 2012, which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(11) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57A5009, dated December 5, 2006, which was incorporated by reference in AD 2007-03-04, Amendment 39-14915 (72 FR 4416, January 31, 2007).
(12) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-5009, Revision 01, dated August 13, 2007, which was incorporated by reference in AD 2007-22-10, Amendment 39-15246 (72 FR 61796, November 1, 2007; corrected November 16, 2007 (72 FR 64532)).
(13) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-5009, Revision 02, dated October 24, 2012, which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(14) Airbus Alert Operators Transmission A57L005-14, dated July 15, 2014, which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(15) Airbus Alert Operators Transmission A57L005-14, Revision 01, dated August 15, 2014, which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2015-0120, dated June 26, 2015, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAL, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 45 80; email
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Airbus Model A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by investigations that revealed that the cover seal of the brake dual distribution valve (BDDV) was damaged and did not ensure efficient sealing. This proposed AD would require modifying the BDDV having certain part numbers; modifying the drain hose of the BDDV; checking for the presence of water, ice, and hydraulic fluid; and re-identifying the BDDV; and related investigative and corrective actions if necessary. We are proposing this AD to prevent damage to the BDDV, which could lead to water ingestion in the BDDV and freezing of the BDDV in flight, possibly resulting in loss of braking system function after landing.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by January 4, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
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•
•
•
For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Airbus, Airworthiness Office—EIAS, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Sanjay Ralhan, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1405; fax 425-227-1149.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2014-0251R1, dated December 17, 2014 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Airbus Model A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes. The MCAI states:
In 1998, an operator experienced a dual loss of braking systems. Investigation results revealed that the cover seal of the Brake Dual Distribution Valve (BDDV) was damaged and did not ensure the sealing efficiency.
This condition, if not corrected, could lead to water ingestion in the BDDV and freezing of the BDDV in flight, possibly resulting in loss of braking system function after landing.
[The Directorate General for Civil Aviation] (DGAC) France issued AD 2000-258-146 [
Since that French AD was issued, following a new event, Airbus developed a modification of the BDDV drain tube which will leave it open, ensuring continuous drainage of any ingested water, thereby preventing freezing of the brake system.
For the reasons described above, EASA issued [another AD] * * *, to require modification of the BDDV drain tube.
Since that [EASA] AD was issued, comments were received that indicated a need for correction and clarification. Consequently, this [EASA] AD is revised to add a Note to Table 1 and to amend paragraph (3).
The modification includes a check for the presence of water, ice, and hydraulic fluid, and related investigative and corrective actions if necessary. Related investigative actions include an inspection for corrosion. Corrective actions include replacing the BDDV. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
Airbus has issued Service Bulletin A320-32-1415, dated September 2, 2014. The service information describes procedures for modifying the BDDV having certain part numbers; and modifying the drain hose of the BDDV; the modification includes a check for the presence of water, ice, and hydraulic fluid; and re-identifying the BDDV; and related investigative and corrective actions if necessary. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of these same type designs.
The FAA worked in conjunction with industry, under the Airworthiness Directive Implementation Aviation Rulemaking Committee (ARC), to enhance the AD system. One enhancement was a new process for annotating which procedures and tests in the service information are required for compliance with an AD. Differentiating these procedures and tests from other tasks in the service information is expected to improve an owner's/operator's understanding of crucial AD requirements and help provide consistent judgment in AD compliance. The procedures and tests identified as RC (required for compliance) in any service information have a direct effect on detecting, preventing, resolving, or eliminating an identified unsafe condition.
As specified in a NOTE under the Accomplishment Instructions of the specified service information, procedures and tests that are identified as RC in any service information must be done to comply with the proposed AD. However, procedures and tests that are not identified as RC are recommended. Those procedures and
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 953 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We also estimate that it would take about 6 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this proposed AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Required parts would cost about $421 per product. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this proposed AD on U.S. operators to be $887,243, or $931 per product.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by January 4, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to the airplanes identified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(3) of this AD, certificated in any category, all manufacturer serial numbers, except those on which Airbus Modification 26925 has been embodied in production.
(1) Airbus Model A319-111, -112, -113, -114, -115, -131, -132, and -133 airplanes.
(2) Airbus Model A320-211, -212, -214, -231, -232, and -233 airplanes.
(3) Airbus Model A321-111, -112, -131, -211, -212, -213, -231, and -232 airplanes.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 32, Landing Gear.
This AD was prompted by investigations that revealed that the cover seal of the BDDV was damaged and did not ensure efficient sealing. We are issuing this AD to prevent damage to the BDDV, which could lead to water ingestion in the BDDV and freezing of the BDDV in flight, possibly resulting in loss of braking system function after landing.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 24 months after the effective date of this AD, modify the BDDV having a part number listed in the column “Old Part Number” in table 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD; modify the drain hose of the affected BDDV; check for the presence of water, ice, and hydraulic fluid; and re-identify the BDDV to the corresponding part number, as applicable, as listed as “New Part Number” in table 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD; and do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions; in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A320-32-1415, dated September 2, 2014. Do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions before further flight.
The part number listed in table 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD can have an “A” or “B” suffix, which is an indication of the amendment level of the BDDV. This does not affect compliance with this AD.
As of the applicable time specified in paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this AD, no person may install a BDDV having a part number listed as “Old Part Number” in table 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD, on any airplane.
(1) For any airplane that, on the effective date of this AD, has a BDDV installed with a part number listed as “Old Part Number” in table 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD: After modification of the airplane, as required by paragraph (g) of this AD.
(2) For any airplane that, on the effective date of this AD, has a BDDV installed with a part number listed as “New Part Number” in table 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD, or has a BDDV installed with a part number not listed in table 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD: As of the effective date of this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2014-0251R1, dated December 17, 2014, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus, Airworthiness Office—EIAS, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM); extension of comment period.
This action extends the comment period for an NPRM published on October 2, 2015. In that document, the FAA proposes to amend the regulations governing the curriculum and operations of FAA-certificated Aviation Maintenance Technician Schools. These amendments would modernize and reorganize the required curriculum subjects in the appendices of the current regulations. They would also remove the course content items currently located in the appendices and require that they be placed in each school's operations specifications so they could more easily be amended when necessary. The amendments are needed because the existing curriculums are outdated, do not meet current industry needs, and can be changed only through notice and comment rulemaking. These amendments would ensure that aviation maintenance technician students receive up-to-date foundational training to meet the demanding and consistently changing needs of the aviation industry. This extension is a result of a joint request from Aviation Technical Education Council (ATEC), Aeronautical Repair Station Association (ARSA), Aircraft Owners and Pilots Association (AOPA), Airlines for America (A4A), Aviation Suppliers Association (ASA), Helicopter Association International (HAI), Modification And Replacement Parts Association (MARPA), National Air Carrier Association (NACA), National Air Transport Association (NATA), Regional Airline Association, STEM Education Coalition (STEM), and University Aviation Association (UAA) (collectively, the “Petitioners”).
The comment period for the notice of proposed rulemaking published on October 2, 2015 (80 FR 59674), is extended. Send comments on or before February 1, 2016.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2015-3901 using any of the following methods:
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For technical questions concerning this action, contact Robert Warren, Aircraft Maintenance Division, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591; telephone (202) 267-1711; email
The FAA continues to invite interested persons to take part in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views about the NPRM we issued on October 2, 2015 (part 147, Aviation Maintenance Technician Schools (80 FR 59674)(October 2, 2015). The most
On October 2, 2015, the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) issued Notice No. 15-10, Aviation Maintenance Technician Schools (80 FR 59674) (October 2, 2015) (“NPRM”). The comment period for the NPRM ends on December 31, 2015.
By letter dated October 26, 2015, the Petitioners jointly asked the FAA to extend the NPRM's comment period by 90 days. The Petitioners believe that, with the additional time requested, the aviation industry and its partners in technical education will help the FAA develop a rule that supports schools, aids students at the beginning of a rewarding career, and serves an important growing industry.
The FAA recognizes the NPRM's contents are significant and complex and that a ninety-day comment period may not be sufficient. However, the FAA believes that a 90 day extension, for a total of 180 days, is excessive. We have determined that an additional 30 days will be enough for potential commenters to collect the cost and operational data necessary to provide meaningful comments to the NPRM (for a total of 120 days from October 2, 2015). Absent unusual circumstances, the FAA does not anticipate any further extension of the comment period for this rulemaking.
In accordance with 14 CFR 11.47(c), the FAA has reviewed the petition submitted by the Petitioners for an extension of the comment period to the NPRM. The FAA finds that the petitioners have a substantive interest in the proposed rule, and that an extension of the comment period for Notice No. 15-10 is consistent with the public interest, and that good cause exists for granting this extension.
Accordingly, the comment period for Notice No. 15-10 is extended until February 1, 2016.
U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission.
Notice of proposed rulemaking; reopening of comment period.
The Consumer Product Safety Commission (“Commission” or “CPSC”) published a direct final rule (“DFR”) and notice of proposed rulemaking (“NPR”) in the same issue of the
The comment period for the notice of proposed rulemaking published on October 14, 2015 (80 FR 61773), is reopened. Submit comments by December 14, 2015.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CPSC-2011-0081, by any of the following methods:
Mail/Hand delivery/Courier, preferably in five copies, to: Office of the Secretary, Consumer Product Safety Commission, Room 820, 4330 East West Highway, Bethesda, MD 20814; telephone (301) 504-7923.
Kristina Hatlelid, Ph.D., M.P.H., Directorate for Health Sciences, U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission, 5 Research Place, Rockville, MD 20850; (301) 987-2558; email;
On October 14, 2015, the Commission published a DFR and an NPR in the
The Commission has considered the request and is reopening the comment period for an additional 30 days. Because the 30-day extension date falls on a Sunday, the comment period will close on December 14, 2015. The Commission believes that this extension allows adequate time for interested persons to submit comments on the proposed rule, without significantly delaying the rulemaking.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by the District of Columbia Department of Energy and Environment (DOEE). This revision caps emissions of nitrogen oxides (NO
Written comments must be received on or before December 21, 2015.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID Number EPA-R03-OAR-2015-0666 by one of the following methods:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Marilyn Powers, (215) 814-2308, or by email at
On June 19, 2015, DOEE submitted, as a revision to its SIP, a regulation to limit NO
On October 27, 1998 (63 FR 57356), EPA issued a finding that required 22 states and the District of Columbia to submit SIPs to address the regional transport of ground level ozone that was significantly contributing to nonattainment or interfering with maintenance for the 1-hour and 8-hour ozone NAAQS in downwind areas, known as the NO
On May 12, 2005 (70 FR 25162), EPA promulgated the Clean Air Interstate Rule (CAIR), which required 28 states and the District of Columbia to reduce NO
On April 28, 2006 (71 FR 25328), EPA promulgated Federal implementation plans (FIPs) for all States covered by CAIR in order to ensure that the emission reductions required by CAIR were achieved on schedule. The CAIR FIPs, which applied only to EGUs, required participation in the CAIR trading programs. The CAIR FIP trading programs imposed essentially the same requirements as, and were integrated with, the respective CAIR SIP trading programs. Thus a state subject to the CAIR FIP would be meeting its NO
Subsequently, EPA discontinued the NBTP in 2008. The District of Columbia, however, did not submit a CAIR SIP. Therefore it became subject to the CAIR FIP in January 2009, and its NO
On June 19, 2015, DOEE submitted a SIP revision that addresses NO
Under section 110(l) of the CAA, EPA may not approve a revision of a plan if the revision would interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment and reasonable further progress or any other applicable requirement under section 110 of the CAA. EPA finds the proposed removal of the regulations for the discontinued OTC and NO
EPA's review of this material indicates that the submittal is adequate to address the emission reduction requirements of the non-EGUs under the NO
In this proposed rulemaking action, EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule, regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with the requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference revised District of Columbia regulation Title 20 DCMR, Environment, Chapter 10—Air Quality—Non-EGU Limits on Nitrogen Oxides Emissions, and the revised definition of “Fossil fuel-fired” in Chapter 1, General Rules. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this proposed action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this action proposing approval of the District of Columbia regulation to limit NO
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
42 U.S.C. 7401
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Advance notice of proposed rulemaking (ANPR); control date.
At the request of the North Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council), this document announces a control date of October 13, 2015, that may be used as a reference date for a future management action to limit future access to the offshore sector of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands (BSAI) trawl limited access fishery for yellowfin sole. This date corresponds to the date the Council announced its intent to evaluate participation and effort in response to a public request to consider further limits on access to the offshore sector of the BSAI trawl limited access fishery for yellowfin sole. This document is intended to promote awareness of possible rulemaking and provide notice to the public that any participation in the offshore sector of the BSAI trawl limited access fishery for yellowfin sole after the control date may not ensure continued access to that fishery under a future management action. This document is also intended to discourage speculative entry into the fishery while the Council considers whether and how access to the fishery may be further limited under a future management action.
October 13, 2015, shall be known as the control date for the offshore sector of the BSAI trawl limited access fishery for yellowfin sole and may be used as a reference for participation in a future management action that is consistent with the Council's objectives and applicable Federal laws.
Rachel Baker: 907-586-7228 or
NMFS manages the groundfish fisheries in the U.S. exclusive economic zone (EEZ) of the BSAI under the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (FMP). The Council prepared, and NMFS approved, the FMP under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act), 16 U.S.C. 1801
This advance notice of proposed rulemaking would apply to owners and operators of vessels that participate in the Federal fishery for yellowfin sole with trawl gear in the offshore sector of the BSAI. The BSAI is defined at § 679.2 and shown in Figure 1 to 50 CFR part 679.
Vessels that participate in the offshore sector of the BSAI trawl limited access fishery for yellowfin sole include catcher vessels, catcher/processors, and motherships. Catcher vessels participate in the offshore sector by delivering yellowfin sole to catcher/processors or motherships for processing. Catcher/processors participate in the offshore sector by catching and processing yellowfin sole or by receiving and processing deliveries of yellowfin sole from catcher vessels. Motherships participate in the offshore sector by receiving and processing deliveries of yellowfin sole from catcher vessels. This advance notice of proposed rulemaking would not apply to owners and operators of trawl catcher vessels that participate in the inshore sector of the BSAI trawl limited access fishery for yellowfin sole,
The Council and NMFS annually establish biological thresholds and annual total allowable catch limits for groundfish species, such as yellowfin sole, to sustainably manage the groundfish fisheries in the BSAI. To achieve these objectives, NMFS requires vessel operators participating in BSAI groundfish fisheries to comply with various regulatory restrictions, such as fishery closures, to maintain catch within specified total allowable catch limits. The BSAI groundfish fishery restrictions also include prohibited species catch (PSC) limits for Pacific halibut that generally require halibut to be discarded when harvested. When harvest of halibut PSC reaches the specified halibut PSC limit for that fishery, NMFS closes directed fishing for the target groundfish species, even if the total allowable catch limit for that species has not been harvested. The Council and NMFS have long sought to control fishing effort in the North Pacific Ocean to ensure that fisheries are conservatively managed and do not exceed established biological
On October 13, 2015, the Council received public testimony from participants in the offshore sector of the BSAI trawl limited access fishery for yellowfin sole. These participants indicated that several new vessels entered the fishery during 2015. The testimony indicated that this new entry may negatively impact the ability of historical participants to maintain yellowfin sole harvests and may increase halibut PSC in the fishery.
After considering this public testimony, the Council stated its intent to evaluate participation and effort in the BSAI trawl limited access fishery for yellowfin sole in response to a potential need to limit entry in the offshore sector of that fishery. To dampen the effect of speculative entry into the offshore sector of the BSAI trawl limited access fishery for yellowfin sole in anticipation of potential future action to further limit access to the fishery, the Council announced a control date of October 13, 2015. The control date may be used as a reference date for a future management action to further limit access to the offshore trawl limited access fishery for yellowfin sole in the BSAI. The Council clarified that the control date would not obligate the Council to use this control date in any future management action. Further, the control date would not obligate the Council to take any action or prevent the Council from selecting another control date. Accordingly, this document is intended to promote awareness that the Council may develop a future management action to achieve its objectives for the offshore sector of the BSAI trawl limited access fishery for yellowfin sole; to provide notice to the public that any current or future access to the offshore sector of the BSAI trawl limited access fishery for yellowfin sole may be affected or restricted; and to discourage speculative participation and behavior in the fishery while the Council considers whether to initiate a management action to further limit access to the fishery. Any measures the Council considers may require changes to the FMP. Such measures may be adopted in a future amendment to the FMP, which would include opportunity for further public participation and comment.
NMFS encourages public participation in the Council's consideration of a management action to further limit access to the offshore sector of the BSAI trawl limited access fishery for yellowfin sole. Please consult the Council's Web site at
This notification and control date do not impose any legal obligations, requirements, or expectations.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Agricultural Research Service, USDA.
Notice of public meeting.
Pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. 2, the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) announces a meeting of the Advisory Committee on Biotechnology and 21st Century Agriculture (AC21). The committee is being convened to update committee members on USDA activities to support coexistence among different agricultural production systems, consistent with AC21 recommendations contained in the committee's previous report; and to discuss a new task related to coexistence for committee deliberations and develop a plan for addressing it.
The meeting will be held on Monday-Tuesday, December 14-15, 2015, 8:30 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. each day. This meeting is open to the public. On December 14, 2015, if time permits, reasonable provision will be made for oral presentations of no more than five minutes each in duration, starting at 3:30 p.m. Members of the public who wish to make oral statements should also inform Dr. Michael Schechtman in writing or via email at the indicated addresses below at least three business days before the meeting.
U.S. Access Board Conference Room, 1331 F Street NW., Suite 800, Washington, DC 20004-1111.
General information about the committee can also be found at:
The AC21 has been established to provide information and advice to the Secretary of Agriculture on the broad array of issues related to the expanding dimensions and importance of agricultural biotechnology. The committee is charged with examining the long-term impacts of biotechnology on the U.S. food and agriculture system and USDA, and providing guidance to USDA on pressing individual issues, identified by the Office of the Secretary, related to the application of biotechnology in agriculture. In recent years, the work of the AC21 has centered on the issue of coexistence among different types of agricultural production systems. The AC21 consists of members representing the biotechnology industry, the organic food industry, farming communities, the seed industry, food manufacturers, state government, consumer and community development groups, as well as academic researchers and a medical doctor. In addition, representatives from the Department of Commerce, the Department of Health and Human Services, the Department of State, the Environmental Protection Agency, the Council on Environmental Quality, and the Office of the United States Trade Representative may serve as “ex officio” members. The objectives for the meeting are:
• To review the AC21 purpose, history, and operational process, and member responsibilities;
• To update committee members on regulatory developments and initiatives on biotechnology-derived agricultural products;
• To update committee members on USDA activities to support coexistence consistent with AC21 recommendations contained in the committee's previous report; and
• To outline the new task for committee deliberations and develop a plan for addressing it.
Deschutes National Forest, Crescent Ranger District, Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of new fee site—Crescent Lake Guard Station.
The Deschutes National Forest is proposing to charge $120 fee for the overnight rental of Crescent Lake Guard Station. This cabin has not been available for recreation use prior to this date. Rentals of other guard stations and lookouts on the Deschutes National Forest have shown that people appreciate and enjoy the availability of historic rental cabins. Funds from the rental will be used for the continued operation and maintenance of Crescent Lake Guard Station. This fee is only proposed and will be determined upon further analysis and public comment. Crescent Lake Guard Station was built in the early 1930's as a one bedroom one bath cabin on the eastern shore of Crescent Lake in Klamath County, Oregon. It has been refurbished utilizing grant dollars and boasts a full kitchen, running water and gas heat. The guard station will comfortably sleep 1-4 people and has beautiful views of the Cascades.
Send any comments about this fee proposal by December 30, 2015 so comments can be compiled, analyzed and shared with a Recreation Resource Advisory Committee. Crescent Lake Guard Station is intended to become available for recreation rental July 2016.
John Allen, Forest Supervisor, Deschutes National Forest, 63095 Deschutes Market Road, Bend, OR 97701.
Robert Gentry, Recreation and Lands Team Leader, Crescent Ranger District,
The Federal Recreation Lands Enhancement Act (Title VII, Pub. L. 108-447) directed the Secretary of Agriculture to publish a six month advance notice in the
The Deschutes National Forest currently has two other recreation rental opportunities. These rentals are often fully booked throughout their rental season. A market analysis indicates that the $120/per night fee is both reasonable and acceptable for this sort of unique recreation experience.
Once approved this rental opportunity will be available through the National Recreation Reservation Service, at
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act that the Oklahoma Advisory Committee (Committee) will hold a meeting on Thursday, December 3, 2015, from 10:00-11:00 a.m. CST for the purpose of discussing and findings and recommendations related to its inquiry regarding the civil rights impact of the “school to prison pipeline” in Oklahoma.
Members of the public may listen to the discussion. This meeting is available to the public through the following toll-free call-in number: 888-329-8862, conference ID: 6368974. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. The conference call operator will ask callers to identify themselves, the organization they are affiliated with (if any), and an email address prior to placing callers into the conference room. Callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines according to their wireless plan, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-977-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Member of the public are also invited and welcomed to make statements at the end of the conference call. In addition, members of the public may submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Regional Programs Unit, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 55 W. Monroe St., Suite 410, Chicago, IL 60615. They may also be faxed to the Commission at (312) 353-8324, or emailed to Administrative Assistant, Corrine Sanders at
Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing prior to and after the meeting at:
The meeting will be held on Thursday, December 03, 2015, from 10:00-11:00 a.m. CST.
Melissa Wojnaroski, DFO, at 312-353-8311 or
On August 28, 2015, the Executive Secretary of the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board docketed an application submitted by the City of Memphis, grantee of FTZ 77, requesting to expand Subzone 77E subject to the existing activation limit of FTZ 77, on behalf of Cummins, Inc. in Memphis, Tennessee.
The application was processed in accordance with the FTZ Act and Regulations, including notice in the
An application has been submitted to the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board by the Metropolitan Government of Nashville and Davidson County, grantee of FTZ 78, requesting to expand Subzone 78A—Site 1 at the facility of Nissan North America, Inc., located in Smyrna, Tennessee. The application was submitted pursuant to the provisions of the Foreign-Trade Zones Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), and the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR part 400). It was formally docketed on November 12, 2015.
Subzone 78A was approved on April 2, 1982 (Board Order 190, 47 FR 16191, April 15, 1982) and expanded on March 18, 1993 (Board Order 632, 58 FR 18850, March 30, 1993). The subzone currently consists of two sites: Site 1 (1,004 acres) located at 983 Nissan Drive, Smyrna; and, Site 2 (958 acres) located at 520 Nissan Powertrain Drive, Decherd.
The applicant is requesting authority to expand Site 1 of the subzone to include 22 additional acres adjacent to the present Site 1. No authorization for additional production activity has been requested at this time.
In accordance with the FTZ Board's regulations, Kathleen Boyce of the FTZ Staff is designated examiner to review the application and make recommendations to the Executive Secretary.
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is December 29, 2015. Rebuttal comments in response to material submitted during the foregoing period may be submitted during the subsequent 15-day period to January 13, 2016.
A copy of the application will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the FTZ Board's Web site, which is accessible via
For further information, contact Kathleen Boyce at
The Port of Portland, grantee of FTZ 45, submitted a notification of proposed production activity to the FTZ Board on behalf of Lam Research Corporation (Lam), operator of Subzone 45H, at sites in Tualatin and Sherwood, Oregon. The notification conforming to the requirements of the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR 400.22) was received on November 6, 2015.
The facilities are used for the production of semiconductor production equipment, subassemblies and related parts. Pursuant to 15 CFR 400.14(b), FTZ activity would be limited to the specific foreign-status materials and components and specific finished products described in the submitted notification (as described below) and subsequently authorized by the FTZ Board.
Production under FTZ procedures could exempt Lam from customs duty payments on the foreign-status components used in export production. On its domestic sales, Lam would be able to choose the duty rate during customs entry procedures that applies to semiconductor production equipment, subassemblies and related parts (duty free) for the foreign-status inputs noted below. Customs duties also could possibly be deferred or reduced on foreign-status production equipment.
The components and materials sourced from abroad include: Clean room grease and lubricants; caulking compounds; petroleum-based greases and similar lubricants; polymer-based adhesives; wafers and partial-wafers principally of silicon or germanium intended for testing purposes and not for commercial production of semi-conductors; PH buffer solutions and litmus paper; fluorinated and other polyether-based lubricants; polyethylene tubes, pipes and hoses; polypropylene tubing; PVC tubing; plastic tubing; flexible tubes, pipes and hoses of plastics; flexible plastic tubing with/without fittings; plastic tube fittings; foam tapes; scotch tapes, packing tapes, and similar tapes; electrical tapes; reflective tapes; plastic labels; plastic signs and similar plates of
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is December 29, 2015.
A copy of the notification will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the FTZ Board's Web site, which is accessible via
For further information, contact Diane Finver at
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of a public meeting.
The Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council (Council) will hold a four-day meeting.
The meeting will be held on Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday, December 7-10, 2015, starting at 9:30 a.m. on Monday, 8:30 a.m. on Tuesday, 9 a.m. on Wednesday, and 8 a.m. on Thursday.
On Monday, December 7, the meeting will be held at O'Callaghan Hotel, 174 West Street, Annapolis, MD 21401; telephone: (410) 263-7700 and on Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday, December 8-10 at the Westin Annapolis, 100 Westgate Circle, Annapolis, MD 21401; telephone: (410) 972-4300.
Christopher M. Moore, Ph.D., Executive Director, Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council; telephone: (302) 526-5255.
In the morning session the Executive Committee will meet in closed session to review nominees for the Ricks E Savage Award and other awards. The Council will review and approve the Comprehensive 5-year Research Priority Plan. The Council will also review and approve policies regarding non-fishing activities that impact fish habitat.
During the afternoon session, Golden Tilefish Framework 2 will be discussed. The Council will review the public hearing document for Blueline Tilefish. The Council will review the findings from the Scientific and Statistical Committee and adjust specification recommendations for Spiny Dogfish Committee Meeting as a committee of the whole.
The Council will receive a report on the Pacific Fishery Management Council's experience with management of forage-species. The Council will then review and approve the list of species for inclusion in the public hearing document and approve management alternatives for National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) analysis and public hearing document for unmanaged forage fish. The Council will discuss and adopt alternatives related the Scup GRA (Gear Restricted Areas) Framework.
During the afternoon session, the Fisheries Forum will hold a Summer Flounder Goals and Objectives Workshop to review feedback, discuss priorities for the revised FMP (fishery management plan) goals and objectives, and identity draft goals and objectives for the Summer Flounder Amendment.
The Demersal Committee Meeting will meet as a Committee of the Whole with the Atlantic States Marine Fisheries Commission's (ASMFC) Summer Flounder, Scup, and Black Sea Bass Board. They will discuss the Monitoring and Technical Committees recommendations on 2016 Summer Flounder, Scup, and Black Sea Bass commercial management measures and recommend any changes to the commercial management measures. There will be a Board Action regarding an ASMFC Addendum for summer flounder. The Council will review recommendations from the Monitoring Committee and Advisory Panel then adopt recommendations for the 2016 Summer Flounder recreational management measures. The Council will discuss the timeline and give an update on the progress for the Summer Flounder Amendment. There will be a Board Action regarding an ASMFC Addendum for black sea bass. The Council will review recommendations from the Monitoring Committee and Advisory Panel then adopt recommendations for the 2016 Black Sea Bass and Scup recreational management measures.
The Council will receive a presentation regarding the Greater Atlantic Regional Fisheries Office (GARFO) Recreational Implementation Plan and receive a report from the Northeast Fisheries Science Center (NEFSC) regarding the NEFSC Strategic Plan. The Council will review and approve their 2016 Implementation Plan. The day will conclude with brief reports from the National Marine Fisheries Service's GARFO and the Northeast Fisheries Science Center, NOAA's Office of General Counsel and Office of Law Enforcement, the U.S. Coast Guard, the ASMFC, the New England and South Atlantic Fishery Council's liaisons and the Regional Planning Body Report. The Council will also receive the Council's Executive Director's Report, the Science Report, and Committee Reports for the Executive Committee, Collaborative Research Committee, and the River Herring/Shad Committee, and discuss any continuing and/or new business.
Although other non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this Council for discussion, those issues may not be the subjects of formal action during this meeting. Council action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens act, provided that the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to M. Jan Saunders, (302) 526-5251, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
Office of National Marine Sanctuaries (ONMS), National Ocean Service (NOS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA).
Notice.
In accordance with a requirement of Public Law 106-513 (16 U.S.C. 1441(b)), NOAA hereby gives public notice of the methods, formulas and rationale for the calculations it will use in order to assess fees associated with special use permits (SUPs).
This notice is effective November 19, 2015.
Matt Nichols, Office of National Marine Sanctuaries, 1305 East West Highway (N/NMS2), Silver Spring, MD 20910, telephone (301) 713-7262, email
This
Congress first granted NOAA the authority to issue SUPs for conducting specific activities in national marine sanctuaries in the 1988 Amendments to the National Marine Sanctuaries Act (“NMSA”) (16 U.S.C. 1431
(d) Fees—
(1) Assessment and Collection—The Secretary may assess and collect fees for the conduct of any activity under a permit issued under this section.
(2) Amount—The amount of the fee under this subsection shall be the equal to the sum of—
(A) Costs incurred, or expected to be incurred, by the Secretary in issuing the permit;
(B) Costs incurred, or expected to be incurred, by the Secretary as a direct result of the conduct of the activity for which the permit is issued, including costs of monitoring the conduct of the activity; and
(C) An amount which represents the fair market value of the use of the sanctuary resource.
(3) Use of Fees—Amounts collected by the Secretary in the form of fees under this section may be used by the Secretary—
(A) For issuing and administering permits under this section; and
(B) For expenses of managing national marine sanctuaries.
(4) Waiver or Reduction of Fees—The Secretary may accept in-kind contributions in lieu of a fee under paragraph (2)(C), or waive or reduce any fee assessed under this subsection for any activity that does not derive profit from the access to or use of sanctuary resources.
With this notice, NOAA establishes standard procedures for assessing fee components associated with the application for and issuance of an SUP. SUPs are generally a small portion of the total number of permits issued by ONMS. However, with the addition of new SUP categories in 2013 and the current and potential expansion of the National Marine Sanctuary System, ONMS may see a rise in the number of applications submitted annually as well as an increase in the complexity of the proposed projects.
When an SUP is applied for by an interested party, and ultimately issued by ONMS, the total fee assessed to the applicant will be the sum of the three categories of fees provided for in section 310(d)(2) of the NMSA: Administrative costs, implementation and monitoring costs, and fair market value.
NOAA will assess a non-refundable $50 application fee for each SUP application submitted. Administrative costs spent reviewing the permit for sufficiency and suitability will be calculated by multiplying a regional labor rate, derived from the pay rates of ONMS permitting staff and averaged across ONMS regions, by the time spent by staff reviewing each permit application. NOAA will update the rate every year to account for staff changes as well as inflation. Such administrative costs could also include, but are not necessarily limited to, any environmental analyses and consultations associated with evaluating the permit application and issuing the permit; and equipment used in permit review and issuance (
NOAA may also charge a fee for costs associated with the implementation and monitoring of a permitted activity. Such costs will include staff time (calculated similarly to the labor rate described above), equipment use (including vessels or aircraft to oversee permit implementation), the expenses of monitoring the impacts of a permitted activity, and compliance with the terms and conditions of the permit.
To date, ONMS has assessed fair market value (FMV) fees assessed for an SUP on a case-by-case basis. The SUP category for continued operation and maintenance of submarine cables is the only category that has an established protocol for determining FMV (Aug. 28, 2002; 67 FR 55201). Conducting in-depth economic valuation studies for each SUP application are normally overly burdensome for NOAA and the permit applicant relative to the scope and effects of proposed SUP projects. In establishing standard FMV fees for all SUP categories, NOAA has examined the fees assessed for past SUPs as well as comparable fees assessed by other federal, state, and local agencies for similar activities. NOAA now adopts the following standard FMV fee structure for the following seven SUP categories:
1. The placement and recovery of objects associated with public or private events on non-living substrate of the submerged lands of any national marine sanctuary. The FMV for this activity is $200 per event, based on fee values historically applied at national marine sanctuaries for this activity.
2. The placement and recovery of objects related to commercial filming. With this notice, NOAA adopts the fee structure below from the National Park Service (NPS), which shares a similar mandate with ONMS to protect natural spaces of national importance. ONMS has determined NPS's broad evaluation methods to be sound and within the intent of ONMS SUPs for commercial filming.
The number of people refers to the cast and/or crew on location within the sanctuary for the commercial filming event, including pre- and post-production.
3. The continued presence of commercial submarine cables on or within the submerged lands of any national marine sanctuary. NOAA assesses FMV for submarine cables in national marine sanctuaries based on the findings of its 2002 study entitled “Fair Market Value Analysis for a Fiber Optic Cable Permit in National Marine Sanctuaries”(67 FR 55201). For most SUPs, FMV for cables is assessed annually and adjusted according to the consumer price index. NOAA will continue using this methodology for assessing FMV fees for the continued presence of commercial submarine cables.
4. The disposal of cremated human remains (“cremains”) within or into any national marine sanctuary. NOAA will waive all fees, including the FMV fee, for private individuals disposing of cremains. NOAA will assess a $50 per disposal FMV fee for commercial operators. This value is based on similar practices of state governments, such as the State of Washington, which assesses a $70 flat fee for a Cremated Human Remains Disposition Permit for disposal of cremains by airplane, boat, or other disposal methods for businesses.
5. Recreational diving near the USS
6. Fireworks displays. The FMV for fireworks will be a tiered structure based on the number of fireworks events conducted per calendar year. The fee schedule will be as follows: 1 event per calendar year—$100; 2-5 events per calendar year—$300; 6-10 events per calendar year—$500; 11-20 events per calendar year—$700.
7. The operation of aircraft below the minimum altitude in restricted zones of national marine sanctuaries. The FMV
NOAA may accept in-kind contributions in lieu of a fee, or waive or reduce any fee assessed for any activity that does not derive profit from the access to or use of sanctuary resources. NOAA may consider the benefits of the activity to support the goals and objectives of the sanctuary as an in-kind contribution in lieu of a fee.
NOAA has concluded that this action will not have a significant effect, individually or cumulatively, on the human environment. This action is categorically excluded from the requirement to prepare an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement in accordance with Section 6.03c3(i) of NOAA Administrative Order 216-6. Specifically, this action is a notice of an administrative and legal nature. Furthermore, individual permit actions by NOAA will be subject to additional case-by-case analysis, as required under NEPA, which will be completed as new permit applications are submitted for specific projects and activities.
NOAA also expects that many of these individual actions will also meet the criteria of one or more of the categorical exclusions described in NOAA Administrative Order 216-6 because SUPs cannot be issued for activities that are expected to result in any destruction of, injury to, or loss of any sanctuary resource. However, the SUP authority may at times be used to allow activities that may meet the Council on Environmental Quality's definition of the term “significant” despite the lack of apparent environmental impacts. In addition, NOAA may, in certain circumstances, combine its SUP authority with other regulatory authorities to allow activities not described above that may result in environmental impacts and thus require the preparation of an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement. In these situations NOAA will ensure that the appropriate NEPA documentation is prepared prior to taking final action on a permit or making any irretrievable or irreversible commitment of agency resources.
Notwithstanding any other provisions of the law, no person is required to respond to, nor shall any person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meetings.
The North Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) and its advisory committees will meet December 7, 2015 through December 15, 2015.
The Council will begin its plenary session at 8 a.m. in the Denali Room on Wednesday, December 9, continuing through Tuesday, December 15, 2015.
The meeting will be held at the Anchorage Hilton Hotel, 500 W. 3rd Ave., Anchorage, AK 99501.
David Witherell, Council staff; telephone: (907) 271-2809.
The Scientific and Statistical Committee (SSC) will begin at 8 a.m. in the King Salmon/Iliamna Room on Monday December 7 and continue through Wednesday December 9, 2015. The Council's Advisory Panel (AP) will begin at 8 a.m. in the Dillingham/Katmai Room on Tuesday December 8, and continue through Saturday, December 12, 2015. The Recreational Quota Entity Committee (RQE) will meet on Monday, December 7, 2015, from 1 p.m. to 4 p.m. (room to be determined). The Enforcement Committee will meet on Tuesday, December 8, 2015, from 1 p.m. to 4 p.m. (room to be determined). The Charter Implementation Committee will meet on Tuesday, December 8, 2015, from 1 p.m. to 4 p.m. (room to be determined). The Individual Fishing Quota Committee will meet on Tuesday, December 8, 2015, from 4 p.m. to 7:30 p.m. (room to be determined).
Council Plenary Session: The agenda for the Council's plenary session will include the following issues. The Council may take appropriate action on any of the issues identified.
The Advisory Panel will address most of the same agenda issues as the Council except B reports.
The SSC agenda will include the following issues:
In addition to providing ongoing scientific advice for fishery management decisions, the SSC functions as the Councils primary peer review panel for scientific information as described by the Magnuson-Stevens Act section 302(g)(1)(e), and the National Standard 2 guidelines (78 FR 43066). The peer review process is also deemed to satisfy the requirements of the Information Quality Act, including the OMB Peer Review Bulletin guidelines.
The Agenda is subject to change, and the latest version will be posted at
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before these groups for discussion, in accordance with the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act), those issues may not be the subject of formal action during these meetings. Actions will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency.
These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Shannon Gleason at (907) 271-2809 at least 7 working days prior to the meeting date.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meeting, additional agenda item.
The New England Fishery Management Council (Council, NEFMC) will hold a three-day meeting to consider actions affecting New England fisheries in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ).
The meeting will be held on Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday, December 1-3, 2015, starting at 9 a.m. on December 1, at 8:30 a.m. on December 2, and at 8:15 a.m. December 3.
The meeting will be held at the Holiday Inn by the Bay, 88 Spring Street, Portland, ME 04101; telephone: (207) 775.2311, fax: (207) 761.8224, or online at
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; (978) 465-0492, ext. 113.
The original notice published in the
On Thursday, December 3, the final day of New England Fishery Management Council's last meeting in 2015, the NEFMC will hold a brief closed session at 8:15 a.m. At that time, Council members will review the roster of applicants for open seats on its Scientific and Statistical Committee and appoint members for 2016-18.
Although other non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this Council for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Council action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided that the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Thomas A. Nies (see
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Meeting of the South Atlantic Fishery Management Council (SAFMC).
The South Atlantic Fishery Management Council (Council) will hold meetings of the: Personnel Committee (Closed Session); Southeast Data, Assessment and Review (SEDAR) Committee; Habitat Protection and Ecosystem-Based Management Committee; Snapper Grouper Committee; Scientific and Statistical Committee (SSC) Selection Committee (Closed Session); Information and
The Council meeting will be held from 8 a.m. on Monday, December 7, 2015 until 3:30 p.m. on Friday, December 11, 2015.
Kim Iverson, Public Information Officer, SAFMC; phone: (843) 571-4366 or toll free: (866) SAFMC-10; fax: (843) 769-4520; email:
The items of discussion in the individual meeting agendas are as follows:
Council members will receive a recap of the October 2015 Council Visioning Workshop, review and approve the Vision Blueprint for the snapper grouper fishery, review the Evaluation Plan for the Vision Blueprint, and review/develop approaches for applying the blueprint.
The Committee will conduct interviews and provide recommendations for hiring a new Executive Director for the Council. Note: all Council members will participate in this Committee meeting.
1. The Committee will receive an update on the status of commercial and recreational catches versus quota for species under Annual Catch Limits (ACLs) and an update of actions currently under formal review by NOAA Fisheries.
2. The Committee will receive a report from the Council's Scientific and Statistical Committee (SSC) and the Snapper Grouper Advisory Panel.
3. The Committee will receive an overview of Snapper Grouper Regulatory Amendment 16 addressing modifications of the current seasonal closure of the commercial black sea bass pot fishery, modify the document as appropriate and provide recommendations for approving the amendment for Secretarial Review.
4. The Committee will review Snapper Grouper Amendment 37 addressing measures for hogfish, discuss and modify the document as appropriate, select preferred management alternatives, and recommend approval for public hearing.
5. The Committee will receive a report on a study on blueline tilefish stock identification, discuss management options and provide direction to staff.
6. The Committee will review Snapper Grouper Regulatory Amendment 25 addressing management measures for blueline tilefish, yellowtail snapper, and black sea bass, consider public hearing input, modify the document as appropriate, select preferred alternatives, and provide recommendations for approval for Secretarial Review.
7. The Committee will review Snapper Grouper Amendment 41 addressing management measures for mutton snapper, modify the document as appropriate and provide recommendations for approval of the draft amendment for public scoping.
8. The Committee will review Snapper Grouper Amendment 36 to establish Spawning Special Management Zones (SMZs), modify the document as necessary, select remaining preferred alternatives and approve all actions.
9. The Committee will receive an overview of the System Management Plan for Deepwater Marine Protected Areas established in Snapper Grouper Amendment 14, modify the document as necessary and provide recommendations for approval.
10. The Committee will receive an overview of management for red snapper, discuss management approaches and timing for addressing red snapper and provide direction to staff. The Committee will also discuss approaches to monitor recreational harvest of deepwater species and provide direction to staff.
The Committee will review applications and provide recommendations for appointment, and consider designating Social and Economic Scientist specific seats on the SSC.
The Committee will receive a report from the Information and Education Advisory Panel and provide recommendations as appropriate.
1. The Committee will receive updates on the status of recreational and commercial catches versus ACLs.
2. The Committee will receive an overview of the decision document for Amendment 26 to the Coastal Migratory Pelagics Fishery Management Plan, modify the document as appropriate, select preferred alternatives and provide
1. The Committee will receive an update on the Commercial Logbook Pilot Study and the Implementation Plan for Commercial Logbook Reporting, discuss and take action as appropriate.
2. The Committee will receive an overview of the South Atlantic For-Hire Reporting Amendment Decision Document, modify as appropriate, select preferred alternatives and provide recommendations for approval for public hearings. The Committee will also receive an update on the agenda for the upcoming Citizen Science Workshop, discuss, and take action as appropriate.
1. The Committee will receive updates on the status of recreational and commercial catches versus ACLs for dolphin and wahoo.
2. The Committee will receive an update on the status of amendments under review and an overview of Regulatory Amendment 1 to the Dolphin Wahoo FMP to establish a commercial trip limit for the dolphin fishery in federal waters off the Atlantic coast. The Committee will review the document as appropriate, select preferred alternatives and provide recommendations as appropriate.
3. The Committee will discuss actions to include in draft Amendment 10 to the Dolphin Wahoo FMP and provide direction to staff.
1. The Committee will receive updates on the status of recreational and commercial catches versus ACLs for spiny lobster.
2. The Committee will review spiny lobster landings for 2014-2015, a notification from NOAA Fisheries regarding spiny lobster landings, and landings from pervious years, discuss landings and take action as necessary. The Committee will also discuss the need for a joint meeting of the Spiny Lobster Advisory Panels from both the South Atlantic and Gulf of Mexico Fishery Management Councils and provide direction to staff.
1. The Committee will receive updates on protected resources related issues from NOAA Fisheries
2. The Committee will review the compliance policy for turtle excluder devices in the Southeast shrimp fishery, the status of the Endangered Species Act/Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act Integration Agreement, and receive an update from the U.S. Fish & Wildlife Service on protected resources related issues.
1. The Committee will review the Calendar Year 2015 budget expenditures, Council Activities and Accomplishments during 2015, review the Council Follow-up and priorities, and provide recommendations as appropriate.
2. The Committee will discuss standards and procedures for participating in Council webinar meetings, the concept of participating with the other Regional Fishery Management Councils in supporting a representative to look out for Council interests and to keep the Council informed, and address other issues as appropriate.
8-8:15 a.m.: Call the meeting to order, adopt the agenda, and approve the September 2015 meeting minutes.
8:15-9:15 a.m.: The Council will receive a report from the Snapper Grouper Committee, and approve/disapprove Snapper Grouper Regulatory Amendment 16 (removal of the black sea bass pots season) for formal Secretarial Review; approve/disapprove Snapper Grouper Regulatory Amendment 25 (blueline tilefish, yellowtail snapper and black sea bass) for formal Secretarial Review; approve/disapprove all actions in Snapper Grouper Amendment 36 (Spawning SMZs); approve/disapprove Snapper Grouper Amendment 37 (hogfish) for public hearing; and approve/disapprove Snapper Grouper Amendment 41 (mutton snapper) for public scoping. The Council will consider other recommendations and take action as appropriate.
9:15-9:30 a.m.: The Council will receive a report from the Mackerel Committee, approve/disapprove Amendment 26 to the Coastal Migratory Pelagics FMP for public hearings, consider other Committee recommendations, and take action as appropriate.
9:30-9:45 a.m.: The Council will receive a Council Member Visioning Workshop report, approve/disapprove the Vision Blueprint for the Snapper Grouper Fishery, approve/disapprove the Evaluation Plan for the Vision Blueprint, consider other Committee recommendations, and take action as appropriate.
9:45-10 a.m.: The Council will receive a report from the Habitat Protection and Ecosystem-Based Management Committee, consider committee recommendations, and take action as appropriate.
10-10:15 a.m.: The Council will receive a report from the Protected Resources Committee, consider recommendations and take action as appropriate.
10:15-10:45 a.m.: The Council will receive a report from the SEDAR Committee, consider Committee recommendations and take action as appropriate.
10:45-11 a.m.: The Council will receive a report from the Executive Finance Committee, approve the Council Follow-Up and Priorities, consider other Committee recommendations and take action as appropriate.
11-11:15 a.m.: The Council will receive a report from the Dolphin Wahoo Committee, consider committee recommendations and take action as appropriate.
11:15-11:30 a.m.: The Council will receive a report from the Data Collection Committee, approve/disapprove the South Atlantic For-Hire Reporting Amendment for public hearings, consider other Committee recommendations and take action as appropriate.
11:30 a.m.-11:45 a.m.: The Council will receive a report from the Spiny Lobster Committee, consider Committee recommendations and take action as appropriate.
11:45-12 p.m.: The Council will receive a report from the SSC Selection Committee, consider Committee recommendations and take action as appropriate.
1:30-1:45 p.m.: The Council will receive a report from the Information and Education Committee, consider Committee recommendations and take action as appropriate.
1:45-3:30 p.m.: The Council will receive status reports from NOAA Fisheries Southeast Regional Office and the Southeast Fisheries Science Center; review and develop recommendations on Experimental Fishing Permits as necessary; receive agency and liaison reports; and discuss other business and upcoming meetings.
Documents regarding these issues are available from the Council office (
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal
These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for auxiliary aids should be directed to the council office (
The times and sequence specified in this agenda are subject to change.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Office of National Marine Sanctuaries (ONMS), National Ocean Service (NOS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Department of Commerce (DOC).
Notice of open meeting.
Notice is hereby given of a meeting via web conference call of the Marine Protected Areas Federal Advisory Committee (Committee). The web conference calls are open to the public, and participants can dial in to the calls. Participants who choose to use the web conferencing feature in addition to the audio will be able to view the presentations as they are being given.
Members of the public wishing to participate in the meeting are asked to register in advance by Wednesday, December 16, 2015.
The meeting will be held Thursday, December 17, from 1:00 to 3:00 p.m. EDT. These times and the agenda topics described below are subject to change. Refer to the Web page listed below for the most up-to-date meeting agenda.
The meeting will be held via web conference call. Register by contacting Gonzalo Cid at
Lauren Wenzel, Acting Designated Federal Officer, MPA FAC, National Marine Protected Areas Center, 1305 East West Highway, Silver Spring, Maryland 20910. (Phone: 301-713-7265, Fax: 301-713-3110); email:
The Committee, composed of external, knowledgeable representatives of stakeholder groups, was established by the Department of Commerce (DOC) to provide advice to the Secretaries of Commerce and the Interior on implementation of Section 4 of Executive Order 13158, on marine protected areas.
The United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
• PTO-2131
• PTO-2132
• PTO-2133
• PTO-1663
• PTO-1683
• TEAS Global Form
Once submitted, the request will be publicly available in electronic format through reginfo.gov. Follow the instructions to view Department of Commerce collections currently under review by OMB.
Further information may be requested by:
•
•
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent on or before December 21, 2015 to Nicholas A. Fraser, OMB Desk Officer, via email to
U.S. Air Force Academy Board of Visitors, Department of the Air Force, DoD.
Meeting notice.
In accordance with 10 U.S.C. Section 9355, the U.S. Air Force Academy (USAFA) Board of Visitors (BoV) will hold a meeting at the Rayburn House Office Building, Gold Room 2168, Washington, DC on December 10, 2015. The meeting will begin at 8:30 a.m. The meeting is scheduled to close to the public from 11:15 a.m-12:15 p.m. The purpose of this meeting is to review morale and discipline, social climate, curriculum, instruction, infrastructure, fiscal affairs, academic methods, and other matters relating to the Academy. Specific topics for this meeting include a Superintendent's Update; Legislative Calendar Update; Future Budget; Culture and Climate Update; and an annual USAFA Battle Rhythm Review. In accordance with 5 U.S.C. Section 552b, as amended, and 41 CFR Section 102-3.155, one session of this meeting shall be closed to the public because it involves matters covered by subsection (c)(6) of 5 U.S.C. Section 552b. Public attendance at the open portions of this USAFA BoV meeting shall be accommodated on a first-come, first-served basis up to the reasonable and safe capacity of the meeting room. In addition, any member of the public wishing to provide input to the USAFA BoV should submit a written statement in accordance with 41 CFR Section 102-3.140(c) and section 10(a)(3) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act and the procedures described in this paragraph. Written statements must address the following details: The issue, discussion, and a recommended course of action. Supporting documentation may also be included as needed to establish the appropriate historical context and provide any necessary background information. Written statements can be submitted to the Designated Federal Officer (DFO) at the Air Force address detailed below at any time. However, if a written statement is not received at least 10 calendar days before the first day of the meeting which is the subject of this notice, then it may not be provided to or considered by the BoV until its next open meeting. The DFO will review all timely submissions with the BoV Chairman and ensure they are provided to members of the BoV before the meeting that is the subject of this notice. If after review of timely submitted written comments and the BoV Chairman and DFO deem appropriate, they may choose to invite the submitter of the written comments to orally present the issue during an open portion of the BoV meeting that is the subject of this notice. Members of the BoV may also petition the Chairman to allow specific personnel to make oral presentations before the BoV. In accordance with 41 CFR Section 102-3.140(d), any oral presentations before the BoV shall be in accordance with agency guidelines provided pursuant to a written invitation and this paragraph. Direct questioning of BoV members or meeting participants by the public is not permitted except with the approval of the DFO and Chairman. For the benefit of the public, rosters that list the names of BoV members and any releasable materials presented during the open portions of this BoV meeting shall be made available upon request.
For additional information or to attend this BoV meeting, contact Maj Jen Hubal, Chief, Commissioning Programs, AF/A1PT, 1040 Air Force Pentagon, Washington, DC 20330, (703) 695-4066,
Department of the Navy, DoD.
Notice.
The inventions listed below are assigned to the United States Government, as represented by the Secretary of the Navy, and are available for domestic and foreign licensing by the Department of the Navy.
The following patents are available for licensing: Patent No. 9,180,528: EXTRACTION DEVICE AND METHOD //Patent No. 9,182,435: METHOD AND SOFTWARE FOR SPATIAL PATTERN ANALYSIS//Patent No. 9,184,805: FRACTAL DIPOLE ANTENNA COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS AND RELATED METHODS AND USE//Patent No. 9,184,822: MEDICAL APPARATUS AND METHODS INLCUDING AN ARRAY SYSTEM FOR SEGMENTING SIGNALS AND GENERATING A COMPLEX WAVEFORM AT A FOCAL POINT USING RECOMBINATION OF SEGMENTED SIGNALS.
Requests for copies of the patents cited should be directed to Naval Surface Warfare Center, Crane Div, Code OOL, Bldg 2, 300 Highway 361, Crane, IN 47522-5001.
Mr. Christopher Monsey, Naval Surface Warfare Center, Crane Div, Code OOL, Bldg 2, 300 Highway 361, Crane, IN 47522-5001, Email
35 U.S.C. 207, 37 CFR part 404
Office of Postsecondary Education, Department of Education (Department).
Notice.
Notice announcing process for designation of eligible institutions, and inviting applications for waiver of eligibility requirements, for fiscal year (FY) 2016.
This notice applies to the following programs:
1. Programs authorized under Part A, Title III of the HEA: Strengthening Institutions Program (Part A SIP), Alaska Native and Native Hawaiian-Serving Institutions (Part A ANNH), Predominantly Black Institutions (Part A PBI), Native American-Serving Nontribal Institutions (Part A NASNTI), and Asian American and Native
2. Programs authorized under Part F, Title III of the HEA: Hispanic-Serving Institutions STEM and Articulation (Part F, HSI STEM and Articulation), Predominantly Black Institutions (Part F PBI), Alaska Native and Native Hawaiian-Serving Institutions (Part F ANNH), Native American-Serving Nontribal Institutions (Part F NASNTI) and Asian American and Native American Pacific Islander-Serving Institutions (Part F AANAPISI).
3. Programs authorized under Title V of the HEA: Developing Hispanic-Serving Institutions (HSI) and Promoting Postbaccalaureate Opportunities for Hispanic Americans (PPOHA).
This year, the Department has instituted a process known as the Eligibility Matrix (EM), under which we will use information submitted by institutions of higher education (IHEs or institutions) to the National Center for Education Statistics (NCES) Integrated Postsecondary Education Data System (IPEDS) to determine which institutions meet the basic eligibility requirements for the programs authorized by Title III or Title V of the HEA listed above. We will use enrollment and fiscal data for the 2013-2014 academic year submitted by institutions to IPEDS to make eligibility determinations for FY 2016. Beginning December 1, 2015, an institution will be able to review the Department's decision on whether it is eligible for Title III or Title V grant programs through this process by examining its entry in the EM linked through the Department's Institutional Service Eligibility Web site at:
The EM is a read-only worksheet that lists all potentially eligible postsecondary institutions, as determined by the Department using the data described above. If the entry for your institution in the EM shows that your institution is eligible to apply for a grant for a particular program, and you plan to submit an application for a grant in that program, you will not need to apply for eligibility or for a waiver through the process described in this notice. Rather, you may print out the eligibility certification directly. However, if the EM does not show that your institution is eligible for a program in which you plan to apply for a grant, you must submit a waiver request as discussed in this notice.
You may search the EM by institution name, IPEDS unit ID number, or OPE ID number. If you are inquiring about general eligibility, look up your institution's name under the SIP column. If you are inquiring about specific program eligibility, look under that program's column.
If the EM does not show that your institution is eligible for a program, or if your institution does not appear in the EM, or if you disagree with the eligibility determination in the EM, you can apply for a waiver or reconsideration through the process described in this notice. The waiver application process is the same as in previous years; you will choose the waiver option on the Web site at
The Part A SIP, Part A ANNH, Part A PBI, Part A NASNTI, and Part A AANAPISI programs are authorized under Title III, Part A, of the HEA. The HSI and PPOHA programs are authorized under Title V of the HEA. The Part F, HSI STEM and Articulation, Part F PBI, Part F AANAPISI, Part F ANNH, and Part F NASNTI programs are authorized under Title III, Part F of the HEA. Please note that certain programs in this notice have the same or similar names as other programs that are authorized under a different statutory authority. For this reason, we specify the statutory authority as part of the acronym for certain programs.
Under the programs discussed above, institutions are eligible to apply for grants if they meet specific statutory and regulatory eligibility requirements. An IHE that is designated as an eligible institution may also receive a waiver of certain non-Federal cost-sharing requirements for one year under the Federal Supplemental Educational Opportunity Grant (FSEOG) program authorized by Part A, Title IV of the HEA and the Federal Work-Study (FWS) program authorized by section 443 of the HEA. Qualified institutions may receive the FSEOG and FWS waivers for one year even if they do not receive a grant under the Title III or Title V programs. An applicant that receives a grant from the Student Support Services (SSS) program that is authorized under section 402D of the HEA, 20 U.S.C. 1070a-14, may receive a waiver of the required non-Federal cost share for institutions for the duration of the grant. An applicant that receives a grant from the Undergraduate International Studies and Foreign Language (UISFL) program that is authorized under section 604 of the HEA, 20 U.S.C. 1124, may receive a waiver or reduction of the required non-Federal cost share for institutions for the duration of the grant.
To qualify as an eligible institution under the grant programs listed in this notice, your institution must satisfy several criteria. For most of these programs, these criteria include those that relate to the enrollment of needy students and to core expenses (Core Expenses) per full-time equivalent student count (FTE) for a specified base year. The most recent data available for Core Expenses per FTE are for base year 2013-2014. In order to award FY 2016 grants in a timely manner, we will use this data to evaluate eligibility.
Accordingly, all institutions interested in applying for a new grant under the Title III or Title V programs addressed in this notice or in requesting a waiver of the non-Federal cost share, must be designated as an eligible institution for FY 2016 before applying for a grant. Under the HEA, any IHE interested in applying for a grant under any of these programs must first be designated as an eligible institution. (34 CFR 606.5 and 607.5).
The eligibility requirements for the programs authorized under Part A of Title III of the HEA are in Sections 312 and 317-320 of the HEA (20 U.S.C. 1058, 1059d-1059g) and in the Department's implementing regulations at 34 CFR 607.2 through 607.5. The regulations may be accessed at:
The eligibility requirements for the programs authorized by Part F of Title III of the HEA are in Section 371 of the HEA (20 U.S.C. 1067q). There are currently no specific program regulations for these programs.
The eligibility requirements for the Title V HSI program are in Part A of Title V of the HEA and in 34 CFR 606.2 through 34 CFR 606.5. The regulations may be accessed at:
The requirements for the PPOHA program are in Part B of Title V of the HEA and in the notice of final requirements published in the
Section 312 of the HEA and 34 CFR 607.2-607.5 include most of the basic eligibility requirements for grant programs
Since 2004, NCES has calculated Core Expenses per FTE of postsecondary institutions, a statistic similar to E&G per FTE. Both E&G per FTE and Core Expenses per FTE are based on regular operational expenditures of postsecondary institutions (excluding auxiliary enterprises, independent operations, and hospital expenses). They differ only in that E&G per FTE is based on fall undergraduate enrollment, while Core Expenses per FTE is based on 12-month undergraduate enrollment for the academic year.
To avoid inconsistency in the data submitted to and produced by the Department, for the purpose of section 312(b)(1)(B) of the HEA, E&G per FTE will now be calculated using the same methodology as Core Expenses per FTE. Accordingly, with regard to this and future notices inviting applications, to calculate E&G per FTE for the purpose of determining institutional eligibility for programs under Part A and Part F of Title III and Title V of the HEA, the Department will apply the NCES methodology for calculating Core Expenses per FTE. Institutions requesting an eligibility waiver determination must use the Core Expenses per FTE data reported to IPEDS for the most currently available academic year, in this case academic year 2013-2014.
To qualify under this latter criterion, an institution's Federal Pell Grant percentage for base year 2013-2014 must be more than the median for its category of comparable institutions provided in the 2013-2014 Median Pell Grant and Core Expenses per FTE Student table in this notice. If your institution qualifies under the first criterion, where at least 50 percent of its degree students received financial assistance under one of several Federal student aid programs (the Federal Pell Grant, FSEOG, FWS, or the Federal Perkins Loan programs), but not the second criterion, where an institution's Federal Pell Grant percentage for base year 2013-2014 must be more than the median for its category of comparable institutions provided in the 2013-2014 Median Pell Grant and Core Expenses per FTE Student table in this notice, you must submit a waiver request including the requested data, which is not available in IPEDS.
For the definition of “Enrollment of Needy Students” for purposes of the Part A PBI program, see section 318(b)(2) of the HEA, and for purposes of the Part F PBI program see section 371(c)(9)of the HEA.
Core Expenses are defined as the total expenses for the essential education activities of the institution. Core Expenses for public institutions reporting under the Governmental Accounting Standards Board (GASB) requirements include expenses for instruction, research, public service, academic support, student services, institutional support, operation and maintenance of plant, depreciation, scholarships and fellowships, interest, and other operating and non-operating expenses. Core Expenses for institutions reporting under the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) standards (primarily private, not-for-profit, and for-profit) include expenses for instruction, research, public service, academic support, student services, institutional support, net grant aid to students, and other expenses. For both FASB and GASB institutions, core expenses exclude expenses for auxiliary enterprises (
IHEs requesting a waiver of the needy student enrollment requirement or the Core Expenses per FTE requirement must include in their application detailed information supporting the waiver request, as described in the instructions for completing the application.
The regulations governing the Secretary's authority to waive the needy student requirement, 34 CFR 606.3(b)(2) and (3) and 607.3(b)(2) and (3), refer to “low-income” students or families. The
For the purposes of this waiver provision, the following table sets forth the low-income levels for various sizes of families:
We use the 2014 annual low-income levels because those are the amounts that apply to the family income reported by students enrolled for the fall 2013 semester. For family units with more than eight members, add the following amount for each additional family member: $4,060 for the contiguous 48 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying jurisdictions; $5,080 for Alaska; and $4,670 for Hawaii.
The figures shown under family income represent amounts equal to 150 percent of the family income levels established by the U.S. Census Bureau for determining poverty status. The poverty guidelines were published by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services in the
If your institution does not appear in the EM as one that is eligible for the program under which you plan to apply for a grant, you must submit an application for a waiver of the eligibility requirements. To request a waiver, you must upload a waiver narrative at:
• You do not have access to the Internet; or
• You do not have the capacity to upload documents to the Web site;
• No later than two weeks before the waiver application deadline date (14 calendar days or, if the fourteenth calendar day before the application deadline date falls on a Federal holiday, the next business day following the Federal holiday), you mail or fax a written statement to the Department, explaining which of the two grounds for an exception prevents you from using the Internet to submit your application. If you mail your written statement to the Department, it must be postmarked no later than two weeks before the application deadline date. If you fax your written statement to the Department, we must receive the faxed statement no later than two weeks before the application deadline date.
Mail or fax your statement to: Don Crews, U.S. Department of Education, 1990 K Street NW., Room 6032, Washington, DC 20006-8513. Fax: (202) 502-7861.
Your paper waiver application must be submitted in accordance with the mail or hand delivery instructions described in this notice.
If you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, you may mail (through the U.S. Postal Service or a commercial carrier) your application to the Department. You must mail the original and two copies of your application, on or before the application deadline date, to the Department at the following address: Don Crews, U.S. Department of Education, 1990 K Street NW., Room 6032, Washington, DC 20006-8513.
You must show proof of mailing consisting of one of the following:
(1) A legibly dated U.S. Postal Service postmark.
(2) A legible mail receipt with the date of mailing stamped by the U.S. Postal Service.
(3) A dated shipping label, invoice, or receipt from a commercial carrier.
(4) Any other proof of mailing acceptable to the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Education.
If you mail your application through the U.S. Postal Service, we do not accept either of the following as proof of mailing:
(1) A private metered postmark.
(2) A mail receipt that is not dated by the U.S. Postal Service.
The U.S. Postal Service does not uniformly provide a dated postmark. Before relying on this method, you should check with your local post office. We will not consider waiver applications postmarked after the application deadline date.
If you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, you (or a courier service) may deliver your paper application to the Department by hand. You must deliver the application, on or before the application deadline date, to the Department at the following address: Don Crews, U.S. Department of Education, 1990 K Street NW., Room 6032, Washington, DC 20006-8513.
Hand delivered applications will be accepted daily between 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., Washington, DC time, except Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.
There are no program-specific regulations for the Part A AANAPISI, Part A NASNTI, and Part A PBI programs or any of the Part F, Title III programs. Also, there have been amendments to the HEA since the Department last issued regulations for the programs established under Titles III and V of the statute. Accordingly, we encourage each potential applicant to read the applicable sections of the HEA in order to fully understand the eligibility requirements for the program for which they are applying.
The regulations in 34 CFR part 79 apply to all applicants except federally recognized Indian tribes.
The regulations in 34 CFR part 86 apply to IHEs only.
Christopher Smith or Jeffrey Hartman, Institutional Service, U.S. Department of Education, 1990 K Street NW., Room 6134, Request for Eligibility Designation, Washington, DC 20006-8513.
You can contact these individuals at the following email addresses or phone numbers:
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf or a text telephone, call the Federal Relay Service, toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
Individuals with disabilities can obtain this document in an accessible format (
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
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j. Deadline for filing comments, motions to intervene, and protests: December 15, 2015.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene, protests, comments, or recommendations using the Commission's eFiling system at
The Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person whose name appears on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.
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m. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.
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This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding BIF III Holtwood LLC's application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is December 2, 2015.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
In accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 and the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission) regulations, 18 CFR part 380, the Office of Energy Projects has reviewed the application for subsequent license for the Wallowa Falls Hydroelectric Project, located on Royal Purple Creek and the East and West Forks of the Wallowa River in Wallowa County, Oregon, and has prepared a Draft Environmental Assessment (DEA) for the project. The project occupies 12 acres of federal lands administered by the United States Department of Agriculture, Forest Service.
The DEA contains the staff's analysis of the potential environmental effects of the project and concludes that relicensing the project, with appropriate environmental protective measures, would not constitute a major federal action that would significantly affect the quality of the human environment.
A copy of the DEA is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
You may also register online at
Any comments should be filed within 45 days from the date of this notice.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments using the Commission's eFiling system at
For further information, contact Matt Cutlip at (503) 552-2762.
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following PURPA 210(m)(3) filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
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j. Deadline for filing comments, motions to intervene, protests, and recommendations is November 27, 2015. The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file
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m. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.
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Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
1. By letter filed December 12, 2010, Idarado Mining Company and Newmont Mining Corporation informed the Commission that the exemption from licensing for the Bridal Veil Falls Project No. 6623, originally issued August 3, 1989,
2. Newmont Mining Corporation is now the exemptee of the Bridal Veil Falls Project, No. 6623. All correspondence should be forwarded to: Mr. Lawrence E. Fiske, Newmont Mining Corporation, 6363 South Fiddler's Green Circle, Suite 800, Greenwood Village, CO 80111.
The staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) has prepared a final environmental impact statement (EIS) for the Magnolia LNG Project proposed by Magnolia LNG, LLC (Magnolia) and the Lake Charles Expansion Project proposed by Kinder Morgan Louisiana Pipeline LLC (Kinder Morgan) in the above-referenced dockets. The Magnolia LNG Project would include construction and operation of a liquefied natural gas (LNG) terminal that would include various liquefaction, LNG distribution, and appurtenant facilities. The Lake
The final EIS assesses the potential environmental effects of construction and operation of the Magnolia LNG and Lake Charles Expansion Projects in accordance with the requirements of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA). The FERC staff concludes that approval of the proposed projects would result in adverse environmental impacts; however, these impacts would be reduced to less-than-significant levels with the implementation of Magnolia's and Kinder Morgan's proposed mitigation and the additional measures recommended in the final EIS.
The U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, U.S. Coast Guard, U.S. Department of Energy, U.S. Department of Transportation, and U.S. Environmental Protection Agency participated as cooperating agencies in the preparation of the final EIS. Cooperating agencies have jurisdiction by law or special expertise with respect to resources potentially affected by a proposal and participate in the NEPA analysis. Although the cooperating agencies provided input on the conclusions and recommendations presented in the final EIS, the agencies will present their own conclusions and recommendations in their respective records of decision or determinations for the projects.
The final EIS addresses the potential environmental effects of the construction, modification, and operation of the following facilities associated with the two projects:
• A new LNG terminal that includes four liquefaction trains, two LNG storage tanks, liquefaction and refrigerant units, safety and control systems, and associated infrastructure;
• LNG truck loading facilities;
• LNG carrier and barge loading facilities;
• one new meter station;
• one new 32,000 horsepower compressor station;
• approximately 40 feet of 36-inch-diameter feed gas line to supply natural gas to the LNG terminal from Kinder Morgan's existing natural gas transmission pipeline;
• a new 1.2-mile-long, 36-inch-diameter low pressure natural gas header pipeline;
• a new 700-foot-long, 24-inch-diameter high pressure natural gas header pipeline;
• modifications at six existing meter stations; and
• construction of miscellaneous auxiliary and appurtenant facilities.
The FERC staff mailed copies of the final EIS to federal, state, and local government representatives and agencies; elected officials; environmental and public interest groups; Native American tribes; potentially affected landowners; other interested individuals and non-governmental organizations; newspapers and libraries in the project areas; and parties to these proceedings. Paper copy versions of this EIS were mailed to those specifically requesting them; all others received a compact disk version. In addition, the final EIS is available for public viewing on the FERC's Web site (
Additional information about the projects is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC Web site (
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription that allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of the designation of one new reference method and one new equivalent method for monitoring ambient air quality.
Notice is hereby given that the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has designated, in accordance with 40 CFR part 53, one new reference method for measuring concentrations of carbon monoxide (CO) and one new equivalent method for measuring concentrations of ozone (O
Robert Vanderpool, Human Exposure and Atmospheric Sciences Division (MD-D205-03), National Exposure Research Laboratory, U.S. EPA, Research Triangle Park, North Carolina 27711. Email:
In accordance with regulations at 40 CFR part 53, the EPA evaluates various methods for monitoring the concentrations of those ambient air pollutants for which EPA has established National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQSs) as set forth in 40 CFR part 50. Monitoring methods that are determined to meet specific requirements for adequacy are designated by the EPA as either reference or equivalent methods (as applicable), thereby permitting their use under 40 CFR part 58 by States and other agencies for determining compliance with the NAAQSs. A list of all reference or equivalent methods that have been previously designated by EPA may be found at
The EPA hereby announces the designation of one new reference method for measuring concentrations of carbon monoxide (CO) in the ambient air and one new equivalent method for measuring concentrations of ozone (O
The new reference method for CO is an automated method (analyzer) utilizing a measurement principle based
RFCA-0915-228, “Environnement S.A. Model CO12e Carbon Monoxide Analyzer”, an infrared absorption spectroscopy technique operated on a full scale range of 0-50 ppm, at any temperature in the range of 10 °C to 35 °C, with a teflon sample particulate filter with the following software settings: Automatic response time ON; Automatic “ZERO-REF” cycle either ON or OFF and with or without the following options: ESTEL Analog Input/Output Board, LCD color touch screen and Carbon Dioxide CO
This application for a reference method determination for this CO method was received by the Office of Research and Development on July 20, 2015. This analyzer is commercially available from the applicant, Environnement S.A., 111, Boulevard Robespierre, 78300 Poissy France.
The new equivalent method for O
EQOA-1015-229, “Teledyne Advanced Pollution Instrumentation, Model 430 Ozone Analyzer”, operated with a full scale range between 0-500 ppb, at any operating temperature from 5 °C to 40 °C, with a sample particulate filter, with a 100-240V AC to DC power adapter or a 12V DC source capable of providing 9 watts of power, in accordance with the associated instrument manual, and with or without any of the following options: Internal long-life pump, external long-life pump, external portable battery pack, external communication and data monitoring interfaces.
The application for an equivalent method determination for this candidate method was received by the Office of Research and Development on August 27, 2015. The analyzer is commercially available from the applicant, Teledyne Advanced Pollution Instrumentation, Inc., 9480 Carroll Park Drive, San Diego, CA 92121-2251.
Representative test analyzers have been tested in accordance with the applicable test procedures specified in 40 CFR part 53, as amended on August 31, 2011. After reviewing the results of those tests and other information submitted by the applicant, EPA has determined, in accordance with part 53, that these methods should be designated as a reference or equivalent method.
As a designated reference or equivalent method, these methods are acceptable for use by states and other air monitoring agencies under the requirements of 40 CFR part 58, Ambient Air Quality Surveillance. For such purposes, each method must be used in strict accordance with the operation or instruction manual associated with the method and subject to any specifications and limitations (
Use of the method also should be in general accordance with the guidance and recommendations of applicable sections of the “Quality Assurance Handbook for Air Pollution Measurement Systems, Volume I,” EPA/600/R-94/038a and “Quality Assurance Handbook for Air Pollution Measurement Systems, Volume II, Ambient Air Quality Monitoring Program,” EPA-454/B-13-003, (both available at
Consistent or repeated noncompliance with any of these conditions should be reported to: Director, Human Exposure and Atmospheric Sciences Division (MD-E205-01), National Exposure Research Laboratory, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Research Triangle Park, North Carolina 27711.
Designation of these reference and equivalent methods is intended to assist the States in establishing and operating their air quality surveillance systems under 40 CFR part 58. Questions concerning the commercial availability or technical aspects of the method should be directed to the applicant.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as Receiver for 10454 The Royal Palm Bank of Florida, Naples, FL (Receiver) has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of The Royal Palm Bank of Florida (Receivership Estate); The Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law.
The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds.
Effective November 1, 2015 the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as Receiver for 10472 Gild Canyon Bank, Gold Canyon, Arizona (Receiver) has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of Gold Canyon Bank (Receivership Estate); The Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law.
The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds.
Effective November 01, 2015 the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
10:00 a.m., Thursday, December 3, 2015.
The Richard V. Backley Hearing Room, Room 511N, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20004 (enter from F Street entrance).
Open.
The Commission will consider and act upon the following in open session:
Any person attending this meeting who requires special accessibility features and/or auxiliary aids, such as sign language interpreters, must inform the Commission in advance of those needs. Subject to 29 CFR 2706.150(a)(3) and § 2706.160(d).
Emogene Johnson (202) 434-9935/(202) 708-9300 for TDD Relay/1-800-877-8339 for toll free.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than December 14, 2015.
A. Federal Reserve Bank of Atlanta (Chapelle Davis, Assistant Vice President) 1000 Peachtree Street NE., Atlanta, Georgia 30309:
1.
B. Federal Reserve Bank of San Francisco (Gerald C. Tsai, Director, Applications and Enforcement) 101 Market Street, San Francisco, California 94105-1579:
1.
In connection with this application, Applicant also has applied to retain HomeStreet Capital Corporation, Seattle, Washington, and engage in originating, selling, and servicing multi-family mortgage loans, pursuant to sections 225.28(b)(1) and (b)(2)(vi).
Part C (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) of the Statement of Organization, Functions, and Delegations of Authority of the Department of Health and Human Services (45 FR 67772, dated October 14, 1980, and corrected at 45 FR 69296, October 20, 1980, as amended most recently at 80 FR 5874, dated September 29, 2015) is amended to reflect the reorganization of the Office for State, Tribal, Local and Territorial Support, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
Section C-B, Organization and Functions, is hereby amended as follows:
Revise the functional statement for the
After item (22), insert the following item: (23) conducts periodic assessments of field staff and project officer needs; (24) assists in the coordination of CDC and OSTLTS Director site visits to State, Tribal, Local and Territorial agencies (STLT).
Delete in its entirety the title and mission for the
Revise the functional statement for the
After item (4), insert the following item: (5) Conducts periodic assessments of field staff and project officer needs; (6) supports grants management optimization efforts to improve STLT health agencies; (7) provides agency-wide leadership and coordination in the identification, assessment, and development of solutions to improve CDC technical assistance and service delivery around Health Systems Transformation.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing efforts to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to
Written comments must be received on or before January 19, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2015-0105 by any of the following methods:
•
•
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact the Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE., MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information. Burden means the total time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose or provide information to or for a Federal agency. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information, to search data sources, to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information.
Vital Statistics Training Application (OMB Control No. 0920-0217, exp. 5/31/2016)—Revision—National Center for Health Statistics NCHS), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
In the United States, legal authority for the registration of vital events,
NCHS assists in achieving the comparability needed for combining data from all States into national statistics, by conducting a training program for State and local vital statistics staff to assist in developing expertise in all aspects of vital registration and vital statistics. The training offered under this program includes courses for registration staff, statisticians, and coding specialists, all designed to bring about a high degree of uniformity and quality in the data provided by the States. This training program is authorized by 42 U.S.C. 242b, section 304(a). NCHS notifies State and local vital registration officials, as well as Canadian counterparts, about upcoming training. Individual candidates for training then submit an application form including name, address, occupation, and other relevant information.
In this revision, the application for the Vital Statistics Training is being updated to capture additional logistical information. NCHS is requesting a three-year clearance to collect information using these training application forms. There is no cost to respondents other than their time.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The notice for the proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address any of the following: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
Understanding Barriers and Facilitators to HIV prevention for Men Who Have Sex with Men (MSM)—Pulse Study—New—National Center for HIV/AIDS, Viral Hepatitis, STD, and TB Prevention (NCHHSTP), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
The National Center for HIV/AIDS, Viral Hepatitis, STD, and TB Prevention (NCHHSTP)/Division of HIV/AIDS Prevention (DHAP) is requesting a one-year approval for a study-related data collection entitled, “Understanding Barriers and Facilitators to HIV prevention for Men Who Have Sex with Men (MSM).” The purpose of this study is to conduct primarily qualitative research with most at risk HIV-negative MSM.
There are four goals to this study: (1) Understand issues surrounding HIV risk for MSM; (2) learn more about how gay community or peer norms, and community identification influence risk behaviors; (3) understand individual HIV risk management, such as having an HIV-positive partner with suppressed viral load, barriers and facilitators for use of biomedical interventions (
The present research will be conducted in the top five Southern metropolitan areas in the United States with the highest HIV diagnoses for MSM-Atlanta, Georgia; Jackson, Mississippi; Miami, Florida; and New Orleans and Baton Rouge, Louisiana. These cities rank among those in the South with the highest prevalence and incidence of HIV and STIs among black/African American and Hispanic/Latino MSM.
The study population will consist of black/African-American and Hispanic/Latino (1) male adolescents who are attracted to men and report they are HIV negative or have not been tested and (2) adult MSM who are recently tested and verified as HIV-negative. All study participants will be 13 years of age or older. Participants will be recruited in the selected cities through referrals from Health Departments, clinics and community based organizations (CBOs).
For the purposes of this study, we will use a primarily qualitative research design and will include a brief quantitative survey to reduce participant burden where possible (for example, when we do not need to know an in-depth answer for socio-demographics, HIV testing history, housing status, health insurance status). The first portion of the interview instrument consists of brief structured demographic questions to characterize the respondents. The second portion of the instrument consists of open-ended in-depth qualitative questions. This research design was chosen based on the exploratory nature of our study purpose. All interviews will be conducted by trained personnel. The data collection will take place at a time and place that is convenient to the respondent. Locations will be private. Data collection may be audio-recorded and transcribed with the consent of the respondent.
Recruitment will consist of health departments and CBOs who conduct testing to give HIV negative males who meet the recruiting eligibility criteria the study flyer following post-result counseling.
We estimate one minute for the flyer distribution. We anticipate screening a total of 300 respondents, at various locations, and anticipate the screening process to take five minutes per respondent for a total of 26 burden hours. Of the 300 respondents screened, we anticipate a 50% response rate. We anticipate that recording a participant's contact information to take one minute per respondent for a total of three burden hours for the 150 participants.
We will conduct a one-hour in depth interview for HIV-negative MSM (minors and adults) that will take a total of 150 burden hours for all 150 study participants.
The total number of burden hours is 184.
The Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA) is requesting nominations to fill vacancies on the Advisory Committee on Interdisciplinary, Community-Based Linkages (ACICBL). The ACICBL is authorized by 42 U.S.C. 294f, section 757 of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act, as amended by the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act. The Advisory Committee is governed by the Federal Advisory Act, Public Law (Pub. L.) 92-463, as amended (5 U.S.C. Appendix 2) which sets forth standards for the formation and use of advisory committees.
The agency will receive nominations on a continuous basis.
All nominations should be submitted to Regina Wilson, Advisory Council Operations, Bureau of Health Workforce, HRSA, 11w45c, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, Maryland 20857. Mail delivery should be addressed to Regina Wilson, Advisory Council Operations, Bureau of Health Workforce, HRSA, at the above address, or via email to:
Joan Weiss, Ph.D., RN, CRNP, FAAN, Designated Federal Official, ACICBL at 301-443-0430 or email at
The ACICBL provides advice and recommendations to the Secretary of Health and Human Services (Secretary) concerning policy, program development and other matters of significance related to interdisciplinary, community-based training grant programs authorized under sections 750-759, title VII, part D of the PHS Act, as amended. The ACICBL prepares an annual report describing the activities conducted during the fiscal year, identifying findings and developing recommendations to enhance these title VII, part D programs. The annual report is submitted to the Secretary and ranking members of the Senate Committee on Health, Education, Labor and Pensions, and the House of Representatives Committee on Energy and Commerce. The ACICBL also develops, publishes, and implements performance measures for programs under this part; develops and publishes guidelines for longitudinal evaluations (as described in section 761(d)(2)) for programs under this part; and recommends appropriation levels for programs under this part.
Specifically, HRSA is requesting nominations for voting members of the ACICBL representing: Area Health Education Centers, Education and Training Relating to Geriatrics, Rural Interdisciplinary Training, Allied Health, Podiatry, Chiropractic, Psychology, and Social Work.
The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) will consider nominations of all qualified individuals with the areas of subject matter expertise noted above. Individuals may nominate themselves or other individuals, and professional associations and organizations may nominate one or more qualified persons for membership. Nominations shall state that the nominee is willing to serve as a member of the ACICBL and appears to have no conflict of interest that would preclude the ACICBL membership. Potential candidates will be asked to provide detailed information concerning financial interests, consultancies, research grants, and/or contracts that might be affected by recommendations of the ACICBL to permit evaluation of possible sources of conflicts of interest.
A nomination package should include the following information for each nominee: (1) A letter of nomination from an employer, a colleague, or a professional organization stating the name, affiliation, and contact information for the nominee, the basis for the nomination (
HHS strives to ensure that the membership of HHS federal advisory committees is balanced in terms of points of view represented and the committee's function. Every effort is made to ensure that the views of women, all ethnic and racial groups, and people with disabilities are represented on HHS Federal advisory committees. The Department also encourages geographic diversity in the composition of the committee. The Department encourages nominations of qualified candidates from all groups and locations. Appointment to the ACIBL shall be made without discrimination on the basis of age, race, ethnicity, gender, sexual orientation, disability, and cultural, religious, or socioeconomic status.
In accordance with section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), notice is hereby given of the following meeting:
The ACCV will meet on Thursday, December 3, 2015, from 10:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m. (EDT). The public can join the meeting by:
1. (Audio Portion) Calling the conference phone number 877-917-4913 and providing the following information:
2. (Visual Portion) Connecting to the ACCV Adobe Connect Pro Meeting using the following URL:
Anyone requiring information regarding the ACCV should contact Annie Herzog, DICP, HSB, HRSA, Room 8N146B, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857; telephone (301) 443-6593, or email:
The Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA) is requesting nominations to fill vacancies on the Council on Graduate Medical Education (COGME). The COGME is authorized by 42 42 U.S.C. 294o, section 762 of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act, as amended. The Advisory Committee is governed by the Federal Advisory Act, Public Law (Pub. L.) 92-463, as amended (5 U.S.C. Appendix 2) which sets forth standards for the formation and use of advisory committees.
The agency will receive nominations on a continuous basis.
All nominations should be submitted to Regina Wilson, Advisory Council Operations, Bureau of Health Workforce, HRSA, 11w45c, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, Maryland 20857. Mail delivery should be addressed to Regina Wilson, Advisory Council Operations, Bureau of Health Workforce, HRSA, at the above address, or via email to:
Joan Weiss, Ph.D., RN, CRNP, FAAN, Designated Federal Official, COGME at 301-443-0430 or email at
The COGME provides advice and makes policy recommendations to the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (Secretary) and ranking members of the Senate Committee on Health, Education, Labor and Pensions, and the House of Representatives Committee on Energy and Commerce on matters under section 762 of part E of title VII concerning the supply and distribution of physicians in the United States, physician workforce
Specifically, HRSA is requesting nominations for voting members of the COGME representing: Primary care physicians, national and specialty physician organizations, international medical graduates, medical student and house staff associations, schools of medicine, schools of osteopathic medicine, public and private teaching hospitals, health insurers, business, and labor. Among these nominations, students, residents, and/or fellows from these programs are encouraged to apply.
The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) will consider nominations of all qualified individuals with the areas of subject matter expertise noted above. Individuals may nominate themselves or other individuals, and professional associations and organizations may nominate one or more qualified persons for membership. Nominations shall state that the nominee is willing to serve as a member of the COGME and appears to have no conflict of interest that would preclude the COGME membership. Potential candidates will be asked to provide detailed information concerning financial interests, consultancies, research grants, and/or contracts that might be affected by recommendations of the COGME to permit evaluation of possible sources of conflicts of interest.
A nomination package should include the following information for each nominee:
(1) A letter of nomination from an employer, a colleague, or a professional organization stating the name, affiliation, and contact information for the nominee, the basis for the nomination (
HHS strives to ensure that the membership of HHS federal advisory committees is balanced in terms of points of view represented and the committee's function. Every effort is made to ensure that the views of women, all ethnic and racial groups, and people with disabilities are represented on HHS federal advisory committees. The Department also encourages geographic diversity in the composition of the committee. The Department encourages nominations of qualified candidates from all groups and locations. Appointment to the COGME shall be made without discrimination on the basis of age, race, ethnicity, gender, sexual orientation, disability, and cultural, religious, or socioeconomic status.
The Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA) is requesting nominations to fill vacancies on the Advisory Committee on Training in Primary Care Medicine and Dentistry (ACTPCMD). The ACTPCMD is authorized by 42 U.S.C. 217a, section 222 and 42 U.S.C. 293l, section 749 of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act, as amended by section 5103(d) and re-designated by section 5303 of the Affordable Care Act. The Advisory Committee is governed by provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972 (5 U.S.C. Appendix 2), as amended, which sets forth standards for the formation and use of advisory committees.
The agency will receive nominations on a continuous basis.
All nominations should be submitted to Regina Wilson, Advisory Council Operations, Bureau of Health Workforce, HRSA, 11w45c, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, Maryland 20857. Mail delivery should be addressed to Regina Wilson, Advisory Council Operations, Bureau of Health Workforce, HRSA, at the above address, or via email to:
Joan Weiss, Ph.D., RN, CRNP, FAAN, Designated Federal Official, ACTPCMD at 301-443-0430 or email at
The ACTPCMD provides advice and recommendations to the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (Secretary) on policy, program development and other matters of significance concerning the activities under sections 747 and 748, part C of title VII of the PHS act. The ACTPCMD prepares an annual report describing the activities conducted during the fiscal year, identifying findings and developing recommendations to enhance these title VII, part C, section 747 and 748 programs. The annual report is submitted to the Secretary and ranking members of the Senate Committee on Health, Education, Labor and Pensions, and the House of Representatives Committee on Energy and Commerce. The ACTPCMD also develops, publishes, and implements performance measures for programs under this part; develops and publishes guidelines for longitudinal evaluations (as described in section 761(d)(2)) for programs under this part; and recommends appropriation levels for programs under this part. Meetings are held twice a year.
Specifically, HRSA is requesting nominations for voting members of the ACTPCMD representing: Family medicine, general internal medicine, general pediatrics, physician assistant, general dentistry, pediatric dentistry, public health dentistry, and dental hygiene programs. Among these nominations, students, residents, and/or fellows from these programs are encouraged to apply.
The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) will consider nominations of all qualified individuals with the areas of subject matter expertise noted above. Individuals may nominate themselves or other individuals, and professional associations and organizations may nominate one or more qualified persons for membership. Nominations shall state that the nominee is willing to serve as a member of the ACTPCMD and appears to have no conflict of interest that would preclude the ACTPCMD membership. Potential candidates will be asked to provide detailed information concerning financial interests,
A nomination package should include the following information for each nominee: (1) A letter of nomination stating the name, affiliation, and contact information for the nominee, the basis for the nomination (
HHS strives to ensure that the membership of HHS federal advisory committees is balanced in terms of points of view represented and the committee's function. Every effort is made to ensure that the views of women, all ethnic and racial groups, and people with disabilities are represented on HHS federal advisory committees. The Department also encourages geographic diversity in the composition of the committee. The Department encourages nominations of qualified candidates from all groups and locations. Appointment to the ACTPCMD shall be made without discrimination on the basis of age, race, ethnicity, gender, sexual orientation, disability, and cultural, religious, or socioeconomic status.
Periodically, the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) will publish a summary of information collection requests under OMB review, in compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35). To request a copy of these documents, call the SAMHSA Reports Clearance Officer on (240) 276-1243.
The Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) is requesting a revision of the Treatment Episode Data Set (TEDS) data collection (OMB No. 0930-0335), which expires on January 31, 2016. TEDS is a compilation of client-level substance abuse treatment admission and discharge data submitted by states on clients treated in facilities that receive state funds. SAMHSA is requesting the addition of client-level mental health admission and update/discharge data (MH-TEDS/CLD) submitted by states on clients treated in facilities that receive state funds. These mental health data have been previously collected in support of the Community Mental Health Services Block Grant (MHBG) and Substance Abuse and Prevention Treatment Block Grant (SABG) Application Guidance and Instructions (OMB No. 0930-0168).
TEDS/MH-TEDS/CLD data are collected to obtain information on the number of admissions and updates/discharges at publicly-funded substance abuse treatment and mental health services facilities and on the characteristics of clients receiving services at those facilities. TEDS/MH-TEDS/CLD also monitors trends in the demographic, substance use, and mental health characteristics of admissions. In addition, several of the data elements used to calculate performance measures for the Substance Abuse Block Grant (SABG) and Mental Health Block Grant (MHBG) applications are collected in TEDS/MH-TEDS/CLD.
This request includes:
• Continuation of collection of TEDS (substance abuse) client-level admissions and discharge data;
• Continuation of collection of MH-TEDS client-level admissions and update/discharge data of mental health clients beyond the pilot phase; and
• Addition of collection of MHCLD client-level admissions and update/discharge data (transferred from OMB No. 0930-0168).
Most states collect the TEDS/MH-TEDS/CLD data elements from their treatment providers for their own administrative purposes and are able to submit a cross-walked extract of their data to TEDS/MH-TEDS/CLD. No changes are expected in the (substance abuse) TEDS collection. No changes are expected in the (mental health) MH- CLD collection (other than recording the MH-TEDS/CLD burden hours separately from the Substance Abuse Block Grant (SABG) and Mental Health Block Grant (MHBG) application approval instructions (OMB No. 0930-0168) and the addition of MH-TEDS beyond the pilot phase. No data element changes for TEDS/MH-TEDS/CLD are expected.
The estimated annual burden for the separate TEDS/MH-TEDS/CLD activities is as follows:
Written comments and recommendations concerning the proposed information collection should be sent by December 21, 2015 to the SAMHSA Desk Officer at the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB). To ensure timely receipt of comments, and to avoid potential delays in OMB's receipt and processing of mail sent through the U.S. Postal Service, commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
Coast Guard, DHS.
Thirty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 the U.S. Coast Guard is forwarding an Information Collection Request (ICR), abstracted below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting an extension of its approval for the following collection of information: 1625-0046, Certificates of Financial Responsibility under the Oil Pollution Act of 1990 without change. Our ICR describe the information we seek to collect from the public. Review and comments by OIRA ensure we only impose paperwork burdens commensurate with our performance of duties.
Comments must reach the Coast Guard and OIRA on or before December 21, 2015.
You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2015-0473] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
(1)
(2)
(3)
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the Internet at
Contact Mr. Anthony Smith, Office of Information Management, telephone 202-475-3532, or fax 202-372-8405, for questions on these documents.
This Notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. chapter 35, as amended. An ICR is an application to OIRA seeking the approval, extension, or renewal of a Coast Guard collection of information (Collection). The ICR contains information describing the Collection's purpose, the Collection's likely burden on the affected public, an explanation of the necessity of the Collection, and other important information describing the Collection. There is one ICR for each Collection. The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) The practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. These comments will help OIRA determine whether to approve the ICR referred to in this Notice.
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments to Coast Guard or OIRA must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR. They must also contain the docket number of this request, [USCG-2015-0473], and must be received by December 21, 2015.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
OIRA posts its decisions on ICRs online at
This request provides a 30-day comment period required by OIRA. The Coast Guard has published the 60-day notice (80 FR 45667, July 31, 2015) required by 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2). That Notice elicited no comments. Accordingly, no changes have been made to the Collections.
1.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. chapter 35, as amended.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Sixty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the U.S. Coast Guard intends to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting approval for reinstatement, with change, of the following collection of information: 1625-0042, Requirements for lightering of Oil and Hazardous Material Cargoes. Our ICR describe the information we seek to collect from the public. Before submitting this ICR to OIRA, the Coast Guard is inviting comments as described below.
Comments must reach the Coast Guard on or before January 19, 2016.
You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2015-0908] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the Internet at
Mr. Anthony Smith, Office of Information Management, telephone 202-475-3532, or fax 202-475-8405, for questions on these documents.
This Notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. chapter 35, as amended. An ICR is an application to OIRA seeking the approval, extension, or renewal of a Coast Guard collection of information (Collection). The ICR contains information describing the Collection's purpose, the Collection's likely burden on the affected public, an explanation of the necessity of the Collection, and other important information describing the Collection. There is one ICR for each Collection.
The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) The practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. In response to your comments, we may revise this ICR or decide not to seek reinstatement of the Collection. We will consider all comments and material received during the comment period.
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR and the docket number of this request, [USCG-2015-0908], and must be received by January 19, 2016.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
1.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. chapter 35, as amended.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Thirty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 the U.S. Coast Guard is forwarding an Information Collection Request (ICR), abstracted below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting approval of a revision to the following collection of information: 1625-0010, Defect/Noncompliance Report and Campaign Update Report. Our ICR describes the information we seek to collect from the public. Review and comments by OIRA ensure we only impose paperwork burdens commensurate with our performance of duties.
Comments must reach the Coast Guard and OIRA on or before December 21, 2015.
You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2015-0378] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
(1)
(2)
(3)
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the Internet at
Contact Mr. Anthony Smith, Office of Information Management, telephone 202-475-3531, or fax 202-372-8405, for questions on these documents.
This Notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended. An ICR is an application to OIRA seeking the approval, extension, or renewal of a Coast Guard collection of information (Collection). The ICR contains information describing the Collection's purpose, the Collection's likely burden on the affected public, an explanation of the necessity of the Collection, and other important information describing the Collection. There is one ICR for each Collection. The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) The practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. These comments will help OIRA determine whether to approve the ICR referred to in this Notice.
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments to Coast Guard or OIRA must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR. They must also contain the docket number of this request, [USCG-2015-0378], and must be received by December 21, 2015.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
OIRA posts its decisions on ICRs online at
This request provides a 30-day comment period required by OIRA. The Coast Guard published the 60-day notice (80 FR 42509, July 17, 2015) required by 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2). That Notice elicited no comments. Accordingly, no changes have been made to the Collection.
1.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Thirty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 the U.S. Coast Guard is forwarding an Information Collection Request (ICR), abstracted below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting an extension of its approval for the following collection of information: 1625-0015, Bridge Permit Application Guide (BPAG). Our ICR describes the information we seek to collect from the public. Review and comments by OIRA ensure we only impose paperwork burdens commensurate with our performance of duties.
Comments must reach the Coast Guard and OIRA on or before December 21, 2015.
You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2015-0690] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
(1)
(2)
(3)
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the Internet at
Mr. Anthony Smith, Office of Information Management, telephone 202-475-3532, or fax 202-372-8405, for questions on these documents.
This Notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. chapter 35, as amended. An ICR is an application to OIRA seeking the approval, extension, or renewal of a Coast Guard collection of information (Collection). The ICR contains information describing the Collection's purpose, the Collection's likely burden on the affected public, an explanation of the necessity of the Collection, and other important information describing the Collection. There is one ICR for each Collection. The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) The practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. These comments will help OIRA determine whether to approve the ICR referred to in this Notice.
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments to Coast Guard or OIRA must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR. They must also contain the docket number of this request, [USCG-2015-0690], and must be received by December 21, 2015.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
OIRA posts its decisions on ICRs online at
This request provides a 30-day comment period required by OIRA. The Coast Guard published the 60-day notice (80 FR 51291, August 24, 2015) required by 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2). That Notice elicited no comments. Accordingly, no changes have been made to the Collections.
1.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. chapter 35, as amended.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Thirty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 the U.S. Coast Guard is forwarding an Information Collection Request (ICR), abstracted below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting approval of a revision to the following collection of information: 1625-0099, Requirements for the Use of Liquefied Petroleum Gas and Compressed Natural Gas as Cooking Fuel on Passenger Vessels. Our ICR describes the information we seek to collect from the public. Review and comments by OIRA ensure we only impose paperwork burdens commensurate with our performance of duties.
Comments must reach the Coast Guard and OIRA on or before December 21, 2015.
You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2015-0691] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
(1)
(2)
(3)
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the Internet at
Mr. Anthony Smith, Office of Information Management, telephone 202-475-3532, or fax 202-372-8405, for questions on these documents.
This Notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. chapter 35, as amended. An ICR is an application to OIRA seeking the approval, extension, or renewal of a Coast Guard collection of information (Collection). The ICR contains information describing the Collection's purpose, the Collection's likely burden on the affected public, an explanation of the necessity of the Collection, and other important information describing the Collection. There is one ICR for each Collection. The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) The practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. These comments will help OIRA determine whether to approve the ICR referred to in this Notice.
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments to Coast Guard or OIRA must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR. They must also contain the docket number of this request, [USCG-2015-0691], and must be received by December 21, 2015.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
OIRA posts its decisions on ICRs online at
This request provides a 30-day comment period required by OIRA. The Coast Guard published the 60-day notice (80 FR 48555, August 13, 2015) required by 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2). That Notice elicited no comments. Accordingly, no changes have been made to the Collection.
1.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. chapter 35, as amended.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Sixty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the U.S. Coast Guard intends to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting approval for reinstatement, with change, of the following collection of information: 1625-0041, Various International Agreement Pollution Prevention Certificates and Documents, and Equivalency Certificates. Our ICR describe the information we seek to collect from the public. Before submitting this ICR to OIRA, the Coast Guard is inviting comments as described below.
Comments must reach the Coast Guard on or before January 19, 2016.
You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2015-0757] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the Internet at
Mr. Anthony Smith, Office of Information Management, telephone 202-475-3532, or fax 202-372-8405, for questions on these documents.
This Notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. chapter 35, as amended. An ICR is an application to OIRA seeking the approval, extension, or renewal of a Coast Guard collection of information (Collection). The ICR contains information describing the Collection's purpose, the Collection's likely burden on the affected public, an explanation of the necessity of the Collection, and other important information describing the Collection. There is one ICR for each Collection.
The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) The practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. In response to your comments, we may revise this ICR or decide not to seek reinstatement of the Collection. We will consider all comments and material received during the comment period.
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR and the docket number of this request, [USCG-2015-0757], and must be received by January 19, 2016.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
1.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. chapter 35, as amended.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Thirty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 the U.S. Coast Guard is forwarding an Information Collection Request (ICR), abstracted below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting approval of a revision to the following collection of information: 1625-0088, Voyage Planning for Tank Barge Transits in the Northeast United States. Our ICR describes the information we seek to collect from the public. Review and comments by OIRA ensure we only impose paperwork burdens commensurate with our performance of duties.
Comments must reach the Coast Guard and OIRA on or before December 21, 2015.
You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2015-0636] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
(1)
(2)
(3)
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the Internet at
Mr. Anthony Smith, Office of Information Management, telephone 202-475-3532, or fax 202-372-8405, for questions on these documents.
This Notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. chapter 35, as amended. An ICR is an application to OIRA seeking the approval, extension, or renewal of a Coast Guard collection of information (Collection). The ICR contains information describing the Collection's purpose, the Collection's likely burden on the affected public, an explanation of the necessity of the Collection, and other important information describing the Collection. There is one ICR for each Collection. The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) The practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. These comments will help OIRA determine whether to approve the ICR referred to in this Notice.
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments to Coast Guard or OIRA must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR. They must also contain the docket number of this request, [USCG-2015-0636], and must be received by December 21, 2015.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
OIRA posts its decisions on ICRs online at
This request provides a 30-day comment period required by OIRA. The Coast Guard has published the 60-day notice (80 FR 48552, August 13, 2015) required by 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2). That Notice elicited no comments. Accordingly, no changes have been made to the Collection.
1.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. chapter 35, as amended.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Thirty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 the U.S. Coast Guard is forwarding an Information Collection Request (ICR), abstracted below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting approval of a revision to the following collection of information: 1625-0103, Mandatory Ship Reporting System for the Northeast and Southeast Coasts of the United States. Our ICR describes the information we seek to collect from the public. Review and comments by OIRA ensure we only impose paperwork burdens commensurate with our performance of duties.
Comments must reach the Coast Guard and OIRA on or before December 21, 2015.
You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2015-0692] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
(1)
(2)
(3)
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the Internet at
Mr. Anthony Smith, Office of Information Management, telephone 202-475-3532, or fax 202-372-8405, for questions on these documents.
This Notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. chapter 35, as amended. An ICR is an application to OIRA seeking the approval, extension, or renewal of a Coast Guard collection of information (Collection). The ICR contains information describing the Collection's purpose, the Collection's likely burden on the affected public, an explanation of the necessity of the Collection, and other important information describing the Collection. There is one ICR for each Collection. The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) The practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. These comments will help OIRA determine whether to approve the ICR referred to in this Notice.
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments to Coast Guard or OIRA must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR. They must also contain the docket number of this request, [USCG-2015-0692], and must be received by December 21, 2015.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
OIRA posts its decisions on ICRs online at
This request provides a 30-day comment period required by OIRA. The Coast Guard published the 60-day notice (80 FR 48554, August 13, 2015) required by 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2). That Notice elicited no comments. Accordingly, no changes have been made to the Collection.
1.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Thirty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 the U.S. Coast Guard is forwarding an Information Collection Request (ICR), abstracted below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting approval of a revision to the following collection of information: 1625-0070, Vessel Identification System. Our ICR describes the information we seek to collect from the public. Review and comments by OIRA ensure we only impose paperwork burdens commensurate with our performance of duties.
Comments must reach the Coast Guard and OIRA on or before December 30, 2015.
You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2015-0689] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
(1)
(2)
(3)
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the Internet at
Mr. Anthony Smith, Office of Information Management, telephone 202-475-3532, or fax 202-372-8405, for questions on these documents.
This Notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended. An ICR is an application to OIRA seeking the approval, extension, or renewal of a Coast Guard collection of information (Collection). The ICR contains information describing the Collection's purpose, the Collection's likely burden on the affected public, an explanation of the necessity of the Collection, and other important information describing the Collection. There is one ICR for each Collection.
The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) The practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. These comments will help OIRA determine whether to approve the ICR referred to in this Notice.
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments to Coast Guard or OIRA must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR. They must also contain the docket number of this request, [USCG-2015-0689], and must be received by December 30, 2015.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
OIRA posts its decisions on ICRs online at
This request provides a 30-day comment period required by OIRA. The Coast Guard published the 60-day notice (80 FR 48550, August 13, 2015) required by 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2). That Notice elicited no comments. Accordingly, no changes have been made to the Collection.
1.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Thirty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 the U.S. Coast Guard is forwarding an Information Collection Request (ICR), abstracted below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting approval for reinstatement, with change, of the following collection of information 1625-0067, Claims under the Oil Pollution Act of 1990. Our ICR describe the information we seek to collect from the public. Review and comments by OIRA ensure we only impose paperwork burdens commensurate with our performance of duties.
Comments must reach the Coast Guard and OIRA on or before December 21, 2015.
You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2015-0382] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
(1)
(2)
(3)
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the Internet at
Mr. Anthony Smith, Office of Information Management, telephone 202-475-3532, or fax 202-372-8405, for questions on these documents.
This Notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended. An ICR is an application to OIRA seeking the approval, extension, or renewal of a Coast Guard collection of information (Collection). The ICR contains information describing the Collection's purpose, the Collection's likely burden on the affected public, an explanation of the necessity of the Collection, and other important information describing the Collection. There is one ICR for each Collection. The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) The practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. These comments will help OIRA determine whether to approve the ICR referred to in this Notice.
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments to Coast Guard or OIRA must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR. They must also contain the docket number of this request, [USCG-2015-0382], and must be received by December 21, 2015.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
OIRA posts its decisions on ICRs online at
This request provides a 30-day comment period required by OIRA. The Coast Guard has published the 60-day notice (80 FR 35386, June 19, 2015) required by 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2). That Notice elicited no comments. Accordingly, no changes have been made to the Collection.
1.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended.
Sincerely,
Coast Guard, DHS.
Sixty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the U.S. Coast Guard intends to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting approval for reinstatement, with change, of the following collection of information: 1625-0009, Oil Record Book for Ships. Our ICR describe the information we seek to collect from the public. Before submitting this ICR to OIRA, the Coast Guard is inviting comments as described below.
Comments must reach the Coast Guard on or before January 19, 2016.
You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2015-0756] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the Internet at
Mr. Anthony Smith, Office of Information Management, telephone 202-475-3532, or fax 202-372-8405, for questions on these documents.
This Notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. chapter 35, as amended. An ICR is an application to OIRA seeking the approval, extension, or renewal of a Coast Guard collection of information (Collection). The ICR contains information describing the Collection's purpose, the Collection's likely burden on the affected public, an explanation of the necessity of the Collection, and other important information describing the Collection. There is one ICR for each Collection.
The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) The practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. In response to your comments, we may revise this ICR or decide not to seek reinstatement of the Collection. We will consider all comments and material received during the comment period.
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR and the docket number of this request, [USCG-2015-0756], and must be received by January 19, 2016.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
1.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. chapter 35, as amended.
ICE, DHS.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting.
The U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE) Advisory Committee on Family Residential Centers (ACFRC) will hold its inaugural meeting in Washington, DC to discuss specific challenges within ICE family residential centers and areas of focus for its initial work. This meeting will be open to the public. Individuals who wish to attend the meeting in person are required to register online at
The Advisory Committee on Family Residential Centers will meet on Monday, December 14, 2015, from 9:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m. Please note that these
The meeting will be held in the Julie Myers Conference Center at ICE Headquarters, 500 12th St. SW., Washington, DC 20536.
For information on facilities, services for individuals with disabilities, or to request special assistance at the meeting, contact Mr. John Amaya, Designated Federal Officer, at
Mr. John Amaya, Designated Federal Officer for the Advisory Committee on Family Residential Centers, at
Notice of this meeting is given under the
The agenda for the Advisory Committee on Family Residential Centers meeting is as follows:
The meeting agenda and all meeting documentation will be made available online at:
A public oral comment period will be held at the end of the day. Speakers are requested to limit their comments to 2 minutes. Please note that the public comment period may end before the time indicated, following the last call for comments.
Office of Justice Programs (OJP), Justice.
Notice of meeting.
This notice announces a forthcoming meeting of OJP's Science Advisory Board (“the Board”). General Function of the Board: The Board is chartered to provide OJP, a component of the Department of Justice, with valuable advice in the areas of science and statistics for the purpose of enhancing the overall impact and performance of its programs and activities in criminal and juvenile justice.
The meeting will take place on Friday, January 22, 2016, from approximately 9 a.m. to 4 p.m., with a break for lunch at approximately 12:00 p.m.
The meeting will take place in the Main Conference Room on the third floor of the Office of Justice Programs, 810 7th Street Northwest, Washington, DC 20531.
Katherine Darke Schmitt, Designated Federal Officer (DFO), Office of the Assistant Attorney General, Office of Justice Programs, 810 7th Street Northwest, Washington, DC 20531; Phone: (202) 616-7373 [Note: This is not a toll-free number]; Email:
This meeting is being convened to brief the OJP Assistant Attorney General and the Board members on the progress of the subcommittees, discuss any recommendations they may have for consideration by the full Board, and brief the Board on various OJP-related projects and activities. The final agenda is subject to adjustment, but the meeting will likely include briefings of the subcommittees' activities and discussion of future Board actions and priorities. This meeting is open to the public. Members of the public who wish to attend this meeting must register with Katherine Darke Schmitt at the above address at least seven (7) calendar days in advance of the meeting. Registrations will be accepted on a space available basis. Access to the meeting will not be allowed without registration. Persons interested in communicating with the Board should submit their written comments to the DFO, as the time available will not allow the public to directly address the Board at the meeting. Anyone requiring special accommodations should notify Ms. Darke Schmitt at least seven (7) calendar days in advance of the meeting.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Supplemental environmental impact statement; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing a final plant-specific supplement, Supplement 55, to NUREG-1437, “Generic Environmental Impact Statement for License Renewal of Nuclear Plants” (GEIS), regarding the renewal of Exelon Generating Company, LLC (Exelon) operating licenses NPF-72 and NPF-77 for Braidwood Station, Units 1 and 2 (Braidwood), respectively, for an additional 20 years of operation.
The final Supplement 55 to the GEIS is available as of November 19, 2015.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2013-0169 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
• Federal Rulemaking Web site: Go to
• NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS): You may obtain publicly-available documents online in the ADAMS Public Documents collection at
• NRC's PDR: You may examine and purchase copies of public documents at the NRC's PDR, Room O1-F21, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
Richard Baum, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-0018; email:
In accordance with § 51.118 of title 10 of the
As discussed in Chapter 5 of the final Supplement 55 to the GEIS, the NRC determined that the adverse environmental impacts of license renewal for Braidwood are not so great that preserving the option of license renewal for energy-planning decision makers would be unreasonable. This recommendation is based on: (1) The analysis and findings in the GEIS; (2) information provided in the environmental report and other documents submitted by Exelon; (3) consultation with Federal, State, local, and Tribal agencies; (4) the NRC staff's independent environmental review; and (5) consideration of public comments received during the scoping process and on the draft Supplement 55 to the GEIS.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Notice of submission to the Office of Management and Budget; request for comment.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has recently submitted a request for renewal of an existing collection of information to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review. The information collection is entitled, “NRC Form 244, Registration Certificate—Use of Depleted Uranium Under General License.”
Submit comments by December 21, 2015.
Submit comments directly to the OMB reviewer at: Vlad Dorjets, Desk Officer, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (3150-0031), NEOB-10202, Office of Management and Budget, Washington, DC 20503; telephone: 202-395-7315, email:
Tremaine Donnell, NRC Clearance Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-6258; email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2015-0116 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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•
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information in comment submissions that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. All comment submissions are posted at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the OMB, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that comment submissions are not routinely edited to remove such information before making the comment
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 35), the NRC recently submitted a request for renewal of an existing collection of information to OMB for review entitled, “NRC Form 244, Registration Certificate—Use of Depleted Uranium Under General License.” The NRC hereby informs potential respondents that an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and that a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The NRC published a
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For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Director's decision under 10 CFR 2.206; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has issued a director's decision with regard to a petition dated July 29, 2011, filed by Mr. David Lochbaum, Director for Nuclear Safety Project of Union of Concerned Scientists (the petitioner), requesting that the NRC take action with regard to all operating General Electric (GE) boiling-water reactor (BWR) licensees with Mark I and Mark II primary containment designs (referred hereafter as the licensees).
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2011-0267 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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John G. Lamb, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-3100, email:
Notice is hereby given that the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, has issued a director's decision (ADAMS Accession No. ML15132A625) on a petition filed by the petitioner on July 29, 2011 (ADAMS Accession No. ML11213A030).
The petitioner requested that the NRC issue a demand for information (DFI) of the operating licenses of all GE BWRs that utilize the Mark I and Mark II primary containment designs.
The NRC sent a copy of the proposed director's decision to the petitioner and the licensees for comment on April 17, 2015 (ADAMS Accession No. ML12215A283). The petitioner and the licensees were asked to provide comments within 30 days on any part of the proposed director's decision that was considered to be erroneous or any issues in the petition that were not addressed. The NRC staff received comments on the proposed director's decision from the petitioner by letter dated May 8, 2015 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15128A388). The NRC staff responses to the comments are attached to the director's decision.
The Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation denies the petition because the NRC staff has reasonable assurance that the design and operation of SFP cooling systems for BWRs with Mark I and II containment designs provide adequate assurance of public
The NRC will file a copy of the director's decision with the Secretary of the Commission for the Commission's review in accordance with 10 CFR 2.206. As provided by this regulation, the director's decision will constitute the final action of the Commission 25 days after the date of the decision unless the Commission, on its own motion, institutes a review of the director's decision in that time.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
U.S. Office of Personnel Management (OPM).
Notice of a new system of records.
Pursuant to the provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a), as amended, and Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Circular No. A-130, notice is given that the U.S. Office of Personnel Management (OPM) proposes to establish a new agency-wide system of records entitled “Correspondence Management for the U.S. Office of Personnel Management,” Internal-21. The purpose of this agency-wide notice is to increase administrative efficiency and to centralize and simplify for the public the process of obtaining information and making requests. This system notice does not supersede systems of records covered by separately-noticed systems.
Please submit any comments by December 21, 2015. The routine uses for releasing records from this system will be effective without further notice on December 21, 2015 unless comments are received that would result in a contrary determination.
Send written comments to the Office of Personnel Management, ATTN: Jozetta Robinson, U.S. Office of Personnel Management, 1900 E Street NW., Room 5450, Washington, DC 20415. Written comments can also be sent by email to
Jozetta Robinson by telephone at 202-606-1000, or by email at
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4) and (11), the public is given a 30-day period in which to submit written comments. Therefore, please submit any comments by December 21, 2015. A description of the new system of records is provided below. In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a(r), the agency has provided a report to OMB and the Congress.
Correspondence Management for the U.S. Office of Personnel Management, Internal-21
U.S. Office of Personnel Management, 1900 E Street NW., Washington, DC 20415 and other U.S. Office of Personnel Management locations throughout the United States and the rest of the world.
Individuals originating, receiving, or named in correspondence (including attachments) to or from OPM or whose correspondence is referred to OPM, or persons communicating electronically, by mail, or by telephone with OPM regarding official business of OPM, including Members of Congress, other government officials, individuals, and their representatives; individuals originating, receiving, or named in internal memoranda (including attachments) within OPM, including OPM employees, contractors, and individuals relating to investigations, policy decisions, or administrative matters of significance to OPM.
The categories of records within the system vary according to the wide scope of the responsibilities of OPM. Categories of records may include correspondence identification (
5 U.S.C. 301 and 44 U.S.C. 3101.
The system controls and tracks correspondence received or originated by OPM or referred to OPM, and action taken by OPM in response to correspondence received, as well as some internal memoranda, action items, email correspondence, and logs/notes of official telephone calls. It also serves as a reference source for inquiries and response thereto.
In addition to those disclosures otherwise permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b), all or a portion of the records or information contained in this system may be disclosed outside of OPM, for a routine use under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(3) as follows:
a. For Law Enforcement Purposes—To disclose pertinent information to the appropriate Federal, State, or local agency responsible for investigating, prosecuting, enforcing, or implementing a statute, rule, regulation, or order, where OPM becomes aware of an indication of a violation or potential violation of civil or criminal law or regulation.
b. For Certain Disclosures to Other Federal Agencies—To disclose information to a Federal agency, in response to its request in connection with the hiring or retention of an employee, the issuance of a security clearance, the conducting of a suitability or security investigation of an individual, the classifying of jobs, the letting of a contract, or the issuance of a license, grant, or other benefit by the requesting agency, to the extent that the information is relevant and necessary to the requesting agency's decision on the matter.
c. For Congressional Inquiry—To provide information to a congressional office from the record of an individual in response to an inquiry from that congressional office made at the request of that individual.
d. For Judicial/Administrative Proceedings—To disclose information to another Federal agency, to a court, or a party in litigation before a court or in an administrative proceeding being conducted by a Federal agency, when the Government is a party to the judicial or administrative proceeding. In those cases where the Government is not a party to the proceeding, records may be disclosed if a subpoena has been signed by a judge.
e. For National Archives and Records Administration—To disclose information to the National Archives and Records Administration for use in records management inspections.
f. Within OPM for Statistical/Analytical Studies—By OPM in the production of summary descriptive statistics and analytical studies in support of the function for which the records are collected and maintained, or for related workforce studies. While published studies do not contain individual identifiers, in some instances the selection of elements of data included in the study may be structured in such a way as to make the data individually identifiable by inference.
g. For Litigation—To disclose information to the Department of Justice, or in a proceeding before a court, adjudicative body, or other administrative body before which OPM is authorized to appear, when: (1) OPM, or any component thereof; or (2) any employee of OPM in his or her official capacity; or (3) Any employee of OPM in his or her individual capacity where the Department of Justice or OPM has agreed to represent the employee; or (4) the United States, when OPM determines that litigation is likely to affect OPM or any of its components; is a party to litigation or has an interest in such litigation, and the use of such records by the Department of Justice or OPM is deemed by OPM to be relevant and necessary to the litigation provided, however, that the disclosure is compatible with the purpose for which records were collected.
h. For the Merit Systems Protection Board—To disclose information to officials of the Merit Systems Protection Board or the Office of the Special Counsel, when requested in connection with appeals, special studies of the civil service and other merit systems, review of OPM rules and regulations, investigations of alleged or possible prohibited personnel practices, and such other functions,
i. For the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission—To disclose information to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission when requested in connection with investigations into alleged or possible discrimination practices in the Federal sector, compliance by Federal agencies with the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures or other functions vested in the Commission and to otherwise ensure compliance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 7201.
j. For the Federal Labor Relations Authority—To disclose information to the Federal Labor Relations Authority or its General Counsel when requested in connection with investigations of allegations of unfair labor practices or matters before the Federal Service Impasses Panel.
k. For Non-Federal Personnel—To disclose information to contractors, grantees, or volunteers performing or working on a contract, service, grant, cooperative agreement, or job for the Federal Government.
l. To appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when (1) OPM suspects or has confirmed that the security or confidentiality of information in the system of records has been compromised; (2) the agency has determined that as a result of the suspected or confirmed compromise there is a risk of harm to economic or property interests, identity theft or fraud, or harm to the security or integrity of this system or other systems or programs (whether maintained by OPM or another agency or entity) that rely upon the compromised information; and (3) the disclosure made to such agencies, entities, and persons is reasonably necessary to assist in connection with OPM's efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed compromise and prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm.
Records are stored in electronic form and on paper.
Information can be retrieved by name of individual; subject matter of topic; or in some cases, by other identifying search term employed.
Information in this system is safeguarded in accordance with applicable rules and policies, including OPM's Information Security & Privacy Policy. In general, records and technical equipment are maintained in buildings with restricted access. The required use of password protection identification features and other system protection methods also restrict access. Access is limited to those who have an official need for access to perform their official duties.
Records are retained and disposed of in accordance with the OPM records schedules approved by the National Archives and Records Administration and/or pursuant to the General Records Schedule.
The system manager is Director, Office of the Executive Secretariat, U.S. Office of Personnel Management, 1900 E Street NW., Room 5450, Washington, DC 20415.
Individuals wishing to determine whether this system of records contains information about them may do so by writing to the FOIA/PA Requester Service Center, U.S. Office of Personnel Management, 1900 E Street NW., Room 5415, Washington, DC 20415, or by emailing
1. Full name, former name, and any other names used.
2. Date and place of birth.
3. Social Security Number.
4. Signature.
5. Description of the information sought.
6. The reason why the individual believes the system contains information on them.
Individuals requesting access must also comply with OPM's Privacy Act regulations regarding verification of identity and access to records (5 CFR part 297). In addition, requesters must provide a notarized statement or an unsworn declaration made in accordance with 28 U.S.C. 1746, in the following format:
• If executed outside the United States: “I declare (or certify, verify, or state) under penalty of perjury under the laws of the United States of America that the foregoing is true and correct. Executed on [date]. [signature].”
• If executed within the United States, its territories, possessions, or commonwealths: “I declare (or certify, verify, or state) under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct. Executed on [date]. [signature].”
Attorneys or other persons acting on behalf of an individual must provide
Individuals wishing to amend information maintained in the system should direct their requests to the FOIA/PA Requester Service Center, U.S. Office of Personnel Management, 1900 E Street NW., Room 5415, Washington, DC 20415, or by emailing
1. Full name, former name, and any other names used.
2. Date and place of birth.
3. Social Security Number.
4. Signature.
5. Information the individual seeks to amend, the reasons for seeking amendment, and the proposed amendments.
Individuals requesting access must also comply with OPM's Privacy Act regulations regarding verification of identity and access to records (5 CFR part 297). In addition, requestors must provide a notarized statement or an unsworn declaration made in accordance with 28 U.S.C. 1746, in the following format:
• If executed outside the United States: “I declare (or certify, verify, or state) under penalty of perjury under the laws of the United States of America that the foregoing is true and correct. Executed on [date]. [signature].”
• If executed within the United States, its territories, possessions, or commonwealths: “I declare (or certify, verify, or state) under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct. Executed on [date]. [signature].”
Attorneys or other persons acting on behalf of an individual must provide written authorization from that individual for the representative to act on their behalf. The written authorization must also include an original notarized statement or an unsworn declaration, as described above.
The information contained in this system is derived from incoming and outgoing correspondence and internal memoranda. Sources include individuals; state, local, tribal, and foreign government agencies as appropriate; the executive and legislative branches of the Federal Government; the Judiciary; and interested third parties.
A determination as to exemption shall be made at the time a request for access or amendment is received. OPM has promulgated rules in 5 CFR 297.501(c) reserving the right to assert exemptions for these records when received from another agency that could properly claim such exemptions in responding to a request, and reserving the right to refuse access to information compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or litigation.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend the NYSE Arca Options Fee Schedule (“Fee Schedule”). The Exchange proposes to implement the fee changes effective December 1, 2015. The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The purpose of this filing is to amend the Fee Schedule, effective December 1, 2015. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to decrease certain fees charged to Market Makers, Lead Market Makers, Firms and Broker Dealers, and Professional Customers (collectively, “Non-Customers”) for Taking Liquidity in Penny Pilot Issues (“Take Fees”). Last month the Exchange increased the Take Fees charged to Non-Customers from $0.50 to $0.52 per contract for electronic executions.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed Take Fees for Non-Customers reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because they are competitive with fees charged by other exchanges and are designed to attract (and compete for) order flow to the Exchange, which provides a greater opportunity for trading by all market participants.
For these reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
Instead, the Exchange believes that the proposed change would continue to encourage competition and make the Exchange a more competitive venue for, among other things, order execution and price discovery. In addition, the proposed change would impact all affected order types (
The Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually review, and consider adjusting, its fees and credits to remain competitive with other exchanges. For the reasons described above, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change reflects this competitive environment.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
The foregoing rule change is effective upon filing pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The principal purpose of the proposed rule change is to revise the ICC End-of-Day Price Discovery Policies and Procedures to accommodate industry changes regarding the reduction of the frequency for which Single Name (“SN”) credit default swap (“CDS”) contracts roll to the new on-the-run-contract. These revisions do not require any changes to the ICC Clearing Rules.
In its filing with the Commission, ICC included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received regarding the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. ICC has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of these statements.
ICC proposes revising the ICC End-of-Day Price Discovery Policies and Procedures to accommodate industry changes regarding the reduction of the frequency for which SN CDS contracts roll to the new on-the-run-contract. The changes affect the labeling convention for cleared SN CDS contracts for price reporting purposes, but will not alter the terms of the contracts or the range of tenors of SN CDS contracts currently cleared by ICC.
ICC believes such revisions will facilitate the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions and derivative agreements, contracts, and transactions cleared by ICC. The proposed revisions are described in detail as follows.
As part of ICC's end-of-day price discovery process, ICC Clearing Participants (“CPs”) are required to submit end-of-day prices for specific instruments related to their open interest at ICC, in accordance with Rule 404(b) and ICC Procedures. These end-of-day price submissions are used by ICC in its calculation of settlement prices.
ICC refers to a group of SN instruments with the same risk sub-factor and coupon as a “curve.” Each point, or tenor, along the curve is labeled with a tenor name. Currently for SN instruments, the market convention is to describe tenors based on the period remaining until the scheduled termination date of the contract. Under this convention, the nearest-to-expiring contract is referred to as the 0M tenor, the next nearest to expiring is referred to as the three month (3M) tenor, and so on (with scheduled termination dates spaced at 3 month intervals), up to ten years (10Y). ICC supports the clearing of all 41 SN tenors from 0M to 10Y. As such, ICC also calculates settlement prices for the 41 SN tenors on the curve. However, ICC defines a subset of the 41 tenors as “benchmark-tenors”, which are tenors for which CPs provide submissions in the end-of-day price discovery process. The nine benchmark tenors are 0M, 6M, 1Y, 2Y, 3Y, 4Y, 5Y, 7Y, and 10Y, which correspond to so-called “on-the-run” contracts.
Currently, as a matter of CDS market practice, the “on-the-run” contract for a particular tenor is the contract expiring on the next following quarterly International Money Market (“IMM”) dates (
The CDS industry has proposed reducing the frequency at which SN CDS contracts roll to the new on-the-run contract. Specifically, the CDS industry has proposed moving from quarterly roll dates to semi-annual roll dates for SN CDS contracts. Under the revised approach, market participants are expected to roll SN CDS contracts only on the March 20 and September 20 IMM dates, and the “on-the-run” contracts will be determined based on the next following June 20 and December 20 expiration dates. As a result, a particular contract tenor will generally remain the on-the-run contract for six months, rather than three.
ICC proposes changes to its End-of-Day Price Discovery Policies and Procedures to accommodate the change in roll frequency for on-the-run contracts. Under the revised policy, ICC will re-label scheduled termination dates with benchmark tenor names every six months, on the March 20 and September 20 IMM dates for CDS contracts (
The new nine benchmark tenors will be the 0/3M, 6M, 1Y, 2Y, 3Y, 4Y, 5Y, 7Y and 10Y, which correspond to the on-the-run contracts for those tenors. Eight of the nine benchmark tenors remain constant and refer to individual scheduled termination dates that are fixed for the six-month periods between semi-annual re-labeling, specifically the 6M, 1Y, 2Y, 3Y, 4Y, 5Y, 7Y, and 10Y. However, the 0M tenor matures three months after a semi-annual labeling, and ICC defines the first (shortest-dated) benchmark tenor as the 0M tenor from a semi-annual re-labeling until the maturity of that tenor, and defines the first benchmark tenor as the 3M tenor from the maturity of the 0M tenor through the next semi-annual re-labeling. The label 0/3M tenor refers to this re-mapping of the first benchmark tenor to different IMM dates on a quarterly basis. Throughout the policy, references to the 0M SN tenor has been updated to 0/3M to reflect this change.
Consistent with the approach being taken throughout the CDS market, the changes to accommodate the change in SN roll frequency will take effect with the December 20, 2015 roll.
Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act
ICC does not believe the proposed rule changes would have any impact, or impose any burden, on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed changes are designed to accommodate industry changes regarding the reduction of the frequency for which SN CDS contracts roll to the new on-the-run-contract, and will apply uniformly across all market participants. ICC is not changing the products or tenors of SN CDS offered, and does not believe that the amendments will adversely affect access to clearing or the cost of clearing for CPs or other market participants. Therefore, ICC does not believe the proposed rule changes impose any burden on competition that is inappropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
Written comments relating to the proposed rule change have not been solicited or received. ICC will notify the Commission of any written comments received by ICC.
The foregoing rule change has become effective upon filing pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
All comments received will be posted without change; the Commission does not edit personal identifying information from submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-ICC-2015-018 and should be submitted on or before December 10, 2015.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On August 5, 2015, New York Stock Exchange LLC (“NYSE” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) pursuant
The Exchange proposes to amend its disciplinary rules to permit the reintegration of certain regulatory functions from FINRA as of January 1, 2016.
On June 14, 2010, the NYSE, NYSE Regulation and FINRA entered into a Regulatory Services Agreement (“RSA”), whereby FINRA was retained to perform the market surveillance and enforcement functions that had previously been performed by NYSE, through its wholly-owned subsidiary NYSE Regulation. Pursuant to the RSA, FINRA has been performing Exchange enforcement-related regulatory services, including investigating and bringing enforcement actions for violations of Exchange rules, and conducting disciplinary proceedings arising out of such enforcement actions, including those relating to NYSE-only rules and against dual members and non-FINRA members. To facilitate FINRA's performance of these functions, the Exchange amended its rules to provide that Exchange rules that refer to NYSE Regulation or its staff, Exchange staff, and Exchange departments should be understood to also refer to FINRA staff and FINRA departments acting on behalf of the Exchange pursuant to the RSA.
In 2013, the Exchange adopted new disciplinary rules that are, with certain exceptions, substantially the same as the FINRA Rule 8000 Series and Rule 9000 Series, which set forth rules for conducting investigations and enforcement actions.
In October 2014, the Exchange announced that, upon expiration of the current RSA on December 31, 2015, certain market surveillance, investigation and enforcement functions performed by FINRA on behalf of the Exchange would be reintegrated.
The Exchange proposes the following changes to facilitate the reintegration of certain regulatory functions from FINRA by providing that investigative and enforcement functions of the Exchange under the Rule 8000 and 9000 Series would be performed by personnel and departments reporting to the CRO of the Exchange
NYSE Rule 9210 sets forth the definitions applicable to the disciplinary code. The Exchange proposes to add definitions of “Enforcement,” referring to any department reporting to the CRO of the Exchange with responsibility for investigating or imposing sanctions on a member organization or covered person, in addition to FINRA's Departments of Enforcement and Market Regulation;
The Exchange further proposes to streamline the definition of “Interested Staff” (Rule 9120(u)) to eliminate references to Exchange and FINRA departments and staff, and provide that “Interested Staff” under any proceeding brought under the Code of Procedure (“Code”) means Regulatory Staff or staff
The Exchange proposes to amend Rules 8210 and 9110 to add rule text providing that in performing functions under the Code, as well as in performing the functions necessary to an investigation, developing a complaint, examination, or proceeding authorized by Exchange rules, the CRO and Regulatory Staff would function independently of the commercial interests of the Exchange and the commercial interests of the member organizations.
The Exchange proposes to amend Rules 9141 and 9242 to prohibit former Regulatory Staff from appearing on behalf of any other person in a proceeding under the Rule 9000 Series and from providing expert testimony on behalf of any other person in a proceeding under the Rule 9000 Series within one year of termination of employment with the Exchange or FINRA, respectively. However, Regulatory Staff would be permitted to testify as a witness on behalf of the Exchange or FINRA.
The Exchange proposes to amend Rules 9211, 9216 and 9270 to provide that the CRO would be responsible for (i) authorizing Enforcement to issue a complaint; (ii) accepting or rejecting AWC letters and minor rule violation plan letters; and (iii) accepting or rejecting uncontested offers of settlement before a hearing on the merits has begun, rather than FINRA's ODA.
The Exchange proposes to amend Rules 9216, 9270 and 9310 to permit a Director and any member of the CFR to require a review by the Board of any AWC letter under Rule 9216 and any offer of settlement under Rule 9270. The Exchange also proposes to permit any party to require a review by the Board of any rejection by the CRO or Hearing Panel or Extended Hearing Panel of an AWC letter or uncontested offer of settlement.
The Exchange proposes to add subparagraph (B)(i) to Rule 9310(a)(1), providing that any Director and any member of the CFR may require a review by the Board of any determination or penalty, or both, imposed in connection with an AWC letter under Rule 9216 or an offer of settlement determined to be uncontested before a hearing on the merits has begun under Rule 9270(f), except that none of those persons could request Board review of a determination or penalty concerning an Exchange member or member organization that is an affiliate of the Exchange. Under current Rule 9310(a)(1), the call for review process encompasses only determinations or penalties imposed by a Hearing Panel or Extended Hearing Panel, and thus is not available with respect to AWC letters and offers of settlement determined to be uncontested before a hearing on the merits has begun. The Exchange further proposes that a request for review would be made by filing with the Secretary of the Exchange a written request stating the basis and reasons for such review, within 25 days after an AWC letter or an offer of settlement has been sent to each Director and each member of the CFR pursuant to Rule 9216(a)(4) or Rule 9270(f)(3).
In addition to broadening the types of settlements with respect to which a Director or member of the CFR may require Board review, the Exchange proposes that any party could require a review by the Exchange Board of Directors of any rejection by the CRO of an AWC letter under Rule 9216 or an offer of settlement determined to be uncontested before a hearing on the merits has begun under Rule 9270(f), except that no party could request Board review of a rejection of an AWC letter or offer of settlement concerning an Exchange member or member organization that is an affiliate of the Exchange. Thus, while current Rule 9310(a)(1) permits parties to request Board review of a determination by a Hearing Panel or Extended Hearing Panel to reject an uncontested offer of settlement, the proposed rule change would also allow parties to request Board review of any rejection of an AWC letter or uncontested offer of settlement by the CRO. Under subparagraph (B)(ii) of proposed Rule 9310(a)(1), such a request for review would be made by filing with the Secretary of the Exchange a written request therefor, which states the basis and reasons for such review, within 25 days after notification pursuant to Rule 9216(a)(3) or Rule 9270(h) that an AWC letter or uncontested offer of settlement or order of acceptance is not accepted by the CRO. The Exchange proposes that the Secretary of the Exchange would give notice of any such request for review to the parties.
The Exchange also proposes amending Rules 476, 8120, 9001, 9110, 9217, 9232, 9310 and 9810 to make certain technical changes and correct a typographical error in Exchange Rule 9217. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to (i) include a reference to the 8000 series in Rule 476(a) and Exchange Rule 9001, (ii) delete obsolete text in Rule 476 and 9110, (iii) cross-reference the term “Regulatory Staff” in Rule 8120, (iv) revise Rule 9232 to provide that the Board shall from time to time appoint a Hearing Board in lieu of the Chairman of the Board subject to the Board's approval, (v) revise the title of Rule 9810(a) from “Department of Enforcement or Department of Regulation” to “Enforcement; Service and Filing of Notice,” and (vi) amend Rule 9310 to provide that none of the persons referenced in the Rule,
The Commission believes that the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment Nos. 1, 3 and 5, is consistent with Section 6 of the Act,
The Commission believes that (i) eliminating specific references to FINRA departments and replacing them with “Enforcement,” which would include departments reporting to the CRO of the Exchange with responsibility for investigating or sanctioning member organizations or covered persons, as well as FINRA's Departments of Enforcement and Market Regulation, and (ii) using the term “Regulatory Staff, ” which would include both Exchange employees, including officers, reporting directly or indirectly to the CRO and FINRA staff acting on behalf of the Exchange in connection with the 8000 and 9000 series, should enable the Exchange to perform the functions described in the rules after it resumes certain regulatory functions next year. In addition, the proposed rule change would continue to allow FINRA to perform certain functions, such as cross-market surveillance and related investigation and enforcement activities, on behalf of the Exchange.
The Commission also believes that making the CRO responsible for authorizing complaints and approving AWC letters, minor rule violation plan letters and offers of settlement determined to be uncontested prior to a hearing on the in merits, in place of FINRA's ODA is consistent with the Act. These changes are similar to the rules of other self-regulatory organizations.
The Commission also believes that it is consistent with the Act for the Exchange to have a rule prohibiting former Regulatory Staff from representing respondents and providing expert testimony in Exchange disciplinary matters within one year of termination of employment with either FINRA or the Exchange. These provisions are substantially similar to FINRA Rules 9141(c) and 9242(b),
Finally, with respect to the Exchange's proposed miscellaneous changes to Rules 476, 8120, 9001, 9110, 9217, 9232, 9310 and 9810, the Commission notes that most of these changes, such as deleting obsolete text, correcting a typographical error, adding cross-references, and amending the title of a rule to better reflect the rule, are merely technical in nature. With respect to the Exchange's proposed change to Rule 9232, which would require the Board to appoint a Hearing Board in lieu of the Chairman of the Board, subject to the Board's approval, the Commission believes that as the Board is currently required to approve the appointment of the Hearing Board, it is unnecessary to require the Chairman to appoint the Hearing Board as an initial matter. Also, with respect to the Exchange's proposed changes to Rule 9310(a), the Commission notes that some of the changes to this filing are necessary to reflect recently approved rule text.
For the foregoing reasons, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment Nos. 1, 3, and 5, is consistent with Sections 6(b)(5) and 6(b)(7) of the Act
The Commission finds good cause, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act, to approve the proposal, as modified by Amendment Nos. 1, 3, and 5, prior to the 30th day after publication of Amendment Nos. 3 and 5 in the
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether this filing, as modified by Amendment Nos. 3 and 5, is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend the NYSE Arca Options Fee Schedule (“Fee Schedule”). The Exchange proposes to implement the fee changes effective November 2, 2015. The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The purpose of this filing is to amend the Fee Schedule in a number of different ways, effective November 2, 2015. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to increase certain Take Liquidity Fees charged; to introduce new posting credits; and to modify the Take Fee Discount Qualification, as described below.
The Exchange proposes to modify the fees paid by Market Makers, Lead Market Makers, Firms and Broker Dealers, and Professional Customers (collectively, “Non-Customers”) for Taking Liquidity in Penny Pilot Issues (“Take Fees”). Currently, Non-Customers pay Take Fees of $0.50 per contract for electronic executions. The Exchange proposes to raise that fee to $0.52 per contract, which is within the range of fees charged by competing option exchanges.
The Exchange is proposing to add a new tier to the Customer Monthly Posting Credit Tiers for Penny Pilot Issues (“Posting Credit Tiers,” each a “Tier”), which currently has six Tiers.
To qualify for proposed Tier 6, Order Flow Providers (“OFPs”) must achieve at least 0.50% of Total Industry Customer equity and ETF option Average Daily Volume (“ADV”) from Customer and Professional Customer Posted Orders in all Issues Plus Executed ADV of 0.70% of U.S. Equity Market Share Posted and Executed on NYSE Arca Equity Market.
The Exchange is proposing two modifications to the Customer and Professional Customer Incentive Program, which provides four alternatives to earn credits. Currently, if an OTP Holder or OTP Firm (each an “OTP”) executes at least 0.75% of Total Industry Customer equity and ETF option ADV from Customer and Professional Customer Posted Orders in both Penny Pilot and non-Penny Pilot Issues, of which at least 0.25% of Total Industry Customer equity and ETF option ADV is from Customer and Professional Customer Posted Orders in non-Penny Pilot Issues, that OFP qualifies for an additional $0.03 Credit on Customer and Professional Customer Posting Credits. The Exchange proposes to increase the 0.75% minimum volume requirement to 1.00% and to increase the applicable additional credit to $0.04.
The Exchange also proposes a fifth alternative to qualify for additional credits under the Customer and Professional Customer Incentive Program. The Exchange proposes that an OTP that has an executed ADV of 0.70% of U.S. equity market share posted and executed on NYSE Arca Equity Market
Lastly, the Exchange proposes modifications to the Discount in Take Liquidity Fees for Professional Customer, Market Maker, Firm and Broker Dealer Liquidity Removing Orders (the “Take Fee Discount”) for OTPs. Currently, the Take Fee Discount is applied if the OTP meets both qualifications of at least 1.00% of Total Industry Customer equity and ETF option ADV from Customer and Professional Customer Posted Orders in all Issues AND at least 2.00% of Total Industry Customer equity and ETF option ADV from Professional Customer, Market Maker, Firm, and Broker Dealer Liquidity Removing Orders in all Issues. The Take Fee Discount applied to orders meeting both qualifications is $0.02 in Penny Pilot issues, and $0.06 in non-Penny Pilot issues.
The Exchange proposes to modify the qualifications such that meeting either qualification (rather than both) would enable an OTP to receive the discount, which would make the Discount easier to achieve. The Exchange also proposes to increase the Take Fee Discount for applicable orders in Penny Pilot Issues from $0.02 to $0.04, and to discontinue the Take Fee Discount applied to executions in non-Penny Pilot issues. Thus, as proposed, a discount of $0.04 in Penny Pilot issues would be applied if the OTP executes at least 1.00% of Total Industry Customer equity and ETF option ADV from Customer and Professional Customer Posted Orders in all Issues, OR executes at least 2.00% of Total Industry Customer equity and ETF option ADV from Professional Customer, Market Maker, Firm, and Broker Dealer Liquidity Removing Orders in all Issues.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed Take Fees for Non-Customers reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because they are competitive with fees charged by other exchanges and are designed to attract (and compete for) order flow to the Exchange, which provides a greater opportunity for trading by all market participants.
The Exchange believes the introduction of a new Tier in the Customer and Professional Customer Monthly Posting Credit Tiers and Qualifications for Executions in Penny Pilot Issues is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because it is designed to attract additional Customer (and Professional Customer) electronic equity and ETF option volume to the Exchange, which additional liquidity would benefit all participants by offering greater price discovery, increased transparency, and an increased opportunity to trade on the Exchange. Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposed credits available on this new Tier are reasonable because they would incent OTPs to submit Customer (and Professional Customer) electronic equity and ETF option orders to the Exchange and would result in credits that are reasonably related to the Exchange's market quality that is associated with higher volumes. The Exchange also notes that cross-asset
The Exchange believes the proposed modifications to the Customer and Professional Customer Incentive Program are reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because they are designed to attract additional Customer (and Professional Customer) electronic equity and ETF option volume to the Exchange, which additional liquidity would benefit all participants by offering greater price discovery, increased transparency, and an increased opportunity to trade on the Exchange. Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposed credits available in the new (fifth) alternative would provide additional incentive to OTPs to submit Customer (and Professional Customer) electronic equity and ETF option orders to the Exchange and would result in credits that are reasonably related to the Exchange's market quality that is associated with higher volumes. In addition, the proposed fifth alternative would attract additional posted order flow to NYSE Arca Equities, so as to provide additional opportunities for all ETP Holders to trade on NYSE Arca Equities.
The Exchange believes the changes to the take Fee Discount for Non-Customers are reasonable, equitable and non-discriminatory because it makes the Discount easier to achieve which would incentivize OTPs to execute large volumes of orders on the Exchange, which benefits all market participants through increased liquidity and enhanced price discovery. The Exchange believes the elimination of the Discount for Non-Penny Issues encourages OTPs to bring more business to the Exchange in Penny Pilot issues, which are generally the most active issues, to the benefit of Customers and Non-Customers alike. The Exchange believes the Take Fee Discount is reasonable, equitable, and not unfairly discriminatory because it continues to apply to all participants other than Customers, who pay a much lower Take Liquidity Fee, and because it is available to all firms that provide Customer and Professional Customer orders. The Exchange also notes that the proposed Take Fee discount is consistent with those offered on competing options exchanges.
For these reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
The increases in Take Liquidity fees will impact all affected order types (
The Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually review, and consider adjusting, its fees and credits to remain competitive with other exchanges. For the reasons described above, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change reflects this competitive environment.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
The foregoing rule change is effective upon filing pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
The Social Security Administration (SSA) publishes a list of information collection packages requiring clearance by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in compliance with Public Law 104-13, the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, effective October 1, 1995. This notice includes revisions and an extension of OMB-approved information collections.
SSA is soliciting comments on the accuracy of the agency's burden estimate; the need for the information; its practical utility; ways to enhance its quality, utility, and clarity; and ways to minimize burden on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Mail, email, or fax your comments and recommendations on the information collection(s) to the OMB Desk Officer and SSA Reports Clearance Officer at the following addresses or fax numbers.
Or you may submit your comments online through
I. The information collections below are pending at SSA. SSA will submit them to OMB within 60 days from the date of this notice. To be sure we consider your comments, we must receive them no later than January 19, 2016. Individuals can obtain copies of the collection instruments by writing to the above email address.
1. Privacy and Disclosure of Official Records and Information; Availability of Information and Records to the Public—20 CFR 401.40(b)&(c), 401.55(b), 401.100(a), 402.130, 402.185—0960-0566. SSA established methods for the public to: (1) Access their SSA records; (2) allow SSA to disclose records; (3) correct or amend their SSA records; (4) consent to release of their records; (5) request records under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA); (6) request SSA waive or reduce fees normally charges for release of FOIA; and (7) request access to an extract of their SSN record. SSA often collects the necessary information for these requests through a written letter, with the exception of the consent for release of records, for which we use Form SSA-3288. The respondents are individuals requesting access to, correction of, or disclosure of SSA records.
Type of Request: Revision of an OMB-approved information collection.
2. International Direct Deposit—31 CFR 210—0960-0686. SSA's International Direct Deposit (IDD) Program allows beneficiaries living abroad to receive their payments via direct deposit to an account at a financial institution outside the United States. SSA uses Form SSA-1199-(Country) to enroll Title II beneficiaries residing abroad in IDD, and to obtain the direct deposit information for foreign accounts. Routing account number information varies slightly for each foreign country, so we use a variation of the Treasury Department's Form SF-1199A for each country. The respondents are Social Security beneficiaries residing abroad who want SSA to deposit their Title II benefit payments directly to a foreign financial institution.
Type of Request: Revision of an OMB-approved information collection.
II. SSA submitted the information collections below to OMB for clearance. Your comments regarding the information collections would be most useful if OMB and SSA receive them 30 days from the date of this publication. To be sure we consider your comments, we must receive them no later than December 21, 2015. Individuals can obtain copies of the OMB clearance packages by writing to
1. Farm Self-Employment Questionnaire—20 CFR 404.1082(c) & 404.1095—0960-0061. SSA collects the information on Form SSA-7156 on a voluntary and as-needed basis to determine the existence of an agriculture trade or business, which may affect the monthly benefit, or insured status of the applicant. SSA requires the existence of a trade or business before determining if an individual or partnership may have net earnings from self-employment. When an applicant indicates self-employment as a farmer, SSA uses the SSA-7165 to obtain the information we need to determine the existence of an agricultural trade or business, and subsequent covered earnings for Social Security entitlement purposes. As part of the application process, we conduct a personal interview, either face-to-face or via telephone, and document the interview using Form SSA-7165. The respondents are applicants for Social Security benefits, whose entitlement depends on workers having covered earnings from self-employment as farmers.
Type of Request: Revision of an OMB-approved information collection.
2. Pain Report Child—20 CFR 404.1512 and 416.912—0960-0540. Before SSA can make a disability determination for a child, we require evidence from Supplemental Security Income (SSI) applicants or claimants to prove their disability. Form SSA-3371-BK provides disability interviewers, and SSI applicants or claimants in self-help situations, with a convenient way to record information about claimants' pain or other symptoms. The State disability determination services adjudicators and administrative law judges then use the information from Form SSA-3371-BK to assess the effects of symptoms on function for purposes of determining disability under the Act. The respondents are applicants for, or claimants of, SSI payments.
Type of Request: Revision of an OMB-approved information collection.
3. Internet Request for Replacement of Forms SSA-1099/SSA-1042S—20 CFR 401.45—0960-0583. Title II beneficiaries use Forms SSA-1099 and SSA-1042S, Social Security Benefit Statement, to determine if their Social Security benefits are taxable, and the amount they need to report to the Internal Revenue Service. In cases where the original forms are unavailable (
This is a correction notice. SSA published this information collection as a revision on September 16, 2015 at 80 FR 55705. Since we are not revising the Privacy Act Statement, this is now an extension of an OMB-approved information collection.
Type of Request: Extension of an OMB-approved information collection.
By the virtue of the authority vested in the Secretary of State, including Section 1 of the State Department Basic Authorities Act, as amended (22 U.S.C. 2651a), and by Section 1322(a) of the Fiscal Year 2015 National Defense Authorization Act, Public Law 113-291 (the NDAA), I hereby delegate to the Assistant Secretary of State for International Security and Nonproliferation, to the extent authorized by law, the authority to provide concurrence on proposed assistance by the Department of Defense pursuant to Section 1322(a) of the NDAA when such concurrence is required by Section 1322(c).
Any act, executive order, regulation, or procedure subject to, or affected by, this delegation shall be deemed to be such act, executive order, regulation, or procedure as amended from time to time.
Notwithstanding this delegation of authority, the Secretary, the Deputy Secretary, the Deputy Secretary for Management and Resources, or the Under Secretary for Arms Control and International Security may at any time exercise any authority or function delegated by this delegation of authority.
This delegation of authority shall be published in the
By virtue of the authority vested in the Secretary of State, including Section 1 of the State Department Basic Authorities Act, as amended (22 U.S.C. 2651a), I hereby delegate to the Under Secretary for Political Affairs and to the Assistant Secretary for Consular Affairs, to the extent authorized by law, the authority under Section 306 of the Enhanced Border Security and Visa Entry Reform Act of 2002 (codified at 8 U.S.C. 1735) to determine, in consultation with the Secretary of Homeland Security and the heads of other appropriate United States agencies, that an alien who is a national of a designated state sponsor of international terrorism does not pose a threat to the safety or national security of the United States, under standards and procedures developed in consultation with the Secretary of Homeland Security and the heads of other appropriate United States agencies. This delegation of authority may be re-delegated.
Notwithstanding this delegation of authority, the Secretary, the Deputy Secretary, the Deputy Secretary for Management and Resources, and the Under Secretary for Management may exercise any function or authority delegated by this delegation of authority.
Delegation of Authority 310, dated March 14, 2008, is hereby revoked.
This Delegation of Authority will be published in the
In accordance with section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, as amended (“the Order”), I hereby determine that the individual known as Nasir al-Wahishi, also known as other aliases and transliterations, no longer meets the criteria for designation under the Order, and therefore I hereby revoke the designation of the aforementioned individual as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist pursuant to section 1(b) of the Order.
This notice shall be published in the
The TVA Board of Directors will hold a public meeting on November 20, 2015, at the Knicely Conference Center, 2355 Nashville Road, Bowling Green, Kentucky, on the campus of Western Kentucky University. The public may comment on any agenda item or subject at a
Status: Open.
Chair's Welcome
Approval of minutes of the August 21, 2015, Board Meeting
For more information: Please call TVA Media Relations at (865) 632-6000, Knoxville, Tennessee. People who plan to attend the meeting and have special needs should call (865) 632-6000. Anyone who wishes to comment on any of the agenda in writing may send their comments to: TVA Board of Directors, Board Agenda Comments, 400 West Summit Hill Drive, Knoxville, Tennessee 37902.
Office of the United States Trade Representative.
Notice; request for comments.
The Office of the United States Trade Representative (“USTR”) is providing notice that the Republic of Indonesia has requested the establishment of a dispute settlement panel under the
Although USTR will accept any comments received during the course of the dispute settlement proceedings, comments should be submitted on or before December 18, 2015, to be assured of timely consideration by USTR.
Public comments should be submitted electronically to
If (as explained below) the comment contains confidential information, then the comment should be submitted by fax only to Sandy McKinzy at (202) 395-3640.
Micah Myers, Associate General Counsel, or Juli Schwartz, Assistant General Counsel, Office of the United States Trade Representative, 600 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20508, (202) 395-3150.
Section 127(b) of the Uruguay Round Agreements Act (“URAA”) (19 U.S.C. 3537(b)(1)) requires that notice and opportunity for comment be provided after the United States submits or receives a request for the establishment of a WTO dispute settlement panel. Consistent with this obligation, USTR is providing notice that the establishment of a dispute settlement panel has been requested pursuant to the DSU. The panel will hold its meetings in Geneva, Switzerland.
On November 17, 2010, the U.S. Department of Commerce (“DOC”) published antidumping (“AD”) and countervailing duty (“CVD”) orders (75 FR 70205; 75 FR 70206) on certain coated paper from Indonesia. On March 13, 2015, Indonesia requested WTO dispute settlement consultations regarding some of DOC's determinations in the CVD investigation, as well as the U.S. International Trade Commission's (“ITC”) threat of material injury determinations in both the AD and CVD proceedings. Indonesia and the United States held consultations in Geneva on June 25, 2015.
Indonesia filed a request for the establishment of a WTO dispute settlement panel in this matter on July 9, 2015. USTR notified, and solicited comments from, the public in connection with that request on August 11, 2015 (
In its panel request, Indonesia contends that the DOC's findings of countervailable subsidies with respect to a number of government practices in the logging and paper industries are inconsistent with Article VI of the
Indonesia also lists in its panel request the following items as part of its challenge: “The determinations by the [DOC] and [ITC] to initiate certain anti-dumping duty and countervailing duty investigations, the conduct of those investigations, any preliminary or final anti-dumping duty and countervailing duty determinations issued in those investigations, any definitive anti-dumping duties and countervailing duties imposed as a result of those investigations, including any notices, annexes, orders, decision memoranda, or other instruments issued by the United States in connection with the anti-dumping duty and countervailing duty measures.”
Indonesia contends DOC's determination that Indonesia provided standing timber for less than adequate remuneration breaches Article 2.1 of the SCM Agreement because DOC failed to properly examine whether the purported subsidy was “specific to an
Indonesia alleges that the ITC's threat determinations in the investigations at issue breach Article 3.5 of the AD Agreement and Article 15.5 of the SCM Agreement because the ITC did not demonstrate “the existence of a causal relationship between the imports and the purported threat of injury to the domestic industry” and failed to “sufficiently examine known factors other than the allegedly dumped and subsidized imports which at the same time were in fact injuring the domestic injury.” In addition, Indonesia alleges the ITC's threat determinations breach Article 3.7 of the AD Agreement and Article 15.7 of the SCM Agreement because the threat findings were based on “allegation, conjecture [and] remote possibility”; were not supported by record evidence; and did not indicate a change in circumstances that was “clearly foreseen and imminent.” Further, Indonesia alleges the ITC's threat determinations breach Article 3.7 of the AD Agreement and Article 15.7 of the SCM Agreement because the ITC failed to demonstrate that the “totality of the factors considered lead to the conclusion that material injury would have occurred unless protective action was taken.” Indonesia alleges the ITC did not apply or consider “special care” in its threat of injury determinations, in contravention of Article 3.8 of the AD Agreement and Article 15.8 of the SCM Agreement.
Indonesia also claims the “requirement contained in 19 U.S.C. 1677(11)(B) that a tie vote in a threat of injury determination must be treated as an affirmative . . . [ITC] determination,” is, “as such,” inconsistent with Article 3.8 of the AD Agreement and Article 15.8 of the SCM Agreement “because the requirement does not consider or exercise special care.”
Finally, Indonesia alleges that these actions are inconsistent with Article 1 of the AD Agreement, Article 10 of the SCM Agreement, and Article VI of the GATT 1994.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments concerning the issues raised in this dispute. Persons may submit public comments electronically to
To submit comments via
The
A person requesting that information contained in a comment that he/she submitted, be treated as confidential business information must certify that such information is business confidential and would not customarily be released to the public by the submitter. Confidential business information must be clearly designated as such and the submission must be marked “BUSINESS CONFIDENTIAL” at the top and bottom of the cover page and each succeeding page. Any comment containing business confidential information must be submitted by fax to Sandy McKinzy at (202) 395-3640. A non-confidential summary of the confidential information must be submitted to
USTR may determine that information or advice contained in a comment submitted, other than business confidential information, is confidential in accordance with Section 135(g)(2) of the Trade Act of 1974 (19 U.S.C. 2155(g)(2)). If the submitter believes that information or advice may qualify as such, the submitter:
(1) Must clearly so designate the information or advice;
(2) Must clearly mark the material as “SUBMITTED IN CONFIDENCE” at the top and bottom of the cover page and each succeeding page; and
(3) Must provide a non-confidential summary of the information or advice.
Any comment containing confidential information must be submitted by fax. A non-confidential summary of the confidential information must be submitted to
Pursuant to section 127(e) of the Uruguay Round Agreements Act (19 U.S.C. 3537(e)), USTR will maintain a docket on this dispute settlement proceeding, docket number USTR-2015-0005, accessible to the public at
The public file will include non-confidential comments received by USTR from the public regarding the dispute. If a dispute settlement panel is convened, or in the event of an appeal from such a panel, the following documents will be made available to the public at
Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), DOT.
Notice.
Section 1313 of the Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act (MAP-21) established the permanent Surface Transportation Project Delivery Program that allows a State to assume FHWA's environmental responsibilities for review, consultation, and compliance for Federal highway projects. This section mandates semiannual audits during each of the first 2 years of State participation to ensure compliance by each State participating in the Program. When a State assumes these Federal responsibilities, the State becomes solely responsible and liable for carrying out the responsibilities it has assumed, in lieu of FHWA. This permanent program follows a pilot program established by Section 6005 of Safe, Accountable, Flexible, Efficient Transportation Equity Act: A Legacy for Users (SAFETEA-LU), where the State of California assumed FHWA's environmental responsibilities (from June 29, 2007). This notice presents the findings of the first audit report for the Texas Department of Transportation (TxDOT).
Dr. Owen Lindauer, Office of Project Development and Environmental Review, (202) 366-2655,
An electronic copy of this notice may be downloaded from the specific docket page at
Congress proposed and the President signed into law, MAP-21 Section 1313, establishing the Surface Transportation Project Delivery Program that allows a State to assume FHWA's environmental responsibilities for review, consultation, and compliance for Federal highway projects. This provision has been codified at 23 U.S.C. 327. When a State assumes these Federal responsibilities, the State becomes solely responsible and liable for carrying out the responsibilities it has assumed, in lieu of FHWA. This permanent program follows a pilot program established by Section 6005 of SAFETEA-LU, where the State of California assumed FHWA's environmental responsibilities (from June 29, 2007). The TxDOT published its application for assumption under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) Assignment Program on March 14, 2014, at Texas Register 39(11): 1992, and made it available for public comment for 30 days. After considering public comments, TxDOT submitted its application to FHWA on May 29, 2014. The application served as the basis for developing the Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) that identifies the responsibilities and obligations TxDOT would assume. The FHWA published a notice of the draft of the MOU in the
Section 1313 of Pub. L. 112-141; Section 6005 of Pub. L. 109-59; 23 U.S.C. 327; 49 CFR 1.48.
This is the first audit conducted by a team of Federal Highway Administration (FHWA) staff of the performance of the Texas Department of Transportation (TxDOT) regarding responsibilities and obligations it has been assigned under a memorandum of understanding (MOU) whose term began on December 16, 2014. From that date, TxDOT assumed FHWA's National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) responsibilities and liabilities for the Federal-aid highway program funded projects in Texas (NEPA Assignment Program) and FHWA's environmental role is now limited to program oversight and review. The FHWA audit team (team) was formed in January 2015 and met regularly to prepare for conducting the audit. Prior to the on-site visit, the team performed reviews of TxDOT project file NEPA documentation in the Environmental Compliance Oversight System (ECOS, TxDOT's official project filing system), examined the TxDOT pre-audit information response and developed interview questions. The on-site portion of this audit, when all TxDOT and other agency interviews were performed, was conducted between April 13 and 17, 2015.
As part of its review responsibilities specified in 23 U.S.C. 327, the team planned and conducted an audit of TxDOT's responsibilities assumed under the MOU. The TxDOT is still in the transition of preparing and implementing procedures and processes required for the NEPA Assignment. It was evident that TxDOT has made reasonable progress in implementing the start-up phase of the NEPA Assignment Program and that overall the team found evidence that TxDOT is committed to establishing a successful program. This report provides the team's assessment of the current status of several aspects of the NEPA Assignment Program, including successful practices and 16 observations that represent opportunities for TxDOT to improve their program. The team identified two non-compliance observations that TxDOT will need to address as corrective actions in their self-assessment report.
The TxDOT has carried out the responsibilities it has assumed in keeping with the intent of the MOU and the application. The team finds TxDOT to be in substantial compliance with the provisions of the MOU. By addressing the observations in this report, TxDOT will continue to move the program toward success.
Congress proposed and the President signed into law, the Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act Section 327, that established the Surface Transportation Project Delivery Program that allows a State to assume FHWA's environmental responsibilities for review, consultation, and compliance for Federal highway projects. When a State assumes these Federal responsibilities, the State becomes solely responsible and liable for carrying out the responsibilities it has assumed, in lieu of FHWA. This permanent program follows a pilot program established by Section 6005 of the Safe, Accountable, Flexible, Efficient Transportation Equity Act: A Legacy for Users, where the State of California assumed FHWA's environmental responsibilities (from June 29, 2007).
The TxDOT published its application for assumption under the NEPA Assignment Program on March 14, 2014, and made it available for public comment for 30 days. After considering public comments, TxDOT submitted its application to FHWA on May 29, 2014. The application served as the basis for developing the MOU that identifies the responsibilities and obligations TxDOT would assume. The FHWA published a notice of the draft of the MOU in the
Under the NEPA Assignment Program, the State of Texas was assigned the legal responsibility for making project NEPA decisions. In enacting Texas Transportation Code, § 201.6035, the State has waived its sovereign immunity under 11th Amendment of the U.S. Constitution and consents to Federal court jurisdiction for actions brought by its citizens for projects it has approved under the NEPA Assignment Program.
As part of FHWA's oversight responsibility for the NEPA Assignment Program, FHWA is directed [in 23 U.S.C. 327(g)] to conduct semiannual audits during each of the first 2 years of State participation in the program; and audits annually for 2 subsequent years. The purpose of the audits is to assess a State's compliance with the provisions of the MOU as well as all applicable Federal laws and policies. The FHWA's review and oversight obligation entails the need to collect information to evaluate the success of the Project Delivery Program; to evaluate a State's progress toward achieving its performance measures as specified in the MOU; and to collect information for the administration of the NEPA Assignment Program. This report summarizes the results of the first audit.
The overall scope of this audit review is defined both in statute (23 U.S.C. 327) and the MOU (Part 11). An audit generally is defined as an official and careful examination and verification of accounts and records, especially of financial accounts, by an independent unbiased body. With regard to accounts or financial records, audits may follow a prescribed process or methodology and be conducted by “auditors” who have special training in those processes or methods. The FHWA considers this review to meet the definition of an audit because it is an unbiased, independent, official and careful examination and verification of records and information about TxDOT's assumption of environmental responsibilities.
The diverse composition of the team, the process of developing the review report, and publishing it in the
Audits, as stated in the MOU (Parts 11.1.1 and 11.1.5), are the primary mechanism used by FHWA to oversee TxDOT's compliance with the MOU, ensure compliance with applicable Federal laws and policies, evaluate TxDOT's progress toward achieving the performance measures identified in the MOU (Part 10.2), and collect information needed for the Secretary's annual report to Congress. These audits also must be designed and conducted to evaluate TxDOT's technical competency and organizational capacity, adequacy of the financial resources committed by TxDOT to administer the responsibilities assumed, quality assurance/quality control process, attainment of performance measures, compliance with the MOU requirements, and compliance with applicable laws and policies in administering the responsibilities assumed. The four performance measures identified in the MOU are (1) compliance with NEPA and other Federal environmental statutes and regulations, (2) quality control and quality assurance for NEPA decisions, (3) relationships with agencies and the general public, and (4) increased efficiency and timeliness and completion of the NEPA process.
The scope of this audit included reviewing the processes and procedures used by TxDOT to reach and document project decisions. The intent of the review was to check that TxDOT has the proper procedures in place to implement the MOU responsibilities assumed, ensure that the staff is aware of those procedures, and that the procedures are working appropriately to achieve NEPA compliance. The review is not intended to evaluate project-specific decisions as good or bad, or to second guess those decisions, as these decisions are the sole responsibility of TxDOT.
The team gathered information that served as the basis for this audit from three primary sources: (1) TxDOT's response to a pre-audit information
The team defined the timeframe for highway project environmental approvals subject to this first audit to be between December 2014 and February 2015. This initial focus on the first 3-4 months of TxDOT's assumption of NEPA responsibilities was intended to: (1) Assist TxDOT in start-up issues in the transition period where they assumed NEPA responsibilities for all highway projects, (2) follow an August 2014 Categorical Exclusion (CE) monitoring review that generated expected corrective actions, and (3) allow the first audit report to be completed 6 months after the execution of the MOU. Based on monthly reports from TxDOT, the universe of projects subject to review consisted of 357 projects approved as CE's, 9 approvals to circulate an Environmental Assessment (EA), 4 findings of no significant impacts (FONSI), 3 re-evaluations of EAs, 2 Section 4(f) decisions, and 1 approval of a draft environmental impact statement (EIS) project. The team selected a random sample of 57 CE projects sufficient to provide a 90 percent confidence interval and reviewed project files for all 19 approvals that were other than CEs (for a total of 76 files reviewed). Regarding interviews, the team's focus was on leadership in TxDOT's Environmental Affairs Division (ENV) Headquarters in Austin. Due to logistical challenges, the team could only interview a sample of environmental and leadership staff from TxDOT Districts focusing for this first audit on face-to-face interviews in Austin, Waco, and San Antonio and conference call interviews with Corpus Christi, Laredo, and Fort Worth Districts. The team plans to interview staff from at least 18 TxDOT District offices by completion of the third audit. There are a total of 25 TxDOT Districts and the team anticipates covering all over the 5-year term of this MOU.
The team recognizes that TxDOT is still in the beginning stages of the NEPA Assignment Program and that its programs, policies, and procedures are in transition. The TxDOT's efforts are appropriately focused on establishing and refining policies and procedures; training staff; assigning and clarifying changed roles and responsibilities; and monitoring its compliance with assumed responsibilities. The team has determined that TxDOT has made reasonable progress in implementing the start-up phase of NEPA Assignment operations and believes TxDOT is committed to establishing a successful program. Our analysis of project file documentation and interview information found two non-compliance observations, several other observations, and noted ample evidence of good practice. The TxDOT has carried out the responsibilities it has assumed in keeping with the intent of the MOU and the Application and as such the team finds TxDOT to be in substantial compliance with the provisions of the MOU.
The TxDOT's staff and management expressed a desire to receive constructive feedback from the team. By considering and acting upon the observations contained in this report, TxDOT should continue to improve upon carrying out its assigned responsibilities and ensure the success of its NEPA Assignment Program.
Non-compliance observations are instances of being out of compliance with a Federal regulation, statute, guidance, policy, TxDOT procedure, or the MOU. The FHWA expects TxDOT to develop and implement corrective actions to address all non-compliance observations. The TxDOT may consider implementing any recommendations made by FHWA to address non-compliance and other observations. The team acknowledges that TxDOT has already taken corrective actions to address these observations. The FHWA will conduct follow up reviews of the non-compliance observations as part of Audit #2, and if necessary, future audits.
The MOU (Part 3.1.1) states “pursuant to 23 U.S.C. 327(a)(2)(A), on the Effective Date, FHWA assigns, and TxDOT assumes, subject to the terms and conditions set forth in 23 U.S.C. 327 and this MOU, all of the U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) Secretary's responsibilities for compliance with NEPA, 42 U.S.C. 4321
The first non-compliance observation, in 1 of the 76 projects reviewed, pertained to FHWA policy in 23 CFR 771.105(d) that (1) “measures necessary to mitigate adverse impacts be incorporated into the action,” and (2) “the Administration will consider, among other factors, the extent to which the proposed measures would assist in complying with a federal statute, Executive Order, or Administration regulation or policy.” The team identified a project whose description indicated that its purpose was to mitigate impacts of a larger project by constructing a noise abatement barrier. Classifying this project as a CE [23 CFR 771.117(c)(6)], that specifies the action as a separate noise abatement barrier mitigation project, does not comply with FHWA approved TxDOT 2011 Noise Guidelines. The TxDOT must have a program for Type II noise abatement projects in order to allow for the construction of a noise abatement barrier as a separate project (23 CFR 772.5). The TxDOT does not currently have such a program and, therefore, could not approve the noise abatement barrier as a separate project. Before approving any NEPA decision document, TxDOT should be knowledgeable of, and must apply, all applicable provisions of FHWA policy and regulation.
The second non-compliance observation is a project approved by TxDOT staff before all environmental requirements had been satisfied. Before TxDOT's approval, the project required a project-level air quality conformity determination pursuant to 40 CFR 93.121 and be consistent with the State Transportation Improvement Program (STIP). The TxDOT staff made a conditional NEPA approval (CE determination) on a project that, according to records, was not correctly listed in the STIP. The TxDOT then reported the approval to FHWA. The FHWA's policy in 23 CFR 771.105 is to coordinate compliance with all environmental requirements as a single process under NEPA. Conditional approvals do not comply with the
This section summarizes the team's observations about issues or practices that TxDOT may want to consider as areas to improve as well as practices the team believes are successful that TxDOT may want to continue or expand in some manner. All six topic areas identified in FHWA's pre-audit information request are addressed here as separate discussions. Our report on legal sufficiency reviews is a description of TxDOT's current status as described in their response to the pre-audit information request. The team will examine TxDOT's legal sufficiency reviews by project file inspection and through interviews in future audits.
The team lists 16 observations below that we urge TxDOT to act upon to make improvements through one or more of the following: corrective action, targeted training, revising procedures, continued self-assessment, or by some other means. The team acknowledges that by sharing this draft audit report with TxDOT, they have already implemented actions to address the observations to improve their program. The FHWA will consider the status of these observations as part of the scope of Audit #2. We will also include a summary discussion that describes progress since the last audit in the Audit #2 report.
The team recognized four successful program management practices. First, it was evident through interviews that TxDOT has employed highly qualified staff for its program. Second, the team saw evidence of strong communication between TxDOT's ENV and District staff explaining roles and responsibilities associated with implementation of the MOU for NEPA Assignment. Third, based on the response to the pre-audit information request and from interviews, the team recognized efforts to create procedures, guidance, and tools to assist Districts in meeting requirements of the MOU. And finally, District staff understands and takes pride in ownership when making CE determinations. The ENV likewise takes pride in the responsibility for EA and EIS decisionmaking as well as oversight for the NEPA Assignment Program.
The team found evidence of successful practices in information provided by TxDOT and through interviews. They learned of specific incidences where TxDOT has intentionally hired new personnel and reorganized existing staff to achieve a successful NEPA Assignment Program. The TxDOT hired a Self-Assessment Branch (SAB) manager, a staff development manager (training coordinator), and an additional attorney to assist with NEPA Assignment responsibilities. The audit team recognizes the TxDOT “Core Team” concept (which provides joint ENV and District peer reviews for EAs and EISs only) as a good example of TxDOT utilizing their existing staff to analyze NEPA documents and correct compliance issues before finalization. Many Districts appreciate the efforts of the Core Team and credit them for assuring their projects are compliant. The “NEPA Chat” is another great example of TxDOT's intentional effort to achieve a compliant NEPA Assignment Program with enhanced communication among TxDOT environmental staff statewide. The NEPA Chat, led by ENV, provides a platform for complex issues to be discussed openly, and for Districts to learn about statewide NEPA Assignment Program issues. To date, the NEPA Chat has proven to be an effective vehicle to disseminate relevant NEPA information quickly and selectively to the TxDOT District Environmental Coordinators. Lastly, based on interviews and the response to the pre-audit information request, almost all the ENV and District staff feels there is sufficient staff to deliver a successful NEPA Assignment program. This is further supported by ENV's willingness to shift responsibilities to better align with the needs of the NEPA Assignment program. After interviewing the various Districts, they indicated that ENV is available to assist the Districts when they need help.
The SAB fosters regular and productive communication with District staff. Based on reviews of project documentation, the SAB staff prepares and transmits a summary of their results, both positive and negative, and follows up via telephone with the District Environmental Coordinator responsible for the project. They provided this feedback within 2 weeks of their review, which results in early awareness of issues and corrective action, where necessary; as well as positive feedback when the project files appear to be in order. The creation of the pilot “Risk Assessment” tool (a “smart pdf form”) for environmental documents is a successful, but optional procedure. When used, it helps Districts understand the resources to be considered, what resources should receive further analysis and documents District decisions. Even though this tool is not currently integrated within ECOS, it can be uploaded when used. The TxDOT noted that it had recently developed a Quality Assurance/Quality Control (QA/QC) Procedures for Environmental Documents Handbook (March 2015), and it is used by the Core Team to develop EA and EIS documents. Through its response to pre-audit questions and through interviews with various staff, TxDOT has demonstrated that it has provided a good base of tools, guidance, and procedures to assist in meeting the terms of the MOU and takes pride in exercising its assumed responsibilities.
The team considers three observations as sufficiently important to urge TxDOT to consider improvements or corrective actions to project management in their NEPA Assignment Program.
The CE review completed in August resulted in expectations to implement important updates to ECOS. The team found, however, that TxDOT has been slow to implement updates to ECOS. These improvements would ensure that TxDOT's project records are complete and correct, utilizing the appropriate terms as cited in the MOU, law, regulation, or executive order. The team's ECOS related observations for improvement come from information provided by TxDOT and through interviews. Beginning with the monitoring review of CE projects completed in August 2014 the team identified the many accomplishments
The team would like to draw the attention of TxDOT to issues and concerns arising from interaction with resource and regulatory agencies, especially in ways for TxDOT to address possible disputes and conflicts early and effectively. During interviews with both the TxDOT staff and resource agency staff, the team learned that there have been no conflicts between TxDOT and agencies. Despite no reported conflicts, agency staff reported issues of concern that they believed TxDOT was not addressing. Examples include: being kept in the loop on the decisions made by TxDOT, occasional quality concerns for information provided by TxDOT, and occasionally feeling rushed to review and process TxDOT projects. The team recognizes that good communication is a shared responsibility among the parties and suggests TxDOT consider ways to recognize and address disputes, issues, and concerns before they become conflicts.
The team found indications from interviews that local public agency (LPA) projects do not receive the same scrutiny as TxDOT projects, despite TxDOT's project development and review process applying uniformly to all highway projects. Several District staff confirmed that LPA projects were reviewed no differently from TxDOT projects; others did not, which means TxDOT may need to consider ways to ensure its procedures are consistently applied, regardless of project sponsor. The team found the approach to developing and providing training for LPA sponsored projects to be a lower priority than for TxDOT projects.
The team relied completely on information in ECOS, TxDOT's official file of record, to evaluate project documentation and records management. The ECOS is a tool for information recordation, management, and curation, as well as for disclosure within TxDOT District Offices and between Districts and ENV. The strength of ECOS is its potential for adaptability and flexibility. The challenge for TxDOT is to maintain and update the ECOS operating protocols (for consistency of use and document/data location) and to educate its users on updates in a timely manner.
Based on examination of the 76 files reviewed, the team identified 4 general observations (#4, #5, #6, and #7) about TxDOT record keeping and documentation that could be improved or clarified. The team used a documentation checklist to verify and review the files of the 76 sampled projects.
The team was unable to confirm in 11 of the projects where environmental commitments may have needed to be recorded in an Environmental Permits Issues and Commitments (EPIC) plan sheet, that the commitments were addressed. All environmental commitments need to be recorded and incorporated in the project development process so they are documented and or implemented when necessary. If required environmental commitments are not recorded in an EPIC, those commitments would not be implemented. The TxDOT should evaluate whether its procedures to ensure that environmental commitments are both recorded and implemented is appropriate.
The team found 7 of the 57 CE projects reviewed to lack sufficient project description detail to demonstrate that the category of CE action and any related conditions or constraints were met, in order to make a CE approval. The team performing the CE monitoring review completed in August 2014 made a similar observation where TxDOT indicated it would take corrective action. The particular project files included actions that could not be determined to be limited to the existing operational right-of-way (CE c22), or an action that utilizes less than $5 million of Federal funds (CE c23) or an action that met six environmental impact constraints before it could be applied (CEs c26, c27, c28). The documented compliance with environmental requirements prepared by TxDOT needs to support the CE action proposed and that any conditions or constraints have been met. The TxDOT should evaluate whether changes in ECOS and/or their procedures are necessary to ensure that project descriptions are recorded in sufficient detail to verify the appropriate CE action was approved.
The team at times encountered difficulty finding information and found outdated terms in project files. Several project files included CE labels that are no longer valid (blanket categorical exclusion, BCE), but approvals for those project identified the appropriate CE action. Other files indicated that certain coordination had been completed, but the details of the letters or approvals themselves could not be located. In reviewing project records, the team occasionally encountered difficulty finding uploaded files because information occurred in different tabs within ECOS. Another source of confusion for the team was inconsistency in file naming (or an absence of a file naming convention) for uploaded files. Because of these difficulties the team could not determine whether a project file was incomplete or not. The audit team urges TxDOT to seek ways to establish procedures and organize ECOS to promote project records where information may be identified and assessed more easily.
The team notes that most ECOS project records are for CEs, which may be difficult to disclose to the public. Based on interviews with TxDOT staff the team wondered how TxDOT would disseminate information, such as technical reports, from ECOS as part of Public Involvement procedures. The ENV management has since explained that information will be provided upon request or at public meetings/hearings for a project.
The team considers the QA/QC program to be generally in compliance with the provisions of TxDOT's QA/QC Plan. However, TxDOT has yet to apply the SAB program-level review for EA and EIS projects and the lack of data from these types of projects means the
The team recognized four areas of successful practices in TxDOT's approach to QA/QC. First, TxDOT's use of a Core Team and its development and usage of QA/QC checklists and toolkits are effective and appear to result in a more standardized internal review process. The TxDOT QA/QC Plan states that a Core Team, composed of a District Environmental Coordinator and one individual from ENV, will be formed for every EA and EIS project. The QA/QC Plan states that Toolkits, Administrative Completeness Reviews and Determinations, Review for Readiness, and Certification forms will be utilized to ensure quality documents and compliance with NEPA laws and regulations.
Second, the team learned through interviews that TxDOT's SAB review process has resulted in very timely and helpful feedback to District staff. The team was told that feedback from SAB team reviews is generally communicated within 2 weeks of the NEPA documentation completion date. District staff said that they appreciate the feedback that helps to ensure they are following procedures and guidelines. The TxDOT also established a “Corrective Action Team” (CAT) that aids in the SAB team's effectiveness. The CAT is responsible for determining if findings from SAB reviews are systematic or confined to a certain area or individual. The CAT is in place to ensure issues found by SAB review are resolved.
Third, the team was told that some District staff developed their own QA/QC tools and processes for CE projects (
Fourth, TxDOT's SAB and CAT recently implemented peer reviews for forms, guidance, and handbooks that should lead to the reduction of improper documentation and need for revisions. The SAB and CAT team work together with ENV subject matter experts to update forms, guidance, and handbooks in three locations (ENV internal server, internal ENV Web page, and external TxDOT Web site). The ENV has strongly encouraged the Districts to go to the appropriate location before starting a new document to ensure they are using the most up to date version of all forms. The end result of the form peer review process should result in fewer errors and more consistency in NEPA documentation.
The team considers three observations as sufficiently important to urge TxDOT to consider improvements or corrective actions to their approach to QA/QC.
The team learned through interviews that no EA or EIS projects had been reviewed by the SAB and there was no agreed upon timeline for the completion of SAB guidelines or standards. This is due to the standards for SAB reviews of EA and EIS documents not yet being established, and to the fact only four FONSIs were made on EAs at the time of the team's ECOS project file review. The team acknowledges that TxDOT conducts QA/QC for EA and EIS projects and urges TxDOT to complete and apply their SAB approach in a timely manner.
The team learned through interviews that there is no established project sampling methodology for self-assessing TxDOT's effectiveness of their standards and guidance. While TxDOT employs sampling, the team could not find information that described how TxDOT assessed that they evaluated a sufficient number of projects. Through our interviews with SAB staff the team learned that there have been several approaches to conducting reviews of the CEs completed since the NEPA Assignment Program. Before the NEPA Assignment Program began, the SAB team reviewed 100 percent of CE files. Then between December 2014, and February 2015, SAB reviews were a grab sample of 11 files each week. Eight were partial project reviews that focused on certain project types. The remaining three reviews were of complete project files for new CE categories (c22 and c23's). Since February 2015, the SAB team has reviewed only the CE Documentation Form in project files. The team was unable to determine whether TxDOT staff had a basis to assert that its process was working as intended and that they could adequately identify areas needing improvement. The TxDOT needs to better assess the effectiveness of its QA/QC approach (a performance measure that it must report on) by clarifying its review approach, recording justifications for decisions TxDOT makes on how often project records are evaluated, and what specifically is reviewed.
The team learned that TxDOT District staff does not have a clear and consistent understanding of what distinguishes “quality assurance” and “quality control” and “self-assessment” with regards to expectations for reviews necessary to reach a NEPA decision versus feedback once a decision was made. From interviews with District and ENV staff, the team found staff was unclear about the role and responsibility of the SAB and the CAT. Several District managers said that they had not seen the QA/QC feedback on projects in their District and were not sure if their staff had received comments from the SAB or the CAT. The TxDOT should evaluate whether they need to clarify expectations for receiving review comments before and after NEPA decisionmaking to District staff.
During this audit period FHWA attorneys delivered a legal sufficiency training for the benefit of the TxDOT attorneys. The team did not perform analyses of this topic area during this audit. However, the team noted that TxDOT developed a set of Standard Operating Procedures for Legal Sufficiency Review. The process is also described in ENV's Project Delivery Manual, an internal document of processes and procedures used by project delivery staff. The TxDOT's Office of General Counsel tracks legal review requests and their status by keeping a log.
According to TxDOT's project delivery manual, four attorneys are available for legal reviews. Additional legal assistance may be requested by TxDOT to the Transportation Division of the Office of the Texas Attorney General. These attorneys would, as part of their review responsibilities, provide written comments and suggestions (when necessary) to TxDOT ENV to help ensure a document's legal sufficiency. They would also be available to discuss questions or issues. Once the reviewing attorney is satisfied that staff has addressed his or her comments/suggestions to the maximum extent reasonably practicable, the reviewing attorney will provide TxDOT ENV with written documentation that the legal sufficiency review is complete.
The TxDOT ENV has indicated it will not finalize a Final EIS, individual Section 4(f) evaluation, Notice of Intent, or 139(l) Notice before receiving written documentation that the legal sufficiency review is complete. The team was informed that, at the discretion of TxDOT ENV, EAs may be reviewed for legal sufficiency. If additional reviews are needed, the type and scope of an additional review would be determined by TxDOT ENV on a case-by-case basis.
The purpose of performance measures is explained in the MOU (Part 10). Four performance measures were mutually agreed upon by FHWA and TxDOT so that FHWA can take them into account in its evaluation of TxDOT's administration of the responsibilities it has assumed under the MOU. These measures provide an overall indication of TxDOT's discharge of its MOU responsibilities. In collecting data related to the reporting on the performance measures, TxDOT monitors its overall progress in meeting the targets of those measures and includes this data in self-assessments provided under the MOU (Part 8.2.5). The four performance measures are: (1) Compliance with NEPA and other Federal environmental statutes and regulations, (2) quality control and assurance for NEPA decisions, (3) relationships with agencies and the general public, and (4) increased efficiency and timeliness in completion of the NEPA process.
The TxDOT is gathering performance baseline data and testing data collection techniques designed to inform the performance measure metrics that will be reported. The TxDOT intends, according to information provided in their response to pre-audit information questions, to begin reporting on performance measures with the submittal of the next self-assessment summary report. This report is expected in September 2015.
Developing baseline measures is an important part of establishing a performance measure program. The team learned in interviews that TxDOT's QA/QC process includes procedures to ensure that each performance measure has begun with the careful vetting (by following up with individuals in Districts) of data used to develop the baseline measures for performance timeliness. This process should contribute to the validity of the measures. The TxDOT staff explained in interviews that the primary sources of information for overall performance measure baselines are District records and ECOS records.
The TxDOT staff stated that they are considering a variety of performance measurements in addition to measures identified in their response to the pre-audit information request. The audit team recognizes that developing meaningful measures for this program is difficult. However, the audit team encourages TxDOT staff to continue to explore innovative ways to measure performance. (For example, one interviewee described statistical and visual methods to report the performance measure of timeliness this way: “We will calculate all the statistical numbers. We will look at median and look at cluster around the median. It will likely result in a visual analysis of the data (box plot with outliers, measures of central tendency).”)
The TxDOT reports in their response to the pre-audit information request that the QA/QC measure for NEPA decisions focuses only on EA and EIS projects, but not decisions related to CEs and other specific NEPA-related issues. Many decisions are tied to NEPA including important ones such as decisions on Section 4f (identification of properties, consideration of use, consideration of prudent and feasible avoidance alternatives) and re-evaluations (whether the outcome was adequately supported and is still valid). In applying this performance measure, the team urges TxDOT consider evaluating a broader range of decisions.
The team recognizes that TxDOT is still in the very early stages of applying its performance measures. Based on information gained in the pre-audit request and through interviews, more information on performance measures and their verification may need to be presented before the utility of such measures can be evaluated for audit purposes. The performance measure for compliance with NEPA and other Federal requirements for EA and EIS projects have yet to be fully defined. The performance measurement plan indicated that TxDOT would conduct agency polls to determine the measure for relationships with agencies and the general public, but little detail was provided as to what polls would be conducted and verified. The team also was concerned that the measure for the TxDOT relationship with the public may be too limited by focusing on the number of complaints. Such “negative confirmation” monitoring tends to be used when the underlying system or process under evaluation is known to have low levels of errors or problems. Given that NEPA assumption is new to TxDOT, such practice does not appear to be appropriate for gauging effectiveness at this time.
The team reviewed TxDOT's initial training plan provided in the response to the pre-audit information request and evaluated its contents and adequacy through interviews of ENV and District staff. Based on information gained, TxDOT staff should consider the following issues and questions in preparing the annual update of their training plan, as required in the MOU. The team found the training plan compliant.
The team recognizes two successful practices. First, FHWA recognizes that TxDOT's largest venue for training is its annual environmental conference. This annual gathering of Federal, State, and local agency employees as well as consultants, in a context of fellowship (400+ attendees), addresses a wide array of environmental topics that reinforce existing and new environmental policies and procedures. The presentations at the conference are usually no longer than 1 hour per topic, but on some occasions does provide more in depth training. The team encourages the continuation of the conference.
Second, the “NEPA Chat” is a monthly ENV-led web-based learning/exchange opportunity for TxDOT environmental employees statewide. It is a venue for them to receive updated news and announcements, exchange ideas and is a forum for routine communication among Districts and ENV. This informal training venue is versatile, flexible, and responsive to the need to communicate information that should improve the consistency of statewide NEPA Assignment practices.
The team considers four observations as sufficiently important to urge TxDOT to consider improvements or corrective actions to their approach to the training program. The FHWA recognizes that TxDOT's assumption of Federal environmental responsibilities and liabilities is new and involves tasks not previously performed or familiar to its staff. This is the reason why training is a component of a State's qualifications and readiness to assume FHWA's responsibilities and is addressed in a separate section in the MOU (Part 12).
The team identified a concern about TxDOT's approach to training and its training plan. Information gained in interviews indicated that the initial TxDOT training plan relied heavily on a training model employed by the California Department of Transportation (Caltrans), because Caltrans is the only State that has assumed NEPA responsibilities for the entire highway program. The FHWA does not believe the Caltrans training model can replicate its current form to meet the needs of TxDOT, because TxDOT has fewer NEPA staff, State environmental laws that differ in scope, and a different
The team found evidence that some aspects of training tasks were either unattended and/or appear to have been forgotten based on the training plan information provided to the team. The TxDOT has a section of their Web site devoted to training, that the team learned from interviews, is out of date. Some courses are no longer taught and several classes are in need of updating, all of which provided for training of non-TxDOT staff (
The TxDOT training plan is currently silent on whether certain subjects and topics are mandatory or required for certain job responsibilities. The TxDOT staff told the team they would be developing a “progressive training plan” that will identify the range of training necessary for each job classification. District Environmental Coordinators, and particularly District managers who allocated training resources, indicated in interviews that they needed to know which training was required for various TxDOT job categories, to set budgeting priorities. The team recognized the important connection between getting District staff trained and a clear statement whether training was required for a certain job. Due to the connection potentially being tenuous, this may explain the inconsistency the team heard in interview responses to questions on training commitments from District managers. The team suggests that the progressive training plan clearly identify training required for each job classification.
From the perspective of the MOU, training planning and implementation is a partnership effort amongst TxDOT, FHWA, and other agencies. Training should be an ongoing task that follows an up-to-date and mid-to-long range training plan. The current training plan includes mostly TxDOT self-identified training needs and addresses those needs. The MOU (Part 12.2) allows for 3 months after the MOU is executed, to develop a training plan in consultation with FHWA and other agencies. The TxDOT has committed in the MOU to consider the recommendations of agencies in determining training needs, and to determine with FHWA, the required training in the training plan MOU (Part 12.2). The TxDOT considered and will address the specific comments from the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers in the current training plan. However, the team learned through interviews that individuals responsible for training planning were unaware of the coordination between TxDOT subject matter experts and other agencies related to training. It may be useful for the TxDOT training coordinator to be fully involved and aware of the range of coordination other TxDOT staff performs so that the training plan benefits from this coordination.
The FHWA received no comments during the 30-day comment period for the draft audit report. The FHWA has finalized the draft Audit #1 report previously published in the
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of Buy America waiver.
This notice provides NHTSA's finding with respect to a request to waive the requirements of Buy America from the North Carolina Governor's Highway Safety Program (GHSP). NHTSA finds that a non-availability waiver of the Buy America requirement is appropriate for the purchase of a Nikon prismless total station using Federal highway traffic safety grant funds because there are no suitable products produced in the United States.
The effective date of this waiver is December 4, 2015. Written comments regarding this notice may be submitted to NHTSA and must be received on or before: December 4, 2015.
Written comments may be submitted using any one of the following methods:
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For program issues, contact Barbara Sauers, Office of Regional Operations and Program Delivery, NHTSA (phone: 202-366-0144). For legal issues, contact Andrew DiMarsico, Office of Chief Counsel, NHTSA (phone: 202-366-5263). You may send mail to these officials at the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590.
This notice provides NHTSA's finding that a waiver of the Buy America requirement, 23 U.S.C. 313, is appropriate for North Carolina's GHSP to purchase a Nikon Nivo 5M Plus and its accessories for $8,995 using grant funds authorized under 23 U.S.C. 402. Section 402 funds are available for use by state highway safety programs that, among other things, reduce or prevent injuries and deaths resulting from speeding motor vehicles, driving while impaired by alcohol and or drugs, motorcycle accidents, school bus accidents, and unsafe driving behavior. 23 U.S.C. 402(a). Section 402 funds are also available to state programs that encourage the proper use of occupant protection devices and improve law enforcement services in motor vehicle accident prevention, traffic supervision, and post-accident procedures.
Buy America provides that NHTSA “shall not obligate any funds authorized
Recently, NHTSA published its finding that a public interest waiver of the Buy America requirements is appropriate for a manufactured product whose purchase price is $5,000 or less, excluding a motor vehicle, when such product is purchased using Federal grant funds administered under Chapter 4 of Title 23 of the United States Code.
In this instance, the North Carolina's GHSP seeks a waiver to purchase one (1) Nikon Nivo 5M Plus Reflectorless Total Station equipment
In support of its waiver request, North Carolina's GHSP states that there are no total station models that are manufactured or assembled in the United States. The state contacted total station equipment manufacturers to learn of the origin of their equipment. While several domestic corporations offer total station equipment for sale, North Carolina states its research revealed that all total stations are manufactured overseas. It discovered that CT Berger (China), Leica (Switzerland) Nikon (Japan), Spectra Precision (Japan), Northwest Instruments (China), Topcon (Japan), and Trimble (Sweden) total station equipment are all foreign made.
NHTSA agrees that the total stations advance the purpose of section 402 to improve law enforcement services in motor vehicle accident prevention and post-accident reconstruction and enforcement. A total station is an on-scene reconstruction tool that assists in the determination of the cause of the crash and can support crash investigations. It is an electronic/optical instrument that specializes in surveying with tools to provide precise measurements for diagraming crash scenes, including a laser range finder and a computer to assist law enforcement to determine post-accident reconstruction. The total station system is designed to gather evidence of the events leading up to, during and following a crash. These tools are used to gather evidence to determine such facts as minimum speed at the time of a crash, the critical speed of a roadway curve, the distance a vehicle may have traveled when out of control and other factors that involve a crash investigation. In some instances, the facts collected through the use of a total station are used to form a basis of a criminal charge or evidence in a criminal prosecution.
NHTSA conducted similar assessments
In light of the above discussion, and pursuant to 23 U.S.C. 313(b)(2), NHTSA finds that it is appropriate to grant a waiver from the Buy America requirements to North Carolina's GHSP in order to purchase the Nikon Nivo 5M Plus Reflectorless Total Station equipment. This waiver applies to North Carolina and all other states seeking to use section 402 funds to purchase Nikon Nivo 5m Plus Reflectorless total stations for the purposes mentioned herein. This waiver is effective through fiscal year 2016 and expires at the conclusion of that fiscal year (September 30, 2016). In accordance with the provisions of Section 117 of the Safe, Accountable, Flexible, Efficient Transportation Equity Act: A Legacy of Users Technical Corrections Act of 2008 (Pub. L. 110-244, 122 Stat. 1572), NHTSA is providing this notice as its finding that a waiver of the Buy America requirements is appropriate for the Nikon Nivo 5m Plus Reflectorless total station.
Written comments on this finding may be submitted through any of the methods discussed above. NHTSA may reconsider this finding if, through comment, it learns additional relevant information regarding its decision to grant the North Carolina's GHSP waiver request.
This finding should not be construed as an endorsement or approval of any products by NHTSA or the U.S. Department of Transportation. The United States Government does not endorse products or manufacturers.
23 U.S.C. 313; Pub. L. 110-161.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Grant of petition.
Mitsubishi Motors North America, Inc. (MMNA), has determined that certain model year (MY) 2015 Mitsubishi Outlander Sport multipurpose passenger vehicles (MPV) do not fully comply with paragraph S6 of Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard (FMVSS) No. 205,
For further information on this decision contact Luis Figueroa, Office of Vehicle Safety Compliance, the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), telephone (202) 366-5298, facsimile (202) 366-3081.
Notice of receipt of the petition was published, with a 30-day public comment period, on September 8, 2015 in the
S6.
. . .
S6.2 A prime glazing manufacturer certifies its glazing by adding to the marks required by section 7 of ANSI/SAE Z26.1-1996, . . .
[Note that ANSI Z26.1-1996 and other industry standards are incorporated by reference in paragraph S5.1 of FMVSS No. 205. Specifically, Section 7 (Marking of Safety Glazing Materials) of ANSI Z26.1-1996 requires that:
“In addition, to any other markings required by law, ordinance, or regulation, all safety glazing materials manufactured for use in accordance with this standard shall be legibly and permanently marked . . . with the words American National Standard or the characters AS, in addition with a model number
(A) MMNA stated that the quarter panel glass windows otherwise meet all other marking and performance requirements of FMVSS No. 205.
(B) MMNA believes that because the affected glazing fully meets all of the applicable performance requirements, the absence of the correct “M” number in their monogram has no effect upon the degree of driver visibility or the possibility of occupants being thrown through the vehicle windows in a collision.
(C) MMNA stated its belief that NHTSA has previously granted inconsequential noncompliance petitions regarding what it believes are similar noncompliances.
(D) MMNA is not aware of any crashes, injuries, customer complaints or field reports associated with this condition.
In summation, MMNA believes that the described FMVSS No. 205 noncompliance of the subject vehicles is inconsequential to motor vehicle safety, and that its petition, to exempt MMNA from providing recall notification of noncompliance as required by 49 U.S.C. 30118 and remedying the recall noncompliance as required by 49 U.S.C. 30120 should be granted.
NHTSA therefore believes there is no effect of the noncompliance on the operational safety of the subject vehicles and that none of the subject noncompliant windows will be installed on any additional new production vehicles or delivered as replacement parts for existing vehicles.
NHTSA notes that the statutory provisions (49 U.S.C. 30118(d) and 30120(h)) that permit manufacturers to file petitions for a determination of inconsequentiality allow NHTSA to exempt manufacturers only from the duties found in sections 30118 and 30120, respectively, to notify owners, purchasers, and dealers of a defect or noncompliance and to remedy the defect or noncompliance. Therefore, this
(49 U.S.C. 30118, 30120: Delegations of authority at 49 CFR 1.95 and 501.8).
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Receipt of petition.
Michelin North America, Inc. (MNA), has determined that certain Michelin heavy truck tires do not fully comply with paragraphs S6.5(a) and (j) of Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard (FMVSS) No. 119,
The closing date for comments on the petition is December 21, 2015.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments on this petition. Comments must refer to the docket and notice number cited at the beginning of this notice and submitted by any of the following methods:
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•
•
Comments must be written in the English language, and be no greater than 15 pages in length, although there is no limit to the length of necessary attachments to the comments. If comments are submitted in hard copy form, please ensure that two copies are provided. If you wish to receive confirmation that your comments were received, please enclose a stamped, self-addressed postcard with the comments. Note that all comments received will be posted without change to
Documents submitted to a docket may be viewed by anyone at the address and times given above. The documents may also be viewed on the Internet at
The petition, supporting materials, and all comments received before the close of business on the closing date indicated above will be filed and will be considered. All comments and supporting materials received after the closing date will also be filed and will be considered to the extent possible. When the petition is granted or denied, notice of the decision will be published in the
This notice of receipt of MNA's petition is published under 49 U.S.C. 30118 and 30120 and does not represent any agency decision or other exercise of judgment concerning the merits of the petition.
S6.5
(a) The symbol DOT, which shall constitute a certification that the tire conforms to applicable Federal Motor Vehicle Safety standards. This symbol may be marked on only one sidewall. . . .
(j) The letter designating the tire Load Range.
(1) Maximum Load Rating: The subject tires are marked on both sidewalls with the European Tyre and Rim Technical Organization (ETRTO) published load capacities in pounds and kilograms for single and dual application in the format specified by FMVSS No. 119. MNA believes that this marking provides sufficient information to ensure the proper application of the tire.
(2) Load Index: The subject tire is marked with the [International Organization for Standardization] ISO load indices for single and dual application as specified by the ETRTO standard. MNA believes that ISO load indices are widely recognized within the industry and thus provide additional information to ensure the proper application of the tire.
(3) Other Markings: All other markings specified by FMVSS No. 119 are present on the tire including the full tire identification number (TIN).
(4) Performance: The subject tire meets all performance requirements of FMVSS No. 119. MNA believes that the subject noncompliances have no impact on the load carrying capacity of the tire on a motor vehicle, nor on motor vehicle safety itself.
(5) Vehicle Fitment: Paragraph S6 of FMVSS No. 119 requires that the marking should contain load capacity values in pounds and kilograms as well as a letter designating the load range. This information is used by vehicle owners to ensure adequate tire load capacity for the specific vehicle configuration. Although the subject tire lacks the letter designating the load range, MNA believes that the ETRTO standard load capacity values and ISO load indices for single and dual application which are widely recognized in the industry are present to ensure proper application.
MNA has additionally informed NHTSA that it has corrected its internal systems error to prevent similar tires from being released for sale in the U.S. market in the future.
In summation, MNA believes that the described noncompliances of the subject tires is inconsequential to motor vehicle safety, and that its petition, to exempt MNA from providing recall notification of noncompliances as required by 49 U.S.C. 30118 and remedying the recall noncompliance as required by 49 U.S.C. 30120 should be granted.
NHTSA notes that the statutory provisions (49 U.S.C. 30118(d) and 30120(h)) that permit manufacturers to file petitions for a determination of inconsequentiality allow NHTSA to exempt manufacturers only from the duties found in sections 30118 and 30120, respectively, to notify owners, purchasers, and dealers of a defect or noncompliance and to remedy the defect or noncompliance. Therefore, any decision on this petition only applies to the subject tires that MNA no longer controlled at the time it determined that the noncompliance existed. However, any decision on this petition does not relieve equipment distributors and dealers of the prohibitions on the sale, offer for sale, or introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of the noncompliant tires under their control after MNA notified them that the subject noncompliance existed.
(49 U.S.C. 30118, 30120: Delegations of authority at 49 CFR 1.95 and 501.8)
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Grant of petition.
Aston Martin Lagonda Limited (AML) has determined that certain model year (MY) 2009-2013 Aston Martin passenger cars do not fully comply with paragraph S4.4(c)(2), of Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard (FMVSS) No. 138,
For further information on this decision contact Kerrin Bressant, Office of Vehicles Safety Compliance, the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), telephone (202) 366-1110, facsimile (202) 366-3081.
This notice of receipt of AML's petition is published under 49 U.S.C. 30118 and 30120 and does not represent any agency decision or other exercise of judgment concerning the merits of the petition.
S4.4 TPMS Malfunction.
. . .
(c)
(2) Flashes for a period of at least 60 seconds but no longer than 90 seconds upon detection of any condition specified in S4.4(a) after the ignition locking system is activated to the “On” (“Run”) position. After each period of prescribed flashing, the telltale must remain continuously illuminated as long as a malfunction exists and the ignition locking system is in the “On” (“Run”) position. This flashing and illumination sequence must be repeated each time the ignition locking system is placed in the “On” (“Run”) position until the situation causing the malfunction has been corrected. . . .
(A) AML stated that although the TPMS malfunction indicator telltale will not illuminate immediately after the vehicle is restarted, it generally will illuminate shortly thereafter and in any event it will illuminate in no more than 40 seconds after the vehicle accelerates above 23 mph. AML further explained that once the vehicle has accelerated above 23 mph for a period of 15 seconds, the TPMS will seek to confirm the sensors fitted to the vehicle, and in the case a sensor is not fitted, the TPMS will detect this condition within 25 additional seconds and activate the malfunction indicator telltale.
(B) AML explained that if the TPMS fails to detect the wheel sensors, the TPMS monitor will display on the TPMS pressures screen “—” warning the driver that the status of the wheel sensor is unconfirmed. Once the vehicle starts moving, the system will then accurately determine if a sensor is present or not.
(C) AML said that the noncompliance (a software design omission) is confined to one particular aspect of the functionality of the otherwise compliant TPMS malfunction indicator telltale. All other aspects of the low-pressure monitoring system functionality are fully compliant with the requirements of FMVSS No. 138.
(D) AML stated that it is not aware of any customer complaints, field communications, incidents or injuries related to this condition.
(E) AML said it has fixed all unsold vehicles in its custody and control so that they are fully compliant with FMVSS No 138.
(F) AML argued that differences exist between the MBUSA TPMS inconsequential petition that the agency denied and their petition that should be granted.
In summation, AML believes that the described noncompliance of the subject vehicles is inconsequential to motor vehicle safety, and that its petition, to exempt AML from providing recall notification of noncompliance as required by 49 U.S.C. 30118 and remedying the recall noncompliance as required by 49 U.S.C. 30120 should be granted.
AML explained that although the malfunction indicator telltale does not re-illuminate immediately after the vehicle is restarted, it will illuminate shortly thereafter—within 40 seconds after the vehicle speed exceeds 23 mph.
NHTSA agrees with AML that the malfunction indicator telltale will not illuminate as required only during very short periods of time when the vehicle is traveling at low speeds and thus poses little risk to vehicle safety. Under normal driving conditions, a driver will begin a trip by accelerating moderately beyond 23 mph, and as explained by AML, once the vehicle accelerates above 23 mph, the malfunction indicator telltale re-illuminates and then remains illuminated for the entire ignition cycle, regardless of vehicle speed. The telltale fails to re-illuminate only in the very rare case when the driver begins a trip and never exceeds the 23 mph threshold, the speed required to re-activate the malfunction indicator telltale. No real safety risk exists because at such low speeds there is little risk of the driver losing control of the vehicle due to underinflated tires. Furthermore, the possibility that the vehicle will experience both a low inflation pressure condition and a malfunction simultaneously is highly unlikely.
AML stated that if the TPMS fails to detect the wheel sensors, a supplemental TPMS monitor provides the driver with a warning on the vehicle's TPMS pressures screen, indicating the status of the wheel sensor is not confirmed.
The agency evaluated the displays AML uses in the noncompliant vehicles. In addition to the combination malfunction and low inflation pressure telltale indicator lamp, the subject vehicles are equipped with a “plan view” icon which displays the pressures for all four wheels individually. If any wheel has a malfunctioning pressure sensor the indicator for that wheel displays several dashes “—” indicating the there is a problem with that respective wheel. The additional information is not required by the safety standard, but can be used as an aid to the driver to determine the status of a vehicle's tires.
AML discussed that the noncompliance only involves one specific TPMS functionality requirement and that it believes that the primary functions of the TPMS, the identification of all other required malfunctions as well as the identification of low tire inflation pressure scenarios, is not affected.
The agency agrees with AML that the primary function of the TPMS is to identify low inflation pressure conditions which AML's system appears to do as required by FMVSS No. 138. Also, there are a variety of other malfunctions that can occur in addition to the incompatible tire malfunction identified in this petition. We understand from AML that its TPMS will perform as required during all other system malfunctions.
AML also mentioned that they have not received or are aware of any consumer complaints, field communications, incidences or injuries related to this noncompliance. In addition to the analysis done by AML that looked at customer complaints, field communications, incidents or injuries related to this condition, the agency conducted additional checks of its Office of Defects Investigations consumer complaint database and found no related complaints.
AML stated that unsold vehicles have had the software correction administered and are now fully compliant with FMVSS 138. NHTSA agrees and concurs with AML's action to mitigate vehicles in its possession as of the date that the noncompliance was acknowledged.
AML pointed out that there are differences between the Mercedes-Benz TPMS related inconsequential noncompliance petition
NHTSA notes that the statutory provisions (49 U.S.C. 30118(d) and 30120(h)) that permit manufacturers to file petitions for a determination of inconsequentiality allow NHTSA to exempt manufacturers only from the duties found in sections 30118 and 30120, respectively, to notify owners, purchasers, and dealers of a defect or noncompliance and to remedy the defect or noncompliance. Therefore, any decision on this petition only applies to the subject vehicles that AML no longer controlled at the time it determined that the noncompliance existed. However, any decision on this petition does not relieve vehicle distributors and dealers of the prohibitions on the sale, offer for sale, or introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of the noncompliant vehicles under their control after AML notified them that the subject noncompliance existed.
(49 U.S.C. 30118, 30120: Delegations of authority at 49 CFR 1.95 and 501.8)
BNSF Railway Company (BNSF) and Union Pacific Railroad Company (UP) have agreed to enter into a written trackage rights agreement,
The transaction may be consummated on or after December 3, 2015, the effective date of the exemption (30 days after the verified notice of exemption was filed).
The purpose of the transaction is to allow UP to move loaded and empty unit ballast trains to be used for UP maintenance of way projects. UP states that, under the terms of the agreement, the trackage rights are temporary in nature and will be effective from January 1, 2016, until December 31, 2018.
As a condition to this exemption, any employees affected by the trackage rights will be protected by the conditions imposed in
This notice is filed under 49 CFR 1180.2(d)(7).
An original and 10 copies of all pleadings, referring to Docket No. FD 35974, must be filed with the Surface Transportation Board, 395 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20423-0001. In addition, a copy of each pleading must be served on Jeremy M. Berman, Union Pacific Railroad Company, 1400 Douglas Street, STOP 1580, Omaha, NE 68179.
Board decisions and notices are available on our Web site at “
By the Board, Rachel D. Campbell, Director, Office of Proceedings.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning an existing rulings and determination letters.
Written comments should be received on or before January 19, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Michael Joplin, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the regulations should be directed to Kerry Dennis at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the Internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning floor stocks credits or refunds and consumer credits or refunds with respect to certain tax-repealed articles; excise tax on heavy trucks, and excise tax on heavy trucks, truck trailers, semitrailers, and tractors; reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Written comments should be received on or before January 19, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Michael Joplin, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the regulation should be directed to Kerry Dennis, at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the Internet, at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Form 13768, Electronic Tax Administration Advisory Committee Membership Application.
Written comments should be received on or before January 19, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Michael Joplin, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the collection tools should be directed to Kerry Dennis, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the Internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning taxation of gain or loss from certain nonfunctional currency transactions.
Written comments should be received on or before January 19, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Michael Joplin, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the regulation should be directed to Kerry Dennis, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the Internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Form 8874, New Markets Credit.
Written comments should be received on or before January 19, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Michael Joplin, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form and instructions should be directed to Kerry Dennis, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the Internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Form 8900, Qualified Railroad Track Maintenance Credit.
Written comments should be received on or before January 19, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Michael Joplin, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form and instructions should be directed to Kerry Dennis, at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Form 5213, Election to Postpone Determination as To Whether the Presumption Applies That an Activity Is Engaged in for Profit.
Written comments should be received on or before January 19, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Michael Joplin, Internal Revenue Service, room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form and instructions should be directed to Kerry Dennis, at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the Internet, at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Final rule.
This final rule comprehensively updates and streamlines the process for obtaining Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA) grants of rights-of-way on Indian land, while supporting tribal self-determination and self-governance. This final rule further implements the policy decisions and approaches established in the leasing regulations, which BIA finalized in December 2012, by applying them to the rights-of-way context where applicable. The rule also applies to BIA land.
This rule is effective on December 21, 2015.
Elizabeth Appel, Director, Office of Regulatory Affairs & Collaborative Action, (202) 273-4680;
The Department of the Interior (Department) published a proposed rule in the
The current regulations were promulgated in 1968, and last updated in 1980. In December 2012, the Department issued final regulations comprehensively reforming residential, business, and wind and solar leasing on Indian land and streamlining the leasing process. Given the supportive response to the leasing regulatory revisions, we are updating 25 CFR part 169 (Rights-of-Way) to mirror those revisions to the extent applicable in the rights-of-way context and otherwise modernize requirements for obtaining a right-of-way over or across Indian land and BIA land. The final rule reflects additional changes made in response to comments received during the public comment period. Highlights of this final rule include:
• Simplifying requirements by relying on general statutory authority to grant rights-of-way and eliminating outdated requirements that apply to specific types of rights-of-way;
• Clarifying processes for BIA review of right-of-way documents;
• Streamlining the process for obtaining a right-of-way on Indian land by:
○ Eliminating the need to obtain BIA consent for surveying in preparation for applying for a right-of-way;
○ Establishing timelines for BIA review of rights-of-way requests;
• Adding certainty to applicants by allowing BIA disapproval only where there is a stated compelling reason;
• Providing Indian landowners with notice of actions affecting their land;
• Deferring to individual Indian landowner decisions subject to an analysis of whether the decision is in their best interest;
• Promoting tribal self-determination and self-governance by providing greater deference to Tribes on decisions affecting tribal land;
• Clarifying tribal jurisdiction over lands subject to a right-of-way; and
• Incorporating tribal land policies in processing a request for a right-of-way.
The general approach to the final rule is to provide a uniform system for granting rights-of-way over Indian land by relying primarily on a single statutory authority, 25 U.S.C. 323-328, and to allow Indian landowners as much flexibility and control as possible over rights-of-way on their land. The rule requires that owners of a majority of the interests in a tract must consent to the right-of-way, in accordance with the statutory requirement in 25 U.S.C. 324, and specifies that tribes and individual Indian landowners may negotiate the terms of their consent, which ultimately become the terms of the grant. The rule clarifies that landowners may negotiate the terms to ensure the right-of-way is best suited to their needs. Landowners currently have this option, but are often presented with a “take-it-or-leave-it” offer by the potential grantee, and fail to negotiate. To provide efficiencies in standardization, the Department will develop a template grant form with placeholders for conditions and restrictions agreed to by landowners. The rule also affords landowners as much notice as possible regarding rights-of-way on their land, giving tribes and individual Indian landowners actual notice (as opposed to constructive notice) of every right-of-way affecting their land, including any land in which the tribe owns a fractional interest.
The rule addresses tribally owned land differently than individually owned land because, although the U.S. has a trust responsibility to all beneficial owners, it has a government-to-government relationship with tribes and seeks to promote tribal self-governance. The final rule also provides tribes with as much deference as possible, within the bounds of the Department's trust responsibilities, to determine which rights-of-way to grant, for how much compensation, and with identified enforcement provisions. The rule also provides that the BIA will defer to individual Indian landowners in their determinations, to the extent it is possible to coordinate with multiple individual Indian landowners.
Consistent with 25 U.S.C. 325, the general trust relationship between the United States and the Indian tribes and individual Indians, and deference to tribal sovereignty, the final rule requires that the compensation granted to Indian landowners is just. The final rule does not establish any ceiling on compensation; to do so would unduly restrict landowners' ability to get the maximum compensation for their land interest. The Department's role is to ensure that the compensation is “just” for the Indian landowners.
Together, these revisions modernize the rights-of-way approval process while better supporting Tribal self-determination. This rule also updates the regulations to be in a question-and-answer format, in compliance with “plain language” requirements.
The Department published a proposed rule with the above revisions on June 17, 2014.
Several tribal commenters strongly supported consolidating approval of all rights-of-way in a single location under 25 U.S.C. 323-328, noting that the process of approving different types of rights-of-way under different authorities and standards was antiquated and increased the burden on tribes to manage rights-of-way.
The rule also lists the Indian Land Consolidation Act (ILCA), as amended by the American Indian Probate Reform Act, 25 U.S.C. 2201
The final rule does not add examples of oil and gas products because the term “oil and gas” is broad enough to encompass each of the examples. The final rule does not add power plants, substations and receiving stations to the list of examples because these items may be more appropriately governed by the leasing regulations at 25 CFR part 162 than these rights-of-way regulations. The list of examples includes “telecommunications” lines, which is intended to cover computer, television, radio, and other types of lines for technology used for communication over distances.
With regard to assignments, specifically, several tribal commenters requested that consent and approval always be required because there have been numerous instances in which a right-of-way was assigned with no notification to, or consent of, the tribe, meaning that neither the landowner nor BIA may have record of the authorized user of the Indian land.
In addition, in response to tribal commenters' concerns that, in the past, rights-of-way were assigned without any notification to BIA or the tribe, the final rule establishes a new requirement for the assignee to notify BIA of past assignments to ensure BIA is aware of the identity of the legal occupant of the Indian land in furtherance of meeting its trust responsibilities to protect the Indian land from, for example, trespass. From the perspective of the assignee, this recordation requirement is simply a good business practice to ensure the Department has documentation of the assignee's right to occupy Indian land. The final rule establishes a target deadline of 120 days after the effective date of the regulations for assignees to either provide BIA with documentation of their assignment, or to request an extension of time to provide BIA with such documentation. This requirement is not included in the previous version of the regulations but is imperative to BIA's ability to fulfill its trust responsibilities.
For any right-of-way grant application submitted but not yet approved by the effective date of the regulations, the grantee may withdraw the application and resubmit under the new rule. Otherwise, BIA will review the application under the regulations in existence at the time of submission, but once the right-of-way is granted, procedural provisions of the new rule apply. For example, if the grantee or assignee wants to assign, amend, or mortgage the right-of-way after the effective date of these regulations, the grantee or assignee will have to follow the procedures in this regulation, to the extent that such new processes and requirements do not change the terms of the pre-existing grant or statutory authority. In other words, if the preexisting grant or statutory authority is silent on a particular procedural requirement, such as an assignment or amendment, the new regulatory provisions concerning that procedure would apply.
Examples of procedural provisions that apply include procedures for obtaining amendments, assignments, mortgages, renewals, and complying with and enforcing rights-of-way grants. However, many current grants include language granting to the grantee and the grantee's assignees; in that case, the grant would contain explicit language allowing the grant to be freely assigned without landowner consent or BIA approval, and that explicit grant language would govern. An example of a non-procedural provision is a regulatory statement of what jurisdiction applies.
The question of whether tribal law or taxes apply to preexisting right-of-way grants after the effective date of the new regulations is not before the Department at this point, but to the extent any preexisting right-of-way is assigned or amended, the provisions of the new regulations govern.
Some commenters opposed the applicability of tribal law under any circumstance because a grantee that needs to obtain rights-of-way across several tribes' lands could be subjected to multiple, and possibly conflicting requirements, undermining the purpose of the rule to streamline the process. A tribal commenter also suggested deleting the requirement that the tribe provide BIA with notice that the law supersedes because this could become a technical glitch that would hinder application of tribal laws that would otherwise be applicable.
A few other commenters requested the rule instead expressly describe circumstances in which the tribe's jurisdiction does not extend to lands subject to a right-of-way, such as taxation of non-tribal members on fee land within a reservation. Another commenter stated that the rule should reflect that tribes have “virtually no authority over non-member conduct.”
Even if Montana's rule and exceptions do apply, we disagree with the commenters that a tribe is not in a consensual relationship with a right-of-way grantee on tribal trust or restricted land. Under
Section 5 of the Indian Reorganization Act, 25 U.S.C. 465, preempts State and local taxation of permanent improvements on trust land.
In addition, with a backdrop of “traditional notions of Indian self-government,” Federal courts have applied a balancing test to determine whether State taxation of non-Indians engaging in activity or owning property on the reservation is preempted.
The Federal statutes and regulations governing rights-of-way on Indian lands occupy and preempt the field of Indian rights-of-way. The Federal statutory scheme for rights-of-way on Indian land is comprehensive, and accordingly precludes State taxation. State taxation would undermine careful work of Federal actors analyzing the best interests of tribal beneficiaries under the trust responsibility.
The Federal regulatory scheme is pervasive and leaves no room for State law. Federal regulations cover all aspects of rights-of-way: Whether a party needs a right-of-way grant to authorize possession of Indian land; how to obtain a right-of-way grant; how a prospective grantee identifies and contacts Indian landowners to survey and negotiate for a right-of-way grant; consent requirements for a right-of-way and who is authorized to consent; what laws apply to rights-of-way; employment preference for tribal members; combining tracts with different Indian landowners in a single right-of-way grant; trespass; emergency action by us if Indian land is threatened; appeals; documentation required in approving, administering, and enforcing rights-of-way; right-of-way grant duration; mandatory grant provisions; construction, ownership, and removal of permanent improvements, and plans of development; legal descriptions of the land subject to a right-of-way; amount, time, form, and recipient of compensation (including non-monetary rent) for rights-of-way; valuations; bond and insurance requirements; Secretarial approval process, including timelines, and criteria for granting rights-of-way; recordation; consent requirements, Secretarial approval process, criteria for approval, and effective date for grant amendments, assignments, subleases, and mortgages; investigation of compliance with the terms of a right-of-way grant; negotiated remedies; late payment charges or special fees for delinquent payments; allocation of insurance and other payment rights; Secretarial cancellation of a grant for violations; and abandonment of the premises subject to a right-of-way grant.
Right-of-way grants allow Indian landowners to use their land profitably for economic development, ultimately contributing to tribal well-being and self-government. Assessment of State and local taxes would obstruct Federal policies supporting tribal economic development, self-determination, and strong tribal governments. State and local taxation also threatens substantial tribal interests in effective tribal government, economic self-sufficiency, and territorial autonomy. It is unequivocally the policy of the United States to attract economic development to Indian lands. State taxation can undermine the economic attractiveness of a right-of-way across Indian land. It can also effectively undermine the ability of a tribe, as a practical matter, to impose its own taxation. Consenting
Another important aspect of tribal sovereignty and self-governance is taxation. Permanent improvements and activities on the premises subject to a right-of-way and the interest itself may be subject to taxation by the Indian tribe with jurisdiction over the leased property. The Supreme Court has recognized that “[t]he power to tax is an essential attribute of Indian sovereignty because it is a necessary instrument of self-government and territorial management.”
Tribes may contractually agree to reimburse the non-Indian grantee for the expense of the tax, resulting in the economic burden of the tax ultimately being borne directly by the tribe. Accordingly, the very possibility of an additional State or local tax has a chilling effect on potential grantees as well as the tribe that, as a result, might refrain from exercising its own sovereign right to impose a tribal tax to support its infrastructure needs. Such dual taxation can make some projects less economically attractive, further discouraging development in Indian country. Economic development on Indian lands is critical to improving the dire economic conditions faced by American Indians and Alaska Natives. The U.S. Census Report entitled
In addition, Congress specifically allowed for State taxation of rights-of-way on Indian land in other instances, such as at 25 U.S.C. 319. The fact that Congress did not specifically authorize State taxation at 25 U.S.C. 323 evidences that it did not intend for rights-of-way granted under that authority to be taxable by the State. Indeed, to the extent that the lack of a specific authorization for State taxation creates an ambiguity, the Department expressly determines, for all the reasons stated above, that State taxation is not authorized under 25 U.S.C. 323 and would substantially undermine the statutory scheme.
Regarding the thresholds the proposed rule provides on how many landowners add up to “so numerous” (
• Through the act of joining a cooperative, the member typically agrees to provide access for the cooperative to build the necessary infrastructure at no cost; and
• Cooperatives have no ability to absorb costs, but must pass them directly to consumers, such that higher compensation costs will translate to higher electricity costs for members.
One tribal commenter stated that exempting utility companies from compensation would conflict with tribal self-determination and self-governance.
Public service commenters stated that they have an obligation to customers to ensure rates are fair and reasonable to all, that using projected income as the basis for valuation is cumbersome and unreasonable, and that the regulations should instead provide a certain and fair approach for all parties.
One commenter stated that rights-of-way that serve tribal people should be different from those that serve non-tribal people and that right-of-way costs should be minimized to encourage the sustainability and expansion of telecommunications services to tribes.
Several commenters point to potential negative consequences of allowing tribes to negotiate for compensation beyond fair market value such as increased costs for customers and discouragement of future development on tribal lands. According to these commenters, it should be BIA's role to ensure the certainty and reasonableness of compensation.
Several tribal commenters supported the proposed rule's provisions that require BIA to defer to tribally negotiated compensation amounts and valuation waivers. These commenters stated that these provisions are important to the sovereignty of tribal nations and their self-determination, streamline unnecessary appraisal processes, and recognize that the tribe consenting to the right-of-way is uniquely situated to assess the value of the compensation it is receiving. Some of these commenters stated that providing for non-monetary or alternative types of compensation, such as in-kind consideration, enables tribes to craft unique compensation agreements, and that allowing the form of compensation to change at different stages of development helps tribes achieve maximum benefits over the life of the grant, allowing tribes to negotiate amounts that serve best interests. As one tribal commenter pointed out, there may be circumstances in which a tribe values some other form of consideration more than fair market value, and that the rule's provisions respect tribes' ability to make those decisions.
The statute requires that the right-of-way be made with the payment of “such compensation as the Secretary of the Interior shall determine to be just.” 25 U.S.C. 325. This statute was enacted for the benefit of Indians, and as such, Interior is interpreting this language in favor of the Indians, to allow the Secretary to defer to tribes to determine that compensation beyond fair market value is “just.”
Other commenters stated that it is a fundamental precept of landowner compensation regimes that fair market value measures the economic impact of the right-of-way on the affected land, rather than compensating for economic benefit enjoyed by the right-of-way grantee. One commenter stated that market value should be based on the value of the land that is the subject of the transaction, and not on speculation regarding the potential future value of the pipeline.
Likewise, tribal commenters supported listing potential adjustments to market value, such as a percentage of gross income, and additional fees, such as throughput fees, severance damages, franchise fees, avoidance value, bonuses, or other factors.
Some commenters supported direct pay and stated that the grantee should have the option of paying BIA instead of directly paying the landowners. A few stated there should be no limit on the number of owners for direct pay and that it should be an option for each landowner. One commenter suggested direct pay should be available to tribes only.
A few commenters asked why the accounts must be “encumbered.”
Some commenters stated that no periodic review or adjustment should be required unless the Indian landowners negotiate for such reviews or adjustments. Commenters also requested exceptions to the review requirements when the grant provides for payment greater than market value or the adjustment results in additional compensation to the landowner.
A few tribal commenters stated that the option for BIA to extend the timeframe for an additional 30 days should be deleted, because it may become the norm, making the timeframe a 90-day, rather than 60-day, period. Other tribal commenters requested reducing the timeframe to 30 or 20 days, stating that 60 days appears excessive for rights-of-way. A tribal utility authority requested a special expedited path in which the applicant or tribe pays a reasonable fee that would reduce the decision timeframe to 30 days. One commenter requested increasing the deadline to 120 days following receipt of the complete package, but specifying that only one 30-day extension is permitted. Others stated that the extension period should be shortened.
Several non-tribal commenters stated their objections to this provision as an “unreasonable interference in hiring practices” and “unrelated to easement tasks.” Others stated their concerns with this provision's interplay with applicable labor laws and agreements (
Those opposed to the provision requiring a new right-of-way stated that it “immensely and unnecessarily burdens applicants whose rights-of-way would not impede the existing facilities and existing right-of-way, amounts to double and triple charging for the same right-of-way, and should not be required if the new use is permitted by applicable law.
A few tribal commenters stated that the provision should specify that a new right-of-way is required to enlarge or expand the right-of-way, such as when a different type of service will be installed or there is a substantial change in the nature and use, such as replacing a 14kV distribution line with a 69kV transmission line. Commenters disagreed, even in given examples, on whether certain piggybacking should require a new right-of-way. For example, a tribal commenter stated that siting utilities within road and railroad rights-of-way without compensating the landowners for the additional use should be prohibited. In contrast, a city commenter stated that the rule should clarify that utility lines located in a right-of-way established for a road should be considered an incidental use of the right-of-way not requiring consent or compensation where the consumer is using and paying for the utility service.
Several commenters suggested different uses for the proposed table showing terms for each right-of-way use. One tribal commenter suggested clarifying that the terms in the table are maximum term lengths, not minimum or recommended term lengths. A tribal commenter suggested adding general criteria for granting terms longer than those specified in the table (
• Oil and gas pipelines—A few commenters stated that the proposed 20-year term for gas and oil pipelines is appropriate, but most other commenters stated that 20 years is unrealistic and too short, suggesting at least 40 or 50 years.
• Electric distribution lines—Some commenters stated that electric distribution lines should be permitted in perpetuity; one suggested 50 years, and others stated that 50 years is too long.
• Utilities, in general—Commenters who are providers of utilities stated that the grants should be in perpetuity (see discussion below); one suggested commercial utilities should have terms of 40 years. An electric cooperative suggested a 50-year right-of-way for electric cooperatives providing service to the tribe.
• Telecommunications and broadband or fiber optic lines—A commenter suggested the term for telecommunications and fiber optic lines should be commensurate with that of other utilities; another suggested 50 years; others suggested 10 years.
• Railroads—Some commenters stated that terms for railroads and roads should be limited to 75 years, rather than in perpetuity.
• Conservation easements—A tribal commenter stated that conservation easements are usually in perpetuity, even though the table says “consistent with use.”
• Other—Several commenters stated that most rights-of-way should be limited to 20 years.
A few electric cooperatives (
Likewise, public utilities argued that public utility transmission and distribution lines and appurtenant facilities should have a perpetual term because shorter terms could undermine the utility's ability to provide affordable, essential utility service to the public. The utilities argued that they may be forced to choose a more expensive route, where a perpetual grant is ensured, rather than face the prospect of having to relocate the line at some point in the future when the grant expires. A city commenter stated that the rule should require BIA to grant easements in perpetuity if a professional engineer provides a map certifying certain circumstances, including that that the water and sewer system serve the entire community with the consent of landowners.
One commenter suggested that, instead of allowing “in perpetuity,” the grant should state that if the right-of-way is abandoned for its original purpose, then it reverts to the landowners.
Other commenters were concerned that allowing corrections to legal descriptions or other technical corrections without meeting consent requirements could encourage grantees to couch significant changes as “technical corrections.” These commenters stated that there should be no exceptions to the consent requirements, and that the final clause of § 169.204(a) should be deleted.
A few tribal commenters stated that the prior notification to landowners should be required if BIA will be amending a grant to correct a legal description or make another technical correction without meeting consent requirements.
For other changes to the grant that are more significant than administrative modifications, the final rule provides that the grantee must obtain landowner consent and BIA approval. Administrative modifications are intended to capture the category of changes that are clerical in nature and do not affect vested property rights or involve questions of due process. The final rule also states that if the change to the grant is material, BIA may require the grantee to obtain a new grant rather than merely amend the existing grant. An example of a material change to a grant would be changing the right-of-way use from a two-lane road to a six-lane highway. BIA will review each amendment request to determine whether it is a material change requiring a new right-of-way.
Several commenters stated that mortgaging of the rights-of-way should be permitted without consent or BIA approval, unless the grant includes language to the contrary, because this is the current approach and that providing otherwise would be an “unworkable limitation.” These commenters state that requiring landowner consent and BIA approval add unnecessary burdens, and that when a grant is issued, it is with the understanding that the grantee may transfer rights to mortgagors and the availability of these operational and financial opportunities is what makes the process of seeking a grant worthwhile. One commenter stated, for example, that public utility mortgaging usually includes all facilities and interests owned by the utility, and this regulation would interfere with such financing. A commenter stated that the consent and approval requirements will “materially restrict development on Indian lands” because pipeline companies and others will be unable to obtain the borrowing base mortgages that are standard in the industry for financing and hedging against price volatility. These commenters point out that since the mortgage encumbers only the grantee's interest, and not the interest of the Indian landowner, consent and approval are unnecessary.
While some suggested a more limited definition, several suggested an expansive definition that would apply to any distribution facilities on the reservation that provide service only to customers on the reservation, or any facility connected to a main line or other line necessary for providing utility service to customers. One suggested it be defined as uses that are not a “general expansion of the system by the provider.” Many of these comments were aimed at providing relief to tribal members requesting utility services and/or to non-profit, member-owned distribution cooperatives that provide utility service to tribal members. One commenter asserted that the definition of “service line” should include distribution lines, so that utilities would not be required to pay Indian landowners for rights-of-way and State utility commissions would not be required to allocate right-of-way costs associated with local distribution.
Many commenters requested more clarification on what qualifies as a distribution line requiring a right-of-way and what qualifies as a service line. Some stated that if a line is an extension of service to a certain property, it should be considered a service line, regardless of whether it is a water line, sanitary and storm sewer line, electric line or telecommunication line. A few commenters suggested deleting the word “home” to clarify that utility service may also be provided to non-residential buildings, while another suggested limiting to those lines that provide service to an individual building.
Executive Order (E.O.) 12866 provides that the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) at the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) will review all significant rules. OIRA has determined that this rule is significant because it may raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in E.O. 12866.
E.O. 13563 reaffirms the principles of E.O. 12866 while calling for improvements in the nation's regulatory system to promote predictability, to reduce uncertainty, and to use the best, most innovative, and least burdensome tools for achieving regulatory ends. The E.O. directs agencies to consider regulatory approaches that reduce burdens and maintain flexibility and freedom of choice for the public where these approaches are relevant, feasible, and consistent with regulatory objectives. E.O. 13563 emphasizes further that regulations must be based on the best available science and that the rulemaking process must allow for public participation and an open exchange of ideas. We have developed this rule in a manner consistent with these requirements. This rule is also part of the Department's commitment under the Executive Order to reduce the number and burden of regulations and provide greater notice and clarity to the public.
The Department of the Interior certifies that this rule will not have a significant economic effect on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
This rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804(2), the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act. It will not result in the expenditure by State, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100 million or more in any one year. The rule's requirements will not result in a major increase in costs or prices for consumers, individual industries, Federal, State, or local government agencies, or geographic regions. Nor will this rule have significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or the ability of the U.S.-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises because the rule is limited to rights-of-way on Indian land.
This rule does not impose an unfunded mandate on State, local, or tribal governments or the private sector of more than $100 million per year. The rule does not have a significant or unique effect on State, local, or tribal governments or the private sector. A statement containing the information required by the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (2 U.S.C. 1531
Under the criteria in Executive Order 12630, this rule does not affect individual property rights protected by the Fifth Amendment nor does it involves a compensable “taking.” A takings implication assessment is therefore not required.
Under the criteria in Executive Order 13132, this rule has no substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. This rule only concerns BIA's grant of rights-of-way on Indian land.
This rule complies with the requirements of Executive Order 12988. Specifically, this rule has been reviewed to eliminate errors and ambiguity and written to minimize litigation; and is written in clear language and contains clear legal standards.
In accordance with the President's memorandum of April 29, 1994, “Government-to-Government Relations with Native American Tribal Governments,” Executive Order 13175 (59 FR 22951, November 6, 2000), and 512 DM 2, we have evaluated the potential effects on federally recognized Indian tribes and Indian trust assets. During the public comment period on the proposed rule from June to November 2014, we held several consultation sessions with federally recognized Indian tribes and received written input from 70 tribes. We have considered and addressed this tribal input in development of the final rule.
The Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501
This rule does not constitute a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment because these are “regulations . . . whose environmental effects are too broad, speculative, or conjectural to lend themselves to meaningful analysis and will later be subject to the NEPA process, either collectively or case-by-case.” 43 CFR 46.210(j). No extraordinary circumstances exist that would require greater NEPA review. This rule does not require BIA approval of any new types of major Federal actions, nor does it eliminate BIA approval of any types of major Federal actions.
This rule is not a significant energy action under the definition in Executive Order 13211. A Statement of Energy Effects is not required.
Indians-lands, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Rights-of-way.
5 U.S.C. 301; 25 U.S.C. 323-328; 25 U.S.C. 2201
(a) This part is intended to streamline the procedures and conditions under which BIA will consider a request to approve (
(b) This part specifies:
(1) Conditions and authorities under which we will consider a request to approve rights-of-way over or across Indian land;
(2) How to obtain a right-of-way;
(3) Terms and conditions required in rights-of-way;
(4) How we administer and enforce rights-of-ways;
(5) How to renew, amend, assign, and mortgage rights-of-way; and
(6) Whether rights-of-way are required for service line agreements.
(c) This part does not cover rights-of-way over or across tribal lands within a reservation for the purpose of Federal Power Act projects, such as constructing, operating, or maintaining dams, water conduits, reservoirs, powerhouses, transmission lines, or other works which must constitute a part of any project for which a license is required by the Federal Power Act.
(1) The Federal Power Act provides that any license that must be issued to use tribal lands within a reservation must be subject to and contain such conditions as the Secretary deems necessary for the adequate protection and utilization of such lands (16 U.S.C. 797(e)).
(2) In the case of tribal lands belonging to a tribe organized under the Indian Reorganization Act of 1934 (25 U.S.C. 476), the Federal Power Act requires that annual charges for the use of such tribal lands under any license issued by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission must be subject to the approval of the tribe (16 U.S.C. 803(e)).
(d) This part does not apply to grants of rights-of-way on tribal land under a special act of Congress specifically authorizing rights-of-way on tribal land without our approval.
The following terms apply to this part:
(1) Any person who is a member of any Indian tribe, is eligible to become a member of any Indian tribe, or is an owner as of October 27, 2004, of a trust or restricted interest in land;
(2) Any person meeting the definition of Indian under the Indian Reorganization Act (25 U.S.C. 479) and the regulations promulgated thereunder; and
(3) With respect to the inheritance and ownership of trust or restricted land in the State of California under 25 U.S.C. 2206, any person described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition or any person who owns a trust or
(1) The combined Indian tribe ownership constitutes not less than 51 percent of the utility;
(2) The Indian tribes, together, receive at least a majority of the earnings; and
(3) The management and daily business operations of the utility are controlled by one or more representatives of the tribe.
(1) That the United States holds title to the tract or interest in trust for the benefit of one or more tribes and/or individual Indians; or
(2) That one or more tribes and/or individual Indians holds title to the tract or interest, but can alienate or encumber it only with the approval of the United States because of limitations in the conveyance instrument under Federal law or limitations in Federal law.
(a) This part applies to Indian land and BIA land.
(b) We will not take any action on a right-of-way across fee land or collect compensation on behalf of fee interest owners. We will not condition our grant of a right-of-way across Indian land or BIA land on the applicant having obtained a right-of-way from the owners of any fee interests. The applicant will be responsible for negotiating directly with and making any payments directly to the owners of any fee interests that may exist in the property on which the right-of-way is granted.
(c) We will not include the fee interests in a tract in calculating the applicable percentage of interests required for consent to a right-of-way.
(a) You need an approved right-of-way under this part before crossing Indian land if you meet one of the criteria in the following table:
(b) You do not need a right-of-way to cross Indian land if:
(1) You are an Indian landowner who owns 100 percent of the trust or restricted interests in the land; or
(2) You are authorized by:
(i) A lease under 25 CFR part 162, 211, 212, or 225 or permit under 25 CFR part 166;
(ii) A tribal land assignment or similar instrument authorizing use of the tribal land without Secretarial approval; or
(iii) Other, tribe-specific authority authorizing use of the tribal land without Secretarial approval; or
(iv) Another land use agreement not subject to this part (
(3) You meet any of the criteria in the following table:
(a) This part covers rights-of-way over and across Indian or BIA land, for uses including but not limited to the following:
(1) Railroads;
(2) Public roads and highways;
(3) Access roads;
(4) Service roads and trails, even where they are appurtenant to any other right-of-way purpose;
(5) Public and community water lines (including pumping stations and appurtenant facilities);
(6) Public sanitary and storm sewer lines (including sewage disposal and treatment plant lines);
(7) Water control and use projects (including but not limited to, flowage easements, irrigation ditches and canals, and water treatment plant lines);
(8) Oil and gas pipelines (including pump stations, meter stations, and other appurtenant facilities);
(9) Electric transmission and distribution systems (including lines, poles, towers, telecommunication, protection, measurement and data acquisition equipment, other items necessary to operate and maintain the system, and appurtenant facilities);
(10) Telecommunications, broadband, fiber optic lines;
(11) Avigation hazard easements;
(12) Conservation easements not covered by 25 CFR part 84, Encumbrances of Tribal Land—Contract Approvals, or 25 CFR part 162, Leases and Permits; or
(13) Any other new use for which a right-of-way is appropriate but which is unforeseeable as of the effective date of these regulations.
(b) Each of the uses listed above includes the right to access the right-of-way to manage vegetation, inspect, maintain and repair equipment, and conduct other activities that are necessary to maintain the right-of-way use.
BIA will act on requests for rights-of-way using the authority in 25 U.S.C. 323-328, and relying on supplementary authority such as 25 U.S.C. 2218, where appropriate.
(a) If your right-of-way grant is issued on or after December 21, 2015, this part applies.
(b) If we granted your right-of-way before December 21, 2015, the procedural provisions of this part apply except that if the procedural provisions of this part conflict with the explicit provisions of the right-of-way grant or statute authorizing the right-of-way document, then the provisions of the right-of-way grant or authorizing statute apply instead. Non-procedural provisions of this part do not apply.
(c) If you submitted an application for a right-of-way but we did not grant the right-of-way before December 21, 2015, then:
(1) You may choose to withdraw the document and resubmit after December 21, 2015, in which case this part will apply to that document; or
(2) You may choose to proceed without withdrawing, in which case:
(i) We will review the application under the regulations in effect at the time of your submission; and
(ii) Once we grant the right-of-way, the procedural provisions of this part apply except that if the procedural provisions of this part conflict with the explicit provisions of the right-of-way grant or statute authorizing the right-of-way document, then the provisions of the right-of-way grant or authorizing statute apply instead. Non-procedural provisions of this part do not apply.
(d) For any assignments completed before December 21, 2015, the current assignee must, by April 18, 2016, provide BIA with documentation of any past assignments or notify BIA that it needs an extension and explain the reason for the extension.
(e) To the maximum extent possible, BIA will interpret any ambiguous language in the right-of-way document or statute to be consistent with these regulations.
A tribe or tribal organization may contract or compact under the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 450f
In addition to the regulations in this part, rights-of-way approved under this part:
(a) Are subject to all applicable Federal laws;
(b) Are subject to tribal law; except to the extent that those tribal laws are inconsistent with applicable Federal law; and
(c) Are generally not subject to State law or the law of a political subdivision thereof.
A right-of-way is a non-possessory interest in land, and title does not pass to the grantee. The Secretary's grant of a right-of-way will clarify that it does not diminish to any extent:
(a) The Indian tribe's jurisdiction over the land subject to, and any person or activity within, the right-of-way;
(b) The power of the Indian tribe to tax the land, any improvements on the land, or any person or activity within, the right-of-way;
(c) The Indian tribe's authority to enforce tribal law of general or particular application on the land subject to and within the right-of-way, as if there were no grant of right-of-way;
(d) The Indian tribe's inherent sovereign power to exercise civil jurisdiction over non-members on Indian land; or
(e) The character of the land subject to the right-of-way as Indian country under 18 U.S.C. 1151.
(a) Subject only to applicable Federal law:
(1) Permanent improvements in a right-of-way, without regard to ownership of those improvements, are not subject to any fee, tax, assessment, levy, or other charge imposed by any State or political subdivision of a State;
(2) Activities under a right-of-way grant are not subject to any fee, tax, assessment, levy, or other charge (
(3) The right-of-way interest is not subject to any fee, tax, assessment, levy, or other charge imposed by any State or political subdivision of a State.
(b) Improvements, activities, and right-of-way interests may be subject to taxation by the Indian tribe with jurisdiction.
When this part requires BIA to notify the parties of our intent to grant a right-of-way under § 169.107(b) or our determination to approve or disapprove a right-of-way document, and to provide any right of appeal:
(a) For rights-of-way over or across tribal land, we will notify the applicant and the tribe by first class U.S. mail or, upon request, electronic mail; and
(b) For rights-of-way over or across individually owned Indian land, we will notify the applicant and individual Indian landowners by first class U.S. mail or, upon request, electronic mail. If the individually owned land is located within a tribe's jurisdiction, we will also notify the tribe by first class U.S. mail or, upon request, electronic mail.
(a) Appeals from BIA decisions under this part may be taken under part 2 of this chapter, except our decision to disapprove a right-of-way grant or any other right-of-way document may be appealed only by the applicant or an Indian landowner of the tract over or across which the right-of-way was proposed.
(b) For purposes of appeals from BIA decisions under this part, “interested party” is defined as any person whose land is subject to the right-of-way or located adjacent to or in close proximity to the right-of-way whose own direct economic interest is adversely affected by an action or decision.
The collections of information in this part have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under 44 U.S.C. 3501
Service lines generally branch off from facilities for which a right-of-way must be obtained. A service line is a utility line running from a main line, transmission line, or distribution line that is used only for supplying telephone, water, electricity, gas, internet service, or other utility service to a house, business, or other structure. In the case of a power line, a service line is limited to a voltage of 14.5 kv or less, or a voltage of 34.5 kv or less if serving irrigation pumps and commercial and industrial uses. To obtain access to Indian land for service lines, the right-of-way grantee must file a service line agreement meeting the requirements of this subpart with BIA.
Service line agreements are agreements signed by a utility provider and landowners for the purpose of providing limited access to supply the owners (or authorized occupants or users) of one tract of tribal or individually owned Indian land with utilities for use by such owners (or occupants or users) on the premises.
A service line agreement should address what utility services the provider will supply, to whom, and other appropriate details. The service line agreement should also address the mitigation of any damages incurred during construction and the restoration (or reclamation, if agreed to by the owners or authorized occupants or users) of the premises at the termination of the agreement.
(a) Before the utility provider may begin any work to construct service lines across tribal land, the utility provider and the tribe (or the legally authorized occupants or users of the tribal land and upon request, the tribe) must execute a service line agreement.
(b) Before the utility provider may begin any work to construct service lines across individually owned land, the utility provider and the owners (or the legally authorized occupants or users) must execute a service line agreement.
We do not require a valuation for service line agreements.
The parties must file an executed copy of service line agreements, together with a plat or diagram, with us within 30 days after the date of execution for recording in the LTRO. The plat or diagram must show the boundary of the ownership parcel and point of connection of the service line with the distribution line. When the plat or diagram is placed on a separate sheet it must include the signatures of the parties.
(a) To obtain a right-of-way across tribal or individually owned Indian land or BIA land, you must submit a complete application to the BIA office with jurisdiction over the land covered by the right-of-way.
(b) If you must obtain access to Indian land to prepare information required by the application (
(c) If the BIA will be granting the right-of-way across Indian land under § 169.107(b), then the BIA may grant permission to access the land.
(a) An application for a right-of-way must identify:
(1) The applicant;
(2) The tract(s) or parcel(s) affected by the right-of-way;
(3) The general location of the right-of-way;
(4) The purpose of the right-of-way;
(5) The duration of the right-of-way: and
(6) The ownership of permanent improvements associated with the right-of-way and the responsibility for constructing, operating, maintaining, and managing permanent improvements under § 169.105.
(b) The following must be submitted with the application:
(1) An accurate legal description of the right-of-way, its boundaries, and parcels associated with the right-of-way;
(2) A map of definite location of the right-of-way (this requirement does not apply to easements covering the entire tract of land);
(3) Bond(s), insurance, and/or other security meeting the requirements of § 169.103;
(4) Record that notice of the right-of-way was provided to all Indian landowners;
(5) Record of consent for the right-of-way meeting the requirements of § 169.107, or a statement requesting a right-of-way without consent under § 169.107(b);
(6) If applicable, a valuation meeting the requirements of § 169.114;
(7) If the applicant is a corporation, limited liability company, partnership, joint venture, or other legal entity, except a tribal entity, information such as organizational documents, certificates, filing records, and resolutions, demonstrating that:
(i) The representative has authority to execute the application;
(ii) The right-of-way will be enforceable against the applicant; and
(iii) The legal entity is in good standing and authorized to conduct business in the jurisdiction where the land is located;
(8) Environmental and archaeological reports, surveys, and site assessments, as needed to facilitate compliance with applicable Federal and tribal environmental and land use requirements; and
(9) A statement from the appropriate tribal authority that the proposed use is in conformance with applicable tribal law, if required by the tribe.
(c) There is no standard application form.
(a) You must include payment of bonds, insurance, or alternative forms of security with your application for a right-of-way in amounts that cover:
(1) The highest annual rental specified in the grant, unless compensation is a one-time payment;
(2) The estimated damages resulting from the construction of any permanent improvements;
(3) The estimated damages and remediation costs from any potential release of contaminants, explosives, hazardous material or waste;
(4) The operation and maintenance charges for any land located within an irrigation project;
(5) The restoration of the premises to their condition at the start of the right-of-way or reclamation to some other specified condition if agreed to by the landowners.
(b) The bond or other security must be deposited with us and made payable only to us, and may not be modified without our approval, except for tribal land in which case the bond or security may be deposited with and made payable to the tribe, and may not be modified without the approval of the tribe. Any insurance must identify both the Indian landowners and the United States as additional insured parties.
(c) The grant will specify the conditions under which we may adjust the bond, insurance, or security requirements to reflect changing conditions, including consultation with the tribal landowner for tribal land before the adjustment.
(d) We may require that the surety provide any supporting documents needed to show that the bond, insurance, or alternative form of security will be enforceable, and that the surety will be able to perform the guaranteed obligations.
(e) The bond, insurance, or other security instrument must require the surety to provide notice to us, and the tribe for tribal land, at least 60 days before canceling a bond, insurance, or other security. This will allow us to notify the grantee of its obligation to provide a substitute bond, insurance, or other security before the cancellation date. Failure to provide a substitute bond, insurance or security is a violation of the right-of-way.
(f) We may waive the requirement for a bond, insurance, or alternative form of security:
(1) For individually owned Indian land, if the Indian landowners of the majority of the interests request it and we determine, in writing, that a waiver is in the Indian landowners' best interest considering the purpose of and risks associated with the right-of-way, or if the grantee is a utility cooperative and is providing a direct benefit to the Indian land or is a tribal utility.
(2) For tribal land, deferring, to the maximum extent possible, to the tribe's determination that a waiver of a bond, insurance or alternative form of security is in its best interest.
(g) We will accept a bond only in one of the following forms:
(1) Certificates of deposit issued by a federally insured financial institution authorized to do business in the United States;
(2) Irrevocable letters of credit issued by a federally insured financial institution authorized to do business in the United States;
(3) Negotiable Treasury securities; or
(4) Surety bonds issued by a company approved by the U.S. Department of the Treasury.
(h) We may accept an alternative form of security approved by us that provides adequate protection for the Indian landowners and us, including but not
(i) All forms of bonds or alternative security must, if applicable:
(1) State on their face that BIA approval is required for redemption;
(2) Be accompanied by a statement granting full authority to BIA to make an immediate claim upon or sell them if the grantee violates the terms of the right-of-way grant;
(3) Be irrevocable during the term of the bond or alternative security; and
(4) Be automatically renewable during the term of the right-of-way.
(j) We will not accept cash bonds.
Upon satisfaction of the requirements for which the bond was security, or upon expiration, termination, or cancellation of the right-of-way, the grantee may ask BIA in writing to release all or part of the bond or alternative form of security and release the grantee from the obligation to maintain insurance. Upon receiving the grantee's request, BIA will:
(a) Confirm with the tribe, for tribal land or, where feasible, with the Indian landowners for individually owned Indian land, that the grantee has complied with all applicable grant obligations; and
(b) Release all or part of the bond or alternative form of security to the grantee, unless we determine that the bond or security must be redeemed to fulfill the contractual obligations.
(a) If permanent improvements are to be constructed, the right-of-way grant must include due diligence requirements that require the grantee to complete construction of any permanent improvements within the schedule specified in the right-of-way grant or general schedule of construction, and a process for changing the schedule by mutual consent of the parties. If construction does not occur, or is not expected to be completed, within the time period specified in the grant, the grantee must provide the Indian landowners and BIA with an explanation of good cause as to the nature of any delay, the anticipated date of construction of facilities, and evidence of progress toward commencement of construction.
(b) Failure of the grantee to comply with the due diligence requirements of the grant is a violation of the grant and may lead to cancellation of the right-of-way under § 169.405 or § 169.408.
(c) BIA may waive the requirements in this section if we determine, in writing, that a waiver is in the best interest of the Indian landowners.
(a) Applicants may submit a written request to us to obtain the following information. The request must specify that it is for the purpose of negotiating a right-of-way:
(1) Names and addresses of the individual Indian landowners or their representatives;
(2) Information on the location of the parcel; and
(3) The percentage of undivided interest owned by each individual Indian landowner.
(b) We may assist applicants in contacting the individual Indian landowners or their representatives for the purpose of negotiating a right-of-way, upon request.
(c) We will attempt to assist individual Indian landowners in right-of-way negotiations, upon their request.
(a) For a right-of-way across tribal land, the applicant must obtain tribal consent, in the form of a tribal authorization and a written agreement with the tribe, if the tribe so requires, to a grant of right-of-way across tribal land. The consent document may impose restrictions or conditions; any restrictions or conditions automatically become conditions and restrictions in the grant.
(b) For a right-of-way across individually owned Indian land, the applicant must notify all individual Indian landowners and, except as provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, must obtain written consent from the owners of the majority interest in each tract affected by the grant of right-of-way.
(1) We may issue the grant of right-of-way without the consent of any of the individual Indian owners if all of the following conditions are met:
(i) The owners of interests in the land are so numerous that it would be impracticable to obtain consent as defined in paragraph (c) of this section;
(ii) We determine the grant will cause no substantial injury to the land or any landowner, based on factors including, but not limited to, the reasonableness of the term of the grant, the amount of acreage involved in the grant, the disturbance to land that will result from the grant, the type of activity to be conducted under the grant, the potential for environmental or safety impacts resulting from the grant, and any objections raised by landowners;
(iii) We determine that all of the landowners will be adequately compensated for consideration and any damages that may arise from a grant of right-of-way; and
(iv) We provide notice of our intent to issue the grant of right-of-way to all of the owners at least 60 days prior to the date of the grant using the procedures in § 169.12, and provide landowners with 30 days to object.
(2) For the purposes of this section, the owners of interests in the land are so numerous that it would be impracticable to obtain consent, if there are 50 or more co-owners of undivided trust or restricted interests.
(3) Successors are bound by consent granted by their predecessors-in-interest.
(c) We will determine the number of owners of, and undivided interests in, a fractionated tract of Indian land, for the purposes of calculating the requisite consent based on our records on the date on which the application is submitted to us.
(a) Indian tribes, adult Indian landowners, and emancipated minors, may consent to a right-of-way over or across their land, including undivided interests in fractionated tracts.
(b) The following individuals or entities may consent on behalf of an individual Indian landowner:
(1) An adult with legal custody acting on behalf of his or her minor children;
(2) A guardian, conservator, or other fiduciary appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction to act on behalf of an individual Indian landowner;
(3) Any person who is authorized to practice before the Department of the Interior under 43 CFR 1.3(b) and has been retained by the Indian landowner for this purpose;
(4) BIA, under the circumstances in paragraph (c) of this section; or
(5) An adult or legal entity who has been given a written power of attorney that:
(i) Meets all of the formal requirements of any applicable law under § 169.9;
(ii) Identifies the attorney-in-fact; and
(iii) Describes the scope of the powers granted, to include granting rights-of-way on land or generally conveying or encumbering interests in Indian land, and any limits on those powers.
(c) BIA may give written consent to a right-of-way on behalf of an individual Indian landowner, as long as we
(1) An individual Indian landowner, if the owner is deceased, and the heirs to, or devisees of, the interest of the deceased owner have not been determined;
(2) An individual Indian landowner whose whereabouts are unknown to us, after we make a reasonable attempt to locate the individual;
(3) An individual Indian landowner who is found to be non compos mentis or determined to be an adult in need of assistance who does not have a guardian duly appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction, or an individual under legal disability as defined in part 115 of this chapter;
(4) An individual Indian landowner who is an orphaned minor and who does not have a guardian duly appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction; and
(5) An individual Indian landowner who has given us a written power of attorney to consent to a right-of-way over or across their land.
If there is a life estate on the tract that would be subject to the right-of-way, the applicant must get the consent of both the life tenant and the owners of the majority of the remainder interest known at the time of the application.
(a) A right-of-way over or across tribal land may allow for any payment amount negotiated by the tribe, and we will defer to the tribe and not require a valuation if the tribe submits a tribal authorization expressly stating that it:
(1) Has agreed upon compensation satisfactory to the tribe;
(2) Waives valuation; and
(3) Has determined that accepting such agreed-upon compensation and waiving valuation is in its best interest.
(b) The tribe may request, in writing, that we determine fair market value, in which case we will use a valuation in accordance with § 169.114. After providing the tribe with the fair market value, we will defer to a tribe's decision to allow for any compensation negotiated by the tribe.
(c) If the conditions in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section are not met, we will require that the grantee pay fair market value based on a valuation in accordance with § 169.114.
For a right-of-way grant over or across tribal land, no periodic review of the adequacy of compensation or adjustment is required, unless the tribe negotiates for reviews or adjustments.
(a) A right-of-way over or across individually owned Indian land must require compensation of not less than fair market value, unless paragraph (b) or (c) of this section permit a lesser amount. Compensation may also include additional fees, including but not limited to throughput fees, severance damages, franchise fees, avoidance value, bonuses, or other factors. Compensation may be based on a fixed amount, a percentage of the projected income, or some other method. The grant must establish how the fixed amount, percentage, or combination will be calculated and the frequency at which the payments will be made.
(b) We may approve a right-of-way over or across individually owned Indian land that provides for nominal compensation, or compensation less than a fair market value, if:
(1) The grantee is a utility cooperative and is providing a direct benefit to the Indian land; or
(2) The grantee is a tribal utility; or
(3) The individual Indian landowners execute a written waiver of the right to receive fair market value and we determine it is in the individual Indian landowners' best interest, based on factors including, but not limited to:
(i) The grantee is a member of the immediate family, as defined in § 169.2, of an individual Indian landowner;
(ii) The grantee is a co-owner in the affected tract;
(iii) A special relationship or circumstances exist that we believe warrant approval of the right-of-way; or
(iv) We have waived the requirement for a valuation under paragraph (d) of this section.
(c) We will require a valuation to determine fair market value, unless:
(1) 100 percent of the individual Indian landowners submit to us a written request to waive the valuation requirement; or
(2) We waive the requirement under paragraph (d) of this section.
(d) The grant must provide that the non-consenting individual Indian landowners, and those on whose behalf we have consented under § 169.108(c), or granted the right-of-way without consent under § 169.107(b), receive fair market value, as determined by a valuation, unless:
(1) The grantee is a utility cooperative and is providing a direct benefit to the Indian land; or
(2) The grantee is a tribal utility; or
(3) We waive the requirement because the tribe or grantee will construct infrastructure improvements benefitting the individual Indian landowners, and we determine in writing that the waiver is in the best interest of all the landowners.
(a) For a right-of-way grant of individually owned Indian land, a review of the adequacy of compensation must occur at least every fifth year, in the manner specified in the grant unless:
(1) Payment is a one-time lump sum;
(2) The term of the right-of-way grant is 5 years or less;
(3) The grant provides for automatic adjustments; or
(4) We determine it is in the best interest of the Indian landowners not to require a review or automatic adjustment based on circumstances including, but not limited to, the following:
(i) The right-of-way grant provides for payment of less than fair market value;
(ii) The right-of-way grant provides for most or all of the compensation to be paid during the first 5 years of the grant term or before the date the review would be conducted; or
(iii) The right-of-way grant provides for graduated rent or non-monetary or varying types of compensation.
(b) The grant must specify:
(1) When adjustments take effect;
(2) Who can make adjustments;
(3) What the adjustments are based on; and
(4) How to resolve disputes arising from the adjustments.
(c) When a review results in the need for adjustment of compensation, the Indian landowners must consent to the adjustment in accordance with § 169.107, unless the grant provides otherwise.
(a) We will use a market analysis, appraisal, or other appropriate valuation method to determine the fair market value before we grant a right-of-way over or across individually owned Indian land. We will also use a market analysis, appraisal, or other appropriate valuation method to determine, at the request of the tribe, the fair market value of tribal land.
(b) We will either:
(1) Prepare, or have prepared, a market analysis, appraisal, or other appropriate valuation method; or
(2) Approve use of a market analysis, appraisal, or other appropriate valuation method from the Indian landowners or grantee.
(c) We will use or approve use of a market analysis, appraisal, or other appropriate valuation method only if it:
(1) Has been prepared in accordance with USPAP or a valuation method developed by the Secretary under 25 U.S.C. 2214 and complies with Departmental policies regarding appraisals, including third-party appraisals; or
(2) Has been prepared by another Federal agency.
Compensation for a right-of-way may be a one-time, lump sum payment, or may be paid in increments (for example, annually).
(a) If compensation is a one-time, lump sum payment, the grantee must make the payment by the date we grant the right-of-way, unless stated otherwise in the grant.
(b) If compensation is to be paid in increments, the right-of-way grant must specify the dates on which all payments are due. Payments are due at the time specified in the grant, regardless of whether the grantee receives an advance billing or other notice that a payment is due. Increments may not be more frequent than quarterly if payments are made to us on the Indian landowners' behalf.
(a) A right-of-way grant must specify whether the grantee will make payments directly to the Indian landowners (direct pay) or to us on their behalf.
(b) The grantee may make payments directly to the tribe if the tribe so chooses. The grantee may make payments directly to the Indian landowners if:
(1) The Indian landowners' trust accounts are unencumbered accounts;
(2) There are 10 or fewer beneficial owners; and
(3) One hundred percent of the beneficial owners (including those on whose behalf we have consented) agree to receive payment directly from the grantee at the start of the right-of-way.
(c) If the right-of-way document provides that the grantee will directly pay the Indian landowners, then:
(1) The right-of-way document must include provisions for proof of payment upon our request.
(2) When we consent on behalf of an Indian landowner, the grantee must make payment to us on behalf of that landowner.
(3) The grantee must send direct payments to the parties and addresses specified in the right-of-way, unless the grantee receives notice of a change of ownership or address.
(4) Unless the right-of-way document provides otherwise, payments may not be made payable directly to anyone other than the Indian landowners.
(5) Direct payments must continue through the duration of the right-of-way, except that:
(i) The grantee must make all Indian landowners' payments to us if 100 percent of the Indian landowners agree to suspend direct pay and provide us with documentation of their agreement; and
(ii) The grantee must make an individual Indian landowner's payment to us if that individual Indian landowner dies, is declared non compos mentis, owes a debt resulting in an encumbered account, or his or her whereabouts become unknown.
(a) If payments are made to us on behalf of the Indian landowners, our preferred method of payment is electronic funds transfer payments. We will also accept:
(1) Money orders;
(2) Personal checks;
(3) Certified checks; or
(4) Cashier's checks.
(b) We will not accept cash or foreign currency.
(c) We will accept third-party checks only from financial institutions or Federal agencies.
(d) The grant of right-of-way will specify the payment method if payments are made by direct pay.
(a) A right-of-way grant may provide for alternative forms of compensation and varying types of compensation, subject to the conditions in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section:
(1) Alternative forms of compensation may include but are not limited to, in-kind consideration and payments based on throughput or percentage of income; or
(2) Varying types of compensation may include but are not limited to different types of payments at specific stages during the life of the right-of-way grant, such as fixed annual payments during construction, payments based on income during an operational period, and bonuses.
(b) For tribal land, we will defer to the tribe's determination that the compensation under paragraph (a) of this section is in its best interest, if the tribe submits a signed certification or tribal authorization stating that it has determined the alternative form of compensation or varying type of compensation to be in its best interest.
(c) For individually owned land, we may grant a right-of-way that provides for an alternative form of compensation or varying type of compensation if we determine that it is in the best interest of the Indian landowners.
Upon request of the Indian landowners, we may issue invoices to a grantee in advance of the dates on which payments are due under the right-of-way. The grantee's obligation to make these payments in a timely manner will not be excused if invoices are not issued, delivered, or received.
(a) The grantee may be required to pay additional fees, taxes, and assessments associated with the application for use of the land or use of the land, as determined by entities having jurisdiction, except as provided in § 169.11. The grantee must pay these amounts to the appropriate office, as applicable.
(b) In addition to, or as part of, the compensation for a right-of-way under §§ 169.110 and 169.112 and the payments provided for in paragraph (a) of this section, the applicant for a right-of-way will be required to pay for all damages to the land, such as those incident to the construction or maintenance of the facility for which the right-of-way is granted.
If a will created the life estate and specifies how the compensation will be
(a) The owners of the remainder interests and the life tenant may enter into a right-of-way or other written agreement approved by the Secretary providing for the distribution of rent monies under the right-of-way; or
(b) If the owners of the remainder interests and life tenant did not enter into an agreement for distribution, the life tenant will receive payment in accordance with the distribution and calculation scheme set forth in part 179 of this chapter.
The grantee must pay compensation directly to the life tenant under the terms of the right-of-way unless the whereabouts of the life tenant are unknown, in which case we may collect compensation on behalf of the life tenant.
(a) Before we grant a right-of-way, we must determine that the right-of-way is in the best interest of the Indian landowners. In making that determination, we will:
(1) Review the right-of-way application and supporting documents;
(2) Identify potential environmental impacts and adverse impacts, and ensure compliance with all applicable Federal environmental, land use, historic preservation, and cultural resource laws and ordinances; and
(3) Require any modifications or mitigation measures necessary to satisfy any requirements including any other Federal or tribal land use requirements.
(b) Upon receiving a right-of-way application, we will promptly notify the applicant whether the package is complete. A complete package includes all of the information and supporting documents required under this subpart, including but not limited to, an accurate legal description for each affected tract, documentation of landowner consent, NEPA review documentation and valuation documentation, where applicable.
(1) If the right-of-way application package is not complete, our letter will identify the missing information or documents required for a complete package. If we do not respond to the submission of an application package, the parties may take action under § 169.304.
(2) If the right-of-way application package is complete, we will notify the applicant of the date of our receipt of the complete package. Within 60 days of our receipt of a complete package, we will grant or deny the right-of-way, return the package for revision, or inform the applicant in writing that we need additional review time. If we inform the applicant in writing that we need additional time, then:
(i) Our letter informing the applicant that we need additional review time must identify our initial concerns and invite the applicant to respond within 15 days of the date of the letter; and
(ii) We will issue a written determination granting or denying the right-of-way within 30 days from sending the letter informing the applicant that we need additional time.
(c) If we do not meet the deadlines in this section, then the applicant may take appropriate action under § 169.304.
(d) We will provide any right-of-way denial and the basis for the determination, along with notification of any appeal rights under part 2 of this chapter to the parties to the right-of-way. If the right-of-way is granted, we will provide a copy of the right-of-way to the tribal landowner and, upon written request, make copies available to the individual Indian landowners, and provide notice under § 169.12.
Our decision to grant or deny a right-of-way will be in writing.
(a) We will grant a right-of-way unless:
(1) The requirements of this subpart have not been met, such as if the required landowner consent has not been obtained under § 169.107; or
(2) We find a compelling reason to withhold the grant in order to protect the best interests of the Indian landowners.
(b) We will defer, to the maximum extent possible, to the Indian landowners' determination that the right-of-way is in their best interest.
(c) We may not unreasonably withhold our grant of a right-of-way.
(d) We may grant one right-of-way for all of the tracts traversed by the right-of-way, or we may issue separate grants for one or more tracts traversed by the right-of-way.
(a) The grant will incorporate the conditions or restrictions set out in the Indian landowners' consents.
(b) The grant will address:
(1) The use(s) the grant is authorizing;
(2) Whether assignment of the right-of-way is permitted and, if so, whether additional consent is required for the assignment and whether any additional compensation is owed to the landowners;
(3) Whether mortgaging of the right-of-way is permitted and, if so, whether additional consent is required for the mortgage and whether any additional compensation is owed to the landowners; and
(4) Ownership of permanent improvements under § 169.130.
(c) The grant will state that:
(1) The tribe maintains its existing jurisdiction over the land, activities, and persons within the right-of-way under § 169.10 and reserves the right of the tribe to reasonable access to the lands subject to the grant to determine grantee's compliance with consent conditions or to protect public health and safety;
(2) The grantee has no right to any of the products or resources of the land, including but not limited to, timber, forage, mineral, and animal resources, unless otherwise provided for in the grant;
(3) BIA may treat any provision of a grant that violates Federal law as a violation of the grant; and
(4) If historic properties, archeological resources, human remains, or other cultural items not previously reported are encountered during the course of any activity associated with this grant, all activity in the immediate vicinity of the properties, resources, remains, or items will cease and the grantee will contact BIA and the tribe with jurisdiction over the land to determine how to proceed and appropriate disposition.
(5) The grantee must:
(i) Construct and maintain improvements within the right-of-way in a professional manner consistent with industry standards;
(ii) Pay promptly all damages and compensation, in addition to bond or alternative form of security made pursuant to § 169.103, determined by the BIA to be due the landowners and authorized users and occupants of land as a result of the granting, construction, and maintenance of the right-of-way;
(iii) Restore the land as nearly as may be possible to its original condition, upon the completion of construction, to the extent compatible with the purpose for which the right-of-way was granted, or reclaim the land if agreed to by the landowners;
(iv) Clear and keep clear the land within the right-of-way, to the extent compatible with the purpose of the right-of-way, and dispose of all
(v) Comply with all applicable laws and obtain all required permits;
(vi) Not commit waste;
(vii) Operate, repair and maintain improvements consistent with the right-of-way grant;
(viii) Build and maintain necessary and suitable crossings for all roads and trails that intersect the improvements constructed, maintained, or operated under the right-of-way;
(ix) Restore the land to its original condition, to the maximum extent reasonably possible, upon cancellation or termination of the right-of-way, or reclaim the land if agreed to by the landowners;
(x) At all times keep the BIA, and the tribe for tribal land, informed of the grantee's address;
(xi) Refrain from interfering with the landowner's use of the land, provided that the landowner's use of the land is not inconsistent with the right-of-way;
(xii) Comply with due diligence requirements under § 169.105; and
(xiii) Notify the BIA, and the tribe for tribal land, if it files for bankruptcy or is placed in receivership.
(6) Unless the grantee would be prohibited by law from doing so, the grantee must also:
(i) Hold the United States and the Indian landowners harmless from any loss, liability, or damages resulting from the applicant's use or occupation of the premises; and
(ii) Indemnify the United States and the Indian landowners against all liabilities or costs relating to the use, handling, treatment, removal, storage, transportation, or disposal of hazardous materials, or release or discharge of any hazardous material from the premises that occurs during the term of the grant, regardless of fault, with the exception that the applicant is not required to indemnify the Indian landowners for liability or cost arising from the Indian landowners' negligence or willful misconduct.
(d) The grant must attach or include by reference maps of definite location.
A grant of right-of-way over or across Indian land may include a provision, consistent with tribal law, requiring the grantee to give a preference to qualified tribal members, based on their political affiliation with the tribe.
(a) If you are the grantee, you may use all or a portion of an existing right-of-way for a use not specified in the original grant of the existing right-of-way only if it is within the same scope of the use specified in the original grant of the existing right-of-way.
(1) If you propose to use all or a portion of an existing right-of-way for a use not specified in the original grant of the existing right-of-way and not within the same scope of the use specified in the original grant of the existing right-of-way, and the new use will not require any ground disturbance, you must request an amendment to the existing right-of-way grant.
(2) If you propose to use all or a portion of an existing right-of-way for a use not specified in the original grant of the existing right-of-way and not within the same scope of the use specified in the original grant of the existing right-of-way, and the new use requires ground disturbance, you must request a new right-of-way.
(b) If you are not the grantee:
(1) You may use all or a portion of an existing right-of-way for a use specified in the original grant of the existing right-of-way or a use within the same scope of the use specified in the original grant of the existing right-of-way if the grantee obtains an assignment to authorize the new user; or
(2) You may use all or a portion of an existing right-of-way for a use not specified in the original grant of the existing right-of-way and not within the same scope of use specified in the original grant of the existing right-of-way if you request a new right-of-way within or overlapping the existing right-of-way for the new use.
(c) An example of a use within the same scope is a right-of-way for underground telephone line being used for an underground fiber optic line, and an example of a use that is not within the same scope is a right-of-way for a pipeline being used for a road or railroad.
We may grant a new right-of-way within or overlapping an existing right-of-way if it meets the following conditions:
(a) The applicant follows the procedures and requirements in this part to obtain a new right-of-way.
(b) The new right-of-way does not interfere with the use or purpose of the existing right-of-way and the applicant has obtained the consent of the existing right-of-way grantee. The existing right-of-way grantee may not unreasonably withhold consent.
(a) If engineering or other complications prevented construction within the location identified in the original application and grant, and required a minor deviation from the location identified in the original application and grant, then we and the tribe, for tribal land, will determine whether the change in location requires one or more of the following:
(1) An amended map of definite location;
(2) Landowner consent;
(3) A valuation or, with landowner consent, a recalculation of compensation;
(4) Additional compensation or security; or
(5) Other actions required to comply with applicable laws.
(b) If BIA and the tribe, for tribal land, determine it is not a minor deviation in location, we may require a new right-of-way grant or amendment to the right-of-way grant.
(c) If we grant a right-of-way for the new route or location, the applicant must execute instruments to extinguish, or amend, as appropriate, the right-of-way at the original location identified in the application.
(d) We will transmit the instruments to extinguish or amend the right-of-way to the LTRO for recording.
(a) A right-of-way grant must specify who will own any permanent improvements the grantee constructs during the grant term and may specify under what conditions, if any, permanent improvements the grantee constructs may be conveyed to the Indian landowners during the grant term. In addition, the grant may indicate whether each specific permanent improvement the grantee constructs will:
(1) Remain on the premises, upon the expiration, cancellation, or termination of the grant, in a condition satisfactory to the Indian landowners, and become the property of the Indian landowners;
(2) Be removed within a time period specified in the grant, at the grantee's expense, with the premises to be restored as closely as possible to their condition before construction of the permanent improvements; or
(3) Be disposed of by other specified means.
(b) A grant that requires the grantee to remove the permanent improvements must also provide the Indian landowners with an option to take possession of and title to the permanent improvements if the improvements are not removed within the specified time period.
(a) All rights-of-way granted under this part are limited to the time periods stated in the grant.
(b) For tribal land, we will defer to the tribe's determination that the right-of-way term is reasonable.
(c) For individually owned Indian land, we will review the right-of-way duration to ensure that it is reasonable, given the purpose of the right-of-way. We will generally consider a maximum duration of 20 years to be reasonable for the initial term for rights-of-way for oil and gas purposes and a maximum of 50 years, inclusive of the initial term and any renewals, to be reasonable for rights-of-way for all other purposes. We will consider a duration consistent with use to be reasonable for rights-of-way for conservation easements. We will consider durations different from these guidelines if a different duration would benefit the Indian landowners, is required by another Federal agency, or the tribe has negotiated for a different duration and the right-of-way crosses tribal land.
A renewal is an extension of term of an existing right-of-way without any other change.
(a) The grantee may request a renewal of an existing right-of-way grant and we will renew the grant as long as:
(1) The initial term and renewal terms, together, do not exceed the maximum term determined to be reasonable under § 169.201;
(2) The existing right-of-way grant explicitly allows for automatic renewal or an option to renew and specifies compensation owed to the landowners upon renewal or how compensation will be determined;
(3) The grantee provides us with a signed affidavit that there is no change in size, type, or location, of the right-of-way;
(4) The initial term has not yet ended;
(5) No uncured violation exists regarding the regulations in this part or the grant's conditions or restrictions; and
(6) The grantee provides confirmation that landowner consent has been obtained, or if consent is not required because the original right-of-way grant explicitly allows for renewal without the owners' consent, the grantee provides notice to the landowners of the renewal.
(b) We will record any renewal of a right-of-way grant in the LTRO.
(c) If the proposed renewal involves any change to the original grant or the original grant was silent as to renewals, the grantee must reapply for a new right-of-way, in accordance with § 169.101, and we will handle the application for renewal as an original application for a right-of-way.
There is no prohibition on renewing a right-of-way multiple times, unless the grant expressly prohibits multiple renewals, and subject to the duration limitations for individually owned land in § 169.201. The provisions of § 169.202 apply to each renewal.
(a) An amendment is required to change any provisions of a right-of-way grant. If the change is a material change to the grant, we may require application for a new right-of-way instead.
(b) A grantee may request that we amend a right-of-way to make an administrative modification (
(a) When we receive an amendment for our approval, we will notify the grantee of the date we receive it. We have 30 days from receipt of the executed amendment, proof of required consents, and required documentation (including but not limited to a corrected legal description, if any, and NEPA compliance) to approve or disapprove the amendment. Our determination whether to approve the amendment will be in writing and will state the basis for our approval or disapproval.
(b) If we need additional time to review, our letter informing the parties that we need additional time for review must identify our initial concerns and invite the parties to respond within 15 days of the date of the letter. We have 30 days from sending the letter informing the parties that we need additional time to approve or disapprove the amendment.
(c) If we do not meet the deadline in paragraph (a) of this section, or paragraph (b) of this section if applicable, the grantee or Indian landowners may take appropriate action under § 169.304.
(a) We may disapprove a request for an amendment of a right-of-way only if at least one of the following is true:
(1) The Indian landowners have not consented to the amendment under § 169.107 and we have not consented on their behalf under § 169.108;
(2) The grantee's sureties for the bonds or alternative securities have not consented;
(3) The grantee is in violation of the right-of-way grant;
(4) The requirements of this subpart have not been met; or
(5) We find a compelling reason to withhold approval in order to protect the best interests of the Indian landowners.
(b) We will defer, to the maximum extent possible, to the Indian landowners' determination that the amendment is in their best interest.
(c) We may not unreasonably withhold approval of an amendment.
(a) A grantee may assign a right-of-way by:
(1) Meeting the consent requirements in § 169.107, unless the grant expressly allows for assignments without further consent; and
(2) Either obtaining our approval, or meeting the conditions in paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) A grantee may assign a right-of-way without BIA approval only if:
(1) The original right-of-way grant expressly allows for assignment without BIA approval; and
(2) The assignee and grantee provide a copy of the assignment and supporting documentation to BIA for recording in the LTRO within 30 days of the assignment.
(c) Assignments that are the result of a corporate merger, acquisition, or transfer by operation of law are
(a) When we receive an assignment for our approval, we will notify the grantee of the date we receive it. If our approval is required, we have 30 days from receipt of the executed assignment, proof of any required consents, and any required documentation to approve or disapprove the assignment. Our determination whether to approve the assignment will be in writing and will state the basis for our approval or disapproval.
(b) If we do not meet the deadline in this section, the grantee or Indian landowners may take appropriate action under § 169.304.
(a) We may disapprove an assignment of a right-of-way only if at least one of the following is true:
(1) The Indian landowners have not consented to the assignment under § 169.107 and their consent is required;
(2) Sufficient bonding and/or insurance are not in place;
(3) The grantee is in violation of the right-of-way grant;
(4) The assignee does not agree to be bound by the terms of the right-of-way grant;
(5) The requirements of this subpart have not been met; or
(6) We find a compelling reason to withhold approval in order to protect the best interests of the Indian landowners.
(b) We will defer, to the maximum extent possible, to the Indian landowners' determination that the assignment is in their best interest.
(c) We may not unreasonably withhold approval of an assignment.
A grantee may mortgage a right-of-way, if the grant expressly allows mortgaging. The grantee must meet the consent requirements in § 169.107, unless the grant expressly allows for mortgaging without consent, and must obtain our approval for the mortgage.
(a) When we receive a right-of-way mortgage for our approval, we will notify the grantee of the date we receive it. We have 30 days from receipt of the executed mortgage, proof of required consents, and required documentation to approve or disapprove the mortgage. Our determination whether to approve the mortgage will be in writing and will state the basis for our approval or disapproval.
(b) If we do not meet the deadline in this section, the grantee or Indian landowners may take appropriate action under § 169.304.
(a) We may disapprove a right-of-way mortgage only if at least one of the following is true:
(1) The Indian landowners have not consented;
(2) The grantee's sureties for the bonds have not consented;
(3) The requirements of this subpart have not been met; or
(4) We find a compelling reason to withhold approval in order to protect the best interests of the Indian landowners.
(b) In making the finding required by paragraph (a)(4) of this section, we may consider whether:
(1) The mortgage proceeds would be used for purposes unrelated to the right-of-way purpose; and
(2) The mortgage is limited to the right-of-way.
(c) We will defer, to the maximum extent possible, to the Indian landowners' determination that the mortgage is in their best interest.
(d) We may not unreasonably withhold approval of a right-of-way mortgage.
(a) A right-of-way document will be effective on the date we approve the right-of-way document, even if an appeal is filed under part 2 of this chapter.
(b) The right-of-way document may specify a date on which the grantee's obligations are triggered. Such date may be before or after the approval date under paragraph (a) of this section.
(a) Any right-of-way document must be recorded in our LTRO with jurisdiction over the affected Indian land.
(1) We will record the right-of-way document immediately following our approval or granting.
(2) In the case of assignments that do not require our approval under § 169.207(b), the parties must provide us with a copy of the assignment and we will record the assignment in the LTRO with jurisdiction over the affected Indian land.
(b) The tribe must record right-of-way documents for the following types of rights-of-way in the LTRO with jurisdiction over the affected Indian lands, even though BIA approval is not required:
(1) Grants on tribal land for a tribal utility under § 169.4;
(2) Grants on tribal land under a special act of Congress authorizing grants without our approval under certain conditions.
If we deny the right-of-way grant, renewal, amendment, assignment, or mortgage, we will notify the parties immediately and advise the landowners and the applicant of their right to appeal the decision under part 2 of this chapter.
(a) If a Superintendent does not meet a deadline for granting or denying a right-of-way, renewal, amendment, assignment, or mortgage, the parties may file a written notice to compel action with the appropriate Regional Director.
(b) The Regional Director has 15 days from receiving the notice to:
(1) Grant or deny the right-of-way; or
(2) Order the Superintendent to grant or deny the right-of-way within the time set out in the order.
(c) Either party may file a written notice to compel action with the BIA Director if:
(1) The Regional Director does not meet the deadline in paragraph (b) of this section;
(2) The Superintendent does not grant or deny the right-of-way within the time set by the Regional Director under paragraph (b)(2) of this section; or
(3) The initial decision on the right-of-way, renewal, amendment, assignment, or mortgage is with the Regional Director, and he or she does not meet the deadline for such decision.
(d) The BIA Director has 15 days from receiving the notice to:
(1) Grant or deny the right-of-way; or
(2) Order the Regional Director or Superintendent to grant or deny the right-of-way within the time set out in the order.
(e) If the Regional Director or Superintendent does not grant or deny the right-of-way within the time set out
(f) The parties may file an appeal from our inaction to the Interior Board of Indian Appeals if the BIA Director does not meet the deadline in paragraph (d) or (e) of this section.
(g) The provisions of 25 CFR 2.8 do not apply to the inaction of BIA officials with respect to a granting or denying a right-of-way, renewal, amendment, assignment, or mortgage under this subpart.
(a) If a party appeals our decision on a right-of-way document, then the official to whom the appeal is made may require the appellant to post an appeal bond in accordance with part 2 of this chapter. We will not require an appeal bond if the tribe is a party to the appeal and requests a waiver of the appeal bond.
(b) The appellant may not appeal the appeal bond decision. The appellant may, however, request that the official to whom the appeal is made reconsider the bond decision, based on extraordinary circumstances. Any reconsideration decision is final for the Department.
This subpart describes the procedures we use to address compliance and enforcement related to rights-of-way on Indian land. Any abandonment, non-use, or violation of the right-of-way grant or right-of-way document, including but not limited to encroachments beyond the defined boundaries, accidental, willful, and/or incidental trespass, unauthorized new construction, changes in use not permitted in the grant, and late or insufficient payment may result in enforcement actions including, but not limited to, cancellation of the grant.
(a) BIA may investigate compliance with a right-of-way.
(1) If an Indian landowner notifies us that a specific abandonment, non-use, or violation has occurred, we will promptly initiate an appropriate investigation.
(2) We may enter the Indian land subject to a right-of-way at any reasonable time, upon reasonable notice, and consistent with any notice requirements under applicable tribal law and applicable grant documents, to protect the interests of the Indian landowners and to determine if the grantee is in compliance with the requirements of the right-of-way.
(b) The tribe with jurisdiction may investigate compliance consistent with tribal law.
(a) The tribe and the grantee on tribal land may negotiate remedies for a violation, abandonment, or non-use. The negotiated remedies must be stated in the tribe's consent to the right-of-way grant, which BIA will then incorporate into the grant itself. The negotiated remedies may include, but are not limited to, the power to terminate the right-of-way grant. If the negotiated remedies provide one or both parties with the power to terminate the grant:
(1) BIA approval of the termination is not required;
(2) The termination is effective without BIA cancellation; and
(3) The tribe must provide us with written notice of the termination so that we may record it in the LTRO.
(b) The Indian landowners and the grantee to a right-of-way grant on individually owned Indian land may negotiate remedies, so long as the consent also specifies the manner in which those remedies may be exercised by or on behalf of the Indian landowners of the majority interest under § 169.107. If the negotiated remedies provide one or both parties with the power to terminate the grant:
(1) BIA concurrence with the termination is required to ensure that the Indian landowners of the applicable percentage of interests have consented; and
(2) BIA will record the termination in the LTRO.
(c) The parties must notify any surety of any violation that may result in termination and the termination of a right-of-way.
(d) Negotiated remedies may apply in addition to, or instead of, the cancellation remedy available to us, as specified in the right-of-way grant. The landowners may request our assistance in enforcing negotiated remedies.
(e) A right-of-way grant may provide that violations will be addressed by a tribe, and that disputes will be resolved by a tribal court, any other court of competent jurisdiction, or by a tribal governing body in the absence of a tribal court, or through an alternative dispute resolution method. We may not be bound by decisions made in such forums, but we will defer to ongoing actions or proceedings, as appropriate, in deciding whether to exercise any of the remedies available to us.
(a) In the absence of actions or proceedings described in § 169.403 (negotiated remedies), or if it is not appropriate for us to defer to the actions or proceedings, we will follow the procedures in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. We will consult with the tribe for tribal land or, where feasible, communicate with Indian landowners for individually owned Indian land, and determine whether a violation has occurred.
(b) If we determine there has been a violation of the conditions of a grant, other than a violation of payment provisions covered by paragraph (c) of this section, we will promptly send the grantee a written notice of violation.
(1) We will send a copy of the notice of violation to the tribe for tribal land, or provide constructive notice to Indian landowners for individually owned Indian land.
(2) The notice of violation will advise the grantee that, within 10 business days of the receipt of a notice of violation, the grantee must:
(i) Cure the violation and notify us, and the tribe for tribal land, in writing that the violation has been cured;
(ii) Dispute our determination that a violation has occurred; or
(iii) Request additional time to cure the violation.
(3) The notice of violation may order the grantee to cease operations under the right-of-way grant.
(c) A grantee's failure to pay compensation in the time and manner required by a right-of-way grant is a violation, and we will issue a notice of violation in accordance with this paragraph.
(1) We will send the grantees a written notice of violation promptly following the date on which the payment was due.
(2) We will send a copy of the notice of violation to the tribe for tribal land, or provide constructive notice to the Indian landowners for individually owned Indian land.
(3) The notice of violation will require the grantee to provide adequate proof of payment.
(d) The grantee will continue to be responsible for the obligations in the grant until the grant expires, or is terminated or cancelled, as well as any reclamation or other obligations that survive the end of the grant.
(a) If the grantee does not cure a violation of a right-of-way grant within the required time period, or provide adequate proof of payment as required in the notice of violation, we will consult with the tribe for tribal land or, where feasible, communicate with Indian landowners for individually owned Indian land, and determine whether:
(1) We should cancel the grant;
(2) The Indian landowners wish to invoke any remedies available to them under the grant;
(3) We should invoke other remedies available under the grant or applicable law, including collection on any available bond or, for failure to pay compensation, referral of the debt to the Department of the Treasury for collection; or
(4) The grantee should be granted additional time in which to cure the violation.
(b) Following consultation with the tribe for tribal land or, where feasible, communication with Indian landowners for individually owned Indian land, we may take action to recover unpaid compensation and any associated late payment charges.
(1) We need not cancel the grant or give any further notice to the grantee before taking action to recover unpaid compensation.
(2) We may take action to recover any unpaid compensation even though we cancel the grant.
(c) If we decide to cancel the grant, we will send the grantee a cancellation letter by certified mail, return receipt requested, within 5 business days of our decision. We will send a copy of the cancellation letter to the tribe for tribal land, and will provide Indian landowners for individually owned Indian land with actual notice of the cancellation. The cancellation letter will:
(1) Explain the grounds for cancellation;
(2) If applicable, notify the grantee of the amount of any unpaid compensation or late payment charges due under the grant;
(3) Notify the grantee of the grantee's right to appeal under part 2 of this chapter, including the possibility that the official to whom the appeal is made may require the grantee to post an appeal bond;
(4) Order the grantee to vacate the property within the timeframe reflected in the termination terms of the grant, or within 31 days of the date of receipt of the cancellation letter, or within such longer period of time in extraordinary circumstances considering the protection of trust resources and the best interest of the Indian landowners, if an appeal is not filed by that time; and
(5) Order the grantee to take any other action BIA deems necessary to protect the Indian land.
(d) We may invoke any other remedies available to us under the grant, including collecting on any available bond, and the Indian landowners may pursue any available remedies under tribal law.
(e) We will issue an appropriate instrument cancelling the right-of-way and transmit it to the LTRO pursuant to 25 CFR part 150 for recording and filing.
(a) Late payment charges and penalties will apply as specified in the grant. The failure to pay these amounts will be treated as a violation.
(b) We may assess the following special fees to cover administrative costs incurred by the United States in the collection of the debt, if compensation is not paid in the time and manner required, in addition to the late payment charges that must be paid to the Indian landowners under the grant:
The right-of-way grant may allocate rights to payment for any proceeds, trespass damages, condemnation awards, settlement funds, and other payments between the Indian landowners and the grantee. If not specified in the grant, applicable policy, order, award, judgment, or other document, the Indian landowners will be entitled to receive these payments.
(a) We may cancel, in whole or in part, any rights-of-way granted under this part 30 days after mailing written notice to the grantee at its latest address, for a nonuse of the right-of-way for a consecutive 2-year period for the purpose for which it was granted. If the grantee fails to correct the basis for cancellation by the 30th day after we mailed the notice, we will issue an appropriate instrument cancelling the right-of-way and transmit it to the LTRO pursuant to part 150 of this chapter for recording and filing.
(b) We may cancel, in whole or in part, any rights-of-way granted under this part immediately upon abandonment of the right-of-way by the grantee. We will issue an appropriate instrument cancelling the right-of-way and transmit it to the LTRO pursuant to part 150 of this chapter for recording and filing.
(c) The cancellation notice will notify the grantee of the grantee's right to appeal under part 2 of this chapter, including the possibility of that the official to whom the appeal is made will require the grantee to post an appeal bond.
(a) A cancellation involving a right-of-way grant will not be effective until 31 days after the grantee receives a cancellation letter from us, or 41 days from the date we mailed the letter, whichever is earlier.
(b) The cancellation decision will not be effective if an appeal is filed unless the cancellation is made immediately effective under part 2 of this chapter. When a cancellation decision is not immediately effective, the grantee must continue to pay compensation and comply with the other terms of the grant.
If a grantee remains in possession after the expiration, termination, or cancellation of a right-of-way, and is not accessing the land to perform reclamation or other remaining grant obligations, we may treat the unauthorized possession as a trespass under applicable law and will communicate with the Indian landowners in making the determination whether to treat the unauthorized possession as a trespass. Unless the parties have notified us in writing that they are engaged in good faith negotiations to renew or obtain a new right-of-way, we may take action to recover possession on behalf of the Indian landowners, and pursue any additional remedies available under applicable law, such as a forcible entry and detainer action. The holdover time will be charged against the new term.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the appeal bond provisions in part 2 of this chapter will govern appeals from right-of-way cancellation decisions.
(b) The grantee may not appeal the appeal bond decision. The grantee may, however, request that the official to whom the appeal is made reconsider the appeal bond decision, based on extraordinary circumstances. Any reconsideration decision is final for the Department.
BIA will issue a decision on an appeal from a right-of-way decision within 60 days of receipt of all pleadings.
If an individual or entity takes possession of, or uses, Indian land or BIA land without a right-of-way and a right-of-way is required, the unauthorized possession or use is a trespass. An unauthorized use within an existing right-of-way is also a trespass. We may take action to recover possession, including eviction, on behalf of the Indian landowners and pursue any additional remedies available under applicable law. The Indian landowners may pursue any available remedies under applicable law, including applicable tribal law.
(a) We may take appropriate emergency action if there is a natural disaster or if an individual or entity causes or threatens to cause immediate and significant harm to Indian land or BIA land. Emergency action may include judicial action seeking immediate cessation of the activity resulting in or threatening the harm.
(b) We will make reasonable efforts to notify the individual Indian landowners before and after taking emergency action on Indian land. In all cases, we will notify the Indian landowners after taking emergency action on Indian land. We will provide written notification of our action to the Indian tribe exercising jurisdiction over the Indian land before and after taking emergency action on Indian land.
(a) We may monitor the use of the land, as appropriate, and will enforce the terms of the right-of-way on behalf of the owners of the remainder interests, but will not be responsible for enforcing the right-of-way on behalf of the life tenant.
(b) The life tenant may not cause or allow permanent injury to the land.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |