Page Range | 68289-68932 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
81 FR 68319 - Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; State of Arkansas; Regional Haze and Interstate Visibility Transport Federal Implementation Plan | |
81 FR 68931 - Child Health Day, 2016 | |
81 FR 68927 - Delegations of Authority Under Sections 610, 614(a)(1), and 506(a)(2)(A)(i)(II) of the Foreign Assistance Act of 1961 | |
81 FR 68925 - Unexpected Urgent Refugee and Migration Needs | |
81 FR 68480 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
81 FR 68460 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
81 FR 68289 - Amending Executive Order 13467 To Establish the Roles and Responsibilities of the National Background Investigations Bureau and Related Matters | |
81 FR 68492 - In the Matter of Rainbow International, Corp., a/k/a Raintree Brands Incorporated; Order of Suspension of Trading | |
81 FR 68480 - In the Matter of Infinex Ventures, Inc.; Order of Suspension of Trading | |
81 FR 68416 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
81 FR 68322 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Louisiana; Infrastructure State Implementation Plan Requirements for the National Ambient Air Quality Standards | |
81 FR 68475 - Sunshine Act: Notice of Public Meeting | |
81 FR 68335 - General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation (GSAR); Inflation of Acquisition-Related Thresholds | |
81 FR 68492 - In the Matter of Sierra Resource Group, Inc.; Order of Suspension of Trading | |
81 FR 68414 - Human Studies Review Board; Notification of Public Meetings | |
81 FR 68297 - Section 108 Loan Guarantee Program: Announcement of Fee To Cover Credit Subsidy Costs | |
81 FR 68456 - Cranes and Derricks in Construction; Extension of the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Approval Information Collection (Paperwork) Requirements | |
81 FR 68457 - Occupational Exposure to Noise Standard; Extension of the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Approval of Information Collection (Paperwork) Requirements | |
81 FR 68412 - Proposed Information Collection Request; Comment Request; Final Rule at 40 CFR Part 8: Environmental Impact Assessment of Nongovernmental Activities in Antarctica (Renewal) | |
81 FR 68445 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Petition by Entrepreneur To Remove Conditions on Permanent Resident Status, Form I-829; Revision of a Currently Approved Collection | |
81 FR 68446 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Energy Benchmarking | |
81 FR 68450 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Energy Benchmarking of Public Housing | |
81 FR 68414 - Notification of a Public Meeting of the Clean Air Scientific Advisory Committee (CASAC) Oxides of Nitrogen Primary NAAQS Review Panel | |
81 FR 68318 - Special Local Regulation; Ouachita River, Monroe, LA | |
81 FR 68411 - Clarification of Reconsideration of the Oil and Natural Gas Sector: New Source Performance Standards; Final Action | |
81 FR 68369 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Several Groundfish Species in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area | |
81 FR 68312 - Department of Defense (DoD)'s Defense Industrial Base (DIB) Cybersecurity (CS) Activities | |
81 FR 68404 - Certain Corrosion-Resistant Steel Products From the Republic of Korea: Initiation of Expedited Review of the Countervailing Duty Order | |
81 FR 68441 - Expansion of Global Entry to Nine Additional Airports | |
81 FR 68404 - Foreign-Trade Zone (FTZ) 158-Vicksburg/Jackson, Mississippi; Notification of Proposed Production Activity; MTD Consumer Group, Inc. (Lawn and Garden Equipment); Verona, Mississippi | |
81 FR 68502 - Proposed Information Collection (Inquiry Routing & Information System (IRIS)) Activity: Comment Request | |
81 FR 68407 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 68498 - Petition for Exemption; Summary of Petition Received; Airbus SAS | |
81 FR 68416 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
81 FR 68459 - National Industrial Security Program Policy Advisory Committee (NISPPAC) | |
81 FR 68378 - Estate, Gift, and Generation-Skipping Transfer Taxes; Restrictions on Liquidation of an Interest; Correction | |
81 FR 68401 - Notice of Request for an Information Collection; Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery | |
81 FR 68462 - Susquehanna Nuclear, LLC; Susquehanna Steam Electric Station, Units 1 and 2; Consideration of Indirect License Transfer | |
81 FR 68474 - Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS); Meeting of the ACRS Subcommittee on Radiation Protection and Nuclear Materials; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 68462 - Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS); Meeting of the ACRS Subcommittee on Fukushima; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 68461 - Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS); Meeting of the ACRS Subcommittee on Fukushima; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 68420 - Proposed Information Collection Activity; Comment Request | |
81 FR 68421 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 68461 - Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS) Meeting of the ACRS Subcommittee on Metallurgy & Reactor Fuels; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 68442 - Individuals and Households Program Unified Guidance | |
81 FR 68444 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Application for Surplus Federal Real Property Public Benefit Conveyance and BRAC Program for Emergency Management Use | |
81 FR 68443 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; America's PrepareAthon! National Day of Action Event Registration | |
81 FR 68501 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Revenue Procedure 2004-15 | |
81 FR 68500 - Additional Designations, Foreign Narcotics Kingpin Designation Act | |
81 FR 68359 - List of Nonconforming Vehicles Decided To Be Eligible for Importation | |
81 FR 68499 - Transfer of Federally Assisted Facility | |
81 FR 68376 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 68373 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 68453 - Notice of Grand Staircase-Escalante National Monument Advisory Committee Meeting | |
81 FR 68371 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 68459 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 68499 - Notice To Rescind Notice of Intent To Prepare Environmental Impact Statement, Route 82/85/11 Corridor, New London County, Connecticut | |
81 FR 68406 - Marine Mammals; File No. 20452 | |
81 FR 68403 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 68434 - Dietary Supplements: New Dietary Ingredient Notifications and Related Issues; Revised Draft Guidance for Industry; Extension of Comment Period | |
81 FR 68424 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Information From United States Firms and Processors That Export to the European Union | |
81 FR 68476 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; National Stock Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Exchange Rule 11.26 To Implement the Regulation NMS Plan To Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program | |
81 FR 68456 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Consent Decree Under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act | |
81 FR 68417 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
81 FR 68422 - Center for Devices and Radiological Health Veteran Amputee Devices; Public Workshop; Request for Comments | |
81 FR 68409 - AltaGas Pomona Energy Storage Inc.; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
81 FR 68410 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
81 FR 68409 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 68502 - Voluntary Service National Advisory Committee; Notice of Meetings | |
81 FR 68415 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission Under Delegated Authority | |
81 FR 68402 - Notice of Request for Extension of a Currently Approved Information Collection | |
81 FR 68474 - New Postal Products | |
81 FR 68495 - Virtus Alternative Solutions Trust, et al.; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 68420 - Announcement of a Single-Source Supplement Grant to the National Child Welfare Capacity Building Center for Tribes | |
81 FR 68493 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE MKT LLC; Notice of Designation of Longer Period for Commission Action on a Proposed Rule Change Amending the Co-Location Services Offered by the Exchange To Add Certain Access and Connectivity Fees | |
81 FR 68480 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Designation of Longer Period for Commission Action on a Proposed Rule Change Amending the Co-Location Services Offered by the Exchange To Add Certain Access and Connectivity Fees | |
81 FR 68475 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Notice of Designation of Longer Period for Commission Action on a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1, Amending the Co-Location Services Offered by the Exchange To Add Certain Access and Connectivity Fees | |
81 FR 68492 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.; Notice of Designation of a Longer Period for Commission Action on Proposed Rule Change Relating to FINRA Rule 2232 (Customer Confirmations) To Require Members To Disclose Additional Pricing Information on Retail Customer Confirmations Relating to Transactions in Fixed Income Securities | |
81 FR 68493 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Bats BZX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Update BZX Rules 21.1, 21.7 and 21.9 To Align the Exchange's Rules and Functionality Applicable to the Exchange's Options Platform, BZX Options, With the Exchange's Affiliated Options Platform, EDGX Options, Which Is Operated by Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc. | |
81 FR 68481 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE MKT LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change Amending Rule 8313 Relating to the Exchange's Ability To Publicly Release Disciplinary Complaints, Decisions and Other Information Modeled on the Text of FINRA Rule 8313; Amending Rules and Adopting a New Rule 9291 Relating to the Imposition of Temporary or Permanent Cease and Desist Orders To Correspond to Recent Amendments by FINRA; and Making Certain Technical and Conforming Changes to Rule 9310 | |
81 FR 68295 - Medical Devices; Exemption From Premarket Notification; Method, Metallic Reduction, Glucose (Urinary, Nonquantitative) Test System in a Reagent Tablet Format | |
81 FR 68460 - Notice of Permit Modification Received Under the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978 | |
81 FR 68293 - Medical Devices; Exemption From Premarket Notification: Method, Metallic Reduction, Glucose (Urinary, Nonquantitative) Test System in a Reagent Tablet Format | |
81 FR 68426 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Announcement of Office of Management and Budget Approvals | |
81 FR 68434 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; Guidance for Industry on How To Submit Information in Electronic Format to the Center for Veterinary Medicine Using the Food and Drug Administration Electronic Submission Gateway | |
81 FR 68498 - Fifteenth Meeting of the RTCA Tactical Operations Committee | |
81 FR 68432 - Microbiology Devices Panel of the Medical Devices Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting; Establishment of a Public Docket; Request for Comments | |
81 FR 68435 - Workshop on Promoting Semantic Interoperability of Laboratory Data; Public Workshop; Request for Comments | |
81 FR 68427 - Hospira, Inc. et al.; Withdrawal of Approval of 44 New Drug Applications and 158 Abbreviated New Drug Applications | |
81 FR 68442 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Residential Basement Floodproofing Certification | |
81 FR 68444 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Residential Basement Floodproofing Certification | |
81 FR 68455 - Importer of Controlled Substances Application: Fisher Clinical Services, Inc. | |
81 FR 68439 - National Institute of Mental Health; Amended Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 68440 - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 68438 - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 68437 - National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 68439 - National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 68438 - National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 68438 - National Center for Complementary & Integrative Health; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 68440 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 68439 - Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health & Human Development; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 68441 - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 68439 - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 68459 - NASA Advisory Council; Science Committee; Meeting | |
81 FR 68398 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 68416 - Submission for OMB Review; Commercial Item Acquisitions | |
81 FR 68461 - SES Performance Review Board | |
81 FR 68419 - Privacy Act of 1974; CMS Computer Match No. 2016-15; HHS Computer Match No. 1609 | |
81 FR 68421 - Proposed Information Collection Activity; Comment Request | |
81 FR 68454 - Certain Recombinant Factor VIII Products; Notice of Commission Determination To Grant a Joint Motion To Terminate the Investigation on the Basis of a Settlement Agreement; Termination of the Investigation | |
81 FR 68455 - Certain Network Devices, Related Software and Components Thereof (I) Notice of Institution of Formal Enforcement Proceeding | |
81 FR 68408 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 68407 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 68398 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request-Child Nutrition Program Operations Study II (CN-OPS-II) | |
81 FR 68405 - Endangered and Threatened Species; Announcement of a Recovery Planning Workshop and Request for Information | |
81 FR 68379 - Approval of California Air Plan Revisions, Sacramento Metropolitan Air Quality Management District and San Diego County Air Pollution Control District | |
81 FR 68320 - Approval of California Air Plan Revisions, Sacramento Metropolitan Air Quality Management District and San Diego County Air Pollution Control District | |
81 FR 68496 - Reporting and Recordkeeping Requirements Under OMB Review | |
81 FR 68497 - Reporting and Recordkeeping Requirements Under OMB Review | |
81 FR 68379 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; 12-Month Finding on a Petition To List the Western Glacier Stonefly as an Endangered or Threatened Species; Proposed Threatened Species Status for Meltwater Lednian Stonefly and Western Glacier Stonefly | |
81 FR 68688 - Medicare and Medicaid Programs; Reform of Requirements for Long-Term Care Facilities | |
81 FR 68467 - Applications and Amendments to Facility Operating Licenses and Combined Licenses Involving Proposed No Significant Hazards Considerations and Containing Sensitive Unclassified Non-Safeguards Information and Order Imposing Procedures for Access to Sensitive Unclassified Non-Safeguards Information | |
81 FR 68874 - 2016-2017 Refuge-Specific Hunting and Sport Fishing Regulations | |
81 FR 68299 - Credit for Increasing Research Activities | |
81 FR 68336 - General Technical, Organizational, Conforming, and Correcting Amendments to the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations | |
81 FR 68504 - Standards Improvement Project-Phase IV |
Economic Research Service
Food and Nutrition Service
National Institute of Food and Agriculture
Rural Business-Cooperative Service
Rural Utilities Service
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Navy Department
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Children and Families Administration
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Fish and Wildlife Service
Land Management Bureau
Drug Enforcement Administration
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Information Security Oversight Office
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Highway Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Federal Transit Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Foreign Assets Control Office
Internal Revenue Service
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Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Final order.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is publishing an order denying a petition requesting exemption from the premarket notification requirements for “method, metallic reduction, glucose (urinary, nonquantitative)” devices that are in a reagent tablet format and are classified as class II devices as urinary glucose (nonquantitative) test system (hereinafter referred to as “copper reduction tablet test”). Urinary glucose (nonquantitative) measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of carbohydrate metabolism disorders including diabetes mellitus, hypoglycemia, and hyperglycemia. FDA is publishing this order in accordance with procedures established by the Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997 (FDAMA).
This order is effective October 4, 2016.
Sheila Connors, Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH), Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, rm. 4620, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-6181,
Under section 513 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 360c), FDA must classify devices into one of three regulatory classes: Class I, class II, or class III. FDA classification of a device is determined by the amount of regulation necessary to provide a reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device. Under the Medical Device Amendments of 1976 (1976 amendments) (Pub. L. 94-295), as amended by the Safe Medical Devices Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-629), devices are to be classified into class I (general controls) if there is information showing that the general controls of the FD&C Act are sufficient to assure safety and effectiveness; into class II (special controls) if general controls, by themselves, are insufficient to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness, but there is sufficient information to establish special controls to provide such assurance; and into class III (premarket approval) if there is insufficient information to support classifying a device into class I or class II and the device is a life sustaining or life supporting device, or is for a use which is of substantial importance in preventing impairment of human health or presents a potential unreasonable risk of illness or injury.
Section 510(k) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360(k)) and the implementing regulations (21 CFR part 807) require persons who intend to market a device intended for human use to submit a premarket notification (510(k)) to FDA containing information that allows FDA to determine whether the device is “substantially equivalent” within the meaning of section 513(i) of the FD&C Act to a legally marketed device that does not require premarket approval (PMA).
On November 21, 1997, the President signed into law FDAMA (Pub. L. 105-115). Section 206 of FDAMA, in part, added a new section, 510(m), to the FD&C. Section 510(m)(1) of the FD&C Act requires FDA, within 60 days after enactment of FDAMA, to publish in the
Section 510(m)(2) of the FD&C Act provides that 1 day after the date of publication of the list under section 510(m)(1), FDA may exempt a class II device on its own initiative or upon petition of an interested person if FDA determines that a 510(k) is not necessary to provide a reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device. This section requires FDA to publish in the
FDA classified the urinary glucose (nonquantitative) test system into class II effective July 30, 1987 (52 FR 16102 at 16122, May 1, 1987). The classification for urinary glucose (nonquantitative) test system is at § 862.1340 (21 CFR 862.1340). The urinary glucose (nonquantitative) test system is identified as a device that is intended to measure glucosuria (glucose in urine). Urinary glucose (nonquantitative) measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of carbohydrate metabolism disorders including diabetes mellitus, hypoglycemia, and hyperglycemia. Devices under this classification regulation require premarket notification under section 510(k) of the FD&C Act.
There are a number of factors FDA may consider to determine whether a 510(k) is necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of a class II device. These factors are discussed in the guidance the Agency issued on February 19, 1998, entitled “Procedures for Class II Device Exemptions from Premarket Notification, Guidance for Industry and CDRH Staff” (Ref. 1). Accordingly, FDA generally considers the following factors to determine whether premarket
On March 18, 2016, FDA received a petition requesting an exemption from premarket notification requirements for copper reduction tablet tests that are classified as class II devices under § 862.1340, urinary glucose (nonquantitative) test system, from Martin O'Connor, Germaine Laboratories, Inc. (See Docket No. FDA-2016-P-1026).
On May 4, 2016 (81 FR 26802), FDA published a notice in the
FDA has completed review of the referenced petition and assessed the need for 510(k) clearance for copper reduction tablet test against the criteria laid out in section II. For the reasons described in this document, FDA has determined that premarket notification is necessary to provide a reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the copper reduction tablet tests classified under § 862.1340 and assigned the classification product code JIM. Accordingly, FDA responded to the petition by letter dated September 6, 2016, denying the petition within the 180-day timeframe under section 510(m)(2) of the FD&C Act. (See Docket No. FDA-2016-P-1026).
After reviewing the petition, FDA has determined that the petition failed to provide information to demonstrate that premarket notification is not necessary to provide a reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device. Accordingly, FDA is denying the referenced petition for exemption from the premarket notification requirements.
With regard to the first factor (see section II, Criteria for Exemption), although there have been no medical device reports reported to the Agency in recent years, there have been numerous reports to the Agency
Additionally, failure to observe the reaction at all times after the tablet has been added to the sample is another risk associated with the inherent characteristics of the device. This can lead to a false-negative result and result in improper patient management, which can lead to serious injury or possibly death. The petition does not address how the device's inherent risks can be mitigated or controlled without premarket notification to provide a reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device.
With regard to the second factor, the petition stated that healthcare and laboratory professionals understand the appropriate use of a copper reduction tablet test and that a definitive diagnostic or therapeutic decision should not be based on the result of this method. However, a copper reduction tablet test can be used to evaluate pediatric patients for possible hereditary metabolic disorders through detection of reducing substances. For example, although all States require mandatory newborn screening for genetic metabolic defects, clinical laboratories may still use this device as a screening test on pediatric urine samples if there are any suspicions of metabolic disease prior to receiving newborn screening results or if the newborn screening results do not match the clinical state of the newborn. Although further diagnostic testing may be performed to confirm the result(s), physicians may immediately treat the newborn relying solely on the result of this test while awaiting the results for any followup diagnostic tests. False negative results also present a safety and effectiveness concern because followup diagnostic testing may not be performed, leading to the failure to start needed treatment for the newborn. The petition failed to demonstrate that a premarket submission is not necessary to provide a reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device for such uses, and FDA does not agree that the characteristics of the device necessary for its safe and effective use are well established.
With regard to the third factor, FDA also does not agree that changes in the device that could affect safety and effectiveness will either be readily detectable or not materially increase risks. The petition claimed that users could employ positive or negative controls to validate the reagents performance. However, while available quality control materials may contain glucose, they do not contain other reducing sugars (
In addition to these four factors, FDA considers the “limitations on exemption.” Manufacturers of any commercially distributed device for which FDA has granted an exemption from the requirement of premarket notification must still submit a premarket notification to FDA prior to marketing the device when any of the limitations of exemption are exceeded. The general limitations of exemption from premarket notification contained in § 862.9 (21 CFR 862.9) are broadly applicable to in vitro diagnostic (IVD) devices classified under part 862 (21 CFR part 862). Under § 862.9, the
Accordingly, for all of the foregoing reasons, the petition failed to demonstrate that a premarket submission is not necessary to provide a reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device intended for such uses. Therefore, FDA is issuing this order denying the petition requesting exemption for a method, metallic reduction, glucose (urinary, nonquantitative) test system in a reagent tablet format that is intended to measure glucosuria (glucose in urine) from the premarket notification requirements. Manufacturers of this device type must continue to submit and receive FDA clearance of a 510(k) before marketing their device, as well as comply with all other applicable requirements under the FD&C Act.
The following reference is on display in the Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, and is available for viewing by interested persons between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday; it is also available electronically at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Final order.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is publishing an order denying a petition requesting exemption from the premarket notification requirements for method, metallic reduction, glucose (urinary, nonquantitative) devices that are in a reagent tablet format and are classified as class II devices as urinary glucose (nonquantitative) test system (hereinafter referred to as ”copper reduction tablet test”). Urinary glucose (nonquantitative) measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of carbohydrate metabolism disorders including diabetes mellitus, hypoglycemia, and hyperglycemia. FDA is publishing this order in accordance with procedures established by the Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997 (FDAMA).
This order is effective October 4, 2016.
Sheila Connors, Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH), Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 4620, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-6181,
Under section 513 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 360c), FDA must classify devices into one of three regulatory classes: Class I, class II, or class III. FDA classification of a device is determined by the amount of regulation necessary to provide a reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device. Under the Medical Device Amendments of 1976 (1976 amendments) (Pub. L. 94-295), as amended by the Safe Medical Devices Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-629), devices are to be classified into class I (general controls) if there is information showing that the general controls of the FD&C Act are sufficient to assure safety and effectiveness; into class II (special controls) if general controls, by themselves, are insufficient to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness, but there is sufficient information to establish special controls to provide such assurance; and into class III (premarket approval) if there is insufficient information to support classifying a device into class I or class II and the device is a life-sustaining or life-supporting device, or is for a use which is of substantial importance in preventing impairment of human health, or presents a potential unreasonable risk of illness or injury.
Section 510(k) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360(k)) and the implementing regulations (21 CFR part 807) require persons who intend to market a device intended for human use to submit a premarket notification (510(k)) to FDA containing information that allows FDA to determine whether the device is “substantially equivalent” within the meaning of section 513(i) of the FD&C Act to a legally marketed device that does not require premarket approval.
On November 21, 1997, the President signed into law FDAMA (Pub. L. 105-115). Section 206 of FDAMA, in part, added section 510(m) to the FD&C Act. Section 510(m)(1) of the FD&C Act requires FDA, within 60 days after enactment of FDAMA, to publish in the
Section 510(m)(2) of the FD&C Act provides that 1 day after the date of publication of the list under section 510(m)(1), FDA may exempt a class II device on its own initiative or upon petition of an interested person, if FDA determines that a 510(k) is not necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device.
FDA classified the urinary glucose (nonquantitative) test system into class II effective July 30, 1987 (52 FR 16102 at 16122, May 1, 1987). The classification for urinary glucose (nonquantitative) test system is at § 862.1340 (21 CFR 862.1340). The urinary glucose (nonquantitative) test system is identified as a device that is intended to measure glucosuria (glucose in urine). Urinary glucose (nonquantitative) measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of carbohydrate metabolism disorders including diabetes mellitus, hypoglycemia, and hyperglycemia. Devices under this classification regulation require premarket notification under section 510(k) of the FD&C Act.
There are a number of factors FDA may consider to determine whether a 510(k) is necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of a class II device. These factors are discussed in the guidance the Agency issued on February 19, 1998, entitled “Procedures for Class II Device Exemptions from Premarket Notification, Guidance for Industry and CDRH Staff” (Ref. 1). Accordingly, FDA generally considers the following factors to determine whether premarket notification is necessary: (1) The device does not have a significant history of false or misleading claims or risks associated with inherent characteristics of the device; (2) characteristics of the device necessary for its safe and effective performance are well established; (3) changes in the device that could affect safety and effectiveness will either (a) be readily detectable by users by visual examination or other means such as routine testing, before causing harm, or (b) not materially increase the risk of injury, incorrect diagnosis, or ineffective treatment; and (4) any changes to the device would not be likely to result in a change in the device's classification. FDA may also consider that, even when exempting devices, these devices would still be subject to the limitations on exemptions.
On January 7, 2016, FDA received a petition requesting an exemption from premarket notification requirements for copper reduction tablet tests that are classified as class II devices under § 862.1340, urinary glucose (nonquantitative) test system, from Evelyn Mirza, Biorex Labs, LLC. (See Docket No. FDA-2016-P-0159).
On March 24, 2016 (81 FR 15728), FDA published a notice in the
FDA has completed review of the previously referenced petition and assessed the need for 510(k) clearance for copper reduction tablet test against the criteria laid out in section II. For the reasons described in section IV, FDA has determined that premarket notification is necessary to provide a reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the copper reduction tablet tests classified under § 862.1340 and assigned the classification product code JIM. Accordingly, FDA responded to the petition by letter dated July 1, 2016, denying the petition within the 180-day timeframe under section 510(m)(2) of the FD&C Act. (See Docket No. FDA-2016-P-0159.)
After reviewing the petition, FDA has determined that the petition failed to provide information to demonstrate that premarket notification is not necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device. Accordingly, FDA is denying the previously referenced petition for exemption from the premarket notification requirements.
With regard to the first factor (section II, Criteria for Exemption), although there have been no medical device reports reported to the Agency in recent years, there have been numerous reports to the Agency
Additionally, failure to observe the reaction at all times after the tablet has been added to the sample is another risk associated with the inherent characteristics of the device. This can lead to a false-negative result and result in improper patient management, which can lead to serious injury or possibly death. The petition failed to demonstrate how the device's inherent risks can be mitigated or controlled without premarket notification to provide a reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device.
With regard to the second factor, the petition stated that a copper reduction tablet test can be used to evaluate pediatric patients for possible hereditary metabolic disorders through detection of reducing substances. For example, although all States require mandatory newborn screening for genetic metabolic defects, clinical laboratories may still use this device as a screening test on pediatric urine samples if there are any suspicions of metabolic disease prior to receiving newborn screening results or if the newborn screening results do not match the clinical state of the newborn. Although further diagnostic testing may be performed to confirm the result(s), physicians may immediately treat the newborn relying solely on the result of this test while awaiting the results for any followup diagnostic tests. False negative results also present a safety and effectiveness concern because followup diagnostic testing may not be performed, leading to the failure to start needed treatment for the newborn. The petition also stated that this device is used in the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of metabolic disorders such as diabetes mellitus. However, the petition failed to demonstrate that a premarket submission is not necessary to provide a reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device for such uses, and FDA does not agree that the characteristics of the device necessary for its safe and effective use are well established.
With regard to the third factor, FDA also does not agree that changes in the device that could affect safety and effectiveness will either be readily detectable or not materially increase
In addition to these four factors, FDA considers the “limitations on exemption.” Manufacturers of any commercially distributed device for which FDA has granted an exemption from the requirement of premarket notification must still submit a premarket notification to FDA prior to marketing the device when any of the limitations of exemption are exceeded. The general limitations of exemption from premarket notification contained in § 862.9 (21 CFR 862.9) are broadly applicable to in vitro diagnostic (IVD) devices classified under part 862 (21 CFR part 862). Under § 862.9, the exemption from the premarket notification requirements applies, in the case of IVD devices, only to those devices under part 862 for which misdiagnosis, as a result of using the device, would not be associated with high morbidity or mortality. FDA has previously assessed that this limitation is exceeded, and a premarket notification is necessary to provide a reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of an IVD device, when such device is intended for use in screening or diagnosis of familial or acquired genetic disorders, including inborn errors of metabolism (§ 862.9(c)(2)) or intended for use in diabetes management (§ 862.9(c)(5)). The copper reduction tablet test described in the petition is intended for such uses and would likely exceed the limitations just described.
Accordingly, for all of the foregoing reasons, the petition failed to demonstrate that a premarket submission is not necessary to provide a reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device intended for such uses. Therefore, FDA is issuing this order denying the petition requesting exemption for a method, metallic reduction, glucose (urinary, nonquantitative) test system in a reagent tablet format that is intended to measure glucosuria (glucose in urine) from the premarket notification requirements. Manufacturers of this device type must continue to submit and receive FDA clearance of a 510(k) before marketing their device, as well as comply with all other applicable requirements under the FD&C Act.
The following reference is on display in the Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, and is available for viewing by interested persons between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday; it is also available electronically at
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, HUD.
Announcement of fee.
This document announces the fee that HUD will collect from borrowers of loans guaranteed under HUD's Section 108 Loan Guarantee Program (Section 108 Program) to offset the credit subsidy costs of the guaranteed loans pursuant to commitments awarded in FY 2017.
Paul Webster, Director, Financial Management Division, Office of Block Grant Assistance, Office of Community Planning and Development, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street, SW., Room 7180, Washington, DC 20410; telephone number 202-402-4563 (this is not a toll-free number). Individuals with speech or hearing impairments may access this number through TTY by calling the toll-free Federal Relay Service at 800-877-8339. FAX inquiries (but not comments) may be sent to Mr. Webster at 202-708-1798 (this is not a toll-free number).
The Consolidated and Further Continuing Appropriations Act, 2015 (Public Law 113-235, approved December 16, 2014) (2015 Appropriations Act) provided that “the Secretary shall collect fees from borrowers . . . to result in a credit subsidy cost of zero for guaranteeing” Section 108 loans. The Continuing Appropriations Act, 2016 (Public Law 114-53, approved September 30, 2015) continued the 2015 provision. This continued funding act was followed by The Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2016, Public Law 114-133, approved December 18, 2015) (2016 Appropriations Act), which had identical language regarding Section 108 credit subsidy to the 2015 Appropriations Act. The fiscal year 2017 HUD appropriations bills under consideration in the House of Representatives (H.R. 5394), and the Senate (S. 2844) also have identical language regarding the credit subsidy for the Section 108 Program, and it is expected that, when enacted, the final fiscal year 2017 appropriations act will as well.
On November 3, 2015, HUD published a final rule (80 FR 67626) following a February 5, 2015 proposed rule (80 FR 6470) that amended the Section 108 Program regulations at 24 CFR part 570 to establish additional procedures, including procedures for determining the amount of the fee and for a 30-day public comment process when HUD adopts changes to the assumptions underlying the fee calculation or if the fee structure itself raises new considerations for borrowers.
HUD is required to collect fees from Section 108 borrowers when necessary to offset the credit subsidy costs to the Federal government to guarantee Section 108 loans. Following
This document sets the fee for Section 108 loan disbursements under loan guarantee commitments awarded in FY 2017 at 2.59 percent of the principal amount of the loan. This amount was proposed in the President's FY 2017 budget.
For this fee document, HUD is not changing the underlying assumptions or creating new considerations for borrowers. The calculation of the FY 2017 fee uses the same fee calculation model as the FY 2016 announcement of fee, but incorporates updated information regarding the composition of the Section 108 portfolio and the timing of the estimated future cash flows for defaults and recoveries. The calculation of the fee is also affected by the discount rates required to be used by HUD when calculating the present value of the future cash flows as part of the Federal budget process.
As described in 24 CFR 570.712(b), HUD's credit subsidy calculation is based on the amount required to fully offset the credit subsidy cost to the Federal government associated with making a Section 108 loan guarantee. As a result, HUD's credit subsidy cost calculations incorporated assumptions based on: (i) data on default frequency for municipal debt where such debt is comparable to loans in the Section 108 loan portfolio; (ii) data on recovery rates on collateral security for comparable municipal debt; (iii) the expected composition of the Section 108 portfolio by end users of the guaranteed loan funds (
Taking these factors into consideration, HUD determined that the fee for disbursements made under loan guarantee commitments awarded in FY 2017 will be 2.59 percent, which will be applied only at the time of loan disbursements. Note that future documents may provide for a combination of up-front and periodic fees for loan guarantee commitments awarded in future fiscal years but, if so, will provide the public an opportunity to comment if appropriate under 24 CFR 570.712(b)(2).
The expected cost of a Section 108 loan guarantee is difficult to estimate using historical program data because there have been no defaults in the history of the program that required HUD to invoke its full faith and credit guarantee or use the credit subsidy reserved each year for future losses.
This document establishes a rate that does not constitute a development decision that affects the physical condition of specific project areas or building sites. Accordingly, under 24 CFR 50.19(c)(6), this document is categorically excluded from environmental review under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321).
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Final regulations.
This document contains final regulations concerning the application of the credit for increasing research activities. These final regulations provide guidance on software that is developed by (or for the benefit of) the taxpayer primarily for internal use by the taxpayer (internal use software). These final regulations also include examples to illustrate the application of the process of experimentation requirement to software. These final regulations will affect taxpayers engaged in research activities involving software.
Martha Garcia or Jennifer Records of the IRS Office of the Associate Chief Counsel (Passthroughs and Special Industries) at (202) 317-6853 (not a toll-free number).
This document contains final regulations that amend the Income Tax Regulations (26 CFR part 1) relating to the credit for increasing research activities (research credit) under section 41 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code). Section 41(d)(4)(E) provides that, except to the extent provided by regulations, research with respect to software that is developed by (or for the benefit of) the taxpayer primarily for internal use by the taxpayer is excluded from the definition of qualified research under section 41(d). Software that is developed for use in an activity that constitutes qualified research for purposes of section 41(d) and software that is developed for use in a production process with respect to which the general credit eligibility requirements under section 41 are satisfied are internal use software, but are not excluded under section 41(d)(4)(E) from the definition of qualified research and are not subject to these regulations.
On January 20, 2015, the Treasury Department and the IRS published in the
The proposed regulations provided that software is developed by (or for the benefit of) the taxpayer primarily for internal use if the software is developed by the taxpayer for use in general and administrative functions that facilitate or support the conduct of the taxpayer's trade or business. General and administrative functions, as defined in the proposed regulations, are limited to (1) financial management functions, (2) human resource management functions, and (3) support services functions. Financial management functions are functions that involve the financial management of the taxpayer and the supporting recordkeeping. Human resource management functions are functions that manage the taxpayer's workforce. Support services functions are functions that support the day-to-day operations of the taxpayer, such as data processing or facilities services.
Commenters expressed concern that the list of general and administrative functions in the proposed regulations was overly broad and included functions that do not represent “back-office” functions. In particular, the commenters noted that inventory management, marketing, legal services, and government compliance services can provide significant benefits to third parties and may be developed to enable a taxpayer to interact with third parties or to allow third parties to initiate functions or review data on the taxpayer's system. Specifically, one commenter noted that many inventory management software applications are an integral part of a taxpayer's supply chain management system and can be readily seen as part of the modern “front office.” This commenter noted that modern inventory management software usually requires interaction with a number of third party vendors to ensure the correct flow of raw materials and a corresponding flow of finished goods. Additionally, the commenter added that inventory management is inherently customer facing because it provides the proper amount of inventory to customers at the point of sale at the right time. Another commenter added that marketing is an external-facing function by nature, and software that supports marketing is necessarily intended to interact with third parties.
The Treasury Department and the IRS understand that many modern software systems perform more than back-office functions. These software systems commonly provide benefits to vendors and include functions that are customer facing. Additionally, software with functions such as marketing or inventory management may not provide solely back-office functions, but may also contain functions that enable a taxpayer to interact with third parties or to allow third parties to initiate functions or review data on the taxpayer's system. Recognizing such situations, the proposed regulations provided rules under § 1.41-4(c)(6)(iv)(C) (dual function rules) to evaluate whether software that has both back-office and front-office functions is developed primarily for internal use. The Treasury Department and the IRS continue to believe that functions such as inventory management, marketing, legal services, and government compliance services provide support to day-to-day operations of a taxpayer in carrying on business regardless of the taxpayer's industry and that the benefits that such functions may provide to third parties are collateral and secondary. In addition, the Treasury Department and the IRS believe the dual function rules in these final regulations sufficiently address these comments by allowing taxpayers to identify subsets of elements of dual function software that only enable a taxpayer to interact with third parties or allow third parties to initiate functions or review data. Accordingly, the list of general and administrative functions provided in the proposed regulations remains unchanged in the final regulations.
Another commenter referred to the tax software example in the preamble to the proposed regulations which notes that tax software developed by a company engaged in providing tax services to its customers is not used by the taxpayer in general and administrative functions
The proposed regulations provided that software is not developed primarily for internal use only if it is developed to be commercially sold, leased, licensed, or otherwise marketed to third parties, or if it is developed to enable a taxpayer to interact with third parties or to allow third parties to initiate functions or review data on the taxpayer's system. After consideration of the comments described herein, these final regulations clarify that (1) software is not developed primarily for the taxpayer's internal use if it is not developed for use in general and administrative functions that facilitate or support the conduct of the taxpayer's trade or business; and (2) software that is developed to be commercially sold, leased, licensed, or otherwise marketed to third parties and software that is developed to enable a taxpayer to interact with third parties or to allow third parties to initiate functions or review data on the taxpayer's system are examples of software that is not developed primarily for the taxpayer's internal use.
A commenter requested that § 1.41-4(c)(6)(iv)(A)(
Several commenters requested clarification on the terms “interact,” “initiate,” or “review,” and recommended additional examples illustrating the terms. One commenter noted that a common example that should be clarified is whether a third party reviewing a Web site constitutes “interaction,” “initiate functions,” or “review data.” In response to these comments, the final regulations clarify that software that is developed to enable a taxpayer to interact with third parties or to allow third parties to initiate functions or review data on the taxpayer's system are examples of software that is not developed primarily for the taxpayer's internal use. In addition, these final regulations provide that the determination of whether software is internal use or developed to enable a taxpayer to interact with third parties or to allow third parties to initiate functions or review data on the taxpayer's system depends on the intent of the taxpayer and the facts and circumstances at the beginning of the software development. Accordingly, Example 3 of the proposed regulations, now designated as Example 4 in these final regulations, is revised to show that software developed with the intent of marketing via a Web site and not to allow third parties to review data on the taxpayer's system is developed for internal use because it was developed for use in a general and administrative function.
In the proposed regulations, the Treasury Department and the IRS requested comments on the appropriate definition and treatment of connectivity software that allows multiple processes running on one or more machines to interact across a network, sometimes referred to as bridging software, integration software, or middleware. The Treasury Department and the IRS received very few responses to this request for comments. One of the commenters noted that the treatment of such software is challenging because of its multi-faceted purposes; it could fall within a category in which it is not sold, does not interact with a third party, and does not perform a general and administrative function. The other commenter recommended that the regulations provide a general rule for connectivity software that is tied to the intent of the taxpayer and the facts and circumstances at the beginning of the software development and that the regulations provide examples demonstrating the rule. In addition, with respect to this category of software, the Treasury Department and the IRS understand that with wide use and availability of enterprise resource planning (ERP) software, few companies actually engage in developing connectivity software. Connectivity software is often purchased or the need for it has diminished due to the use of ERP software.
After further consideration of business practices and the limited comments received, the Treasury Department and the IRS believe that a special rule for connectivity software is not needed. The final regulations clarify that software is not developed by (or for the benefit of) the taxpayer primarily for the taxpayer's internal use if the software is not developed for use in general and administrative functions. Accordingly, any software that is not developed to be used in a general and administrative function will not be considered to be developed for internal use. This is the case even if the software is not developed to be commercially sold, leased, licensed, or otherwise marketed to third parties, or is not developed to enable a taxpayer to interact with third parties or to allow third parties to initiate functions or review data on the taxpayer's system.
Furthermore, connectivity software should not be specifically identified or categorized differently from other types of software. Whether certain software is developed to be used primarily for
The proposed regulations provided that whether software is or is not developed primarily for internal use depends upon the intent of the taxpayer and the facts and circumstances at the beginning of the software development. If a taxpayer originally develops software primarily for internal use but later makes improvements to the software with the intent to hold the improved software for commercial sale, lease, or license or to allow third parties to initiate functions or review data on the taxpayer's system, the improvements will be considered separate from the existing software and will not be considered developed primarily for internal use. Likewise, if a taxpayer originally develops software for commercial sale, lease, or license or to interact with third parties or to allow third parties to initiate functions or review data on the taxpayer's system, but later makes improvements to the software with the intent to use the software in general and administrative functions, the improvements will be considered separate from the existing software and will be considered developed primarily for internal use. After consideration of the comments described below, these final regulations retain these rules without modification.
A commenter explained that it is common for a taxpayer to initiate a software development project with one purpose in mind and to later discover that other purposes should be considered and pursued. Commenters also explained that it is common for a taxpayer to abandon its original intentions of how the software might be used. Commenters made several different recommendations, among them that the final regulations adopt a standard that allows facts at any point during the software development to be considered. Another suggested looking to the intended use of the software, and not just the improvements, as of the tax return filing date for the taxable year or the beginning of the taxable year in which the software development expenditures were incurred. One commenter further suggested that if the regulations require a determination at the beginning of the software development, the regulations should allow that determination to be rebutted with evidence about how the software is actually used when it is placed in service. Commenters also noted that taxpayers will likely have difficulty substantiating their intended use of the software at the beginning of the development process.
The Treasury Department and the IRS conclude that only a rule that generally requires that a determination be made at the beginning of software development is consistent with the intent and the purpose of section 41. Congress intended that the credit for increasing research activities would provide an incentive for greater private activity in research. That incentive nature of section 41 is promoted by taking into account a taxpayer's intent at the beginning of the software development; allowing any change in a taxpayer's intent throughout the development to support treatment as qualifying research of expenses incurred prior to that change would frustrate the purpose of the credit. Furthermore, allowing a taxpayer to redetermine the overall project's credit eligibility throughout the development which could span multiple years would provide uncertain and inconsistent treatment and impose an undue burden on both taxpayers and the IRS. Finally, the final regulations continue to provide a special rule for improvements to software that can be separately identified. This special rule would apply, for example, when a taxpayer completes a software development and then decides to improve that software by undertaking further development to the same software.
The proposed regulations provided that software developed by (or for the benefit of) the taxpayer both for use in general and administrative functions that facilitate or support the conduct of the taxpayer's trade or business and to enable a taxpayer to interact with third parties or to allow third parties to initiate functions or review data (dual function software) is presumed to be developed primarily for a taxpayer's internal use. However, this presumption is inapplicable to the extent that a taxpayer can identify a subset of elements of dual function software that only enables a taxpayer to interact with third parties or allows third parties to initiate functions or review data on the taxpayer's system (third party subset). The proposed regulations provided that if the taxpayer can identify a third party subset, the portion of qualified research expenditures allocable to such third party subset of the dual function software may be eligible for the research credit, provided all the other applicable requirements are met.
The Treasury Department and the IRS received several comments on dual function software rules. One commenter recommended changes to clarify that the dual function software rules do not apply to software developed to be commercially sold, leased, licensed, or otherwise marketed to third parties, even if such software was also developed to enable a taxpayer to interact with third parties or to allow third parties to initiate functions or review data on the taxpayer's system.
The Treasury Department and the IRS believe such clarification is unnecessary as § 1.41-4(c)(6)(iv)(C)(
One commenter suggested that the “substantially all” and “shrink back” rules found in § 1.41-4(b)(2) can be easily applied to evaluate dual function software. If substantially all of the software is non-internal use, then all of the software should be considered non-internal use under the substantially all rule. Similarly, if substantially all of the software is internal use, then the software should be considered internal use. In the case where the software as
The shrink back rule provides that the requirements of section 41(d) and § 1.41-4(a) are to be applied first at the level of the discrete business component, that is, the product, process, computer software, technique, formula, or invention to be held for sale, lease, or license, or used by the taxpayer in a trade or business of the taxpayer. If these requirements are not met at that level, then they apply at the most significant subset of elements of the product, process, computer software, technique, formula, or invention to be held for sale, lease, or license. This shrinking back of the product is to continue until either a subset of elements of the product that satisfies the requirements is reached, or the most basic element of the product is reached and such element fails to satisfy the test.
The Treasury Department and the IRS believe that the proposed rules already apply principles similar to the shrink back rule to allow taxpayers to identify a subset of elements of dual function software that only enables a taxpayer to interact with third parties or allows third parties to initiate functions or review data on the taxpayer's system. The substantially all test referenced by the commenter is similar to the general credit eligibility requirement in section 41(d)(1)(C), which provides that in order for activities to constitute qualified research, substantially all of the activities must constitute elements of a process of experimentation that relates to a qualified purpose. Under § 1.41-4(a)(6), this substantially all requirement is satisfied only if 80 percent or more of a taxpayer's research activities, for the development or improvement of a business component, measured on a cost or other consistently applied reasonable basis, constitute elements of a process of experimentation. In contrast to the general requirement of section 41(d)(1) pertaining to qualifying research, section 41(d)(4)(E) does not apply the substantially all test when it excludes activities related to internal use software from qualifying research. Accordingly, the Treasury Department and the IRS believe the use of the substantially all test in these regulations is inappropriate, and the final regulations do not adopt the commenter's suggested approach.
Another commenter requested that the dual function rules be eliminated because the provisions are confusing and unnecessary and that trying to delineate elements of dual function software raises significant administrative issues. Similarly, another commenter noted that the concepts in the dual function rules can be confusing to taxpayers and will require additional recordkeeping by taxpayers. According to this commenter, most taxpayers do not differentiate their software applications by “third party interactions” or generally track such interactions. One commenter similarly stated that § 1.41-4(c)(6)(iv)(C) of the proposed regulations fails to take into account that software systems cannot always be broken into mutually exclusive subsets enabling only internal use or third party functionality.
Regarding the presumption that dual function software is developed for internal use, a commenter stated that such presumption is contrary to the intent of the statute. One commenter recommended that the presumption should be replaced with a primary purpose test, consistent with the statutory language that looks to whether software is developed “primarily” for internal use.
The Treasury Department and the IRS believe it is necessary to implement rules for dual function software as this type of software development is increasingly common in business practice. Rather than simply reiterating the “primarily” language in the statute, these regulations specifically identify the types of software functions that are considered to be primarily for internal use. A definition that specifically identifies the types of software functions that are considered to be primarily for internal use provides a clearer objective test that will provide consistency in application. The nature of software and its development has rapidly evolved over time, and the statute did not expressly address the treatment of dual function software. In conjunction with crafting a narrow definition of internal use, the Treasury Department and the IRS believe that the dual function software rules in the proposed regulations strike an appropriate balance between the administrative burdens and compliance concerns relating to claiming the research credit for activities relating to software. Thus, these final regulations retain the dual function rules. These final regulations are applicable to taxable years beginning on or after the date of their publication in the
The proposed regulations provided taxpayers with a safe harbor to apply to dual function software if there remains a subset of elements of dual function software (dual function subset) after the third party subset has been identified. The safe harbor allows a taxpayer to include 25 percent of the qualified research expenditures of the dual function subset in computing the amount of the taxpayer's credit, provided that the taxpayer's research activities related to the dual function subset constitute qualified research and the use of the dual function subset by third parties or by the taxpayer to interact with third parties is reasonably anticipated to constitute at least 10 percent of the dual function subset's use.
Some commenters requested that the safe harbor be removed from the regulations. Specifically, one commenter stated that the burdens associated with the safe harbor may be greater than its benefits and noted the multiple steps that a taxpayer must take to determine if it meets the safe harbor. Another commenter noted that the safe harbor complicates the administration of the credit for both taxpayers and the IRS.
Another commenter noted that the safe harbor potentially penalizes the taxpayer with the inequitable result of allowing only 25 percent of the qualified research expenditures. According to the commenter, given that a taxpayer must document anticipated use, it should then follow that the portion of software treated as third party facing should mirror this analysis. In other words, the proportion anticipated to be third party facing should be the proportion of software that is not developed primarily for internal use.
After careful consideration, the final regulations do not adopt these comments. However, the safe harbor has
Several commenters noted concerns with the time of determination for the application of the safe harbor. A commenter noted that determining the percentage of third party use based upon an estimate made at the beginning of software development imposes an undue administrative burden and may not be an accurate reflection of the actual use once the software is released. This commenter requested that the rule be eliminated or amended to provide that a taxpayer must estimate third party use once the software is deployed. Similarly, another commenter noted that it has not been their experience that taxpayers plot out the future expected use of their software at the time the development begins with such specificity, especially given that software development is an iterative development process where functionality and expected uses rapidly evolve. Lastly, another commenter requested that, similar to the provisions for improvements to existing software, there should be a mechanism to recharacterize software over time.
While the Treasury Department and the IRS understand commenters' concerns, the final regulations do not change the requirement that the time of determination occur at the beginning of the software development. As discussed herein, the Treasury Department and the IRS continue to believe that the rule requiring that a determination be made at the beginning of the software development is most accurate and appropriate given Congress' intent that the research credit serve as an incentive to conduct qualifying research rather than an unanticipated reward for doing so.
In the proposed regulations, the Treasury Department and the IRS invited comments on the administrability of measuring the reasonably anticipated use of software by taxpayers to interact with third parties and by third parties to initiate functions or review data based on reasonable methods (such as processing time, amount of data transfer, number of software user interface screens, number of third party initiated functions, and other objective, reasonable methods) and whether the regulations should include specific reasonable methods and examples.
A commenter recommended that due to the wide range of taxpayers that will be subject to these regulations, the final regulations should not provide overly detailed examples of “reasonable methods.” This commenter noted that it should be clear that any examples of reasonable methods are for illustrative purposes only and any reasonable method may be acceptable. Another commenter recommended the adoption of the phrase “within each industry” to ensure that the application of the objective, reasonable method takes into account unique aspects of all taxpayers within given industries.
The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that it is unrealistic to impose one specific method that will be used to measure reasonably anticipated use due to the variety of industries that are subject to the final regulations. Therefore, the final regulations provide that any objective, reasonable method within the taxpayer's industry may be used for purposes of the safe harbor.
The proposed regulations provided that the term “third party” means any corporation, trade or business, or other person that is not treated as a single taxpayer with the taxpayer pursuant to section 41(f). A commenter raised concerns and requested that the Treasury Department and the IRS reconsider whether it is appropriate to apply the controlled group standard under section 41(f). The commenter contended that this third party definition would potentially deny a research credit to some software for artificial reasons. The commenter further noted that if the regulations do not modify the third party definition, taxpayers should at least have an opportunity to demonstrate that software provided to a member of the controlled group is not internal use software based on the facts and circumstances.
The Treasury Department and the IRS continue to believe that the use of the controlled group standard under section 41(f) is appropriate. A well established, objective standard is essential and using the standard in section 41(f) is consistent with the reference to section 41(f) in section 41(b)(2) relating to in-house research expenditures and in § 1.41-6(a)(3)(ii) relating to the definition of controlled group for purposes of aggregating expenditures.
The proposed regulations also provided that third parties do not include any persons that use the software to support the taxpayer's general and administrative functions that facilitate or support the conduct of the taxpayer's trade or business,
The proposed regulations provided that certain internal use software is eligible for the research credit if the software satisfies the high threshold of innovation test, the three parts of which are (1) software is innovative in that the software would result in a reduction in cost or improvement in speed or other measurable improvement, that is substantial and economically significant, if the development is or would have been successful; (2) software development involves significant economic risk in that the taxpayer commits substantial resources to the development and there is a substantial uncertainty, because of
Several commenters requested that the final regulations include design uncertainty in the definition of technical risk for purposes of meeting the significant economic risk test. Commenters noted that both sections 174 and 41 have long included the concept of design uncertainty. Commenters also raised concerns that the statute and regulations do not define the concepts of capability, methodology, and design uncertainty. Commenters further explained that these three types of uncertainties are inherently related to each other, and it is often difficult for taxpayers to clearly state or describe which type of uncertainty they face.
The use of the word “substantial” before “uncertainty” in the significant economic risk test for internal use software indicates a higher threshold of uncertainty than that required for business components that are not internal use software. While there may be design uncertainty in the development of internal use software, substantial uncertainty generally exists only when there is also uncertainty in regard to the capability or method of achieving the intended result. However, the Treasury Department and the IRS understand that it is difficult to delineate the types of technical uncertainties and attempting to do so may lead to unnecessary burdens on both taxpayers and the IRS. Furthermore, the appropriate design uncertainty of internal use software may be inextricably linked to substantial uncertainty regarding capability or method. The focus of the significant economic risk test should be on the level of uncertainty that exists and not the types of uncertainty. For these reasons, the final regulations remove the reference to capability and method uncertainty. However, the Treasury Department and the IRS believe that internal use software research activities that involve only uncertainty related to appropriate design, and not capability or methodology, would rarely qualify as having substantial uncertainty for purposes of the high threshold of innovation test.
A commenter requested that the final regulations provide further explanation or examples on what constitutes “substantial resources” or a “reasonable time period” for purposes of meeting the significant economic risk test. The Treasury Department and the IRS believe that whether the amount of resources committed is substantial or whether substantial resources would be recovered within a reasonable time period are factual determinations to be resolved based on the taxpayer's facts and circumstances and, therefore, further explanation or examples would be too specific and not helpful. Accordingly, the final regulations do not adopt these comments.
Another commenter requested deletion of the statement, “[i]t is not always necessary to have a revolutionary discovery or creation of new technologies such as a new programming language, operating system, architecture, or algorithm to satisfy the high threshold of innovation test.” The commenter is concerned that the sentence can be read to imply that in some situations it will be necessary to have a revolutionary discovery to qualify internal use software for the research credit. The Treasury Department and the IRS did not intend the inclusion of this statement to have the interpretation suggested or taken by the commenter. Accordingly, the Treasury Department and the IRS agree that this statement should be removed from the final regulations because a revolutionary discovery is not required to meet the high threshold of innovation test.
Furthermore, the Treasury Department and the IRS are revising §§ 1.41-4(c)(6)(i) and (ii) of the proposed regulations to clarify that the internal use software rules under § 1.41-4(c)(6) do not apply to (1) software developed for use in an activity that constitutes qualified research, (2) software developed for use in a production process to which the requirements of section 41(d)(1) are met, and (3) a new or improved package of software and hardware developed together by the taxpayer as a single product. Accordingly, under the final regulations, the high threshold of innovation test applies only to the software developed for use in general and administrative functions that facilitate or support the conduct of the taxpayer's trade or business and to dual function software.
Section 1.41-4(a)(8) of the proposed regulations provided six new examples illustrating the application of the process of experimentation requirement to software under section 41(d)(1)(C).
One commenter noted that the examples appear to suggest a presumption that activities related to developing web design or ERP software do not meet the process of experimentation requirement. This commenter requested that the final regulations clearly state the reasons for such presumption. The proposed regulations and these final regulations do not establish a presumption against a particular type of software; rather these examples focus on the facts and circumstances surrounding activities to determine whether they involve a process of experimentation.
Another commenter requested that the final regulations include additional examples demonstrating fact patterns that do not initially qualify as a process of experimentation but where a change in facts introduces technical uncertainty that requires a process of experimentation. The final regulations could provide examples describing a particular change in facts that would introduce technical uncertainty and require a process of experimentation; however, because the examples are very factual and would differ based on a taxpayer's business, we do not think more examples would provide the clarification that the commenter is seeking. Accordingly, the final regulations do not include additional examples to address this comment.
Section 1.41-4(a)(8), Example 6, of the proposed regulations analyzed whether activities related to selecting a commercial software vendor with object-oriented functions and selecting and incorporating the specific functions into new software developed by X involved conducting a process of experimentation.
One commenter noted that the use of certain terms in Example 6, such as “develop,” “evaluate,” and “determine” suggest that the process of experimentation criteria may be met and recommended changes to clearly show that a purchase, installation, and
Section 1.41-4(a)(8), Example 7, of the proposed regulations analyzed whether when developing software, activities relating to X's decision to use a separate server to distribute the workload across each of the web servers and X's decision that a round robin workload distribution algorithm is appropriate for its needs involved conducting a process of experimentation.
Two commenters recommended removing Example 7. One commenter believed that the example did not provide any clarification. The other commenter stated that the example shows a failure to meet the technical uncertainty requirement under section 174, rather than a process of experimentation. While the Treasury Department and the IRS agree with the commenter that activities under section 174 must be for the purpose of discovering information that would eliminate uncertainties, Example 7 is intended to demonstrate the process of experimentation requirement under section 41(d). The example shows a taxpayer's failure to meet the process of experimentation requirement under section 41(d)(1) because the use of a technique or design, such as a round robin workload distribution algorithm, does not qualify where the taxpayer did not conduct a process of evaluating alternatives intended to eliminate uncertainty regarding the development of software. Accordingly, the final regulations do not adopt these comments.
Section 1.41-4(a)(8), Example 8, of the proposed regulations analyzed whether X's activities relating to design and systematic testing and evaluation of several different algorithms in the development of load balancing software involved conducting a process of experimentation.
One commenter recommended that all references to the terms “dynamic” and “highly volatile” be removed because the commenter believes the terms provide no additional value and that they suggest that the nature of X's business environment has some bearing on the performance of qualified research. The Treasury Department and the IRS disagree and the final regulations do not adopt the commenter's recommendation because we believe the nature of a taxpayer's business environment can be a valuable indicator of circumstances that may result in the necessary uncertainty required for a process of experimentation.
Another commenter requested that for both Example 8 and Example 10, the Treasury Department and the IRS provide clarification by applying the high threshold of innovation test once the software is determined to be internal use software. Additionally, this commenter requested that the final regulations provide an additional example addressing this process. The Treasury Department and the IRS note that the examples are added to illustrate only the application of a process of experimentation to software research. They are not meant to address the high threshold of innovation test; those examples were provided under § 1.41-4(c)(6)(vi) of the proposed regulations. Furthermore, a comprehensive example that applies the rules contained in § 1.41-4(c)(6) would require more developed facts and layers of analysis and would be better suited for a different type of published guidance than these final regulations. Accordingly, the final regulations do not adopt these comments.
Section 1.41-4(a)(8), Example 9, of the proposed regulations analyzed whether X's activities relating to the installation of an ERP system involved a process of experimentation.
Two commenters requested deletion of the phrase “routine programming” in Example 9 because the term is subjective, immeasurable, and inconsistent with
The proposed regulations provided examples illustrating the provisions contained in § 1.41-4(c)(6) of the proposed regulations.
Section 1.41-4(c)(6)(vi), Example 3, of the proposed regulations analyzed whether software that is developed for a Web site that provides general information about the taxpayer's business, and which does not enable a taxpayer to interact with third parties or allow third parties to initiate functions or review data, is internal use software.
One commenter disagreed with the characterization of the facts in Example 3 which illustrates a support services function. The commenter believes that the software is dual function software that is developed to allow a third party to review data and to be used in marketing. The Treasury Department and the IRS disagree with the commenter's characterization of Example 3. The example demonstrates that the software is intended to serve marketing purposes and thus is developed to be used in general and administrative functions. Changes were made to clarify this example which is designated as Example 4 of the final regulations.
Section 1.41-4(c)(6)(vi), Example 6, of the proposed regulations analyzed the definition of third parties, specifically whether software that is developed to allow its users to upload and modify photographs at no charge allows third parties to initiate functions on the taxpayer's system.
A commenter believed the example is an important example that comes to the correct conclusion, but the commenter believed it is not a particularly good fact pattern to illustrate the third party interaction exclusion. Specifically, the commenter requested changes to the conclusion of the example to show that the advertising software is developed for use in a marketing function to an unrelated third party.
The purpose of the example is to illustrate the third party definition and
Some commenters requested that the final regulations apply retroactively back to 1986, while one commenter requested that the final regulations apply retroactively back to 2004 to give software development equal treatment with all other types of qualified research as defined under TD 9104 (69 FR 22). After further consideration, the effective date in the proposed regulations is generally retained with slight modifications. These final regulations are prospective and apply to taxable years beginning on or after the date of publication of this Treasury decision in the
Retroactive application of these final regulations may provide an unfair advantage to taxpayers whose prior taxable years are not closed by the statute of limitations. Furthermore, retroactively determining whether taxpayers engaged in research activities does not further the purpose of section 41 which is to encourage taxpayers to engage in qualifying research activities within the United States and would impose a significant administrative burden on the IRS.
Section 41(d)(4)(E) provides that, except to the extent provided by regulations, research with respect to computer software that is developed by (or for the benefit of) the taxpayer primarily for internal use by the taxpayer is excluded from the definition of qualified research under section 41(d). The nature of software and its development has rapidly evolved over time. Recognizing the evolving nature of software technology and its role in business practices, these final regulations more narrowly define internal use software than the rules that apply for prior periods. These final regulations are not, and should not be viewed as, an interpretation of prior regulatory guidance. Software not developed for internal use under these final regulations, such as software developed to enable a taxpayer to interact with third parties, may or may not have been internal use software under prior law.
The proposed regulations provided that the 2004 ANPRM (published in the
Some commenters noted the administrative difficulties of applying the duty of consistency rule under section 41(c)(6)(A) and requested guidance on how to comply with the consistency rule.
The duty of consistency is a statutory requirement and existing regulations under §§ 1.41-3(d) and 1.41-9(c) provide sufficient guidance for taxpayers to follow. In computing the research credit, qualified research expenses and gross receipts must be determined on a basis consistent with the definition of qualified research expenses and gross receipts for the credit year. These final regulations do not modify this existing law. Section 1.41-3(d) provides that in computing the credit for increasing research activities, qualified research expenses and gross receipts taken into account in computing a taxpayer's fixed-base percentage and a taxpayer's base amount must be determined on a basis consistent with the definition of qualified research expenses and gross receipts for the credit year, without regard to the law in effect for the taxable years taken into account in computing the fixed-base percentage or the base amount. Section 1.41-3(d) also provides examples illustrating the requirement. Current section 1.41-9(c) contains similar rules. Accordingly, the final regulations do not adopt the commenters' suggestions concerning the duty of consistency.
Certain IRS regulations, including this one, are exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 12866, as supplemented and reaffirmed by Executive Order 13563. Therefore, a regulatory impact assessment is not required. It also has been determined that section 553(b) of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 5) does not apply to these regulations, and because the regulations do not impose a collection of information on small entities, the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 6) does not apply. Pursuant to section 7805(f) of the Code, the notice of proposed rulemaking was submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for comment on its impact on small business, and no comments were received.
The principal author of these regulations is Martha M. Garcia, Office of the Associate Chief Counsel (Passthroughs and Special Industries), IRS. However, other personnel from the Treasury Department and the IRS participated in their development.
Income taxes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, 26 CFR part 1 is amended as follows:
26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *
Section 1.41-4 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 41(d)(4)(E).
The revision and additions read as follows:
(c) * * *
(6) Internal use software.
(i) General rule.
(ii) Inapplicability of the high threshold of innovation test.
(iii) Software developed primarily for internal use.
(iv) Software not developed primarily for internal use.
(v) Time and manner of determination.
(vi) Software developed for both internal use and to enable interaction with third parties (dual function software).
(vii) High threshold of innovation test.
(viii) Illustrations.
The additions and revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(8) * * *
(i)
(ii)
(i)
(ii)
(i)
(ii)
(i)
(ii)
(i)
(ii)
(i)
(ii)
(c) * * *
(6)
(A) The research with respect to the software satisfies the requirements of section 41(d)(1);
(B) The research with respect to the software is not otherwise excluded under section 41(d)(4) (other than section 41(d)(4)(E)); and
(C) The software satisfies the high threshold of innovation test of paragraph (c)(6)(vii) of this section.
(ii)
(A) Software developed by (or for the benefit of) the taxpayer primarily for internal use by the taxpayer for use in an activity that constitutes qualified research (other than the development of the internal use software itself);
(B) Software developed by (or for the benefit of) the taxpayer primarily for internal use by the taxpayer for use in a production process to which the requirements of section 41(d)(1) are met; and
(C) A new or improved package of software and hardware developed together by the taxpayer as a single product (or to the costs to modify an acquired software and hardware package), of which the software is an integral part, that is used directly by the taxpayer in providing services in its trade or business. In these cases, eligibility for the research credit is to be determined by examining the combined hardware-software product as a single product.
(iii)
(B)
(
(
(
(iv)
(A) Software developed to be commercially sold, leased, licensed, or otherwise marketed to third parties; or
(B) Software developed to enable a taxpayer to interact with third parties or to allow third parties to initiate functions or review data on the taxpayer's system.
(v)
(vi)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(vii)
(
(
(
(B)
(C)
(D)
(viii)
(ii)
(ii)
(ii)
(ii)
(ii)
(ii)
(ii)
(ii)
(ii)
(ii)
(ii)
(ii)
(ii)
(ii)
(ii)
(ii)
(ii)
(ii)
(e)
Office of the DoD Chief Information Officer, DoD.
Final rule.
This final rule responds to public comments and updates DoD's Defense Industrial Base (DIB) Cybersecurity (CS) Activities. This rule implements mandatory cyber incident reporting requirements for DoD contractors and subcontractors who have agreements with DoD. In addition, the rule modifies eligibility criteria to permit greater participation in the voluntary DIB CS information sharing program.
Vicki Michetti, DoD's DIB Cybersecurity Program Office: (703) 604-3167, toll free (855) 363-4227, or
The rule also addresses the voluntary DIB CS information sharing program that is outside the scope of the mandatory reporting requirements. By modifying the eligibility criteria for the DIB CS program, the rule enables greater participation in the voluntary program. Expanding participation in the DIB CS program is part of DoD's comprehensive approach to counter cyber threats through information sharing between the Government and DIB participants.
DoD published an interim final rule on October 2, 2015 (80 FR 59581). Twenty-eight comments were received and reviewed by DoD in the development of this final rule. A discussion of the comments received and changes made to the rule as a result of those comments follows:
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distribute impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has been designated a “significant regulatory action,” although not economically significant, under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the rule has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
It has been determined that this rule is not a “major” rule under 5 U.S.C. 801, enacted by Public Law 104-121, because it will not result in an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more; a major increase in costs or prices for consumers, individual industries, Federal, State, or local Government agencies, or geographic regions; or significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or on the ability of United States-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises in domestic and export markets.
It has been determined that this rule does not contain a Federal mandate that may result in expenditure by State, local and tribal Governments, in aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more in any one year.
It has been certified that this rule is not subject to the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. Ch. 6) because it would not, if promulgated, have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Therefore, the Regulatory Flexibility Act, as amended, does not require us to prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis.
This rule does contain reporting requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995. The collection requirements were published in the preamble of the interim final rule that was published on October 2, 2015 (80 FR 59581) for public comment. No comments were received for these collections. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Control Numbers are: 0704-0489, “DoD's Defense Industrial Base (DIB) Cybersecurity (CS) Activities Cyber Incident Reporting,” and 0704-0490, “DoD's Defense Industrial Base (DIB) Cybersecurity (CS) Program Points of Contact (POC) Information.”
It has been determined that this rule does not have federalism implications, as set forth in Executive Order 13132. This rule does not have substantial direct effects on:
(a) The States;
(b) The relationship between the National Government and the States; or
(c) The distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of Government.
Government contracts, Security measures.
Accordingly, the interim final rule published at 80 FR 59581 on October 2, 2015, is adopted as a final rule with the following changes:
10 U.S.C. 391, 393, and 2224; 44 U.S.C. 3506 and 3544; 50 U.S.C. 3330.
* * * The part also permits eligible DIB participants to participate in the voluntary DIB CS program to share cyber threat information and cybersecurity best practices with DIB CS participants. The DIB CS program enhances and supplements DIB participants' capabilities to safeguard DoD information that resides on, or transits, DIB unclassified information systems.
The revisions read as follows:
(1) Marked or otherwise identified in an agreement and provided to the contractor by or on behalf of the DoD in support of the performance of the agreement; or
(2) Collected, developed, received, transmitted, used, or stored by or on behalf of the contractor in support of the performance of the agreement.
The revisions read as follows:
(d) DoD's DIB CS Program Office is the overall point of contact for the program. The DC3 managed DoD DIB Collaborative Information Sharing Environment (DCISE) is the operational focal point for cyber threat information sharing and incident reporting under the DIB CS program.
The revisions read as follows:
The revisions read as follows:
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary special local regulation controlling movement of vessels for certain waters of the Ouachita River. This rule is necessary to provide for the safety of life on navigable waters during a paddle boat race on October 15, 2016. This regulation requires commercial vessels to notify the Captain of the Port Memphis before entering the event area and require all vessels transiting the area to maintain a minimum speed for safe navigation.
This rule is effective on October 15, 2016, from 10 a.m. until 2 p.m.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions about this rule, call or email Petty Officer Todd Manow, Waterways Management, Sector Lower Mississippi River, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 901-521-4813, email
On May 23, 2016, Louisiana Delta Adventures notified the Coast Guard that it will be conducting a paddle boat race from 10 a.m. to 2 p.m. on October 15, 2016. The paddle boats are to be launched from a boat ramp near mile marker 173.0 at D'Arbonne cutoff in the Ouachita River northwest of West Monroe, LA, and will proceed approximately 7.5 miles downriver to mile maker 166.5 near the Red River Market, Monroe, LA.
The Coast Guard has established special local regulations for similar events and determined that conducting paddle boat races in this portion of navigable waterway, paired with other activities and waterways usage in the area, presents potential safety hazards requiring this regulatory action.
The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary final rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment pursuant to authority under section 4(a) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553(b)). This provision authorizes an agency to issue a rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment when the agency, for good cause, finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” Under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because doing so would be impracticable. Although the event sponsor submitted an initial application for a marine event on May 23, 2016, final details of the event were not known to the Captain of the Port Memphis (COTP) until late August of 2016. This action is necessary to provide for the safety of life on navigable waters during the marine event. It is impracticable to publish an NPRM because we must establish this safety zone by October 15, 2016.
We are issuing this rule, and under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making it effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1233. The COTP has determined that potential hazards posed to participants of a paddle boat race in this section of river would be a safety concern for anyone transiting the river from mile marker 173 to 166.5. The purpose of this rulemaking is to ensure the safety of event participants and other waterway users in U.S. navigable waters within mile marker 173 to 166.5 before, during, and after the scheduled event.
This rule establishes a special local regulation from 10 a.m. until 2 p.m. on October 15, 2016. In light of the aforementioned hazards, the COTP has determined that a special local regulation is necessary to protect spectators, vessels, and participants. The special local regulation will encompass the following waterway: All waters of the Ouachita River between mile markers 173 and 166.5 in the vicinity of Monroe, LA.
The COTP or a designated on-scene representative will permit vessels to transit the area on a case-by-case basis. Commercial vessel operators desiring to transit through the regulated area must contact the COTP before doing so. The COTP or a designated on-scene representative may be contacted via VHF Channel 16 or by telephone at 1-866-777-2784. During enforcement, all vessels are to proceed at slowest speed for safe navigation while transiting the regulated area.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders (E.O.) 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under E.O. 12866. Accordingly, it has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
The Coast Guard's use of this special local regulation will be only four hours in duration on a Saturday, and it is designed to minimize the impact on navigation. Moreover, vessels may transit through the area affected by this special local regulation at a minimum speed for safe navigation as approved by the COTP on a case-by-case basis. Overall, the Coast Guard expects minimal impact to vessel movement from the enforcement of this special local regulation.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small
This rule will affect the following entities, some of which might be small entities: The owners or operators of vessels intending to transit or anchor in this portion of the Ouachita River in the vicinity of Monroe, LA between 10 a.m. and 2 p.m. on October 15, 2016.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under E.O. 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in E.O. 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under E.O. 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it will not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a preliminary determination that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves the establishment of a special local regulation lasting four hours. Such actions are categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(h) of Figure 2-1 of the Commandant Instruction. An environmental analysis checklist and Categorical Exclusion Determination are available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 100 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1233
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2) During enforcement, all vessels are to proceed at slowest speed for safe navigation while transiting the regulated area.
(d)
In rule document 2016-22508 beginning on page 66331 in the issue of Tuesday, September 27, 2016, make the following correction:
1. On page 66332, in the first column, after the
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking direct final action to approve revisions to the Sacramento Metropolitan Air Quality Management District (SMAQMD) and the San Diego County Air Pollution Control District (SDCAPCD) portions of the California State Implementation Plan (SIP). These revisions concern emissions of volatile organic compounds (VOCs) from architectural coatings. We are approving local rules that regulate these emission sources under the Clean Air Act (CAA or the Act).
This rule is effective on December 5, 2016 without further notice, unless the EPA receives adverse comments by November 3, 2016. If we receive such comments, we will publish a timely withdrawal in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R09-OAR-2016-0291 at
Arnold Lazarus, EPA Region IX, (415) 972-3024,
Throughout this document, “we,” “us,” and “our” refer to the EPA.
Table 1 lists the rules addressed by this action with the dates that they were adopted by the local air agencies and submitted by the California Air Resources Board (CARB).
On April 19, 2016, the EPA determined that the submittal for SMAQMD Rule 442 met the completeness criteria in 40 CFR part 51, appendix V, which must be met before formal EPA review. On January 19, 2016, the EPA determined that the submittals for SDCAPCD Rules 67.0 and 67.0.1 met the completeness criteria.
There are no previous versions of Rule 67.0.1 in the SIP. We approved earlier versions of Rule 442 into the SIP on November 9, 1998 (63 FR 60214) and Rule 67.0 on June 20, 2013 (78 FR 37130).
VOCs help produce ground-level ozone, smog and particulate matter (PM), which harm human health and the environment. Section 110(a) of the CAA requires states to submit regulations that control VOC emissions. Architectural coatings are applied to stationary structures and their accessories. They include house paints, stains, industrial maintenance coatings, traffic coatings, and many other products. VOCs are emitted from the coatings during application and curing, and from the associated solvents used for thinning and clean-up. SMAQMD Rule 442 controls VOC emissions from architectural coatings by establishing VOC limits on any architectural coating supplied, sold, offered for sale or manufactured for use within the SMAQMD. Rule 442 was revised to align SMAQMD's architectural coatings practices and VOC limits with those contained in CARB's “2007 Suggested Control Measures for Architectural Coatings” (SCM),
Similarly, SDCAPCD Rule 67.0.1 was adopted to align SDCAPCD's architectural coatings practices and VOC limits with those contained in CARB's SCM. Rule 67.0.1 replaces SDCAPCD Rule 67.0, which was rescinded. SDCAPCD elected to make these changes in a new rule, rather than in revisions to Rule 67.0, “due to the large number of revisions to existing Rule 67.0 that would be necessary to reflect the 2007 SCM.”
The EPA's technical support documents (TSDs) have more information about these rules.
SIP rules must be enforceable (see CAA section 110(a)(2)), must not interfere with applicable requirements concerning attainment and reasonable further progress or other CAA requirements (see CAA section 110(l)), and must not modify certain SIP control requirements in nonattainment areas without ensuring equivalent or greater emissions reductions (see CAA section 193).
Generally, SIP rules must require Reasonably Available Control Technology (RACT) for each category of sources covered by a Control Techniques Guidelines (CTG) document as well as each major stationary source of VOCs in ozone nonattainment areas classified as moderate or above (see CAA sections 182(b)(2)). The SMAQMD has been designated as severe nonattainment for the 2008 8-hour ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS). The SDCAPCD regulates an ozone nonattainment area classified as moderate for the 2008 8-Hour Ozone NAAQS (40 CFR 81.305). As addressed further in the TSDs, because there are no relevant EPA CTG documents and because architectural coatings are considered area sources, architectural coating sources are not subject to RACT requirements. However, architectural coating sources are subject to other VOC content limits and control measures described in the TSDs.
Guidance and policy documents that we use to evaluate enforceability, SIP revision/relaxation and rule stringency requirements for the applicable criteria pollutants include the following:
1. “State Implementation Plans; General Preamble for the Implementation of Title I of the Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990,” (57 FR 13498, April 16, 1992 and 57 FR 18070, April 28, 1992).
2. “Issues Relating to VOC Regulation Cutpoints, Deficiencies, and Deviations” (“the Bluebook,” U.S. EPA, May 25, 1988; revised January 11, 1990).
3. “Guidance Document for Correcting Common VOC & Other Rule Deficiencies” (“the Little Bluebook”, EPA Region 9, August 21, 2001).
4. “Suggested Control Measure for Architectural Coatings,” CARB, October 2007.
5. Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), title 40, part 59, subpart D—National Volatile Organic Compound Emission Standards for Architectural Coatings (40 CFR 59.400
We believe these rules and rule rescission are consistent with the relevant policy and guidance regarding enforceability, RACT and SIP relaxations. The TSDs have more information on our evaluation.
The TSDs describe additional rule revisions that we recommend for the next time the local agency modifies the rules but which are not currently the basis for rule disapproval.
As authorized in section 110(k)(3) of the Act, the EPA is fully approving the submitted rules and rule rescission because we believe they fulfill all relevant requirements. We do not think anyone will object to this approval, so we are finalizing it without proposing it in advance. However, in the Proposed Rules section of this
Please note that if the EPA receives adverse comment on an amendment, paragraph, or section of this rule and if that provision may be severed from the remainder of the rule, the EPA may adopt as final those provisions of the rule that are not the subject of an adverse comment.
In this rule, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of the SMAQMD and SDCAPCD rules described in the amendments to 40 CFR part 52 set forth below. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents available through
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Public Law 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by December 5, 2016. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. Parties with objections to this direct final rule are encouraged to file a comment in response to the parallel notice of proposed rulemaking for this action published in the Proposed Rules section of this
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
Part 52, chapter I, title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
(255) * * *
(i) * * *
(A) * * *
(
(354) * * *
(i) * * *
(F) * * *
(
(472) * * *
(i) * * *
(C) San Diego Air Pollution Control District.
(
(474) * * *
(i) * * *
(B) Sacramento Metropolitan Air Quality Management District.
(
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving elements of State Implementation Plan (SIP) submittals from Louisiana which address the requirements of Clean Air Act (CAA) sections 110(a)(1) and (2) regarding the infrastructure requirements for the 2006 fine particulate matter (PM
This rule is effective on November 3, 2016.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R06-OAR-2013-0465. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Sherry Fuerst 214-665-6454,
Throughout this document, “we,” “us,” and “our” means the EPA.
The background for this action is discussed in detail in our June 3, 2016 proposal (81 FR 35674). In that rulemaking action, we proposed to approve portions of Louisiana's SIP submittals pertaining to requirements of CAA sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) of the 2006 PM
The Commenter also states that, on its face, the CAA requires i-SIPs “to be adequate to prevent exceedances of the NAAQS.” In support, the Commenter quotes the language in section 110(a)(1) which requires states to adopt a plan for implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of the NAAQS and the language in section 110(a)(2)(A) which the Commenter interprets to require i-SIPs to include enforceable emissions limitations that are sufficient to ensure maintenance of the NAAQS. Sierra Club notes the CAA definition of emission limit and reads these provisions together to require “enforceable emission limits on source emissions sufficient to ensure maintenance of the NAAQS.”
Infrastructure SIPs are general planning SIPs, consistent with the CAA as understood in light of its history and structure. When Congress enacted the CAA in 1970, it did not include provisions requiring states and the EPA to label areas as attainment or nonattainment. Rather, states were required to include all areas of the state in “air quality control regions” (AQCRs) and section 110 set forth the core substantive planning provisions for these AQCRs. At that time, Congress anticipated that states would be able to address air pollution quickly by complying with the very general planning provisions in section 110 and bring all areas into compliance with a new NAAQS within five years. Moreover, at that time, section 110(a)(2)(A)(i) specified that the section 110 plan provide for “attainment” of the NAAQS and section 110(a)(2)(B) specified that the plan must include “emission limitations, schedules, and timetables for compliance with such limitations, and such other measures as may be necessary to insure attainment and maintenance [of the NAAQS].”
In 1977, Congress recognized that the existing structure was not sufficient and many areas were still violating the NAAQS. At that time, Congress for the first time added provisions requiring that states and EPA identify whether areas of a state were violating the NAAQS (
In
At issue in
In
The Commenter suggests that
Two of the cases Sierra Club cites,
Finally, in
EPA's position is that none of these court cases addressed required measures for i-SIP submission and therefore nothing in the opinions addressed whether the state's i-SIP submission must contain measures to ensure attainment and maintenance of the NAAQS.
Although EPA was explicit that it was not establishing requirements interpreting the provisions of new “Part D” of the CAA, it is clear that the regulations being restructured and consolidated were intended to address control strategy plans. In the preamble, EPA clearly stated that 40 CFR 51.112 was replacing 40 CFR 51.13 (“Control strategy: SO
As discussed in detail in the TSD and proposed rule, EPA finds the Louisiana SIP meets the appropriate and relevant structural requirements of section 110(a)(2) of the CAA, that it will aid in attaining and/or maintaining the NAAQS, and that the State demonstrated that it has the necessary tools to implement and enforce the NAAQS.
As stated in response to a previous comment, EPA asserts that section 110 of the CAA is only one provision that is part of the multi-faceted structure governing implementation of the NAAQS program under the CAA, as amended in 1990, and it must be read in the context of not only that structure, but also of the historical evolution of that structure. In light of the revisions to CAA section 110 since 1970 and the later-promulgated and more specific planning requirements of the CAA, section 110(a)(2)(A) does not require that an i-SIP contain enforceable emissions limits that will aid in attaining and/or maintaining the NAAQS. The i-SIPs required by CAA section 110(a) are not the appropriate place to require emission limits demonstrating future attainment with a NAAQS. Part D of title I of the CAA contains numerous requirements for the NAAQS attainment planning process. These requirements include enforceable emissions limitations, and such other control measures, means or techniques, as well as schedules and timetables for compliance, as may be necessary or appropriate to provide for the attainment of the NAAQS. States have up to three years from the date of a nonattainment designation to submit a SIP meeting Part D's requirements. Louisiana's submittal was submitted to comply with the requirements outlined in CAA section 110(a), not Part D. As discussed above, the state may rely on measures already in place to address the pollutant at issue or any new control measures that the state may choose to submit. Finally, as EPA stated in the Infrastructure SIP Guidance, which specifically provides guidance to states in addressing the NAAQS, “[t]he conceptual purpose of an i-SIP submission is to assure that the air agency's SIP contains the necessary structural requirements for the new or revised NAAQS, whether by establishing that the SIP already contains the necessary provisions, by making a substantive SIP revision to update the SIP, or both.” 2013 Infrastructure SIP Guidance at p. 2.
On April 12, 2012, EPA explained its expectations regarding the 2010 SO
Therefore, EPA asserts that SIP revisions for SO
The proper inquiry at this juncture is whether Louisiana has met the basic structural SIP requirements applicable at the point in time that the SIP was submitted. Emissions limitations and other control measures needed to attain the NAAQS in areas designated nonattainment for that NAAQS are due on a different schedule from the section 110 infrastructure elements. A state, like Louisiana, may choose to reference pre-existing SIP emission limits approved by EPA as meeting CAA Title I of part D plans for previous NAAQS in an i-SIP submission for purposes of CAA section 110(a)(2)(A).
The requirements for emission reduction measures for an area designated nonattainment for the 2010 primary SO
Sierra Club's reliance on 40 CFR 51.112 to support its argument that i-SIPs must contain emission limits adequate to provide for timely attainment and maintenance of the standard is also unsupported. As explained above, EPA notes this regulatory provision clearly applies to plans specifically designed to attain the NAAQS and not to i-SIPs which show the states have in place structural requirements necessary to implement the NAAQS. Therefore, EPA finds 40 CFR 51.112 inapplicable to its analysis of Louisiana's i-SIP submission.
Regarding the air dispersion modeling conducted by Sierra Club pursuant to AERMOD for the coal-fired EGUs, including Cleco Power's Dolet Hills Power Station and Entergy's Big Cajun II Generating Station, EPA is not in this action making a determination regarding the air quality status in the area where these EGUs are located, and is not evaluating whether emissions applicable to these EGUs are adequate to attain and maintain the NAAQS. Consequently, EPA does not find the modeling information relevant for review of an infrastructure SIP for purposes of section 110(a)(2)(A). When additional areas in Louisiana are designated under the 2010 1-hour SO
In conclusion, EPA disagrees with Sierra Club's assertions that EPA must disapprove Louisiana's i-SIP submission because it does not establish specific enforceable NAAQS emission limits, and specifically enforceable emission limits for SO
The Commenter discusses statements made by EPA staff regarding (1) the use of modeling and monitoring in setting emission limitations, (2) determining ambient concentrations as a result of a source's emissions, (3) discussing performance of AERMOD as a model, including if AERMOD is capable of predicting whether the NAAQS is attained, and (4) whether individual sources contribute to SO
Sierra Club asserts EPA's use of air dispersion modeling was upheld in
The Commenter cites to
Finally, Sierra Club claims that Louisiana's proposed i-SIP lacks emission limitations informed by air dispersion modeling and therefore fails to ensure Louisiana will achieve and maintain the SO
As discussed above and in the 2013 Infrastructure SIP Guidance, the conceptual purpose of an i-SIP submission is to assure that the air agency's SIP contains the necessary structural requirements for the new or revised NAAQS and that the i-SIP submission process provides an opportunity to review the basic structural requirements of the Agency's air quality management program in light of the new or revised NAAQS.
EPA had initially recommended that states submit substantive attainment demonstration SIPs based on air quality modeling in the final 2010 SO
While EPA guidance for SO
EPA finds Sierra Club's discussion of case law, guidance, and EPA staff statements regarding advantages of AERMOD as an air dispersion model to be irrelevant to the analysis of Louisiana's i-SIP as this is not an attainment SIP required to demonstrate attainment of the 2010 SO
The Commenter correctly noted that the Third Circuit upheld EPA's Section 126 Order imposing SO
In its comments, Sierra Club relies on
While i-SIP submissions are not
Sierra Club also contends that i-SIPs approved by EPA must include monitoring of SO
Sierra Club has cited to prior EPA discussion on emission limitations required in PSD permits (from an EAB decision and EPA's letter to Kansas' permitting authority) pursuant to part C of the CAA, which is neither relevant nor applicable to section 110 i-SIPs. In addition, as previously discussed, EPA disapproval of the 2006 Missouri SIP was a disapproval relating to a control strategy SIP required pursuant to part D attainment planning and is likewise not relevant to the analysis of i-SIP requirements.
EPA has explained in the TSD supporting this rulemaking action how the Louisiana SIP meets requirements in section 110(a)(2)(F) related to monitoring. Thus, EPA finds Louisiana has the authority and responsibility to monitor air quality for the relevant NAAQS pollutants at appropriate locations and to submit data to EPA in a timely manner in accordance with 110(a)(2)(F) and the Infrastructure SIP Guidance.
In addition, the Commenter asserts that the Louisiana i-SIP must contain emission limits that include mass limitations and short term averaging periods on certain large sources of NO
Finally, the Commenter states“[d]espite knowing that Louisiana is on the precipice of exceeding the ozone NAAQS, LDEQ is taking insufficient action to limit ozone concentrations and fails to demonstrate how it plans to address these significant ozone and ozone precursors. Consequently, EPA must disapprove the state's i-SIP.”
In addition, emission limits with the shorter-term averaging rates suggested by the Commenter could be considered within the CAA Title I part D planning process to ensure attainment and maintenance of the 2008 NAAQS. As EPA finds Louisiana's NO
The statutory language in the CAA supports our ability to approve Louisiana's NAAQS i-SIP submissions while taking later, separate action on the portion of the SIP submittals which address Louisiana's obligation to address section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I). Section 110(k)(3) of the CAA authorizes EPA to approve a plan in full, disapprove it in full, or approve it in part and disapprove it in part, depending on the extent to which such plan meets the requirements of the CAA. This authority to approve the states' SIP revisions in separable parts was included in the 1990 Amendments to the CAA to overrule a decision in the Court of Appeals for the Ninth Circuit holding that EPA could not approve individual measures in a plan submission without either approving or disapproving the plan as a whole.
As such, EPA has the authority under section 110(k)(3), to use our discretion to approve or conditionally approve individual elements of Louisiana's infrastructure submission for NAAQS, separate and apart from any action with respect to the requirements of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I). EPA views discrete i-SIP requirements, such as the requirements of 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I), as severable from the other infrastructure elements and section 110(k)(3) allows us to act on individual severable measures in a plan submission. The commenter raises no compelling legal or environmental rationale for an alternate interpretation. Nothing in the Supreme Court's April 2014 decision in
EPA's proposed approval of the Louisiana's i-SIP submission for NAAQS for the portions described in the NPR was therefore appropriate.
EPA is approving i-SIP submissions from Louisiana submitted on May 16, 2011, October 10, 2011, June 4, 2013, and December 17, 2015, certifying that the State's current i-SIP is sufficient to meet the required infrastructure elements under sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) for the 2006 PM
This final action is not a “significant regulatory action” and was therefore not submitted to the Office of Management and Budget for review.
This final action does not impose an information collection burden under the PRA because it does not contain any information collection activities.
I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. This action merely approves or disapproves a SIP submission as not meeting the CAA.
This action does not contain any unfunded mandate as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. The action imposes no enforceable duty on any state, local or tribal governments or the private sector.
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
This action does not have tribal implications as specified in Executive Order 13175. This action does not apply on any Indian reservation land, any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction, or non-reservation areas of Indian country. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this action.
EPA interprets Executive Order 13045 as applying only to those regulatory actions that concern environmental health or safety risks that EPA has reason to believe may disproportionately affect children, per the definition of “covered regulatory action” in section 2-202 of the Executive Order. This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it merely approves or disapproves a SIP submission as not meeting the CAA.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
This rulemaking does not involve technical standards.
EPA believes the human health or environmental risk addressed by this action will not have potential disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority, low-income or indigenous populations. This action merely approves or disapproves a SIP submission as not meeting the CAA requirements.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by December 5, 2016. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Interstate transport of pollution, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(e) * * *
(b) The portions of the SIP submitted on May 16, 2011, June 4, 2013, and
Office of Acquisition Policy, General Services Administration (GSA).
Final rule.
The General Services Administration (GSA) is amending the General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation (GSAR) to make editorial changes. This case updates acquisition-related thresholds to align with the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR).
For clarification of content, contact Ms. Janet Fry, Procurement Analyst, General Services Acquisition Policy Division, GSA, at 703-605-3167. For information pertaining to status or publication schedules, contact the Regulatory Secretariat at 202-501-4755. Please cite GSAR case 2016-G501.
The General Services Administration (GSA) is amending the General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation (GSAR) to make editorial changes to align acquisition thresholds with the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR). There are no significant content changes resulting from this case.
GSAR section 503.1004(a) is updated to remove the duplicative and unnecessary language regarding the outdated $5,000,000 FAR threshold for including FAR 52.203-14, Display of Hotline Poster(s). The remaining text regarding the $1,000,000 threshold for disaster assistance funds is retained with minor edits.
Contract GSAR clauses 552.219-71, Notice to Offerors of Subcontracting Plan Requirements, and 552.219-72, Preparation, Submission and Negotiation of Subcontracting Plans, are updated to remove reference to the acquisition threshold of $650,000 and the language is restructured to no longer state the threshold but rather direct the reader to FAR 52.219-9 which clearly addresses the thresholds for subcontracting plans. By referencing back to the FAR, future inflation updates will not require amendments to the GSAR.
GSAR clause 552.270-13, Proposals for Adjustment, is updated to replace “$500,000” with “$750,000.” Referencing the FAR for the threshold to prevent future updates was not an alternative.
41 U.S.C. 1707, Publication of proposed regulations, applies to the publication of the General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation. Paragraph (a)(1) of the statute requires that a procurement policy, regulation, procedure or form including amendment or modification thereof must be published for public comment if it has either a significant effect beyond the internal operating procedures of the agency issuing the policy, regulation, procedure, or form or has a significant cost or administrative impact on contractor or offerors. This final rule is not required to be published for public comment because it contains minor editorial updates without changing the meaning of content. The changes do not have a significant impact on the public.
Executive Orders (E.O.s) 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This is not a significant regulatory action and, therefore, was not subject to review under Section 6(b) of E.O. 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, dated September 30, 1993. This rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804.
The Regulatory Flexibility Analysis does not apply to this rule because this final rule does not constitute a significant GSAR revision and 41 U.S.C. 1707 does not require publication for public comment.
The final rule does not contain any information collection requirements that require approval of the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35).
Government procurement.
Therefore, GSA is amending 48 CFR parts 503 and 552 as set forth below:
40 U.S.C. 121(c).
(a) GSA has exercised the authority provided at FAR 3.1004(b)(1)(i) to establish a lower threshold for inclusion of clause 52.203-14, Display of Hotline Poster(s). When the contract or order is funded with disaster assistance funds, the threshold is $1,000,000.
The General Services Administration (GSA) is committed to assuring that maximum practicable opportunity is provided to small, HUBZone small, small disadvantaged, women-owned, veteran-owned, and service-disabled veteran-owned small business concerns to participate in the
(a) When submitting a subcontracting plan in accordance with FAR 52.219-9, the offeror shall submit a subcontracting plan with its initial offer. The subcontracting plan will be negotiated concurrently with price and any required technical and management proposals, unless the offeror submits a previously-approved commercial plan.
The revision reads as follows.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Final rule.
FMCSA amends its regulations by making technical corrections throughout. The Agency is making minor changes to correct errors and omissions, ensure conformity with Office of the Federal Register style guidelines, update cross references, and improve clarity and consistency of certain regulatory provisions. Further, this set of amendments removes all remaining instances of the term “common carrier” and “contract carrier” as required by the ICC Termination Act (ICCTA) and the Safe, Accountable, Flexible, Efficient Transportation Equity Act: A Legacy for Users (SAFETEA-LU). This rule does not make any substantive changes to the affected regulations, except to remove obsolete provisions.
Mr. David Miller, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, Regulatory Development Division, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590-0001, by telephone at (202) 366-5370 or via email at
Congress delegated certain powers to regulate interstate commerce to the United States Department of Transportation (DOT or Department) in numerous pieces of legislation, most notably in section 6 of the Department of Transportation Act (DOT Act) (Pub. L. 85-670, 80 Stat. 931 (1966)). Section 55 of the DOT Act transferred to the Department the authority of the former Interstate Commerce Commission (ICC) to regulate the qualifications and maximum hours-of-service of employees, the safety of operations, and the equipment of motor carriers in interstate commerce. See 49 United States Code (U.S.C.) 104. This authority, first granted to the ICC in the Motor Carrier Act of 1935 (Pub. L. 74-255, 49 Stat. 543, Aug. 9, 1935), now appears in 49 U.S.C. chapter 315. The regulations issued under this authority became known as the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs), appearing generally at 49 CFR parts 350-399. The administrative powers to enforce chapter 315 were also transferred from the ICC to the DOT in 1966 and appear in 49 U.S.C. chapter 5. The Secretary of the DOT (Secretary) delegated oversight of these provisions to the Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), a predecessor agency of FMCSA. The FMCSA Administrator has been delegated authority under 49 CFR 1.87 to carry out the motor carrier functions vested in the Secretary.
Between 1984 and 1999, a number of statutes added to FHWA's authority. Various statutes authorize the enforcement of the FMCSRs, the Hazardous Materials Regulations (HMRs), and the Commercial Regulations, and provide both civil and criminal penalties for violations of these requirements. These statutes include the Motor Carrier Safety Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-554, 98 Stat. 2832, Oct. 30, 1984), codified at 49 U.S.C. chapter 311, subchapter III (MCSA); the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986 (Pub. L. 99-570, 100 Stat. 3207-170, Oct. 27, 1986), codified at 49 U.S.C. chapter 313; the Hazardous Materials Transportation Uniform Safety Act of 1990, as amended (Pub. L. 101-615, 104 Stat. 3244, Nov. 16, 1990), codified at 49 U.S.C. chapter 51; and the ICCTA of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-88, 109 Stat. 803, Dec. 29, 1995), codified at 49 U.S.C. chapters 131-149.
The Motor Carrier Safety Improvement Act of 1999 (MCSIA) (Pub. L. 106-159, 113 Stat. 1748, Dec. 9, 1999) established FMCSA as a new operating administration within DOT, effective January 1, 2000. The motor carrier safety responsibilities previously assigned to both ICC and FHWA are now assigned to FMCSA.
Congress expanded, modified, and amended FMCSA's authority in the Uniting and Strengthening America by Providing Appropriate Tools Required to Intercept and Obstruct Terrorism (USA PATRIOT) Act of 2001 (Pub. L. 107-56, 115 Stat. 272, Oct. 26, 2001), SAFETEA-LU (Pub. L. 109-59, 119 Stat. 1144, Aug. 10, 2005), the SAFETEA-LU Technical Corrections Act of 2008 (Pub. L. 110-244, 122 Stat. 1572, June 6, 2008), and the Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act (MAP-21) (Pub. L. 112-141, 126 Stat. 405, July 6, 2012).
The specific regulations amended by this rule are based on the statutes detailed above. Generally, the legal authority for each of those provisions was explained when the requirement was originally adopted and is noted at the beginning of each part in title 49 of the CFR. Title 49 CFR subtitle B, chapter III, contains all of the FMCSRs.
The Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 551-706) specifically provides exceptions to its notice and public comment rulemaking procedures where the Agency finds there is good cause (and incorporates the finding and a brief statement of reasons therefore in the rules issued) to dispense with them. Generally, good cause exists where the Agency determines that notice and public procedures are impractical,
The APA also allows agencies to make rules effective upon publication with good cause (5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3)), instead of requiring publication 30 days prior to the effective date. For the reasons already stated, FMCSA finds there is good cause for this rule to be effective on the date of publication in the
FMCSA is aware of the regulatory reform requirements imposed by section 5202 of the Fixing America's Surface Transportation Act (FAST Act) (Pub. L. 114-94, 129 Stat. 1312, at 1534, Dec. 4, 2015) concerning public participation in FMCSA rulemaking (49 U.S.C. 31136(g)). These requirements pertain to certain major rules,
This document makes editorial changes to correct inaccurate references and citations, improve clarity, and fix errors. The reasons for each of these minor revisions are set out below, in a section-by-section description of the changes. These amendments do not impose any new requirements.
This set of amendments removes all remaining instances of the term “common” and “contract” as required by the ICCTA and SAFETEA-LU. Many instances of these terms were removed in the FMCSA Unified Registration System (URS) final rules published in 2013, 2015, and 2016,
FMCSA is adding “for-hire, non-exempt” to many rules to ensure motor carriers know the rules are only applicable to for-hire, non-exempt motor carriers, similar to the amendments being made in the URS final rules.
Use of the term “non-exempt” in these sections and other technical amendments related to the use of the terms “common” and “contract” below is to ensure motor carriers exempted by Congress from jurisdiction under 49 U.S.C. subtitle IV, part B, and specifically sec. 13506, do not feel compelled to comply with the amended rule text. FMCSA has discovered over the years that many for-hire, exempt
For-hire motor carriers transporting commodities, or agreeing to transport brokered loads of commodities, that are listed by statutes, FMCSA regulations, and FMCSA administrative rulings, as exempt from 49 U.S.C. subtitle IV, part B, are not subject to non-safety related rules administered by FMCSA. Such for-hire, exempt motor carriers thus are not required to comply with the following rules that are authorized under 49 U.S.C. subtitle IV, part B:
• Annual economic reporting requirements in part 369;
• Receipts and bills of lading in part 373;
• Loss and damage claim requirements in part 370;
• Property broker requirements in part 371;
• Passenger carrier regulations in part 374;
• Household goods transportation regulations in part 375;
• Lease and interchange of vehicle rules in part 376;
• Payment of transportation charge rules in part 377;
• Overcharge, duplicate payment, and overcollection claims in part 378; and
• Preservation of records in part 379.
Motor carriers and shippers should be aware of the italicized text below related to contract carriage operations, “. . . A carrier providing transportation or service subject to jurisdiction under chapter 135 may enter into a contract with a shipper, . . . to provide specified services under specified rates and conditions.
The statutory reference to the waiver of “any or all rights and remedies” allows a shipper and a motor carrier to negotiate and enter into a private contract that establishes selected rights and remedies different from the general “motor carrier” rights and remedies otherwise provided under 49 U.S.C. 14101, 14706, and other statutes. The waiver provision gives the carrier and shipper the flexibility to select the rights and remedies they wish to establish by contract. They can choose to leave in place other rights and remedies to be governed by statutes and regulations applicable to “motor carriers.”“. . . New 49 U.S.C. 14101 (Providing transportation and service), taken from existing 49 U.S.C. 11101, would continue the basic common carrier obligation to provide transportation or service on reasonable request and to provide safe and adequate service, equipment, and facilities. It would expressly allow carriers to enter contracts for specific shipments (other than for residential household goods movements arranged and paid for directly by the householder) under which both parties may waive their ICA rights and remedies.”
See also
Congress enacted the [ICC Termination Act] in 1995 and merged the separate classifications of common and contract carrier into one classification termed “motor carrier,” governing any “person providing motor vehicle transportation for compensation.” 49 U.S.C. 13102(12). The ICCTA provided that
With respect to all revisions to the terms “common” and “contract,” FMCSA has attempted to simply set out the governing regulatory provisions for “motor carriers” (or for “for-hire motor carriers,” which captures the “for compensation” language in the statutory definition of “motor carrier” in 49 U.S.C. 13102(14)). This leaves a motor carrier and shipper the flexibility contemplated by the statute to choose “any or all” rights and remedies to be waived, while those not waived remain in full effect.
It should be noted that for-hire, exempt motor carriers transporting exempted (unregulated) commodities may not submit a claim to the FMCSA-mandated $75,000 financial responsibility instrument held by an authorized property broker, their sureties, or their trust fund managers for payments owed to the exempted motor carrier, based on the authorized property broker's failure to carry out its contracts, agreements, or arrangements for the supplying of exempt (unregulated) commodity transportation by exempt motor carriers. An exempt motor carrier is not authorized by FMCSA to operate under 49 U.S.C. subtitle IV, part B, and thus does not have legitimate access to the FMCSA-authorized property broker's $75,000 financial responsibility instrument. The $75,000 financial instrument is only applicable when the FMCSA-authorized property broker fails to carry out its contracts, agreements, or arrangements for the supplying of authorized (regulated) commodity transportation by FMCSA-authorized motor carriers.
This section-by-section analysis describes the technical amendment provisions and corrections in numerical order.
FMCSA replaces a phrase that includes the terms common and contract with a phrase that no longer uses those two terms. Currently, the applicability section references the appendix's requirements that each State shall review its laws and regulations to achieve compatibility with the FMCSRs. Each State's “. . . requirements must apply to all segments of the motor carrier industry common, contract, and private carriers of property and for-hire carriers of passengers.” FMCSA replaces the phrase “motor carrier industry common, contract,” with the phrase “motor carrier industry, for-hire.”
Four sections are being removed from part 356 as a result of FMCSA's review of “common” and “contract” amendments. The ICCTA eliminated the need for for-hire motor carriers of property to apply to a Federal agency and be granted authority to drive on particular, specified, and declared highway routes. In considering how to change the term “common” to something else in §§ 356.7 to 356.13, FMCSA determined that each of these four sections is no longer applicable to anyone as each section only applied to property carriers that no longer need route authority. Therefore, FMCSA removes all four rule sections with the headings “
FMCSA is updating the universal resource locators (URL) for Form OP-1 to accurately reflect where to obtain the forms. Since December 2015, new applicants must apply for a USDOT number and, if applicable, operating authority, by electronically filing Form MCSA-1, the URS online application. Registrants, who had operating authority before December 2015, may still use Form OP-1 to update their registration information, but the Agency did not update the URLs where the forms may be obtained.
FMCSA updates this section to replace an outdated phone number and add an additional way to contact FMCSA for help. FMCSA no longer uses the 202 area code phone number listed in this section. FMCSA has replaced the 202 number with a toll-free telephone number and has added an online web form in which the public may contact FMCSA for further assistance in developing their evidence for filing a protest.
FMCSA amends this section to add two additional ways for current registrants to contact FMCSA to change the name or business form of a registered motor carrier, freight forwarder, or property broker. For such registrants to make such changes, FMCSA has developed a two-page form MCSA-5889, “Motor Carrier Records Change Form,” Office of Management and Budget (OMB) No. 2126-0060, approved by OMB for use through July 31, 2018. FMCSA continues to allow the letter to be mailed, with the five required pieces of information in redesignated § 365.413(c)(1) through (5). But FMCSA now adds to the list of options the opportunity for form MCSA-5889 to be faxed to FMCSA at the number given, or scanned and submitted via the web form at
FMCSA makes several amendments related to the terms “common” and “contract” to part 369 applicable to annual reports of for-hire motor carriers. FMCSA modifies each paragraph (a) in §§ 369.1, 369.2, and 369.3 to replace the phrase “common and contract” with the phrase “for-hire, non-exempt motor” to comport with the elimination of the terms “common” and “contract” in the ICCTA.
The Agency makes one amendment related to the term “common” to Part 370 applicable to disposition of claims. Paragraph (b) is amended to replace “common carrier by motor vehicle of household goods as defined in § 375.103 of this chapter” with “household goods motor carrier as defined in § 375.103 of this subchapter” for use when settling a claim for loss or damage to household goods or an individual shipper's property. This paragraph will continue to use the current defined term “household goods motor carrier” in § 375.103 that comes from the Household Goods Mover Oversight Enforcement and Reform Act of 2005 (August 10, 2005), and any person considered to be a household goods
FMCSA adds two new applicability sections to ensure the public understands that parts 373 and 374 are limited to for-hire motor carriers subject to jurisdiction under 49 U.S.C. subtitle IV, part B.
The Agency makes two amendments related to the term “common” applicable to motor carrier bills of lading. FMCSA revises the heading to add “for-hire, non-exempt” and is amending the undesignated introductory sentence to remove the term “common” for the same reasons as discussed above.
FMCSA makes three amendments related to the term “common” applicable to expense bills issued by for-hire motor carriers of property and charter service expense bills issued by for-hire motor carriers performing “charter transportation of passengers” as defined in § 390.5. FMCSA is also revising the heading of this section to add “for-hire, non-exempt” and is amending paragraphs (a) and (b) to remove the term “common” for the same reasons as discussed above.
The Agency makes several amendments to part 374 entitled Passenger Carrier Regulations. As discussed above, FMCSA adds a new § 374.1 Applicability section to ensure the public understands that part 374 is limited to for-hire motor carriers subject to jurisdiction in the ICCTA. Second, throughout part 374, FMCSA removes all references to “common” in headers and rule text in §§ 374.101, 374.103, 374.105, 374.107, 374.109, 374.111, 374.113, 374.201, 374.301, 374.303, 374.401, 374.403, and 374.405.
Also, ICC never assigned a paragraph (b) to § 374.401, previously designated as 49 CFR 1064.1, when it was made final on November 16, 1979 (44 FR 65987) or in any amendments after 1979. With no paragraph (b), the section reads better and will be less confusing if paragraph (a) becomes an undesignated introductory phrase and paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (3) are renamed as paragraphs (a), (b), and (c).
Additionally, at the end of § 374.401, FMCSA removes the outdated authority citation “(49 U.S.C. 10321, 5 U.S.C. 553),” as it is a remnant of the pre-ICCTA statutes. Section 374.401's authority derives from the general authority cited for most of part 374—49 U.S.C. 13301 and 14101; and 49 CFR 1.87.
Finally, the Agency amends four authority citations for incidental charter rights under subpart E to part 374 that are also outdated to show only ICCTA statutes—49 U.S.C. 13301, 13501, 13506, and their delegation under 49 CFR 1.87. In the first sentence in § 374.501, the outdated reference to “[49 U.S.C. 10932(c)]” is removed. The citation to 49 U.S.C. 13506 is correct and will remain in § 374.501.
FMCSA makes several amendments related to the terms “common” and “contract” to part 376 applicable to the lease and interchange of property-carrying motor vehicles by for-hire motor carriers. In various places throughout part 376 that reference the term “motor common carrier” or “authorized common carrier” in the rule text, FMCSA removes all applicable references to “common.” The references to “common ownership” in part 376 have been retained as that concept is unaffected by this final rule.
In § 376.1, FMCSA adds the clarifying phrase “. . . under 49 U.S.C. subtitle IV, part B:” to the introductory phrase in paragraph (a) to ensure the public understands these rules apply only to for-hire motor carriers subject to the ICCTA. In § 376.2, the term “motor common carrier” is amended to read as “motor carrier.”
In the first four instances of the term “common” in § 376.31, FMCSA replaces “common” with the term “motor.”
In the applicability paragraph of § 377.101, FMCSA removes the term “common”; spells out cash-on-delivery for the acronym (c.o.d.); and reorganizes the paragraph to better show the two exceptions to the applicability of part 377.
In §§ 377.103 and 377.105, the Agency replaces the term “common” with the term “motor” in each section.
FMCSA makes several amendments related to the terms “common” and “contract” in subpart B of part 377 applicable to the extension of credit to shippers by for-hire motor carriers and freight forwarders. The Agency revises the heading for subpart B of part 377. The current title includes the term “common” and the phrase “Water Common Carriers.” The Agency adds the phrase “for-hire, non-exempt” before the phrase “motor carrier” in the subpart B heading as well as in § 377.201(a) to ensure exempt for-hire carriers understand the subpart does not apply to their extensions of credit to shippers. As FMCSA has never been delegated responsibility for regulating water carriers, the phrase “Water Common Carriers” is eliminated from the heading for subpart B as well.
Also in § 377.201, FMCSA removes the exception for “Contract carrier operations” in paragraph (b)(1) and redesignates paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) as paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) for the reasons given above in the Background section. In § 377.217, the Agency replaces the term “common” with the term “motor.”
FMCSA makes two amendments related to the term “common” to part 378. In §§ 378.1 and 378.2, the Agency removes the term “common” in each of the two places it appears.
FMCSA makes two amendments related to the terms “common” and “contract” that are applicable to drivers that may need a CDL to drive a commercial motor vehicle (CMV) in the United States and whether that CDL driver is subject to controlled substances and alcohol testing. In § 382.103, FMCSA revises paragraph (d)(3)(i)(C) which discusses that an operator of a farm vehicle cannot be a common or contract motor carrier. The Agency replaces the phrase “common or contract motor carrier” with the phrase “for-hire motor carrier, except for an exempt motor carrier as defined in § 390.5 of this subchapter.” Similarly, an exception for operators needing a CDL to drive a farm vehicle excludes operations by a common or contract motor carrier. It is found in § 383.3(d)(3)(i)(C). In this paragraph, the Agency is also replacing the phrase “common or contract motor carrier” with the phrase “for-hire motor carrier, except for an exempt motor carrier as defined in § 390.5 of this subchapter.”
These two changes will ensure that farmers, who also may operate as an exempt motor carrier, know that their farm vehicles might be excepted from
This amendment relates to the lowered minimum annual percentage rate for random controlled substances testing made effective for all testing in 2016 and later. FMCSA amends § 382.305(b)(2) to state that the minimum annual percentage rate for random controlled substances testing shall be 25 percent of the average number of driver positions, as it has been effective since January 1, 2016. On December 24, 2015 (80 FR 80446), FMCSA announced the reduction of the minimum annual percentage rate for random controlled substances testing for drivers of CMVs requiring a CDL from 50 percent of the average number of driver positions to 25 percent of the average number of driver positions, effective in calendar year 2016. The FMCSA Administrator has the discretion to decrease the minimum annual random testing percentage rate based on the reported positive random test rate for the entire motor carrier industry. Based on the controlled substances random test data in FMCSA's Management Information System (MIS) for calendar years 2011, 2012, and 2013, the positive rate for controlled substances random testing fell below the 1.0 percent threshold for 3 consecutive calendar years. As a result, the Agency lowered the controlled substances minimum annual percentage rate for random controlled substances testing to 25 percent of the average number of driver positions.
The current definition of a school bus in § 383.5 does not include a bus used as a common carrier. In part 383, the term “school bus” is used only in the requirements under § 383.123 for a CDL driver to get a license endorsement after successfully passing knowledge and skills tests. FMCSA is replacing “common” with the phrase “for-hire motor”.
FMCSA removes the erroneous second iteration of the word “had” in § 383.77(a)(5), making the sentence read, in part, as follows: “Has not had any conviction for a violation . . .”
In §§ 383.131 and 383.133, FMCSA adds “or newer” after “July 2010” to allow each State to use newer manual editions to comply with the requirements. Each State must provide every CLP or CDL applicant an FMCSA pre-approved driver information manual as required by § 383.131. The manual must be comparable to the American Association of Motor Vehicle Administrators' (AAMVA's) “2005 CDL Test System Model Commercial Driver Manual,” July 2010 or a newer version. FMCSA provides the manual as a reference for States, but does not require any specific manual published after July 2010, nor does it incorporate any manual by reference into the regulations.
FMCSA amends § 384.401 to lower the withholding percentages of Federal-aid highway funds. Sec. 1404(j) of MAP-21 amended 49 U.S.C. 31314(c) changing the withholding percentages of Federal-aid highway funds based on State noncompliance with the CDL program. Federal-aid highway funds are apportioned to States under various sections of title 23 U.S.C. Amended sec. 1404(j) makes it necessary to revise the withholding provisions in § 384.401 to comply with amended 49 U.S.C. 31314(c). Specifically, MAP-21 changed the amount of Federal-aid highway funds to be withheld for noncompliance in paragraph (a) from 5 percent to 4 percent, and reduced the amount of such funds to be withheld for repeated noncompliance in paragraph (b) from 10 percent to 8 percent.
FMCSA removes § 384.407 because SAFETEA-LU did not renew the emergency CDL grant program in 49 U.S.C. 31107. Therefore, this section is no longer necessary.
FMCSA revises the universal resource locators (URL) to accurately reflect where to obtain the forms for new entrant motor carriers. Since December 2015, new applicants must apply for a USDOT number and if applicable, operating authority, by electronically filing Form MCSA-1, the URS online application. Registrants who had registered and been issued a USDOT number before December 2015 may still use form MCS-150 and if applicable, Form OP-1, to update their registration information.
Similar to changes made earlier in this document for § 365.105, FMCSA is modifying how new entrant motor carriers may contact the Agency for application materials. In § 385.303, the Agency is changing a 703 area code fax number to a 202 area code fax number and is adding the option that new entrant motor carriers may locate application materials online at one of two Web pages, the precise location determined by whether they received a USDOT number before or after December 12, 2015.
The Agency corrects an error made in 2005 to address an inadvertent change to a provision of appendix B to 49 CFR part 385. In the 1997 Safety Fitness Procedure; Safety Ratings final rule (62 FR 60035 at 60043 (Nov. 6, 1997)), paragraph (c) of the introductory text in app. B to part 385 read as follows: “To meet the safety fitness standard, a motor carrier must demonstrate to the FHWA that it has adequate safety management controls in place which function effectively to ensure acceptable compliance with the applicable safety requirements. A “safety fitness methodology” (SFRM) was developed by the FHWA, which uses data from compliance reviews (CRs) and roadside inspections to rate motor carriers.”
In the same final rule, section II.(c), read as follows: “Critical regulations are those identified as such where noncompliance relates to management and/or operational controls. These are indicative of breakdowns in a carrier's management controls. An example of a critical regulation is § 395.3(a)(1), requiring or permitting a driver to drive more than 10 hours.”
The reference to “FHWA” in paragraph (c) of the introductory text was changed to “FMCSA” in Miscellaneous Technical Amendments on Oct. 1, 2001 (66 FR 49867, at 49872) due to the establishment of the FMCSA by the Motor Carrier Safety Improvement Act of 1999.
In the 2003 Hours of Service for Drivers final rule (68 FR 22456 at 22513 (Apr. 28, 2003)), section II.(c) was amended by FMCSA—the only change was to modify the time period at the end to “11 hours” from “10 hours” reflecting the amended provisions of § 395.3(a)(1). No change was directed to be made in paragraph (c) of the introductory text. This change in
In the 2005 Hours of Service for Drivers final rule (70 FR 49978 at 50070 (Aug. 25, 2005)), FMCSA again directed that section II.(c) be revised to refer to “11 hours” even though that change had already been published in the CFR. But no change was directed to be made in paragraph (c) of the introductory text. Nonetheless, in the 2005 compilation of the CFR, the revised text of section II.(c) was published in two places: (1) in place of the text in paragraph (c) of the introductory text, which the Agency did not intend to change; and (2) in section II.(c), which was the only place that the final rule directed that a change be made. See 49 CFR part 385, app. B (10/01/2005 ed.),
This amendment corrects the error in the CFR and does not impose any new requirements; it just restores the proper paragraph (c) of the introductory text to read as set out in the regulatory text at the end of this document.
FMCSA is also republishing section II.(c) as it was correctly published in the 2004 and 2005 CFRs to give context.
Four amendments are being made to the 2015 Electronic Logging Devices and Hours of Service Supporting Documents (ELD) final rule, December 16, 2015 (80 FR 78292, at 78381) below. The amendments are to two critical regulations in part 385, appendix B, the filing of various complaints under § 386.1, and adding an additional qualifying phrase to § 395.8(a)(1)(iii)(A)(
While reviewing the list of acute and critical regulations, found in appendix B of part 385, FMCSA discovered that the terminology used to identify two of the critical violations is confusing. In these provisions, the critical violations occur when a motor carrier fails to ensure that drivers (or third parties) submit records of duty status (or supporting documents); while there is still a violation if those documents are submitted late, late submissions are not typically critical violations that could affect the motor carrier's safety rating. It is only when the motor carrier fails completely to require drivers to submit the documents that such an effect could occur. Thus, the two provisions described above that are identified as critical regulations in section VII. List of Acute and Critical Regulations in appendix B, are being revised to remove the words “in a timely manner,” as set out below:
In the same 2015 ELD rule, FMCSA changed § 386.1,
FMCSA removes § 391.42. The requirement that all medical examinations performed “on or after May 21, 2014 . . . must be conducted by a medical examiner” listed on the National Registry is not necessary as it duplicates the requirements in § 391.43.
FMCSA makes several amendments to a driver's medical exam, the form used to record the results of the exam, and the certificate issued upon completion of the exam. FMCSA amends § 391.43(a) to remove the reference to § 391.42, which is being deleted as discussed above.
The Agency also amends paragraph (f), first by removing paragraph (f)(1) because the use of the previous form authorized by that paragraph is no longer permitted. Second, the remaining text (from paragraph (f)(2) which went into effect on December 22, 2015) is revised to remove the effective date. Third, the latest approved version of Medical Examination Report (MER) Form, MCSA-5875 replaces the previous version.
Similar changes are made in paragraph (h) of § 391.43. First, FMCSA removes paragraph (h)(1) because the use of the previous form authorized by that paragraph is no longer permitted. Second, the Agency revises the remaining text (from paragraph (h)(2) which went into effect on December 22, 2015) to remove the effective date. Third, the Agency updates the version of Medical Examiner's Certificate (MEC) Form, MCSA-5876. Both the MER and MEC forms have been approved by OMB for use through August 31, 2018, under OMB number 2126-0006.
FMCSA revises the heading for paragraph (a) in § 392.9b, as well as the text within paragraph (a) to replace the term “USDOT Registration” with “safety registration.” This change should have been made as part of the Unified Registration System rule that was published on August 23, 2013 (78 FR 52608), and it should have gone into effect along with other changes to this section on November 1, 2013. FMCSA revises the term to conform to the terminology that is currently in place within the Unified Registration System, where there is no “USDOT Registration.” Rather, there are USDOT numbers, operating authority registration, and safety registration. As a result, this change should have no impact on the type of registrations that a motor carrier could receive from FMCSA.
FMCSA revises § 395.1(e)(1) to restore the supporting documents exception for 100 air-mile radius drivers inadvertently
Since publication of the ELD rule in December 2015, FMCSA has received a significant number of questions asking how a motor carrier can determine whether a commercial motor vehicle was manufactured before model year 2000, thus allowing its driver to use paper records of duty status instead of the ELD required in most other cases. FMCSA amends § 395.8 to include an additional qualifying phrase to paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(A)(
FMCSA provides routing agencies with an alternative email address for reporting changes to their HM route registries. Each State and Indian tribe, through its routing agency, must provide information to FMCSA under § 397.73 identifying all non-radioactive hazardous material (NRHM) routing designations that exist within its jurisdiction. A similar requirement in § 397.103 requires reporting of preferred routes for highway route controlled shipments of radioactive materials. FMCSA is adding an optional, electronic way to send FMCSA the required information in both sections. Currently the regulation restricts transmittal to an address using certified mail, return receipt requested.
Currently, § 397.101 requires each carrier that accepts for transportation a highway route controlled quantity of hazardous material, as defined in 49 CFR 173.403, to file certain information with FMCSA after accepting the package for transportation. FMCSA no longer uses this information, and therefore removes paragraph (g) from § 397.101.
FMCSA amends the definition of a migrant worker motor carrier to be consistent with the ICCTA's elimination of the terms “contract” and “common” in the phrases “contract carrier by motor vehicle” and “common carrier by motor vehicle.” FMCSA revises the definition to read as set out in the regulatory text at the end of this document.
FMCSA has determined that this action is not a significant regulatory action within the meaning of Executive Order 12866, as supplemented by Executive Order 13563 (76 FR 3821, Jan. 18, 2011), or within the meaning of the DOT regulatory policies and procedures (44 FR 1103, Feb. 26, 1979). Thus, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) did not review this document. We expect the final rule will have no costs; therefore, a full regulatory evaluation is unnecessary.
Pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) of 1980 (5 U.S.C. 601
The final rule will not impose an unfunded Federal mandate, as defined by the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1532,
A final rule has implications for Federalism under section 1(a) of Executive Order 13132 if it has “substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among various levels of government.” FMCSA has determined that this rule will not have substantial direct effects on States, nor will it limit the policymaking discretion of States. Nothing in this document preempts or modifies any provision of State law or regulation, imposes substantial direct unreimbursed compliance costs on any State, or diminishes the power of any State to enforce its own laws. Accordingly, this rulemaking does not have Federalism implications warranting the application of E.O. 13132.
The regulations implementing E.O. 12372 regarding intergovernmental consultation on Federal programs and activities do not apply to this rule.
This final rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175 titled, “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments,” because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
FMCSA analyzed this final rule for the purpose of ascertaining the applicability of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
FMCSA also analyzed this rule under the Clean Air Act, as amended (CAA), section 176(c) (42 U.S.C. 42 U.S.C. 7506(c)), and implementing regulations promulgated by the Environmental Protection Agency. Approval of this action is exempt from the CAA's general conformity requirement since it does not affect direct or indirect emissions of criteria pollutants.
This final rule is not subject to Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, Feb. 16, 1994). Executive Order 12898 establishes Federal executive policy on environmental justice. Its main provision directs Federal agencies to make environmental justice part of their mission by identifying and addressing, as appropriate, disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects of their programs, policies, and activities on minority populations and low-income populations in the United States. FMCSA determined that this rule will not have disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority or low-income populations because it does not change the substance of any of the FMCSRs.
FMCSA has analyzed this final rule under Executive Order 13211 titled, “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use.” The Agency has determined that it is not a “significant energy action” under that Executive Order because it is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866 and is not likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy. Therefore, no Statement of Energy Effects is required.
Executive Order 13045 titled, “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, Apr. 23, 1997), requires agencies issuing “economically significant” rules, if the regulation also concerns an environmental health or safety risk that an agency has reason to believe may disproportionately affect children, to include an evaluation of the regulation's environmental health and safety effects on children. As discussed previously, this rule is not economically significant. Therefore, no analysis of the impacts on children is required. Nevertheless, as this final rule does not change the substance of any of the FMCSRs, FMCSA does not believe it will have any environmental health or safety impacts on children.
This action meets applicable standards in sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of E.O. 12988 titled, “Civil Justice Reform,” to minimize litigation, eliminate ambiguity, and reduce burden.
This final rule will not effect a taking of private property or otherwise have taking implications under E.O. 12630 titled, “Governmental Actions and Interference with Constitutionally Protected Property Rights.”
The National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (15 U.S.C. 272 note) requires Federal agencies proposing to adopt technical standards to consider whether voluntary consensus standards are available. If the Agency chooses to adopt its own standards in place of existing voluntary consensus standards, it must explain its decision in a separate statement to OMB. Because this final rule does not adopt technical standards, there is no need to submit a separate statement to OMB on this matter.
Section 522(a)(5) of the Transportation, Treasury, Independent Agencies, and General Government Appropriations Act, 2005 (Pub. L. 108- 447, Division H, Title I, 118 Stat. 2809 at 3268, Dec. 8, 2004) requires DOT and certain other Federal agencies to conduct a privacy impact assessment of each rule that will affect the privacy of individuals. Because this final rule will not affect the privacy of individuals, FMCSA did not conduct a separate privacy impact assessment.
Highway safety, Intergovernmental relations, Motor carriers, Motor vehicle safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Freight forwarders, Highways and roads, Motor carriers.
Administrative practice and procedure, Brokers, Buses, Freight forwarders, Maritime carriers, Mexico, Motor carriers, Moving of household goods.
Motor carriers, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Freight forwarders, Investigations, Motor carriers.
Buses, Freight, Freight forwarders, Motor carriers, Moving of household goods.
Aged, Blind, Buses, Civil rights, Freight, Individuals with disabilities, Motor carriers, Smoking.
Motor carriers, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Credit, Freight forwarders, Maritime carriers, Motor carriers, Moving of household goods.
Freight forwarders, Investigations, Motor carriers, Motor of household goods.
Administrative practice and procedure, Alcohol abuse, Drug abuse, Drug testing, Highway safety, Motor carriers, Penalties, Safety, Transportation.
Administrative practice and procedure, Alcohol abuse, Drug abuse, Highway safety, Motor carriers.
Administrative practice and procedure, Alcohol abuse, Drug abuse, Highway safety, Motor carriers.
Administrative practice and procedure, Highway safety, Mexico, Motor carriers, Motor vehicle safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Brokers, Freight forwarders, Hazardous materials transportation, Highway safety, Motor carriers, Motor vehicle safety, Penalties.
Highway safety, Intermodal transportation, Motor carriers, Motor vehicle safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Alcohol abuse, Drug abuse, Drug testing, Highway safety, Motor carriers, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Safety, Transportation.
Alcohol abuse, Drug abuse, Highway safety, Motor carriers.
Highway safety, Motor carriers, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Hazardous materials transportation, Highway safety, Intergovernmental relations, Motor carriers, Parking, Radioactive materials, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Rubber and rubber products.
Highway safety, Migrant labor, Motor carriers, Motor vehicle safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
In consideration of the foregoing, FMCSA is amending 49 CFR chapter III, subchapter B, parts 355, 356, 365, 369, 370, 373, 374, 376, 377, 378, 382, 383, 384, 385, 386, 390, 391, 392, 395, 397, and 398, as set forth below:
49 U.S.C. 504 and 31101
The requirements must apply to all segments of the motor carrier industry, for-hire and private carriers of property and for-hire carriers of passengers.
5 U.S.C. 553; 49 U.S.C. 13301 and 13902; and 49 CFR 1.87.
5 U.S.C. 553 and 559; 49 U.S.C. 13101, 13301, 13901-13906, 14708, 31138, and 31144; sec. 5524 of Pub. L. 114-94, 129 Stat. 1312, 1560; and 49 CFR 1.87.
(b) Obtain forms at a FMCSA Division Office in each State or at one of the FMCSA Service Centers. Addresses and phone numbers for the Division Offices and Service Centers can be found at:
(d) Protests must respond directly to the statutory standards for FMCSA review of the application. As these standards vary for particular types of applications, potential protestants should refer to the general criteria addressed at § 365.107 and may consult the FMCSA at 800-832-5660 or via the web form at
(b)
(1) Scanned and submitted via the web form at
(2) Faxed to (202-366-3477); or
(3) Mailed to the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, Office of Registration and Safety Information (MC-RS), 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE., Washington, DC 20590-0001. The envelope should be marked “NAME CHANGE”.
(c) The registrant must provide:
(1) The docket number(s) and name of the carrier, freight forwarder, or property broker requesting the change;
(2) A copy of the articles of incorporation and the State certificate reflecting the incorporation;
(3) The name(s) of the owner(s) of the stock and the distribution of the shares;
(4) The names of the officers and directors of the corporation; and
(5) A statement that there is no change in the ownership, management, or control of the business. When this procedure is being used to transfer operating rights from a deceased or incapacitated spouse to the other spouse, documentation that the other spouse has the legal right to effect such change must be included with the request. The fee for filing a name change request is in § 360.3(f) of this chapter.
49 U.S.C. 14123; 49 CFR 1.87.
(a)
(a) For-hire, non-exempt motor carriers of property are grouped into the following three classes:
(a) For-hire, non-exempt motor carriers of passengers are grouped into the following two classes:
49 U.S.C. 13301 and 14706; and 49 CFR 1.87.
(b) When settling a claim for loss or damage, a household goods motor carrier as defined in § 375.103 of this subchapter shall use the replacement costs of the lost or damaged item as a base to apply a depreciation factor to arrive at the current actual value of the lost or damaged item.
49 U.S.C. 13301, 13531, and 14706; and 49 CFR 1.87.
This subpart applies to motor carriers subject to 49 U.S.C. subtitle IV, part B (secs. 13101-14916).
Every motor carrier subject to § 373.100 shall issue a receipt or bill of lading for property tendered for transportation in interstate or foreign commerce containing the following information:
(a)
(b)
49 U.S.C. 13301 and 14101; and 49 CFR 1.87.
This part applies to motor carriers subject to 49 U.S.C. subtitle IV, part B (secs. 13101-14916).
Motor carriers of passengers and baggage subject to 49 U.S.C. 13501 may not publish tariff provisions limiting their liability for loss or damage to baggage checked by a passenger transported in regular route or special operations unless:
(a) The amount for which liability is limited is $250 or greater per adult fare; and
(b) The provisions permit the passenger, for an additional charge, to declare a value in excess of the limited amount, and allow the passenger to recover the increased amount (but not higher than the actual value) in event of loss or damage. The carriers may publish a maximum value for which they will be liable, but that maximum value may not be less than $1,000. Appropriate identification must be attached securely by the passenger to each item of baggage checked, indicating in a clear and legible manner the name and address to which the baggage should be forwarded if lost and subsequently recovered. Identification tags shall be made immediately available by the carriers to passengers upon request.
(c) Carriers need not offer excess value coverage on articles listed in § 374.307(c)(3).
49 U.S.C. 13301, 13501, 13506; and 49 CFR 1.87.
49 U.S.C. 13301 and 14102; and 49 CFR 1.87.
The regulations in this part apply to the following actions by motor carriers registered with the Secretary to transport property under 49 U.S.C. subtitle IV, part B:
(c) The interchange of equipment between for-hire motor carriers in the performance of transportation regulated by the Secretary.
The revisions read as follows:
Authorized for-hire motor carriers may interchange equipment under the following conditions:
(d)
(1) The authorized for-hire motor carrier shall identify power units in accordance with FMCSA's requirements in 49 CFR part 390 (Identification of Vehicles). * * *
(2) Unless a copy of the interchange agreement is carried on the equipment, the authorized for-hire motor carrier shall carry a statement with each vehicle during interchange service certifying that it is operating the equipment. * * *
49 U.S.C. 13101, 13301, 13701, 13702, 13706, 13707, and 14101; and 49 CFR 1.87.
(a)
(b)
(2) The rules in this part do not apply to transportation which is performed for freight forwarders and on freight forwarder bills of lading.
(a)
(b)
(1) Transportation for—
(i) The United States or any department, bureau, or agency thereof;
(ii) Any State or political subdivision thereof; or
(iii) The District of Columbia.
(2) Property transportation incidental to passenger operations.
49 U.S.C. 13321, 14101, 14704 and 14705; and 49 CFR 1.87.
49 U.S.C. 31133, 31136, 31301
(d) * * *
(3) * * *
(i) * * *
(C) Not used in the operations of a for-hire motor carrier, except for an exempt motor carrier as defined in § 390.5 of this subchapter;
49 U.S.C. 521, 31136, 31301
(d) * * *
(1) * * *
(iii) Not used in the operations of a for-hire motor carrier, except for an exempt motor carrier as defined in § 390.5 of this subchapter;
(a) * * *
(5) Has not had any conviction for a violation of military, State or local law relating to motor vehicle traffic control (other than a parking violation) arising in connection with any traffic accident, and has no record of an accident in which he/she was at fault; and
49 U.S.C. 31136, 31301,
(a)
(b)
49 U.S.C. 113, 504, 521(b), 5105(d), 5109, 13901-13905, 31133, 31135, 31136, 31137, 31144, 31148, and 31502; Sec. 113(a), Pub. L. 103-311; Sec. 408, Pub. L. 104-88, 109 Stat. 803, 958; Sec. 350, Pub. L. 107-87; and 49 CFR 1.87.
A motor carrier may contact the FMCSA by internet (
The revisions read as follows:
(c) To meet the safety fitness standard, a motor carrier must demonstrate to the FMCSA that it has adequate safety management controls in place which function effectively to ensure acceptable compliance with the applicable safety requirements. A “safety fitness methodology” (SFRM) was developed by the FMCSA, which uses data from compliance reviews (CRs) and roadside inspections to rate motor carriers.
(c) Critical regulations are those identified as such where noncompliance relates to management and/or operational controls. These are indicative of breakdowns in a carrier's management controls. An example of a critical regulation is § 395.3(a)(1), requiring or permitting a property-carrying commercial motor vehicle driver to drive more than 11 hours.
49 U.S.C. 113; 49 U.S.C. chapters 5, 51, 59, 131-141, 145-149, 311, 313, and 315; Sec. 204, Pub. L. 104-88, 109 Stat. 803, 941 (49 U.S.C. 701 note); Sec. 217, Pub. L. 105-159, 113 Stat. 1748, 1767; Sec. 206, Pub. L. 106-159, 113 Stat. 1763; subtitle B, title IV of Pub. L. 109-59; Sec. 701 of Pub. L. 114-74, 129 Stat. 584, 599; and 49 CFR 1.81 and 1.87.
(c)(1) The rules in § 386.12(a) govern the filing of a complaint of a substantial violation and the handling of the complaint by the appropriate Division Administrator.
(2) The rules in § 386.12(b) govern the filing by a driver and the handling by the appropriate Division Administrator of a complaint of harassment in violation of § 390.36 of this subchapter.
(3) The rules in § 386.12(c) govern the filing by a driver and the handling by the appropriate Division Administrator of a complaint of coercion in violation of § 390.6 of this subchapter.
49 U.S.C. 504, 508, 31132, 31133, 31134, 31136, 31137, 31144, 31149, 31151, 31502; sec. 114, Pub. L. 103-311, 108 Stat. 1673, 1677-1678; sec. 212, 217, Pub. L. 106-159, 113 Stat. 1748, 1766, 1767; sec. 229, Pub. L. 106-159 (as transferred by sec. 4114 and amended by secs. 4130-4132, Pub. L. 109-59, 119 Stat. 1144, 1726, 1743-1744); sec. 4136, Pub. L. 109-59, 119 Stat. 1144, 1745; sec. 32101(d) and 32934, Pub. L. 112-141, 126 Stat. 405, 778, 830; sec. 2, Pub. L. 113-125, 128 Stat. 1388; sec. 5518, 5524, Pub. L. 114-94, 129 Stat. 1312, 1558, 1560; and 49 CFR 1.81, 1.81a, and 1.87.
(b) * * *
(1) A driver who believes he or she was coerced to violate a regulation described in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section may file a written complaint under § 386.12(c) of this subchapter.
49 U.S.C. 504, 508, 31133, 31136, 31149, and 31502; sec. 4007(b) of Pub. L. 102-240, 105 Stat. 1914, 2152; sec. 114 of Pub. L. 103-311, 108 Stat. 1673, 1677; sec. 215 of Pub. L. 106-159, 113 Stat. 1748, 1767; sec. 32934 of Pub. L. 112-141, 126 Stat. 405, 830; sec. 5524 of Pub. L. 114-94, 129 Stat. 1312, 1560; and 49 CFR 1.87.
(a) Except as provided by paragraph (b) of this section, the medical examination must be performed by a medical examiner listed on the National Registry of Certified Medical Examiners under subpart D of part 390 of this chapter.
(f) The medical examination shall be performed, and its results shall be recorded on the Medical Examination Report Form, MCSA-5875, set out below:
(h) The medical examiner's certificate shall be completed in accordance with the following Form MCSA-5876, Medical Examiner's Certificate:
49 U.S.C. 504, 13902, 31136, 31151, 31502; Section 112 of Pub. L. 103-311, 108 Stat. 1673, 1676 (1994), as amended by sec. 32509 of Pub. L. 112-141, 126 Stat. 405, 805 (2012); sec. 5524 of Pub. L. 114-94, 129 Stat. 1312, 1560; and 49 CFR 1.87.
(a)
49 U.S.C. 504, 31133, 31136, 31137, and 31502; sec. 113, Pub. L. 103-311, 108 Stat. 1673, 1676; sec. 229, Pub. L. 106-159 (as transferred by sec. 4115 and amended by secs. 4130-4132, Pub. L. 109-59, 119 Stat. 1144, 1726, 1743, 1744); sec. 4133, Pub. L. 109-59, 119 Stat. 1144, 1744; sec. 108, Pub. L. 110-432, 122 Stat. 4860-4866; sec. 32934, Pub. L. 112-141, 126 Stat. 405, 830; sec. 5206(b) of Pub. L. 114-94, 129 Stat. 1312, 1537; and 49 CFR 1.87.
(e)
(a) * * *
(1) * * *
(iii) * * *
(A) * * *
(
49 U.S.C. 322; 49 CFR 1.87. Subpart A also issued under 49 U.S.C. 5103, 31136, 31502, and 49 CFR 1.97. Subparts C, D, and E also issued under 49 U.S.C. 5112, 5125.
(b)
(i) Electronically, by email to
(ii) Mail to the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, Office of Enforcement and Compliance (MC-EC), 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE., Washington, DC 20590-0001.
(2) States and Indian tribes shall also submit to FMCSA the current name of the State or Indian tribal agency responsible for NHRM highway routing designations. The State or Indian tribe shall include descriptions of these routing designations, along with the dates they were established. Information on any subsequent changes or new NRHM routing designations shall be furnished within 60 days after establishment to the FMCSA. This
(c) * * *
(1) The State gives written notice to the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration:
(i) By email to
(ii) By certified mail, return receipt requested, to the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, Office of Enforcement and Compliance (MC-EC), 1200 New Jersey Ave., SE., Washington, DC 20590-0001. Attention: National Hazardous Materials Route Registry.
49 U.S.C. 13301, 13902, 31132, 31133, 31136, 31502, and 31504; sec. 204, Pub. L. 104-88, 109 Stat. 803, 941 (49 U.S.C. 701 note); sec. 212, Pub. L. 106-159, 113 Stat. 1748, 1766; and 49 CFR 1.87.
(b)
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
This document revises the list of vehicles not originally manufactured to conform to the Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards (FMVSS) that NHTSA has decided to be eligible for importation. This list is published in an appendix to the agency's regulations that prescribe procedures for import eligibility decisions. The list has been revised to add all vehicles that NHTSA has decided to be eligible for importation since October 1, 2015, and to remove all previously listed vehicles that are now more than 25 years old and need no longer comply with all applicable FMVSS to be lawfully imported. NHTSA is required by statute to publish this list annually in the
Effective October 4, 2016.
George Stevens, Office of Vehicle Safety Compliance, NHTSA, (202) 366-5308.
Under 49 U.S.C. 30141(a)(1)(A), a motor vehicle that was not originally manufactured to conform to all applicable FMVSS shall be refused admission into the United States unless NHTSA has decided that the motor vehicle is substantially similar to a motor vehicle originally manufactured for importation into and sale in the United States, certified under 49 U.S.C. 30115, and of the same model year as the model of the motor vehicle to be compared, and is capable of being readily altered to conform to all applicable FMVSS. Where there is no substantially similar U.S.-certified motor vehicle, 49 U.S.C. 30141(a)(1)(B) permits a nonconforming motor vehicle to be admitted into the United States if its safety features comply with, or are capable of being altered to comply with, all applicable FMVSS based on destructive test data or such other evidence as the Secretary of Transportation decides to be adequate.
Under 49 U.S.C. 30141(a)(1), import eligibility decisions may be made “on the initiative of the Secretary of Transportation or on petition of a manufacturer or importer registered under [49 U.S.C. 30141(c)].” The Secretary's authority to make these decisions has been delegated to NHTSA. The agency publishes notices of eligibility decisions as they are made.
Under 49 U.S.C. 30141(b)(2), a list of all vehicles for which import eligibility decisions have been made must be published annually in the
Executive Order 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993), provides for making determinations about whether a regulatory action is “significant” and therefore subject to Office of Management and Budget (OMB) review and to the requirements of the Executive Order. The Executive Order defines a “significant regulatory action” as one that is likely to result in a rule that may:
(1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affects in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or Tribal governments or communities;
(2) Create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency;
(3) Materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees,
(4) Raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in the Executive Order. This rule will not have any of these effects and was not reviewed under Executive Order 12866. It is not significant within the meaning of the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures. The effect of this rule is not to impose new requirements. Instead it provides a summary compilation of decisions on import eligibility that have already been made and does not involve new decisions. This rule will not impose any additional burden on any person. Accordingly, the agency believes that the preparation of a regulatory evaluation is not warranted for this rule.
We have not conducted an evaluation of the impacts of this rule under the National Environmental Policy Act. This rule does not impose any change that would result in any impacts to the quality of the human environment. Accordingly, no environmental assessment is required.
Pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act, we have considered the impacts of this rule on small entities (5 U.S.C. Sec. 601
Executive Order 13132 requires NHTSA to develop an accountable process to ensure “meaningful and timely input by State and local officials in the development of regulatory policies that have federalism implications.” Executive Order 13132 defines the term “Policies that have federalism implications” to include regulations that have “substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.” Under Executive Order 13132, NHTSA may not issue a regulation that has federalism implications, that imposes substantial direct compliance costs, and that is not required by statute, unless the Federal government provides the funds necessary to pay the direct compliance costs incurred by State and local governments, or NHTSA consults with State and local officials early in the process of developing the regulation.
This rule will have no direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government as specified in Executive Order 13132. Thus, the requirements of section 6 of the Executive Order do not apply to this rule.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Public Law 104-4) requires agencies to prepare a written assessment of the costs, benefits and other effects of proposed or final rules that include a Federal mandate likely to result in the expenditure by State, local or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of more than $100 million annually. This rule will not result in additional expenditures by State, local or tribal governments or by any members of the private sector. Therefore, the agency has not prepared an economic assessment pursuant to the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Pursuant to Executive Order 12988, “Civil Justice Reform,” we have considered whether this rule has any retroactive effect. We conclude that it will not have such an effect.
Executive Order 12866 requires each agency to write all rules in plain language. Application of the principles of plain language includes consideration of the following questions:
Under the National Technology and Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (Public Law 104-113), “all Federal agencies and departments shall use technical standards that are developed or adopted by voluntary consensus standards bodies, using such technical standards as a means to carry out policy objectives or activities determined by the agencies and departments.” This rule does not require the use of any technical standards.
Anyone is able to search the electronic form of all comments received into any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the comment, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.). You may review DOT's complete Privacy Act Statement in the
This rule is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it is not “economically significant” as defined under Executive Order 12866, and does not concern an environmental, health, or safety risk that NHTSA has reason to believe may have a disproportionate effect on children.
NHTSA finds that prior notice and opportunity for comment are unnecessary under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3)(B) because this action does not impose any regulatory requirements. This rule
In addition, so that the list of vehicles for which import eligibility decisions have been made may be included in the next edition of 49 CFR parts 572 to 999, which is due for revision on October 1, 2016, good cause exists to dispense with the requirement in 5 U.S.C. 553(d) for the effective date of the rule to be delayed for at least 30 days following its publication.
Imports, Motor vehicle safety, Motor vehicles.
In consideration of the foregoing, part 593 of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
49 U.S.C. 322 and 30141(b); delegation of authority at 49 CFR 1.95.
(a) Each vehicle on the following list is followed by a vehicle eligibility number. The importer of a vehicle admissible under any eligibility decision must enter that number on the HS-7 Declaration Form accompanying entry to indicate that the vehicle is eligible for importation.
(1) “VSA” eligibility numbers are assigned to all vehicles that are decided to be eligible for importation on the initiative of the Administrator under Sec. 593.8.
(2) “VSP” eligibility numbers are assigned to vehicles that are decided to be eligible under Sec. 593.7(f), based on a petition from a manufacturer or registered importer submitted under Sec. 593.5(a)(1), which establishes that a substantially similar U.S.-certified vehicle exists.
(3) “VCP” eligibility numbers are assigned to vehicles that are decided to be eligible under Sec. 593.7(f), based on a petition from a manufacturer or registered importer submitted under Sec. 593.5(a)(2), which establishes that the vehicle has safety features that comply with, or are capable of being altered to comply with, all applicable FMVSS.
(b) Vehicles for which eligibility decisions have been made are listed alphabetically, first by make, then by model, then by model year.
(c) All hyphens used in the Model Year column mean “through” (for example, “1995-1999” means “1995 through 1999”).
(d) The initials “MC” used in the Make column mean “Motorcycle.”
(e) The initials “SWB” used in the Model Type column mean “Short Wheel Base.”
(f) The initials “LWB” used in the Model Type column mean “Long Wheel Base.”
(g) For vehicles with a European country of origin, the term “Model Year” ordinarily means calendar year in which the vehicle was produced.
(h) All vehicles are left-hand-drive (LHD) vehicles unless noted as RHD. The initials “RHD” used in the Model Type column mean “right-hand-drive.”
(i) For vehicle models that have been determined to be eligible for importation based on a petition submitted under Sec. 593.5(a)(1), which establishes that a substantially similar U.S.-certified vehicle exists, and no specific body style(s) are listed, only the body style(s) of that vehicle model that were U.S.-certified by the original manufacturer are eligible for importation. For example, if the original manufacturer manufactured both sedan and wagon body styles for the described model, but only certified the sedan for the U.S. market, the wagon body style would not be eligible for importation under that determination.
49 U.S.C. 30141(b); 49 CFR 593.9; delegations of authority at 49 CFR 1.95 and 501.8.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; apportionment of reserves; request for comments.
NMFS apportions amounts of the non-specified reserve to the initial total allowable catch (ITAC) of Bering Sea (BS) Pacific ocean perch, Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands (BSAI) Kamchatka flounder, BSAI “other flatfish,” BSAI northern rockfish, BSAI skates, BSAI sculpins, and BSAI squids in the BSAI management area. This action is necessary to allow the fisheries to continue operating. It is intended to promote the goals and objectives of the fishery management plan for the BSAI management area.
Effective September 29, 2016 through 2400 hrs, Alaska local time, December 31, 2016. Comments must be received at the following address no later than 4:30 p.m., Alaska local time, October 19, 2016.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2015-0118, by any of the following methods:
•
•
Steve Whitney, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the (BSAI) exclusive economic zone according to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (FMP) prepared by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Regulations governing fishing by U.S. vessels in accordance with the FMP appear at subpart H of 50 CFR part 600 and 50 CFR part 679.
The 2016 ITAC of BS Pacific ocean perch was established as 6,800 metric tons (mt), the 2016 ITAC of BSAI Kamchatka flounder was established as 4,250 mt, the 2016 ITAC of BSAI “other flatfish” was established as 2,125 mt, the 2016 ITAC of BSAI northern rockfish was established as 3,825 mt, the 2016 ITAC of BSAI skates was established as 22,100 mt, the 2016 ITAC of BSAI sculpins was established as 3,825 mt, and the 2016 ITAC of BSAI squids was established as 1,275 mt by the final 2016 and 2017 harvest specifications for groundfish of the BSAI (81 FR 14773, March 18, 2016). In accordance with § 679.20(a)(3) the Regional Administrator, Alaska Region, NMFS, has reviewed the most current available data and finds that the ITACs for BS Pacific ocean perch, BSAI Kamchatka flounder, BSAI “other flatfish,” BSAI northern rockfish, BSAI skates BSAI sculpins, and BSAI squids need to be supplemented from the non-specified reserve to promote efficiency in the utilization of fishery resources in the BSAI and allow fishing operations to continue.
Therefore, in accordance with § 679.20(b)(3), NMFS apportions from the non-specified reserve of groundfish 1,400 mt to the BS Pacific ocean perch ITAC, 300 mt to the BSAI Kamchatka flounder ITAC, 737 mt to the BSAI “other flatfish” ITAC, 550 mt to the BSAI northern rockfish ITAC, 5,000 mt to the BSAI skates ITAC, 500 mt to the BSAI sculpins ITAC, and 30 mt to the BSAI squids ITAC. These apportionments are consistent with § 679.20(b)(1)(i) and do not result in overfishing of any target species because the revised ITACs and total allowable catch (TAC) are equal to or less than the specifications of the acceptable biological catch in the final 2016 and 2017 harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI (81 FR 14773, March 18, 2016).
The harvest specification for the 2016 ITACs and TACs included in the harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI are revised as follows: The 2016 ITAC is increased to 4,550 mt for BSAI Kamchatka flounder, 2,862 mt for BSAI “other flatfish,” 4,375 mt for BSAI northern rockfish, 27,100 mt for BSAI skates, 4,325 mt for BSAI sculpins, and 1,305 mt for BSAI squids. The ITAC is increased to the full TAC of 8,200 mt for BS Pacific ocean perch.
This action responds to the best available information recently obtained from the fishery. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA, (AA) finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) and § 679.20(b)(3)(iii)(A) as such a requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion and would delay the apportionment of the non-specified reserves of groundfish to the BS Pacific ocean perch, BSAI Kamchatka flounder, BSAI “other flatfish,” BSAI northern rockfish, BSAI skates, BSAI sculpins, and BSAI squids in the BSAI. Immediate notification is necessary to allow for the orderly conduct and efficient operation of this fishery, to allow the industry to plan for the fishing season, and to avoid potential disruption to the fishing fleet and processors. NMFS was unable to publish a notice providing time for public comment because the most recent, relevant data only became available as of September 26, 2016.
The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of prior notice and opportunity for public comment.
Under § 679.20(b)(3)(iii), interested persons are invited to submit written comments on this action (see
This action is required by § 679.20 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801,
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all The Boeing Company Model 757-200, -200PF, and -200CB series airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by an analysis of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door which indicated that the existing maintenance program for the cam support assemblies is not adequate to reliably detect cracks before two adjacent cam support assemblies could fail. This proposed AD would require an inspection to determine part numbers, repetitive inspections to detect cracking of affected cam support assemblies of the main cargo door, and replacement if necessary. We are proposing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the main cargo door and consequent rapid decompression of the airplane.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by November 18, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Chandra Ramdoss, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5239; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We have received an analysis of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door which indicated that the existing maintenance program for the cam support assemblies is not adequate to reliably detect cracks before two adjacent cam support assemblies could fail on certain Boeing Model 757-200, -200PF, and -200CB series airplanes.
The main cargo door is on the upper left side of the forward fuselage between body stations 480 and 620. The door is hinged on its upper edge and opens outward to a canopy or a fully open position. The main cargo door has eight cam support assemblies along the bottom of the door that support the latch cams. The door latch cams engage with latch pins on the fuselage and hold the door closed. The cam support assemblies of the main cargo door are subject to ground loads, flight loads, and cabin pressure loads.
Cracking of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door could result in reduced structural integrity of the main cargo door and consequent rapid decompression of the airplane.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 757-52A0094, dated December 23, 2015. The service information describes procedures for doing an ultrasonic inspection of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door, and replacement of the cam support assemblies. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously, except as discussed under “Differences Between this Proposed AD and the Service Information.” For information on the procedures and compliance times, see this service information at
The effectivity of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 757-52A0094, dated December 23, 2015, is limited to certain Model 757-200, -200PF, and -200CB series airplanes. However, the applicability of this proposed AD includes all Model 757-200, -200PF, and -200CB series airplanes because all airplanes must be inspected to determine if affected cam support assemblies of the main cargo door are installed. For all airplanes affected by this AD, including those airplanes not listed in the effectivity of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 757-52A0094, dated December 23, 2015, compliance with paragraph (h) of this AD must be done using Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 757-52A0094, dated December 23, 2015. Therefore, an alternative method of compliance (AMOC) approval is not necessary for those airplanes if Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 757-52A0094, dated December 23, 2015, is used. This difference has been coordinated with Boeing.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 212 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary replacements that would be required based on the results of the proposed inspection. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these replacements:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by November 18, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to all The Boeing Company Model 757-200, -200PF, and -200CB series airplanes, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 52, Doors.
This AD was prompted by an analysis of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door which indicated that the existing maintenance program for the cam support assemblies is not adequate to reliably detect cracks before two adjacent cam support assemblies could fail. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the main cargo door and consequent rapid decompression of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the later of the times specified in paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD: Inspect the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door to determine whether part number (P/N) 69-23588-5, 69-23588-6, 69-23588-7, 69-23588-8, 69-23588-9, or 69-23588-10 is installed. A review of airplane maintenance records is acceptable in lieu of this inspection if the part number(s) of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door can be conclusively determined from that review.
(1) Before the accumulation of 18,000 total flight cycles.
(2) Within 2,743 flight cycles or 27 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later.
If, during any inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, any cam support assembly of the main cargo door having P/N 69-23588-5, 69-23588-6, 69-23588-7, 69-23588-8, 69-23588-9, or 69-23588-10 is determined to be installed: At the later of the times specified in paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD, do an ultrasonic inspection to detect cracking of the affected cam support assemblies of the main cargo door; and do all applicable replacements; in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 757-52A0094, dated December 23, 2015. Do all applicable replacements before further flight. Repeat the inspections thereafter at intervals not to exceed 6,000 flight cycles. Replacement of a cam support assembly of the main cargo door does not terminate the repetitive inspections required by this paragraph.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Los Angeles ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (i)(4)(i) and (i)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or sub-step is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or sub-step. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Chandra Ramdoss, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles ACO, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5239; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all The Boeing Company Model 727 airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by analysis of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door that indicated the repetitive high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspections required by the existing maintenance program are not adequate to detect cracks before two adjacent cam support assemblies of the main cargo door could fail. This proposed AD would require repetitive ultrasonic inspections for cracking of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door and replacement if necessary. We are proposing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door. Such cracking could result in reduced structural integrity of the main cargo door and consequent rapid decompression of the airplane.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by November 18, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Chandra Ramdoss, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5239; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We have received a report indicating that the analysis of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door, having part numbers 69-23588-5 and 69-23588-6, indicated that the repetitive HFEC inspections required by the existing maintenance program are not adequate to detect cracks before two adjacent cam support assemblies of the main cargo door could fail. This condition, if not corrected, could result in reduced structural integrity of the main cargo door and consequent rapid decompression of the airplane.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0151, dated February 12, 2016. The service information describes procedures for an ultrasonic inspection of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door for cracking, and replacement if necessary. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously, except as discussed under “Differences Between this Proposed AD and the Service Information.” For information on the procedures and compliance times, see this service information at
Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0151, dated February 12, 2016, only affects Model 727C, 727-100C, and 727-200F series airplanes. The applicability of this proposed AD extends to all Model 727 airplanes. Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0151, dated February 12, 2016, only affects certain part numbers. We are extending the list of affected part numbers to include 69-23588-1 and 69-23588-2, which were not referenced in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0151, dated February 12, 2016. These differences exist to ensure all affected parts are inspected in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0151, dated February 12, 2016. For all airplanes affected by this AD, including airplanes not listed in the effectivity of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0151, dated February 12, 2016, compliance with paragraph (h) of this AD must be done using Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0151, dated February 12, 2016. Therefore, an alternative method of compliance (AMOC) approval is not necessary for those airplanes if Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0151, dated February 12, 2016, is used. This difference has been coordinated with Boeing.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 45 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary replacements that would be required based on the results of the proposed inspection. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need this replacement:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by November 18, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to all The Boeing Company Model 727, 727C, 727-100, 727-100C, 727-200, and 727-200F series airplanes, certificated in any category,
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 52, Doors.
This AD was prompted by analysis of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door that indicated the repetitive high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspection required by the existing maintenance program are not adequate to detect cracks before two adjacent cam support assemblies of the main cargo door could fail. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door. Such cracking could result in reduced structural integrity of the main cargo door and consequent rapid decompression of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the later of the times specified in paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD: Inspect the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door to determine whether part number (P/N) 69-23588-1, 69-23588-2, 69-23588-5, 69-23588-6, 69-23588-9, or 69-23588-10 is installed. A review of airplane maintenance records is acceptable in lieu of this inspection if the part number(s) of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door can be conclusively determined from that review.
(1) Before the accumulation of 18,000 total flight cycles.
(2) Within 1,771 flight cycles or 27 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later.
If, during any inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, any cam support assembly of the main cargo door having P/N 69-23588-1, 69-23588-2, 69-23588-5, 69-23588-6, 69-23588-9, or 69-23588-10 is determined to be installed: At the later of the times specified in paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD, do an ultrasonic inspection to detect cracking of the affected cam support assemblies of the main cargo door; and do all applicable replacements; in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0151, dated February 12, 2016. Do all applicable replacements before further flight. Repeat the inspections thereafter at the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0151, dated February 12, 2016.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Los Angeles ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (i)(4)(i) and (i)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or substep is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or substep. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Chandra Ramdoss, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles ACO, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5239; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all The Boeing Company Model 707 airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by analysis of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door that indicated the repetitive high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspections required by the existing maintenance program are not adequate to detect cracks before two adjacent cam support assemblies of the main cargo door could fail. This proposed AD would require repetitive ultrasonic inspections for cracking of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door and replacement if necessary. We are proposing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door. Such cracking could result in reduced structural integrity of the main cargo door and consequent rapid decompression of the airplane.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by November 18, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Chandra Ramdoss, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5239; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We have received a report indicating that the analysis of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door, part numbers 69-23588-5 and 69-23588-6, indicated that the repetitive HFEC inspections required by the existing maintenance program are not adequate to detect cracks before two adjacent cam support assemblies of the main cargo door could fail. This condition, if not corrected, could result in reduced structural integrity of the main cargo door and consequent rapid decompression of the airplane.
We reviewed Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3542, dated February 12, 2016. The service information describes procedures for an ultrasonic inspection of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door for cracking, and replacement if necessary. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously, except as discussed under “Differences Between this Proposed AD and the Service Information.” For information on the procedures and compliance times, see this service information at
Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3542, dated February 12, 2016, only affects Model 707-300B and -300C airplanes. The applicability of this proposed AD extends to all Model 707 airplanes. Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3542, dated February 12, 2016, only affects certain part numbers. We are extending the list of affected part numbers to include 69-23588-1 and 69-23588-2, which are not referenced in Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3542, dated February 12, 2016. These differences exist to ensure all affected parts are inspected in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3542, dated February 12, 2016. For all airplanes affected by this AD, including airplanes not listed in the effectivity of Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3542, dated February 12, 2016, compliance with paragraph (h) of this AD must be done using Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3542, dated February 12, 2016. Therefore, an alternative method of compliance (AMOC) approval is not necessary for those airplanes if Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3542, dated February 12, 2016, is used. This difference has been coordinated with Boeing.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 12 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary replacements that would be required based on the results of the proposed inspection. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need this replacement:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by November 18, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to all The Boeing Company Model 707-100 Long Body, -200, -100B Long Body, and -100B Short Body series airplanes; and Model 707-300, -300B, -300C, and -400 series airplanes; certificated in any category,
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 52, Doors.
This AD was prompted by analysis of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door that indicated the repetitive high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspections required by the existing maintenance program are not adequate to detect cracks before two adjacent cam support assemblies of the main cargo door could fail. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door. Such cracking could result in reduced structural integrity of the main cargo door and consequent rapid decompression of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the later of the times specified in paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD: Inspect the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door to determine whether part number (P/N) 69-23588-1, 69-23588-2, 69-23588-5, 69-23588-6, 69-23588-9, or 69-23588-10 is installed. A review of airplane maintenance records is acceptable in lieu of this inspection if the part number(s) of the cam support assemblies of the main cargo door can be conclusively determined from that review.
(1) Before the accumulation of 18,000 total flight cycles.
(2) Within 1,790 flight cycles or 24 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later.
If, during any inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, any cam support assembly of the main cargo door having P/N 69-23588-1, 69-23588-2, 69-23588-5, 69-23588-6, 69-23588-9, or 69-23588-10 is determined to be installed: Except as required by paragraph (i) of this AD, at the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3542, dated February 12, 2016, do an ultrasonic inspection to detect cracking of the affected cam support assemblies of the main cargo door, and do all applicable replacements, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3542, dated February 12, 2016. Do all applicable replacements before further flight. Repeat the inspections thereafter at the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3542, dated February 12, 2016.
Where Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3542, dated February 12, 2016, specifies a compliance time “after the original issue date of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Los Angeles ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (j)(4)(i) and (j)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or substep is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or substep. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Chandra Ramdoss, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles ACO, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5239; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet:
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Correction to notice of proposed rulemaking.
This document contains a correction to a notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-163113-02) that was published in the
Written or electronic comments and outlines of topics to be discussed at the public hearing scheduled for December 1, 2016, for the notice of proposed rulemaking at 81 FR 51413, August 4, 2016, are still being accepted and must be received by November 2, 2016.
Send submissions to CC:PA:LPD:PR (REG-163113-02), Room 5203, Internal Revenue Service, P.O. Box 7604, Ben Franklin Station, Washington, DC 20044. Submissions may be hand delivered Monday through Friday between the hours of 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. to CC:PA:LPD:PR (REG-163113-02), Courier's desk, Internal Revenue Service, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or sent electronically, via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
John D. MacEachen, at (202) 317-6859 (not a toll-free number).
The notice of proposed rulemaking that is the subject of this document is under section 2704 of the Internal Revenue Code.
As published, the notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-163113-02) contains an error that is misleading and is in need of clarification.
Accordingly, the notice of proposed rulemaking, that is the subject of FR Doc. 2016-18370, is corrected as follows:
1. On page 51418, in the third column, under the paragraph heading “Effective Dates”, in the second line from the top of the paragraph, the language “proposed to be effective on and after the” is corrected to read “proposed to be effective on the”.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve revisions to the Sacramento Metropolitan Air Quality Management District (SMAQMD) and the San Diego County Air Pollution Control District (SDCAPCD) portions of the California State Implementation Plan (SIP). These revisions concern volatile organic compound (VOC) emissions from architectural coatings. We are proposing to approve local rules and a rule rescission to regulate these emission sources under the Clean Air Act (CAA or the Act).
Any comments on this proposal must arrive by November 3, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R09-OAR-2016-0291 at
Arnold Lazarus, EPA Region IX, (415) 972-3024,
Throughout this document, “we,” “us” and “our” refer to the EPA. This proposal addresses the following local rules: SMAQMD Rule 442, SDCAPCD Rule 67.0 (rescinded) and SDCAPCD Rule 67.0.1 (the replacement rule). In the Rules and Regulations section of this
We do not plan to open a second comment period, so anyone interested in commenting should do so at this time. If we do not receive adverse comments, no further activity is planned. For further information, please see the direct final action.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Proposed rule; 12-month petition finding and status review.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), announce a 12-month finding for the western glacier stonefly (
We will accept comments received or postmarked on or before December 5, 2016. Comments submitted electronically using the Federal eRulemaking Portal (see
You may submit comments by one of the following methods:
(1)
(2)
We request that you send comments only by the methods described above. We will post all comments on
Jodi Bush, Field Supervisor, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Montana Ecological Services Field Office, 585 Shepard Way, Helena, MT 59601, by telephone 406-449-5225 or by facsimile 406-449-5339. Persons who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 800-877-8339.
This document proposes the listing of the meltwater lednian stonefly and the western glacier stonefly as threatened species. The meltwater lednian stonefly is a candidate species for which we have on file sufficient information on biological vulnerability and threats to support preparation of a listing proposal, but for which development of a listing regulation has been precluded by other higher priority listing activities. We were petitioned to list the western glacier stonefly and published a substantial 90-day finding in 2011. We assessed all information regarding status of and threats to both the meltwater lednian stonefly and the western glacier stonefly that was available through August 11, 2016. However, we received additional information on western glacier stonefly on August 12, 2016, indicating a larger range than previously known. Because we received this new information late in the status review process, we were unable to fully incorporate and analyze the new information in this document in time to meet the settlement agreement deadline of submitting a 12-month finding for western glacier stonefly to the
We intend that any final action resulting from this proposed rule will be based on the best scientific and commercial data available and be as accurate and as effective as possible. Therefore, we request comments or information from the public, other concerned governmental agencies, Native American tribes, the scientific community, industry, or any other interested parties concerning this proposed rule. Because we will consider all comments and information received during the comment period, our final determinations may differ from this proposal. We particularly seek comments concerning:
(1) The meltwater lednian stonefly and the western glacier stonefly biology, range, and population trends, including:
(a) Biological or ecological requirements of the species, including habitat requirements for feeding, breeding, and sheltering;
(b) Genetics and taxonomy;
(c) Historical and current range including distribution patterns;
(d) Historical and current population levels, and current and projected trends; and
(e) Past and ongoing conservation measures for the species, their habitat, or both.
(2) Factors that may affect the continued existence of the species, which may include habitat modification or destruction, overutilization, disease, predation, the inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms, or other natural or manmade factors.
(3) Biological, commercial trade, or other relevant data concerning any threats (or lack thereof) to these species and existing regulations that may be addressing those threats.
(4) Additional information concerning the historical and current status, range, distribution, and population size of these species, including the locations of any additional populations.
As referenced above in the Executive Summary, we will be reopening the comment period for this proposed listing rule in the near future once we incorporate and analyze the new information we recently obtained on western glacier stonefly, which is further described under
Please include sufficient information with your submission (such as scientific
Please note that submissions merely stating support for or opposition to the action under consideration without providing supporting information, although noted, will not be considered in making a determination, as section 4(b)(1)(A) of the Act directs that determinations as to whether any species is a threatened or endangered species must be made “solely on the basis of the best scientific and commercial data available.”
You may submit your comments and materials concerning this proposed rule by one of the methods listed in
If you submit information via
Comments and materials we receive, as well as supporting documentation we used in preparing this proposed rule, will be available for public inspection on
Section 4(b)(5) of the Act provides for one or more public hearings on this proposal, if requested. Requests must be received within 45 days after the date of publication of this proposed rule in the
In accordance with our joint policy on peer review published in the
On July 30, 2007, we received a petition from Forest Guardians (now WildEarth Guardians) requesting that the Service: (1) Consider all full species in our Mountain Prairie Region ranked by the organization NatureServe as G1 or G1G2 (which includes the meltwater lednian stonefly), except those that are currently listed, proposed for listing, or candidates for listing; and (2) list each species as either endangered or threatened (Forest Guardians 2007, pp. 1-37). We replied to the petition on August 24, 2007, and stated that, based on preliminary review, we found no compelling evidence to support an emergency listing for any of the species covered by the petition, and that we planned work on the petition in Fiscal Year (FY) 2008.
On March 19, 2008, WildEarth Guardians filed a complaint (1:08-CV-472-CKK) indicating that the Service failed to comply with its mandatory duty to make a preliminary 90-day finding on their two multiple species petitions in two of the Service's administrative regions—one for the Mountain-Prairie Region and one for the Southwest Region (
On August 18, 2009, we published a partial 90-day finding for the 38 Mountain-Prairie Region species, and found that the petition presented substantial information to indicate that listing of the meltwater lednian stonefly may be warranted based on threats from habitat loss and degradation due to climate change, and specifically the melting of glaciers associated with the species' habitat; and went on to request further information pertaining to the species (74 FR 41649, 41659-41660).
On April 5, 2011, we published a 12-month finding (76 FR 18684) for the meltwater lednian stonefly indicating that listing was warranted, but precluded by higher priority listing actions. At that time, the meltwater lednian stonefly was added to our list of candidate species with a listing priority number (LPN) of 4. In the 2011 candidate notice of review (76 FR 66370, October 24, 2011; p. 66376), we announced a revised LPN of 5 for the species due to research that showed the meltwater lednian stonefly was no longer considered to be a monotypic genus. In each successive year since then we reaffirmed our 2011 finding of warranted but precluded and maintained a listing priority number of 5 for the species.
On January 10, 2011, we received a petition to list the western glacier stonefly from the Xerces Society and Center for Biological Diversity. We replied to the petition on August 3, 2011, indicating that emergency listing was not warranted. On December 19, 2011, we published a 90-day finding (76 FR 78601) for the western glacier stonefly indicating there was substantial scientific information indicating that listing of the species may be warranted. On April 15, 2015, the Center for Biological Diversity filed an amended complaint (1:15-CV-00229-EGS) seeking 12-month findings for several species, including the western glacier stonefly. On September 15, 2015, the Service and the Center for Biological Diversity filed a stipulated settlement in the District of Columbia Court, agreeing that the Service would submit to the
Because both stonefly species occupy similar habitat in the same geographic region of northwestern Montana and are faced with similar threats, we have batched them into one status review and subsequent proposed rule for efficiency. Therefore, this document constitutes both the 12-month finding and proposed listing rule for the western glacier stonefly, and the proposed listing rule for the meltwater lednian stonefly.
The meltwater lednian and western glacier stoneflies are small insects that begin life as eggs, hatch into aquatic nymphs, and later mature into winged adults, surviving briefly on land before reproducing and dying. The nymph, or aquatic juvenile stage, of the meltwater lednian stonefly is dark red-brown on its dorsal surface and pink on the ventral surface, with light grey-green legs (Baumann and Stewart 1980, p. 658). Mature nymphs can range in size from 4.5 to 6.5 millimeters (mm) (0.18 to 0.26 in.; Baumann and Stewart 1980, p. 655). Nymphs mature into the adult terrestrial phase that has wings and body sizes ranging from 4 to 6 mm (0.16 to 0.24 in.; Baumann 1975, p. 79). Western glacier stonefly nymphs are similar in color and size to meltwater stonefly nymphs. Western glacier stonefly adults are generally brown in color with yellowish brown legs and possess two sets of translucent wings (Baumann and Gaufin 1971, p. 275). Adults range from 6.5 to 10.0 millimeters (mm) (0.26 to 0.39 inches (in)) in body length (Baumann and Gaufin 1971, p. 275). Western glacier stonefly nymphs cannot be distinguished from other
The meltwater lednian stonefly was originally described by Ricker in 1952 (Baumann 1975, p. 18) from the Many Glacier area of Glacier National Park (GNP), Montana (Baumann 1982, pers. comm.). The meltwater lednian stonefly belongs to the phylum Arthropoda, class Insecta, order Plecoptera (stoneflies), family Nemouridae, and subfamily Nemourinae. Until recently, the meltwater lednian stonefly was believed to be the only species in the genus
The western glacier stonefly was first described in 1971 from adult specimens collected from five locations in GNP, Montana (Baumann and Gaufin 1971, p. 277). The western glacier stonefly is in the same family as the meltwater lednian stonefly (
Fifty-eight populations of meltwater lednian stoneflies are known to occur; these are located primarily within GNP, with a few populations recorded south of GNP on National Forest and tribal lands (Figure 1; Giersch and Muhlfeld 2015, in progress). Meltwater lednian stonefly occupy relatively short reaches of streams [mean = 565 meters (m) (1,854 feet; ft); range = 1-2,355 m (3-7,726 ft)] below meltwater sources (for description, see Habitat section below; Giersch and Muhlfeld 2015, in progress). Meltwater lednian stoneflies can attain moderate to high densities [(350-5,800 per square m) (32-537 per square ft)] (
Four populations of the western glacier stonefly are known to occur, all within the boundaries of GNP (Figure 2; Giersch and Muhlfeld 2015, in progress). Similar to the meltwater lednian stonefly, western glacier stoneflies are found on relatively short reaches of strems in close proximity to meltwater sources [means = 508 m (1,667 ft.); range = 15-1407 m (49-4,616 ft.)] (Giersch and Muhlfeld 2015, in progress). Western glafier stoneflies can attain moderate densities [(400-2,300 per square m) (37-213 per square ft)] (Giersch 2016, pers. comm.). Given this
Western glacier sotneflies have decreased in distribution among and within 6 streams where the species occurred in the 1960s and 1970s in GNP (Giersch
The northern distributional limits of the meltwater lednian stonefly and the western glacier stonefly are not known. Potential habitat for meltwater lednian and western glacier stoneflies, similar to what both species are currently occupying, exists in the area of Banff and Jasper National Parks, Alberta, Canada. Aquatic invertebrate surveys have been conducted in this area, and no specimens of either species were found, although it is likely that sampling did not occur close enough to glaciers or icefields to detect either meltwater lednian or western glacier stonefly, if indeed they were present (Hirose 2016, pers. comm.). Sampling in this area for both meltwater lednian and western glacier stoneflies is planned for the future and would help fill in an
The meltwater lednian stonefly is found in high-elevation, fishless, alpine streams (Baumann and Stewart 1980, p. 658; MNHP 2010a) originating from meltwater sources, including glaciers and small icefields, permanent and seasonal snowpack, alpine springs, and glacial lake outlets (Hauer
Western glacier stoneflies are found in high-elevation, fishless, alpine streams closely linked to the same meltwater sources as the meltwater lednian stonefly (Giersch and Muhlfeld 2015, in progress). The specific thermal tolerances of the western glacier stonefly are not known. However, all recent collections of the western glacier stonefly in GNP have occurred in habitats with daily maximum water temperatures less than 6.3 °C (43 °F) (Giersch
Little information is available on the biology of the meltwater lednian and western glacier stoneflies. However, we assume that both species are likely to be similar to other closely related stoneflies in the Nemouridae family in terms of habitat needs and life-history traits. In general, Nemouridae stoneflies are primarily associated with clean, cool or cold, flowing waters (Baumann 1979, pp. 242-243; Stewart and Harper 1996, p. 217). Eggs and nymphs of Nemouridae stoneflies are aquatic (Stewart and Harper 1996, p. 217), and nymphs rely on perennial water sources to breathe through gills, similar to fish. Nemouridae nymphs are typically herbivores or detritivores, and their feeding mode is generally that of a shredder or collector-gatherer (Baumann 1975, p. 1; Stewart and Harper 1996, pp. 218, 262). Typically, Nemouridae stoneflies complete their life cycles within a single year (univoltine) or in 2 to 3 years (semivoltine) (Stewart and Harper 1996, pp. 217-218).
Mature stonefly nymphs emerge from the water and complete their development in the terrestrial environment as short-lived adults on and around streamside vegetation or other structures (Hynes 1976, pp. 135-136; Stewart and Harper 1996, p. 217). It is unknown if adult stoneflies select for particular features in the terrestrial environment. Timing of stonefly emergence is influenced by temperature and amount of daylight (Nebeker 1971 cited in Hynes 1976, p. 137). Adult meltwater lednian stoneflies are believed to emerge and breed in August and September (Baumann and Stewart 1980, p. 658; Giersch 2010b, pers. comm.; MNHP 2010a). Adult western glacier stoneflies have been collected from land in early July through mid-August (Baumann and Gaufin 1971, p. 277), almost immediately after snow has melted and exposed streams.
Nemouridae stoneflies disperse longitudinally (up or down stream) or laterally to the stream bank from their benthic (nymphal) source (Hynes 1976, p. 138; Griffith
Adult male and female stoneflies are mutually attracted by a drumming sound produced by tapping their abdomens on a substrate (Hynes 1976, p. 140). After mating, females deposit a mass of fertilized eggs in water where they are widely dispersed or attached to substrates by sticky coverings or specialized anchoring devices (Hynes 1976, p. 141; Stewart and Harper 1996, p. 217). Eggs may hatch within a few weeks or remain in diapause (dormancy) for much longer periods if environmental conditions, such as temperature, are not conducive to development (Hynes 1976, p. 142). Environmental conditions also may affect the growth and development of hatchlings (Stewart and Harper 1996, p. 217).
The Act directs us to determine whether any species is an endangered species or a threatened species because of any factors affecting its continued existence. In this section, we summarize the biological condition of these species and their resources, and the influences on such to assess both species' overall viability and the risks to that viability.
In considering what factors might constitute threats to a species, we must look beyond the exposure of the species to a factor to evaluate whether the species may respond to the factor in a way that causes actual impacts to the species. If there is exposure to a factor and the species responds negatively, the factor may be a threat and we attempt to determine how significant a threat it is. The threat is significant if it drives, or contributes to, the risk of extinction of the species such that the species warrants listing as endangered or threatened as those terms are defined in the Act.
Meltwater lednian and western glacier stoneflies occupy remote, high-elevation alpine habitats in GNP and several proximate watersheds. The remoteness of these habitats largely precludes overlap with human uses and typical land management activities (
Our analyses under the Endangered Species Act include consideration of ongoing and projected changes in climate. The terms “climate” and
Scientific measurements spanning several decades demonstrate that changes in climate are occurring; since the 1950s many of the observed changes are unprecedented over decades to millennia (IPCC 2014, p. 40). Examples include warming of the global climate system, and substantial increases in precipitation in some regions of the world and decreases in other regions. (For these and other examples, see IPCC 2014, pp. 40-44; and Solomon
Scientists use a variety of climate models, which include consideration of natural processes and variability, as well as various scenarios of potential levels and timing of GHG emissions, to evaluate the causes of changes already observed and to project future changes in temperature and other climate conditions (
Various changes in climate may have direct or indirect effects on species. These effects may be positive, neutral, or negative, and they may change over time, depending on the species and other relevant considerations, such as interactions of climate with other variables (
As is the case with all stressors that we assess, even if we conclude that a species is currently affected or is likely to be affected in a negative way by one or more climate-related impacts, it does not necessarily follow that the species meets the definition of an “endangered species” or a “threatened species” under the Act. If a species is listed as endangered or threatened, knowledge regarding the vulnerability of the species to, and known or anticipated impacts from, climate-associated changes in environmental conditions can be used to help devise appropriate strategies for its recovery.
Global climate projections are informative, and, in some cases, the only or the best scientific information available for us to use. However, projected changes in climate and related impacts can vary substantially across and within different regions of the world (
Habitats for both the meltwater lednian stonefly and the western glacier stonefly originate from meltwater sources that will be impacted by any projected warming, including glaciers and small icefields, permanent and seasonal snowpack, alpine springs, and glacial lake outlets (Hauer
The sources of meltwater that supply meltwater lednian and western glacier stonefly habitat are expected to persist under a changing climate for varying durations. In general, we expect all meltwater sources to decline under a changing climate, given the relationship between climate and glacial melting (Hall and Fagre 2003, entire; Fagre 2005, entire) and recent climate observations and modeling (IPCC 2014, entire). It is likely that seasonal snowpack levels will be most immediately affected by climate change, as the frequency of more extreme weather events increases (IPCC 2014, p. 8). These extremes may result in increased seasonal snowpack in some years and reduced snowpack in others.
It is also expected that permanent snowpack and ice masses will decline and completely melt within the near future. The timing of their disappearance is expected to be before the majority of glacial melting (
Fifty-three (of 58) meltwater lednian stonefly populations and one (of four) western glacier stonefly population occupy habitats supplied by seasonal snowpack, permanent snowpack, and ice masses, and some glaciers. Meltwater from these sources is expected to become inconsistent by 2030 (Hall and Fagre 2003, p. 137; Giersch and Muhlfeld 2015, in progress). Although the rate at which flows will be reduced or at which dewatering events will occur in these habitats is unclear, we expect, at a minimum, to see decreases in abundance and distribution of both species in those populations. By 2030, the remaining populations are expected to be further isolated and occupying marginal habitat.
Once glaciers in GNP melt, small aquifer volumes and the groundwater influence they provide to alpine springs are expected to decline. Thus by 2030, even flows from alpine springs supplemented with groundwater are expected to decline (Hauer
Only four populations of the meltwater lednian stonefly and two of the western glacier stonefly reside in streams originating from alpine springs. Thus, despite the potential for some alpine springs to provide refugia for both stonefly species even after glaciers melt, only a few populations may benefit from these potential refugia.
One population each of the meltwater lednian stonefly and the western glacier stonefly occupies a glacial lake outlet (Upper Grinnell Lake; Giersch
As such, we conclude that habitat degradation in the form of reduced streamflows due to the effects of climate change is a threat to the persistence of 89 percent of meltwater lednian stonefly and 25 percent of western glacier stonefly populations now and into the future.
The majority of meltwater lednian stonefly populations and one western glacier stonefly population occupy habitats that may warm significantly by 2030, due to the predicted complete melting of glaciers and snow/ice fields. Increasing water temperatures may be related to recent distributional declines of western glacier stoneflies within GNP (Giersch
Only four populations of the meltwater lednian stonefly (7 percent of total known populations) and two of the western glacier stonefly (50 percent of total known populations) reside in streams originating from alpine springs. Thus, despite the fact that alpine springs may be more thermally stable than meltwater streams and provide thermal refugia to both the meltwater lednian stonefly and the western glacier stonefly, only a few populations may benefit from this potential refugia.
One population each of the meltwater lednian stonefly and the western glacier stonefly occupies a glacial lake outlet (Upper Grinnell Lake; Giersch
Glacier National Park is managed to protect natural and cultural resources, and the landscape within the park is relatively pristine. However, the GNP does include a number of human-built facilities and structures that support visitor services, recreation, and access, such as the Going-to-the-Sun Road (which bisects GNP) and numerous visitor centers, trailheads, overlooks, and lodges (
We are aware of one water diversion on Logan Creek that supplies water to the Logan Pass Visitor Center. This diversion is located several feet under the streambed in a segment of Logan Creek in which meltwater lednian stonefly is found. While the diversion has been operated for decades, recent surveys indicate relatively high densities of meltwater lednian stonefly in Logan Creek, particularly upstream of the diversion (NPS 2009, entire; Giersch 2016, pers. comm.). The diversion is scheduled to be retrofitted in 2017, in part to decrease instream withdrawals and increase efficiency. The diversion retrofit will likely include dewatering a short section of stream surrounding the intake structure, by diverting streamflow around the construction site. Minimization measures expected to be implemented as part of the diversion retrofit include relocation of meltwater lednian stoneflies out of the construction zone and using appropriate sedimentation control measures. Given the recent survey information indicating high densities of meltwater lednian stonefly in Logan Creek and the use of appropriate minimization measures, we have no evidence that the existing water diversion or retrofit project are a threat to meltwater lednian stonefly at the population level.
We do not have any information indicating that maintenance and improvement of other GNP facilities and structures is affecting either meltwater lednian or western glacier stoneflies or their habitat. While roads and trails provide avenues for recreationists (primarily hikers) to access backcountry areas, most habitats for both the meltwater lednian stonefly and the western glacier stonefly are located in steep, rocky areas that are not easily accessible, even from backcountry trails. Most documented occurrences of both species are in remote locations upstream from human-built structures, thereby precluding any impacts to stonefly habitat from maintenance or improvement of these structures. Given the above information, we conclude that maintenance and improvement of GNP facilities and structures, and the resulting improved access into the backcountry for recreationists, does not constitute a threat to the meltwater lednian or western glacier stonefly or their habitat now or in the near future.
In 2015, GNP hosted 2.3 million visitors (NPS 2015). Many of the recent collection sites for the meltwater lednian stonefly (
Three populations of meltwater lednian stonefly are located in wilderness areas adjacent to GNP. Visitor activities in wilderness areas are similar to those described for GNP, namely hiking and angling. No recreational hiking trails are present near the two populations of meltwater lednian stonefly in the Bob Marshall wilderness and Great Bear wilderness (USFS 2015, p. 1) or near the population occurring in the Mission Mountain Tribal Wilderness. Similar to GNP, stream reaches that harbor the meltwater lednian stonefly in these wilderness areas are fishless, so wade anglers are not expected to disturb stonefly habitat. Given the remote nature of and limited access to meltwater stonefly habitat in wilderness areas adjacent to GNP, we do not anticipate any current or future threats to meltwater lednian stoneflies or their habitat from visitor use.
In summary, we expect climate change to fragment or degrade all habitat types that are currently occupied by meltwater lednian and western glacier stoneflies, albeit at different rates. Flows in meltwater streams are expected to be affected first, by becoming periodically intermittent and warmer. Drying of meltwater streams and water temperature increases, even periodically, are expected to reduce available habitat for the meltwater lednian stonefly by 81 percent by 2030. After 2030, flow reductions and water temperature increases due to continued warming are expected to further reduce or degrade remaining refugia habitat (alpine springs and glacial lake outlets) for both meltwater lednian and western glacier stoneflies. Predicted habitat changes are based on observed patterns of flow and water temperature in similar watersheds within GNP and elsewhere where glaciers have already melted.
In addition, we have observed a declining trend in western glacier stonefly distribution over the last 50 years, as air temperatures have warmed in GNP. We expect the meltwater lednian stonefly to follow a similar trajectory, given the similarities between the two stonefly species and their meltwater habitats. Consequently, we conclude that habitat fragmentation and degradation resulting from climate change is a threat to both the meltwater lednian and western glacier stoneflies now and into the near future. Given the minimal overlap between stonefly habitat and most existing infrastructure or backcountry activities (
We are not aware of any threats involving the overutilization or collection of the meltwater lednian or western glacier stonefly for any commercial, recreational, or educational purposes at this time. We are aware that specimens of both species are
We are not aware of any diseases that affect the meltwater lednian or western glacier stonefly. Therefore, we do not consider disease to be a threat to these species now or in the near future.
We presume that nymph and adult meltwater lednian and western glacier stoneflies may occasionally be subject to predation by bird species such as American dipper (
In summary, the best available scientific and commercial information does not indicate that the meltwater lednian or western glacier stonefly is affected by any diseases, or that natural predation occurs at levels likely to negatively affect either species at the population level. Therefore, we do not find disease or predation to be threats to the meltwater lednian or western glacier stonefly now or in the near future.
Section 4(b)(1)(A) of the Endangered Species Act requires the Service to take into account “those efforts, if any, being made by any State or foreign nation, or any political subdivision of a State or foreign nation, to protect such species....” We consider relevant Federal, State, and Tribal laws and regulations when evaluating the status of the species. Only existing ordinances, regulations, and laws that have a direct connection to a law are enforceable and permitted are discussed in this section. No local, State, or Federal laws specifically protect the meltwater lednian or western glacier stonefly.
All Federal agencies are required to adhere to the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1970 (42 U.S.C. 4321
The NPS Organic Act of 1916 54 U.S.C. 100101 (
National and international regulatory mechanisms to comprehensively address the causes of climate change are continuing to be developed. Domestic U.S. efforts relative to climate change focus on implementation of the Clean Air Act, and continued studies, programs, support for developing new technologies, and use of incentives for supporting reductions in emissions. While not regulatory, international efforts to address climate change globally began with the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), adopted in May 1992. The stated objective of the UNFCCC is the stabilization of GHG concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system. However, we note that greenhouse gas loading in the atmosphere can have a considerable lag effect on climate, so that what has already been emitted will have impacts out to 2100 and beyond (IPCC 2014, pp. 56-57).
The National Forest Management Act (NFMA; 16 U.S.C. 1600-1614, as amended) requires the Secretary of the Department of Agriculture to develop and implement resource management plans for each unit of the National Forest System. The Forest Service has developed a land management plan for the Flathead National Forest, including the wilderness portions containing meltwater stonefly populations, that designates conservation of sensitive, endangered and threatened species as a high priority (USFS 2001, p. III-109). In addition, only natural agents (fire, wind, insects, etc.) are permitted to alter the vegetation or habitat within the wilderness portions of the Flathead National Forest (USFS 2001, p. III-109). As such, the wilderness areas on Flathead National Forest are managed for natural ecological processes to maintain wilderness character.
The Wilderness Act of 1964 (16 U.S.C. 1131-1136, 78 Stat. 890) provides that areas designated by Congress as “wilderness areas” “shall be administered for the use and enjoyment of the American people in such manner as will leave them unimpaired for future use and enjoyment as wilderness. . . .” The Act also directed the Secretary of the Interior to review and make recommendations to the President about the suitability of particular lands for preservation as wilderness, with the final decision being made by Congress (16 U.S.C. 1132(c)). These lands are managed under the nonimpairment standard to ensure that they retain their wilderness character until Congress makes a decision. Areas where the meltwater lednian stonefly occurs within Flathead National Forest are designated as wilderness. Areas where the meltwater lednian and western glacier stoneflies occur within GNP were nominated for protection as wilderness in 1974, but Congress has not rendered a decision. Pursuant to NPS policy, the proposed wilderness lands are managed as wilderness (NPS Management Policy § 6.3 (2006)).
The Wilderness Act establishes restrictions on land use activities that can be undertaken on a designated area. In particular, such lands are managed to preserve their wilderness character, and many activities that might otherwise be permitted are prohibited on lands designated as wilderness (
The Confederated Kootenai Salish Tribes manage land on the Flathead Reservation and are currently implementing “Flathead Indian Reservation Fishing, Bird Hunting, and Recreation Regulations,” which, in part, regulate recreation in the Mission Mountain Tribal Wilderness Area (MMTW), where one population of the meltwater lednian stonefly occurs. Some relevant regulations preclude the removal of natural items from the MMTW and restrict certain activities within 30 m (100 ft) of water sources.
A principle of conservation biology is that the presence of larger and more productive (resilient) populations can reduce overall extinction risk. To minimize extinction risk, genetic diversity should be maintained (Fausch
Narrow endemic species, such as the meltwater lednian stonefly and the western glacier stonefly, can be at risk of extirpation from random events such as fire, flooding, or drought. Random events occurring within the narrow range of endemic species have the potential to disproportionately affect large numbers of individuals or populations, relative to a more widely dispersed species. The risk to meltwater lednian and western glacier stonefly populations from fire appears low, given that most alpine environments in GNP have few trees and little vegetation to burn. The risk to both species from flooding also appears low, given the relatively small watershed areas available to capture and channel precipitation upslope of most stonefly populations.
The risk to the meltwater lednian stonefly from drought appears moderate in the near term because 20 of the 58 known populations occupy habitats supplied by seasonal snowmelt, which would be expected to decline during drought. For the western glacier stonefly, the threat of drought is also moderate because one of the four known populations is likely to be affected by variations in seasonal precipitation and snowpack. The risk of drought in the longer term (after 2030 and when complete loss of glaciers is predicted) appears high for both stonefly species. Once glaciers melt, drought or extended drought could result in dewatering events in some habitats. Dewatering events would likely extirpate entire populations almost instantaneously. Natural recolonization of habitats affected by drought is unlikely, given the poor dispersal abilities of both stonefly species and general isolation of populations relative to one another (Hauer
The effect of small population size does not appear to be a current or future threat to the meltwater lednian stonefly or the western glacier stonefly, given the high densities of individuals within most populations. However, the restricted range of the meltwater lednian and western glacier stonefly make both species vulnerable to the stochastic threat of drought. Although not considered a current threat, drought will likely affect both species negatively within the near future. There is potential for extirpation of entire populations of both species as a result of dewatering events caused by drought, after the complete loss of glaciers predicted by 2030. Thus, drought is considered a threat to both the meltwater lednian stonefly and the western glacier stonefly within the near future.
Climate change may interact with other potential stressors and compound negative effects on meltwater lednian stonefly and western glacier stonefly populations. We limit our discussion here to factors that are not implicitly linked, and whose effects are not accounted for, in our previous analysis regarding climate change.
Previously, we presumed that nymph and adult meltwater lednian and western glacier stoneflies may occasionally be subject to predation by bird species such as American dipper or predatory aquatic insects. As such, predation by American dipper or predatory aquatic insects on these species would represent a natural ecological interaction in the GNP and surrounding areas. However, habitat fragmentation and degradation resulting from climate change may create different scenarios where populations of the meltwater lednian stonefly and the western glacier stonefly remain in isolated pockets of habitat, in thermally marginal habitat, or both, and are
In the first scenario, the meltwater lednian stonefly or the western glacier stonefly may occupy small, isolated pockets (or pools) of habitat resulting from fragmentation (
In a second scenario, physical habitat extent may remain intact, but thermal conditions may be altered (
If both fragmented habitat and thermally modified habitat are present in tandem, the resulting effects of predation would likely be greater than those described for either previous scenario. The intensity of predation would be expected to increase as a result of more fragmented habitat, and from behavioral changes potentially increasing the vulnerability of meltwater lednian and western glacier stoneflies to predators. Mortality of individual stoneflies would likely be higher in this scenario than for either previous scenario. However, it is still unclear what the effects of increased water temperatures would be on aquatic predators and whether the efficiency of avian predators would increase to the point where a population-level effect would be observed in meltwater lednian stonefly or western glacier stonefly populations. While the narrow range of the species and the small areas they inhabit make entire populations vulnerable to extirpation due to the effects of climate change, the high densities of individuals found within many of these populations make the effects of predation less likely to have population-level impacts. Therefore, cumulative effects resulting from climate change and predation are not considered a threat to any population of meltwater lednian and western glacier stoneflies now or in the near future.
Meltwater habitats used by meltwater lednian stonefly and western glacier stonefly are expected to become increasingly fragmented due to climate change. One consequence of increasing habitat fragmentation is increasing isolation of existing stonefly populations, relative to one another. As isolation among stonefly populations increases, smaller populations may become more vulnerable to extirpation due to stochastic events such as drought. In the event of local extirpations from stochastic events, recolonization of previously occupied habitat appears unlikely, given the poor dispersal capabilities of stoneflies and isolation of populations in increasingly fragmented habitat. However, while interactions between and among these factors are likely, it appears more evident that habitat degradation in the form of reduced flows and increased water temperatures will play a larger and more immediate role in determining the persistence of meltwater lednian and western glacier stonefly populations. With the potential to extirpate entire populations almost instantaneously, dewatering events resulting from loss of meltwater sources is likely to be the primary driver affecting populations of both stonefly species in the near future. While the interactions between climate change, habitat fragmentation, stochastic events, and small population size are likely to occur, the timescale at which we would expect population-level threats to occur is far beyond the timescale that habitat degradation (dewatering in particular) is expected to act on both species at the population level. Thus, at this time, we do not consider the interactions between and among climate change, habitat fragmentation, stochastic events, and small population size to be a threat.
Section 4 of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1533), and its implementing regulations at 50 CFR part 424, set forth the procedures for adding species to the Federal Lists of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants. Under section 4(a)(1) of the Act, we may list a species based on (A) The present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of its habitat or range; (B) Overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes; (C) Disease or predation; (D) The inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; or (E) Other natural or manmade factors affecting its continued existence. Listing actions may be warranted based on any of the above threat factors, singly or in combination.
We have carefully assessed the best scientific and commercial information available regarding the past, present, and future threats to the meltwater lednian stonefly and the western glacier stonefly. Habitat fragmentation and degradation in the form of declining streamflows and increasing water temperatures resulting from climate change are currently affecting habitat for the meltwater lednian stonefly and the western glacier stonefly (Factor A). Habitat with a high probability of occupancy for the meltwater lednian stonefly is modeled to decrease 81 percent by 2030 (Muhlfeld
The Act defines an endangered species as any species that is “in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range” and a threatened species as any species “that is likely to become endangered throughout all or a significant portion of its range within the foreseeable future.” We find that the meltwater lednian stonefly is likely to become endangered throughout all or a significant portion of its range within the foreseeable future.
The meltwater lednian stonefly occupies a relatively narrow range of alpine habitats that are expected to become fragmented and degraded by climate change. Meltwater lednian stonefly habitat and populations are threatened by several factors that are expected to reduce the overall viability of the species. Therefore, on the basis of the best available scientific and commercial information, we propose listing the meltwater lednian stonefly as threatened in accordance with sections 3(6) and 4(a)(1) of the Act. We find that an endangered species status is not appropriate for the meltwater lednian stonefly because the species is not currently in danger of extinction because it faces relatively low near-term risk of extinction. Although the effects of climate change and drought are currently affecting, and expected to continue affecting, the alpine habitats occupied by the meltwater lednian stonefly, meltwater sources are expected to persist in the form of alpine springs and glacial lake outlets after the predicted melting of most glaciers in GNP by 2030. Densities and estimated abundance of the meltwater lednian stonefly are currently relatively high. In addition, some meltwater lednian stonefly populations continue to persist in meltwater habitats supplied by seasonal snowpack. These findings suggest that as climate change continues to impact stonefly habitat, some populations will likely persist in refugia areas at least through the foreseeable future. Thus, we find that the definition of threatened better characterizes the current status of the meltwater lednian stonefly and the likelihood that they will become in danger of extinction in the foreseeable future.
We also find that the western glacier stonefly is likely to become endangered throughout all or a significant portion of its range within the foreseeable future. Similar to meltwater lednian stonefly, the western glacier stonefly occupies a relatively narrow range of alpine habitats that are expected to become fragmented and degraded by climate change. Western glacier stonefly habitat and populations are threatened by several factors that are expected to reduce the overall viability of the species. Therefore, on the basis of the best available scientific and commercial information, we propose listing the western glacier stonefly as threatened in accordance with sections 3(6) and 4(a)(1) of the Act. We find that an endangered species status is not appropriate for the western glacier stonefly because the species is not currently in danger of extinction because it faces relatively low near-term risk of extinction. Although the effects of climate change and drought are currently affecting, and expected to continue affecting, the alpine habitats occupied by the western glacier stonefly, meltwater sources are expected to persist in the form of alpine springs and glacial lake outlets after the predicted melting of most glaciers in GNP by 2030. Although only four populations of western glacier stonefly are known, densities and estimated abundance of the western glacier stonefly within those populations are currently relatively high. These findings suggest that as climate change continues to impact stonefly habitat, some populations will likely persist in refugia areas at least through the foreseeable future. Thus, we find that the definition of threatened better characterizes the current status of the western glacier stonefly and the likelihood that they will become in danger of extinction in the foreseeable future.
Under the Act and our implementing regulations, a species may warrant listing if it is endangered or threatened throughout all or a significant portion of its range. Because we have determined that the meltwater lednian stonefly and the western glacier stonefly are threatened throughout all of their range, no portion of their range can be “significant” for purposes of the definitions of “endangered species” and “threatened species.” A detailed explanation of “significance” is included in our Final Policy on Interpretation of the Phrase “Significant Portion of Its Range” in the Endangered Species Act's Definitions of “Endangered Species” and “Threatened Species” (79 FR 37577, July 1, 2014).
Conservation measures provided to species listed as endangered or threatened species under the Act include recognition, recovery actions, requirements for Federal protection, and prohibitions against certain practices. Recognition through listing results in public awareness, and conservation by Federal, State, Tribal, and local agencies, private organizations, and individuals. The Act encourages cooperation with the States and other countries and calls for recovery actions to be carried out for listed species. The protection required by Federal agencies and the prohibitions against certain activities are discussed, in part, below.
The primary purpose of the Act is the conservation of endangered and threatened species and the ecosystems upon which they depend. The ultimate goal of such conservation efforts is the recovery of these listed species, so that they no longer need the protective measures of the Act. Subsection 4(f) of the Act calls for the Service to develop and implement recovery plans for the conservation of endangered and threatened species. The recovery planning process involves the identification of actions that are necessary to halt or reverse the species' decline by addressing the threats to its survival and recovery. The goal of this process is to restore listed species to a point where they are secure, self-sustaining, and functioning components of their ecosystems.
Recovery planning includes the development of a recovery outline shortly after a species is listed and preparation of a draft and final recovery plan. The recovery outline guides the immediate implementation of urgent recovery actions and describes the process to be used to develop a recovery plan. Revisions of the plan may be done to address continuing or new threats to the species, as new substantive information becomes available. The recovery plan also identifies recovery criteria for review of when a species may be ready for downlisting or delisting, and methods for monitoring recovery progress. Recovery plans also establish a framework for agencies to coordinate their recovery efforts and provide estimates of the cost of implementing recovery tasks. Recovery teams (composed of species experts, Federal and State agencies, nongovernmental organizations, and stakeholders) are often established to develop recovery plans. When completed, the recovery outline, draft recovery plan, and the final recovery plan will be available on our Web site
Implementation of recovery actions generally requires the participation of a broad range of partners, including other Federal agencies, States, Tribes, nongovernmental organizations, businesses, and private landowners. Examples of recovery actions include habitat restoration (
Although the meltwater lednian and the western glacier stonefly are only proposed for listing under the Act at this time, please let us know if you are interested in participating in recovery efforts for these species. Additionally, we invite you to submit any new information on these species whenever it becomes available and any information you may have for recovery planning purposes (see
Section 7(a) of the Act requires Federal agencies to evaluate their actions with respect to any species that is proposed or listed as an endangered or threatened species and with respect to its critical habitat, if any is designated. Regulations implementing this interagency cooperation provision of the Act are codified at 50 CFR part 402. Section 7(a)(4) of the Act requires Federal agencies to confer with the Service on any action that is likely to jeopardize the continued existence of a species proposed for listing or result in destruction or adverse modification of proposed critical habitat. If a species is listed subsequently, section 7(a)(2) of the Act requires Federal agencies to ensure that activities they authorize, fund, or carry out are not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of the species or destroy or adversely modify its critical habitat. If a Federal action may affect a listed species or its critical habitat, the responsible Federal agency must enter into consultation with the Service.
Federal agency actions within the species' habitat that may require conference or consultation or both as described in the preceding paragraph include management, any other landscape-altering activities, or research permit applications on Federal lands administered by the National Park Service and U.S. Forest Service.
Under section 4(d) of the Act, the Service has discretion to issue regulations that we find necessary and advisable to provide for the conservation of threatened species. The Act and its implementing regulations set forth a series of general prohibitions and exceptions that apply to threatened wildlife. The prohibitions of section 9(a)(1) of the Act, as applied to threatened wildlife and codified at 50 CFR 17.31, make it illegal for any person subject to the jurisdiction of the United States to take (which includes harass, harm, pursue, hunt, shoot, wound, kill, trap, capture, or collect; or to attempt any of these) threatened wildlife within the United States or on the high seas. In addition, it is unlawful to import; export; deliver, receive, carry, transport, or ship in interstate or foreign commerce in the course of commercial activity; or sell or offer for sale in interstate or foreign commerce any listed species. It is also illegal to possess, sell, deliver, carry, transport, or ship any such wildlife that has been taken illegally. Certain exceptions apply to employees of the Service, the National Marine Fisheries Service, other Federal land management agencies, and State conservation agencies.
We may issue permits to carry out otherwise prohibited activities involving threatened wildlife under certain circumstances. Regulations governing permits are codified at 50 CFR 17.32. With regard to threatened wildlife, a permit may be issued for the following purposes: for scientific purposes, to enhance the propagation or survival of the species, and for incidental take in connection with otherwise lawful activities. There are also certain statutory exemptions from the prohibitions, which are found in sections 9 and 10 of the Act.
It is our policy, as published in the
Based on the best available information, the following activities may potentially result in a violation of section 9 of the Act; this list is not comprehensive:
(1) Unauthorized handling or collecting of the species;
(2) Destruction/alteration of the species' habitat, whether aquatic or riparian.
Questions regarding whether specific activities would constitute a violation of section 9 of the Act should be directed to the Montana Ecological Services Field Office (see
Critical habitat is defined in section 3 of the Act as:
(1) The specific areas within the geographical area occupied by the species, at the time it is listed in accordance with the Act, on which are found those physical or biological features
(a) Essential to the conservation of the species, and
(b) Which may require special management considerations or protection; and
(2) Specific areas outside the geographical area occupied by the species at the time it is listed, upon a determination that such areas are essential for the conservation of the species.
Our regulations at 50 CFR 424.02 define the geographical area occupied by the species as: An area that may generally be delineated around species' occurrences, as determined by the Secretary (
Conservation, as defined under section 3 of the Act, means to use and the use of all methods and procedures that are necessary to bring an endangered or threatened species to the point at which the measures provided pursuant to the Act are no longer necessary. Such methods and procedures include, but are not limited to, all activities associated with scientific resources management such as research, census, law enforcement,
Section 4(a)(3) of the Act, as amended, and implementing regulations (50 CFR 424.12), require that, to the maximum extent prudent and determinable, the Secretary shall designate critical habitat at the time the species is determined to be an endangered or threatened species. Our regulations (50 CFR 424.12(a)(1)) state that the designation of critical habitat is not prudent when one or both of the following situations exist:
(1) The species is threatened by taking or other human activity, and identification of critical habitat can be expected to increase the degree of threat to the species, or
(2) such designation of critical habitat would not be beneficial to the species. In determining whether a designation would not be beneficial, the factors the Service may consider include but are not limited to: Whether the present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of a species' habitat or range is not a threat to the species, or whether any areas meet the definition of “critical habitat.”
As discussed above, there is currently no imminent threat of take attributed to collection or vandalism identified under Factor B for this species, and identification and mapping of critical habitat is not expected to initiate any such threat. In the absence of finding that the designation of critical habitat would increase threats to a species, we next determine whether such designation of critical habitat would not be beneficial to the species. In our analysis above, we determined that there are habitat-based threats to the meltwater lednian stonefly and the western glacier stonefly identified under Factor A. Therefore, we find that the designation of critical habitat would be beneficial to the meltwater lednian stonefly and the western glacier stonefly through the provisions of section 7 of the Act. Because we have determined that the designation of critical habitat will not likely increase the degree of threat to the species and would be beneficial, we find that designation of critical habitat is prudent for the meltwater lednian stonefly and the western glacier stonefly.
Having determined that designation is prudent, under section 4(a)(3) of the Act we must find whether critical habitat for meltwater lednian stonefly and western glacier stonefly is determinable. Our regulations (50 CFR 424.12(a)(2)) further state that critical habitat is not determinable when one or both of the following situations exists:
(i) Data sufficient to perform required analyses are lacking, or
(ii) The biological needs of the species are not sufficiently well known to identify any area that meets the definition of “critical habitat.”
When critical habitat is not determinable, the Act allows the Service an additional year to publish a critical habitat designation (16 U.S.C. 1533(b)(6)(C)(ii)). In this instance, we find that critical habitat is not determinable at this time because data sufficient to perform the required analyses are lacking, as explained below.
New information on western glacier stonefly was received late in the status review process (see
We are required by Executive Orders 12866 and 12988 and by the Presidential Memorandum of June 1, 1998, to write all rules in plain language. This means that each rule we publish must:
(1) Be logically organized;
(2) Use the active voice to address readers directly;
(3) Use clear language rather than jargon;
(4) Be divided into short sections and sentences; and
(5) Use lists and tables wherever possible.
If you feel that we have not met these requirements, send us comments by one of the methods listed in
We have determined that environmental assessments and environmental impact statements, as defined under the authority of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321
In accordance with the President's memorandum of April 29, 1994 (Government-to-Government Relations with Native American Tribal Governments; 59 FR 22951), Executive Order 13175 (Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments), and the Department of the Interior's manual at 512 DM 2, we readily acknowledge our responsibility to communicate meaningfully with recognized Federal Tribes on a government-to-government basis. In accordance with Secretarial Order 3206 of June 5, 1997 (American Indian Tribal Rights, Federal-Tribal Trust Responsibilities, and the Endangered Species Act), we readily acknowledge our responsibilities to work directly with tribes in developing programs for healthy ecosystems, to acknowledge that tribal lands are not subject to the same controls as Federal public lands, to remain sensitive to Indian culture, and to make information available to tribes. As part of our responsibilities to communicate meaningfully and work directly with Tribal Governments, we informed the Confederated Kootenai Salish Tribe (CKST) of our intent to conduct a status review on meltwater
A complete list of references cited in this rulemaking is available on the Internet at
The primary authors of this proposed rule are the staff members of the Montana Ecological Services Field Office.
Endangered and threatened species, Exports, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transportation.
Accordingly, we propose to amend part 17, subchapter B of chapter I, title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as set forth below:
16 U.S.C. 1361-1407; 16 U.S.C. 1531-1544; 16 U.S.C. 4201-4245; unless otherwise noted.
(h) * * *
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this information collection received by November 3, 2016 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725—17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20502. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Food and Nutrition Service, United States Department of Agriculture (USDA).
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice invites the general public and other public agencies to comment on this proposed information collection. This collection is a revision of a currently approved collection for the Child Nutrition Program Operations Study II (CN-OPS-II) (OMB Number 0584-0607, Expiration Date: 04/30/2019).
Written comments must be received on or before December 5, 2016.
Comments are invited on (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions that were used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Comments may be sent to: Devin Wallace-Williams, Ph.D., Social Science Research Analyst, Office of Policy Support, Food and Nutrition Service, USDA, 3101 Park Center Drive, VA 22302. Comments may also be submitted via fax to the attention of Devin Wallace-Williams at 703-305-2576 or via email to
All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval. All comments will be a matter of public record.
To request more information on the proposed project, contact Devin Wallace-Williams, Ph.D., Social Science Research Analyst, Office of Policy Support, Food and Nutrition Service, USDA, 3101 Park Center Drive, Alexandria, VA 22302; Fax: 703-305-2576; Email:
CN-OPS-II will help the Food and Nutrition Service (FNS) better understand and address current policy issues related to CNP operations. The policy and operational issues include, but are not limited to, the preparation of the program budget, development and implementation of program policy and regulations, and identification of areas for technical assistance and training. Specifically, this study will help FNS obtain:
• General descriptive data on the CN program characteristics to help FNS respond to questions about the nutrition programs in schools;
• Data related to program administration for designing and revising program regulations, managing resources, and reporting requirements; and
• Data related to program operations to help FNS develop and provide training and technical assistance for School Food Authorities (SFAs) and State Agencies responsible for administering the CN programs.
The activities to be undertaken subject to this notice include:
• Conducting a multi-modal (
• Conducting a multi-modal (
National Institute of Food and Agriculture.
Notice and request for comments.
The National Institute of Food and Agriculture, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public to take this opportunity to comment on the “Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery” for approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). This collection was developed to create a vehicle for obtaining stakeholder feedback. This notice announces our intent to submit this collection to Office of Management and Budget for approval and solicits comments on specific aspects for the proposed information collection.
Consideration will be given to all comments received by December 5, 2016. Comments received after that date will be considered to the extent practicable.
Written comments may be submitted by any of the following methods: Email:
Robert Martin, Records Officer; email:
This collection of information is necessary to enable NIFA, herein “the Agency,” to garner feedback from customers, stakeholders, and partners (herein “stakeholders”) in an efficient and timely manner, and in accordance with our commitment to providing the highest quality service delivery. The information collected from our stakeholders will help NIFA identify emerging and significant priorities in food and agriculture; refine NIFA's business processes; and promote inclusiveness and diversity to ensure that NIFA drives outcomes that meets the needs of all Americans.
Improving agency programs requires ongoing assessment of NIFA's programs and processes, by which we mean systematic review of the operation of a program compared to a set of explicit or implicit standards. NIFA will collect, analyze, and interpret information gathered through this generic clearance to identify strengths and weaknesses of current services and make improvements based on stakeholder feedback. If this information is not collected, NIFA's ability to respond to stakeholders' needs and continuously improve programs and services will be greatly diminished.
The solicitation of feedback will target areas in: Strategic, portfolio, and programmatic planning; competitive and non-competitive awards processes; post-award management; information technology systems and Web sites; and, grants management training. Responses will inform efforts to improve or maintain the quality of service offered to the public.
The Agency will only submit a collection for approval under this generic clearance if it meets the following conditions:
• The collections are voluntary;
• The collections are low-burden for respondents (based on considerations of total burden hours, total number of respondents, or burden-hours per respondent) and are low-cost for both the respondents and the Federal Government;
• The collections are non-controversial and do not raise issues of concern to other Federal agencies;
• Any collection is targeted to the solicitation of opinions from respondents who have experience with the program or may have experience with the program in the near future;
• Information gathered will be used only internally for general service improvement and program management purposes and is not intended for release outside of the agency;
• Information gathered will not be used for the purpose of substantially informing influential policy decisions; and
• Information gathered will yield qualitative information; the collections will not be designed or expected to yield statistically reliable results or used as though the results are generalizable to the population of study.
Feedback collected under this generic clearance provides useful information, but it does not yield data that can be generalized to the overall population. This type of generic clearance for qualitative information will not be used for quantitative information collections that are designed to yield reliably actionable results, such as monitoring trends over time or documenting program performance. Such data uses require more rigorous designs that address: the target population to which generalizations will be made, the sampling frame, the sample design (including stratification and clustering), the precision requirements or power calculations that justify the proposed sample size, the expected response rate, methods for assessing potential non-response bias, the protocols for data collection, and any testing procedures that were or will be undertaken prior to fielding the study. Depending on the degree of influence the results are likely to have, such collections may still be eligible for submission for other generic mechanisms that are designed to yield quantitative results.
As a general matter, information collections will not result in any new system of records containing privacy information and will not ask questions of a sensitive nature, such as sexual behavior and attitudes, religious beliefs, and other matters that are commonly considered private.
Below we provide projected average estimates for the next three years:
All written comments will be available for public inspection on
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget control number.
Rural Business-Cooperative Service, USDA.
Proposed collection; comments requested.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice announces the Rural Business-Cooperative Service's intention to request an extension for a currently approved information collection in support of the Rural Economic Development Loan and Grant Program.
Comments on this notice must be received by December 5, 2016, to be assured of consideration.
Director, Specialty Programs Division, Rural Business-Cooperative Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, STOP 3226, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20250-3226, Telephone (202) 720-1400.
Copies of this information collection can be obtained from Jeanne Jacobs, Regulations and Paperwork Management Branch, Support Services Division at (202) 692-0040.
Rural Business-Cooperative Service, Department of Agriculture.
Proposed Collection; Comments Requested.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), this Notice announces the Rural Business-Cooperative Service intention to request an extension for to a currently approved information collection for the Rural Microentrepreneur Assistance Program (RMAP).
Comments on this notice must be received by December 5, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Director, Specialty Programs Division, Rural Business-Cooperative Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20250-3226, Telephone (202) 720-1400,
Comments are invited on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Comments may be sent to Jeanne Jacobs, Regulations and Paperwork Management Branch, Support Services Division, U.S. Department of Agriculture, Rural Development, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 0742, Washington, DC 20250. All comments received will be available for public inspection during regular business hours at the same address.
All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this information collection received by November 3, 2016 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725—17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20502. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2004 (Title III, Pub. L. 108-199, Stat.3), 7 CFR 1739 Subpart A, as amended, authorizes the Rural Development, Rural Utilities Service (RUS) to administer the Community Connect Grant Program for the provision of broadband transmission service in rural America. Grant authority is utilized to deploy broadband infrastructure to extremely rural, lower income communities on a “community-oriented connectivity” basis.
MTD Consumer Group, Inc. (MTD), submitted a notification of proposed production activity to the FTZ Board for its facility in Verona, Mississippi, within FTZ 158. The notification conforming to the requirements of the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR 400.22) was received on September 13, 2016.
The MTD facility is located within Site 17 of FTZ 158. The facility is used for the production of lawn and garden equipment. Pursuant to 15 CFR 400.14(b), FTZ activity would be limited to the specific foreign-status materials and components and specific finished products described in the submitted notification (as described below) and subsequently authorized by the FTZ Board.
Production under FTZ procedures could exempt MTD from customs duty payments on the foreign-status components used in export production. On its domestic sales, MTD would be able to choose the duty rates during customs entry procedures that apply to water pumps; blowers; power washers; tillers; de-thatchers; aerators; snow throwers; walk behind mowers; mower attachments; edgers; wheeled string trimmers; chippers; shredders; chipper/shredder/vacuums (CSVs); log splitters; and, 2-wheel tractors (duty rates range between free and 2.4%) for the foreign-status inputs noted below. Customs duties also could possibly be deferred or reduced on foreign-status production equipment.
The components and materials sourced from abroad include: polyvinyl chloride tubes; plastic flexible hoses/adhesive labels/bagger cover panels; rubber v-belts/tire inner tubes/0-rings/oil seals/water seals/plugs; cardboard retail cartons; textile grass catcher bags; steel hydraulic fittings/control cables/screw rings/hexagonal head bolts/nuts/washers/pins/springs/mower blades; metal frame brackets; gasoline-powered engines; engine shrouds; hydraulic cylinders; reciprocating positive displacement pumps; hydraulic fluid power pumps; pump parts (ports, bodies and cores); wheels for leaf blowers; hydraulic fluid inlet filters; air cleaners; pressure washer spray gun/nozzle fittings/nozzle extension tubes; snow thrower wheels; block joint assemblies for snow throwers; tiller parts (tine/handle assemblies, handle covers, tines, bails, drive handles, handle height adjuster plates); lawn mower wheels; water nozzle adapters for lawn mower decks; blower chutes for lawn mowers; wheeled string trimmer bodies; string trimmer handles; log splitter wheels; hitch coupling assemblies for log splitters; steel screens for wood chippers; wedges for wood chippers; edger wheels; manual directional valves for hydraulic fluid on log splitters; valve parts for log splitters; radial ball bearings; transmission shafts/cranks/assemblies; worm gears; gearbox housings; metal magnets; motor starters; axles for 2-wheel tractors; and, wheel barrow/cart wheels with tires (duty rates range from free to 9%).
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is November 14, 2016.
A copy of the notification will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the FTZ Board's Web site, which is accessible via
For further information, contact Diane Finver at
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is initiating an expedited review of the countervailing duty order on certain corrosion-resistant steel products (CORE) from the Republic of Korea (Korea) with respect to POSCO and Hyundai Steel Company (Hyundai).
Effective October 4, 2016.
Myrna Lobo, AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone (202) 482-2371.
On July 25, 2016, the Department published the countervailing duty order on CORE from Korea.
In accordance with 19 CFR 351.214(k)(1)(i)-(iii), POSCO and Hyundai each certified that it exported the subject merchandise to the United States during the period of investigation; that it was not affiliated with an exporter or producer that the Department individually examined in the investigation; and that it informed the Government of Korea, as the government of the exporting country, that the government will be required to
Therefore, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.214(k), we are initiating an expedited review of the countervailing duty order on CORE from Korea. Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.214(i)(1) and (k)(3), we intend to issue the preliminary results of this expedited review not later than 180 days from the date of initiation of this review.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.214(k)(3)(iii), the final results of this expedited review will not be the basis for the assessment of countervailing duties. Instead, this expedited review is intended to establish individual cash deposit rates for POSCO and Hyundai, or to exclude from the countervailing duty order a company for which the final results of review are zero or
Interested parties must submit applications for disclosure under administrative protective orders in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305 and 351.306.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Department of Commerce.
Notice; request for information.
We, NMFS, are convening a workshop to solicit facts and information from experts to inform recovery planning for the Main Hawaiian Islands (MHI) insular false killer whale (
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You may submit information by either of the following methods:
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Krista Graham, NMFS, Pacific Islands Regional Office, 808-725-5152. You may also visit our Web site at:
On November 28, 2012, we published a final rule listing the MHI insular false killer whale DPS as endangered under the Endangered Species Act (ESA) (77 FR 70915). The final listing rule describes the background of the listing action for this DPS and provides a summary of our conclusions regarding its status. For additional background and a summary of natural history and threats to the species, the reader is referred to the status review report and final listing rule (available at
NMFS is required by section 4(f) of the ESA to develop and implement recovery plans for the conservation and survival of federally listed species unless the Secretary finds that such a plan will not promote the conservation of the species. Recovery means that listed species and their ecosystems are restored, and their future secured, so that the protections of the ESA are no longer necessary. The ESA specifies that recovery plans are to include (1) a description of site-specific management actions necessary to achieve the plan's goals for the conservation and survival of the species; (2) objective, measurable criteria which, when met, would result in the species being removed from the list; and (3) estimates of the time and costs required to carry out the actions and achieve the plan's conservation goals. Under Section 4(f) of the ESA, public notice and an opportunity for public review and comment are also provided during recovery plan development. We published a Notice of Intent and Request for Information to Prepare a Recovery Plan for this DPS in October of 2013 (78 FR 60850). We received seven substantive public comments in response to that notice, which remain relevant and will be considered in the recovery planning process. Because significant time has elapsed since the last request, we are requesting any relevant information that may have become available.
This notice and request for information serves as a second public notice and opportunity for public input early in the process. Once a recovery plan has been drafted, it will be announced in the
From October 25 through 28, 2016, NMFS will hold a workshop at the Ohana Waikiki East Hotel in Honolulu, HI to help inform our recovery planning for the MHI insular false killer whale DPS (see
NMFS will provide a moderator to manage the workshop as well as a notetaker to document input received. We are seeking only individual analysis, facts, and opinions from participants. Questions to the participants will be limited to those necessary to clarify the expert's presentation and questions seeking consensus among panelists or experts will not be entertained. NMFS also will provide a time-limited question and answer period during which attendees may ask NMFS about information presented. NMFS will prepare a summary of the workshop, noting the main points raised by the panelists and registered speakers.
This workshop will be open to the public, and a public comment period will be provided at the end of each session. If you plan to attend the workshop as an interested member of the public, please contact Krista Graham at the address listed above by October 21, 2016, so we can ensure sufficient space for all participants and interested parties during our logistics planning.
○ October 25-26 will focus on recovery actions and criteria related to non-longline commercial and recreational fisheries interactions;
○ October 27 will focus on recovery actions and criteria related to nutrition,
○ October 28 will focus on recovery actions and criteria related to other threats to both the species itself and its habitat including noise and contaminants.
We also invite the public to submit scientific or commercial information that may help to inform the recovery criteria and actions for the MHI insular false killer whale DPS. We are soliciting relevant information related to the MHI insular false killer whale and its habitat, including the following:
1. Criteria for removing the MHI insular false killer whale from the list of threatened and endangered species (this could be either threats-based or abundance/trends based);
2. Human activities that contribute to threats to the species;
3. Physical, biological or chemical features of the environment that limit the recovery of the MHI insular false killer whale;
4. Recovery strategies addressing threats to physical and biological features that are essential to species conservation;
5. Strategies and/or actions to recover the MHI insular false killer whale;
6. Estimates of the time and cost to implement recovery actions;
7. Critical knowledge gaps and/or uncertainties that need to be resolved to better inform recovery efforts; and
8. Research, monitoring, and evaluation needs to address knowledge gaps and uncertainties, or to assess the species' status, limiting factors, and threats relative to recovery goals.
Information may be submitted via the methods listed above in the
The workshop is accessible to persons with disabilities. Send requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids at least five business days in advance to Krista Graham at 808-725-5152.
16 U.S.C. 1531
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; receipt of application.
Notice is hereby given that SMRU Consulting North America, LLC, P.O. Box 764, Friday Harbor, WA 98250, has applied in due form for a permit to conduct research on harbor porpoises and harbor seals in Admiralty Inlet and the San Juan Islands, Washington.
Written, telefaxed, or email comments must be received on or before November 3, 2016.
The application and related documents are available for review by selecting “Records Open for Public Comment” from the “Features” box on the Applications and Permits for Protected Species (APPS) home page,
These documents are also available upon written request or by appointment in the Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, 1315 East-West Highway, Room 13705, Silver Spring, MD 20910; phone (301) 427-8401; fax (301) 713-0376.
Written comments on this application should be submitted to the Chief, Permits and Conservation Division, at the address listed above. Comments may also be submitted by facsimile to (301) 713-0376, or by email to
Those individuals requesting a public hearing should submit a written request to the Chief, Permits and Conservation Division at the address listed above. The request should set forth the specific reasons why a hearing on this application would be appropriate.
Sara Young or Carrie Hubard, (301) 427-8401.
The subject permit is requested under the authority of the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, as amended (MMPA; 16 U.S.C. 1361
The applicant proposes to characterize the behavioral responses of harbor porpoise (
In compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42
Concurrent with the publication of this notice in the
Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
Notice and request for comment.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (The Bureau) is proposing to renew the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for an existing information collection titled, “Truth in Savings Act (Regulation DD) 12 CFR 1030.”
Written comments are encouraged and must be received on or before November 3, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
You may submit comments, identified by the title of the information collection, OMB Control Number (see below), and docket number (see above), by any of the following methods:
•
•
Documentation prepared in support of this information collection request is available at
Corporation for National and Community Service.
Notice.
The Corporation for National and Community Service (CNCS), as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a pre-clearance consultation program to provide the general public and federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA95) (44 U.S.C. Sec. 3506(c)(2)(A)). This program helps to ensure that requested data can be provided in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the impact of collection requirement on respondents can be properly assessed.
Currently, CNCS is soliciting comments concerning its proposed use of the AmeriCorps NCCC Project Completion Report. The report is used to collect project assessment and implementation information. Organizations that are awarded and sponsor an AmeriCorps NCCC team will be required to complete this collection instrument.
Copies of the information collection request can be obtained by contacting
Written comments must be submitted to the individual and office listed in the
You may submit comments, identified by the title of the information collection activity, by any of the following methods:
(1)
(2) By hand delivery or by courier to the CNCS mailroom at the mail address given in paragraph (1) above, between 9:00 a.m. and 4:00 p.m. Eastern Time, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
(3) Electronically through
Individuals who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TTY-TDD) may call 1-800-833-3722 between 8:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m. Eastern Time, Monday through Friday.
Terry D. Grant, 202-606-6899, or by email at
CNCS is particularly interested in comments that:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of CNCS, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are expected to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology (
Organizations that sponsor an AmeriCorps NCCC team provide the information collected on this form in order to report on the project's implementation and assess the project's scope and community impact.
This is a new information collection request. The AmeriCorps NCCC Project Completion Report is distributed to organizations that have hosted an NCCC team within 30 days of the end of each project and should be completed within 60 days of the end of each project. Reports are submitted via PDF by email to NCCC staff.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval of the information collection request; they will also become a matter of public record.
Department of Navy (DON), DoD.
Notice.
In compliance with the
Consideration will be given to all comments received by December 5, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by any of the following methods:
•
•
Any associated form(s) for this collection may be located within this same electronic docket and downloaded for review/testing. Follow the instructions at
To request more information on this proposed information collection or to obtain a copy of the proposal and associated collection instruments, please write to the Naval Sea Systems Command (SEA 05C), 1333 Isaac Hull Avenue SE., STOP 1340, Washington Navy Yard, ATTN: Denitra Carter, Washington, DC 20376-1340, at (202) 781-5069.
Respondents are businesses involved in shipbuilding and/or ship repair who provide NAVSEA and MARAD with information and a list of facilities available for the construction or repair of ships that is utilized in a database for assessing the production capacity of the individual shipyards.
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of AltaGas Pomona Energy Storage Inc.s application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is October 18, 2016.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and § 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
Any person desiring to protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rule 211 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of supplemental action denying petitions for reconsideration.
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is providing notice that it has clarified the scope of its July 29, 2016, response to petitions for reconsideration of the 2012 final rule titled “Oil and Natural Gas Sector: New Source Performance Standards and National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants Reviews” and the subsequent amendments published in the
Effective October 4, 2016.
Ms. Lisa Thompson, Sector Policies and Programs Division (E143-05), Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, Environmental Protection Agency, Research Triangle Park, North Carolina 27711; telephone number: (919) 541-9775; fax number: (919) 541-3470; email address:
A copy of this
On August 16, 2012, the EPA published the final rule titled “Oil and Natural Gas Sector: New Source Performance Standards and National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants Reviews.” See 77 FR 49490. The rule contains final actions on two different national standards for the oil and natural gas sector: (1) NSPS, promulgated under section 111 of the Clean Air Act (CAA) and (2) NESHAP, promulgated under section 112 of the CAA. The 2012 rule was followed by a series of reconsideration actions and amendments to the 2012 NSPS. 78 FR 58416 (September 23, 2013); 79 FR 79018 (December 31, 2014); 80 FR 48262 (August 12, 2015); and 81 FR 35824 (June 3, 2016) (“2016 Final Rule”). The EPA received administrative petitions for reconsideration of the 2012 rules (on both the NSPS and the NESHAP), as well as for reconsideration of the 2013 and 2014 NSPS amendments. On July 29, 2016, the Administrator took final action denying these petitions with respect to NSPS issues not otherwise addressed in prior reconsideration actions. That action was announced in a
The EPA is providing notice that it has issued a supplemental letter to clarify the scope of its July 29, 2016, action. The supplemental letter further clarifies that the July 29, 2016, action was not intended to include denial of reconsideration of any issue relative to the 2012 NESHAP and that the EPA continues to evaluate reconsideration issues relative to the 2012 NESHAP. The letter also states that, to the extent the July 29, 2016, letter may be construed to have denied reconsideration of issues relative to the 2012 NESHAP, the
Enclosed with the supplemental letter is a revised document titled “Denial of Petitions for Reconsideration of Certain Issues: Oil and Natural Gas New Source Performance Standards (40 CFR part 60, subpart OOOO).” The document sets forth the EPA's reasons for denying the above mentioned petitions with respect to NSPS issues not otherwise addressed in previous reconsideration actions. The NSPS reconsideration denial supporting document that accompanied the July 29, 2016 letters has been revised to remove two erroneous references: (1) Replaced No. 4591 with No. 4575 as the Petitioner for Issue 26; and (2) removed No. 4591 from the list of NSPS Petitioners in Appendix A.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency is planning to submit an information collection request (ICR), “Final Rule at 40 CFR part 8: Environmental Impact Assessment of Nongovernmental Activities in Antarctica” (EPA ICR No. 1808.07, OMB Control No. 2020-0007) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
Comments must be submitted on or before Monday, December 5, 2016.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OECA-2007-0468 online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Julie Roemele, Office of Federal Activities, Mail Code 2252A, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: (202) 564-5632; fax number: (202) 564-0072; email address:
Supporting documents which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Pursuant to section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, EPA is soliciting comments and information to enable it to: (i) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (ii) evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (iii) enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (iv) minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
The Protocol and the Rule also require an operator to employ procedures to assess and provide a regular and verifiable record of the actual impacts of an activity which proceeds on the basis of an IEE or CEE. The record developed through these measures needs to be designed to: (a) Enable assessments to be made of the extent to which environmental impacts of nongovernmental expeditions are consistent with the Protocol; and (b) provide information useful for minimizing and mitigating those impacts and, where appropriate, on the need for suspension, cancellation, or modification of the activity. Moreover, an operator needs to monitor key environmental indicators for an activity proceeding on the basis of a CEE. An operator may also need to carry out monitoring in order to assess and verify the impact of an activity for which an IEE would be prepared. For activities that require an IEE, an operator should be able to use procedures currently being voluntarily utilized by operators to provide the required information. Should an activity require a CEE, the operator should consult with EPA to: (a) Identify the monitoring regime appropriate to that activity, and (b) determine whether and how the operator might utilize relevant monitoring data collected by the U.S. Antarctic Program. The Office of Federal Activities (OFA) would consult with the National Science Foundation and other interested Federal agencies regarding the monitoring regime.
In cases of emergency related to the safety of human life or of ships, aircraft, equipment and facilities of high value, or the protection of the environment which would require an activity to be undertaken without completion of the documentation procedures set out in the Rule, the operator would need to notify the Department of State within 15 days of any activities which would have otherwise required preparation of a CEE, and provide a full explanation of the activities carried out within 45 days of those activities. (During the time the Interim Final and Final Rules have been in effect, there were no emergencies requiring notification by U.S. operators. An Interim Final Rule was in effect from April 30, 1997, until replaced on December 6, 2001, by the Final Rule).
Environmental documents (
The types of nongovernmental activities currently being carried out (
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The EPA Science Advisory Board (SAB) Staff Office announces a public meeting of the Clean Air Scientific Advisory Committee (CASAC) Oxides of Nitrogen Primary National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) Review Panel to peer review EPA's
The CASAC Oxides of Nitrogen Primary NAAQS Review Panel meeting will be on Wednesday, November 9, 2016 from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. (Eastern Time) and on Thursday, November 10, 2016 from 8:30 a.m. to 12:30 p.m. (Eastern Time).
The public meeting will be held at the Embassy Suites by Hilton Alexandria Old Town, 1900 Diagonal Road, Alexandria, Virginia 22314.
Any member of the public wishing to obtain information concerning the public meeting may contact Mr. Aaron Yeow, Designated Federal Officer (DFO), EPA Science Advisory Board Staff Office (1400R), U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20460; by telephone at (202) 564-2050 or via email at
The CASAC was established pursuant to the Clean Air Act (CAA) Amendments of 1977, codified at 42 U.S.C. 7409(d)(2), to review air quality criteria and NAAQS and recommend any new NAAQS and revisions of existing criteria and NAAQS as may be appropriate. The CASAC shall also provide advice, information, and recommendations to the Administrator on the scientific and technical aspects of issues related to the criteria for air quality standards, research related to air quality, sources of air pollution, and of adverse effects which may result from various strategies to attain and maintain air quality standards. The CASAC is a Federal Advisory Committee chartered under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), 5 U.S.C., App. 2. Section 109(d)(1) of the CAA requires that the Agency periodically review and revise, as appropriate, the air quality criteria and the NAAQS for the six “criteria” air pollutants, including oxides of nitrogen. EPA is currently reviewing the primary (health-based) NAAQS for nitrogen dioxide (NO
Pursuant to FACA and EPA policy, notice is hereby given that the CASAC Oxides of Nitrogen Primary NAAQS Review Panel will hold a public meeting to peer review EPA's
Federal advisory committees and panels, including scientific advisory committees, provide independent advice to EPA. Members of the public can submit relevant comments on the topic of this advisory activity, including the charge to the panel and the EPA review documents, and/or the group conducting the activity, for the CASAC to consider during the advisory process. Input from the public to the CASAC will have the most impact if it provides specific scientific or technical information or analysis for CASAC panels to consider or if it relates to the clarity or accuracy of the technical information. Members of the public wishing to provide comment should contact the DFO directly.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Office of the Science Advisor announces two separate public meetings of the Human Studies Review Board (HSRB) to advise the Agency on the ethical and scientific review of research involving human subjects.
A public virtual meeting will be held on October 19-20, 2016, from 1:00 p.m. to approximately 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time each day. A separate, subsequent teleconference meeting is planned for Tuesday, December 13, 2016, from 2:00 p.m. to approximately 3:30 p.m. for the HSRB to finalize its Final Report of the October 19-20, 2016 meeting.
Both of these meetings will be conducted entirely by telephone and on the Internet using Adobe Connect. For detailed access information visit the HSRB Web site:
Any member of the public who wishes to receive further information should contact the HSRB Designated Federal Official, Jim Downing on telephone number (202) 564-2468; fax number: (202) 564-2070; email address:
The HSRB encourages the public's input. You may participate in these meetings by following the instructions in this section.
1.
2.
The HSRB is a Federal advisory committee operating in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act 5 U.S.C. App. 2 § 9. The HSRB provides advice, information, and recommendations on issues related to scientific and ethical aspects of human subjects research that are submitted to the Office of Pesticide Programs to be used for regulatory purposes. The major objectives of the HSRB are to provide advice and recommendations on: (1) Research proposals and protocols; (2) reports of completed research with human subjects; and (3) how to strengthen EPA's programs for protection of human subjects of research.
On December 13, 2016, the Human Studies Review Board will review and finalize their draft Final Report from the October 19-20, 2016 meeting. The draft report will be available prior to the conference call at
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before December 5, 2016. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicole Ongele, FCC, via email to
For additional information about the information collection, contact Nicole Ongele at (202) 418-2991.
Federal Election Commission.
Thursday, September 29, 2016 at the conclusion of the open meeting.
999 E Street NW., Washington, DC.
This meeting was closed to the public.
Matters concerning participation in civil actions or proceeding, or arbitration. Internal personnel rules and internal rules and practices.
Judith Ingram, Press Officer, Telephone: (202) 694-1220.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than October 28, 2016.
A. Federal Reserve Bank of New York (Ivan Hurwitz, Vice President) 33 Liberty Street, New York, New York 10045-0001. Comments can also be sent electronically to
1.
Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of request for comments regarding an extension to an existing OMB clearance.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review
Submit comments on or before November 3, 2016.
Submit comments identified by Information Collection 9000-0136, Commercial Item Acquisitions, by any of the following methods:
•
Submit comments via the Federal eRulemaking portal by searching the OMB control number. Select the link “Submit a Comment” that corresponds with “Information Collection 9000-0136, Commercial Item Acquisitions”. Follow the instructions provided at the “Submit a Comment” screen. Please include your name, company name (if any), and “Information Collection 9000-0136, Commercial Item Acquisitions” on your attached document.
•
Mr. Michael O. Jackson, Procurement Analyst, Office of Governmentwide Acquisition Policy, GSA, at 202-208-4949, or email at
The Federal Acquisition Streamlining Act of 1994 reformed Federal acquisition statutes to encourage and facilitate the acquisition of commercial items and services by the Federal Government. Accordingly, DoD, NASA, and GSA amended the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) to include streamlined/simplified procedures for the acquisition of commercial items.
Pertinent to this information collection, FAR Provision 52.212-3, “Offeror Representations and Certifications—Commercial Items,” was implemented to combine the multitude of individual provisions used in Government solicitations into a single provision for use in commercial acquisitions. The provision is among the representations and certifications that are available for completion in the System for Award Management (SAM).
Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of functions of the Federal Acquisition Regulations (FAR), and whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways in which we can minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through the use of appropriate technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please cite OMB Control No. 9000-0136 regarding Commercial Item Acquisitions in all correspondence.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing efforts to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on a proposed study project entitled “Survey of Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) Provider Practices in the United States”. The primary goal of this study is to better understand policies and practices for STD care delivery among medical providers who typically see patients for STDs. Another goal is to assess awareness and use of CDC's STD treatment guidelines.
Written comments must be received on or before December 5, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2016-0096 by any of the following methods:
•
•
To request more information on the
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
Survey of Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) Provider Practices in the United States—NEW—National Center for HIV/AIDS, Viral Hepatitis, STD, and TB Prevention (NCHHSTP), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
Each year, 19.7 million sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) occur in the U.S., half of which strike youth 15−24 years of age.—The public health burden of STDs is compounded by their economic impact. In 2010, an estimated $15.6 billion in direct medical costs were attributed to STDs. Undiagnosed and untreated STDs can lead to serious long-term health consequences, especially for adolescent girls and young adult women. For example, every year, about 24,000 young women become infertile as a result of undiagnosed and untreated STDs. The STD Provider Survey will collect much needed data from U.S. health care providers in specialties that typically see STD patients, including physician specialties such as obstetrics/gynecology, internal medicine, general or family practice, emergency medicine, or pediatrics. Knowledge of provider practices relative to guidelines and state-level laws and policies will provide information useful to stakeholders at all levels regarding the delivery of STD preventive services and treatment by health care providers in the U.S. As providers are one of the few professionals who have face-to-face contact with persons infected with STDs, they are also a potential intervention point for attempts to reduce re-infection and halt the further transmission of STDs. There is no national survey that collects detailed information on STD practices of physicians who typically see STD patients.
The purpose of this survey is to conduct a nationally representative survey of physicians who typically see STD patients (
The survey contains sections on the physician's specialty areas, primary practice setting, primacy practice policies, patient demographics, STD testing and diagnosis, STD care and treatment, and respondent demographics.
In an effort to better understand policies and practices for STD care delivery among medical providers who typically see patients for STDs, the surveys will be sent to a random sample of 5,000 U.S. physicians across several specialties using the American Medical Association Master file. Using a multimode design (mail and web), multiple reminders will be sent to non-responders in order to reach the target of 3,000 completed surveys.
There is no cost to respondents.
Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS).
Notice of Computer Matching Program.
In accordance with the requirements of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, this notice announces the establishment of a Computer Matching Program that CMS plans to conduct with the Peace Corps (PC).
Comments are invited on all portions of this notice. Public comments are due within 30 days after publication. The matching program will become effective no sooner than 40 days after the report of the matching program is sent to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and Congress, or 30 days after publication in the
The public should send comments to: CMS Privacy Act Officer, Division of Security, Privacy Policy & Governance, Information Security & Privacy Group, Office of Enterprise Information, CMS, Room N l-24-08, 7500 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, Maryland 21244-1850. Comments received will be available for review at this location, by appointment, during regular business hours, Monday through Friday from 9:00 a.m.-3:00 p.m., Eastern Time zone.
Lindsey Murtagh, Center for Consumer Information and Insurance Oversight, Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, Phone: (301) 492-4106, Email:
The Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act of 1988 (Public Law (Pub. L.) 100-503), amended the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) by describing the manner in which computer matching involving Federal agencies could be performed and adding certain protections for individuals applying for and receiving Federal benefits. Section 7201 of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-508) further amended the Privacy Act regarding protections for such individuals. The Privacy Act, as amended, regulates the use of computer matching by Federal agencies when records in a system of records are matched with other Federal, state, or local government records. It requires Federal agencies involved in a CMP to:
1. Negotiate written agreements with the other agencies participating in the matching programs;
2. Obtain the Data Integrity Board approval of the match agreements;
3. Furnish detailed reports about matching programs to Congress and OMB;
4. Notify applicants and beneficiaries that the records are subject to matching; and,
5. Verify match findings before reducing, suspending, terminating, or denying an individual's benefits or payments.
This matching program meets the requirements of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended.
Computer Matching Agreement between the Department of Health and Human Services, Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services and the Peace Corps for the “Verification of Eligibility for Minimum Essential Coverage Under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act Through a Peace Corps Health Benefits Plan.”
Unclassified
Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), and the Peace Corps (PC).
Sections 1411 and 1413 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-148), as amended by the Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-152) (collectively, the ACA) require the Secretary of HHS to establish a program for applying for and determining eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions and authorize use of secure, electronic interfaces and an on-line system for the verification of eligibility.
The Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act of 1988 (CMPPA) (Pub. L. 100-503), amended the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) and requires the parties participating in a matching program to execute a written agreement specifying the terms and conditions under which the matching will be conducted. CMS has determined that status verification checks to be conducted through the CMS Data Services Hub (Hub) by agencies administering insurance affordability programs using data provided in bulk by PC through a security transfer data protocol to CMS constitute a “computer matching program” as defined in the CMPPA.
The purpose of the Computer Matching Agreement is to establish the terms, conditions, safeguards, and procedures under which the Peace Corps will provide records, information, or data to CMS for verifying eligibility for Minimum Essential Coverage through a Peace Corps Health Benefits Plan. The data will be used by CMS in its capacity as a Federally-facilitated Exchange, and agencies administering insurance affordability programs that will receive the results of verifications using PC data obtained through the CMS Data Services Hub.
Data will be matched for the purpose of verifying an Applicant or Enrollee's eligibility for PC Health Benefit Plans that constitute minimum essential coverage as defined in § 5000A(f) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 26 U.S.C. 5000A, as amended by § 1501 of the ACA.
The Peace Corps maintains the following SORN to support this data matching program: “Peace Corps Manual Section 897, Attachment B, PC-17 Volunteer Applicant and Service Records System.” Routine Use (i) is used “to verify active or former Volunteer service”—supports disclosure to CMS.
CMS maintains the following SORN to support this data to support this data matching program: “Health Insurance Exchanges Program (HIX)”, CMS System No. 09-70-0560, originally published at 78 Fed. Reg. 8538 (Feb. 6, 2013), and last amended at 78
The CMP will become effective no sooner than 40 days after the report of
Children's Bureau, ACYF, ACF, HHS.
Notice.
The Administration for Children and Families (ACF), Administration for Children Youth and Families (ACYF), Children's Bureau announces the award of a single-source supplement grant in the amount of $547,000 to the National Child Welfare Capacity Building Center for Tribes (CBCT), operated by the University of Denver (Colorado Seminary). The primary goal of this grant is to provide capacity-building services to title IV-E and IV-B American Indian and Alaska Native Nations (AI/AN), and to promote intergovernmental collaboration between tribes and state child welfare agencies in system improvement work.
Supplemental funding will support activities and costs from September 30, 2016, through September 29, 2017.
Dr. Roshanda Shoulders, Children's Bureau, 330 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20024. Telephone: 202-401-5323; email:
Supplemental funds would be used to enhance the development and delivery of high-quality products and services designed to build the capacities of child welfare systems to improve outcomes for AI/AN children, youth, and families and their communities. These enhanced services will build on CBCT's existing engagement and partnerships with state and tribal child welfare agencies to further address the needs of, and reduce disparities for, native children and families (
The supplemental funding will afford CBCT the opportunity to provide expanded universal and tailored technical assistance to tribes across the nation and allow for expanded and enhanced collaboration and coordination with the other capacity building providers.
The programmatic components targeted under this supplement will be for CBCT expansion activities to better meet the national need for universal and tailored services to tribal child welfare agencies. Over 180 tribes are eligible to receive capacity-building services through CBCT based on their management of title IV-B and tribal title IV-E funded programs. There has been a concerted outreach effort to encourage a maximum number of tribes to access services through CBCT.
Section 426(a)(1)(A) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 626(a)(1)(A)).
The proposed information collection requests information to be utilized by EOIR for determining the best course of action to take in the UC's case in immigration court. The proposed instrument is the Unaccompanied Children Case Summary Form.
The Department specifically requests comments on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted within 60 days of this publication.
Copies of the proposed collection may be obtained by writing to the Administration for Children and Families, Office of Planning, Research and Evaluation, 330 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20201. Attention Reports Clearance Officer. All requests should be identified by the title of the information collection. Email address:
OMB is required to make a decision concerning the collection of information between 30 and 60 days after publication of this document in the
Child support agencies, courts, private attorneys, custodial parties, and others must use the IWO form to initiate an income withholding order for support and give notice of income withholding. State child support agencies are required to have automated data processing systems containing current order and case information. State child support agencies providing services to custodial and/or noncustodial parties enter the terms of a child support order established by a tribunal into the state's automated system, which automatically populates the order information into the IWO form.
Employers and income providers also use the form to respond to the order/notice with termination or income status information. Employers and other income providers may choose to receive the IWO form from child support agencies on paper or electronically, and may respond on paper or electronically to notify the sender of termination of employment or change in the income status.
The information collection activities pertaining to the IWO form are authorized by 42 U.S.C. 666(a)(1), (a)(8) and 666(b)(6), which require the use of the Income Withholding for Support (IWO) form to order income withholding for all child support orders.
In compliance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13, 44 U.S.C. Chap 35), the Administration for Children and Families is soliciting public comment on the specific aspects of the information collection described above. Copies of the proposed collection of information can be obtained and comments may be forwarded by writing to the Administration for Children and Families, Office of Planning, Research and Evaluation, 330 C Street SW., Washington DC 20201. Attn: ACF Reports Clearance Officer. Email address:
The Department specifically requests comments on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted within 60 days of this publication.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of public workshop; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing the following public workshop entitled “Center for Devices and Radiological Health Veteran Amputee Devices.” The purpose of this workshop is to engage all stakeholders involved in the research, development, and marketing of prosthetic limb medical devices used by veteran amputees. A specific goal is to engage veteran amputees who use prosthetic limb medical devices and hear their views on these devices so that these perspectives may be considered in the total product life cycle of prosthetic limb devices.
The public workshop will be held on October 31, 2016, from 9 a.m. to 4 p.m. Submit either electronic or written comments on the public workshop by November 30, 2016.
The public workshop will be held at FDA's White Oak Campus, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31 Conference Center, the Great Room (Rm. 1503), Silver Spring, MD 20993. Entrance for the public meeting participants (non-FDA employees) is through Building 1 where routine security check procedures will be performed. For parking and security information, please refer to
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Fabienne Santel, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 3502, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-9644, email:
The Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH) is committed to including views of patients on the total product life cycle of medical devices. To better understand their needs, CDRH plans to engage patients throughout our regulatory process. CDRH is interested in patients contributing their views, data, and resources to improve the total product life cycle for medical devices, reduce adverse events, and improve communication about the risks and benefits that matter most to them.
Together with other centers and offices across FDA, we are testing and developing ways to engage patients and capture their views through public workshops. The CDRH Veteran Amputee Devices is one such workshop intended to engage veteran amputees, such as those patients from the Walter Reed National Military Medical Center, Warrior Clinic, who use prosthetic limb medical devices.
Topics to be discussed at the public workshop include, but are not limited to the following:
• Introduce the CDRH Total Product life Cycle (TPLC) for prosthetic limb devices.
• A focus group to obtain information on priorities for upper-limb prosthetics from the perspective of upper-limb amputees.
• Presentations from prosthetic limb device manufacturer.
• Question and answer session where patients, their caregivers and other interested parties have an opportunity to present their views and ask questions about the total product life cycle of medical devices.
If you need special accommodations due to a disability, please contact Susan Monahan, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Office of Communication, Education (OCE), 301-796-5661 email:
To register for the public workshop, please visit FDA's Medical Devices News & Events—Workshops & Conferences calendar at
FDA is holding this public workshop to obtain views from patients on prosthetic limb devices so that these perspectives may be considered in the total product life cycle of prosthetic limb medical devices. In order to permit the widest possible opportunity to obtain public comment, FDA is soliciting either electronic or written comments on all aspects of the public workshop topics. The deadline for submitting comments related to this patient workshop is November 30, 2016.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the Agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), Federal Agencies are required to publish notice in the
Submit either electronic or written comments on the collection of information by December 5, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A63, 11601 Landsdown
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal Agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
With respect to the following collection of information, FDA invites comments on these topics: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.
The EU is a group of 28 European countries that have agreed to harmonize their commodity requirements to facilitate commerce among member States. For certain food products, including those listed in this document, EU legislation requires assurances from the responsible authority of the country of origin that the processor of the food is in compliance with applicable regulatory requirements. Regulation (EC) No 854/2004 of the European Parliament and of the European Council states that products of animal origin may only be imported from establishments that appear on a list of establishments for which the competent authority of the exporting country has guaranteed compliance with applicable regulatory requirements and that shipments of these products must be accompanied by documents that certify the products' compliance with applicable regulatory standards. Section 801(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 381(e)) authorizes FDA to provide the certification described in this document. As stated in the notice published in the
We request the following information from each firm or processor seeking to be included on the lists of eligible exporters for shell eggs, and game meat and game meat products (dairy products will be covered under OMB control number 0910-0509):
• Business name and address;
• Name and telephone number of person designated as business contact;
• Lists of products presently being shipped to the EU and those intended to be shipped in the next 6 months;
• Name and address of manufacturing plants for each product; and
• Names and affiliations of any Federal, State, or local governmental Agencies that inspect the plant, government-assigned plant identifier such as plant number, and last date of inspection.
We request the following information from each firm or processor seeking to be included on the list of eligible exporters for gelatin and collagen products:
• Food Facility Registration Number and Pin Number (if applicable);
• Business name and address;
• Name, telephone number, facsimile number, and email address of main business contact person;
• List of products presently shipped to the EU and those intended to be shipped within the next 2 years;
• Name and address of the manufacturing and processing plant for each product (manufacturer type for primary producer);
• Names and affiliations of any Federal, State, and local governmental Agencies that inspect the plant, government assigned plant identifier, such as plant number and last date of inspection; and
• A copy of the most recent (within 1 year of the date of application) inspection report issued by a State, local or Federal public health regulatory Agency and a copy of a recent laboratory analysis as required by the EU of the finished product including: Total aerobic bacteria, coliforms (30 degrees C), coliforms (44.5 degrees C), anaerobic sulphite-reducing bacteria (no gas production),
We use the information to maintain lists of firms and processors that have demonstrated current compliance with U.S. requirements. We make the lists available on our Web site. We include on the lists only firms and processors that are not the subject of an unresolved regulatory enforcement action or unresolved warning letter. If a listed firm or processor subsequently becomes the subject of a regulatory enforcement action or an unresolved warning letter, we will view such a circumstance as evidence that the firm or processor is no longer in compliance with applicable U.S. laws and regulations. Should this occur, we will take steps to remove that firm or processor from the list and send a revised list to the EU authorities, usually within 48 to 72 hours after the relevant regulatory enforcement action. If a firm or processor has been delisted as a result of a regulatory enforcement action or unresolved warning letter, the firm or processor will have to reapply for inclusion on the list once the regulatory action has been resolved.
We update the lists of firms and processors eligible to export products of animal origin to the EU quarterly. Firms and processors placed on lists of eligible exporters are subject to audit by FDA and EU officials. Complete requests for inclusion must be submitted to us every 12 months to remain on these lists. Inclusion on the lists is voluntary. However, products of animal origin from firms or processors not on lists of eligible exporters for these products are not eligible for export certificates for these products, and these products may be detained at EU ports of entry.
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
We base our estimates of the number of respondents and total annual responses on the submissions that we have received in the past 3 years for each product type. To calculate the estimate for the hours per response values, we assumed that the information requested is readily available to the submitter. We expect that the submitter will need to gather information from appropriate persons in the submitter's company and to prepare this information for submission. We believe that this effort should take no longer than 15 minutes (0.25 hour) per response. We estimate that we will receive 1 submission from 10 shell egg producers annually, for a total of 10 annual responses. Each submission is estimated to take 0.25 hour per response for a total of 2.5 hours, rounded to 3 hours. This collection has previously covered information collected to maintain lists of eligible exporters of dairy products; dairy products will be covered under OMB control number 0910-0509, so the estimated burden has been removed from this collection. We estimate that we will receive one submission from five game meat and game meat product producers annually, for a total of five annual responses. Each submission is estimated to take 0.25 hour per response for a total of 1.25 hours, rounded to 1 hour. We estimate that we will receive one submission from seven gelatin producers annually, for a total of seven annual responses. Each submission is estimated to take 0.25 hour per response for a total of 1.75 hours, rounded to 2 hours. We estimate that we will receive one submission from 18 collagen producers annually, for a total of 18 annual responses. Each submission is estimated to take 0.25 hour per response for a total of 4.5 hours, rounded to 5 hours. The estimated burden for collagen producers includes animal casings, which have been listed separately in previous notices. Therefore, the proposed annual burden for this information collection is 11 hours.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is publishing a list of information collections that have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852,
The following is a list of FDA information collections recently approved by OMB under section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507). The OMB control number and expiration date of OMB approval for each information collection are shown in table 1. Copies of the supporting statements for the information collections are available on the Internet at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is withdrawing approval of 44 new drug applications (NDAs) and 158 abbreviated new drug applications (ANDAs) from multiple applicants. The holders of the applications notified the Agency in writing that the drug products were no longer marketed and requested that the approval of the applications be withdrawn.
Florine P. Purdie, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6248, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-3601.
The holders of the applications listed in table 1 in this document have informed FDA that these drug products are no longer marketed and have requested that FDA withdraw approval of the applications under the process in § 314.150(c) (21 CFR 314.150(c)). The applicants have also, by their requests, waived their opportunity for a hearing. Withdrawal of approval of an application or abbreviated application under § 314.150(c) is without prejudice to refiling.
Therefore, under section 505(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 355(e)) and under authority delegated to the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, by the Commissioner, approval of the applications listed in table 1 in this document, and all amendments and supplements thereto, is hereby withdrawn, effective November 3, 2016. Introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; establishment of a public docket; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) announces a forthcoming public advisory committee meeting of the Microbiology Devices Panel of the Medical Devices Advisory Committee. The general function of the committee is to provide advice and recommendations to the Agency on FDA's regulatory issues. The meeting will be open to the public. FDA is establishing a docket for public comment on this document.
The meeting will be held on November 9 and 10, 2016, from 8 a.m. to 6 p.m.
Gaithersburg Holiday Inn Ballroom, 2 Montgomery Village Ave., Gaithersburg, MD 20879. The hotel's telephone number is 301-948-8900. Answers to commonly asked questions including information regarding special accommodations due to a disability, visitor parking, and transportation may be accessed at:
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Aden Asefa, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993,
On November 10, 2016, the committee will discuss and make recommendations to FDA regarding how FDA might handle a future premarket notification (510(k)) submission for a Procalcitonin (PCT) test. One test that FDA previously reviewed and cleared was the VIDAS B·R·A·H·M·S PCT (Procalcitonin) test which is an in vitro diagnostic test for measuring procalcitonin from human serum or plasma. The test was cleared with an indication for use as follows:
• VIDAS B·R·A·H·M·S PCT (PCT) is an automated test for use on the instruments of the VIDAS family for the determination of human procalcitonin in human serum or plasma (lithium heparinate) using the Enzyme-Linked Fluorescent Assay technique.
• VIDAS B·R·A·H·M·S PCT (PCT) is intended for use in conjunction with other laboratory findings and clinical assessments to aid in the risk assessment of critically ill patients on their first day of ICU admission for progression to severe sepsis and septic shock.
• VIDAS B·R·A·H·M·S PCT (PCT) is also intended for use to determine the change of PCT level over time as an aid in assessing the cumulative 28-day risk of all-cause mortality in conjunction with other laboratory findings and clinical assessments for patients diagnosed with severe sepsis or septic shock in the intensive care unit (ICU) or when obtained in the emergency department or other medical wards prior to ICU admission.
• Procalcitonin (PCT) is a biomarker associated with the inflammatory response to bacterial infection that aids in the risk assessment of critically ill patients on their first day of ICU admission for progression to severe sepsis and septic shock. The percent change in PCT level over time also aids in the prediction of cumulative 28-day mortality in patients with severe sepsis and septic shock.
PCT levels on the first day of ICU admission above 2.0 nanograms per milliliter (ng/mL) are associated with a higher risk for progression to severe sepsis and/or septic shock than PCT levels below 0.5 ng/mL.
• A PCT level that declines ≤80 percent from the day that severe sepsis or septic shock was clinically diagnosed (day 0) to 4 days after clinical diagnosis (day 4) is associated with higher cumulative 28-day risk of all-cause mortality than a decline >80 percent.
• The combination of the first PCT level (≤2.0 ng/mL or >2.0 ng/mL) at initial diagnosis of severe sepsis or septic shock with the patient's clinical course and the change in PCT level over time until day 4 provides important additional information about the mortality risk.
• The PCT level on day 1 (the day after severe sepsis or septic shock is first clinically diagnosed) can be used to calculate the percent change in PCT level at day 4 if the day 0 measurement is unavailable.
FDA anticipates receiving a 510(k) submission for PCT test in which the intended use could be modified to add an indication for use as an aid in the antibiotic management of patients with suspected lower respiratory tract infection, an indication for use as an aid in the antibiotic management of patients being treated with antibiotics for confirmed or documented sepsis, or both. FDA is seeking feedback from the committee and interested parties to assess the evidence in support of the hypothetical changes and the overall benefits and risks from this proposed new indication for use in clinical practice, including feedback on whether any additional mitigations are necessary.
FDA intends to make background material available to the public no later than 2 business days before the meeting. If FDA is unable to post the background material on its Web site prior to the meeting, the background material will be made publicly available at the location of the advisory committee meeting, and the background material will be posted on FDA's Web site after the meeting. Background material is available at
Persons attending FDA's advisory committee meetings are advised that the Agency is not responsible for providing access to electrical outlets.
FDA is establishing a docket for public comment on this document. The docket number is FDA-2016-N-2880. The docket will close on December 6, 2016. Comments received on or before October 26, 2016, will be provided to the committee. Comments received after that date will be taken into consideration by the Agency.
FDA welcomes the attendance of the public at its advisory committee meetings and will make every effort to accommodate persons with disabilities. If you require accommodations due to a disability, please contact Artair Mallett at
FDA is committed to the orderly conduct of its advisory committee meetings. Please visit our Web site at
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app. 2).
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Fax written comments on the collection of information by November 3, 2016.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, FAX: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A63, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852,
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.
We accept certain types of submissions electronically with no requirement for a paper copy. These types of documents are listed in public docket 97S-0251 as required by 21 CFR 11.2. Our ability to receive and process information submitted electronically is limited by our current information technology capabilities and the requirements of the Electronic Records; Electronic Signatures final regulation. Our guidance entitled “Guidance for Industry #108: How to Submit Information in Electronic Format to CVM Using the FDA Electronic Submission Gateway” outlines general standards to be used for the submission of any electronic information to CVM using the FDA Electronic Submission Gateway (ESG). The likely respondents are sponsors for new animal drug applications.
In the
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
We base our estimates on our experience with the submission of electronic information to us using the FDA ESG and the number of electronic registration or change requests received between January 1, 2014, and December 31, 2014.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability; extension of comment period.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is extending the comment period for the revised draft guidance for industry entitled “Dietary Supplements: New Dietary Ingredient Notifications and Related Issues,” that appeared in the
We are extending the comment period on the draft guidance published August 12, 2016 (81 FR 53486). Submit either electronic or written comments by December 12, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Cara Welch, Office of Dietary Supplement Programs, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-810), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-2333.
In the
The notice provided a 60-day period for the submission of comments pertaining to the revised draft guidance, including in particular (but not limited to) section III. Comments on these issues, the revised draft guidance, and the relevant portions of the 2011 draft guidance, will contribute to our final guidance on new dietary ingredient notifications and related issues. The comment period was scheduled to end on October 11, 2016.
We received requests for 30- and 90-day extensions of the comment period. In general, the requests conveyed concern that the current 60-day comment period does not allow sufficient time for interested parties to develop a meaningful or thoughtful response to the draft guidance. Some requests mentioned that the requests for comment may necessitate indepth research and/or require supporting data to provide meaningful responses.
We considered the requests and are extending the comment period for the draft guidance for 60 days until December 12, 2016. We believe that this extension allows adequate time for interested persons to submit comments without significantly delaying finalizing the guidance.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of public workshop; request for comments.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), the National Library of Medicine (NLM) of the National Institutes of Health (NIH), the Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology (ONC), and the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) are announcing the following public workshop entitled “CDC/FDA/NLM/ONC/CMS Workshop on Promoting Semantic Interoperability of Laboratory Data.” The purpose of this public workshop is to receive and discuss input from stakeholders regarding
The public workshop will be held on November 8, 2016, from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m. (EDT). Submit either electronic or written comments on the public workshop by December 9, 2016.
The public workshop will be held at the NLM NIH Bethesda Campus, 8600 Rockville Pike, NIH Building 38A, Bethesda, MD 20894. For general information, including parking and security information, please refer to:
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
•
Michael Waters, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 4535, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-4653, FAX: 301-847-2512, email:
This public workshop is a followup to the FDA/CDC/NLM Workshop on “Promoting Semantic Interoperability of Laboratory Data” held on September 28, 2015. For more information on the content of the previous public workshop, the Webcast, the transcript, and any presentations from the 2015 workshop can be found at:
The primary purpose of the current workshop is to discuss with stakeholders the means to facilitate adoption and implementation of interoperability standards in a manner that enables consistent, accurate, and harmonized electronic health data reporting. Specifically this workshop will discuss aspects of semantic interoperability of laboratory data including the use of Logical Observation Identifiers Names and Codes (LOINC;
In order to build on the foundations of what was discussed during the 2015 workshop, discussions will begin by summarizing the previous workshop and addressing questions and concerns that were raised at the previous meeting. These conversations will be followed by a discussion on potential mechanisms for implementation of structured communication models containing device information, LOINC (
This public workshop will consist of brief presentations to provide a framework and a context for a series of interactive panel discussions. Presentations will focus on mechanisms for attaining harmonized semantically interoperable information and advancing the probable functional models for information transmission, including possible challenges and solutions for implementation. Presentations and discussions will address proposals for harmonization
In advance of the meeting, CDC, FDA, NLM, ONC, and CMS will place an agenda on file in the public docket (the docket number found in brackets in the heading of this document) and will post it at
The agencies will use the input from this workshop and public comments to determine the appropriate next steps to advance semantic interoperability of laboratory data.
If you need special accommodations due to a disability, please contact Rebecca Goodwin at 301-496-4441 (
To register for the public workshop, please visit FDA's Medical Devices News & Events—Workshops & Conferences calendar at
CDC, FDA, NLM, ONC, and CMS are holding this public workshop to obtain input from stakeholders regarding proposed approaches to facilitate the adoption and implementation of interoperability standards in a manner that enables consistent, accurate, and harmonized electronic laboratory reporting. In order to permit the widest possible opportunity to obtain public comment, FDA is soliciting either electronic or written comments on all aspects of the public workshop topics. See
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Time: 8:30 a.m. to 12:00 p.m.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The contract proposals and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the contract proposals, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the National Institute of Mental Health Special Emphasis Panel, November 01, 2016, 01:00 p.m. to November 01, 2016, 05:00 p.m., Hyatt Regency Bethesda, One Bethesda Metro Center, 7400 Wisconsin Avenue, Bethesda, MD, 20814 which was
The meeting notice is amended to change the meeting location to the Bethesda Marriott, 5151 Pooks Hill Road, Bethesda, MD 20814. The meeting is closed to the public.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
October 27-28, 2016.
9:00 a.m. to 1:00 p.m.
To review and evaluate grant applications.
8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection; Department of Homeland Security.
General notice.
Global Entry is a voluntary program that allows pre-approved participants dedicated U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) processing into the United States using Global Entry kiosks located at designated airports. CBP previously announced in the
Global Entry will be available at all nine airport locations on or before April 3, 2017. The exact starting date for each airport location will be announced on the CBP Global Entry Web site,
Garret A. Conover, Office of Field Operations, (202) 325-4062,
Global Entry is a voluntary program that allows for dedicated CBP processing of pre-approved travelers arriving in the United States at Global Entry kiosks located at designated airports. In a final rule published in the
In the above-referenced final rule that established the Global Entry program, Global Entry was initially limited to twenty airports. The rule provides that any expansion of the Global Entry program to new airports will be by publication in the
In a notice published in the
The thirty-nine airports previously designated for Global Entry, listed alphabetically by state, and then city, include:
• Ted Stevens Anchorage International Airport, Anchorage, Alaska (ANC);
• Phoenix Sky Harbor International Airport, Phoenix, Arizona (PHX);
• Los Angeles International Airport, Los Angeles, California (LAX);
• San Diego International Airport, San Diego, California (SAN);
• San Francisco International Airport, San Francisco, California (SFO);
• John Wayne Airport, Santa Ana, California (SNA);
• Denver International Airport, Denver, Colorado (DEN);
• Ft. Lauderdale Hollywood International Airport, Fort Lauderdale, Florida (FLL), including the General Aviation Facility private aircraft terminal;
• Miami International Airport, Miami, Florida (MIA);
• Orlando International Airport, Orlando, Florida (MCO);
• Sanford-Orlando International Airport, Sanford, Florida (SFB);
• Tampa International Airport, Tampa, Florida (TPA);
• Hartsfield-Jackson Atlanta International Airport, Atlanta, Georgia (ATL);
• Honolulu International Airport, Honolulu, Hawaii (HNL);
• Chicago Midway International Airport, Chicago, Illinois (MDW);
• Chicago O'Hare International Airport, Chicago, Illinois (ORD);
• Cincinnati/Northern Kentucky International Airport, Hebron, Kentucky (CVG);
• Baltimore/Washington International Thurgood Marshall Airport, Baltimore, Maryland (BWI);
• Boston-Logan International Airport, Boston, Massachusetts (BOS);
• Detroit Metropolitan Wayne County Airport, Romulus, Michigan (DTW);
• Minneapolis-St. Paul International Airport, Minneapolis, Minnesota (MSP);
• Las Vegas-McCarran International Airport, Las Vegas, Nevada (LAS);
• Newark Liberty International Airport, Newark, New Jersey (EWR);
• John F. Kennedy International Airport, Jamaica, New York (JFK);
• Charlotte Douglas International Airport, Charlotte, North Carolina (CLT);
• Raleigh-Durham International Airport, Morrisville, North Carolina (RDU);
• Cleveland Hopkins International Airport, Cleveland, Ohio (CLE);
• Portland International Airport, Portland, Oregon (PDX);
• Philadelphia International Airport, Philadelphia, Pennsylvania (PHL);
• Pittsburgh International Airport, Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania (PIT);
• San Juan-Luis Munoz Marin International Airport, San Juan, Puerto Rico (SJU);
• Austin-Bergstrom International Airport, Austin, Texas (AUS);
• Dallas Fort Worth International Airport, Dallas, Texas (DFW);
• George Bush Intercontinental Airport, Houston, Texas (IAH);
• San Antonio International Airport, San Antonio, Texas (SAT);
• Salt Lake City International Airport, Salt Lake City, Utah (SLC);
• Washington Dulles International Airport, Sterling, Virginia (IAD);
• Seattle-Tacoma International Airport-SEATAC, Seattle, Washington (SEA);
• General Mitchell International Airport, Milwaukee, Wisconsin (MKE).
CBP is designating nine additional Global Entry airports. Each of these airports will have Global Entry kiosks for the use of participants. The additional airports, listed alphabetically by state, and then city, are:
• Fairbanks International Airport, Fairbanks, Alaska (FAI);
• Oakland International Airport, Oakland, California (OAK);
• Sacramento International Airport, Sacramento, California (SMF);
• Norman Y. Mineta San Jose International Airport, San Jose, California (SJC);
• Louis Armstrong New Orleans International Airport, New Orleans, Louisiana (MSY);
• Kansas City International Airport, Kansas City, Missouri (MCI);
• Lambert-St. Louis International Airport, St. Louis, Missouri (STL);
• William P. Hobby International Airport, Houston, Texas (HOU);
• Burlington International Airport, Burlington, Vermont (BTV).
Global Entry will become operational at all nine airports on or before April 3, 2017. The exact starting dates of Global Entry at each airport location will be announced on the Web site,
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice of availability.
This document provides notice of the availability of the final Individuals and Households Program Unified Guidance. The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) published a notice of availability and request for comment for the proposed guidance on June 15, 2016 at 81 FR 39061.
The Individuals and Households Program Unified Guidance is effective on September 30, 2016.
This final guidance is available online at
Johnathan Torres, Individual Assistance Division, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202-212-1079) or (
FEMA is announcing its final
FEMA received 86 comments during the public comment period. None of the comments received were deemed “critical”, and the majority included only minor grammatical and formatting suggestions. Several comments included requests for statement clarification, which were addressed to improve overall policy comprehension. All comments were reviewed and adjudicated, and the Individuals and Households Program Unified Guidance was updated accordingly.
The final guidance does not have the force or effect of law.
42 U.S.C. 5174.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) will submit the information collection abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget for review and clearance in accordance with the requirements of the Paperwork
Comments must be submitted on or before November 3, 2016.
Submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the Desk Officer for the Department of Homeland Security, Federal Emergency Management Agency, and sent via electronic mail to
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection should be made to Director, Records Management Division, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472-3100, or email address
This proposed information collection previously published in the
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) will submit the information collection abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget for review and clearance in accordance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The submission will describe the nature of the information collection, the categories of respondents, the estimated burden (
Comments must be submitted on or before November 3, 2016.
Submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the Desk Officer for the Department of Homeland Security, Federal Emergency Management Agency, and sent via electronic mail to
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection should be made to Director, Records Management Division, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472-3100, or email address
This proposed information collection previously published in the
These entities taking part in the National Day of Action register their planned events through this information collection effort.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) will submit the information collection abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget for review and clearance in accordance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The submission will describe the nature of the information collection, the categories of respondents, the estimated burden (
Comments must be submitted on or before November 3, 2016.
Submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the Desk Officer for the Department of Homeland Security, Federal Emergency Management Agency, and sent via electronic mail to
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection should be made to Director, Records Management Division, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472-3100, or email address
This proposed information collection previously published in the
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) will submit the information collection abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget for review and clearance in accordance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The submission will describe the nature of the information collection, the categories of respondents, the estimated burden (
Comments must be submitted on or before November 3, 2016.
Submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the Desk Officer for the Department of Homeland Security, Federal Emergency Management Agency, and sent via electronic mail to
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection should be made to Director, Records Management Division, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472-3100, or email address
This proposed information collection previously published in the
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
60-Day notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Citizenship and Immigration (USCIS) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment upon this proposed revision of a currently approved collection of information. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the information collection notice is published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until December 5, 2016.
All submissions received must include the OMB Control Number 1615-0045 in the subject box, the agency name and Docket ID USCIS-2006-0009. To avoid duplicate submissions, please use only
(1)
(2)
(3)
USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy, Regulatory Coordination Division, Samantha Deshommes, Chief, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2140, telephone number 202-272-8377 (This is not a toll-free number. Comments are not accepted via telephone message). Please note contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. It is not for individual case status inquiries. Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Housing—Federal Housing Commissioner, HUD.
Notice.
HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comment from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and should be sent to: Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 4176, Washington, DC 20410-5000; telephone 202-402-3400 (this is not a toll-free number) or email at
To receive consideration as public comments, comments must be submitted through one of the two methods specified above. Again, all submissions must refer to the docket number and title of the notice.
Stan Houle, Office of Multifamily Housing Programs, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 6182, Washington, DC 20410, telephone 202-708-2572. (This is not a toll-free number.) Persons with hearing or speech impairments may access these numbers through TTY by calling the toll-free Federal Relay Service at 800-877-8339.
The President's Climate Action Plan calls on Federal agencies to rapidly increase investments in energy productivity, eliminate energy waste, ramp up efficiency standards, and deploy the tools and technology needed to build a new energy economy. The residential building sector is responsible for fully 21 percent of the nation's greenhouse gas emissions. Utility costs (energy and water) account for around 22 percent of public housing operating budgets and a similar share in the assisted housing sector. HUD spends an estimated $6.4 billion annually to cover the costs of utilities in its public and assisted housing programs.
HUD is committed to creating energy-efficient, water-efficient, and healthy housing as part of a broader effort to foster the development of inclusive, sustainable, and resilient communities. Investments in energy-efficiency and water-efficiency pay dividends by improving occupant comfort, stabilizing operating costs, alleviating taxpayer burden, preserving affordable housing, ensuring disaster resilience, and mitigating climate change. As such, the Office of Multifamily Housing Programs in HUD's Office of Housing has taken several steps to encourage greater energy and water efficiency in multifamily housing, including:
• Updating and standardizing the utility allowance methodology for assisted properties that must submit annual documentation of utility allowances (estimated 70 percent of portfolio);
• Offering incentives to multifamily owners and management agents who have joined the Better Buildings Challenge, set a goal of reducing energy and/or water use by 20 percent within 10 years, and established themselves as leaders in the field with respect to energy and/or water efficiency;
• Providing access to capital to make energy improvements by implementing changes to the Federal Housing Administration's (FHA) underwriting standards in the Multifamily Accelerated Processing Guide (MAP Guide) to allow greater loan proceeds
• Lowering annual multifamily mortgage insurance premiums for energy-efficient properties (those committed to achieving an industry-recognized green building standard and to maintaining energy performance in the top 25 percent of multifamily buildings nationwide);
• Developing and implementing a standardized Capital Needs Assessment suite of online tools (CNA e-Tool) available (later in 2016) for free to assist borrowers with submitting standard information to HUD, the U.S. Department of Agriculture, and others;
• Developing a “pay for success” demonstration program under which the Department will execute budget-neutral, performance-based agreements that result in a reduction in energy or water costs. Recent legislation authorized HUD to implement this pilot in up to 20,000 units of multifamily buildings participating in the Sec. 8 Project-Based Rental Assistance, Sec. 202 and Sec. 811 programs; and
• Publishing guidance on utilizing Property Assessed Clean Energy (PACE) financing with HUD-assisted and FHA-insured properties.
While HUD has a vested interest in eliminating energy and water waste in the assisted housing stock and stabilizing operating costs in both the insured and assisted housing stocks, to ensure that taxpayer investments in multifamily housing are viable for the long-term, the Office of Multifamily Housing Programs is currently unable to effectively analyze the portfolio-wide energy and water use patterns, improvement potential, and investment needs of properties in the assisted and insured portfolios. Though the Department currently collects utility cost data through its utility allowance and annual project financial statement requirements, the collection of information on utility consumption associated with those costs has been limited to small subsets of the portfolio, such as properties participating in the Department of Energy's Better Buildings Challenge.
In 2003 and 2008, the Harvard Graduate School of Design
Though obstacles remain, utility benchmarking is rapidly becoming quicker, easier, more automated, and more integrated as it becomes an industry-standard best practice. In September 2014, the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) developed a new feature for its free, web-based tool called ENERGY STAR Portfolio Manager, which allows users to calculate an energy-efficiency rating or “benchmarking score” for most multifamily developments. Benchmarking scores developed through ENERGY STAR Portfolio Manager are officially known as ENERGY STAR Scores. These scores are available for multifamily housing properties of 21 units or more. A score of 50 indicates energy performance consistent with the national median, while 100 represents a top performer, and a score of at least 75 may make buildings eligible for ENERGY STAR certification.
Utility benchmarking helps building owners to understand their buildings' energy and water performance, allowing them to detect malfunctioning equipment and billing errors, prioritize operational and capital improvements, verify the return on those investments, and plan future budget needs. Indeed, the practice of utility benchmarking can lead to significant improvements in building performance. Based on analysis of more than 35,000 buildings covered by newly established local energy benchmarking laws, EPA found an average energy use reduction of seven percent between 2008 and 2011.
In addition to potential benefits to building owners, the sharing of utility benchmarking data allows government policymakers and funding providers (in this case, HUD acts as both) to account for utility expenditures, plan future budget needs, develop efficiency incentive programs, offer targeted technical assistance, and verify the return on these investments. For over 30 years, HUD has been promoting energy- and water-efficiency work in the public and assisted housing stocks through financial incentives, technical assistance, and pledge programs. However, portfolio-wide utility benchmarking and data sharing will significantly enhance HUD's ability to use robust information to direct those financial incentives, technical assistance, and pledge programs to the areas of greatest need, opportunity, and success.
Utility consumption and cost tracking by a building owner is the first step of utility benchmarking, and multiple approaches to this are available. The most direct method is to request whole-building utility data directly from the utility provider(s), covering the sum of owner-paid and tenant-paid accounts. When that is not possible, building owners may collect utility data for owner-paid accounts simply by compiling the information from their electronic or paper utility bills into a spreadsheet or web-based tool like ENERGY STAR Portfolio Manager. Some utility providers offer easy downloads of this information directly from their Web sites. Building owners may then collect utility data for tenant-paid accounts either by requesting the information directly from tenants in accordance with existing lease
Cities across the country have enacted utility benchmarking and data sharing ordinances that ask commercial and multifamily building owners to track and disclose energy and/or water usage. Each program has unique building size requirements and different disclosure procedures.
At this time and with this notice, HUD is proposing limited requirements for utility benchmarking and data sharing, in order to balance the need to institute contemporary best practices and strategically manage the housing portfolio with the burden presented to building owners of adopting a new reporting requirement. Whereas an increasing number of state and local laws require utility benchmarking on an annual basis, HUD is proposing “spot-check” utility benchmarking on a less frequent basis. And whereas state and local benchmarking laws generally require utility benchmarking based on whole-building data, HUD intends to accept metrics developed with sampled tenant-paid utility data when whole building data are not available. Together, this will allow building owners to begin practicing utility benchmarking while the market continues to build support for more integration and automation of this best practice.
Over time, the Department will use the scores, along with EUI and WUI metrics, to see if energy and water efficiency is increasing, decreasing, or staying the same in the multifamily portfolio. The Office of Multifamily Housing Programs will use the information to assess energy and/or water efficiency needs and opportunities in the portfolio. Benchmarking data may also be used to inform the development of new policy initiatives, financial incentives, technical assistance, and pledge programs. Energy benchmarking will become more valuable over time as multiple years of energy consumption data are available.
To build a foundation of awareness and data concerning the current building performance of the multifamily building stock, as well as to inform and spur energy- and water-efficiency investments in multifamily housing, HUD proposes, through this notice, to require owners of covered property types to provide HUD's Office of Multifamily Housing Programs with the following utility consumption metrics for each property when completing several types of property transactions: Site and Source Energy Use Intensities (EUI), Site Water Use Intensity (WUI), and the ENERGY STAR Score for Energy, and—when available from EPA—the Energy Star Score for Water. The Portfolio Manager software—which must be used to meet HUD benchmarking requirements—calculates and reports these metrics in a standardized report format. This report may also include property identifiers (such as address and HUD contract number), building characteristics and other summary-level data underlying the benchmarking score calculations. The ENERGY STAR Score for Water is currently pending release by EPA, and so it will not be required until it is available. HUD will provide at least 90 days advance notice before a requirement to submit water efficiency data goes into effect.
Site EUI represents a property's energy use per square foot of gross floor area, expressed in thousand British thermal units per square foot (kBTU/ft
There are a few exceptions to the stated information collection requirements. Only properties that have been in existence for at least 12 months and that include 21 housing units or more are eligible to receive an Energy Star Score for Energy or Water, and so these two metrics will not be required for ineligible properties. Properties with less than 21 units are encouraged to submit EUI and WUI data, but will not be required to submit this analysis to HUD.
Additionally, for the purposes of this basic information collection effort, the Office of Multifamily Housing Programs will accept metrics calculated using either whole building data or a combination of whole owner-paid utility data and sampled tenant-paid utility data. It is important to understand, however, that metrics calculated with less than whole building data are not accepted by EPA for the purposes of Energy Star certification. If choosing to use sampled tenant-paid utility data, owners must meet or exceed the standards outlined in this document.
Finally, for the Department's purposes, the required metrics will be considered valid for three years beyond the 12-month period upon which they are based. For example, an ENERGY STAR Score based on 2015 calendar-year utility data and generated in 2016 will be accepted by HUD for any required reporting under this notice in 2016, 2017, and 2018. An ENERGY STAR Score based on 2013 calendar-year data and generated in 2016 will be accepted by HUD for any required reporting under this notice in 2016, but not in 2017. At this point, the owner would need to provide more recent data. The frequency is intended to align benchmarking with information collection efforts undertaken by HUD-assisted properties in preparing their utility allowance.
• Section 202 Project Rental Assistance Contracts (PRAC),
• Section 811 PRAC and Project Rental Assistance (PRA) contracts,
• Section 202/162 Project Assistance Contracts (PAC),
• Section 202 Senior Preservation Rental Assistance Contracts (SPRAC),
• Section 8 Housing Assistance Payment (HAP) contracts,
• Multifamily Housing properties insured under Sections 223(a)(7), 223(f), 221(d)(3), 221(d)(4), 220, 231, 236, and 241(a)).
HUD will evaluate properties insured under the FHA Risk Share programs—Section 542(b): Fannie Mae, Freddie Mac, and Small Building Risk Share, and Section 542(c): Housing Finance Agencies—to determine feasibility and timeframes for applying energy benchmarking requirements to those properties in the future.
Owners of covered properties are encouraged to voluntarily submit water and energy benchmarking data to HUD on an annual basis. HUD will require that owners submit benchmarking information on the following schedule, subject to revision:
• For HUD-assisted properties with a utility allowance, at the time of a triennial utility allowance baseline calculation;
• For HUD-assisted properties where there is no utility allowance, every third year at the time of financial statement submission;
• Prior to issuance of new FHA mortgage insurance under Sections 223(a)(7), 223(f), and 241(a));
• With a Capital Needs Assessment submission required by the Office of Asset Management and Portfolio Oversight in HUD's Office of Multifamily Housing Programs on a 10-year cycle;
• With a Capital Needs Assessment submission required as part of any enforcement action.
As noted above, owners seeking a covered property transaction will be required to enter data into ENERGY STAR Portfolio Manager and electronically submit to HUD the referenced metrics created by the free web tool. ENERGY STAR Portfolio Manager has the ability to automatically generate reports from user data and offers a variety of standard formats. Prior to the requirements' effective date, HUD will specify a machine-readable report format in Portfolio Manager that HUD owners must use in preparing their benchmarking submissions. The format of the report may be modified over time but content will remain consistent with the scope of this Notice.
Use of whole building data, including owner-paid utilities, plus all tenant paid utilities (even if aggregated), is highly preferable when completing utility benchmarking analysis, as it will give the most accurate snapshot of a building's performance. However, to calculate the referenced metrics in Portfolio Manager, some owners may need to or choose to use a combination of whole owner-paid utility data and a sample of tenant-paid utility data as an alternative to using all of the above. Please be reminded that metrics calculated with less than whole building data are not accepted by EPA for the purposes of ENERGY STAR certification. If choosing to use sampled tenant-paid utility data, owners must meet or exceed the minimum sampling standards associated with existing Office of Multifamily Housing Programs' utility data reporting requirements (see table of related PRA collections below). Accepting the sampling already in use by anticipated respondents will significantly minimize the additional administrative burden benchmarking requirements impose on those respondents.
When completed in conjunction with a HUD utility allowance baseline analysis, the benchmarking analysis should generally include (or exceed) the number of units sampled for the utility allowance (see Notice H 2015-14
HUD will consider requests for additional time to submit benchmarking data from owners who experience unexpected delays in obtaining sufficient sample data from utility providers or encounter unforeseeable technical difficulties.
The Department has identified eight discrete tasks associated with the process for obtaining and submitting Portfolio Manager scores, which are listed in the matrix below. Based on a review of other Paperwork Reduction Act submissions, the Department believes that the PRA requirements for seven of those eight tasks are addressed in other submissions, also identified in the matrix below. Burden hours calculated for the proposed Information Collection reflect only the time associated with generating a report in Portfolio Manager and submission to HUD. While the Department recognizes that respondents may spend significant time on preparatory activities in order to submit the data requested under this collection, the burden hours for those tasks are already accounted for under other approved collections.
The utility benchmarking requirement described in this notice will apply when executing any covered transaction beginning 90 days after OMB approval of the PRA request, and not sooner than April 15, 2017. The first scheduled submission date for a majority of assisted-housing respondents is estimated to occur in 2019. HUD will alert owners of the effective date for reporting requirements and provide procedural instructions for submitting data through an Office of Housing Notice, issued after OMB issues a Notice of Action approving this PRA collection.
Burden hours take into account other existing information collections covering the assembly of utility information by impacted properties and the use of ENERGY STAR Portfolio Manager, these include: HUD's Multifamily Housing Utility Allowance submission (OMB 2502-0352), HUD's Tenant Eligibility and Rent Procedures (OMB 2502-0204), CNAe requirements (OMB 2502-0505), HUD's Multifamily Project Applications Green Building Program component (OMB-2502-0029)and ENERGY STAR Certification (OMB-2060-0347) by the Environmental Protection Agency.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Office the Assistant Secretary for Public and Indian Housing, HUD.
Notice.
HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comment from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 4176, Washington, DC 20410-5000; telephone 202-402-3400 (this is not a toll-free number) or email
Arlette Mussington, Office of Policy, Programs and Legislative Initiatives, PIH, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., (L'Enfant Plaza, Room 2206), Washington, DC 20410; telephone 202-402-4109 (this is not a toll-free number). Persons with hearing or speech impairments may access this number via TTY by calling the Federal Relay Service at (800) 877-8339. Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Mussington.
The President's Climate Action Plan calls on Federal agencies to increase investments in energy productivity, eliminate energy waste, ramp up efficiency standards, and deploy the tools and technology needed to build a new energy economy. The residential building sector is responsible for approximately 21 percent of the nation's greenhouse gas emissions. Utility costs (energy and water) account for approximately 22 percent of public housing operating budgets and in similar proportion across the assisted housing sector. HUD spends an estimated $6.4 billion annually to cover the costs of utilities in its public and assisted housing programs.
HUD is committed to creating energy-efficient, water-efficient, and healthy housing as part of a broader effort to foster the development of inclusive, sustainable, and resilient communities. Investments in energy and water-efficiency pay dividends by improving occupant comfort, reducing tenant turnover, stabilizing operating costs, alleviating taxpayer burden, preserving affordable housing, ensuring disaster resilience, and mitigating climate change.
The Harvard Graduate School of Design in 2003
Benchmarking buildings is considered an industry-standard best practice and although some obstacles remain, the process is rapidly becoming quicker, easier, and more automated. A growing number of municipal and state governments across the country are instituting benchmarking requirements to better track and analyze building performance. Most benchmarking requirements utilize the Environmental Protection Agency's (EPA) ENERGY STAR Portfolio Manager, which automatically calculates energy performance metrics including a benchmarking score for public housing properties. ENERGY STAR benchmarking scores range from 0-100, and properties that achieve a score of at least 75 points may be eligible for ENERGY STAR certification. It is anticipated that EPA's ENERGY STAR program will release a similar benchmark score for water consumption in approximately one year.
At this time, HUD is proposing limited requirements for utility benchmarking in order to balance the need to manage the public housing portfolio against the burden on Public Housing Agencies (PHAs) to adopt a new process. Many local benchmarking laws require benchmarking on an annual basis, however HUD is currently proposing benchmarking every three years. Benchmarking laws typically require property owners to utilize whole-building data, however HUD intends to accept sampled tenant-paid utility data where whole building data is not readily available. The three-year requirement will allow building owners to begin utility benchmarking while the market continues to build support, integration, and automation into this practice.
HUD will aggregate the collected data and analyze the ranges in order to better understand the overall PHA portfolio. Overtime, HUD will use the benchmarking scores as well as other data and metrics from Portfolio Manager to measure whether energy and water efficiency is increasing, decreasing, or staying the same throughout the public housing portfolio. This information may help guide the development of new policy initiatives, financial incentives, and technical assistance for PHAs.
Utility benchmarking helps building owners better understand their buildings' energy and water performance. Analyzing buildings across a portfolio enables building owners to identify underperforming buildings in order to prioritize capital improvements and plan future budget needs. Based on an analysis of more than 35,000 buildings covered by newly established local energy benchmarking laws, EPA found an average energy use reduction of seven percent between 2008 and 2011 after benchmarking.
In order to benchmark a building, two types of data must be collected and entered into Portfolio Manager. The first type of data is some basic information on the physical characteristics of a property. This includes items such as building location, square footage, heating system fuel, quantity of buildings for multiple building properties, etc. This information only needs to be entered once unless the property undergoes major construction and/or a renovation. The second type of data needed is at least 12 months of recent utility data. Once all of the required data are entered, Portfolio Manager automatically analyzes the information and calculates a variety of useful metrics including energy use intensity (EUI), water use intensity (WUI), and ENERGY STAR benchmarking scores.
In order to assist in the benchmarking process, a growing number of utility companies offer automatic utility data transfers into Portfolio Manager. When this feature is available, HUD highly encourages PHAs to utilize it, as it has the potential to significantly reduce the time burden and likelihood of data entry errors. When automatic digital data transfer is not possible, PHAs should consult their utility provider's Web site to see if they offer downloads of historical data.
In order to fully analyze a building, Portfolio Manager needs utility
When a property's utilities are 100% PHA paid, PHAs should be able to collect and enter all of the required utility data. In properties where tenants pay some or all of the utility bills, PHAs should work with their local utility providers, as many utility providers offer digital data transfers containing whole building data including both owner-paid and tenant-paid accounts. Each utility provider will have unique requirements for releasing the data in order to protect tenant privacy. HUD recommends that PHAs pursue this option where available as it provides more complete and accurate data while minimizing the time burden. When utility companies are not able to provide data for tenant paid accounts, PHAs should collect a sample of tenant-paid utility data.
Through this notice, HUD proposes that PHAs operating 250 or more public housing units under an Annual Contributions Contract (ACC) use the ENERGY STAR Portfolio Manager program to benchmark all properties no less than every three years and report the automatically generated metrics to HUD beginning no later than 2018. PHAs are encouraged to voluntarily submit benchmarking data to HUD on an annual basis. Although not required, PHAs operating less than 250 ACC units are encouraged to benchmark and submit the requested metrics. In the future, HUD may expand this collection to PHAs that operate fewer than 250 ACC units and are already required by State and/or local law to benchmark their buildings using whole-building data or for other programs run by the Office of Public and Indian Housing where appropriate. In addition, ACC units in buildings that have or will convert to 100% Project Based Vouchers (PBV) through the Rental Assistance Demonstration (RAD) will also be required to benchmark. At this point, the Energy Star Score for Water is still under development. HUD will not require this data point until at least 120-days after this feature is completed and HUD has notified PHAs as such. The next three-year submission after the notification shall include both energy and water data.
HUD has identified the following tasks associated with the process for obtaining and submitting Portfolio Manager scores.
1. Enter building data into ENERGY STAR Portfolio Manager.
2. Connect PHA account with the HUD account and share appropriate property information.
3. Compile and enter owner-paid utility data, where applicable.
4. Compile and enter tenant paid utility data, where applicable.
5. Report automatically generated metrics calculated by Portfolio Manager.
In subsequent years, PHAs will have less work to complete. The data required in step 1 will only need to be updated if the property underwent a major renovation including but not limited to an addition, demolition, or major change to the mechanical system (
The required metrics will be considered valid for three years. For example, an ENERGY STAR Score based on the 2016 reporting period would be accepted by HUD for the 2016, 2017, and 2018 reporting years.
HUD is seeking feedback on the required submission parts and will finalize the schedule with the issuance of an Office of Public and Indian Housing Notice.
PHAs will be required to enter data into ENERGY STAR Portfolio Manager and submit to HUD the automatically generated metrics. HUD anticipates collecting the required data and metrics via a web-based portal, database, or other simplified digital format. In addition to submitting metrics, PHAs may be asked to link their account with the HUD account and share property information to enable further analysis. Once PHAs connect their accounts with the HUD account and share property information, there is no additional time burden on PHAs as the relevant data automatically flows between the accounts.
In order for Portfolio Manager to analyze a building, PHAs will need to gather and enter utility data for the whole building. This includes both PHA-paid and tenant-paid accounts. PHAs should work with their local utility companies to determine if they are able to provide the PHA with digital transfers of tenant paid accounts. Utility companies that offer this service generally have procedures in place to protect tenant privacy. If PHAs are not able to obtain complete tenant paid account data from the local utility company, or similar entity, PHAs shall collect a sample of tenant-paid utility data. If using a sample of tenant-paid accounts, PHAs must meet or exceed the minimum standards of the sampling protocol outlined below. As a reminder, metrics calculated with less than whole building data are not accepted by EPA for the purposes of ENERGY STAR certification.
PHAs have the choice of selecting one of two sampling protocols from existing programs—(a) a robust sampling protocol, appropriate for use in financial estimates; and (b) a lighter sampling protocol, appropriate for general use, which is outlined for use in the Better Buildings Challenge (BBC). PHAs are encouraged to collect as much utility data as possible and to sample from a variety of housing unit sizes and types in order to ensure the accuracy and usefulness of the resulting metrics.
In accordance with the BBC Multifamily Sampling Protocol, the minimum number of housing units for which tenant-paid utility data must be collected and included in the referenced metrics is based on the size of the property:
At some point HUD may establish a different sampling standard for submittals for the purpose of assisting PHAs in establishment of utility allowances. If HUD decides to pursue that path, HUD will provide sufficient advance notice before changing the sampling standard. HUD will consider requests for additional time to submit benchmarking data from PHAs who experience unexpected delays in obtaining sufficient sample data from utility providers or otherwise encounter unforeseeable technical difficulties.
The utility benchmarking requirement described in this notice will apply no later than 2018. This will allow HUD
HUD estimates that the burden requirements associated with these activities is approximately 8.5 hours per development for the first year and 15 minutes in subsequent years. The burden hours take into account another existing information collection covering the use of ENERGY STAR Portfolio Manager, ENERGY STAR Certification (OMB-2060-0347) by the Environmental Protection Agency. That collection allows for 5.25 hours per year per development for the input of utility consumption data into Portfolio Manager.
The Department expects to participate in roundtable discussions with stakeholders on Energy Benchmarking during the comment period, which will provide additional opportunities for receiving feedback on the proposed requirements.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit written comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. chapter 35.
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Federal Land Policy and Management Act (FLPMA) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972 (FACA), the Department of the Interior, Bureau of Land Management (BLM), Grand Staircase-Escalante National Monument Advisory Committee (GSENMAC) will meet as indicated below.
The GSENM MAC will meet Thursday, November 3 (10 a.m.-6 p.m.) and November 4, 2016, (8 a.m.-1 p.m.) in Kanab, Utah.
The Committee will meet at the Bureau of Land Management Administrative Headquarters, located at 669 S. Highway 89A, Kanab, Utah.
Larry Crutchfield, Public Affairs Officer, Grand Staircase-Escalante National Monument, Bureau of Land Management, 669 South Highway 89A, Kanab, Utah, 84741; phone (435) 644-1209.
The 15-member GSENMAC was appointed by the Secretary of Interior on January 23, 2016, pursuant to the Monument Management Plan, the Federal Land Policy and Management Act of 1976 (FLPMA), and the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972 (FACA). As specified the Committee charter, the GSENMAC may be requested to: (1) Gather and analyze information, conduct studies and field examinations, seek public input or ascertain facts to develop recommendations concerning the use and management of the Monument; (2) review programmatic documents including the annual Monument Manager's Reports, and Monument Science Plans to provide recommendations on the achievement of the Management Plan objectives; (3) Compile monitoring data and assess and advise the DFO of the extent to which the Plan objectives are being met; (4) Make recommendations on Monument protocols and applicable planning projects to achieve the overall objectives are being met; (5) Review appropriate research proposals and make recommendations on project necessity and validity; (6) Make recommendations regarding allocation of research funds through review of research and project proposals as well as needs identified through the evaluation process; (7) Consult and make recommendations on issues such as protocols for specific projects,
Topics to be discussed by the GSENMAC during this meeting include the ongoing Livestock Grazing Management Plan Amendment and Associated Environmental Impact Statement (LGMPA/AEIS), GSENM division reports, future meeting dates and other matters as may reasonably come before the GSENMAC.
The entire meeting is open to the public. Members of the public are welcome to address the Committee at 5 p.m., local time, on November 3, 2016; and at 12 p.m., local time, on November 4, 2016. Depending on the number of persons wishing to speak, a time limit could be established. Interested persons may make oral statements to the GSENMAC during this time or written statements may be submitted for the GSENMAC's consideration. Written statements can be sent to: Grand Staircase-Escalante National Monument, Attn.: Larry Crutchfield, 669 South Highway 89A, Kanab, Utah, 84741. Information to be distributed to the GSENMAC is requested 10 days prior to the start of the GSENMAC meeting.
All meetings are open to the public; however, transportation, lodging, and
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has determined to grant a joint motion to terminate the above-captioned investigation based on a settlement agreement.
Ron Traud, Office of the General Counsel, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, (202) 205-3427. Copies of non-confidential documents filed in connection with this investigation are or will be available for inspection during official business hours (8:45 a.m. to 5:15 p.m.) in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, (202) 205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained at
On May 22, 2015, the Commission instituted this investigation pursuant to Section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, based on a complaint filed by Baxter Healthcare Corporation and Baxter Healthcare SA, both of Deerfield, Illinois. 80
On December 8, 2015, Baxter moved for partial termination of this investigation based on the withdrawal of claims 21, 36, 37, and 39 of the '061 patent; claims 1 and 10 of the '252 patent; and claims 20 and 21 of the '441 patent. That motion was granted, leaving only claims 19 and 20 of the '061 and claims 5, 8, 14, and 18 of the '252 patent at issue. Order No. 23 (Dec. 10, 2016),
On February 26, 2016, the ALJ issued an initial determination (“the Summary ID”) (Order No. 30), which concluded that Novo Nordisk infringed the `061 patent. Novo Nordisk filed a petition requesting that the Commission review the Summary ID and related claim construction orders. The Commission determined to defer its decision on whether to review those orders until the date on which the Commission determines whether to review the ALJ's final ID (“the Final ID”). Notice of Comm'n Determination to Extend the Date for Determining Whether to Review a Non-Final Initial Determination Granting Complainants' Motion for Summary Determination that the Accused Products Infringe U.S. Patent No. 6,100,061 (Mar. 29, 2016).
On May 27, 2016, the ALJ issued the Final ID, which found no violation of Section 337 as to either remaining asserted patent. On June 3, 2016, the ALJ issued the Recommended Determination on Remedy, Bonding, and the Public Interest, which contingently recommends both a limited exclusion order and a cease and desist order. The parties each petitioned for review of the Final ID. The Commission determined to review (1) the Summary ID's conclusion that the `061 patent is infringed (and the underlying claim constructions); (2) the Final ID's conclusion that the asserted claims of the `061 patent are anticipated and obvious; and (3) the Final ID's conclusion that the economic prong of the domestic industry is not met as to both remaining patents. 81
On September 12, 2016, the private parties filed a Joint Motion to Terminate the Investigation Based on a Settlement Agreement (“the Motion”) and a confidential and a public version of the settlement agreement. On September 14, 2016, OUII filed a response supporting the Motion.
The Commission has determined that the Motion complies with the requirements of section 210.21(b)(1) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 210.21(b)(1)), and that there are no extraordinary circumstances that would prevent the requested termination. The Commission also finds that granting the Motion would not be contrary to the public interest pursuant to section 210.50(b)(2) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 210.50(b)(2)). Accordingly, the Commission hereby grants the Motion. This investigation is terminated.
The authority for the Commission's determination is contained in Section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and in Part 210 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR part 210).
By order of the Commission.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has instituted a formal enforcement proceeding relating to June 23, 2016, cease and desist order issued in the above-referenced investigation.
Ronald A. Traud, Office of the General Counsel, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-3427. Copies of non-confidential documents filed in connection with this investigation are or will be available for inspection during official business hours (8:45 a.m. to 5:15 p.m.) in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server (
The Commission instituted the original investigation on January 27, 2015, based on a complaint filed by Cisco Systems, Inc. (“Cisco”). 80
On June 23, 2016, the Commission found that a Section 337 violation occurred as to the `537 patent and therefore issued a cease and desist order (“CDO”) against Arista and a limited exclusion order (“LEO”). 81
On August 26, 2016, Cisco filed a complaint requesting that the Commission institute a formal enforcement proceeding under Commission Rule 210.75(b) to investigate alleged violations of the CDO by Arista. Having examined the enforcement complaint and the supporting documents, the Commission has determined to institute a formal enforcement proceeding to determine whether Arista is in violation of the June 23, 2016 CDO issued in the original investigation and to determine what, if any, enforcement measures are appropriate. Arista is named as a respondent and OUII is named as a party.
The authority for the Commission's determination is contained in Section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and in section 210.75 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 210.75).
By order of the Commission.
Notice of application.
Registered bulk manufacturers of the affected basic classes, and applicants therefore, may file written comments on or objections to the issuance of the proposed registration in accordance with 21 CFR 1301.34(a) on or before November 3, 2016. Such persons may also file a written request for a hearing on the application pursuant to 21 CFR 1301.43 on or before November 3, 2016.
Written comments should be sent to: Drug Enforcement Administration, Attention: DEA Federal Register Representative/ODW, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, Virginia 22152. All requests for hearing must be sent to: Drug Enforcement Administration, Attn: Administrator, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, Virginia 22152. All requests for hearing should also be sent to: (1) Drug Enforcement Administration, Attn: Hearing Clerk/LJ, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, Virginia 22152; and (2) Drug Enforcement Administration, Attn: DEA Federal Register Representative/ODW, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, Virginia 22152.
The Attorney General has delegated her authority under the Controlled Substances Act to the Administrator of the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), 28 CFR 0.100(b). Authority to exercise all necessary functions with respect to the promulgation and implementation of 21 CFR part 1301, incident to the registration of manufacturers, distributors, dispensers importers, and exporters of, controlled substances (other than final orders in connection with suspension, denial, or revocation of registration) has been redelegated to the Deputy Assistant Administrator of the DEA Office of Diversion Control (“Deputy Assistant Administrator”) pursuant to section 7 of 28 CFR part 0, appendix to subpart R.
In accordance with 21 CFR 1301.34(a), this is notice that on June 17, 2016, Fisher Clinical Services, Inc., 700 A-C Nestle Way, Breinigsville, Pennsylvania 18031-1522 applied to be registered as an importer of the following basic classes of controlled substances:
The company plans to import the listed controlled substances for analytical research, testing, and clinical trials. This authorization does not extend to the import of a finished FDA approved or non-approved dosage form for commercial distribution in the United States.
The company plans to import an intermediate form of tapentadol (9780)
On September 28, 2016, the Department of Justice lodged a proposed consent decree with the United States District Court for the District of Columbia in the lawsuit entitled
The United States filed this lawsuit under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (“CERCLA”). The United States' complaint names Anthony Spanos, Inc., George A. Spanos, in his capacity as the trustee of the George A. Spanos Living Trust, and Gus Dinos as defendants. The United States' complaint seeks recovery of costs incurred and to be incurred by the Environmental Protection Agency in connection with the removal of hazardous substances at the Georgia Avenue PCE Site, located in Northwest Washington, DC. The consent decree resolves the United States' claims against George A. Spanos and does not resolve the United States' claims against Anthony Spanos, Inc. and Gus Dinos. George A. Spanos agrees to pay $125,000 of the United States' response costs and to perform the operation and maintenance of sub-slab depressurization systems at the Site. In return, the United States agrees not to sue George A. Spanos under sections 106 and 107 of CERCLA.
The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the consent decree. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to
During the public comment period, the consent decree may be examined and downloaded at this Justice Department Web site:
Please enclose a check or money order for $11.25 (25 cents per page reproduction cost) payable to the United States Treasury.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Request for public comments.
OSHA solicits public comments concerning its proposal to extend the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) approval of the collections of information contained in the Cranes and Derricks in Construction Standard (29 CFR part 1926, subpart CC).
Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by December 5, 2016.
Todd Owen or Theda Kenney, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor, Room N-3609, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210; telephone (202) 693-2222.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
The Cranes and Derricks standard's information collection requirements impose a duty on employers to produce and maintain records that implement controls and take other measures to protect workers from hazards related to cranes and derricks used in construction. Accordingly, construction businesses with workers who operate or work in the vicinity of cranes and derricks must have, as applicable, the following documents on file and available at the job site: Equipment ratings, employee training records, written authorizations from qualified individuals, and program qualification audits. During an inspection, OSHA will have access to the records to determine compliance under conditions specified by the standard. An employer's failure to generate and disclose the information required in this standard will affect significantly the Agency's effort to control and reduce injuries and fatalities related to the use of cranes and derricks in construction.
OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:
• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the Agency's functions, including whether the information is useful;
• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information collection and transmission techniques.
The Agency is requesting an adjustment decrease of 36 burden hours (from 386,066 to 386,030 burden hours). The decrease in burden hours is due to errors in calculations. There is also an adjustment increase in operation and maintenance costs of $103,775 from $2,183,970 to 2,287,745. The increase is mainly due to an increase in hourly wage rates.
OSHA will summarize the comments submitted in response to this notice, and will include this summary in its request to OMB to extend the approval of the information collection requirements contained in the Cranes and Derricks Standard.
You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) Electronically at
Because of security procedures, the use of regular mail may cause a significant delay in the receipt of comments. For information about security procedures concerning the delivery of materials by hand, express delivery, messenger, or courier service, please contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627).
Comments and submissions are posted without change at
David Michaels, Ph.D., MPH, Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Request for public comments.
OSHA solicits public comments concerning its proposal to extend the Office of Management and
Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by December 5, 2016.
Theda Kenney or Todd Owen, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor, Room N-3609, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210; telephone (202) 693-2222.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
The collections of information specified in the Noise Standard protect workers from suffering material hearing impairment. The collections of information contained in the Noise Standard include conducting noise monitoring; notifying workers when they are exposed at or above an 8-hour time-weighted average of 85 decibels; providing workers with initial and annual audiograms; notifying workers of a loss in hearing based on comparing audiograms; maintaining records of workplace noise exposure and workers' audiograms; and allowing workers access to materials and records required by the Standard.
OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:
• Whether the proposed collection of information requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the Agency's functions, including whether the information is useful;
• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the collection of information requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information collection and transmission techniques.
The Agency is requesting an adjustment increase of 115,855 burden hours (from 2,068,736 to 2,184,591 burden hours). The increase is a result of a 5.6% estimated increase in the number of workers and manufacturing establishments overall, according to U.S. Census Bureau statistics. The Agency is also requesting an adjustment increase in operation and maintenance costs from $26,296,876 to $31,242,929 (a total increase of $4,946,053), which reflects increased audiometric testing costs.
You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) Electronically at
Because of security procedures, the use of regular mail may cause a significant delay in the receipt of
David Michaels, Ph.D., MPH, Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506
National Aeronautics and Space Administration.
Notice of meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Public Law 92-463, as amended, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) announces a meeting of the Science Committee of the NASA Advisory Council (NAC). This Committee reports to the NAC. The meeting will be held for the purpose of soliciting, from the scientific community and other persons, scientific and technical information relevant to program planning.
Wednesday, October 26, 2016, 1:00 p.m. to 5:45 p.m.; and Thursday, October 27, 2016, 1:00 p.m. to 5:45 p.m., Eastern Time.
KarShelia Henderson, Science Mission Directorate, NASA Headquarters, Washington, DC 20546, (202) 358-2355, fax (202) 358-2779, or
The meeting will be available telephonically and by WebEx. You must use a touch-tone phone to participate in this meeting. Any interested person may dial the USA toll free conference call number 1-888-790-1716 or toll number 1-212-287-1654, passcode 5882231, for both days. The WebEx link is
The agenda for the meeting includes the following topics:
It is imperative that this meeting be held on these dates to accommodate the scheduling priorities of the key participants.
Information Security Oversight Office, National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).
Notice of Advisory Committee Meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app 2) and implementing regulation 41 CFR 101-6, NARA announces the following committee meeting.
The meeting will be on November 10, 2016, from 10:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. EDT.
National Archives and Records Administration; 700 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Archivist's Reception Room, Room 105, Washington, DC 20408.
Robert Tringali, Program Analyst, by mail at ISOO, National Archives Building; 700 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20408, by telephone at (202) 357-5335, or by email at
The purpose of this meeting is to discuss National Industrial Security Program policy matters. The meeting will be open to the public. However, due to space limitations and access procedures, you must submit the name and telephone number of individuals planning to attend to the Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO) no later than Friday, November 4, 2016. ISOO will provide additional instructions for accessing the meeting's location.
National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).
Notice of proposed extension request.
We are proposing to use NA Form 16016, Limited Facility Report, to review the facility, environment, and staffing capabilities of non-NARA organizations that wish to borrow a National Archives Traveling Exhibit. We invite you to comment on this proposed information collection pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
We must receive written comments on or before December 5, 2016.
Send comments to Paperwork Reduction Act Comments (ID), Room 4400; National Archives and Records Administration; 8601 Adelphi Road; College Park, MD 20740-6001, fax
Contact Tamee Fechhelm by telephone at 301-837-1694, or by email at
Pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13), NARA invites the public and other Federal agencies to comment on proposed information collections. The comments and suggestions should address one or more of the following points: (a) Whether the proposed information collection is necessary for NARA to properly perform its functions; (b) NARA's estimate of the burden of the proposed information collection and its accuracy; (c) ways NARA could enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information it collects; (d) ways NARA could minimize the burden on respondents of collecting the information, including through information technology; and (e) whether this collection affects small businesses. We will summarize any comments you submit and include the summary in our request for OMB approval. All comments will become a matter of public record. In this notice, NARA solicits comments concerning the following information collection:
NARA has developed NA Form 16016, Limited Facility Report, to serve as an application and to identify a venue's facility and environmental conditions. We provide a copy of the form, requirements for exhibition security, and regulations to the applicant. NARA needs the information contained on this form to determine whether the proposed facility meets the criteria under NARA Directive 1612, Exhibition Loans and Traveling Exhibitions.
National Science Foundation.
Notice of Permit Modification Request.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) is required to publish a notice of requests to modify permits issued to conduct activities regulated under the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978. This is the required notice of a requested permit modification.
Interested parties are invited to submit written data, comments, or views with respect to this permit application by November 3, 2016. Permit applications may be inspected by interested parties at the Permit Office, address below.
Comments should be addressed to Permit Office, Room 755, Division of Polar Programs, National Science Foundation, 4201 Wilson Boulevard, Arlington, Virginia 22230.
Nature McGinn, ACA Permit Officer, at the above address or
The National Science Foundation, as directed by the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-541), as amended by the Antarctic Science, Tourism and Conservation Act of 1996, has developed regulations for the establishment of a permit system for various activities in Antarctica and designation of certain animals and certain geographic areas a requiring special protection. The regulations establish such a permit system to designate Antarctic Specially Protected Areas.
October 1, 2016 to September 30, 2019.
9:30 a.m., Tuesday, October 18, 2016.
NTSB Conference Center, 429 L'Enfant Plaza SW., Washington, DC 20594.
The one item is open to the public.
Telephone: (202) 314-6100.
The press and public may enter the NTSB Conference Center one hour prior to the meeting for set up and seating.
Individuals requesting specific accommodations should contact Rochelle Hall at (202) 314-6305 or by email at
The public may view the meeting via a live or archived webcast by accessing a link under “News & Events” on the NTSB home page at
Schedule updates, including weather-related cancellations, are also available at
Candi Bing at (202) 314-6403 or by email at
Terry Williams at (202) 314-6100 or by email at
National Transportation Safety Board.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given of the appointment of members of the National Transportation Safety Board, Performance Review Board (PRB).
Emily T. Carroll, Chief, Human Resources Division, Office of Administration, National Transportation Safety Board, 490 L'Enfant Plaza SW., Washington, DC 20594-0001, (202) 314-6233.
Section 4314(c)(1) through (5) of Title 5, United States Code requires each agency to establish, in accordance with regulations prescribed by the Office of Personnel Management, one or more SES Performance Review Boards. The board reviews and evaluates the initial appraisal of a senior executive's performance by the supervisor and considers recommendations to the appointing authority regarding the performance of the senior executive.
The following have been designated as members of the Performance Review Board of the National Transportation Safety Board:
The Honorable T. Bella Dinh-Zarr, Vice Chairman, National Transportation Safety Board; PRB Chair.
The Honorable Robert L. Sumwalt, III; Member, National Transportation Safety Board.
Sharon W. Bryson, Director, Office of Safety Recommendations and Communications, National Transportation Safety Board.
Florence A.P. Carr, Director, Bureau of Trade Analysis, Federal Maritime Commission.
John A. Cavolowsky, Director, Airspace Operations and Safety Program, National Aeronautics and Space Administration.
Jerold Gidner, Senior Policy Advisor, Office of Natural Resources Revenue and Tribal Liaison Officer; Office of Policy, Management, and Budget; Department of the Interior (Alternate).
The ACRS Subcommittee on Metallurgy & Reactor Fuels will hold a meeting on October 21, 2016, Room T-2B1, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland.
The meeting will be open to public attendance.
The agenda for the subject meeting shall be as follows:
The Subcommittee will review DG-1327, Reactivity-Initiated Accidents, which is a proposed new guide. The Subcommittee will hear presentations by and hold discussions with the NRC staff and other interested persons regarding this matter. The Subcommittee will gather information, analyze relevant issues and facts, and formulate proposed positions and actions, as appropriate, for deliberation by the Full Committee.
Members of the public desiring to provide oral statements and/or written comments should notify the Designated Federal Official (DFO), Christopher Brown (Telephone 301-415-7111 or Email:
Detailed meeting agendas and meeting transcripts are available on the NRC Web site at
If attending this meeting, please enter through the One White Flint North building, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, MD. After registering with security, please contact Mr. Theron Brown (Telephone 240-888-9835) to be escorted to the meeting room.
The ACRS Subcommittee on Fukushima will hold a meeting on October 19, 2016, Room T-2B1, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
The meeting will be open to public attendance with the exception of portions that may be closed to protect information that is proprietary pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(4). The agenda for the subject meeting shall be as follows:
The Subcommittee will review Fukushima Recommendation evaluations for natural hazards other than seismic and flooding, periodic reconfirmation of natural hazards, and real time radiation monitoring. The Subcommittee will hear presentations by and hold discussions with the NRC staff and other interested persons regarding this matter. The Subcommittee will gather information, analyze relevant issues and facts, and formulate proposed positions and actions, as appropriate, for deliberation by the Full Committee.
Members of the public desiring to provide oral statements and/or written comments should notify the Designated Federal Official (DFO), Kathy Weaver (Telephone: 301-415-6236 or Email:
Detailed meeting agendas and meeting transcripts are available on the NRC Web site at
If attending this meeting, please enter through the One White Flint North building, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. After registering with Security, please contact Mr. Theron Brown (Telephone: 240-888-9835) to be escorted to the meeting room.
The ACRS Subcommittee on Fukushima will hold a meeting on October 19, 2016, Room T-2B1, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
The meeting will be open to public attendance.
The agenda for the subject meeting shall be as follows:
The Subcommittee will discuss guidance on mitigating strategies assessment for new seismic information and the status of the mitigation of beyond-design-basis events rulemaking. The Subcommittee will hear presentations by and hold discussions with the NRC staff and other interested persons regarding this matter. The Subcommittee will gather information, analyze relevant issues and facts, and formulate proposed positions and actions, as appropriate, for deliberation by the Full Committee.
Members of the public desiring to provide oral statements and/or written comments should notify the Designated Federal Official (DFO), Mike Snodderly (Telephone: 301-415-2241 or Email:
Detailed meeting agendas and meeting transcripts are available on the NRC Web site at
If attending this meeting, please enter through the One White Flint North building, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. After registering with Security, please contact Mr. Theron Brown (Telephone: 240-888-9835) to be escorted to the meeting room.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Application for indirect license transfer; notice of opportunity to comment, request a hearing, and petition for leave to intervene; order imposing procedures.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) received and is considering approval of an application filed by Susquehanna Nuclear, LLC (Susquehanna Nuclear), on June 29, 2016. The application seeks NRC approval of the indirect transfer of Susquehanna Nuclear's interests in Renewed Facility Operating License Nos. NPF-14 and NPF-22 for Susquehanna Steam Electric Station, Units 1 and 2 (SSES), respectively, as well as the general license for the SSES Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation (ISFSI), from the current parent holder, Talen Energy Corporation (Talen), to Riverstone Holdings, LLC (Riverstone). Because the application contains sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (SUNSI) an order imposes procedures to obtain access to SUNSI for contention preparation.
Comments must be filed by November 3, 2016. A request for a hearing must be filed by October 24, 2016. Any potential party as defined in § 2.4 of title 10 of the
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specific subject):
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For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Tanya E. Hood, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, telephone: 301-415-1387; email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0187 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2016-0187 in your comment submission.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC will post all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment submissions into ADAMS.
The NRC is considering the issuance of an order under 10 CFR 50.80 approving the indirect transfer of control of Susquehanna Nuclear's interests in Renewed Facility Operating License Nos. NPF-14 and NPF-22 for SSES, as well as the general license for the ISFSI from Talen to Riverstone. Riverstone's portfolio companies currently hold 35 percent in the aggregate of the outstanding common stock of Talen.
According to the application for approval filed by Susquehanna Nuclear, acting on behalf of itself and Riverstone, the indirect transfer of control results from a transaction in which Talen, Susquehanna Nuclear's ultimate parent, will become wholly owned by the portfolio companies of Riverstone. As a result, all of the common stock of Talen will become privately held by affiliates of Riverstone, and Susquehanna Nuclear will become indirectly controlled by Riverstone as described in the application. Riverstone would acquire ownership of Susquehanna Nuclear's 90 percent interest in SSES. Susquehanna Nuclear will continue to operate the facility and hold the licenses.
No physical changes to SSES or operational changes are being proposed in the application.
The NRC's regulations at 10 CFR 50.80 state that no license for a production or utilization facility, or any right thereunder, shall be transferred, directly or indirectly, through transfer of control of the license, unless the Commission gives its consent in writing. The Commission will approve an application for the indirect transfer of a license if the Commission determines that the proposed transaction, described above, will not affect the qualifications of the licensee to hold the license, and that the transfer is otherwise consistent with applicable provisions of law, regulations, and orders issued by the Commission.
Within 30 days from the date of publication of this notice, persons may submit written comments regarding the license transfer application, as provided for in 10 CFR 2.1305. The Commission will consider and, if appropriate, respond to these comments, but such comments will not otherwise constitute part of the decisional record. Comments should be submitted as described in the
Within 20 days after the date of publication of this notice, any persons (petitioner) whose interest may be affected by this action may file a request for a hearing and a petition to intervene (petition) with respect to the action. Petitions shall be filed in accordance with the Commission's “Agency Rules of Practice and Procedure” in 10 CFR part 2. Interested persons should consult a current copy of 10 CFR 2.309, which is available at the NRC's PDR, located at One White Flint North, Room O1-F21, 11555 Rockville Pike (first floor), Rockville, Maryland 20852. The NRC's regulations are accessible electronically from the NRC Library on the NRC's Web site at
As required by 10 CFR 2.309, a petition shall set forth with particularity the interest of the petitioner in the proceeding, and how that interest may be affected by the results of the proceeding. The petition should specifically explain the reasons why intervention should be permitted with particular reference to the following general requirements: (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the petitioner; (2) the nature of the petitioner's right under the Act to be made a party to the proceeding; (3) the nature and extent of the petitioner's property, financial, or other interest in the proceeding; and (4) the possible effect of any decision or order which may be entered in the proceeding on the petitioner's interest. The petition must also set forth the specific contentions which the petitioner seeks to have litigated at the proceeding.
Each contention must consist of a specific statement of the issue of law or fact to be raised or controverted. In addition, the petitioner shall provide a brief explanation of the bases for the contention and a concise statement of the alleged facts or expert opinion which support the contention and on which the petitioner intends to rely in proving the contention at the hearing. The petitioner must also provide references to those specific sources and documents of which the petitioner is aware and on which the petitioner intends to rely to establish those facts or expert opinion to support its position on the issue. The petition must include sufficient information to show that a genuine dispute exists with the applicant on a material issue of law or fact. Contentions shall be limited to matters within the scope of the proceeding. The contention must be one which, if proven, would entitle the petitioner to relief. A petitioner who fails to satisfy these requirements with respect to at least one contention will not be permitted to participate as a party.
Those permitted to intervene become parties to the proceeding, subject to any limitations in the order granting leave to intervene, and have the opportunity to participate fully in the conduct of the hearing with respect to resolution of that person's admitted contentions consistent with the NRC's regulations, policies, and procedures.
Petitions for leave to intervene must be filed no later than 20 days from the date of publication of this notice. Requests for hearing, petitions for leave to intervene, and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions that are filed after the 20-day deadline will not be entertained absent a determination by the presiding officer that the filing demonstrates good cause by satisfying the three factors in 10 CFR 2.309(c)(1)(i)-(iii).
A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof, may submit a petition to the Commission to participate as a party under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(1).
The petition should state the nature and extent of the petitioner's interest in the proceeding. The petition should be submitted to the Commission by October 24, 2016. The petition must be filed in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document, and should meet the requirements for petitions set forth in this section, except that under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(2) a State, local governmental body, or Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof does not need to address the standing requirements in 10 CFR 2.309(d) if the facility is located within its boundaries. A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof may also have the opportunity to participate under 10 CFR 2.315(c).
If a hearing is granted, any person who does not wish, or is not qualified, to become a party to the proceeding may, in the discretion of the presiding officer, be permitted to make a limited appearance pursuant to the provisions of 10 CFR 2.315(a). A person making a limited appearance may make an oral or written statement of position on the issues, but may not otherwise participate in the proceeding. A limited appearance may be made at any session of the hearing or at any prehearing conference, subject to the limits and conditions as may be imposed by the presiding officer. Details regarding the opportunity to make a limited appearance will be provided by the presiding officer if such sessions are scheduled.
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing, a petition for leave to intervene, any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene (hereinafter “petition”), and documents filed by interested governmental entities participating under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC's E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007, as amended at 77 FR 46562, August 3, 2012). The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Participants may not submit paper copies of their filings unless they seek an exemption in accordance with the procedures described below.
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least 10 days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on the NRC's public Web site at
Once a participant has obtained a digital ID certificate and a docket has been created, the participant can then submit a petition. Submissions should be in Portable Document Format (PDF). Additional guidance on PDF submissions is available on the NRC's public Web site at
A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC Electronic Filing Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's public Web site at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing stating why there is good cause for not filing electronically and requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff; or (2) courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service to the Office of the Secretary, Sixteenth Floor, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff. Participants filing a document in this manner are responsible for serving the document on all other participants. Filing is considered complete by first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail, or by courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service. A presiding officer, having granted an exemption request from using E-Filing, may require a participant or party to use E-Filing if the presiding officer subsequently determines that the reason for granting the exemption from use of E-Filing no longer exists.
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket which is available to the public at
The Commission will issue a notice or order granting or denying a hearing request or intervention petition, designating the issues for any hearing that will be held and designating the Presiding Officer. A notice granting a hearing will be published in the
For further details, see the application dated June 29, 2016.
A. This Order contains instructions regarding how potential parties to this proceeding may request access to documents containing SUNSI.
B. Within 10 days after publication of this notice of hearing and opportunity to petition for leave to intervene, any potential party who believes access to SUNSI is necessary to respond to this notice may request such access. A “potential party” is any person who intends to participate as a party by demonstrating standing and filing an admissible contention under 10 CFR 2.309. Requests for access to SUNSI submitted later than 10 days after publication of this notice will not be considered absent a showing of good cause for the late filing, addressing why the request could not have been filed earlier.
C. The requestor shall submit a letter requesting permission to access SUNSI to the Office of the Secretary, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff, and provide a copy to the Associate General Counsel for Hearings, Enforcement and Administration, Office of the General Counsel, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The expedited delivery or courier mail address for both offices is: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. The email address for the Office of the Secretary and the Office of the General Counsel are
(1) A description of the licensing action with a citation to this
(2) The name and address of the potential party and a description of the potential party's particularized interest that could be harmed by the action identified in C.(1); and
(3) The identity of the individual or entity requesting access to SUNSI and the requestor's basis for the need for the information in order to meaningfully participate in this adjudicatory proceeding. In particular, the request must explain why publicly available versions of the information requested would not be sufficient to provide the basis and specificity for a proffered contention.
D. Based on an evaluation of the information submitted under paragraph C.(3) the NRC staff will determine within 10 days of receipt of the request whether:
(1) There is a reasonable basis to believe the petitioner is likely to establish standing to participate in this NRC proceeding; and
(2) The requestor has established a legitimate need for access to SUNSI.
E. If the NRC staff determines that the requestor satisfies both D.(1) and D.(2) above, the NRC staff will notify the requestor in writing that access to SUNSI has been granted. The written notification will contain instructions on how the requestor may obtain copies of the requested documents, and any other conditions that may apply to access to those documents. These conditions may include, but are not limited to, the signing of a Non-Disclosure Agreement
F. Filing of Contentions. Any contentions in these proceedings that are based upon the information received as a result of the request made for SUNSI must be filed by the requestor no later than 20 days after the requestor is granted access to that information.
G. Review of Denials of Access.
(1) If the request for access to SUNSI is denied by the NRC staff either after a determination on standing and need for access, the NRC staff shall immediately notify the requestor in writing, briefly stating the reason or reasons for the denial.
(2) The requestor may challenge the NRC staff's adverse determination by filing a challenge within 5 days of receipt of that determination with: (a) The presiding officer designated in this proceeding; (b) if no presiding officer has been appointed, the Chief Administrative Judge, or if he or she is unavailable, another administrative judge, or an administrative law judge with jurisdiction pursuant to 10 CFR 2.318(a); or (c) an officer if that officer has been designated to rule on information access issues.
H. Review of Grants of Access. A party other than the requestor may challenge an NRC staff determination granting access to SUNSI whose release would harm that party's interest independent of the proceeding. Such a challenge must be filed with the Chief Administrative Judge within 5 days of the notification by the NRC staff of its grant of access.
If challenges to the NRC staff determinations are filed, these procedures give way to the normal process for litigating disputes concerning access to information. The availability of interlocutory review by the Commission of orders ruling on such NRC staff determinations (whether granting or denying access) is governed by 10 CFR 2.311.
I. The Commission expects that the NRC staff and presiding officers (and any other reviewing officers) will consider and resolve requests for access to SUNSI, and motions for protective orders, in a timely fashion in order to minimize any unnecessary delays in identifying those petitioners who have standing and who have proposed contentions meeting the specificity and basis requirements in 10 CFR part 2. Attachment 1 to this Order summarizes the general target schedule for processing and resolving requests under these procedures.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
License amendment request; notice of opportunity to comment, request a hearing, and petition for leave to intervene; order imposing procedures.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) received and is considering approval of four amendment requests. The amendment requests are for Palo Verde Nuclear Generating Station, Units 1, 2, and 3; Columbia Generating Station; Hope Creek Generating Station and Salem Nuclear Generating Station, Unit Nos. 1 and 2; and Virgil C. Summer Nuclear Station, Unit No. 1. For each amendment request, the NRC proposes to determine that they involve no significant hazards consideration. Because each amendment request contains sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (SUNSI) an order imposes procedures to obtain access to SUNSI for contention preparation.
Comments must be filed by November 3, 2016. A request for a hearing must be filed by December 5, 2016. Any potential party as defined in § 2.4 of title 10 of the
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specific subject):
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•
For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Shirley J. Rohrer, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-5411, email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0194, facility name, unit number(s), plant docket number, application date, and subject when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2016-0194, facility name, unit number(s), plant docket number, application date, and subject in your comment submission.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC will post all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment into ADAMS.
Pursuant to Section 189a.(2) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), the NRC is publishing this notice. The Act requires the Commission to publish notice of any amendments issued, or proposed to be issued and grants the Commission the authority to issue and make immediately effective any amendment to an operating license or combined license, as applicable, upon a determination by the Commission that such amendment involves no significant hazards consideration, notwithstanding the pendency before the Commission of a request for a hearing from any person.
This notice includes notices of amendments containing SUNSI.
The Commission has made a proposed determination that the following amendment requests involve no significant hazards consideration. Under the Commission's regulations in 10 CFR 50.92, this means that operation of the facility in accordance with the proposed amendment would not (1) involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated, or (2) create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated, or (3) involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety. The basis for this proposed determination for each amendment request is shown below.
The Commission is seeking public comments on this proposed determination. Any comments received within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice will be
Normally, the Commission will not issue the amendment until the expiration of 60 days after the date of publication of this notice. The Commission may issue the license amendment before expiration of the 60-day period provided that its final determination is that the amendment involves no significant hazards consideration. In addition, the Commission may issue the amendment prior to the expiration of the 30-day comment period if circumstances change during the 30-day comment period such that failure to act in a timely way would result, for example, in derating or shutdown of the facility. If the Commission takes action prior to the expiration of either the comment period or the notice period, it will publish a notice of issuance in the
Within 60 days after the date of publication of this notice, any persons (petitioner) whose interest may be affected by this action may file a request for a hearing and a petition to intervene (petition) with respect to issuance of the amendment to the subject facility operating license or combined license. Petitions shall be filed in accordance with the Commission's “Agency Rules of Practice and Procedure” in 10 CFR part 2. Interested persons should consult a current copy of 10 CFR 2.309, which is available at the NRC's PDR, located at One White Flint North, Room O1-F21, 11555 Rockville Pike (first floor), Rockville, Maryland 20852. The NRC's regulations are accessible electronically from the NRC Library on the NRC's Web site at
As required by 10 CFR 2.309, a petition shall set forth with particularity the interest of the petitioner in the proceeding, and how that interest may be affected by the results of the proceeding. The petition should specifically explain the reasons why intervention should be permitted with particular reference to the following general requirements: (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the petitioner; (2) the nature of the petitioner's right under the Act to be made a party to the proceeding; (3) the nature and extent of the petitioner's property, financial, or other interest in the proceeding; and (4) the possible effect of any decision or order which may be entered in the proceeding on the petitioner's interest. The petition must also set forth the specific contentions which the petitioner seeks to have litigated at the proceeding.
Each contention must consist of a specific statement of the issue of law or fact to be raised or controverted. In addition, the petitioner shall provide a brief explanation of the bases for the contention and a concise statement of the alleged facts or expert opinion which support the contention and on which the petitioner intends to rely in proving the contention at the hearing. The petitioner must also provide references to those specific sources and documents of which the petitioner is aware and on which the petitioner intends to rely to establish those facts or expert opinion to support its position on the issue. The petition must include sufficient information to show that a genuine dispute exists with the applicant on a material issue of law or fact. Contentions shall be limited to matters within the scope of the amendment under consideration. The contention must be one which, if proven, would entitle the petitioner to relief. A petitioner who fails to satisfy these requirements with respect to at least one contention will not be permitted to participate as a party.
Those permitted to intervene become parties to the proceeding, subject to any limitations in the order granting leave to intervene, and have the opportunity to participate fully in the conduct of the hearing with respect to resolution of that person's admitted contentions, including the opportunity to present evidence and to submit a cross-examination plan for cross-examination of witnesses, consistent with the NRC's regulations, policies, and procedures.
Petitions for leave to intervene must be filed no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. Requests for hearing, petitions for leave to intervene, and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions that are filed after the 60-day deadline will not be entertained absent a determination by the presiding officer that the filing demonstrates good cause by satisfying the three factors in 10 CFR 2.309(c)(1)(i)-(iii).
If a hearing is requested, and the Commission has not made a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration, the Commission will make a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration. The final determination will serve to decide when the hearing is held. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration, the Commission may issue the amendment and make it immediately effective, notwithstanding the request for a hearing. Any hearing held would take place after issuance of the amendment. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves a significant hazards consideration, then any hearing held would take place before the issuance of any amendment unless the Commission finds an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public, in which case it will issue an appropriate order or rule under 10 CFR part 2.
A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof, may submit a petition to the Commission to participate as a party under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(1).
The petition should state the nature and extent of the petitioner's interest in the proceeding. The petition should be submitted to the Commission by December 5, 2016. The petition must be filed in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document, and should meet the requirements for petitions set forth in this section, except that under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(2) a State, local governmental body, or Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof does not need to address the standing requirements in 10 CFR 2.309(d) if the facility is located within its boundaries. A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof may also have the opportunity to participate under 10 CFR 2.315(c).
If a hearing is granted, any person who does not wish, or is not qualified, to become a party to the proceeding may, in the discretion of the presiding officer, be permitted to make a limited appearance pursuant to the provisions of 10 CFR 2.315(a). A person making a limited appearance may make an oral or written statement of position on the issues, but may not otherwise participate in the proceeding. A limited appearance may be made at any session of the hearing or at any prehearing conference, subject to the limits and
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing, a petition for leave to intervene, any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene (hereinafter “petition”), and documents filed by interested governmental entities participating under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC's E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007, as amended at 77 FR 46562, August 3, 2012). The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Participants may not submit paper copies of their filings unless they seek an exemption in accordance with the procedures described below.
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least 10 days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on the NRC's public Web site at
Once a participant has obtained a digital ID certificate and a docket has been created, the participant can then submit a petition. Submissions should be in Portable Document Format (PDF). Additional guidance on PDF submissions is available on the NRC's public Web site at
A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC Electronic Filing Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's public Web site at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing stating why there is good cause for not filing electronically and requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff; or (2) courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service to the Office of the Secretary, Sixteenth Floor, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff. Participants filing a document in this manner are responsible for serving the document on all other participants. Filing is considered complete by first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail, or by courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service. A presiding officer, having granted an exemption request from using E-Filing, may require a participant or party to use E-Filing if the presiding officer subsequently determines that the reason for granting the exemption from use of E-Filing no longer exists.
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket which is available to the public at
The Commission will issue a notice or order granting or denying a hearing request or intervention petition, designating the issues for any hearing that will be held and designating the Presiding Officer. A notice granting a hearing will be published in the
The proposed change will allow for the implementation of NGF including the use of Optimized ZIRLO
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change to TS Section 4.2.1 adds Optimized ZIRLO
The NRC approved topical report CENPD-404-P-A, Addendum 1-A and Addendum 2-A addresses Optimized ZIRLO
Therefore, the proposed change to TS Section 4.2.1 does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
The proposed changes to TS Section 5.6.5 have no impact on any plant configuration or system performance. Changes to the calculated core operating limits may only be made using NRC approved methodologies, must be consistent with all applicable safety analysis limits, and are controlled by the 10 CFR 50.59 process. The proposed changes to TS Section 5.6.5 will add the NRC approved topical reports, as described, to the list of referenced core operating analytical methods. APS has demonstrated that the limitations and conditions contained in the NRC Safety Evaluation for these topical reports, and their various supplements and revisions will be met as described in Attachment 5 to [the enclosure to APS's letter dated July 1, 2016].
Therefore, the proposed change to TS Section 5.6.5 does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change to TS Section 4.2.1 adds Optimized ZIRLO
Use of Optimized ZIRLO
Therefore, Optimized ZIRLO
Therefore, the proposed change to TS Section 4.2.1 does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated.
The proposed changes to TS Section 5.6.5 have no impact on any plant configuration or system performance. Changes to the calculated core operating limits may only be made using NRC approved methodologies, must be consistent with all applicable safety analysis limits, and are controlled by the 10 CFR 50.59 process. The proposed changes to TS Section 5.6.5 will add the NRC-approved topical reports, as described, to the list of referenced core operating analytical methods. APS has demonstrated that the limitations and conditions contained in the NRC Safety Evaluation for these topical reports, and their various supplements and revisions as identified in Attachment 5 to [the enclosure to APS's letter dated July 1, 2016], will be met as described in Section 3.2.
Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed change to TS Section 4.2.1 adds Optimized ZIRLO
The proposed change will not involve a significant reduction in the margin of safety because it has been demonstrated that the material properties of the Optimized ZIRLO
Therefore, the proposed change to TS Section 4.2.1 does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The proposed changes to TS Section 5.6.5 have no impact on any plant configuration or system performance. The proposed changes to TS Section 5.6.5 will add the NRC-approved topical reports, as described, to the list of referenced core operating analytical methods. The proposed changes do not amend the cycle specific parameter limits located in the PVNGS unit specific [core operating limits report (COLR)] from the values presently required by the TS. The individual specifications continue to require operation of the plant within the bounds of the limits specified in PVNGS unit specific COLR.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed change involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change will increase the Columbia Generating Station rated thermal power [(RTP)] from 3486 MWt to 3544 MWt. The reviews and evaluations performed to support the proposed uprated power conditions included all structures, systems and components that would be affected by the proposed changes. The reviews and evaluations determined that these structures, systems, and components are capable of performing their design function at the proposed uprated RTP of 3544 MWt. All accident mitigation systems will function as designed, and all performance requirements for these systems have been evaluated and were found acceptable.
Thus, the proposed changes do not create any new accident initiators or increase the probability of an accident previously evaluated.
The primary loop components (
Thus, there is no increase in the probability of a structural failure of these components.
The nuclear steam supply systems will continue to perform their intended design functions during normal and accident conditions. The balance of plant systems and components continue to meet their applicable structural limits and will continue to perform their intended design functions.
Thus, there is no increase in the probability of a failure of these components. The safety relief valves and containment isolation valves meet design sizing requirements at the uprated power level. Because the integrity of the plant will not be affected by operation at the uprated condition, Energy Northwest has concluded that all structures, systems, and components required to mitigate a transient remain capable of fulfilling their intended functions.
The current safety analyses remain applicable, since they were performed at power levels that bound operation at a core power of 3544 MWt. The results demonstrate that acceptance criteria of the applicable analyses continue to be met at the uprated conditions. As such, all applicable accident analyses continue to comply with the relevant event acceptance criteria. The analyses performed to assess the effects of mass and energy releases remain valid. The source terms used to assess radiological consequences have been reviewed and determined to bound operation at the uprated condition.
Power level is an input assumption to equipment design and accident analyses, but it is not a transient or accident initiator. Accident initiators are not affected by power uprate, and plant safety barrier challenges are not created by the proposed changes. Therefore, the proposed changes do not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
No new accident scenarios, failure mechanisms, or limiting single failures are introduced as a result of the proposed changes. The proposed changes do not adversely affect any current system interfaces or create any new interfaces that could result in an accident or malfunction of a different kind than previously evaluated. All structures, systems and components previously required for the mitigation of a transient remain capable of fulfilling their intended design functions. The proposed changes have no adverse effects on any safety-related system or component and do not challenge the performance or integrity of any safety-related system.
Plant operation at a RTP of 3544 MWt does not create any new accident initiators or precursors. Credible malfunctions are bounded by the current accident analysis of record or recent evaluations demonstrate that applicable criteria are still met with the proposed changes. Therefore, the proposed changes do not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed change involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The margins of safety associated with the power uprate are those pertaining to core thermal power. Operation at the uprated power condition does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety. Analyses of the primary fission product barriers have concluded that relevant design criteria remain satisfied, both from the standpoint of the integrity of the primary fission product barrier, and from the standpoint of compliance with the required acceptance criteria. As appropriate, all evaluations have been performed using methods that have either been reviewed or approved by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, or that are in compliance with regulatory review guidance and standards.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Do the proposed changes involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No
The proposed change to the CSP Implementation Schedule is administrative in nature. This change does not alter accident analysis assumptions, add any initiators, or affect the function of plant systems or the manner in which systems are operated, maintained, modified, tested, or inspected. The proposed change does not require any plant modifications which affect the performance capability of the structures, systems, and components relied upon to mitigate the consequences of postulated accidents and has no impact on the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Do the proposed changes create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No
The implementation of the PSEG CSP does not introduce new equipment that could create a new or different kind of accident, and no new equipment failure modes are created. No new accident scenarios, failure mechanisms, or limiting single failures are introduced as a result of this proposed amendment.
Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated.
3. Do the proposed changes involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No
Plant safety margins are established through limiting conditions for operation, limiting safety system settings, and safety limits specified in the technical specifications. The proposed change to the CSP Implementation Schedule is administrative in nature. In addition, the
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed change involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change revises the Cyber Security Plan Implementation Schedule. This change does not alter accident analysis assumptions, add any initiators, or affect the function of plant systems or the manner in which systems are operated, maintained, modified, tested, or inspected. The proposed change is a change to the completion date of Implementation Milestone 8, that in itself does not require any plant modifications which affect the performance capability of the structures, systems, and components relied upon to mitigate the consequences of postulated accidents and have no impact on the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change revises the Cyber Security Plan Implementation Schedule. This proposed change to modify the completion date of Implementation Milestone 8 does not alter accident analysis assumptions, add any initiators, or affect the function of plant systems or the manner in which systems are operated, maintained, modified, tested, or inspected. The proposed change does not require any plant modifications which affect the performance capability of the structures, systems and components relied upon to mitigate the consequences of postulated accidents. This change also does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed change involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
Plant safety margins are established through limiting conditions for operation, limiting safety system settings, and safety limits specified in the technical specifications. The proposed change revises the Cyber Security Plan Implementation Schedule. Because there is no change to these established safety margins as result of this change, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety. Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
A. This Order contains instructions regarding how potential parties to this proceeding may request access to documents containing SUNSI.
B. Within 10 days after publication of this notice of hearing and opportunity to petition for leave to intervene, any potential party who believes access to SUNSI is necessary to respond to this notice may request such access. A “potential party” is any person who intends to participate as a party by demonstrating standing and filing an admissible contention under 10 CFR 2.309. Requests for access to SUNSI submitted later than 10 days after publication of this notice will not be considered absent a showing of good cause for the late filing, addressing why the request could not have been filed earlier.
C. The requester shall submit a letter requesting permission to access SUNSI to the Office of the Secretary, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff, and provide a copy to the Associate General Counsel for Hearings, Enforcement and Administration, Office of the General Counsel, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The expedited delivery or courier mail address for both offices is: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. The email address for the Office of the Secretary and the Office of the General Counsel are
(1) A description of the licensing action with a citation to this
(2) The name and address of the potential party and a description of the potential party's particularized interest that could be harmed by the action identified in C.(1); and
(3) The identity of the individual or entity requesting access to SUNSI and the requester's basis for the need for the information in order to meaningfully participate in this adjudicatory proceeding. In particular, the request must explain why publicly-available versions of the information requested would not be sufficient to provide the basis and specificity for a proffered contention.
D. Based on an evaluation of the information submitted under paragraph C.(3) the NRC staff will determine within 10 days of receipt of the request whether:
(1) There is a reasonable basis to believe the petitioner is likely to establish standing to participate in this NRC proceeding; and
(2) The requestor has established a legitimate need for access to SUNSI.
E. If the NRC staff determines that the requestor satisfies both D.(1) and D.(2) above, the NRC staff will notify the requestor in writing that access to SUNSI has been granted. The written notification will contain instructions on how the requestor may obtain copies of the requested documents, and any other conditions that may apply to access to those documents. These conditions may include, but are not limited to, the signing of a Non-Disclosure Agreement or Affidavit, or Protective Order
F. Filing of Contentions. Any contentions in these proceedings that are based upon the information received as a result of the request made for SUNSI must be filed by the requestor no later than 25 days after the requestor is provided access to that information. However, if more than 25 days remain between the date the petitioner is provided access to the information and the deadline for filing all other contentions (as established in the notice of hearing or opportunity for hearing), the petitioner may file its SUNSI contentions by that later deadline. This provision does not extend the time for filing a request for a hearing and petition to intervene, which must comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 2.309.
G. Review of Denials of Access.
(1) If the request for access to SUNSI is denied by the NRC staff after a determination on standing and need for access, the NRC staff shall immediately notify the requestor in writing, briefly stating the reason or reasons for the denial.
(2) The requester may challenge the NRC staff's adverse determination by filing a challenge within 5 days of receipt of that determination with: (a) The presiding officer designated in this proceeding; (b) if no presiding officer has been appointed, the Chief Administrative Judge, or if he or she is unavailable, another administrative judge, or an administrative law judge with jurisdiction pursuant to 10 CFR 2.318(a); or (c) an officer if that officer has been designated to rule on information access issues.
H. Review of Grants of Access. A party other than the requester may challenge an NRC staff determination granting access to SUNSI whose release would harm that party's interest independent of the proceeding. Such a challenge must be filed with the Chief Administrative Judge within 5 days of the notification by the NRC staff of its grant of access.
If challenges to the NRC staff determinations are filed, these procedures give way to the normal process for litigating disputes concerning access to information. The availability of interlocutory review by the Commission of orders ruling on such NRC staff determinations (whether granting or denying access) is governed by 10 CFR 2.311.
I. The Commission expects that the NRC staff and presiding officers (and any other reviewing officers) will consider and resolve requests for access to SUNSI, and motions for protective orders, in a timely fashion in order to minimize any unnecessary delays in identifying those petitioners who have standing and who have proposed contentions meeting the specificity and basis requirements in 10 CFR part 2. Attachment 1 to this Order summarizes the general target schedule for processing and resolving requests under these procedures.
It is so ordered.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
The ACRS Subcommittee on Radiation Protection and Nuclear Materials will hold a meeting on October 18, 2016, Room T-2B3, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland.
The meeting will be open to public attendance.
The agenda for the subject meeting shall be as follows:
The Subcommittee will discuss the proposed final rule 10 CFR part 61, “Low-Level Radioactive Waste Disposal” and associated guidance. The Subcommittee will hear presentations by and hold discussions with the NRC staff and other interested persons regarding this matter. The Subcommittee will gather information, analyze relevant issues and facts, and formulate proposed positions and actions, as appropriate, for deliberation by the Full Committee.
Members of the public desiring to provide oral statements and/or written comments should notify the Designated Federal Official (DFO), Derek Widmayer (Telephone 301-415-5375 or Email:
Detailed meeting agendas and meeting transcripts are available on the NRC Web site at
If attending this meeting, please enter through the One White Flint North Building, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, MD. After registering with security, please contact Mr. Theron Brown (Telephone 240-888-9835) to be escorted to the meeting room.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing recent Postal Service filings for the Commission's consideration concerning negotiated service agreements. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
The Commission gives notice that the Postal Service filed request(s) for the Commission to consider matters related to negotiated service agreement(s). The request(s) may propose the addition or removal of a negotiated service agreement from the market dominant or the competitive product list, or the modification of an existing product currently appearing on the market dominant or the competitive product list.
Section II identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, the title of each Postal Service request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. For each request, the Commission appoints an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in the proceeding, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505 (Public Representative). Section II also establishes comment deadline(s) pertaining to each request.
The public portions of the Postal Service's request(s) can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's request(s) in the captioned docket(s) are consistent with the policies of title 39. For request(s) that the Postal Service states concern market dominant product(s), applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3622, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3010, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. For request(s) that the Postal Service states concern competitive product(s), applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3632, 39 U.S.C. 3633, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3015, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comment deadline(s) for each request appear in section II.
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This Notice will be published in the
Notice is hereby given that the Railroad Retirement Board will hold a meeting on October 19, 2016, 10:00 a.m. at the Board's meeting room on the 8th floor of its headquarters building, 844 North Rush Street, Chicago, Illinois 60611. The agenda for this meeting follows:
The person to contact for more information is Martha P. Rico, Secretary to the Board, Phone No. 312-751-4920.
On July 29, 2016, the New York Stock Exchange LLC (“NYSE” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
In response to this Comment Letter, the NYSE submitted a response.
Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
The Commission finds that it is appropriate to designate a longer period within which to take action on the proposed rule change so that it has sufficient time to consider the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 1. Accordingly, the Commission, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”)
The Exchange filed a proposal to amend NSX Rule 11.26 to modify certain data collection requirements of the Regulation NMS Plan to Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program (the “Plan”). The proposed rule change is substantially similar to proposed rule changes recently approved or published by the Commission for the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”) to amend FINRA Rule 6191, which also sets forth amendments to the requirements for the collection and transmission of data pursuant to Appendices B and C of the Plan.
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and statutory basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
On August 25, 2014, NYSE Group, Inc., on behalf of BZX, Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc., Bats EDGA Exchange, Inc., Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc., FINRA, NASDAQ OMX BX, Inc., NASDAQ OMX PHLX LLC, the Nasdaq Stock Market LLC, New York Stock Exchange LLC (“NYSE”), NYSE MKT LLC, and NYSE Arca, Inc. (collectively “Participants”), filed with the Commission, pursuant to Section 11A of the Act
The Plan is designed to allow the Commission, market participants, and the public to study and assess the impact of increment conventions on the liquidity and trading of the common stocks of small-capitalization companies. Each Participant is required to comply, and to enforce compliance by its member organizations, as applicable, with the provisions of the Plan. As is described more fully below, the proposed rules would require ETP Holders
The Pilot will include stocks of companies with $3 billion or less in market capitalization, an average daily trading volume of one million shares or less, and a volume weighted average price of at least $2.00 for every trading day. The Pilot will consist of a control group of approximately 1,400 Pilot Securities and three test groups with 400 Pilot Securities in each (selected by a stratified random sampling process).
In approving the Plan, the Commission noted that the Trading Center data reporting requirements would facilitate an analysis of the effects of the Pilot on liquidity (
The Plan contains requirements for collecting and transmitting data to the Commission and to the public.
Appendix B.II of the Plan (Market and Marketable Limit Order Data) requires Trading Centers to submit information relating to market orders and marketable limit orders, including the time of order receipt, order type, the order size, the National Best Bid and National Best Offer (“NBBO”) quoted price, the NBBO quoted depth, the average execution price-share-weighted average, and the average execution time-share-weighted average.
The Plan requires Appendix B.I and B.II data to be submitted by Participants that operate a Trading Center, and by members of the Participants that operate Trading Centers. The Plan provides that each Participant that is the Designated Examining Authority (“DEA”) for a member of the Participant that operates a Trading Center shall collect such data in a pipe delimited format, beginning six months prior to the Pilot Period and ending six months after the end of the Pilot Period. The Plan also requires the Participant, operating as DEA, to transmit this information to the SEC within 30 calendar days following month end.
Pursuant to the aforementioned requirements, the Exchange submitted and the Commission noticed a rule filing to adopt Exchange Rule 11.26(b), Compliance with Data Collection Requirements.
The second change relates to the reporting of daily market quality statistics pursuant to Appendix B.I. Currently, Appendix B.I sets forth categories of orders, including market orders, marketable limit orders, and inside-the-quote resting limit orders, for which daily market quality statistics must be reported. The Exchange and the other Participants have determined that it is appropriate to include an order type for limit orders priced more than $0.10 away from the NBBO for purposes of Appendix B reporting. The Exchange therefore proposes to amend Interpretations and Policies .06 to provide that limit orders priced more than $0.10 away from the NBBO shall be included as an order type for purposes of Appendix B reporting, and shall be assigned the number (22). These orders are not currently required to be reported pursuant to Appendix B, and the Exchange and the other Participants believe that requiring the reporting of such orders will produce a more comprehensive data set.
The third change relates to the reporting of market quality statistics pursuant to Appendix B.I for a variety of order types, including inside-the-quote resting limit orders (12), at-the-quote resting limit orders (13), and near-the-quote resting limit orders (within $0.10 of the NBBO) (14). The Exchange and the other Participants believe that it is appropriate to require Trading Centers to report all orders that fall within these categories, and not just those orders that are “resting.” The Exchange, therefore, proposes to amend Interpretations and Policies .06 to make this change.
In the fourth change, the Exchange proposes to renumber Interpretations and Policies .09 to .10 and add new Interpretations and Policies .09 to modify the manner in which market maker participation statistics are calculated. Currently, Appendix B.IV provides that market maker participation statistics shall be calculated based on share participation, trade participation, cross-quote share (trade) participation, inside-the-quote share (trade) participation, at-the-quote share (trade) participation, and outside-the-quote share (trade) participation. The Exchange and the other Participants have determined that it is appropriate to add the count of the number of Market Makers used in the calculation of share (trade) participation to each category. The Exchange is therefore proposing this change as part of Interpretations and Policies .09. In addition, Appendix B.IV(b) and (c) currently require that, when aggregating across Market Makers, share participation and trade participation shall be calculated using the share-weighted average and trade-weighted average, respectively. The Exchange and the other Participants believe that it is more appropriate to calculate share and trade participation by providing the total count of shares or trades, as applicable, rather than weighted averages, and the Exchange is therefore proposing this change as part of Interpretations and Policies.
The fifth change relates to the NBBO that a Trading Center is required to use when performing certain quote-related calculations. When calculating cross-quote share (trade) participation pursuant to Appendix B.IV(d) and inside-the-quote share (trade) participation pursuant to Appendix B.IV(e), the Plan requires the Trading Center to utilize the NBBO at the time of the trade for both share and trade participation calculations. When calculating at-the-quote share (trade) participation and outside-the-quote share (trade) participation pursuant to Appendix B.IV(f) and (g), the Plan allows the Trading Center to utilize the National Best Bid or National Best Offer (NBBO) at the time of or immediately before the trade for both share and trade participation calculations. The Exchange and the other Participants believe that it is appropriate to calculate all quote participation (cross-quote share (trade) participation, inside-the-quote share (trade) participation, at-the-quote share (trade) participation and outside-the-quote share (trade) participation) solely by reference to the NBBO in effect immediately prior to the trade. The Exchange therefore proposes to make this change as part of Interpretations and Policies .09.
Finally, the Exchange proposes to change the end date until which the Pre-Pilot Data Collection Securities shall be used to fulfill the Plan's data collection requirements. Currently, Interpretations and Policies .10, which is being renumbered to .11, provides that Pre-Pilot Data Collection Securities are the securities designated by the Participants for purposes of the data collection requirements described in Items I, II and IV of Appendix B and Item I of Appendix C to the Plan for the period beginning six months prior to the Pilot Period and ending on the trading day immediately preceding the Pilot Period. The Exchange and the other Participants believe that it is appropriate to use the Pilot Securities to satisfy the Plan's data collection requirements prior to the commencement of the Pilot. Accordingly, the Exchange is revising Interpretations and Policies .10 (which will be re-numbered .11) to provide that the Pre-Pilot Data Collection Securities shall be used to satisfy the Plan's data collection requirements through thirty-one days prior to the Pilot Period, after which time the Pilot Securities shall be used for purposes of the data collection requirements.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The Exchange believes that this proposal is consistent with the Act because it implements and clarifies the provisions of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Exchange in meeting its regulatory obligations pursuant of the
The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change implements the provisions of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Exchange in meeting its regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan. The Exchange also notes that, other than the change to require use of the Pilot Securities beginning thirty days prior to the beginning of the Pilot Period, the proposed changes will not affect the data collection and reporting requirements for members that operate Trading Centers; the proposed changes will only affect how the Exchange and Participants that operate Trading Centers collect and report data. The Exchange notes that, with respect to the change to require the use of the Pilot Securities beginning thirty days prior to the start of the Pilot Period, the proposed change reduces the number of securities on which affected members otherwise would have been required to collect data pursuant to the Plan and Exchange Rule 11.26. In addition, the proposed rule change applies equally to all similarly situated members. Therefore, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
The Exchange has neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
The Commission believes that waiving the 30 day operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest because it will allow the Exchange to implement the proposed rules immediately thereby preventing delays in the implementation of the Plan. The Commission notes that the Plan is scheduled to start on October 3, 2016. Therefore, the Commission hereby waives the 30 day operative delay and designates the proposed rule change to be operative upon filing with the Commission.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to the delegated authority.
It appears to the Securities and Exchange Commission that there is a lack of current and accurate information concerning the securities of Infinex Ventures, Inc. (CIK No. 0001076310) (“Infinex”) because of questions regarding the accuracy of statements in Infinex reports posted on the OTC Link operated by OTC Markets Group, Inc. and in company press releases. This includes concerns that, between May 5 and September 17, 2014, Infinex appears to have made false and misleading statements concerning its operations and financial condition, its acquisition of Marijuana Funding, Inc., and its rights to financing to develop a marijuana business. Since that time, Infinex does not appear to have made any information publicly available about itself. Infinex is a Nevada corporation whose corporate status is listed as revoked by the Nevada Secretary of State. Its principal place of business is in Denver, Colorado. Infinex's stock is quoted on OTC Link, under the ticker symbol INFX.
The Commission is of the opinion that the public interest and the protection of investors require a suspension of trading in the securities of the above-listed company.
By the Commission.
On August 16, 2016, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“NYSE Arca” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
In response to the comment letter, the NYSE submitted a response.
Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
The Commission finds that it is appropriate to designate a longer period within which to take action on the proposed rule change so that it has sufficient time to consider the proposed rule change. Accordingly, the Commission, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the Government in the Sunshine Act, Public Law 94-409, that the Securities and Exchange Commission will hold a closed meeting on Thursday, October 6, 2016 at 3 p.m.
Commissioners, Counsel to the Commissioners, the Secretary to the Commission, and recording secretaries will attend the closed meeting. Certain staff members who have an interest in the matters also may be present.
The General Counsel of the Commission, or her designee, has certified that, in her opinion, one or more of the exemptions set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(3), (5), (7), 9(B) and (10) and 17 CFR 200.402(a)(3), (a)(5), (a)(7), (a)(9)(ii) and (a)(10), permit consideration of the scheduled matter at the closed meeting.
Commissioner Stein, as duty officer, voted to consider the items listed for the closed meeting in closed session.
The subject matter of the closed meeting will be:
At times, changes in Commission priorities require alterations in the scheduling of meeting items.
For further information and to ascertain what, if any, matters have been added, deleted or postponed; please contact Brent J. Fields from the Office of the Secretary at (202) 551-5400.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes amendments to Rule 8313 relating to the Exchange's ability to publicly release disciplinary complaints, decisions and other information modeled on the text of Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”) Rule 8313; (2) amendments to Rules 9120, 9268, 9269, 9270, 9551, 9552, 9554, 9555, 9556, 9557, 9558, 9559, 9810, 9830, 9840, 9850, and 9860 and a new Rule 9291 relating to the imposition of temporary or permanent cease and desist orders to correspond to recent amendments by FINRA to its Rule 9100, 9200, 9550, and 9800 Series; and (3) certain technical and conforming changes to Rule 9310..[sic] The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes:
(1) Amendments to Rule 8313 (Release of Disciplinary Decisions) relating to the Exchange's ability to publicly release disciplinary complaints, decisions and other information, modeled on the text of FINRA Rule 8313;
(2) amendments to Rules 9120, 9268, 9269, 9270, 9551, 9552, 9554, 9555, 9556, 9557, 9558, 9559, 9810, 9830, 9840, 9850, and 9860 and a new Rule 9291 relating to temporary or permanent cease and desist orders to correspond to recent amendments by FINRA to its Rule 9100, 9200, 9550, and 9800 Series; and
(3) certain technical and conforming changes to Rule 9310.
In 2016, NYSE MKT adopted disciplinary rules that are, with certain exceptions, substantially the same as the Rule 8000 Series and Rule 9000 Series of its affiliate the New York Stock Exchange LLC (the “NYSE”) and FINRA, and which set forth rules for conducting investigations and enforcement actions.
In adopting the NYSE and FINRA disciplinary rules, NYSE MKT retained its longstanding practice of publishing all final disciplinary decisions, other than minor rule violations, on its Web site and accordingly adopted the NYSE's version of Rule 8313.
In adopting the NYSE and FINRA disciplinary rules, the Exchange adopted NYSE's and FINRA's rules and procedures for imposing temporary or permanent cease and desist orders. In particular, the Exchange adopted NYSE and FINRA Rule 8310 as NYSE MKT Rule 8310, which, among other things, allows the Exchange to impose a temporary or permanent cease and desist order.
In 2015, FINRA adopted a series of amendments to its substantive and procedural rules governing temporary and permanent cease and desist orders.
On January 1, 2016, the Exchange reintegrated certain regulatory functions previously performed on its behalf by FINRA.
Rule 8313 currently provides that the Exchange shall publish a copy of final disciplinary actions under the Rule 9000 Series, other than minor rule violations, on its Web site. The Exchange proposes to restructure Rule 8313 and add four subsections and text modeled on FINRA Rule 8313, as described below. The scope of proposed Rule 8313 would be limited to publication of materials relating to the disciplinary process set forth in the Rule 8000 and 9000 Series. In that regard, the Exchange has determined not to adopt the FINRA rule in all respects at this time.
The Exchange proposes to add a new subsection (a) to Rule 8313 entitled “General Standards” and text that would set forth general standards for the release to the public of disciplinary complaints, decisions or information.
Proposed Rule 8313(a)(1) would retain, as modified, the current text of Rule 8313. The word “publish” would be replaced with “release to the public” to conform to the FINRA rule. The phrase “final disciplinary action” would be deleted as unnecessary in light of the more detailed provisions throughout the proposed Rule. The proposed Rule would provide that the Exchange shall release to the public a copy of and, at the Exchange's discretion, information with respect to, any disciplinary complaint or disciplinary decision issued by the Exchange, as defined in proposed Rule 8313(e) under the Rule 9000 Series, other than minor rule violations, on its Web site. Proposed Rule 8313(a)(1) would also provide that, in response to a request, the Exchange shall also release to the requesting party a copy of any identified disciplinary complaint or disciplinary decision issued by the Exchange, as defined in proposed Rule 8313(e). These proposed amendments are modeled on FINRA Rule 8313(a)(1) and would be substantially similar to the FINRA rule.
Proposed Rule 8313(a)(2) provides that the Exchange shall release to the public a copy of, and at the Exchange's discretion information with respect to, any statutory disqualification decision, notification, or notice issued by the Exchange pursuant to the Rule 9520 Series that will be filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“SEC” or “Commission”) and any temporary cease and desist order or decision issued by the Exchange pursuant to the Rule 9800 Series. Proposed Rule 8313(a)(2) is modeled on FINRA Rule 8313(a)(2) but would substitute the term “Exchange” for “FINRA.”
Proposed Rule 8313(a)(3) provides that the Exchange shall release to the public information with respect to any suspension, cancellation, expulsion, or bar that constitutes final Exchange action imposed pursuant to Rules 9552, 9554,
Proposed Rule 8313(a)(4) provides that the Exchange may release to the public a copy of, and information with respect to, any decision or notice issued pursuant to the Rule 9600 Series, and any other decision appealable to the SEC under Exchange Act Section 19(d). Proposed Rule 8313(a)(4) is modeled on FINRA Rule 8313(a)(5). FINRA Rule 8313(a)(5) also contains cross references to FINRA Rule 6490 and the FINRA Rule 9700 Series. FINRA Rule 6490 (Processing of Company-Related Actions) applies to issuers of non-exchange listed equity and debt securities quoted on the OTC marketplace. FINRA's Rule 9700 Series provides redress for persons aggrieved by the operations of any automated quotation, execution, or communication system owned or operated by FINRA. FINRA Rule 6490 has no analogue in the Exchange's Rules. The Exchange does not propose to include either Rule 18—Equities, which addresses compensation in connection with an Exchange system failure, or Rule 905NY, which addresses Exchange liability for use of its options trading platform, within the scope of Rule 8313. As noted above, the Exchange has determined to limit the scope of Rule 8313 to publication of materials relating to the disciplinary process under the Rule 8000 and 9000 Series.
The Exchange proposes to add a new subsection (b) to Rule 8313 entitled “Release Specifications” modeled on FINRA Rules 8313(b)(1) and (2).
Proposed Rule 8313(b)(1) provides that copies of, and information with respect to, any disciplinary complaint released to the public pursuant to paragraph (a) of the proposed Rule shall indicate that a disciplinary complaint represents the initiation of a formal proceeding by the Exchange in which findings as to the allegations in the complaint have not been made and does not represent a decision as to any of the allegations contained in the complaint. The proposed Rule would be the same as FINRA Rule 8313(b)(1) except that the proposed Rule would substitute the term “Exchange” for “FINRA.”
Proposed Rule 8313(b)(2) provides that copies of, and information with respect to, any disciplinary decision or other decision, order, notification, or notice released to the public pursuant to paragraph (a) of the proposed Rule prior to the expiration of the time period provided for an appeal or call for review as permitted under Exchange rules or the Exchange Act, or while such an appeal or call for review is pending, shall indicate that the findings and sanctions imposed therein are subject to review and modification by the Exchange or the SEC. The proposed Rule would be the same as FINRA Rule 8313(b)(2) except that the proposed Rule would substitute the term “Exchange” for “FINRA.”
The Exchange has determined that, subject to limited exceptions, disciplinary information should be released to the public in unredacted form. The Exchange proposes to add a new subsection (c) to Rule 8313 entitled “Discretion to Redact Certain Information or Waive Publication,” modeled on FINRA Rule 8313(c)(1) and (2).
With respect to the limited exceptions, proposed Rule 8313(c)(1) would provide that the Exchange reserves the right to redact, on a case-by-case basis, information that contains confidential customer information, including customer identities, or information that raises significant identity theft, personal safety, or privacy concerns that are not outweighed by investor protection concerns. The proposed Rule would be the same as FINRA Rule 8313(c)(1) except that the proposed Rule would substitute the term “Exchange” for “FINRA.”
Similarly, proposed Rule 8313(c)(2) provides that, notwithstanding paragraph (a) of the proposed rule, the Exchange may determine, in its discretion, to waive the requirement to release a copy of, or information with respect to, any disciplinary complaint, disciplinary decision or other decision, order, notification, or notice under those extraordinary circumstances where the release of such information would violate fundamental notions of fairness or work an injustice. The proposed Rule would be the same as FINRA Rule 8313(c)(1) [sic] except that the proposed Rule would substitute the term “Exchange” for “FINRA.”
The Exchange proposes to add a new subsection (d) to Rule 8313 entitled “Notice of Appeals of Exchange Decisions to the SEC” modeled on FINRA Rule 8313(d). Proposed Rule 8313(d) provides that the Exchange must provide notice to the public when a disciplinary decision of the Exchange is appealed to the SEC and that the notice shall state whether the effectiveness of the decision has been stayed pending the outcome of proceedings before the Commission. The proposed Rule would be the same as FINRA Rule 8313(d)(1) except that the proposed Rule would substitute the term “Exchange” for “FINRA.”
Finally, the Exchange proposes to add a new subsection (e) to Rule 8313 entitled “Definitions.” Proposed Rule 8313(e) would set forth definitions of the terms “disciplinary complaint” and “disciplinary decision” as used in the Rule, modeled on the definitions contained in FINRA Rule 8313(e).
First, Rule 8313(e)(1) would define the term “disciplinary complaint” to mean any complaint issued pursuant to the Rule 9200 Series. The proposed text is identical to FINRA Rule 8313(e)(1).
Second, Rule 8313(e)(2) would define the term “disciplinary decision” to mean any decision issued pursuant to the Rule 9000 Series, including,
The Exchange believes that greater access to information regarding disciplinary actions provides valuable guidance and information to member organizations, associated persons, other regulators, and investors.
The Exchange also proposes to harmonize its disciplinary rules and procedures relating to the imposition of temporary and permanent cease and desist orders with approved FINRA amendments. To effectuate these changes, the Exchange proposes the following amendments to Rules 9120, 9268, 9269, 9270, 9551, 9552, 9554, 9555, 9556, 9557, 9558, 9559, 9810, and 9830, 9840, 9850, and 9860. The Exchange also proposes to adopt a new Rule 9291 based on FINRA's recently adopted Rule 9291.
• The Exchange proposes to amend the Rule 9120 definitions applicable to the Rule 9000 Series as follows:
○ The Exchange proposes to amend the definition of “Hearing Panel” in Rule 9120(s) to encompass a Hearing Panel constituted under the Rule 9800 Series to conduct a temporary cease and desist proceeding.
○ The Exchange proposes to amend the definition of “Interested Staff” in Rule 9120(t)(A) to encompass any staff that issues a petition under the Rule 9000 Series.
○ The Exchange proposes to amend the definition of “Panelist” in Rule 9120(v) to encompass the use of the term in the Rule 9550 Series and the Rule 9800 Series.
○ Finally, the Exchange proposes to amend the definition of “Respondent” in Rule 9120(y) to provide that in a proceeding governed by the Rule 9800 Series, the term “Respondent” means a member organization or covered person that has been served with a notice initiating a cease and desist proceeding.
• Rule 9268 sets forth the timing and the contents of a decision of the Hearing Panel or Extended Hearing Panel and the procedures for a dissenting opinion, service of the decision, and any requests for review. The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 9268(b), which sets forth the contents of a panel decision, by adding a new subsection (7), providing that when the sanctions include a permanent cease and desist order, the decision should include a statement that is consistent with the requirements of Rule 9291(a) concerning the content, scope, and form of a permanent cease and desist order. The proposed change is identical to that recently adopted by FINRA to its version of Rule 9268.
• Rule 9269 governs the process for the issuance and review of default decisions when a Respondent fails to timely answer a complaint or fails to appear at a pre-hearing conference or hearing where due notice has been provided. The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 9269(a), governing issuance of default decisions, to add a new subsection (4) that provides that the Office of Hearing Officers shall provide a copy of the default decision to each member organization or ATP Holder with which a Respondent is associated. The proposed change is identical to recently adopted FINRA Rule 9269(a)(4), except for conforming references to member organizations.
• Rule 9270 provides a settlement procedure for a Respondent who has been notified that a proceeding has been instituted against him or her. The Exchange proposes two amendments to this Rule. First, the Exchange would amend Rule 9270(c), which details the content and signature requirements for offers of settlement, to add a new subsection (7) providing that, if applicable, the offer should describe in detail a proposed permanent cease and desist order to be imposed that is consistent with the requirements of proposed Rule 9291(a) concerning the content, scope, and form of a permanent cease and desist order. This proposed amendment is substantially the same as recently adopted FINRA Rule 9270(c)(6).
Second, the Exchange proposes to add the phrase “including, if applicable, a permanent cease and desist order” to Rule 9270(f)(1), governing uncontested offers of settlement, and a sentence to Rule 9270(f)(3) providing that Enforcement shall provide a copy of an issued order of acceptance to each member organization or ATP Holder with which a Respondent is associated. The proposed amendments are identical to FINRA Rules 9270(e)(1) and 9270(e)(3), respectively, except for conforming references to the Exchange's Enforcement group, member organizations and ATP Holders.
• The Exchange proposes to amend the notice and service requirements for expedited proceedings under the Rule 9550 Series, by providing for service upon counsel and service by email. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to make amendments to subsection (b) of the following Rules, consistent with recent changes to the counterpart FINRA rules, regarding service on
○ The Exchange proposes to add a clause to the first sentence of subsection (b) of Rule 9551 (Failure to Comply with Public Communication Standards), which governs expedited proceedings relating to a member or member organization's departure from the public communication standards of Rule 2210, providing that Regulatory Staff shall alternatively serve counsel representing the member or member organization, or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141, when counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 agrees to accept service for the member or member organization with the required notice under the Rule and that the notice can also be provided by email.
The Exchange proposes to delete the sentence, “When counsel for the member or member organization or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 agrees to accept service of such notice, then Regulatory Staff may serve notice on counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 as specified in Rule 9134,” and add a sentence to the end of subsection (b) providing that papers served on a member or member organization by email shall be sent to the email address on file with the Exchange and shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery in conformity with subsections (a)(1) and (3) and (b)(1) and (2) of Rule 9134.
The Exchange would also add text providing that the papers served on counsel for a member or member organization, or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141, by email shall be sent to the email address that counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 provides and shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery in conformity with Rule 9134(a)(1) and (3). Finally, the Exchange would add a sentence specifying that service is complete upon sending the notice by email, mailing the notice by U.S. Postal Service first class mail, first class certified mail, first class registered mail, or Express Mail, sending the notice through a courier service, or delivering it in person, except that, where duplicate service is required, service is complete when the duplicate service is complete;
○ Rule 9552 (Failure to Provide Information or Keep Information Current), which sets forth procedures for expedited proceedings relating to a member organization or covered person's failure to provide information or keep information current, would be amended to add a clause to the first sentence of subsection (b) providing that Regulatory Staff shall alternatively serve counsel representing the member organization or covered person, or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141, when counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 agrees to accept service for the member organization or covered person with the required notice under the Rule and that the notice can also be provided by email.
The Exchange proposes to delete the sentence, “When counsel for the member organization or covered person, or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 agrees to accept service of such notice, then Regulatory Staff may serve notice on counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 as specified in Rule 9134,” and add a sentence to the end of Rule 9552(b) providing that papers served on a member or member organization by email shall be sent to the email address on file with the Exchange and shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery in conformity with paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) and (b)(1) and (2) of Rule 9134.
Further, the proposed rule text would provide that papers served on a person by email shall be sent to the person's last known email address and shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery in conformity with paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) and (b)(1) of Rule 9134. The proposed amendment would specify that papers served on counsel for a member organization or covered person, or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141, by email shall be sent to the email address that counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 provides and shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery in conformity with Rule 9134(a)(1) and (3). Finally, the proposed amendment would provide that service is complete upon sending the notice by email, mailing the notice by U.S. Postal Service first class mail, first class certified mail, first class registered mail, or Express Mail, sending the notice through a courier service, or delivering it in person, except that, where duplicate service is required, service is complete when the duplicate service is complete;
○ The Exchange proposes to add a clause to the first sentence of subsection (b) of Rule 9554 (Failure to Comply with an Arbitration Award or Related Settlement or an Order of Restitution or Settlement Providing for Restitution), which governs expedited proceedings relating to noncompliance with an arbitration award, settlement agreement, or restitution order, providing that Regulatory Staff shall alternatively serve counsel representing the member organization or covered person, or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141, when counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 agrees to accept service for the member organization or covered person with the required notice under the Rule and that the notice can also be provided by email.
The Exchange would also delete the sentence, “When counsel for the member organization or covered person, or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 agrees to accept service of such notice, then Regulatory Staff may serve notice on counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 as specified in Rule 9134,” and add a sentence to the end of Rule 9554(b) providing that papers served on a member or member organization by email shall be sent to the email address on file with the Exchange and shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery in conformity with paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) and (b)(1) and (2) of Rule 9134.
Further, the proposed amendment would specify that papers served on a person by email shall be sent to the person's last known email address and shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery in conformity with paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) and (b)(1) of Rule 9134.
The proposed amendment would also specify that papers served on counsel for a member organization or covered person, or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141, by email shall be sent to the email address that counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 provides and shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery in conformity with paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) of Rule 9134.
Finally, the proposed amendment would provide that service is complete upon sending the notice by email, mailing the notice by U.S. Postal Service first class mail, first class certified mail, first class registered mail, or Express Mail, sending the notice through a courier service, or delivering it in person, except that, where duplicate service is required, service is complete when the duplicate service is complete;
○ The Exchange proposes to add a clause to the first sentence of subsection (b) of Rule 9555 (Failure to Meet the Eligibility or Qualification Standards or
The Exchange would also delete the sentence, “When counsel for the member organization or covered person, or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 agrees to accept service of such notice, then Exchange staff may serve notice on counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 as specified in Rule 9134,” and add a sentence to the end of Rule 9554(b) providing that papers served on a member or member organization by email shall be sent to the email address on file with the Exchange and shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery in conformity with paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) and (b)(1) and (2) of Rule 9134.
Further, the proposed amendment would specify that papers served on a person by email shall be sent to the person's last known email address and shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery in conformity with paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) and (b)(1) of Rule 9134. The proposed amendment would also specify that the papers served on counsel for a member organization or covered person, or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141, by email shall be sent to the email address that counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 provides and shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery in conformity with Rule 9134(a)(1) and (3).
Finally, the proposed amendment would provide that service is complete upon sending the notice by email, mailing the notice by U.S. Postal Service first class mail, first class certified mail, first class registered mail, or Express Mail, sending the notice through a courier service, or delivering it in person, except that, where duplicate service is required, service is complete when the duplicate service is complete;
○ The Exchange proposes to amend subsection (b) of Rule 9556 (Failure to Comply with Temporary and Permanent Cease and Desist Orders), which governs expedited proceedings relating to noncompliance with a temporary or permanent cease and desist order, to add the word “email” to the list of service methods in the first sentence. The proposed Rule would therefore permit Regulatory Staff to serve the member organization or covered person subject to a notice issued under the Rule (or upon counsel representing the member organization or covered person, or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141, when counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 agrees to accept) by email in addition to overnight courier or personal delivery.
The Exchange would also add a sentence to subsection (b) providing that papers served on a member or member organization by email shall be sent to the email address on file with the Exchange and shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery in conformity with paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) and (b)(1) and (2) of Rule 9134. Further, the proposed amendment would specify that papers served on a person by email shall be sent to the person's last known email address and shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery in conformity with paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) and (b)(1) of Rule 9134. The proposed amendment would also specify that the papers served on counsel for a member organization or covered person, or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 by email shall be sent to the email address that counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 provides and shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery in conformity with Rule 9134(a)(1) and (3).
Finally, the Exchange proposes to amend the last sentence of subsection (b) to provide that service is complete upon “sending” rather than “mailing,” which word would be deleted; adding the phrase “email or” to the list of service methods; and adding an exception clause providing that “except that, where duplicate service is required, service is complete upon sending the duplicate service”;
○ Rule 9557 (Procedures for Regulating Activities Under Rules 470, 471, 4110—Equities, 4120—Equities and 4130—Equities Regarding a Member or Member Organization Experiencing Financial or Operational Difficulties), which allows the Exchange to issue a notice directing a member organization to comply with the provisions of Rule 470 (Capital Requirements for Members and Member Organizations), 471 (Business Expansion Restrictions and Business Reduction Requirements), 4110—Equities (Capital Compliance), 4120—Equities (Regulatory Notification and Business Curtailment) or 4130—Equities (Regulation of Activities of Section 15C Member Organizations Experiencing Financial and/or Operational Difficulties) or restrict its business activities, either by limiting or ceasing to conduct those activities consistent with Rule 470, 471, 4110—Equities, 4120—Equities or 4130—Equities, would be amended to add a clause to the first sentence of subsection (b) providing Exchange staff shall alternatively serve counsel representing the member or member organization, or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141, when counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 agrees to accept service for the member or member organization and that the notice can also be provided by email. The Exchange would also amend the second sentence of subsection (b) referencing the rules to which papers served by overnight courier or personal delivery must conform by adding a reference to Rule 9134(b)(1) before the existing reference to paragraph (b)(2) of Rule 9134.
The Exchange would also add a sentence to subsection (b) providing that papers served on a member or member organization by email shall be sent to the email address on file with the Exchange and shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery in conformity with paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) and (b)(1) and (2) of Rule 9134. Further, the proposed amendment would specify that papers served on counsel for a member or member organization or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 by email shall be sent to the email address that counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 provides and shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery in conformity with paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) of Rule 9134.
Finally, the last sentence of subsection (b) would be amended to reflect that service is complete upon “sending” rather than “mailing,” which word would be deleted; adding the phrase “email or” to the list of service methods; and adding an exception clause providing that “except that, where duplicate service is required, service is complete upon sending the duplicate service”; and
○ Subsection (b) of Rule 9558 (Summary Proceedings for Actions Authorized by Section 6(d)(3) of the Exchange Act), which allows the
The Exchange would also add a sentence to subsection (b) providing that papers served on a member or member organization by email shall be sent to the email address on file with the Exchange and shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery in conformity with paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) and (b)(1) and (2) of Rule 9134.
Papers served on a person by email shall be sent to the person's last known email address and shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery in conformity with paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) and (b)(1) of Rule 9134. Further, the proposed amendment would specify that papers served on counsel for a member organization or covered person, or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 by email shall be sent to the email address that counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 provides and shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery in conformity with Rule 9134(a)(1) and (3).
Finally, the last sentence of subsection (b) would be amended to reflect that service is complete “sending” rather than “mailing,” which word would be deleted; adding the phrase “email or” to the list of service methods; and adding an exception clause providing that “except that, where duplicate service is required, service is complete upon sending the duplicate service.”
• With the exception of conforming changes to reflect the Exchange's membership, omission of service by facsimile,
• The Exchange proposes amending Rule 9556(g) to add the phrase, “imposed after the process described in paragraphs (a) through (f) of” (and delete the word “under”) before the phrase, “this Rule,” to conform to the recent changes to FINRA Rule 9556(g). The Exchange believes that the proposed change adds greater specificity to the Rule.
• The Exchange also proposes adding a new subsection (h) to Rule 9556 titled “Subsequent Proceedings,” permitting Regulatory Staff (with prior written authorization from the CRO) to file a petition seeking a hearing if the subject of a temporary or permanent cease and desist order fails to comply with that order and has previously been served with a notice under Rule 9556(a) for a failure to comply with any provision of the same temporary or permanent cease and desist order.
○ Under the proposed Rule, the petition shall be served in accordance with Rule 9556(b) and filed with the Office of Hearing Officers.
○ Proposed Rule 9556(h)(3) provides that, in contrast to other Rule 9556 proceedings, a Respondent's compliance with the temporary or permanent cease and desist order is not a ground for dismissing the Rule 9556(h) proceeding. Thus, a Respondent's compliance with a temporary or permanent cease and desist order after a Rule 9556(h) proceeding has been initiated would not prevent an adjudicator from reviewing the matter and imposing a fitting sanction for the Respondent's violation.
○ Finally, Proposed Rule 9556(h)(4) provides that Regulatory Staff can withdraw the petition without prejudice and can refile a petition based on allegations concerning the same facts and circumstances that are set forth in the withdrawn petition. As with the FINRA rule on which it is based, the proposed provision provides the Exchange with the flexibility to withdraw the petition where, for instance, the Respondent evidences a good faith intent to comply with the temporary or permanent cease and desist order without the need to adjudicate the petition, while preserving the Exchange's right to refile the petition if the Respondent fails to do so.
• Rule 9559 (Hearing Procedures for Expedited Proceedings Under the Rule 9550 Series) sets forth uniform hearing procedures for all expedited proceedings under the Rule 9550 Series. The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 9559 to reflect the new expedited proceedings set forth in proposed Rule 9556(h). The proposed changes are substantially similar to those recently adopted by FINRA for its Rule 9559. Specifically:
○ Rule 9559(a) would be amended to add the phrase “or who is served with a petition instituting an expedited proceeding under Rule 9556(h).”
○ Rule 9559(c), which governs stays, would be amended to add a new subparagraph (1)(B) specifying that stays under subsection (c) would not apply to a petition instituting an expedited proceeding under Rule 9556(h).
○ Rule 9559(d), governing the appointment and authority of hearing officers and hearing panels, would similarly be amended to add references to proceedings under Rule 9556(h).
○ Rule 9559(f), governing time of hearing, would be amended to add a new subsection (2) providing that a hearing shall be held within ten days after a Respondent is served a petition seeking an expedited proceeding issued under Rule 9556(h), adding a reference to Rule 9556(h) to current subsection (2), and renumbering the remaining subsections.
○ Rule 9559(g), governing notice of hearing, would be amended to add a new subsection (2) providing that a Hearing Officer shall issue a notice stating the date, time, and place of the hearing at least six days prior to the
○ Rule 9559(h) governing transmission of documents would be amended as follows to reflect the new expedited proceeding the Exchange proposes under Rule 9556(h) for enforcing violations of a temporary or permanent cease and desist orders [sic]. The changes closely parallel FINRA's amendments to its version of Rule 9559(h) to bring Rule 9556(h) proceedings within the scope of the rule and distinguish them from actions brought under Rule 9556 and already reflected in the rule.
The first sentence of subsection (h)(1) would be amended to add the clause “not less than six days before the hearing in an action brought under Rule 9556(h)” after “Not less than two business days before the hearing in an action brought under Rule 9557,” to specifically bring proposed proceedings under Rule 9556(h) within the scope of the Rule. The clause “not less than seven days before the hearing in an action brought under Rules 9556 and 9558” that would follow the proposed addition would be amended to carve out Rule 9556(h) proceedings by adding the words “except Rule 9556(h)” after “Rules 9556” and before “and 9558.” Subsection (h)(1) would be further amended to reflect that “the respondent who has received a petition pursuant to Rule 9556(h)” would also be provided with all documents that were considered in issuing the notice, and that these documents could be provided by email or personal delivery in addition to overnight courier. The Exchange also proposes to add the sentence “Documents served by email shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery” before the last sentence in Rule 9559(h)(1).
The last sentence of subsection (h)(1) would be amended to delete the word “such” and add the word “the” before “criteria,” and to add the clause “in this paragraph” after the word “criteria.”
Rule 9559(h)(2) would be amended to provide that exhibit and witness lists shall be served by email or personal delivery in addition to overnight courier. Finally, the Exchange proposes to add a sentence to the end of subsection (h)(2) providing that “Documents served by email shall also be served by either overnight courier or personal delivery.”
○ Rule 9559(m), governing failure to appear at a pre-hearing conference or hearing or to comply with a Hearing Officer order requiring production of information, would be amended to add a new subsection (2) providing that a Hearing Officer may issue a default decision against a Respondent who is the subject of a petition
○ Finally, Rule 9559(n) governing sanctions, costs and remands would be amended to add references to Rule 9556(h) proceedings. Rule 9559(n) would also be amended to add a new subsection (2) providing that, in an action brought under Rule 9556(h), the Hearing Officer may impose any fitting sanction. The remaining subsections of the Rule would be renumbered. These proposed changes are identical to those recently adopted in FINRA Rule 9559.
• Rule 9810 (Initiation of Proceeding) sets forth procedures for initiating temporary cease and desist proceedings. The Exchange proposes various amendments to the Rule to harmonize it with FINRA Rule 9810, as follows:
○ Rule 9810(a) governing service and filing of a notice would be amended to add text providing that a proceeding can alternatively be initiated by service upon counsel representing the Respondent, or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141, when counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 agrees to accept service for the Respondent. Rule 9810(a) would also be amended to specifically provide for service by email, and text would be added to the Rule providing that if service is made by email, Enforcement shall send an additional copy of the notice by personal service or overnight commercial courier and that service is complete upon sending the notice by email or overnight courier or delivering it in person, except that, where duplicate service is required, service is complete when the duplicate service is complete. Finally, the Rule would be amended to provide that the notice shall be effective when service is complete.
○ Rule 9810(b) sets forth the requirements for the contents of the notice, and would be amended to add a new subsection (2) providing that the notice also be accompanied by a memorandum of points and authorities setting forth the legal theories upon which Enforcement relies. Current subsection (2) would be renumbered. The Exchange also proposes to clarify the required contents of the notice by specifying that the notice shall state whether Enforcement is requesting the Respondent to be required to take action, refrain from taking action “or both.”
○ The Exchange proposes to add a new subsection (c) to Rule 9810 entitled “Authority to Approve Settlements,” providing that if the Parties agree to the terms of the proposed temporary cease and desist order, the Hearing Officer shall have the authority to approve and issue the order.
○ Current subsection (c) of Rule 9810 governing filing of the underlying complaint would become subsection (d). The Exchange also proposes to add a sentence providing that service of the complaint can be made in accordance with the service provisions in paragraph (a).
• Rule 9830 (Hearing) sets forth hearing procedures for temporary cease and desist proceedings. The Exchange proposes the following changes to harmonize the Rule with FINRA's recent amendments:
○ Rule 9830(a) would be amended to specify that either the Chief Hearing Officer or Deputy Chief Hearing Officer can extend the date of hearing for good cause shown and eliminate the need for consent of the parties.
○ Rule 9830(b) would be amended to add text specifying that the Office of Hearing Officers can also serve notice of a hearing upon counsel representing the Respondent, or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141, when counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 agrees to accept service for the Respondent, and to specify that service can be by email. The Rule would also be amended to add text specifying that if service is made by email, the Office of Hearing Officers shall send an additional copy of the notice by personal service or overnight commercial courier. Service is complete upon sending the notice by email or overnight courier or delivering it in
○ Rule 9830(e) would be amended to add text specifying that, prior to the hearing, the Hearing Officer may order a Party to furnish to all other Parties and the Hearing Panel such information as deemed appropriate, including any or all of the pre-hearing submissions described in Rule 9242(a). The Rule would also provide that documentary evidence submitted by the Parties would not become part of the record, unless the Hearing Officer or Hearing Panel orders some or all of the evidence included pursuant to Rule 9830(g). The Exchange would also change the phrase, “its consideration” to “the Hearing Panel's consideration,” to add greater specificity.
• Rule 9840 (Issuance of Temporary Cease and Desist Order by Hearing Panel) sets forth the basis, including the evidentiary standard, for issuance of a temporary cease and desist order. The Exchange proposes the following changes to harmonize the Rule with FINRA's recent amendments:
○ Rule 9840(a) would be amended to specify that either the Chief Hearing Officer or Deputy Chief Hearing Officer can extend the ten day period for issuance of a decision stating whether a cease and desist order shall be imposed for good cause shown and eliminate the need for consent of the parties. Rule 9840(a)(1) would be amended to revise the evidentiary standard in temporary cease and desist proceedings to “a showing of likelihood of success on the merits.” This was one of the main changes recently effectuated by FINRA.
○ Rule 9840(b)(1) and (3) would be amended to apply to any successor of a Respondent, where the Respondent is a member organization. This proposed change is similar to the proposed change with respect to Rule 9291, discussed above [sic]. Subsection (3) would also be amended to remove the words “is to” and “or” and add the words “or both” to the end of the clause.
○ Rule 9840(c) would be amended to provide that, alternatively, a temporary cease and desist order would remain effective and enforceable until a settlement offer is accepted pursuant to Rule 9270.
○ Rule 9840(d) would be amended to specify that the Hearing Panel's decision and any temporary cease and desist order should be served by the Office of Hearing Officers on Enforcement and the Respondent or upon counsel representing the Respondent, or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141, when counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 agrees to accept service for the Respondent. The Rule would also be amended to specify that service can be by email and that if service is made by email, the Office of Hearing Officers shall send an additional copy of the decision and any temporary cease and desist order by personal service or overnight commercial courier. Under the proposed Rule, service is complete upon sending the notice by email or overnight courier or delivering it in person, except that, where duplicate service is required, service is complete when duplicate service is complete. The Office of Hearing Officers provides a copy of the temporary cease and desist order to each member organization or ATP Holder with which a Respondent is associated.
○ Finally, the Exchange proposes to add a new subsection (e) headed “Delivery Requirement” that provides that where a Respondent is a member organization or ATP Holder, Respondent shall deliver a copy of a temporary cease and desist order, within one business day of receiving it, to its covered persons.
• Rule 9850 (Review by Hearing Panel) sets forth the process for a Party to petition the Hearing Panel to modify, set aside, limit or suspend a temporary cease and desist order. The Exchange proposes the following changes to harmonize the Rule with FINRA's recent amendments:
○ The first sentence of Rule 9850 would be amended to add a clause specifying that the Office of Hearing Officers can also serve a temporary cease and desist order upon counsel representing the Respondent, or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141, when counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 agrees to accept service for the Respondent.
○ Rule 9850 would be amended to add a sentence providing that the Hearing Panel that presided over the temporary cease and desist order proceeding shall retain jurisdiction to modify, set aside, limit, or suspend the temporary cease and desist order, unless at the time the application is filed a Hearing Panel has already been appointed in the underlying disciplinary proceeding commenced under Rule 9211 in which case the Hearing Panel appointed in the disciplinary proceeding has jurisdiction.
○ Rule 9850 would also be amended to specify that either the Chief Hearing Officer or Deputy Chief Hearing Officer can extend the time for the Hearing Panel to respond to a request under the Rule for good cause shown and eliminate the need for consent of the parties.
○ Rule 9850 would be amended to add text specifying that the Hearing Panel's response can also be served upon counsel representing the Respondent, or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141, when counsel or other person authorized to represent others under Rule 9141 agrees to accept service for the Respondent, and that email is a permitted method of service. A sentence would also be added before the last sentence in the Rule providing that if service is made by email, the Office of Hearing Officers shall send an additional copy of the temporary cease and desist order by personal service or overnight commercial courier.
• Rule 9860 (Violation of Temporary Cease and Desist Orders) provides that a Respondent who violates a temporary cease and desist order may have its association or membership suspended or canceled under Rule 9556. The Exchange proposes to amend the Rule to add that a Respondent may also be subject to any fitting sanction under Rule 9556.
• Finally, the Exchange proposes to adopt the text of FINRA Rule 9291 governing the content, scope, form and delivery requirements of permanent cease and desist orders. Under proposed Rule 9291(a), when a decision issued under Rule 9268 or Rule 9269 or an order of acceptance issued under Rule 9270 imposes a permanent cease and desist order, the decision shall: Order a Respondent (and any successor of a Respondent, where the Respondent is a member organization) to cease and desist permanently from violating a specific rule or statutory provision; set forth the violation; and describe in reasonable detail the act or acts the Respondent (and any successor of a Respondent, where the Respondent is a member organization) shall take or refrain from taking.
The proposed Rule would also require Respondents that are member organizations or ATP Holders to deliver a copy of a permanent cease and desist order, within one business day of receiving it, to its covered persons.
The Exchange proposes technical and conforming changes to Rule 9310.
Rule 9310(b), which governs reviews by the Exchange Board of Directors, would be amended to specify that the determinations or penalties imposed subject to Board review would include the terms of any permanent cease and desist order.
The Exchange believes that the proposed changes to Rule 8313 are consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
For the same reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposed changes to Rule 8313 further the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act
The Exchange believes that the proposed changes to Rules 9120, 9268, 9269, 9270, 9551, 9552, 9554, 9555, 9556, 9557, 9558, 9559, 9810, 9830, 9840, 9850, and 9860 and adopting a new Rule 9291 regarding the imposition of temporary or permanent cease and desist orders are consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
For the same reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposed changes to the Exchange's rules further the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act
In addition, revising the evidentiary standard for obtaining temporary cease and desist orders by harmonizing the Exchange's rules with those of FINRA would better serve the investor protection purposes of the Exchange's temporary cease and desist authority and allow the Exchange to initiate and resolve temporary cease and desist proceedings more expeditiously. Further, these proposed changes, including the revised evidentiary standard, would also improve the Exchange's ability to enforce compliance with applicable laws and rules by its member organizations and persons associated with member organizations, and the Exchange's ability to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices.
The Exchange also believes that the proposed rule change supports the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act by providing greater harmonization between Exchange and FINRA rules of similar purpose, resulting in less burdensome and more efficient regulatory compliance for common members. As previously noted, the text of Rules 9120, 9268, 9269, 9270, 9291, 9551, 9552, 9554, 9555, 9556, 9557, 9558, 9559, 9810, 9830, 9840, 9850, and 9860 relating to the imposition of temporary or permanent cease and desist orders is substantially the same as FINRA's rule text. To the extent the Exchange has proposed changes that differ from the FINRA version of the Exchange rules, such changes are generally technical in nature and do not change the substance of the rules.
In addition, the Exchange believes that the proposed changes to Rules 9120, 9268, 9269, 9270, 9551, 9552, 9554, 9555, 9556, 9557, 9558, 9559, 9810, 9830, 9840, 9850, and 9860 and adopting a new Rule 9291 further the objectives of Section 6(b)(7) of the Act
Finally, making conforming amendments to Rule 9310 in connection with the proposed harmonization of the Exchange's rules governing temporary cease and desist orders and expedited proceedings supports the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act. The conforming amendments will update and add specificity to the Exchange's rules, which will promote just and equitable principles of trade and help to protect investors.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is not intended to address competitive issues, but rather it is designed to (1) enhance the Exchange's rules governing the release of disciplinary complaints, decisions and other information to the public, thereby providing greater clarity and consistency and resulting in less burdensome and more efficient regulatory compliance and facilitating performance of regulatory functions, and (2) provide greater harmonization among Exchange and FINRA rules of similar purpose regarding the imposition of temporary cease and desist orders and expedited proceedings, thereby enhancing the quality of the Exchange's regulatory program, resulting in less burdensome and more efficient regulatory compliance and facilitating performance of regulatory functions.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On August 12, 2016, Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
The Commission finds it appropriate to designate a longer period within which to take action on the proposed rule change so that it has sufficient time to consider this proposed rule change. Accordingly, the Commission, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
It appears to the Securities and Exchange Commission that there is a lack of current and accurate information concerning the securities of Sierra Resource Group, Inc. (CIK No. 1076966) because it has not filed a periodic report since it filed its Form 10-Q for the period ending September 30, 2013, filed on November 19, 2013. Sierra Resource Group, Inc. is a Nevada corporation with its principal offices in Las Vegas, Nevada. The company's common stock (ticker “SIRG”) is quoted on OTC Link (previously “Pink Sheets”) operated by OTC Markets Group, Inc.
The Commission is of the opinion that the public interest and the protection of investors require a suspension of trading in the securities of Sierra Resource Group, Inc. Therefore, it is ordered, pursuant to Section 12(k) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, that trading in the securities of Sierra Resource Group, Inc. is suspended for the period from 9:30 a.m. EDT on September 29, 2016, through 11:59 p.m. EDT on October 12, 2016.
By the Commission.
It appears to the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) that there is a lack of current and accurate information concerning the securities of Rainbow International, Corp. (CIK No. 0001522538) (“Rainbow”) because Rainbow has confirmed for the Commission staff that the company is no longer operating. In addition, there is a lack of accurate information concerning the securities of Rainbow because in Form 8-Ks filed with the Commission on May 5, 2014, May 12, 2014, and Sept. 4, 2014 by Rainbow, the company appears to have made false and misleading statements concerning, among other things, a purported acquisition, company business relationships, its purported development of products, purported rental revenues, and a purported purchase of company shares by a company officer. The company appears not to have made any information publicly available about itself for approximately two years. Rainbow, also known as Raintree Brands Incorporated, is a Nevada corporation in default whose principal place of business is listed as Centennial, Colorado. Rainbow shares are quoted on OTC Link, operated by OTC Markets Group, Inc., under the ticker symbol “RNBI.”
The Commission is of the opinion that the public interest and the protection of investors require a suspension of trading in the securities of Rainbow.
By the Commission.
On August 16, 2016, NYSE MKT LLC (the “Exchange” or “NYSE MKT”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
In response to the comment letter, the NYSE submitted a response.
Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
The Commission finds that it is appropriate to designate a longer period within which to take action on the proposed rule change so that it has sufficient time to consider the proposed rule change. Accordingly, the Commission, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange filed a proposal to update Rules 21.1, 21.7 and 21.9 to align the Exchange's rules and functionality applicable to the Exchange's options platform (“BZX Options”) with the Exchange's affiliated options platform (“EDGX Options”), which is operated by Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc. (“EDGX”). The Exchange has designated this proposal as a non-controversial filing and requests that the Commission waive the 30-day operative delay contained in Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii) under the Act.
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to make two changes to the Exchange's rules and functionality applicable to the BZX Options as described below. The changes are being proposed in order to allow the Exchange to conform certain
First, the Exchange proposes to eliminate “WAIT” orders, which are orders that that when entered into the System,
Although the Order Exposure Rule still applies on BZX Options and the Exchange is not proposing any changes to such rule in connection with this proposal, Options Members have other means to comply with the Rule, including programming their own systems to comply, and very rarely use orders with a time-in-force of WAIT. Further, such orders are not offered by EDGX Options. Accordingly, the Exchange proposes to stop offering WAIT orders on BZX Options and to eliminate reference to such orders from Rule 21.1 (Definitions). In connection with this change, the Exchange proposes to remove reference to WAIT orders from the Exchange's rule regarding the opening procedures on the Exchange, Rule 21.7 (Market Opening Procedures).
Second, the Exchange proposes to modify the “Aggressive” Re-Route instruction contained in Exchange Rule 21.9 (Order Routing) to align the operation of such functionality with that offered by EDGX Options. Under the current Aggressive Re-Route instruction on BZX Options, set forth in Rule 21.9(a)(3)(A), to the extent the unfilled balance of a routable order has been posted to the BZX Options Book pursuant to paragraph (a)(2), should the order subsequently be
Although the Exchange intentionally offers certain features that differ from those offered by EDGX Options and will continue to do so, the Exchange believes that offering similar functionality on both EDGX Options and BZX Options to the extent practicable will reduce potential confusion for Users.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
Consistent rules and functionality between the Exchange and EDGX will reduce complexity and help avoid potential confusion by the Users of the Exchange that are also participants on EDGX. The Exchange again notes that WAIT orders are very rarely used by Users of BZX Options and that such orders are not offered by EDGX Options. Like WAIT orders, the Aggressive Re-Route instruction is very rarely used. The Exchange also notes that the proposed changes to the Aggressive Re-Route instruction are based on EDGX rules and will result in consistent functionality between BZX Options and EDGX Options.
Also, with respect to the current implementation of Aggressive and Super Aggressive functionality, the Exchange notes that this implementation is due to a change previously made to the functionality that was primarily made by the Exchange in order to keep functionality consistent on BZX Options with the Exchange's equity securities platform (“BZX Equities”).
The Exchange believes the proposed amendment will reduce complexity and increase the understanding of the Exchange's operations for all Users of the Exchange. As such, the proposed rule change would foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in facilitating transactions in securities and would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system. The proposed rule changes do not propose to implement new or unique functionality that has not been previously filed with the Commission or is not available on EDGX Options already.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposal will further promote consistency between the Exchange and EDGX, thereby reducing complexity and avoiding potential confusion by Users of the Exchange that are also participants on EDGX. The Exchange does not believe that either of the proposed changes will have any direct impact on competition.
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any written comments from members or other interested parties.
Because the proposed rule change does not (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of an application under section 6(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Act”) for an exemption from section 15(a) of the Act and rule 18f-2 under the Act, as well as from certain disclosure requirements in rule 20a-1 under the Act, Item 19(a)(3) of Form N-1A, Items 22(c)(1)(ii), 22(c)(1)(iii), 22(c)(8) and 22(c)(9) of Schedule 14A under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, and Sections 6-07(2)(a), (b), and (c) of Regulation S-X (“Disclosure Requirements”). The requested exemption would permit an investment adviser to hire and replace certain sub-advisers without shareholder approval and grant relief from the Disclosure Requirements as they relate to fees paid to the sub-advisers. The order would also supersede prior orders.
Virtus Alternative Solutions Trust, Virtus Equity Trust, Virtus Insight Trust, Virtus Opportunities Trust, Virtus Retirement Trust and Virtus Variable Insurance Trust (each, a “Trust”), each registered under the Act as an open-end management investment company with multiple series (each, a “Series”) and each a Delaware statutory trust, except Virtus Insight Trust, a Massachusetts business trust, and Virtus Alternative Investment Advisers, Inc., a Connecticut
The application was filed August 21, 2015, and amended February 12, 2016, August 9, 2016, and September 9, 2016.
An order granting the application will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on October 24, 2016, and should be accompanied by proof of service on the applicants, in the form of an affidavit or, for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090. Applicants: c/o James E. Thomas, Esq., Ropes & Gray LLP, Prudential Tower, 800 Boylston Street, Boston, MA 02199.
Kaitlin C. Bottock, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-8658, or Daniele Marchesani, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6821 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. An Advisor will serve as the investment adviser to the Subadvised Series pursuant to an investment advisory agreement with the Trust (each, an “Investment Management Agreement”).
2. Applicants request an exemption to permit the Advisor, subject to Board approval, to hire a Non-Affiliated Sub-Advisor or a Wholly-Owned Sub-Advisor, pursuant to Sub-Advisory Agreements and materially amend Sub-Advisory Agreements with Non-Affiliated Sub-Advisors and Wholly-Owned Sub-Advisors without obtaining the shareholder approval required under section 15(a) of the Act and rule 18f-2 under the Act.
3. Applicants agree that any order granting the requested relief will be subject to the terms and conditions stated in the application. Such terms and conditions provide for, among other safeguards, appropriate disclosure to Subadvised Series' shareholders and notification about sub-advisory changes and enhanced Board oversight to protect the interests of the Subadvised Series' shareholders.
4. Section 6(c) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security, or transaction or any class or classes of persons, securities, or transactions from any provisions of the Act, or any rule thereunder, if such relief is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act. Applicants believe that the requested relief meets this standard because, as further explained in the application, the Investment Management Agreements will remain subject to shareholder approval, while the role of the Sub-Advisors is substantially equivalent to that of individual portfolio managers, so that requiring shareholder approval of Sub-Advisory Agreements would impose unnecessary delays and expenses on the Subadvised Series. Applicants believe that the requested relief from the Disclosure Requirements meets this standard because it will improve the Advisor's ability to negotiate fees paid to the Sub-Advisors that are more advantageous for the Subadvised Series.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
Small Business Administration.
30-Day Notice.
The Small Business Administration (SBA) is publishing this notice to comply with requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44
Submit comments on or before November 3, 2016.
Comments should refer to the information collection by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to:
Curtis Rich, Agency Clearance Officer, (202) 205-7030
Small Business Administration SBA's Premier Certified Lenders Program (PCLP) transfers considerable authority and autonomy to Premier Certified Development Companies (Premier CDCs). The PCLP forms (Forms 2233 and 2234) collect loan information to assist the agency in carrying-out its lender, portfolio and program oversight responsibilities. Form 2233 will collect loan loss reserve information to ensure Premier CDC compliance with statutory requirements. SBA will use Form 2234 to approve loan eligibility and track portfolio performance.
Small Business Administration.
Notice of 30-day Reporting Requirements Submitted for OMB Review.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), agencies are required to submit proposed reporting and recordkeeping requirements to OMB for review and approval, and to publish a notice in the
Submit comments on or before November 3, 2016. If you intend to comment but cannot prepare comments promptly, please advise the OMB Reviewer and the Agency Clearance Officer before the deadline.
Address all comments concerning this notice to:
Curtis Rich, Agency Clearance Officer, (202) 205-7030
Small Business Administration.
30-Day notice.
The Small Business Administration (SBA) is publishing this notice to comply with requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), which requires agencies to submit proposed reporting and recordkeeping requirements to OMB for review and approval, and to publish a notice in the
Submit comments on or before November 3, 2016.
Comments should refer to the information collection by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to:
Curtis Rich, Agency Clearance Officer, (202) 205-7030
Respondent are applicants for a Certified Development Company (CDC) loan (or 504 loan) and the CDC's certified by SBA to issue such loans. The information is necessary for the Small Business Administration (SBA) to determine whether applicants meet the Agency's criteria for eligibility, creditworthiness, and repayment ability, and also whether to approve CDC's request for debenture guarantees.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Fifteenth Meeting of the RTCA Tactical Operations Committee.
The FAA is issuing this notice to advise the public of the Fifteenth Meeting of the RTCA Tactical Operations Committee.
The meeting will be held October 27, 2016, 10:00 a.m.-04:00 p.m.
The meeting will be held at: RTCA Headquarters, 1150 18th Street NW., Suite 910, Washington, DC 20036.
Trin Mitra at
Pursuant to section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 5 U.S.C., App.), notice is hereby given for the Fifteenth Meeting of the RTCA Tactical Operations Committee. The agenda will include the following:
Attendance is open to the interested public but limited to space availability. With the approval of the chairman, members of the public may present oral statements at the meeting. Persons wishing to present statements or obtain information should contact the person listed in the
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice.
This notice contains a summary of a petition seeking relief from specified requirements of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations. The purpose of this notice is to improve the public's awareness of, and participation in, the FAA's exemption process. Neither publication of this notice nor the inclusion or omission of information in the summary is intended to affect the legal status of the petition or its final disposition.
Comments on this petition must identify the petition docket number and must be received on or before October 24, 2016.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2016-7400 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Deana Stedman, ANM-113, Federal Aviation Administration, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356, email
This notice is published pursuant to 14 CFR 11.85.
Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), DOT.
Notice.
The FHWA is issuing this notice to advise the public that FHWA is rescinding its Notice of Intent (NOI) to prepare an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) for transportation improvements within the Connecticut Route 82/85/11 corridor in the towns of Salem, Montville, Waterford, and East Lyme, Connecticut.
Amy D. Jackson-Grove, Division Administrator, Federal Highway Administration, 628-2 Hebron Avenue, Suite 303, Glastonbury, CT 06033, Telephone: (860) 659-6703.
An NOI to prepare an EIS for the Route 82/85/11 corridor was published in the
Numerous environmental studies have exposed the magnitude of potential environmental impacts to a variety of resources, such as wetlands, endangered species, Section 4(f), and cultural resources. Accordingly, FHWA is hereby rescinding the NOI.
Federal Transit Administration (FTA), DOT.
Notice of intent to transfer Federally assisted facility.
Section 5334(h) of the Federal Transit Laws, as codified, 49 U.S.C. 5301, et. seq., permits the Administrator of the Federal Transit Administration (FTA) to authorize a recipient of FTA funds to transfer land or a facility to a public body for any public purpose with no further obligation to the Federal Government if, among other things, no Federal agency is interested in acquiring the asset for Federal use. Accordingly, FTA is issuing this Notice to advise Federal agencies that VIA Metropolitan Transit (VIA) intends to transfer the facility at 7535 Merton Mintor, Bexar County, San Antonio, Texas, to University Health System (a.k.a Bexar County Hospital District, hereinafter “District”), a political subdivision of the State of Texas in San Antonio, Texas, serving Bexar County. The facility is attached and connected to a building and parking garage at the South Texas Medical Center. VIA used the facility from approximately 1998 to 2012 as a transfer facility. VIA discontinued use of the facility in December 2012 with the opening of its new medical center transfer facility at a different location.
The District intends to use the facility for various hospital departments, including the Information Technology Department, and a Pediatric Food Bank. The transfer will provide benefits to the hospital by providing space for hospital department personnel and operations. The transfer will provide a benefit to the community in the form of the Pediatric Food Bank, filling a need for children that will allow them to stay nourished and healthy, with the goal of avoiding unnecessary hospital stays. The District plans to use the facility for at least 20 years and is planning renovations to the facility and its systems.
Effective Date: Any Federal agency interested in acquiring the facility must notify the FTA Region VI office of its interest no later than November 3, 2016.
Interested parties should notify the Regional Office by writing to Robert C. Patrick, Regional Administrator, Federal Transit Administration, 819 Taylor Street, Room 8A36, Fort Worth, TX 76102
Eldridge Onco, Regional Counsel, (817) 978-0557.
49 U.S.C. 5334(h) provides guidance on the transfer of capital assets. Specifically, if a recipient of FTA assistance decides an asset acquired under this chapter at least in part with that assistance is no longer needed for the purpose for which it was acquired, the Secretary of Transportation may authorize the recipient to transfer the asset to a local governmental authority to be used for a public purpose with no further obligation to the Government. 49 U.S.C. 5334(h)(1).
The Secretary may authorize a transfer for a public purpose other than mass transportation only if the Secretary decides:
(A) The asset will remain in public use for at least 5 years after the date the asset is transferred;
(B) There is no purpose eligible for assistance under this chapter for which the asset should be used;
(C) The overall benefit of allowing the transfer is greater than the interest of the Government in liquidation and return of the financial interest of the Government in the asset, after considering fair market value and other factors; and
(D) Through an appropriate screening or survey process, that there is no interest in acquiring the asset for Government use if the asset is a facility or land.
This document implements the requirements of 49 U.S.C. 5334(h)(1)(D) of the Federal Transit Laws. Accordingly, FTA hereby provides notice of the availability of the facility further described below. Any Federal agency interested in acquiring the affected facility should promptly notify the FTA. If no Federal agency is interested in acquiring the existing facility, FTA will make certain that the other requirements specified in 49 U.S.C. 5334(h)(1)(A) through (C) are met before permitting the asset to be transferred.
The subject improvement is located on property legally described as: NCB 12816 BLK 6 LOT NE IRR 781.56 FT OF 4. The subject property consists of an easement encumbered with an improvement (building) and does not include fee to the land. The improvement is approximately 1925 square feet consisting of a waiting area, two restrooms, ticket office and an elevator. The elevator goes up to the crosswalk of the University Health Center crosswalk. The facility is in fair to good condition. Public utilities are available: Water; sewer; telephone; and
If no Federal agency is interested in acquiring the existing facility, FTA will make certain that the other requirements specified in 49 U.S.C. 5334(h)(1)(A) through (C) are met before permitting the asset to be transferred.
Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.
Notice.
The U.S. Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is publishing the names of six individuals and six entities whose property and interests in property have been blocked pursuant to the Foreign Narcotics Kingpin Designation Act (Kingpin Act).
The designations by the Acting Director of OFAC of the six individuals and six entities identified in this notice pursuant to section 805(b) of the Kingpin Act are effective on September 29, 2016.
Assistant Director, Sanctions Compliance & Evaluation, Office of Foreign Assets Control, U.S. Department of the Treasury, Washington, DC 20220, Tel: (202) 622-2490.
This document and additional information concerning OFAC are available on OFAC's Web site at
The Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1901-1908, 8 U.S.C. 1182, became law on December 3, 1999. The Kingpin Act provides a statutory framework for the imposition of sanctions against significant foreign narcotics traffickers and their organizations on a worldwide basis, with the objective of denying their businesses and agents access to the U.S. financial system and the benefits of trade and transactions involving U.S. companies and individuals.
The Kingpin Act blocks all property and interests in property, subject to U.S. jurisdiction, owned or controlled by significant foreign narcotics traffickers as identified by the President. In addition, the Kingpin Act provides that the Secretary of the Treasury, in consultation with the Attorney General, the Director of the Central Intelligence Agency, the Director of the Federal Bureau of Investigation, the Administrator of the Drug Enforcement Administration, the Secretary of Defense, the Secretary of State, and the Secretary of Homeland Security, may designate and block the property and interests in property, subject to U.S. jurisdiction, of persons who are found to be: (1) Materially assisting in, or providing financial or technological support for or to, or providing goods or services in support of, the international narcotics trafficking activities of a person designated pursuant to the Kingpin Act; (2) owned, controlled, or directed by, or acting for or on behalf of, a person designated pursuant to the Kingpin Act; or (3) playing a significant role in international narcotics trafficking.
On September 29, 2016, the Acting Director of OFAC designated the following six individuals and six entities whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to section 805(b) of the Kingpin Act.
1. MUNOZ MEJIA, Jonathan (Latin: MUÑOZ MEJIA, Jonathan) (a.k.a. MUNOZ MEJIA, Jhonathan), Colombia; Mexico; DOB 07 Nov 1985; POB Manizales, Caldas, Colombia; nationality Colombia; Cedula No. 75107204 (Colombia); C.U.R.P. MUMJ851107HNEXJN01 (Mexico) (individual) [SDNTK] (Linked To: AVICAL S.A.; Linked To: INVERSIONES LA PLATA M & M S. EN C.A.; Linked To: ROMIK S.A.; Linked To: MUNSA INTERNATIONAL INVESMENTS S.A.). Directed by, or acting for or on behalf of, German MUNOZ HOYOS, AVICAL S.A., INVERSIONES LA PLATA M & M S. EN C.A. (a.k.a. A.K.A. INVERSIONES LA PLATA M Y M), and/or ROMIK S.A., and therefore meets the statutory criteria for designation as an SDNT pursuant to section 805(b)(3) of the Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1904(b)(3).
2. MUNOZ HOYOS, Carlos Ivan (Latin: MUÑOZ HOYOS, Ivan Carlos), Colombia; DOB 23 Dec 1957; POB Aranzazu, Caldas, Colombia; nationality Colombia; Cedula No. 10234256 (Colombia) (individual) [SDNTK] (Linked To: AVICAL S.A.). Directed by, or acting for or on behalf of, German MUNOZ HOYOS, Jonathan MUNOZ MEJIA (a.k.a. MUNOZ MEJIA, Jhonathan), and/or AVICAL S.A. and therefore meets the statutory criteria for designation pursuant to section 805(b)(3) of the Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1904(b)(3).
3. MUNOZ MEJIA, Eliana (Latin: MUÑOZ MEJIA, Eliana), Colombia; Mexico; DOB 12 Jun 1989; POB Manizales, Caldas, Colombia; nationality Colombia; Cedula No. 1053795962 (Colombia); C.U.R.P. MUME890612MNEXJL02 (Mexico); Identification Number 89061251694 (Colombia) (individual) [SDNTK] (Linked To: AVICAL S.A.; Linked To: INVERSIONES LA PLATA M & M S. EN C.A.). Directed by, or acting for or on behalf of, German MUNOZ HOYOS, AVICAL S.A., and/or INVERSIONES LA PLATA M & M S. EN C.A. (a.k.a. A.K.A. INVERSIONES LA PLATA M Y M), and therefore meets the statutory criteria for designation as an SDNT pursuant to section 805(b)(3) of the Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1904(b)(3).
4. MUNOZ MEJIA, Jhonny German (Latin: MUÑOZ MEJIA, Jhonny German), Colombia; Mexico; DOB 17 Dec 1986; POB Manizales, Caldas, Colombia; nationality Colombia; Cedula No. 1053768644 (Colombia); C.U.R.P. MUMJ861217HNEXJH05 (Mexico); Identification Number 86121753660 (Colombia) (individual) [SDNTK] (Linked To: AVICAL S.A.; Linked To: INVERSIONES LA PLATA M & M S. EN C.A.; Linked To: ROMIK S.A.). Directed by, or acting for or on behalf of, German MUNOZ HOYOS, AVICAL S.A., INVERSIONES LA PLATA M & M S. EN C.A. (a.k.a. A.K.A. INVERSIONES LA PLATA M Y M), and/or ROMIK S.A., and therefore meets the statutory criteria for designation as an SDNT pursuant to section 805(b)(3) of the Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1904(b)(3).
5. MUNOZ HOYOS, German (Latin: MUÑOZ HOYOS, German), Colombia; Mexico; DOB 26 Jan 1965; POB Manizales, Caldas, Colombia; nationality Colombia; citizen Colombia; alt. citizen Mexico; Cedula No. 10268158 (Colombia); Passport A0630659 (Colombia); alt. Passport G15527939 (Mexico); C.U.R.P. MUHG650126HNEXYR06 (Mexico) (individual) [SDNTK] (Linked To: AVICAL S.A.; Linked To: INVERSIONES LA PLATA M & M S. EN C.A.; Linked To: ROMIK S.A.; Linked To: GEMUHO HOLDING, INC; Linked To: UNIREFRICLIMA S.A.). Plays a
6. MURILLO SALAZAR, Claudia Julieta, Colombia; Mexico; DOB 29 Jul 1975; POB Manizales, Caldas, Colombia; nationality Colombia; Cedula No. 30335610 (Colombia); C.U.R.P. MUSC750729MNERU04 (Mexico) (individual) [SDNTK] (Linked To: AVICAL S.A.; Linked To: MUNSA INTERNATIONAL INVESMENTS S.A.). Directed by, or acting for or on behalf of, German MUNOZ HOYOS and/or AVICAL S.A., and therefore meets the statutory criteria for designation as an SDNT pursuant to section 805(b)(3) of the Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1904(b)(3).
1. AVICAL S.A., Transversal 72 No. 16-11, Glorieta de Milan, Manizales, Caldas, Colombia; Carrera 18 No. 30-65, Manizales, Caldas, Colombia; Calle 161 No. 91A-53, Bogota, Cundinamarca, Colombia; Medellin, Antioquia, Colombia; Dosquebradas, Risaralda, Colombia; NIT #810006566-9 (Colombia) [SDNTK]. Owned, controlled, or directed by, or acting for or on behalf of German MUNOZ HOYOS and therefore meets the criteria for designation pursuant to section 805(b)(3) of the Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1904(b)(3).
2. GEMUHO HOLDING, INC, Costa de Este, P.H. Sevilla, Torre 1, apartamento 43B, Panama City, Panama; RUC #2388488-1-803204 (Panama) [SDNTK]. Controlled, or directed by, or acting for or on behalf of German MUNOZ HOYOS and therefore meets the criteria for designation pursuant to section 805(b)(3) of the Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1904(b)(3).
3. INVERSIONES LA PLATA M & M S. EN C.A. (a.k.a. INVERSIONES LA PLATA M Y M), Carrera 18 No. 30-65, Manizales, Caldas, Colombia; Transversal 72 No. 16-11, Glorieta de Milan, Manizales, Caldas, Colombia; NIT #900324723-2 (Colombia) [SDNTK]. Owned, controlled, or directed by, or acting for or on behalf of German MUNOZ HOYOS, Jonathan MUNOZ MEJIA (a.k.a. MUNOZ MEJIA, Jhonathan), and/or AVICAL, S.A., and therefore meets the criteria for designation pursuant to section 805(b)(3) of the Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1904(b)(3).
4. MUNSA INTERNATIONAL INVESMENTS S.A., Panama City, Panama; RUC #155608664-2-2015 (Panama) [SDNTK]. Controlled or directed by, or acting for or on behalf, of Claudia Julieta MURILLO SALAZAR.
5. ROMIK S.A., P.H. Plaza 2000, Piso 11, Urbanizacion Marbella, Panama City, Panama; RUC #1661921-1-677849 (Panama) [SDNTK]. Controlled or directed by, or acting for or on behalf of, MUNOZ HOYOS, Jonathan MUNOZ MEJIA, and/or Jhonny German MUNOZ MEJIA, and therefore meets the criteria for designation pursuant to section 805(b)(3) of the Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1904(b)(3).
6. UNIREFRICLIMA S.A., Panama City, Panama; RUC #155608664-2-2015 (Panama) [SDNTK]. Controlled, or directed by, or acting for or on behalf of German MUNOZ HOYOS and therefore meets the criteria for designation pursuant to section 805(b)(3) of the Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1904(b)(3).
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Revenue Procedure 2004-15, Waivers of Minimum Funding Standards.
Written comments should be received on or before December 5, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the revenue procedure should be directed to Martha R. Brinson, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the Internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Office of Information and Technology, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
The Office of Information and Technology (OIT), Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before December 5, 2016.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Nancy Tucker at 801-580-7884.
Under the PRA of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13; 44 U.S.C. 3501-21), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, OIT invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of IRIS functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of OIT's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
By direction of the Secretary.
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) gives notice under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C., App. 2, that the Executive Committee of the VA Voluntary Service (VAVS) National Advisory Committee (NAC) will meet October 20-21, 2016, at the Veterans Health Administration's Conference Center, 2011 Crystal Drive, Suite 150, Arlington, Virginia. On October 20, the meeting will begin at 8:30 a.m. and end at 4:30 p.m. On October 21, the meeting will begin at 8:30 a.m. and end at 12:00 noon. The meeting is open to the public.
The Committee, comprised of fifty-three major Veteran, civic, and service organizations, advises the Secretary, through the Under Secretary for Health, on the coordination and promotion of volunteer activities and strategic partnerships within VA health care facilities, in the community, and on matters related to volunteerism and charitable giving. The Executive Committee consists of 20 representatives from the NAC member organizations.
On October 20, agenda topics will include: NAC goals and objectives; review of minutes from the May 4, 2016 Executive Committee meeting; VAVS update on the Voluntary Service program's activities; VHA Update, strategic partnership vetting; strategic partnership panel; Parke Board update; evaluations of the 2016 NAC annual meeting; review of membership criteria and process; and plans for 2017 NAC annual meeting (to include workshops and plenary sessions).
On October 21, agenda topics will include: subcommittee reports; review of standard operating procedures; review of Fiscal Year 2016 organization data; 2018 NAC annual meeting plans; and any new business.
No time will be allocated at this meeting for receiving oral presentations from the public. However, the public may submit written statements for the Committee's review to Mrs. Sabrina C. Clark, Designated Federal Officer, Voluntary Service Office (10B2A), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20420, or email at
(a) The preamble is replaced with the following: “By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the laws of the United States of America, including 5 U.S.C. 3301 and 7103(b), and in order to strengthen and ensure a secure, efficient, timely, reciprocal, and aligned system for investigating and determining suitability or fitness for Government employment, contractor employee fitness, eligibility for access to classified information or to hold a sensitive position, and authorization to be issued a Federal credential, while taking appropriate account of title III of Public Law 108-458, it is hereby ordered as follows:”
(b) Section 1.1 is amended to read as follows:
(c) Sections 1.3(k) and (l) are redesignated as sections 1.3(l) and (m).
(d) A new section 1.3(k) is added to read as follows: “(k) “National Background Investigations Bureau” (NBIB) means the National Background Investigations Bureau, established within the Office of Personnel Management with responsibility for conducting effective, efficient, and secure personnel background investigations pursuant to law, rule, regulation, or Executive Order.”
(e) Section 2.2(b) is amended to read as follows:
“(b) The Deputy Director for Management, Office of Management and Budget, shall serve as Chair of the Council and shall have authority, direction, and control over the Council's functions. Membership on the Council shall include the Suitability Executive Agent, the Security Executive Agent, and the Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence of the Department of Defense. These four officials collectively shall constitute “the Suitability and Security Clearance Performance Accountability Council Principals.” The Director of
(f) Section 2.4 is redesignated as section 2.5, and a new section 2.4 is added to read as follows:
(a) The National Background Investigations Bureau shall:
“(1) serve as the primary executive branch service provider for background investigations for eligibility for access to classified information; eligibility to hold a sensitive position; suitability or, for employees in positions not subject to suitability, fitness for Government employment; fitness to perform work for or on behalf of the Government as a contractor employee; and authorization to be issued a Federal credential for logical and physical access to federally controlled facilities and information systems;
“(2) provide effective, efficient, and secure personnel background investigations for the Federal Government;
“(3) provide the Council information, to the extent permitted by law, on matters of performance, timeliness, capacity, information technology modernization, continuous performance improvement, and other relevant aspects of NBIB operations;
“(4) be headquartered in or near Washington, District of Columbia;
“(5) have dedicated resources, including but not limited to a senior privacy official;
“(6) institutionalize interagency collaboration and take advantage of expertise across the executive branch;
“(7) continuously improve investigative operations, emphasizing information accuracy and protection, and regularly integrate best practices, including those identified by subject matter experts from industry, academia, or other relevant sources;
“(8) conduct personnel background investigations in accordance with uniform and consistent policies, procedures, standards, and requirements established by the Security Executive Agent and the Suitability Executive Agent; and
“(9) conduct other personnel background investigations as authorized by law, rule, regulation, or Executive Order.
“(b) The Secretary of Defense shall design, develop, deploy, operate, secure, defend, and continuously update and modernize, as necessary, background investigation information technology systems that support all Federal background investigation processes conducted by the National Background Investigations Bureau. Design and operation of the information technology systems for the National Background Investigations Bureau shall comply with applicable information technology standards and, to the extent practicable, ensure security and interoperability with other Federal background investigation information technology systems. The Secretary of Defense shall operate the database in the information technology systems containing appropriate data relevant to the granting, denial, or revocation of a security clearance or access pertaining to military, civilian, or Government contractor personnel, see 50 U.S.C. 3341(e), consistent with and following an explicit delegation from the Director of the Office of Personnel Management pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 1104.
“(c) Delegations and designations of investigative authority in place on the date of establishment of the National Background Investigations Bureau shall remain in effect until amended or revoked. The National Background
(b) Specifically, the Council shall submit to the President a recommendation to:
(c) The Council's submission shall include, but will not be limited to, the appropriate means to:
“Agencies or subdivisions of the Office of Personnel Management:
(a) The Federal Investigative Services.
(b) The National Background Investigations Bureau.
(c) Units with a primary Suitability Executive Agent mission, including adjudicating suitability investigations and conducting related policy, advisory services, operations support, and agency oversight.
(d) Units with a primary mission of engineering, information technology, and cybersecurity support for personnel background investigations and adjudications.”
(b) If any provision of this order or the application of such provision is held to be invalid, the remainder of this order shall not be affected.
(c) This order is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Proposed rule; request for comments.
In response to the President's Executive Order 13563, “Improving Regulations and Regulatory Review,” the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is continuing its efforts to remove or revise outdated, duplicative, unnecessary, and inconsistent requirements in its safety and health standards. The current review, the fourth in this ongoing effort, is called Standards Improvement Project-Phase IV (SIP-IV). The goal of the proposed rulemaking is to reduce regulatory burden while maintaining or enhancing employees' safety and health. SIP-IV focuses primarily on OSHA's construction standards.
Submit comments and hearing requests by December 5, 2016. All submissions must bear a postmark or provide other evidence of the submission date.
Submit comments and additional material using any of the following methods:
OSHA requests comments on all issues related to this proposed rule, including whether these revisions will have any economic, paperwork, or other regulatory impacts on the regulated community.
OSHA is proposing 18 revisions to existing standards in its recordkeeping, general industry, maritime, and construction standards, with most of the revisions to its construction standards. The purpose of Standards Improvement Projects (SIPs) is to remove or revise outdated, duplicative, unnecessary, and inconsistent requirements in OSHA's safety and health standards, which will permit better compliance by employers and reduce costs and paperwork burdens where possible, without reducing employee protections. OSHA is conducting SIP-IV in response to the President's Executive Order 13563, “Improving Regulations and Regulatory Review” (76 FR 38210). OSHA would update three standards to align with current medical practice, including a reduction to the number of necessary employee x-rays, updates to requirements for pulmonary function testing, and updates to the table used for decompression of employees during underground construction. Additionally, the proposed revisions include an update to the consensus standard incorporated by reference for signs and devices used to protect workers near automobile traffic, a revision to the requirements for roll-over protective structures to comply with current consensus standards,
SIP rulemakings do not address new significant risks or estimate benefits and economic impacts of reducing such risks. Overall, SIP rulemakings are reasonably necessary under the OSH Act because they provide cost savings, or eliminate unnecessary requirements. The Agency does estimate cost savings and paperwork reductions for SIP rulemakings. The Agency has estimated that one revision (updating the method of identifying and calling emergency medical services) may increase construction employers costs by about $28,000 per year while two provisions (reduction in the number of necessary employee x-rays and elimination of posting requirements for residential construction employers) provide estimated costs savings of $3.2 million annually. The Agency has not estimated or quantified benefits to employees from reduced exposure to x-ray radiation or to employers for the reduced cost of storing digital x-rays rather than x-ray films, among others. The Agency has preliminarily concluded that the proposed revisions are economically feasible and do not have any significant economic impact on small businesses. The Preliminary Economic Analysis in this preamble provides an explanation of the economic effects of the proposed revisions.
The purpose of the SIP-IV rulemaking is to remove or revise outdated, duplicative, unnecessary, and inconsistent requirements in OSHA's safety and health standards. The Agency believes that improving OSHA standards will increase employers' understanding of their obligations, which will lead to increased compliance, improve employee safety and health, and reduce compliance costs.
In 1995, in response to a Presidential memorandum to improve government regulation,
As stated above, the President's Executive Order 13563 (E.O.), “Improving Regulations and Regulatory Review,” sets out the goals and criteria for regulatory review, and requires agencies to review existing standards and regulations to ensure that these standards and regulations continue to protect public health, welfare, and safety effectively, while promoting economic growth and job creation. The E.O. encourages agencies to use the best, least burdensome means to achieve regulatory objectives, to perform periodic reviews of existing standards to identify outmoded, ineffective, or burdensome standards, and to modify, streamline, or repeal such standards when appropriate.
The Agency believes that the SIP rulemaking process is an effective means to improve its standards and advised the Advisory Committee for Construction Safety and Health (ACCSH) at a public meeting held on December 16, 2011 that it intended to review its standards under the SIP criteria, with particular emphasis on construction standards. A transcription of these proceedings (ACCSH Transcript) is available at Docket No. OSHA-2011-0124-0026.
Recognizing the importance of public participation in the SIP process, the Agency published a Request for Information (RFI) on December 6, 2012 (77 FR 72781) asking the public to identify standards that were in need of revision or removal, and to explain how such action would reduce regulatory burden while maintaining or increasing the protection afforded to employees. The Agency received 26 comments in response to the RFI. As discussed below, several of the proposed amendments contained in this proposed rule were recommended in the public comments received in response to the RFI. Other proposed SIP amendments were identified by the Agency's own internal review and by ACCSH.
OSHA is proposing a number of actions amending its standards, including revisions to its general industry, maritime, and construction standards. A detailed discussion of each of the proposed revisions follows, including a discussion of comments the Agency received in response to the RFI. Some of the proposed revisions affect more than one industry (
The provisions of 29 CFR part 1904 provide for the recording and reporting of occupational injuries and illnesses. Section 1904.10 sets out the recordkeeping criteria for recording cases involving occupational hearing loss. Current § 1904.10(b)(6) provides that “[i]f a physician or other licensed health care professional determines that a hearing loss is not work-related or has not been significantly aggravated by occupational noise exposure, [the employer is] not required to consider the case work-related or to record the case on the OSHA 300 log.” Section 1904.5 provides the requirements for determining whether an injury or illness is work-related.
To clarify the relationship between §§ 1904.10(b)(6) and 1904.5, OSHA incorporated the following language
Physician or other licensed health care professional (PLHCP) must follow the rules set out in 1904.5 to determine if the hearing loss is work-related. If an event or exposure in the work environment either caused or contributed to the hearing loss, or significantly aggravated a pre-existing hearing loss, the PLHCP must consider the case to be work-related. It is not necessary for work to be the sole cause, or the predominant cause, or even a substantial cause of the hearing loss; any contribution from work makes the case work-related. The employer is responsible for ensuring that the PLHCP applies the analysis in Section 1904.5 when evaluating work-related hearing loss, if the employer chooses to rely on the PLHCP's opinion in determining recordability.
In this rulemaking, OSHA is proposing to add a specific cross reference to § 1904.5 in paragraph § 1904.10(b)(6) to make the language in § 1904.10(b)(6) consistent with the above-quoted language from the compliance directive. The reference specifies that employers must comply with the provisions of § 1904.5 when making a determination of whether a worker's hearing loss is work-related. OSHA believes the proposed revision will assist employers in complying with the hearing-loss recording requirement.
The Control of Hazardous Energy (Lockout/Tagout) standard, 29 CFR 1910.147, establishes requirements for the control of hazardous energy, including electrical, pneumatic, mechanical, hydraulic, chemical or thermal energy, during the servicing and maintenance of machinery and equipment. Workers who service equipment without preventing the discharge of this energy can be electrocuted or suffer burns, amputations, lacerations, bone fractures, or crushing injuries, among others.
According to its terms, the lockout/tagout standard applies to servicing and maintenance operations “in which the
Thus, OSHA intended the phrase “unexpected energization” to mean any re-energization or startup that occurs before the servicing employee removes the lockout/tagout device from the energy isolation device or equivalent energy control mechanism.
In line with this intent, OSHA has historically interpreted the term “unexpected energization” to mean energization that is unintended or unplanned
Several decisions of the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission (OSHRC) support this interpretation. In
On the other hand, OSHA's understanding of the standard has not always been accepted. In
OSHA believes that the
In addition, by holding that work on a device that gives warning before startup does not fall within the standard, the
As a result of the
This proposal is consistent with the court's recognition that the rulemaking process provides OSHA with the opportunity to change the application of the lockout/tagout standard.
Removing the word “unexpected” will improve protection of workers under the standard, eliminate the confusion regarding applicability of the standard caused by the
OSHA is proposing a series of revisions to requirements addressing employee chest X-rays in the Agency's health standards. In particular, OSHA is proposing to remove the requirement in several of its standards that employers provide periodic chest X-rays to screen for lung cancer; to allow employers to use digital films and other reasonably-sized standard films for X-rays; and to update terminology and references to ILO guidelines included in its asbestos standards.
OSHA requires medical surveillance in its health standards to detect early indications of adverse health effects in exposed workers before symptoms occur, so that appropriate interventional measures can be taken. Several OSHA standards currently require periodic chest X-rays (CXR), also referred to as posterior-anterior CXR, radiographs, or roentgenograms (a term no longer used). When the Agency published these standards, routine screening for lung cancer with CXR was appropriate clinical practice. However, since then, large studies with many years of follow-up have not shown a benefit to CXR screening, either on lung cancer incidence or mortality. Therefore, OSHA is proposing to remove the requirement for periodic CXR in the following standards: §§ 1910.1018, Inorganic Arsenic; 1910.1029, Coke Oven Emissions; and 1910.1045, Acrylonitrile. OSHA is not proposing to remove the requirement for a baseline CXR in these, or any other, standards. OSHA is also not proposing to remove the CXR requirements in standards where it is used for purposes other than periodic screening for lung cancer. For example, the proposal does not affect periodic CXRs required by OSHA's standards to detect or monitor the progression of pneumoconiosis.
Similarly, OSHA is proposing to amend Appendix H of the asbestos standard, § 1910.1001.
Section 6(b)(7) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act, 29 U.S.C. 655(b)(7), allows OSHA to modify medical examination requirements in existing standards when “warranted by experience, information, or medical or technological developments.” OSHA has used this authority on several occasions. For example, when contemporary evidence indicated that sputum cytology did not improve lung-cancer survival rates, OSHA removed the sputum-cytology-examination requirements from the Coke Oven and Inorganic Arsenic standards in the SIP-I rulemaking (63 FR 33450, 33458-59, June 18, 1998). In addition, OSHA also reduced CXR frequencies from semi-annual to annual for some workers exposed to inorganic arsenic and coke oven emissions in SIP-I. The Agency based this reduction on data available at the time indicating that semi-annual x-rays provided no additional protection, when compared to annual x-rays, in improving the detection of, and survival from, lung cancer for higher risk persons (63 FR 33459-60). This eliminated unnecessary radiation exposure for employees and reduced the burden on employers. OSHA retained the medical history and physical-examination requirements in these standards.
For the reasons discussed below, OSHA has made a preliminary determination that the current literature shows that there is no evidence of benefit, either in lung cancer incidence or mortality, from screening with CXR in the general population. The primary goal of population-based screening is to detect disease at an early stage when cure or control is possible, thereby decreasing the number of people who die from the disease (Black and Welch, 1997; U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF), 2013; Mazzone, 2012).
At the end of the follow-up (July 1, 1983), the Mayo Clinic study observed no difference in lung cancer mortality between the intervention and control groups, but observed an excess of 46 cases in the intervention group, a possible indication of over-diagnosis in lung cancer screening. The excess number of cases also could have resulted from short follow-up time (that is, additional cases may have been observed in the control group if the study lasted longer). In summary, this trial demonstrated significantly increased lung cancer detection, resectability, and survivorship after detection in the group offered screening every four months compared with the control group. However, there was no significant difference in lung cancer mortality rate between the two groups. Contamination of the control group, together with 25 percent non-compliance in the screened group, limited the statistical power of this trial. The authors concluded that “results do not justify recommending large-scale radiologic or cytologic screening for early lung cancer at this time (Fontana,
The term “over-diagnosis” refers to identifying through screening a disease that would otherwise remain undiagnosed during an individual's lifetime (
In order to assess whether over-diagnosis accompanies lung cancer CXR screening, Marcus
At the start of the study in 1983, information on lung cancer status was available for 6,101 participants. From 1971 through the end of 1999, 585 participants in the more frequently screened group and 500 in the usual-care group were diagnosed with lung cancer. Because the number of lung cancers in the usual care group did not equalize with those in the more frequently screened group at the end of the study period, the study investigators concluded that “the persistence of excess cases in the intervention [group] after 16 years of additional follow-up provides continued support for over-diagnosis in lung cancer screening” (Marcus
OSHA identified one study that included men who were younger than 45. A Czech study, Kubic and Polak (1986), enrolled 6,364 smokers aged 40 to 64 years. This study compared semi-annual screening using x-ray and sputum cytology to screening at three-year intervals, and to no screening. Although it found more earlier-stage lung cancers in both screened groups, this study also found no significant difference in mortality rates. In 1993, the Prostate, Lung, Colorectal, and Ovarian (PLCO) Randomized Trial examined the question whether screening would reduce mortality rates from PLCO cancers. In a randomized controlled study conducted in ten screening centers in the US, 154,901 participants aged 55 through 74 years were assigned either to the group that received annual CXR for three or four years, or to the “usual care” (no radiographic intervention) group; 51.6 percent of the participants were current or former smokers. All diagnosed cancers, deaths, and causes of death were ascertained through 13 years of follow-up or until December 31, 2009, whichever event occurred earlier (Oken
An effective screening measure should detect a disease in its early stages before clinical signs and symptoms appear (Herman, 2006). Patients who are diagnosed while they are still asymptomatic tend to have better outcomes than those who are symptomatic (In,
Baseline screening of general populations for unsuspected lung cancer with CXR yields only a small fraction—less than one percent—of lung cancer cases (Hocking
Several authoritative sources of health-information do not recommend CXR for wide-scale screening. For example, the National Cancer Institute (NCI) in its online Lung Cancer Screening PDQ (Physician's Data Query) concluded, “Based on solid evidence, screening with chest x-ray and/or
The current evidence does not support screening for lung cancer with chest radiography or sputum cytology. Annual low-dose CT screening is associated with a reduction in lung cancer mortality in high-risk smokers but further data are required on the cost effectiveness of screening and the relative harms and benefits of screening across a range of different risk groups and settings.
Screening workers exposed to lung carcinogens is a complex issue. Current tools, particularly CXR, have not been shown to be effective in reducing mortality in high-risk smoking populations, and have not been studied in worker populations (Fontana, 1984; Oken, 2011; Marcus
OSHA has also preliminarily determined that the existing evidence is insufficient to justify using alternative screening methods to CXR. While the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) is currently evaluating the applicability of Low-Dose Computed Tomographic (LDCT) as a screening tool for workers exposed to lung carcinogens, it may be years before this research can provide a recommendation on the efficacy of LDCT. Additionally, research is needed on the risks associated with LDCT-associated radiation exposure occurring during a screening protocol for workers exposed to lung carcinogens in the workplace.
As noted earlier in this discussion, OSHA is proposing to remove the requirement to use periodic CXR as a screening tool for lung cancer from the following standards: §§ 1910.1018, Inorganic Arsenic; 1910.1029, Coke Oven Emissions; and 1910.1045, Acrylonitrile.
Although OSHA is proposing to remove periodic CXR requirements from the medical-surveillance sections of these three standards, the Agency emphasizes that the Access to Medical and Exposure Records standard (29 CFR 1910.1020) would still require employers to maintain all medical records, including records of CXRs previously administered. That is, this proposed rule would not relieve employers in general industry, maritime, and construction of the duty to maintain records of CXRs already administered under the requirements of §§ 1910.1018, 1910.1029, 1910.1045, 1915.1018, 1915.1045, 1926.1118, and 1926.1145
OSHA is not proposing to remove the initial, baseline CXR requirement in these three standards. The Agency recognizes that requiring initial, baseline CXR at pre-placement or at the initiation of a medical-surveillance program provides benefits to workers exposed to lung carcinogens, their employers, and health-care professionals evaluating those workers. For example, even with known limitations, CXR can serve to document the absence of disease. Baseline CXR also can be useful in preventing additional testing after detecting an abnormality at a future date. In this regard, the PLCO Screening Trial found that “evaluation stopped after comparison of the screening radiograph with a prior CXR in about one-third” of those participants presenting with an abnormal follow-up CXR (Hocking
In recent years, improvements in medical technology permit screening with digital CXRs, also referred to as digital radiographs, in addition to traditional film-based CXRs. The medical community is rapidly adopting the technology, and both the International Labor Organization (ILO) and NIOSH recently published guidelines for digital radiographs (ILO, 2011; NIOSH, 2011).
OSHA is proposing to update the CXR requirements to allow the use of digital radiograph in the medical surveillance provisions of its Coke Oven Emissions, Acrylonitrile, and Inorganic Arsenic standards discussed above, and in its three asbestos standards and two cadmium standards. The latter standards are: §§ 1910.1001, Asbestos (General Industry); 1915.1001, Asbestos (Maritime); 1926.1101, Asbestos (Construction); 1910.1027, Cadmium (General Industry); and 1926.1127 Cadmium (Construction).
Radiographic facilities and the physicians that are required by OSHA standards to classify CXR according to ILO's classification guidelines and that employ digital radiographs in their practice should follow the NIOSH Guidelines, “Application of Digital Radiography for the Detection and Classification of Pneumoconiosis,” or the most recent NIOSH guidance on using digital radiography to detect pneumoconiosis. In its current guidelines, NIOSH recommends that “only authorized ILO standard digital images should be used for classifying digital chest images for pneumoconiosis.” NIOSH does not recommend using film-based ILO reference radiographs for comparison with digital chest images or printed hard copies of the images. In this revision of the chest x-ray requirements, OSHA is also proposing to allow other reasonably-sized standard x-rays films, such as the 16 inch by 17 inch size, to be used in addition to the 14 inch by 17 inch film specified in some standards. In these standards, the phrase “A 14- by 17-inch film or digital posterior-anterior chest X-ray” (or similar) would be replaced by “A 14- by 17-inch or other reasonably-sized standard film or digital posterior-anterior chest X-ray.” This proposed change will affect the acrylonitrile standard (§ 1910.1045); the inorganic arsenic standard (§ 1910.1018); the coke oven standard (§ 1910.1029); and the asbestos standards (§§ 1910.1001, 1915.1001, and 1926.1101).
Proposed updates also include replacement of “roentgenogram” with “X-ray” to reflect current terminology and corrections to remove references to semi-annual exams for certain employees in Coke Ovens Emissions appendices, § 1910.1029 App. A(VI) and App. B(II)(A), as these exams were eliminated in the second SIP rulemaking (70 FR 1112). In addition, the proposal makes changes to conform to the language used in the ILO's “Guidelines for the use of the ILO International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses,” which specifically refers to a classification system as applying to CXR, while interpretation refers to the information translated by the physician to the employer. Finally, the proposed revisions include updating the version of the ILO Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses to the 2011 version (from the 1980 version), and clarifying that classification must be accordance with the ILO classification system (rather than “a professionally accepted Classification system”) in Appendix E of each of the three asbestos standards.
As noted above, OSHA is incorporating the ILO Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses, Revised Edition 2011, by reference. OSHA believes that this classification document is reasonably available to interested parties. It is available for purchase from the International Labour Organization (ILO), 4 route des Morillons, CH-1211 Genève 22, Switzerland; telephone: +41 (0) 22 799 6111; fax: +41 (0) 22 798 8685; Web site:
In 1978, OSHA promulgated the standard for occupational exposure to cotton dust at 29 CFR 1910.1043 because workers exposed to cotton dust are at risk of developing the respiratory disease, byssinosis (43 FR 27350, June 23, 1978). As described in the preambles to the proposed and final rules, byssinosis is characterized by a continuum of effects (41 FR 56497, 56500-56501, December 28, 1976; 43 FR 27352-27354). Generally, workers who develop byssinosis first experience an acute stage (also called the reactor state), with mild and apparently reversible symptoms that occur on the first day of the work week, after one or more days away from the workplace. Symptoms include chest tightness, difficulty breathing, coughing, and possibly wheezing. Some of those workers also experience temporary acute declines in lung function over the course of a workshift as measured by pulmonary-function testing. As the disease progresses, workers may begin to experience symptoms on other days of the work week. Sometimes the disease progresses into a chronic, irreversible stage that involves permanent narrowing of bronchial tubes. Symptoms during the chronic stage are similar to symptoms observed with emphysema and chronic bronchitis, and include chronic cough with phlegm production and progressive shortness of breath. At this stage, impaired lung function associated with the disease is clearly detectable by pulmonary function testing. Byssinosis can lead to disability or death. Rates of progression depend on exposure levels and susceptibility of workers.
The Cotton Dust Standard contains medical-surveillance provisions at 29 CFR 1910.1043(h). These provisions require initial and periodic medical-surveillance examinations that include administration of a medical questionnaire to determine if workers are experiencing symptoms (§§ 1910.1043(h)(2)(ii) and (h)(3)(i)). Medical surveillance requirements also include pulmonary function testing (
The preamble for the final Cotton Dust standard noted the poor accuracy and high variability of pulmonary function tests in the past, resulting from lack of uniform specifications for equipment calibration checks, test procedures, and personnel training (43 FR 27391). To improve the accuracy and consistency of pulmonary function testing, OSHA mandated specific requirements in the Cotton Dust Standard based on recommendations from the American Thoracic Society (ATS) and the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) (43 FR 27391; 29 CFR 1910.1043, Appendix D). Since 1978, pulmonary function testing procedures and technology have evolved significantly, and some of the mandates in the Cotton Dust Standard now are outdated. OSHA is proposing to update the lung function testing requirements for the Cotton Dust Standard to make them consistent with current practices and technology.
OSHA based the proposed revisions to the Cotton Dust Standard pulmonary function testing requirements on current recommendations from the American Thoracic Society/European Respiratory Society (ATS/ERS), NIOSH, and the American College of Occupational and Environmental Medicine (ACOEM). Each of these organizations is a recognized authority on generally accepted practices in pulmonary function testing. In the following discussion, references to generally accepted practices refer to only those practices recommended by ATS/ERS, NIOSH, or ACOEM.
Like other respiratory diseases, byssinosis can slow the speed of expired air and/or reduce the volume of air that can be inspired and then exhaled. To detect and monitor these impairments, spirometry measures the maximal volume and speed of air that is forcibly exhaled after taking a maximal inspiration. Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) is defined as total exhaled volume after full inspiration. Speed of expired air is determined by dividing the volume of air exhaled in the first second,
Currently, § 1910.1043(h)(2)(iii) requires that health care providers conducting medical surveillance compare the employees' values to the predicted values in Appendix C of the standard. Appendix C currently contains predicted values derived from equations published by Knudson
OSHA is proposing to revise this provision to specify use of the third National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES III) reference data set and to replace the values currently in Appendix C with the NHANES III values, derived from Spirometric Reference Values from a Sample of the General U.S. Population (Hankinson
OSHA also proposes to make a correction to § 1910.1043, Appendix B-II, Section B, “Occupational History Table”. The table's column titled “Tenure of Employment” contains boxes in which dates of employment are entered. To allow the entry of dates that occurred later than 1999, OSHA would change the column's two sub-headers to
As noted above, OSHA is incorporating the Spirometric Reference Values from a Sample of the General U.S. Population (Hankinson JL, Odencrantz JR, Fedan KB. American Journal of Respiratory and Critical Care Medicine, 159(1):179-187, January 1999). These values are also available to interested parties at
Section 1910.1043(h)(2)(iii) currently specifies that FEV1 and FVC predicted values be multiplied by 0.85 to obtain reference values for blacks because the Knudson data set contains reference values only for Caucasians. However, such an adjustment for that race/ethnic group is no longer necessary because the NHANES III data set contains reference values for African Americans. However, the NHANES III data set does not contain reference values for Asian Americans, who typically have smaller lung volumes compared to Caucasians of the same age, height, and gender (Pellegrino
OSHA's proposal to replace the Knudson values currently in Appendix C with the NHANES III data set would simplify interpretation of spirometry results by providing reference values for more race/ethnic groups; however, neither the NHANES III nor the proposed correction factor addresses every race/ethnic group. Therefore, OSHA is proposing text that indicates comparison to “appropriate” race/ethnicity values for groups not included in NHANES III. For example, using Mexican-American values for non-Mexican-American Hispanic workers may be appropriate. Designations of race/ethnicity are self-reported by workers, and bi-racial or multi-racial workers should select the race category that best describes them. OSHA's guidance document provides some additional guidance on this topic, including a recommendation to use Caucasian reference values for Native American Indians (OSHA, 2013).
The software for most spirometers includes the NHANES III data set, which is identified as the Hankinson 1999 data set on some spirometers. If software for older spirometers does not include the NHANES III data set, users of those spirometers would be able to access the NHANES III values online through the NIOSH calculator (CDC/NIOSH, 2010). Tables of the NHANES III values are also available in an appendix to OSHA's spirometry guidance for healthcare professionals that is available online (OSHA, 2013). Therefore, NHANES III values are widely available to spirometry providers, including those providers using older spirometers.
Currently, paragraph (h)(2)(iii) requires an evaluation of pulmonary function testing values using predicted values of FVC and FEV1, which are the only reference values listed in the tables in current Appendix C. The NHANES III reference data set includes the lower limit of normal (LLN) as well as predicted values for FEV1, FVC, and the FEV1/FVC ratio. The LLN for these spirometry measurements represents the lower fifth percentile of a healthy (normal) population. That is, 95 percent of a healthy (normal) population should have spirometry values above the LLN, and spirometry values below the LLN could be abnormal (OSHA, 2013). Generally accepted practices by ATS/ERS, NIOSH, and ACOEM currently compare spirometry values to the LLN values to identify impaired pulmonary function.
In particular, ATS/ERS (Pellegrino
Therefore, OSHA is proposing to update (h)(2)(iii) to require an evaluation of FEV1, FVC, and FEV1/FVC against the LLN and percent predicted values to fully characterize possible pulmonary impairment in exposed workers, which is consistent with generally accepted current practices described above. OSHA's proposal to evaluate the FEV1/FVC ratio in addition to FEV1 and FVC will not affect triggers for changes in medical surveillance frequency or referral for a detailed pulmonary examination, because the standard bases those triggers solely on FEV1 values.
However, OSHA is also proposing to change the triggers for the frequency of medical surveillance. Currently, paragraphs (h)(3)(ii)(A) and (B) of the standard require frequency of medical surveillance based in part on whether the FEV1 is above or below 80 percent of the predicted value. OSHA is proposing that the basis for frequency of medical surveillance be whether the FEV1 is above or below the LLN. As noted above, generally accepted practices currently use the LLN as the basis for classifying possibly abnormal lung function. Pulmonary function normally declines with age, and the LLN better accounts for age-related declines than the current standard (Townsend
Section 1910.1043, Appendix D, sets standards for spirometric measurements of pulmonary function. OSHA is basing the proposed changes to Appendix D on the most recent spirometry recommendations from ATS/ERS (Miller
Current Appendix D(I)(b) specifies volume capacity for spirometers, and the proposed revision would change it from seven to eight liters. Current Appendix D(I)(e) specifies flow rates for flow-type spirometers, and the proposed revision would change it from 12 to 14 liters per second. These proposed revisions to Appendix D(I)(b) and (e) reflect current recommendations by ATS/ERS (Miller
Current Appendix D(I)(g) requires either a tracing or display, and OSHA is proposing to revise this language to “paper tracing or real-time display.” When OSHA published the current standard in 1978, a pen linked to a physical strip chart generated tracings of expiration curves on graph paper during pulmonary testing. In contrast, most current flow-type and volume-type spirometers use computer-generated displays of expiration curves projected on the spirometer or on an attached computer screen.
OSHA is proposing to add size specifications for computer-generated displays, the technology most often used today (Miller
Appendix D(I)(g) also requires the spirometer to display flow versus volume or volume versus time tracings. The proposed revision would require the spirometer to display both flow-volume and volume-time curves or tracings during testing. The flow-volume curve emphasizes early expiration and allows the technician to detect problems early in the maneuver (OSHA, 2013). The volume-time curve emphasizes the end of the expiration and allows the technician to coach the patient to achieve a complete expiration (OSHA, 2013). OSHA is also proposing to update the paragraph to indicate that both types of curves or tracings must be stored and available for recall. This requirement to store curves will allow the assessment of results for acceptability and repeatability, once testing is concluded, and it will also make it possible to include the curves in reports to health care providers who interpret the results (OSHA, 2013).
Current Appendix D(I)(h) requires that instruments be capable of accumulating volume for a minimum of 10 seconds and not stop accumulating volume before (1) the volume change for a 0.5-second interval is less than 25 millimeters, or (2) the flow is less than 50 milliliters per second for a 0.5-second interval. As noted by ATS in 1987, these end-of-test criteria, which were first included in the 1979 ATS statement, caused premature termination of exhalation and FVCs that were falsely reduced by as much as 9 percent (ATS, 1987). To avoid such falsely reduced FVCs, ATS defined end-of-test criteria only according to volume change from 1987 onward (ATS 1987, 1994, 2005). Therefore, OSHA is proposing to update the first clause by specifying the currently recommended volume change of less than 25 milliliters for a 1-second interval (Miller et al, 2005) and is also proposing to remove the latter clause,
Current Appendix D(I)(j), (II)(b), and (IV)(b) provide requirements for the calibration of spirometers, and the proposal updates several of these requirements. The proposed revisions to Appendix D(I)(j), (II)(b), and (IV)(b) clarify that the technician must always check the calibration of spirometers, and recalibrate them only if the spirometer requires the technician to do so. That change is consistent with recommendations by ATS/ERS (Miller
OSHA is proposing to delete the following text from Appendix D(I)(j) because it is ambiguous and provides no useful information: “. . . with respect to the FEV1 and FVC. This calibration of the FEV1 and FVC may be either directly or indirectly through volume and time base measurements.” OSHA also is proposing to update paragraph D(I)(j) to include the current ATS/ERS requirements for calibration-syringe accuracy and volume displacement (Miller
In addition, OSHA proposes to change the word “should” in D(I)(j) to “shall,” so the new D(I)(j)(2) would read, “the volume-calibration syringe shall provide a volume displacement of at least 3 liters and shall be accurate to within ± 0.5 percent of 3 liters (15 milliliters).” The phrase “should” sounds advisory, and the current practices that OSHA proposes to adopt are based on the 3 liter size of the syringe. OSHA seeks comment on this change to “shall.”
Current Appendix D(II)(b) provides that technicians should perform calibrations using a syringe or other source of at least two liters. The proposed change in the syringe volume to three liters is consistent with current practices. OSHA also is proposing to change the term “syringe or other volume source” to “syringe” for the reasons described above in the discussion of paragraph D(I)(j). Another proposed change to Appendix D(II)(b) would be to delete the phrase “or method.” The meaning of that phrase is unclear; the sentence is addressing calibration checks of an instrument (
Appendix D(II)(a) currently contains requirements for measuring forced expirations, including having the patient make at least three forced expirations. OSHA is proposing to update this paragraph to have the patient perform at least three, but no more than eight, forced expirations during testing. This proposed change would clarify that up to eight forced expirations can be attempted to obtain three acceptable forced expirations (Miller
Appendix D(II)(a)(3) currently specifies that a worker's efforts during testing are unacceptable when the expiration does not continue for at least five seconds or until an obvious plateau in the volume-time curve occurs. The proposed revision to this paragraph clarifies that results may be acceptable if the worker
Appendix D(II)(a)(4) provides that the results are unacceptable when the worker coughs or closes the glottis during forced expiration. This proposed change clarifies that the results are unacceptable if coughing occurs in the first second of expiration, a condition that is consistent with current ATS/ERS recommendations (Miller
Appendix D(II)(a)(6) provides that the results are unacceptable when there is an unsatisfactory start to expiration characterized by excessive hesitation,
As stated above, Appendix D(II)(a)(7) contains criteria for acceptable repeatability. Editorial changes proposed in Appendix D(II)(a)(7) are for clarification. Notably, OSHA would remove the word “three” because technicians can examine up to eight acceptable curves to select the two highest FEV1 and FVC values (Miller
In Appendix D(II)(a)(7), OSHA also is proposing to revise the maximum difference between the two largest FVC values and the two largest FEV1 values of a satisfactory test to 150 milliliters, a change from the current maximum difference of 10 percent or ±100 milliliters, whichever is greater. This proposed revision to the criteria for acceptable repeatability reflects current ATS/ERS recommendations (Miller
The Agency discussed proposed changes to Appendix D(II)(b) above.
OSHA is proposing to remove Appendix D(III)(b). The paragraph refers to a NIOSH guideline that specifies an outdated evaluation criterion of FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.75 percent, and OSHA is unaware of an updated NIOSH cotton dust guideline that more appropriately compares the FEV1/FVC ratio to LLN. As noted above, generally accepted practices use the LLN as the basis for classifying possibly abnormal lung function because it accounts for age-related declines in lung function (Townsend, 2011). Appendix D(III)(b) also refers to a table that OSHA never included in the final Cotton Dust
The proposed updates to paragraphs D(IV)(a) and (d) would change “reproducibility” to “repeatability” to conform to the terminology now used by ATS/ERS (Miller
Existing requirements in the sanitation standard for Shipyard Employment, § 1915.88(j)(1) and (j)(2), specify that employers must, to the extent reasonably practicable, clean and maintain workplaces in a manner that prevents vermin infestation. When employers detect vermin, they must implement and maintain an effective vermin-control program.
Paragraph (b)(33) of § 1915.80 defines the term “vermin” as “insects, birds, and other animals, such as rodents and feral cats, that may create safety and health hazards for employees.” OSHA included this definition in the proposal for 29 CFR part 1915, subpart F, General Working Conditions in Shipyard Employment, on December 20, 2007 (72 FR 72452). In that NPRM, OSHA requested comment on the proposed vermin-control provisions, as well as examples of vermin that are present and the types of controls employers use to prevent the harborage of vermin in shipyard worksites.
Recently, stakeholders raised concerns about including feral cats in the definition of vermin. These stakeholders argue that while the possibility exists for feral cats to pose safety and health hazards for employees (
Under 29 CFR 1926.50, employers must provide specified medical services and first aid to employees to address serious injuries that may occur on the job. Existing § 1926.50(f) requires the posting of telephone numbers of physicians, hospitals, or ambulances for worksites located in areas where 911 emergency service is not available. OSHA adopted this requirement in 1979 when 911 emergency service was still a relatively new concept, and was available only in certain parts of the country.
Today, 911 emergency service is available almost everywhere in North America. In nearly all locations in the United States and Canada, a 911 call over a land-line telephone will link the caller to an emergency-dispatch center. In the United States, most localities with 911 service also have so-called “Enhanced 911,” which will not only connect the land-line caller to a dispatcher, but also will automatically provide the caller's location to the emergency dispatcher. This automatic-location information is critical for emergency responders in cases when the 911 caller does not know his/her exact location, or does not have sufficient time to provide such information.
Although the automatic transmission of location information to emergency dispatchers is customary for land-line telephones, the task of automatically transmitting location information is more complex when the emergency call originates from a wireless telephone. Since 1996, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) has been phasing in the requirement that wireless carriers adopt technologies that provide 911 caller-location information. However, carriers are not likely to complete the phase-in until 2019; consequently, the FCC established a procedure for exempting carriers from the location requirement. As a result, in some remote areas of the country, wireless-telephone carriers still are unable to provide accurate information about the location of the 911 caller to 911 answering centers. The proposed revision to § 1926.50(f) updates the 911 service-posting requirements consistent with the current status of land-line and wireless-telephone technologies.
The proposed standard addresses the problem of locating callers, usually cell-phone callers, in remote areas that do not have automatic-location capability. In such areas, the proposed standard requires employers to post in a conspicuous location either the latitude and longitude of the worksite or other location-identification information that effectively communicates the location of the worksite. OSHA notes that when ACCSH discussed this proposal, one member stated that he had seen a contractor provide latitude and longitude coordinates at a remote site on stickers given to employees. (ACCSH Aug. 23, 2013 transcript, p. 85.) Employers can obtain information about which counties, or portions of counties, are exempted from the 911 location accuracy requirements from FCC PS Docket No. 07-114, which is publicly available on the FCC's Electronic Comment Filing System (ECFS) Web page:
The proposed revision also requires employers to ensure that the communication system they use to contact ambulance service is effective. Under existing § 1926.50(e), employers are required to provide a communication system for contacting ambulance service, or proper equipment for transportation of an injured person. When using wireless telephones as a communication system, however, that system's availability varies based on the location of the caller. If an employer is relying upon a communication system at a worksite, it must be effective at the worksite. The Agency is retaining the requirement to post telephone numbers of physicians, hospitals, or ambulances for worksites located in areas where 911 emergency service is not available.
The provisions of § 1926.55 establish permissible exposure limits for numerous toxic chemicals used during construction activities. These provisions are the construction counterpart to the general industry standard at § 1910.1000. However, OSHA believes that several of these provisions, notably paragraph (a), paragraph (c), and Appendix A to § 1926.55, need clarification. In this regard, OSHA believes, first, that the use of the phrase “threshold limit values” and the reference to the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH), in both paragraph (a) and Appendix A, are confusing. Since these are OSHA standards, the correct terminology to express these limits is “permissible exposure limits,” and the proposed revision makes this revision. Moreover, while OSHA originally adopted these limits from ACGIH recommendations, the limits are OSHA, not ACGIH, requirements. Therefore, the proposed revision deletes the references to ACGIH.
Second, the phrase “shall be avoided” in paragraph (a) has an advisory, rather than a mandatory, connotation and, therefore, is not appropriate in regulatory text. OSHA is proposing to revise this language to read, “An employee's exposure . . . must at no time exceed the exposure limit given for that substance.”
Third, the words “inhalation, ingestion, skin absorption, or contact” in paragraph (a) are redundant and confusing. In addition, the concentrations listed are airborne values, and the standard addresses exposure through any route. Therefore, the proposed language deletes these words.
Fourth, Appendix A is not an appendix but an integral part of the standard. The proposal, therefore, would acknowledge this relationship by revising the heading to read, “Table A.”
Fifth, Appendix A (proposed Table A) has a column labelled “Skin Designation” under which an “X” demarcates certain substances, although the appendix provides no definition of “X.” The 1970 ACGIH publication, however, notes that the “X” identifies substances that present a dermal hazard. The proposed revision adds a footnote to the proposed table that clarifies the meaning of this designation.
Sixth, Appendix A (proposed Table A) has two footnotes designated by asterisks. However, there are no asterisks in the body of the appendix referencing these footnotes. The first footnote, consisting of a single asterisk, says, “The PELs are 8-hour TWAs unless otherwise noted; a (C) designation denotes a ceiling limit.” The second footnote, consisting of two asterisks, states, “As determined from breathing-zone air samples.” The proposed revision deletes these two footnotes, and moves the content of the footnotes to proposed paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of § 1926.55.
Finally, OSHA is proposing to correct the cross-references to OSHA's construction asbestos standard in paragraph (c) and in Appendix A (proposed Table A). The correct cross reference is: § 1926.1101.
To avoid unnecessary duplication, OSHA is proposing to replace the entire 31 pages of regulatory text for the Process Safety Management of Highly Hazardous Chemicals (PSM) Standard for construction at § 1926.64 with a cross reference to the identical general industry standard at § 1910.119. Other construction standards have similar cross references to corresponding general industry standards; for example, the Respiratory Protection Standard for construction at § 1926.103 refers to the general industry Respiratory Protection Standard at § 1910.134.
OSHA believes that it is unnecessary to reproduce the entire PSM Standard in 29 CFR part 1926 because construction employers rarely have a PSM program at their worksites. The PSM standard affects construction employers mainly through paragraph (h),
Current § 1926.95(a) of the construction personal protective equipment (PPE) standard states that PPE “shall be provided, used, and maintained in a sanitary and reliable condition wherever it is necessary.” PPE must fit properly in order to provide adequate protection to employees. This can be a particular issue for small-stature construction workers, including some females, who may not be able to use standard-size PPE. Section 1926.95(c)'s requirement that PPE to be “of safe design” implicitly precludes the use of ill-fitting equipment. However, OSHA's construction standard does not contain an explicit requirement for PPE used in construction to fit each affected employee, like the general industry PPE standard does (see 29 CFR 1910.132(d)(1)(iii)).
Several commenters responding to the request for information for this rulemaking, including the AFL-CIO and the International Safety Equipment Association, recommended that the Agency revise its construction PPE standards to ensure that PPE fits all construction employees (Exs. OSHA-2012-0007-0012 and -0018).
Revising § 1926.95(c) to require employers to select PPE that properly fits each employee will clarify the construction PPE requirements on this point and make them consistent with general industry PPE requirements. The Agency believes that providing clear and explicit language on this point will help ensure employers provide employees with properly fitting PPE, thereby adequately protecting employees exposed to hazards requiring PPE. The proposed language, therefore, merely clarifies, and makes explicit, the requirement that all PPE used in construction fit properly.
OSHA is proposing to revise the minimum breaking-strength requirement for lifelines in the Safety belts, lifelines, and lanyards standard, § 1926.104(c), to 5,000 pounds. This proposed revision will bring § 1926.104(c) into conformity with the breaking-strength requirements for lanyards and vertical lifelines in the Fall protection systems criteria and practices (“Fall Protection”) standard at § 1926.502(d)(9). The Agency concludes that making identical specifications for the same equipment will avoid confusion and, thereby, improve compliance.
The breaking strength of a lifeline is the maximum load that it can carry without failing or breaking. Under existing § 1926.104(c), the minimum breaking-strength requirement is 5,400 pounds. As noted by OSHA in the proposed Fall Protection standard published on November 25, 1986 (51 FR 42718, 42726), the Agency based the 5,400-pound requirement on the breaking strength of the then-available
The provisions regarding accident prevention signs, signals, and barricades in 29 CFR 1926.200(g), 201 and 202, subpart G (Signs, Signals, and Barricades), contain requirements for employers' use of accident prevention signs, tags, signaling and barricades. These provisions require that traffic control signs and devices used for the protection of workers, barricades used for the protection of workers, and signaling by flaggers and the use of flaggers, including warning garments worn by flaggers, comply with the mandatory provisions of either of two versions of Part VI of the MUCTD. Employers may comply with Part VI of the 1988 Edition, Revision 3, September 3, 1993, MUTCD (“1988 Edition”) or the Millennium Edition, December 2000 MUTCD (“Millennium Edition”).
Several commenters to the SIP-IV Request for Information (77 FR 72781), including the AFL-CIO (OSHA-2012-0007-0012), the Laborers' Health and Safety Fund of North America (OSHA-2012-0007-0011), and the American Road and Transportation Builders Association (OSHA-2012-0007-0025), asked OSHA to update subpart G because the Department of Transportation (DOT) updated the MUTCD in 2009. These revisions aimed to expedite traffic, promote uniformity, improve safety, and incorporate technology advances in traffic control device application (74 FR 66730). In addition, DOT issued two revisions to the MUTCD in 2012 (77 FR 28455 and 77 FR 28460).
OSHA is proposing revisions to Subpart G, including an update to the references to the MUTCD to the November 4, 2009 MUTCD (“2009 Edition”), including Revision 1 dated May 2012 and Revision 2 dated May 2012. Updating the reference to the 2009 Edition MUTCD will eliminate confusion as to which edition employers must comply with, and will inform employers that compliance with DOT regulations will not conflict with outdated OSHA regulations.
OSHA believes that the Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices is reasonably available to interested parties. It is available from the Federal Highway Administration, United States Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE., Washington, DC 20590; telephone: 202-366-4000; Web site:
DOT requires that traffic control signs or devices conform to the 2009 Edition
The differences between OSHA's standards that reference the 1988 Edition and the Millennium Edition MUTCDs and DOT's regulations cause potential industry confusion and inefficiency, without advancing worker safety. Accordingly, in Directive CPL 02-01-054, dated October 16, 2012, OSHA stated that it would accept compliance with the 2009 Edition in lieu of compliance with the 1988 Edition or Millennium Edition MUTCDs referenced in § 1926.200(g) through its
OSHA reviewed the differences between the 1988 Edition, the Millennium Edition, and the 2009 Edition, and concluded that the more recently published manual will provide greater employee safety benefits than the older versions. The 2009 revisions to the MUTCD largely make the document more accessible and account for advances in technology. A comparison of the 1988 and 2009 Editions shows few new requirements; rather, the document is easier to use, with more guidance and supporting material available. The MUTCD is a complex document comprised of standards, guidance, and supporting material. Under § 1926.6(a), OSHA's Subpart G provisions incorporate by reference only the mandatory provisions of the MUTCD,
The revisions to the 1988 and Millennium Editions that affect worker safety are minimal. DOT identified the following areas as significant revisions that relate to work safety in the final rule (74 FR 66730):
• The needs and control of all road users through a temporary traffic-control (TTC) zone apply to all public facilities and private property open to public travel, in addition to highways.
• Federal Highway Administration (FHWA) allows non-compliant devices on existing highways and bikeways to be brought into compliance with the current edition of the MUTCD as part of the systematic upgrading of substandard traffic control devices (and installation of new required traffic control devices) required pursuant to the Highway Safety Program, 23 U.S.C. 402(a). If the FHWA establishes a target compliance date for upgrading such devices, traffic control devices shall be in compliance by that date. (These target compliance dates established by the FHWA are shown in Table I-2 of the 2009 Edition.)
• Workers within the public right-of-way must use high-visibility safety apparel.
• There is a new section titled “Automated Flagger Assistance Devices” (AFAD). These optional devices enable a flagger to assume a position out of the lane of traffic when controlling road users through TTC zones.
• New requirements that flaggers shall use a “STOP/SLOW” paddle, flag, or AFAD to control road users; the 2009 Edition prohibits the use of hand movements alone. In the previous editions, it was not clear that hand signals alone were insufficient.
• All devices used for lane channelization (
• Temporary traffic barriers, including their end treatments (such as an impact attenuator), must be crashworthy.
There was one major revision to the MUTCD, the 2003 Edition, between the Millennium Edition and the 2009 Edition. OSHA is providing a list of the changes between the 2003 Edition and the 2009 Edition in the record (find 2009 Edition figure changes at
The proposed revision explicitly requires that employers use traffic control devices at points of hazard. Accordingly, OSHA is proposing to revise paragraph (g)(1) to require employers to use both signs and devices at points of hazard. While paragraph (g)(2) would still cover the misuse of signs and devices, the proposal would revise this paragraph too. Proposed paragraph 200(g)(2) would clarify that it covers the design and use of traffic-control devices, and would add a list of those devices: Signs, signals, markings, barricades, and other devices. Consistent with these revisions, OSHA would also revise the headings of § 1926.200 and paragraph (g) by adding the term “devices” to these headings. The Agency would retain the requirement that signs be legible. These changes would clarify the requirements for signs and devices.
In summary, OSHA is proposing to amend the safety and health regulations for construction to adopt and incorporate the 2009 Edition of the MUTCD and clarify the regulatory text. The revisions would delete the references in §§ 1926.200(g)(2) and 1926.201(a) to the 1988 Edition and Millennium Edition of the MUTCD and insert references to the 2009 Edition. The revisions also would amend the regulatory text of paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of § 1926.200 to eliminate confusion regarding OSHA's interpretation of the current text. The proposal deletes § 1926.202 because it duplicates the requirements in the proposed revisions to § 1926.200(g) and § 1926.203 because the proposed revisions make this section unnecessary.
Subpart H of OSHA's construction standards governs the handling, storage, use, and disposal of construction materials on a work site. Section 1926.250 addresses safe storage of building materials inside buildings under construction, and § 1926.250(a)(2) requires employers to post maximum safe load limits of floors in storage areas. This requirement is important in large buildings under construction because employers store large, heavy quantities of building materials in these structures to accommodate construction staging and schedules. However, requiring employers to post safe load limits is unnecessary in single-family home construction because employers do not use these structures for storing heavy materials that could endanger employees working at lower levels should the floor collapse. Therefore, OSHA is proposing to exclude detached, single-family residences and townhouses from the posting requirement.
OSHA finds that the proposed revision will lessen the compliance burden of employers without jeopardizing the safety of employees. While OSHA believes that employers involved in residential-building construction do not place heavy loads on the floors of these structures, the proposed revision does not relieve these employers of the duty to ensure that any loads placed on these floors do not exceed the maximum safe loads of the floors.
Paragraphs (j)(1) and (j)(2) of § 1926.651 specify requirements for employers to protect employees from (1) loose rock or soil in excavations, and (2) excavated or other materials or equipment that could fall or roll into an excavation. Similar provisions were part of OSHA's subpart P Excavation standard originally issued under the Construction Safety Act in 1971 as 29 CFR 1518.651(h) and (i) (36 FR 7340, 7389, April 17, 1971), and OSHA retained them when it revised the standard in 1989 (54 FR 45894, Oct. 31, 1989). The original 1971 standard placed the burden on employers to ensure employees' safety from loose rock and soil, and excavated or other materials, in or around excavations (36 FR 7340, 7389). The 1989 revision added to the paragraphs (j)(1) and (j)(2) the phrase “that could pose a hazard” when referring to loose rock or soil and excavated or other materials or equipment (54 FR 45894, 45924-45925).
A number of decisions by administrative law judges of the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission (OSHRC) have interpreted the added phrase in the standard as placing the burden on OSHA to establish that loose rock or soil or excavated or other material or equipment poses a hazard to employees before it can establish a violation of §§ 1926.651(j)(1) and (j)(2). (See,
Section 1926.651(j)(1) applies to loose rock or soil that can fall from the face of the excavation. The preamble to the 1989 revision states that this provision does not apply to all excavations, only those excavations with loose rock or soil of “sufficient volume [to] endanger an employee” (54 FR 45894, 45924). It is the employer's duty to assess whether (1) the rock or soil is loose and (2) of sufficient volume to potentially endanger or injure employees in the excavation. The proposed revision would remove the phrase “that could pose a hazard,” but would keep the language limiting this provision to loose rock or soil. As noted in the previous paragraph, removing the language “that could pose a hazard” from the provision would preserve the duty of employers to protect workers from the hazard, while relieving OSHA of the initial burden of demonstrating that a hazard exists. OSHA also is proposing to remove the language “by falling or rolling from an” from the provision as that language is unnecessary to describe the hazard; however, OSHA is proposing to retain the term “excavation face” in the provision to clarify the location of the hazard.
Section 1926.651(j)(2) applies to excavated materials (“spoil piles”) or other materials or equipment that are on the surface near the excavation. Employers must keep these piles, and other materials or equipment, at least two feet from the edge of the excavation, or prevent them from moving by using retaining devices. Excavated soil is loose and may present a hazard to workers in an excavation. As explained in the preamble to the 1989 revision:
The intent of this requirement is to protect employees from materials, equipment, and spoil piles which might fall into excavations. Obviously, materials such as excavated soil and stored construction supplies can superimpose loads on the walls of an excavation. Such loads can be the cause of cave-ins and must be considered when determining what protection is necessary to safeguard employees.
The proposed revision would remove the phrase “that could pose a hazard by falling or rolling into excavations,” but would retain the language “excavated or other materials or equipment,” from the first sentence in paragraph (j)(2). The proposed language would keep the remaining language in the paragraph, including the two-foot rule, and would remove from OSHA the burden of demonstrating that a hazard exists, while retaining the employers' duty to protect employees from the hazards of excavated or other materials or
Existing regulatory language in § 1926.800(k)(10)(ii) requires that mobile diesel-powered equipment used in “other than gassy operations” underground be approved by the Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA) in accordance with the provisions of 30 CFR part 32, or that the employer that demonstrate the equipment is “fully equivalent” to MSHA-approved equipment. In 1996, MSHA revoked part 32 and replaced it with updated provisions in 30 CFR part 7, subpart E and 30 CFR 75.1909 Non-permissible diesel-powered equipment;
OSHA's existing regulatory language in § 1926.800(i)(2) requires that mobile diesel powered equipment used in “gassy operations” underground be approved by MSHA in accordance with the provisions of 30 CFR part 36, or that the employer demonstrate that the equipment is “fully equivalent” to MSHA-approved equipment. MSHA has also updated part 36. However, the reference in § 1926.800(i)(2) remains correct, and OSHA does not need to change the language to ensure employers are following MSHA's updated requirements.
Under 30 CFR 57.5067, all engines used in underground mines must have an affixed plate evidencing approval of the engine pursuant to 30 CFR part 7, subpart E or meet or exceed the applicable requirements of the EPA listed in MSHA Table 57.5067-1. To use equipment with non-permissible engines in non-gassy operations, the employer must ensure it meets the requirements listed in 30 CFR 75.1909, 75.1910, and 75.1911 for other machine features. If the employer wishes to use equipment with permissible engines, in gassy operations, it must ensure the equipment meets the requirements listed in 30 CFR part 36 for other machine features.
When MSHA revoked 30 CFR part 32 in 1996, it directed state and federal agencies that reference 30 CFR part 32 to 30 CFR part 7, subpart E and 30 CFR 75.1909 and 75.1910 (61 FR 55416). Accordingly, the proposal substitutes references to those sections for the reference to part 32. OSHA has also proposed including 30 CFR 75.1911(a)-(i) in the cross-reference because § 75.1909 requires certain equipment to have fire suppression systems in accordance with § 75.1911. To maintain the scope of 29 CFR 800(k)(10)(ii), OSHA is not proposing to incorporate § 75.1911 paragraphs (j) and (k) (regarding fire suppression systems on diesel-powered equipment), which are training and recordkeeping requirements that were not contained in the original 30 CFR part 32. In addition, OSHA is not proposing to incorporate § 75.1911(l), which addresses the interaction of that section with other MSHA requirements not relevant here. Thus, OSHA has not included paragraphs (j)-(l) in the cross reference.
If adopted, these changes will allow employers to use diesel-powered engines on mobile equipment in underground construction that meets current MSHA requirements.
The existing OSHA standard allows employers to use non-MSHA approved engines if they can demonstrate that they are fully equivalent. The existing standard and OSHA give no guidance how employers can make such a demonstration. OSHA believes that the allowance for engines that meet or exceed EPA requirements in MSHA Table 57.067-1 is a much more effective and simple way to allow the use of non-MSHA approved engines. OSHA solicits comments on whether employers do make such demonstrations and whether the use of EPA requirements will better effectuate a safe and healthful workplace.
For other machine features, the proposal requires that equipment with non-approved engines meeting the applicable EPA requirements must also meet the requirements of 30 CFR 75.1909, 75.1910, and 75.1911(a)-(i) for non-permissible engines used in “other than gassy” operations. Because these requirements list features, the only way for an employer to demonstrate equivalency is to show that the equipment has the required features, rendering the “fully equivalent” clause unnecessary as to “other machine features.” Therefore, because OSHA believes that the function of the current “fully equivalent” clause is captured by the updates to the referenced MSHA regulations, the Agency has not retained the language in the proposal.
Based on available information, OSHA has determined that currently manufactured equipment meets the proposed requirements and is generally compliant with the more stringent EPA Tier 3 and Tier 4 emission requirements (ERG, 2015). The Agency has therefore preliminarily concluded that all applicable new equipment currently available for in the market meets the proposed requirements. OSHA recognizes that there may be some employers using equipment that predates the newer MSHA standards, and the EPA requirements referenced in them. To avoid the costs of replacing existing equipment in use and are complaint with the current Standard, the Agency proposes to allow equipment purchased before the effective date of the final rule to continue to comply with the terms of existing § 1926.800(k)(10)(ii) (including having been approved by MSHA under 30 CFR part 32 (1995) or be determined to be equivalent to such MSHA-approved equipment). OSHA solicits comment on whether there are engines in use that meet the existing standard but will not meet the requirements of current MSHA standard and, if so, whether continued use of such equipment presents a serious safety or health hazard. OSHA also seeks comment on whether this proposed grandfathering is workable.
OSHA is proposing to revise subpart S—Underground Construction, Caissons, Cofferdams, and Compressed Air by replacing the decompression tables currently found in Appendix A to subpart S with the 1992 French Air and Oxygen decompression tables. OSHA is also requesting comment on whether the following decompression tables should also be permitted as substitutes for the existing tables in Appendix A: The Edel-Kindwall (NIOSH) tables, the Blackpool (British) tables, and the German Standard Decompression tables. OSHA has preliminarily concluded that the French tables provide safer decompression practices than the OSHA decompression tables currently found in Appendix A to subpart S. OSHA proposes to revise § 1926.803(f)(1) to require employers to follow the 1992
The current decompression tables in OSHA's subpart S standard were developed by Washington state. According to a NIOSH Request for Information (77 FR 74193), the Washington state Decompression Tables were used by several states prior to 1971, when OSHA adopted them as the federal requirement in Appendix A to subpart S. These tables were adopted under section 6(a) of the OSH Act, which permitted the Agency, for a two-year period, to adopt then-current consensus standards as its own without notice and comment rulemaking. The tables in Appendix A prescribe decompression by reducing the pressure that workers are exposed to at intervals in accordance with the schedule in the tables. The current tables address exposures ranging from half an hour to over eight hours, with only one decompression schedule for exposures of greater than eight hours. Subpart S prohibits employee exposures to compressed air environments of greater than 50 pounds per square inch (p.s.i) (§ 1926.803(e)(5)).
Employers in the tunneling construction industry have requested variances from the underground construction standards in subpart S from federal OSHA as well as states with State Plans. The requests seek a variance to use decompression tables other than those found in Appendix A to subpart S as well as other provisions in the underground standards. In their requests, employers in the industry assert that using other decompression tables is safer than using OSHA's current decompression tables. Also of note, many of the tunneling projects have working pressures ahead of the drill head higher than 50 p.s.i.—so none of the tables in Appendix A would be appropriate or safe. The variance requests suggest that using tables that provide for decompression from environments under pressure greater than 50 p.s.i. and provide staged decompression (stopping workers at set depths and pressures to prevent decompression illness (DCI)), with an enriched oxygen atmosphere, provide greater protection to employees from DCI. The decompression tables that were developed after the 1970s use elevated levels of oxygen to aid in the decompression process.
The ineffectiveness of the current OSHA tables for preventing DCI is discussed in a 1986 study by Gregory J. Downs and Edel P. Kindwall. During a tunneling project in Milwaukee where pressures ranged from 28 psig to 43 psig and the current OSHA tables were used for decompression, 33 percent of tunneling workers examined experienced aseptic necrosis, a form of DCI also known as dysbaric osteonecrosis that causes portions of the bone tissue to die.
On May 23, 2014 OSHA granted a permanent variance to an underground construction contractor allowing, among other things, the employer to use the 1992 French decompression tables (79 FR 29809). In granting this variance, OSHA found that if the employer followed the requirements of the variance, including the French decompression tables, the working conditions for employees would be at least as safe as following OSHA's standard (79 FR 29816). OSHA granted similar variances for other projects on March 27, 2015 (80 FR 16440), and August 20, 2015 (80 FR 50652). On July 27, 2015, OSHA published a
On December 15, 2011, the Seattle Tunnel and Tail Team gave a presentation to the Advisory Committee on Construction Safety and Health (ACCSH), titled
The 1992 French decompression tables replaced an older series of tables from 1974. The French Ministry of Labor revised the earlier tables when a number of cases of DCI occurred during an underground construction project.
The review conducted by OSHA found several studies supporting the determination that the 1992 French Decompression Tables result in a lower rate of DCI than the decompression tables specified by the standard. For example, H. L. Andersen studied the occurrence of DCI at maximum hyperbaric pressures ranging from 4 p.s.i.g. to 43 p.s.i.g. during construction of the Great Belt Tunnel in Denmark in 1992-1996.
During decompressions under the May 23, 2014 variance to Tully/OHL USA Joint Venture, which allowed use of the French decompression tables during hyperbaric operations, the Tully/OHL reported no instances of DCI using the French tables.
State-Plan states have also granted variances to entities asking to use the 1992 French Air and Oxygen Decompression tables. On June 25, 2007, Washington state granted a permanent variance to VCGP/Parsons RCI/Frontier-Kemper, JV that allowed, among other things, the use of the 1992 French Air and Oxygen decompression tables. Based on its research, the state of Washington determined that “decompression using oxygen is much more effective in purging the body of residual nitrogen,” concluding that the French tables were at least as effective as the decompression tables in their standard (OSHA-2012-0036-0009). Similarly, Nevada (OSHA-2012-0036-0006) and Oregon (OSHA-2012-0036-0007) approved variance requests to use the French tables.
Based on a review of available evidence, the experience of State-Plan states (discussed above) that granted variances (Nevada, Oregon, and Washington) for hyperbaric exposures occurring during similar subaqueous tunnel-construction work, and OSHA's previously issued variance allowing use the French Decompression Tables, OSHA is proposing to replace the tables in Appendix A with the 1992 French Decompression Tables, which will be incorporated by reference into § 1926.803(f)(1).
In 2003, Valerie Flook published “
The Flook study concluded that “[t]he range of gas volumes predicted for most exposures is small and it is unlikely that the different [decompression] profiles could be distinguished. . . .” (Flook, 2003, 34). The British, French, Edel-Kindwall, and German tables, among others, all achieved a quantity of nitrogen gas bubbles that was within the same range. Similar to the French tables, the British and German tables also address decompression at greater pressures than 50 p.s.i. and for durations longer than eight hours, while the Edel-Kindwall tables do not. OSHA is seeking comment on whether the Edel-Kindwall, British, and/or German tables should be included as options in the OSHA standard. OSHA also seeks any scientific information beyond the Flook study demonstrating the effectiveness of these tables in preventing DCI. If OSHA were to add any of these tables (British, Edel-Kindwall, and/or German) to § 1926.803 in addition to the French tables, then employers would be able choose any of the added tables to decompress employees. OSHA provides more information about each below.
OSHA asks for comment on whether the Edel-Kindwall decompression tables should (also) be included as a replacement for the tables in Appendix A of subpart S. The Edel-Kindwall tables were developed in response to several tunneling workers experiencing DCI using the current OSHA decompression tables. Between 1971 and 1973 during a tunneling project in Milwaukee, Wisconsin, workers experienced aseptic necrosis, when using the current OSHA decompression tables. This incident prompted NIOSH to determine if alternate decompression tables could be developed.
NIOSH awarded a contract to Eric Kindwall to develop staged decompression tables. The tables, later known as the Edel-Kindwall decompression tables, included the use of oxygen because it shortened decompression time considerably, from over 10 hours to less than four hours. A 1986 study by Kindwall and Gregory J. Downs tested the effectiveness of the Edel-Kindwall tables to eliminate nitrogen from the body and reduce instances of DCI. Six human subjects were compressed for this experiment. While compressed, each subject simulated work conditions for four hours. After performing many activities to establish baseline information for each subject, they were decompressed in accordance with the OSHA or Edel-Kindwall air and oxygen tables. The comparison of the OSHA tables and the Edel-Kindwall air table ability to eliminate nitrogen from the body resulted in “no statistical difference” between the two tables. The comparison of the OSHA tables and the Edel-Kindwall oxygen table showed that the Edel-Kindwall oxygen table was “more efficient in eliminating nitrogen” than the OSHA tables. Kindwall and Downs concluded that their “data is definitive enough to for immediate acceptance of this table for use by the construction industry.” Although Kindwall and Downs expressed some concerns regarding the cost of equipment, oxygen toxicity and flammability, they did not believe these potential concerns outweighed the “shorter decompression times and reduced morbidity” offered by the Edel-Kindwall tables.
The Edel-Kindwall tables have been approved as part of variance requests in some State Plan states. In its December 15, 2011 presentation, the Seattle Tunnel and Tail Team presented permanent variances—one from Oregon in 2004 and another from Washington in 2007—that approved the use of the Edel-Kindwall tables for underground
OSHA asks for comment on whether to (also) include the German decompression tables as a replacement for the tables in Appendix A of subpart S. These decompression tables were developed by Dr. Max Hahn.
OSHA asks for comment on whether the British Blackpool decompression tables should (also) be included as a replacement for the tables in Appendix A of subpart S. The Blackpool decompression tables were published in 1973 with air as the breathing gas for decompression.
Insofar as the Agency can find, underground projects which incorporate new tunneling technology have not followed OSHA's existing decompression tables, but have followed more recently developed tables. In each case, federal OSHA or a State Plan state has been persuaded by the available research and studies on the matter that the newer decompression methods better protect underground workers. (The states have either granted variances (discussed above) or promulgated a new standard (California
Given the evidence suggesting that other decompression tables are at least as safe and in many cases safer than OSHA's current decompression tables, OSHA asked for comment on this topic in its Standards Improvement Project—Phase IV, Request for Information (77 FR 72781; Dec. 6, 2012). OSHA received comments from various groups requesting that OSHA update or revise its decompression tables (OSHA-2012-0007-0011, -0016, -0017). All of the commenters stated that OSHA's current decompression tables were outdated and did not address the hazard of DCI as well as more recently developed decompression tables. NIOSH argues that updating the decompression tables in Appendix A will shorten the time needed for decompression and reduce the instances of decompression sickness (OSHA-2012-0007-0017). NIOSH recommended that OSHA take the following steps when updating its decompression tables: Require staged decompression, allow 100 percent oxygen use during decompression, vary the decompression schedule based on exposure time, and allow for greater pressures in underground construction projects. NIOSH also recommended that OSHA adopt the Edel-Kindwall tables. The Laborers' Health and Safety Fund of North America recommended that OSHA adopt the French and Tri-mix
OSHA must set safety standards that provide a high degree of worker protection (
Therefore, OSHA proposes to remove the decompression tables found in Appendix A of Subpart S and replace them with the 1992 French Air and Oxygen decompression tables. The French tables have been used most often in the U.S., and the Agency has collected more information on their safety. Regarding the request for comment on other identified tables, OSHA also asks whether it would be less confusing and easier for the tunneling industry to use one set of tables, rather than include more alternatives in the OSHA standard?
The tables will be posted in the docket of this proposal for commenters to view.
OSHA seeks comment on an alternative regulatory structure for regulating which decompression tables will be used to decompress workers from a compressed air environment. Under this structure, in addition to removing its current decompression tables, OSHA would also revise § 1926.803(f) to allow employers to use any decompression table that a qualified person determines will protect workers from instances of DCI on the project. The table used would have to meet accepted industry practices for prevent DCI in workers.
As discussed earlier, OSHA adopted the Washington state decompression tables into its regulations under section 6(a) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act. Although used by several states prior to their adoption, few, if any, studies regarding the effectiveness of the Washington state decompression tables were done prior to their adoption by OSHA. Instances of DCI using the current OSHA tables led NIOSH to support research that resulted in the creation of the Edel-Kindwall tables. Since then, several other tables have been developed that when used result in a lower incidence of DCI.
OSHA has granted variance requests from members of the underground construction industry asking, among other things, to use decompression tables that they believe are at least as effective as the current OSHA tables found in Appendix A of subpart S. On May 23, 2014, OSHA granted the variance request of Tully/OHL USA Joint Venture (79 FR 29809). Tully/OHL USA requested to use the 1992 French decompression tables, which permit both air and oxygen decompression. OSHA granted a variance to Traylor/Skanska/Jay Dee Joint Venture in which they also requested to use the 1992 French decompression tables, as well as the proprietary Trimix tables, in their variance application (80 FR 16440).
Given the numerous decompression tables that employers requests to use in variance applications, it appears that the industry does not believe there is one table that is applicable for all underground construction projects where workers may need to be decompressed. OSHA believes using a performance standard rather than specifying which table an employer must use may allow employers greater flexibility in providing safe decompression for their workers. OSHA requests comment on this regulatory approach.
OSHA believes that the 1992 French Decompression Tables included in this proposal are reasonably available to interested parties. The tables are published in the Official Journal of the French Republic, titled “Travaux en milieu hyperbare, measures particulières de prevention” (Work in hyperbaric environment, specific prevention measures). J. O. Rep. Franç. Brochure n° 1636, June 1992. The tables are available for purchase from the French government at
Subpart S—Underground Construction, Caissons, Cofferdams and Compressed Air also has several provisions that limit the quantities of oxygen that may be taken below ground and kept there. OSHA asks for comment on providing an exception to those requirements for purposes of maintaining oxygen on hand for decompression purposes, which would be necessary in a final rule as the updated tables discussed above require the use of oxygen.
Provisions in subpart W specify minimum performance criteria for rollover protective structures (ROPS) and overhead protection on construction equipment. The Agency is proposing to amend the existing standards 29 CFR 1926.1000, 1926.1001, 1926.1002 and 1926.1003 by removing the provisions that specify the test procedures and performance requirements, and replacing those provisions with references to the underlying consensus standards from which they were derived. The substantive differences between the consensus standards and OSHA's standards are minimal. The Agency is also proposing to remove irrelevant text from § 1926.1000.
The original source standards for the current subpart W requirements are the Society of Automotive Engineers Standards (“SAE”) J320a-1971, J394-1971, J395-1971, J396-1971, J334a-1970, J167-1970, J168-1970, and J397-1969. The American National Standards Institute and SAE subsequently canceled these standards. To design and develop new equipment the industry now uses the most recent International Organization for Standardization (“ISO”) standards: ISO 3471-2008; ISO 5700-2013; and ISO 27850-2013. Though the names of the construction equipment covered by the consensus standards have changed over time, OSHA believes that all the equipment listed in current § 1926.1001(a) is covered by one of those ISO standards. A comment from a representative of Caterpillar, Inc. stated that the SAE standards have either been cancelled or superseded by new ISO standards (OSHA-2012-0007-0009). OSHA reviewed the relevant standards and believes that the standards identified in the proposed revisions reflect the current design and development of ROPS for equipment covered by subpart W. OSHA preliminarily concludes that using the proposed ISO standards will be as protective as using the current OSHA standards. Therefore, OSHA is proposing that, for new equipment manufactured after the effective date of the revised standard, the performance measures for testing ROPS meet the ISO standards. This proposed incorporation by reference will eliminate over 20 pages of text and diagrams in the CFR.
OSHA proposes to rename § 1926.1000 as “Scope” because this more accurately describes what follows in this section. Proposed paragraph (a) lists the types of equipment currently covered by subpart W. It also adds compactors and rubber-tired skid-steer equipment manufactured after the effective date of the final rule, which existing § 1926.1000(a)(2) anticipates as a possible expansion of the scope. The most recent ISO standards apply to compactors and skid-steer loaders as well as the equipment included in the current standard, and based on interviews with several manufacturers OSHA preliminarily concludes that all compactors and skid steer loaders currently produced meet those requirements. Proposed paragraph (b) states which standards apply to equipment manufactured before the publication of a final rule. Proposed paragraph (c) states which standards
Currently, § 1926.1000(c) limits the application of the requirements of §§ 1926.1001 and 1926.1002 to equipment manufactured after July 1, 1969. The proposal eliminates this limitation because it is OHSA's understanding that there are not any pieces of covered equipment in operation today that are more than 45 years old and do not meet the SAE standards. OSHA seeks comment on whether this is so, and any data on the types and numbers of pre-1969, non-SAE compliant equipment currently in use.
Current § 1926.1001 provides ROPS requirements for rubber-tired self-propelled scrapers, rubber-tired front end loaders, rubber-tired dozers, crawler tractors, crawler-type loaders, and motor graders. The proposed rule deletes the current ROPS specifications for this equipment, and replaces it with a requirement that covered equipment manufactured before the effective date of the final rule comply with SAE J397-1969—Critical Zone—Characteristics and Dimensions for Operators of Construction and Industrial Machinery, SAE 320a-1970—Minimum Performance Criteria for Roll-Over Protective Structure for Rubber-Tired, Self-Propelled Scrapers, SAE J394-1970—Minimum Performance Criteria for Roll-Over Protective Structures for Rubber-Tired Front End Loaders and Rubber-Tired Dozers, SAE J395-1970—Minium Performance Criteria for Roll-Over Protective Structure for Crawler Tractors and Crawler-Type Loaders, and SAE J396-1970—Minimum Performance Criteria for Roll-Over Protective Structure for Motor Graders, as applicable. The proposal requires equipment manufactured after the effective date of the final rule (including compactors and rubber-tired skid steer equipment) to meet the requirements of ISO 3471-2008, Earth-moving machinery—Roll-over protective structures—Laboratory tests and performance requirements. This standard contains specifications for ROPS to protect employees. Because, as noted above, OSHA believes that covered equipment is already being manufactured to the requirements of ISO 3471-2008, the proposal provides the option for equipment manufactured before the effective date of the final rule to comply with the ISO standard rather than the SAE standards.
Current § 1926.1002 provides ROPS requirements for wheel-type agricultural equipment and industrial tractors used in construction. The proposed rule deletes the current ROPS specifications for this equipment, and replaces it with a requirement that covered equipment manufactured before the effective date of the final rule comply with SAE J168-1970-Protective Enclosures—Test Procedures and Performance Requirement and SAE J334a-1970-Protective Frame Test Procedures and Performance Requirements, as applicable. The proposal requires equipment manufactured after the effective date of the final rule meet the requirements of ISO 5700-2013, Tractors for agriculture and forestry—Roll-over protective structures—Static test method and acceptance conditions. This standard contains specifications for ROPS to protect employees. Because, as noted above, OSHA believes that covered equipment is already being manufactured to the requirements of ISO 5700-2013, the proposal provides the option for equipment manufactured before the effective date of the final rule to comply with the ISO standard rather than the SAE standards.
OSHA solicits comment on whether any equipment covered by § 1926.1002 that complies with ISO 3471-2008, the standard for earth-moving machinery should be considered in compliance for ROPS. OSHA asks this because ISO 3471-2008 requires testing at higher levels of energy than ISO-5700.
Current § 1926.1003 provides design and installation requirements for the use of overhead protection for operators of agricultural and industrial tractors used in construction. The proposed rule deletes the current overhead protection specifications for this equipment, and replaces it with a requirement that covered equipment manufactured before the effective date of the final rule comply with SAE J167-1970-Overhead Protection for Agricultural Tractors- Test Procedures and Performance Requirements when using overhead protection. The proposal requires equipment manufactured after the effective date of the final rule meet the requirements of ISO 27850-2013, Tractors for agriculture and forestry— Falling object protective structures— Test procedures and performance requirements when using overhead protection. This standard contains specifications for overhead protection to protect employees. Because, as noted above, OSHA preliminarily concludes that overhead protection, when used, is manufactured to the requirements of ISO 27850-2013, the proposal provides the option for equipment manufactured before the effective date of the final rule to comply with the ISO standard rather than the SAE standards.
As noted above, OSHA is continuing to incorporate by reference Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) standards. OSHA believes that these standards are reasonably available to interested parties. They are available for purchase the Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE), 400 Commonwealth Drive, Warrendale, PA 15096; telephone: 1-877-606-7323; fax: 724- 776-0790; Web site:
Section 1926.1129 regulates exposure to coke oven emissions in construction. OSHA incorporated this standard into part 1926 in 1993 (58 FR 35256, June 30, 1993) and revised it to be just a reference to the identical general industry standard in 1996 (61 FR 31428, June 20, 1996). In neither rulemaking did OSHA discuss, in particular, the application of the coke oven standard to construction, as it was only one of many standards involved in each rulemaking.
However, the provisions of this standard do not fit construction work. Much of the standard regulates exposure in the “regulated area.” (See 29 CFR 1910.1029(d)). But this “regulated area” is limited, including only “[t]he coke oven battery including topside and its machinery, pushside and its machinery, coke side and its machinery, and the battery ends; the wharf; and the screening station [and the] beehive oven and its machinery” (§ 1910.1029(d)(2)(i) and (ii)). As stated in an interpretation issued nearly contemporaneously with the general industry coke oven
Since, in effect, the standard does not address construction worker exposures to coke oven emissions, there would be no reduction in the level of protection. To the extent any construction workers would in the future be exposed to coke oven emissions, OSHA could cite the employer under the General Duty Clause (29 U.S.C. 654(a)(1)). Thus, OSHA is now proposing to delete § 1926.1129. OSHA is also proposing to delete the reference to § 1926.1129 in § 1926.55, Appendix A (proposed Table A).
In addition to the revisions described above, OSHA is proposing a series of revisions to various standards in 29 CFR parts 1910, 1915, and 1926, to remove the requirements that employers include an employee's social security number (SSN) on exposure monitoring, medical surveillance, and other records. OSHA believes that these revisions will protect employees' privacy and prevent identity fraud.
Many of OSHA's standards—particularly, its substance-specific standards—require that exposure monitoring, medical surveillance, and other records include the employee's SSN. OSHA has historically required SSNs on these records because SSNs, which are assigned at birth and do not change over time, are unique and constant personal identifiers that offer a useful method for linking records with individual employees. OSHA explained in a 1999 letter of interpretation regarding the asbestos standard for construction that only using an employee's name to match a record with an employee is undesirable because “[m]any employees have identical or similar names.” (Mr. Shawn T. Christon, April 16, 1999). Similarly, in the preamble to the final methylene chloride standard (62 FR 1494, January 10, 1997), OSHA explained that a SSN is a more useful identifier than an employer-generated employee identification number because each SSN is “unique to an individual for a lifetime and does not change as an employee changes employers.” (62 FR 1494, 1598).
However, increasingly widespread concerns about identity theft have prompted OSHA to reexamine whether requiring SSNs on records is still appropriate. Identity theft has emerged as one of the fastest growing crimes in the United States, and the Social Security Administration (SSA) has alerted the public that repetitive use and disclosure of SSNs in organizational recordkeeping systems should be avoided, as doing so multiplies the susceptibility of persons to potential identity theft (SSA,
OSHA previously requested public comments on its SSN collection requirements in the Standards Improvement Project Phase II (SIP II) proposal (67 FR 66494-66501, October 31, 2002), and the comments that the Agency received reflected mixed opinions on the usefulness of, and the privacy risks created by, including employee SSNs on monitoring and surveillance records. As discussed in the SIP II final rule (70 FR 1112, January 5, 2005), several commenters supported maintaining the requirements to collect employee SSNs, citing, among other reasons, SSNs' common use in other employee records and their suitability for tracking employees in large epidemiological studies of workplace populations (
OSHA subsequently clarified in two letters of interpretation that employers are permitted under its current standards to maintain a second set of records that use alternative identification numbers in place of SSNs (Mr. Sutherland, Feb. 5, 2007; Mr. Mayo, March 27, 2008). In the 2008 letter, which responded to an inquiry about the SSN requirements in the recordkeeping provisions of the lead standard (29 CFR 1910.1025(d)(5)), OSHA clarified that employers are permitted to keep a second set of records with alternative identification numbers in place of SSNs so long as “those unique identification numbers [can] be easily cross referenced to the employee's SSN,” because “such a system would ensure that the employees' privacy is maintained, while also satisfying the intent of the Lead Standard” (Mr. Mayo, March 27, 2008). The letter also emphasized that the lead standard only requires employers to assure access to complete exposure records that contain SSNs when requested by an employee, a designated employee representative, or a representative of OSHA or NIOSH.
OSHA also considered its SSN collection requirements after it published the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking for Occupational Exposure to Respirable Crystalline Silica (78 FR 56273, September 12, 2013). OSHA received many comments on the recordkeeping provisions in the proposed paragraphs (j)(1)(ii)(G) (Air monitoring data) and (j)(3)(i)(A) (Medical surveillance) which, consistent with the recordkeeping requirements in OSHA's other health standards, required the employer to include the employee's SSN in the standard's monitoring and surveillance records. More than a dozen commenters addressed the SSN collection requirements and all of those commenters expressed opposition to including the requirements in the standard (
OSHA ultimately decided to retain the requirements to include the employee's SSN in the recordkeeping paragraphs of the silica final rule, stating that including the employee SSNs on such records is “long-standing OSHA practice, based on the fact that it is a number that is both unique to an individual and is retained for a lifetime, and does not change as an employee changes employers” (81 FR 16285, 16852, March 25, 2016). OSHA acknowledged the commenters' concerns about employee privacy and identity theft, but explained that any change to the Agency's requirements for including employee SSNs on exposure records should be done comprehensively, rather than on a standard-by-standard basis. OSHA stated that it intended to examine the SSN requirements in all of its substance-specific health standards in a future rulemaking.
OSHA originally required collection of employee SSNs in its standards because SSNs are assigned at birth and do not change over time, which makes SSNs useful for linking records with individual employees. As unique and constant personal identifiers, SSNs are also suitable for researchers who track employees in large epidemiological studies of workplace populations. However, other tracking methods have emerged that allow researchers to conduct these studies without the use of SSNs.
OMB requires all federal agencies to identify and eliminate unnecessary collection and use of SSNs in agency systems and programs (see Memorandum from Clay Johnson III, Deputy Director for Management, Office of Management and Budget, to the Heads of Executive Departments and Agencies Regarding Safeguarding Against and Responding to the Breach of Personal Identifiable Information (M-01-16), May 22, 2007 (available at:
• Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response—§§ 1910.120(f)(8)(ii)(A) and 1926.65(f)(8)(ii)(A);
• Asbestos—§§ 1910.1001(m)(1)(ii)(F), (m)(3)(ii)(A), and Appendix D, 1915.1001(n)(2)(ii)(F), (n)(3)(ii)(A), and Appendix D, and 1926.1101(n)(2)(ii)(F), (n)(3)(ii)(A), and Appendix D;
• Vinyl Chloride—§ 1910.1017(m)(1);
• Inorganic Arsenic—§ 1910.1018(q)(1)(ii)(D) and (q)(2)(ii)(A);
• Lead—§§ 1910.1025(d)(5), (n)(1)(ii)(D), (n)(2)(ii)(A), (n)(3)(ii)(A), and Appendix B, and 1926.62(d)(5), (n)(1)(ii)(D), (n)(2)(ii)(A), (n)(3)(ii)(A), and Appendix B;
• Chromium (VI)—§§ 1910.1026(m)(1)(ii)(F) and (m)(4)(ii)(A), 1915.1026(k)(1)(ii)(F) and (k)(4)(ii)(A), and 1926.1126(k)(1)(ii)(F) and (k)(4)(ii)(A);
• Cadmium—§§ 1910.1027(n)(1)(ii)(B), (n)(3)(ii)(A), and Appendix D, and 1926.1127(d)(2)(iv), (n)(1)(ii)(B), and (n)(3)(ii)(A);
• Benzene—§§ 1910.1028(k)(1)(ii)(D) and (k)(2)(ii)(A);
• Coke Oven Emissions—§§ 1910.1029(m)(1)(i)(a) and (m)(2)(i)(a);
• Bloodborne Pathogens—§ 1910.1030(h)(1)(ii)(A);
• Cotton Dust—§§ 1910.1043(k)(1)(ii)(C), (k)(2)(ii)(A), and Appendices B-I, B-II, and B-III;
• 1,2 Dibromo-3-Chloropoane—§§ 1910.1044(p)(1)(ii)(d) and (p)(2)(ii)(a);
• Acrylonitrile—§ 1910.1045(q)(2)(ii)(D);
• Ethylene Oxide—§§ 1910.1047(k)(2)(ii)(F) and (k)(3)(ii)(A);
• Formaldehyde—§§ 1910.1048(o)(1)(vi), (o)(3)(i), (o)(4)(ii)(D), and Appendix D;
• Methylenedianiline—§§ 1910.1050(n)(3)(ii)(D), (n)(4)(ii)(A), and (n)(5)(ii)(A), and 1926.60(o)(4)(ii)(F) and (o)(5)(ii)(A).
• 1,3-Butadiene—§§ 1910.1051(m)(2)(ii)(F), (m)(4)(ii)(A), and Appendix F;
• Methylene Chloride—§§ 1910.1052(m)(2)(ii)(F), (m)(2)(iii)(C), (m)(3)(ii)(A), and Appendix B;
• Respirable crystalline silica—§§ 1910.1053(k)(1)(ii)(G) and (k)(3)(ii)(A), and 1926.1153(j)(1)(ii)(G) and (j)(3)(ii)(A).
The Agency believes that removing these requirements will facilitate employers' efforts to safeguard employee privacy. Based on the comments that it received in response to the SIP II request and the proposed silica rule, OSHA understands that some employers use a unique employee identification number to identify employees, and because these numbers are not used in commerce, they pose a less serious risk to employee privacy than SSNs if they are acquired by an authorized third party. Alternatively, some employers use other personal identifying information, either alone or in combination, to identify employees, such as first and last name, date of birth, government issued identification or driver's license number, passport number, or the last four digits of the SSN. Although some of this personal information, such as date of birth, may be used in commerce, exposure of that information may also be less damaging to employee privacy than exposure of an employee's SSN.
The proposed revisions would not otherwise alter OSHA's requirements for maintaining records, and employers would thus be expected to continue handling previously-generated records that contain SSNs as they currently do. The proposal does not require the deletion of employee SSNs from existing records, and it does not require employers to use an alternative unique employee identifier on those records. The proposal allows employers, who wish to do so, to continue using SSNs on records developed in compliance with the standards noted above. Accordingly, OSHA believes that these proposed revisions will not increase an employer's compliance burden under any of the revised standards.
OSHA sought and received a recommendation from the Advisory Committee on Construction Safety and
OSHA seeks comments on all aspects of this proposal. In addition, the Agency seeks comments on potential alternative approaches, including a requirement that the employer implement an alternative unique employee identifier, and that the employer remove all employee SSNs from all existing records maintained under the standards noted above. In particular, OSHA seeks comments on whether employers currently use alternatives to SSNs to identify employees in the records required by OSHA's standards, and if so, which alternative identifiers employers use, and whether employers maintain two sets of records or just a single set. OSHA would appreciate detailed information on any alternatives to SSNs. The Agency also requests comments on how removing the SSN requirements from exposure monitoring and surveillance records would affect employers' ability to identify employees on records, and whether the proposed revisions would affect the way that employers conduct business.
Regarding the handling of existing records, OSHA requests information on whether employers currently maintain the records required under OSHA's standards electronically, in hard copy, or both. For those employers that store records electronically, OSHA seeks information on whether employers store those records in a database, and if so, whether OSHA's proposed revisions would require employers to modify or reprogram their databases. OSHA also requests information on the feasibility of removing SSNs from existing records, including any obstacles that might prevent employers from removing SSNs from electronic records, and whether it would be practicable to remove SSNs from existing hard copy records.
This proposal would impact several forms that are contained in appendices to OSHA's standards, and when reviewing those forms to remove their SSN collection requirements, OSHA noticed that several forms from older standards do not comport with OMB's Standards for Maintaining, Collecting, and Presenting Federal Data on Race and Ethnicity, as updated on October 30, 1997 (62 FR 58782-58790). The Agency is considering revising the forms to either update the language to ensure compliance with OMB's standards or remove the question altogether. For example, Part 1 (“Initial Medical Questionnaire”) of Appendix D of the asbestos standard for general industry (29 CFR 1910.1001) includes a question (currently, #15) that states:
To reflect a combined race and ethnicity format (
Other forms impacted by the removal of SSN collection requirements that have questions that would be similarly affected are: Asbestos in Construction (§ 1926.1101, Appendix D) and Maritime (§ 1915.1001 Appendix D); Cotton Dust (§ 1910.1043, Appendix B-1, Appendix B-II, and Appendix B-III) and Methylene Chloride (§ 1910.1052, Appendix B)
OSHA requests comments on revising the appendices as indicated above and particularly on whether revising the language of race and ethnicity questions would impose any additional burden hours or costs on the respondents.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 require that OSHA estimate the benefits, costs, and net benefits of proposed regulations. Executive Orders 12866 and 13563, the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612), and the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1532(a)) also require OSHA to estimate the costs, assess the benefits, and analyze the impacts of certain rules that the Agency promulgates. Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules, and promoting flexibility.
The proposed rule is not an “economically significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866 or UMRA, and it is not a “major rule” under the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
The purpose of the proposed provisions in this standard was to reduce the burden on employers, or provide employers with compliance flexibility, by removing or revising confusing, outdated, duplicative, or inconsistent requirements, while maintaining the same level of protection for employees. This proposed standard deletes and revises a number of provisions in existing OSHA standards. In most instances, the Agency chose to revise outdated provisions to improve clarity, as well as consistency, with standards more recently promulgated by the Agency or current consensus standards. In other instances, the proposed provisions revise standards to improve consistency with current technology or research, and to restore OSHA's original intent to standards. Because of the reduction or removal of current requirements and because many of the updates reflect what is already practiced in the applicable industry, OSHA has preliminarily concluded that the proposed rule is technologically feasible.
OSHA is proposing to add a specific cross-reference to 29 CFR 1904.5—Determination of Work-Relatedness—in § 1904.10—Recording Criteria for Cases Involving Occupational Hearing Loss—paragraph (b)(6). This cross-reference specifies that employers must comply with the provisions of § 1904.5 when making a determination as to whether a worker's hearing loss is work-related. OSHA is not changing any requirements of 29 CFR 1904.10, but merely clarifying the Agency's intent. Since this change does not change the requirements of this standard, OSHA has preliminarily determined that neither new costs nor compliance burdens would be incurred.
OSHA is proposing to remove the word “unexpected” from the phrase “unexpected energization” in its general industry standard regulating the control of hazardous energy (lockout/tagout) at 29 CFR 1910.147. As described in the Summary and Explanation, because removing the word “unexpected” from the language of this standard would not represent any revision in OSHA policy, but instead clarify the Agency's original meaning of the term “energization” in the standard, OSHA preliminary concludes that this action would not result in any costs, compliance burdens, or additional employer responsibility other than what the Final Economic Analysis already considered for original § 1910.147 (OSHA, 1989).
This revision would respond to the interpretation of the lockout/tagout of the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission and the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Sixth Circuit in Reich v. General Motors Corp., Delco Chassis Div. (GMC Delco), 17 BNA OSHC 1217 (Nos. 91-2973, 91-3116, 91-3117, 1995); aff'd 89 F.3d 313 (6th Cir. 1996). In that case, both OSHRC and the Court of Appeals found that a machine with a multi-step procedure, time delays, and a warning system before reenergization was not covered by the standard because its reenergization was not “unexpected.” OSHA does not agree with this decision, and its consistent interpretation of the standard is that such equipment is covered by the standard. As explained in the summary and explanation, the phrase “unexpected energization” was intended to mean any re-energization or startup that was not authorized by the servicing employee removing her personal lockout/tagout device from the energy isolation device or equivalent energy control mechanism. Moreover, to implement the
In addition, removing the word “unexpected” from the text of § 1910.147 also would harmonize this standard with a recent OSHA lockout/tagout standard which does not include the term “unexpected.” See OSHA's General Working Conditions in Shipyard Employment standard at 29 CFR 1915.89.
Medical surveillance requirements in health standards are designed primarily to detect the early onset of adverse health effects so that appropriate interventions can be taken. In certain OSHA standards, the Agency currently requires periodic chest X-rays (CXRs) as a form of early lung cancer detection. At the time these standards were promulgated, routine screening for lung cancer with CXR was considered appropriate; however, recent studies with many years of follow-up have not shown a benefit from CXR screening for either lung cancer incidence or mortality. As a result, OSHA is proposing to remove the requirement for periodic CXR in the following standards: § 1910.1029—Coke Oven Emissions, § 1910.1045—Acrylonitrile, and § 1910.1018—Inorganic Arsenic.
As OSHA has become increasingly aware of the ineffectiveness of CXR in reducing lung cancer mortality, the Agency has moved to decrease CXR requirements to eliminate unnecessary radiation to workers as well as reduce the cost to employers to provide CXR as part of medical examinations, which it did previously in the first phase of the Standards Improvement Process (63 FR 33450, June 18, 1998). Not only does OSHA preliminarily conclude that the removal of this requirement would result in a cost savings to employers, but the Agency also believes it would prove to be beneficial to employees by decreasing their exposure to radiation as well as decreasing the rate of false positive results. Although OSHA has not attempted to quantify these benefits in this preliminary analysis, the Agency invites comment from the public on these issues.
To estimate the annual cost savings to employers if the requirement for periodic CXRs were removed from the listed standards, OSHA, with the assistance of Eastern Research Group (ERG), estimated the number of unnecessary CXRs that would be eliminated by this proposed change by drawing on estimates of the affected number of workers for each standard in the Agency's most recent Information Collection Requests for each affected standard (ERG, 2015). OSHA then analyzed data from the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services' (CMS) Physician Fee Schedule. Summarizing data from around the United States indicated a national average price of $68.42 for a CXR (ERG, 2015). Finally, the Agency multiplied the average price of a CXR by the number of CXRs to be eliminated, providing an estimate of $245,148 of exam cost savings. This information is detailed as follows:
Reducing the time of the medical exam, by removing the CXR requirement, would also save employers money because the employee is away from work for a shorter period of time. Based on information from RadiologyInfo.org, the Agency conservatively estimates that the time employees would be away from work is reduced by 15 minutes when the CXR component of the exam is eliminated (ERG, 2015). OSHA seeks comment on this time estimate. As indicated, OSHA estimates this change would save 896 hours of worker time that would have been spent during their recurring exams. Multiplying the reduced exam time by employee hourly wages of $24.05,
Combining the value of saved worker time of $21,549 with the decreased exam cost of $245,148 nets a total potential cost savings to employers of $266,697. OSHA seeks comment on these estimates.
OSHA is also proposing to update other CXR requirements in its Coke Oven Emissions, Acrylonitrile, and Inorganic Arsenic standards discussed above, as well as in its three Asbestos standards—§ 1910.1001 Asbestos (General Industry), § 1915.1001 Asbestos (Maritime), and § 1926.1101 Asbestos (Construction)—and two Cadmium standards—§ 1910.1027 Cadmium (General Industry), and § 1926.1127 Cadmium (Construction).
In recent years, innovation in medical technology has allowed for screening with digital CXRs. Reflecting this, OSHA is proposing to add the option of digital radiography to its existing standards. As a practical matter, digital radiography systems are rapidly replacing traditional analog film-based systems in medical facilities.
There are cost savings to using digital CXRs over analog CXRs. Traditional analog film-based CXRs are much larger than standard-sized office documents and weigh more than a piece of paper of the same size. As such, storing traditional CXRs requires an investment in specialized storage cabinets, which in turn may require reinforcement of the floor. Digital CXRs, however, can be stored on a computer. Due to continuing advances in technology and the emergence of inexpensive and large-capacity storage devices, digital CXRs can be stored for just a fraction of a cent each. Digital CXRs also save time and materials because they can be instantly processed and ready for use as soon as the CXR is taken.
OSHA believes that digital storage of CXRs is so common that most employers are already realizing this cost savings and would thus not incur any additional savings as a result of this proposal. As a practical matter, OSHA already allows digital storage of CXRs as a matter of enforcement discretion. In a letter of interpretation released on September 24, 2012, entitled “OSHA's position on the acceptability of digital radiography in place of traditional chest roentgenograms,” OSHA stated: “OSHA would allow, but would not require, digital radiography in place of traditional chest roentgenograms for medical surveillance exams under the Asbestos Standards for general industry, construction, and shipyards.” Although OSHA has not released interpretations specifically allowing for digital storage of CXRs in other standards, it has become the Agency's practice not to cite or otherwise penalize employers for storing CXRs digitally. Because it is now current OSHA enforcement practice to waive the formal requirement for employers to keep analog copies of CXRs when they store them digitally, the Agency preliminarily concludes that there would be no realized cost savings by changing this requirement. This proposed change simply formalizes and thereby clarifies what the Agency has already accommodated in practice.
Revisions in these standards also include replacements of antiquated terminology such as “roentgenogram,” correction of misspellings in the existing standards, an update to the current ILO classification guidance, and revisions where inaccuracies exist in clinical diagnostic language. OSHA is proposing to update the regulatory text to better distinguish between the appropriate uses of classification and interpretation of CXRs. The Agency believes these changes are merely editorial in nature and reflect current practices, and therefore would not create new costs or cost savings for employers.
As explained in greater detail in the Summary and Explanation, OSHA is proposing to make revisions to its medical surveillance program requirements—more specifically, its pulmonary function testing requirements of the Cotton Dust standard (29 CFR 1910.1043). Exposure to cotton dust places employees at risk of developing the respiratory disease byssinosis. Since the publication of the Cotton Dust standard in 1978, OSHA has not updated its pulmonary function testing requirements to match those of current technology and practices. As a result, OSHA is basing its proposed revisions on current recommendations from organizations recognized as authorities on generally accepted practices in pulmonary-function testing: The American Thoracic Society/European Respiratory Society (ATS/ERS), the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), and the American College of Occupational and Environmental Medicine (ACOEM).
OSHA is proposing to revise paragraph (h) and Appendix D of its Cotton Dust standard. Many of the revisions are simply editorial, to clarify existing language, as well as to update outdated pulmonary function measurements. However, for those revisions that may suggest a potential need to upgrade pulmonary testing equipment, OSHA investigated the characteristics of equipment currently available in the United States and whether such equipment met the specifications of OSHA's proposed revisions.
Paragraphs 1043(h)(2)(iii) and (h)(3)(ii)(A) and (B) give instructions for pulmonary function testing, measuring forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) against the Spirometry Prediction Tables for Normal Males and Females (Appendix C), adjusting those measurements based on ethnicity, and from the outcome of such measurements, determining the frequency of medical surveillance provided to employees. OSHA is proposing to revise this provision to specify use of the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES) III reference data set and to replace the values currently in Appendix C with the NHANES III values.
Software for most spirometers includes the NHANES III data set, which is identified as the Hankinson data set on some spirometers. If software for older spirometers does not include the NHANES III data set, users of those spirometers would be able to access the NHANES III values online through the NIOSH calculator. Tables of the NHANES III values are also available in an appendix of OSHA's spirometry guidance for healthcare professionals that is also available online. Therefore, NHANES III values are widely available to spirometry providers, including those providers using older spirometers.
OSHA's proposal to use the NHANES III data set in place of the Knudson values currently in Appendix C would simplify interpretation of spirometry results by providing reference values for more race/ethnic groups, thereby reducing the need to adjust values for race/ethnic groups not included in the Knudson data set. This revision as to how pulmonary functioning should be tested and measured falls in line with current generally accepted practices; therefore OSHA does not believe this proposed revision should pose a compliance burden to affected employers.
OSHA is also proposing to update paragraph (h)(2)(iii) to require an evaluation of FEV1, FVC, and FEV1/FVC against the lower limit of normal (LLN) for each race/ethnic group, by age. Similarly, OSHA is proposing that the basis for frequency of medical surveillance in paragraphs (h)(3)(ii)(A) and (B) be whether the FEV1 is above or below the LLN. This would technically change the required triggers for medical surveillance from the existing standard, but is consistent with generally accepted current practices. The Agency believes the changes would reduce confusion and have little other practical effect. The proposed revision to evaluate the FEV1/FVC ratio in addition to FEV1 and FVC would not affect the triggers for other medical monitoring requirements such as changes in medical-surveillance frequency or referral for a detailed pulmonary examination because the standard bases those triggers solely on FEV1 values.
Proposed revisions to Appendix D address updates to the specifications of spirometry equipment used in performing pulmonary functioning tests. To assess whether current readily available spirometry equipment met the Agency's proposed specifications, OSHA investigated the market for spirometry equipment, with the assistance of its contractor, Eastern Research Group (ERG). OSHA found that the market has been adapting to similar consensus standards in this area as far back as 1994. In its research of spirometry product specifications collected through internet searches, interviews with manufacturers, and the consultation of peer-reviewed literature and voluntary standards published by respiratory health groups, the Agency found that spirometry models currently sold in the United States, Europe and Australia meet the potential specification revisions of spirometry equipment to be used in the cotton dust standard. More specifically, ERG looked at a sample of 12 spirometry models from various manufacturers and found that 11 out of the 12 models were already complaint with the volume, accuracy, and minimum duration requirements of the 2005 spirometry specification standard jointly published by ATS/ERS (ERG, 2015).
The Agency estimates that this spirometry equipment has a working life of approximately ten years. To prevent a potential burden to employers from having to prematurely purchase new equipment, OSHA is proposing that the revised spirometry specifications apply only to equipment newly purchased one year or more after OSHA publishes the final standard in the
As stated in the Summary and Explanation, OSHA is proposing to remove feral cats from its definition of vermin in paragraph (b)(33) of § 1915.80—Subpart F—Shipyard General Working Conditions. 29 CFR 1915.88—Sanitation, paragraphs (j)(1) and (j)(2), specify that employers must, to the extent reasonably practicable, clean and maintain workplaces in a manner that prevents vermin infestation. When employers detect vermin, they must implement and maintain an effective vermin-control program.
OSHA has determined that, although the possibility exists for feral cats to pose safety and health hazards for employees, the threat is minor as the cats tend to avoid human contact. Further, stakeholders have expressed concern that including the term “feral cats” in the definition of vermin encourages cruel and unnecessary extermination. OSHA does not believe that removing the term “feral cats” from the definition would reduce worker health and safety, and notes that feral cats may help reduce the presence of other vermin. To the extent feral cats pose a safety or health hazard at any particular shipyard, OSHA would consider the cats to be “other animals” under the standard. Removing a perceived obligation to exterminate feral cats should not have any costs to employers.
OSHA is proposing to revise paragraph (f) in 29 CFR 1926.50—Medical Services and First Aid. Existing § 1926.50(e) requires employers to provide a communication system for contacting ambulance service, or proper equipment for transportation of an injured person. Existing § 1926.50(f) requires the posting of telephone numbers of physicians, hospitals, or ambulances for work sites located in areas where 911 emergency service is not available. OSHA is proposing to retain both of these this requirements. The Agency would add to paragraph (f) a requirement that when an employer uses a communication system for contacting 911 services, the employer must ensure that the communication system can effectively do so, and, if the system is in an area that does not automatically supply the caller's latitude and longitude to the 911 dispatcher, post or otherwise provide to employees the latitude and longitude of the work site or other information that communicates the location of the worksite.
OSHA has preliminarily concluded that this proposed requirement would result in annual costs of $27,899 until 2019, when the FCC expects enhanced 911 wireless services to be universal, at which time these costs would disappear.
OSHA calculated the burden hours and wage hour costs for employers to post the latitude and longitude of the work site location based on the number of new construction projects started in a given year. To estimate the number of project sites, OSHA reviewed the most recent data provided by request from Dodge Data and Analytics.
OSHA notes that more than one single-family home may be built at a project site. The Agency determined that construction contractors build approximately one-half of single-family houses at single house project sites and the other half at project sites holding multiple single-family homes. As a result, OSHA estimated the number of single-family homes completed at single house project sites in 2012 to be 258,182, and 129,091 to be the total of project sites holding two single family-homes (one-half of single-family houses at single project sites: 516,363/2 =
As shown below in Table IV-1, the total number of construction project sites covered by this provision is: 531,379.
In the United States, when a 9-1-1 call is made from a traditional telephone or wireline, the call is routed to a Public Safety Answering Point (PSAP) that is responsible for assisting people in a particular geographic area or community. Depending on the type of 9-1-1 service available, the telephone number of the caller and the location or address of the emergency is either communicated by the caller to the emergency dispatcher (Basic 9-1-1); or automatically displayed to the dispatcher through the use of equipment and database information (Enhanced 9-1-1). According to a 2001 report produced by the RCN Commission and the National Emergency Number Association (NENA) titled,
In the December 5, 2014 version of the Federal Communications Commission's (FCC) 911 Wireless Service Guide, it was estimated that about 70 percent of 9-1-1 calls were placed from wireless phones (FCC, 2014). The FCC finds using wireless phones create unique challenges for emergency response personnel because wireless or mobile phones are not associated with one fixed location or address. Although the location of the cell site closest to the 9-1-1 caller may provide a general indication of the caller's location, the FCC finds that the information is not always specific enough for rescue personnel to deliver assistance to the caller quickly (FCC, 2014). As a result, the FCC is now requiring wireless service carriers to implement its wireless Enhanced 9-1-1 program which will provide 9-1-1 dispatchers with additional information on wireless 9-1-1 calls. The FCC is allowing the implementation of its wireless Enhanced 9-1-1 program in two parts—Phase I and Phase II. Phase I requires carriers to provide the PSAP with the telephone number of the 9-1-1 wireless caller as well as the location of the cell site or base station transmitting the call. Phase II however, requires carriers to provide more precise information to the PSAP, such as the latitude and longitude of the caller whereby the accuracy of the geographical coordinates must be within 50 to 300 meters of the caller's location (FCC, 2014).
With the implementation of the wireless Enhanced 9-1-1 program, the total number of U.S. counties with 9-1-1 coverage has increased from 93 percent to nearly 97 percent. As of March 2015, NENA reported a total number of 3,135 U.S. counties, which include parishes, independent cities, boroughs and Census areas. Of these counties, 96.9 percent (3,038) of them are now capable of receiving some
Since all 9-1-1 emergency calls made are routed to a PSAP or call center based on the geographic location in which the call was made, for the purpose of this analysis, OSHA is interested in those U.S. counties where Enhanced 9-1-1 is neither available by wireline nor wireless device. Using the data provided by NENA, OSHA estimates that of the 3,135 recorded U.S. counties, 4.3 percent (135) neither have wireline nor wireless Enhanced 9-1-1 capabilities. By extension, for this analysis, OSHA further assumes that 4.3 percent of all construction project sites (22,849 of 531,379 construction project sites) are located within those counties without wireline and wireless Enhanced 9-1-1 capabilities and would therefore be covered by this provision whereby employers must either post the latitude and longitude of the work site or other location-identification information that effectively communicates the location of the work site to the 9-1-1 emergency medical service dispatcher. The Agency believes this is likely an overestimate of the number of construction sites affected by this provision of the proposal, as construction activity will generally parallel population concentration. Enhanced cell service, in turn, is more concentrated around population centers. NENA estimates that 98.4 percent of the population now has Phase II wireless service; 98.1 percent of PSAPs have Phase II service. The Agency, however, requests comment on this aspect of analysis, as well as the distribution of wireline and wireless service at construction sites.
OSHA estimates that it takes the average construction employee affected by this requirement 3 minutes (.05 hour) to obtain the latitude and longitude of worksite locations, write the information on material, and then to prominently post the information, as required by proposed § 1926.50(f). This would not pose an issue of technological feasibility as the information could be easily downloaded from the Internet before the crew leaves for the site; in the large majority of cases this information should be also be available onsite via common applications for smartphones. The Bureau of Labor Statistics' (BLS) 2013 Occupational Employment Statistics (OES) data indicate that the most common construction occupation is “construction laborer.” Partly for that reason, the Agency believes this occupation is most representative of the workers actually posting the latitude and longitude load requirements at construction project sites. Consistent with that, OSHA, based on the OES
Therefore, the estimated annual burden hours and wage hour cost of this proposed requirement are:
Based on these costs, OSHA preliminary determines that the proposed provision is economically feasible. OSHA notes that a member of ACCSH stated that he had seen a firm provide location information at remote sites. (ACCSH Aug. 23, 2013 transcript, p. 85.) As noted previously, the task of communicating relevant site information to rescue services is gradually being made easier by the spread of advanced telecommunications technology, such that in the near future the existing burden should be eliminated. However, OSHA seeks comments on this estimate and how long the costs will remain in effect.
As discussed in the Summary and Explanation, 29 CFR 1926.55—Gases, Vapors, Fumes, Dusts, and Mists—is the Construction counterpart to 29 CFR 1910.1000—Air Contaminants, which enumerates hundreds of Permissible Exposure Limits (PELs) in its Z tables. Because 29 CFR 1926.55 is not as clear as its General Industry counterpart, OSHA is proposing to update section 1926.55(a) and Appendix A to help clarify the construction PELs. These proposed changes would: (1) Change the term “Threshold Limit Values” to “Permissible Exposure Limits”; (2) eliminate language that sounds advisory; (3) eliminate confusing language; (4) correct several noted errors in Appendix A; and (5) correct cross-references to the asbestos standard. OSHA deems these changes to be simple clarifications which would not change the substantive effect this rule. Therefore, OSHA has preliminarily concluded that these revisions would not result in changes to the cost or impact of 29 CFR 1926.55; however, OSHA seeks comment on this preliminary conclusion.
OSHA is proposing to replace the regulatory text of its Process Safety Management (PSM) of Highly Hazardous Chemicals construction regulation, § 1926.64, with a cross-reference to the corresponding general industry regulation in 29 CFR 1910.119. The requirements applicable to construction work in 29 CFR 1926.64 are identical to those set forth in 29 CFR 1910.119. This change would only serve to eliminate duplicative regulatory text and as such, OSHA has preliminarily determined that it has no cost.
OSHA is proposing to amend Section § 1926.95—Criteria for Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), paragraph (c), to clarify that PPE must properly fit each employee. The existing regulatory text states that PPE “shall be of safe design and construction for the work to be performed” and current paragraph (a) states that PPE “shall be provided, used, and maintained in a sanitary and reliable condition wherever it is necessary. . . .” It is the agency's opinion that for PPE to provide protection against the hazards for which it is designed, it must fit properly. OSHA views this change as a clarification of the existing language and thus preliminarily determines that it would not increase costs or compliance burdens to employers.
OSHA is proposing to lower the minimum breaking strength requirement in § 1926.104—Safety Belts, Lifelines and Lanyards, paragraph (c)—from 5,400 pounds to 5,000 pounds. As discussed in the Summary and Explanation of that section, the Agency believes a 5,000 pound requirement would still provide a more than sufficient safety factor. Because this change lowers the minimum requirement, employers would not be required to purchase new equipment. When employers do replace their equipment, they could continue to purchase lifelines with a breaking strength of 5,400 pounds, or with a breaking strength of 5,000 pound. This proposed revision also would bring § 104(c) into conformance with the lanyard and lifeline breaking strength requirement in the Fall Protection standard, at § 1926.502(d)(9). As a result, OSHA has preliminarily concluded that this change would not add any new compliance costs for employers.
Under 29 CFR part 1926 subpart G—Signs, Signals, and Barricades, OSHA requires that employers comply with the mandatory provisions of Part VI of the Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices (MUTCD). Currently, employers comply with Part VI when they use one of two versions of MUCTD: the 1988 Edition, Revision 3, September 3, 1993 MUTCD (“1988 Edition”) or the Millennium Edition, December 2000 MUTCD (“Millennium Edition”). Since OSHA's last published update to subpart G, requiring employers to follow one of the two MUTCD editions above, the Department of Transportation (DOT) has then updated 23 CFR 655.601 through 655.603 to require adherence to the 2009 Edition, November 4, 2009, MUTCD (“2009 Edition”). The Agency is proposing to update subpart G to require employers to follow the MUTCD 2009 Edition.
23 CFR 655.603 states that the MUTCD is the national standard for all traffic control devices installed on any street, highway, or bicycle trail open to public travel. It also requires all States, within two years after a new national MUTCD edition is issued or any national MUTCD amendments are made, to adopt the new MUTCD in the State, adopt the national MUTCD with a State Supplement that is in substantial conformance with the new MUTCD, or adopt a State MUTCD that is in substantial conformance with the new MUTCD.
Each State enacts its own laws regarding compliance with standards for traffic control devices in that State. If the State law has adopted a State Supplement or a State MUTCD that the Federal Highway Administration (FHWA) has found to be in substantial conformance with the national MUTCD, then those State requirements are what the local road agencies (as well as the State DOT) must abide by. The exception is traffic control devices installed on a federally aided project, in which case 23 CFR 655.603(d)(2) specifically requires those devices to comply with the national MUTCD before the road can be opened or reopened to the public for unrestricted use.
The Agency believes any employer costs related to incorporating the updated MUCTD reference into subpart G are very limited because, first, the updated DOT rules are already currently
Private roads open to public travel are now subject to the same traffic control standards as public streets and highways. However, the FHWA does not require State and/or local highway agencies to have specific authority or enforcement responsibility for traffic control devices on private roads to ensure compliance with the MUTCD. Owners or parties responsible for such private roads are encouraged to bring the traffic control devices into compliance with the MUTCD and other applicable State Manuals, and those who do not may find themselves exposed to increased tort liability. State and local jurisdictions can encourage MUTCD compliance on private roads by incorporating pertinent language into zoning requirements, building and occupancy permits, and similar controls that they exercise over private properties.
As a practical matter, available data on private road construction indicate that it represents a very small portion of total road construction activity. Data from the Census Construction Spending Survey indicate that it represents less than 1 percent of all funds dedicated to highway and street construction (Census, 2014).
Since all contractors engaged in construction of public roads are now required to follow the current MUTCD, only those firms that work exclusively on private roads would incur costs associated with this proposal. Contractors that work on both public and private roads should not see an increased burden because they would already need to be in compliance with the MUTCD to work on public roads. Considering that there is pressure, both from a regulatory and liability perspective, for firms that work exclusively on private roads to follow the MUTCD, OSHA believes the total number of these firms potentially incurring costs as a result of this proposal would be very small. To better understand how often these situations occur, OSHA seeks comment on the number of contractors that work exclusively on private roads and are therefore not required to follow the MUTCD. To the extent that situation occurs, the Agency also seeks comment on the extent to which such contractors already follow the updated MUTCD.
For any firms not already complying with the updated MUTCD, the cost of compliance would be very limited. As explained in the Summary and Explanation, the revisions to the MUTCD make the document more user friendly and account for advances in technology. A comparison of the 1998 and 2009 updates shows fewer and less burdensome new requirements, but more guidance and support material which makes the document easier to use. This proposed change to the OSHA rule should decrease the burden on employers by eliminating confusion as to which edition they must comply with. It would also inform employers that compliance with DOT regulations would not run afoul of outdated OSHA regulations. Most of the new provisions provide more options to employers, which should either increase safety or reduce the burden to employers.
Nonetheless, the Agency has identified two proposed changes in the 2009 Edition that could have a very small cost for those employers doing construction work exclusively on private roads that are not already following the updated MUTCD for these items.
One change is a requirement to use a new symbol and additional sign for a shoulder drop-off. OSHA has estimated that the average price of a shoulder drop-off sign at $32.74, depending on size and finish. A second change prohibits contractors from relying on hand-signs alone to control traffic. This burden would only apply to a subset of contractors that use flaggers to control traffic (as opposed to something like automated flagger assistance device) and choose to only use hand signals to accomplish this task. Each of these contractors would need to purchase at least one stop sign or flag. OSHA has determined that a flag would cost, on average, $7.96 each, dependent on size (ERG, 2015).
The number of signs or flags a contractor needs for these situations would presumably be dependent on the number of simultaneous projects that the road construction firm engages in during a typical season, or how large and complex such projects are. While smaller contractors may be more likely to engage solely in private road operations, larger, more complex projects demanding more equipment would almost certainly fall to larger contractors also employed in public road construction. Considering the very limited number of contractors and situations that would likely be impacted by this proposal, the Agency believes that most of the potentially affected firms would not need more than a handful of either signs or flags. The Agency seeks comment on what the likely impact of these changes would be, both in terms of the number of signs and/or flags potentially affected contractors might need, as well as whether other changes to MUCTD might have a cost associated with them, or ultimately whether the clarity provided by a government-wide reference to a single set of standards may provide a cost savings to employers.
It is not clear whether any firm would incur new costs as a result of this this proposed update to the 2009 Edition, but as shown, any such costs would be very limited in nature and would be an insignificant portion of a contractor's annual profit. OSHA therefore does not believe these changes would have a significant impact to any firm or raise an issue of economic feasibility. The Agency, however, welcomes comment on this preliminary assessment.
OSHA is proposing to remove the load limit posting requirement for single family dwellings or townhouses in 29 CFR 1926.250—General Requirements for Storage, paragraph (a)(2). OSHA has preliminarily estimated that removing the requirement for employers to post maximum safe load limits of floors in storage areas when constructing single family dwellings or townhouses would result in a cost savings to employers engaged in these construction activities of approximately $2,948,715.
OSHA estimates that it takes the average construction employee affected by this requirement 15 minutes (0.25 hours) to develop and post the currently required signs, assuming the information is readily available from current engineering estimates. The Bureau of Labor Statistics' (BLS) 2013 Occupational Employment Statistics (OES) data indicate that the most common construction occupation is “construction laborer.” Partly for that reason, the Agency believes this occupation is most representative of the workers actually posting the load limit requirement at such dwellings. Consistent with that, OSHA, based on the OES data, estimates a wage of $16.84
In 1989, OSHA updated § 1926.651(j)—Specific Excavation Requirements—Protection of Employees from Loose Rock or Soil, to add the phrase “that could pose a hazard” when referring to loose rock or soil and excavated or other materials or equipment. A number of Administrative Law Judges of the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission (OSHRC) later ruled that the added phrase in the standard shifts the burden of determining whether loose rock or soil and excavated or other material or equipment poses a hazard to employees to OSHA, before OSHA can establish a violation. These rulings are inconsistent with what OSHA intended, as the preamble to the 1989 revision does not indicate that OSHA intended to shift the burden when it revised the 1971 provisions, but rather intended to clarify the language of the provisions. Thus, the Agency is proposing to remove the phrase “that could pose a hazard” from § 1926.651(j)(1) and (j)(2).
OSHA believes that this revision would clarify its original intent that the burden is on employers to protect their employees from loose rock or soil and excavated or other materials or equipment, and that OSHA does not have the initial burden of demonstrating the existence of a hazard. Consistent with the Agency's intent, no estimated costs or cost savings were attributed to this additional language in the 1989 update to the original 1971 rule (54 FR 45894). Hence, OSHA has preliminarily determined that no cost or compliance burdens would be associated with the proposed removal of this language.
OSHA is proposing to replace the current decompression tables found in Appendix A to subpart S of part 1926—Underground Construction, Caissons, Cofferdams and Compressed Air—with the 1992 French Air and Oxygen decompression tables, which are an updated industry standard, and are therefore preferred over the Agency's existing tables. The information available to the Agency currently indicates that underground projects which incorporate new tunneling technology have not followed OSHA's existing decompression tables, but instead, have followed the French or other updated tables. In each case, federal OSHA or a state plan state had been persuaded by the available research and studies that the new decompression methods provide better protection for underground workers and has issued a variance.
Since underground tunneling projects currently already use these proposed tables, OSHA has preliminary determined that the replacement of its existing Decompression Tables in Appendix A to subpart S of part 1926 with the French tables would not result in an increase of cost to affected employers. OSHA seeks comment regarding any establishment that does not currently use the French tables and/or uses any other updated tables. This should provide some relief for employers who currently wish to use the newer tables, in that they would no longer need to apply for a variance from the Agency. The Agency however, has not quantified a cost savings associated with this reduced burden to employers.
OSHA is proposing to amend the existing standards in 29 CFR part 1926 subpart W—Rollover Protective Structures; Overhead Protection (§ 1926.1001, 1002, and 1003). The existing standards, which are based on consensus standards from 1970, will be amended to remove the provisions that specify test procedures and performance requirements. The revised provisions will reference the 1970 consensus standards for equipment manufactured prior to the effective date of the final rule. They will also reference the most recent ISO standards: ISO 3471-2008, ISO 5700-2013 and ISO 3449-2005, for new equipment manufactured after the effective date of the final rule. It is OSHA's understanding that all industries affected by this change are already following the new ISO standards, and therefore has preliminarily concluded that this change would not create any new costs for employers. However, OSHA seeks comments on this conclusion and on current adherence to the ISO standards in the affected industries.
The Agency also proposes to expand the existing regulatory language of § 1926.1000 and 1001 to cover compactors and skid-steer loaders, as telegraphed previously by reserving existing paragraph 1000(a)(2). OSHA believes that this new equipment, as with the equipment currently covered by the existing standard, already adheres to the minimum performance criteria for ROPS as set forth in the recent ISO standards, but seeks further comment. If OSHA is correct about the current compliance for this new equipment, then OSHA preliminarily concludes that this change would not add any new compliance cost to employers. OSHA seeks comments on this issue as well.
Existing regulatory language in § 1926.800(k)(10)(ii) requires that mobile diesel-powered equipment used underground comply with the Mine Safety Health Administration's (MSHA) provisions of 30 CFR part 32. In 1996, MSHA revoked part 32 and replaced it with updated provisions in 30 CFR part 7, subpart E and 30 CFR 75.1909 Non-permissible diesel-powered equipment; design and performance requirements, 75.1910 Non-permissible diesel-
If adopted, these changes will allow employers who use diesel-powered engines on mobile equipment in underground construction to use current MSHA procedures to obtain approval plates to affix to the engines or meet or exceed the applicable EPA requirements listed at MSHA Table 57.5067-1, and meet the requirements for other machine features in 30 CFR 75.1909, 75.1910, and 75.1911(a)-(i) for non-permissible diesel-powered engines. Based on available information, OSHA has determined that currently manufactured equipment meets the proposed requirements and are generally compliant with the more stringent EPA Tier 3 and Tier 4 emission requirements (ERG, 2015). The Agency has therefore preliminarily concluded that all applicable new equipment currently available for in the market meets the proposed requirements.
OSHA recognizes that there may be some employers using equipment that predates the newer MSHA standards, and the EPA requirements referenced in them. To avoid the costs of replacing existing equipment in use, the Agency proposes to allow equipment purchased before the effective date of the final rule to continue to comply with the terms of existing § 1926.800(k)(10)(ii) (including having been approved by MSHA under 30 CFR part 32 (1995) or be determined to be equivalent to such MSHA-approved equipment). OSHA solicits comment on the number of engines in use that meet the existing standard but will not meet the requirements of the new MSHA standard and whether continued use of such equipment presents a serious safety or health hazard. OSHA also seeks comment on whether this proposed grandfathering is workable.
The Agency observes that some parts of the updated MSHA regulations have additional requirements, such as the potential need for training on fire suppression systems. However, as discussed in the Summary and Explanation, OSHA proposes to carry over the reference to only
In summary, because diesel equipment manufactured for underground construction apparently conforms with the newer MSHA standards, and the proposal would “grandfather” in existing equipment, the Agency believes employers will not have additional expenses in complying with the this proposed change to the Underground Construction standard. OSHA welcomes comments on this preliminary conclusion.
Section 1926.1129 regulates exposure to coke oven emissions in construction. In the Summary and Explanation, the point was made that the provisions of this standard do not fit construction work. Therefore OSHA is proposing to delete 29 CFR 1926.1129 (and the reference to it in 29 CFR 1926.55).
An interpretation letter to Mr. Katz from Assistant Secretary Charles Jeffress on June 22, 1999 stated, “We will remove 29 CFR 1926.1129 from OSHA's Internet Web site; the standard will be deleted from Part 1926 Code of Federal Regulations, and we [OSHA] will formally notify OSHA field offices that § 1926.1129 is not to be enforced.” Since OSHA is not enforcing § 1926.1129 and it has no applicability to construction, this change will have no cost.
As discussed in the Summary and Explanation, OSHA is proposing to delete the requirements in its standards for employers to use social security numbers to identify employees on exposure monitoring, medical surveillance, and other records. The Agency believes that while this change will help employers to protect their employees from identity theft, it will not impose new costs upon employers. The proposed changes would not require employers to delete social security numbers from existing records, nor would they prohibit employers from continuing to use them to identify employees; employers would simply no longer be required to include employee social security numbers on the records. The Agency believes that these changes have the potential to provide benefits to both employees and employers and potential cost savings, but OSHA has not quantified those potential benefits and savings for this preliminary analysis.
OSHA preliminarily concludes that the proposed provisions do not impose costs of any significance on any employer, and therefore concludes that the proposed rule is economically feasible. Table IV-2 provides a brief summary of the cost savings and benefits OSHA estimates would result from the proposed rule.
In accordance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601
The purpose of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (OSH Act; 29 U.S.C. 651
An occupational safety or health standard is a standard “which requires conditions, or the adoption or use of one or more practices, means, methods, operations, or processes, reasonably necessary or appropriate to provide safe or healthful employment and places of employment.” (29 U.S.C. 652(8)). A standard is reasonably necessary or appropriate within the meaning of Section 652(8) if it substantially reduces or eliminates significant risk. In addition, it must be technologically and economically feasible, cost effective, and consistent with prior Agency action, or a justified departure. A standard must be supported by substantial evidence, and be better able to effectuate the OSH Act's purposes than any national consensus standard it supersedes. (See 58 FR 16612-16616, March 30, 1993.)
A standard is technologically feasible if the protective measures it requires already exist, can be brought into existence with available technology, or can be created with technology that can reasonably be expected to be developed. (See
A standard is economically feasible if industry can absorb or pass on the costs of compliance without threatening its long-term profitability or competitive structure. See ATMI, 452 U.S. at 530 n. 55; AISI, 939 F.2d at 980. A standard is cost effective if the protective measures it requires are the least costly of the available alternatives that achieve the same level of protection. ATMI, 452 U.S. at 514 n. 32;
The purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act 1995 (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501
The Standards Improvement Project-Phase IV (SIP-IV) proposal would modify a number of Information Collections currently approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the PRA.
Concurrent with publication of this proposed rule, the Department is submitting a series of Information Collection Requests (ICRs) to revise the collections in accordance with this NPRM, as required by the PRA.
The Agency solicits comments on the information collection requirements contained in this NPRM. The Agency is particularly interested in comments on the collections of information requirements that:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the Agency's functions, including whether the information is useful;
• Evaluate the accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and cost) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and
• Minimize the compliance burden on employers, for example, by using automated or other technological techniques for collecting and transmitting information.
As required by 5 CFR 1320.5(a)(1)(iv) and 1320.8(d)(2), the following paragraphs provide information about the ICRs, including the changes in burden associated with the proposed revisions to information collection requirements.
1.
2.
This proposal will also have an impact on the provisions in OSHA's standards that currently require employers to include employee SSNs on exposure monitoring, medical surveillance, and other records. As explained above in the
In addition to the above-described changes, the Agency will make adjustments to the some of the ICRs to reflect on-going PRA interpretations that will result in changes to the burden hours and costs; these changes are not a result of this rulemaking.
Members of the public who wish to comment on the paperwork requirements in this proposal must send their written comments to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for the DOL-OSHA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503. You may also submit comments to OMB by email at
To access the docket to read or download comments and other materials related to these paperwork determination, including the ICR (containing the Supporting Statement with attachments describing the paperwork determinations in detail) use the procedures described under the section of this notice titled
OSHA reviewed this proposed rule in accordance with the Executive Order on Federalism (Executive Order 13132, 64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999), which requires that Federal agencies, to the extent possible, refrain from limiting State policy options, consult with States prior to taking any actions that would restrict State policy options, and take such actions only when clear constitutional authority exists and the problem is national in scope. Executive Order 13132 provides for preemption of State law only with the expressed consent of Congress. Agencies must limit any such preemption to the extent possible.
Under Section 18 of the OSH Act, Congress expressly provides that States may adopt, with Federal approval, a plan for the development and enforcement of occupational safety and health standards; States that obtain Federal approval for such a plan are referred to as “State Plan States.” (29 U.S.C. 667). Occupational safety and health standards developed by State Plan States must be at least as effective in providing safe and healthful employment and places of employment as the Federal standards.
While OSHA drafted this proposed rule to protect employees in every State, Section 18(c)(2) of the OSH Act permits State Plan States and Territories to develop and enforce their own standards, provided the requirements in these standards are at least as safe and healthful as the requirements specified in this proposed rule.
In summary, this proposed rule complies with Executive Order 13132. In States without OSHA-approved State Plans, any standard developed from this proposed rule would limit State policy options in the same manner as every standard promulgated by OSHA. In States with OSHA-approved State Plans, this rulemaking would not significantly limit State policy options.
When Federal OSHA promulgates a new standard or a more stringent amendment to an existing standard, the 28 States and U.S. territories with their own OSHA-approved occupational safety and health plans (“State Plan States”) must revise their standards to reflect the new standard or amendment. The State standard must be at least as effective as the final Federal standard or amendment, and must be promulgated within six months of the publication date of the final Federal rule (29 U.S.C. 667(c)(2); 29 CFR 1953.5(a)).
A State-Plan State may demonstrate that a standard change is unnecessary because the State standard is already the same as or at least as effective as the new or amended Federal standard. In order to avoid delays in worker protection, the effective date of the State standard and any of its delayed provisions must be the date of State promulgation or the Federal effective date, whichever is later. The Assistant Secretary may permit a longer time period if the State timely demonstrates that good cause exists for extending the time limitation (29 CFR 1953.5(a)). Of the 28 States and territories with OSHA-approved State plans, 22 cover public and private-sector employees: Alaska, Arizona, California, Hawaii, Indiana, Iowa, Kentucky, Maryland, Michigan, Minnesota, Nevada, New Mexico, North Carolina, Oregon, Puerto Rico, South Carolina, Tennessee, Utah, Vermont, Virginia, Washington, and Wyoming. Six States and territories cover only public-sector employees: Connecticut, Illinois, Maine, New Jersey, New York, and the Virgin Islands.
When OSHA promulgates a new standard or amendment that does not impose additional or more stringent requirements than the existing standard, State Plan States are not required to amend their standards, although OSHA may encourage them to do so.
OSHA concludes that this final rule, by revising confusing, outdated, duplicative, or inconsistent standards, will increase the protection afforded to employees while reducing the compliance burden of employers. Therefore, States and Territories with approved State Plans must adopt comparable amendments to their standards within six months of the promulgation date of this rule unless they demonstrate that such amendments are not necessary because their existing standards are at least as effective in protecting workers as this final rule.
OSHA reviewed this proposed rule in accordance with the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA; 2 U.S.C. 1501
As noted under section VIII (“State Plans”) of this notice, the Agency's standards do not apply to State and local governments except in States that elect voluntarily to adopt a State Plan approved by the Agency. Consequently, this proposed rule does not meet the definition of a “Federal intergovernmental mandate” (see Section 421(5) of the UMRA (2 U.S.C. 658(5)). Therefore, for the purposes of the UMRA, the Agency certifies that this proposed rule does not mandate that State, local, or tribal governments adopt new, unfunded regulatory obligations, or increase expenditures by the private sector of more than $100 million in any year.
OSHA must to consult with the ACCSH whenever the Agency proposes a rulemaking that involves the occupational safety and health of construction employees (29 CFR 1911.10, 1912.3). Accordingly, prior to the dates of meetings listed below, OSHA distributed to the ACCSH members for their review, a copy of the proposed revisions that applied to construction, as well as a brief summary and explanation of these revisions. At the regular meetings on December 15-16, 2011, May 10-11 2012, November 29, 2012, March 18, 2013, May 23, 2013, August 22, 2013, May 7-8 2014, December 3-4, 2014, and December 2, 2015, OSHA staff made presentations to the ACCSH members that summarized the material provided to them earlier, and then responded to their questions. The ACCSH subsequently recommended that OSHA publish the proposal.
OSHA invites comments on the proposed revisions described, and the specific issues raised, in this notice. These comments should include supporting information and data. OSHA will carefully review and evaluate these comments, information, and data, as well as any other information in the rulemaking record, to determine how to proceed.
When submitting comments, parties must follow the procedures specified in the previous sections titled
Under section 6(b)(3) of the OSH Act and 29 CFR 1911.11, members of the public may request an informal public hearing by following the instructions under the section of this
Recordkeeping.
Chest X-ray requirements, Incorporation by reference, Lockout/tagout, Pulmonary-function testing, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Chest X-ray requirements, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sanitation.
Airborne contaminants, Construction, Chest X-ray requirements, Coke oven emissions, Diesel equipment, Decompression table, Excavations, Emergency services, Incorporation by reference, Lanyards, Load limits, Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices (MUCTD), Personal protective equipment, Process safety management, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Roll-over protective structures (ROPs).
David Michaels, Ph.D., MPH, Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, authorized the preparation of this notice pursuant to Sections 4, 6, and 8 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657), 29 CFR part 1911, and Secretary's Order 1-2012 (77 FR 3912).
For the reasons stated in the preamble of this proposed rule, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration is proposing to amend 29 CFR parts 1904, 1910, 1915, and 1926 as set forth below:
29 U.S.C. 657, 658, 660, 666, 669, 673, Secretary of Labor's Orders No. 3-2000 (65 FR 50017) and 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable, and 5 U.S.C. 553.
(b) * * *
(6)
29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable.
Sections 1910.6, 1910.7, 1910.8, and 1910.9 also issued under 29 CFR 1911. Section 1910.7(f) also issued under 31 U.S.C. 9701, 29 U.S.C. 9a, 5 U.S.C. 553; Public Law 106-113 (113 Stat. 1501A-222); Public Law 11-8 and 111-317; and OMB Circular A-25 (dated July 8, 1993) (58 FR 38142, July 15, 1993).
(aa) The following material is available for purchase at the American Thoracic Society (ATS), 25 Broadway, 18th Floor New York, NY 10004; Web site:
(1) Spirometric Reference Values from a Sample of the General U.S. Population. Hankinson JL, Odencrantz JR, Fedan KB. American Journal of Respiratory and Critical Care Medicine, 159(1):179-187, January 1999, IBR approved for § 1910.1043(h).
(2) [Reserved]
(bb) The following material is available for purchase from the International Labour Organization (ILO), 4 route des Morillons, CH-1211 Genève 22, Switzerland; telephone: +41 (0) 22 799 6111; fax: +41 (0) 22 798 8685; Web site:
(1) Guidelines for the Use of the ILO International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses, Revised Edition 2011, Occupational safety and health series; 22 (Rev.2011), IBR approved for § 1910.1001, Appendix E.
(2) [Reserved]
29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable.
The revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(1) * * *
(i) This standard covers the servicing and maintenance of machines and equipment in which the energization or
(2) * * *
(iii) * * *
(A) Work on cord and plug connected electric equipment for which exposure to the hazards of energization or startup of the equipment is controlled by the unplugging of the equipment from the energy source and by the plug being under the exclusive control of the employee performing the servicing or maintenance.
(3) * * *
(i) This section requires employers to establish a program and utilize procedures for affixing appropriate lockout devices or tagout devices to energy isolating devices, and to otherwise disable machines or equipment to prevent energization, startup or release of stored energy in order to prevent injury to employees.
(b) * * *
(c) * * *
(1)
(4) * * *
(i) * * *
(f) * * *
(4)
Sections 4, 6, and 8 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), or 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355) or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.
All of subpart Z issued under section 6(b) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, except those substances that have exposure limits listed in Tables Z-1, Z-2, and Z-3 of 29 CFR 1910.1000. The latter were issued under section 6(a) (29 U.S.C. 655(a)).
Section 1910.1000, Tables Z-1, Z-2 and Z-3 also issued under 5 U.S.C. 553, but not under 29 CFR part 1911 except for the arsenic (organic compounds), benzene, cotton dust, and chromium (VI) listings.
Section 1910.1001 also issued under section 107 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (40 U.S.C. 3704) and 5 U.S.C. 553.
Section 1910.1002 also issued under 5 U.S.C. 553, but not under 29 U.S.C. 655 or 29 CFR part 1911.
Sections 1910.1018, 1910.1029, and 1910.1200 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 653.
Section 1910.1030 also issued under Pub. L. 106-430, 114 Stat. 1901.
Section 1910.1201 also issued under 49 U.S.C. 1801-1819 and 5 U.S.C. 553.
The revisions read as follows:
(l) * * *
(2) * * *
(ii) Such examination shall include, as a minimum, a medical and work history; a complete physical examination of all systems with emphasis on the respiratory system, the cardiovascular system and digestive tract; completion of the respiratory disease standardized questionnaire in Appendix D to this section, part 1; a 14- by 17-inch or other reasonably-sized standard film or digital posterior-anterior chest X-ray; pulmonary function tests to include forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume at 1 second (FEV(1.0)); and any additional tests deemed appropriate by the examining physician. Classification of all chest X-rays shall be conducted in accordance with Appendix E to this section.
(3) * * *
(ii) The scope of the medical examination shall be in conformance with the protocol established in paragraph (l)(2)(ii) of this section, except that the frequency of chest X-rays shall be conducted in accordance with Table 1, and the abbreviated standardized questionnaire contained in part 2 of Appendix D to this section shall be administered to the employee.
Table 1—Frequency of Chest X-ray
The revisions read as follows:
(n) * * *
(2) * * *
(ii) * * *
(A) A standard film or digital posterior-anterior chest X-ray;
(3) * * *
(i) Examinations must be provided in accordance with paragraphs (n)(2)(i) and (n)(2)(ii)(B) and (C) of this section at least annually.
(ii) Whenever a covered employee has not taken the examinations specified in paragraphs (n)(2)(i) and (n)(2)(ii)(B) and (C) of this section within six (6) months preceding the termination of employment, the employer shall provide such examinations to the employee upon termination of employment.
The revisions read as follows:
(l) * * *
(4) * * *
(ii) * * *
(C) A 14 inch by 17 inch or other reasonably-sized standard film or digital posterior-anterior chest X-ray (after the initial X-ray, the frequency of chest X-rays is to be determined by the examining physician);
The revisions read as follows:
(j) * * *
(2) * * *
(ii) 14- by 17-inch or other reasonably-sized standard film or digital posterior-anterior chest X-ray;
(3)
(ii) The employer must provide the examinations specified in paragraphs (j)(2)(i) and (j)(2)(iii) through (vii) of this section at least annually for employees 45 years of age or older or with five (5) or more years employment in the regulated area.
(iii) Whenever an employee who is 45 years of age or older or with five (5) or more years employment in a regulated area transfers or is transferred from employment in a regulated area, the employer must continue to provide the examinations specified in paragraphs (j)(2)(i) and (j)(2)(iii) through (vii) of this section at least annually as long as that employee is employed by the same employer or a successor employer.
The revisions read as follows:
(h) * * *
(2) * * *
(iii) A pulmonary function measurement, including forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), and determination of the FEV1/FVC ratio shall be made. FVC, FEV1, and FEV1/FVC ratio values shall be compared to appropriate race/ethnicity-specific Lower Limit of Normal (LLN) values and predicted values published in Spirometric Reference Values from a Sample of the General U.S. Population, American Journal of Respiratory and Critical Care Medicine, 159(1):179-187, January 1999 (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6). To obtain reference values for Asian-Americans, Spirometric Reference Values FEV1 and FVC predicted and LLN values for Caucasians shall be multiplied by 0.88 to adjust for ethnic differences. These determinations shall be made for each employee before the employee enters the workplace on the first day of the work week, preceded by at least 35 hours of no exposure to cotton dust. The tests shall be repeated during the shift, no less than 4 and no more than 10 hours after the beginning of the work shift; and, in any event, no more than one hour after cessation of exposure. Such exposure shall be typical of the employee's usual workplace exposure.
(3) * * *
(ii) Medical surveillance as required in paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section shall be provided every six months for all employees in the following categories:
(A) An FEV1 greater than the LLN, but with an FEV1 decrement of 5 percent or 200 ml. on a first working day;
(B) An FEV1 of less than the LLN; or
(n) * * *
(1) Appendices B and D of this section are incorporated as part of this section and the contents of these appendices are mandatory.
(n) * * *
(2) * * *
(iii) 14- by 17-inch or other reasonably-sized standard film or digital posterior-anterior chest X-ray; and
(3) * * *
(i) The employer shall provide the examinations specified in paragraphs (n)(2)(i), (ii), and (iv) of this section at least annually for all employees specified in paragraph (n)(1) of this section.
(ii) If an employee has not had the examination specified in paragraphs (n)(2)(i), (ii), and (iv) of this section within 6 months preceding termination of employment, the employer shall make such examination available to the employee prior to such termination.
Section 41, Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act (33 U.S.C. 941); Sections 4, 6, and 8 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31160), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; 29 CFR part 1911.
Sections 1915.120 and 1915.152 of 29 CFR also issued under 29 CFR part 1911.
(d) * * *
(6) The following material is available for purchase from the International Labour Organization (ILO), 4 route des Morillons, CH-1211 Genève 22, Switzerland; telephone: +41 (0) 22 799 6111; fax: +41 (0) 22 798 8685; Web site:
(i) Guidelines for the Use of the ILO International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses, Revised Edition 2011, Occupational safety and health series; 22 (Rev.2011), IBR approved for § 1915.1001, Appendix E.
(b) * * *
(33)
The revisions read as follows:
(m) * * *
(2) * * *
(ii) * * *
(C) A physical examination directed to the pulmonary and gastrointestinal systems, including a 14- by 17-inch or other reasonably-sized standard film or digital posterior-anterior chest X-ray to be administered at the discretion of the physician, and pulmonary function tests of forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume at one second (FEV(1)). Classification of all chest X-rays shall be conducted in accordance with Appendix E to this section.
40 U.S.C. 3701
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(u) * * *
(1) Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices, 2009 Edition, Part 6, May 2012, IBR approved for §§ 1926.200(g) and 1926.201(a).
(x) * * *
(1) ISO 27850:2013, Tractors for agriculture and forestry—Falling object protective structures—Test procedures and performance requirements, First Edition, May.01, 2013 (“ISO 27850:2013”), IBR approved for § 1926.1003(c).
(2) ISO 3471:2008, Earth-moving machinery—Roll-over protective structures—Laboratory tests and performance requirements, Fourth Edition, Aug. 8, 2008 (“ISO 3471:2008”), IBR approved for § 1926.1001(c).
(3) ISO 5700:2013, Tractors for agriculture and forestry—Roll-over protective structures—Static test method and conditions, Fifth Edition, May 1, 2013 (“ISO 5700:2013”), IBR approved for § 1926.1002(c).
(dd) The following material is available for purchase from the Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE), 400 Commonwealth Drive, Warrendale, PA 15096; telephone: 1-877-606-7323; fax: 724-776-0790; Web site:
(1) SAE 1970 Handbook, IBR approved for § 1926.602(b).
(2) SAE J166-1971, Trucks and Wagons, IBR approved for § 1926.602(a).
(3) SAE J167-1970, Protective Frame with Overhead Protection-Test Procedures and Performance Requirements, IBR approved for § 1926.1003(b).
(4) SAE J168-1970, Protective Enclosures-Test Procedures and Performance Requirements, IBR approved for § 1926.1002(b).
(5) SAE J185 (reaf. May 2003), Access Systems for Off-Road Machines, reaffirmed May 2003 (“SAE J185 (May 1993)”), IBR approved for § 1926.1423(c).
(6) SAE J236-1971, Self-Propelled Graders, IBR approved for § 1926.602(a).
(7) SAE J237-1971, Front End Loaders and Dozers, IBR approved for § 1926.602(a).
(8) SAE J319b-1971, Self-Propelled Scrapers, IBR approved for § 1926.602(a).
(9) SAE J320a-1971, Minimum Performance Criteria for Roll-Over Protective Structure for Rubber-Tired, Self-Propelled Scrapers, IBR approved for § 1926.1001(b).
(10) SAE J321a-1970, Fenders for Pneumatic-Tired Earthmoving Haulage Equipment, IBR approved for § 1926.602(a).
(11) SAE J333a-1970, Operator Protection for Agricultural and Light Industrial Tractors, IBR approved for § 1926.602(a).
(12) SAE J334a-1970, Protective Frame Test Procedures and Performance Requirements, IBR approved for § 1926.1002(b).
(13) SAE J386-1969, Seat Belts for Construction Equipment, IBR approved for § 1926.602(a).
(14) SAE J394-1971, Minimum Performance Criteria for Roll-Over Protective Structure for Rubber-Tired Front End Loaders and Robber-Tired Dozers, IBR approved for 1926.1001(b).
(15) SAE J395-1971, Minimum Performance Criteria for Roll-Over Protective Structure for Crawler Tractors and Crawler-Type Loaders, IBR approved for § 1926.1001(b).
(16) SAE J396-1971, Minimum Performance Criteria for Roll-Over Protective Structure for Motor Graders, IBR approved for § 1926.1001(b).
(17) SAE J397-1969, Critical Zone Characteristics and Dimensions for Operators of Construction and Industrial Machinery, IBR approved for § 1926.1001(b).
(18) SAE J743a-1964, Tractor Mounted Side Boom, 1964 (“SAE J743a-1964”), IBR approved for § 1926.1501(a).
(19) SAE J959-1966, Lifting Crane Wire-Rope Strength Factors, 1966 (“SAE J959-1966”), IBR approved for § 1926.1501(a).
(20) SAE J987 (rev. Jun. 2003), Lattice Boom Cranes—Method of Test, revised Jun. 2003 (“SAE J987 (Jun. 2003)”), IBR approved for § 1926.1433(c).
(21) SAE J1063 (rev. Nov. 1993), Cantilevered Boom Crane Structures—Method of Test, revised Nov. 1993 (“SAE J1063 (Nov. 1993)”), IBR approved for § 1926.1433(c).
(gg) The following material is available for purchase from the French government at
(1) Travaux en milieu hyperbare, measures particulières de prévention (Work in hyperbaric environment, specific prevention measures). J.O. Rep. Franç. Brochure n° 1636, June 1992.
(2) [Reserved]
(hh) The following material is available for purchase from the International Labour Organization (ILO), 4 route des Morillons, CH-1211 Genève 22, Switzerland; telephone: +41 (0) 22 799 6111; fax: +41 (0) 22 798 8685; Web site:
(1) Guidelines for the Use of the ILO International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses, Revised Edition 2011, Occupational safety and health series; 22 (Rev. 2011), IBR approved for § 1926.1101, Appendix E.
(2) [Reserved]
Section 107 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (40 U.S.C. 3704); Sections 4, 6, and 8 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, and 657); and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912) as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.
Sections 1926.59, 1926.60, and 1926.65 also issued under 5 U.S.C. 553 and 29 CFR part 1911.
Section 1926.61 also issued under 49 U.S.C. 1801-1819 and 5 U.S.C. 553.
Section 1926.62 also issued under section 1031 of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992 (42 U.S.C. 4853).
Section 1926.65 also issued under section 126 of the Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986, as amended (reprinted at 29 U.S.C.A. 655 Note), and 5 U.S.C. 553.
(f)(1) In areas where 911 emergency dispatch services are not available, the telephone numbers of the physicians, hospitals, or ambulances shall be conspicuously posted.
(2) In areas where 911 emergency dispatch services are available and an employer uses a communication system for contacting necessary emergency-medical service, the employer must:
(i) Ensure that the communication system is effective in contacting the emergency-medical service; and
(ii) When using a communication system in an area that does not automatically supply the caller's latitude and longitude information to the 911 emergency dispatcher, the employer must post in a conspicuous location at the worksite either:
(A) The latitude and longitude of the worksite; or
(B) Other location-identification information that communicates effectively to employees the location of the worksite.
The revisions read as follows:
(a)
(1)
(2)
(c) Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to the exposure of employees to airborne asbestos, tremolite, anthophyllite, or actinolite dust. Whenever any employee is exposed to airborne asbestos, tremolite, anthophyllite, or actinolite dust, the requirements of § 1926.1101 of this title shall apply.
Footnotes
* An “X” designation in the “Skin Designation” column indicates that the substance is a dermal hazard.
For requirements regarding the process safety management of highly hazardous chemicals as it pertains to construction work, follow the requirements in 29 CFR 1910.119 of this chapter.
40 U.S.C. 3701
(c)
(1) Is of safe design and construction for the work to be performed; and
(2) Is selected to ensure that it properly fits each affected employee.
(c) Lifelines used on rock-scaling operations, or in areas where the lifeline may be subjected to cutting or abrasion, shall be a minimum of 7/8-inch wire core manila rope. For all other lifeline applications, a minimum of 3/4-inch manila or equivalent, with a minimum breaking strength of 5,000 pounds, shall be used.
40 U.S.C. 333; 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.
(g)
(2) The design and use of all traffic control devices, including signs, signals, markings, barricades, and other devices, for protection of construction workers shall conform to Part VI of the MUTCD, 2009 Edition, including Revision 1 dated May 2012 and Revision 2 dated May 2012, FHWA (incorporated by reference, see § 1926.6).
(a)
40 U.S.C. 3701; 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable.
Section 1926.250 also issued under 29 CFR part 1911.
(a) * * *
(2) Employers must:
(i) Post the maximum safe load limits of the floors within buildings and structures, in pounds per square foot, conspicuously in all storage areas, except for floors or slabs on grade, and except that employers need not post limits in detached single-family dwellings or townhouses that are under construction; and
(ii) Ensure that loads on floors do not exceed the maximum safe loads of the floors.
Sec. 107, Contract Worker Hours and Safety Standards Act (Construction Safety Act) (40 U.S.C. 333); Secs. 4, 6, 8, Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable.
(j)
(2) Protection from excavated or other materials or equipment shall be provided by placing and keeping excavated or other materials or equipment at least 2 feet (.61 m) from the edge of excavations, or by the use of retaining devices that are sufficient to prevent materials or equipment from falling or rolling into excavations, or by a combination of both if necessary.
40 U.S.C. 3701; 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; and Secretary of Labor's Orders 12- 71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83
(k) * * *
(10)(i) Internal combustion engines, except diesel-powered engines on mobile equipment, are prohibited underground.
(ii) Mobile diesel-powered equipment used underground in atmospheres other than gassy operations purchased on or before [DATE OF PUBLICATION OF FINAL RULE IN THE FEDERAL REGISTER] shall
(A) Comply with paragraph (k)(10)(iii); or
(B) Have been approved by MSHA under 30 CFR part 32 (formerly Schedule 24) (1995), or be demonstrated by the employer to be fully equivalent to such MSHA-approved equipment, and be operated in accordance with that part. For purposes of this subsection, when an applicable MSHA provision uses the term “mine,” use the phrase “underground construction site.” (Each brake horsepower of a diesel engine requires at least 100 cubic feet (28.32 m
(iii) Mobile diesel-powered equipment used underground in atmospheres other than gassy operations purchased after [DATE OF PUBLICATION OF FINAL RULE IN THE FEDERAL REGISTER] shall comply with MSHA provisions 30 CFR 57.5067, 75.1909, 75.1910, and 75.1911(a) through (i) and shall be operated in accordance with those provisions. For purposes of this subsection, when an applicable MSHA provision uses the term “mine,” use the phrase “underground construction site.” (Each brake horsepower of a diesel engine requires at least 100 cubic feet (28.32 m
(f) * * *
(1) Decompression to normal condition shall be in accordance with the 1992 French Air and Oxygen decompression tables (incorporated by reference, see § 1926.6).
Section 3704 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (40 U.S.C. 3701); Sections 4, 6, and 8 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657); and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable.
The revisions read as follows:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
The revisions read as follows:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) For overhead protection requirements, see 29 CFR 1926.1003.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Section 107 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (40 U.S.C. 3704); Sections 4, 6, and 8 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657); and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31160), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912) as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.
Section 1926.1102 not issued under 29 U.S.C. 655 or 29 CFR part 1911; also issued under 5 U.S.C. 553.
The revisions read as follows:
(m) * * *
(2) * * *
(ii) * * *
(C) A physical examination directed to the pulmonary and gastrointestinal systems, including a 14- by 17-inch or other reasonably-sized standard film or digital posterior-anterior chest X-ray to be administered at the discretion of the physician, and pulmonary function tests of forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume at one second (FEV(1)). Classification of all chest X-rays shall be conducted in accordance with Appendix E to this section.
(l) * * *
(4) * * *
(ii) * * *
(C) A 14 inch by 17 inch or other reasonably-sized standard film or digital posterior-anterior chest X-ray (after the initial X-ray, the frequency of chest X-rays is to be determined by the examining physician);
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), HHS.
Final rule.
This final rule will revise the requirements that Long-Term Care facilities must meet to participate in the Medicare and Medicaid programs. These changes are necessary to reflect the substantial advances that have been made over the past several years in the theory and practice of service delivery and safety. These revisions are also an integral part of our efforts to achieve broad-based improvements both in the quality of health care furnished through federal programs, and in patient safety, while at the same time reducing procedural burdens on providers.
The regulations included in Phase 2 must be implemented by November 28, 2017.
The regulations included in Phase 3 must be implemented by November 28, 2019.
A detailed discussion regarding the different phases of the implementation timeline can be found in Section B. II “Implementation Date.”
LTC Regulations Team, (410) 786-6633: Sheila Blackstock, Ronisha Blackstone, Diane Corning, Lisa Parker.
Because of the many terms to which we refer by acronym in this final rule, we are listing the acronyms used and their corresponding meanings in alphabetical order below:
Consolidated Medicare and Medicaid requirements for participation (requirements) for long term care (LTC) facilities (42 CFR part 483, subpart B) were first published in the
Since the current requirements were developed, significant innovations in resident care and quality assessment practices have emerged. In addition, the population of LTC facilities has changed, and has become more diverse and more clinically complex. Over the last two to three decades, extensive, evidence-based research has been conducted and has enhanced our knowledge about resident safety, health outcomes, individual choice, and quality assurance and performance improvement. In light of these changes, we recognized the need to evaluate the regulations on a comprehensive basis, from both a structural and a content perspective. Therefore, we reviewed regulations in an effort to improve the quality of life, care, and services in LTC
• We have added the statutory authority citations for sections 1128I(b) and (c) and section 1150B of the Social Security Act (the Act) to include the compliance and ethics program, quality assurance and performance improvement (QAPI), and reporting of suspicion of a crime requirements to this section.
• We have added the definitions for “abuse”, “adverse event”, “exploitation”, “misappropriation of resident property”, “mistreatment”, “neglect”, “person-centered care”, “resident representative”, and “sexual abuse” to this section.
• We are retaining all existing residents' rights and updating the language and organization of the resident rights provisions to improve logical order and readability, clarify aspects of the regulation where necessary, and updating provisions to include advances such as electronic communications.
• We are requiring facilities to investigate and report all allegations of abusive conduct. We also are specifying that facilities cannot employ individuals who have had a disciplinary action taken against their professional license by a state licensure body as a result of a finding of abuse, neglect, mistreatment of residents or misappropriation of their property.
• We are requiring that a transfer or discharge be documented in the medical record and that specific information be exchanged with the receiving provider or facility when a resident is transferred.
• We are clarifying what constitutes appropriate coordination of a resident's assessment with the Preadmission Screening and Resident Review (PASARR) program under Medicaid. We are also adding references to statutory requirements that were inadvertently omitted from the regulation when we first implemented sections 1819 and 1919 of the Act.
• We are requiring facilities to develop and implement a baseline care plan for each resident, within 48 hours of their admission, which includes the instructions needed to provide effective and person-centered care that meets professional standards of quality care.
• We are adding a nurse aide and a member of the food and nutrition services staff to the required members of the interdisciplinary team that develops the comprehensive care plan.
• We are requiring that facilities develop and implement a discharge planning process that focuses on the resident's discharge goals and prepares residents to be active partners in post-discharge care, in effective transitions, and in the reduction of factors leading to preventable re-admissions. We are also implementing the discharge planning requirements mandated by The Improving Medicare Post-Acute Care Transformation Act of 2014 (IMPACT Act) by revising, or adding where appropriate, discharge planning requirements for LTC facilities.
• We are requiring that each resident receive and the facility provide the necessary care and services to attain or maintain the highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being, consistent with the resident's comprehensive assessment and plan of care.
• Based on the comprehensive assessment of a resident, we are requiring facilities to ensure that residents receive treatment and care in accordance with professional standards of practice, the comprehensive person-centered care plan, and the residents' choices.
• We are allowing attending physicians to delegate dietary orders to qualified dietitians or other clinically qualified nutrition professionals and therapy orders to therapists.
• We are adding a competency requirement for determining the sufficiency of nursing staff, based on a facility assessment, which includes but is not limited to the number of residents, resident acuity, range of diagnoses, and the content of individual care plans.
• We are adding a new section to subpart B that focuses on the requirement to provide the necessary behavioral health care and services to residents, in accordance with their comprehensive assessment and plan of care.
• We are adding “gerontology” to the list of possible human services fields from which a bachelor degree could provide the minimum educational requirement for a social worker.
• We are requiring that a pharmacist review a resident's medical chart during each monthly drug regimen review.
• We are revising existing requirements regarding “antipsychotic” drugs to refer to “psychotropic” drugs and define “psychotropic drug” as any drug that affects brain activities associated with mental processes and behavior. We are requiring several provisions intended to reduce or eliminate the need for psychotropic drugs, if not clinically contraindicated, to safeguard the resident's health.
• We are clarifying that a physician assistant, nurse practitioner or clinical nurse specialist may order laboratory, radiology, and other diagnostic services for a resident in accordance with state law, including scope-of-practice laws.
• We are prohibiting SNFs and NFs from charging a Medicare resident for the loss or damage of dentures determined in accordance with facility policy to be the facility's responsibility, and we are adding a requirement that the facility have a policy identifying those instances when the loss or damage of dentures is the facility's responsibility. We are requiring NFs to assist residents who are eligible to apply for reimbursement of dental services under the Medicaid state plan, where applicable.
• We are clarifying that with regard to a referral for lost or damaged dentures “promptly” means that the referral must be made within 3 business days unless there is documentation of extenuating circumstances.
• We are requiring facilities to provide each resident with a nourishing, palatable, well-balanced diet that meets his or her daily nutritional and special dietary needs, taking into consideration the preferences of each resident. We are also requiring facilities to employ sufficient staff, including the designation of a director of food and nutrition service, with the appropriate competencies and skills sets to carry out the functions of dietary services while taking into consideration resident assessments and individual plans of care, including diagnoses and acuity, as well as the facility's resident census.
• We have added respiratory services to those services identified as specialized rehabilitative services.
• We have largely relocated various portions of this section into other sections of subpart B as deemed appropriate.
• We require facilities to conduct, document, and annually review a facility-wide assessment to determine what resources are necessary to care for its residents competently during both day-to-day operations and emergencies. Facilities are required to address in the facility assessment the facility's resident population (that is, number of residents, overall types of care and staff competencies required by the residents, and cultural aspects), resources (for example, equipment, and overall personnel), and a facility-based and community-based risk assessment.
• Binding Arbitration Agreements: We are requiring that facilities must not enter into an agreement for binding arbitration with a resident or their representative until after a dispute arises between the parties. Thus, we are prohibiting the use of pre-dispute binding arbitration agreements.
• We are requiring all LTC facilities to develop, implement, and maintain an effective comprehensive, data-driven QAPI program that focuses on systems of care, outcomes of care and quality of life.
• We are requiring facilities to develop an Infection Prevention and Control Program (IPCP) that includes an Antibiotic Stewardship Program and designate at least one Infection Preventionist (IP).
• We are requiring the operating organization for each facility to have in effect a compliance and ethics program that has established written compliance and ethics standards, policies and procedures that are capable of reducing the prospect of criminal, civil, and administrative violations in accordance with section 1128I(b) of the Act.
• We are requiring facilities that are constructed, re-constructed, or newly certified after the effective date of this regulation to accommodate no more than two residents in a bedroom. We are also requiring facilities that are constructed, or newly certified after the effective date of this regulation to have a bathroom equipped with at least a commode and sink in each room.
• We are adding a new section to subpart B that sets forth all the requirements of an effective training program that facilities must develop, implement, and maintain for all new and existing staff, individuals providing services under a contractual arrangement, and volunteers, consistent with their expected roles.
We estimate the total projected cost of this final rule will be about $831 million in the first year and $736 million per year for subsequent years. While this is a large amount in total, the average costs per facility are estimated to be about $62,900 in the first year and $55,000 per year for subsequent years. Although the overall magnitude of cost related to this regulation is economically significant, we note that these costs are significantly less than the amount of Medicare and Medicaid spending for LTC services. According to the 2015 Annual Report of the Medicare Trustees, payments for SNF services from Medicare Part A were $29.92 billion for fiscal year 2015 and payments for NF services were $50.6 billion for fiscal year 2013 (see
We are unable to quantify the benefits of the final rule; however, this final rule creates new efficiencies and flexibilities for facilities that are likely to reduce avoidable hospital readmissions, increase the rate of improvement in quality throughout facilities, and create positive business benefits for facilities.
In addition to specific statutory requirements set out in sections 1819 and 1919 and elsewhere in the Act, sections 1819(d)(4)(B) and 1919(d)(4)(B) of the Act permit the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services (the Secretary) to establish any additional requirements relating to the health, safety, and well-being of SNF and NF residents, respectively, as the Secretary finds necessary.
Under sections 1866 and 1902 of the Act, providers of services seeking to participate in the Medicare or Medicaid program, or both, must enter into an agreement with the Secretary or the state Medicaid agency, as appropriate. LTC facilities seeking to be Medicare and Medicaid providers of services must be certified as meeting federal participation requirements. LTC facilities include SNFs for Medicare and NFs for Medicaid. The federal participation requirements for SNFs, NFs, or dually certified facilities, are codified in the implementing regulations at 42 CFR part 483, subpart B. Sections 1819(b)(1)(A) and 1919(b)(1)(A) of the Act provide that a SNF or NF must care for its residents in such a manner and in such an environment as will promote maintenance or enhancement of the quality of life of each resident. In addition, the IMPACT Act (Pub. L. 113-185) amended Title XVIII of the Act by, among other things, adding Section 1899B to the Act. Section 1899B(i) of the Act requires that certain providers, including long term care facilities, take into account, quality, resource use, and other measures to inform and assist with the discharge planning process, while also accounting for the treatment preferences and goals of care of residents.
The Affordable Care Act made a number of changes to the Medicare and Medicaid programs. For instance, in an effort to increase accountability for SNFs and NFs, section 6102 of the Affordable Care Act established a new section 1128I of the Act. In general, section 1128I(b) of the Act requires LTC facilities to have in operation an effective compliance and ethics program that is effective in preventing and
On July 16, 2015, we published a proposed rule entitled, “Medicare and Medicaid Programs; Reform of Requirements for Long-Term Care Facilities” (80 FR 42168). In the proposed rule we included a robust discussion about the history the LTC requirements and how the current care and service delivery practices of LTC facilities have changed over time. We encourage readers to refer to the proposed rule for this discussion. As discussed in the proposed rule, the requirements for LTC facilities have not been comprehensively reviewed and updated since 1991. In addition, the number of individuals accessing SNF care has increased and the health concerns of individuals residing in LTC facilities have become more clinically complex. These factors demonstrated a need to comprehensively review the regulation and informed our approach for revising the regulations. The following discussion highlights our approach for revising the LTC regulations as well as some of the most significant revisions set forth in this final rule.
One of our goals in revising our minimum health and safety requirements for LTC facilities is to ensure that our regulations align with current clinical practice and allow flexibility to accommodate multiple care delivery models to meet the needs of the diverse populations that are provided services in these facilities. We have taken a competency-based approach that focuses on achieving the statutorily mandated outcome of ensuring that each resident is provided care that allows the resident to maintain or attain their highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being. As discussed in further detail, we are requiring facilities to assess their facility capabilities and their resident population. This competency-based approach is compatible with existing state requirements and business practices, and promotes both efficiency and effectiveness in care delivery.
This final rule is intended to meet the spirit of current HHS quality initiatives that cut across various providers. As an effective steward of public funds, CMS is committed to strengthening and modernizing the nation's health care system to provide access to high quality care and improved health at lower cost. This includes improving the patient experience of care, both quality and satisfaction, improving the health of populations, and reducing the per capita cost of health care. As discussed below, we are implementing several revisions consistent with these efforts.
One goal of the HHS Partnership for Patients Initiative is to reduce the number of individuals who experience a preventable complication requiring rehospitalization. This effort aims to improve the quality of care and services for individuals cared for in LTC facilities. In support of this initiative, CMS launched the “Initiative to Reduce Avoidable Hospitalizations among Nursing Facility Residents” (
Consistent with the HHS focus on reducing unnecessary hospitalization, this final rule strengthens the minimum health and safety standards for LTC facilities in hopes of contributing to a reduction in unnecessary hospital admissions of LTC facility residents. We discuss those changes in more detail in the discussion that follows.
HHS is also working to reduce the incidence of healthcare associated infections (HAIs) across providers. In recognition of HAIs as an important public health and patient safety issue, HHS is sponsoring the “National Action Plan to Prevent HAIs.” This initiative seeks to coordinate and maximize the efficiency of prevention efforts across the federal government (
On March 29, 2012, CMS launched an initiative aimed at improving behavioral healthcare and safeguarding LTC facility residents from the use of unnecessary antipsychotic medications, the National Partnership to Improve Dementia Care in Nursing Homes. As part of the initiative, CMS has developed a national action plan that uses a multidimensional approach including public reporting, raising public awareness, regulatory oversight, and technical assistance/training and research. This plan is targeted at enhancing person-centered care for LTC facility residents, particularly those with dementia-related behaviors (
Similarly, with regard to minimum health and safety standards, this final rule implements regulatory changes that may lead to a reduction in the unnecessary use of antipsychotic medication and improvements in the quality of behavioral healthcare.
HHS also has a number of initiatives designed to encourage and support the adoption of health information technology and to promote nationwide health information exchange to improve health care. The Department is committed to accelerating health information exchange (HIE) through initiatives including: (1) Establishing a coordinated governance framework and process for nationwide health IT interoperability; (2) improving technical standards and implementation guidance for sharing and using a common clinical data set; (3) enhancing incentives for sharing electronic health information according to common technical standards, starting with a common clinical data set; and (4) clarifying
HHS has also undertaken broad-based activities to support Americans that have specific needs to be considered in delivering health care and other services. Activities include raising awareness about the special care needs of trauma survivors, including a targeted effort to support the needs of Holocaust survivors living in the United States. Trauma survivors, including veterans, survivors of large-scale natural and human-caused disasters, Holocaust survivors and survivors of abuse, are among those who may be residents of long-term care facilities. For these individuals, the utilization of trauma-informed approaches is an essential part of person-centered care. Person-centered care that reflects the principles set forth in SAMSHA's “Concept of Trauma and Guidance for a Trauma-Informed Approach,” HHS Publication No. (SMA) 14-4884, available at
In response to our July 16, 2015 proposed rule (80 FR 42168), we received over 9,800 public comments. Commenters included long-term care consumers, advocacy groups for long-term care consumers, organizations representing providers of long-term care and senior service, long-term care ombudsman, state survey agencies, various health care associations, legal organizations, and many individual health care professionals. Below, we have organized our response to comments as follows: A. General Comments; B. Implementation, and C. Public Comments by Regulatory Section.
Specifically, many commenters support the change in focus towards person-centered care. One commenter stated that “[t]he rule would require that facilities learn more about who the resident is as a person, provide greater support for resident preferences and give residents increased control and choice. This focus on person-centered care and culture change would improve both the resident's quality of life and quality of care.” Commenters also expressed support for improved protections of resident's rights, protections against abuse and neglect, and a greater emphasis on resident and representative participation in care planning. Commenters also stated that change is necessary to reflect current standards of practice, and support our use of geriatrics-focused medical literature in developing the proposed requirements.
Conversely, many commenters believe we should acknowledge that LTC facilities are no longer necessarily de facto homes, but skilled health care facilities providing more intensive care for shorter periods of time, and that the requirements should address the specific needs of shorter-stay residents, such as those who are rehabilitating after medical events before returning to their private residence. For example, these shorter stay residents (who usually stay for fewer than 30 days) are not likely interested in resident or family councils, or concerned about selecting a roommate. Commenters also expressed that short-stay individuals may not benefit from the same type of care planning as would be appropriate for longer term residents.
We believe that the person-centered approach to care required in this rulemaking allows for flexibility in care planning and resident accommodations. A resident at the LTC facility for a short period of time may have a shorter or more focused plan of care than a long-term resident. Similarly, a short-term resident may elect not to participate in resident councils.
Other commenters offered concerns about variability and perceived inconsistencies between surveys and surveyors. A few commenters urged CMS to provide defined consequences for noncompliance with the regulations, particularly those related to residents' rights, grievances, and abuse and neglect, including finding of Immediate Jeopardy (as appropriate) and, ultimately, sanctions, including large civil monetary penalties, temporary management, directed corrective actions, and exclusion from participation in Federal health care programs, as appropriate.
We acknowledge that the SNF value-based purchasing (VBP) program, which will take effect in FY 2019, is intended to tie SNF payments more closely to rewarding positive patient care outcomes. Under section 1888(h)(6) of the Act, the VBP incentive payments to the higher-performing SNFs are to be funded through a 2 percent reduction in the overall SNF PPS payment rates (again, effective in FY 2019); accordingly, under the terms of the VBP legislation, a SNF's successful performance in meeting the applicable quality measures can help mitigate the actual impact of the overall payment reduction. These payment changes were specifically mandated by Congress when it enacted the SNF VBP legislation in section 215 of the Protecting Access to Medicare Act of 2014 (PAMA, Pub. L. 113-93). The requirements in this rulemaking share the VBP program's objective of improving the quality of care in the LTC setting. We note in addition that SNF PPS payment rates have increased steadily over recent years, due to market basket updates.
• Belief that allowing residents to choose their attending physician would be a new requirement.
• Impression that having a RN on the interdisciplinary care team would be a new requirement.
• Concerns that these requirements are entirely new, such that all existing health and safety activities at LTC facilities would need to be recreated or developed from scratch.
• Concerns that new staff would need to be hired to perform tasks already being handled by existing staff.
• Belief that a chaplain would be a mandatory member of the interdisciplinary care team.
• Belief that a complete care plan would have to be developed within a new resident's first 48 hours at the LTC facility.
• Belief that existing facilities would have to limit occupancy to two residents per room, even if that would reduce bed count.
• Impression that the new requirements are simply a duplicate of the old requirements.
• Uncertainty as to whether the LTC requirements are applicable to other healthcare settings, such as hospital “swing-beds” or assisted living facilities.
Some commenters also expressed concern that CMS may be unreasonably focused on regulating LTC facilities, to the point of not updating regulations and requirements for other provider types. Commenters also claimed that LTC facilities are “the most regulated industry in America,” and that “the nuclear industry is less regulated” than the LTC facility industry.
The comments displaying unfamiliarity with the existing requirements are troubling to us. The right of a LTC resident to choose his or her own attending physician is a long-standing patient right, which was established at section 1819(c)(1)(A)(i) of the Act by section 4201 of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 and at section 1919(c)(1)(A)(i) by section 4211 of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987. We included the right to choose a physician in this rulemaking in order to support the statutory requirement, and remind stakeholders that it is not a new requirement and therefore should add no new regulatory burden. Similarly, the requirement that a RN serve as a member of an interdisciplinary team is not new to this rulemaking, but “carried over” from the old requirements to the revised requirements as an important foundational aspect of care planning. Also, we do not expect facilities to completely recreate health and safety activities. Existing effective programs may already meet the substance of the revised requirements completely, in which case no additional implementation work is necessary. We address these comments, and others, in greater detail in the relevant sections of this preamble.
For those misunderstood provisions of the proposed rule, we have attempted to clarify the relevant sections of the rule, and note that we did not propose that chaplains must be members of all interdisciplinary teams, only that their inclusion is permitted as deemed appropriate by facilities or residents. Similarly, we did not propose that a full plan of care be developed within a resident's first 48 hours, only that a baseline plan be established. The “two persons per room” requirement applies only to those facilities that receive approval to be constructed or reconstructed, or are newly certified after this rulemaking. Existing facilities with larger rooms are effectively grandfathered into compliance.
For those health care providers who are not sure whether these requirements apply to them, we encourage them to work with their facility's administration and governing body to determine applicability. This rulemaking applies to Medicare- and Medicaid-certified long term care facilities as defined at sections 1819 and 1919 of the Act and all facilities receiving payment under such programs. Swing-bed hospital units, for example, would need to meet specific conditions of participation for such units, as set out at 42 CFR 482.58, and which include a subset of the requirements contained 42 CFR 483. We note that CMS does not issue regulations or guidance for assisted living facilities, nor are they eligible for Medicare reimbursement. While some assisted living facilities do provide health services (such as medication supervision, nurse support, and emergency medical assistance for residents), they are not classified as health care providers or suppliers under the Act. Some states do regulate them, often as social service providers rather than health care providers. The requirements in this rulemaking may be helpful to other health care and social service settings, but only LTC facilities are required to meet them.
Commenters provided varying suggestions for a implementation timeframe. Some commenters provided suggestions specific to certain requirements. For example, one commenter recommended a 12- to 18-month implementation timeframe for pharmacy services-related requirements. Other commenters recommended that the entire regulation be implemented by phasing in requirements over a certain time period. In addition, commenters provided varying suggestions for an implementation date of the entire regulation that ranged from 1 to 10 years in the future.
While commenters provided varying suggestions for the appropriate implementation timeframe (ranging between 1 and 10 years), overall all commenters agreed that implementation will require more than a year and the majority of commenters suggested between 3 and 5 years. After considering these proposals, we are finalizing a phased-in implementation of the requirements over a 3 year time period. We believe that a phased-in approach over 3 years will sufficiently allow for LTC facilities to achieve compliance with the revised regulations without jeopardizing resident care. We note that these final regulations will be effective 60 days following the display of this final rule in the
The second phase of implementation will have a deadline of 1 year following the effective date of the final rule and in addition to those requirements implemented in phase one, this phase will also include those brand new requirements and those provisions that required more complex revisions. The additional time for implementation will allow for complete changes in our survey processes as well as updates to the survey guidance. We will provide updated guidance to facilities, update the traditional and QIS survey process, update the survey tags in accordance with the reorganization of the regulations, and provide training to surveyors on the new tags. The third and final phase of implementation will have a deadline of 3 years from the effective date of the final rule and include all the remaining requirements that were not implemented in phases 1 and 2. We expect that this final phase will allow for the complete set of revised requirements to be incorporated into the practices of LTC facilities and sufficiently enforced through the updated survey process.
Below we provide a detailed chart specifying the specific requirements that will be implemented in phases 1, 2, and 3 of the implementation time period for this final rule. We note that some regulatory sections may have certain requirements that are implemented in varying phases. In those instances we highlight the specific requirements in a regulatory section that will be implemented in a different phase.
We proposed to revise § 483.1 “Basis and Scope” to include references to sections 1819(f), 1919(f), 1128I(b) and (c), and 1150B of the Act. Sections 1819(f) and 1919(f) of the Act require that the current mandatory on-going training for NAs include dementia management and resident abuse prevention training. New section 1128I(b) of the Act requires the operating organizations for SNFs and NFs to have a compliance and ethics program and new section 1128I(c) of the Act requires the Secretary to establish and implement a QAPI program for facilities. New section 1150B of the Act establishes requirements for reporting to law enforcement suspicion of crimes occurring in federally funded LTC facilities. In addition, we proposed to spell out the term “skilled nursing facility”.
We did not receive any comments in response to our proposals in this section. Therefore, we are finalizing our proposal without modification.
Current regulations at § 483.5 provide definitions for terms commonly used in the LTC requirements. We proposed to revise some of the existing terms for clarity and define new terms that we believe are widely used within the LTC setting, and that we believe will add value to the LTC requirements while promoting resident choice and safety.
We retained the existing definitions for “facility” and “distinct part”. In addition, we retained the definition of “major modification”, which was added to the LTC regulations in the May 12, 2014 final rule, “Regulatory Provisions to Promote Program Efficiency, Transparency, and Burden Reduction; Part II” (79 FR 27106). We also proposed minor revisions to the definition of “common area” to recognize that some facilities have living rooms or other areas where residents gather. We proposed to expand this section to include the following definitions: “abuse,” “adverse event,” “exploitation,” “misappropriation of resident property,” “neglect,” “person-centered care,” “resident representative,” and “sexual abuse”. In addition, we proposed to relocate the definitions for “licensed health professional” and “nurse aide” to this section from the “Administration” section at § 483.75(e)(1). In addition, we proposed to revise the definition of “nurse aide” in accordance with amendments to sections 1819(b)(5)(F) and 1919(b)(5)(F) of the Act made by sections 6121(a)(2) and (b)(2) of the Affordable Care Act. “Nurse aide” is currently defined as any individual providing nursing or nursing-related services to residents in a facility who is not a licensed health professional, a registered dietitian, or someone who volunteers to provide these services without pay. “Nurse aides” do not include those individuals who furnish services to residents only as paid feeding assistants, as defined in § 488.301. Section 6121 of the Affordable Care Act added the following clarification to the definition of “nurse aide”: “Such term includes an individual who provides such services through an agency or under a contract with the facility.” We proposed to amend the regulatory definition accordingly. We proposed to add the term “adverse event” to ensure clarity in our requirements relating to proposed requirements for QAPI. For purposes of this regulation, we also proposed to define the term “resident representative” broadly to include both an individual of the resident's choice who has access to information and participates in healthcare discussions as well as personal representative with legal standing, such as a power of attorney for healthcare, legal guardian, or health care surrogate or proxy appointed in accordance with state law to act in whole or in part on the resident's behalf. We also noted that the same-sex spouse of a resident would be afforded treatment equal to that afforded to an opposite-sex spouse if the marriage was valid in the jurisdiction in which it was celebrated. In addition, we proposed to add a definition of “person-centered care” to be defined as focusing on the resident as the locus of control and supporting the resident in making their own choices and having control over their daily lives. For purposes of these regulations, we proposed that “abuse” would include actions such as the willful infliction of injury, unreasonable confinement, intimidation, or punishment with resulting physical harm, pain or mental anguish. As used in this definition of “abuse”, “willful” means the individual must have acted deliberately, not that the individual must have intended to inflict injury or harm. We proposed that “abuse” would also include the deprivation by an individual of goods or services that are necessary to attain or maintain physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being. The term “sexual abuse” would extend the meaning of “abuse” to include non-consensual sexual contact of any type with a resident. We proposed to define the term “neglect” as “the failure of the facility, its employees or service providers to provide goods and services to a resident that are necessary to avoid physical harm, pain, mental anguish or mental illness.” We proposed to define “exploitation” as “the unfair treatment or use of a resident or the taking of a selfish or unfair advantage of a resident for personal gain, through manipulation, intimidation, threats, or coercion.”
We also proposed to add the term “misappropriation of resident property” and define the term as “the deliberate misplacement, exploitation, or wrongful, temporary, or permanent use of a resident's belongings or money without the resident's consent.”
Finally, we proposed to move the existing definition of “transfer and discharge” from § 483.12(a)(1) to § 483.5.
We agree with commenters who suggested that the term “mistreatment” be defined in the regulation. Regulations at proposed § 483.12(a)(2)(iii) specify that facilities cannot employ or otherwise engage individuals who have had a disciplinary action taken against their professional license as a result of mistreatment. Therefore, based on public comments and the use of the term “mistreatment” in § 483.12, we are revising the definitions section to add the term; “mistreatment” which means “to inappropriately treat or exploit a resident.” Lastly, we do not agree that the terms “staffing practices” and “portable order for scope of treatment” should be defined because these terms are not used in the regulations.
In addition, commenters suggested deleting the clause regarding the deprivation of goods and services from the definition of “abuse”. Commenters indicated that the use of this clause is problematic and is more appropriately covered by the definition of “neglect.” One commenter further suggested that the sentence, “This presumes that instances of abuse of all residents, irrespective of any mental or physical condition, cause physical harm, pain or mental anguish”, also be removed from the definition of abuse. The commenter communicated that definitions should not include presumptions and the phrase “instances of abuse of all residents” is unclear. Another commenter recommended that the definition clarify further that abuse facilitated or enabled through the use of technology refers to platforms such as social media.
Another commenter recommended that the definition of “person-centered care” be modified to include that the relationship between residents and providers is a collaborative partnership.
Other commenters recommended that the definition of “resident representative” be revised to appropriately capture the many relationships that individuals may have with the resident. Commenters indicated that the definition should clearly identify the rights that such individuals have acting on behalf of or advocating with the resident. Commenters also noted that it is important to clarify that residents are not obligated to choose or designate anyone as a representative. Commenters recommended the use of terms, such as “resident enabler” and “resident supporter” to more appropriately incorporate the concept of supported decision-making. One commenter recommended that our definition be revised to align with the definition in the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman Program regulations found at 45 CFR 1327.1 (recently relocated to 45 CFR 1324.1; see the final rule, “Administration for Community Living Regulatory Consolidation” (81 FR 35644, June 3, 2016).
One commenter affirmed the need to highlight the equal treatment of same-sex spouses, while another commenter suggested that the discussion regarding the selection of a same-sex spouse as a representative be removed from the definition. The commenter notes that same-sex spouses are now covered under state law and it is unnecessary to specify one particular group in this definition while omitting others.
We believe that this definition matches our intent behind defining “resident representative” in the LTC regulations and to align with existing HHS regulation, we are revising the definition of “resident representative” to match the definition found at 45 CFR 1324.1. Generally speaking, the authority of an individual vested with decision-making power under state law would exceed that of an individual without formal legal recognition.
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing our proposal with the following modifications. We have—
• Revised the definition of “abuse” to read, “the willful infliction of injury, unreasonable confinement, intimidation, or punishment with resulting physical harm, pain or mental anguish. Abuse also includes the deprivation by an individual, including a caretaker, of goods or services that are necessary to attain or maintain physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being. Instances of abuse of all residents, irrespective of any mental or physical condition, cause physical harm, pain or mental anguish. It includes verbal abuse, sexual abuse, physical abuse, and mental abuse including abuse facilitated or enabled through the use of technology. Willful, as used in this definition of abuse, means that the individual must have acted deliberately, not that the individual must have intended to inflict injury or harm.”
• Revised the definition of “exploitation” to read, “taking advantage of a resident for personal gain through the use of manipulation, intimidation, threats, or coercion.”
• Revised the definition of “licensed health professional” by adding “registered respiratory therapist or certified respiratory therapy technician.”
• Added a definition of “mistreatment” and defined it as “inappropriate treatment or exploitation of a resident.”
• Revised the definition of “neglect” to read, “the failure of the facility, its employees or service providers to provide goods and services to a resident that are necessary to avoid physical harm, pain, mental anguish or emotional distress.”
• Revised the definition of “resident representative” to read (in accordance with 45 CFR 1324.1), “(1) An individual chosen by the resident to act on behalf of the resident in order to support the resident in decision-making; access medical, social or other personal information of the resident; manage financial matters; or receive notifications; (2) A person authorized by State or Federal law (including but not limited to agents under power of attorney, representative payees, and other fiduciaries) to act on behalf of the resident in order to support the resident in decision-making; access medical, social or other personal information of the resident; manage financial matters; or receive notifications; (3) Legal representative, as used in section 712 of the Older Americans Act; or (4) The court-appointed guardian or conservator of a resident. (5) Nothing in this rule is intended to expand the scope of authority of any resident representative beyond that authority specifically authorized by the resident, State or Federal law, or a court of competent jurisdiction.”
Current regulations at § 483.10 address a number of resident rights and facility requirements, including those establishing a resident's right to exercise his or her rights, including rights associated with a dignified existence, self-determination, planning and implementing care, access to information, privacy and confidentiality. Resident rights are also addressed in existing § 483.15. Based on a review of these regulations, we proposed to retain all existing residents' rights, but update the language and organization of the resident rights provisions to improve logical order and readability, to clarify aspects of the regulation that warranted it, and to update provisions to include technological advances such as electronic communications. In order to achieve these objectives, we proposed to revise existing § 483.10 to include only those provisions specifying resident rights, including a number of provisions that are currently included in § 483.15. We further proposed to add a new § 483.11, to focus on the responsibilities of the facility, including relevant provisions currently included in § 483.10 and § 483.15. As with § 483.10, we proposed multiple re-designations and revisions to improve logical order and readability, clarify aspects of the regulation that warranted it, and reflect technological advances such as electronic communications. Under our proposal, some existing provisions would have components in both § 483.10 and § 483.11. We discuss below our proposed revisions to those provisions retained in or moved to § 483.10 and note that regulatory citations have been updated throughout to reflect the proposed new structure.
We proposed to revise § 483.10 to focus specifically on resident rights. In proposed § 483.10(a)(2), we clarified the resident's right to be supported in his or her exercise of rights under this subpart. In proposed § 483.10(a)(3), we clarified the resident's right to designate a representative to exercise only those rights delegated by the resident, and the resident's retention of rights not delegated, including the right to revoke a delegation.
In § 483.10(a)(4) we proposed to clarify that a resident who was adjudged incompetent under the laws of a state would retain the right to exercise those rights not addressed by a court order, that the resident representative can only exercise the rights that devolve to them as a result of the court order, that the resident's wishes and preferences should continue to be considered, and that the resident should continue to be involved in the care planning process to the extent practicable, as the resident is at the center of the care team. Lastly, in our December 12, 2014 proposed rule “Medicare and Medicaid Programs; Revisions to Certain Patient's Rights Conditions of Participation and Conditions for Coverage” (79 FR 73873), we proposed at § 483.10(a)(4) to require that the same-sex spouse of a resident be afforded treatment equal to that afforded to an opposite-sex spouse if the marriage was valid in the jurisdiction in which it was celebrated. We proposed to re-designate this requirement from § 483.10(a)(4) (as set out in the December 2014 proposed rule at 79 FR 73811) to § 483.10(a)(5).
In proposed § 483.10(b), we included resident rights related to planning and implementing care. We proposed to re-designate and revise current § 483.10(b)(3), § 483.10(b)(4) and § 483.10(b)(8), relating to the resident's right to be informed of his or her total health status, including medical conditions; the right to be informed in advance of the risks and benefits of proposed care, including treatment and treatment alternatives or treatment options so that the resident can choose the alternative or option he or she prefers; the right to request, refuse and/or discontinue treatment, including participating in or refusing to participate in experimental research; and the right to formulate advance directives. We proposed to add new requirements in § 483.10(b)(5) to specify that the resident has the right to participate in the care planning process, including the right to identify individuals or roles to be included in the planning process, the right to request meetings and the right to request revisions to the person-centered plan of care. We further specified in § 483.10(b)(5)(iv) that the resident has the right to receive the services and items included in the plan of care. We also proposed to re-designate and revise existing § 483.10(d)(2) to specify that the resident has the right, in advance, to be informed of and to participate in, his or her care and treatment, including the right to be informed, in advance, of the care to be furnished and the disciplines that will furnish care. In addition, we proposed to specify the resident's right to participate in the development of his or her comprehensive care plan. We also proposed at § 483.10(b)(6) to include the resident's right to self-administer medication if the interdisciplinary team has determined that doing so would be clinically appropriate. Finally, we proposed to add a new section at § 483.10(b)(7) to specify that these rights cannot be construed as a right to receive medical care that is not medically necessary or appropriate.
We proposed to require that the facility ensure that the attending physician is appropriately licensed and credentialed to provide care and meet the requirements of applicable regulations. In proposed § 483.10(c), we added new paragraphs § 483.10(c)(1), (2) and (3) to specify that the physician chosen by the resident must be licensed to practice medicine, and must meet professional credentialing requirements of the facility.
In § 483.10(d), we proposed to re-designate a number of provisions relating to resident respect and dignity, based on existing § 483.13(a) and § 483.15. We further proposed to add a new § 483.10(d)(5) to specify that a resident has the right to share a room with his or her roommate of choice, when both residents live in the same facility, both residents consent to the arrangement, and the facility can reasonably accommodate the arrangement. We noted that married couples, whether opposite or same sex, are addressed by § 483.10(d)(5). Our proposed provision provided for a rooming arrangement that could include a same-sex couple, siblings, other relatives, long-term friends or any other combination as long as the requirements above are met.
In proposed § 483.10(e), we proposed to revise a number of provisions relating to resident self-determination. We proposed to revise § 483.10(e)(3) to ensure not only that specified individuals and/or organizations have access to the resident, but also to ensure that the resident can receive his or her visitors of choice at the time of his or her choosing. We proposed to revise § 483.10(e)(4) and (5), clarifying that it is the resident's right to participate in family groups and have his or her family members or resident representatives participate in family groups in the facility.
In § 483.10(f), we proposed to re-designate and revise a number of provisions relating to resident access to information. We proposed to specify in § 483.10(f)(2) that the resident has the right to receive notices verbally (meaning spoken) and in writing (including Braille) in a format and a language he or she understands. We also proposed to add a new § 483.10(f)(2)(i) to reference required notices and a new § 483.10(f)(2)(iv) to ensure residents are aware of and can contact an Aging and Disability Resource Center or other “No Wrong Door” program.
Federal requirements and expectations related to the privacy and confidentiality of patient records, in particular regulations governing protected health information, changed substantially with the enactment of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) and subsequent issuance of the HIPAA Privacy and Security Rules (see 45 CFR part 160 and subparts A, C, and E of part 164), the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health (HITECH) Act and the issuance of the HIPAA Breach Notification Rule and HIPAA Final Rule (45 CFR part 160 and subpart D of part 164; 78 FR 5566, January 25,2013). For simplicity, we hereinafter collectively refer to these laws and their implementing regulations as “HIPAA.” We note that administration and enforcement of the privacy, security, and breach-related portions of the HIPAA regulatory scheme are delegated to the HHS Office for Civil Rights (OCR) and more detailed information related to these regulations can be accessed through the OCR Web site at
We proposed to retain the requirements of current § 483.10(b)(2)(i) and (ii), subject to the clarifying revisions described below, at new § 483.10(f)(3). In doing so, we recognized that the HIPAA rules establish a federal floor of privacy and security protections and individual rights with respect to protected health information held by covered entities (and their business associates), and the rights granted in the proposed regulation do not conflict in any way with the HIPAA regulations. In addition, to the extent that HIPAA provides additional rights to individuals (that is, residents, in the long-term care context) beyond what is provided in this proposal, covered entities and business associates must comply with the requirements in HIPAA to ensure individuals are afforded these additional rights. Therefore, we proposed revisions to clarify the relationship between the requirements of 45 CFR 164.524 and the revised version of § 483.10(f)(3)(i) and (ii). We proposed to specify in paragraph (f)(3) that the resident has the right to access medical records pertaining to him or herself and to further specify in proposed (f)(3)(i) that the resident, upon oral or written request, has the right to receive requested medical records in the form and format requested by the resident, if it is readily producible in such form and format (including in an electronic form or format when such records are maintained electronically); or, if not, in a readable hard copy form or such other form and format as agreed to by the facility and the individual. This is consistent with the requirements of 45 CFR 164.524(c)(2). Finally, we proposed to specify in paragraph (f)(3)(ii) that the facility could impose a reasonable, cost-based fee for providing copies of the medical records, provided that the fee included only the cost of labor for copying the health information requested by the individual, whether in paper or electronic form; the supplies for creating the paper copy or electronic media if the individual requested that the electronic copy be provided on portable media; and postage, when the individual requested that the copy be mailed. This is consistent with 45 CFR 164.524(c)(4). We noted in the proposed rule that this proposal does not address the creation or provision of summary reports, which could be provided in accordance with applicable law. More detailed information about the HIPAA right to access at 45 CFR 164.524 can be found at
In § 483.10(g)(1) we proposed to revise a number of provisions related to resident privacy and confidentiality to update the language to accommodate electronic communications. We proposed to retain existing § 483.10(c)(1) at proposed § 483.10(g)(2), reiterate the residents' right to a secure and confidential medical record at proposed § 483.10 (g)(3) and, in proposed § 483.10(g)(4), we retained the provisions of existing § 483.10(e)(2) and (3).
In § 483.10(h), we proposed to re-designate and revise a number of provisions relating to resident communications. Specifically, we proposed a new § 483.10(h) Communications, with § 483.10(h)(1) revised to include Teletypewriter (TTY) and Telecommunications Device for the Deaf (TDD) services and cellular telephones; and a new § 483.10(h)(2) to provide reasonable access and privacy for electronic communications such as email or internet-based interpersonal video communications.
In § 483.10(i), we proposed to revise the language to state that the resident has a right to a safe, clean, comfortable, home-like environment, and a right to receive treatment safely. In § 483.10(j), we proposed to revise language relating to resident grievances to add that a resident could not be deterred from voicing a grievance for fear of reprisal or discrimination.
One commenter stated that they were concerned with the likely disruption of administrative and judicial decisions over the past 25 years interpreting the current regulations. Administrative Law Judges and state and federal court judges could view changes in regulatory language as signaling changes in administrative interpretation of the Nursing Home Reform Law. They will view prior long-standing interpretations of similar current regulations as no longer legally binding as they interpret new regulatory language, following the legal principle that an agency intends a new interpretation when it changes the language of a regulation. They believed that an agency does not change regulatory language unless it wants to make a change in the prior interpretation of that language.
The commenter further objected to the reorganization of existing RoPs because the commenter felt it would inevitably involve unnecessarily long (but avoidable) delay. The commenter stated that CMS would need to draft the final standards in response to public comments, give facilities time to understand and implement the new Requirements, create a new survey protocol, and train state and federal surveyors in the new protocol, at the very least. As these multiple changes are made, effective enforcement of RoPs, already weak, will be further postponed.
The commenter noted that, to maintain the same regulatory standards within the definition of substandard quality of care requires CMS to combine subsections of multiple RoPs. The commenter recommended that, instead of reorganizing the regulations, as CMS proposes, CMS should retain the current regulatory structure as much as possible and to make all revisions within that existing, familiar structure. Keeping the current structure will save time and
With regard to concerns that this revision will delay enforcement of the requirements and that keeping the current structure would save time and effort in updating facilities, surveyors, advocates, providers, and, we would add, current and future residents, we disagree that this effort is unnecessary or poorly focused. The commenter contends that enforcement of the current requirements is already weak. The efforts that we will undertake as a result of this rule to update and improve interpretive guidance, to train surveyors, and to outreach to the affected community of providers, residents, and caregivers will lead to stakeholders' improved understanding of our higher expectations, could result in improved efficiencies, and improve the effectiveness of our survey process. This final rule will be effective 60 days after its publication, maintaining existing protections for residents, with delayed implementation deadlines for certain sections, where there are new expectations and requirements that require additional time for providers to implement. Please see our discussion of implementation in section II.B. of this preamble for additional detail.
We received a significant number of specific comments on both proposed sections § 483.10 and § 483.11. As we will finalize these sections as a single section, we respond to all specific comments on both proposed sections, following our description of our proposals regarding facility responsibilities, below.
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing our proposal with the following modifications:
• We finalize a consolidated section § 483.10, which contains provisions proposed in § 483.10 and § 483.11. Specific revisions are addressed in the following section.
We proposed a new § 483.11 “Facility Responsibilities,” in which we combined many of the regulations addressing facility responsibilities which are currently dispersed throughout the existing provisions regarding resident rights and quality of life.
Consistent with § 483.10 and based on existing requirements, the introductory language for proposed § 483.11 would have established that the facility would have to treat its residents with respect and dignity and provide care and services for its residents in a manner and in an environment that promotes maintenance or enhancement of the resident's quality of life, and would be required to protect and promote the resident's rights, as specified in § 483.10. Further, the facility would be required to recognize each resident's individuality and provide services in a person-centered manner. We proposed to establish sections similar to those proposed in § 483.10. The proposed sections are “Exercise of Rights,” “Planning and Implementing Care,” “Attending Physician,” “Self-Determination,” “Information and Communication,” “Privacy and Confidentiality,” “Safe Environment,” and Grievances.”
In a new section proposed at § 483.11(a), “Exercise of Rights,” we proposed a requirement that the facility would have to promote and protect the rights of the resident. These are not new requirements, and are already set out in our regulations as residents' rights. In order to ensure clarity, we restated clearly in this provision that it would be the responsibility of the facility to recognize and effectuate those rights. Proposed § 483.11(a)(1) provided that the facility ensure that the resident could exercise his or her rights without interference, coercion, discrimination, or reprisal from the facility. We proposed to re-designate current § 483.12(c)(1) as new § 483.11(a)(2) and move to this section the requirement that the facility provide equal access to quality care regardless of diagnosis, severity of condition, or payment source and establish and maintain identical policies and practices regarding transfer, discharge, and the provision of services for all residents, regardless of source of payment. In proposed § 483.11(a)(3) and (4), we specified that the facility would have to treat the decisions of a resident representative as the decisions of the resident to the extent required by a court, or as delegated by the resident, with the condition that the facility could not extend greater authority to the resident representative than would be permitted under applicable law. In addition, we proposed to add a new § 483.11(a)(5) to clarify for facilities that if facility staff believed that a resident representative was making decisions or taking actions that are not in the best interest of the resident, the facility would have to comply with any state reporting requirements that might apply.
In proposed § 483.11(b), “Facility responsibilities” would include ensuring that the resident was informed of, and participated in, his or her treatment to the extent practicable, consistent with § 483.10(b). The resident could participate in care planning, making informed decisions, and self-administering drugs when appropriate. We also proposed new requirements in § 483.11(b)(1) to require that the facility ensured that the care planning process facilitated the inclusion of the resident or resident representative, included an assessment of the resident's strengths and needs, and incorporated the resident's personal and cultural preferences in developing goals of care. We proposed to re-designate § 483.10(b)(9) as § 483.11(c)(1) and revise it to add other primary care providers to ensure that the resident would know the name, specialty and
We proposed a new § 483.11(d) to address the facility's responsibilities related to resident self-determination. We proposed to re-designate § 483.10(j), regarding access to the resident, as § 483.11(d)(1), and revised it to include visitors as specified in our “Resident Rights” provision, including immediate access to the resident by the resident representative, and to update the languages and references for the Office of the State long term care ombudsman and the protection and advocacy system. In addition, we proposed to add a new § 483.11(d)(2) to require that the facility have written policies and procedures regarding visitation rights of residents. We proposed to re-designate § 483.15(c)(5) as § 483.11(d)(3)(ii) and revised it to clarify that the facility-designated staff person who participates in a resident or family group must be approved by the resident or family group and the facility. In the proposed rule, we clarified that this provision does not require a facility to implement every recommendation of a resident or family group, but that the facility should be able to provide the rationale for their response. We proposed a new § 483.11(d)(4), to incorporate requirements currently specified in § 483.10(h) and specify that the facility is responsible for ensuring that a resident is not required to perform services for the facility.
We proposed a new § 483.11(d)(5), to incorporate requirements from § 483.10(c) that focus on the facility's responsibility related to the protection of resident funds. Specifically, we proposed in § 483.11(d)(5)(ii) to reflect the different dollar threshold requirements of sections 1819(c)(6)(B)(i) and 1919(c)(6)(B)(i) of the Act and establish the statutory requirement for deposit of resident funds in excess of $100 in an interest-bearing account for Medicare and other non-Medicaid SNF residents, consistent with section 1819(c)(6)(B)(i) of the Act, and funds in excess of $50 for Medicaid beneficiaries, consistent with section 1919(c)(6)(B)(i) of the Act. We proposed in § 483.11(d)(5)(v) to include the return of funds to residents upon discharge or eviction, in accordance with state law in addition to the already existing regulatory requirement for conveyance to the estate upon death.
We proposed to add a new § 483.11(d)(6)(i)(G) to indicate that the facility may not charge the resident for hospice services elected by the resident and paid for under the Medicare Hospice Benefit or paid for by Medicaid under a state plan, whether provided directly by the SNF, NF or by a hospice provider under agreement with the SNF or NF.
We proposed in § 483.11(d)(6)(ii), re-designated from § 483.10(c)(8)(ii), to add to the limitations on charges to residents' funds. We proposed to add new § 483.11(d)(6)(ii)(L)(
We proposed to establish a new § 483.11(e) to incorporate multiple provisions related to information and communication. With the exception of medical records, we proposed in § 483.11(e)(1) to specify that the facility is responsible for ensuring that information provided to the resident is provided in a form and manner that the resident can access and understand, including in a language that the resident can understand.
We proposed in § 483.11(e)(2) to revise facility requirements currently in § 483.10(b)(2)(i) through (ii), consistent with our proposal at § 483.10(f)(3). We proposed in paragraph (e)(2)(i) to require that facilities provide residents with access to their medical records in the form and format requested by the individual, if it is readily producible in such form and format (including in an electronic form or format when such medical records are maintained electronically); or, if it is not readily producible in such form and format, in a readable hard copy form or other form and format as may be agreed to by the facility and the individual. This proposal included the existing requirement that access be provided upon oral or written request, redesignated from § 483.10(b)(2)(i), and that this access be provided within 24 hours, excluding weekends and holidays, as required by sections 1819(c)(1)(A)(iv) and 1919(c)(1)(A)(iv) of the Act. We proposed at § 483.11(e)(2)(i) to require that the facility allow the resident, after receipt of his or her medical records for inspection, to purchase a copy of the medical records or any portion thereof upon request and with 2 working days advance notice to the facility. We further proposed at § 483.11(e)(2)(iii) to revise the standard for the fee a facility may charge for the requested information from a community standard to a cost-based standard under which the fee includes only the cost of labor for copying the requested health information, whether in paper or electronic form; the supplies for creating the paper copy or electronic media if the individual requests that the electronic copy be provided on portable media, postage when the individual requested the copy be mailed. This is consistent with the requirements of 45 CFR 164.524(c)(4).
We proposed to add a new § 483.11(e)(3), incorporating and re-designating part of existing § 483.10(g)(1), with revisions required by section 6103(c) of the Affordable Care Act, which added new sections 1819(d)(1)(C) and 1919(d)(1)(V) of the Act. Those provisions require that individuals have access to surveys of the facility conducted by federal or state surveyors and any plan of correction in effect with respect to the facility for the preceding 3 years. We note that this provision does not require a specific format, but consistent with proposed § 483.11(e)(1), it must be in a form and manner accessible to and understandable by the resident.
We proposed to add a new § 483.11(e)(4)(i) and (ii) to require the facility to post, in a form and manner easily accessible and understandable to residents, resident representatives and support persons, information that would allow individuals to contact pertinent client advocacy groups, including the State Survey Agency, the state licensure
We proposed to add a new paragraph § 483.11(e)(7)(i) to specify that when a facility notifies a physician of a change in a resident's status, the facility must ensure that certain pertinent information is available and is provided to the physician upon request.
We proposed to revise the language of § 483.10(b)(11)(i) and re-designate it as new § 483.11(e)(7)(i) to provide that the facility would be required to notify the resident representatives, rather than the current requirement that the facility notify “. . . the resident's legal representative or an interested family member . . .” The proposed language allows a guardian or other legal representative as well as any other individuals the resident identifies, including family members, other relatives, close personal friends, or any other persons identified by the resident, to receive the required notifications and thus remain informed of important information about the resident.
We proposed to re-designate § 483.10(b)(1), which addresses the facility requirement to provide a notice of rights and services, as § 483.11(e)(9)(i) through (iii). We proposed one minor revision for clarity in § 483.11(e)(9)(ii) to state “the State-developed notice of Medicaid rights, if any” instead of the current language “notice (if any) of the State developed under 1919(e) of the Act”.
We proposed to revise § 483.10(b)(5)(i) and (ii) and re-designate them as § 483.11(e)(10). The revised provision specifies that the facility must inform each resident, in writing, at the time of admission to a Medicaid-participating nursing facility and when the resident becomes eligible for Medicaid—(1) of the items and services that are included in nursing facility services under the state plan and for which the resident may not be charged; (2) of those items for which the resident may be charged, and the amount of charges for those services; and (3) inform Medicaid-eligible residents when changes are made to the items and services in paragraph (e)(11)(i) of this section.
We proposed to revise and re-designate § 483.10(b)(6) as new § 483.11(e)(11). In addition, we proposed to add new paragraphs (i) through (v) to require the facility to provide notice to residents when changes are made to the items and services covered by Medicare and/or Medicaid or to the amount that the facility charges for items and services.
To improve clarity, we proposed to re-designate § 483.10(b)(7) as new § 483.11(e)(12) and revise current paragraph (b)(7)(iii) to require that the facility provide the resident with “a list of names, addresses (mailing and email), and telephone numbers of all pertinent state regulatory and informational agencies, resident advocacy groups such as the State Survey Agency, the state licensure office, the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman Program, the protection and advocacy agency, adult protective services, the state or local contact agencies for information about returning to the community and the Medicaid Fraud Control Unit.” Additionally, we proposed to revise current paragraph (b)(7)(iv) to require that the facility include in the written description of legal rights “a statement that the resident may file a complaint with the State Survey Agency concerning any suspected violation of LTC requirements, including but not limited to resident abuse, neglect, misappropriation of resident property in the facility, non-compliance with the advance directives requirements, and requests for information regarding returning to the community.”
We proposed a new § 483.11(e)(13) that establishes that the facility must protect and facilitate a resident's right to communicate with individuals and entities both inside and external to the facility, including at § 483.11(e)(13)(ii) reasonable access to the internet, to the extent it is available to the facility. Section 483.11(e)(13)((i) replaces § 483.10(k) and § 483.11(e)(13)((iii) revises and replaces § 483.10(i)(2) with regard to reasonable access to a telephone, including TTY and TDD services, and to stationery, postage, writing implements and the ability to send mail, respectively.
We proposed a new § 483.11(f) to include provisions related to privacy and confidentiality. Proposed § 483.11(f)(1) requires that the facility respect the resident's right to personal privacy. Proposed (f)(1)(ii) incorporates the definition of personal privacy currently set out at § 483.10(e)(1). We proposed to replace the requirements of existing § 483.10(e)(2) with new § 483.11(f)(2) which requires the facility to comply with the requirements of proposed § 483.10(g)(3). We proposed to re-designate existing § 483.10(j)(3) as § 483.11(f)(3) and revise it to require that the facility allow representatives of the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman to examine a resident's medical, social, and administrative records in accordance with state law. This is consistent with the requirements of section 712(b)(1) of the Older Americans Act.
We propose a new § 483.11(g) that would include provisions related to a safe environment. Specifically, we propose to re-designate § 483.15(h)(1) through (7) as § 483.11(g)(1) through (7) and revise paragraph (g)(1) to include paragraphs (g)(1)(i) specifying that the facility must ensure an environment where care and services can be delivered safely, and (g)(1)(ii) specifying that the facility must ensure that the physical layout of the facility maximizes independence and does not pose a safety risk.
We proposed a new § 483.11(h) Grievances, to incorporate the facility responsibilities expressed in existing § 483.10(f) and also require that facilities ensure that residents know how to file grievances. The proposed provision also requires that the facility establish a grievance policy to ensure the prompt resolution of grievances, and identify a Grievance Officer. Additionally, the facility is required to provide a copy of this policy upon request, as well as make information about filing grievances available to residents. Furthermore, the facility would be required to take a number of actions in response to a grievance, including:
1. Preventing further violations of resident rights during an investigation,
2. Immediately reporting allegations of neglect, abuse (including injuries of unknown source), and/or misappropriation of resident property, by anyone furnishing services on behalf of the facility, to the administrator of the facility and as required by state law,
3. Ensuring that all written grievance decisions include the date the grievance was received, a summary statement of the resident's grievance, the steps taken to investigate the grievance, a summary of the pertinent findings or conclusions regarding the resident's concerns, a statement as to whether the grievance was confirmed or not confirmed, any corrective action taken or to be taken by the facility as a result of the grievance, and the date the written decision was issued,
4. Taking appropriate corrective action in accordance with state law if the alleged violation of the residents' rights is confirmed by the facility or if an outside entity having jurisdiction confirms a violation of any of these residents' rights within its area of responsibility; and
5. Maintain evidence demonstrating the resolution of complaints and grievances for at least 3 years.
Finally, we proposed a new § 483.11(i) which requires that a facility not prevent or discourage a resident from communicating with Federal, State, or local officials, including but not limited to Federal and State surveyors, other Federal or State health department employees, including representatives of the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman and of the protection and advocacy system.
• A process for informing new residents about voting registration or change of address procedures;
• assistance in registering as needed and desired by the resident;
• procedures for informing residents of elections, including date, time, and location of voting places and community resources available to provide assistance;
• assistance with transportation to polling places;
• processes for reaching out to election officials to develop a plan for officials to come to the facility to register residents and conduct voting to the maximum extent election officials have the ability to do this;
• the designation of staff charged with assisting with voting; and
• training of designated staff in how to help a resident who requires assistance to vote where election officials are unable to provide that service to the extent needed.
The commenters contend that currently, residency in a LTC facility poses an enormous obstacle to exercising voting rights.
Some commenters stated that they disagreed that a resident has “the right to revoke delegation” of a court-appointed guardian when they have been deemed incompetent by a court. Similarly, if the practitioner in their professional opinion has determined the resident's medical condition impairs their decision-making capacity such that a resident's representative appointed by advanced directive or durable power of attorney needs to make decisions, a resident cannot revoke that representative. Some commenters expressed that the resident representative should be making decisions in the best interest of the resident or consistent with the resident's specified wishes and that the facility should try to resolve discrepancies and, if unresolvable, seek to legally remove the assigned representative.
Some commenters objected to allowing residents to have more than one representative. One commenter expressed concern that having a resident representative in addition to one appointed by the court or by the resident's own authorization through advance directives or a durable power of attorney will slow notifications and increase the likelihood of disagreements which may delay health-care decisions and necessary care. The commenter recommended that the definition of resident representative be modified to apply only when the resident does not have either a court-appointed guardian or an already designated health care proxy such as a durable power of attorney for health care or person specified in a living will to avoid having multiple resident representatives that will delay decision-making while differences are reconciled and requiring multiple notifications of numerous parties.
With regard to residents who have been adjudged incompetent, some commenters agreed that residents should retain as many rights as possible and their preferences be elicited and honored whenever possible. Once commenter felt that our proposed language will likely add confusion and is not internally consistent. The commenter stated that the court order for scope of decisions is not always clearly defined and the distinction between medical care decisions in the context of frail elderly in LTC facilities and personal decisions regarding quality of life often is not clear, resulting in confusion about who is the appropriate decision maker. The commenter is concerned that multiple decision makers will make this situation worse.
One commenter recommended that the definition of “resident representative” be modified to apply only when the resident has neither a court-appointed guardian nor a designated healthcare proxy through advance directives nor an identified durable power of attorney.
This provision is not intended to require that every facility have every possible capability and unlimited capacity. However, a facility cannot choose, deliberately or inadvertently, to provide higher quality care to some residents over other residents in the facility based on diagnosis, severity of condition, or payment source. For example, if two residents require the same care, one resident cannot receive a lesser quality because the payer is Medicaid rather than Medicare. The amount and type of care is based on the resident's needs and goals, as evidenced by the care plan.
These provisions are also not intended to facilitate selective admissions or transfers. We considered, but did not include, admissions when we reviewed the existing requirement that requires a facility to establish and maintain identical policies and practices regarding transfer and discharge. Facilities are expected, as required by our provision for a facility assessment, to know their own capabilities and capacities when making admissions decisions. This expectation would apply to the second example provided by the commenter. Once an individual is a resident of the facility, the facility is obligated to provide equal access to quality of care, as stated in this provision. Thus, a facility that admits a pediatric resident is expected to provide quality care to that resident, based on that resident's needs. If a resident's condition changes such that a facility does not have the ability and is unable make accommodations to provide the care that a resident requires, that is an acceptable reason for discharge or transfer under § 483.15, as it is permissible to discharge or transfer a resident when it is necessary for the resident's welfare and the resident's needs cannot be met in the facility. This provision would apply in the instance where a resident's condition declines such that a ventilator is required in a facility that does not have the expertise or equipment to provide care to a ventilator dependent resident. However, the facility will have to include in its documentation the specific resident needs that it cannot meet, facility attempts to meet the resident needs, and the service(s) available at the receiving facility that will meet the resident's needs.
Furthermore, we note that § 483.10(c)(2)(v) gives the resident the right to see the care plan, along with the right to sign it after significant changes. The intent is to ensure that the resident, to the extent practicable and consistent with the resident's choices, demonstrates his or her participation in and review of his or her care planning and that participation is evident to care-givers, surveyors, and other interested parties. We believe that the combination of these resident rights, with the responsibility of the facility to provide a summary of the baseline care plan and include the resident as a member of the interdisciplinary care team, will actively engage residents in their care planning process.
Lastly, we would encourage a facility to provide a copy of the full comprehensive care plan upon request; with the understanding that care plans are dynamic documents that may change frequently. We believe that the comprehensive care plan should serve as an important tool for delivering patient-centered care and encourage facilities to explore ways to allow residents, families, and other representatives to access the care plan on a routine basis as appropriate, for instance, using technology solutions that enable real-time access for authorized users and dynamic updating by members of the care team. In addition, as finalized, residents have a right to review and obtain a copy of their medical record, or any portion thereof under § 483.10(g)(2)(ii). The care plan is included in the medical records. Sections 1819(b)(6)(C) and 1919(b)(6)(C) of the Act state that clinical records on all residents include the plans of care and the residents' assessments. We discuss our use of the term “medical record” in our discussion of § 483.70(i). As noted in that discussion, we regard the terms “medical record” and “clinical record” as synonymous.
As we noted in the preamble to the proposed rule, our proposals support the guidance issued by HHS for implementing person-centered planning and self-direction in home and community-based services programs, as set forth in section 2402(a) of the Affordable Care Act. We agree that the principles in that guidance regarding dignity and self-direction apply equally to individuals who reside in a nursing facility. Although nursing facilities are expressly not considered home and community based settings (42 CFR 441.301(b)(1)(ii)), we have incorporated many requirements that are supportive of the principles reflected in the process mandated for Medicaid-funded home and community-based services. We refer readers to our discussion of § 483.21 regarding comprehensive person-centered care planning.
Another commenter urged CMS to confirm that this requirement applies to the attending physician only and not to a covering physician since that list can be extremely long and may change frequently. To the extent that CMS would apply this requirement to covering physicians, this would likely result in the unintended consequences of significant on-call coverage problems as well as potentially discouraging physicians from caring for SNF residents at a time when the agency is striving for greater and more frequent physician involvement in SNF care.
The commenter also pointed out that verification of professional credentialing requirements can take time which may result in a resident's physician being unable to serve as the attending physician upon admission. Thus, the resident would be under the care of another “credentialed” attending physician until their physician completes the facility's credentialing process. This switching of physicians is not a best practice and may result in resident's experiencing adverse events, as such attending physician may not be familiar with the resident. The commenter recommended amending § 483.10(c) to read: “Choice of attending physician. The resident has the right to choose his or her attending physician. (1) The facility must develop its own credentialing process that does not require primary source verification, which is typically conducted by state licensure entities or the process for conveying hospital admitting privileges or managed care certification. (2) The physician must be licensed to practice, and (3) The physician must meet the professional credentialing requirements of the facility within a timely manner
Yet another commenter recommended additional wording in order to support the role of the medical director in ensuring practitioner accountability for improved performance. The commenter stated that credentialing refers only to background, education, training, licensing, etc. Just requiring credentialing is not enough to ensure adequate physician performance (for example, timely visits and competent care). Addressing the challenges of medical care requires holding people accountable for their performance and practice, not just their credentials. The commenter suggested that we modify the requirement to read: “(c) Choice of attending physician. The resident has the right to choose his or her attending physician. (1) The physician must be licensed to practice, and (2) The physician must meet the professional credentialing, practice, and performance requirements of the facility.”
Other commenters recommended that CMS delete the credentialing requirement entirely. The commenters stated that CMS proposes, without explanation, to limit residents' free choice of physician to physicians who meet their facilities' credentialing requirements and that the commenters do not see a need for such a requirement. Further, one commenter is concerned that the proposal does not provide any standards for credentialing. The commenter stated that the public policy concerns about physicians have always been the lack of appropriate medical care in LTC facilities and how few physicians actually provide care to residents and that the new credentialing requirement would not improve the medical care of residents and could further reduce the number of qualified physicians providing care to residents. One commenter stated that, if the intent of the requirement is to improve the care provided by attending physicians, CMS should pull stakeholders together to determine how that could best be done and assess whether credentialing would accomplish that goal. If the intent is to remove a physician of the resident's choosing who is failing to fulfill a given requirement (for example, frequency of physician visits, unnecessary drugs), the current interpretive guidelines that outline such a process could be retained (“the facility will have the right, after informing the resident, to seek alternate physician participation to assure provision of appropriate and adequate care and treatment”). The commenter further states that the proposed requirement is contrary to federal law at section 1819(c)(1)(A)(i) of the Act, which gives residents an unfettered right to choose their physician. The commenter stated that they oppose the proposed requirement as it is written and recommends it be deleted.
Many commenters expressed safety concerns with regard to open visitation. Some commenters stated that having unexpected visitors entering the facility at any time of day or night is unreasonable, disruptive, and potentially dangerous, but suggested that pre-arranged visits during “off-hours” could be accommodated and felt that, in order for a facility to provide a safe and secure environment for all patients and residents, there must be reasonable parameters applied to this visiting provision. One commenter suggested establishing specific time frames. Another commenter stated that their facility used a security code to ensure that staff knows when a visitor is in the facility. Some commenters stated that it is important that residents, visitors and staff understand that visitation privileges does not include a visitor living in the facility. Another concern is visitors who are extremely boisterous, confrontational, under the influence of drugs or alcohol. One commenter stated that a center must have the ability to protect staff and residents from this disruptive behavior. Other commenters noted that the rights of other facility residents must considered in an “open visitation” policy. One commenter highlighted important distinctions between hospitals and LTC facilities that should be considered, including concerns that LTC facilities do not employ distinct security personnel, or, if they do employ security personnel, they are typically not present around the clock. The commenter stated that it is more common for a LTC facility to have a receptionist at the main entrance who welcomes and guides visitors and that reception staff are present until early evening hours. The commenter stated that around the clock visitation would require increased staffing, at a minimum, which did not seem to be included in CMS' estimate of costs per facility for implementation of these rules. Commenters noted that, currently, facilities accommodate visitors at any time when a request is made or the clinical situation of the resident is such that the presence of visitors is essential. This provides everyone involved with the time to prepare and to accommodate everyone's needs. Mandatory “open visitation” in what is both a home and a health care facility means there will be more unanticipated visitors, and this could lead to facility resources being diverted to quickly arrange for an appropriate visiting environment for all involved, as opposed to attending to other needs. The commenter urges CMS to clarify this section of the proposed rule to ensure that facilities maintain the ability to limit visitations if those limitations are based on clinical or safety considerations that are outlined in the facility's policies and procedures and shared with each resident.
One commenter expressed concern about facilities establishing their own policies and procedures for visitation. For example, the commenter suggested that rather than allowing a facility to make its own decisions about restricting visits in the event of an infectious disease, the commenter suggested instead that the facility should follow CDC guidelines, which are evidence-based. The commenter also expressed a concern about permitting 24-hour visitation, stating that 24-hour visitation is already allowed but questions about 24-hour visitation still arise and many facilities still post signs indicating only specific hours for visitation. The commenter recommends that the regulations clarify this point.
Some commenters felt that the regulatory language impermissibly limited visits to residents from CMS, the State Survey Agency, family members and was concerned that CMS proposed to redefine access and visitation rights, currently at § 483.10(j), as a subcategory under “self-determination,” both for residents' rights (§ 483.10) and facility responsibilities (§ 483.11), with some language only included in proposed § 483.11. Some commenters object to the proposed language that would make visits from other visitors subject to reasonable “clinical and safety restrictions” and allow the facility to create written policies and procedures restricting resident access to visitors for clinical or safety reasons. One commenter stated that these requirements would gut resident visitation rights by giving facilities complete latitude to create whatever policies they want. Other commenters were concerned that proposed language erodes resident visitation rights by placing restrictions on visits that go beyond what is permitted under the Nursing Home Reform Law. Some commenters recommended that CMS delete proposed § 483.11(d)(2) in its entirety as inconsistent with the requirements of the Nursing Home Reform Law.
One commenter notes that relatives are not “subject to reasonable clinical and safety restrictions” in the way “others who are visiting with a resident” are and recommended that CMS delete all references to “clinically necessary or reasonable restriction or limitation or safety restriction or limitation” and that the facility policies and procedures clearly state that residents have the right to 24-hour visitation by anyone they choose. Another commenter stated that sometimes the facility needs to protect the resident against certain visitors.
We note that, in the proposed rule, in addition to the statutorily mandated individuals (any representative of the Secretary, by any representative of the state, by an ombudsman described in paragraph (2)(B)(iii)(II), or by the resident's individual physician) we expanded the individuals who must be provided immediate access to the resident to include the resident's representative as well as any representative of the protection and advocacy systems, as designated by the state, and as established under the Developmental Disabilities Assistance and Bill of Rights Act of 2000 (Pub. L. 106-402, codified at 42 U.S.C. 15001
With respect to statutory language regarding reasonable restrictions and reasonable access, we proposed to add the caveat that those restrictions or limitations on access must be based on clinical or safety concerns. Furthermore, such restrictions and the rationale for such restrictions must be included in a facility policy on visitation that is consistent with the regulatory requirements. We believe limiting the bases for restrictions to reasons of health (that is, clinical concerns) and safety as well as requiring that the facility have their procedures and restrictions, including rationale, included in written procedures are useful in identifying and preventing inappropriate restrictions on visitation. We note that these limitations apply only to “others who are visiting with the consent of the resident,” based on the statute's language regarding “reasonable restrictions” and to “any entity or individual that provides health, social, legal, or other services to the resident,” based on the statute's language requiring “reasonable access.” As noted above, we believe that “reasonable restrictions” as well as “reasonable access” should only be limited based on clinical or safety concerns, such as those commenters identified. Commenters identified a number of safety restrictions that may be imposed by facilities. These restrictions protect the security of all the facility's residents, and include requirements such as keeping the facility locked at night; visitors making prior arrangements for late night access, denying access or providing limited and supervised access to a visitor if that individual has been found to be abusing, exploiting, or coercing a resident; denying access to a visitor who has been found to have been committing criminal acts such as theft; or denying access to visitors who are inebriated and disruptive. In addition, we agree that clinical restrictions in order to prevent the spread of communicable disease are appropriate.
With regard to “imposing” visitors upon residents, we have, consistent with the statute, included language that defers to a resident's choice when allowing visitors. Generally, residents do not have to have visitors unless they choose to have visitors.
We defer to sub-regulatory guidance further discussion of the designated staff person(s) assigned to provide resident or family groups with assistance and response. We note that we already state that staff or visitors may attend group meetings at the group's invitation.
We require that facilities must respond to a grievance voiced by a resident or family group with a response and a corresponding rationale. We expect that such response would generally be a written response, but might also take another form. For example, if a resident group requests a specific action and the facility can show that the action has been taken, there may be no need for a written response. We have clarified that the facility response must be timely, but decline at this time to specify a time frame, given the potential variation in such grievances and recommendations.
We require the facility to provide a notice of rights and services to the resident prior to or upon admission and during the resident's stay, both orally and in writing in a language that the resident understands. This includes all of his or her rights and all rules and regulations governing resident conduct and responsibilities during the stay in the facility. We further require notification if those rights change. These rights include the right of the resident to organize and participate in resident groups.
Although current sub-regulatory guidance already identifies the facilities responsibility for resident accounts as a fiduciary responsibility, we would strengthen this expectation by spelling it out in regulation. We believe that this addresses the commenters concern but allows for some flexibility in implementation. We defer additional specificity to sub-regulatory guidance.
Some commenters were concerned that 2 working days advance notice may not be adequate time depending upon the size of the records. One commenter stated that this should be 30 days, consistent with HIPAA. Other commenters suggested that there should be a definition of “working day.” These commenters suggested we amend proposed § 483.10(f) (3)(ii) to read: “After receipt of his or her medical records for inspection, to purchase, a copy of the medical records or any portions thereof (including in an electronic form or format when such medical records are maintained electronically) upon request and 2 to 5 working days (working days defined as between 8 a.m. and 6 p.m., Monday through Friday) advance notice to the facility. Some commenters recommended that residents have access to their records 24 hours a day, 7 days a week so that they can review records with family members at any time, including weekends and holidays.
With regard to medical records, the resident has access to the medical record itself and the right to access a copy of that record, not a version of the medical record that has been revised to ensure the resident's understanding. Summaries of medical records are addressed by the privacy regulations at 45 CFR 164.524. We retain the access limitations related to weekends and holidays based on statutory requirements in section 1819(c)(1)(A)(iv) of the Act. We disagree that 48 hours is not sufficient time to provide a copy of the resident's record. This is a long-standing standard and we did not propose to change the time frame. Further, for those facilities using electronic records, the electronic record may simplify the effort needed to print or create an electronic copy of the record, depending on the specific software system used by the facility. We do not mandate that facilities be able to provide an electronic copy of the medical record, unless the records are maintained in an electronic format and are readily producible in that format. We also agree that, while residents or their representatives may wish to do so, they should not be required to inspect a record prior to purchasing it. Therefore, we have removed this requirement at finalized § 483.10(g)(2)(ii).
With regard to our use of the term “medical record”, please see our discussion of § 483.70(i). As noted in that discussion, we regard the terms “medical record” and “clinical record” as synonymous. Section 1819(b)(6)(C) of the Act states that clinical records on all residents include the plans of care and
• Results from independent resident/family caregiver experience surveys (resident and family)—such as the Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (CAHPS) Nursing Home Surveys;
• Whether or not the facility provides special care services and if so, the kinds of services provided;
• Policies of the facility. For example, whether it has family groups, allows pets, etc.; and
• Information available in other languages, as appropriate.
CMS may wish to consider, where appropriate, whether the existing standards that apply to medical records—that they be made available within 24 hours and upon oral and written request should be extended to the other types of information that are required to be made available under proposed § 483.11(e).
Some commenters recommended revisions to our proposal. Some suggested we establish timeframes for resolution. One commenter recommended that CMS delete all language from proposed § 483.11(h) regarding the grievance policy and incorporate the policy requirements into § 483.75, QAPI. Some commenters objected to the requirement for a grievance official, stating this this is unnecessary and burdensome. One commenter suggested that designating one individual could hinder timely resolution.
Some commenters were concerned about the scope of actionable grievances. Some commenters feel we have limited the scope of grievances. One commenter stated that the proposed rules omits current language “including those with respect to the behavior of other residents” from resident rights, noting it is included in proposed § 483.11(h)(2) and recommends that CMS restore the full language of § 483.10(f)(2).” Other commenters suggested that we broaden the scope of actionable grievances. One commenter is concerned that the proposed language does not state that the resident can file grievances with the State Survey Agency and another recommends we add adult protective services to the list of independent entities with which grievances may be filed. Some commenters recommended that the subsection be revised to require that facilities make information on how to file a grievance available to the resident upon admission and upon request and also give a copy of the grievance policy to every resident. Some commenters suggested that there are other formats more useful to a resident than a copy of the policy, such as a question and answer document. One commenter suggested that the grievance official should be responsible for protecting the complainant from retaliation, since many residents will not speak up because they fear reprisal. One commenter recommended that residents be given the room number in the facility if the official is housed within the facility and a toll free number if not, and be provided with information about where they can turn within the facility organization if they are not satisfied with the decision. The commenter also suggested that CMS require that the grievance decision be provided to each resident in a form and manner the resident can access and understand and that the grievance official take corrective action in conjunction with the administrator and other appropriate staff. One commenter suggested that the grievance policy include the establishment of a grievance committee that would consist, at a minimum, of the administrator of the facility or his or her designee, a resident selected by the resident population of the facility, the facility social worker, and the grievance official. The commenter further suggested that the work of the grievance official would be reviewed by the full committee so he or she is not operating in a vacuum and there would be resident involvement in the process.
Some commenters were concerned about maintaining evidence related to grievances for 3 years and felt that creating and maintaining such files would be burdensome. Others were concerned about the potential for these requirements to negatively influence surveyors and asked if every complaint would be deemed a grievance. Another commenter suggested that we specifically require that facilities maintain all investigative documentation related to the grievance for three years. This commenter also suggested that, with regard to reporting, we reference federal law. Several commenters offered other specific recommendations for regulatory language.
Evidence demonstrating the results of all grievances for a period of no less than 3 years provides a record of this work and can serve as a valuable information resource for facilities. However, we do not agree it is necessary to explicitly require that all investigation documentation be retained for 3 years. Further, such evidence may be maintained electronically, rather than utilizing physical storage space. We defer additional specificity to sub-regulatory guidance.
Grievances may provide valuable input to a facilities QAPI program. In fact, grievances are one likely source of data and feedback from residents and resident representatives; however, we do not believe that addressing grievances should be relegated solely to the QAPI program. Depending on the size of the facility and the number or grievances received, duties associated with grievances may only consume a small portion of the individual's time. In very large facilities, or in facilities with many grievances, more time may be required. Either way, we maintain that it is important that all facilities have a designated point of contact for grievances. While we agree that a grievance official cannot and should not resolve grievances in a vacuum, we are concerned that a grievance committee is not feasible for every facility, and therefore are not requiring such a committee at this time.
With regard to the scope of grievances, we have revised our
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing our proposal with the following modifications:
• We have consolidated proposed § 483.10 and proposed § 483.11 into a single section, § 483.10, “Resident rights” and removed or updated all cross-references as appropriate.
• We have replaced the term “verbal” with “oral” throughout this section.
• Introductory language from proposed § 483.10 and proposed § 482.11, as well as proposed § 483.11(a)(2) are now finalized in § 483.10(a) “Resident rights.”
• Proposed § 483.10(a)(1) through (5), and proposed § 483.11(a)(1), and (a)(3) through (5) have been consolidated into final § 483.10(b), “Exercise of rights.”
• We have revised proposed § 483.10(a)(3), finalizing it at § 483.10(b)(3) and incorporating previously existing language clarifying that the provision applies to residents who have not been adjudged incompetent by a state court.
• We have revised language from proposed § 483.11(a)(4), as consolidated in finalized § 483.10(b)(7)(i), to clarify that, in the case of a limited guardianship, a facility does not defer all decision making to a guardian, when a court's determination does not require it.
• We have consolidated proposed § 483.10(b) and proposed § 483.11(b) into § 483.10(c), “Planning and implementing care.”
• We have changed the term “disciplines” in proposed § 483.10(b)(2) to “the type of care giver or professional,” finalizing it at § 483.10(c)(4).
• We have revised proposed § 483.10(b)(5)(v) to state “the right to sign after significant changes to the plan of care,” finalizing it at § 483.10(c)(2)(v).
• We have clarified in § 483.10(c)(5) that the physician or other practitioner or professional informs the resident of the risks and benefits of proposed care, of treatment and treatment alternatives or treatment options.
• We have consolidated § 483.10(b)(6) and § 483.11(b)(2), finalizing these requirements at § 483.10(c)(7) which now states “The right to self-administer medications if the interdisciplinary team, as defined by § 483.21(b)(2)(ii), has determined that this practice is clinically appropriate.”
• We have withdrawn proposed § 483.10(c)(2) to require that physician's meet facility credentialing requirements and consolidated proposed § 483.10(c)(1) and (3), and proposed § 483.11(c)(1) through (3), finalizing these provisions at § 483.10(d).
• We have re-designated proposed § 483.10(d) at § 483.10(e), revised finalized paragraph (e)(6) to specify that the resident has a right to receive written notice, including the reason for the change when the resident's room or roommate in the facility is change and added a new, final (e)(7)(iii) to clarify that a room change cannot be solely for the convenience of staff.
• We have consolidated proposed § 483.10(e) and proposed § 483.11(d), finalizing these provisions at § 483.10(f), Self-determination.
• We have added “and other applicable provisions of this Part” to proposed § 483.10(e)(1) and finalize this provision at § 483.10(f)(1).
• We have consolidated proposed § 483.10(e)(3) and proposed § 483.11(d)(1), finalizing these provisions at § 483.10(f)(4), and clarifying that: (1) The resident's right to deny visitation is “when applicable;” (2) a facility must have written policies and procedures for visitation that includes restrictions, when such limitation may apply consistent with the requirements of this subpart, that the facility may need to place on such rights and the reasons for the clinical or safety restriction or limitation; and (3) the facility must inform each resident not only of any limitation, but also to whom the restrictions apply.
• We have added a new § 483.10(f)(5)(i) to specify that a facility must take reasonable steps, with the approval of the group, to make residents and family members aware of upcoming meetings in a timely manner.
• We have added “or other guests” to the list of individuals who may only attend a resident or family group meeting at the group's invitation at finalized § 483.10(f)(5)(ii).
• We have consolidated proposed § 483.10(e)(8) and proposed § 483.11(d)(4) into finalized § 483.10(f)(9).
• We have consolidated proposed § 483.10(e)(9) and proposed § 483.11(d)(5) into finalized § 483.10(f)(10).
• We have changed “may” to “must” in finalized § 483.10(f)(11)(i).
• We have changed “health care provider” to “physician, physician assistant, nurse practitioner, or clinical nurse specialist” in finalized § 483.10(f)(11)(ii)(L)(1).
• We have consolidated proposed § 483.10(f) and (h) and proposed § 483.11(e) into finalized § 483.10(g).
• We revised proposed § 483.10(f)(3) to include both personal and medical records and finalized it at § 483.10(g)(2).
• We revised proposed § 483.10(g)(3)(ii) to remove the requirement that a resident must inspect a medical record prior to requesting to purchase a copy and finalized it at § 483.10(g)(2)(ii).
• We updated the cross-reference to § 483.11(e)(2) in proposed § 483.11(e)(1), to cross-reference § 483.10(g)(2) and (g)(11) to reflect that we do not require facilities to translate or summarize personal and medical records and survey reports. Proposed § 483.11(e)(1) is finalized at § 483.10(g)(3).
• We added “State Survey Agency” to proposed § 483.10(f)(2), finalized § 483.10(g)(4)(ii), and added “any suspected violation of state or federal nursing facility regulations” to proposed § 483.10(f)(2)(vi), finalized at (g)(4)(vi).
• We added “requests for information regarding returning to the community” to proposed § 483.11(e)(4), finalized at § 483.10(g)(5)(ii).
• We require at finalized § 483.10(g)(9)(iii) that electronic communications under this section must comply with state and federal law.
• We have revised proposed § 483.11(e)(3), finalized at § 483.10(g)(11), to reflect the stricter standard imposed by the section 1919(c)(8) of the Act, statutory language and to better reflect both sections 1819(d) and 1919(d) of the Act, retaining the addition of availability of any plan of correction in effect with respect to facility, as proposed, and including the requirements that the notice of availability of such reports are prominent and accessible to the public and shall not make available identifying information about complainants or residents.
• We have revised proposed § 483.11(e)(11)(v), finalized at § 483.10(g)(18)(v), to specify that any admission contract, whether the facility requires it or not, must not conflict with the requirements of these regulations.
• We have consolidated proposed § 483.10(g) and proposed § 483.11(f), finalized at § 483.10(h), consolidating duplicative language in proposed § 483.10(g)(2) and proposed § 483.11(f)(1)(ii) at finalized § 483.10(h)(1), consolidating proposed § 483.11(f)(1) and (f)(1)(i), finalized at § 483.10(h)(2), and deleting proposed § 483.11(f)(2) as an unnecessary cross-reference.
• We have consolidated proposed § 483.10(i) and proposed § 483.11(g), “Safe environment”, finalized at § 483.10(i).
• We have added a new § 483.10(i)(1)(ii) to require that the facility exercise reasonable care for the protection of the resident's property from loss or theft.
• We have consolidated proposed § 483.10(j) and proposed § 483.11(h), “Grievances” at finalized § 483.10(j).
• We have revised proposed § 483.10(j)(1) by adding “the behavior of staff and of other residents; and other concerns regarding their LTC facility stay” to the statement regarding what grievances may include.
• We finalize, as proposed, § 483.11(i) at § 483.10(k).
Currently, § 483.13 is titled “Resident Behavior and Facility Practices.” We proposed to re-designate and revise this section as § 483.12, “Freedom from Abuse, Neglect and Exploitation,” to more accurately reflect the contents and intent.
Currently, paragraph § 483.13(a) addresses the use of restraints. We proposed to address restraints in both the introductory paragraph to proposed § 483.12 and in proposed § 483.25(d)(1). In the introductory paragraph to proposed § 483.12, we maintained the prohibition of the inappropriate use of restraints. We proposed to further address restraints in proposed section § 483.25(d)(1) on Quality of Care and Quality of Life.
We proposed that existing paragraph § 483.13(b) also be included in the new introductory paragraph to revised § 483.12. We proposed to re-designate existing § 483.13(c)(1) as § 483.12(a)(2) and modify the language to clarify that a facility must not employ or otherwise engage individuals who have been found guilty of abuse, neglect, or mistreatment of residents by a court of law; had a finding of abuse, neglect, mistreatment of resident or misappropriation of property reported into a state nurse aide registry, or had a disciplinary action taken against a professional license by a state licensure body as a result of a finding of abuse, neglect, or mistreatment of residents or a finding of misappropriation of property.
Currently, the regulations require that a facility must not employ an individual who has had a finding entered against them into a state nurse aide registry concerning abuse, neglect, mistreatment of residents or misappropriation of property. We proposed to add a new § 483.12(a)(2)(iii) to expand this employment prohibition to include licensed professionals who have had a disciplinary action taken against them by a state licensure body as a result of a finding of abuse, neglect, mistreatment of residents or misappropriation of resident property.
We proposed to re-designate existing § 483.13(c) as § 483.12(b) and to revise it to also require that the facility develop and implement written policies and procedures that prohibit and prevent abuse, neglect, exploitation of residents and misappropriation of resident property. We proposed to add a new § 483.12(b)(2) to require that the facility establish policies and procedures to investigate any allegations of abuse, neglect, exploitation, or misappropriation of property. We also proposed to add a new § 483.12(b)(3) to require that the policies and procedures include training as required by proposed § 483.95. Finally, we proposed a new § 483.12(b)(5) to require that facilities establish policies and procedures to ensure reporting of crimes in accordance with section 1150B of the Act. The policies and procedures have to include, at a minimum, annual notification of covered individuals, posting a conspicuous notice of employee rights, and prohibiting and preventing retaliation.
Annual notification of covered individuals, as defined at section 1150B(a)(3) of the Act, includes notification of that individual's obligation, as specified at section 1150B(b)(1) of the Act, to report to the State Agency and one or more law enforcement entities for the political subdivision in which the facility is located any reasonable suspicion of a crime against any individual who is a resident of, or is receiving care from, the facility. Reporting to the State Agency fulfills the statutory directive to report to the Secretary. In accordance with section 1150B(b)(2) of the Act, the reporting required by 1150B(b)(1) must occur immediately, but not later than 2 hours after forming the suspicion, if the events that cause the suspicion result in serious bodily injury, or not later than 24 hours if the events that cause the suspicion do not result in serious bodily injury.
We proposed to re-designate existing § 483.13(c)(1)(iii) as proposed § 483.12(a)(3) and revise existing § 483.13(c)(2), (3) and (4) as proposed § 483.12(c)(1), (2), (3) and (4). Specifically, we proposed to add the term “exploitation” in paragraph (c)(1) and add adult protective services where state law provides for jurisdiction in long-term care facilities to the list of officials who must be notified in accordance with state law; otherwise the
Proposed § 483.12(a)(2)(i) and (ii), which we will finalize as § 483.12(a)(3)(i) and (ii), prohibit facilities from employing or otherwise engaging individuals who have been found guilty of abusing, neglecting or mistreating residents by a court of law, or who have had a finding entered into the State nurse aide registry concerning abuse, neglect, mistreatment of residents or misappropriation of their property. We believe additional consideration and research is necessary before we propose to further modify these provisions. Any additional changes would be proposed in future rule-making.
With regard to the suggestion that CMS consider issuing guidance that would urge states to extend the due process requirements that govern the National Background Check Program, including those requiring an independent process for appealing or disputing the accuracy of the information obtained, and for consideration of the passage of time, extenuating circumstances, demonstration of rehabilitation, and relevancy of the particular disqualifying information with respect to the current employment of the individual, we will consider this for future action.
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing our proposal with the following modifications:
• We revised paragraphs (a)(2)(i),(ii), and (iii) to include “exploitation.”
• We revised paragraph (a)(2)(iii) to read “. . . Have a disciplinary action in effect against his or her professional license by a state licensure body as a result of a finding of abuse, . . .”
• We revised paragraph (b)(5)(i)(B) to read “Each covered individual shall report immediately, but not later than 2 hours . . .”
• We revised paragraph (c)(1) to require that allegations of abuse, neglect, or exploitation to be reported to the administrator of the facility immediately, but not later than 2 hours after forming the suspicion, if the events that cause the suspicion involve abuse or result in serious bodily injury, or not later than 24 hours if the events that cause the suspicion do not involve abuse and do not result in serious bodily injury.
• We corrected paragraph (c)(4) to read “Report the results of all investigations to the administrator or his designated representative and . . .”
We proposed to re-designate current § 483.12 “Admission, transfer, and discharge rights” as new § 483.15, and revised the general title to “Transitions of care” in order to reflect current terminology that applies to all instances where care of a resident is transitioned between care settings.
In new § 482.15(a) we proposed to include requirements for admissions policies and moved these requirements to the beginning of the section to reflect chronological order. We proposed a new paragraph (a)(1) to require that the facility establish an admissions policy.
Additionally, we proposed to re-designate current § 483.12(d)(1) as § 483.15(a)(2) to state that facilities cannot request or require residents or potential residents to waive their rights to Medicare or Medicaid benefits or to any rights conferred by applicable state, federal and local licensing or certification laws. We proposed to add a new paragraph (a)(2)(iii) to prohibit facilities from requesting or requiring residents or potential residents to waive any potential facility liability for losses of personal property. We further proposed to add a new paragraph (a)(6) to specify that a nursing facility must disclose and provide to a resident or potential resident, prior to time of admission, notice of any special characteristics or service limitations of the facility.
We also proposed to relocate existing § 483.10(b)(12) to new § 483.15(a)(7). This section addresses admission disclosure requirements for composite distinct part nursing facility, and is more appropriately located in the section on admissions.
We proposed to re-designate § 483.12(a) as proposed § 483.15(b) and address transfers and discharges. We proposed at § 483.15(b)(1)(ii)(C) to revise existing § 483.12(a)(2)(iii) and clarify that a resident could be discharged when the safety of other individuals is endangered due to the clinical or behavioral status of that resident. In § 483.15(b)(1)(ii)(E), we proposed to revise existing § 483.12(a)(2)(v) and clarify that provisions for discharge as a result of non-payment of facility charges would not apply unless the resident did not submit the necessary paperwork for third party payment or until the third party, including Medicare or Medicaid, denied the claim and the resident refused to pay for his or her stay. Finally, we proposed a new § 483.15(b)(1)(iii) to specify that the facility may not transfer or discharge the
In the proposed revision to paragraph § 483.15(b)(2), we made a number of revisions based on the importance of effective communication between providers during transitions of care. First, we proposed to clarify that the transfer or discharge would be documented in the resident's clinical record and that appropriate information would be communicated to the receiving setting. In addition, we proposed to require that, when a facility transfers or discharges a resident because the transfer or discharge is necessary for the resident's safety and welfare, the facility would include in its documentation the specific resident needs that it cannot meet, facility attempts to meet the resident needs, and the service(s) available at the receiving facility that will meet the resident's needs.
We proposed to add a new requirement at § 483.15(b)(2)(i) that the transferring facility provide necessary information to the resident's receiving provider, whether it is an acute care hospital, a LTC hospital, a psychiatric facility, another LTC facility, a hospice, home health agency, or another community-based provider or practitioner. We did not propose a specific form, format, or methodology for this communication. Instead, we proposed specific data elements or a set of information that must be communicated during the transfer process. This includes demographic information, including but not limited to name, sex, date of birth, race, ethnicity, and preferred language, resident representative information including contact information, advanced directive information, history of present illness/reason for transfer, including primary care team contact information, past medical/surgical history, including procedures, active diagnoses/current problem list, laboratory tests and the results of pertinent laboratory and other diagnostic testing, functional status, psychosocial assessment including cognitive status, social supports, behavioral health issues, medications, allergies including medication allergies, immunizations, smoking status, vital signs, unique identifier(s) for a resident's implantable device(s), if any, comprehensive care plan including health concerns, assessment and plan, goals, resident preferences, other interventions, efforts to meet resident needs, and resident status. We did not establish a time frame for this communication, as this may vary based on the circumstances surrounding the transfer; however, in the proposed rule we indicated that we expect communication to occur shortly before or as close as possible to the actual time of transfer and that the facility would document that communication has occurred.
In paragraph (b)(3)(i), we proposed to update the language currently in § 483.12(a)(4)(i) to reflect our “resident representative” language and proposed to require that the facility send a copy of the notice of transfer or discharge to the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman with the resident's consent. In paragraph (b)(3)(ii), we proposed a minor revision to the language currently in § 483.12(a)(4)(ii) to clarify that the facility records the reasons for the transfer or discharge, in accordance with proposed § 483.15(b)(2).
In § 483.15(b)(5)(iii), we proposed to modify language currently in § 483.12(a)(6)(iii) by adding the phrase “expected to be” to reflect our understanding that when a notice of transfer or discharge is issued 30 days prior to transfer, the transfer or discharge destination may subsequently change. We also proposed in paragraph (b)(5)(iv) to require that the notice include the name, address (mailing and email), and telephone number of the state entity which receives discharge or transfer appeal requests; and information on how to obtain an appeal form, how to obtain assistance in completing the form, and how to submit the appeal request. We also proposed to add a new paragraph § 483.15(b)(6) to require that when information in the notice changes, the facility must update the recipients of the notice as soon as practicable with the new information to ensure that residents are aware of and can respond appropriately to discharge information. We proposed to re-designate § 483.12(a)(7) as § 483.15(b)(7) and revised it to require that the facility provide to the resident an orientation regarding his or her transfer or discharge in a form and manner that the resident can understand. Finally, in § 483.15(b)(9), we proposed to clarify that room changes in a composite distinct part are subject to the requirements of proposed § 483.10(d)(7).
In paragraph § 483.15(c) we proposed to add language to require that the facility provide information to the resident that informs the resident of and distinguishes and explains the difference between the duration of the state bed-hold policy, if any, as well as the reserve bed payment policy in the state plan, required under 42 CFR 447.40, if any. In § 483.15(c)(1)(iv), we proposed to add a new requirement that a facility's notice of its bed-hold policy and readmission must also include information on the facility's policy for readmission, as required under proposed § 483.15(c)(3), for a resident whose hospitalization or therapeutic leave exceeds the bed-hold period under the state plan. Finally, we proposed to redesignate existing § 483.12(a)(3) as § 483.15(c)(3) and revised it to add a new requirement that a resident who is hospitalized or placed on therapeutic leave with an expectation of returning to the facility must be notified in writing by the facility when the facility determines that the resident cannot be readmitted to the facility, the reason the resident cannot be readmitted to the facility, and the appeal and contact information specified in § 483.15(b)(5)(iv) through (vii).
• Contact information of the practitioner responsible for the care of the resident,
• resident representative information including contact information,
• advance directive information,
• special instructions or precautions for ongoing care,
• the resident's comprehensive care plan goals,
• all other necessary information, including a copy of the resident's discharge summary, consistent with § 483.21(c)(2), as applicable, and any other documentation, as applicable, to ensure a safe and effective transition of care.
We note that the discharge summary mentioned above must include the medication reconciliation, as well as a recapitulation of the resident's stay, a final summary of the resident's status, and the post-discharge plan of care. Please see our discussion of portable orders for scope of treatment in section D, in the comments and responses relating to planning and implementing care.
While we have increased the flexibility in these requirements, we continue to support alignment discussed in the proposed rule between this approach and the common clinical data set which providers participating in the EHR Incentive Program(s) have focused on electronically exchanging through the use of certified EHR technology (80 FR 62693). We encourage facilities to identify opportunities to streamline data collection and exchange by using data they are already capturing electronically, for instance, as part of the MDS data collection.
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing our proposal with the following modifications:
• We have withdrawn our proposal to rename proposed section § 483.15, “Transitions of Care” and add introductory language, and retain the current title “Admission, transfer, and discharge rights.”
• We corrected references to “clinical record” to “medical record.”
• We eliminated the introductory language which defined transitions of care, as the term is no longer used.
• We revised paragraph (a)(6) to require that a facility disclose to a resident or potential resident, prior to admission, notice of special characteristics or service limitations of the facility. We redesignated proposed (b)(1) as paragraph (b), and added a cross-reference to the definition of transfer and discharge in § 483.5 and a cross-reference to resident rights at § 483.10(a)(2).
• We redesignated proposed (b) Transfer and discharge, as (c), and renumbered paragraphs (ii) through (iii) to (i) through (ii).
• In paragraph (c)(1)(i)(E), we have revised the provision to state that non-payment applies if the resident does not submit the necessary paperwork for third party payment or after the third party payor denies the claim and the resident refuses to pay for his or her stay.
• We have clarified that paragraph (c)(1)(ii) applies unless the failure to transfer or discharge would endanger the health or safety of the resident or other individuals in the facility. In the event that failure to discharge or transfer would endanger the health or safety of the resident or other individuals in the facility, the facility must document what danger the failure to transfer would pose.
• We revised paragraph (c)(2)(ii) to clarify that the term “documentation” refers to the documentation specified in paragraph (2)(i).
• We revised paragraph (c)(2)(iii), documentation, to reflect a more flexible list of elements to be documented in the resident's medical record and communicated to the receiving health care institution or provider. The documentation must include: Contact information of the practitioner responsible for the care of the resident, resident representative information including contact information, advance directive information, all special instructions or precautions for ongoing care, as appropriate, the resident's comprehensive care plan goals, all other necessary information, including a copy
• We removed the requirement for resident consent in paragraph (c)(3).
• We revised paragraph (c)(5)(iii) to remove the phrase “expected to be.”
• We revised paragraph (c)(5)(iv) to require the discharge notice to include a statement of the resident's appeal rights, including the name, address (mailing and email), and telephone number of the entity which receives such requests; and information on how to obtain an appeal form and assistance in completing the form and submitting the appeal hearing request; and expanded paragraphs (vi) and (vii) to include individuals with related disabilities.
• We revised paragraph (c)(8) by removing “of the residents or other responsible parties.”
• We revised “readmissions” to “returns” in paragraphs (d) and (e).
• We revised proposed paragraph (c)(3) as paragraph (e). Paragraph (e)(1) is revised to state that “a facility must establish . . .” and (e)(1)(i)(B) is revised to read “Is eligible for Medicare skilled nursing facility services or Medicaid nursing facility services” and revised proposed paragraph (c)(3)(ii) as (e)(2)(ii) to state that if the facility that determines that a resident who was transferred with an expectation of returning to the facility cannot return to the facility, the facility must comply with the requirements of paragraph (c) as they apply to discharges.
Current regulations at § 483.20 require that a facility must initially and periodically conduct a comprehensive, accurate, standardized, reproducible assessment of each resident's functional capacity and sets forth the requirements a facility must meet to be in compliance. As part of the restructuring of subpart B, we proposed to remove and re-designate current § 483.20(k) and § 483.20(l), which set forth requirements for care plans and discharge planning, to § 483.21(b) and § 483.21(c), respectively. Similarly, we proposed to re-designate § 483.20(m) as § 483.20(k). The removal and re-designation of paragraphs (k) and (l) are discussed below in the section entitled, “§ 483.21 Comprehensive Person-Centered Care Planning.”
Existing § 483.20(b) sets forth the information that must be included in a resident's comprehensive assessment using the resident assessment instrument. We proposed to revise this section to clarify that the assessment is not merely for the purpose of understanding a resident needs, but also to understand their strengths, goals, life history, and preferences. We also proposed to revise the regulations to specify that CMS (not the State) prescribes the resident assessment instrument. At § 483.20(b)(1)(xvi) we proposed to revise the text from “discharge potential” to read, “discharge planning” in an effort to encourage facilities to move the discussion of possible discharge away from a facility's judgment and towards a resident's preference and expectation.
Existing regulations at § 483.20(e) require facilities to coordinate assessments with the PASARR program under Medicaid in part 483, subpart C to the maximum extent practicable to avoid duplicative testing and efforts. We proposed to add new § 483.20(e)(1) and § 483.20(e)(2). In new § 483.20(e)(1), we proposed to clarify that coordination with PASARR includes incorporating the recommendations from the PASARR level II determination and the PASARR evaluation report into a resident's assessment, care planning, and transitions of care. In new § 483.20(e)(2), we proposed to clarify that PASARR coordination also includes referring all level II residents and all residents with newly evident or possible serious a mental disorder, intellectual disability, or related conditions for level II resident review upon a significant change in status assessment (that is, a decline or improvement in a resident's status).
As mentioned earlier in this section, we are proposed to re-designate existing § 483.20(m) as § 483.20(k). In addition, we proposed to make a few technical corrections at proposed § 483.20(k). First, we proposed to re-designate existing § 483.20(k)(2) as (k)(3), and add a new paragraph (k)(2). Sections 1919(e)(7)(A)(ii) and (iii) of the Act provide exceptions to the preadmission screening for individuals with a mental disorder and individuals with intellectual disability for admittance into a nursing facility. We proposed at § 483.20(k)(2) to add these statutory exceptions that were inadvertently omitted when this regulation was initially written. Second, we proposed to add a new paragraph at § 482.20(k)(4). Section 1919(e)(7)(B)(iii) of the Act requires a NF to notify the state mental health authority or state intellectual disability authority when there has been a significant change in the resident's physical or mental condition so that a resident review can be conducted. We proposed at § 483.20(k)(4) to add this statutory requirement that was inadvertently omitted when CMS first implemented sections 1819 and 1919 of the Act). Lastly, we proposed to replace “mental retardation” with the term “intellectual disability” throughout § 483.20(k), as appropriate.
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing our proposal with the following revision:
• Remove the reference to “direct access staff” at § 483.20(b)(1)(xviii).
In accordance with the proposed reorganization of part 483, subpart B, we proposed to add a new § 483.21 “Comprehensive Person-Centered Care Planning”. We proposed to retain in this section certain existing provisions of current § 483.20 as well as other additions and revisions discussed in detail below. Currently, the requirements for care plans and discharge planning are set out at § 483.20 along with the requirements for conducting an assessment of each resident's health and completing the MDS. We proposed to remove the requirements for care plans from current § 483.20(k) and discharge planning in current § 483.20(l) (collectively referred to here as care planning) and relocate them to a new § 483.21. In addition to relocating existing provisions, we also proposed to add new requirements as discussed in detail below.
We proposed to add a new § 483.21(a)(1) to the current care planning regulations and require that facilities complete a baseline interim care plan for each resident upon their admission to the facility. We proposed to require that the baseline care plan be completed within 48 hours of a resident's admission. At § 483.21(a)(1)(ii), we proposed to list the information that would, at a minimum, be necessary for inclusion in a baseline care plan, but would not limit the contents of the care plan to only this information. In the proposed rule, we indicated that information such as initial goals based on admission orders, physician orders, dietary orders, therapy services, social services, and PASARR recommendations as appropriate would be the type of information that would be necessary to provide appropriate immediate care for a resident. However, since care plans are developed specifically for each resident, a facility could decide to include additional information as appropriate.
At § 483.21(a)(2), we proposed to allow facilities to complete a comprehensive care plan instead of completing both a baseline care plan and then a comprehensive care plan. In this circumstance, the comprehensive care plan would be completed within 48 hours of admission and comply with the requirements for a comprehensive care plan at proposed § 483.21(b). We discuss those requirements below.
Current regulations at § 483.20(k) set forth the requirements for developing a comprehensive care plan. As mentioned above, we proposed to re-designate this section as a new § 483.21(b). In addition, we also proposed to add a new § 483.21(b)(1)(iii), requiring that any specialized services or specialized rehabilitation services that a nursing facility provided pursuant to a PASARR recommendation be included in the resident's care plan.
We also proposed to add a new § 483.21(b)(1)(iv)(B) to require that discharge assessment and planning to be a part of developing the comprehensive care plan. We proposed to require facilities to assess a resident's potential for future discharge, as appropriate, as early as upon admission, to ensure that residents are given every opportunity to attain their highest quality of life. We proposed to require at § 483.21(b)(1)(iv) that facilities document whether a resident's desire for information regarding returning to the community is assessed and any referrals that are made for this purpose.
The IDT is responsible for developing a comprehensive care plan for each resident at proposed § 483.21(b)(2)(ii). Under current § 483.20(k)(2)(ii), the attending physician, a registered nurse with responsibility for the resident, other appropriate staff in disciplines as determined by the resident's needs, and to the extent possible the resident or the
Lastly, we proposed to add a new requirement at § 483.21(b)(3)(iii) to require that the services provided or arranged by the facility be culturally-competent and trauma-informed.
Current regulations at § 483.20(l) set forth the requirements for a discharge summary. As mentioned above, we proposed to re-designate this section as a new § 483.21(c). At § 483.21(c)(1) we proposed to improve the discharge planning for LTC facilities by adding a requirement that facilities must develop and implement an effective discharge planning process. In the proposed rule, we indicated that the facility's discharge planning process must ensure that the discharge goals and needs of each resident are identified. This process should also result in the development of a discharge plan for each resident and any referrals to local contact agencies or other appropriate entities, should the resident have a desire to receive information about returning to the community. We note that in compliance with the Supreme Court
Furthermore, we proposed to require that the facility consider caregiver/support person availability, and the resident's or caregiver support persons' capacity and capability to perform the required care, as part of the identification of discharge needs. We also proposed to require that the discharge plan address the resident's goals of care and treatment preferences. In the proposed rule, we indicated that facilities have to document in the discharge plan that a resident has been asked about their interest in receiving information regarding returning to the community. If the resident indicates interest in returning to the community, the facility must document any referrals to local contact agencies or other appropriate entities made for this purpose and update a resident's comprehensive care plan and discharge plan in response to information received from such referrals. Likewise, if discharge to the community were determined to not be feasible, the facility must document who made the determination and why. We note that on May 20, 2016 the HHS Office for Civil Rights' issued a report entitled “Guidance and Resources for Long Term Care Facilities: Using the Minimum Data Set to Facilitate Opportunities to Live in the Most Integrated Setting” (see
As required under section 1899B(i)(1) of the Act, to help inform the discharge planning process, we proposed to require LTC facilities to take into account, consistent with the applicable reporting provisions, standardized patient assessment data, quality measures and resource use measures that pertain to the IMPACT Act domains, as well as other relevant measures specified by the Secretary. For those residents who are transferred to another LTC facility or who are discharged to a HHA, IRF, or LTCH, we proposed at § 483.21(c)(1)(viii) to require that the facility assist residents and their resident representatives in selecting a post-acute care provider by using data that includes, but is not limited to SNF, HHA, IRF, or LTCH standardized patient assessment data, data on quality measures, and data on resource use to the extent the data are available. Further, we proposed that the facility must ensure that the post-acute care standardized patient assessment data, data on quality measures, and data on resource use are relevant and applicable to the resident's goals of care and treatment preferences.
Finally, at § 483.21(c)(1)(viii), we proposed that facilities must document in the discharge plan whether a determination is made by the resident, resident representative, or interdisciplinary team that discharge to the community is not feasible. At § 483.21(c)(1)(ix), we proposed to require that the evaluation of the resident's discharge needs and discharge plan must be documented, completed on a timely basis based on the resident's needs, and included in the clinical record. The results of the evaluation must be discussed with the resident or resident's representative. Furthermore, all relevant resident information must be incorporated into the discharge plan to facilitate its implementation and to avoid unnecessary delays in the resident's discharge or transfer.
At § 483.21(c)(2), we proposed to set forth the existing requirements for providing a resident with a discharge summary when discharge from the facility is anticipated. At § 483.21(c)(2)(i) we proposed to revise the current requirements for the post-discharge plan of care to specify that a recapitulation of a resident's stay include, but not be limited to,
At § 483.21(c)(2)(iii), we proposed to add a new requirement to require facilities to reconcile all pre-discharge medications both prescribed and non-prescription, with the resident's post discharge medications. We proposed that this medication reconciliation be included as part of the discharge summary. Lastly, we also proposed at § 483.21(c)(2)(iv) to require that the post-discharge plan be developed along with the participation of the resident and, with the resident's consent, his or her resident representative.
In addition, we understand that admissions to a facility can take place on a weekend or over a holiday, however we expect that quality care will still be provided including the need to formulate a plan of care for the resident. Furthermore, regulations at § 483.35(b)(1) require the facility to use the services of a registered nurse for at least 8 consecutive hours a day, 7 days a week. Therefore, we expect, at a minimum, that a registered nurse will be available to develop a baseline care plan regardless of whether it is a holiday or a weekend. Finally, we expect that facilities will begin developing the baseline care plan upon admission in order to meet the 48 hour timeframe. The 48 hour timeframe serves as a deadline for having the plan completed and does not preclude facilities from completing the plan sooner. We believe that 48 hours is an appropriate timeframe as it will allow the facility sufficient time to obtain necessary information to complete the baseline care plan while also addressing the need for continuity of care during transition, a high-risk period when residents are particularly vulnerable to adverse health events.
In the preamble of the proposed rule (see 80 FR 42192) we noted the gaps in care planning revealed by the July 2012 OIG report referenced by the commenter as well as another OIG report, “Skilled Nursing Facilities Often Fail to Meet Care Planning and Discharge Planning Requirements” ((OEI-02-09-00201),
In addition, we note that as discussed previously we received comments requesting that the right to receive a copy of the care plan be added to the list of resident rights discussed in § 483.10. In response to these comments we have added a provision at § 483.21(a)(3) that requires facilities to provide residents and their resident representatives with a summary of their baseline care plan. This summary must include, but is not limited to, the initial goals of the resident, a summary of the resident's medications and dietary instructions, any services and treatments to be administered by the facility and personnel acting on behalf of the facility, and any updated information based on the details of the comprehensive care plan, as necessary. Note that this summary is subject to the provisions at § 483.10(g)(3) and must be
Furthermore, we believe that the comprehensive care plan should serve as an important tool for delivering patient-centered care and encourage facilities to explore ways to allow residents, families, and other representatives to access the care plan on a routine basis as appropriate, for instance, using technology solutions that enable real-time access for authorized users and dynamic updating by members of the care team.
We note that while some residents may reside in the facility for lengthy periods, that is not always the case. Our regulations are developed in an effort to address the varying services provided by a LTC facility and the different individuals that may reside in the facility. We have not required facilities to reconcile “pre-hospitalization medication” but rather those medications a resident was prescribed prior to being discharged from the facility to those they are prescribed when leaving the facility. We expect that this information is readily available and is maintained as a standard practice by a facility in order to provide sufficient care.
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing our proposal with the following modifications:
• At § 483.21(a), we have clarified that the facility must implement the baseline care plan.
• At § 483.21(a)(3), we have added a new requirement that facilities must provide residents and their representatives with a summary of their baseline care plan.
• At § 483.21(b), we have clarified that the facility must implement the comprehensive person-centered care plan.
• At § 483.21(b)(1), we have replaced the word “timetables” with “timeframe.”
• At § 483.21(b)(2)(ii)(E), we have removed the requirement for a social worker to participate on the IDT.
• At § 483.21(c)(1), we have added that a facility must develop and implement a discharge planning process that is consistent with the discharge rights set forth at § 483.15(b) as applicable. We have also removed the reference to “post-SNF care” to clarify that the discharge planning process applies to both SNFs and NFs.
• At § 483.21(c)(2)(iv), we have removed the language “his or her family” and replaced it with “the resident representative(s).”
Current regulations at § 483.25 establish requirements for numerous aspects of care and special needs of LTC facility residents under the general heading of “Quality of Care.” Quality of Care and Quality of Life are two separate and overarching principles in the delivery of care to residents of LTC facilities. We proposed to comprehensively revise and re-organize the current § 483.25 to ensure person-centered, quality care and quality of life for this vulnerable population.
First, we proposed to retitle this section “Quality of Care and Quality of Life” and revise the introductory paragraph to reiterate the requirement that each resident must receive and the facility must provide the necessary care and services to attain or maintain the highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being, consistent with the resident's comprehensive assessment and plan of care.
Second, in § 483.25(a), we proposed to address the residents' ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs) and establish that, based on the comprehensive assessment of a resident and consistent with the resident's needs, choices, and preferences, the facility must provide the necessary care and services to maintain or improve, to the extent practicable, the resident's abilities to perform his or her activities of daily living and to ensure that those abilities do not diminish unless the diminution is unavoidable as a result of the individual's clinical condition. We proposed to divide the requirements of existing § 483.25(a)(1) into proposed § 483.25(a) and (b). We proposed to re-designate existing paragraphs § 483.25(a)(2) and (a)(3) as § 483.25(a)(1) and (a)(2), respectively. We proposed to add a new § 483.25(a)(3) to clarify that a facility must ensure that appropriate personnel provide basic life support, including cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to a resident requiring this emergency care prior to the arrival of emergency medical personnel and subject to accepted professional guidelines and the resident's advance directives.
In § 483.25(b), we proposed to establish those activities that we include as ADLs. These activities are currently listed in § 483.25(a)(1)(i) through (v). We proposed to update the language of that list, although the underlying activities remain unchanged. We proposed to establish as ADLs: (1) Hygiene, such as bathing, dressing, grooming, and oral care; (2) mobility, which includes transfers and ambulation; (3) toileting and use of the bathroom; (4) dining, including eating meals and snacks; and (5) communication, including speech, language and other functional communication systems.
In § 483.25(c), we proposed to relocate the current requirements related to an activities program as required in existing § 483.15(f). We proposed to revise the language to include a required consideration of the comprehensive assessment, care plan and the preferences of the resident as well as potential for independence and ability to interact with the community.
We also proposed a new § 483.25(d), “Special Care Issues,” which we revised, re-located, and added requirements for specific special concerns, including restraints; bed rails; vision and hearing; skin integrity; mobility; incontinence; colostomy, ureterostomy, or ileostomy; assisted nutrition and hydration; parenteral fluids, accidents, respiratory care, prostheses, pain management, dialysis, and trauma-informed care. As many of the concerns in this section were previously included in § 483.25, we discuss here only the provisions we proposed to add or modify.
Specifically, we proposed to re-designate and revise § 483.13(a), “Restraints,” as § 483.25(d)(1). In the proposed rule, we indicated that while we prohibit the use of any physical or chemical restraint not required to treat the resident's medical symptoms in the introductory language to proposed § 483.12, in proposed § 483.25(d)(1), we require that the facility ensure that residents are free from restraints that are imposed for purposes of discipline or convenience, in addition to ensuring that residents are free from restraints not required to treat the resident's medical symptoms. In addition, we proposed to add new requirements to specify that, if used, restraints must be the least restrictive alternative for the least amount of time. Further, documentation of ongoing evaluation of the need for the restraints is required.
We proposed a new § 483.25(d)(2) to establish specific requirements when a facility uses bed rails on a resident's bed. Specifically, we proposed to require that the facility ensure correct installation, use and maintenance of bed rails, including attempting to use alternatives prior to installing a side or
We also proposed to revise existing language at § 483.25(c) and § 483.25(k)(7) and re-designate them under a new § 483.25(d)(4), “Skin Integrity.” In this section, we proposed to revise the language to include a statement that care must be consistent with professional standards of practice and to clarify that foot care includes care to prevent complications from the resident's medical conditions such as diabetes, peripheral vascular disease, or immobility, and also includes assistance in making and keeping necessary appointments with qualified healthcare providers such as podiatrists.
In § 483.25(d)(5), we proposed to address mobility both range of motion and other limitations of mobility. We proposed to retain, unchanged, the provisions related to range of motion, but to add a new provision to require that residents with limited mobility receive appropriate services and equipment to maintain or improve mobility unless reduced mobility is unavoidable based on the resident's clinical condition.
In § 483.25(d)(6), we proposed to retain existing provisions on urinary incontinence, add a new § 483.25(d)(5)(B) to address residents who are admitted with an indwelling urinary catheter, and add a new § 483.25(d)(6)(iii) to require that residents with fecal incontinence receive the appropriate treatment and services to restore as much normal bowel function as possible. We proposed to retain, unchanged, colostomy, ureterostomy, and ileostomy care in § 483.25(d)(7). In § 483.25(d)(8), we proposed to modify existing provisions on nasogastric tubes to reflect current clinical practice and to include enteral fluids. Other methods of providing assisted nutrition are now common practice. Therefore, we proposed to include gastrostomy tubes with nasogastric tubes, both percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy and percutaneous endoscopic jejunostomy. We also proposed to include in this paragraph requirements regarding both assisted nutrition and hydration and specify that the facility must ensure that the resident maintains acceptable parameters of nutritional status, such as usual body weight or desirable body weight range and protein levels, unless the resident's clinical condition demonstrates that this is not possible and that the resident receives sufficient fluid intake to maintain proper hydration and health. Additionally, we proposed to modify the requirement for a therapeutic diet to require that the resident is offered a therapeutic diet when appropriate, recognizing that the resident has a right to choose to eat a therapeutic diet or not. Finally, we proposed to specify that based on the comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that a resident who has been able to eat enough on his or her own or with assistance is not fed by enteral methods unless the resident's clinical condition demonstrates that enteral feeding was clinically indicated and consented to by the resident; and a resident who is fed by enteral means receives the appropriate treatment and services to restore, if possible, oral eating skills and to prevent complications of enteral feeding.
In § 483.25(d)(9), we proposed to address only parenteral fluids. We included enteral fluids in § 483.25(d)(8), our proposed provisions on assisted nutrition and hydration, as discussed earlier.
We proposed to add a new § 483.25(d)(13) to ensure that residents receive necessary and appropriate pain management. We proposed that the facility, based on the resident's comprehensive assessment and choices, must ensure that residents receive treatment and care for pain management in accordance with professional standards of practice.
We also proposed to add a new § 483.25(d)(14) to ensure that residents who require dialysis receive those services in accordance with professional standards of practice and the residents choices.
We further proposed to add a new § 483.25(d)(15) to ensure that trauma survivors, including Holocaust survivors, survivors of abuse, military veterans with post-traumatic stress disorder, and survivors of other trauma receive care that addresses the special needs of trauma survivors. Specifically, we proposed to require that facilities ensure that residents who are trauma survivors receive care and treatment that is trauma-informed, takes into consideration the resident's experiences and preferences in order to avoid triggers that may cause re-traumatization, and meet professional standards of practice.
Finally, we proposed to revise and relocate to § 483.45, “Pharmacy services”, the provisions related to unnecessary drugs, antipsychotic drugs, medication errors, and influenza and pneumococcal immunizations. These provisions are further discussed later in our section on pharmacy services.
We considered similarly relocating our provision regarding bed rails, but do not believe that these requirements as clearly belong in § 483.12. Therefore, we have retained this provision as § 483.25(n).
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing our proposal with the following modifications:
• We have established § 483.24, Quality of life, which contains proposed § 483.35(a), (b), and (c) re-designated as § 483.24(a), (b), and (c), respectively, and revised the introductory language to clarify that quality of life applies to all care and services provided to facility residents.
• We have added an introductory statement to new paragraph § 483.24(b).
• We have added the word “walking” in addition to “ambulation” at § 483.24(b)(2).
• We have revised the title of § 483.25 to read “Quality of care,” eliminated the modifier “special care issues,” revised the introductory language to clarify that quality of care applies to all care and services provided by the facility, and re-designated § 483.25(d)(3) through (15) as § 483.25(a) through (m), respectively.
• We have added “related physician orders” to paragraph § 483.24(a)(3) regarding the provision of basic life support.
• In § 483.25, we removed (d)(1) relating to restraints and relocated it at § 483.12(a)(2).
• We have re-designated proposed § 483.25(d)(2) Bed rails as paragraph § 483.25(n), added an appropriateness qualifier to the regulatory text and reworded the provision about the bed's dimension for clarity.
• We have re-designated § 483.25(d)(6)(ii)(C) as § 483.25(e)(2)(iii) and revised it to state “restore continence to the extent possible.”
• We have added language to § 483.25(f), (h), (i), (j), (k), and (l) to require that care be provided consistent with professional standards of practice applicable to that care as well as the comprehensive person-centered care plan, and the residents' goals and preferences.
• In § 483.25(g)(1), we have eliminated the reference to protein levels as a nutritional parameter and add reference to electrolyte balance.
Under the reorganization discussed earlier, requirements regarding physician services currently located at § 483.40 were proposed to be moved to new § 483.30. We proposed to retain the current requirements but proposed a few additions as discussed below.
We proposed to revise the introductory text of § 483.30 to specify that, in addition to a physician's recommendation that the individual be admitted to a facility, a physician, a physician assistant, a nurse practitioner, or a clinical nurse specialist must provide orders for the resident's immediate care and needs.
We also proposed to add a new § 483.30(e) to require that a facility, prior to an unscheduled transfer of a resident to a hospital, provide or arrange for an in-person evaluation of a resident, to be conducted expeditiously, by a physician, a physician assistant, nurse practitioner, or clinical nurse specialist prior to transferring the resident to a hospital, unless the transfer is emergent and obtaining the in-person evaluation would endanger the health or safety of the individual or unreasonably delay the transfer.
At § 483.30(f)(2), we proposed to provide the physician with the flexibility to delegate to a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional the task of writing dietary orders, to the extent the dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional is permitted to do so under state law.
Similarly, at § 483.30(f)(3), we proposed to provide the physician with the flexibility to delegate to a qualified therapist under proposed § 483.65 below the task of writing therapy orders, to the extent that the therapist is permitted to do so under state law.
In addition, some commenters felt that this proposal would result in delayed access to care, resulting in harm to patients. Some commenters also felt that this requirement could conflict with resident rights, specifically, the resident's or resident representative's right to request such a transfer. One commenter stated that, in many circumstances, a practitioner can make an adequate assessment over the phone and that CMS had shown no reason to adopt this requirement, and facilities already have incentives to avoid unnecessary hospital transfers. Many commenters asked what was wrong with the current system of the nurse and physician speaking about the plan of care over the phone, stating that this is sufficient. Finally, some commenters stated that this proposal failed to recognize an appropriate role for registered nurses, in coordination with a practitioner. Commenters suggested we allow this requirement to be completed through a telehealth mechanism or using registered nurses.
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing our proposal with the following modifications:
• We have withdrawn proposed § 483.30(e).
• We have removed our proposal to redesignate paragraphs (e) and (f) as paragraphs (f) and (g).
• We have modified the regulatory text at § 483.30(e)(2) and § 483.30(e)(3), respectively, to specify that it is the attending physician who has the authority to delegate to a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional the task of writing dietary orders, and to delegate to a qualified therapist the task of writing therapy orders, to the extent that these professionals are permitted to perform these tasks under state law.
Under the proposed reorganization, requirements for nursing services currently located at § 483.30 were proposed to be relocated to § 483.35. The current regulations at § 483.30 address certain aspects of LTC facility staffing but leave gaps related to a number of areas such as the competencies of licensed nurses and the need to take into account resident acuity.
We proposed a competency-based staffing approach that requires the facility to evaluate its population and its resources in accordance with § 483.70(e), including the number and acuity of the residents, the range of diagnoses and resident needs and the training, experience, and skill sets of staff, and base staffing plans and assignments on these assessments. In § 483.35, we proposed to clarify that the facility must take into account its assessment of all residents as well as the skill-sets of individual staff when making staffing decisions. We also proposed revisions to improve the logical order and readability of these regulatory provisions. In the proposed rule, we included a robust discussion regarding the long-standing interest in increasing the required hours of nurse staffing per day and the various
We proposed to clarify at § 483.35(a)(1)(ii) that NAs are included in the term “other nursing personnel.” We proposed to add § 483.35(a)(3) and (4) to specify that the facility ensure that licensed nurses have the competencies and skill sets necessary to care for residents' needs, as identified through resident assessments, and as described in each resident's individual plan of care. We further proposed to specify that caring for a resident's needs would include but not be limited to assessing, evaluating, planning and implementing resident care plans and responding to each resident's needs.
Consistent with our clarification that NAs are included in the term “other nursing personnel,” we proposed to move most of the provisions relating to NAs previously located in § 483.75 to proposed § 483.35. Specifically, we proposed to re-designate § 483.75(f) “Proficiency of Nurse Aides” as § 483.35(c). We proposed to re-designate § 483.75(e) as § 483.35(d) and re-title the provision as “Requirements for facility hiring and use of nursing aides” to reflect its contents more accurately. We proposed to re-designate the regulations at § 483.75(e) to § 483.35(d)(2) and address non-permanent employees. Non-permanent caregivers are expected to meet competency, knowledge and skill requirements to the same extent as permanent personnel. We also proposed to add the term “minimum” to § 483.35(c)(3) to clarify that this paragraph identifies the minimum requirements for hiring a nurse aide.
Several commenters specifically advocated for CMS to require a 24-hour registered nurse (RN) in every facility. One commenter stated that the current Requirements of Participation only mandate that facilities use a RN 8 continuous hours each day, 7 days a week. These 8 hours would not have to be spent providing care; they could be used to carry out any type of administrative tasks. Registered nurses by training and licensure have skills that are essential for timely assessment, intervention and treatment. The commenter noted that three Institute of Medicine studies have recommended that at least one RN be on duty at all times. They state that 24-hour RN coverage is essential because the acuity level of LTC facility residents has increased dramatically since the federal law was passed and expert nursing skills are required to anticipate, identify and respond to changes in condition; ensure appropriate rehabilitation, and maximize the chances for a safe and timely discharge home. In addition, a resident's condition can destabilize or deteriorate at any time. When that occurs, the individual must be immediately assessed and a determination made about whether the resident needs to go to the hospital for treatment or whether he or she can be properly cared for in the LTC facility. Because physicians do not have to be on-site, registered nurses are often the only medical personnel in a LTC facility with the education and licensure to conduct the assessment required. The commenter noted that substantial evidence that RN staffing is a key element for safe and effective resident care in U.S. LTC facilities has grown substantially over the last 2 decades, typically using quality measures or
Another commenter who advocated mandating a 24/7 RN stated that, as a result of SNF Value-based purchasing and because of the effect of RNs in decreasing unnecessary hospitalizations of LTC facility residents cited above, they anticipate that LTC facilities themselves will be seeking to employ RNs around-the-clock.
We have reviewed the recommendations of the Institute of Medicine in its 2004 report “Keeping Patients Safe: Transforming the work Environment of Nurses.” That report reiterates prior recommendations for a mandatory RN presence in LTC facilities and mandatory minimum staffing requirements, although it does not recommend a specific ratio. The report states, in part, that
“Patient safety requires staff resources that are sufficient to prevent an inappropriately high rate of untoward events that could be avoided with adequate staffing levels. For such a standard to be reasonable, it must at least be based on the number of residents in the LTC facility and address NAs, who provide most of the care to LTC facility residents. Such minimum staffing standards are not a precise statement of how many staff are required to fully meet the needs of each specific group of residents on each unit, nor are they a quality improvement tool to optimize quality in each LTC facility. Rather, a minimum staffing level is one that avoids placing individual residents unnecessarily at risk because of insufficient numbers of staff to provide even the most basic care.”
The report discusses CMS's 2001 Report to Congress “Appropriateness of Minimum Nurse Staffing Ratios in Nursing Homes—Phase II Final Report” and states:
“With respect to the recommendation that DHHS specify staffing standards in regulations that would increase with the number of patients and be based on the findings and recommendations of the Phase II DHHS report to Congress on the appropriateness of minimum staffing ratios in nursing homes, the committee notes that the thresholds identified in that study above which no further benefit from staffing ratios could be identified are above the staffing levels of 75 to 90 percent of facilities, depending on the type of staff. However, a minimum standard set by DHHS need not approach the threshold level above which there is no further benefit. In fact, such a standard would go beyond the expectation for a minimum, which is intended to identify situations in which facilities unequivocally place residents at an unacceptable level of risk. The challenge is that there is no absolute minimum level of risk for untoward events that is considered acceptable.”
The IOM report further states:
“The study does not propose a specific minimum standard for RNs, licensed nurses, and NAs because agreement must first be reached about what is an unacceptable level of risk. However, data exist from this national study with which to determine the staffing levels for each type of staff that are associated with any level of risk for untoward events.”
Finally, the IOM report states:
“At the same time, a number of nursing organizations, policy experts, and HCOs [health care organizations] point out the limitations of staffing ratios. While they may help ensure a baseline level of staffing in HCOs that may be outliers, they are poor instruments for achieving optimal staffing. Depending on the skill mix and expertise of nursing staff and patient acuity, minimum ratios may still not provide the needed levels of safety. Moreover, counts of patients needed to calculate nurse staffing levels consistent with a ratio must be taken at a point or points in time. Yet patient admissions, transfers, and discharges are frequent; therefore, an adequate nurse-to-patient ratio at 7 a.m. may be inadequate at 10 a.m., and an organization that has satisfied a nurse-to-staffing ratio at one point in time may still have inadequate staffing at another point. Thus, while staffing ratios can help protect against the most egregious staffing deficiencies, HCOs will need to employ more sensitive approaches internally to fine-tune staffing levels.”
We include only a few portions of this report to highlight the complexity of
The commenter agreed with CMS that the regulations must not encourage facilities to set staffing levels based solely on regulatory minimum requirements and in lieu of actual resident needs and acuity levels of the residents they serve. They further agreed that the facility assessments should take into consideration all the factors set out in the proposed regulation in § 483.70(e) and that each facility should conduct this assessment itself. However, the commenter suggested that CMS require that the facility assessment be audited by a facility surveyor and that the surveyor be empowered to require, under threat of graduated monetary penalties, the facility to provide additional nursing resources if he or she disagrees with the facility's assessment. Lastly, the commenter believed that the facility should be required to seek and use input from the Long-Term Care Ombudsman, the resident and family groups, and family caregivers when conducting its assessment.
Another commenter noted that instead of establishing a minimum staffing standard or requiring 24-hour RN coverage, CMS proposed a competency-based staffing approach that stems in part from a facility assessment and stated that this assessment appeared to be put forth as the answer to requiring a specific number of staff or hours of nursing care. The commenter was concerned that this would not require facilities to do anything different than they have been doing and that this simply maintains the status quo. The commenter believed that the facility assessment could be useful in addition to a minimum staffing standard if revised to include staffing practices and used as a factor to consider in adjusting staffing levels upward based on resident needs.
A commenter also recommended that “Proficiency of nurse aides” should be revised to read: “The facility must ensure that nurse aides have the basic skills and techniques necessary to care for residents' needs, as identified through resident assessments, and described in the plan of care.”
One commenter suggested that we should use $42.82 hourly wage based on the BLS OES Median for NAICS 623100, inflated by 48 percent. If we used that number, assuming 40 hours per week for 52 weeks, we get an estimate of $1.1 to $4.7 billion for an additional one to four RNs at 13,279 facilities. Some commenters believe that we have over-estimated the number of facilities that would need to hire one or more additional RNs. One commenter believes that 89 percent of facilities, already meet or exceed four RN FTEs per day (1 DoN and 1 RN on each shift), based on a calculation of RN hours per resident day and currently reported staffing data. That would mean only 1,777 facilities would need additional RN staffing. Using this estimate and the $42.82 median hourly wage, the burden estimate is $158 to $633 million for one to four additional RN at 1,777 facilities. However, we believe this calculation significantly underestimates the number of facilities that would be required to hire additional RNs. We based our estimate on the number of facilities that are not currently required to have an RN 24/7.
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing these provisions as proposed.
Currently, § 483.25 requires that each resident must receive and the facility must provide the necessary care and services to attain or maintain the highest practicable physical, mental and psychosocial well-being, in accordance with the comprehensive assessment and plan of care. We proposed to add a new section § 483.40 to address this requirement as it relates to behavioral health services and include requirements for social workers. These provisions work in conjunction with other provisions we proposed, including those related to reducing the inappropriate use of psychotropic medications, to address the behavioral health care needs for residents.
We proposed at § 483.40(a) to require that the facility have sufficient direct care staff with the appropriate competencies and skills sets to provide nursing and related services to assure resident safety and attain or maintain the highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being of each resident, as determined by resident assessments and individual plans of care and considering the number, acuity and diagnoses of the facility's resident population in accordance with the facility assessment required at proposed § 483.70(e). We proposed to specify in § 483.40(b) that, based on the comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that a resident who displays or is diagnosed with mental or psychosocial adjustment difficulty receives appropriate treatment and services to correct the assessed problem or to attain the highest practicable mental health and psychosocial well-being. In addition, we proposed to specify that a resident whose assessment does not reveal or who does not have a diagnosis of a mental disorder or psychosocial adjustment difficulty will not display a pattern of decreased social interaction and/or increased withdrawn, angry, or depressive behaviors, unless the resident's clinical condition demonstrates that the pattern was unavoidable. Furthermore, if rehabilitative services such as physical therapy, speech-language pathology, occupational therapy, and rehabilitative services for a mental disorder and intellectual disability are required in the resident's comprehensive plan of care, the facility must provide the required
Commenters said that expectations regarding the mental health care that LTC facilities can provide must be balanced against these facilities' ability to provide those services and the possible ramifications for the residents with mental disorders and the remaining resident populations in those facilities. A serious unintended consequence could be frail, elderly residents with dementia being housed with residents with a serious mental disorder, which could result in a dangerous situation. Other commenters were concerned that they would be pressured to admit residents with serious, complex behavioral health needs that they could not meet.
After considering the comments, we are finalizing as proposed, with the addition of the definition for “behavioral health.”
The LTC requirements regarding pharmacy services were located at § 483.60. We proposed to relocate these provisions to § 483.45. Section 483.60(c) required a pharmacist to perform a drug regimen review (DRR) for each resident at least once a month. At § 483.45(c)(2), we proposed that the pharmacist be required to review the resident's medical record concurrently with the DRR when: (1) The resident is new to the facility; (2) a prior resident returns or is transferred from a hospital or other facility; and (3) during each monthly drug regimen review when the resident has been prescribed or is taking a psychotropic drug, an antibiotic, or any drug the QAA Committee has requested be included in the pharmacist's monthly drug review. The previous LTC requirements at § 483.25(l)(2) specifically identified antipsychotic drugs and provided specific safeguards for their use. We proposed to re-designate these requirements to § 483.45(e) and at § 483.45(c)(3) to expand the drugs to which § 483.45(e) applies to include psychotropic medications (anti-psychotic drugs are included in the definition of psychotropic drugs). We proposed to use the definition of psychotropic drug used in the November 2001 OIG report, “Psychotropic Drug Use in Nursing Homes” (OEI-02-00-00490), which is a drug that affects brain activities associated with mental processes and behavior. These drugs include, but are not limited to, drugs in the following categories: (1) Anti-psychotic, (2) anti-depressant, (3) anti-anxiety, (4) hypnotic, (5) opioid analgesic, and (6) any other drug that results in effects similar to the drugs listed above.
The previous LTC requirements also required the pharmacist who conducted the monthly DRR to report any irregularities to the attending physician and the director of nursing. The term “irregularities” was not previously defined in the regulation and no examples were given. We proposed at § 483.45(c)(4) to define “irregularities” as including, but not limited to, the use of any drug that meets the criteria set forth in proposed paragraph (d) for an unnecessary drug. In addition, previously the pharmacist performing the monthly DRR was required to report any “irregularities” to the attending physician and the facility's director of nursing, and that these reports must be acted upon.
We proposed that the medical director be added to the individuals who should be notified of irregularities identified by the pharmacist during the residents' DRRs. We also proposed that the pharmacist create a written report that is dated, and contains, at a minimum, the resident's name, the relevant drug, and the irregularity the pharmacist identified. To ensure that the reported irregularities are acted upon, we also proposed that the attending physician must document in the resident's medical record that he or she has reviewed the report of the identified irregularity and what, if any, action has been taken to address it. If there is to be no change in the medication for which an irregularity was identified, the attending physician should document his or her rationale in the resident's medical record.
The current description of “unnecessary drugs” and the specific requirements for antipsychotic drugs are set forth in § 483.25(l)(1) and (2), respectively, under the “Quality of Care” condition of participation. We proposed to relocate these requirements from § 483.25 “Quality of Care” to proposed § 483.45 “Pharmacy services.”
In addition, we proposed at § 483.45(e)(3) that LTC facilities ensure that residents would not receive psychotropic drugs pursuant to a PRN order unless that medication was necessary to treat a diagnosed specific condition that was documented in the clinical record. In addition, at § 483.45(e)(4), we proposed that every PRN order for a psychotropic drug be limited to 48 hours and not be
We also agree with the commenter that physicians should not be required to repeatedly document the same rationale in the resident's medical record, once a clinically acceptable rationale is already documented in the medical record for a specific medication. However, we believe that each facility should have the flexibility to determine the best manner in which to handle this situation. We encourage facilities to address this situation in their policies and procedures concerning the monthly DRR. Concerning the other recommendations, we believe that each facility needs the flexibility to determine how the monthly DRRs will be conducted and how the facility will comply with the requirements in this final rule. Thus, in this final rule we are adding a requirement at § 483.45(c)(5) that the facility must establish and maintain policies and procedures that addresses the monthly DRR, including but not limited to, timeframes for the various steps in the process and procedures a
Some commenters were especially concerned about the last part of the definition, “any other drug that results in effect similar to the drugs listed” in the previous sections. They believed this was too expansive and included nearly all medications, such as drugs for seizures and Parkinson's disease, NSAIDs, beta-blockers, and eye drops for glaucoma. Another commenter also argued that the proposed definition would include commonly used drugs that do not merit additional scrutiny, such as Compazine, which is used for nausea. Another commenter recommended we define the classes of drugs, but provide exceptions in sub-regulatory guidance.
Although we are not finalizing “opioid analgesics” in the definition of “psychotropic drug,” it is not our intention to in any way to either diminish the importance of these drugs in the alleviation of pain nor the serious consequences of their inappropriate use. Opioid abuse is a serious public health issue with devastating consequences. Currently, the United States is in the midst of a prescription opioid overdose epidemic. According to the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), in 2014, more than 28,000 people died from opioid overdose, and at least half of those deaths involved a prescription opioid. Many more became addicted to prescription and illegal opioids.
HHS continues to build upon current efforts to combat the opioid abuse epidemic, including continuing to help health professionals to make the most informed prescribing decisions by:
• Teaching medical professionals how and when to prescribe opioids by working with lawmakers on bipartisan legislation requiring specific training for safe opioid prescribing and establishing new opioid prescribing guidelines for chronic pain;
• Supporting data sharing for safe prescribing by facilitating prescription drug monitoring programs (PDMP) and health information technology integration and further adoption of electronic prescribing practices;
• Increasing investments in state-level prevention interventions, including PDMPs, to track opioid prescribing and support appropriate pain management.
In addition, HHS supports efforts that encourage the increased use of naloxone, which reverses potentially fatal overdoses caused by opioids, and expand the use of Medication-Assisted Treatment (MAT), which combines behavioral therapy and medications to treat substance use disorders. In addition, we strongly encourage prescribing practitioners to follow CDC guidelines for prescribing opioids for chronic pain. The CDC guidelines provide recommendations which focus on the use of opioids in treating chronic pain (pain lasting longer than 3 months or past the time of normal tissue healing) outside of active cancer treatment, palliative care, and end-of-life care. The CDC guidelines are available at the following Web site:
We believe that the requirements we have finalized in this rule provide residents with the protections they need from the inappropriate use of drugs, including opioids. However, we will continue to assess the opioid epidemic and will consider whether to propose additional requirements for providers in future rulemaking.
Concerning the recommendation that we not finalize the term “behavioral interventions,” we note that facilities may use any terminology they choose to describe these activities; however, we believe that behavioral interventions is a commonly used term that is universally understood. Thus, we have finalized this requirement using the term “behavioral interventions.”
We disagree with the commenter that said our proposal assumed that any psychotropic drug prescribed prior to admission to the LTC facility was appropriate and did not require the same documentation. Section 483.45(e) requires that residents who have not used psychotropic drugs not be given those drugs unless the medication is necessary to treat a specific condition as diagnosed and documented in the clinical record, but that all resident who received psychotropic drugs receive GDRs and behavioral interventions, unless clinically contraindicated, in an effort to discontinue these drugs. This requirement does not assume that psychotropic drugs that were prescribed prior to admission are appropriate. It is intended to ensure that residents are not put on psychotropic drugs without there being a diagnosed and documented condition for which they are appropriate. Then, all residents who are on psychotropic drugs must then receive the GDRs or behavioral interventions, unless they are clinically contraindicated, as discussed above.
As finalized in this rule, all residents, including those on psychotropic drugs, will have their medical records reviewed by a pharmacist in conjunction with their monthly DRR. This requirement provides additional review, which we believe is beneficial; however, we are concerned that a resident that is, for instance, treated for 30 days with a psychotropic drug, especially on a PRN basis, could be receiving treatment that was inappropriate or detrimental. We proposed a 48-hour limitation on PRN orders of psychotropic drugs to address this concern. However, as noted above, many commenters disagreed with the 48-hour limitation. Some commenters recommended different limitations, such as a 72-hour or 7 day limitation on PRN prescriptions of psychotropic drugs. Another commenter suggested at least 7 days. We are concerned that the recommended 72-hour or 7 day limitation could be detrimental to some residents and still be burdensome for facilities that have limited access to physicians and other prescribing practitioners. When a facility has limited access to physicians and other prescribing practitioners, there could be an interruption in a resident receiving necessary medication due to a PRN prescription expiring before the prescribing practitioner could renew or write another prescription. This interruption could be detrimental to the resident. For example, as one commenter pointed out, an interruption in anti-anxiety medications could result in the resident experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Based on the limited access some facilities have to physicians and other prescribing practitioners and the potential for detrimental effects to residents from interruptions in their medication regimen, we believe the limitation on PRN prescriptions for psychotropic drugs should be longer and agree with the commenter that recommended at least a 7 day limitation. As finalized in this rule at § 483.45(c)(2) all residents will have a pharmacist reviewing their drug regimen monthly. However, a physician is only required to visit a resident at least once every 30 days for the first 90 days after the resident is admitted to the facility and every 60 days after that (42 CFR 483.70(c)). We believe that 30 days is too long for a resident to be on a psychotropic drug on a PRN basis without the physician or other prescriber having to evaluate whether the resident should continue on the subject drug according to the PRN order. Thus, we are establishing a 14-day limitation on psychotropic drugs. By establishing this 14-day limitation, each resident who is taking a psychotropic drug will have his or her prescription reviewed by the physician or prescribing practitioner every 14 days and also by a pharmacist every month. Since there was no previous limitation on PRN prescriptions for psychotropic or anti-psychotic drugs, this will provide residents receiving this type of medication on a PRN basis additional protections against unnecessary drugs, drugs with another type of irregularity, and drugs that might be prescribed for reasons other than the resident's own benefit. We also believe that a 14-day limitation on PRN prescriptions for psychotropic drugs should not be burdensome for facilities. Therefore, we have finalized a 14-day limitation on PRN prescriptions for psychotropic drugs, subject to the exceptions discussed below.
We are also aware that some residents might require psychotropic drugs on a PRN basis for prolonged periods of time. Thus, we have established an exception to this 14-day limitation. For psychotropic drugs that the attending physician believes a PRN prescription
Concerning the recommendation that we require a facility to have policies and procedures regarding PRN prescriptions and the facility's review of these prescriptions, we disagree with the commenters. Facilities need to have the flexibility to determine the policies and procedures they require, consistent with this rule and other sub-regulatory guidance, to manage their facility. We believe that the requirements finalized in this rule are sufficient to provide the scrutiny psychotropic drug prescriptions require to protect residents. However, we encourage facilities to develop their own policies and procedures concerning PRN prescriptions for their facility.
Concerning an exception for short-term residents, we disagree with the commenter. All of the requirements in this final rule, as well as other requirements and sub-regulatory guidance, apply to all residents, regardless of the length of their stay in the facility. Short-term residents deserve the same quality of care and protection of their rights as any other resident in a facility.
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing our proposal with the following modifications:
• We have added § 483.45(c)(5) to require LTC facilities to develop and maintain policies and procedures for the monthly DRR, which include but are not limited to, timeframes for the various steps in the process and procedures a pharmacist must take when he or she believes immediate action is required to protect the resident.
• We have modified the definition of a psychotropic drugs in § 483.45(c)(3) by removing paragraphs (v) and (vi).
• We have modified the limitation for PRN prescriptions of psychotropic drugs by extending the time for PRN prescription to 14 days by modifying § 483.45(e)(4).
• We have added a specific limitation on PRN prescriptions for anti-psychotic drugs by modifying § 483.45(e)(5).
Currently, § 483.75(j) sets forth requirements regarding laboratory services and § 483.75(k) sets forth requirements for radiology and other diagnostic services that a facility must provide or obtain to meet the needs of its residents. These regulations are currently located in § 483.75 “Administration,” which largely focuses on the manner in which a facility must operate to provide quality care to its residents. Following the reorganization of subpart B, we proposed to relocate and re-designate both § 483.75(j) and § 483.75(k) to a new § 483.50 entitled, “Laboratory, Radiology, and Other Diagnostic Services.” This section includes all of the content from current § 483.75(j) and § 483.75(k) relocated to § 483.50(a) and § 483.50(b), respectively. We proposed to retain the existing requirements with some revisions, as discussed in detail below.
Current § 483.75(j)(a)(2)(i) and § 485.75(k)(2)(i), require that a facility must provide or obtain laboratory and radiology and other diagnostic services “only when ordered by the attending physician.” We proposed to clarify these requirements by removing the phrase, “the attending physician” and replacing it with “a physician, a physician assistant, nurse practitioner, or clinical nurse specialist.” The revised requirements were proposed to be located at § 483.50(a)(2)(i) and (b)(2)(i), respectively. Furthermore, we proposed to allow for these orders only if the practitioners were acting in accordance with state law, including scope of practice laws and facility policy.
Additionally, current § 483.75(j)(2)(ii) and (k)(2)(ii) require that facilities “promptly notify the attending physician of the findings” once laboratory results have been obtained. We proposed to allow increased flexibility under this requirement to provide that other practitioners have the ability to receive laboratory and radiology and other diagnostic results if these practitioners ordered the tests. Specifically, we proposed to revise § 483.50(a)(2)(ii) to permit that the ordering physician, physician assistant, nurse practitioner, or clinical nurse specialist to be notified of laboratory results. In addition, we proposed in § 483.50(a)(2)(ii) to clarify that the laboratory would have to promptly notify the ordering professional if results fell outside of clinical reference or expected “normal” ranges, unless the orders for the test or the facility's policies and procedures required otherwise.
In contrast, some commenters indicated that facilities should be urged to notify practitioners of abnormal results as soon as possible and recommended that the term “promptly” be replaced with “immediately”. Commenters noted that the standard of practice for nurses is to notify practitioners immediately of results that fall outside of clinical reference ranges regardless of facility policy or physician order. One commenter recommended further that the language be revised to remove the flexibility allowing notification to be based on facility policy or procedure. One commenter recommended that facilities also be required to notify the resident and their representative when they notify the practitioner of test results.
We do not believe that facilities should notify the resident and their representative of results when they notify the practitioner. As commenters have indicated, there are many aspects of a person's care and medical condition to balance when reviewing the results of laboratory tests. We believe that it would be inappropriate to prematurely notify a resident of results before a practitioner responsible for the resident's care has had an opportunity to assess the results. This action could cause unnecessary anguish or result in the delivery of improper information to the resident and their representative.
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing our proposal without modification.
Under the reorganization of subpart B, requirements regarding dental services remain at § 483.55. In the proposed rule, we indicated that section 1862(a)(12) of the Act states, in part, that Medicare does not cover dental services such as the care, treatment, filling, removal, or replacement of teeth or structures directly supporting teeth. Medicaid state plans, by contrast, vary in their coverage of dental services. However, both sections 1819(b)(4)(A)(vi) and 1919(b)(4)(A)(vi) of the Act include requirements related to the provision of dental services. Currently, § 483.55 requires that facilities assist residents in obtaining appropriate dental services at the resident's expense for SNF residents and as covered under the state plan for NF residents.
We proposed limited changes to update and clarify this section. First, we proposed to add a new § 483.55(a)(3) to clarify that a facility may not charge a resident for the loss of or damage to dentures when the loss or damage is the responsibility of the facility. Second, we proposed to re-designate existing § 483.55(a)(3) as § 483.55(a)(4) and revise § 483.55(a)(4) by adding the phrase “or if requested” to clarify that if a resident asks for assistance in scheduling a dental appointment, the facility would be required to provide the assistance. Third, we proposed to modify the section by adding language at new § 483.55(a)(4)(ii) and § 483.55(a)(5) regarding transportation and referrals for dental services. Finally, we proposed to re-designate § 483.55(a)(4) as § 483.55(a)(5) and would require that referral for dental services occur in 3 business days or less from the time the loss or damage to dentures is identified unless the facility can provide documentation of extenuating circumstances that resulted in the delay. We also proposed to make the same changes at § 483.55(b)(2) and § 483.55(b)(3) to apply to nursing facilities and add a new § 483.55(b)(4) to require that facilities assist residents to apply for reimbursement of dental services as an incurred medical expense under the state plan as appropriate.
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing our proposal with the following modifications:
• We are adding a requirement at § 483.55(a)(3) and (b)(4) that the facility must have a policy identifying those instances when the loss or damage of dentures is the facility's responsibility.
• We are adding a requirement at § 483.55(a)(5) and (b)(3) that the facility must document what they did to ensure that the resident could eat and drink adequately while awaiting dental services.
We proposed the revisions described below in an effort to improve the nutritional status of LTC facility residents. In the proposed rule, we included a detailed discussion regarding dietary standards for residents of LTC facilities. We encourage readers to refer to the proposed rule for this discussion.
We proposed to re-designate existing § 483.35 “Dietary Services” as new § 483.60 “Food and Nutrition Services” and revise the introductory language to include taking resident preferences into consideration. We proposed to revise § 483.60(a) to require that the facility employ sufficient staff with the appropriate competencies and skills sets to carry out the functions of the food and nutrition service, taking into consideration resident assessments, individual plans of care and the number, acuity and diagnoses of the facility's resident population.
In § 483.60(a)(1) we proposed to retain the requirement that a facility employ a qualified dietitian on a full-time, part-time or consultant basis and update the requirements to be considered a qualified dietitian. We also proposed to require minimum qualifications for dietitians working in SNFs or NFs. We proposed to require that a qualified dietitian must either be registered by the Commission on Dietetic Registration of the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics, or be recognized (licensed or certified) by the state in which the SNF or NF operates as a dietitian or clinically qualified nutrition professionals. We also proposed to allow up to 5 years after the effective date of the regulation for dietitians hired or contracted prior to the effective dates of the revised regulations to meet these requirements.
In re-designated § 483.60(a)(2), we proposed to continue to require that, if a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional was not employed full-time, the facility would have to designate a person to serve as the director of food and nutrition
In § 483.60(a)(4), we proposed to require that the facility provide sufficient support personnel with the appropriate competencies and skills sets to carry out the functions of the food and nutrition service, taking into consideration resident assessments, individual plans of care and a facility assessment that includes the number, acuity and diagnoses of the facility's resident population.
We proposed a new § 483.60(b) to specify that a member of food and nutrition services also participate in the IDT. At § 483.60(c)(1), we proposed to change “Recommended Dietary Allowances” to “established national guidelines or industry standards.” We also proposed to add a new § 483.60(c)(4) to require that menus reflect the religious, cultural, and ethnic needs of the residents, as well as input received from residents or resident groups.
At § 483.60(d), we proposed minor revisions to incorporate the addition of drinks, to clarify that “proper” meant both safe and appetizing, to include consideration of allergies, intolerances, and preferences in preparing food, and to ensure that water and other dietary liquids are available to residents and provided, consistent with resident needs and preferences.
At new § 483.60(e) “Therapeutic diets,” we proposed to retain the requirement in current § 483.35(e) that therapeutic diets be prescribed by the attending physician. However, we proposed to add a new § 483.60(e)(2) to allow the attending physician to delegate to a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional the task of prescribing a resident's diet, including a therapeutic diet, to the extent allowed by state law.
We proposed to modify § 483.35(f) in re-designated § 483.60(f) regarding frequency of meals. Specifically, we proposed to modify the requirement that facilities provide and residents receive three meals per day at regular times by adding language to clarify that meals should be served at times in accordance with resident needs, preferences, requests and the plan of care. We further proposed to eliminate the requirement that there be no more than 14 hours between a substantial evening meal and breakfast the following day, except when a substantial bedtime snack is provided. Instead, we decided to focus on when residents prefer to eat and on ensuring that meal service is provided to meet residents' clinical and nutritional needs. We proposed to require that the facility provide suitable, nourishing alternative meals and snacks for each resident who want to eat at non-traditional times or outside of the facility's scheduled meal service times, in accordance with their respective plans of care. We indicated in the proposed rule that “suitable, nourishing alternative meals” would mean that when a resident missed a meal or snack, an alternative of comparable nutritive value to the missed meal or snack would be provided.
We proposed to re-designate existing § 483.35(g) as new § 483.60(g) and revise it to require that the facility provide not only adaptive eating equipment and utensils for residents who need these devices but also provide the appropriate staff assistance to ensure that these residents can use the assistive devices when consuming meals and snacks.
We proposed to re-designate existing § 483.35(h) as new § 483.60(h) and retain, with some revisions, provisions for paid feeding assistants, as set out in the 2003 final rule (68 FR 55528). Section 483.35(h)(2)(ii) currently requires that, in an emergency, a paid feeding assistant must call a supervisory nurse for help “on the resident call system.” We proposed to eliminate the reference to the resident call system. We also proposed to have the IDT make the determination of whether a paid feeding assistant would be appropriate for a resident.
We proposed to clarify in new § 483.60(i)(1)(i) that facilities could procure food directly from local producers, farmers or growers, in accordance with state and local laws or regulations. We further proposed to clarify in new § 483.60(i)(1)(ii) that this provision would not prohibit or prevent facilities from using produce grown in facility gardens, subject to compliance with applicable safe growing and handling practices, such as the use of pesticides in accordance with manufacturers' instructions. Consistent with § 483.70(b), we proposed to specify in § 483.60(i)(2) that facilities would be required to store, prepare, distribute, and serve food in accordance with professional standards for food service safety. We proposed to add a new § 483.60(i)(3) to require a facility to have a policy in place regarding use and storage of foods brought to residents by visitors to ensure safe and sanitary handling.
Pioneer Network also has a “how to” resource called the “Dining Standards Toolkit” that may assist LTC facilities in their efforts to understand and meet the updated requirements. In addition, CMS produced a video related to these standards. The video can also assist LTC facilities in their efforts to understand and meet the updated requirements. The video is available at
We note that the term “sufficient support personnel” is an existing term in the current requirements for long-term care facilities. It is defined in current sub-regulatory guidance as `enough staff to prepare and serve palatable, attractive, nutritionally adequate meals at proper temperatures and appropriate times and support proper sanitary techniques being utilized.” It would include any staff in addition to the qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional and the food service manager that are needed to carry out the functions of the food and nutrition service and meet the requirements of this section. We disagree that the term “sufficient” is unclear and impossible to objectively measure. “Sufficient” staff would be mean an adequate number, or enough staff, who have the skills and knowledge to safely and effectively deliver the care that residents need and that is the responsibility of the food and nutrition service. Direct observation and interview questions can be used to determine if residents are receiving the food and nutrition services they require, in accordance with his or her plan of care, in a safe, timely, and effective manner. Factors such as timely meal service, food that is served at an appropriate temperature and in an appetizing form, available assistance for residents who require assistance to eat a meal, as well as resident-specific issues such as unintended weight loss and dehydration may all be indicators considered when determining if a facility has sufficient staffing. We believe that surveyor training on these requirements and questions such as those identified above will allow surveyors to make evidence-based decisions about whether or not a facility has or does not have sufficient staffing.
Section 1861(v)(2) of the Act defines a “registered dietitian or nutrition professional” as an individual who holds a baccalaureate or higher degree granted by a regionally accredited college or university in the United States (or an equivalent foreign degree) with completion of the academic requirements of a program in nutrition or dietetics, as accredited by an appropriate national accreditation organization recognized by the Secretary for this purpose, who has completed at least 900 hours of supervised dietetics practice under the supervision of a registered dietitian or nutrition professional; and is licensed or certified as a dietitian or nutrition professional by the state in which the services are performed; or, in the case of an individual in a state that does not provide for such licensure or certification, meets such other criteria as the Secretary establishes. The definition of a “registered dietitian or nutrition professional” at § 410.134 is closely aligned with this statutory definition, adding only that, in a state that does not provide for licensure or certification, the individual will be deemed to have met this requirement if he or she is recognized as a “registered dietitian” by the Commission on Dietetic Registration or its successor organization, or meets the degree and practice requirements specified by the statute. Section 483.94(e) of our rules defines a qualified dietitian as “an individual who meets practice requirements in the State in which he or she practices and is a registered dietitian with the Commission on Dietetic Registration.” We note that, according to the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics, the credential “registered dietitian nutritionist” (RDN) is synonymous with “registered dietitian” (RD) and the two credentials have identical meaning and legal trademark definitions.
We have reviewed state requirements for licensure or certification of dietitians and nutrition professionals and find those requirements, with a few exceptions, generally include, at a minimum, similar education and experience requirements to those forth by the statute and currently reflected in § 410.134. Many also require an examination and/or defer to the national examination provided by the Commission on Dietetic Registration for qualification as a Registered Dietitian. A few states do not require or offer licensure or certification. One state repealed such requirements in 2014. In those states, our proposed definition would require that qualified dietitians or nutrition professionals must be a RD in the state they are providing services. However, we agree that there could be states whose licensure requirements are less than the statutory requirement and we cannot predict future changes in state licensure requirements. Therefore, in order to better align our definition with section 1861(v)(2) of the Act, we have removed our proposed definition and provide that a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional is one who: Holds a bachelor's or higher degree granted by a regionally accredited college or university in the United States (or an equivalent foreign degree) with completion of the academic requirements of a program in nutrition or dietetics accredited by an appropriate national accreditation organization recognized for this purpose; has completed at least 900 hours of supervised dietetics practice under the
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing our proposal with the following modifications:
• We have modified our definition of “qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional” at § 483.60(a)(1) to more closely align with statutory requirements.
• Director of Food and Nutrition Services: We have modified § 483.60(a)(2)(i)(D) to specify that the hospitality degree must include food service or restaurant management.
• Menus and Nutritional Adequacy: We have deleted the term “industry standards” from our proposal at § 483.60(c)(1) that menus must meet the nutritional needs of residents in accordance with established national guidelines. We also clarified that menus must reflect, based on a facility's reasonable efforts, the religious, cultural and ethnic needs of the resident population, as well as input received from residents and resident groups.
• Food and Drink: At 483.60(d)(5), we have replaced the terms “substitutes” and “alternative” with the terms “options” and “different meal choice.”
• We have withdrawn our proposal at (f)(2) to delete the requirement that there must be no more than 14 hours between a substantial evening meal and breakfast the following day, or up to 16 hours when a nourishing snack is served at bedtime, and a resident group agrees to this meal span.
Current regulations at § 483.45 set forth the services that a facility must provide if a resident needs specialized rehabilitative services including, but not
Secondly, we proposed to clarify the meaning of specialized rehabilitative services in relation to PASARR. We proposed to add in § 483.65 a cross reference to the PASARR regulations at § 483.120(c) which set out the mental health or intellectual disability services a nursing facility must provide to all residents who need these services. In addition, we proposed to correct a typographical error deleting the redundant “mental health” before “rehabilitative services for a mental disorder and intellectual disability”.
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing our proposal with the following modifications:
• At § 483.65(a)(2), we are removing the requirement for outside resources to be Medicare and/or Medicaid providers of specialized rehabilitative services. We have clarified that the outside resource must be a provider of specialized rehabilitative services that is not excluded from participating in any federal or state health care programs pursuant to sections 1128 and 1156 of the Act.
We proposed to add a new § 483.67 “Outpatient Rehabilitative Services” to address facilities that choose to provide outpatient rehabilitative therapy services to individuals that do not reside in the facility. Currently, the provision of outpatient rehabilitative services for non-residents is not addressed by the requirements for LTC care facilities. We noted that § 483.65 “Specialized Rehabilitative Services” sets forth the requirements that a facility must meet when providing rehabilitative therapy services to residents who reside in their facility.
We proposed to require facilities that provide outpatient rehabilitative therapy services to meet requirements similar to those already established for hospitals. Specifically, we proposed to require in new § 483.67 that if the facility provides outpatient rehabilitation, physical therapy, occupational therapy, audiology, or speech-language pathology services, the services must meet the needs of the patients in accordance with acceptable standards of practice and the facility must meet certain requirements. At § 483.67(a), we proposed that the organization of the service must be appropriate to the scope of the services offered. At § 483.67(b), we proposed to require that the facility assign one or more individuals to be responsible for outpatient rehabilitative services and that the individual responsible for the outpatient rehabilitative services must have the necessary knowledge, experience, and capabilities to properly supervise and administer the services. We also proposed to require that the facility must have appropriate professional and nonprofessional personnel available at each location where outpatient services are offered. In addition, we proposed to require that physical therapy, occupational therapy, speech-language pathology or audiology services, if provided, must be provided by qualified physical therapists, physical therapist assistants, occupational therapists, occupational therapy assistants, speech-language pathologists, or audiologists as defined in part 484 of this chapter. At § 483.68(c), we proposed to require that services must only be provided under the orders of a qualified and licensed practitioner who is responsible for the care of the patient, acting within his or her scope of practice under state law and that all rehabilitation services orders and progress notes must be documented in the patient's clinical record in accordance with the requirements at § 483.70(i). Finally, we proposed to require that the provision of care and the personnel qualifications must be in accordance with national acceptable standards of practice.
Specifically, one commenter raised the issue of SNFs that provide outpatient rehabilitative services to non-residents at a location outside of the facility. The commenter requested that the regulations address SNFs that may furnish outpatient rehabilitative services in locations other than the facility and allow flexibility in how these services are provided. The commenter urged CMS to revise the regulations so that they are consistent with requirements imposed for other Medicare outpatient therapy providers. The commenter indicated that the outpatient therapy services furnished by SNFs resemble the delivery of services furnished through outpatient rehabilitation providers described under 42 CFR part 485 subpart H (referred to in the comment as rehabilitation agencies) and not those services furnished through outpatient hospital departments. The commenter noted that unlike a hospital, rehabilitation agencies may also provide outpatient therapy services to individuals in a home environment, such as to residents of independent senior living and assisted living
A few commenters also recommended that the requirements be revised to ensure compliance with the decision in
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing our proposal with the following modification:
• We have withdrawn this proposed section in its entirety.
We proposed to re-designate current § 483.75 “Administration” as § 483.70. At § 483.75(c), we proposed to replace the term “handicap” with the term “disability”and to add a reference to the HIPAA Privacy, Security, and Breach Notification Rules, 45 CFR parts 160 and 164. In addition, we proposed to clarify that violations of other HHS regulations, as determined by the agency or entity with enforcement authority for those regulations, may result in a finding by CMS of non-compliance with the requirements of § 483.70(c).
We proposed to re-designate and revise existing § 483.75(e) and (f), provisions regarding nurse aides, to § 483.35 “Nursing Services” or § 483.95 “Training”, as discussed under these sections.
We proposed to create new section § 483.50 “Laboratory, radiology, and other diagnostic services” and relocate and revise existing paragraphs, § 483.75(j) “laboratory services” and § 483.75(k) “radiology and other diagnostic services”, to the new section. In addition, we proposed to retain the provisions in existing § 483.75(g), (h) and (i) unchanged and re-designate them as proposed § 483.70 (f), (g), and (h).
We did not receive any comments in response to these proposals and are finalizing as proposed except that we have added a reference to 45 CFR part 92 in the list of regulations that facilities are required to comply with, based on a comment received with regards to § 483.12.
At § 483.70(d)(2)(i) we proposed to delete the phrase “where licensing is required” since all states participating in the Medicaid program are required to license nursing home administrators under section 1908 of the Act. We proposed to add a new § 483.70(d)(2)(iii) to specify that the LTC facility administrator would report to and be accountable to the governing body. We also proposed to add a new § 483.70(d)(3) to specify that the governing body is responsible and accountable for the QAPI program, in accordance with proposed § 483.75(f).
We proposed a new § 483.70(e) to establish a new requirement for an annual facility assessment. We proposed to require that the facility assessment address or include:
• The facility's resident population, including the number of residents, the facility's resident capacity, the care required by the resident population considering the types of diseases, conditions, physical and cognitive disabilities, and overall acuity that are present within that population.
• The staff competencies that are necessary to provide the level and types of care needed for the resident population.
• The physical environment, equipment, and services that are necessary to care for this population.
• Any ethnic, cultural, or religious factors that may potentially affect the care provided by the facility, including, but not limited to, activities and food and nutrition services.
• The facility's resources, including but not limited to buildings and other physical structures and vehicles; medical and non-medical equipment.
• The services provided, such as physical therapy, pharmacy, and specific rehabilitation therapies.
• Personnel, including managers, employed and contracted staff, and volunteers, as well as their education and/or training and any competencies related to resident care.
• Contracts, memorandums of understanding, or other agreements with third parties to provide services or equipment to the facility both during normal operations and emergencies.
• Health information technology resources, such as systems for electronically managing patient medical records and electronically sharing information with other organizations.
We acknowledge that there will likely be some variation in how LTC facilities will conduct and document their facility assessments. However, due to the significant variations in the types of LTC facilities, resident populations, and resources among the LTC facility facilities, we believe that the facilities need the flexibility to determine the best way for each facility to comply with this requirement. As to consistency among the facility assessments, we believe that the accuracy of the assessments is more important. However, over time we believe that some consistency will likely develop due to facilities sharing what has worked best for them with other facilities and their associations. In addition, if a facility complies with the requirements for the facility assessment finalized in this rule, we believe that facilities will be able to determine what constitutes sufficient staff for their facility, which would be in compliance with the requirement in OBRA '87 for sufficient staffing.
We proposed to re-designate existing § 483.75(l) as § 483.70(i) and to amend it to better conform to the requirements of the HIPAA Privacy, Security, and Breach Notification rules at 45 CFR parts 160 and 164. We also proposed minor revisions in it to clarify that the medical record must contain the resident's comprehensive plan of care and physician's and other licensed professional's progress notes. We noted in the proposed rule that existing paragraph (m) will be removed and revised pursuant to a separate proposed rule, “Medicare and Medicaid Programs: Emergency Preparedness Requirements for Medicare and Medicaid Participating Providers and Suppliers” (78 FR 79081, December 27, 2013).
In § 483.70(j), “Transfer Agreement, ”we proposed to modify the current language at § 483.75(n) to allow a practitioner other than the attending physician to determine that a hospital transfer is medically appropriate in an emergency situation, consistent with state law and facility policy. We further proposed to specify here that the information exchange required by existing paragraph § 483.75(n)(1)(ii) be modified to require that the exchanged information include, at a minimum, the information we proposed to require under new paragraph § 483.15(b)(2)(iii)(B). We proposed to incorporate existing § 483.75(o), assessment and quality assurance, into proposed § 483.75(c).
Provisions on disclosure of ownership, facility closure-administrator, facility closure, and hospice services were proposed to be re-designated as paragraphs § 483.70(k), (l), (m), and (o) respectively, and the cross-reference in (m) updated, but otherwise unchanged. We proposed to address training of paid feeding assistants in § 483.95 “Training requirements.”
We proposed in § 483.70(n) to require facilities that ask residents to accept binding arbitration to resolve disputes between the facility and the resident to meet certain criteria. We proposed that the facility be required to explain the agreement to the resident in a form, manner and language that he or she understands and have the resident acknowledge that he or she understands the agreement. The agreement could not contain any language that prohibited or discouraged the resident or any other person from communicating with federal, state, or local officials, including, but not limited to, federal and state surveyors, other federal or state health department employees, or representatives of the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman, regarding any matter, whether or not subject to arbitration or any other type of judicial or regulatory action, in accordance with proposed § 483.11(i). If a facility utilized an arbitration agreement, such facility would be required to inform the resident, at a minimum, that the resident was waiving his or her right to judicial relief for any potential cause of action covered by the agreement. The agreement could only be entered into by the resident voluntarily and would have to provide for the selection of a neutral arbitrator and a venue convenient to both parties, the resident and the facility. We indicated in the proposed rule that any agreement for binding arbitration could not be contained within any other agreement or paperwork addressing any other issues. It would have to be a separate agreement in which the resident made an affirmative choice to either accept or reject binding arbitration for disputes between the resident and the facility. We also proposed to specify that the guardians or representatives could not consent to an agreement for binding arbitration on the resident's behalf unless that individual was allowed to do so under state law, all of the other requirements in this section were met, and the individual acting on behalf of the resident had no financial interest in the facility. In addition, in the proposed rule, we solicited comments on whether binding arbitration agreements should be prohibited entirely.
We received a significant number of public comments concerning this proposal. The commenters from the LTC facility industry overwhelmingly wanted us to withdraw our proposal. Other commenters, including members of the public, advocates, and members of the legal community, predominantly wanted a prohibition on “pre-dispute” arbitration agreements (that is, agreements made before any dispute had arisen). Some commenters believed that arbitration should not be allowed in LTC facilities under any circumstances. We also received numerous items of congressional correspondence concerning arbitration agreements. One letter signed by 34 senators urged CMS to ban pre-dispute arbitration clauses; another letter from three members of the House of Representatives argued that CMS lacked the authority to ban these agreements and, even CMS did have the authority, the agency should not prohibit them. Another senator urged us to seriously consider the concerns surrounding pre-dispute arbitration agreements and their consequences to residents. The senator noted that individuals seeking long-term care, many of whom are elderly or disabled, are basing their decisions on the cost of care and proximity to their loved ones, and that it would be difficult for these individuals to fully understand the gravity of contract terms and their legal rights to concerning potential future disputes between themselves and the facilities. This senator also noted that due to the limited grounds for appeal, it was imperative that both parties understand the terms of the agreement, especially in the long-term care setting, where individuals and their families are making choices that profoundly impact the health and safety of their loved ones.
In addition, we received a letter signed by 16 state attorneys-general stating that pre-dispute arbitration agreements were harmful to residents in LTC facilities and should be prohibited. Other commenters were concerned about particular aspects surrounding arbitration, such as: The conflict of interest in having the LTC facility explain and ask the resident to sign the agreement; the coercive nature of having the resident sign the agreement during the admission process, before any dispute has arisen; the arbitration process not actually being conducted by a neutral arbitrator or in a neutral environment; the costs of arbitration to the residents; and the secrecy of the entire arbitration process. Other commenters were not only against our proposed requirements but opposed any regulation concerning arbitration, including a ban on arbitration agreements. A summary of the comments and our responses are set forth below. We have grouped the discussion into issue areas raised by commenters.
The commenters also pointed to cases in which courts rejected various federal agencies' attempts to prohibit the enforcement of arbitration agreements. The commenters argued that when Congress intends to give an agency authority to prohibit or impose conditions on the use of arbitration agreements it does so with unambiguous statutory language, and it did not do so in the Social Security Act. They also argued that there was no language in the Act that gave the Secretary statutory authority to interfere in commerce, and that Congress had in face expressed its opposition to such actions in creating the International Court of Arbitration of the International Chambers of Commerce (ICC) and the Federal Trade Commission (FTC). They argued that prohibiting the use of or regulating arbitration was contrary to legal policy and tradition favoring contract formation.
In addition, they claimed that a previous survey and certification memorandum issued by CMS acknowledged that these agreements were between the facility and resident. They noted that former HHS Secretary Mike Leavitt had sent a letter dated July 29, 2008 addressed to the House Judiciary Committee, a letter that officially opposed the “Fairness in Nursing Home Arbitration Act of 2008” that would have amended the FAA to render pre-dispute binding arbitration agreements between LTC facilities and their residents unenforceable.
Some commenters pointed out that, in addition to the FAA, courts have upheld arbitration in many industries, and that many contracts in the health care field including but not limited to admissions contracts for LTC facilities, are on a take-it-or-leave it basis. Others argued that arbitration had been successfully used in LTC facilities for years and that further regulation was not necessary.
First, we note that the plain language of the FAA applies only to existing arbitration agreements voluntarily made between private parties; it does not compel or require the use of arbitration between private parties.
We are finalizing this rule, which will prohibit facilities' use of pre-dispute arbitration agreements, as a requirement for participation in the Medicare and Medicaid programs. Under sections 1102(a) and 1871 of the Social Security Act, the Secretary of Health and Human Services Section is authorized to issue such rules as may be necessary to the efficient administration of the functions of the Department. Section 1866 of the Act requires all Medicare providers and suppliers to agree to certain conditions in order to participate in the Medicare program. Likewise, section 1902(a)(27) of the Act requires that Medicaid providers meet all the requirements set out in the Medicaid provider agreement; and section 1902(a)(28) of the Act requires that States ensure that Medicaid nursing facilities meet all provisions of section 1919(b)-(d) of the Act (governing requirements for Medicaid nursing facilities).
The Department regularly requires providers and suppliers of health care items and services to forgo certain rights they might otherwise have with respect to Medicare and Medicaid patients, such as the right to pursue the patient for payment when the patient has no way of knowing that services are not covered by Medicare (See Section 1879 of the Act); requirements that LTC facilities give Medicare beneficiaries written advanced notifications of non-covered services (See Skilled Nursing Facility Advance Beneficiary Notice (SNFABN) Form CMS-10055, accessed at
In addition to the statutory authority of the Secretary to set general practice parameters for payment under Medicare and Medicaid, the Secretary, under the explicit authority of Congress, is charged with protecting the health, safety and welfare of LTC facility residents pursuant to specifically enumerated standards set out in sections 1819 and 1919 of the Act. In addition, Congress granted the Secretary explicit authority under sections 1819(d)(4)(B) and 1919(d)(4)(B) of the Act to require LTC facilities to “meet such other requirements relating to the health, safety, and well-being
In addition, sections 1819(c)(1)(A) and 1919(c)(1)(A) of the Act create a host of specified rights for LTC facility residents, including, but not limited to, free choice, confidentiality, privacy, and the expression of grievances. These sections also include a broad grant authorizing the Secretary to establish “any other right” (sections 1819(c)(1)(A)(xi) and 1919(c)(1)(A)(xi) of the Act) as she may deem necessary. Based on the comments received in
With respect to the Supreme Court's opinion in
Concerning the survey and certification letter previously published by CMS, we do not believe the requirements in this final rule contradict that letter. Any agreement for binding arbitration is clearly between a facility and a resident, and this rule does not in any way prohibit the use of post-dispute arbitration agreements. The requirements in this final rule only ensure that the residents receive basic protections in signing an agreement for arbitration. Since facilities will only be able to approach residents to request them to sign an agreement for binding arbitration after a dispute has arisen, residents and their representatives will have the information necessary to make an informed decision, and should also be able to negotiate specific terms. Former HHS Secretary Leavitt's letter, dated July 29, 2008 addressed to the House Judiciary Committee, officially opposedthe Fainess in Nursing Home Arbitration Act of 2008, which would have amended the FAA to render pre-dispute binding arbitration agreements between LTC facilities and their residents unenforceable. Again, we see no contradiction between the Secretary's letter and this final rule. The requirements in this rule do not prohibit arbitration between facilities and residents. After a dispute arises, facilities and residents could enter into agreements for binding arbitration and settle a dispute in arbitration. Our rule also does not affect any arbitration agreements signed before the effective date of the rule. Moreover, it does not purport to preempt or otherwise supersede arbitration agreements made after the effective date. We have only prohibited pre-dispute binding arbitration agreements between facilities and residents as a condition of participation in Medicare and Medicaid. If a facility wishes to continue to utilize pre-dispute agreements, it is free to continue in business without Medicare or Medicaid residents.
We agree with the commenters that arbitration is clearly favored in the Federal courts and has been used in many industries, including the healthcare industry, successfully for years. As discussed in detail below, however, some of the key organizations whose members conduct nursing home arbitrations (including the American Bar Association, the American Health Lawyers Association, and the American Arbitration Association) have expressed concerns about the fairness of pre-dispute arbitration clauses in the LTC context. Thus, while the FAA contains a policy encouraging arbitration, it also recognizes that there may be situations where enforcing an arbitration agreement is improper. For example, the FAA's saving clause permits agreements to arbitrate to be invalidated by certain defenses, such as “fraud, duress, or unconscionability,” but not by defenses that apply only to arbitration.
We recognize that an argument could be made that Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries can assert in Court the FAA's saving clause if they believe that a pre-dispute arbitration agreement should not be enforced. However, the comments we have received have confirmed our conclusion that predispute arbitration clauses are, by their very nature, unconscionable. As one commenter noted, it is virtually impossible for a resident or their surrogate decision-maker to give fully informed or voluntary consent to such arbitration provisions. That same commenter also noted that refusing to agree to the arbitration clause, in most cases, means that care will be denied. Furthermore, Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries are aged or disabled and ill. Many beneficiaries lack the resources to litigate a malpractice claim, much less an initial claim seeking to invalidate an arbitration clause. Rather than requiring Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries to incur the additional fees, expense, and delay that would be the direct cost of opposing a motion to enforce arbitration, we have concluded that this is precisely the type of situation envisioned by the Congressional grant of authority contained in sections 1819(d)(4)(B) and 1919(d)(4)(B) of the Act authorizing the Secretary to establish “such other requirements relating to the health, safety, and well-being of residents or relating to the physical facilities thereof as the Secretary may find necessary.”
There is a significant differential in bargaining power between LTC facility residents and LTC facilities. LTC agreements are often made when the would-be resident is physically and possibly mentally impaired, and is encountering such a facility for the first time. In many cases, geographic and financial restrictions severely limit the choices available to a LTC resident and his/her family. LTC facilities are also, in many cases, the resident's residence. These facilities not only provide skilled nursing care, but also everything else a resident needs. Many of these residents may reside there for a prolonged period of time, some for the rest of their lives. Because of the wide array of services provided and the length of time the resident and his/her family may have interactions with the LTC facility, disputes over medical treatment, personal safety, treatment of residents, and quality of services provided are likely to occur. Given the unique circumstances of LTC facilities, we have concluded that it is unconscionable for LTC facilities to demand, as a condition of admission, that residents or their representatives sign a pre-dispute agreement for binding arbitration that covers any type of disputes between the parties for the duration of the resident's entire stay, which could be for many years.
Additionally, a number of commenters stated that arbitration clauses have a detrimental effect on patient safety. One commenter, a healthcare provider who had previously treated LTC facility residents, stated that they had personally witnessed resident neglect and attributed it to facilities believing that they were immune to any legal consequences for their mistreatment because of the likelihood that they would prevail in binding arbitration. Another commenter, a large association of lawyers, asserted that permitting pre-dispute arbitration clauses creates an unnecessary shield that protects facilities. Other commenters stated that binding arbitration clauses generally cover all claims, including claims involving serious bodily harm and death, and allow facilities to escape accountability for neglect and abuse. We believe we have ample basis between the published research and the statements of commenters to support the connection between the use of pre-dispute arbitration clauses and the health and safety of LTC facility residents.
We disagree with the commenters who suggest that arbitration is merely a change of the forum and therefore, inconsequential. Arbitration changes the manner in which a dispute will be resolved by, among other things, waiving the right to a jury trial, and providing only limited grounds to appeal the arbitrator's decision. Some commenters noted that arbitration can be very expensive for the resident, with some agreements requiring the resident to bear some of the costs of the arbitration, and the limited discovery generally allowed puts the resident at a distinct disadvantage. However, due to contingency agreements with attorneys and the public funding of the court system, residents have a possibility of litigating a dispute with the LTC facility for little or no money. As noted, by entering into an arbitration agreement, both parties are waiving their right to a jury trial. There is no public forum and the arbitrator's decision will not usually be publically available, whereas a court decision would be a matter of public record. We believe that a public knowledge about a dispute and a public record of a decision are vitally important for checking the worst abuses of non-compliant LTC facilities.
We also disagree with the implication that judicial review of an arbitrator's decision is adequate protection for beneficiaries. A resident cannot usually challenge an arbitrator's decision even if it is based on a mistake in the applicable law for the issue in dispute. In addition, even when there are grounds under the applicable state law to overturn the arbitrator's decision, this requires additional judicial proceedings, which adds additional time and expense to the litigation.
We are also concerned about the possibility of claim suppression. If a resident or their representative does not believe that arbitration is a fair process, they may not pursue a claim despite its merit; the secretive nature of the process and decision only adds to the public perception that the forum may be biased against the resident. However, we believe that the requirements being finalized in this rule should mitigate some of commenters' concerns about claim suppression.
Concerning class actions, we share the commenters' concerns about residents possibly not being able to pursue their claims. However, since we did not propose to address matters relating to class actions in our proposed rule, we are unable to address them in this final rule. We also note that to date, litigation against LTC facilities has involved primarily malpractice claims, which tend to be individual-specific. Because class actions against LTC facilities remain rare, we believe that it is not yet clear that there is a problem that would require additional regulation. We will retain these comments and concerns about protection of class-action litigation and consider for future rulemaking.
Furthermore, because the Congress has expressed an clear interest in protecting the rights of Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries in LTC facilities, it has granted the Secretary statutory authority to establish rights for residents (sections 1819(c)(1)(A)(xi) and 1919(c)(1)(A)(xi) of the Act) and to protect the health, safety and well-being of residents in LTC facilities (sections 1819(d)(4)(B) and 1919(d)(4)(B) of the Act). Because of overriding Congressional mandate that the Secretary protect the health and welfare of LTC residents, we believe that a federal uniform response is both necessary and appropriate.
Commenters noted that residents or their representatives are typically asked to sign arbitration agreements during the admission process, and that the pre-dispute arbitration agreement is one clause in a contract comprising many pages. Since no dispute had yet occurred, the resident or their representative could not fully understand the rights they were waiving or how any future dispute would be handled. They might also not understand or be thinking about the possible problems that could occur during their stay, including substandard care that could result in serious injury or even death. It is also highly unlikely they would have consulted a lawyer about the agreement. Commenters noted that admission to a LTC facility is usually an extremely stressful time for the resident and his or her family. The resident may have a serious injury, surgery, or illness, is being removed from their usual living arrangements, and is being admitted to a facility for an indeterminate period of time.
One commenter noted that one state, Georgia, has a statute that states, concerning medical malpractice claims, “no agreement to arbitrate shall be enforceable unless the agreement was made subsequent to the alleged malpractice and after a dispute or controversy has occurred and unless the claimant is represented by an attorney at law at the time the agreement is entered into” (Ga. Code Ann., § 9-9-62).
Some commenters pointed out that in the state of Mississippi this proposal could result in neither the resident nor a healthcare surrogate being able to sign an agreement to arbitrate disputes with the facility. Miss. Code Ann. § 41-41-211 allows for a healthcare surrogate to make healthcare decisions for another person if that individual's primary care physician determines that he or she lacks capacity and no agent or guardian has been appointed or the agent or guardian is not reasonably available. Commenters also cited a court case,
Three major legal or arbitration associations have made policy statements against pre-dispute binding arbitration agreements. In 2009, the American Bar Association (ABA) issued a policy statement that opposed the use of mandatory, binding, pre-dispute arbitration agreements between a long-term care facility and a resident or a person acting for the resident. That policy statement also indicated that the ABA supported enactment of federal regulations that would, among other things, invalidate such arbitration agreements (American Bar Association, Commission on Law and Aging, Policy on LTC facility Arbitration Agreements 11B, February 16, 2009, at
After a dispute arises and residents or their representatives have the opportunity to seek legal counsel and review their options, we believe they can make a rational and informed decision about arbitration. Thus, while the bargaining power between LTC facilities and residents will undoubtedly never be equal, we believe that the requirements finalized in this rule will provide residents with the protections they need to preserve their rights, while still preserving the option of arbitration if both parties decide to arbitrate a dispute.
We also note that although no specific legislation has passed, Congress has not been silent on this issue. Several hearings have been held on this issue, and there is a voluminous legislative record evidencing the need for action on this matter. We also note that there is broad support for protecting residents of LTC facilities. For instance, in a Joint Hearing of the Senate Judiciary Subcommittee on Antitrust, Competition, and Consumer Rights and
We are adding a requirement to proposed § 483.70(n) to provide that Medicare and Medicaid-participating LTC facilities can no longer enter into pre-dispute binding arbitration agreements with their residents or their representatives. We are retaining the proposed requirements and specifying at paragraph (n) that they will apply if a facility chooses to ask a resident to sign a post-dispute arbitration agreement. We have also revised proposed § 483.70(n)(3) to provide that an LTC facility cannot require the resident to sign a post-dispute arbitration agreement as a condition of the resident's continuing to stay at the facility. Finally, to address commenters' concerns regarding the confidentiality of the arbitration process and its negative effects on patient health and safety, we have added a new paragraph (n)(2)(vi) to provide that when the facility and a resident resolve a dispute with arbitration, a copy of the signed agreement for binding arbitration and the arbitrator's final decision must be retained by the facility for 5 years and be available for inspection upon request by CMS or its designee. Although the arbitration proceedings themselves could still be confidential, this requirement will enable us to evaluate whether agreements for binding arbitration and the impact of arbitration in the long-term care industry is having desired effects for both the residents and the facilities.
We emphasize that this final rule does not prohibit all arbitration agreements between residents and the LTC facilities in which they reside, and does not have any effect on existing arbitration agreements or render them unenforceable. It has no effect on LTC facilities that do not participate in the Medicare or Medicaid programs. It does not create any new standard for determining whether an arbitration agreement is unconscionable. It only affects Medicare and Medicaid LTC facilities insofar as they wish to ask their residents if they wish to voluntarily enter into arbitration. After a dispute arises, the resident and the LTC facility may voluntarily enter into a binding arbitration agreement if both parties agree and comply with the relevant requirements set forth in § 483.70(n) of this final rule.
We proposed to relocate the requirement for and qualifications of a social worker from the current § 483.15(g)(3) to § 483.70(p). In addition, there is a list of human services fields from which a bachelor's degree could provide the minimum educational requirement for a social worker. We proposed to add “gerontology” to that list of human services fields.
Finally, we indicated that in the proposed rule entitled “Medicare and Medicaid Programs; Prospective Payment System and Consolidated Billing for Skilled Nursing Facilities (SNFs) for FY 2016, SNF Value-Based Purchasing Program, SNF Quality Reporting Program, and Staffing Data Collection” (CMS-1622-P) (80 FR 22044), published on April 20, 2015, at § 483.75(u), we proposed to require that facilities submit staffing information based on payroll data in a uniform format. Section 6106 of the Affordable Care Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-148, March 23, 2010) added a new section 1128I to the Act that requires a facility to electronically submit to the Secretary direct care staffing information, including information for agency and contract staff, based on payroll and other verifiable and auditable data in a uniform format according to specifications established by the Secretary. We proposed to re-designate § 483.75(u) (as set out in the April 20, 2015 proposed rule at 80 FR 22044) to § 483.70(q). We note that the proposed rule was finalized on August 4, 2015 (see 80 FR 46389) and we are finalizing the re-designation of the requirement in the final rule at § 483.75(u) to § 483.70(q) in this final rule.
As a result of comments received, we are finalizing this section as proposed, with the following revisions:
• We have added 45 CFR part 92 to the regulations specifically referenced in § 483.70(c) “Relationship to other HHS regulations.”
• We have withdrawn our proposal to delete the phrase “where licensing is required” from § 483.70(d)(2)(i).
• In § 483.70(n), we have modified paragraph (1) to prohibit the use of pre-dispute agreements for binding arbitration between any resident or their representative and the facility and allow post-dispute agreements for binding arbitration, if the facility complies with the requirements in this section.
Section 6102 of the Affordable Care Act amended the Act by adding new section 1128I. Subsection (c) of section 1128I of the Act requires that the Secretary establish and implement a QAPI program requirement for all SNFs and NFs, including those that are part of a multi-unit chain of facilities. Under the QAPI provision, the Secretary must establish standards relating to facilities' QAPI program and provide technical assistance to facilities on the development of best practices in order to meet these standards. No later than 1 year after the date on which the standards are issued, a facility must submit to the Secretary a plan for the facility to meet these standards and implement the best practices, including a description of how it would coordinate the implementation of the plan with quality assessment and assurance activities currently conducted under sections 1819(b)(1)(B) and 1919(b)(1)(B) of the Act. In accordance with the QAPI provisions of the Affordable Care Act, we proposed to establish these standards.
Current regulations at § 483.75(o) require a facility to maintain a quality assessment and assurance (QAA) committee, consisting of the director of nursing services, a physician designated by the facility, and at least three other members of the facility staff. The QAA committee must meet at least quarterly and identify quality deficiencies and develop and implement plans of action to correct the deficiencies. The facility is only required to disclose records of the QAA committee if the disclosure is related to the compliance of the committee with the regulatory requirements. We proposed to retain the substance of the existing QAA requirements at § 483.75(o) and pursuant to the requirements of the Affordable Care Act, we proposed a revised § 483.75 entitled, “Quality Assurance and Performance Improvement.”
At § 483.75(a), we proposed to require that a facility develop, implement, and maintain an effective, comprehensive, data-driven QAPI program, reflected in its QAPI plan, that focuses on systems of care, outcomes, and services for residents and staff. The QAPI program would be designed to monitor and evaluate performance of all services and programs of the facility, including services provided under contract or arrangement. We proposed that the facility's governing body, or designated persons functioning as a governing body, would ensure that the QAPI program is defined, implemented, and maintained and addresses identified priorities. Therefore, we proposed at § 483.75(a)(1) that the facility maintain documentation and demonstrate evidence of its QAPI program. This would include, but would not be limited to, the QAPI plan. We proposed at § 483.75(a)(2) that the facility would be required to submit the QAPI plan to the State Agency or federal surveyor, as the agent of the Secretary, at the first annual recertification survey 1 year after the effective date of these regulations. In addition, we proposed at § 483.75(a)(3), based on the Secretary's authority at sections 1819(d)(4)(B) and 1919(d)(4)(B) of the Act to establish other requirements relating to the health and safety of residents, to require that the facility present the QAPI plan to the State Agency surveyor at each annual recertification survey and upon request to the State Agency or federal surveyor at any other survey and to CMS upon request. Further, we proposed at § 483.75(a)(4), to require the facility to present its documentation and evidence of an ongoing QAPI program upon request of a State Agency, federal surveyor, or CMS. The State Agency, pursuant to its agreement with the Secretary under section 1864 (a) of the Act, would consider such plan in making its certification recommendation and providing evidence to the CMS Regional Office for a compliance determination.
At § 483.75(b), we proposed requirements for the design and scope of the QAPI program. We proposed to require that the facility design its QAPI program to be ongoing, comprehensive and address the full range of care and services provided by the facility. When implemented, the QAPI program would be required to address all systems of care and management practices and always include clinical care, quality of life, and resident choice. It would also require LTC facilities to utilize the best available evidence to define and measure indicators of quality and facility goals that reflect processes of care and facility operations that have
We proposed at § 483.75(c) to establish requirements for QAPI program feedback, data systems and monitoring. We proposed at new § 483.75(c)(1) that, as part of its QAPI process, the facility must maintain effective systems to obtain and use feedback and input from direct care/direct access workers, other staff, and residents, resident representatives and families to identify opportunities for improvement. At § 483.75(c)(2), we proposed to require that the systems, governed by appropriate policies and procedures, also include how the facility would identify, collect, and use data from all departments, including how the information would be used to identify high risk, high volume or problem-prone areas. At § 483.75(c)(3), we proposed to require that the policies and procedures include a description of the methodology and frequency for developing, monitoring, and evaluating performance indicators. Finally, at § 483.75(c)(4), we proposed to require that the system, policies and procedures include the process for identification, reporting, analysis, and prevention of adverse events and potential adverse events or near misses. We indicated in the proposed rule that this would include methods by which the facility obtains information on adverse events and potential adverse events from residents, family and direct care/direct access staff, and how the facility addresses and investigates the adverse event or potential adverse event and provides feedback to those same individuals.
We proposed to establish a new § 483.75(d) to address QAPI program systematic analysis and systemic action. We proposed in § 483.75(d)(1) to require that the facility take actions aimed at performance improvement and, after implementing those actions, to measure the success of those actions and to track performance to ensure that the improvements are sustained. We further proposed to require in § 483.75(d)(2), that the facility develop policies describing how they would use a systematic approach (such as, root cause analysis, reverse tracer methodology, and health care failure mode and effects analysis, for example) to determine underlying causes of problems impacting larger systems.
At § 483.75(e), we proposed to establish requirements for program activities. Specifically, we proposed to require at § 483.75(e)(1) through (3) that the facility establish priorities for performance improvement activities that focus on patient safety; coordination of care; autonomy; choice; and high risk, high volume, and/or problem-prone areas identified as a result of the facility assessment as specified in § 483.70(e). We proposed to require that performance improvement activities track medical errors and adverse resident events, analyze their causes, and implement preventative actions and mechanisms that include feedback and learning throughout the facility. Finally, we proposed to require that the QAPI program activities include Performance Improvement Projects (PIPs). Under the proposal, the facility is required to conduct distinct performance improvement projects. The number and frequency of improvement projects conducted by the facility must reflect the scope and complexity of the facility's services and available resources. We proposed that each facility be required to implement at least one project annually that focused on a high risk or problem prone area identified through the required data collection and analysis.
Finally, at § 483.75(f), we proposed to require that the facility ensure, through the governing body or executive leadership, that an ongoing QAPI program would be defined, implemented, and sustained during transitions in leadership and staffing and that the QAPI program is adequately resourced, including ensuring staff time, equipment, and technical training as needed. Furthermore, we proposed that the governing body or executive leadership would have to ensure that the QAPI program identified and prioritized problems and opportunities based on performance indicator data; resident and staff input that reflected organizational processes, functions, and services provided to residents; that corrective actions addressed gaps in systems, and were evaluated for effectiveness; and that clear expectations were set around safety, quality, rights, choice, and respect.
We proposed to re-designate § 483.75(o) as § 483.75(g). At § 483.75(g)(1), we proposed revisions to clarify that the QAA committee membership requirements would be a minimum requirement. We also proposed the requirement that the Infection Control and Prevention Officer (ICPO) would participate in the quality assessment and assurance committee.
At § 483.75(g)(2), we proposed that the quality assessment and assurance committee would report to the facility's governing body, or designated persons functioning as a governing body, regarding its activities, including implementation of the QAPI program required under new § 483.75(a) through (f). We further proposed that the committee would coordinate and evaluate activities under the QAPI program, including performance improvement projects, and that the committee would review and analyze data collected under the QAPI program as well as data from pharmacists resulting from monthly drug regimen reviews and the resulting reports as specified in § 483.45(c)(4).
We proposed to add a new § 483.75(h) to address disclosure of information. We proposed to re-designate existing § 483.75(o)(3) as § 483.75(h)(1) and add a new § 483.75(h)(2) to clarify that facilities, in order to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of this section, may be required to disclose or provide access to certain QAPI information. Specifically, we proposed to require, to the extent necessary to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of this section, access to systems and reports demonstrating systematic identification, reporting, investigation, analysis, and prevention of adverse events; documentation demonstrating the development, implementation, and evaluation of corrective actions or process improvement activities; and other documentation considered necessary by a state or federal surveyor in assessing compliance. We further proposed to re-designate § 483.75(o)(4) as § 483.75(i).
In the proposed rule we included a discussion regarding technical assistance, materials, and resources available to LTC facilities on the development of best practices relating to QAPI (80 FR 42168, July 16, 2015). We encourage readers to review that discussion and take advantage of the tools available.
Some commenters suggested that we allow a 5 year implementation period during which the facility would show progress in its implementation process during the annual standard survey, while other commenters suggested a 2 to 3 year phase-in for the QAPI provisions.
In addition, we have received many comments regarding the overall implementation of this rule and address that issue in section II.B. Implementation. With regard specifically to QAPI, we note that the statute requires at 1128I(c)(1) of the Act that the QAPI plan be submitted to the Secretary not later than one year after the date on which the requirements are issued. We have modified our regulatory provision to mirror the statutory language. We would expect facilities to show their efforts to effectuate the QAPI plan, on an ongoing basis thereafter, with no fixed start or end date.
QAPI is intended to be a continuous part of the everyday life and operations of the home. We note that facilities have been expecting these regulations for a number of years, since publication of the Affordable Care Act in 2010. In developing our proposal, we relied heavily on the experiences gained in the CMS QAPI demonstration project which was conducted from Sept 2011 through Sept 2013. Resources and tools were developed as a result of that pilot, were rolled out on June 7, 2013 (see
Another commenter suggested that each facility be required to have at least three PIPs in place at a time, reflecting different areas of concern and at least one reflecting residents' rights and quality of life. The commenter further suggests that a facility cited with immediate jeopardy deficiency(ies) be required to initiate a PIP in the area where the immediate jeopardy was cited.
One commenter suggests that CMS develop and annually update a list of a dozen mandatory PIPs reflecting issues that CMS has identified as significant quality of care and quality of life issues. Each facility would then be required to choose at least one PIP from that list annually.
We agree that not all improvement activities are PIPs and believe that our proposed regulatory language is inclusive of these activities. (See § 483.75(e)). In addition, we have reviewed our proposals and, where appropriate, have expanded our references to PIPs to include other improvement activities. While we agree that areas in which an immediate jeopardy deficiency is cited require immediate action, we are not certain that a PIP will always be an appropriate response, and therefore have not adopted this recommendation at this time.
Other commenters objected to our proposed provisions regarding information disclosure to demonstrate compliance with the QAPI requirements. One commenter stated that this requirement could be misconstrued. Several suggested that these requirements could have a chilling effect on advancing QAPI efforts and should be deleted or substantially modified. Several commenters felt that the proposed rules for QAPI would discourage open and honest evaluation of areas of concern without fear of negative consequences. A number of commenters were concerned that disclosing quality assurance records to surveyors would expose providers to increased risk of sanctions and litigation. One commenter stated that surveyors should not have broad access to facilities' QAPI data or deliberations. Another commenter stated that they believe that the proposed regulations exceed the statutory authority granted to CMS. The commenter stated that we have significantly expanded upon the statutory mandate by requiring a “laundry list” of requirements related to the QAPI program, including requiring the disclosure of, or potentially requiring a facility provide access to, a plethora of QAPI-related documents and records. They further stated that proposed 42 CFR 483.75(a)(4), requiring facilities to present documentation and evidence of its ongoing QAPI program's implementation and the facility's compliance with the requirements to a State Agency, Federal surveyor, or CMS upon request exceeds the permissibly required disclosures under the statute. One commenter stated that these provisions are contrary to state law. Finally, they believed that proposed § 483.75(h) is internally inconsistent.
We do not agree with commenters who believe that we have exceeded our authority in establishing these requirements. Under section 1128I(c) of the Act, as added by section 6102 of the ACA, Congress required the Secretary to establish and implement a quality assurance and performance improvement program for facilities. The Secretary is also required to set forth standards for QAPI and provide technical assistance to develop best practices for facilities to meet those standards. The expectation that facilities will implement a QAPI program that meets those standards is clear, and facilities must be able to demonstrate that they have implemented their QAPI plan and have an effective, ongoing QAPI program. The standards, the best practices, and the tools to support facilities as they implement their plan to meets those standards were developed in the course of the QAPI demonstration project conducted by CMS. We also consider our experiences with requiring QAPI programs from other providers such as community mental health centers (§ 485.917), end stage renal disease facilities (§ 494.110), hospitals (§ 482.21), hospices (§ 418.58), organ procurement organizations (§ 486.348), and transplant centers (§ 482.96) as well as proposed requirements for home health agencies (79 FR 61164).
QAPI is intended to be one aspect of a LTC facility's operations that helps to maintain and protect the health and safety of the residents of the facility. Section 1819(f)(1) of the Act states that it is the duty and responsibility of the Secretary to assure that requirements which govern the provision of care in skilled nursing facilities under Title XVIII, and the enforcement of such requirements, are adequate to protect the health, safety welfare, and right of residents and to promote the effective and efficient use of public moneys. Therefore, we have an obligation to ensure that the QAPI plan becomes more than a paper exercise. To that end, we proposed requirements that would demonstrate that a facility has not only written a plan that meet the established standards, but has actually implemented that plan. In our proposed requirements, we stated that the facility must present its QAPI plan at its annual recertification (or in the case of a new facility, during its initial certification) after the effective date of this regulation and at every annual survey thereafter, as well as during other surveys or upon our request. We included this ongoing requirement because we understand that a QAPI plan will need to be updated and modified as a facility implements it and learns from the QAPI program. We proposed that the facility would have to present documentation and evidence of its ongoing QAPI implementation to reflect the ongoing nature of the QAPI program.
It is not our intent that a facility lose existing protections for QAA documents, including those established under state law, nor do we intend to create a punitive environment or increase litigation. At the same time, we cannot ignore our obligation to ensure that facilities implement their QAPI plan, and continue to modify and implement that plan over time. What we require is satisfactory evidence that a facility is implementing its QAPI plan and maintaining an ongoing QAPI program. We further articulated in the proposed rule what sort of evidence and documentation we believe may be necessary to demonstrate compliance. We retain the proposed requirement, as required by statute, that a State or the Secretary may not require disclosure of a QAA committee's records except insofar as such disclosure is related to the compliance of such committee with the requirements of the statute. Clearly, this requirement recognizes that, in some cases, such records will be necessary to evaluate compliance. However, much information relating to the implementation of the QAPI plan could be available outside of the QAA committee's records. Further, we do not believe that every document, piece of information, or data reviewed or generated in the course of implementing QAPI is a “record of the QAA committee.”
We also retain the proposed requirement that “Good faith attempts by the committee to identify and correct quality deficiencies will not be used as a basis for sanction.” This requirement is not new; however, it now also includes QAPI activities. As is currently the case, surveyors are instructed not to cite as a deficiency for a requirement other than the QAPI requirements a concern that would not have been identified but for a review of QAPI materials for the purpose of determining compliance with the QAPI regulations. That said, nothing in this section would preclude a surveyor from citing a concern that is identified based on a review of materials or on observations separate and apart from an assessment of QAPI compliance. Excluding such a concern simply and only because it has also been identified by the QAPI program would be irresponsible of CMS. We understand that the ability to discern when and how a deficiency is identified is of concern to facilities. We have and will continue to educate surveyors on the parameters of this provision and the need to not
With regard to concerns about increased litigation, we reiterate that our purpose is neither to inappropriately make documents public nor to expose facilities to litigation risk. In fact, section 1106 of the Act specifically states that, for health programs established by titles XVIII and XIX, reports (including program validation survey reports and other formal evaluations of the performance of providers of services) made public by the Secretary or the State Agency shall not identify individual patients, individual health care practitioners, or other individuals. Our obligation to conduct effective oversight is not waived in the face of litigation fears. We have attempted in these regulations to establish an appropriate balance between ensuring that QAPI can be conducted in an open, non-punitive environment and ensuring that we can provide effective oversight of requirements necessary to protect the health and safety of LTC facility residents. We have re-evaluated our proposed language and made some modifications in order to be less prescriptive and duplicative. In order to address the commenters concerns about internal consistency and overreach, we have moved the language regarding the information that may be necessary to demonstrate compliance to section (a)(1) and eliminated, as potentially overbroad, proposed paragraph (iii) which stated “other documentation considered necessary by a State or Federal surveyor in assessing compliance.” We are finalizing as proposed the requirement that facilities must provide documentation and information that demonstrates that they are effectively implementing their QAPI plan, on an ongoing basis, and surveyors must have sufficient information to evaluate if a facility is in compliance with the requirements of this section.
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing our proposal with the following modifications:
• We have modified paragraph (a)(2) to mirror the statutory language to indicate that the facility must present its QAPI plan to the State Survey Agency not later than one year after the date the regulation is issued.
• We have added the term “information” in paragraphs (c)(2) and (f)(4).
• In paragraph (e)(3), we have referenced performance improvement activities in the context of our PIP requirement.
• We eliminated the parenthetical examples in paragraph (d)(2)(i)
• We have moved the language in proposed § 483.75(h)(2) regarding the information that may be necessary to demonstrate compliance to section (a)(1) and eliminated proposed paragraph (iii) which stated “other documentation considered necessary by a State or Federal surveyor in assessing compliance.”
As part of our overall reorganization of these regulations, we proposed to re-designate the provisions under existing § 483.65 as § 483.80. We proposed to modify the introductory language to include infection prevention as well as control and to clarify that the program must help prevent the development and transmission of communicable diseases as well as infections. We proposed to revise paragraph (a) to read “Infection prevention and control program” (IPCP) and add new § 483.80(a)(1), (2) and (3) to specify the elements of the IPCP. We proposed to require that the program must follow accepted national standards, be based upon the facility assessment conducted according to § 483.70(e) and include, at a minimum, a system for preventing, identifying, reporting, investigating, and controlling infections and communicable diseases for all residents, staff, volunteers, visitors, and other individuals providing services under a contractual arrangement. We proposed to require the facility to have written standards, policies, and procedures for the IPCP, including but not limited to, a system of surveillance designed to identify possible communicable disease or infections before it can spread to other persons in the facility; reporting requirements for possible incidents of communicable disease or infections; standard and transmission-based precautions to be followed to prevent spread of infections; circumstances in which generally, isolation should be used for a resident; the circumstances under which the facility must prohibit employees with a communicable disease or infected skin lesions from direct contact with residents or their food, if the contact is likely to transmit the disease; and the hand hygiene procedures to be followed by all staff as indicated by accepted professional practice. We also proposed that the facility be required to train staff related to the IPCP as specified in § 483.95.
We proposed that the facility's IPCP must also include an antibiotic stewardship program that includes antibiotic use protocols and systems for monitoring antibiotic use and recording incidents identified under the facility's IPCP and the corrective actions taken by the facility.
We further proposed to add a new paragraph (b) to require that the facility designate an infection prevention and control officer (IPCO) who is responsible for the IPCP and who has received specialized training in infection prevention and control. We proposed that the IPCP be a major responsibility for the individual assigned as the facility's IPCO. We proposed to require that the IPCO be a healthcare professional with specialized training in infection prevention and control beyond their initial professional degree. At § 483.80(c), we proposed to require that the IPCO be a member of the facility's Quality Assessment and Assurance (QAA) committee.
We proposed to eliminate the exception that is currently located at § 483.25(v), which provides that, based on an assessment and practitioner recommendation, a second pneumococcal immunization could be given after 5 years following the first pneumococcal immunization, unless medically contraindicated or the resident or the resident's legal representative refuses the second immunization.
We proposed to add a new § 483.80(f) to require that the facility review its IPCP annually and update the program as necessary. We also proposed to relocate the requirements for influenza and pneumococcal immunizations from the current § 483.25(n) to § 483.80(d). The language in § 483.80(d) is identical to the current § 483.25(n), except that
CDC and CMS are also exploring opportunities to develop and implement infection prevention and control training specific for LTC facility clinical personnel. We expect that this would provide training on a variety of infection control topics relevant for LTC facility staff developing and sustaining an IPCP. We expect that any training would be widely available for all providers, surveyors, and other partners. We are also exploring opportunities for continued education, dissemination of promising practices, and ensuring that new infection prevention and control guidance and information for LTC facility staff can be shared widely. CMS is pleased to be collaborating with CDC on this type of comprehensive training for providers. CMS has previously developed specific surveyor training on infection control topics in 2014 and 2015. CMS is also exploring processes for reviewing infection prevention and control practices in the context of transitions of care. Please see
Concerning the level of detail in the infection control requirements, we disagree with the commenter. Hospitals and LTC facilities are different types of facilities. LTC facility residents generally stay much longer than patients in hospitals and generally require care for chronic conditions instead of acute illnesses, injuries, or surgeries. In addition, there must be sufficient detail in the regulatory text so that LTC facilities know what will be needed to be in compliance with requirements. We believe there is sufficient detail in the infection control requirements so that LTC facilities and the public understand what is expected for compliance. We also note that CMS published a proposed rule on June 16, 2016 entitled, “Hospital and Critical Access Hospital Changes to Promote Innovation, Flexibility and Improvement in Patient Care (CMS-3295-P) (81 FR 39448). These proposed regulations update and add specificity to the infection prevention and control requirements for hospitals.
Concerning the commenter's recommendation that referring to the goal and purpose of the infection control program along with following national standards allows the goal and intent to be accomplished. We do not believe this is needed in the regulatory text. However, further direction will be provided in sub-regulatory guidance. Concerning the use of interpretative guidance, sub-regulatory guidance for this final rule will be developed and published as soon as possible. That guidance will contain more specific direction for long-term care facilities, surveyors, and others concerning compliance with these regulatory requirements. Thus, we believe that the level of detail in the infection prevention and control requirements in this final rule are appropriate and ensure that LTC facilities are aware of what is required to comply with these requirements.
Regarding the commenter's concern about being cited by a surveyor for following national standards and modification of the hospital CoPs, we will be working on developing sub-regulatory guidance and training for the surveyors that should address situations that the commenter described.
Concerning the other comments on requirements for the pneumonia and pneumococcal immunizations, we did not propose any changes to these requirements. Influenza and pneumococcal immunizations are crucial for the resident populations. Due to the higher morbidity and mortality rates, we believe it is crucial that these immunizations be offered to the resident
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing our proposal with the following modifications:
• We have modified § 483.80(a)(1) by changing the reference from § 483.75(e) to § 483.70(e).
• We have modified § 483.80(a)(2)(iv) by inserting after, “[w]hen and how isolation should be used for a resident,” the following language, “including but not limited to, (A) the type and duration of the isolation depending upon the infectious agent or organism involved, and a requirement that the isolation should be the least restrictive possible for the resident under the circumstances.”
• We have modified § 483.80(b) to change the infection prevention and control officer (IPCO) to an infection preventionist (IP).
• We have modified § 483.80(b) to allow LTC facilities to designate more than one IP.
• We have modified § 483.80(b)(1) and (2) to establish that IPs must have primary professional training in nursing, medical technology, microbiology, epidemiology, or other related field and can be qualified by education, training, experience or certification.
• We have modified § 483.80(b) by removing the requirement that the IPCP be a major responsibility for the IP.
As noted previously, section 6102 of the Affordable Care Act amended the Act by adding new section 1128I. Subsection 1128I(b) of the Act requires the operating organizations for SNFs and NFs to have in operation a compliance and ethics program that is effective in preventing and detecting criminal, civil, and administrative violations under the Act and in promoting quality of care consistent with regulations developed by the Secretary. In the proposed rule we included a robust discussion regarding several industry-specific guidance documents on compliance issued by the DHHS OIG. In addition, we also included a detailed discussion regarding a September 23, 2010 proposed rule entitled, “Medicare, Medicaid, and Children's Health Insurance Programs; Additional Screening Requirements, Application Fees, Temporary Enrollment Moratoria, Payment Suspensions and Compliance Plans for Providers and Suppliers,” in the
At § 483.85(a), we proposed to define the terms “compliance and ethics program,” “high-level personnel”, and “operating organization.” We proposed to define “compliance and ethics program” to mean with respect to a facility, a program of the operating organization that has been reasonably designed, implemented, and enforced so that it is effective in preventing and detecting criminal, civil, and administrative violations under the Act, and in promoting quality of care; and includes, at a minimum, the required components specified in § 483.85(c). We did not propose using the term “managing employee” that is contained in the current LTC facility requirements, but rather proposed to retain the use of the term “high-level personnel”, which is used in the Affordable Care Act. We proposed to define “high-level personnel” as individuals who have substantial control over the operating organization or who have a substantial role in the making of policy within the operating organization. We indicated that the individuals considered “high-level personnel” will differ according to each operating organization's structure. However, some examples include, but are not limited to, the following: (1) A director; (2) an executive officer; (3) an individual in charge of a major business or functional unit; and (4) an individual with a substantial ownership interest as defined in section 1124(a)(3) of the Act in the operating organization.
We also proposed to define “operating organization” to mean the individual(s) or entity that operates a facility. Section 1128I(b)(1) of the Act defines an “operating organization” as “the entity that operates the facility.” Although many LTC facilities are part of corporate chains, there are still some LTC facilities that are owned by an individual or a small group of individuals. Therefore, we proposed to add “individual(s)” to the definition to make it clear that all LTC facilities, regardless of their legal structure, are required to comply with these requirements.
In § 483.85(b), we proposed that the operating organization for each facility must have in operation a compliance and ethics program (as defined in § 483.85(a)) that meets the requirements of this section beginning on the date
In § 483.85(c), we proposed that the operating organization for each facility be required to develop, implement, and maintain an effective compliance and ethics program that contains at a minimum several components. First, at § 485.85(c)(1) we proposed that the operating organization must establish written compliance and ethics standards, policies, and procedures to follow that are reasonably capable of reducing the prospect of criminal, civil, and administrative violations under the Act and which include, but are not limited to, the designation of an appropriate compliance and ethics program contact to which individuals may report suspected violations, as well as an alternate method of reporting suspected violations anonymously without fear of retribution; and disciplinary standards that set out the consequences for committing violations for the operating organization's entire staff; individuals providing services under a contractual arrangement; and volunteers, consistent with the volunteers' expected roles. Second at § 483.85(c)(2), we proposed that the operating organization must assign specific individuals within the high-level personnel of the operating organization with the overall responsibility to oversee compliance with the operating organization's compliance and ethics program's standards, policies, and procedures, such as, but not limited to, the chief executive officer (CEO), members of the board of directors, or directors of major divisions in the operating organization (proposed § 483.85(c)(2)). At § 483.85(c)(2), we proposed that the program must include provisions ensuring that the specific individuals designated with oversight responsibility in proposed § 483.85(c)(2) have sufficient resources and authority to assure compliance with these standards, policies, and procedures.
Next at § 483.85(c)(4), we proposed that the operating organization is required to use due care not to delegate discretionary authority to individuals whom the operating organization knew, or should have known through the exercise of due diligence, had a propensity to engage in criminal, civil, or administrative violations under the Act.
We also proposed at § 483.85(c)(5) that the operating organization be required to effectively communicate the standards, policies, and procedures in the operating organization's compliance and ethics program to the operating organization's entire staff including individuals providing services under a contractual arrangement, and volunteers, consistent with the volunteers' expected roles. Requirements include, but are not limited to, mandatory participation in training or orientation programs, and/or dissemination of information that explained in a practical manner what was required under the program.
Next at § 483.85(c)(6), we proposed that the compliance program must ensure that reasonable steps were being taken to achieve compliance with the program's standards, policies, and procedures, such as utilizing monitoring and auditing systems reasonably designed to detect criminal, civil, and administrative violations under the Act by any of the operating organization's staff, individuals providing services under a contractual arrangement, or volunteers, having in place and publicizing a reporting system whereby any of these individuals could report violations by others anonymously within the operating organization without fear of retaliation, and having a process for ensuring the integrity of any reported data. We also proposed at § 483.85(c)(6) that the operating organization be required to enforce consistently the operating organization's standards, policies, and procedures through appropriate disciplinary mechanisms, including, as appropriate, discipline of individuals responsible for the failure to detect and report a violation to the appropriate party identified in the operating organization's compliance and ethics program. We proposed that an operating organization is required to consistently enforce its standards and procedures through appropriate disciplinary mechanisms.
Lastly, at § 483.85(c)(8) we proposed that after an operating organization detected a violation, it must ensure that all reasonable steps identified in its program were taken to respond appropriately to the violation and, to prevent further similar violations, including any necessary modification to the operating organization's program to prevent and detect criminal, civil, and administrative violations under the Act. We noted in the proposed rule that in sections 1128I(b)(3)(F) and (G) of the Act, which correspond to § 483.85(c)(7) and (8), the term “offense,” is used instead of “violation” and that the previously described components are mandatory for all of the SNF and NF operating organizations' compliance and ethics programs.
At § 483.85(d), we proposed to require operating organizations that operate five or more facilities to designate a compliance officer, and require that such individuals be designated as high-level personnel of the operating organizations with the overall responsibility to oversee the compliance and ethics program. In addition, the designated compliance officer must report directly to the governing body for the operating organization. We also proposed that all operating organizations designate a compliance and ethics program contact.
In addition at § 483.85(d), we proposed that operating organizations that operate five or more facilities must also include, at a minimum, the following components in their compliance and ethics program:
• A mandatory annual training program on the operating organization's compliance and ethics program (§ 483.85(d)(1)).
• A designated compliance officer for whom the operating organization's compliance and ethics program is a major responsibility (§ 483.85(d)(2)).
• Designated compliance liaisons located at each of the operating organization's facilities (§ 483.95(d)(3)).
Lastly, at § 483.85(e), we proposed that the operating organization for each facility must review its compliance and ethics program annually, and revise its program, as needed to reflect changes in all applicable laws or regulations and within its organization and facilities to improve its performance in deterring, reducing, and detecting criminal, civil, and administrative violations under the Act and in promoting quality of care.
The requirements for compliance and ethics and the QAPI programs should work together or be coordinated to not only ensure compliance with the requirements in this final rule but also improvements in the quality of care provided to the residents. Also, we do not believe this will result in an excessive or separate focus on compliance or result in negative consequences to the residents, staff, or facility.
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing the requirements as proposed.
In the proposed rule we indicated that the facility must be designed, constructed, equipped, and maintained to protect the health and safety of residents, personnel and the public. Many of these provisions relate to Life Safety Code (LSC) requirements. We recently published a final rule which adopts many provisions of the 2012 LSC “Medicare and Medicaid Programs; Fire Safety Requirements for Certain Health Care Facilities,” (81 FR 26871, May 4, 2016). As part of our comprehensive review and restructuring, we re-designate the existing provisions of § 483.70 as new § 483.90; however, the language in existing § 483.70(a) “Life safety from fire” and § 483.70(b) “Emergency power” are unchanged, including new provisions related to the requirement that long term care
In § 483.90(c) “Space and equipment”, we proposed to add the resident's individual assessment, including preferences and choices, as an element to consider in addition to the resident's plan of care when considering the space and equipment requirements of the facility. We proposed to eliminate the word “essential” from § 483.90(c)(2) (re-designated from § 483.70(c)(2)). In addition, we proposed to add a new § 483.90(c)(3) to specifically require that facilities conduct regular inspections of all bed frames, mattresses, and bed rails and to ensure that bed rails are compatible with the bed frame and mattress.
Currently, in existing § 483.70(d), the regulations allow for bedrooms that accommodate up to four residents. We proposed to require at § 483.90(d)(1)(i) that bedrooms in facilities accommodate not more than two residents unless the facility is currently certified to participate in Medicare and/or Medicaid or has received approval of construction or reconstruction plans by state and local authorities prior to the effective date of this regulation. We indicated in the proposed rule that reconstruction means that the facility undergoes reconfiguration of the space such that the space is not permitted to be occupied, or the entire building or an entire occupancy within the building, such as a wing of the building, is modified. We also proposed to require that the bed size and height be not only convenient for the resident's needs, but also safe.
Section 483.70(e) currently requires that each bedroom be equipped with or located near toilet and bathing facilities. We proposed at § 483.90(e) to add the requirement that, for facilities that receive approval of construction or reconstruction plans by state and local authorities or are newly certified to participate in Medicare and/or Medicaid after the effective date of this rule, each resident room must have its own bathroom equipped with at least a toilet, sink and shower. In addition, we proposed that if a facility undergoes reconstruction, each resident room in the reconstructed space must have its own bathroom equipped with at least a toilet, sink and shower. We indicated in the proposed rule that reconstruction means that the facility undergoes reconfiguration of the space such that the space is not permitted to be occupied, or the entire building or an entire occupancy within the building, such as a wing of the building, is modified.
At § 483.90(f) (proposed to be re-designated from § 483.70(f)), a resident call system is required. We proposed to revise this revision and require that the facility must be adequately equipped to allow residents to call for staff assistance through a communication system which relays the call directly to a staff member or to a centralized staff work area from the resident's bedside, toilet and bathing facilities.
At § 483.90(g) (proposed to be re-designated from § 483.70(g)) we address dining and activity rooms and include a requirement to designate non-smoking areas. We proposed to eliminate the language “with non-smoking areas identified”.
We also proposed to add a new paragraph at § 483.90(h)(5) to require facilities to establish policies, in accordance with applicable federal, state and local laws and regulations, regarding smoking, including tobacco cessation, smoking areas and safety, including but not limited to non-smoking residents.
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing our proposal with the following modifications:
• We have modified our proposal at § 483.90(e) to require that, for facilities that receive approval of construction or are newly certified after the effective date of this final rule, each resident room must have its own bathroom with at least a commode and a sink.
• We have modified our proposal at § 483.90(h)(5) to state that facilities must establish policies in accordance with applicable Federal, State, and local laws and regulations regarding smoking, smoking areas, and smoking safety that also take into account non-smoking residents.
We proposed to add a new § 483.95 to subpart B which sets forth training requirements. We proposed that a facility must develop, implement, and maintain an effective training program for all new and existing staff; individuals providing services under a contractual arrangement; and volunteers, consistent with their expected roles. We also proposed that a facility be required to determine the amount and types of training necessary based on a facility assessment as specified at § 483.70(e).
We proposed at § 483.95(a) to include effective communications as a required training topic for direct care personnel. We did not propose to require a specific amount of time, specific communications topics, or specific training mechanisms to meet this requirement. We proposed at § 483.95(b) to require that facilities train staff members on the rights of the resident and the responsibilities of a LTC facility to properly care for its residents as set forth at § 483.10 and § 483.11, respectively. At § 483.95(c) we proposed to require that a facility provide training to its staff on the freedom from abuse, neglect, and exploitation requirements found in § 483.12. We proposed to specify that facilities must provide training to their staff that at a minimum educates staff on activities that constitute abuse, neglect, exploitation, and misappropriation of resident property and procedures for reporting incidents of abuse, neglect, exploitation, or the misappropriation of resident property.
At § 485.95(d), we proposed to require that a facility must provide mandatory QAPI training to its staff that outline the elements and goals of the facility's QAPI program. At § 483.95(e) we proposed to require LTC facilities to include staff training as part of their efforts to prevent and control infection. It would be the facility's responsibility to ensure that their staff was effectively educated on the facility's infection control policies and procedures.
At § 483.95(f)(1), we proposed that the operating organization for each facility must include as part of their compliance and ethics program training for staff that outlines the standards, policies, and procedures. We did not specify how a facility should develop this training; however we indicated in the proposed rule that the training must explain in a practical manner the requirements under the compliance and ethics program. In addition, at § 483.95(f)(2) we proposed to require that if the operating organization operates five or more facilities, it must include mandatory training annually.
Section 6121 of the Affordable Care Act added sections 1819(f)(2)(A)(i)(1) and 1919(f)(2)(A)(i)(1) of the Act. These sections require all NAs to receive on-going training in both dementia management and patient abuse prevention training, “if the Secretary determines appropriate.” We proposed to amend the LTC requirements by requiring that the current mandatory on-going training requirements for NAs include dementia management and resident abuse training.
We also proposed to relocate the training requirements for NAs at § 483.75(e)(8) to § 483.95(g). Specifically, we proposed to re-designate existing § 483.75(e)(8)(i), (ii), and (iii) to § 483.95(g)(1), (3), and (4), respectively. At § 483.95(g)(2), we proposed to add the new requirement that the 12 hours of annual in-service training for NAs must include dementia management and abuse prevention training. Also, at § 483.95(g)(3), we proposed to add to the existing requirement that the in-service training address areas of weakness as determined by a facility's assessment at § 483.70(e). In addition, current regulations at § 483.75(q) require facilities to only employ as a paid feeding assistant those individuals who have successfully completed a state approved training program, as specified in § 483.160. We proposed to relocate this provision without change to proposed § 483.95(h).
Lastly, we proposed at § 483.95(i) to require that facilities provide behavioral health training to its entire staff, based on the facility assessment at § 483.70(e). As required at § 483.70(e), we proposed that the facility be responsible for using their facility assessment to determine the behavioral health related needs of their residents. Then the facility must ensure that their staff is provided with behavioral health training that correlates with the needs of their residents.
After consideration of the comments we received on the proposed rule, we are finalizing our proposal with the following modifications:
• Adding a new requirement at § 483.95(c)(3) to require that staff
In this final rule, we are adopting the provisions of the July 16, 2015 proposed rule with the following revisions:
• In § 483.5, we are revising the definition of “abuse” to “the willful infliction of injury, unreasonable confinement, intimidation, or punishment with resulting physical harm, pain or mental anguish. Abuse also includes the deprivation by an individual, including a caretaker, of goods or services that are necessary to attain or maintain physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being. Instances of abuse of all residents, irrespective of any mental or physical condition, cause physical harm, pain or mental anguish. It includes verbal abuse, sexual abuse, physical abuse, and mental abuse including abuse facilitated or enabled through the use of technology. Willful, as used in this definition of abuse, means the individual must have acted deliberately, not that the individual must have intended to inflict injury or harm.”
• In § 483.5, we are revising the definition of “exploitation” to “taking advantage of a resident for personal gain through the use of manipulation, intimidation, threats, or coercion.”
• In § 483.5, we are adding “registered respiratory therapist or certified respiratory therapy technician” to the definition of “licensed health professional.”
• In § 483.5, we are adding a definition of “mistreatment” and define it as “inappropriate treatment or exploitation of a resident.”
• In § 483.5, we are revising the definition of “neglect” to “the failure of the facility, its employees or service providers to provide goods and services to a resident that are necessary to avoid physical harm, pain, mental anguish or emotional distress.”
• In § 483.5, we are revising the definition of “resident representative” to (in accordance with 45 CFR 1324.1), “(1) An individual chosen by the resident to act on behalf of the resident in order to support the resident in decision-making; access medical, social or other personal information of the resident; manage financial matters; or receive notifications; (2) A person authorized by State or Federal law (including but not limited to agents under power of attorney, representative payees, and other fiduciaries) to act on behalf of the resident in order to support the resident in decision-making; access medical, social or other personal information of the resident; manage financial matters; or receive notifications; (3) Legal representative, as used in section 712 of the Older Americans Act; or (4) The court-appointed guardian or conservator of a resident. (5) Nothing in this rule is intended to expand the scope of authority of any resident representative beyond that authority specifically authorized by the resident, State or Federal law, or a court of competent jurisdiction.”
• In § 483.10, we have consolidated proposed § 483.10 and proposed § 483.11 into § 483.10, “Resident rights” and removed or updated all cross-references as appropriate.
• In § 483.10, we have replaced the term “verbal” with “oral” throughout this entire section.
• In § 483.10, we have moved introductory language from proposed § 483.10 and proposed § 483.11, as well as § 483.11(a)(2) to § 483.10(a) “Resident Rights.”
• In § 483.10, we have consolidated proposed § 483.10(a)(1) through (5), and proposed § 483.11(a)(1), and (a)(3) through (5) into § 483.10(b), “Exercise of rights.”
• In § 483.10, we have revised § 483.10(b)(3) to incorporate previously existing language clarifying that the provision applies to residents who have not been adjudged incompetent by a State court.
• In § 483.10, we have revised § 483.10(b)(7)(i) to clarify that, in the case of a limited guardianship, a facility does not defer all decision making to a guardian, when a court's determination does not require it.
• In § 483.10, we have consolidated proposed § 483.10(b) and proposed § 483.11(b) into § 483.10(c), “Planning and implementing care.”
• In § 483.10, we have changed the term ” disciplines” to “the type of care giver or professional” at § 483.10(c)(4).
• In § 483.10, we have clarified in § 483.10(c)(5) that the physician or other practitioner or professional informs the resident of the risks and benefits of proposed care, of treatment and treatment alternatives or treatment options.
• In § 483.10, we have consolidated § 483.10(b)(6) and § 483.11(b)(2) into § 483.10(c)(7) which now states “The right to self-administer medications if the interdisciplinary team, as defined by § 483.21(b)(2)(ii), has determined that this practice is clinically appropriate.”
• In § 483.10, we have withdrawn proposed § 483.10(c)(2) to require that physician's meet facility credentialing requirements and consolidated § 483.10(c)(1) and (3), and § 483.11(c)(1) through (3) at § 483.10(d).
• In § 483.10, we have redesignated § 483.10(d) as § 483.10(e), revised paragraph (6) to specify that the resident has a right to receive written notice, including the reason for the change before the resident's room or roommate in the facility is changed and added a new paragraph (7)(iii) to clarify that a room change cannot be solely for the convenience of staff.
• In § 483.10, we have consolidated proposed § 483.10(e) and proposed § 483.11(d) at § 483.10(f), Self-determination.
• In § 483.10, we have added “and other applicable provisions of this Part” to § 483.10(f)(1).
• In § 483.10, we have consolidated § 483.10(e)(3) and § 483.11(d)(1) at § 483.10(f)(4), clarified that the resident's right to deny visitation is “when applicable,” clarified that a facility must have written policies and procedures for visitation that includes restrictions, when such limitation may apply consistent with the requirements of this subpart, that the facility may need to place on such rights and the reasons for the clinical or safety restriction or limitation, and clarified that the facility must inform each resident not only of any limitation, but also to whom the restrictions apply.
• In § 483.10, we have added at § 483.10(f)(5)(i) that a facility must take reasonable steps, with the approval of the group, to make residents and family members aware of upcoming meetings in a timely manner.
• In § 483.10, we have added at paragraph (f)(5)(ii) “or other guests” to the list of individuals who may only attend a resident or family group meeting at the group's invitation.
• In § 483.10, we have consolidated proposed § 483.10(e)(8) and § 483.11(d)(4) into § 483.10(f)(9).
• In § 483.10, we have consolidated proposed § 483.10(e)(9) and § 483.11(d)(5) into § 483.10(f)(10).
• In § 483.10, we have changed “may” to “must” in § 483.10(f)(11)(i).
• In § 483.10, we have changed “health care provider” to “physician, physician assistant, nurse practitioner, or clinical nurse specialist” in § 483.10(f)(11)(ii)(L)(1).
• In § 483.10, we have consolidated proposed § 483.10(f) and (h) and § 483.11(e) into § 483.10(g).
• In § 483.10, we revised proposed § 483.10(g)(2) to include both personal and medical records.
• In § 483.10, we revised § 483.10(g)(2)(ii) to remove the requirement that a resident must inspect a medical record prior to requesting to purchase a copy.
• In § 483.10, we updated § 483.10(g)(3) to exclude from its requirements documents specified in (g)(2) and (g)(11). This reflects that we do not require facilities to translate or summarize personal and medical records and survey reports.
• In § 483.10, we added “State Survey Agency” to § 483.10(g)(4)(ii) and added “any suspected violation of state or federal nursing facility regulations” to paragraph (g)(4)(vi).
• In § 483.10, we added “requests for information regarding returning to the community” to paragraph (g)(5)(ii).
• In § 483.10, we require at paragraph (g)(9)(iii) that electronic communications under this section must comply with state and federal law.
• In § 483.10, we have revised § 483.10(g)(11) to reflect the stricter standard imposed by the statutory language in section 1919(c)(8) of the Act and to better reflect both sections 1819(d) and 1919(d) of the Act, retaining the addition of availability of any plan of correction in effect with respect to facility, as proposed, and including the requirements that the notice of availability of such reports are prominent and accessible to the public and shall not make available identifying information about complainants or residents.
• In § 483.10, we have revised paragraph (g)(18)(v) to specify that any admission contract, whether the facility requires it or not, must not conflict with the requirements of these regulations.
• In § 483.10, we have consolidated proposed § 483.10(g) and § 483.11(f) into § 483.10(h), consolidating duplicative language in § 483.10(g)(2) and § 483.11(f)(1)(ii), consolidating proposed § 483.11(f)(1) and (f)(1)(i) into § 483.10(h)(2), and deleting § 483.11(f)(2) as an unnecessary cross-reference.
• In § 483.10, we have consolidated proposed § 483.10(i) and § 483.11(g) into § 483.10(i) “Safe environment”.
• In § 483.10, we have added a new § 483.10(i)(1)(ii) to require that the facility exercise reasonable care for the protection of the resident's property from loss or theft.
• In § 483.10, we have consolidated proposed § 483.10(j) and § 483.11(h) into § 483.10(k).
• In § 483.10, we have revised § 483.10(j)(1) by adding “the behavior of staff and of other residents; and other concerns regarding their LTC facility stay” to the statement regarding what grievances may include.
• In § 483.10, we finalize, as proposed, § 483.11(i) at § 483.10(k).
• In § 483.12, we revised paragraphs (a)(3)(i), (ii), and (iii) to include “exploitation.”
• In § 483.12(a)(3)(iii) we have revised the paragraph to read “. . . Have a disciplinary action in effect against his or her professional license by a state licensure body as a result of a finding of abuse, . . .”
• In § 483.12, we revised paragraph (b)(5)(i)(B) to read “Each covered individual shall report immediately, but not later than 2 hours. . .”
• In § 483.12, we corrected paragraph (c)(4) to read “Report the results of all investigations to the administrator or his or her designated representative and . . .”
• In § 483.15, we have withdrawn our proposal to rename § 483.15, “Transitions of Care” and add introductory language, and retain the current title “Admission, transfer, and discharge rights” without the introductory language.
• In § 483.15, we correct references to “clinical record” to “medical record.”
• In § 483.15, we revised paragraph (a)(6) to require that a facility disclose and provide to a resident or potential resident, prior to admission, notice of special characteristics or service limitations of the facility.
• In § 483.15, we re-designated proposed paragraph (b)(1) as paragraph (b), and added a cross—reference to the definition of transfer and discharge in § 483.5 and a cross—reference to resident rights at § 483.10(a)(2).
• In § 483.15, we re-designated proposed (b) “Transfer and discharge” as (c), and renumbered paragraphs (c)(1)(ii) through (iii) to (c)(1)(i) through (ii).
• In § 483.15(c)(1)(i)(E), we have revised the provision to state that non-payment applies if the resident does not submit the necessary paperwork for third-party payment or after the third-party payor denies the claim and the resident refuses to pay for his or her stay.
• In § 483.15, we have clarified that paragraph (c)(1)(ii) applies unless the failure to transfer or discharge would endanger the health or safety of the resident or other individuals in the facility. In the event that failure to discharge or transfer would endanger the health or safety of the resident or other individuals in the facility, the facility must document what danger the failure to transfer would pose.
• In § 483.15, we revised paragraph (c)(2)(ii) to clarify that the term “documentation” refers to the documentation specified in paragraph (2)(i).
• In § 483.15, we revised paragraph (c)(2)(iii) to reflect a more flexible list of elements to be documented in the resident's clinical record and communicated to the receiving health care institution or provider. The documentation must include: Contact information of the practitioner responsible for the care of the resident, resident representative information including contact information, advance directive information, all special instructions or precautions for ongoing care, as appropriate, the resident's comprehensive care plan goals, and all other necessary information, including a copy of the residents discharge summary, consistent with § 483.21(c)(2) as applicable, and any other documentation, as applicable, to ensure a safe and effective transition of care.
• In § 483.15, we removed the requirement for resident consent in paragraph (c)(3).
• In § 483.15, we revised paragraph (c)(5)(iii) to remove the phrase “expected to be.”
• In § 483.15, we revised paragraph (c)(5)(iv) to require the discharge notice to include a statement of the resident's appeal rights, including the name, address (mailing and email), and telephone number of the entity which receives such requests; and information on how to obtain an appeal form and assistance in completing the form and submitting the appeal hearing request; and expanded paragraphs (vi) and (vii) to include individuals with related disabilities.
• In § 483.15, we revised paragraph (c)(8) by removing “of the residents or other responsible parties.”
• In § 483.15, we revised “readmissions” to “returns” in paragraphs (d) and (e).
• In § 483.15, we revised proposed paragraph (c)(3) as paragraph (e). Paragraph (e)(1) is revised to state that “a facility must establish . . .” and (e)(1)(i)(B) is revised to read “Is eligible for Medicare skilled nursing facility services or Medicaid nursing facility services” and revised proposed paragraph (c)(3)(ii) as (e)(2)(ii) to state that if the facility that determines that a resident who was transferred with an expectation of returning to the facility cannot return to the facility, the facility must comply with the requirements of paragraph (c) as they apply to discharges.
• In § 483.20 we have removed the reference to “direct access staff” at paragraph (b)(1)(xviii).
• In § 483.21, we have clarified that the facility must implement the baseline care plan at paragraph (a).
• In § 483.21 we have added a requirement for facilities to provide residents and their representatives with a summary of their baseline care plan.
• In § 483.21, we have clarified that the facility must implement the comprehensive person-centered care plan at paragraph (b).
• In § 483.21, we have replaced the word “timetables” with “timeframe” at paragraph (b)(1).
• In § 483.21 we have removed the requirement at paragraph (b)(2)(E) for a social worker to participate on the IDT.
• In § 483.21 we have added at paragraph (c)(1) that a facility must develop and implement a discharge planning process that is consistent with the discharge rights set forth at § 483.15(b) as applicable. We have also removed the reference to “post-SNF care” to clarify that the discharge planning process applies to both SNFs and NFs.
• In § 483.21 we have removed the language “his or her family” at paragraph (c)(2)(iv) and replaced it with “the resident representative (s).”In § 483.24, we have established § 483.24, “Quality of life”, which contains proposed § 483.35(a), (b), and (c) re-designated as § 483.24(a), (b), and (c), respectively, and revised the introductory language to clarify that quality of life applies to all care and services provided to facility residents.
• In § 483.24, we have added an introductory statement to new paragraph § 483.24(b)
• In § 483.24, paragraph (b)(2), we have added the word “walking.”
• In § 483.24, we have added “related physician orders” to paragraph (a)(3) regarding the provision of basic life support.
• In § 483.25, we have revised the title to read “Quality of care,” eliminated the modifier “special care issues,” revised the introductory to clarify that quality of care applies to all care and services provided by the facility, and re-designated proposed § 483.25(d)(3) through (5) as § 483.25(a) through (c), proposed § 483.25(d)(6) through (9) as § 483.25(e) through (h), proposed § 483.25(10) as § 483.25(d), and proposed § 483.25(d)(11) through (15) as § 483.25(i) through (m), respectively.
• In § 483.25, we removed paragraph (d)(1) relating to restraints and relocated the provision to § 483.12(a)(2).
• In § 483.25, we have re-designated proposed paragraph (2) bed rails as paragraph § 483.25(n), added an appropriateness qualifier to the regulatory text and reworded the provision about the bed's dimension for clarity.
• In § 483.25, we have re-designated paragraph (d)(6)(ii)(C) as (e)(2)(iii) and revised it to state “restore continence to the extent possible.”
• In § 483.25, we have added language to § 483.25(f), (h), (i), (j), (k), and (l) to require that care be provided consistent with professional standards of practice applicable to that care as well as the comprehensive person-centered care plan, and the residents' goals and preferences.
• In § 483.25(g)(1), we have eliminated the reference to protein levels as a nutritional parameter and add reference to electrolyte balance.
• In § 483.30, we have withdrawn proposed § 483.30(e) and withdrawn our proposal to re-designate paragraphs (e) and (f) as paragraphs (f) and (g).
• In § 483.30, we have modified the regulatory text at § 483.30(e)(2) and § 483.30(e)(3), respectively, to specify that it is the attending physician who has the authority to delegate to a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional the task of writing dietary orders, and to delegate to a qualified therapist the task of writing therapy orders, to the extent that these professionals are permitted to perform these tasks under state law.
• In § 483.45, we have add paragraph (c)(5) to require LTC facilities to develop and maintain policies and procedures for the monthly DRR, which include but are not limited to, timeframes for the various steps in the process and procedures a pharmacist must take when he or she believes immediate action is required to protect the resident.
• In § 483.45(c)(3), we have modified the definition of “psychotropic drugs” by removing paragraphs (v) and (vi).
• In § 483.45(e)(4), we have modified the limitation for PRN prescriptions of psychotropic drugs by extending the time for PRN prescriptions to 14 days.
• In § 483.45(e)(5), we have added a specific limitation of 14 days for PRN prescriptions for anti-psychotic drugs.
• In § 483.55 Dental Services, we have modified proposed paragraphs (a)(3) and (a)(5) relating to dental services in SNFs and proposed paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(4) to specify that both SNFs and NFs must have a policy identifying those instances when the loss or damage of dentures is the facility's responsibility and must document what they did to ensure that the resident could eat and drink adequately while awaiting dental services.
• In § 483.60, we have modified our definition of qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional at § 483.60(a)(1) to more closely align with statutory requirements.
• In § 483.60, we have clarified that an associate's or higher degree in hospitality must include food service or restaurant management in order to be accepted as an option for food services managers' qualifications in paragraph (2)(i)(D).
• In § 483.60, in paragraph (c)(1), we deleted the term “industry standards” from our proposal that menus must meet the nutritional needs of residents in accordance with established national guidelines.
• In § 483.60, in paragraph (d)(5), we have replaced the terms “substitutes” and “alternative” with the terms “options” and “different meal choice.”
• In § 483.60, in paragraph (f)(2), we have withdrawn our proposal to delete the requirement that there must be no more than 14 hours between a substantial evening meal and breakfast the following day, or up to 16 hours when a nourishing snack is served at bedtime, and a resident group agrees to this meal span.
• In § 483.65 we are removing the requirement at paragraph (a)(2) for outside resources to be Medicare and/or Medicaid providers of specialized rehabilitative services.
• In § 483.67, outpatient rehabilitative services, we are removing this section in its entirety.
• In § 483.70, we have added 45 CFR part 92 to the regulations specifically referenced in § 483.70(c) “Relationship to other HHS regulations.”
• In § 483.70(d), we have withdrawn our proposal to delete the phrase “where licensing is required” from § 483.70(d)(2)(i).
• In § 483.70(n), we have modified paragraph (1) to prohibit the use of pre-dispute agreements for binding arbitration between any resident or their representative and the facility and allow post-dispute agreements for binding arbitration, if the facility complies with the requirements in this section.
• In § 483.75, we have modified paragraph (a)(2) to mirror the statutory language to indicate that the facility must present its QAPI plan to the State Survey Agency surveyor not later than one year after the date the regulation is issued.
• In § 483.75, we have moved the language at paragraphs (h)(2)(i) and (ii) regarding the information that may be necessary to demonstrate compliance to section (a)(1) and eliminated proposed paragraph (h)(2)(iii) which stated “other documentation considered necessary by a State or Federal surveyor in assessing compliance.”
• In § 483.75, we have added the term “information” in paragraphs (c)(2) and (f)(4).
• In § 483.75, we eliminated the parenthetical examples in paragraph (d)(2)(i).
• In § 483.75, in paragraph (e)(3), we have referenced performance improvement activities in the context of our PIP requirement.
• In § 483.80, we have modified paragraph (a)(1) by changing the reference from § 483.75(e) to § 483.70(e).
• In § 483.80, we have modified paragraph (a)(2)(iv) by inserting after, “[w]hen and how isolation should be used for a resident,” the following language, “including but not limited to, (A) the type and duration of the isolation depending upon the infectious agent or organism involved, and (B) a requirement that the isolation should be the least restrictive possible for the resident under the circumstances.”
• In § 483.80, we have modified paragraph (b) to change the infection prevention and control officer (IPCO) to an infection preventionist (IP).
• In § 483.80, we have modified paragraph (b) to allow LTC facilities to designate more than one IP.
• In § 483.80, we have modified paragraphs (b) to establish that IPs must have primary professional training in nursing, medical technology, microbiology, epidemiology, or other related field; be qualified by education, training, experience or certification; work at least part-time at the facility; and have completed specialized training in infection prevention and control.
• In 483.80, we have modified paragraph (b) by removing the requirement that the IPCP be a major responsibility for the IP.
• In § 483.90, we have modified our proposal at paragraph (e) to require that, for facilities that receive approval of construction or are newly certified after the effective date of this final rule, each resident room must have its own bathroom with at least a commode and a sink.
• In § 483.90, we have modified our proposal at paragraph (h)(5) to state that facilities must establish policies in accordance with applicable federal, state, and local laws and regulations regarding smoking, smoking areas, and smoking safety that also take into account non-smoking residents.
• In § 483.95 we have added a new requirement at paragraph (c)(3) that all new and existing staff; individuals providing services under a contractual arrangement; and volunteers, receive dementia management and abuse prevention training consistent with their expected roles.
• Throughout the regulation, we have removed references to “direct access” staff, workers, or personnel.
In addition to the substantive revisions listed above we have also identified a few technical errors that were inadvertently made in the proposed. We identify the errors below and have made the corrections in the regulatory text.
• We have made conforming changes to revise cross-references to part 483 in title 42 found in § 488.301, § 489.52, and § 489.55 that were inadvertently not included in the proposed rule.
• We have modified the term “mental illness” by changing it to “mental disorder” throughout this rule to be consistent with current terminology.
The table below shows the cross-references between the current sections to the proposed. We also note that we have made conforming changes that would revise any cross-references to part 483 in title 42 that change due to the reorganization of subpart B in this final rule.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we are required to provide 30-day notice in the
• The need for the information collection and its usefulness in carrying out the proper functions of our agency.
• The accuracy of our estimate of the information collection burden.
• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Recommendations to minimize the information collection burden on the affected public, including automated collection techniques.
We are soliciting public comment on each of these issues for the following sections of this document that contain information collection requirements (ICRs).
Ordinarily, we are required to estimate the public reporting burden for information collection requirements for these regulations in accordance with chapter 35 of title 44, United States Code. However, sections 4204(b) and 4214(d) of Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987, Public Law 100-203 (OBRA '87) provide for a waiver of Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) requirements for these regulations. We believe that this waiver still applies to those revisions and updates we made to existing requirements in part 483 subpart B. However, we provide burden estimates for the new information collection requirements finalized in this rule, specifically those requirements implemented as a result of the Affordable Care Act.
We obtained the data used in this discussion on the number of the Medicare and Medicaid participating LTC facilities from Medicare's Certification and Survey Provider Enhanced Reporting (CASPER) as of May 1, 2016. We have not included data for nursing facilities that are not Medicare and/or Medicaid certified. Since the individual States periodically update the CASPER system, the number of SNFs and NFs may vary depending upon the date of the report. Thus, while number of facilities reflected in this final rule is accurate as of the date of the report, the actual number of facilities may be different as of the date of this final rule's publication.
Unless otherwise indicated, we obtained all salary information for the different positions identified in the following assessments from the US Bureau of Labor Statistics at
In addition, in estimating the burden associated with this final rule we also took into consideration the many free or low cost resources LTC facilities have available to them. The following is a non-exhaustive list of some of the available resources:
Each facility is currently required to maintain a QAA committee consisting of the director of nursing services, a physician designated by the facility and at least three other members of the facility's staff. The committee must meet at least quarterly to identify issues with respect to which quality assessment and assurance activities are necessary. The committee is required to develop and implement appropriate plans of action to correct identified quality deficiencies. Based on our experience with facilities' compliance with QAA requirements, we anticipate that they already have some of the resources needed to develop and implement a proactive QAPI program. In addition, some ICRs will be met through the technical assistance provided to facilities by CMS on the development of best practices, as required by the Affordable Care Act.
We proposed at § 483.75 that a facility have a QAPI program. The burden associated with these requirements will be the time and effort necessary to develop, implement, and maintain a comprehensive, data-driven QAPI program designed to monitor and evaluate the ongoing performance of the facility. The facility must establish a program to address the key components of the standards (program measures, program scope, and program activities). The existing regulations require that QAA committees identify and correct specific deficiencies. We believe facilities will use some of the resources they have to comply with the QAA requirements (such as collecting data), in the development of a QAPI-based, proactive approach to assessing services they provide (including those services furnished under contract or arrangement) and to improve the quality of care and quality of life provided to their residents.
Since the existing Interpretative Guidelines for facilities to comply with the Medicare regulations provide information on how to conduct quality improvement programs, we anticipate that some facilities are already utilizing the QAPI model. We also anticipate that facilities will use their existing resources to meet the requirements in this final rule. To the extent that facilities are utilizing a QAPI quality model and are proactively collecting data, evaluating their performance, and making and monitoring program improvements, they will be better prepared to comply with the QAPI requirements. However, for the purpose of this burden analysis, we assume that all facilities will need to develop a QAPI program.
Based on our experience with other Medicare providers that have developed QAPI programs, we estimate that, on average, it will take 56 hours for the facility to develop and document a comprehensive, data-driven QAPI program designed to monitor and evaluate performance of all services and programs of the facility, including services provided under contract or arrangement.
We estimate that the facility administrator will be largely responsible for developing the overall QAPI program and will spend approximately 30 hours on this activity; the director of nursing and a registered nurse will each spend approximately 10 hours each to review and provide input on clinical services activities; a physician will spend approximately 4 hours to review the program plan and provide medical direction and input; and one office assistant will spend approximately 2 hours to prepare and distribute draft and final program plans. We estimate that this will require a total of 876,568 (56 hours × 15,653 facilities) burden hours for all LTC facilities to develop a QAPI program.
We estimate that the cost for the administrator will be $2,550 ($85 × 30 hours). We estimate the cost for the director of nursing will be $850 ($85 × 10 hours). We estimate that the cost for an RN would be $610 ($61 per hour × 10 hours). We estimate that the cost for the physician will be $740 ($185 × 4 hours). We estimate that the cost for an office assistant will be $62 ($31 × 2 hours). The estimated one-time cost for each facility will total $4,812. The total one-time cost for all LTC facilities will be $75,322,236.
We anticipate that the ongoing, annual burden for each facility to collect and analyze data for QAPI activities will be 20 hours. We also anticipate that to document the improvement activities will require 20 hours. We estimate the total annual burden hours for all LTC facilities will be 626,120 (40 hours × 15,653 facilities). We anticipate that the staff time will be distributed as follows:
Administrator: collect and analyze data: 10 hours; implement and document improvement projects: 4 hours. (Total cost of $1,190 ($85 × 14 burden hours)).
Director of Nursing: collect and analyze data: 4 hours; implement and document improvement projects: 10 hours. (Total cost of $1,190 ($85 × 14 burden hours)).
RN: collect and analyze data: 4 hours; implement and document improvement projects: 6 hours. (Total cost of $610 ($61 × 10 burden hours).
Physician: analyze data: 1 hours. (Total cost of $185).
Office Assistant: collect and analyze data: 1 hours. (Total cost of $29).
Therefore, we estimate that the on-going annual cost for each facility will be a total of $3,204. We estimate that the total on-going annual cost for all LTC facilities will be $50,152,212.
The commenter noted further that the burden estimates provided in the proposed rule for developing a QAPI plan are flawed because unlike other Medicare and Medicaid providers/suppliers, LTC facilities have to meet Requirements for Participation, not Conditions of Participation. The commenter indicated that due to this, LTC facilities will spend greater time developing a plan because they are at greater risk for decertification (than other Medicare and Medicaid providers/suppliers) if noncompliance is determined by CMS.
We note that these requirements build on the knowledge gained during the CMS QAPI demonstration in LTC facilities. We believe facilities are familiar with the principles that we proposed and expect that some facilities have or are in the process of developing QAPI programs using the materials developed during the demonstration. These materials were provided to LTC facilities on June 7, 2013 (see
Lastly, we disagree with the commenter's assertion that LTC facilities will spend more time developing their plans because they are at greater risk for being decertified since they have to meet requirements for participation rather than conditions of participation. We provide a detailed discussion regarding this concern in the general comments section and encourage commenters to review that section.
Section 483.85 requires the operating organization for each SNF and NF to have in operation a compliance and ethics program that is effective in preventing and detecting criminal, civil, and administrative violations under the Act and promoting quality of care. Each compliance and ethics program must contain at least the eight required elements in § 483.85(c). The operating organization for each facility must also review its compliance and ethics program annually, and revise its program, as needed. Furthermore, § 483.85(d) has additional requirements for operating organizations that operate five or more facilities.
For the purpose of determining a burden for this final rule, we have estimated a burden based on the number of SNF and NF operating organizations. We expect that the operating organization will develop the compliance and ethics program in collaboration with staff at their facilities and then share the implementation of the program with its operating facilities. Since it will be the individual facilities that will be surveyed and not the operating organization, operating organizations will need to ensure that the appropriate documentation is available at all of their individual facilities in order to demonstrate compliance with all of the relevant requirements in this final rule. Therefore, the burden we have assessed for the operating organization will encompass their working with staff at their individual facilities.
The current regulations for SNFs and NFs do not contain any requirements for a compliance and ethics program. However, SNFs and NFs, as well as all other health care facilities, must comply with all applicable statutes, regulations, and other mandatory guidance or face criminal, civil, or administrative sanctions. In addition, as discussed previously, the OIG had issued voluntary guidance about compliance and ethics programs for SNFs and NFs in 2000 and 2008. We also believe that it is standard practice for SNFs and NFs to have high-level personnel, such as the administrator, director of nursing, or the facilities director, be responsible for ensuring that the facility is in compliance with all of the applicable federal, state, and local laws. We believe that many, if not all, of the operating organizations for SNFs and NFs already have some type of compliance program in operation. Furthermore, since many of the proposed required components for the compliance and ethics programs are very similar to many of the listed elements for the programs in the OIG's voluntary guidance documents published in 2000 and 2008, we believe the compliance and ethics programs that are already being used by many facilities include many, if not all, of the components in this rule. However, since adherence to the OIG's guidance was voluntary and did not impose mandatory obligations, we also believe that some of these existing programs may not have all, or perhaps any, of the required components or may not be documented or included in the facility's standards, policies, or procedures. Therefore, we believe that all of the operating organizations for the SNFs
Based on an analysis of the Medicare Provider Enrollment, Chain, and Ownership System (PECOS) and CASPER data, there are 9,200 SNFs and NFs that are part of a multi-facility operating organization (an operating organization with 2 or more facilities). Furthermore, based on PECOS and CASPER data, for purposes of this regulation, we estimate that there are 7,314 total operating organizations (395 operating organizations with 5 or more facilities, 419 operating organizations with 2 to 4 facilities, and 6,500 operating organizations with single facilities). Based on our experience with SNFs and NFs, we expect that the administrator and the director of nursing will primarily be involved in developing the operating organization's compliance and ethics program. Thus, in determining the burden for all of the requirements in § 483.85, except for § 483.85(d), we will analyze the burden based on an administrator and the director of nursing performing the necessary tasks and activities. If the operating organization has a designated compliance officer, we expect that he or she will take the lead in developing the entire program with the assistance of the administrator and the director of nursing as needed or when required. Since we have estimated that the compliance officer and the director of nursing will receive about the same amount of compensation, $85 an hour, and that the necessary activities will require about the same numbers of hours, we believe our estimates will be about the same regardless of whether these tasks and activities were performed by the administrator and the director of nursing or by the compliance officer with the assistance of the administrator and the director of nursing.
As described previously, LTC facilities must already “be in compliance with all applicable Federal, State, and local laws, regulations, and codes, and with accepted professional standards and principles that apply to professionals providing services in such a facility” (§ 483.85(b)). Thus, we expect that LTC facilities are already performing many of the tasks and activities necessary to a compliance program and spending hours of their time on compliance issues, especially the LTC facilities in multi-facility operating organizations. However, we are not certain that most LTC facilities have formal programs that comply with the requirements in this proposed rule. Thus, we believe that LTC facilities will sustain a burden associated with the requirement to develop a program that complied with this final rule from the resources needed for each facility to review, revise, and, if needed, develop new sections for the operating organization's compliance and ethics program.
We estimate that complying with this requirement will require 10 burden hours from the administrator and 10 burden hours from the director of nursing for a total of 20 burden hours from these individuals at an estimated cost of $1,700 (20 hours × $85 hourly wage). In addition, since we are requiring compliance and ethics programs to be mandatory, we expect that facilities will have an attorney review their programs to ensure they are in compliance with the requirements in this rule. The cost of having an attorney review the operating organization's program will vary depending on whether the operating organization has in-house counsel or has to hire an attorney at a law firm. For the purposes of determining the burden, we will assume that each operating organization has in-house counsel. We expect that an attorney will need to review the facility's compliance and ethics program, make recommendations, and approve the final program. We estimate this will require 4 burden hours at an estimated cost of $524 ($131 hourly wage × 4 hours).
Based on this data, we estimate it will require a total of 24 burden hours (10 hours for an administrator + 10 hours for the director of nursing + 4 hours for an attorney) for each operating organization to develop a compliance and ethics program that complied with the requirements in this final rule at a cost of $2,224 ($1,700 for the administrator and director of nursing + $524 for an attorney). Therefore, we estimate it will require 175,536 annual burden hours (24 burden hours for each operating organization × 7,314 operating organizations) at a cost of $16,266,336 ($2,224 for each operating organization × 7,314 operating organizations) for all facilities to comply with this requirement.
Each operating organization will also need to develop the policies and procedures necessary to implement the operating organization's compliance and ethics program. The burden associated with this requirement will be the resources needed to review and revise any existing policies and procedures and, if needed, develop new policies and procedures. Based on our experience with SNFs and NFs, we expect that the administrator, director of nursing, or perhaps both of these individuals will develop these policies and procedures. We estimate that it will require 10 burden hours for each operating organization to comply with this requirement at a cost of $850 ($85 hourly wage for a health services manager × 10 hours). Therefore, we estimate that for all 7,314 operating organizations to comply with this requirement, it will require 73,140 burden hours (10 burden hours for each operating organization × 7,314 operating organizations) at a cost of $6,216,900 ($850 per operating organization × 7,314 operating organizations).
In addition to developing the compliance and ethics program, each operating organization will be required to develop training materials and/or other publications to disseminate information about the program to its entire staff, individuals providing services under a contractual arrangement, and volunteers, consistent with their expected roles. As stated previously, we believe that facilities are already performing many of the tasks necessary for a compliance program and spending many hours on compliance issues. Thus, we expect that many operating organizations already have some of the materials and/or other publications that will be needed to comply with this requirement. The burden associated with this requirement will be the resources needed to review and revise any existing materials and, if needed, develop new materials to comply with this requirement. Based on our experience with operating organizations, we expect that the compliance liaison (nursing staffs) will be involved in these activities.
We believe that the compliance liaison will need 8 hours to develop these materials. Thus, we estimate it will require 8 burden hours for each operating organization to comply with this requirement at a cost of $488 ($61 hourly wage × 8 hours). Therefore, based on the previous estimate, for all 7,314 operating organizations to comply with this requirement it will require 58,512 burden hours (8 hours × 7,314 operating organizations) at a cost of $3,569,232 ($488 per operating organization × 7,314 operating organizations).
We also proposed in § 483.85(e) that the operating organization for each facility must review its compliance and ethics program annually, and revise its program, as needed. Thus, after LTC facilities develop their compliance and ethics programs, these facilities will need to review and revise their programs, as needed, in the subsequent
We expect that the administrator or the director of nursing, or perhaps both, will be responsible for reviewing this program annually to ensure it was up-to-date and in compliance with all of the relevant federal and state laws, regulations, and other guidance. We expect that to comply with this requirement will require 5 hours from the administrator and 5 hours from the director of nursing for 10 burden hours at a cost of $850 ($85 hourly wage for administrator and director of nursing × 10 hours). Therefore, based on the previous estimate, for all 7,314 facilities to comply with this requirement will require 73,140 burden hours (10 hours × 7,314 operating organizations) at a cost of $6,216,900 ($850 per facility × 7,314 operating organizations).
Based upon the previous estimates, for the first year that this requirement is in effect, it will require 42 burden hours (24 hours for developing the program + 10 hours for developing policies and procedures + 8 hours for developing training materials, publication or both) at a cost of $3,562 ($2,224 for developing the program + $850 for developing policies and procedures + $488 for developing training materials, publication or both) for each operating organization to comply with this requirement. Based on the estimates shown previously in this section, for all 7,314 operating organizations to comply with these requirements it would require 307,188 burden hours (42 hours per operating organization × 7,314 operating organizations) at an estimated cost of $26,052,468 ($3,562 per operating organization × 7,314 operating organizations). For all subsequent years, we estimate to comply with the information collection will annually require 10 burden hours at a cost of $850. For all 7,314 operating organizations, it will require 73,140 (10 hours × 7,314 facilities) burden hours at an estimated cost of $6,216,900 ($850 per operating organization × 7,314 operating organizations).
Each facility is already required to complete a performance review of every NA at least once every 12 months, and must provide in-service education based on the outcome of these reviews. At § 483.95(g)(2) facilities are required to include dementia management and abuse prevention in their regular in-service education for all NAs.
Existing regulations at § 483.75(e)(8)(iii) (relocated to § 483.95 in this final rule) already required that NAs who provide services to individuals with cognitive impairments receive in-service training to address the care of the cognitively impaired. Based on the existing requirements, facilities already conduct training for some NAs on caring for residents who are cognitively impaired. Additionally, the existing requirements at § 483.75(e)(8)(ii) (relocated to § 483.95 in this final rule) stated that NAs must receive in-service training that addresses areas of weakness as determined in their performance reviews and may address the special needs of residents, as determined by the facility staff. Thus NAs receive annual training in dementia management and abuse prevention only if the training is indicated by their performance reviews.
Because this final rule specifically requires facilities to provide dementia management and abuse prevention training to all NAs, each facility will need to review their training procedures and materials to ensure that they are complying with the new requirements. For example, facilities may currently provide the in-service training (as identified from the performance review) utilizing an individual, targeted approach. In this final rule, all NAs are required to receive this training annually, and the facility will need to evaluate whether another format might be more appropriate.
Since we are not increasing the time needed to provide this training, we are not adding additional burden for the staff to train the NAs, since the existing requirements for facilities require them to provide in-service training to all NAs at least once every 12 months. We estimate that the burden associated with complying with this requirement will be a one-time burden due to the resources required to review and, if necessary,
Table 3 below summarizes the estimated annual reporting and recordkeeping burdens for this final rule.
If you comment on these information collection and recordkeeping requirements, please submit your comments to the following:
CMS has not comprehensively reviewed the entire set of requirements for participation imposed on LTC facilities in many years. CMS staff conducted a review of the existing requirements as well as those issues identified by stakeholders as problematic over the years. Accordingly, the revisions to the requirements in this final rule will improve the quality of life, care, and services in facilities and optimize resident safety. In addition, the revisions in this final rule reflect current professional standards and improve the logical flow of the regulations.
We have examined the impacts of this rule as required by Executive Order 12866 on Regulatory Planning and Review (September 30, 1993), Executive Order 13563 on Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review (January 18, 2011), the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (September 19, 1980, Pub. L. 96-354), section 1102(b) of the Social Security Act, section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (March 22, 1995; Pub. L. 104-4), Executive Order 13132 on Federalism (August 4, 1999) and the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 804(2).
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866 defines a “significant regulatory action” as an action that is likely to result in a rule: (1) Having an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more in any 1 year, or adversely and materially affecting a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or state, local or tribal governments or communities (also referred to as “economically significant”); (2) creating a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfering with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) materially altering the budgetary impacts of entitlement grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) raising novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in the Executive Order.
A regulatory impact analysis (RIA) must be prepared for major rules with economically significant effects ($100 million or more in any 1 year). We estimate that this rulemaking is “economically significant” as measured by the $100 million threshold, and hence also a major rule under the Congressional Review Act. Accordingly, we have prepared a RIA that, taken together with COI section and other sections of the preamble, presents to the best of our ability the costs and benefits of the rulemaking.
As discussed previously, we received nearly 10,000 public comments in response to the proposed rule. While many of those comments discussed the overall burden that the proposed requirements will place on facilities, few addressed the specifics of our preliminary regulatory impact analysis. We discuss those specific comments below. When possible, as discussed in our responses, we adjust our final analysis to take into account these comments.
In an effort to acknowledge the concerns raised by commenters and potentially reduce the immediate financial impact that this final rule will impose on facilities, we are finalizing a phased-in implementation of the requirements over 3 years. Readers should refer to Section B. “Implementation” for our discussion of the phased-in implementation deadlines. In response to public comments and in consideration of the burden imposed on facilities, we have also removed or made several revisions in this final rule to increase flexibility and avoid creating unintentional consequences for facilities. Readers should refer to Section III. “Provisions of the Final Regulations” for a detailed discussion of the changes from the proposed rule to the final rule.
As of this final rule, there are about 15,653 SNFs and NFs that are certified by Medicare and Medicaid. We use the number of SNFs and NFs to estimate the potential impacts of the final rule. We have used the same data source for the RIA that we used to develop the PRA burden estimates. As stated in the COI section, we obtained all salary information from the May 2015 National Occupational Employment and Wage Estimates, United States by the BLS at
This final rule will require facilities to review their current practices and make changes to be in compliance with the health and safety standards as set forth in this final rule. However, it is important to note that many of the changes to the requirements are only re-designations of existing requirements that have been imposed on LTC facilities since the implementation of OBRA 87. In these instances, where existing requirements have been relocated to improve the clarity of the regulations, we do not anticipate that facilities will undertake new actions or bear any additional costs in response to the issuance of this regulation. In addition, based on our experience with
We have summarized the anticipated impact that this final rule will have on LTC facilities by regulatory section.
Existing requirements require that a resident, to the extent practicable, participate in the development of his or her care plan and be informed of the need to significantly alter treatment. We believe that the involvement and notification will include an opportunity to see the care plan. Periodic review after development of the care plan is also already required. However, we require a new right for the resident, the right to sign the care plan. The intent is to ensure that the resident, to the extent practicable and consistent with the resident's choices, demonstrates his or her participation in and review of his or her care planning and that participation is evident to care-givers, surveyors, and other interested parties. We estimate that it will take a registered nurse, no more than an additional 2 minutes per resident, to obtain a resident signature. We estimate that this may occur up to four times per year per resident. Based on an estimated 1,369,700 residents per year, the resulting burden will be $11,140,227 for all LTC facilitys. ($61 hourly wage for a nurse × (2/60) hour per occurrence × 1,369,700 residents × 4 occurrences per year).
In this final rule, we require facilities to inform the resident if the facility determines that the physician chosen by the resident is unable or unwilling to comply with regulatory requirements, discuss alternatives, and honor the resident's preferences. Under existing requirements, the facility is already required to ensure that the resident is informed of the name, specialty, and way of contacting the physician responsible for his or her care. We have no basis to quantify how often this occurs or how often a facility will need to obtain an alternate provider. We believe that these conversations will be accomplished, and in most cases already occur, in the course of routine communication between a resident and caregivers. Thus, we do not believe this creates any new burden.
We specify that if a resident requests an item or service for which the facility will charge, the facility must inform the resident both orally and in writing of the charge. Existing provisions require that facilities only “inform” the resident. We expect that “informing” has typically been accomplished orally; therefore the additional cost to facilities is associated with providing the written information at the time the oral information is given. We anticipate that this written information will most often be in the form of a list of standard charges for frequently requested items and the cost will be the cost of photocopying or printing the list. In infrequent cases, an individualized cost page may be needed. We estimate that a facility will spend no more than $50 per year on average to print the notices. We estimate the cost of a notice to be $0.10/page (based on the per page photocopying cost established at 45 CFR 5.43(c) for FOIA requests) with no more than 500 notices required per facility per year for a total estimated cost of $782,650 ($50 printing cost × 15,653 facilities) annually for all facilities.
Section 483.10(g)(9) requires that a resident has the right to reasonable access and privacy for electronic communications such as email and video communications and internet research. This provision does not require that the facility provide internet access to any greater extent than the facility already has internet access (that is, a facility that has no internet access due to logistical deterrents is not required to overcome those obstacles based on this requirement) and the facility is allowed to transfer any additional expense to the resident if any additional expense is incurred. The facility is not obligated to provide each resident an individual means of access (that is, a personal computer or tablet). A community computer with associated rules for sharing, such as is commonly done in public libraries, may be an appropriate model. While we allow the facility to pass additional costs to the resident, we anticipate that some facilities may incur an initial hardware cost that is not attributable to an individual resident. In addition, we expect there will be minimal ongoing maintenance/replacement costs for the shared devices. We do not believe this requirement will add to the supervision burden for facility staff, as appropriate resident supervision is already required,
Facilities are currently required to provide a designated staff person to participate in resident and family groups. The revised requirement adds that the designated staff person must be approved by the resident or family group. We anticipate that the DoN will select a representative and obtain group agreement by providing a name or names to the group and the group will respond. We estimate that this will generally consume no more than an additional 15 minutes of the DoNs time in most cases. We believe some facilities already have such mutually agreed upon representatives. However, for we estimate that this additional requirement will cost facilities $332,626 ((.25 (15 minutes) × $85 (hourly wage for DoN)) × 15,653 LTC facilities).
We are finalizing provisions that will require facilities to review and update their existing notices of rights and services and inform residents of these updates. First, at § 483.10(f)(4)(vi)), we are finalizing our provision to require facilities to inform each resident of their visitation rights. Second, at § 483.10(g)(5) we have added additional state regulatory and information agencies that facilities must post the contact information for to be available to residents.
When assessing the burden of these requirements we make a few assumptions. First, we believe that notices regarding facility practices are periodically reviewed and updated as a standard business practice. In addition, we believe that a facility's visitation policy is already addressed in their notices of rights and services that must be provided to a resident regarding the rules and regulations that govern resident conduct and responsibilities during their stay in the facility.
Based on these assumptions, we expect that facilities will need to review and update their notices of rights and services on a one-time basis to specifically include the new visitation requirements, additional contact information, and grievance requirements. We believe that an office assistant may be tasked with updating the notices and distributing or posting, as appropriate, the updated information. We estimate that it will require an office assistant no more than 1 hour to make any necessary updates the notice at a total one-time cost to facilities of $485,243 (1 burden hours × $31 (hourly wage of office assistant) × 15,653 LTC facilities).
Current regulations facilities to provide notice to a resident of their Medicaid eligibility. We have revised the requirement so that those residents who are not eligible for Medicaid at admission will receive an additional notice when they do become eligible. This means some residents will require both a notice at admission and a second notice. As the notice of Medicaid eligibility is already required once, the new cost is associated with providing the notice an additional time. We anticipate that this will affect only a subset of residents (those eligible but not yet receiving Medicaid). Thus, based on a data analysis by AHCA, approximately 64 percent of LTC facility residents are already Medicaid recipients (that is, Medicaid is the payor of record), 14 percent are covered by Medicare, and 22 percent have another payor. Of those, only the 36 percent who are not receiving Medicaid may require the second notice of Medicaid eligibility. We assume that a portion of those will require ongoing care and become eligible for Medicaid. We also assume that some of those residents will apply for Medicaid at or shortly after admission or as a result of the first notice and not require the second notice. Based on these assumptions, we estimate that 20 percent of LTC facility residents (slightly more than half of those not already receiving Medicaid) will actually require a second notice of Medicaid eligibility. We anticipate that a social worker will track a resident's status of Medicaid eligibility and provide the notice. In the proposed rule, we estimated that it would take a social worker 3 minutes per resident to provide the notice. Based on public comments, for the final rule analysis we have added an additional 2 minutes to allow for proper communication, for a total of 5 minutes per resident. We estimate that it will cost $3.92 per resident who requires the additional notice or $1,072,932 to provide these notices to the applicable residents across all 15,653 facilities (($47 hourly wage for social worker × (5/60) of an hour) × (.20 estimate percent of all LTC facility residents who will require a second notice × 1,369,700 LTC facility residents)). We note that the actual per facility cost will vary significantly according to facility size and resident mix.
We are finalizing our proposal to require facilities to establish a grievance policy and identify a grievance official who is responsible for overseeing the grievance process. Existing regulations provide residents with the right to voice grievances without discrimination or reprisal and require facilities to promptly resolve grievance. Based on these existing regulations, we expect that most facilities already have process for residents to file a grievance and a process in which they will investigate and respond. Therefore, the cost associated with establishing a grievance policy will be associated with designating an individual as the grievance official who is responsible for overseeing the grievance process. We do not specify who has to be the grievance official, but for purposes of estimating the cost we believe that an average facility will designate a social worker to be the grievance official and that individual will need to commit about 10 percent of a FTE to his or her responsibilities for overseeing the grievance process. We estimate that this will cost $153,023,728 for all LTC facilities to comply with requirement (10 percent of a social worker FTE × $47 hourly wage for a social worker × 2,080 hours (40 hours a week × 52 weeks = 2,080 hours) × 15,653 facilities).
Existing regulations require facilities to notify the resident and a representative of the resident before a facility transfers or discharges the resident. These final regulations add that a facility must also send notice to the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman. The notice is already created for the resident; this requirement poses an additional burden of printing a copy of the notice and sending it to the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman or, if a
We are finalizing our proposal to add a requirement for facilities to update a transfer notice if the information changes and provide the updated information to the recipients of the notice as soon as practicable once the updated information is available. We believe that updates regarding any changes are already occurring in facilities informally. Based on this assumption we estimate that updating the notice and providing it to the resident will require a social worker an additional 5 minutes per notice. In addition, we believe that this requirement will apply primarily to residents who are involuntarily discharged from the facility and does not include residents who request the transfer or who are transferred on an emergency basis to an acute care facility. We estimate this notice may need to be updated once for up to one third of LTC facility residents who are transferred. The resulting cost is $1,609,398 (($47 hourly wage for a social worker × (5/60) of an hour) × (.3 percent of nursing facility residents × 1,369,700 nursing facility residents)) for all facilities. We note that the per-facility cost will vary significantly according to facility size and number of transfers out of each facility.
We are finalizing our proposal to require that a nurse aide and member of nutrition services participate on the IDT. We note that based on concerns raised by commenters, we have removed our requirement for a social worker to participate on the IDT. We believe that this requirement will add to the current duties of each of these staff members and therefore would be a new economic cost to each facility. Communications about the status of a resident are a part of standard job duties. We envision that these staff members are already regularly discussing resident's needs and their plans of care. When assessing the amount of burden associated with this requirement, we believe that this requirement will produce an incremental increase in the staff time necessary to participate on the IDT. In addition, we do not specify the type of communication the IDT must use. IDT members may use electronic communication as well as informal discussions to participate in IDT meetings. We estimate that participation on the IDT will add an additional one hour of staff time to the duties of a NA and member of food services. While we do not require that a dietitian participate on the IDT, for purposes of estimating the cost we use the salary of a dietitian to represent the participation of a member of food services. We estimate that this requirement will cost $65,116,480 for all LTC facilities (($25 NA hourly wage + $55 dietitian hourly wage) × 52 hours (1hour per week × 52 weeks) × 15,653 facilities).
We require that, for residents who are transferred to another SNF or who are discharged to a HHA, IRF, or LTCH, facilities assist residents and their resident representatives in selecting a post-acute care provider by using data that includes, but is not limited to SNF, HHA, IRF, or LTCH standardized patient assessment data, data on quality measures, and data on resource use. The facility also must ensure that the post-acute care standardized patient assessment data, data on quality measures, and data on resource use is relevant and applicable to the resident's goals of care and treatment preferences. We believe that a social worker will be responsible for compiling the standardized data, reviewing the resident's preferences/goals, and pulling data that applies to these preferences/goals. We estimate that it will take a social worker approximately one hour of staff time to compile and review the data in order to align the data with each resident's preferences/goals. This staff time will only be required for those residents who are transferred to another SNF or discharged from the LTC facility. We are unable to determine the average number of residents who are transferred to another SNF or discharged from a LTC facility annually. We believe that a conservative estimate is that if there are an estimated 1,369,700 residents per year in LTC facilities, possibly a third of these residents are discharged or transferred to another SNF on an annual basis. Therefore, we estimate that this requirement will cost $21,244,047 ($47 social worker hourly wage × 1 hour staff time × 452,001 residents discharged or transferred to another SNF annually).
We are finalizing our proposal to require facilities to ensure that licensed nurses have the specific competencies and skill sets necessary to care for residents' needs, as identified through resident assessments and care plans. This will require facilities to identify, document, and maintain any training, certification, and similar records in an existing personnel file or training record for direct care personnel. This specifically includes nursing services and food and nutrition services but may apply to any direct care provider. We anticipate that any initial competency requirements will be identified by the facility assessment with documentation of individual accomplishments managed by an administrative position, likely an office assistant, as an addition to existing documentation. We believe that this will impose an incremental burden of 8 hours per year per facility to identify and add the additional information to existing files (paper or electronic). We estimate that this requirement will cost $3,881,944 for all LTC facilities ($31 office assistant hourly wage × 8 hours per facility × 15,653 facilities).
We are finalizing our provision to establish requirements for directors of food and nutrition services hired before or after the effective date of these requirements. We require that the director of food and nutrition services be certified as a certified dietary manager, certified food service manager or similar national certification for food service management and safety from a national certifying body; or has an
We are finalizing our proposal to require facilities to have menus that reflect the cultural and ethnic needs of residents. We expect that facilities will have their menus updated by a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional in the course of routine reviews and updates. Additional time will include the dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional reviewing the facility assessment for pertinent factors and reviewing and updating the menus. We anticipate this will require 1 to 4 hours, on average 2 hours, depending on the size of the facility and complexity of resident needs. Based on this information, we estimate that it will cost $1,721,830 ($56 dietitian hourly wage × 2 hours × 15,653 facilities) for all LTC facilities to comply with this requirement.
We are finalizing the requirement for facilities to develop a QAPI program. In addition to the QAPI requirement related ICR costs discussed in the COI section, we expect that facilities will incur additional costs that will be dependent upon the projects they selected for their quality improvement activities. In turn, the projects will be dependent upon resident needs, and the type, complexity, and quality of services already provided by the facility. Facilities have the flexibility to determine their quality performance improvement activities based on their assessment of needs of their residents and their prioritized performance improvement projects. For example, a facility that chose, as one of its projects, to improve residents' nutritional status and satisfaction with the facility's food services could incur costs for higher quality, more palatable food. A facility that chose, as one of its projects, to improve nurse aides' interactions with residents suffering from dementia could incur costs for nurse aide training and/or additional nurse aide staffing. A facility that chose, as one of its projects, to improve residents' psychosocial well-being could incur costs for conversion of double rooms to single rooms, and additional social worker, and/or increased social activities for residents. Because the number, degree, and costs of these activities are difficult, if not impossible, to quantify, we have calculated only the cost of the QAPI ICRs ($125,474,448 upfront) that will be associated with the QAPI requirements (discussed in the COI section of the preamble). We estimate that the ongoing annual cost for each facility to comply with the QAPI requirements will be $3,204 for each facility and for all facilities will be $50,152,212 ($3,204 × 15,653). (This discussion is detailed in the COI section.)
Facilities and their staffs are currently required to have an infection control program (§ 483.65). In this final rule, we have modified our proposal to require each facility to designate one individual as the infection preventionist (IP) for whom the infection prevention and control program (IPCP) is a major responsibility. We have revised the requirement to specify that each facility may designate more than one person as the IP and the IPCP no longer has to be a major responsibility of the individual(s). The IP is responsible for assessing the current program, making any changes to the IPCP necessary to comply with the program's requirements, and implementing and managing the IPCP. This individual will also be required to be a member of the facility's QAA committee. The percentage of a full time equivalent position (FTE) that will be required at each facility will vary greatly. We believe that each facility will have to determine the appropriate percentage based upon it facility assessment, especially its assessment of the acuity of its resident population. A facility with a generally healthy population of elderly individual will likely require many fewer hours than a facility with a large percentage of sub-acute residents or residents that are on ventilators. For the purposes of determining an estimate, we believe that the average facility will designate a RN to be the IP and that individual will need to commit about 15 percent of a FTE to his or her responsibilities under the IPCP. We estimate that this will require 15 percent of one RN FTE for each of the 15,653 facilities for a total cost of $297,907,896 (15% of an RN FTE × $61 average hourly wage for an RN × 2,080 hours (40 hours a week × 52 weeks = 2,080 hours) × 15,653 facilities).
We are finalizing our proposal to require facilities to develop a compliance and ethics program. As discussed in the COI section, we estimate the ICR burden associated with developing this program to be $26,052,468. We estimate that in carrying out this program the compliance officer (similar to an administrator) in each of the 395 organizations operating 5 or more facilities will commit 30 percent of a full time equivalent (FTE) in the compliance program operation, for a total cost of $20,950,800 (30% of FTE × 2080 × $85 × 395). We also estimate that in carrying out this program the compliance liaison (nursing staffs) in each of 6,919 facilities will commit 10 percent of an FTE, at a total cost of $87,788,272 (10% of FTE × 2080 × $61 × 6,919).
As detailed in the COI section, facilities are required to review their compliance and ethics program annually. Therefore, for subsequent years we estimate to comply with the ICR requirement to review and, if necessary, revise the operating organization's program annually will cost an estimated $6,216,900.
For facilities that receive approval of construction or reconstruction plans by state and local authorities or are newly certified or undergoing reconstruction after the effective date of this final rule, we are finalizing our proposal to require
In this final rule, we have removed our proposal to require that for resident rooms newly constructed or undergoing reconstruction, each room must have its own bathroom equipped with at least a commode, sink and shower. We have revised the proposal to require that for newly constructed or newly certified facilities, each bathroom must be equipped with at least a commode and sink. A review of CASPER data on the number of new providers per fiscal year from 2008 to 2013 reveals an annually declining number of new facilities, down from 225 new providers in 2008 to 172 in 2012, with only 144 new providers as of August 2013. Of those, the majority were for-profit facilities of 99 beds or less. We further note the overall number of facilities has also declined slightly (by less than 2 percent) but steadily over the same period. In addition, several states require direct access and limit the number of rooms or residents who may be served by a toilet, lavatory (sink), and/or shower or bath. Given the decline in new facilities and the impact of state regulation, we estimate that this provision will impact fewer than 150 providers per year. While we are aware that ensuring each resident bedroom has an adjacent bathroom may increase construction costs, we were unable to find data regarding neither the number of facilities that do not currently have bathrooms adjacent to each resident room nor the incremental cost of adding bathrooms adjacent to each resident room in new construction.
We are finalizing our proposal to require facilities to develop and/or update training materials to include topics on communication, resident rights, facility obligations, abuse, neglect, exploitation, infection control, and its QAPI program. We require that these training topics be provided for all new and existing staff; individuals providing services under a contractual arrangement; and volunteers, consistent with their expected roles and that they be able to demonstrate competency in these topic areas. We also expect each facility to keep a record of these trainings. To reduce regulatory burden and create a reasonable requirement we have not specified the amount or types of training that a facility must provide. There are various free online training tools and resources that facilities can use to assist them in complying with this requirement. For example, the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) released a set of training modules to help educate LTC facility staff on key patient safety concepts to improve the safety of LTC facility residents (
Based on our experience with facilities, we expect that all facilities have some type of training program. However, we expect that each facility will need to compare their training programs to their facilities assessments as required at § 483.70(e) and ensure they cover the above training topics. We expect that complying with this requirement will require the involvement of a RN and the infection control and prevention officer (ICPO). We expect that a RN will spend more time reviewing, revising and/or developing new sections for the training program. The IP will need to weigh in on the infection control training related topics. We estimate that it will require 8 (6 for the RN ($61/hour) and 2 for the IP ($61/hour)) burden hours for each facility to develop a training program at a cost of $488. Thus, for all facilities to comply, it will cost an estimated $7,638,664 ($488 estimated cost for each facility × 15,653 facilities). We believe that the training will be considered part of regular ongoing training for the staff of each facility.
We require that SNF and NF operating organizations include as part of their compliance and ethics program an effective way to communicate their program's standards, policies, and procedures. We believe that all operating organizations would need to develop training materials and/or other publications to comply with the training requirement. This regulation requires higher standards for organizations operating 5 or more facilities, therefore for the purposes of the RIA our cost estimates differentiate by organization size. We estimate that training staff in organizations operating 1 to 4 facilities will mainly require the duties of a RN at a cost of $900,740 for all 7,765 facilities (6,621 single facilities operating organizations + 1,144 facilities in operating organizations with 2 to 4 facilities = 7,765 facilities) × 2 hours × $61 average hourly wage for a RN = $900,740). For the training in operating organizations with 1 to 4 facilities, we expect that operating organizations will be able to minimize these training costs by including the training on their compliance and ethics program with any current trainings or in-services that they already conduct for their staff. In addition, these facilities could also include this information in publication, print or electronic, that are available to their staff.
We estimate that training staff in organizations operating five or more facilities will require 2 hours of time of a compliance officer (similar to an administrator) conducting the training at the organizational level (387 organizations) at a cost of $61,920 (387 × 2 × $85 = $61,920) and 2 hours of time of a compliance liaison (similar to an RN) at the facility level (7,879 facilities × 2 × $61 = $913,964), for a total cost of $975,884 ($61,920 + $913,964 = $975,884).
This final rule will implement section 6121 of the Affordable Care Act which requires dementia management and abuse prevention training to be included in the current mandatory on-going training requirements for nurse aides. In addition, we have also extended this requirement to all direct care staff. Facilities will have the flexibility to determine the length of the training and the format of the training. Since we have
We are finalizing our requirement for facilities to conduct and document a facility-wide assessment to determine what resources are necessary to care for its residents competently during both day-to-day operations and emergencies. LTC facilities must already determine and plan for what staffing they will need, as well as the other resources that will be required to care for their residents and operate their facilities. Thus, we believe that conducting and documenting a facility assessment is a standard business practice and do not include a burden for this requirement in the impact analysis.
We estimate the total projected cost of this final rule will be about $831 million in the first year and $736 million per year for subsequent years. While this is a large amount in total, the average cost per facility is estimated to be approximately $62,900 in the first year and $55,000 in subsequent years. Although the overall magnitude of cost related to this regulation is economically significant, we note that these costs are significantly less than the amount of Medicare and Medicaid spending for LTC services. According to the 2015 Annual Report of the Medicare Trustees, payments for SNF services from Medicare Part A were $29.92 billion for fiscal year 2015 and payments for NF services were $50.6 billion for fiscal year 2013 (see
As a result of this final rule, CMS will update the interpretive guidance, update the survey process, and make IT systems changes. We anticipate the majority of the system costs will be incurred between FY17 and FY18. In order to implement these new standards, we anticipate initial federal start-up costs between $15 and $20 million. Once implemented, improved surveys to review the new requirements will require an estimated $15 to $20 million annually in federal costs.
This final rule will implement comprehensive changes intended to update the current requirements for LTC facilities and create new efficiencies and flexibilities for facilities. In addition, these changes will support improved resident quality of life and quality of care. Quality of life in particular can be difficult to translate into dollars saved. However, there is a body of evidence suggesting the factors that improve quality of life may also increase the rate of improvement in quality and can have positive business benefits for facilities. Many of the quality of life improvements changes in this final rule are grounded in the concepts of person-centered care and culture change. These changes not only result in improved quality of life for the resident, they can result in improvements in the caregiver's quality of work life and in savings to the facility. Savings can be accrued through reduced turnover, decreased use of agency labor and decreased worker compensation costs. Although these savings are difficult to
In addition to finalizing changes that are likely to have long-term positive impacts on quality of life and quality of care, we have finalized several changes that may mitigate the costs associated with implementing some of our requirements. For example, including the use of electronic health records in these regulations may reduce the burden on facilities when providing a resident with a copy of his or her clinical record. We believe that the option to provide an electronic copy of the record may reduce the amount of time a staff person is taken away from other duties to copy the medical records. To increase access and reduce burden, this final rule allows physicians to delegate to a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional the task of prescribing diet, including therapeutic diets, to the extent allowed by state law. We do not currently have data to estimate the savings that this will produce in SNFs and NFs, however we believe that it will allow for better use of both physician and dietitian time. Likewise, we also allow physicians to delegate to qualified therapists the task of prescribing physical, occupational, speech language, or respiratory therapies, but as with dietitians, we have no empirical evidence with which to quantify a cost savings. Again, however, we believe that this allows better use of both physician and therapist time.
With respect to dental services, we modified the language relating to dental services to remove references to a dentist's office and replace these references to `dental services location.' This more explicitly accommodates options for dental care such as dental schools or provision of dental hygiene services on site at a facility. Based on the literature we reviewed, improved dental health as a result of improved access to dental care is highly likely to result in improved health and well-being of facility residents, including potentially fewer hospitalizations and less unanticipated weight loss. We have no definitive data on the direct reduction in hospitalizations and other complications stemming from or exacerbated by poor dental care and poor dental hygiene, but given the relationship of poor dental care and poor dental hygiene to other illnesses, savings are quite possible.
We have also made a number of changes in the area of food and nutrition services. These changes are expected to have multiple impacts, ranging from the improved nutritional status of residents to reduced food waste by the facility, to reductions in the incidence of food-borne illness. In FY 2012, there were over 9,000 deficiency citations associated with food and nutrition services. The most commonly cited deficiency in this grouping was, by far, associated with food sanitation. Out of 6,828 surveys, there were 5,490 citations for deficiencies in food procurement, storage, preparation, and service-sanitary, affecting 31.80 percent of providers. The improvements in food and nutrition services from this final rule have the potential to improve resident quality of life while also resulting in a reduced incidence of food-borne illness.
We have also finalized revisions to strengthen requirements related to infection control. While a reduction in the incidence of healthcare associated infections will likely impact hospitalization of residents, as discussed below, it will also impact the care required for residents who remain in the facility. An effective infection prevention and control program can, among other benefits, identify infections early and prevent their spread. Several illness-causing organisms are of particular concern in LTC facilities. For example, Norovirus may cause illness following a very low infection dose. The illness is characterized by nausea, sudden onset of projectile vomiting (particularly in children), watery, non-bloody diarrhea, abdominal cramping, chills, body aches and fatigue. Dehydration is a common complication, especially in the elderly. The illness usually lasts 2 to 3 days. Outbreaks can impact residents and/or staff and cause significant inconvenience and cost. (Overview of the management of norovirus outbreaks in hospitals and nursing homes, compiled by the Wisconsin Division of Public Health, Bureau of Communicable Diseases, Communicable Disease Epidemiology Section, February 2004. Retrieved from
We note that the revisions in this final rule also target reducing avoidable or unnecessary hospitalizations. We are finalizing revisions regarding improved communication of critical information, competency-based care assignments, training, and systemic quality improvement. We believe that even a small reduction in the number of unnecessary hospitalizations could result in substantial savings.
Overall, we believe that this final rule will address a number of the shortcomings of the existing LTC requirements identified by stakeholders and experts. Unfortunately, without a predicted change in behavior or outcomes, we are unable to quantify the benefits of the final rule.
As discussed previously, some of these provisions are mandated under the Affordable Care Act and the IMPACT Act, therefore, no major alternatives were considered. We could have finalized only those requirements that are required by statute, which would be a less burdensome approach on the LTC community. However despite the many changes in the delivery of health care services, the requirements for LTC care facilities have not been comprehensively updated in many years and our revisions address several issues, such as avoidable hospitalizations, staffing concerns, infection control, and behavioral health. In addition, we believe that it is necessary to modernize the regulations to reflect advances such as electronic communications and health information technology. Overall, we believe that finalizing a general reorganization and comprehensive revision will ensure that the requirements are consistent with current standards of practice and continue to meet statutory obligations, while also assisting individuals who are less familiar with these regulations to find information within the requirements. Therefore, we determined
We considered alternatives to competency-based staffing requirement and looked closely at suggestions from commenters to establish and require minimum staffing levels and a RN 24 hours a day, 7 days a week in the nursing facility. We have begun voluntary payroll-based collection of staffing information from LTC facilities, and are preparing to begin mandatory collection of payroll-based staffing information from LTC facilities. The staff covered includes registered nurses, licensed practical or vocational nurses, certified nursing assistants, or other types of medical personnel as specified by CMS, along with census data, data on agency and contract staff, and information on turnover, tenure and hours of care provided by each category of staff per resident day. Ultimately, we believe this information, once a sufficient amount is collected and analyzed, could greatly assist us in re-evaluating this issue and have decided not to pursue staffing minimums at this time. We also considered modifying, rather than removing, our proposal to require an in-person evaluation by a physician before a resident is transferred to a hospital by indicating that a RN, in consultation with a physician, could perform the evaluation. However, based on the concerns raised by commenters regarding access to physicians and emergency situations, we determined it was best to withdraw the proposal.
For all provisions, we extensively reviewed the public comments and made revisions where possible to improve readability, provide clarity, increase flexibility, and reduce burden by avoiding any unnecessarily costly requirements.
As required by OMB Circular A-4 (available at
The RFA requires agencies to analyze options for regulatory relief of small entities, if a rule has a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. For purposes of the RFA, we estimate that most LTC facilities are small entities as that term is used in the RFA (include small businesses, nonprofit organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions). The great majority of nursing and residential care facilities are small entities; either by being nonprofit organizations or by meeting the Small Business Administration's (SBA) definition of a small business having revenues of less than $25.5 million in any 1 year (see the SBA's Web site at
In addition, section 1102(b) of the Act requires us to prepare a regulatory impact analysis if a rule may have a significant impact on the operations of a substantial number of small rural hospitals. This analysis must conform to the provisions of section 603 of the RFA. For purposes of section 1102(b) of the Act, we define a small rural hospital as a hospital that is located outside of a metropolitan statistical area and has fewer than 100 beds. This final rule pertains solely to SNFs and NFs. Therefore, the Secretary has determined that this final rule will not have a significant impact on the operations of a substantial number of small rural hospitals.
Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) also requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule whose mandates require spending in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. In 2016, that is approximately $146 million. This final rule contains mandates that will impose a one-time cost of about $831 million. Thus, we have assessed the various costs and benefits of this final rule. This final rule will not mandate any new requirements for state, local or tribal governments. For the private sector facilities, the regulatory impact section, together with the remainder of the preamble, constitutes the analysis required under UMRA.
Executive Order 13132 establishes certain requirements that an agency must meet when it promulgates a final rule) that imposes substantial direct requirement costs on state and local governments, preempts state law, or otherwise has Federalism implications. We have determined that this final rule does not contain policies that have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the National Government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Accordingly, we have concluded that the rule does not contain policies that have Federalism implications as defined in the Executive Order 13132 and, consequently, a Federalism summary impact statement is not required.
This final regulation is subject to the Congressional Review Act provisions of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (5 U.S.C. 801
The requirements in this final rule will update the existing requirements for long-term care facilities to reflect current standards of practice. In addition, the revisions will provide added flexibility to providers, potentially improve efficiency and effectiveness, potentially enhance resident quality of care and quality of life, and potentially improve clinical outcomes. The analysis above, together with the remainder of this preamble, provides a Regulatory Impact Analysis.
In accordance with the provisions of Executive Order 12866, this regulation was reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
Administrative practice and procedure, Health facilities, Health professions, Kidney diseases, Medical devices, Medicare, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Rural areas, X-rays.
Grant programs—health, Health facilities, Medicaid, Privacy, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accounting, Administrative practice and procedure, Drugs, Grant programs—health, Health facilities, Health professions, Medicaid, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Rural areas.
Grant programs—health, Hospitals, Medicaid, Medicare, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Grant programs—health, Health facilities, Health professions, Health records, Medicaid, Medicare, Nursing homes, Nutrition, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Safety.
Grant programs—health, Health facilities, Medicaid, Medicare, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Health facilities, Medicare, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Health facilities, Medicare, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services amends 42 CFR chapter IV as set forth below:
Secs. 205(a), 1102, 1861, 1862(a), 1869, 1871, 1874, 1881, and 1886(k) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 405(a), 1302, 1395x, 1395y(a), 1395ff, 1395hh, 1395kk, 1395rr and 1395ww(k)), and sec. 353 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 263a).
Sec. 1102 of the Social Security Act, (42 U.S.C. 1302).
Sec. 1102 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1302).
Secs. 1102, 1871 and 1881 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1302, 1395hh, and 1395rr), unless otherwise noted.
(b) * * *
(1) Resident rights (§ 483.10(a)(4)(iv), (b), (c), (d)(1), (d)(3), (e)(8), (g), (f)(4)(i), (f)(4)(iii), (f)(9), (h)(2), and (h)(3) of this chapter).
(2) Admission, transfer, and discharge rights (§ 483.15(c), § 483.15(c)(1), (c)(2), (c)(3)(i) through (iii), (c)(4), (c)(5)(i) through (vii), and (c)(7) of this chapter).
(3) Freedom from abuse, neglect and exploitation (§ 483.12 of this chapter).
(4) Patient activities (§ 483.24(c) of this chapter).
(5) Social services (§ 483.40(d) and § 483.70(p) of this chapter).
(6) Discharge planning (§ 483.21 of this chapter).
(7) Specialized rehabilitative services (§ 483.65 of this chapter).
(8) Dental services (§ 483.55 of this chapter).
Secs. 1102, 1128I and 1871 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1302, 1320a-7j, and 1395hh.
(a) * * *
(1) Sections 1819(a), (b), (c), (d), and (f) of the Act provide that—
(3) Sections 1919(a), (b), (c), (d), and (f) of the Act provide that nursing facilities participating in Medicaid must meet certain specific requirements.
(4) Sections 1128I(b) and (c) require that—
(i) Skilled nursing facilities or nursing facility have in operation a compliance and ethics program that is effective in preventing and detecting criminal, civil, and administrative violations.
(ii) The Secretary establish and implement a quality assurance and performance improvement program for facilities, including multi-unit chains of facilities.
(5) Section 1150B establishes requirements for reporting to law enforcement crimes occurring in federally funded LTC facilities.
(b)
The revisions and additions read as follows:
As used in this subpart, the following definitions apply:
Composite distinct part. * * *
(2) * * *
(v) Use of composite distinct parts to segregate residents by payment source or on a basis other than care needs is prohibited.
(1) An individual chosen by the resident to act on behalf of the resident in order to support the resident in decision-making; access medical, social or other personal information of the resident; manage financial matters; or receive notifications;
(2) A person authorized by State or Federal law (including but not limited to agents under power of attorney, representative payees, and other fiduciaries) to act on behalf of the resident in order to support the resident in decision-making; access medical, social or other personal information of the resident; manage financial matters; or receive notifications;
(3) Legal representative, as used in section 712 of the Older Americans Act; or.
(4) The court-appointed guardian or conservator of a resident.
(5) Nothing in this rule is intended to expand the scope of authority of any resident representative beyond that authority specifically authorized by the resident, State or Federal law, or a court of competent jurisdiction.
(a)
(1) A facility must treat each resident with respect and dignity and care for each resident in a manner and in an environment that promotes maintenance or enhancement of his or her quality of life, recognizing each resident's individuality. The facility must protect and promote the rights of the resident.
(2) The facility must provide equal access to quality care regardless of diagnosis, severity of condition, or payment source. A facility must establish and maintain identical policies and practices regarding transfer, discharge, and the provision of services under the State plan for all residents regardless of payment source.
(b)
(1) The facility must ensure that the resident can exercise his or her rights without interference, coercion, discrimination, or reprisal from the facility
(2) The resident has the right to be free of interference, coercion, discrimination, and reprisal from the facility in exercising his or her rights and to be supported by the facility in the exercise of his or her rights as required under this subpart.
(3) In the case of a resident who has not been adjudged incompetent by the state court, the resident has the right to designate a representative, in accordance with State law and any legal surrogate so designated may exercise the resident's rights to the extent provided by state law. The same-sex spouse of a resident must be afforded treatment equal to that afforded to an opposite-sex spouse if the marriage was valid in the jurisdiction in which it was celebrated.
(i) The resident representative has the right to exercise the resident's rights to the extent those rights are delegated to the resident representative.
(ii) The resident retains the right to exercise those rights not delegated to a resident representative, including the right to revoke a delegation of rights, except as limited by State law.
(4) The facility must treat the decisions of a resident representative as the decisions of the resident to the extent required by the court or delegated by the resident, in accordance with applicable law.
(5) The facility shall not extend the resident representative the right to make decisions on behalf of the resident beyond the extent required by the court or delegated by the resident, in accordance with applicable law.
(6) If the facility has reason to believe that a resident representative is making decisions or taking actions that are not in the best interests of a resident, the facility shall report such concerns in the manner required under State law.
(7) In the case of a resident adjudged incompetent under the laws of a State by a court of competent jurisdiction, the rights of the resident devolve to and are exercised by the resident representative appointed under State law to act on the resident's behalf. The court-appointed resident representative exercises the resident's rights to the extent judged necessary by a court of competent jurisdiction, in accordance with State law
(i) In the case of a resident representative whose decision-making authority is limited by State law or court appointment, the resident retains the right to make those decision outside the representative's authority.
(ii) The resident's wishes and preferences must be considered in the exercise of rights by the representative.
(iii) To the extent practicable, the resident must be provided with opportunities to participate in the care planning process.
(c)
(1) The right to be fully informed in language that he or she can understand of his or her total health status, including but not limited to, his or her medical condition.
(2) The right to participate in the development and implementation of his or her person-centered plan of care, including but not limited to:
(i) The right to participate in the planning process, including the right to identify individuals or roles to be included in the planning process, the right to request meetings and the right to request revisions to the person-centered plan of care.
(ii) The right to participate in establishing the expected goals and outcomes of care, the type, amount, frequency, and duration of care, and any other factors related to the effectiveness of the plan of care.
(iii) The right to be informed, in advance, of changes to the plan of care.
(iv) The right to receive the services and/or items included in the plan of care.
(v) The right to see the care plan, including the right to sign after significant changes to the plan of care.
(3) The facility shall inform the resident of the right to participate in his or her treatment and shall support the resident in this right. The planning process must—
(i) Facilitate the inclusion of the resident and/or resident representative.
(ii) Include an assessment of the resident's strengths and needs.
(iii) Incorporate the resident's personal and cultural preferences in developing goals of care.
(4) The right to be informed, in advance, of the care to be furnished and the type of care giver or professional that will furnish care.
(5) The right to be informed in advance, by the physician or other practitioner or professional, of the risks and benefits of proposed care, of treatment and treatment alternatives or treatment options and to choose the alternative or option he or she prefers.
(6) The right to request, refuse, and/or discontinue treatment, to participate in or refuse to participate in experimental research, and to formulate an advance directive.
(7) The right to self-administer medications if the interdisciplinary team, as defined by § 483.21(b)(2)(ii), has determined that this practice is clinically appropriate.
(8) Nothing in this paragraph should be construed as the right of the resident to receive the provision of medical treatment or medical services deemed medically unnecessary or inappropriate.
(d)
(1) The physician must be licensed to practice, and
(2) If the physician chosen by the resident refuses to or does not meet requirements specified in this part, the facility may seek alternate physician participation as specified in paragraphs (d)(4) and (5) of this section to assure provision of appropriate and adequate care and treatment.
(3) The facility must ensure that each resident remains informed of the name, specialty, and way of contacting the physician and other primary care professionals responsible for his or her care.
(4) The facility must inform the resident if the facility determines that the physician chosen by the resident is unable or unwilling to meet
(5) If the resident subsequently selects another attending physician who meets the requirements specified in this part, the facility must honor that choice.
(e)
(1) The right to be free from any physical or chemical restraints imposed for purposes of discipline or convenience, and not required to treat the resident's medical symptoms, consistent with § 483.12(a)(2).
(2) The right to retain and use personal possessions, including furnishings, and clothing, as space permits, unless to do so would infringe upon the rights or health and safety of other residents.
(3) The right to reside and receive services in the facility with reasonable accommodation of resident needs and preferences except when to do so would endanger the health or safety of the resident or other residents.
(4) The right to share a room with his or her spouse when married residents live in the same facility and both spouses consent to the arrangement.
(5) The right to share a room with his or her roommate of choice when practicable, when both residents live in the same facility and both residents consent to the arrangement.
(6) The right to receive written notice, including the reason for the change, before the resident's room or roommate in the facility is changed.
(7) The right to refuse to transfer to another room in the facility, if the purpose of the transfer is:
(i) To relocate a resident of a SNF from the distinct part of the institution that is a SNF to a part of the institution that is not a SNF, or
(ii) to relocate a resident of a NF from the distinct part of the institution that is a NF to a distinct part of the institution that is a SNF.
(iii) solely for the convenience of staff.
(8) A resident's exercise of the right to refuse transfer does not affect the resident's eligibility or entitlement to Medicare or Medicaid benefits.
(f)
(1) The resident has a right to choose activities, schedules (including sleeping and waking times), health care and providers of health care services consistent with his or her interests, assessments, plan of care and other applicable provisions of this part.
(2) The resident has the right to make choices about aspects of his or her life in the facility that are significant to the resident.
(3) The resident has a right to interact with members of the community and participate in community activities both inside and outside the facility.
(4) The resident has a right to receive visitors of his or her choosing at the time of his or her choosing, subject to the resident's right to deny visitation when applicable, and in a manner that does not impose on the rights of another resident.
(i) The facility must provide immediate access to any resident by—
(A) Any representative of the Secretary,
(B) Any representative of the State,
(C) Any representative of the Office of the State long term care ombudsman, (established under section 712 of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as amended 2016 (42 U.S.C. 3001
(D) The resident's individual physician,
(E) Any representative of the protection and advocacy systems, as designated by the state, and as established under the Developmental Disabilities Assistance and Bill of Rights Act of 2000 (42 U.S.C. 15001
(F) Any representative of the agency responsible for the protection and advocacy system for individuals with a mental disorder (established under the Protection and Advocacy for Mentally Ill Individuals Act of 2000 (42 U.S.C. 10801
(G) The resident representative.
(ii) The facility must provide immediate access to a resident by immediate family and other relatives of the resident, subject to the resident's right to deny or withdraw consent at any time;
(iii) The facility must provide immediate access to a resident by others who are visiting with the consent of the resident, subject to reasonable clinical and safety restrictions and the resident's right to deny or withdraw consent at any time;
(iv) The facility must provide reasonable access to a resident by any entity or individual that provides health, social, legal, or other services to the resident, subject to the resident's right to deny or withdraw consent at any time; and
(v) The facility must have written policies and procedures regarding the visitation rights of residents, including those setting forth any clinically necessary or reasonable restriction or limitation or safety restriction or limitation, when such limitations may apply consistent with the requirements of this subpart, that the facility may need to place on such rights and the reasons for the clinical or safety restriction or limitation.
(vi) A facility must meet the following requirements:
(A) Inform each resident (or resident representative, where appropriate) of his or her visitation rights and related facility policy and procedures, including any clinical or safety restriction or limitation on such rights, consistent with the requirements of this subpart, the reasons for the restriction or limitation, and to whom the restrictions apply, when he or she is informed of his or her other rights under this section.
(B) Inform each resident of the right, subject to his or her consent, to receive the visitors whom he or she designates, including, but not limited to, a spouse (including a same-sex spouse), a domestic partner (including a same-sex domestic partner), another family member, or a friend, and his or her right to withdraw or deny such consent at any time.
(C) Not restrict, limit, or otherwise deny visitation privileges on the basis of race, color, national origin, religion, sex, gender identity, sexual orientation, or disability.
(D) Ensure that all visitors enjoy full and equal visitation privileges consistent with resident preferences.
(5) The resident has a right to organize and participate in resident groups in the facility.
(i) The facility must provide a resident or family group, if one exists, with private space; and take reasonable steps, with the approval of the group, to make residents and family members aware of upcoming meetings in a timely manner.
(ii) Staff, visitors, or other guests may attend resident group or family group meetings only at the respective group's invitation.
(iii) The facility must provide a designated staff person who is approved by the resident or family group and the facility and who is responsible for providing assistance and responding to written requests that result from group meetings.
(iv) The facility must consider the views of a resident or family group and act promptly upon the grievances and
(A) The facility must be able to demonstrate their response and rationale for such response.
(B) This should not be construed to mean that the facility must implement as recommended every request of the resident or family group.
(6) The resident has a right to participate in family groups.
(7) The resident has a right to have family member(s) or other resident representative(s) meet in the facility with the families or resident representative(s) of other residents in the facility.
(8) The resident has a right to participate in other activities, including social, religious, and community activities that do not interfere with the rights of other residents in the facility.
(9) The resident has a right to choose to or refuse to perform services for the facility and the facility must not require a resident to perform services for the facility. The resident may perform services for the facility, if he or she chooses, when—
(i) The facility has documented the resident's need or desire for work in the plan of care;
(ii) The plan specifies the nature of the services performed and whether the services are voluntary or paid;
(iii) Compensation for paid services is at or above prevailing rates; and
(iv) The resident agrees to the work arrangement described in the plan of care.
(10) The resident has a right to manage his or her financial affairs. This includes the right to know, in advance, what charges a facility may impose against a resident's personal funds.
(i) The facility must not require residents to deposit their personal funds with the facility. If a resident chooses to deposit personal funds with the facility, upon written authorization of a resident, the facility must act as a fiduciary of the resident's funds and hold, safeguard, manage, and account for the personal funds of the resident deposited with the facility, as specified in this section.
(ii)
(B) Residents whose care is funded by Medicaid: The facility must deposit the residents' personal funds in excess of $50 in an interest bearing account (or accounts) that is separate from any of the facility's operating accounts, and that credits all interest earned on resident's funds to that account. (In pooled accounts, there must be a separate accounting for each resident's share.) The facility must maintain personal funds that do not exceed $50 in a non-interest bearing account, interest-bearing account, or petty cash fund.
(iii)
(B) The system must preclude any commingling of resident funds with facility funds or with the funds of any person other than another resident.
(C) The individual financial record must be available to the resident through quarterly statements and upon request.
(iv)
(A) When the amount in the resident's account reaches $200 less than the SSI resource limit for one person, specified in section 1611(a)(3)(B) of the Act; and
(B) That, if the amount in the account, in addition to the value of the resident's other nonexempt resources, reaches the SSI resource limit for one person, the resident may lose eligibility for Medicaid or SSI.
(v) Conveyance upon discharge, eviction, or death. Upon the discharge, eviction, or death of a resident with a personal fund deposited with the facility, the facility must convey within 30 days the resident's funds, and a final accounting of those funds, to the resident, or in the case of death, the individual or probate jurisdiction administering the resident's estate, in accordance with State law.
(vi) Assurance of financial security. The facility must purchase a surety bond, or otherwise provide assurance satisfactory to the Secretary, to assure the security of all personal funds of residents deposited with the facility.
(11) The facility must not impose a charge against the personal funds of a resident for any item or service for which payment is made under Medicaid or Medicare (except for applicable deductible and coinsurance amounts). The facility may charge the resident for requested services that are more expensive than or in excess of covered services in accordance with § 489.32 of this chapter. (This does not affect the prohibition on facility charges for items and services for which Medicaid has paid. See § 447.15 of this chapter, which limits participation in the Medicaid program to providers who accept, as payment in full, Medicaid payment plus any deductible, coinsurance, or copayment required by the plan to be paid by the individual.)
(i) Services included in Medicare or Medicaid payment. During the course of a covered Medicare or Medicaid stay, facilities must not charge a resident for the following categories of items and services:
(A) Nursing services as required at § 483.35.
(B) Food and Nutrition services as required at § 483.60.
(C) An activities program as required at § 483.24(c).
(D) Room/bed maintenance services.
(E) Routine personal hygiene items and services as required to meet the needs of residents, including, but not limited to, hair hygiene supplies, comb, brush, bath soap, disinfecting soaps or specialized cleansing agents when indicated to treat special skin problems or to fight infection, razor, shaving cream, toothbrush, toothpaste, denture adhesive, denture cleaner, dental floss, moisturizing lotion, tissues, cotton balls, cotton swabs, deodorant, incontinence care and supplies, sanitary napkins and related supplies, towels, washcloths, hospital gowns, over the counter drugs, hair and nail hygiene services, bathing assistance, and basic personal laundry.
(F) Medically-related social services as required at § 483.40(d).
(G) Hospice services elected by the resident and paid for under the Medicare Hospice Benefit or paid for by Medicaid under a state plan.
(ii)
(A) Telephone, including a cellular phone.
(B) Television/radio, personal computer or other electronic device for personal use.
(C) Personal comfort items, including smoking materials, notions and novelties, and confections.
(D) Cosmetic and grooming items and services in excess of those for which payment is made under Medicaid or Medicare.
(E) Personal clothing.
(F) Personal reading matter.
(G) Gifts purchased on behalf of a resident.
(H) Flowers and plants.
(I) Cost to participate in social events and entertainment outside the scope of the activities program, provided under § 483.24(c).
(J) Non-covered special care services such as privately hired nurses or aides.
(K) Private room, except when therapeutically required (for example, isolation for infection control).
(L) Except as provided in (e)(11)(ii)(L)(
(
(
(iii)
(B) The facility must not require a resident to request any item or service as a condition of admission or continued stay.
(C) The facility must inform, orally and in writing, the resident requesting an item or service for which a charge will be made that there will be a charge for the item or service and what the charge will be.
(g)
(2) The resident has the right to access personal and medical records pertaining to him or herself.
(i) The facility must provide the resident with access to personal and medical records pertaining to him or herself, upon an oral or written request, in the form and format requested by the individual, if it is readily producible in such form and format (including in an electronic form or format when such records are maintained electronically); or, if not, in a readable hard copy form or such other form and format as agreed to by the facility and the individual, within 24 hours (excluding weekends and holidays); and
(ii) The facility must allow the resident to obtain a copy of the records or any portions thereof (including in an electronic form or format when such records are maintained electronically) upon request and 2 working days advance notice to the facility. The facility may impose a reasonable, cost-based fee on the provision of copies, provided that the fee includes only the cost of:
(A) Labor for copying the records requested by the individual, whether in paper or electronic form;
(B) Supplies for creating the paper copy or electronic media if the individual requests that the electronic copy be provided on portable media; and
(C) Postage, when the individual has requested the copy be mailed.
(3) With the exception of information described in paragraphs (g)(2) and (g)(11) of this section, the facility must ensure that information is provided to each resident in a form and manner the resident can access and understand, including in an alternative format or in a language that the resident can understand. Summaries that translate information described in paragraph (g)(2) of this section may be made available to the patient at their request and expense in accordance with applicable law.
(4) The resident has the right to receive notices orally (meaning spoken) and in writing (including Braille) in a format and a language he or she understands, including;
(i)
(A) A description of the manner of protecting personal funds, under paragraph (f)(10) of this section;
(B) A description of the requirements and procedures for establishing eligibility for Medicaid, including the right to request an assessment of resources under section 1924(c) of the Social Security Act.
(C) A list of names, addresses (mailing and email), and telephone numbers of all pertinent State regulatory and informational agencies, resident advocacy groups such as the State Survey Agency, the State licensure office, the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman program, the protection and advocacy agency, adult protective services where state law provides for jurisdiction in long-term care facilities, the local contact agency for information about returning to the community and the Medicaid Fraud Control Unit; and
(D) A statement that the resident may file a complaint with the State Survey Agency concerning any suspected violation of state or federal nursing facility regulations, including but not limited to resident abuse, neglect, exploitation, misappropriation of resident property in the facility, non-compliance with the advance directives requirements and requests for information regarding returning to the community.
(ii) Information and contact information for State and local advocacy organizations, including but not limited to the State Survey Agency, the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman program (established under section 712 of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as amended 2016 (42 U.S.C. 3001
(iii) Information regarding Medicare and Medicaid eligibility and coverage;
(iv) Contact information for the Aging and Disability Resource Center (established under Section 202(a)(20)(B)(iii) of the Older Americans Act); or other No Wrong Door Program
(v) Contact information for the Medicaid Fraud Control Unit; and
(vi) Information and contact information for filing grievances or complaints concerning any suspected violation of state or federal nursing facility regulations, including but not limited to resident abuse, neglect, exploitation, misappropriation of resident property in the facility, non-compliance with the advance directives requirements and requests for information regarding returning to the community.
(5) The facility must post, in a form and manner accessible and understandable to residents, and resident representatives:
(i) A list of names, addresses (mailing and email), and telephone numbers of all pertinent State agencies and advocacy groups, such as the State Survey Agency, the State licensure office, adult protective services where state law provides for jurisdiction in long-term care facilities, the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman program, the protection and advocacy
(ii) A statement that the resident may file a complaint with the State Survey Agency concerning any suspected violation of state or federal nursing facility regulations, including but not limited to resident abuse, neglect, exploitation, misappropriation of resident property in the facility, non-compliance with the advance directives requirements (42 CFR part 489 subpart I) and requests for information regarding returning to the community.
(6) The resident has the right to have reasonable access to the use of a telephone, including TTY and TDD services, and a place in the facility where calls can be made without being overheard. This includes the right to retain and use a cellular phone at the resident's own expense.
(7) The facility must protect and facilitate that resident's right to communicate with individuals and entities within and external to the facility, including reasonable access to:
(i) A telephone, including TTY and TDD services;
(ii) The internet, to the extent available to the facility; and
(iii) Stationery, postage, writing implements and the ability to send mail.
(8) The resident has the right to send and receive mail, and to receive letters, packages and other materials delivered to the facility for the resident through a means other than a postal service, including the right to:
(i) Privacy of such communications consistent with this section; and
(ii) Access to stationery, postage, and writing implements at the resident's own expense.
(9) The resident has the right to have reasonable access to and privacy in their use of electronic communications such as email and video communications and for Internet research.
(i) If the access is available to the facility
(ii) At the resident's expense, if any additional expense is incurred by the facility to provide such access to the resident.
(iii) Such use must comply with state and federal law.
(10) The resident has the right to—
(i) Examine the results of the most recent survey of the facility conducted by Federal or State surveyors and any plan of correction in effect with respect to the facility; and
(ii) Receive information from agencies acting as client advocates, and be afforded the opportunity to contact these agencies.
(11) The facility must—
(i) Post in a place readily accessible to residents, and family members and legal representatives of residents, the results of the most recent survey of the facility.
(ii) Have reports with respect to any surveys, certifications, and complaint investigations made respecting the facility during the 3 preceding years, and any plan of correction in effect with respect to the facility, available for any individual to review upon request; and
(iii) Post notice of the availability of such reports in areas of the facility that are prominent and accessible to the public.
(iv) The facility shall not make available identifying information about complainants or residents.
(12) The facility must comply with the requirements specified in 42 CFR part 489, subpart I (Advance Directives).
(i) These requirements include provisions to inform and provide written information to all adult residents concerning the right to accept or refuse medical or surgical treatment and, at the resident's option, formulate an advance directive.
(ii) This includes a written description of the facility's policies to implement advance directives and applicable State law.
(iii) Facilities are permitted to contract with other entities to furnish this information but are still legally responsible for ensuring that the requirements of this section are met.
(iv) If an adult individual is incapacitated at the time of admission and is unable to receive information or articulate whether or not he or she has executed an advance directive, the facility may give advance directive information to the individual's resident representative in accordance with State law.
(v) The facility is not relieved of its obligation to provide this information to the individual once he or she is able to receive such information. Follow-up procedures must be in place to provide the information to the individual directly at the appropriate time.
(13) The facility must display in the facility written information, and provide to residents and applicants for admission, oral and written information about how to apply for and use Medicare and Medicaid benefits, and how to receive refunds for previous payments covered by such benefits.
(14)
(A) An accident involving the resident which results in injury and has the potential for requiring physician intervention;
(B) A significant change in the resident's physical, mental, or psychosocial status (that is, a deterioration in health, mental, or psychosocial status in either life-threatening conditions or clinical complications);
(C) A need to alter treatment significantly (that is, a need to discontinue or change an existing form of treatment due to adverse consequences, or to commence a new form of treatment); or
(D) A decision to transfer or discharge the resident from the facility as specified in § 483.15(c)(1)(ii).
(ii) When making notification under paragraph (g)(14)(i) of this section, the facility must ensure that all pertinent information specified in § 483.15(c)(2) is available and provided upon request to the physician.
(iii) The facility must also promptly notify the resident and the resident representative, if any, when there is—
(A) A change in room or roommate assignment as specified in § 483.10(e)(6); or
(B) A change in resident rights under Federal or State law or regulations as specified in paragraph (e)(10) of this section.
(iv) The facility must record and periodically update the address (mailing and email) and phone number of the resident representative(s).
(15)
(16) The facility must provide a notice of rights and services to the resident prior to or upon admission and during the resident's stay.
(i) The facility must inform the resident both orally and in writing in a language that the resident understands of his or her rights and all rules and regulations governing resident conduct and responsibilities during the stay in the facility.
(ii) The facility must also provide the resident with the State-developed notice of Medicaid rights and obligations, if any.
(iii) Receipt of such information, and any amendments to it, must be acknowledged in writing;
(17) The facility must—
(i) Inform each Medicaid-eligible resident, in writing, at the time of
(A) The items and services that are included in nursing facility services under the State plan and for which the resident may not be charged;
(B) Those other items and services that the facility offers and for which the resident may be charged, and the amount of charges for those services; and
(ii) Inform each Medicaid-eligible resident when changes are made to the items and services specified in § 483.10(g)(17)(i)(A) and (B) of this section.
(18) The facility must inform each resident before, or at the time of admission, and periodically during the resident's stay, of services available in the facility and of charges for those services, including any charges for services not covered under Medicare/Medicaid or by the facility's per diem rate.
(i) Where changes in coverage are made to items and services covered by Medicare and/or by the Medicaid State plan, the facility must provide notice to residents of the change as soon as is reasonably possible.
(ii) Where changes are made to charges for other items and services that the facility offers, the facility must inform the resident in writing at least 60 days prior to implementation of the change.
(iii) If a resident dies or is hospitalized or is transferred and does not return to the facility, the facility must refund to the resident, resident representative, or estate, as applicable, any deposit or charges already paid, less the facility's per diem rate, for the days the resident actually resided or reserved or retained a bed in the facility, regardless of any minimum stay or discharge notice requirements.
(iv) The facility must refund to the resident or resident representative any and all refunds due the resident within 30 days from the resident's date of discharge from the facility.
(v) The terms of an admission contract by or on behalf of an individual seeking admission to the facility must not conflict with the requirements of these regulations.
(h)
(1) Personal privacy includes accommodations, medical treatment, written and telephone communications, personal care, visits, and meetings of family and resident groups, but this does not require the facility to provide a private room for each resident.
(2) The facility must respect the residents right to personal privacy, including the right to privacy in his or her oral (that is, spoken), written, and electronic communications, including the right to send and promptly receive unopened mail and other letters, packages and other materials delivered to the facility for the resident, including those delivered through a means other than a postal service.
(3) The resident has a right to secure and confidential personal and medical records.
(i) The resident has the right to refuse the release of personal and medical records except as provided at § 483.70(i)(2) or other applicable federal or state laws.
(ii) The facility must allow representatives of the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman to examine a resident's medical, social, and administrative records in accordance with State law.
(i)
(1) A safe, clean, comfortable, and homelike environment, allowing the resident to use his or her personal belongings to the extent possible.
(i) This includes ensuring that the resident can receive care and services safely and that the physical layout of the facility maximizes resident independence and does not pose a safety risk.
(ii) The facility shall exercise reasonable care for the protection of the resident's property from loss or theft.
(2) Housekeeping and maintenance services necessary to maintain a sanitary, orderly, and comfortable interior;
(3) Clean bed and bath linens that are in good condition;
(4) Private closet space in each resident room, as specified in § 483.90(d)(2)(iv);
(5) Adequate and comfortable lighting levels in all areas;
(6) Comfortable and safe temperature levels. Facilities initially certified after October 1, 1990 must maintain a temperature range of 71 to 81 °F; and
(7) For the maintenance of comfortable sound levels.
(j)
(2) The resident has the right to and the facility must make prompt efforts by the facility to resolve grievances the resident may have, in accordance with this paragraph.
(3) The facility must make information on how to file a grievance or complaint available to the resident.
(4) The facility must establish a grievance policy to ensure the prompt resolution of all grievances regarding the residents' rights contained in this paragraph. Upon request, the provider must give a copy of the grievance policy to the resident. The grievance policy must include:
(i) Notifying resident individually or through postings in prominent locations throughout the facility of the right to file grievances orally (meaning spoken) or in writing; the right to file grievances anonymously; the contact information of the grievance official with whom a grievance can be filed, that is, his or her name, business address (mailing and email) and business phone number; a reasonable expected time frame for completing the review of the grievance; the right to obtain a written decision regarding his or her grievance; and the contact information of independent entities with whom grievances may be filed, that is, the pertinent State agency, Quality Improvement Organization, State Survey Agency and State Long-Term Care Ombudsman program or protection and advocacy system;
(ii) Identifying a Grievance Official who is responsible for overseeing the grievance process, receiving and tracking grievances through to their conclusion; leading any necessary investigations by the facility; maintaining the confidentiality of all information associated with grievances, for example, the identity of the resident for those grievances submitted anonymously; issuing written grievance decisions to the resident; and coordinating with state and federal agencies as necessary in light of specific allegations;
(iii) As necessary, taking immediate action to prevent further potential violations of any resident right while the alleged violation is being investigated;
(iv) Consistent with § 483.12(c)(1), immediately reporting all alleged violations involving neglect, abuse, including injuries of unknown source, and/or misappropriation of resident property, by anyone furnishing services
(v) Ensuring that all written grievance decisions include the date the grievance was received, a summary statement of the resident's grievance, the steps taken to investigate the grievance, a summary of the pertinent findings or conclusions regarding the resident's concern(s), a statement as to whether the grievance was confirmed or not confirmed, any corrective action taken or to be taken by the facility as a result of the grievance, and the date the written decision was issued;
(vi) Taking appropriate corrective action in accordance with State law if the alleged violation of the residents' rights is confirmed by the facility or if an outside entity having jurisdiction, such as the State Survey Agency, Quality Improvement Organization, or local law enforcement agency confirms a violation of any of these residents' rights within its area of responsibility; and
(vii) Maintaining evidence demonstrating the results of all grievances for a period of no less than 3 years from the issuance of the grievance decision.
(k)
The resident has the right to be free from abuse, neglect, misappropriation of resident property, and exploitation as defined in this subpart. This includes but is not limited to freedom from corporal punishment, involuntary seclusion and any physical or chemical restraint not required to treat the resident's medical symptoms.
(a) The facility must—
(1) Not use verbal, mental, sexual, or physical abuse, corporal punishment, or involuntary seclusion;
(2) Ensure that the resident is free from physical or chemical restraints imposed for purposes of discipline or convenience and that are not required to treat the resident's medical symptoms. When the use of restraints is indicated, the facility must use the least restrictive alternative for the least amount of time and document ongoing re-evaluation of the need for restraints.
(3) Not employ or otherwise engage individuals who—
(i) Have been found guilty of abuse, neglect, exploitation, misappropriation of property, or mistreatment by a court of law;
(ii) Have had a finding entered into the State nurse aide registry concerning abuse, neglect, exploitation, mistreatment of residents or misappropriation of their property; or
(iii) Have a disciplinary action in effect against his or her professional license by a state licensure body as a result of a finding of abuse, neglect, exploitation, mistreatment of residents or misappropriation of resident property.
(4) Report to the State nurse aide registry or licensing authorities any knowledge it has of actions by a court of law against an employee, which would indicate unfitness for service as a nurse aide or other facility staff.
(b) The facility must develop and implement written policies and procedures that:
(1) Prohibit and prevent abuse, neglect, and exploitation of residents and misappropriation of resident property,
(2) Establish policies and procedures to investigate any such allegations, and
(3) Include training as required at paragraph § 483.95.
(4) Establish coordination with the QAPI program required under § 483.75.
(5) Ensure reporting of crimes occurring in federally-funded long-term care facilities in accordance with section 1150B of the Act. The policies and procedures must include but are not limited to the following elements.
(i) Annually notifying covered individuals, as defined at section 1150B(a)(3) of the Act, of that individual's obligation to comply with the following reporting requirements.
(A) Each covered individual shall report to the State Agency and one or more law enforcement entities for the political subdivision in which the facility is located any reasonable suspicion of a crime against any individual who is a resident of, or is receiving care from, the facility.
(B) Each covered individual shall report immediately, but not later than 2 hours after forming the suspicion, if the events that cause the suspicion result in serious bodily injury, or not later than 24 hours if the events that cause the suspicion do not result in serious bodily injury.
(ii) Posting a conspicuous notice of employee rights, as defined at section 1150B(d)(3) of the Act.
(iii) Prohibiting and preventing retaliation, as defined at section 1150B(d)(1) and (2) of the Act.
(c) In response to allegations of abuse, neglect, exploitation, or mistreatment, the facility must:
(1) Ensure that all alleged violations involving abuse, neglect, exploitation or mistreatment, including injuries of unknown source and misappropriation of resident property, are reported immediately, but not later than 2 hours after the allegation is made, if the events that cause the allegation involve abuse or result in serious bodily injury, or not later than 24 hours if the events that cause the allegation do not involve abuse and do not result in serious bodily injury, to the administrator of the facility and to other officials (including to the State Survey Agency and adult protective services where state law provides for jurisdiction in long-term care facilities) in accordance with State law through established procedures.
(2) Have evidence that all alleged violations are thoroughly investigated.
(3) Prevent further potential abuse, neglect, exploitation, or mistreatment while the investigation is in progress.
(4) Report the results of all investigations to the administrator or his or her designated representative and to other officials in accordance with State law, including to the State Survey Agency, within 5 working days of the incident, and if the alleged violation is verified appropriate corrective action must be taken.
(a)
(2) The facility must—
(i) Not request or require residents or potential residents to waive their rights as set forth in this subpart and in applicable state, federal or local licensing or certification laws, including but not limited to their rights to Medicare or Medicaid; and
(ii) Not request or require oral or written assurance that residents or potential residents are not eligible for,
(iii) Not request or require residents or potential residents to waive potential facility liability for losses of personal property
(3) The facility must not request or require a third party guarantee of payment to the facility as a condition of admission or expedited admission, or continued stay in the facility. However, the facility may request and require a resident representative who has legal access to a resident's income or resources available to pay for facility care to sign a contract, without incurring personal financial liability, to provide facility payment from the resident's income or resources.
(4) In the case of a person eligible for Medicaid, a nursing facility must not charge, solicit, accept, or receive, in addition to any amount otherwise required to be paid under the State plan, any gift, money, donation, or other consideration as a precondition of admission, expedited admission or continued stay in the facility. However,—
(i) A nursing facility may charge a resident who is eligible for Medicaid for items and services the resident has requested and received, and that are not specified in the State plan as included in the term “nursing facility services” so long as the facility gives proper notice of the availability and cost of these services to residents and does not condition the resident's admission or continued stay on the request for and receipt of such additional services; and
(ii) A nursing facility may solicit, accept, or receive a charitable, religious, or philanthropic contribution from an organization or from a person unrelated to a Medicaid eligible resident or potential resident, but only to the extent that the contribution is not a condition of admission, expedited admission, or continued stay in the facility for a Medicaid eligible resident.
(5) States or political subdivisions may apply stricter admissions standards under State or local laws than are specified in this section, to prohibit discrimination against individuals entitled to Medicaid.
(6) A nursing facility must disclose and provide to a resident or potential resident prior to time of admission, notice of special characteristics or service limitations of the facility.
(7) A nursing facility that is a composite distinct part as defined in § 483.5 must disclose in its admission agreement its physical configuration, including the various locations that comprise the composite distinct part, and must specify the policies that apply to room changes between its different locations under paragraph (b)(10) of this section.
(b)
(3) The State is not required to offer additional services on behalf of a resident other than services provided in the State plan.
(c)
(i) The facility must permit each resident to remain in the facility, and not transfer or discharge the resident from the facility unless—
(A) The transfer or discharge is necessary for the resident's welfare and the resident's needs cannot be met in the facility;
(B) The transfer or discharge is appropriate because the resident's health has improved sufficiently so the resident no longer needs the services provided by the facility;
(C) The safety of individuals in the facility is endangered due to the clinical or behavioral status of the resident;
(D) The health of individuals in the facility would otherwise be endangered;
(E) The resident has failed, after reasonable and appropriate notice, to pay for (or to have paid under Medicare or Medicaid) a stay at the facility. Non-payment applies if the resident does not submit the necessary paperwork for third party payment or after the third party, including Medicare or Medicaid, denies the claim and the resident refuses to pay for his or her stay. For a resident who becomes eligible for Medicaid after admission to a facility, the facility may charge a resident only allowable charges under Medicaid; or
(F) The facility ceases to operate.
(ii) The facility may not transfer or discharge the resident while the appeal is pending, pursuant to § 431.230 of this chapter, when a resident exercises his or her right to appeal a transfer or discharge notice from the facility pursuant to § 431.220(a)(3) of this chapter, unless the failure to discharge or transfer would endanger the health or safety of the resident or other individuals in the facility. The facility must document the danger that failure to transfer or discharge would pose.
(2)
(i) Documentation in the resident's medical record must include:
(A) The basis for the transfer per paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section.
(B) In the case of paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A) of this section, the specific resident need(s) that cannot be met, facility attempts to meet the resident needs, and the service available at the receiving facility to meet the need(s).
(ii) The documentation required by paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section must be made by—
(A) The resident's physician when transfer or discharge is necessary under paragraph (c)(1)(A) or (B) of this section; and
(B) A physician when transfer or discharge is necessary under paragraph (b)(1)(i)(C) or (D) of this section.
(iii) Information provided to the receiving provider must include a minimum of the following:
(A) Contact information of the practitioner responsible for the care of the resident
(B) Resident representative information including contact information.
(C) Advance Directive information.
(D) All special instructions or precautions for ongoing care, as appropriate.
(E) Comprehensive care plan goals,
(F) All other necessary information, including a copy of the residents discharge summary, consistent with § 483.21(c)(2), as applicable, and any other documentation, as applicable, to ensure a safe and effective transition of care.
(3)
(i) Notify the resident and the resident's representative(s) of the transfer or discharge and the reasons for the move in writing and in a language and manner they understand. The facility must send a copy of the notice to a representative of the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman.
(ii) Record the reasons for the transfer or discharge in the resident's medical record in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section; and
(iii) Include in the notice the items described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
(4)
(ii) Notice must be made as soon as practicable before transfer or discharge when—
(A) The safety of individuals in the facility would be endangered under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(C) of this section;
(B) The health of individuals in the facility would be endangered, under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(D) of this section;
(C) The resident's health improves sufficiently to allow a more immediate transfer or discharge, under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B) of this section;
(D) An immediate transfer or discharge is required by the resident's urgent medical needs, under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) of this section; or
(E) A resident has not resided in the facility for 30 days.
(5)
(i) The reason for transfer or discharge;
(ii) The effective date of transfer or discharge;
(iii) The location to which the resident is transferred or discharged;
(iv) A statement of the resident's appeal rights, including the name, address (mailing and email), and telephone number of the entity which receives such requests; and information on how to obtain an appeal form and assistance in completing the form and submitting the appeal hearing request;
(v) The name, address (mailing and email) and telephone number of the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman;
(vi) For nursing facility residents with intellectual and developmental disabilities or related disabilities, the mailing and email address and telephone number of the agency responsible for the protection and advocacy of individuals with developmental disabilities established under Part C of the Developmental Disabilities Assistance and Bill of Rights Act of 2000 (Pub. L. 106-402, codified at 42 U.S.C. 15001
(vii) For nursing facility residents with a mental disorder or related disabilities, the mailing and email address and telephone number of the agency responsible for the protection and advocacy of individuals with a mental disorder established under the Protection and Advocacy for Mentally Ill Individuals Act.
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(d)
(i) The duration of the state bed-hold policy, if any, during which the resident is permitted to return and resume residence in the nursing facility;
(ii) The reserve bed payment policy in the state plan, under § 447.40 of this chapter, if any;
(iii) The nursing facility's policies regarding bed-hold periods, which must be consistent with paragraph (c)(3) of this section, permitting a resident to return; and
(iv) The information specified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
(2)
(e)(1)
(i) A resident, whose hospitalization or therapeutic leave exceeds the bed-hold period under the State plan, returns to the facility to their previous room if available or immediately upon the first availability of a bed in a semi-private room if the resident
(A) Requires the services provided by the facility; and
(B) Is eligible for Medicare skilled nursing facility services or Medicaid nursing facility services.
(ii) If the facility that determines that a resident who was transferred with an expectation of returning to the facility cannot return to the facility, the facility must comply with the requirements of paragraph (c) as they apply to discharges.
(2)
The revisions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(1)
(xvi) Discharge planning.
(xviii) Documentation of participation in assessment. The assessment process must include direct observation and communication with the resident, as
(e)
(1) Incorporating the recommendations from the PASARR level II determination and the PASARR evaluation report into a resident's assessment, care planning, and transitions of care.
(2) Referring all level II residents and all residents with newly evident or possible serious mental disorder, intellectual disability, or a related condition for level II resident review upon a significant change in status assessment.
(k)
(i) Mental disorder as defined in paragraph (k)(3)(i) of this section, unless the State mental health authority has determined, based on an independent physical and mental evaluation performed by a person or entity other than the State mental health authority, prior to admission,
(A) That, because of the physical and mental condition of the individual, the individual requires the level of services provided by a nursing facility; and
(B) If the individual requires such level of services, whether the individual requires specialized services; or
(ii) Intellectual disability, as defined in paragraph (k)(3)(ii) of this section, unless the State intellectual disability or developmental disability authority has determined prior to admission—
(A) That, because of the physical and mental condition of the individual, the individual requires the level of services provided by a nursing facility; and
(B) If the individual requires such level of services, whether the individual requires specialized services for intellectual disability.
(2)
(i) The preadmission screening program under paragraph (k)(1) of this section need not provide for determinations in the case of the readmission to a nursing facility of an individual who, after being admitted to the nursing facility, was transferred for care in a hospital.
(ii) The State may choose not to apply the preadmission screening program under paragraph (k)(1) of this section to the admission to a nursing facility of an individual—
(A) Who is admitted to the facility directly from a hospital after receiving acute inpatient care at the hospital,
(B) Who requires nursing facility services for the condition for which the individual received care in the hospital, and
(C) Whose attending physician has certified, before admission to the facility that the individual is likely to require less than 30 days of nursing facility services.
(3)
(i) An individual is considered to have a mental disorder if the individual has a serious mental disorder as defined in § 483.102(b)(1).
(ii) An individual is considered to have an intellectual disability if the individual has an intellectual disability as defined in § 483.102(b)(3) or is a person with a related condition as described in § 435.1010 of this chapter.
(4) A nursing facility must notify the state mental health authority or state intellectual disability authority, as applicable, promptly after a significant change in the mental or physical condition of a resident who has a mental disorder or intellectual disability for resident review.
(a)
(i) Be developed within 48 hours of a resident's admission.
(ii) Include the minimum healthcare information necessary to properly care for a resident including, but not limited to:
(A) Initial goals based on admission orders.
(B) Physician orders.
(C) Dietary orders.
(D) Therapy services.
(E) Social services.
(F) PASARR recommendation, if applicable.
(2) The facility may develop a comprehensive care plan in place of the baseline care plan if the comprehensive care plan—
(i) Is developed within 48 hours of the resident's admission.
(ii) Meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (b) of this section (excepting paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section).
(3) The facility must provide the resident and their representative with a summary of the baseline care plan that includes but is not limited to:
(i) The initial goals of the resident.
(ii) A summary of the resident's medications and dietary instructions.
(iii) Any services and treatments to be administered by the facility and personnel acting on behalf of the facility.
(iv) Any updated information based on the details of the comprehensive care plan, as necessary.
(b)
(i) The services that are to be furnished to attain or maintain the resident's highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being as required under § 483.24, § 483.25, or § 483.40; and
(ii) Any services that would otherwise be required under § 483.24, § 483.25, or § 483.40 but are not provided due to the resident's exercise of rights under § 483.10, including the right to refuse treatment under § 483.10(c)(6).
(iii) Any specialized services or specialized rehabilitative services the nursing facility will provide as a result of PASARR recommendations. If a facility disagrees with the findings of the PASARR, it must indicate its rationale in the resident's medical record.
(iv) In consultation with the resident and the resident's representative(s)—
(A) The resident's goals for admission and desired outcomes.
(B) The resident's preference and potential for future discharge. Facilities must document whether the resident's desire to return to the community was assessed and any referrals to local contact agencies and/or other appropriate entities, for this purpose.
(C) Discharge plans in the comprehensive care plan, as appropriate, in accordance with the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
(2) A comprehensive care plan must be—
(i) Developed within 7 days after completion of the comprehensive assessment.
(ii) Prepared by an interdisciplinary team, that includes but is not limited to—
(A) The attending physician.
(B) A registered nurse with responsibility for the resident.
(C) A nurse aide with responsibility for the resident.
(D) A member of food and nutrition services staff.
(E) To the extent practicable, the participation of the resident and the resident's representative(s). An explanation must be included in a resident's medical record if the participation of the resident and their resident representative is determined not practicable for the development of the resident's care plan.
(F) Other appropriate staff or professionals in disciplines as determined by the resident's needs or as requested by the resident.
(iii) Reviewed and revised by the interdisciplinary team after each assessment, including both the comprehensive and quarterly review assessments.
(3) The services provided or arranged by the facility, as outlined by the comprehensive care plan, must—
(i) Meet professional standards of quality.
(ii) Be provided by qualified persons in accordance with each resident's written plan of care.
(iii) Be culturally-competent and trauma-informed.
(c)
(i) Ensure that the discharge needs of each resident are identified and result in the development of a discharge plan for each resident.
(ii) Include regular re-evaluation of residents to identify changes that require modification of the discharge plan. The discharge plan must be updated, as needed, to reflect these changes.
(iii) Involve the interdisciplinary team, as defined by § 483.21(b)(2)(ii), in the ongoing process of developing the discharge plan.
(iv) Consider caregiver/support person availability and the resident's or caregiver's/support person(s) capacity and capability to perform required care, as part of the identification of discharge needs.
(v) Involve the resident and resident representative in the development of the discharge plan and inform the resident and resident representative of the final plan.
(vi) Address the resident's goals of care and treatment preferences.
(vii) Document that a resident has been asked about their interest in receiving information regarding returning to the community.
(A) If the resident indicates an interest in returning to the community, the facility must document any referrals to local contact agencies or other appropriate entities made for this purpose.
(B) Facilities must update a resident's comprehensive care plan and discharge plan, as appropriate, in response to information received from referrals to local contact agencies or other appropriate entities.
(C) If discharge to the community is determined to not be feasible, the facility must document who made the determination and why.
(viii) For residents who are transferred to another SNF or who are discharged to a HHA, IRF, or LTCH, assist residents and their resident representatives in selecting a post-acute care provider by using data that includes, but is not limited to SNF, HHA, IRF, or LTCH standardized patient assessment data, data on quality measures, and data on resource use to the extent the data is available. The facility must ensure that the post-acute care standardized patient assessment data, data on quality measures, and data on resource use is relevant and applicable to the resident's goals of care and treatment preferences.
(ix) Document, complete on a timely basis based on the resident's needs, and include in the clinical record, the evaluation of the resident's discharge needs and discharge plan. The results of the evaluation must be discussed with the resident or resident's representative. All relevant resident information must be incorporated into the discharge plan to facilitate its implementation and to avoid unnecessary delays in the resident's discharge or transfer.
(2)
(i) A recapitulation of the resident's stay that includes, but is not limited to, diagnoses, course of illness/treatment or therapy, and pertinent lab, radiology, and consultation results.
(ii) A final summary of the resident's status to include items in paragraph (b)(1) of § 483.20, at the time of the discharge that is available for release to authorized persons and agencies, with the consent of the resident or resident's representative.
(iii) Reconciliation of all pre-discharge medications with the resident's post-discharge medications (both prescribed and over-the-counter).
(iv) A post-discharge plan of care that is developed with the participation of the resident and, with the resident's consent, the resident representative(s), which will assist the resident to adjust to his or her new living environment. The post-discharge plan of care must indicate where the individual plans to reside, any arrangements that have been made for the resident's follow up care and any post-discharge medical and non-medical services.
Quality of life is a fundamental principle that applies to all care and services provided to facility residents. Each resident must receive and the facility must provide the necessary care and services to attain or maintain the highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being, consistent with the resident's comprehensive assessment and plan of care.
(a) Based on the comprehensive assessment of a resident and consistent with the resident's needs and choices, the facility must provide the necessary care and services to ensure that a resident's abilities in activities of daily living do not diminish unless circumstances of the individual's clinical condition demonstrate that such diminution was unavoidable. This includes the facility ensuring that:
(1) A resident is given the appropriate treatment and services to maintain or improve his or her ability to carry out the activities of daily living, including those specified in paragraph (b) of this section,
(2) A resident who is unable to carry out activities of daily living receives the necessary services to maintain good nutrition, grooming, and personal and oral hygiene, and
(3) Personnel provide basic life support, including CPR, to a resident requiring such emergency care prior to the arrival of emergency medical personnel and subject to related physician orders and the resident's advance directives.
(b)
(1) Hygiene—bathing, dressing, grooming, and oral care,
(2) Mobility—transfer and ambulation, including walking,
(3) Elimination—toileting,
(4) Dining—eating, including meals and snacks,
(5) Communication, including
(i) Speech,
(ii) Language,
(iii) Other functional communication systems.
(c)
(2) The activities program must be directed by a qualified professional who is a qualified therapeutic recreation specialist or an activities professional who—
(i) Is licensed or registered, if applicable, by the State in which practicing; and
(ii) Is:
(A) Eligible for certification as a therapeutic recreation specialist or as an activities professional by a recognized accrediting body on or after October 1, 1990; or
(B) Has 2 years of experience in a social or recreational program within the last 5 years, one of which was full-time in a therapeutic activities program; or
(C) Is a qualified occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant; or
(D) Has completed a training course approved by the State.
Quality of care is a fundamental principle that applies to all treatment and care provided to facility residents. Based on the comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that residents receive treatment and care in accordance with professional standards of practice, the comprehensive person-centered care plan, and the resident's choices, including but not limited to the following:
(a)
(1) In making appointments, and
(2) By arranging for transportation to and from the office of a practitioner specializing in the treatment of vision or hearing impairment or the office of a professional specializing in the provision of vision or hearing assistive devices.
(b)
(i) A resident receives care, consistent with professional standards of practice, to prevent pressure ulcers and does not develop pressure ulcers unless the individual's clinical condition demonstrates that they were unavoidable; and
(ii) A resident with pressure ulcers receives necessary treatment and services, consistent with professional standards of practice, to promote healing, prevent infection and prevent new ulcers from developing.
(2)
(i) Provide foot care and treatment, in accordance with professional standards of practice, including to prevent complications from the resident's medical condition(s) and
(ii) If necessary, assist the resident in making appointments with a qualified person, and arranging for transportation to and from such appointments.
(c)
(2) A resident with limited range of motion receives appropriate treatment and services to increase range of motion and/or to prevent further decrease in range of motion.
(3) A resident with limited mobility receives appropriate services, equipment, and assistance to maintain or improve mobility with the maximum practicable independence unless a reduction in mobility is demonstrably unavoidable.
(d)
(1) The resident environment remains as free of accident hazards as is possible; and
(2) Each resident receives adequate supervision and assistance devices to prevent accidents.
(e)
(2) For a resident with urinary incontinence, based on the resident's comprehensive assessment, the facility must ensure that—
(i) A resident who enters the facility without an indwelling catheter is not catheterized unless the resident's clinical condition demonstrates that catheterization was necessary;
(ii) A resident who enters the facility with an indwelling catheter or subsequently receives one is assessed for removal of the catheter as soon as possible unless the resident's clinical condition demonstrates that catheterization is necessary, and
(iii) A resident who is incontinent of bladder receives appropriate treatment and services to prevent urinary tract infections and to restore continence to the extent possible.
(3) For a resident with fecal incontinence, based on the resident's comprehensive assessment, the facility must ensure that a resident who is incontinent of bowel receives appropriate treatment and services to restore as much normal bowel function as possible.
(f)
(g)
(1) Maintains acceptable parameters of nutritional status, such as usual body weight or desirable body weight range and electrolyte balance, unless the resident's clinical condition demonstrates that this is not possible or resident preferences indicate otherwise;
(2) Is offered sufficient fluid intake to maintain proper hydration and health; and
(3) Is offered a therapeutic diet when there is a nutritional problem and the
(4) A resident who has been able to eat enough alone or with assistance is not fed by enteral methods unless the resident's clinical condition demonstrates that enteral feeding was clinically indicated and consented to by the resident; and
(5) A resident who is fed by enteral means receives the appropriate treatment and services to restore, if possible, oral eating skills and to prevent complications of enteral feeding including but not limited to aspiration pneumonia, diarrhea, vomiting, dehydration, metabolic abnormalities, and nasal-pharyngeal ulcers.
(h)
(i)
(j)
(k)
(l)
(m)
(n)
(1) Assess the resident for risk of entrapment from bed rails prior to installation.
(2) Review the risks and benefits of bed rails with the resident or resident representative and obtain informed consent prior to installation.
(3) Ensure that the bed's dimensions are appropriate for the resident's size and weight.
(4) Follow the manufacturers' recommendations and specifications for installing and maintaining bed rails.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
A physician must personally approve in writing a recommendation that an individual be admitted to a facility. Each resident must remain under the care of a physician. A physician, physician assistant, nurse practitioner, or clinical nurse specialist must provide orders for the resident's immediate care and needs.
(b) * * *
(3) Sign and date all orders with the exception of influenza and pneumococcal vaccines, which may be administered per physician-approved facility policy after an assessment for contraindications.
(e) * * *
(2) A resident's attending physician may delegate the task of writing dietary orders, consistent with § 483.60, to a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional who—
(i) Is acting within the scope of practice as defined by State law; and
(ii) Is under the supervision of the physician.
(3) A resident's attending physician may delegate the task of writing therapy orders, consistent with § 483.65, to a qualified therapist who—
(i) Is acting within the scope of practice as defined by State law; and
(ii) Is under the supervision of the physician.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
The facility must have sufficient nursing staff with the appropriate competencies and skills sets to provide nursing and related services to assure resident safety and attain or maintain the highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being of each resident, as determined by resident assessments and individual plans of care and considering the number, acuity and diagnoses of the facility's resident population in accordance with the facility assessment required at § 483.70(e).
(a) * * *
(1) * * *
(ii) Other nursing personnel, including but not limited to nurse aides.
(3) The facility must ensure that licensed nurses have the specific
(4) Providing care includes but is not limited to assessing, evaluating, planning and implementing resident care plans and responding to resident's needs.
(c)
(d)
(i) That individual is competent to provide nursing and nursing related services; and
(ii)(A) That individual has completed a training and competency evaluation program, or a competency evaluation program approved by the State as meeting the requirements of § 483.151 through § 483.154; or
(B) That individual has been deemed or determined competent as provided in § 483.150(a) and (b).
(2)
(3)
(i) Is a full-time employee in a State-approved training and competency evaluation program;
(ii) Has demonstrated competence through satisfactory participation in a State-approved nurse aide training and competency evaluation program or competency evaluation program; or
(iii) Has been deemed or determined competent as provided in § 483.150(a) and (b).
(4)
(i) The individual is a full-time employee in a training and competency evaluation program approved by the State; or
(ii) The individual can prove that he or she has recently successfully completed a training and competency evaluation program or competency evaluation program approved by the State and has not yet been included in the registry. Facilities must follow up to ensure that such an individual actually becomes registered.
(5)
(6)
(7)
(e) * * *
(6) The State agency granting a waiver of such requirements provides notice of the waiver to the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman (established under section 712 of the Older Americans Act of 1965) and the protection and advocacy system in the State for individuals with a mental disorder who are eligible for such services as provided by the protection and advocacy agency; and
(7) The nursing facility that is granted such a waiver by a State notifies residents of the facility and their resident representatives of the waiver.
(f) * * *
(1) * * *
(iv) The Secretary provides notice of the waiver to the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman (established under section 712 of the Older Americans Act of 1965) and the protection and advocacy system in the State for individuals with developmental disabilities or mental disorders; and
(v) The facility that is granted such a waiver notifies residents of the facility and their resident representatives of the waiver.
Each resident must receive and the facility must provide the necessary behavioral health care and services to attain or maintain the highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being, in accordance with the comprehensive assessment and plan of care. Behavioral health encompasses a resident's whole emotional and mental well-being, which includes, but is not limited to, the prevention and treatment of mental and substance use disorders.
(a) The facility must have sufficient staff who provide direct services to residents with the appropriate competencies and skills sets to provide nursing and related services to assure resident safety and attain or maintain the highest practicable physical, mental and psychosocial well-being of each resident, as determined by resident assessments and individual plans of care and considering the number, acuity and diagnoses of the facility's resident population in accordance with § 483.70(e). These competencies and skills sets include, but are not limited to, knowledge of and appropriate training and supervision for:
(1) Caring for residents with mental and psychosocial disorders, as well as residents with a history of trauma and/or post-traumatic stress disorder, that have been identified in the facility assessment conducted pursuant to § 483.70(e), and
(2) Implementing non-pharmacological interventions.
(b) Based on the comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that—
(1) A resident who displays or is diagnosed with mental disorder or psychosocial adjustment difficulty, or who has a history of trauma and/or post-traumatic stress disorder, receives appropriate treatment and services to correct the assessed problem or to attain the highest practicable mental and psychosocial well-being;
(2) A resident whose assessment did not reveal or who does not have a diagnosis of a mental or psychosocial adjustment difficulty or a documented history of trauma and/or post-traumatic stress disorder does not display a pattern of decreased social interaction and/or increased withdrawn, angry, or depressive behaviors, unless the resident's clinical condition demonstrates that development of such a pattern was unavoidable; and
(3) A resident who displays or is diagnosed with dementia, receives the
(c) If rehabilitative services such as but not limited to physical therapy, speech-language pathology, occupational therapy, and rehabilitative services for mental disorders and intellectual disability, are required in the resident's comprehensive plan of care, the facility must—
(1) Provide the required services, including specialized rehabilitation services as required in § 483.65; or
(2) Obtain the required services from an outside resource (in accordance with § 483.70(g) of this part) from a Medicare and/or Medicaid provider of specialized rehabilitative services.
(d) The facility must provide medically-related social services to attain or maintain the highest practicable physical, mental and psychosocial well-being of each resident.
The additions and revisions read as follows:
(c) * * *
(2) This review must include a review of the resident's medical chart.
(3) A psychotropic drug is any drug that affects brain activities associated with mental processes and behavior. These drugs include, but are not limited to, drugs in the following categories:
(i) Anti-psychotic;
(ii) Anti-depressant;
(iii) Anti-anxiety; and
(iv) Hypnotic.
(4) The pharmacist must report any irregularities to the attending physician and the facility's medical director and director of nursing, and these reports must be acted upon.
(i) Irregularities include, but are not limited to, any drug that meets the criteria set forth in paragraph (d) of this section for an unnecessary drug.
(ii) Any irregularities noted by the pharmacist during this review must be documented on a separate, written report that is sent to the attending physician and the facility's medical director and director of nursing and lists, at a minimum, the resident's name, the relevant drug, and the irregularity the pharmacist identified.
(iii) The attending physician must document in the resident's medical record that the identified irregularity has been reviewed and what, if any, action has been taken to address it. If there is to be no change in the medication, the attending physician should document his or her rationale in the resident's medical record.
(5) The facility must develop and maintain policies and procedures for the monthly drug regimen review that include, but are not limited to, time frames for the different steps in the process and steps the pharmacist must take when he or she identifies an irregularity that requires urgent action to protect the resident.
(d)
(1) In excessive dose (including duplicate drug therapy); or
(2) For excessive duration; or
(3) Without adequate monitoring; or
(4) Without adequate indications for its use; or
(5) In the presence of adverse consequences which indicate the dose should be reduced or discontinued; or
(6) Any combinations of the reasons stated in paragraphs (d)(1) through (5) of this section.
(e)
(1) Residents who have not used psychotropic drugs are not given these drugs unless the medication is necessary to treat a specific condition as diagnosed and documented in the clinical record;
(2) Residents who use psychotropic drugs receive gradual dose reductions, and behavioral interventions, unless clinically contraindicated, in an effort to discontinue these drugs;
(3) Residents do not receive psychotropic drugs pursuant to a PRN order unless that medication is necessary to treat a diagnosed specific condition that is documented in the clinical record; and
(4) PRN orders for psychotropic drugs are limited to 14 days. Except as provided in § 483.45(e)(5), if the attending physician or prescribing practitioner believes that it is appropriate for the PRN order to be extended beyond 14 days, he or she should document their rationale in the resident's medical record and indicate the duration for the PRN order.
(5) PRN orders for anti-psychotic drugs are limited to 14 days and cannot be renewed unless the attending physician or prescribing practitioner evaluates the resident for the appropriateness of that medication.
(f)
(1) Medication error rates are not 5 percent or greater; and
(2) Residents are free of any significant medication errors.
(a)
(i) If the facility provides its own laboratory services, the services must meet the applicable requirements for laboratories specified in part 493 of this chapter.
(ii) If the facility provides blood bank and transfusion services, it must meet the applicable requirements for laboratories specified in part 493 of this chapter.
(iii) If the laboratory chooses to refer specimens for testing to another laboratory, the referral laboratory must be certified in the appropriate specialties and subspecialties of services in accordance with the requirements of part 493 of this chapter.
(iv) If the facility does not provide laboratory services on site, it must have an agreement to obtain these services from a laboratory that meets the applicable requirements of part 493 of this chapter.
(2) The facility must:
(i) Provide or obtain laboratory services only when ordered by a physician; physician assistant; nurse practitioner or clinical nurse specialist in accordance with State law, including scope of practice laws.
(ii) Promptly notify the ordering physician, physician assistant, nurse practitioner, or clinical nurse specialist of laboratory results that fall outside of clinical reference ranges in accordance with facility policies and procedures for notification of a practitioner or per the ordering physician's orders.
(iii) Assist the resident in making transportation arrangements to and from the source of service, if the resident needs asistance; and
(iv) File in the resident's clinical record laboratory reports that are dated
(b)
(i) If the facility provides its own diagnostic services, the services must meet the applicable conditions of participation for hospitals contained in § 482.26 of this subchapter.
(ii) If the facility does not provide its own diagnostic services, it must have an agreement to obtain these services from a provider or supplier that is approved to provide these services under Medicare.
(2) The facility must:
(i) Provide or obtain radiology and other diagnostic services only when ordered by a physician; physician assistant; nurse practitioner or clinical nurse specialist in accordance with State law, including scope of practice laws.
(ii) Promptly notify the ordering physician, physician assistant, nurse practitioner, or clinical nurse specialist of results that fall outside of clinical reference ranges in accordance with facility policies and procedures for notification of a practitioner or per the ordering physician's orders.
(iii) Assist the resident in making transportation arrangements to and from the source of service, if the resident needs assistance; and
(iv) File in the resident's clinical record signed and dated reports of x-ray and other diagnostic services.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(3) Must have a policy identifying those circumstances when the loss or damage of dentures is the facility's responsibility and may not charge a resident for the loss or damage of dentures determined in accordance with facility policy to be the facility's responsibility;
(4) Must if necessary or if requested, assist the resident—
(ii) By arranging for transportation to and from the dental services location; and
(5) Must promptly, within 3 days, refer residents with lost or damaged dentures for dental services. If a referral does not occur within 3 days, the facility must provide documentation of what they did to ensure the resident could still eat and drink adequately while awaiting dental services and the extenuating circumstances that led to the delay.
(b) * * *
(2) Must, if necessary or if requested, assist the resident—
(ii) By arranging for transportation to and from the dental services locations;
(3) Must promptly, within 3 days, refer residents with lost or damaged dentures for dental services. If a referral does not occur within 3 days, the facility must provide documentation of what they did to ensure the resident could still eat and drink adequately while awaiting dental services and the extenuating circumstances that led to the delay;
(4) Must have a policy identifying those circumstances when the loss or damage of dentures is the facility's responsibility and may not charge a resident for the loss or damage of dentures determined in accordance with facility policy to be the facility's responsibility; and
(5) Must assist residents who are eligible and wish to participate to apply for reimbursement of dental services as an incurred medical expense under the State plan.
The facility must provide each resident with a nourishing, palatable, well-balanced diet that meets his or her daily nutritional and special dietary needs, taking into consideration the preferences of each resident.
(a)
(1) A qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional either full-time, part-time, or on a consultant basis. A qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional is one who—
(i) Holds a bachelor's or higher degree granted by a regionally accredited college or university in the United States (or an equivalent foreign degree) with completion of the academic requirements of a program in nutrition or dietetics accredited by an appropriate national accreditation organization recognized for this purpose.
(ii) Has completed at least 900 hours of supervised dietetics practice under the supervision of a registered dietitian or nutrition professional.
(iii) Is licensed or certified as a dietitian or nutrition professional by the State in which the services are performed. In a state that does not provide for licensure or certification, the individual will be deemed to have met this requirement if he or she is recognized as a “registered dietitian” by the Commission on Dietetic Registration or its successor organization, or meets the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
(iv) For dietitians hired or contracted with prior to November 28, 2016, meets these requirements no later than 5 years after November 28, 2016 or as required by state law.
(2) If a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional is not employed full-time, the facility must designate a person to serve as the director of food and nutrition services who—
(i) For designations prior to November 28, 2016, meets the following requirements no later than 5 years after November 28, 2016, or no later than 1 year after November 28, 2016 for designations after November 28, 2016, is:
(A) A certified dietary manager; or
(B) A certified food service manager, or
(C) Has similar national certification for food service management and safety from a national certifying body; or
(D) Has an associate's or higher degree in food service management or in hospitality, if the course study includes food service or restaurant management, from an accredited institution of higher learning; and
(ii) In States that have established standards for food service managers or dietary managers, meets State requirements for food service managers or dietary managers, and
(iii) Receives frequently scheduled consultations from a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional.
(3)
(b) A member of the Food and Nutrition Services staff must participate on the interdisciplinary team as required in § 483.21(b)(2)(ii).
(c)
(1) Meet the nutritional needs of residents in accordance with established national guidelines.;
(2) Be prepared in advance;
(3) Be followed;
(4) Reflect, based on a facility's reasonable efforts, the religious, cultural, and ethnic needs of the resident population, as well as input received from residents and resident groups;
(5) Be updated periodically;
(6) Be reviewed by the facility's dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional for nutritional adequacy; and
(7) Nothing in this paragraph should be construed to limit the resident's right to make personal dietary choices.
(d)
(1) Food prepared by methods that conserve nutritive value, flavor, and appearance;
(2) Food and drink that is palatable, attractive, and at a safe and appetizing temperature;
(3) Food prepared in a form designed to meet individual needs;
(4) Food that accommodates resident allergies, intolerances, and preferences;
(5) Appealing options of similar nutritive value to residents who choose not to eat food that is initially served or who request a different meal choice; and
(6) Drinks, including water and other liquids consistent with resident needs and preferences and sufficient to maintain resident hydration.
(e)
(f)
(2) There must be no more than 14 hours between a substantial evening meal and breakfast the following day, except when a nourishing snack is served at bedtime, up to 16 hours may elapse between a substantial evening meal and breakfast the following day if a resident group agrees to this meal span.
(3) Suitable, nourishing alternative meals and snacks must be provided to residents who want to eat at non-traditional times or outside of scheduled meal service times, consistent with the resident plan of care.
(g)
(h)
(i) The feeding assistant has successfully completed a State-approved training course that meets the requirements of § 483.160 before feeding residents; and
(ii) The use of feeding assistants is consistent with State law.
(2)
(ii) In an emergency, a feeding assistant must call a supervisory nurse for help.
(3)
(ii) Complicated feeding problems include, but are not limited to, difficulty swallowing, recurrent lung aspirations, and tube or parenteral/IV feedings.
(iii) The facility must base resident selection on the interdisciplinary team's assessment and the resident's latest assessment and plan of care. Appropriateness for this program should be reflected in the comprehensive care plan.
(i)
(1) Procure food from sources approved or considered satisfactory by federal, state, or local authorities;
(i) This may include food items obtained directly from local producers, subject to applicable State and local laws or regulations.
(ii) This provision does not prohibit or prevent facilities from using produce grown in facility gardens, subject to compliance with applicable safe growing and food-handling practices.
(iii) This provision does not preclude residents from consuming foods not procured by the facility.
(2) Store, prepare, distribute, and serve food in accordance with professional standards for food service safety.
(3) Have a policy regarding use and storage of foods brought to residents by family and other visitors to ensure safe and sanitary storage, handling, and consumption, and
(4) Dispose of garbage and refuse properly.
(a)
(2) In accordance with § 483.70(g), obtain the required services from an outside resource that is a provider of specialized rehabilitative services and is not excluded from participating in any federal or state health care programs pursuant to section 1128 and 1156 of the Act.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(c)
(d) * * *
(2) The governing body appoints the administrator who is—
(i) Licensed by the State, where licensing is required;
(ii) Responsible for management of the facility; and
(iii) Reports to and is accountable to the governing body.
(3) The governing body is responsible and accountable for the QAPI program, in accordance with § 483.75(f).
(e)
(1) The facility's resident population, including, but not limited to,
(i) Both the number of residents and the facility's resident capacity;
(ii) The care required by the resident population considering the types of diseases, conditions, physical and cognitive disabilities, overall acuity, and other pertinent facts that are present within that population;
(iii) The staff competencies that are necessary to provide the level and types of care needed for the resident population;
(iv) The physical environment, equipment, services, and other physical plant considerations that are necessary to care for this population; and
(v) Any ethnic, cultural, or religious factors that may potentially affect the care provided by the facility, including, but not limited to, activities and food and nutrition services.
(2) The facility's resources, including but not limited to,
(i) All buildings and/or other physical structures and vehicles;
(ii) Equipment (medical and non-medical);
(iii) Services provided, such as physical therapy, pharmacy, and specific rehabilitation therapies;
(iv) All personnel, including managers, staff (both employees and those who provide services under contract), and volunteers, as well as their education and/or training and any competencies related to resident care;
(v) Contracts, memorandums of understanding, or other agreements with third parties to provide services or equipment to the facility during both normal operations and emergencies; and
(vi) Health information technology resources, such as systems for electronically managing patient records and electronically sharing information with other organizations.
(3) A facility-based and community-based risk assessment, utilizing an all-hazards approach.
(i)
* * *
(2) The facility must keep confidential all information contained in the resident's records, regardless of the form or storage method of the records, except when release is—
(i) To the individual, or their resident representative where permitted by applicable law;
(ii) Required by law;
(iii) For treatment, payment, or health care operations, as permitted by and in compliance with 45 CFR 164.506;
(iv) For public health activities, reporting of abuse, neglect, or domestic violence, health oversight activities, judicial and administrative proceedings, law enforcement purposes, organ donation purposes, research purposes, or to coroners, medical examiners, funeral directors, and to avert a serious threat to health or safety as permitted by and in compliance with 45 CFR 164.512.
(3) The facility must safeguard medical record information against loss, destruction, or unauthorized use;
(4) Medical records must be retained for—
(i) The period of time required by State law; or
(ii) Five years from the date of discharge when there is no requirement in State law; or
(iii) For a minor, 3 years after a resident reaches legal age under State law.
(5) The medical record must contain—
(i) Sufficient information to identify the resident;
(ii) A record of the resident's assessments;
(iii) The comprehensive plan of care and services provided;
(iv) The results of any preadmission screening and resident review evaluations and determinations conducted by the State;
(v) Physician's, nurse's, and other licensed professional's progress notes; and
(vi) Laboratory, radiology and other diagnostic services reports as required under § 483.50.
(j) * * *
(1) * * *
(i) Residents will be transferred from the facility to the hospital, and ensured of timely admission to the hospital when transfer is medically appropriate as determined by the attending physician or, in an emergency situation, by another practitioner in accordance with facility policy and consistent with state law; and
(ii) Medical and other information needed for care and treatment of residents and, when the transferring facility deems it appropriate, for determining whether such residents can receive appropriate services or receive services in a less restrictive setting than either the facility or the hospital, or reintegrated into the community, will be exchanged between the providers, including but not limited to the information required under § 483.15(c)(2)(iii).
(m) Facility closure. The facility must have in place policies and procedures to
(n)
(2) If, after a dispute between the facility and a resident arises, and a facility chooses to ask a resident or his or her representative to enter into an agreement for binding arbitration, the facility must comply with all of the requirements in this section.
(i) The facility must ensure that:
(A) The agreement is explained to the resident and their representative in a form and manner that he or she understands, including in a language the resident and their representative understands, and
(B) The resident acknowledges that he or she understands the agreement.
(ii) The agreement must:
(A) Be entered into by the resident voluntarily.
(B) Provide for the selection of a neutral arbitrator agreed upon by both parties.
(C) Provide for selection of a venue convenient to both parties.
(iii) A resident's continuing right to remain in the facility must not be contingent upon the resident or the resident's representative signing a binding arbitration agreement.
(iv) The agreement must not contain any language that prohibits or discourages the resident or anyone else from communicating with federal, state, or local officials, including but not limited to, federal and state surveyors, other federal or state health department employees, and representatives of the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman, in accordance with § 483.10(k).
(v) The agreement may be signed by another individual if:
(A) Allowed by state law;
(B) All of the requirements in this section are met; and
(C) That individual has no interest in the facility.
(vi) When the facility and a resident resolve a dispute with arbitration, a copy of the signed agreement for binding arbitration and the arbitrator's final decision must be retained by the facility for 5 years and be available for inspection upon request by CMS or its designee.
(p)
(1) An individual with a minimum of a bachelor's degree in social work or a bachelor's degree in a human services field including, but not limited to, sociology, gerontology, special education, rehabilitation counseling, and psychology; and
(2) One year of supervised social work experience in a health care setting working directly with individuals.
(a)
(1) Maintain documentation and demonstrate evidence of its ongoing QAPI program that meets the requirements of this section. This may include but is not limited to systems and reports demonstrating systematic identification, reporting, investigation, analysis, and prevention of adverse events; and documentation demonstrating the development, implementation, and evaluation of corrective actions or performance improvement activities;
(2) Present its QAPI plan to the State Survey Agency no later than 1 year after the promulgation of this regulation;
(3) Present its QAPI plan to a State Survey Agency or Federal surveyor at each annual recertification survey and upon request during any other survey and to CMS upon request; and
(4) Present documentation and evidence of its ongoing QAPI program's implementation and the facility's compliance with requirements to a State Survey Agency, Federal surveyor or CMS upon request.
(b)
(1) Address all systems of care and management practices;
(2) Include clinical care, quality of life, and resident choice;
(3) Utilize the best available evidence to define and measure indicators of quality and facility goals that reflect processes of care and facility operations that have been shown to be predictive of desired outcomes for residents of a SNF or NF.
(4) Reflect the complexities, unique care, and services that the facility provides.
(c)
(1) Facility maintenance of effective systems to obtain and use of feedback and input from direct care staff, other staff, residents, and resident representatives, including how such information will be used to identify problems that are high risk, high volume, or problem-prone, and opportunities for improvement.
(2) Facility maintenance of effective systems to identify, collect, and use data and information from all departments, including but not limited to the facility assessment required at § 483.70(e) and including how such information will be used to develop and monitor performance indicators.
(3) Facility development, monitoring, and evaluation of performance indicators, including the methodology and frequency for such development, monitoring, and evaluation.
(4) Facility adverse event monitoring, including the methods by which the facility will systematically identify, report, track, investigate, analyze and use data and information relating to adverse events in the facility, including how the facility will use the data to develop activities to prevent adverse events.
(d)
(2) The facility will develop and implement policies addressing:
(i) How they will use a systematic approach to determine underlying causes of problems impacting larger systems;
(ii) How they will develop corrective actions that will be designed to effect change at the systems level to prevent quality of care, quality of life, or safety problems ; and
(iii) How the facility will monitor the effectiveness of its performance
(e)
(2) Performance improvement activities must track medical errors and adverse resident events, analyze their causes, and implement preventive actions and mechanisms that include feedback and learning throughout the facility.
(3) As a part of their performance improvement activities, the facility must conduct distinct performance improvement projects. The number and frequency of improvement projects conducted by the facility must reflect the scope and complexity of the facility's services and available resources, as reflected in the facility assessment required at § 483.70(e). Improvement projects must include at least annually a project that focuses on high risk or problem-prone areas identified through the data collection and analysis described in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
(f)
(1) An ongoing QAPI program is defined, implemented, and maintained and addresses identified priorities.
(2) The QAPI program is sustained during transitions in leadership and staffing;
(3) The QAPI program is adequately resourced, including ensuring staff time, equipment, and technical training as needed;
(4) The QAPI program identifies and prioritizes problems and opportunities that reflect organizational process, functions, and services provided to resident based on performance indicator data, and resident and staff input, and other information.
(5) Corrective actions address gaps in systems, and are evaluated for effectiveness; and
(6) Clear expectations are set around safety, quality, rights, choice, and respect.
(g)
(i) The director of nursing services;
(ii) The Medical Director or his or her designee;
(iii) At least three other members of the facility's staff, at least one of who must be the administrator, owner, a board member or other individual in a leadership role; and
(iv) The infection control and prevention officer.
(2) The quality assessment and assurance committee reports to the facility's governing body, or designated person(s) functioning as a governing body regarding its activities, including implementation of the QAPI program required under paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section. The committee must:
(i) Meet at least quarterly and as needed to coordinate and evaluate activities under the QAPI program, such as identifying issues with respect to which quality assessment and assurance activities, including performance improvement projects required under the QAPI program, are necessary; and
(ii) Develop and implement appropriate plans of action to correct identified quality deficiencies; and
(iii) Regularly review and analyze data, including data collected under the QAPI program and data resulting from drug regimen reviews, and act on available data to make improvements.
(h)
(i)
The facility must establish and maintain an infection prevention and control program designed to provide a safe, sanitary, and comfortable environment and to help prevent the development and transmission of communicable diseases and infections.
(a)
(1) A system for preventing, identifying, reporting, investigating, and controlling infections and communicable diseases for all residents, staff, volunteers, visitors, and other individuals providing services under a contractual arrangement based upon the facility assessment conducted according to § 483.70(e) and following accepted national standards;
(2) Written standards, policies, and procedures for the program, which must include, but are not limited to:
(i) A system of surveillance designed to identify possible communicable diseases or infections before they can spread to other persons in the facility;
(ii) When and to whom possible incidents of communicable disease or infections should be reported;
(iii) Standard and transmission-based precautions to be followed to prevent spread of infections;
(iv) When and how isolation should be used for a resident; including but not limited to:
(A) The type and duration of the isolation, depending upon the infectious agent or organism involved, and
(B) A requirement that the isolation should be the least restrictive possible for the resident under the circumstances.
(v) The circumstances under which the facility must prohibit employees with a communicable disease or infected skin lesions from direct contact with residents or their food, if direct contact will transmit the disease; and
(vi) The hand hygiene procedures to be followed by staff involved in direct resident contact.
(3) An antibiotic stewardship program that includes antibiotic use protocols and a system to monitor antibiotic use.
(4) A system for recording incidents identified under the facility's IPCP and the corrective actions taken by the facility.
(b)
(1) Have primary professional training in nursing, medical technology, microbiology, epidemiology, or other related field;
(2) Be qualified by education, training, experience or certification;
(3) Work at least part-time at the facility; and
(4) Have completed specialized training in infection prevention and control.
(c)
(d)
(i) Before offering the influenza immunization, each resident or the resident's representative receives education regarding the benefits and potential side effects of the immunization;
(ii) Each resident is offered an influenza immunization October 1 through March 31 annually, unless the immunization is medically contraindicated or the resident has already been immunized during this time period;
(iii) The resident or the resident's representative has the opportunity to refuse immunization; and
(iv) The resident's medical record includes documentation that indicates, at a minimum, the following:
(A) That the resident or resident's representative was provided education regarding the benefits and potential side effects of influenza immunization; and
(B) That the resident either received the influenza immunization or did not receive the influenza immunization due to medical contraindications or refusal.
(2)
(i) Before offering the pneumococcal immunization, each resident or the resident's representative receives education regarding the benefits and potential side effects of the immunization;
(ii) Each resident is offered a pneumococcal immunization, unless the immunization is medically contraindicated or the resident has already been immunized;
(iii) The resident or the resident's representative has the opportunity to refuse immunization; and
(iv) The resident's medical record includes documentation that indicates, at a minimum, the following:
(A) That the resident or resident's representative was provided education regarding the benefits and potential side effects of pneumococcal immunization; and
(B) That the resident either received the pneumococcal immunization or did not receive the pneumococcal immunization due to medical contraindication or refusal.
(e)
(f)
(a)
(1) Has been reasonably designed, implemented, and enforced so that it is likely to be effective in preventing and detecting criminal, civil, and administrative violations under the Act and in promoting quality of care; and
(2) Includes, at a minimum, the required components specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
(b)
(c)
(1) Established written compliance and ethics standards, policies, and procedures to follow that are reasonably capable of reducing the prospect of criminal, civil, and administrative violations under the Act and promote quality of care, which include, but are not limited to, the designation of an appropriate compliance and ethics program contact to which individuals may report suspected violations, as well as an alternate method of reporting suspected violations anonymously without fear of retribution; and disciplinary standards that set out the consequences for committing violations for the operating organization's entire staff; individuals providing services under a contractual arrangement; and volunteers, consistent with the volunteers' expected roles.
(2) Assignment of specific individuals within the high-level personnel of the operating organization with the overall responsibility to oversee compliance with the operating organization's compliance and ethics program's standards, policies, and procedures, such as, but not limited to, the chief executive officer (CEO), members of the board of directors, or directors of major divisions in the operating organization.
(3) Sufficient resources and authority to the specific individuals designated in paragraph (c)(2) of this section to reasonably assure compliance with such standards, policies, and procedures.
(4) Due care not to delegate substantial discretionary authority to individuals who the operating organization knew, or should have known through the exercise of due diligence, had a propensity to engage in criminal, civil, and administrative violations under the Social Security Act.
(5) The facility takes steps to effectively communicate the standards, policies, and procedures in the operating organization's compliance and ethics program to the operating organization's entire staff; individuals providing services under a contractual arrangement; and volunteers, consistent with the volunteers' expected roles. Requirements include, but are not limited to, mandatory participation in training as set forth at § 483.95(f) or orientation programs, or disseminating information that explains in a practical manner what is required under the program.
(6) The facility takes reasonable steps to achieve compliance with the program's standards, policies, and procedures. Such steps include, but are not limited to, utilizing monitoring and auditing systems reasonably designed to detect criminal, civil, and administrative violations under the Act by any of the operating organization's staff, individuals providing services under a contractual arrangement, or volunteers, having in place and publicizing a reporting system whereby any of these individuals could report violations by others anonymously within the operating organization without fear of retribution, and having a process for ensuring the integrity of any reported data.
(7) Consistent enforcement of the operating organization's standards, policies, and procedures through appropriate disciplinary mechanisms, including, as appropriate, discipline of individuals responsible for the failure to detect and report a violation to the compliance and ethics program contact identified in the operating organization's compliance and ethics program.
(8) After a violation is detected, the operating organization must ensure that all reasonable steps identified in its program are taken to respond appropriately to the violation and to prevent further similar violations, including any necessary modification to the operating organization's program to
(d)
(1) A mandatory annual training program on the operating organization's compliance and ethics program that meets the requirements set forth in § 483.95(f).
(2) A designated compliance officer for whom the operating organization's compliance and ethics program is a major responsibility. This individual must report directly to the operating organization's governing body and not be subordinate to the general counsel, chief financial officer or chief operating officer.
(3) Designated compliance liaisons located at each of the operating organization's facilities.
(e)
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(c)
(1) Provide sufficient space and equipment in dining, health services, recreation, living, and program areas to enable staff to provide residents with needed services as required by these standards and as identified in each resident's assessment and plan of care; and
(2) Maintain all mechanical, electrical, and patient care equipment in safe operating condition.
(3) Conduct regular inspection of all bed frames, mattresses, and bed rails, if any, as part of a regular maintenance program to identify areas of possible entrapment. When bed rails and mattresses are used and purchased separately from the bed frame, the facility must ensure that the bed rails, mattress, and bed frame are compatible.
(e) * * *
(1) * * *
(i) Accommodate no more than four residents. For facilities that receive approval of construction or reconstruction plans by State and local authorities or are newly certified after November 28, 2016, bedrooms must accommodate no more than two residents.
(2) * * *
(i) A separate bed of proper size and height for the safety and convenience of the resident;
(f)
(g)
(1) Each resident's bedside; and
(h) * * *
(2) Be well ventilated;
(i) * * *
(5) Establish policies, in accordance with applicable Federal, State, and local laws and regulations, regarding smoking, smoking areas, and smoking safety that also take into account non-smoking residents.
A facility must develop, implement, and maintain an effective training program for all new and existing staff; individuals providing services under a contractual arrangement; and volunteers, consistent with their expected roles. A facility must determine the amount and types of training necessary based on a facility assessment as specified at § 483.70(e). Training topics must include but are not limited to—
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) Activities that constitute abuse, neglect, exploitation, and misappropriation of resident property as set forth at § 483.12.
(2) Procedures for reporting incidents of abuse, neglect, exploitation, or the misappropriation of resident property.
(3) Dementia management and resident abuse prevention.
(d)
(e)
(f)
(1) An effective way to communicate that program's standards, policies, and procedures through a training program or in another practical manner which explains the requirements under the program.
(2) Annual training if the operating organization operates five or more facilities.
(g)
(1) Be sufficient to ensure the continuing competence of nurse aides, but must be no less than 12 hours per year.
(2) Include dementia management training and resident abuse prevention training.
(3) Address areas of weakness as determined in nurse aides' performance reviews and facility assessment at § 483.70(e) and may address the special needs of residents as determined by the facility staff.
(4) For nurse aides providing services to individuals with cognitive impairments, also address the care of the cognitively impaired.
(h)
(i)
Secs. 1102 and 1871 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1302 and 1395(hh)).
(d) * * *
(1) Resident rights (§ 483.10(a)(4)(iv), (b), (c), (d)(1), (d)(3), (e)(8), (g), and (h)(3) of this chapter).
(2) Facility responsibilities (§ 483.11(d)(1)(i), (d)(1)(iii), (d)(4), (e)(11), (e)(12), (e)(14)(iii), and (f)(1)(i) of this chapter).
(3) Admission, transfer, and discharge rights (§ 483.5(n), § 483.15(b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3)(i) through (iii), (b)(4), (b)(5)(i) through (vii), and (b)(7) of this chapter).
(4) Freedom from abuse, neglect and exploitation (§ 483.12 of this chapter).
(5) Patient activities (§ 483.25(c) of this chapter), except that the services may be directed either by a qualified professional meeting the requirements of § 485.25(c)(2), or by an individual on the facility staff who is designated as the activities director and who serves in consultation with a therapeutic recreation specialist, occupational therapist, or other professional with experience or education in recreational therapy.
(6) Social services (§ 483.40(d) and § 483.75(p) of this chapter).
(7) Comprehensive assessment, comprehensive care plan, and discharge planning (§ 483.20(b), and § 483.21(b) and (c) of this chapter), except that the CAH is not required to use the resident assessment instrument (RAI) specified by the State that is required under § 483.20(b), or to comply with the requirements for frequency, scope, and number of assessments prescribed in § 413.343(b) of this chapter).
(8) Specialized rehabilitative services (§ 483.65 of this chapter).
(9) Dental services (§ 483.55 of this chapter).
(10) Nutrition (§ 483.25(d)(8) of this chapter).
Secs. 1102, 1128I and 1871 of the Social Security Act, unless otherwise noted (42 U.S.C. 1302, 1320a-7j, and 1395hh); Pub. L. 110-149, 121 Stat. 1819. Sec. 1102 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1302).
Secs. 1102 and 1871 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1302 and 1395hh).
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Final rule.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, add 1 national wildlife refuge (NWR or refuge) to the list of areas open for hunting, increase the hunting activities available at 12 other NWRs, open 1 refuge to fishing for the first time, and add pertinent refuge-specific regulations for other NWRs that pertain to migratory game bird hunting, upland game hunting, big game hunting, and sport fishing for the 2016-2017 season.
This rule is effective October 4, 2016.
Jillian Cohen, (703) 358-1764.
The National Wildlife Refuge System Administration Act of 1966 closes NWRs in all States except Alaska to all uses until opened. The Secretary of the Interior (Secretary) may open refuge areas to any use, including hunting and/or sport fishing, upon a determination that the use is compatible with the purposes of the refuge and National Wildlife Refuge System mission. The action also must be in accordance with provisions of all laws applicable to the areas, developed in coordination with the appropriate State fish and wildlife agency(ies), consistent with the principles of sound fish and wildlife management and administration, and otherwise in the public interest. These requirements ensure that we maintain the biological integrity, diversity, and environmental health of the Refuge System for the benefit of present and future generations of Americans.
We annually review refuge hunting and sport fishing programs to determine whether to include additional refuges or whether individual refuge regulations governing existing programs need modifications. Changing environmental conditions, State and Federal regulations, and other factors affecting fish and wildlife populations and habitat may warrant modifications to refuge-specific regulations to ensure the continued compatibility of hunting and sport fishing programs and to ensure that these programs will not materially interfere with or detract from the fulfillment of refuge purposes or the Refuge System's mission.
Provisions governing hunting and sport fishing on refuges are in title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations in part 32 (50 CFR part 32). We regulate hunting and sport fishing on refuges to:
• Ensure compatibility with refuge purpose(s);
• Properly manage fish and wildlife resource(s);
• Protect other refuge values;
• Ensure refuge visitor safety; and
• Provide opportunities for quality fish- and wildlife-dependent recreation.
On many refuges where we decide to allow hunting and sport fishing, our general policy of adopting regulations identical to State hunting and sport fishing regulations is adequate in meeting these objectives. On other refuges, we must supplement State regulations with more-restrictive Federal regulations to ensure that we meet our management responsibilities, as outlined in the Statutory Authority section, below. We issue refuge-specific hunting and sport fishing regulations when we open wildlife refuges to migratory game bird hunting, upland game hunting, big game hunting, or sport fishing. These regulations may list the wildlife species that you may hunt or fish, seasons, bag or creel (container for carrying fish) limits, methods of hunting or sport fishing, descriptions of areas open to hunting or sport fishing, and other provisions as appropriate. You may find previously issued refuge-specific regulations for hunting and sport fishing in 50 CFR part 32. In this rulemaking, we are also standardizing and clarifying the language of existing regulations.
The National Wildlife Refuge System Administration Act of 1966 (16 U.S.C. 668dd-668ee, as amended by the National Wildlife Refuge System Improvement Act of 1997 [Improvement Act]) (Administration Act), and the Refuge Recreation Act of 1962 (16 U.S.C. 460k-460k-4) (Recreation Act) govern the administration and public use of refuges.
Amendments enacted by the Improvement Act built upon the Administration Act in a manner that provides an “organic act” for the Refuge System, similar to organic acts that exist for other public Federal lands. The Improvement Act serves to ensure that we effectively manage the Refuge System as a national network of lands, waters, and interests for the protection and conservation of our Nation's wildlife resources. The Administration Act states first and foremost that we focus our Refuge System mission on conservation of fish, wildlife, and plant resources and their habitats. The Improvement Act requires the Secretary, before allowing a new use of a refuge, or before expanding, renewing, or extending an existing use of a refuge, to determine that the use is compatible with the purpose for which the refuge was established and the mission of the Refuge System. The Improvement Act established as the policy of the United States that wildlife-dependent recreation, when compatible, is a legitimate and appropriate public use of the Refuge System, through which the American public can develop an appreciation for fish and wildlife. The Improvement Act established six wildlife-dependent recreational uses as the priority general public uses of the Refuge System. These uses are: Hunting, fishing, wildlife observation and photography, and environmental education and interpretation.
The Recreation Act authorizes the Secretary to administer areas within the Refuge System for public recreation as an appropriate incidental or secondary use only to the extent that doing so is practicable and not inconsistent with the primary purpose(s) for which Congress and the Service established the areas. The Recreation Act requires that any recreational use of refuge lands be compatible with the primary purpose(s) for which we established the refuge and not inconsistent with other previously authorized operations.
The Administration Act and Recreation Act also authorize the Secretary to issue regulations to carry out the purposes of the Acts and regulate uses.
We develop specific management plans for each refuge prior to opening it to hunting or sport fishing. In many cases, we develop refuge-specific regulations to ensure the compatibility of the programs with the purpose(s) for which we established the refuge and the Refuge System mission. We ensure initial compliance with the Administration Act and the Recreation Act for hunting and sport fishing on newly acquired refuges through an interim determination of compatibility made at or near the time of acquisition. These regulations ensure that we make the determinations required by these acts prior to adding refuges to the lists of areas open to hunting and sport fishing in 50 CFR part 32. We ensure continued compliance by the development of comprehensive conservation plans, specific plans, and
On July 14, 2016, we published a proposed rule (81 FR 45790) to add 1 refuge to the list of areas open for hunting, increase the hunting activities available at 12 other refuges, open 1 refuge to fishing for the first time, and add pertinent refuge-specific regulations for other refuges that pertain to migratory game bird hunting, upland game hunting, big game hunting, and sport fishing for the 2016-2017 season. We accepted public comments on the proposed rule for 30 days, ending August 15, 2016. By that date, we received 601 comments. Below, we discuss the comments we received by topic.
We allow hunting of resident wildlife on NWRs only if such activity has been determined compatible with the established purpose(s) of the refuge and the mission of the Refuge System as required by the Administration Act. Hunting of resident wildlife on NWRs generally occurs consistent with State regulations, including seasons and bag limits. Refuge-specific hunting regulations can be more restrictive (but not more liberal) than State regulations and often are more restrictive in order to help meet specific refuge objectives. These objectives include resident wildlife population and habitat objectives, minimizing disturbance impacts to wildlife, maintaining high-quality opportunities for hunting and other wildlife-dependent recreation, eliminating or minimizing conflicts with other public uses and/or refuge management activities, and protecting public safety.
Each refuge manager makes a decision regarding hunting on that particular refuge only after rigorous examination of the available information. Developing or referencing a comprehensive conservation plan (CCP), a 15-year plan for the refuge, is generally the first step a refuge manager takes. Our policy for managing units of the Refuge System is that we will manage all refuges in accordance with an approved CCP, which, when implemented, will achieve refuge purposes; help fulfill the Refuge System mission; maintain and, where appropriate, restore the ecological integrity of each refuge and the Refuge System; help achieve the goals of the National Wilderness Preservation System; and meet other mandates. The CCP will guide management decisions and set forth goals, objectives, and strategies to accomplish these ends. The next step for refuge managers is developing or referencing step-down plans, of which a hunting plan would be one. Part of the process for opening a refuge to hunting after completing the step-down plan would be appropriate compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321
In sum, this illustrates that the decision to allow hunting on an NWR is not a quick or simple process. It is full of deliberation and discussion, including review of all available data to determine the relative health of a population before we allow it to be hunted.
The word “refuge” includes the idea of providing a haven of safety for wildlife, and as such, hunting might seem an inconsistent use of the NWRS. But again, the Administration Act stipulates that hunting, if found compatible, is a legitimate and priority general public use of a refuge. Furthermore, we manage refuges to support healthy wildlife populations that in many cases produce harvestable surpluses that are a renewable resource. As practiced on refuges, hunting and fishing do not pose a threat to wildlife populations. It is important to note that taking certain individuals through hunting does not necessarily reduce a population overall, as hunting can simply replace other types of mortality. In some cases, however, we use hunting as a management tool with the explicit goal of reducing a population; this is often the case with exotic and/or invasive species that threaten ecosystem stability. Therefore, facilitating hunting opportunities is an important aspect of the Service's roles and responsibilities as outlined in the legislation establishing the NWRS, and the Service will continue to facilitate these opportunities where compatible with the purpose of the specific refuge and the mission of the NWRS.
Note that not all refuges are inviolate sanctuaries. If we acquired a refuge as an inviolate sanctuary, we may open up to 40 percent of that refuge's area for hunting of migratory game birds (16 U.S.C. 668dd(d)(1)(A)). However, if we acquired a refuge without the stipulation that it be an inviolate sanctuary, we may open 100 percent of the refuge's area for hunting.
The Fish and Wildlife Improvement Act of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-616) amended section 6 of the Administration Act to provide for the opening of all or any portion of an inviolate sanctuary to the taking of migratory birds if taking is determined to be beneficial to the species. Such opening of more than 40 percent of the refuge to hunting is determined by species. This amendment refers to inviolate sanctuaries created in the past or to be created in the future. It has no application to areas acquired for other management purposes.
We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of these comments.
The Service continues to open and expand hunting opportunities across the NWRS, as evidenced by this final rule; however, as detailed in our response to
The refuges in this rulemaking use a variety of techniques to reduce user conflict, such as specific hunt seasons, limited hunting hours, restricting which parts of the refuge are open to hunting, and restricting the number of hunters. Refuge managers also use public outreach tools, such as signs and brochures, to make users aware of hunting and their options for minimizing conflict. Most refuges have refuge-specific regulations to improve the quality of the hunting experience as well as provide for quality wildlife-dependent experiences for other users. The Service is aware of several studies showing a correlation between increased hunting and decreased wildlife sightings, which underscores the importance of using the aforementioned techniques, particularly time and space zoning of hunting, to ensure a quality experience for all refuge visitors. We also note that Denali and Yellowstone are part of the National Park System, not the NWRS. More information on how a specific refuge facilitates various wildlife-dependent recreation opportunities can be found in the refuge's CCP, hunt plan, and/or refuge-specific EA/EIS for this rule. The public may contact the specific refuge for any of these materials.
We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of these comments.
The commenter is incorrect in assuming that no significant fines or charges are associated with hunting violations. Penalties for illegally taking wildlife on a refuge can range as high as 1 year in jail and/or $100,000 in fines (16 U.S.C. 668dd(f)(1)). In some cases, felony provisions of the Lacey Act (16 U.S.C. 3371
We considered the impacts of hunting on target and non-target populations through individual EAs or an EIS for each of the proposed hunting openings and expansions. We also consider the cumulative impacts of all proposed hunts in the 2016-2017 Cumulative Impacts Report accompanying the proposed rule. In each case, the number of animals to be taken is too small to shift the genetic makeup of the population in any significant way. We made no changes to the rule as a result of these comments.
The Service completed individual EAs for 10 refuges and one EIS for the San Luis Valley National Wildlife Refuge Complex (which includes Alamosa, Baca, and Monte Vista NWRs) in compliance with NEPA to evaluate the impacts of opening or expanding hunting opportunities on refuges in connection with this rulemaking. These EAs/EIS underwent regional and national review to address and consider these actions from a multi-State or flyway perspective, and to discuss the cumulative impacts from this larger geographical context. The 2016-2017 Cumulative Impacts Report supports
As for the comment on precedential future refuge management, most of the activities that are part of this rulemaking are either expanding the areas for existing hunts or adding new species to existing hunts—species that are already hunted nearby off refuge. We also note that the Service annually conducts notice-and-comment rulemaking to revise the refuge-specific regulations at 50 CFR part 32; therefore, if, in the future, the Service obtained new information that changes our analysis of impacts either locally, regionally, or nationally, we would promptly undertake revisions to the regulations as needed. It is also worth noting that each refuge must revise its CCP every 15 years, which would include an evaluation of any hunting or fishing programs. Finally, as noted in our response to
The Service understands that some members of the public do not believe that hunting on refuges is ethical. However, the Administration Act, as amended, stipulates that hunting and fishing, if found to be compatible, are legitimate and priority public uses of a refuge and should be facilitated. As detailed above in our response to
We must base our decisions on the best available science, and commenters have not provided information that would change our analysis. Our hunting programs are consistent with State regulations and, where necessary, use more stringent refuge-specific regulations to ensure that hunting and fishing are carried out in a safe, responsible manner. We made no changes to the rule as a result of these comments.
Furthermore, the Service would like to address the comment about certain mitigation measures such as “sanctuary areas.” To the contrary, the 2016-2017 Cumulative Impacts Report concluded that none of the refuge-specific EAs found that there would be significant adverse cumulative impacts to wildlife populations. Additionally, when looking at the EA/EISs collectively with the refuges that already allow hunting, the Service concluded that the cumulative impacts on non-hunted wildlife populations would be
The Service is not required to mitigate for every impact from hunting. The Service will mitigate where there are:
• Population-level effects to non-sensitive wildlife, including game species, through future restrictions, such as smaller bag limits or season closures; or
• Potential impacts to sensitive wildlife, such as species listed as endangered or threatened under the Endangered Species Act.
The Service may close or alter hunts as needed.
The specific refuge makes all of these management decisions, and, therefore, we do not discuss them in detail in the 2016-2017 Cumulative Impacts Report. However, more information on a refuge-specific hunting plan, including the establishment of non-hunted sanctuary areas on a refuge, can be found in the refuge's CCP, hunt plan, and/or refuge-specific EA/EIS for this rulemaking. The public may contact the specific refuge for any of these materials.
The Service continues to research this issue and engage with States and other partners to promote the use of non-lead ammunition. The Administration Act, as amended, directs the Service to make refuge regulations as consistent with State regulations as practicable. We share a strong partnership with the States in managing wildlife, and, therefore, we are proceeding with the phase-out of toxic ammunition in a coordinated manner with each respective State wildlife agency. Notably, as part of this rulemaking, 22 refuges have limited the use of toxic shot for hunting either upland game, big game, or both. None of these refuges is in the State of California, where lead ammunition is already banned under State law and is therefore banned on all refuges in California.
Currently, the State of Colorado does not require the use of nontoxic bullets for either rifles or muzzleloaders. As part of this rulemaking, Alamosa, Baca, and Monte Vista NWRs require nontoxic ammunition for migratory game bird and upland game hunting. The Service will continue to work with the State of Colorado to further phase-out toxic ammunition on these refuges.
We disagree that any use of lead shot related to the opening or expanding hunting and fishing on the 13 refuges in this rulemaking will harm endangered or threatened species. Each of the refuges carefully evaluated possible effects to endangered and threatened species as part of the NEPA process. In addition, each refuge complied with section 7 of the Endangered Species Act, which requires Federal agencies to ensure that the actions they carry out, fund, or authorize do not jeopardize the continued existence of endangered or threatened species (“listed species”). For each refuge, the Service determined that the proposed action was not likely to affect any listed species.
While the Service is concerned about the impacts of spent lead ammunition on scavengers, we can conclude without a detailed cumulative impacts analysis that the limited use of lead ammunition allowed on refuges will have an insignificant effect on refuge resources. We reach this conclusion because the amount of spent lead ammunition on refuges nationwide is so small compared to the amount of spent lead ammunition in the environment. Therefore, the Service has not revised the 2016-2017 Cumulative Impacts Report based on these comments. Lastly, for the comment about California refuges, under the Administration Act, as amended, refuge-specific regulations can be more restrictive, but not more liberal, than State regulations. We are removing the provisions regarding nontoxic shot from some California refuges' regulations to avoid redundancy and confusion now that the State has banned lead ammunition for hunting. The regulations for each of the refuges in question clearly state that State regulations apply. It would be confusing for the public to pick certain State provisions to repeat in our refuge-regulations and not others. It is important to note, however, that the refuges may still remind the public of the prohibition on lead ammunition through hunt brochures, announcements at meetings, postings at visitor's centers, and through interactions with refuge staff.
We made no changes to the rule as a result of these comments.
When developing the CCPs and step-down hunting plans for each refuge, the refuge manager takes into account budgetary needs for increased hunting opportunities. The refuge manager only proposes a hunt if he or she anticipates having sufficient funds to ensure compatibility and administer the activity appropriately. Typically, you can find this information under the “Staffing and Funds” section of each refuge's hunt plan, which were made publicly available when first issued, and remain available at each refuge's Web site. In some cases, refuges find some budgetary relief in user fees, which are sufficient to cover the cost of increased opportunities.
Finally, as discussed earlier in our response to
Through sound professional judgment, as well as consultation with Colorado Parks and Wildlife, we found that the limited number of elk that will be harvested will not affect the sustainability of the population. We designed refuge-specific regulations to provide a safe and high-quality hunting experience, minimize wildlife disturbance, ensure wildlife conservation, and reduce or avoid conflicts with other refuge users. In addition to providing quality elk hunting opportunities, another objective
There was no financial motivation behind opening the elk hunts in the San Luis Valley. The hunts will generate relatively little revenue, as only a limited number of elk hunters will be allowed. Moreover, these hunters would likely have purchased licenses anyway for hunts elsewhere, even if these particular hunts were not offered.
Currently, relatively few natural predators exist for elk on the refuges, with the exception of coyotes. There currently is no control of coyotes on any of the refuges. During the development of the CCP, the introduction of other natural predators was addressed, but was determined not to be a viable option based on substantial public opposition. We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of this comment.
As discussed above, under Summary of Comments and Responses, based on comments we received on the proposed rule, we made changes to the regulatory text in this final rule from what we proposed for Montezuma NWR (in New York), Choctaw NWR (in Alabama), Buffalo Lake NWR (in Texas), and Billy Frank Jr. Nisqually NWR (in Washington). In general, we make these changes for clarity and consistency. Specifically, for Montezuma NWR, we removed reference to “hunter satisfaction” in the provisions concerning when the refuge manager may restrict hunting implements beyond State restrictions, and we allow dogs when hunting migratory game birds. For Choctaw NWR, we separated the provision concerning the use of nontoxic shot from the provision concerning the take of incidental species. For Buffalo Lake NWR, we removed the prohibition on the use of silencers or any like devices that alter noise on a firearm for the youth hunt, which is consistent with Texas' regulations. For Billy Frank Jr. Nisqually NWR, in consultation with the State of Washington Department of Fish and Wildlife, we revised the language concerning sport fishing to clarify where the Service has jurisdiction over fishing and how refuge users can access areas to fish.
We also made minor editorial changes to the entries for several refuges to clarify which forms or other documentation are required for certain activities. For example, for several refuges, in certain provisions, we stated that a hunter needs a valid permit, without specifying whether that permit is a State-issued or a refuge permit. We clarify those instances in this rule. As another example, for some refuges, we stated in the proposed rule that a hunter must obtain a refuge Special Use Permit (FWS Form 3-1383) to hunt in certain areas of a refuge or conduct certain other activities. FWS Form 3-1383 is, however, not a complete FWS form number, but a generic reference to the category of Special Use Permits used by the Service. In this final rule, we specify complete and exact Special Use Permit form numbers, such as FWS Form 3-1383-G, in those places of the proposed rule where we used the abbreviated form number.
This rule is effective upon publication in the
This document adopts in the Code of Federal Regulations all of the Service's hunting and/or sport fishing regulations that we are updating since the last time we published a rule amending these regulations (80 FR 51878; August 26, 2015) and that are applicable at Refuge System units previously opened to hunting and/or sport fishing. We are taking this action to better inform the general public of the regulations at each refuge, to increase understanding and compliance with these regulations, and to make enforcement of these regulations more efficient. In addition to now finding these regulations in 50 CFR part 32, visitors to our refuges may find them reiterated in literature distributed by each refuge or posted on signs.
We cross-reference a number of existing regulations in 50 CFR parts 26, 27, 28, and 32 to assist hunting and sport fishing visitors with understanding safety and other legal requirements on refuges. This redundancy is deliberate, with the intention of improving safety and compliance in our hunting and sport fishing programs.
The changes for the 2016-17 hunting/fishing season noted in the chart above are each based on a complete administrative record, which, among other detailed documentation, also includes a hunt plan, a compatibility determination, and the appropriate NEPA analysis, all of which were the subject of a public review and comment process. These documents are available upon request. In this rule, we are also adopting new names for two refuges, White River National Wildlife Refuge and Nisqually National Wildlife Refuge. The new name for White River National Wildlife Refuge is Dale Bumpers White River National Wildlife Refuge, and the new name for Nisqually National Wildlife Refuge is Billy Frank Jr. Nisqually National Wildlife Refuge.
For health reasons, anglers should review and follow State-issued consumption advisories before enjoying recreational sport fishing opportunities on Service-managed waters. You can find information about current fish-consumption advisories on the Internet at:
In this rule, we revise some regulations for individual refuge units to comply with a Presidential mandate to use plain language in regulations; these particular revisions do not modify the substance of the previous regulations. These types of changes include using “you” to refer to the reader and “we” to refer to the Refuge System, using the word “allow” instead of “permit” when we do not require the use of a permit for an activity, and using active voice (
Executive Order 12866 provides that the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) will review all significant rules. OIRA has determined that this rulemaking is not significant.
Executive Order 13563 reaffirms the principles of E.O. 12866 while calling for improvements in the nation's regulatory system to promote predictability, to reduce uncertainty, and to use the best, most innovative, and least burdensome tools for achieving regulatory ends. The executive order directs agencies to consider regulatory approaches that reduce burdens and maintain flexibility and freedom of choice for the public where these approaches are relevant, feasible, and consistent with regulatory objectives. E.O. 13563 emphasizes further that regulations must be based on the best available science and that the rulemaking process must allow for public participation and an open exchange of ideas. We have developed this rule in a manner consistent with these requirements.
Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act [SBREFA] of 1996) (5 U.S.C. 601
This rule adds 1 national wildlife refuge to the list of refuges open to hunting and increases hunting or fishing activities on 12 additional national wildlife refuges. It adds one national wildlife refuge to the list of refuges open to fishing. As a result, visitor use for wildlife-dependent recreation on these NWRs will change. If the refuges establishing new programs were a pure addition to the current supply of those activities, it would mean an estimated increase of 4,045 user days (one person per day participating in a recreational opportunity, Table 2). Because the participation trend is flat in these activities since 1991, this increase in supply will most likely be offset by other sites losing participants. Therefore, this is likely to be a substitute site for the activity and not necessarily an increase in participation rates for the activity.
To the extent visitors spend time and money in the area of the refuge that they would not have spent there anyway, they contribute new income to the regional economy and benefit local businesses. Due to the unavailability of site-specific expenditure data, we use the national estimates from the 2011 National Survey of Fishing, Hunting, and Wildlife Associated Recreation to identify expenditures for food and lodging, transportation, and other incidental expenses. Using the average expenditures for these categories with the maximum expected additional participation of the Refuge System yields approximately $158,000 in recreation-related expenditures (Table 2). By having ripple effects throughout the economy, these direct expenditures are only part of the economic impact of these recreational activities. Using a national impact multiplier for hunting activities (2.27) derived from the report “Hunting in America: An Economic Force for Conservation” and for fishing activities (2.40) derived from the report “Sportfishing in America” yields a total economic impact of approximately $358,000 (2015 dollars) (Southwick Associates, Inc., 2012). Using a local impact multiplier would yield more accurate and smaller results. However, we employed the national impact multiplier due to the difficulty in developing local multipliers for each specific region.
Since we know that most of the fishing and hunting occurs within 100 miles of a participant's residence, then it is unlikely that most of this spending would be “new” money coming into a local economy; therefore, this spending would be offset with a decrease in some other sector of the local economy. The net gain to the local economies would be no more than $358,000, and most likely considerably less. Since 80 percent of the participants travel less than 100 miles to engage in hunting and fishing activities, their spending patterns would not add new money into the local economy and, therefore, the real impact would be on the order of about $72,000 annually.
Small businesses within the retail trade industry (such as hotels, gas stations, taxidermy shops, bait-and-tackle shops, and similar businesses) may be affected by some increased or decreased refuge visitation. A large percentage of these retail trade establishments in the local communities around NWRs qualify as small businesses (Table 3). We expect that the incremental recreational changes will be scattered, and so we do not expect that the rule will have a significant economic effect on a substantial number of small entities in any region or nationally. As noted previously, we expect approximately $158,000 to be spent in total in the refuges' local economies. The maximum increase at most would be less than one-tenth of 1 percent for local retail trade spending (Table 3).
With the small change in overall spending anticipated from this rule, it is unlikely that a substantial number of small entities will have more than a small impact from the spending change near the affected refuges. Therefore, we certify that this rule will not have a significant economic effect on a substantial number of small entities as defined under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
The rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804(2), the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act. We anticipate no significant employment or small business effects. This rule:
a. Will not have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more. The minimal impact will be scattered across the country and will most likely not be significant in any local area.
b. Will not cause a major increase in costs or prices for consumers; individual industries; Federal, State, or local government agencies; or geographic regions. This rule will have only a slight effect on the costs of hunting opportunities for Americans. If the substitute sites are farther from the participants' residences, then an increase in travel costs will occur. The Service does not have information to quantify this change in travel cost but assumes that, since most people travel less than 100 miles to hunt, the increased travel cost will be small. We do not expect this rule to affect the supply or demand for hunting opportunities in the United States, and, therefore, it should not affect prices for hunting equipment and supplies, or the retailers that sell equipment.
c. Will not have significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or the ability of U.S.-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises. This rule represents only a small proportion of recreational spending at NWRs. Therefore, this rule will have no measurable economic effect on the wildlife-dependent industry, which has annual sales of equipment and travel expenditures of $72 billion nationwide.
Since this rule applies to public use of federally owned and managed refuges, it will not impose an unfunded mandate on State, local, or Tribal governments or the private sector of more than $100 million per year. The rule will not have a significant or unique effect on State, local, or Tribal governments or the private sector. A statement containing the information required by the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (2 U.S.C. 1531
In accordance with E.O. 12630, this rule will not have significant takings implications. This rule affects only visitors at NWRs and describes what they can do while they are on a refuge.
As discussed in Regulatory Planning and Review and Unfunded Mandates Reform Act, above, this rule will not have sufficient federalism implications
In accordance with E.O. 12988, the Department of the Interior has determined that this rule does not unduly burden the judicial system and that it meets the requirements of sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of the Order. The rule clarifies established regulations and will result in better understanding of the regulations by refuge visitors.
E.O. 13211 of May 18, 2001, requires agencies to prepare Statements of Energy Effects when undertaking certain actions that significantly affect energy supply, distribution, and use. Because this rule adds a new hunt at 1 NWR, increases hunting or fishing activities at 12 other NWRs, and adds fishing to 1 NWR, it is not a significant regulatory action under E.O. 12866, and we do not expect it to significantly affect energy supplies, distribution, or use. Therefore, this action is not a significant energy action, and no Statement of Energy Effects is required.
In accordance with E.O. 13175, we have evaluated possible effects on federally recognized Indian tribes and have determined that there are no effects. We coordinate recreational use on NWRs with Tribal governments having adjoining or overlapping jurisdiction before we propose the regulations.
This rule does not contain any information-collection requirements other than those already approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
We comply with section 7 of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
We analyzed this rule in accordance with the criteria of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4332(C)), 43 CFR part 46, and 516 Departmental Manual (DM) 8.
A categorical exclusion from NEPA documentation applies to publication of amendments to refuge-specific hunting and fishing regulations because they are technical and procedural in nature, and the environmental effects are too broad, speculative, or conjectural to lend themselves to meaningful analysis (43 CFR 46.210 and 516 DM 8). Concerning the actions that are the subject of this rulemaking, we have complied with NEPA at the project level when developing each proposal. This is consistent with the Department of the Interior instructions for compliance with NEPA where actions are covered sufficiently by an earlier environmental document (43 CFR 46.120).
Prior to the addition of a refuge to the list of areas open to hunting and fishing in 50 CFR part 32, we develop hunting and fishing plans for the affected refuges. We incorporate these proposed refuge hunting and fishing activities in the refuge comprehensive conservation plan and/or other step-down management plans, pursuant to our refuge planning guidance in 602 Fish and Wildlife Service Manual (FW) 1, 3, and 4. We prepare these comprehensive conservation plans and step-down plans in compliance with section 102(2)(C) of NEPA, and the Council on Environmental Quality's regulations for implementing NEPA in 40 CFR parts 1500 through 1508. We invite the affected public to participate in the review, development, and implementation of these plans. Copies of all plans and NEPA compliance are available from the refuges at the addresses provided below.
Individual refuge headquarters have information about public use programs and conditions that apply to their specific programs and maps of their respective areas. To find out how to contact a specific refuge, contact the appropriate Regional office listed below:
Region 1—Hawaii, Idaho, Oregon, and Washington. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Eastside Federal Complex, Suite 1692, 911 NE. 11th Avenue, Portland, OR 97232-4181; Telephone (503) 231-6214.
Region 2—Arizona, New Mexico, Oklahoma, and Texas. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, P.O. Box 1306, 500 Gold Avenue SW., Albuquerque, NM 87103; Telephone (505) 248-6937.
Region 3—Illinois, Indiana, Iowa, Michigan, Minnesota, Missouri, Ohio, and Wisconsin. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 5600 American Blvd. West, Suite 990, Bloomington, MN 55437-1458; Telephone (612) 713-5360.
Region 4—Alabama, Arkansas, Florida, Georgia, Kentucky, Louisiana, Mississippi, North Carolina, South Carolina, Tennessee, Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 1875 Century Boulevard, Atlanta, GA 30345; Telephone (404) 679-7166.
Region 5—Connecticut, Delaware, District of Columbia, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, New Hampshire, New Jersey, New York, Pennsylvania, Rhode Island, Vermont, Virginia, and West Virginia. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 300 Westgate Center Drive, Hadley, MA 01035-9589; Telephone (413) 253-8307.
Region 6—Colorado, Kansas, Montana, Nebraska, North Dakota, South Dakota, Utah, and Wyoming. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 134 Union Blvd., Lakewood, CO 80228; Telephone (303) 236-8145.
Region 7—Alaska. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 1011 E. Tudor Rd., Anchorage, AK 99503; Telephone (907) 786-3545.
Region 8—California and Nevada. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 2800 Cottage Way, Room W-2606, Sacramento, CA 95825; Telephone (916) 414-6464.
Jillian Cohen, Division of Natural Resources and Conservation Planning, National Wildlife Refuge System, is the primary author of this rulemaking document.
Fishing, Hunting, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Wildlife, Wildlife refuges.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, we amend title 50, chapter I, subchapter C of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
5 U.S.C. 301; 16 U.S.C. 460k, 664, 668dd-668ee, and 715i.
The revisions read as follows:
1. We prohibit access to closed areas and hunting within 100 yards (91.4 meters) of the fenced-in refuge work center area, designated hiking trails, and refuge boat ramps.
2. We prohibit leaving unattended personal property, including, but not limited to, boats or vehicles of any type, geocaches, lumber, and cameras, overnight on the refuge (see § 27.93 of this chapter). We prohibit marking trees and using flagging tape, reflective tacks, and other similar marking devices.
3. You may take incidental species (coyote, beaver, nutria, and feral hog) during any hunt with those weapons legal during those hunts as defined by the State of Alabama.
4. You must possess and carry a signed refuge hunt permit (signed brochure) when hunting.
5. All persons age 15 or younger, while hunting on the refuge, must be in the presence and under direct supervision of a licensed or exempt hunter at least age 21. A licensed hunter supervising a youth must hold a valid State license for the species being hunted. One adult may supervise no more than two youth hunters.
6. The refuge is open daily from 1 hour before legal sunrise to 1 hour after legal sunset.
7. We require all hunters to record hours hunted and all harvested game on the Visitor Check-In Permit and Report (FWS Form 3-2405) at the conclusion of each day at one of the refuge check stations.
8. Persons possessing, transporting, or carrying firearms on the refuge must comply with all provisions of State and local law. Persons may only use (discharge) firearms in accordance with refuge regulations (see § 27.42 of this chapter and specific refuge regulations in this part 32).
9. We prohibit equestrian use, domestic livestock, and use of all-terrain vehicles (ATVs) and utility-type vehicles (UTVs).
10. You must restrain all pets, except during squirrel and rabbit hunting, when you may hunt with unleashed dogs.
11. Public use information and hunting and fishing dates are available at refuge headquarters and specified in the refuge brochure.
12. We prohibit the use or possession of alcoholic beverages while hunting (see § 32.2(j)).
13. We prohibit hunting with the aid of baits, salts, scent, or ingestible attractant (see § 32.2(h)).
14. For hunting, you may possess only approved nontoxic shot (see § 32.2(k)), .22 caliber rimfire or smaller rifles, or legal archery equipment according to State regulations.
1. Conditions B1 through B14 apply.
2. Deer hunters may place one portable stand or blind on the refuge for use while deer hunting, but only during the open deer season. The stand must be clearly labeled with the hunter's name, address, and phone number. You may leave the stand or blind on the refuge overnight in a non-hunting position at ground level.
4. We prohibit damaging trees, including driving or screwing any metal object into a tree or hunting from a tree in which a metal object has been driven or screwed to support a hunter (see § 32.2(i)).
2. Conditions B1, B2, B4, B6, B8 through B13, and C4 apply.
4. We prohibit the taking of frogs, turtles, and crawfish (see § 27.21 of this chapter).
7. We require a refuge Special Use Permit (FWS Form 3-1383-C) for commercial activities.
1. We prohibit falconry.
2. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot while in the field (see § 32.2(k)).
3. You may not hunt within 50 yards (45 meters) of any building or public road.
4. We prohibit target shooting.
5. Persons possessing, transporting, or carrying firearms on the refuge must comply with all provisions of State and local law. Persons may only use (discharge) firearms in accordance with refuge regulations (see § 27.42 of this chapter and specific refuge regulations in this part 32).
6. We prohibit the construction or use of pits and permanent blinds (see § 27.92 of this chapter).
7. You must remove temporary blinds, boats, hunting equipment, and decoys from the refuge following each day's hunt (see §§ 27.93 and 27.94 of this chapter).
8. We prohibit retrieving game from closed areas. You may retrieve game from areas closed to hunting, but otherwise open to entry, as long as you possess no hunting firearms or other means of take.
9. Anyone hired to assist or guide hunter(s) must possess and carry a valid Special Use Permit (FWS Form 3-1383-C) issued by the refuge manager.
10. We prohibit hunting on those refuge lands within the Lake Havasu City limits.
11. The following conditions apply only to Pintail Slough (all refuge lands north of North Dike):
i. We require a fee for waterfowl hunting. You must possess proof of payment while hunting.
ii. Waterfowl hunters must hunt within 25 feet (7.5 meters) of the numbered post of their assigned blind.
iii. We limit the number of persons at each waterfowl hunt blind to three. Observers cannot hold shells or guns for hunting unless in possession of a valid State hunting license and stamps.
iv. We limit the number of shells a waterfowl hunter may possess to 25.
v. Waterfowl hunters must possess at least 12 decoys per blind.
vi. You may use only dead vegetation or materials brought from off refuge for making or fixing hunt blinds. We prohibit the cutting, pulling, marking or removing vegetation (see §§ 27.51 of this chapter).
vii. Waterfowl hunters must be at their blind at least 45 minutes before legal shoot time and not leave their blind until 10 a.m. MST.
viii. We allow waterfowl hunting on Wednesdays, Saturdays, and Sundays. Waterfowl hunting ends at 12 p.m. (noon) MST. Hunters must be out of the slough area by 1 p.m. MST.
ix. We allow qualifying youth to participate in the youth waterfowl hunt.
x. We allow dove hunting at Pintail Slough only during the September season.
12. The following conditions apply to all waters of the lower Colorado River within the refuge:
i. We close designated portions of Topock Marsh to all entry from October 1 through the last day of the waterfowl hunt season (including the State youth waterfowl hunt). These areas are indicated in refuge brochures and identified by buoys and/or signs.
ii. We prohibit hunting in the waters of the Colorado River and on those refuge lands within
iii. We allow hunting on refuge lands and waters south of Castle Rock Bay to the north boundary of the Lake Havasu City limits.
13. We prohibit the use of all air-thrust boats and/or air-cooled propulsion engines, including floating aircraft.
14. Dogs must be under your immediate control at all times.
2. We prohibit the possession of rifles for hunting.
1. Conditions A2 through A9, and A12ii apply.
3. Anyone hired to assist or guide anglers must possess and carry a valid Special Use Permit (FWS Form 3-1383-C) issued by the refuge manager.
6. The following apply to improved areas within the refuge. Improved areas consist of the Mesquite Bay areas, Castle Rock, the Diving Cliffs, Catfish Paradise, Five Mile Landing and North Dike.
i. We prohibit entry of all motorized watercraft in all three bays of the Mesquite Bay areas as indicated by signs or regulatory buoys.
ii. Improved areas are day-use only and are open from
iii. We prohibit the possession of open containers of alcohol or the possession of glass beverage containers in improved areas.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
1. We require refuge hunting permits (signed brochure). The permits are nontransferable, and anyone on refuge land in possession of hunting equipment must possess a signed permit at all times.
2. We prohibit migratory game bird hunting on the refuge during the Quota Gun Deer Hunt.
9. We open the refuge to daylight use only, with the exception that hunters may enter the refuge beginning at 4 a.m. and must exit by 1 hour after legal shooting time ends.
11. You may possess only biodegradable materials to mark trails.
22. We prohibit the use or possession of alcoholic beverages while hunting (see § 32.2(j)). We prohibit open alcohol containers on refuge roads, all-terrain vehicles (ATV) trails, boat ramps, observation platforms, and parking areas.
1. Conditions A1, A6, A9, A11 through A13, and A17 through A23 apply.
3. We allow squirrel hunting September 1 through February 28 on the Mingo Creek Unit and on the Farm Unit, except for season closure of the refuge during the Quota Gun Deer Hunt. We allow dogs.
4. We allow rabbit hunting in accordance with the State season on the Mingo Creek Unit and on the Farm Unit, except for season closure of the refuge during the Quota Gun Deer Hunt. We allow dogs.
5. We allow quail hunting in accordance with the State season except for season closure of the refuge during the Quota Gun Deer Hunt. We allow dogs.
6. We allow daylight hunting of raccoon and opossum with dogs on all
1. Conditions A1, A6, A9, A11 through A13, A17 through A23, and B8 through B12 apply.
3. The archery/crossbow hunting season for deer begins on the opening day of the State season and continues throughout the State season in the Mingo Creek Unit and Farm Unit except for the season closure of the refuge during the Quota Gun Deer Hunt. We provide annual season dates and bag limits in the hunt brochure/permit (signature required).
5. The modern gun hunting season for deer will begin in November and continue for a period of up to 9 days in all hunting units with annual season dates and bag limits provided in the hunt brochure/permit.
6. We prohibit leaving any tree stand, ground blind, or game camera on the refuge without the owner's name, address, and phone number clearly written in a conspicuous location.
9. Immediately record the zone (002) on your hunting license and check all harvested game according to State regulations.
10. You may use only shotguns with rifled slugs, muzzleloaders, and legal pistols for modern gun deer hunting on the Farm Unit.
11. We allow only portable deer stands capable of being carried in their entirety by a single individual. You may erect stands 7 days prior to the refuge deer season and must remove them from the waterfowl sanctuaries prior to November 15, except for stands used by Quota Gun Deer Hunt permit holders (signature required), which you must remove by the last day of the Quota Gun Deer Hunt. You must remove all stands on the remainder of the refuge within 7 days of the closure of archery season (see § 27.93 of this chapter).
17. We allow only Quota Gun Deer Hunt permit holders on the refuge during the Quota Gun Deer Hunt and only for the purposes of deer hunting. We close the refuge to all other entry and public use during the Quota Gun Deer Hunt.
19. You may enter the refuge at 4 a.m. and remain until 1 hour after legal shooting time.
1. Conditions A9, A11, A19 through A23, B11, and C18 apply.
2. We close waterfowl sanctuaries to all entry from November 15 to February 28. We also close the refuge to all entry and fishing during the Quota Gun Deer Hunt.
15. We prohibit the use or possession of alcoholic beverages while hunting (see § 32.2(j)). We prohibit open alcohol containers on refuge roads, trails, boat ramps, parking areas, fishing piers, observation decks, and photo blinds.
17. We prohibit loaded hunting firearms or muzzleloaders in or on a vehicle, or boat while under power. We define “loaded” as shells in the firearm or ignition device on the muzzleloader.
7. We allow only portable deer stands capable of being carried in their entirety by a single individual. You may erect stands 7 days prior to the refuge deer season and must remove them 7 days before the closure of archery season (see § 27.93 of this chapter).
12. We prohibit leaving any tree stand, ground blind, or game camera on the refuge without the owner's name, address, and phone number clearly written in a conspicuous location.
2. We prohibit migratory game bird hunting on the refuge during the Quota Gun Deer Hunt.
23. We prohibit loaded hunting firearms or muzzleloaders in or on a vehicle, ATV, or boat while under power. We define “loaded” as shells in the firearm or ignition device on the muzzleloader.
12. We prohibit leaving any tree stand, ground blind, or game camera on the refuge without the owner's name, address, and phone number clearly written in a conspicuous location.
16. We require hunters born after 1968 to carry a valid hunter-education card. We do not require hunters under age 16 to have a hunter-education card while under direct supervision (within arm's reach) of a holder of a valid hunting license who is at least age 21. Youth hunters under age 16 must remain within sight and normal voice contact of an adult age 21 or older, possessing a valid hunting license. An adult may supervise only one youth for big game hunting but may supervise up to two youths for waterfowl and small game hunting.
17. We allow take of beaver, nutria, and coyote, incidental to any daytime refuge hunt with weapons authorized for that hunt. We prohibit take of beaver, nutria, and feral hog with the aid of dogs or after the hunter has taken the daily bag limit for that hunt. We allow feral hog to be taken during modern gun and muzzleloader deer hunts.
20. We allow camping only in designated sites and areas identified in the refuge user brochure/permit, and we restrict camping to individuals involved in wildlife-dependent activities. Campers may stay no more than 14 days during any 30 consecutive-day period in any campground site or area and must occupy camps daily. We prohibit all disturbances, including use of generators, after 10 p.m.
24. We prohibit hovercraft, personal watercraft (
1. Conditions A1, A9, A10, A11, A12, and A15 through A25 apply.
6. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot when hunting upland game (see § 32.2(k)).
1. Conditions A1, A9, A10, A11, A12, and A15 through A25 apply.
2. Archery deer seasons on the North Unit are from the beginning of the State
3. Archery deer seasons on the South Unit are from the beginning of the State archery season until the end of December except for refuge-wide season closure during quota muzzleloader and quota gun deer hunts. We provide annual season dates and bag limits in the refuge user brochure/permit.
8. If you harvest deer or turkey on the refuge, you must immediately record the zone number (Zone 146 South Unit and Zone 145 North Unit) on your hunting license and later check deer and/or turkey through State phone or online checking system.
10. You must follow refuge guidance regarding flood-zone closures during the deer hunt. Guidance is found in the refuge brochure, which you must carry at all times.
18. We prohibit hunting on the Kansas Lake Area after November 30.
19. We prohibit the possession of buckshot on the refuge.
5. We prohibit all commercial and recreational harvest of turtle on all property administered by Dale Bumpers White River National Wildlife Refuge.
1. We require refuge hunting permits (name, address, signature required). The permits are nontransferable, and anyone on refuge land in possession of hunting equipment must sign, possess, and carry the permits at all times. Your hunt permit will also act as your entrance pass to the refuge.
2. During the refuge archery season, you may take only squirrel, rabbit, raccoon, opossum, beaver, armadillo, coyote, or bobcat.
3. We allow gun hunting of raccoon and opossum with dogs every Thursday, Friday, and Saturday until legal sunrise during the month of February. We prohibit field trails and organized training events (see § 26.21(b) of this chapter).
4. Persons possessing, transporting, or carrying firearms on the refuge must comply with all provisions of State and local law. Persons may only use (discharge) firearms in accordance with refuge regulations (see § 27.42 of this chapter and specific refuge regulations in this part 32). We prohibit target practice or nonhunting discharge of firearms (see § 27.42(a) of this chapter).
5. We prohibit the use or possession of alcoholic beverages while hunting (see § 32.2(j)). We prohibit open alcohol containers on refuge roads, boat ramps, observation platforms, and parking areas.
6. We only allow all-terrain vehicles (ATVs) for hunters and anglers with disabilities. We require a refuge ATV permit (Special Use Permit; FWS Form 3-1383-G) issued by the refuge manager.
7. We prohibit the use of horses and mules.
8. We prohibit hunting from a vehicle.
9. We only allow vehicle use on established roads and trails (see § 27.31 of this chapter).
10. You must enter and exit the refuge from designated roads and parking areas. We prohibit accessing refuge waters and land from the Arkansas River. We prohibit boating over the dam at the Old River Channel from either direction.
11. We prohibit hunting within 150 feet (45 meters) of roads open to motor vehicle use and nature trails.
12. We prohibit marking trails with tape, ribbon, paint, or any other substance other than biodegradable materials.
13. We allow the use of nonmotorized boats during the refuge fishing/boating season (March 1 to October 31), but we prohibit hunters leaving boats on the refuge overnight (see § 27.93 of this chapter).
14. You must adhere to all public use special conditions and regulations in the annual public use regulations brochure/permit.
15. You may not possess live hogs or live coyotes.
1. Conditions B1 and B4 through B15 apply.
2. We allow archery/crossbow hunting for white-tailed deer and turkey. We provide annual season dates in the public use regulations brochure/permit (name, address, signature required).
3. The refuge will conduct one youth-only (between ages 6 and 15 at the beginning of the gun deer season in Zone 7) quota gun deer hunt. Specific hunt dates and application procedures will be available at the refuge office in July. We restrict hunt participants to those selected for a quota permit, except that one nonhunting adult age 21 or older must accompany the youth hunter during the youth hunt.
4. We open spring and fall archery turkey hunting during the State spring and fall turkey season for this zone.
5. We close the refuge to all entry and public use during scheduled youth quota gun hunts, except for those allowed to participate in the youth quota gun hunt.
6. The refuge will conduct two youth-only (age 6 to 15 at the beginning of the spring turkey season) quota spring gun turkey hunts, each 2 days in length. Specific hunt dates and application procedures will be available at the refuge office in January. We restrict hunt participants to those selected for a quota permit (name, address, phone number required), except that one nonhunting adult age 21 or older must accompany the youth hunter during the youth hunt.
7. An adult age 21 or older must accompany and be within sight or normal voice contact of hunters age 15 and under. One adult may supervise no more than one youth hunter.
8. We allow only portable deer stands and blinds capable of being carried in their entirety by a single individual. You may erect stands 7 days before the start of the season and must remove the stands from the refuge within 7 days after the season ends (see §§ 27.93 and 27.94 of this chapter).
9. You must permanently affix the owner's name, address, and phone number to all tree stands, ground blinds, or game cameras on the refuge.
10. We prohibit the use of dogs during big game hunting.
11. We prohibit hunting from paved, graveled, and mowed roads and mowed trails (see § 27.31 of this chapter).
12. We prohibit hunting with the aid of bait, salt, or ingestible attractant (see § 32.2(h)).
13. We prohibit all forms of organized game drives.
14. You must check all game at the refuge check station.
15. We prohibit commercial hunting/guiding.
1. Conditions B6, B7, B9, and C5 apply.
2. Waters of the refuge are only open for fishing March 1 through October 31 during daylight hours.
3. We do not require a permit to fish but do require an entrance pass to the
4. We limit free-floating fishing devices, trotlines, and tree limb devices to 20 per person. Each device must have the angler's name and address.
5. You must reset trotlines and limb lines when receding water levels expose them.
6. We prohibit leaving trotlines and other self-fishing devices overnight or unattended.
7. You must enter and exit the refuge from designated roads and parking areas. We prohibit accessing refuge waters and land from the Arkansas River. We prohibit boating over the dam at the Old River Channel from either direction.
8. We prohibit anglers from leaving their boats unattended overnight on any portion of the refuge (see § 27.93 of this chapter).
9. We require a Special Use Permit (FWS form 3-1383-C) for all commercial fishing activities on the refuge.
10. We prohibit the take and possession of turtles and/or mollusks (see § 27.21 of this chapter).
11. We prohibit airboats, hovercraft, and personal watercraft (Jet Skis, etc.) (see § 27.31 of this chapter).
5. We prohibit all-terrain vehicles (ATVs).
10. We prohibit the use or possession of alcoholic beverages while hunting (see § 32.2(j)). We prohibit open alcohol containers on refuge roads, trails, boat ramps, parking areas, fishing piers, observation decks, and photo blinds.
11. We prohibit loaded hunting firearms or muzzleloaders in or on a vehicle or boat while under power (see § 27.42(b) of this chapter). We define “loaded” as shells in the firearm or ignition device on the muzzleloader.
6. We allow only portable deer stands capable of being carried in their entirety by a single individual. You may erect stands 7 days prior to the refuge deer season and must remove them from the waterfowl sanctuaries by December 1. You must remove all stands on the remainder of the refuge within 7 days of the closure of archery season (see § 27.93 of this chapter).
9. We prohibit leaving any tree stand, ground blind, or game camera on the refuge without the owner's name, address, and phone number clearly written in a conspicuous location.
The revisions and addition read as follows:
1. We allow waterfowl hunting on designated areas of the refuge 7 days per week during the State regulated season.
i. You may hunt from the shoreline only.
ii. You may not use a boat of any kind while conducting waterfowl hunting activities.
2. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot while in the field (see § 32.2(k)).
1. You may hunt only in the unit for 9 consecutive days beginning on the first Saturday following the third Wednesday in August.
2. You must return the State-issued entry permit and vacate the refuge no later than 1
3. Youth hunters must be accompanied by an adult (age 18 or older) at all times while hunting.
2. You must return the State-issued entry permit and vacate the refuge no later than 1
3. Youth hunters must be accompanied by an adult (age 18 or older) at all times while hunting.
12. We prohibit snipe hunting in the assigned pond/spaced blind areas.
2. * * *
iii. Ponds AB1, A2E, AB2, A3N, and A3W in the Alviso Unit. These ponds are located on the west side of the Bay between Stevens Creek and Guadalupe Slough. You must obtain a refuge permit (name, address, phone number, and signature required) to hunt these ponds. Access to Ponds AB1 and A2E will be from the Crittenden Lane Trailhead in Mountain View. Access to Ponds A3W will be from the Carl Road Trailhead in Sunnyvale. Access to Ponds A3N and AB2 is by boat from the other ponds. We allow hunting only from existing hunting blinds. We allow hunting only on Wednesdays, Saturdays, and Sundays on these ponds.
iv. Ponds A5, A7, and A8N in the Alviso Unit. These ponds are located on the south end of the Bay between Guadalupe Slough and Alviso Slough. You must obtain a refuge permit (name, address, phone number, and signature required) to hunt these ponds. Access is via walking and bicycling from the Gold Street gate in Alviso. We allow hunting by boat and by walking pond levees. We allow hunting only on Wednesdays, Saturdays, and Sundays on these ponds.
3. During the 2 weeks before the opening of the hunt season, you may bring a boat into Ponds AB1, A2E, AB2, A3N, A3W, A5, A7, and A8N, and moor
4. You may maintain an existing blind in the ponds open to hunting if you have a refuge permit (name, address, phone number, and signature required), but the blind will be open for general use on a first-come, first-served basis. We prohibit pit blinds or digging into the levees (see § 27.92 of this chapter).
5. You must remove all decoys and other personal property, except personal boats, from the refuge by legal sunset. You must remove all trash, including shotshell hulls, when leaving hunting areas (see §§ 27.93 and 27.94 of this chapter).
6. You may enter closed areas of the refuge to retrieve downed birds, provided you leave all weapons in a legal hunting area. We encourage the use of retriever dogs. We prohibit other domesticated animals or pets. You must keep your dog(s) under immediate control of the handler at all times (see § 26.21(b) of this chapter). Dogs must remain inside a vehicle or be on a leash until they are on the ponds or on the levees (Ponds R1, 2, A5, 7, and 8N only) as a part of the hunt.
7. You may possess shotshells in quantities of 25 or fewer when in the field.
8. Persons possessing, transporting, or carrying firearms on the refuge must comply with all provisions of State and local law. Persons may only use (discharge) firearms in accordance with refuge regulations (see § 27.42 of this chapter and specific refuge regulations in this part 32). We prohibit target practice on the refuge or any nonhunting discharge of any firearm (see § 27.42 of this chapter).
4. Shooting hours end at 1 p.m. on all California portions of the refuge with the following exceptions:
i. The refuge manager may designate up to 6 afternoon special youth, ladies, veteran, or disabled hunter waterfowl hunts per season.
ii. The refuge manager may designate up to 3 days per week of afternoon waterfowl hunting for the general public after December 1.
2. You must return the State-issued entry permit and vacate the refuge no later than 1
3. Youth hunters must be accompanied by an adult (age 18 or older) at all times while hunting.
12. We prohibit snipe hunting in the assigned pond/spaced blind areas.
1. You may possess shotshells only in quantities of 25 or fewer.
2. Access to the hunt area is by foot traffic only. We prohibit bicycles and other conveyances. Mobility-impaired hunters should consult with the refuge manager for allowed conveyances.
3. We only allow dogs engaged in hunting activities on the refuge during the waterfowl season. You must keep dog(s) under your immediate control at all times (see § 26.21(b) of this chapter). We prohibit training of dogs on the refuge. We prohibit other domesticated animals or pets.
4. Persons possessing, transporting, or carrying firearms on the refuge must comply with all provisions of State and local law. Persons may only use (discharge) firearms in accordance with refuge regulations (see § 27.42 of this chapter and specific refuge regulations in this part 32). We prohibit target practice on the refuge or any nonhunting discharge of any firearm (see § 27.42 of this chapter).
5. You must remove all decoys and other personal property from the refuge at the end of each day (see § 27.93 of this chapter). You must remove all trash, including shotshell hulls, when leaving hunting areas (see § 27.94 of this chapter).
1. Unless posted in the field and/or noted below, we only allow hunting in the open waters of San Pablo Bay and its navigable sloughs. The following areas are closed to hunting:
i. Lower Tubbs Island;
ii. Lower Tubbs Setback;
iii. Cullinan Ranch Unit;
iv. Sonoma Baylands Unit; and
v. Within 300 feet (90 meters) of Highway 37.
3. You may possess shotshells only in quantities of 25 or fewer while in the field.
4. You must remove all decoys, boats, and other personal property from the refuge at the end of each day (see § 27.93 of this chapter). You must remove all trash, including shotshell hulls, when leaving hunting areas (see § 27.94 of this chapter).
5. We prohibit entry to closed areas of the refuge prior to the hunting season in order to scout for hunting sites.
6. We only allow dogs engaged in hunting activities on the refuge during waterfowl season. We prohibit other domesticated animals or pets. You must keep dog(s) under your immediate control at all times (see § 26.21(b) of this chapter). We prohibit training of dogs on the refuge.
8. Persons possessing, transporting, or carrying firearms on the refuge must comply with all provisions of State and local law. Persons may only use (discharge) firearms in accordance with refuge regulations (see § 27.42 of this chapter and specific refuge regulations in this part 32). We prohibit target practice on the refuge or any nonhunting discharge of any firearm (see § 27.42 of this chapter).
2. You must return the State-issued entry permit and vacate the refuge no later than 1
3. Youth hunters must be accompanied by an adult (age 18 or older) at all times while hunting.
4. Shooting hours end at 1 p.m. on all California portions of the refuge with the following exceptions:
i. The refuge manager may designate up to 6 afternoon special youth, ladies, veteran, or disabled hunter waterfowl hunts per season.
ii. The refuge manager may designate up to 3 days per week of afternoon waterfowl hunting for the general public after December 1.
5. You must be drawn daily to hunt all spaced blinds, including numbered blind areas, Sump 1B, and Frey's Island
The addition and revisions read as follows:
1. We allow Eurasian collared-dove hunting only during the mourning dove season.
2. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot for hunting (see § 32.2(k)).
3. The only acceptable methods of take are shotguns, hand-held bows, and hawking/falconry.
4. Persons possessing, transporting, or carrying firearms on national wildlife refuges must comply with all provisions of State and local law. Persons may only use (discharge) firearms in accordance with refuge regulations (see § 27.42 of this chapter and specific refuge regulations in this part 32).
1. Conditions A2, A3 and A4 apply.
1. Condition A4 applies.
2. You must possess a valid State license and a refuge-specific permit from the State, or a valid State license issued specifically for the refuge, to hunt elk. State license selection will be made via the Colorado Parks and Wildlife hunt selection process.
1. We allow Eurasian collared-dove hunting only during the mourning dove season.
2. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot for hunting (see § 32.2(k)).
3. The only acceptable methods of take are shotguns, hand-held bows, and hawking/falconry.
4. Persons possessing, transporting, or carrying firearms on national wildlife refuges must comply with all provisions of State and local law. Persons may only use (discharge) firearms in accordance with refuge regulations (see § 27.42 of this chapter and specific refuge regulations in this part 32).
1. Conditions A2 and A4 apply.
2. We prohibit handguns for hunting.
3. Shotguns, rifles firing rim-fire cartridges less than .23 caliber, hand-held bows, pellet guns, slingshots, and hawking/falconry are the only acceptable methods of take.
1. Condition A4 applies.
2. You must possess a valid State license and a refuge-specific permit from the State, or a valid State license issued specifically for the refuge, to hunt elk. State license selection will be made via the Colorado Parks and Wildlife hunt selection process.
3. During firearms elk seasons, hunters must follow State law for use of hunter orange.
1. We require all individuals fishing and/or crabbing on or from the refuge or within refuge waters to possess a signed refuge fishing/crabbing application (FWS Form 3-2358) and a valid form of government-issued photo identification.
2. Anglers using boats on Turkle and Fleetwood Ponds may propel them manually or with electric motors only.
3. We do not allow fishing or crabbing from water control structures.
4. You may use or possess only nontoxic terminal tackle, weights, sinkers, and/or split shot while fishing or crabbing within refuge boundaries.
5. You may use only hook-and-line tackle when fishing for finfish.
6. You may use only hand lines, crab dip nets, hoop crab nets, and/or manually operated crab traps (collapsible traps) for crabbing.
7. You must attend to your fishing and/or crabbing lines and gear at all times.
8. We do not allow commercial fishing and/or crabbing.
The addition and revisions read as follows:
1. We require Lake Woodruff hunt permits. The permits (signed annual hunt brochure) are free and nontransferable, and anyone on refuge land in possession of hunting equipment must sign, possess, and carry the permit at all times.
2. In addition to the valid, paid Lake Woodruff Quota Hunt Permit (Florida Fish and Wildlife Conservation Commission State Permit), which can be purchased through Florida Fish and Wildlife Conservation Commission (FWC), and a signed Lake Woodruff National Wildlife Refuge hunt permit (signed annual hunt brochure), hunters must have on their person all applicable Florida hunting licenses and permits. State requirements for hunter safety apply.
3. All hunters must be on stands or in blinds while hunting.
4. We prohibit stalking or movement through the hunt area while hunting.
5. We prohibit scouting in the hunt area, whether you hold a permit for the current hunt or a future hunt, during the quota hunt.
6. We prohibit possession of hunting weapons while scouting.
7. Persons possessing, transporting, or carrying firearms on National Wildlife Refuges must comply with all provisions of State and local law. Persons may only use (discharge) firearms in accordance with refuge regulations (see § 27.42 of this chapter and refuge-specific regulations in this part 32).
8. We close the hunt areas of the refuge to all public use except to permitted hunters. The refuge is closed between legal sunset and legal sunrise, except permitted hunters may access the refuge 2 hours prior to legal sunrise each hunting day. All hunters must be off the refuge 2 hours after legal sunset.
9. You may set up stands or blinds 2 days prior to the hunt for which you are permitted, and you must remove them on or before the last day of your permitted hunt. You must clearly mark stands with the hunter's name and address or the Florida Fish and Wildlife Conservation Commission (FWC) customer number found on your hunting license. No more than one stand or blind per person may be on the refuge at any time, unless a permitted hunter is accompanied by a youth hunter. Stands and/or blinds for youth hunters must be placed within sight and normal voice contact of the permitted hunter's stand and marked with the adult permitted hunter's name and address or the FWC customer number and the word “YOUTH.”
10. If you use flagging or other trail marking material, you must print your name or FWC customer number on each piece or marker. You may set up flagging and trail markers 2 days prior to the permitted hunt, and you must remove them on or before the last day of the permitted hunt.
11. You must check out any game taken during the hunts at a self-check station.
12. We allow primitive gun hunting only in the Western Unit, which is only accessible by boat.
13. We prohibit hunting with dogs.
14. We prohibit accessing the refuge through the railroad right-of-way.
15. Hunters under age 16 do not need a quota permit, but must be accompanied by an adult age 18 or older. Each adult may supervise one youth hunter and must remain within sight and normal voice contact; the pair must share a single bag limit unless hunting during a designated Family or Youth Hunt.
16. Archery hunters must wear a vest or jacket containing back and front panels of at least 500 square inches (3,226 square centimeters) of solid-fluorescent-orange color when moving to and from their vehicle, to their deer stand or their hunting spot, and while tracking or dragging out their deer. We do not require archery hunters to wear solid-colored-fluorescent hunter orange when positioned in their stands to hunt.
1. We require a Florida Freshwater Fishing license, and we adhere to State regulations for bag and length limits.
2. Fishing on the refuge is by hook and line only. We prohibit cast nets.
3. We allow fishing from legal sunrise to legal sunset.
4. We prohibit the use of airboats on the refuge.
5. We prohibit commercial fishing and the taking of frogs, turtles, or any other wildlife without permit (see § 27.21 of this chapter).
6. We prohibit the use of snatch hooks in the refuge impoundments.
1. Persons possessing, transporting, or carrying firearms on National Wildlife Refuges must comply with all provisions of Federal, State, and local law. Persons may only use (discharge) firearms in accordance with refuge regulations (see § 27.42 of this chapter and this part 32).
2. You must possess and carry a current, signed Merritt Island National Wildlife Refuge hunt permit (signed brochure, non-transferable) at all times while hunting waterfowl on the refuge.
3. You must carry a valid State-issued Merritt Island Waterfowl Quota Permit (Waterfowl Quota Permit), which can be purchased through the Florida Fish and Wildlife Conservation Commission (FWC) while hunting in areas 1 or 4 from the beginning of the regular waterfowl season through January 31.
4. We allow hunting on Wednesdays, Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, including Thanksgiving, Christmas, and New Year's Day, that fall within the State's waterfowl season.
5. We allow hunting in four designated areas of the refuge as delineated in the refuge hunting regulations map. We prohibit hunters entering the normal or expanded restricted areas of the Kennedy Space Center (KSC).
6. We only allow hunting of waterfowl on refuge-established hunt days from
7. You may enter the refuge no earlier than 4 a.m. for the purpose of waterfowl hunting.
8. You must comply with State requirements for hunter-education courses.
9. We require an adult, age 18 or older, to supervise hunters age 15 and younger. The adult must remain within sight and normal voice contact of the youth hunter.
12. We prohibit hunting or shooting within 25 feet (7.6 meters), or shooting from any portion of, a dike, dirt road, or railroad grade.
14. You must stop at posted refuge waterfowl check stations and report statistical hunt information on the Migratory Bird Hunt Report (FWS Form 3-2361) to refuge personnel.
15. You may not possess more than 25 shells in 1 hunt day.
16. You may only use gasoline, diesel, or electric motors inside the impoundment perimeter ditch.
1. We require a State-issued Merritt Island National Wildlife Refuge Big Game Quota Hunt Permit (Quota Hunt Permit), which can be purchased through the FWC. The Quota Hunt Permit is a limited entry quota permit, is zone-specific, and is nontransferable.
2. You must have a valid signed Big Game Hunt Permit (signed annual hunt brochure). The permits are free and
3. You must also have on your person all applicable Florida hunting licenses and permits. State requirements for hunter safety apply.
4. Licenses, permits, all hunting equipment and effects, and vehicles and/or other conveyances are subject to inspection by law-enforcement officials.
5. We allow hunting as a 3-day weekend within the State's deer season. Legal shooting hours are
6. We close the hunt areas of the refuge to all public use except to permitted hunters.
7. The refuge is closed between legal sunset and legal sunrise except permitted hunters may access the refuge no earlier than 2 hours before legal sunrise and must leave the refuge no later than 2 hours after legal sunset.
8. You are prohibited from entering the normal or expanded restricted areas of KSC. KSC maintains the right to close any portion of the refuge for any length of time. In that case, we will not refund or reissue any permits.
9. We prohibit hunting from refuge roads or within 100 yards of roads open to public vehicle traffic or within 200 yards of a building or KSC facility.
10. Persons possessing, transporting, or carrying firearms on a National Wildlife Refuge must comply with all provisions of State and local law. Persons may only use (discharge) firearms in accordance with refuge regulations (see § 27.42 of this chapter and this part 32).
11. Hunters under age 16 do not need a Quota Hunt Permit, but must be accompanied by an adult age 18 or older. Each adult may supervise one youth hunter and must remain within sight and normal voice contact. The pair must share a single bag limit unless hunting during a designated Youth or Family hunt.
12. You may set up stands or blinds up to 2 days prior to the permitted hunt; you must remove them on the last day of your permitted hunt. You must clearly mark stands and blinds with your name and address or the FWC customer number found on your hunting license. You may have no more than one stand or blind per person on the refuge at any time. Stands or blinds for youth hunters must be placed within sight and normal voice contact of the supervisory hunter's stand and marked with the supervisory hunter's name and address or FWC customer number and the word “YOUTH.”
13. We prohibit all scouting in the hunt area during the quota hunt.
14. If you use flagging or other trail-marking material, you must print your name or FWC customer number on each piece or marker. You may set out flagging and trail markers up to 2 days prior to the permitted hunt, and you must remove them on the last day of the permitted hunt.
15. We allow legally permitted hunters to scout within their permitted zones up to 7 days prior to their permitted hunts. You must carry your valid Quota Hunt Permit identifying the permitted hunt zone while scouting.
16. We allow parking for scouting and/or hunting only along State Road (SR) 3, not within the hunt areas.
17. You must be on your stand or in your blind while hunting.
18. We prohibit stalking or moving through the hunt area while hunting.
19. You must be at your vehicle within 1 hour after legal shooting time. If you wish to track wounded game beyond 1 hour after legal sunset, you must gain consent from a Federal Wildlife Officer to do so.
20. We prohibit hunting with dogs.
21. We prohibit using dogs for tracking unless authorized by a Federal Wildlife Officer. Dogs must remain on a leash and be equipped with a GPS tracking device.
22. You may field dress game; however, we prohibit cleaning game within 1,000 feet of any public area, road, game-check station, or gate. We prohibit dumping game carcasses on the refuge.
23. Archery hunters must wear at least 500 square inches (3,226 square centimeters) of solid fluorescent-orange color while moving to and from their vehicles, to their stands or hunting spots, and while tracking or dragging out game.
24. The bag limit and antler requirements for white-tailed deer on the refuge will follow State regulations but will not exceed two deer per hunt. Antlered and antlerless deer are defined per State regulations. It is illegal to take spotted fawns.
25. There is no bag limit or size limit for the take of feral hogs.
26. You must report all hunting activities at one of the two check stations, including both successful and non-successful hunts, prior to leaving the refuge.
1. You must possess a current, signed refuge fishing permit (signed brochure) and a Florida State Freshwater and/or Saltwater fishing license at all times while fishing on the refuge. All State regulations for bag and length limits apply.
3. We allow launching of boats for night fishing activities only from Bair's Cove, Beacon 42, and Biolab boat ramps.
4. We prohibit crabbing or fishing from Black Point Wildlife Drive or any side road connected to Black Point Wildlife Drive except from L Pond Road.
5. We prohibit launching boats, canoes, or kayaks from Black Point Wildlife Drive or any side road connected to Black Point Wildlife Drive except from L Pond Road.
8. We prohibit use of personal watercraft, kite surfing, kite boarding, wind surfing, sail boarding, use of air thrust boats, and use of hovercraft or any similar non-wildlife oriented watercraft on the refuge or in refuge waters.
11. We prohibit fishing within the normal or expanded restricted areas of the KSC, unless those areas are officially designated by KSC as special fishing opportunity sites.
14. We prohibit fishing from, or in the immediate vicinity of, the Manatee Viewing Deck on the northeast side of Haulover Canal.
15. We require all commercial fishing guides to purchase, possess, and carry a Special Use Permit (FWS Form 3-1383-C).
16. You may only use gasoline, diesel, or electric motors inside the impoundment perimeter ditch.
17. Persons possessing, transporting, or carrying firearms on National Wildlife Refuges must comply with all provisions of Federal, State, and local law. Persons may only use (discharge) firearms in accordance with refuge regulations (see § 27.42 of this chapter and this part 32).
6. There are two fall archery hunts: You may harvest either-sex deer, feral hog, and bearded turkey during the fall archery hunts. We will hold one hunt on the Panacea Unit and one hunt on the Wakulla Unit. See condition C8 for specific information on bag limits.
7. There are two modern gun hunts. You may harvest deer, feral hog, and bearded turkey. Modern guns must meet State requirements. We will hold one hunt on the Panacea Unit and one hunt on the Wakulla Unit. See condition C8 for specific information on bag limits. Contact the refuge office for specific dates.
8. The bag limit for white-tailed deer is two deer per hunt, either two antlerless deer or one antlerless deer and one antlered deer. Antlerless deer are defined per State regulations as deer with no antler or antlers less than 5 inches (12.75 centimeters). Antlered deer must have at least three points, 1 inch (2.5 centimeters) or greater on one antler to be harvested.
9. There is one youth white-tailed deer hunt and one youth turkey hunt for youth ages 12 to 17, on the St. Marks Unit in an area we will specify in the refuge hunt brochure. Youth hunters age 12 to 15 may harvest two deer, either two antlerless deer or one antlerless and one antlered. There are no restrictions on antler size for youth age 12 to 15. Youth hunters age 16 to 17 may harvest two deer, either two antlerless or one antlerless and one antlered. Antlered deer must have at least two points, 1 inch (2.5 centimeters) or greater on one antler to be harvested by youth age 16 to 17. Antlerless deer are defined in C8. The youth turkey hunt will be conducted in the St. Marks Unit in an area we will specify in the refuge hunt brochure. The limit will be one bearded turkey per hunter. Unlimited hogs may be harvested on both hunts. Only the youth hunter may handle or discharge firearms used for hunting. An adult age 21 or older must accompany and remain in sight and normal voice contact with each youth hunter. Contact the refuge office for specific dates.
12. Portions of the St. Marks Unit adjacent to Flint Rock Wildlife Management Area (as specified in the hunt brochure) will be open concurrent with Flint Rock Wildlife Management Area seasons and regulations except only white-tailed deer, feral hog, and turkey may be harvested. We require a refuge permit (signed brochure).
1. We require refuge permits (State license—fee charged). The permits are nontransferable, and the hunter must possess them while hunting. Only signed permits are valid. We only allow people with a signed refuge hunt permit or the helpers of mobility-impaired hunters on the island during the hunt periods. Contact the refuge office for details on receiving a permit. We will charge fees for duplicate permits.
2. We restrict hunting to three periods: Primitive Weapons Sambar Deer (sambar deer, raccoon, and feral hog); Archery (white-tailed deer, raccoon, feral hog); and Primitive Weapons White-Tailed Deer (white-tailed deer, raccoon, and feral hog). Contact the refuge office for specific dates. You may check-in and set up camp sites and stands on the day prior to the scheduled hunt as specified in the brochure. You must leave the island and remove all equipment by the date and time specified in the brochure.
3. You must check-in at the check stations on the island. We restrict entry onto St. Vincent Island to the Indian Pass and West Pass Campsites. All access to hunt areas will be on foot or by bicycle from these areas.
8. You may retrieve game from the closed areas only if accompanied by a refuge staff member or a Federal Wildlife Officer.
9. We limit weapons to primitive weapons (bow and arrow and muzzleloader) on the primitive weapons sambar deer hunt and the primitive weapons white-tailed deer hunt. We limit the archery hunt to bow and arrow. Weapons must meet all State regulations. We prohibit crossbows during the white-tailed deer archery hunt except with a State disabled persons permit. You may take feral hog and raccoon only with the weapons allowed for that period.
18. Bag limits:
i. Primitive Weapons Sambar Deer Hunt: One sambar deer of either sex, no limit on feral hog or raccoon.
ii. Archery Hunt: One white-tailed deer of either sex. Antlered deer must have at least two points, 1 inch (2.5 centimeters) or more on one antler to be harvested. Antlerless deer are defined per State regulations as deer with no antler or antlers less than 5 inches (12.75 centimeters). Youth age 15 or younger may harvest any deer except spotted fawn. We prohibit harvesting of spotted fawns. There is no limit on feral hog or raccoon.
iii. Primitive Weapons White-Tailed Deer Hunt: One white-tailed deer. Antlered deer must have at least two points, 1 inch (2.5 centimeters) or more in length on one antler, to be harvested. We issue a limited number of either-sex tags. If you have an either-sex tag, the bag limit is one deer that may be antlerless or antlered with legal antler configuration. Antlerless deer are defined per State regulation as deer with no antler or antlers less than 5 inches (12.75 centimeters). Youth age 15 or younger may harvest any deer except spotted fawn. We prohibit harvesting of spotted fawns. There is no limit on feral hog or raccoon.
6. You may take only fish species, and you must comply with the fish limits, authorized by State regulations. We prohibit the taking of frog and/or turtle.
The revisions read as follows:
1. You may hunt only duck, coot, and mourning dove on the Lake Lowell Unit.
2. You may hunt duck and coot only within 200 yards (180 meters) of the shoreline.
3. Duck and coot hunting in the East Side Recreation Area is walk-in only. We prohibit using float tubes and boats. Duck and coot hunters in the South Side Recreation Area may use float tubes, nonmotorized boats, or boats equipped with electric motors within 200 yards (180 meters) of the shoreline. We prohibit the use or possession of gas-powered motors.
4. You may possess only 25 or fewer shotgun shells per day for hunting duck and coot.
5. You may only use portable and temporary blinds. We prohibit permanent structures (see § 27.92 of this chapter).
6. You must remove boats, decoys, blinds, other personal property, and any materials brought onto the refuge for blind construction at the end of each day (see §§ 27.93 and 27.94 of this chapter).
7. You may enter the refuge 1 hour before official shooting hours (
8. You may use dogs for hunting. Dogs must be under the immediate control of the handler at all times.
9. From February 1 through June 14, we prohibit hunting on all islands in the Snake River Islands Unit. From June 15 through June 30, we prohibit hunting on islands used by nesting birds. You must comply with all posted signs.
2. Only the southern portion of the Lake Lowell Unit is open to deer hunting. We define the boundary of the deer hunting area on the north by the southern shoreline of Lake Lowell, on the east by the New York Canal, on the south by the southern boundary of the refuge, and on the west by Riverside Road.
7. You may enter the Lake Lowell Unit no earlier than 2 hours before official shooting hours (
8. A refuge employee, State Game Warden, or local law-enforcement officer must accompany hunters to retrieve a wounded or dead deer from any area that is closed to deer hunting.
1. From October 1 through April 14, we only allow ice fishing within 200 yards (180 meters) of the shoreline in front of both the Lower Dam (Fishing Area A) and the Upper Dam (Fishing Area B) on the Lake Lowell Unit, unless otherwise posted by the Bureau of Reclamation.
4. From February 1 through June 14, we prohibit fishing from all islands in the Snake River Islands Unit. From June 15 through June 30, we prohibit fishing from islands used by nesting birds. You must comply with all posted signs.
4. On waterfowl hunt days, we allow waterfowl hunters to access the waterfowl hunt area after 3 a.m.
1. We allow hunting of white-tailed deer at the designated accessible blind for hunters with disabilities subject to the following conditions:
i. You may only participate in deer hunting at the accessible blind with a refuge permit (name/address/phone number), which is issued through a random drawing in early August. You may apply for a 7-day archery-only permit (name/address/phone number) or a 7-day archery/special weapons-only permit (name/address/phone number). A total of 4 weeks of archery-only permits and 6 weeks of archery/special weapon-only permits will be available.
ii. You must possess a valid State disabled hunting license and tag and provide proof of this prior to the drawing.
iii. We only allow deer hunting at the accessible blind using the following weapons: Muzzleloader, archery equipment, crossbow, shotgun, or handgun. For shotguns, you may only use slugs. For handguns, you may only use straight-walled cartridges not originally established for rifles.
iv. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot for hunting (see § 32.2(k)).
2. We prohibit the use of dogs to hunt big game.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
3. For hunting, you may possess only approved nontoxic shot shells while in the field, including shot shells used for hunting wild turkey (see § 32.2(k)).
3. We allow the use of legal-sized lead ammunition (see current Illinois hunting digest) for the taking of deer.
10. Anglers may not submerge any poles or similar object to take or locate any fish.
5. On the Fox Island Division, we only allow deer hunting during the Statewide archery deer season and special managed hunts.
1. On the Wilkinson Island Division, you must comply with both Illinois and Missouri firearm blaze-orange safety requirements from October 1 to January 31.
1. Conditions A1, A2, and B1 apply. Condition A4 applies only to wild turkey.
2. On the Harlow, Crains, and Meissner Island Divisions, you may only use archery equipment to harvest white-tailed deer.
4. You must remove all fishing devices (see § 27.93 of this chapter) at the end of each day's fishing.
Refer to § 32.34 (Iowa) for regulations regarding Iowa River Corridor Lands.
2. Condition A3 applies to upland game, including wild turkey. We allow shotgun slug or muzzleloading rifle for hunting coyotes.
3. We allow only squirrel hunting on the Keithsburg Division from the beginning of the State season to September 15. We prohibit hunting of any other upland game on the Keithsburg Division.
4. We allow hunting on the Horseshoe Bend Division from September 1 until
5. We allow hunting on the Big Timber Division from September 1 until February 28. We allow spring turkey hunting.
The addition and revisions read as follows:
9. We prohibit the use of trail and game cameras on the refuge.
1. You must register to hunt furbearers at the refuge office, record the number of furbearers harvested on the Upland Game Hunt Report (FWS Form 3-2362), and return the completed form to the refuge office after the hunting season.
3. Conditions A7 through A9 apply.
6. Conditions A6 through A9 apply. Condition A8 applies only to wild turkey.
The addition and revision read as follows:
1. For hunting, you may possess only approved nontoxic shot shells while in the field, including shot shells used for hunting wild turkey (see § 32.2(k)).
2. We prohibit leaving boats, decoys, or other personal property unattended at any time. You must remove all personal property, which includes boats, decoys, and blinds, brought onto the district at the end of each day (see §§ 27.93 and 27.94 of this chapter).
3. We allow boats or other floating devices. We restrict all watercraft motors to 15 horsepower (11.2 kW) or less.
1. You may leave tree stands in an area for a continuous period of time beginning 7 days prior to the open season for hunting deer and ending 7 days after the final day of that season. You must clearly mark the stand with your name or Iowa hunting license number.
2. You do not have exclusive use of the tree stand when unattended or exclusive use of the tree stand site.
3. We prohibit driving nails, screws, spikes, or other metal objects into a tree (see § 32.2(i)).
1. Condition A3 applies.
2. You must remove all ice fishing shelters and other personal property at the end of each day's fishing (see § 27.93 of this chapter).
Refer to § 32.32 (Illinois) for Port Louisa National Wildlife Refuge fee title lands.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
1. You must possess and carry a signed refuge hunt permit (signed brochure) when hunting.
10. We allow crow hunting on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
i. We prohibit the use of centerfire rifles and pistols for hunting on the refuge.
ii. We close hunting areas on the north side of the Neosho River to all hunting from November 1 through March 1.
iii. Conditions A1, A3, A4, A7, and A8 apply.
1. Conditions A1, A3, A7, and A8 apply.
6. We prohibit the use of electronic or photographic trail-monitoring devices.
7. Conditions A1, A3, A7, A8, B3 and B4 apply.
5. Conditions A1, A8, A9, A10, and A11 apply.
9. Conditions A8 through A11 apply.
9. Conditions A8 through A11 apply.
1. You must possess and carry a signed refuge hunt permit (signed brochure) when hunting.
1. Conditions A1 and A3 apply.
4. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot for hunting (see § 32.2(k)).
1. Conditions A1, A3, A4, A5, and B2 apply.
4. We prohibit the use of electronic or photographic trail monitoring devices.
5. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot for turkey hunting (see § 32.2(k)).
The revisions read as follows:
5. You must possess and carry a signed refuge permit (signed brochure) while hunting and/or fishing on the refuge.
6. To retrieve or track game from a posted closed area of the refuge, you must first receive authorization from the refuge manager at 270-527-5770 or the law enforcement officer at 270-703-2836.
9. We prohibit discharge of firearms on or within 200 feet (90 meters) of any home, the abandoned railroad tracks, graveled roads, and hiking trails.
12. We allow trail cameras. Cameras may be used year-round. Cameras must have the owner's name, address, and phone number clearly displayed or they may be confiscated.
17. By 12 p.m. (noon) during the Statewide waterfowl season: you must cease hunting; unload firearms used for waterfowl hunting (see § 27.42(b) of this chapter); remove decoys, blinds, boats, and all other equipment (see § 27.93 of this chapter); and be out of the field daily.
18. We close to all entry of, as posted, the Clarks River Waterfowl Units from November 1 through March 31, with the exception of drawn permit holders (name/address/phone) and their guests.
19. We only allow waterfowl hunting on the Clarks River Waterfowl Units on specified days during the State waterfowl season. We only allow hunting by individuals in possession of a drawn permit and their guests. State regulations and the following conditions apply:
i. Application procedures and eligibility requirements are available from the refuge office.
ii. We allow drawn permit holders and up to four guests to hunt their assigned zone and/or provided blind on the designated date. We prohibit guests on the Clarks River Waterfowl Units without the attendance of the drawn permit holder.
iii. We prohibit selling, trading, or bartering of drawn permits. These permits are nontransferable.
iv. You may place decoys out the first morning of the drawn hunt, and you must remove them at the close of the drawn hunt (see § 27.93 of this chapter).
v. We prohibit watercraft on the Clarks River Waterfowl Units, except for drawn permit holders to access their blinds and retrieve downed birds as needed.
2. We only allow the use of portable and climbing stands. You may place stands in the field no earlier than 2 weeks prior to the opening of deer season, and you must remove them from the field within 1 week after the season closes (see §§ 27.93 and 27.94 of this chapter). The hunter's name, address, and phone number must appear on all stands left in the field.
5. Ground blinds used for the purpose of hunting any species during the deer modern gun, muzzleloader, and youth firearms seasons must display one square foot (144 square inches) of solid, unbroken, hunter orange visible from all sides. You must remove ground blinds when not in use.
The additions and revisions read as follows:
1. Hunting must be in accordance with State-issued Sherburne Wildlife Management Area regulations.
2. Feral hogs are incidental take species. You may take feral hog during any open hunting season, only with the weapon allowed for that season, and only if you are a hunter with proper licenses and State permits for that season. There is no bag limit on feral hog.
1. We require that all hunters and anglers age 16 and older purchase an annual public use permit (name/address/telephone number). We waive the fee for individuals age 60 and older. You must sign the permit, certifying that you understand and will comply with all regulations. You must carry this permit at all times while on the refuge.
2. We allow migratory game bird hunting on Wednesdays, Saturdays, and Sundays until 12 p.m. (noon) during the State season. We do not open for the special teal season or the State youth waterfowl hunt.
3. We prohibit hunting within 150 feet (45 meters) of the maintained rights-of-way of roads, refuge roads or designated trails, buildings, residences, or designated public facilities.
4. You must remove harvested waterfowl, temporary blinds, and decoys (see § 27.93 of this chapter) used for duck hunting by 1 p.m. daily.
5. We only allow dogs to locate, point, and retrieve when hunting for migratory game birds.
6. While hunting, all persons age 16 or younger must be in the presence and under direct supervision of a licensed or exempt hunter age 18 or older.
7. We prohibit any person or group to act as a hunting guide, outfitter, or in any other capacity that any other individual(s) pays or promises to pay directly or indirectly for services rendered to any other person or persons hunting on the refuge, regardless of whether the payment is for guiding, outfitting, lodging, or club membership.
8. We prohibit use or possession of any type of trail-marking material.
9. Coyote, beaver, feral hog, and raccoon are incidental take species and you may take them during any open hunting season only with the weapon allowed for that season if you are a hunter having the required licenses and permits. There is no bag limit on coyote, feral hog, and beaver. State regulations apply on other incidental species.
10. You must check all game taken on the refuge before leaving the refuge at one of the self-clearing check stations indicated on the map in the refuge Hunting and Fishing Regulations Brochure.
11. We allow all-terrain vehicles (ATVs) and utility vehicles in accordance with State Wildlife Management Area (WMA) regulations and size specifications on designated trails (see § 27.31 of this chapter) from scouting season until February 28. An ATV is an off-road vehicle with factory specifications not to exceed the following: Weight 750 pounds (337.5 kilograms), length 85 inches (212.5 centimeters (cm)), and width 48 inches (120 cm). We restrict ATV tires to those no larger than 26 inches (66 cm) by 12 inches (30.5 cm) with a maximum 1-inch (2.5-cm) lug height and a maximum allowable tire pressure of 7 psi (48 kPa) as indicated on the tire by the manufacturer.
12. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot while hunting on the refuge (see § 32.2(k)). This requirement only applies to the use of shotgun ammunition.
13. You must obtain a daily use reporting card (one per person) and place it on the dashboard of your vehicle or in your boat so that your personal information (name/city/State/zip code) is readable and in plain view. You must complete all the information requested (name/address/phone number) and return the cards to the refuge kiosk/check stations upon departure from the refuge.
14. You may enter the refuge no earlier than 4 a.m. and must exit the refuge by 2 hours after legal sunset except that raccoon and opossum hunters during the month of February may use the refuge at night.
15. Waterfowl hunters are allowed no more than 25 shotshells per person.
3. We allow the use of dogs to hunt squirrel and rabbit during that portion of the season designated as small game with dogs. We list specific season dates in the refuge brochure.
5. You may enter the refuge no earlier than 4 a.m. and must exit the refuge by 2 hours after legal sunset.
6. While hunting, all persons age 16 and younger must be in the presence and under direct supervision of a licensed or exempt hunter age 18 or older.
2. The bag limit is one deer per day. The State tagging regulations apply.
3. You must check all deer on the same day taken during lottery deer hunts at the nearest refuge check station.
4. You must wear a minimum of 500 square inches (3,226 square centimeters) of unbroken hunter orange as the outermost layer of clothing on the chest and back, and a hat or cap of unbroken hunter orange. You must wear the solid-hunter-orange items while in the field.
5. You may place stands up to 2 days prior to established hunting season dates. You must remove stands by 2 days after the hunting season closes. You must mark your name and phone number on your stand. You are allowed one portable stand or blind on the refuge.
11. We prohibit the use of trail cameras.
13. There is an application fee per person for the lottery gun hunt application (name/address/phone number). We waive the fee for youth and special access applications.
1. Conditions A11 through A15 apply.
2. We prohibit commercial fishing.
3. We prohibit the taking of alligator snapping turtle (see § 27.21 of this chapter).
4. We only allow fishing during daylight hours.
5. The refuge boat ramp is open for daylight use only, except during specified hunting seasons when the ramp is open from 4 a.m. until 2 hours after legal sunset.
6. We prohibit wire traps, slat traps, wire nets, hoop nets, trotlines, yo-yos, and jug lines on the refuge.
1. We allow hunting of deer only with firearms (see § 27.42 of this chapter) during 5 specific days during October and November. A youth gun hunt will occur during the last weekend of October. The general gun hunt will occur during the final full weekend in November. The youth gun hunt includes both Saturday and Sunday. The general gun hunt includes the Friday immediately before the weekend.
15. We prohibit all-terrain vehicles (ATVs) and utility-type vehicles (UTVs).
1. We allow upland game hunting during the open State season. When hunting, you may possess only approved nontoxic shot (see § 32.2(k) of this chapter), shot size 4 or smaller, or 0.22 caliber rimfire rifles or smaller.
1. You must carry a signed refuge hunt permit (signed Public Use Regulations brochure) and must carry and fill out daily a Visitor Check-In Permit and Report (FWS Form 3-2405).
2. We allow migratory bird hunting on designated areas as indicated in the annual Public Use Regulations brochure.
3. We allow waterfowl hunting until 12 p.m. (noon) during the State season.
4. We prohibit accessing the hunting area by boat from Black Bayou Lake.
5. You may enter the refuge no earlier than 4 a.m.
6. We prohibit hunting within 100 feet (30 meters) of the maintained right-of-way of roads and from or across all-terrain vehicle (ATV) trails (see § 27.31 of this chapter). We prohibit hunting within 50 feet (15 meters), or trespassing on above-ground oil, gas, or electrical transmission facilities.
7. We prohibit leaving boats, blinds, and decoys overnight.
8. We only allow hunting dogs to locate, point, and retrieve when hunting migratory game birds.
9. Youths are generally defined as those individuals age 17 or younger, except that for migratory bird hunts youth are defined as age 15 or younger. Youths younger than age 16 may hunt without hunter-education certification if they are accompanied by and under direct supervision of a person born before September 1, 1969, who has a valid hunting license or if they are accompanied by and under the direct supervision of a person who is age 18 or older and has proof of successful completion of a hunter-education course approved by Louisiana Department of Wildlife and Fisheries. Direct supervision means that the person being supervised is within a normal audible voice contact and in direct line of sight of the supervising person at all times while hunting. The supervising adult is responsible for ensuring that youth hunters do not violate refuge regulations.
10. We prohibit any person or group to act as a hunting guide, outfitter, or in any other capacity that any other individual(s) pays or promises to pay directly or indirectly for services rendered to any other person or persons hunting on the refuge, regardless of whether the payment is for guiding, outfitting, lodging, or club membership.
11. We only allow ATVs on trails (see § 27.31 of this chapter) designated for their use and marked by signs. ATV trails are closed March 1 through August 31. An ATV is an off-road vehicle with factory specifications not to exceed the following: Weight 750 lbs. (337.5 kilograms), length 85 inches (212.5 centimeters (cm)), and width 48 inches (120 cm). We restrict ATV tires to those no larger than 25 inches by 12 inches (62.5 cm by 30 cm) with a maximum of 1-inch (2.5-cm) lug height and a maximum allowable tire pressure of 7 psi (48 kPa) as indicated on the tire by the manufacturer.
1. Conditions A1, A4, A6, A9, A10, and A11 apply.
2. Specific open dates and open areas to small game hunting will appear in the annual Public Use Regulations brochure.
3. We prohibit taking small game with firearms larger than .22 caliber rimfire, shotgun slugs, and buckshot.
4. You may enter the refuge no earlier than 4 a.m. and must exit no later than 1 hour after legal shooting hours end.
5. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot (see § 32.2(k)) while hunting on the refuge. This requirement only applies to the use of shotgun ammunition.
1. Conditions A1, A4, A6, A9, A10, A11, and B4 apply.
2. Specific open dates and open areas will appear in the annual Public Use Regulations brochure.
3. We prohibit gun deer hunting.
4. The daily bag limit is one deer of either sex. The State season limit applies.
5. We prohibit leaving deer stands, blinds, cameras, and other equipment unattended.
6. An adult at least age 21 must supervise youth hunters under age 16 during all hunts. One adult may supervise two youths during small game and migratory bird hunts but may supervise only one youth during big game hunts. Youth must remain within normal voice contact of the adult who is supervising them. Parents or adult guardians are responsible for ensuring that hunters under age 16 do not violate refuge regulations.
7. We prohibit possession or distribution of bait or hunting with the aid of bait, including any grain, salt, minerals, or other feed or any nonnaturally occurring attractant, on the refuge (see § 32.2(h)).
7. We prohibit hunting within 150 feet (45 meters) from the centerline of any public road, refuge road, designated or maintained trail, building, residence, designated public facility, or from or across aboveground oil or gas or electric facilities. We prohibit hunting in refuge-designated closed areas, which we post on the refuge and identify in the refuge hunt permits (signed brochure).
11. We prohibit horses, trail cameras, all-terrain vehicles (ATVs), and utility-type vehicles (UTVs).
8. You may take hog as incidental game while participating in the refuge archery, primitive weapon, and general gun deer hunts and where otherwise specified. We list specific dates for the special hog hunts in January, February, and March in the refuge hunt permit (signed brochure). During the special hog hunts in February, you must use trained hog-hunting dogs to aid in the take of hog. During the special hog hunts, you may take hog from
1. We require that all hunters and anglers age 16 and older purchase an annual public use permit (name/address/telephone number). We waive the fee for hunters age 65 and older. The refuge user is required to sign, certifying that you understand and will comply
2. You may enter the refuge no earlier than 4 a.m. and must exit the refuge by 2 hours after legal sunset.
3. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot while hunting on the refuge (see § 32.2(k)). This requirement applies only to the use of shotgun ammunition.
4. Waterfowl hunters may possess no more than 25 shotshells per person.
5. While hunting, all persons age 17 or younger must be in the presence and under direct supervision of a licensed or exempt hunter age 18 or older.
6. We allow take of beaver, feral hog, nutria, raccoon, and coyote incidental to any refuge hunt with weapons legal for that hunt until you take the daily bag limit of game.
7. You must check all game (name) taken prior to leaving the refuge at one of the self-clearing check stations indicated on the map in the refuge public use brochure.
8. We allow all-terrain vehicles (ATVs) and utility-type vehicle (UTVs) in accordance with State Wildlife Management Area regulations and size specifications on designated trails (see § 27.31 of this chapter) from scouting season until February 28. An ATV is an off-road vehicle with factory specifications not to exceed the following: Weight 750 pounds (337.5 kilograms), length 85 inches (212.5 centimeters (cm)), and width 48 inches (120 cm). We restrict ATV tires to those no larger than 26 inches by 12 inches (66 cm by 30 cm) with a maximum 1-inch (2.5-cm) lug height and a maximum allowable tire pressure of 7 psi (48 kPa) as indicated on the tire by the manufacturer.
9. We prohibit hunting within 150 feet (45 meters) of any public road, refuge road, trail or ATV trail, building, residence, or designated public facility.
10. We prohibit the possession or use of any type of trail-marking material.
11. We prohibit horses or mules.
12. We prohibit camping or overnight parking on the refuge.
13. We prohibit air-thrust boats on the refuge.
14. We prohibit all other hunting during refuge lottery deer hunts.
15. We allow waterfowl hunting on Wednesdays, Saturdays, and Sundays until 12 p.m. (noon) during the designated State duck season.
16. You must remove harvested waterfowl, temporary blinds, and decoys (see § 27.93 of this chapter) used for duck hunting by 1 p.m. daily.
17. We allow dogs to only locate, point, and retrieve when hunting for migratory game birds.
18. We prohibit accessing refuge property by boat from the Mississippi River.
19. We prohibit trapping.
20. We prohibit the possession of saws, saw blades, or machetes.
21. We prohibit the use or possession of alcohol while hunting (see § 32.2(j)).
22. We prohibit all commercial activities (including, but not limited to, guiding).
3. We allow the use of squirrel and rabbit dogs during designated small game with dog seasons. We allow up to two dogs per hunting party for squirrel hunting.
3. There is no application fee per person for each lottery hunt application (name/address/phone number).
4. You may place stands up to 2 days prior to established hunting season dates, and you must remove them no more than 2 days after the hunting season closes. You must mark your name and phone number on your stand. You are allowed one portable stand or blind on the refuge.
7. You must wear a minimum of 500 square inches (3,226 square centimeters) of unbroken-hunter orange as the outermost layer of clothing on the chest and back, and a hat or cap of unbroken-hunter orange.
8. We prohibit nailing deer stands or steps to trees. We prohibit attaching any blind or stand to a tree by using any metal object inserted into the tree.
9. We prohibit the use of trail cameras.
8. We prohibit boat launching by trailer from all refuge roads and parking lots except at designated boat ramps.
1. You must carry a signed refuge hunt permit (signed Public Use Regulations brochure) and must carry and fill out daily a Visitor Check-In Permit and Report (FWS Form 3-2405).
2. We allow migratory game bird hunting on designated areas as indicated in the annual Public Use Regulations brochure.
3. We allow waterfowl hunting until 12 p.m. (noon) during the State season.
4. You may enter the refuge no earlier than 4 a.m.
5. We prohibit hunting within 100 feet (30 meters (m)) of the maintained rights-of-way of roads. We prohibit hunting within 50 feet (15 m) or trespassing on above-ground oil, gas, or electrical transmission facilities.
6. We prohibit leaving boats, blinds, and decoys overnight.
7. We only allow hunting dogs to locate, point, and retrieve when hunting migratory game birds.
8. Youths are generally defined as those individuals age 17 or younger, except that for migratory bird hunts youth are defined as age 15 or younger. Youths younger than age 16 may hunt without hunter-education certification if they are accompanied by and under direct supervision of a person born before September 1, 1969, who has a valid hunting license or if they are accompanied by and under the direct supervision of a person who is age 18 or older and has proof of successful completion of a hunter-education course approved by Louisiana Department of Wildlife and Fisheries. Direct supervision means that the person being supervised is within a normal audible voice contact and in direct line of sight of the supervising person at all times while hunting. The supervising adult is responsible for ensuring that youth hunters do not violate refuge regulations.
9. We prohibit any person or group to act as a hunting guide, outfitter, or in any other capacity that any other individual(s) pays or promises to pay directly or indirectly for services rendered to any other person or persons hunting on the refuge, regardless of whether the payment is for guiding, outfitting, lodging, or club membership.
10. We prohibit motorized boats in the No Gun Hunting Area (the “Beanfield”) from November 1 through January 31.
1. Conditions A1, A5, A8, A9, and A10 apply.
2. Specific open dates and open areas to small game hunting will appear in the annual Public Use Regulations brochure.
3. We prohibit taking small game with firearms larger than .22 caliber rimfire, shotgun slugs, and buckshot.
4. You may enter the refuge no earlier than 4 a.m. and must exit no later than 2 hours after legal shooting hours.
5. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot for hunting (see § 32.2(k)). This requirement only applies to the use of shotgun ammunition.
6. We allow hunting dogs only to locate, point, and retrieve when hunting for upland game species.
1. Conditions A1, A5, A8, A9, A10, and B4 apply.
2. Specific open dates and open areas will appear in the annual Public Use Regulations brochure.
3. You must check all deer taken during general Gun Deer Hunts at a refuge check station on the same day taken.
4. We prohibit leaving deer stands, blinds, cameras, and other equipment unattended.
5. Deer hunters must wear hunter orange in accordance with State deer hunting regulations in Wildlife Management areas.
6. We prohibit hunters from placing or hunting from stands on pine trees with white-painted bands or rings.
7. We prohibit possession or distribution of bait or hunting with the aid of bait, including any grain, salt, minerals, or other feed or any nonnaturally occurring attractant, on the refuge (see § 32.2(h)).
8. We prohibit the hunting of big game species with dogs.
1. We prohibit leaving boats and other personal property on the refuge overnight.
3. We prohibit commercial fishing. For recreational fishing using commercial gear (slat traps, etc.) we require you to carry a Special Use Permit (FWS Form 3-1383-G), which is available at the refuge office.
1. You must carry a signed refuge hunt permit (signed Public Use Regulations brochure) and must carry and fill out daily a Visitor Check-In Permit and Report (FWS Form 3-2405).
2. We allow migratory game bird hunting on designated areas as indicated in the annual Public Use Regulations brochure.
3. We allow waterfowl hunting until 12 p.m. (noon) during the State season.
4. You may enter the refuge no earlier than 4 a.m.
5. We prohibit hunting within 100 feet (30 meters (m)) of the maintained rights-of-way of roads and from or across all-terrain vehicle (ATV) trails. We prohibit hunting within 50 feet (15 m), or trespassing on aboveground oil, gas, or electrical transmission facilities.
6. We prohibit leaving boats, blinds, and decoys overnight.
7. We only allow hunting dogs to locate, point, and retrieve when hunting migratory game birds.
8. Youths are generally defined as those individuals age 17 or younger; for migratory bird hunts youth are defined as age 15 or younger. Youths younger than age 16 may hunt without hunter-education certification if they are accompanied by and under direct supervision of a person born before September 1, 1969, who has a valid hunting license or if they are accompanied by and under the direct supervision of a person who is age 18 or older and has proof of successful completion of a hunter-education course approved by Louisiana Department of Wildlife and Fisheries. Direct supervision means that the person being supervised is within a normal audible voice contact and in direct line of sight of the supervising person at all times while hunting. The supervising adult is responsible for ensuring that youth hunters do not violate refuge regulations.
9. We prohibit any person or group to act as a hunting guide or outfitter, or in any other capacity that receives payment directly or indirectly for services rendered to any other person or persons hunting on the refuge, regardless of whether the payment is for guiding, outfitting, lodging, or club membership.
10. We allow ATVs only on trails (see § 27.31 of this chapter) designated for their use and marked by signs. ATV trails are closed March 1 through August 31. An ATV is an off-road vehicle with factory specifications not to exceed the following: Weight 750 lbs. (337.5 kilograms), length 85 inches (212.5 centimeters (cm)), and width 48 inches (120 cm). We restrict ATV tires to those no larger than 25 inches by 12 inches (62.5 cm by 30 cm) with a maximum of 1-inch (2.5-cm) lug height and a maximum allowable tire pressure of 7 psi (48 kPa) as indicated on the tire by the manufacturer.
1. Conditions A1, A5, A8, A9, and A10 apply.
2. Specific open dates and open areas to hunt small game will appear in the annual Public Use Regulations brochure.
3. We prohibit taking small game with firearms larger than .22 caliber rimfire, shotgun slugs, and buckshot.
4. You may enter the refuge no earlier than 4 a.m. and must exit no later than 2 hours after legal shooting hours.
5. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot for hunting (see § 32.2(k)). This requirement only applies to the use of shotgun ammunition.
1. Conditions A1, A5, A8, A9, A10, and B4 apply.
2. Specific open dates and open areas will appear in the Annual Public Use Regulations Brochure.
3. We prohibit leaving deer stands, blinds, cameras, and other equipment unattended.
4. Deer hunters must wear hunter orange in accordance with State deer hunting regulations in Wildlife Management Areas.
5. We prohibit hunters from placing stands or hunting from stands on pine trees with white-painted bands and/or rings.
6. We prohibit possession or distribution of bait or hunting with the aid of bait, including any grain, salt, minerals, or other feed or nonnaturally occurring attractant, on the refuge (see § 32.2(h)).
7. We prohibit the use of dogs for hog hunting.
2. We prohibit outboard motors in the Wigeon Ponds (only trolling motors allowed).
4. We prohibit leaving boats and other personal property on the refuge overnight (see § 27.93 of this chapter).
The revisions read as follows:
15. We prohibit hunting in the following areas:
i. The South Magurrewock Area: The boundary of this area begins at the intersection of the Charlotte Road and U.S. Route 1; it follows the Charlotte Road in a southerly direction to a point just south of the fishing pier and observation blind, where it turns in an easterly direction, crossing the East Branch of the Magurrewock Stream, and proceeds in a northerly direction along the upland edge of the Upper and Middle Magurrewock Marshes to U.S. Route 1 where it follows Route 1 in a southerly direction to the point of origin.
ii. The North Magurrewock Area: The boundary of this area begins where the northern exterior boundary of the refuge and Route 1 intersect; it follows the boundary line in a westerly direction to the railroad grade where it follows the main railroad grade and refuge boundary in a southwest direction to the upland edge of the Lower Barn Meadow Marsh; then it follows the upland edge of the marsh in a southerly direction to U.S. Route 1 where it follows Route 1 to the point of origin.
iii. The posted safety zone around the refuge headquarters: The boundary of this area starts where the snowmobile trail intersects with Charlotte Road. The boundary follows the southern edge of the field, across the abandoned Maine Central Railroad grade, where it follows the snowmobile trail in a northwesterly direction to Barn Meadow Road. It proceeds across Barn Meadow Road to the South Fireline, where it follows the South Fireline to the Headquarters Road. It follows the Headquarters Road in a southerly direction to Two Mile Meadow Road. It follows the westerly side of Two Mile Meadow Road to the intersection with Mile Bridge Road. It then follows Mile Bridge Road to the intersection with Hanson Pit Road, then along Hanson Pit Road leaving the road in an easterly direction at the site of the old crossing, across the abandoned Maine Central Railroad grade to Charlotte Road (directly across from the Moosehorn Ridge Road gate). The line follows Charlotte Road in a northerly direction to the point of origin.
iv. The Southern Gravel Pit: The boundary of this area starts at a point where Cranberry Brook crosses the Charlotte Road and proceeds south along the Charlotte Road to the Baring/Charlotte Town Line, east along the Town Line to a point where it intersects the railroad grade where it turns in a northerly direction, and follows the railroad grade to Cranberry Brook, following Cranberry Brook in a westerly direction to the point of origin.
3. We open the refuge to hunting during the hours stipulated under State hunting regulations. You must unload all hunting firearms (see § 27.42 of this chapter) and nock no arrows outside of legal hunting hours.
3. We allow prehunt scouting of the refuge; however, we prohibit dogs and hunting firearms (see § 27.42 of this chapter) during prehunt scouting.
The revisions read as follows:
1. We require you to obtain a refuge waterfowl hunting permit using the Waterfowl Lottery Application (FWS Form 3-2355) or a signed refuge permit (signed brochure) while hunting on refuge property.
3. We allow only hunters possessing a valid refuge waterfowl hunting permit issued by the refuge to participate in the waterfowl hunt during designated days.
13. Disabled persons may have an assistant during the hunt in designated areas of the refuge. Persons assisting disabled hunters must be at least age 18 and obey all refuge, State, and Federal laws and regulations. Non-hunting assistants assisting disabled hunters must not be afield with a hunting firearm, bow, or other hunting device. Assistants who wish to hunt must abide by the conditions in C1 and C3. Assistants may not enter a designated disabled hunting area unless they are accompanied by a certified disabled hunter. All refuge-provided hunt blinds are reserved for disabled hunters only; however, when a certified disabled hunter and their assistant occupy the same blind, both may take game.
12. Disabled persons may have an assistant during the hunt on designated areas of the refuge. Persons assisting disabled hunters must be at least age 18 and obey all refuge, State, and Federal laws and regulations. Non-hunting assistants assisting disabled hunters must not be afield with a hunting firearm, bow, or other hunting device. Assistants who wish to hunt must abide by the conditions in C1 and C3. Assistants participating in a disabled hunt must be accompanied by a hunter certified by the State as being disabled.
12. Goose, duck, and dove hunting is suspended during the muzzleloader and firearms seasons, with the exceptions that waterfowl hunting will remain open during the 2-day January firearms season, during the early muzzleloader season, and waterfowl hunters are restricted to hunting only Blue Heron Pond, Lake Allen, and Area Z.
2. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot while hunting in the field (see § 32.2(k)), except for the use of .22-caliber rimfire rifles during the months of December and January only to hunt squirrel.
6. We require turkey hunters to pattern their hunting weapons prior to going afield. Contact refuge headquarters for more information.
7. Prior to issuing a hunt permit, we require you to pass a yearly proficiency test with each hunting weapon used. See A1 for issuing information.
8. We only allow the use of a hunting shotgun, muzzleloader, or bow and
17. North Tract: We allow shotgun, muzzleloader, and bow hunting in accordance with the following: Conditions C1 through C16 apply.
18. Central Tract: Headquarters/Mills Race (MR) Lottery Hunt: We only allow shotgun and bow hunting in accordance with the following: Conditions C1 through C15 apply (except C8).
19. South Tract: We allow shotgun, muzzleloader, and bow hunting in accordance with the following: Conditions C1 through C16 apply.
15. * * *
iv. Anglers may fish from April 1 until mid-October, as posted. We also reserve the right to close Cash Lake at any time.
v. We allow fishing from legal sunrise to legal sunset.
The revisions read as follows:
4. We prohibit use of motorized vehicles on the refuge. The refuge will provide designated parking areas for hunters. You must display issued hunter parking permits (generated from the Migratory Bird Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2357) on their dashboards when parked in designated hunter parking areas.
5. During any season when it is legal to hunt deer with a shotgun or muzzleloader, we require all hunters, including archers and small game hunters, to wear a minimum of 500 square inches (3,226 square centimeters) of solid-orange clothing or material in a conspicuous manner on their chest, back, and head. During all other times, if you are engaged in woodcock hunting on the refuge, you must wear a minimum of a solid-orange hat.
9. You may begin scouting hunting areas 1 month prior to the opening day of your permitted season. We require possession of refuge permits (Migratory Bird Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2357) while scouting.
9. We prohibit construction or use of permanent structures while hunting.
1. We allow fishing from designated locations on the banks of Puffer Pond. We prohibit the use of motorized and non-motorized boats on Puffer Pond.
5. We prohibit use of motorized vehicles on the refuge. The refuge will provide designated parking areas for hunters. You must display issued hunter parking permits (generated from the Migratory Bird Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2357) on their dashboards when parked in designated hunter parking areas.
10. You may begin scouting hunting areas beginning 1 month prior to the opening day of your permitted season. We require possession of refuge permits (FWS Form 3-2357) while scouting. We prohibit the use of dogs during scouting.
8. We prohibit construction or use of permanent structures while hunting.
1. We reserve the right to close the refuge shoreline and beach area to surf fishing and over-sand vehicle use during the period of April 1 through mid-September annually, based on biological needs and beach conditions. Seasonal closures are delineated with posted signs. A portion of the northernmost area of the shoreline, commonly referred to as the point, is posted closed from April 1 through mid-September.
3. We require a permit obtained from the Trustees of Reservations for the use of over-sand, surf-fishing vehicles on the refuge.
6. We prohibit use of motorized vehicles on the refuge. The refuge will provide designated parking areas for hunters. You must display issued hunter parking permits (generated from the Migratory Bird Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2357) on their dashboards when parked in designated hunter parking areas.
11. You may begin scouting hunting areas 1 month prior to the opening day of your permitted season. We require possession of refuge permits while scouting. We prohibit the use of dogs during scouting.
7. You may use decoys to hunt turkey.
9. We prohibit construction or use of permanent structures while hunting.
4. For hunting, you may possess only approved nontoxic shot while in the field, including shot shells used for hunting wild turkey (see § 32.2(k)). Discarded shells are considered litter.
1. Conditions A1, A2, A3, A5, A6, A7, A8, and A9 apply.
2. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot (see § 32.2(k)) while in the field with the following exception: While hunting fox, coyotes, and raccoons in units where we allow it, you may use single projectile shot such as bullets, slugs, or muzzleloader bullets containing lead. We prohibit the use of buckshot for any hunting on the refuge. Discarded shells are considered litter.
1. Conditions A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6, A8, and A9 apply.
2. We prohibit the distribution of bait or hunting with the aid of bait, salt, minerals, or other ingestible attractant (see § 32.2(h)).
3. For deer hunting, you may use only single projectile shot. We prohibit the use of buckshot for any hunting on the refuge. Discarded shells are considered litter.
4. We allow portable tree stands for deer hunting.
5. We allow only one tree stand per hunter per refuge unit.
6. We do not require hunters to remove tree stands at the end of each day's hunt, but we strictly enforce State rules on tree stands.
7. For Humbug Marsh Only:
i. You must obtain State-issued permits for this unit by entering the Michigan Department of Natural Resources annual drawing.
ii. You must possess a valid State-issued permit for the date you are hunting in the Humbug Marsh Unit.
iii. We will provide fixed hunting platforms and blinds for selected hunters.
8. The Fix Unit is closed to firearm deer hunting. We allow only archery deer hunting in the Fix Unit.
The addition and revisions read as follows:
1. All hunters must comply with all State hunter education requirements. All hunters age 16 and older must possess and carry a valid, signed refuge hunting permit (Visitor Check-In Permit and Report, FWS Form 3-2405). While hunting on the refuge, all persons younger than age 16 (“youth hunter”) must be in the presence and under the direct supervision of a licensed or exempt hunter at least age 21 (“licensed hunter”). A hunter supervising a youth hunter must hold all required licenses and permits.
2. General refuge hours are legal sunrise to legal sunset. During hunting season, hunters may enter the refuge at 4 a.m. and must exit the refuge no later than 2 hours after legal sunset except during raccoon and frog hunts.
3. We allow hunting of migratory game birds, including under the Light Goose Conservation Order, only on Wednesdays, Saturdays, and Sundays ending at 12 p.m. (noon).
4. Each hunter must obtain a daily Big Game Harvest Report (FWS Form 3-2359), available at each refuge information station, and follow the printed instructions on the card. You must display the card in plain view on the dashboard of your vehicle so that the personal information is readable. Prior to leaving the refuge, you must complete the reverse side of the card and deposit it at one of the refuge information stations. Include all game harvested, and if you harvest no game, report “0.” We prohibit hunters possessing more than one Big Game Harvest Report at a time.
5. We may close certain areas of the refuge for sanctuary or administrative purposes. We will mark those areas with “No Hunting” or “Area Closed” signs.
6. We restrict motor vehicle use to roads designated as vehicle access roads on the refuge map (see § 27.31 of this chapter). We prohibit blocking access to any road or trail entering the refuge (see § 27.31(h) of this chapter). It is unlawful to hunt from or shoot into the 100-foot (30.5-meter) zone along either side of designated roads and parking lots.
7. During the refuge deer firearm season (to include primitive weapons and youth gun hunt) all hunters and visitors on the refuge except waterfowl hunters and nighttime raccoon hunters must wear in full view a minimum of 500 square inches (3,226 square centimeters (cm)) of solid, unbroken, fluorescent orange. Deer archery hunters on the refuge must also wear in full view a minimum of 500 square inches (3,226 square cm) of solid, unbroken, fluorescent orange when there is a State gun season on private land. When hunting quail or rabbit on a refuge outside the refuge's general gun and primitive weapon season, hunters must wear a fluorescent orange vest or cap.
8. We only allow dogs on the refuge when specifically authorized for hunting. We encourage the use of dogs to retrieve dead or wounded waterfowl. Dogs must remain in the immediate control of their handlers at all times (see § 26.21(b) of this chapter).
9. You must remove decoys, blinds, boats, other personal property, and litter (see §§ 27.93 and 27.94 of this chapter) from the hunting area following each morning's hunt. We prohibit cutting or removing trees and other vegetation (see § 27.51 of this chapter). We prohibit the use of flagging, paint, blazes, tacks, or other types of markers.
10. We prohibit all-terrain vehicles (ATVs, see § 27.31(f) of this chapter), horses, and mules on the refuge. We prohibit the overnight storage of boats on the refuge.
11. We prohibit the use or possession of alcoholic beverages while hunting on the refuge (see § 32.2(j)).
12. We prohibit all commercial activities, including guiding or participating in a paid guided hunt.
13. We prohibit possession of bait in the field, placement of bait, and hunting over bait (see § 32.2(h)).
14. You are allowed no more than 25 shotshells per person in the field.
1. Condition A12 applies.
2. All anglers must carry a valid refuge permit (Visitor Check-In Permit and Report, FWS Form 3-2405), certifying that they understand and will comply with all regulations.
8. We allow take of frog only with a Special Use Permit (FWS Form 3-1383-G).
1. All hunters must comply with all State hunter education requirements. All hunters age 16 and older must carry a valid, signed refuge hunting permit
2. General refuge hours are legal sunrise to legal sunset. During hunting season, hunters may enter the refuge at 4 a.m. and must exit the refuge no later than 2 hours after legal sunset except during raccoon and frog hunts.
3. We allow hunting of migratory game birds, including under the Light Goose Conservation Order, only on Wednesdays, Saturdays, and Sundays ending at 12 p.m. (noon).
4. Each hunter must obtain a daily Big Game Harvest Report (FWS Form 3-2359), available at each refuge information station, and follow the printed instructions on the card. You must display the card in plain view on the dashboard of your vehicle so that the personal information is readable. Prior to leaving the refuge, you must complete the card and deposit it at one of the refuge information stations. Include all game harvested, and if you harvest no game, report “0.” We prohibit hunters possessing more than one Big Game Harvest Report (FWS Form 3-2359) at a time.
5. We may close certain areas of the refuge for sanctuary or administrative purposes. We will mark those areas with “No Hunting” or “Area Closed” signs.
6. We restrict motor vehicle use to roads designated as vehicle access roads on the refuge map (see § 27.31 of this chapter). We prohibit blocking access to any road or trail entering the refuge (see § 27.31(h) of this chapter). It is unlawful to hunt from or shoot into the 100-foot (30.5-meter) zone along either side of designated roads and parking lots.
7. During the refuge deer firearm season (to include primitive weapons and youth gun hunt) all hunters and visitors on the refuge except waterfowl hunters and nighttime raccoon hunters must wear in full view a minimum of 500 square inches (3,226 square centimeters (cm)) of solid, unbroken, fluorescent orange. Deer archery hunters on the refuge must also wear in full view a minimum of 500 square inches (3,226 square cm) of solid, unbroken, fluorescent orange when there is a State gun season on private land. When hunting quail or rabbit on a refuge outside the refuge's general gun and primitive weapon season, hunters must wear a fluorescent orange vest or cap.
8. We only allow dogs on the refuge when specifically authorized for hunting. We encourage the use of dogs to retrieve dead or wounded waterfowl. Dogs must remain in the immediate control of their handlers at all times (see § 26.21(b) of this chapter).
9. You must remove decoys, blinds, boats, other personal property, and litter (see §§ 27.93 and 27.94 of this chapter) from the hunting area following each morning's hunt. We prohibit cutting or removing trees and other vegetation (see § 27.51 of this chapter). We prohibit the use of flagging, paint, blazes, tacks, or other types of markers.
10. We prohibit all-terrain vehicles (ATVs) and utility-type vehicles (UTVs) (see § 27.31(f) of this chapter), horses, and mules on the refuge.
11. We prohibit the use or possession of alcoholic beverages while hunting on the refuge (see § 32.2(j)).
12. We prohibit all commercial activities, including guiding or participating in a paid guided hunt.
13. We prohibit possession of bait in the field, placement of bait, and hunting over bait (see § 32.2(h)).
14. You are allowed no more than 25 shotshells per person in the field.
1. Conditions A1, A2, A4 through A7, and A10 through A13 apply.
2. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot for hunting (see § 32.2(k)) while in the field if hunting small game with a shotgun. Small game also may be hunted with .22 magnums, .17 calibers, and .22 caliber rimfire rifles and archery equipment using arrows with points other than broadheads.
3. You may use dogs, but dogs must remain under the immediate control of their handlers at all times (see § 26.21(b) of this chapter).
4. We prohibit the cutting or removal of trees and other vegetation (see § 27.51 of this chapter).
5. We prohibit the use of flagging, paint, blazes, tacks, or other types of markers.
1. Conditions A1, A2, A4 through A7, and A10 through A13 apply.
2. We prohibit dogs for any big game hunt.
3. We prohibit possession of any drug on any arrow for bow hunting (see § 32.2(g)).
4. We prohibit organized drives for deer.
5. We prohibit hunting or shooting across any open, fallow, or planted field from ground level.
6. We prohibit the construction of, and hunting from, any permanent stands or blinds on the refuge. We allow valid permit holders to possess and hunt from one portable stand or blind on the refuge. You must permanently and legibly write your name and phone number on all stands on the refuge. Stands left in the area do not reserve the hunting locations. You may place stands up to 2 days prior to the hunt, and you must remove them no more than 2 days after the refuge's deer season closes. We may confiscate and dispose of stands not in compliance with these regulations. Ground blinds must display a minimum 400 square inches (2,581 square centimeters) of fluorescent orange that is visible from all sides. We prohibit nailing deer stands and/or steps to trees and attaching any blind or stand to a tree by any metal object inserted into the tree (see § 32.2(i)).
7. Hunters using a climbing tree stand must use a fall-arrest system manufactured to Treestand Manufacturers Association standards.
8. We prohibit cutting or removing trees and other vegetation (see § 27.51 of this chapter).
9. We prohibit the use of flagging, paint, blazes, tacks, or other types of markers.
10. We prohibit the use of buckshot on the refuge.
1. Condition A11 applies.
2. All anglers must carry a valid refuge permit (Visitor Check-In Permit and Report, FWS Form 3-2405), certifying that they understand and will comply with all regulations.
7. We allow take of frog only by Special Use Permit (FWS Form 3-1383-G).
2. All youth hunters age 15 and younger must be in the presence and direct supervision of a Mississippi licensed or exempt hunter, age 21 or older. One adult may supervise no more than one youth hunter.
3. Before hunting or fishing, all participants must display their Daily Visitor Information/Harvest Report Card (Big Game Harvest Report, FWS Form
13. Valid permit holders may incidentally take opossum, coyote, beaver, bobcat, nutria, and feral hog in any refuge hunt season with weapons legal for that hunt.
14. We allow all-terrain vehicles (ATVs) and utility-type vehicles (UTVs) only on designated trails (see § 27.31 of this chapter; see refuge brochure map) from September 15 through February 28. We prohibit horses and mules.
2. All youth hunters age 15 and younger must be in the presence and direct supervision of a Mississippi licensed or exempt hunter, age 21 or older. One adult may supervise no more than one youth hunter.
3. Before hunting or fishing, all participants must display their Daily Visitor Information/Harvest Report Card (Big Game Harvest Report, FWS Form 3-2359) in plain view in their vehicle so that the required information is readable. All cards must be returned upon completion of the activity and before leaving the refuge.
9. Valid permit holders may incidentally take opossum, coyote, beaver, bobcat, nutria, and feral hog in any refuge hunt season with weapons legal for that hunt.
2. All youth hunters age 15 and younger must be in the presence and direct supervision of a Mississippi licensed or exempt hunter, age 21 or older. One adult may supervise no more than one youth hunter.
3. Before hunting or fishing, all participants must display their Daily Visitor Information/Harvest Report Card (Big Game Harvest Report, FWS Form 3-2359) in plain view in their vehicle so that the required information is readable. All cards must be returned upon completion of the activity and before leaving the refuge.
12. Valid permit holders may incidentally take opossum, coyote, beaver, bobcat, nutria, and feral hog in any refuge hunt season with weapons legal for that hunt.
2. All youth hunters age 15 and younger must be in the presence and direct supervision of a Mississippi licensed or exempt hunter, age 21 or older. One adult may supervise no more than one youth hunter.
3. Before hunting or fishing, all participants must display their Daily Visitor Information/Harvest Report Card (Big Game Harvest Report, FWS Form 3-2359) in plain view in their vehicle so that the required information is readable. All cards must be returned upon completion of the activity and before leaving the refuge.
13. Valid permit holders may incidentally take opossum, coyote, beaver, bobcat, nutria, and feral hog in any refuge hunt season with weapons legal for that hunt.
14. We allow all-terrain vehicles (ATVs) and utility-type vehicles (UTVs) only on designated trails (see § 27.31 of this chapter; see refuge brochure map) from September 15 through February 28. We prohibit horses and mules.
2. All youth hunters age 15 and younger must be in the presence and direct supervision of a Mississippi licensed or exempt hunter, age 21 or older. One adult may supervise no more than one youth hunter.
3. Before hunting or fishing, all participants must display their Daily Visitor Information/Harvest Report Card (Big Game Harvest Report, FWS Form 3-2359) in plain view in their vehicle so that the required information is readable. All cards must be returned upon completion of the activity and before leaving the refuge.
13. Valid T R Complex Annual Public Use Permit (name/address/phone number)holders may incidentally take opossum, coyote, beaver, bobcat, nutria, and feral hog in any refuge hunt season with weapons legal for that hunt.
1. You must purchase a refuge waterfowl permit (Waterfowl Lottery Application; FWS Form 3-2355) for waterfowl hunting in addition to meeting other applicable State and Federal requirements. No more than two companions may accompany each permitted hunter, and we do not require these companions to purchase permits. Permits are nontransferable and only issued to hunters ages 16 and older. Permit holders can hunt as standby hunters for any date for which waterfowl hunting is open. Youth age 15 or younger are not required to obtain a refuge waterfowl permit and can obtain a free permit from the refuge's office.
2. Information on hunts and hunt dates are available at refuge headquarters, on the refuge Web site, and as specified in the refuge brochure.
3. You must remove all decoys, blind material, and harvested game and return to the check station by 1 p.m. each day (see §§ 27.93 and 27.94 of this chapter).
4. All youth hunters age 15 and younger must remain within sight and normal voice contact of an adult age 21 or older. One adult may supervise not more than two youth hunters.
5. All waterfowl hunters must check-in and check-out at the refuge's duck check station both before and after a day's hunt.
6. We prohibit the use or possession of alcoholic beverages while hunting (see § 32.2(j)).
7. Persons possessing, transporting, or carrying firearms on the refuge must comply with all provisions of State and local law. Persons may only use (discharge) firearms in accordance with refuge regulations (see § 27.42 of this chapter and specific refuge regulations in this part 32).
8. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot while hunting within wetlands and green-tree reservoirs (see § 32.2(k)). Waterfowl hunters are limited to 25 shotshells per person.
9. We prohibit leaving any personal property, including, but not limited to, boats or vehicles of any type, geocaches, and cameras, overnight on the refuge (see § 27.93 of this chapter). You may not bring any mechanized equipment into the Noxubee Wilderness Area, and you must remove all personal property daily from the Noxubee Wilderness Area. Outside the Noxubee Wilderness Area, you may leave properly labeled tree stands used for deer hunting and trotlines and jugs used for fishing overnight.
10. During the deer firearm (primitive or modern gun) hunts, any person hunting species other than waterfowl,
11. We allow unleashed dogs for retrieval of migratory and upland game only. Livestock is prohibited, and pets must remained restrained and under the owner's control.
12. We prohibit marking trees and using flagging tape, reflective tacks, and other similar marking devices.
13. We require all hunters and anglers to record hours active and game harvested using the Visitor Check-In Permit and Report (FWS Form 3-2405).
14. We require all users to possess and display a valid Entrance Pass. You may use a current Federal Recreational Lands Pass or valid Federal Migratory Bird Hunting and Conservation Stamp (Federal Duck Stamp) as the Entrance Pass.
15. Waterfowl hunters must stay within 100 feet (30.5 meters (m)) of the assigned hunt location. You may exceed 100 feet (30.5 m) when retrieving downed birds.
16. We prohibit using real or artificial agricultural grain baits, salts and other minerals, scents, and other food-like attractants (see § 32.2(h)). We allow you to use baited lines for fishing on the refuge.
17. We prohibit off-road vehicle use including the use of all-terrain vehicles (ATVs), utility-type vehicles (UTVs), and livestock, including horses and mules.
1. When waterfowl hunting is actively taking place, we prohibit all public use other than waterfowl hunting within the designated areas for waterfowl hunting.
2. We allow hunting of squirrel, raccoon, rabbit, quail, and opossum with unleashed dogs during designated hunts. All pets must remain restrained and within the immediate control of the owner.
3. We allow raccoon and opossum hunting between the hours of legal sunset and legal sunrise.
4. Conditions A2, A4, A6 through A14, A16, and A17 apply.
5. We prohibit hunting or entry into areas designated as being “closed” (see refuge brochure map).
6. You may take incidental species (coyote, beaver, nutria, and feral hog) during any hunt with those weapons legal during those hunts.
7. Bobwhite quail and rabbit hunters are required to wear at least a solid hunter orange vest or cap.
1. Conditions A2, A4, A6 through A14, A16, A17, B1, B2, B5 and B6 apply.
2. You must purchase a refuge quota deer permit (Quota Deer Hunt Application; FWS Form 3-2354) in addition to meeting State requirements for all refuge deer hunts. Permits are nontransferable. Youth age 15 or younger are not required to a purchase a refuge quota deer permit and can obtain a free permit from the refuge's office.
3. We prohibit organized drives for deer.
4. You may place one portable tree stand or ground blind for deer hunting on the refuge only during the open deer season. You must clearly label the stand or blind with the name, address, and phone number of the hunter. When not in use and left on the refuge, you must place stands in a non-hunting position at ground level.
5. While climbing a tree, installing a tree stand that uses climbing aids, or hunting from a tree stand on the refuge, you must use a fall-arrest system (full body harness) that is manufactured to the Treestand Manufacturer's Association's standards.
1. The general sport fishing, boating, and bow fishing season extends from March 1 through October 31, except for the shoreline of Bluff Lake from the Bluff Lake Boardwalk to the visitor center, the entire Noxubee River, and all borrow pit areas along Highway 25 that are open year-round to fishing.
2. Conditions A2, A6, A7, A9 through A14, A16, A17, B1, and B5 apply.
3. Anglers must keep boat travel at idle speed, and they must not create a wake when moving.
4. We prohibit limb lines, jug fishing, trotlines, snag lines, and hand grappling in Ross Branch, Bluff, and Loakfoma Lakes as well as areas within 100 yards of refuge water and transportation structures.
5. When left unattended, anglers must tag fishing gear with their name, address, and phone number. Anglers must check all gear within 24 hours each day or remove these devices.
6. Trotlining:
i. Anglers must label each end of the trotline floats with the owner's name, address, and phone number.
ii. We limit trotlines to one line per person, and we allow no more than two trotlines per boat.
iii. Anglers must tend all trotlines every 24 hours and remove them when not in use.
iv. Trotlines must possess at least 6-inch (15.2-centimeter) cotton string leads.
7. Jug fishing:
i. Anglers must label each jug with their name, address, and phone number.
ii. Anglers must check all jugs every 24 hours and remove them when not in use.
8. We prohibit nighttime bow fishing.
9. We prohibit fishing tournaments on all refuge waters.
10. We prohibit the taking of frogs, turtles, and crawfish (see § 27.21 of this chapter).
11. We prohibit the use of airboats, sailboats, hovercrafts, and inboard-water-thrust boats such as, but not limited to, personal watercraft, watercycles, and waterbikes.
12. We prohibit using nets of any type to capture free-roaming fish or wildlife. Fishing nets can be used to recover fish caught by hook and line.
1. We allow hunting in Butler Lake, Salt Lake, and Gillard Lake from
9. Waterfowl hunters are allowed no more than 25 shotshells per person.
11. We allow all-terrain vehicles (ATVs) and utility-type vehicles (UTVs) in accordance with State WMA regulations and size specifications on designated trails (see § 27.31 of this chapter) from scouting season until February 28. An ATV is an off-road vehicle with factory specifications not to exceed the following: Weight 750 pounds (337.5 kilograms), length 85 inches (212.5 centimeters (cm)), and width 48 inches (120 cm). We restrict ATV tires to those no larger than 26 inches (66 cm) by 12 inches (30 cm) with a maximum 1-inch (2.5-cm) lug height and a maximum allowable tire
12. You must be age 16 or older to operate an ATV or UTV on the refuge.
14. We prohibit the following acts: Use or possession of alcohol while hunting (see § 32.2(j)); entering the refuge from private property; hunters entering the refuge from public waterways; overnight parking; parking or hunting within 150 feet (45 meters) of any petroleum facility or equipment, or refuge residences and buildings; parking by hunters in refuge headquarters parking lot; and use of handguns for hunting on the refuge.
3. * * *
iii. We prohibit the use of boats, ATVs, and UTVs.
6. We prohibit the following acts: Target practice; and the possession of any trail-marking material.
3. You must wear a minimum of 500 square inches (3,226 square centimeters) of unbroken hunter orange as the outermost layer of clothing on the chest and back, and a hat or cap of unbroken hunter orange. You must wear the solid-hunter-orange items while in the field.
4. While hunting, all persons under age 16 must be in the presence and under direct supervision of a licensed or exempt hunter at least age 21.
7. We prohibit nailing deer stands and/or steps to trees. We prohibit attaching any blind or stand to a tree by any metal object inserted into the tree (see § 32.2(i)).
9. You may place stands up to 2 days prior to established hunting season dates, and you must remove them no more than 2 days after the hunting season closes. You must mark your stand with your name and phone number. We allow each hunter one portable stand or blind on the refuge.
13. We prohibit the use of trail cameras.
1. We prohibit the use of ATVs and UTVs (see § 27.31(f) of this chapter).
5. We prohibit taking alligator gar.
1. All hunters must comply with all State hunter education requirements. All hunters age 16 and older must possess and carry a signed North Mississippi NWR hunting permit (code 606, available from the Mississippi Department of Wildlife, Fisheries, and Parks). While hunting on the refuge, all persons younger than age 16 (“youth hunter”) must be in the presence and under the direct supervision of a licensed or exempt hunter at least age 21 (“licensed hunter”). A licensed hunter supervising a youth hunter must hold all required licenses and permits.
2. General refuge hours are legal sunrise to legal sunset. During hunting season, hunters may enter the refuge at 4 a.m. and must exit the refuge no later than 2 hours after legal sunset except during raccoon and frog hunts.
3. We allow hunting of migratory game birds, including under the Light Goose Conservation Order, only on Wednesdays, Saturdays, and Sundays ending at 12 p.m. (noon).
4. We prohibit public hunting north of Mississippi Highway 8.
5. Each hunter must obtain a daily Big Game Harvest Report (FWS Form 3-2359) available at each refuge information station and follow the printed instructions on the card. You must display the card in plain view on the dashboard of your vehicle so that the personal information is readable. Prior to leaving the refuge, you must complete the card and deposit it at one of the refuge information stations. Include all game harvested, and if you harvest no game, report “0.” We prohibit hunters possessing more than one Big Game Harvest Report at a time.
6. We may close certain areas of the refuge for sanctuary or administrative purposes. We will mark those areas with “No Hunting” or “Area Closed” signs.
7. We restrict motor vehicle use to roads designated as vehicle access roads on the refuge map (see § 27.31 of this chapter). We prohibit blocking access to any road or trail entering the refuge (see § 27.31(h) of this chapter). It is unlawful to hunt from or shoot into the 100-foot (30.5-meter) zone along either side of designated roads and parking lots.
8. During the refuge deer firearm season (to include primitive weapons and youth gun hunt), all hunters and visitors on the refuge except waterfowl hunters and nighttime raccoon hunters must wear in full view a minimum of 500 square inches (3,226 square centimeters (cm)) of solid, unbroken, fluorescent orange. Deer archery hunters on the refuge must also wear in full view a minimum of 500 square inches (3,226 square cm) of solid, unbroken, fluorescent orange when there is a State gun season on private land. When hunting quail or rabbit on a refuge outside the refuge's general gun and primitive weapon season, hunters must wear a fluorescent orange vest or cap.
9. We only allow dogs on the refuge when specifically authorized for hunting. We encourage the use of dogs to retrieve dead or wounded waterfowl. Dogs must remain in the immediate control of their handlers at all times (see § 26.21(b) of this chapter).
10. You must remove decoys, blinds, boats, other personal property, and litter (see §§ 27.93 and 27.94) from the hunting area following each morning's hunt. We prohibit cutting or removing trees and other vegetation (see § 27.51 of this chapter). We prohibit the use of flagging, paint, blazes, tacks, or other types of markers.
11. We prohibit all-terrain vehicles (ATVs) and utility-type vehicles (UTVs) (see § 27.31(f) of this chapter), horses, and mules on the refuge.
12. We prohibit the use or possession of alcoholic beverages while hunting on the refuge (see § 32.2(j)).
13. We prohibit all commercial activities, including guiding or participating in a paid guided hunt.
14. We prohibit possession of bait in the field, placement of bait, and hunting over bait (see § 32.2(h)).
15. You are allowed no more than 25 shotshells per person in the field.
1. Conditions A1, A2, A4 through A8, and A10 through A14 apply.
2. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot for hunting (see § 32.2(k)) while in the field if hunting for small game with a shotgun. Small game also may be hunted with .22 magnums, .17 calibers, and .22 caliber rimfire rifles and archery equipment using arrows with points other than broadheads.
3. You may use dogs, but they must remain under the immediate control of their handlers at all times (see § 26.21(b) of this chapter).
1. Conditions A1, A2, A4 through A8, and A10 through A13 apply.
2. We prohibit dogs for any big game hunt.
3. We prohibit possession of any drug on any arrow for bow hunting (see § 32.2(g)).
4. We prohibit organized drives for deer.
5. We prohibit hunting or shooting across any open, fallow, or planted field from ground level.
6. We prohibit the construction of, and hunting from, any permanent stands or blinds on the refuge. We allow valid permit holders to possess and hunt from one portable stand or blind on the refuge. You must permanently and legibly write your name and phone number on all stands on the refuge. Stands left on the area do not reserve the hunting locations. You may place stands up to 2 days prior to the hunt, and you must remove them no more than 2 days after the refuge's deer season closes. We may confiscate and dispose of stands not in compliance with these regulations. Ground blinds must display a minimum 400 square inches (2,581 square centimeters) of fluorescent orange that is visible from all sides. We prohibit nailing deer stands and/or steps to trees and attaching any blind or stand to a tree by any metal object inserted into the tree (see § 32.2(i)).
7. Hunters using a climbing tree stand must use a fall-arrest system manufactured to Treestand Manufacturers Association standards.
8. We prohibit cutting or removing trees and other vegetation (see § 27.51 of this chapter). We prohibit the use of flagging, paint, blazes, tacks, or other types of markers.
9. We prohibit the use of buckshot on the refuge.
1. Condition A12 applies.
2. All anglers must carry a valid refuge permit (Visitor Check-In Permit and Report, FWS Form 3-2405), certifying that they understand and will comply with all regulations.
3. We only allow bank or boat sport fishing south of Mississippi Highway 8.
4. We prohibit possession or use of jugs, seines, nets, hand-grab baskets, slat traps/baskets, or any other similar devices and commercial fishing of any kind.
5. We only allow trotlines, yo-yos, limb lines, crawfish traps, or any other similar devices for recreational use. You must tag or mark them with the angler's full name and full residence address, including zip code written with waterproof ink, legibly inscribed or legibly stamped on the tag, and you must attend the devices a minimum of once daily. When not attended, you must remove these devices (see § 27.93 of this chapter) from the refuge.
6. We prohibit snagging or attempting to snag fish.
7. We allow crawfishing.
8. We allow take of frog only with a Special Use Permit (FWS Form 3-1383-G).
2. All youth hunters age 15 and younger must be in the presence and direct supervision of a Mississippi licensed or exempt hunter, age 21 or older. One adult may supervise no more than one youth hunter.
3. Before hunting or fishing, all participants must display their Daily Visitor Information/Harvest Report Card (Big Game Harvest Report, FWS Form 3-2359) in plain view in their vehicle so that the required information is readable. All cards must be returned upon completion of the activity and before leaving the refuge.
10. For hunting, you may possess only approved nontoxic shot (see § 32.2(k)).
13. Valid T R Complex Annual Public Use Permit (name/address/phone number) holders may incidentally take opossum, coyote, beaver, bobcat, nutria, and feral hog in any refuge hunt season with weapons legal for that hunt.
The revisions read as follows:
Refer to § 32.32 (Illinois) for regulations.
Refer to § 32.32 (Illinois) for regulations.
1. We require the submission of a Big/Upland Game Hunt Application (FWS Form 3-2356). You must possess and carry a signed refuge hunt permit (signed brochure) when hunting. We require hunters to complete a Big Game Harvest Report (FWS Form 3-2359) and return it to the refuge at the conclusion of the hunting season.
2. We allow hunting with muzzleloader and archery equipment. We prohibit hunting with firearms capable of firing cartridge ammunition.
4. We allow hunting in the area defined as those refuge lands situated north and west of the Niobrara River. We allow access to this area only from designated refuge parking areas and the Niobrara River.
9. We prohibit permanent tree stands, nails, screw-in steps, or other items that penetrate the outer bark of a tree (see § 32.2(i)). We prohibit leaving tree stands and ground blinds in the same location for more than 7 consecutive days. You must label unattended tree stands, elevated platforms, and ground blinds with your name and address; the label must be legible from the ground. You may put up tree stands, elevated platforms, and ground blinds, but no earlier than opening day of deer season; you must remove them by the last day of deer season.
1. You must wear hunter-orange clothing or material in accordance with State of Maine regulations for the season and/or species you are hunting; one article of hunter-orange clothing is required during moose season, and two articles are required during firearm and muzzleloader season for deer.
3. We allow prehunt scouting of the refuge; however, we prohibit dogs and hunting firearms during prehunt scouting.
1. For the regular waterfowl season:
i. We require daily refuge permits (Migratory Bird Hunt Report, FWS Form 3-2361) and reservations. You must possess and carry refuge permits while in the field and present them upon request to any law-enforcement officer.
ii. We allow hunting only on Tuesdays, Thursdays, and Saturdays during the established refuge season set within the State western zone season. We allow a youth waterfowl hunt during the Saturday of the State's established youth waterfowl hunt dates each year.
iii. Except for opening day, we take telephone reservations from 8:30 a.m. to 9 a.m. on Tuesdays, Thursdays, and Saturdays for the next hunt day.
iv. We take opening day reservations between 8:30 a.m. and 9 a.m. on the Thursday of the week before the season opener (Note: This is not the Thursday directly before the opener). We take youth hunt reservations between 8:30 a.m. and 9 a.m. on the Thursday of the week before the youth hunt (Note: This is not the Thursday directly before the youth hunt.).
v. The reservation telephone number is 315-568-4136.
vi. All telephone reservations are on a first-come, first-served basis.
vii. If you have a reservation for Tschache Pool, you may bring one companion; we will determine party limits for other areas annually.
viii. You may request the parking area of your choice when making reservations; parking areas are given on a first-come, first-served basis.
ix. Only refuge personnel may move parking signs and blinds.
x. All hunters with reservations and their hunting companions must check-in at the Route 89 Hunter Check Station area at least 1 hour before legal shooting time or forfeit their reservation.
xi. You must set up in your chosen hunting spot before legal shooting time.
xii. Forfeited reservations become available on a first-come, first-served basis to standby hunters at the Route 89 Hunter Check Station.
xiii. In Tschache Pool, you must use motorless boats to hunt, and we limit hunters to one boat per reservation. We also limit hunters to one motor vehicle in the Tschache Pool area per reservation.
xiv. We prohibit shooting from any dike or within 50 feet (15.2 meters) of any dike or road, or from within 500 feet (152.4 meters) of the Tschache Pool observation tower. We do not limit hunting to specific blind sites.
xv. We will announce selection procedures for hunting sites on areas other than Tschache Pool annually.
xvi. You may possess a maximum of 15 nontoxic shot shells for hunting while in the field (see § 32.2(k)); you may not take more than 15 shot shells per hunter into the hunting area.
xvii. You must stop hunting at 12 p.m. (noon), and you must check-out and be out of the hunting area by 1 p.m.
xviii. We require proof of successful completion of the New York State Waterfowl Identification Course, the Montezuma Nonresident Waterfowl Identification Course, or a suitable nonresident State Waterfowl Identification Course to hunt in the refuge; all hunters must show proof each time they hunt, in addition to showing their valid hunting license and signed Federal Migratory Bird Hunting and Conservation Stamp (Federal Duck Stamp).
xix. You must possess, carry, and present upon request to any law enforcement officer a valid daily hunt permit card (Migratory Bird Hunt Report, FWS Form 3-2361). We also require you to return the daily hunt permit card at the end of hunting. You can obtain a permit at the Hunter Check Station during the check-in process, and you can return it to the Hunter Check Station or at the box located at the north end of the Tschache Pool dike.
2. For Canada goose and snow goose hunting:
i. We allow hunting of Canada goose during the New York State September (or “early”) season and of snow goose during portions of the New York State snow goose season and portions of the period covered by the Light Goose Conservation Order according to New York State regulations and any special postings or publications set forth by the refuge manager.
ii. Canada goose and snow goose hunting will be permitted 7 days per week during the refuge's set hunting dates. Hunting hours are in accordance with New York State regulations for Canada goose and snow goose seasons.
iii. You must possess, carry, and present upon request to any law enforcement officer a valid daily hunt permit card (Migratory Bird Hunt Report, FWS Form 3-2361). We also require you to return the daily hunt permit card at the end of hunting or at the end of the day. You can obtain a permit at the Hunter Check Station on State Route 89 and return it to the same location; obtaining a permit will be on a first-come, first-served basis each hunt day until the day's permits are all taken.
3. We allow hunting with dogs.
1. You must carry and present upon request to any law-enforcement officer a valid daily hunt permit card (Big/Upland Game Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2356). We also require you to return the daily hunt permit card at the end of hunting or at the end of the day. You can obtain a permit at the Hunter Check Station on State Route 89 and return it to the same location; obtaining a permit during the fall season will be on a first-come, first-served basis each hunt day until the day's permits are all taken.
2. We only allow hunting from legal sunrise to legal sunset during the fall season and from
3. We allow hunting within the New York State fall turkey season. We prohibit hunting during the New York State spring turkey season.
4. We allow youth hunting during the New York State youth wild turkey hunt weekend, depending on whether mentors for youth hunters are available. Participants must make a reservation to hunt; each year, the refuge manager will set the date and time that we will accept reservations by phone. The reservation phone number is (315) 568-4136.
5. Youth hunters and their mentors must attend an orientation program conducted by refuge staff.
6. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot for hunting (see § 32.2(k)) while in the field if hunting with a shotgun. The refuge manager reserves the right to restrict hunting implements beyond State restrictions (
7. We prohibit hunting with dogs.
8. You may use portable blinds and decoys, but you must remove all equipment (see § 27.93 of this chapter) at the conclusion of each day.
9. We prohibit parking and walking along the Wildlife Drive for the purpose of hunting, unless otherwise posted by refuge personnel.
10. We prohibit use of all-terrain vehicles (ATVs) (see § 27.31(f) of this
11. Hunting weapon restrictions follow New York State regulations; successful harvest with a bow or other hunting weapon during firearms season requires use of a State-issued firearms season tag. The refuge manager reserves the right to restrict hunting implements beyond State restrictions (
The revisions read as follows:
4. We open the refuge for daylight use only (
9. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot (see § 32.2(k)) while migratory game bird hunting.
2. You may hunt turkey only if you carry a valid permit (General Activities Special Use Permit Application, FWS Form 3-1383-G). These permits are valid only for the dates and areas shown on the permit. We require an application and a fee for those permits and hold a drawing, when necessary, to select the permittees. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot (see § 32.2(k)) while hunting turkeys west of Evans Road and on the Pungo Unit.
5. We allow hunters to take feral hogs in any area that is open to hunting deer using only those weapons authorized for taking deer. On the Frying Pan tracts, we also allow hunters to take feral hogs, using only those weapons authorized for taking deer, whenever we open those tracts to hunting any game species with firearms.
The revisions read as follows:
2. We allow deer hunting on the refuge during the State Youth Deer Season except in select closed areas as posted.
5. We prohibit permanent tree stands. We allow temporary tree stands, blinds, and game cameras for daily use; you must remove them by the end of the day. You may clamp, rope, or chain stands, steps, and cameras to trees; you may not nail, wire, screw, or bolt them to trees (see § 32.2(i)).
2. We allow shore fishing, archery, and spearfishing along major road rights-of-way and interior portions of the refuge and by-pass channel during the entire State fishing season. We only allow walk-in access, except in designated areas.
3. We allow ice fishing and dark house spearfishing. We allow fish houses, cars, and trucks on the ice as conditions allow. You may leave fish houses on the ice overnight until March 15; after March 15 you must remove fish houses from the refuge before leaving for the day.
3. Upland game bird season opens on the day following the close of the regular deer gun season through the end of the State season.
6. Conditions B6 through B9 apply.
1. We open the refuge daily from 5 a.m. to 10 p.m.
2. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot while in the field (see § 32.2(k)).
3. Upland game bird season opens on the day following the close of the regular deer gun season through the end of the State season.
4. You may use hunting dogs to retrieve upland game. Dogs must be under your direct control at all times.
5. You may only enter the refuge by foot.
6. We prohibit the use of snowmobiles, all-terrain vehicles (ATVs), off-highway vehicles (OHVs), utility-type vehicles (UTVs), bicycles, or similar vehicles on the refuge.
7. We prohibit the use of horses, mules, or similar livestock on the refuge during all hunting seasons.
1. Conditions B1 and B5 through B7 apply.
2. You may only use portable tree stands and ground blinds. We prohibit leaving stands and blinds overnight (see § 27.93 of this chapter). We prohibit driving nails, screws, spikes, or other objects into a tree or otherwise injuring a tree (see § 32.2(i)).
3. We prohibit entry to the refuge before 12 p.m. (noon) on the first day of the respective archery, gun, or muzzleloader deer hunting season.
4. We prohibit the use of flagging, trail markers, paint, reflective tacks, or other types of markers (see § 27.93 of this chapter).
5. We prohibit the use of trail cameras.
1. We open the refuge daily from 5 a.m. to 10 p.m.
2. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot while in the field (see § 32.2(k)).
3. We prohibit upland game hunting on the portion of the refuge south of Highway 50 during regular deer gun season.
4. We allow upland game hunting on the portion of the refuge north of Highway 50 on the day following the close of the regular deer gun season through the end of the State season.
5. You may use hunting dogs to retrieve upland game. Dogs must be under your direct control at all times.
6. You must comply with all “Closed to Hunting” signs.
7. You may only enter the refuge by foot.
8. We prohibit the use of snowmobiles, all-terrain vehicles (ATVs), off-highway vehicles (OHVs), utility-type vehicles (UTVs), bicycles, or similar vehicles on the refuge.
9. We prohibit the use of horses, mules, or similar livestock on the refuge during all hunting seasons.
1. Conditions B1 and B6 through B9 apply.
2. You may only use portable tree stands and ground blinds. We prohibit leaving stands and blinds overnight (see § 27.93 of this chapter). We prohibit driving nails, screws, spikes, or other objects into a tree or otherwise injuring a tree (see § 32.2(i)).
3. We prohibit entry to the refuge before 12 p.m. (noon) on the first day of the respective archery, gun, or muzzleloader deer hunting season.
4. We prohibit the use of flagging, trail markers, paint, reflective tacks, or other types of markers (see § 27.93 of this chapter).
5. We prohibit the use of trail cameras.
1. We require permits (signed brochure) and payment of a fee to hunt goose, duck, and sandhill crane.
2. Goose, duck, and sandhill crane hunters must hunt from designated pit blinds.
1. We allow deer and feral hog hunting during the special refuge season in accordance with the refuge hunt information sheet. We will hold turkey hunts during the State spring turkey season.
2. We allow shotguns and lawful archery equipment for turkey hunting.
3. You must obtain a refuge hunt permit from the State and pay a fee (fee waived for youth hunters and mentors during the youth hunt).
4. You must check in and out of hunt areas daily at the refuge office or check station.
5. You must take bagged deer, hog, and/or turkey to the refuge check station.
6. We will determine bag limits on deer and turkey annually.
7. We prohibit the use of bait (see § 32.2(h)).
8. A non-hunting mentor age 21 or older must accompany, and be in the immediate presence of, youth hunters participating in the youth hunt. Youth hunters must be age 17 or younger. Both youth hunters and mentors must wear hunter orange clothing meeting or exceeding the minimum State requirements.
9. We prohibit using handguns for hunting.
The revisions and addition read as follows:
8. You may enter posted retrieval zones while retrieving downed birds and when traveling to and from the hunting areas. We prohibit discharging firearms while in a retrieval zone.
5. You may not set decoys in retrieving zones.
6. We prohibit the use of air-thrust and water-thrust boats.
7. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot while in the field (see § 32.2(k)).
8. You may enter posted retrieval zones while retrieving downed birds and when traveling to and from the hunting areas. We prohibit discharging firearms while in a retrieval zone.
The additions and revisions read as follows:
11. We prohibit camping on the refuge except for designated archery hunters on Bulls Island and individuals obtaining a Special Use Permit (FWS Form 3-1383-G) from the refuge manager.
15. We prohibit overnight parking at Garris Landing, except for archery
11. We prohibit the commercial transport of passengers to any refuge island for any purpose without a Special Use Permit (FWS Form 3-1383-C) from the refuge manager.
12. We prohibit feeding or harassing any marine mammal.
14. We prohibit any amphibious vehicle, hovercraft, airboat, or vessel from landing upon refuge islands.
15. We prohibit the use of any amphibious vehicle or vessel upon refuge lands or waters.
16. We prohibit any personal watercraft, as defined at 33 CFR 174.3, from landing upon refuge islands.
1. All hunters must carry a signed refuge General Hunt Permit (signed brochure) and government-issued picture identification.
3. Each youth hunter (younger than age 16) must remain within sight and normal voice contact and under supervision of an adult age 21 or older with a valid license and General Hunt Permit (signed brochure). Each adult may supervise no more than two youth hunters. Each youth hunter must carry evidence of successful completion of a State-approved hunter-education course.
5. We prohibit the use or possession of alcoholic beverages while hunting on the refuge (see § 32.2(j)).
6. We prohibit discharge of weapons for any purpose other than to take or attempt to take legal game animals during established hunting seasons.
7. We prohibit the use of outdoor recreational vehicles (ORVs) except by mobility-impaired hunters with a Special Use Permit (FWS Form 3-1383-G) to use ORV in designated areas during specified hunts. Mobility-impaired hunters must have a State Disabled Hunting license in order to receive the Special Use Permit. Companions assisting disabled hunters must possess required State license(s) and refuge permit(s) and be listed on the Special Use Permit.
8. For hunting, you may possess shotguns with shot no larger than No. 5.
9. Legal shooting hours for September dove hunts are 12 p.m. (noon) to 6 p.m.
10. We prohibit the possession of more than 50 shotgun shells during the September dove hunts.
1. Conditions A1 through A7 apply.
1. Conditions A1 through A7 apply (with the following exception for condition A3: Each adult may supervise no more than one youth hunter).
9. We prohibit the use or possession of alcoholic beverages while fishing on the refuge (see § 32.2(j)).
1. We allow hunters to use only weapons, firearms, and ammunition specifically authorized for each hunt.
2. All refuge hunters under age 16 must show proof of successfully completing a hunter-education/safety course. A properly licensed adult at least age 21 must directly supervise (within sight and normal voice contact) hunters under age 16. An adult may supervise only one youth.
3. We require hunters to possess a refuge hunt permit (signed refuge hunt brochure), a valid State hunting license, and government-issued picture identification while hunting. The refuge hunt permit is not valid until signed by the hunter.
4. Before hunting, each individual participant must obtain from a designated check station and display their completed User Information/Harvest Report Card (Big Game Harvest Report, FWS Form 3-2359) in plain view in their vehicle so that the required information is readable. After checking a harvested animal at a check station, the hunter must record species harvest information on reporting card. You must return all cards upon completion of the activity and before leaving the refuge.
5. You must check all animals taken on the refuge before removing the animal from the refuge and prior to 8:30 p.m. at the check station.
6. We require hunters to make a reasonable effort to retrieve wounded game. You must obtain permission from refuge personnel to enter a “No Hunting Zone” or “Closed Area” for any purpose.
7. We allow vehicles only on established roads marked open for vehicular traffic. You may travel roads marked “Closed to all vehicles” on foot or by bicycle. The speed limit for all roads is 15 mph. We prohibit all-terrain vehicles (ATVs) and utility-type vehicles (UTVs) or other off-road vehicles. You may park vehicles alongside roads but only in a manner that will not block gates, roads, or fire lanes or interfere with the normal flow of traffic.
8. Hunting firearms being transported in vehicles and boats during refuge hunts must be unloaded and cased or locked in a secure compartment (
9. We prohibit hunting with poison tip arrows (pods), exploding arrows, center fire rifles, and handguns (see § 32.2(g)).
10. We prohibit possession of bait, baiting, and/or hunting in the vicinity of bait (see § 32.2(h)).
11. We prohibit camping, overnight parking, fires, and littering (see §§ 27.95(a) and 27.94 of this chapter).
12. We prohibit the possession of remote photography, videography, or any other remote device and trail-monitoring/counting devices.
13. We prohibit entry beyond “Closed Area” or “No Hunting Zone” signs. We prohibit discharging weapons within, into, or across a “No Hunting Zone” or “Closed Area.”
14. We prohibit discharging a firearm from, on, or across any refuge road, or designated refuge foot trail.
15. We prohibit hunting from within 100 feet (30 meters (m)) of any roadway, whether open or closed to vehicular traffic, or from or within 300 yards (270 m) of any designated hunter check station or residence.
16. We prohibit the use or possession of alcoholic beverages while hunting (see § 32.2(j)).
17. We prohibit man or dog drives, stalk hunting, and/or hunting from artificially pruned trees for deer and feral hogs.
18. We allow hunting on each refuge unit only within specified hunt periods and only for raccoon or opossum, and white-tailed deer (see paragraph C, Big Game Hunting, of this entry).
19. We allow unlimited harvest of feral hog as an incidental take while hunting during the day.
20. We will open hunting areas from 5 a.m. until 8:30 p.m. during designated hunt periods.
21. We allow use of dogs only for raccoon and opossum hunting. The dogs must wear a collar displaying the owner's name, address, and telephone number.
22. We allow take of raccoon and opossum only during night hunting from the hours of 6 p.m. to 6 a.m. We prohibit hunting on Saturday nights and Sunday nights. Special State regulations apply for night hunting.
23. We allow take of raccoon and opossum with a shotgun using nontoxic shot size no larger than #4 or a .22-caliber rimfire rifle. We prohibit possession of buckshot or slugs. We prohibit the use of all other weapons for hunting.
1. Conditions B1 through B20 apply.
2. We prohibit the use of dogs during deer hunts.
3. We prohibit night hunting of deer and feral hogs. On the refuge, nighttime is defined from
4. We prohibit driving nails, screws, spikes, or other metal objects into a tree, and we prohibit hunting from a tree into which those objects have been driven (see § 32.2(i)).
5. We prohibit destroying or cutting vegetation (see § 27.51 of this chapter). We prohibit the possession of axes, saws, machetes, or other tools used for cutting vegetation on the refuge while scouting or hunting.
6. We prohibit trail flagging. You may use clothes pins with reflective tape/tack or commercially made reflective orange glow or trail clips to mark the path to the tree. You must mark all clips and pins with your full name, and you must remove them at the end of the hunt period. We will consider any clips or pins found without a hunter's name or any found after the end of a hunt period to be littering (see § 27.94 of this chapter), and we will remove them immediately.
7. We require hunters to wear an outer garment visible above the waist that contains a minimum of 500 square inches (3,226 square centimeters) of unbroken, solid fluorescent orange (hunter orange) material at all times during firearms and muzzleloader hunts. This does not apply to dove, raccoon, and turkey hunts.
8. Deer and feral hog hunting must occur from portable elevated hunting stands. A safety belt or harness must be used while using a hunting stand. We prohibit ground blinds. We allow only one stand per hunter, and each hunter must clearly mark stands with his or her full name, date, and phone number. We will confiscate any stands found without the hunter's name, date, and phone number marked on them.
9. We allow scouting on both the Pine Island and Cuddo Units during periods when these units are open to general public access. We allow vehicles only on roads designated as open for vehicular traffic. All other roads and trails are open to walk-in or bicycle traffic. We prohibit hunting weapons and dogs during scouting activities.
10. We will open access roads, closed to the general public for driving, only during each deer hunt and on the Friday, Saturday, and Sunday prior to each hunt.
11. You may place stands, clothes pins, or clips, only on open hunt areas on the Friday, Saturday, and Sunday immediately prior to each hunt (from 7 a.m. until 5 p.m.) and must remove them by 8:30 p.m. on the last day of each hunt period. We will confiscate any stands found outside of allowed periods.
12. We open the Plantation Islands (Cuddo Unit) to deer and feral hog hunting only from 5 a.m. until 2:30 p.m.
13. Shooting hours are from
14. The refuge conducts one lottery draw hunt (Quota Deer Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2354) for the Family, Friends, and Kids (Family Friendly) hunts conducted on the Bluff Unit of the refuge. Contact the refuge office for dates, application information, and more information about this special hunt opportunity.
15. We allow the use of non-motorized boats for accessing the unit's interior canals to inland areas open to hunting.
1. A valid State fishing license, a signed refuge fishing permit (signed brochure), and government-issued picture identification must be in each angler's possession while fishing on the refuge. A signed refuge permit must be in each fisherman's possession while fishing on the refuge, except all recreational fishing boat operators are only required to have one refuge fishing permit per boat. A refuge fishing permit is not valid until signed.
2. We allow public fishing on all four refuge units. We open waters of Lake Marion within refuge boundaries for fishing 24 hours a day, except in areas posted as “Closed Areas” or closed for migratory bird management (sanctuaries). We allow fishing only on the inland ponds and canals during times the refuge units are open for general public access or as posted. We prohibit fishing at night, to include bank fishing, except by boat in Lake Marion.
3. Cantey Bay (Bluff Unit), Black Bottom (Cuddo Unit), and Savannah Branch (Pine Island Unit) are only open to public access, including boating and fishing, from March 1 through October 31.
4. We limit access to the interior freshwater canals and ponds to canoes or kayaks, or by foot or bicycle travel only. We prohibit use of internal combustion engines on interior ponds and canals.
5. We prohibit littering, camping and/or overnight parking, open fires, swimming or wading, collecting or searching for or taking of any items of antiquity, and overnight mooring of boats (see §§ 27.62, 27.94, and 27.95(a) of this chapter). We allow pets only in designated areas, and they must remain on a leash or within vehicles/vessels.
6. We prohibit fishing or boating within 100 feet (30 meters) of any nesting bird or bird rookeries within refuge boundaries.
7. We prohibit nighttime access to boat-launching areas.
8. We prohibit commercial fishing.
9. We prohibit attaching trotlines, bush/limb lines, fishing devices, signs, or any other objects to trees, posts, or markers within refuge boundaries.
10. We prohibit shellfishing of all mollusks, including Asian clams.
11. We prohibit mooring or attaching boats to any refuge boundary marker, post, or navigational post within refuge waters.
12. We prohibit air-thrust boats, hovercraft, airboats, and personal watercraft (jet skis) within the waters of and/or boundary of the refuge.
1. You must possess and carry at all times while hunting a signed, current refuge hunting regulations brochure, which serves as the hunt permit. The hunt permit is invalid until signed by the hunter.
2. Each youth hunter age 15 and younger must remain within sight, within normal voice contact, and under the supervision of an adult age 21 or older, except when participating in the Federal Youth Days waterfowl hunt,
3. We allow waterfowl hunting only until 12 p.m. (noon) each Saturday and Wednesday during the State waterfowl season. Hunters may enter the refuge no earlier than 5 a.m. on hunt days and must be off the refuge by 2 p.m.
4. We allow scouting Monday through Friday during the waterfowl season. Hunters must be off the refuge by 2 p.m.
5. You may possess only approved nontoxic shot (see § 32.2(k)) while hunting all species of migratory birds on the refuge.
6. We prohibit permanent blinds (see § 27.93 of this chapter). Hunters must remove portable blinds and decoys at the end of each day's hunt.
7. We allow use of dogs only while hunting. We require dogs to wear a collar displaying the owner's name, address, and phone number.
8. We do not require hunter check-in and check-out, with the exception of special lottery hunts. There is no quota on the number of hunters for general hunting.
9. We prohibit discharge of weapons for any purpose other than to take or attempt to take legal game animals during established hunting seasons (see § 27.42(a) of this chapter).
10. We prohibit hunting on any unit for wildlife species not officially opened to hunting or posted as “No Hunting Zones.” We prohibit entering any unit or area posted as “Closed.”
11. We require individuals parking vehicles in the refuge to obey all posted signs.
12. Access into all refuge hunt areas for hunting and scouting is by foot, bicycle, or boat. We prohibit ATVs (see § 27.31(f) of this chapter) and air boats on the refuge.
1. Conditions A1, A2, and A8 through A12 apply.
2. We allow hunting only in designated areas and only on days designated annually by the refuge within the State season.
3. You may possess only nontoxic shot no larger than #2 in shotguns for hunting. We allow .22-caliber rimfire rifles.
4. We prohibit shooting any game from a boat except waterfowl.
5. We require the use of dogs for hunting raccoon and opossum.
6. The refuge prohibits upland game hunting during refuge Big Game Hunts.
1. Conditions A1, A8 through A12, B2 and B4 apply.
2. We only allow hunting for designated species on days designated annually by the refuge, within the State season and limits, and according to refuge unit-specific regulations annually listed in the refuge hunting regulations brochure.
3. We close areas open to hunting to the general public during big game hunts.
4. We allow archery, muzzleloading (black powder), rifles (centerfire larger than .22 caliber), and shotguns according to refuge unit-specific regulations.
5. We prohibit blow guns and drugged arrows (see § 32.2(g)). We allow muzzleloading rifles that use only a single projectile on the muzzleloader hunts. We prohibit buckshot, rimfire ammunition, and full-metal-jacketed military ammunition.
6. Access into all refuge hunt areas for hunting and scouting is by foot or boat. We may open some refuge roads on hunt days. We prohibit ATVs (see § 27.31(f) of this chapter) and air boats on the refuge.
7. We allow scouting all year during daylight hours except during the State waterfowl season. During the waterfowl season, the same regulations that apply to scouting for waterfowl (see condition A4) apply to scouting for big game species. We prohibit the use of trail cameras and other scouting devices.
8. Hunters may enter the refuge no earlier than 5 a.m. on hunt days and must leave the refuge no later than 1 hour after legal sunset.
9. We do not require hunter check-in and check-out, with the exception of special lottery hunts.
10. The refuge limit on antlered deer is one antlered buck per hunt session that must have at least three antler points on one side. We define a “point” as an antler projection of at least 1 inch (2.5 centimeters) or more in length. Hunters can harvest two antlerless deer per year during coinciding State doe days or by using personal doe tags.
11. You may take feral hogs during refuge deer hunts. There is no size or bag limit on hogs. We may offer special hog hunts during and after deer season to further control this invasive species. You must dispatch all feral hogs before removing them from the refuge.
12. We prohibit hunting on or within 100 feet (30 meters) of all routes marked as roads or trails on the hunt brochure map.
13. You must hunt deer and feral hog from an elevated hunting stand.
14. We allow only one portable tree stand per hunter, and you must clearly mark it with your full name and phone number. We prohibit placing deer stands on the refuge more than 3 days prior to the opening day of a hunting session. Hunters must remove stands from the refuge no later than 3 days after each refuge big game hunt (see § 27.93 of this chapter).
15. We allow hunters to use flagging to mark the site of hunter entry from roads or trails and again at the stand site. We allow hunters to use clothes pins with reflective tape between entry and stand sites to mark the route to the stand. You must label all pins with your full name and remove them at the end of the hunt.
16. We require hunters to wear an outer garment visible above the waist that contains a minimum of 500 square inches (3,226 square centimeters) of solid, fluorescent-orange material at all times during big game hunts except for wild turkey.
17. We prohibit the use of organized drives, including the use of boats, as an aid in the taking or attempting to take big game species.
18. We prohibit possession of bait, distribution of bait, or hunting over a baited area (see § 32.2(h)).
19. We allow crossbows only during the big game hunting sessions, when we allow muzzleloaders and modern weapons. We may also allow crossbows during special hunts if determined to be appropriate.
20. Each youth hunter age 15 and younger must remain within sight, within normal voice contact, and under supervision of an adult age 21 or older, and must possess a signed refuge hunting regulations brochure. We do not require youth hunters who are sitting in the same hunting stand as the supervising adult to possess a hunter-education card. We require youth hunters who are sitting in a hunting
21. We only allow deer and hog hunting on the uplands of Sandy Island during a special archery-only lottery hunt. Hunters must apply for lottery entry (name/address/phone number) and are chosen by a random selection process. There is a quota on the number of hunters selected for this hunt.
22. We have special hunts for youth and mobility-impaired hunters on the Normandy Tract. You may obtain information about the drawing from the refuge office or Web site.
1. You must remove all boats, motor vehicles, fishing equipment, and other personal property, excluding ice houses, by the end of each day (see §§ 27.93 and 27.94 of this chapter).
2. We allow fishing on the Center and South units of Lake Andes.
The revisions read as follows:
2. We require a refuge hunt permit (name and address) for all hunters age 17 and older. We charge a fee for all hunt permits. You must carry a valid refuge permit while hunting on the refuge.
3. We set and publish season dates and bag limits annually in the Refuge Hunting and Fishing Regulations available at the refuge office.
8. Youth hunters under age 17 must remain in sight and normal voice contact with an adult hunter age 21 or older. One adult hunter may supervise no more than two youth hunters.
2. We require a refuge hunt permit (name and address) for all hunters age 17 and older. We charge a fee for all hunt permits. You must carry a valid refuge permit while hunting on the refuge.
3. We set and publish season dates and bag limits annually in the Refuge Hunting and Fishing Regulations available at the refuge office.
8. Each youth hunter under age 17 must remain within sight and normal voice contact of an adult age 21 or older. One adult hunter may supervise no more than two youth hunters.
4. Each youth hunter younger than age 17 must remain within sight and normal voice contact of an adult age 21 or older. One adult hunter may supervise no more than one youth hunter.
1. We allow fishing on the refuge pools and reservoirs from March 16 through November 14 from
6. Mourning dove, woodcock, and snipe seasons close during all deer archery, quota deer gun, and youth deer gun hunts. In the area west of Interstate 40 we follow the State seasons, except we close during youth deer gun and quota deer gun hunts.
1. Conditions A1 through A4, A6, and A8 through A12 apply.
4. We close all small game hunts during the refuge deer archery, quota, and youth gun hunts, except in the area west of Interstate 40, where small game reopens after the second quota deer gun hunt in accordance with State seasons.
8. We allow the use of nonmotorized boats and boats with electric motors only; we prohibit the use of gas and diesel motors on refuge lakes except in the waterfowl hunting area.
2. We require a refuge hunt permit (name and address) for all hunters age 17 and older. We charge a fee for all hunt permits. You must carry a valid refuge permit while hunting on the refuge.
8. Youth hunters under age 17 must remain in sight and normal voice contact with an adult hunter age 21 or older. One adult hunter may supervise no more than two youth hunters.
2. We require a refuge hunt permit (name and address) for all hunters age 17 and older. We charge a fee for all hunt permits. You must possess and carry a valid refuge hunt permit while hunting on the refuge.
9. Each youth hunter (under age 17) must remain within sight and normal voice contact and under supervision of an adult age 21 or older. One adult may supervise no more than two youth hunters.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
1. You must carry a current signed refuge hunting permit (signed brochure) while waterfowl hunting on all refuge hunt units.
2. Season dates for waterfowl will be concurrent with the State, except as specified in the refuge hunting permit (signed brochure).
3. For waterfowl hunting, you may enter the refuge hunt units no earlier than 4 a.m. Hunting starts at the designated legal shooting time and ends at 12 p.m. (noon). You must leave refuge hunt units by 12:30 p.m. For dove hunting, you may enter the refuge an hour before legal sunrise and must leave the refuge by
4. For waterfowl hunting, we allow hunting in portions of the East Unit on Saturdays, Sundays, and Tuesdays during the regular waterfowl seasons. We require payment of a $10 per day or $40 per year to hunt on the East Unit. All hunters must check in and out through the check station when accessing the East Unit by vehicle. We will allow a limited number of parties to access the East Unit by vehicle. All hunters entering the East Unit through the check station will designate a hunt area on a first-come, first-served basis (special duck hunt areas will be assigned through a random drawing). We will require hunters to remain in an assigned area for that day's hunt. We allow hunters to access designated areas of the East Unit by boat from Jackson Ditch, East Bay Bayou, or Onion Bayou. We require hunters accessing the East Unit by boat from Jackson Ditch, East Bay Bayou, or Onion Bayou to pay the $40 annual fee. We prohibit access to the East Unit Reservoirs from Onion Bayou via boat. We prohibit the use of motorized boats on the East Unit, except on ponds accessed from Jackson Ditch via Onion Bayou. We prohibit motorized boats launching from the East Unit. For dove hunting, you are allowed to access and hunt the designated areas on the East Unit by vehicles via Farm Market Road 1985 only. Hunters are required to follow rules published annually by TPWD relating to the TPWD AHP.
1. We require hunters to pay a fee and obtain a Special Use Permit (FWS Form 3-1383-G).
1. We prohibit recreational shooting and target practice or any non-hunting discharge.
2. We prohibit shooting or hunting of all animals except deer and feral hogs during the hunt.
3. We prohibit any use of all-terrain vehicles (ATVs).
4. We prohibit the use of dogs for big game hunting.
5. We prohibit the use of horses.
6. We prohibit the use or possession of alcoholic beverages while hunting on refuge lands (see § 32.2(j)).
7. We prohibit the use of tree stands or any devices such as nails, tacks, and scaffolding used to climb trees, tripod types of blinds, or other elevated blinds.
8. You are not allowed on the refuge after dark except in designated camping areas.
9. Youth hunt:
i. We define youth hunters as ages 9 to 16 years of age. To participate in the youth hunt, youth hunters must be no younger than age 9 and no older than age 16 at the time they apply for a permit to hunt (see condition A.10.iv) and when the hunt occurs.
ii. A Texas-licensed, adult supervisor age 18 or older who has successfully completed a Hunter Education Certification Course (“adult supervisor”) must accompany youth hunters. Adult supervisors born prior to September 2, 1971, are exempt from the hunter-education requirement.
iii. When hunting, each adult supervisor may supervise only one youth hunter. A youth hunter may have up to two supervisors.
iv. All youth hunters must carry a valid Special Use Permit (FWS Form 3-1383-G) when hunting. Special Use Permits are available at the refuge office.
v. You must provide proof of the youth hunter's or supervisor's successful completion of a State hunter-safety course to refuge staff at the time of the hunt or the youth hunter will not be allowed to hunt. Adult supervisors born prior to September 2, 1971, are exempt from the hunter-safety course requirement.
vi. When hunting, the adult supervisor must be within normal voice control of the youth hunter at all times.
vii. Adult supervisors are not allowed to hunt during the youth hunt.
10. We may close hunting areas at any time due to fire dangers, inclement weather, or other unforeseen circumstances.
10. We prohibit airboats, hovercraft, and personal watercraft (Jet Skis, wave runner, jet boats, etc.) year-round on refuge waters.
12. We prohibit all-terrain vehicles (ATVs).
13. We prohibit horses.
14. We prohibit glass containers.
1. We require a limited hunt permit (name) for archery deer, feral hog, and spring turkey hunts. In partnership with Texas Parks and Wildlife Department, we allow a special youth hunt as listed on the refuge hunt information sheet. For additional information on how to apply, contact the refuge headquarters at 903-786-2826.
2. Conditions A2, A5 through A7, and A10 through A14 apply.
3. We restrict hunt participants for limited hunts to those drawn for and in possession of a limited hunt permit (name). The permits are nontransferable. Hunt dates and application procedures will be available annually at the refuge headquarters.
4. We allow limited hunts for feral hog, archery deer, and spring turkey. We allow muzzleloaders, bow and arrow, and shotguns for feral hog and spring turkey hunts. You may possess only lead-free, nontoxic (steel, bismuth, copper, or tungsten) bullets, slugs, and shot (00 buck for hogs, no shell larger than No. 4 shot size for turkey).
6. We limit each hunter to one stand, which the hunter may place on the refuge during the day preceding each hunt. You must remove all stands by legal sunset on the last day of each hunt.
1. Lake Texoma and connected streams are open to fishing year-round. We require a valid State of Texas or Lake Texoma fishing license in accordance with State regulations.
2. Conditions A10, and A12 through A14 apply.
3. You may bank fish on Lake Texoma with pole and line, rod and reel, or hand line year-round.
4. We allow wade fishing in refuge ponds March 15 through October 1 annually from all areas except Refuge Road, Wildlife Drive, Plover Road, Tern Road, and Egret Road.
5. We allow fishing in refuge ponds March 15 through September 30 annually. We require a valid State of Texas or Lake Texoma fishing license in accordance with State regulations.
6. Anglers may not use any glass containers, plastic jugs, or plastic bottles as floats.
7. We prohibit discarding any type of fishing line.
8. You may only take bait for personal use while fishing in refuge waters in accordance with Texas State law. We prohibit removal of bait from the refuge for commercial sales or use.
9. We prohibit fishing from bridges.
10. We allow the use of bow and arrow to take nongame fish on refuge waters except from Refuge Road, Wildlife Drive, Plover Road, Tern Road, and Egret Road.
11. We prohibit limb line, throw lines, jug lines, seine nets, noodling, and yo-yos.
12. We prohibit taking frog, turtle, and mussel from refuge lands and waters (see § 27.21 of this chapter).
13. We prohibit taking any fish or bait for any purpose from refuge impoundments year-round.
14. We prohibit entry into refuge impoundments and ponds by any means (
7. Hunting means and methods, including use of firearms, archery, and crossbows, will be in accordance with State regulations unless otherwise designated. We publish this information in the refuge hunting sheet.
19. Persons possessing, transporting, or carrying firearms on National Wildlife Refuges must comply with all provisions of State and local law. Persons may only use (discharge) firearms in accordance with refuge regulations (see § 27.42 of this chapter and specific refuge regulations in this part 32).
6. We require hunters to pay a fee to obtain a refuge hunt permit (signed brochure) and to possess and carry that permit at all times during your designated hunt period. Hunters must also display the refuge-issued vehicle placard (part of the hunt permit) while participating in the designated hunt period. Hunters, including youth hunters, must also have a valid hunting license, proof of hunter's education certification, and picture identification in order to obtain a refuge hunt permit and must possess the items listed in this condition (A6) while on the refuge hunt.
23. Persons, possessing, transporting, or carrying firearms on National Wildlife Refuges must comply with all provisions of State and local law. Persons may only use (discharge) firearms in accordance with refuge regulations (see § 27.42 of this chapter and specific refuge regulations in this part 32).
1. Conditions A4 through A13, and A16 through A23 apply.
4. Hunters must follow the Hunting Means and Methods of Firearms, Archery and Crossbows outlined in the Texas Wildlife and Parks Department's (TPWD's) regulations unless otherwise designated. We will publish changes from the TPWD regulations that are applicable to hunting on the refuge in the refuge hunting tear sheet, which is available at the refuge office.
4. We allow turkey hunting for youth hunters only.
The revisions read as follows:
15. We prohibit use of tree stands except on Long Island (Zone 1).
6. Persons possessing, transporting, or carrying firearms on the refuge must comply with all provisions of State and local law. Persons may only use (discharge) firearms in accordance with refuge regulations (see § 27.42 of this chapter and specific refuge regulations in this part 32).
1. During daylight hours, we allow fishing in Lake Drummond and in the Feeder Ditch from boat, and from the piers at Washington Ditch and Interior Ditch.
The revisions read as follows:
1. In concurrence with the State, we allow fishing from boats outside the
2. We prohibit bank fishing within the refuge along the Nisqually River and McAllister Creek.
3. We prohibit shellfishing (clams, oysters, mussels) on the tideflats.
4. We prohibit boat launching on the refuge.
5. We prohibit tidal flat and marsh access from refuge trails.
2. We allow hunting during approved State hunting seasons occurring from September through December. We prohibit hunting and discharging firearms during all other periods.
1. We allow hunting during approved State hunting seasons occurring September through December, and during the State spring wild turkey season. We prohibit hunting and discharge of firearms during all other periods.
2. During the State spring turkey season, we prohibit hunting of all species except wild turkey.
3. We prohibit raccoon hunting with dogs.
4. Condition A3 applies.
3. We limit or prohibit hunting of dusky Canada goose in accordance with State regulations. The State defines dusky Canada goose as a dark-breasted Canada goose, as determined by a Munsell color chart 10 YR, 5 or less, with a culmen (bill) length of 40 to 50 millimeters (1.6 to 2 inches). In addition, we will close the refuge goose season early if the dusky Canada goose harvest reaches a quota adopted by the refuge.
You are authorized and directed to publish this memorandum in the
(1) the authority under section 610 of the FAA to make the determination necessary for and to execute the transfer of up to $50 million of Fiscal Year (FY) 2010 supplemental International Narcotics Control and Law Enforcement (INCLE) funds to the Economic Support Fund account;
(2) the authority under section 614(a)(1) of the FAA to determine whether it is important to the security interests of the United States to furnish assistance using up to $50 million of FY 2010 supplemental INCLE funds without regard to any other provision of law within the purview of section 614(a)(1) of the FAA; and
(3) the authority under section 506(a)(2)(A)(i)(II) of the FAA to make the determination required and direct the drawdown of up to $33.9 million in articles and services from the inventory and resources of any agency of the United States Government and military education and training from the Department of Defense for the purposes and under the authorities of chapter 9 of part I of the FAA.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |