Page Range | 11501-11787 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
82 FR 11515 - United States Rail Service Issues-Performance Data Reporting | |
82 FR 11574 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
82 FR 11574 - Sunshine Act Meetings | |
82 FR 11689 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
82 FR 11692 - Controlled Substances and Alcohol Use and Testing: J.B. Hunt Transport, Inc., Schneider National Carriers, Inc., Werner Enterprises, Inc., Knight Transportation, Inc., Dupre Logistics, Inc. and Maveric Transportation, LLC Application for Exemption | |
82 FR 11658 - Concrete and Masonry Construction Standard; Extension of the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Approval of Information Collection (Paperwork) Requirements | |
82 FR 11564 - Notice of Availability of Records of Decision for the Supplemental Environmental Impact Statement for Land Acquisition and Airspace Establishment To Support Large-Scale Marine Air Ground Task Force Live-Fire and Maneuver Training at Marine Corps Air Ground Combat Center, Twentynine Palms, California | |
82 FR 11587 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 11586 - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
82 FR 11594 - South Dakota; Major Disaster and Related Determinations | |
82 FR 11593 - Louisiana; Major Disaster and Related Determinations | |
82 FR 11574 - Environmental Impact Statements; Notice of Availability | |
82 FR 11594 - Oklahoma; Major Disaster and Related Determinations | |
82 FR 11591 - Hoopa Valley Tribe; Major Disaster and Related Determinations | |
82 FR 11592 - Tennessee; Amendment No. 1 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
82 FR 11591 - Georgia; Amendment No. 4 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
82 FR 11693 - Notice of Funds Availability (NOFA) Inviting Applications for the Fiscal Year (FY) 2016 Funding Round of the Bank Enterprise Award Program (BEA Program) | |
82 FR 11562 - Judicial Proceedings Since Fiscal Year 2012 Amendments Panel (Judicial Proceedings Panel); Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting | |
82 FR 11561 - The Benefits, Challenges, and Potential Roles for the Government in Fostering the Advancement of the Internet of Things | |
82 FR 11592 - Georgia; Amendment No. 3 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
82 FR 11593 - California; Emergency and Related Determinations | |
82 FR 11592 - California; Major Disaster and Related Determinations | |
82 FR 11509 - New Animal Drugs; Withdrawal of Approval of a New Animal Drug Application | |
82 FR 11506 - New Animal Drugs; Approval of New Animal Drug Applications; Withdrawal of Approval of a New Animal Drug Application; Change of Sponsor; Change of Sponsor's Address | |
82 FR 11585 - Final Effect of Designation of a Class of Employees for Addition to the Special Exposure Cohort | |
82 FR 11586 - Final Effect of Designation of a Class of Employees for Addition to the Special Exposure Cohort | |
82 FR 11586 - Decision To Evaluate a Petition To Designate a Class of Employees From Santa Susana Field Laboratory in Eastern Ventura County, California, To Be Included in the Special Exposure Cohort | |
82 FR 11531 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Idaho Advisory Committee To Vote on 2016 School Equity Report and To Discuss Civil Rights Topics in the State | |
82 FR 11575 - Change in Bank Control Notices; Acquisitions of Shares of a Bank or Bank Holding Company | |
82 FR 11575 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
82 FR 11561 - Procurement List; Addition | |
82 FR 11653 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Access to Employee Exposure and Medical Records | |
82 FR 11656 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Aerial Lifts Standard | |
82 FR 11659 - NASA Advisory Council; Ad Hoc Task Force on STEM Education; Meeting | |
82 FR 11655 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Occupational Safety and Health Administration Conflict of Interest and Disclosure | |
82 FR 11654 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Student Data | |
82 FR 11505 - Temporary General License: Extension of Validity | |
82 FR 11689 - Reporting and Recordkeeping Requirements Under OMB Review | |
82 FR 11589 - Accreditation and Approval of Chem Coast, Inc., as a Commercial Gauger and Laboratory | |
82 FR 11588 - Accreditation and Approval of Camin Cargo Control, Inc., as a Commercial Gauger and Laboratory | |
82 FR 11588 - Approval of Intertek USA, Inc., as a Commercial Gauger | |
82 FR 11648 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Extension of a Currently Approved Collection; ATF Adjunct Instructor Data Form-ATF Form 6140.3 | |
82 FR 11558 - Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council (MAFMC); Meeting | |
82 FR 11652 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Records of Acquisition and Disposition, Collectors of Firearms | |
82 FR 11648 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Application for Registration of Firearms Acquired by Certain Government Entities ATF F 10 (5320.10) | |
82 FR 11653 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Extension Without Change of a Currently Approved Collection; National Firearms Act (NFA)-Special Occupational Taxes (SOT), (ATF Form 5630.5R, ATF Form 5630.5RC, and ATF Form 5630.7) | |
82 FR 11649 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Supplemental Information on Water Quality Considerations (ATF F 5000.30) | |
82 FR 11651 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Special Agent Medical Preplacement (ATF F 2300.10) | |
82 FR 11650 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Application for Alternate Means of Identification of Firearm(s) (Marking Variance) (ATF Form 3311.4) | |
82 FR 11650 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Revision of a Currently Approved Collection; Inventories, Licensed Explosives Importers, Manufacturers, Dealers, and Permittees | |
82 FR 11574 - Financial Responsibility for Indemnification of Passengers for Nonperformance of Transportation-Cap Adjustment | |
82 FR 11690 - Advisory Committee on International Economic Policy Notice of Cancelation of Previously Scheduled Open Meeting | |
82 FR 11690 - Advisory Committee on Historical Diplomatic Documentation-Notice of Closed and Open Meetings for 2017 | |
82 FR 11577 - Disease, Disability, and Injury Prevention and Control Special Emphasis Panel (SEP): Initial Review | |
82 FR 11587 - Accreditation and Approval of Intertek USA, Inc., as a Commercial Gauger and Laboratory | |
82 FR 11590 - Accreditation and Approval of Amspec Services, LLC, as a Commercial Gauger and Laboratory | |
82 FR 11540 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Notice of 12-Month Finding on a Petition To List Thorny Skate as Threatened or Endangered Under the Endangered Species Act (ESA) | |
82 FR 11562 - Procurement List; Proposed Deletions | |
82 FR 11558 - New England Fishery Management Council (NEFMC); Public Meeting | |
82 FR 11560 - New England Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
82 FR 11662 - Information Collection Request: Submission for OMB Review | |
82 FR 11533 - Wooden Bedroom Furniture From the People's Republic of China: Continuation of Antidumping Duty Order | |
82 FR 11531 - Emulsion Styrene-Butadiene Rubber From Poland: Preliminary Affirmative Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value, Postponement of Final Determination, and Extension of Provisional Measures | |
82 FR 11536 - Emulsion Styrene-Butadiene Rubber From the Republic of Korea: Preliminary Affirmative Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value, Affirmative Determination of Critical Circumstances, in Part, Postponement of Final Determination, and Extension of Provisional Measures | |
82 FR 11637 - Notice of Inventory Completion: Peabody Museum of Natural History, Yale University, New Haven, CT | |
82 FR 11637 - Notice of Inventory Completion: Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department, Little Rock, AR | |
82 FR 11606 - Notice of Inventory Completion: Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department, Little Rock, AR | |
82 FR 11617 - Notice of Inventory Completion: Arkansas Archeological Survey, Fayetteville, AR | |
82 FR 11633 - Notice of Inventory Completion: Thomas Burke Memorial Washington State Museum, University of Washington, Seattle, WA | |
82 FR 11538 - Emulsion Styrene-Butadiene Rubber From Brazil: Preliminary Affirmative Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value, Negative Determination of Critical Circumstances, Postponement of Final Determination, and Extension of Provisional Measures | |
82 FR 11657 - Data Users Advisory Committee; Request for Nominations | |
82 FR 11578 - Disease, Disability, and Injury Prevention and Control Special Emphasis Panel (SEP): Initial Review | |
82 FR 11575 - Disease, Disability, and Injury Prevention and Control Special Emphasis Panel (SEP): Initial Review | |
82 FR 11577 - ICD-10 Coordination and Maintenance (C&M) Committee Meeting National Center for Health Statistics (NCHS), Classifications and Public Health Data Standards Staff, Announces the Following Meeting | |
82 FR 11576 - Advisory Committee to the Director (ACD), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention-State, Tribal, Local and Territorial (STLT) Subcommittee | |
82 FR 11534 - Emulsion Styrene-Butadiene Rubber From Mexico: Preliminary Affirmative Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value, Postponement of Final Determination, and Extension of Provisional Measures | |
82 FR 11605 - Notice of Intent To Repatriate Cultural Items: State Historical Society of North Dakota, Bismarck, ND | |
82 FR 11640 - Notice of Intent To Repatriate Cultural Items: American Museum of Natural History, New York, NY | |
82 FR 11645 - Notice of Inventory Completion: Robert S. Peabody Museum of Archaeology, Andover, MA | |
82 FR 11628 - Notice of Intent To Repatriate Cultural Items: Arkansas Archeological Survey, Fayetteville, AR | |
82 FR 11644 - Notice of Inventory Completion: Dana Adobe Nipomo Amigos, Nipomo, CA | |
82 FR 11641 - Notice of Inventory Completion: Department of Anthropology at Indiana University, Bloomington, IN | |
82 FR 11624 - Notice of Inventory Completion: U.S. Department of the Army, United States Army Garrison, Presidio of Monterey, Monterey, CA | |
82 FR 11608 - Notice of Inventory Completion: Arkansas Archeological Survey, Fayetteville, AR | |
82 FR 11620 - Notice of Inventory Completion: Arkansas Archeological Survey, Fayetteville, AR | |
82 FR 11633 - Notice of Inventory Completion: Arkansas Archeological Survey, Fayetteville, AR | |
82 FR 11629 - Notice of Inventory Completion: Arkansas Archeological Survey, Fayetteville, AR | |
82 FR 11632 - Notice of Inventory Completion for Native American Human Remains and Associated Funerary Objects in the Possession of the Arkansas Archeological Survey, Fayetteville, AR, and Notice of Inventory Completion: Arkansas Archeological Survey, Fayetteville, AR; Correction | |
82 FR 11618 - Notice of Inventory Completion: Vanderbilt University, Nashville, TN | |
82 FR 11642 - Notice of Inventory Completion: U.S. Department of Defense, Department of the Navy, Washington, DC | |
82 FR 11638 - Notice of Inventory Completion: U.S. Department of Defense, Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District, Omaha, NE, and State Archeological Research Center, Rapid City, SD | |
82 FR 11626 - Notice of Inventory Completion: Ohio History Connection, Columbus, OH | |
82 FR 11619 - Notice of Inventory Completion: U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Alaska Region, Anchorage, AK | |
82 FR 11631 - Notice of Inventory Completion: Thomas Burke Memorial Washington State Museum, University of Washington, Seattle, WA | |
82 FR 11627 - Notice of Intent To Repatriate Cultural Items: Arkansas Archeological Survey, Fayetteville, AR | |
82 FR 11643 - Notice of Intent To Repatriate Cultural Items: Thomas Burke Memorial Washington State Museum, University of Washington, Seattle, WA | |
82 FR 11604 - Renewal of Approved Information Collection; OMB Control No. 1004-0009 | |
82 FR 11690 - Public Comments and Hearing Regarding Request To Reinstate Action Taken in Connection With the European Union's Measures Concerning Meat and Meat Products | |
82 FR 11660 - Emergency Planning For Research and Test Reactors and Other Non-Power Production and Utilization Facilities | |
82 FR 11661 - Physical Inventories and Material Balances at Fuel Cycle Facilities | |
82 FR 11564 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; William D. Ford Federal Direct Loan Program-150% Limitation | |
82 FR 11583 - Health Insurance MarketplaceSM | |
82 FR 11559 - Fishing Capacity Reduction Program for the Pacific Coast Groundfish Fishery | |
82 FR 11510 - New Animal Drugs for Use in Animal Feed; Approval of New Animal Drug Applications; Withdrawal of Approval of New Animal Drug Applications | |
82 FR 11509 - New Animal Drugs; Withdrawal of Approval of New Animal Drug Applications | |
82 FR 11558 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; 3D Nation Requirements and Benefits Elevation Data Study Questionnaire | |
82 FR 11576 - Agency Forms Undergoing Paperwork Reduction Act Review | |
82 FR 11569 - Merchant Hydro Developers, LLC; Notice of Preliminary Permit Application Accepted for Filing and Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Competing Applications | |
82 FR 11567 - Southern Natural Gas Company, LLC; Notice of Application | |
82 FR 11570 - Commission Information Collection Activities (FERC-549D & FERC-733); Comment Request | |
82 FR 11570 - Consumers Energy Company; Notice of Petition for Declaratory Order | |
82 FR 11566 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
82 FR 11565 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
82 FR 11596 - Proposed Information Collection; Federal Fish and Wildlife Permit Applications and Reports-Management Authority | |
82 FR 11599 - Proposed Information Collection; Federal Fish and Wildlife Permit Applications and Reports-Migratory Birds and Eagles | |
82 FR 11601 - Proposed Information Collection; National Wildlife Refuge Special Use Permit Applications and Reports | |
82 FR 11598 - Proposed Information Collection; Marine Mammal Marking, Tagging, and Reporting Certificates, and Registration of Certain Dead Marine Mammal Hard Parts | |
82 FR 11603 - Proposed Information Collection; Migratory Bird Surveys | |
82 FR 11513 - VNT1 Protein in Potato; Exemption From the Requirement of a Tolerance | |
82 FR 11517 - Air Plan Approval; TN: Non-interference Demonstration for Federal Low-Reid Vapor Pressure Requirement in Middle Tennessee | |
82 FR 11663 - Agency Forms Submitted for OMB Review, Request for Comments | |
82 FR 11517 - Proposed Further Delay of Effective Date for Partial Approval and Partial Disapproval of Attainment Plan for the Idaho Portion of the Logan, Utah/Idaho PM2.5 | |
82 FR 11666 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend PIXL pricing | |
82 FR 11670 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Miami International Securities Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Its Fee Schedule To Clarify Its Fees Relating to the MIAX Express Network Interconnect (“MENI”) | |
82 FR 11676 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; MIAX PEARL, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Establish the MIAX PEARL Fee Schedule | |
82 FR 11673 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated; Order Approving a Proposed Rule Change Related to a Change to the Trading Symbol for P.M.-Settled Options on the Standard & Poor's 500 Index | |
82 FR 11674 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change Amending Rules 6.62, 6.73 and Make a Conforming Change to Rule 6.47A | |
82 FR 11523 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request-Scanner Capability Assessment of SNAP-Authorized Small Retailers (SCANR) Study | |
82 FR 11526 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request-Evaluation of the Direct Certification With Medicaid for Free and Reduced-Price (DCM-F/RP) Meals Demonstrations | |
82 FR 11501 - Federal Reserve Bank Capital Stock | |
82 FR 11568 - John A. Dodson; Village of Highland Falls High-Point Utility, LDC; Notice of Application for Transfer of License and Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Protests | |
82 FR 11572 - Texas Eastern Transmission, LP; Brazoria Interconnector Gas Pipeline LLC; Notice of Application | |
82 FR 11568 - Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC; Notice of Revised Schedule for Environmental Review of the B-System Project | |
82 FR 11569 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
82 FR 11573 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
82 FR 11573 - 4C Acquisition, LLC; Notice of Request for Waiver | |
82 FR 11647 - Notice of Receipt of Complaint; Solicitation of Comments Relating to the Public Interest | |
82 FR 11580 - Medicare Program; Public Meetings in Calendar Year 2017 for All New Public Requests for Revisions to the Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) Coding and Payment Determinations | |
82 FR 11579 - Medicare and Medicaid Programs: Application From the Center for Improvement in Healthcare Quality for Continued Approval of Its Hospital Accreditation Program | |
82 FR 11505 - Amendment of VOR Federal Airways V-235 and V-293 in the Vicinity of Cedar City, Utah | |
82 FR 11595 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Multifamily Project Monthly Accounting Reports | |
82 FR 11691 - Notice of Final Federal Agency Action on Interstate Highway 35 East (I-35E) From U.S. Highway 67 (US 67) to I-30 and US 67 From I-20 to I-35E, Dallas County, Texas | |
82 FR 11516 - Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; State of Texas; Regional Haze and Interstate Visibility Transport Federal Implementation Plan | |
82 FR 11706 - Federal Property Suitable as Facilities To Assist the Homeless | |
82 FR 11563 - Meeting of the Ocean Research Advisory Panel | |
82 FR 11502 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Helicopters Deutschland GmbH (Previously Eurocopter Deutschland GmbH) Helicopters | |
82 FR 11748 - Procedural Rules and Regulations |
Food and Nutrition Service
Industry and Security Bureau
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
National Telecommunications and Information Administration
Navy Department
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Federal Emergency Management Agency
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Fish and Wildlife Service
Land Management Bureau
National Park Service
Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives Bureau
Labor Statistics Bureau
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Highway Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Community Development Financial Institutions Fund
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents electronic mailing list, go to https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USGPOOFR/subscriber/new, enter your e-mail address, then follow the instructions to join, leave, or manage your subscription.
Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
Final rule.
The Board of Governors (Board) is publishing a final rule that applies an inflation adjustment to the $10 billion total consolidated asset threshold in Regulation I, which implements the provision of the “Fixing America's Surface Transportation Act” (FAST Act) that sets the dividend rate that member banks with more than $10 billion in total consolidated assets earn on their Federal Reserve Bank (Reserve Bank) stock. The FAST Act requires that the Board annually adjust the $10 billion total consolidated asset threshold to reflect the change in the Gross Domestic Product Price Index, published by the Bureau of Economic Analysis. Based on the change in the Gross Domestic Product Price Index as of September 29, 2016, the total consolidated asset threshold will be $10,122,000,000 through December 31, 2017.
This final rule is effective March 27, 2017.
Evan Winerman, Counsel (202/872-7578), Legal Division; or Kimberly Zaikov, Financial Project Leader (202/452-2256), Reserve Bank Operations and Payments Systems Division. For users of Telecommunications Device for the Deaf (TDD) only, contact (202) 263-4869.
Regulation I governs the issuance and cancellation of capital stock by the Reserve Banks. Under section 5 of the Federal Reserve Act
Prior to January 1, 2016, all member banks were entitled to a six percent dividend on their paid-in capital stock. As of January 1, 2016, the FAST Act
On November 23, 2016, the Board published a final rule (FAST Act Final Rule) in the
As of the effective date, the total consolidated asset threshold in Regulation I shall be $10,122,000,000. This is based on the final second quarter 2016 Gross Domestic Product Price Index estimate published by Bureau of Economic Analysis (111.268), which is 1.22% higher than the final second quarter 2015 Gross Domestic Product Price Index estimate (109.922).
Under the Administrative Procedure Act, notice and opportunity for public comment are not required if the Board finds that notice and public comment are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) does not apply to a rulemaking where a general notice of proposed rulemaking is not required.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995,
Banks and banking, Federal Reserve System, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Board amends Regulation I, 12 CFR part 209, as follows:
12 U.S.C. 12 U.S.C. 222, 248, 282, 286-288, 289, 321, 323, 327-328, and 466.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are superseding airworthiness directive (AD) 2014-05-06 for Eurocopter Deutschland GmbH (ECD) (now Airbus Helicopters Deutschland GmbH) Model EC135 and MBB-BK 117 C-2 helicopters to correct an error in the compliance time. AD 2014-05-06 required inspecting the flight-control bearings and installing bushings and washers. This AD requires the same actions. These actions are intended to prevent an unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective March 31, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of April 14, 2014 (79 FR 13196, March 10, 2014).
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus Helicopters, Inc., 2701 N. Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; telephone (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax (972) 641-3775; or at
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Matt Fuller, Senior Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Group, Rotorcraft Directorate, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to remove AD 2014-05-06, Amendment 39-17779 (79 FR 13196, March 10, 2014) and add a new AD. AD 2014-05-06 required inspecting the flight control bearings repetitively, replacing any loose bearing with an airworthy flight control bearing, and installing bushings and washers. The NPRM published in the
AD 2014-05-06 was prompted by the discovery of loose flight control bearings because of incorrect installation. This condition could result in the affected control lever shifting, contacting the helicopter structure. The actions in AD 2014-05-06 were intended to prevent this unsafe condition, which could reduce control of the helicopter.
Also since we issued AD 2014-05-06, ECD changed its name to Airbus Helicopters Deutschland GmbH (Airbus Helicopters). This AD reflects that change and updates the contact information to obtain service documentation.
After our NPRM (80 FR 16603, March 30, 2015) was published, we received comments from one commenter.
Airbus Helicopters first requested revising the compliance times for the repetitive inspections to match that in its current service information. For the Model EC135 P1, P2, P2+, T1, T2, and T2+ helicopters, Airbus Helicopters requested increasing the 800 hour interval to 1000 hours with an additional 10% margin. For MBB-BK 117 C-2 helicopters, Airbus Helicopters requested increasing the 600 hour interval to 800 hours with an additional 10% margin.
We disagree. Airbus Helicopters did not provide any technical justification to support this request. The final rule has not been changed as a result of this comment.
Airbus Helicopters also requested that if any bearing is loose, we require
We agree with the comment but disagree that a change to the AD is necessary. If there is a loose bearing, the AD requires replacing it with an airworthy part. If a bearing can be re-bonded in a manner acceptable to the FAA, then it would be an airworthy part.
These helicopters have been approved by the aviation authority of Germany and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with Germany, EASA, its technical representative, has notified us of the unsafe condition described in the EASA AD. We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all information provided by EASA, reviewed the relevant information, considered the comments received, and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other helicopters of these same type designs and that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD requirements as proposed with the changes described previously. These changes are consistent with the intent of the proposals in the NPRM (80 FR 16603, March 30, 2015), and will not increase the economic burden on any operator nor increase the scope of this AD.
Differences between this AD and the EASA AD are:
• The EASA AD is applicable to the EC 635 helicopter, whereas this AD is not because the EC 635 helicopter is not type certificated in the U.S.
• The EASA AD requires an initial inspection within 50 flight hours or one month, whichever occurs first after May 31, 2008, and a modification within the next 12 months. This AD requires the modification within 100 hours TIS or at the next annual inspection, whichever occurs first, and no inspection until after the modification has been accomplished.
• The EASA AD specifies repetitive inspection intervals not to exceed 800 hours TIS or 12 months, plus a 10% percent margin, whichever occurs first, for Model EC135 helicopters and 600 hours TIS or 12 months, plus a 10% percent margin, whichever occurs first, for the Model MBB-BK 117 C-2 helicopters. This AD requires repetitive inspection intervals not to exceed 800 hours TIS or 36 months, whichever occurs first, for Model EC135 helicopters and 600 hours TIS or 24 months, whichever occurs first, for Model MBB-BK 117 C-2 helicopters.
• The EASA AD applies to all Model EC135 and Model MBB-BK 117 C-2 helicopters, while this AD applies to certain serial-numbered Model EC135 and Model MBB-BK 117 C-2 helicopters, as recommended by the appropriate ECD ASB.
Eurocopter (now Airbus Helicopters) has issued Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) MBB BK117 C-2-67A-010, Revision 3, dated February 8, 2010 for Model MBB-BK 117 C-2 helicopters, and ASB EC135-67A-019, Revision 3, dated December 16, 2009 for Model EC135 helicopters. These ASBs specify:
• Within the next 50 flight hours (FHs), inspecting the affected bearings and, if necessary, rebonding any affected bearings or replacing the lever assembly.
• Within 12 months, retrofitting bushings and washers on the levers to prevent movement of the bearings.
• After the retrofit, repeating the inspection every 800 FHs or 36 months for the Model EC135 helicopters, whichever comes first, and 600 FHs or 24 months, whichever comes first, for the Model MBB-BK 117 C-2 helicopters.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 175 Model EC135 and 112 Model MBB-BK 117 C-2 helicopters of U.S. Registry and that labor costs average $85 per work-hour. Based on these estimates, we expect the following costs:
• For EC135 helicopters, it takes about 32 work-hours to perform the modification. Parts cost about $312. The total cost for the modification is about $3,032 per helicopter and $530,600 for the U.S. operator fleet. The repetitive inspections require 6.5 work-hours for a cost of about $553 per helicopter and about $96,775 for the fleet per inspection cycle.
• For MBB-BK 117 C-2 helicopters, it takes about 32 work-hours to perform the modification. Parts cost about $396. The total cost for the modification is $3,116 per helicopter and $348,992 for the U.S. operator fleet. The cost for the repetitive inspections thereafter is about $85 per helicopter and $9,520 for the fleet per inspection cycle.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on helicopters identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction; and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
We prepared an economic evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to the following helicopters, certificated in any category:
(1) Model EC135 P1, P2, P2+, T1, T2, and T2+ helicopters, serial number (S/N) 0005 through 00829, with a tail rotor control lever, part number (P/N) L672M2802205 or L672M1012212; cyclic control lever, P/N L671M1005250; collective control lever assembly, P/N L671M2020108; or collective control plate, P/N L671M5040207; installed; and
(2) Model MBB-BK 117 C-2 helicopters,S/N 9004 through 9310, with a tail rotor control lever assembly, P/N B672M1007101 or B672M1807101; tail rotor control lever, P/N B672M1002202 or L672M2802205; or lateral control lever assembly, P/N B670M1008101, installed.
This AD defines the unsafe condition as incorrectly installed flight control bearings. This condition could cause the affected control lever to shift and contact the helicopter structure, resulting in reduced control of the helicopter.
This AD supersedes AD 2014-05-06, Amendment 39-17779 (79 FR 13196, March 10, 2014).
This AD becomes effective March 31, 2017.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
(1) For Model EC135 P1, P2, P2+, T1, T2, and T2+ helicopters:
(i) Within the next 100 hours time-in-service (TIS) or at the next annual inspection, whichever occurs first, modify the left-hand (LH) and right-hand (RH) guidance units and the cyclic shaft by installing bushings and washers to prevent shifting of the bearings in the axial direction as follows:
(A) Remove and disassemble the LH guidance unit and install a bushing, P/N L672M1012260, between the bearing block and the lever of the LH guidance unit as depicted in Detail A of Figure 5 of Eurocopter Alert Service Bulletin EC135-67A-019, Revision 3, dated December 16, 2009 (EC135 ASB).
(B) For helicopters without a yaw brake, remove and disassemble the RH guidance unit and install a bushing, P/N L672M1012260, between the bearing block and the lever as depicted in Detail B of Figure 5 of EC135 ASB.=
(C) Remove and disassemble the cyclic shaft and install a washer, P/N L671M1005260, between the bearing block and the lever as depicted in Detail C of Figure 6 of EC135 ASB.
(D) Remove the collective control rod from the bellcrank and install a washer, P/N L221M1042208, on each side of the collective control rod and bellcrank as depicted in Detail D of Figure 6 of EC135 ASB.
(E) At intervals not to exceed 800 hours TIS or 36 months, whichever occurs first, inspect the bearings in the LH guidance unit, RH guidance unit, cyclic control, upper guidance unit, and linear voltage differential transducer plate for play. If any bearing is loose, replace the affected bearing with an airworthy bearing.
(2) For Model MBB-BK 117 C-2 helicopters:
(i) Within the next 100 hours TIS or at the next annual inspection, whichever occurs first, modify the LH and RH guidance units and the lateral control lever by installing bushings and washers to prevent shifting of the bearings in the axial direction as follows:
(A) Remove and disassemble the RH guidance unit and install a bushing, P/N L672M1012260, between the lever and the bracket as depicted in Detail B of Figure 4 of Eurocopter Alert Service Bulletin MBB BK117 C-2-67A-010, Revision 3, dated February 8, 2010 (BK117 ASB). Remove and disassemble the LH guidance unit and install a bushing, P/N L672M1012260, between the lever and the bracket as depicted in Detail C of Figure 4 of BK117 ASB.
(B) Remove the lateral control lever and install new bushings in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions, paragraphs 3.C(9)(a) through 3.C(9)(g), of BK 117 ASB.
(C) Identify the modified lever assembly by writing “MBB BK117 C-2-67A-010” on the lever with permanent marking pen and protect with a single layer of lacquer (CM 421or equivalent).
(D) Apply corrosion preventive paste (CM 518 or equivalent) on the shank of the screws and install airworthy parts as depicted in Figure 5 of BK117 ASB.
(E) At intervals not to exceed 600 hours TIS or 24 months, whichever occurs first, inspect the bearings in the RH guidance unit, LH guidance unit, and lateral control guidance unit for play. If any bearing is loose, replace the affected bearing with an airworthy bearing.
(1) The Manager, Safety Management Group, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to: Matt Fuller, Senior Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Group, Rotorcraft Directorate, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office, before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an AMOC.
The subject of this AD is addressed in European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD No. 2010-0058, dated March 30, 2010. You may view the EASA AD on the Internet at
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: 6710, Main Rotor Control.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use the following service information to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(3) The Director of the Federal Register previously approved the incorporation by reference of the service information listed in this paragraph on April 14, 2014 (79 FR 13196, March 10, 2014).
(i) Eurocopter Alert Service Bulletin EC135-67A-019, Revision 3, dated December 16, 2009.
(ii) Eurocopter Alert Service Bulletin MBB BK117 C-2-67A-010, Revision 3, dated February 8, 2010.
(4) For service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus Helicopters, Inc., 2701 N. Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; telephone (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax (972) 641-3775; or at
(5) You may view this service information at FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Room 6N-321, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.
(6) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule; correction.
This action corrects the preamble to a final rule published in the
The effective date of this final rule remains 0901 UTC, March 2, 2017. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference under Title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
Kenneth Ready, Airspace Policy Group, Office of Airspace Services, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591; telephone: (202) 267-8783.
In the final rule FR Doc. 2016-29143, beginning on page 87802, in the issue of December 6, 2016, make the following correction, in “The Rule” section: On page 87802, column 3, line 61, remove “(ENK)” and add in its place “(EHK)”.
Bureau of Industry and Security, Commerce.
Final rule.
On March 24, 2016, the Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) published a final rule, Temporary General License. The March 24 final rule created a temporary general license that restored, for a specified time period, the licensing requirements and policies under the Export Administration Regulations (EAR) for exports, reexports, and transfers (in-country) as of March 7, 2016, to two entities (ZTE Corporation and ZTE Kangxun) that were added to the Entity List on March 8, 2016. At this time, the U.S. Government has decided to extend the temporary general license until March 29, 2017. In order to implement this decision, this final rule revises the temporary general license to remove the expiration date of February 27, 2017, and to substitute the date of March 29, 2017. This final rule makes no other changes to the EAR.
This rule is effective February 24, 2017 through March 29, 2017. The expiration date of the final rule published on March 24, 2016 (81 FR 15633) is extended until March 29, 2017.
Chair, End-User Review Committee, Office of the Assistant Secretary, Export Administration, Bureau of Industry and Security, Department of Commerce, Phone: (202) 482-5991, Email:
On March 24, 2016, the Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) published a final rule, Temporary General License (81 FR 15633). The March 24 final rule amended the EAR by adding Supplement No. 7 to part 744 to create a temporary general license that returned, until June 30, 2016, the licensing and other policies of the EAR regarding exports, reexports, and transfers (in-country) to Zhongxing Telecommunications Equipment (ZTE) Corporation and ZTE Kangxun to that which were in effect prior to their addition to the Entity List on March 8, 2016.
On June 28, 2016, BIS published a final rule, Temporary General License: Extension of Validity (81 FR 41799), which extended the validity of the temporary general license until August 30, 2016. On August 19, 2016, BIS published a final rule, Temporary General License: Extension of Validity (81 FR 55372), which extended, for a second time, the validity of the Temporary General License until November 28, 2016. On November 18, 2016, BIS published a final rule, Temporary General License: Extension of Validity (81 FR 81663), which extended, for a third time, the validity of the Temporary General License until February 27, 2017. Details regarding the scope of the listing are at 81 FR 12004 (Mar. 8, 2016), (“Additions to the Entity List”). Details regarding the Temporary General License can be found in the March 24 final rule and in Supplement No. 7 to Part 744—Temporary General License.
BIS issued the March 24 final rule, and the June 28, August 19, and November 18 extension of validity final rules, in connection with a request to remove or modify the listings. The March 24 final rule, and the June 28, August 19, and November 18 final rules, specified that the temporary general license was renewable if the U.S. Government determined, in its sole discretion, that ZTE Corporation and ZTE Kangxun were performing their undertakings to the U.S. Government in a timely manner and otherwise cooperating with the U.S. Government in resolving the matter which led to the two entities' listing.
At this time, the U.S. Government has decided to extend the temporary general license until March 29, 2017. In order to implement this U.S. Government decision, this final rule revises the temporary general license to remove the date of February 27, 2017, and substitute the date of March 29, 2017. This final rule makes no other changes to the EAR.
Although the Export Administration Act expired on August 20, 2001, the President, through Executive Order 13222 of August 17, 2001, 3 CFR, 2001 Comp., p. 783 (2002), as amended by Executive Order 13637 of March 8, 2013, 78 FR 16129 (March 13, 2013) and as extended by the Notice of August 4, 2016, 81 FR 52587 (August 8, 2016), has continued the Export Administration Regulations in effect under the International Emergency Economic
1. Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
2. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person is required to respond to or be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information, subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
3. This rule does not contain policies with Federalism implications as that term is defined in Executive Order 13132.
4. The provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553) requiring notice of proposed rulemaking, the opportunity for public comment, and a delay in effective date are inapplicable because this regulation involves a military or foreign affairs function of the United States. (
Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Terrorism.
Accordingly, part 744 of the Export Administration Regulations (15 CFR parts 730 through 774) is amended as follows:
50 U.S.C. 4601
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Final rule; technical amendment.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is amending the animal drug regulations to reflect application-related actions for new animal drug applications (NADAs) and abbreviated new animal drug applications (ANADAs) during September and October 2016. FDA is also informing the public of the availability of summaries of the basis of approval and of environmental review documents, where applicable. The animal drug regulations are also being amended to reflect changes of sponsorship of several applications and a change of a sponsor's address.
This rule is effective February 24, 2017, except for the amendment to 21 CFR 524.1465, which is effective March 6, 2017.
George K. Haibel, Center for Veterinary Medicine (HFV-6), Food and Drug Administration, 7519 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855, 240-402-5689,
FDA is amending the animal drug regulations to reflect approval actions for NADAs and ANADAs during September and October 2016, as listed in table 1. In addition, FDA is informing the public of the availability, where applicable, of documentation of environmental review required under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) and, for actions requiring review of safety or effectiveness data, summaries of the basis of approval (FOI Summaries) under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA). These public documents may be seen in the Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m.,
Sogeval S. A., 200 Avenue de Mayenne, 53000 Laval, France has informed FDA that it has transferred ownership of, and all rights and interest in, the following applications to Ceva Sante Animale, 10 Avenue de la Ballastière, 33500 Libourne, France:
Following these changes of sponsorship, Sogeval S. A. is no longer the sponsor of an approved NADA. Accordingly, the firm's name, address, and drug labeler code are being removed from § 510.600(c) (21 CFR 510.600(c)).
In addition, Zoetis, Inc., 333 Portage St., Kalamazoo, MI 49007 has informed FDA that it has transferred ownership of, and all rights and interest in, the following applications to Kinetic Technologies, LLC, 961 Beasley St., Suite 270, Lexington, KY 40509:
Following these changes of sponsorship, Kinetic Technologies, LLC is now the sponsor of an approved NADA. Accordingly, the firm's name, address, and drug labeler code are being added to § 510.600(c).
In addition, Putney, Inc., One Monument Square, Suite 400, Portland, ME 04101 has requested that FDA withdraw approval of ANADA 200-524 for Mupirocin Ointment 2% because the product is no longer manufactured or marketed.
Elsewhere in this issue of the
Wildlife Laboratories, Inc., 1401 Duff Dr., Suite 600, Fort Collins, CO 80524 has informed FDA that it has changed its address to 1230 W. Ash St., Suite D, Windsor, CO 80550. In addition, FDA has noticed that a sponsor name in § 510.600 does not reflect the particular punctuation used in this sponsor's applications and other correspondence. At this time, we are amending the list of sponsors of approved applications in § 510.600(c) to reflect this change of sponsor address and sponsor's punctuation.
This rule does not meet the definition of “rule” in 5 U.S.C. 804(3)(A) because it is a rule of “particular applicability.” Therefore, it is not subject to the congressional review requirements in 5 U.S.C. 801-808.
Administrative practice and procedure, Animal drugs, Labeling, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Animal drugs.
Animal drugs, Animal feeds.
Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs and redelegated to the Center for Veterinary Medicine, 21 CFR parts 510, 520, 522, 524, and 558 are amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 360b, 371, 379e.
The additions and revisions read as follows:
(c) * * *
(1) * * *
(2) * * *
21 U.S.C. 360b.
21 U.S.C. 360b.
21 U.S.C. 360b.
21 U.S.C. 354, 360b, 360ccc, 360ccc-1, 371.
(e) * * *
(1) * * *
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notification of withdrawal.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is withdrawing approval of an abbreviated new animal drug application (ANADA) at the sponsor's request because the product is no longer manufactured or marketed.
Withdrawal of approval is effective March 6, 2017.
Sujaya Dessai, Center for Veterinary Medicine (HFV-212), Food and Drug Administration, 7519 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855, 240-402-5761,
Putney, Inc., One Monument Square, Suite 400, Portland, ME 04101 has requested that FDA withdraw approval of ANADA 200-524 for Mupirocin Ointment 2% because the product is no longer manufactured or marketed.
Therefore, under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs and redelegated to the Center for Veterinary Medicine, and in accordance with § 514.116
Elsewhere in this issue of the
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notification of withdrawal.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is withdrawing approval of 18 new animal drug applications (NADAs) and 2 abbreviated new animal drug applications (ANADAs). These withdrawals of approval of NADAs and ANADAs for antimicrobial drugs of importance to human medicine that are administered to food-producing animals in medicated feed are being made because the products are no longer manufactured or marketed. These actions are consistent with the FDA Center for Veterinary Medicine's initiative for the Judicious Use of Antimicrobials.
Withdrawal of approval is effective February 24, 2017.
Sujaya Dessai, Center for Veterinary Medicine (HFV-212), Food and Drug Administration, 7519 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855, 240-402-5761,
FDA is withdrawing approval of 18 NADAs and 2 ANADAs. These applications were identified as being affected by guidance for industry (GFI) #213, “New Animal Drugs and New Animal Drug Combination Products Administered in or on Medicated Feed or Drinking Water of Food-Producing Animals: Recommendations for Drug Sponsors for Voluntarily Aligning Product Use Conditions With GFI #209,” December 2013 (
Approval of the following applications for new animal drugs administered in medicated feed is being voluntarily withdrawn at the sponsors' requests because these products are no longer manufactured or marketed:
Therefore, under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs and redelegated to the Center for Veterinary Medicine, and in accordance with § 514.116
Elsewhere in this issue of the
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Final rule; technical amendment.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is amending the animal drug regulations to reflect approval of eight supplemental new animal drug applications (NADAs). The effect of these supplemental applications will be to change the marketing status from over-the-counter (OTC) use to use by veterinary feed directive (VFD) for these antimicrobial drugs of importance to human medicine, administered to food-producing animals in medicated feed. Where applicable, FDA is also withdrawing approval of those parts of the NADAs that pertain to use of these antimicrobial drugs for production indications. These actions are being taken at the sponsors' requests because these particular medicated feeds will no longer be manufactured or marketed. These applications were submitted in voluntary compliance with the goals of FDA Center for Veterinary Medicine's (CVM's) Judicious Use Initiative. In addition, the animal drug regulations are being amended to reflect the voluntary withdrawal of approval of certain entire NADAs and abbreviated new animal drug applications (ANADAs) that were affected by this initiative.
This rule is effective February 24, 2017.
George K. Haibel, Center for Veterinary Medicine (HFV-6), Food and Drug Administration, 7519 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855, 240-402-5689,
FDA is amending the animal drug regulations to reflect approval of eight supplemental NADAs for revised labeling reflecting a change in marketing status from OTC use to use by VFD for antimicrobial drugs of importance to human medicine administered to food-producing animals in medicated feed. Where applicable, FDA is also withdrawing approval of those parts of the NADAs that pertain to use of these antimicrobial drugs for production indications. These actions are being taken at the sponsors' requests because these particular medicated feeds will no longer be manufactured or marketed.
These applications were identified as being affected by guidance for industry (GFI) #213, “New Animal Drugs and
The affected applications for Type A medicated articles for which supplemental applications with revised labeling were approved are as follows:
The affected applications for manufacturing combination drug medicated feeds follow:
At the sponsors' requests, approval of applications is being withdrawn for medicated feeds containing antimicrobial drugs of importance to human medicine administered to food-producing animals because these products are no longer manufactured or marketed. The applications being withdrawn are as follows:
Elsewhere in this issue of the
A similar rule published in the
This rule does not meet the definition of “rule” in 5 U.S.C. 804(3)(A) because it is a rule of “particular applicability.” Therefore, it is not subject to the congressional review requirements in 5 U.S.C. 801-808.
Animal drugs, Animal feeds.
Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs and redelegated to the Center for Veterinary Medicine, 21 CFR part 558 is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 354, 360b, 360ccc, 360ccc-1, 371.
(e) * * *
(4)
(a)
(d)
(2) The expiration date of VFDs for virginiamycin medicated feeds must not exceed 6 months from the date of issuance. VFDs for virginiamycin shall not be refilled.
(e)
(2)
(3)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance for residues of VNT1 protein in potato when used as a plant-incorporated protectant. J.R. Simplot Company submitted a petition to EPA under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA), requesting a permanent exemption from the requirement of a tolerance. This regulation eliminates the need to establish a maximum permissible level for residues of VNT1 protein in potato under FFDCA.
This regulation is effective February 24, 2017. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before April 25, 2017 and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2014-0457, is available at
Robert McNally, Biopesticides and Pollution Prevention Division (7511P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a(g), any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2014-0457 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before April 25, 2017. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2014-0457, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
In the
EPA previously established a temporary exemption from tolerance for VNT1 protein in potato (40 CFR 174.534; 80 FR 9387) in conjunction with an Experimental Use Permit (8917-EUP-2) in 2015. This temporary exemption was subsequently amended (extended) on December 17, 2015 and expires on April 1, 2017.
Section 408(c)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish an exemption from the requirement for a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the exemption is “safe.” Section 408(c)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings but does not include occupational exposure. Pursuant to FFDCA section 408(c)(2)(B), in establishing or maintaining in effect an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance, EPA must take into account the factors set forth in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(C), which require EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance or tolerance exemption, and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue . . . .” Additionally, FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D) requires that EPA consider “available information concerning the cumulative effects of [a particular pesticide's] . . . residues and other substances that have a common mechanism of toxicity.”
EPA evaluated the available toxicity and exposure data on VNT1 protein and considered its validity, completeness, and reliability, as well as the relationship of this information to human risk. A full explanation of the data upon which EPA relied and its risk assessment based on that data can be found within the December 6, 2016, document entitled “Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) Considerations for VNT1 protein.” This document, as well as other relevant information, is available in the docket
EPA has determined that an analytical method is not required for enforcement purposes since the Agency is establishing an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance without any numerical limitation. Nonetheless, an analytical method was provided by J.R. Simplot for the detection of VNT1 protein in potato. This method utilizes a quantitative polymerase chain reaction (qPCR) to detect the presence of the
The current temporary tolerance exemption for VNT1 protein in potato (40 CFR 174.534) approved by EPA on December 17, 2015, will be changed to a permanent tolerance exemption.
This action establishes a tolerance exemption under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to EPA. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001), or Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerance exemption in this action, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes. As a result, this action does not alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, EPA has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, EPA has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999), and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require EPA's consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
7. U.S.C. 136-136y; 21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
Residues of VNT1 protein in potato are exempt from the requirement of a tolerance when the
In rule document 2017-02492, appearing on pages 9529-9529, in the issue of Tuesday, February 7, 2017, make the following correction:
On page 9529, in the third column, the signature block should read as follows:
By the Board, Acting Chairman Begeman, Vice Chairman Miller, and Commissioner Elliott.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule; extension of comment period.
In the January 4, 2017
Written comments must be received on or before May 5, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket No. EPA-R06-OAR-2016-0611, at
The Texas regional haze SIP is available online at:
Joe Kordzi, Air Planning Section (6PD-L), Environmental Protection Agency, Region 6, 1445 Ross Avenue, Suite 700, Dallas, Texas 75202-2733, telephone 214-665-7186; fax number 214-665-7263; email address
Throughout this document wherever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean the EPA.
On January 4, 2017, we published in the
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur dioxides, Visibility, Interstate transport of pollution, Regional haze, Best available control technology.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule; further delay of effective date.
In accordance with the Presidential directive as expressed in the memorandum of January 20, 2017, from the Assistant to the President and Chief of Staff, entitled “Regulatory Freeze Pending Review,” and the
Written comments on the proposed rule must be received by March 3, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID EPA-R10-OAR-2015-0067, online at
Jeff Hunt, Air Planning Unit, Office of Air and Waste (OAW-150), Environmental Protection Agency, Region 10, 1200 Sixth Ave., Suite 900, Seattle, WA 98101; telephone number: (206) 553-0256; email address:
On January 26, 2017, the EPA published a document in the
The January 20 Memo also states: “Where appropriate and as permitted by applicable law, [agencies] should consider proposing for notice and comment a rule to delay the effective date for regulations beyond that 60-day period.” In this document, the EPA is proposing to further delay the effective date for Partial Approval and Partial Disapproval of Attainment Plan for the Idaho Portion of the Logan, Utah/Idaho PM
The EPA solicits comment only on its proposal to further delay the effective date of Partial Approval and Partial Disapproval of Attainment Plan for the Idaho Portion of the Logan, Utah/Idaho PM
Environmental Protection Agency.
Proposed rule.
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by the State of Tennessee, submitted through the Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation (TDEC), on November 21, 2016. This SIP revision was submitted in support of the State's request that EPA change the federal Reid Vapor Pressure (RVP) requirements for Davidson, Rutherford, Sumner, Williamson, and Wilson Counties (hereinafter referred to as the “Middle Tennessee Area” or “Area”). Tennessee's November 21, 2016, SIP submittal revises its maintenance plan for the Middle Tennessee Area for the 1997 8-hour ozone national ambient air quality standard (NAAQS) and demonstrates that relaxing the federal RVP requirements in this Area would not interfere with the Area's ability to meet the requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act). Specifically, Tennessee's SIP revision concludes that relaxing the federal RVP requirement from 7.8 pounds per square inch (psi) to 9.0 psi for gasoline sold between June 1 and September 15 of each year in the Area would not interfere with attainment or maintenance of the
Comments must be received on or before March 27, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2016-0615 at
D. Brad Akers, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Akers can be reached via telephone at (404) 562-9089 or via electronic mail at
This rulemaking proposes to approve Tennessee's noninterference demonstration, submitted on November 21, 2016, in support of the State's request that EPA relax the federal RVP requirement from 7.8 psi to 9.0 psi for gasoline sold between June 1 and September 15 of each year (
EPA is proposing to approve changes to the existing CAA section 110(a)(1) ozone maintenance plan, including updated modeling, that show that the Middle Tennessee Area can continue to maintain the ozone standards without the use of gasoline with an RVP of 7.8 psi during the high ozone season. More specifically, EPA is proposing to approve that portion of Tennessee's November 21, 2016, SIP revision which includes a technical demonstration that changing the federal RVP requirements in this Area from 7.8 psi to 9.0 psi will not interfere with attainment or maintenance of any NAAQS or with any other applicable requirement of the CAA.
This preamble is hereinafter organized into five parts. Section II provides the background of the Middle Tennessee Area designation status with respect to the various ozone NAAQS. Section III describes the applicable history of federal gasoline regulation. Section IV provides the Agency's policy regarding relaxation of the volatility standards. Section V provides EPA's analysis of the information submitted by Tennessee to support a change for the conventional gasoline volatility standard in the Middle Tennessee Area.
The Middle Tennessee Area was originally designated as a 1-hour ozone nonattainment area by EPA on March 3, 1978 (43 FR 8962). The Middle Tennessee Area, then referred to as the Nashville Area, was geographically defined as Davidson, Rutherford, Sumner, Williamson, and Wilson Counties, Tennessee. On November 6, 1991, by operation of law under section 181(a) of the CAA, EPA classified the Middle Tennessee nonattainment area as a moderate nonattainment area for ozone.
TDEC originally requested a redesignation of the Middle Tennessee Area to attainment for the 1-hour ozone NAAQS on November 14, 1994. Tennessee updated its request and maintenance plan on August 9, 1995, and January 19, 1996. EPA approved the redesignation and maintenance plan on October 30, 1996, based on 1992-1994 ambient air quality monitoring data showing the Area attaining the NAAQS.
On April 30, 2004, EPA designated and classified areas for the 8-hour ozone NAAQS that was promulgated at a level of 0.085 parts per million on July 18, 1997.
Pursuant to CAA section 110(a)(1), and consistent with EPA guidance, EAC areas submitted plans to demonstrate continued maintenance of the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS.
Tennessee is now requesting that EPA remove the federal 7.8 psi RVP requirement for the Middle Tennessee Area, and the State submitted a SIP revision on November 21, 2016, revising its 110(a)(1) maintenance plan for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS, including a noninterference demonstration to support its request.
On August 19, 1987 (52 FR 31274), EPA determined that gasoline nationwide had become increasingly volatile, causing an increase in evaporative emissions from gasoline-powered vehicles and equipment. Evaporative emissions from gasoline, referred to as volatile organic compounds (VOCs), are precursors to the formation of tropospheric ozone and contribute to the nation's ground-level ozone problem. Exposure to ground-level ozone can reduce lung function (thereby aggravating asthma or other respiratory conditions), increase susceptibility to respiratory infection, and may contribute to premature death in people with heart and lung disease.
The most common measure of fuel volatility that is useful in evaluating gasoline evaporative emissions is RVP. Under section 211(c) of CAA, EPA promulgated regulations on March 22, 1989 (54 FR 11868), that set maximum limits for the RVP of gasoline sold during the high ozone season. These regulations constituted Phase I of a two-phase nationwide program, which was designed to reduce the volatility of commercial gasoline during the summer ozone control season. On June 11, 1990 (55 FR 23658), EPA promulgated more stringent volatility controls as Phase II of the volatility control program. These requirements established maximum RVP standards of 9.0 psi or 7.8 psi (depending on the State, the month, and the area's initial ozone attainment designation with respect to the 1-hour ozone NAAQS during the high ozone season).
The 1990 CAA Amendments established a new section, 211(h), to address fuel volatility. Section 211(h) requires EPA to promulgate regulations making it unlawful to sell, offer for sale, dispense, supply, offer for supply, transport, or introduce into commerce gasoline with an RVP level in excess of 9.0 psi during the high ozone season. Section 211(h) prohibits EPA from establishing a volatility standard more stringent than 9.0 psi in an attainment area, except that EPA may impose a lower (more stringent) standard in any former ozone nonattainment area redesignated to attainment.
On December 12, 1991 (56 FR 64704), EPA modified the Phase II volatility regulations to be consistent with section 211(h) of the CAA. The modified regulations prohibited the sale of gasoline with an RVP above 9.0 psi in all areas designated attainment for ozone, beginning in 1992. For areas designated as nonattainment, the regulations retained the original Phase II standards published on June 11, 1990 (55 FR 23658). A current listing of the RVP requirements for states can be found on EPA's Web site at:
As explained in the December 12, 1991 (56 FR 64704), Phase II rulemaking, EPA believes that relaxation of an applicable RVP standard is best accomplished in conjunction with the redesignation process. In order for an ozone nonattainment area to be redesignated as an attainment area, section 107(d)(3) of the Act requires the state to make a showing, pursuant to section 175A of the Act, that the area is capable of maintaining attainment for the ozone NAAQS for ten years after redesignation. Depending on the area's circumstances, this maintenance plan will either demonstrate that the area is capable of maintaining attainment for ten years without the more stringent volatility standard or that the more stringent volatility standard may be necessary for the area to maintain its attainment with the ozone NAAQS. Therefore, in the context of a request for redesignation, EPA will not relax the volatility standard unless the state requests a relaxation and the maintenance plan demonstrates, to the satisfaction of EPA, that the area will maintain attainment for ten years without the need for the more stringent volatility standard.
As noted previosly, Tennessee did not request relaxation of the applicable 7.8 psi federal RVP standard when the Middle Tennessee Area was redesignated to attainment for the 1-hour ozone NAAQS. Tennessee is therefore now revising its maintenance plan and modeling for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS with a conservative approach in estimating emissions by using a level of 9.0 psi.
To support Tennessee's request to relax the federal RVP requirement in the Middle Tennessee Area, the State must demonstrate that the requested change will satisfy section 110(l) of the CAA. Section 110(l) requires that a revision to the SIP not interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment and reasonable further progress (as defined in section 171), or any other applicable requirement of the Act. EPA's criterion for determining the approvability of Tennessee's November 21, 2016, SIP revision is whether the noninterference demonstration associated with the relaxation request satisfies section 110(l). The modeling associated with Tennessee's maintenance plan for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS is premised upon the 7.8 psi RVP requirements. So the request for a change in the federal RVP requirement is accompanied by a revision to the maintenance plan with updated modeling based on the 9.0 psi RVP. EPA is proposing approval of the revised maintenance plan based on an evaluation of current air quality monitoring data, the information provided in the revised maintenance plan, and the maintenance plan requirements in the CAA.
EPA evaluates each section 110(l) noninterference demonstration on a case-by-case basis considering the circumstances of each SIP revision. EPA
EPA notes that in this action, it is only proposing to approve the State's technical demonstration that the Area can continue to attain and maintain the NAAQS and meet other CAA requirements after switching to the sale of gasoline with an RVP of 9.0 psi in the Middle Tennessee Area during the high ozone season and to amend the SIP to include this demonstration and revise the maintenance plan for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS. Consistent with CAA section 211(h) and the Phase II volatility regulations, EPA will initiate a separate rulemaking to relax the current federal requirement to use gasoline with an RVP of 7.8 psi in the Middle Tennessee Area.
On November 21, 2016, TDEC submitted a SIP revision making changes to the 110(a)(1) maintenance plan for the Middle Tennessee Area, including a noninterference demonstration to support the State's request to modify the RVP summertime gasoline requirement from 7.8 psi to 9.0 psi for the Area. This demonstration includes an evaluation of the impact that the removal of the 7.8 psi RVP requirement would have on maintenance of the ozone standards and on the maintenance of the other NAAQS.
TDEC's noninterference analysis utilized EPA's 2014 Motor Vehicle Emissions Simulator (MOVES2014a) emission modeling system to estimate emissions for mobile sources.
TDEC's analysis in the November 21, 2016, submittal shows that RVP relaxation could increase total anthropogenic VOC emissions by 0.8 percent and increase total anthropogenic NO
As described above, the Middle Tennessee Area was redesignated to attainment for purposes of the 1-hour ozone NAAQS. This redesignation was based upon a Tennessee redesignation request for the Area which included the required 1-hour ozone monitoring data and maintenance plan ensuring the Area would remain in attainment of the 1-hour ozone NAAQS for at least a period of 10 years (consistent with CAA 175A(a)). The maintenance plan requirements remained in place for the counties when they were subsequently designated unclassifiable/attainment on April 30, 2004, for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS (69 FR 23858) effective June 15, 2004. However, because this 1997 8-hour ozone unclassifiable/attainment area had an existing maintenance plan pursuant to the 1-hour ozone NAAQS, it was required to submit a 10-year 110(a)(1) maintenance plan for purposes of the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS. As required, 110(a)(1) maintenance plans provide for continued attainment and maintenance of the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS for at least 10 years from the effective date of areas' designation as unclassifiable/attainment for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS. As a previous 1-hour ozone nonattainment area, the Middle Tennessee Area was already subject to the federal RVP requirements for high ozone season gasoline. Although originally implemented for the 1-hour ozone NAAQS, these Federal RVP requirements continued to apply to the Middle Tennessee Area per the 110(a)(1) maintenance plan required to show continued attainment and maintenance of the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS.
The Middle Tennessee Area is continuing to meet the 1-hour NAAQS, the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS,
Table 4 also shows that there is an overall downward trend in ozone concentrations in the Middle Tennessee Area. This decline can be attributed to federal and state programs that have led to significant emissions reductions in ozone precursors, such as federal standards in onroad and nonroad mobile source sectors and resultant fleet turnover. Given this downward trend, the downward trend in precursor emissions, the current ozone concentrations in the Middle Tennessee Area, and the results of Tennessee's emissions analysis, EPA is proposing to determine that a change to 9.0 psi RVP fuel for the affected counties would not interfere with the Area's ability to attain or maintain the ozone NAAQS in the Area. There has been no formal determination at this point for whether the Middle Tennessee Area is attaining the 2015 ozone NAAQS.
Over the course of several years, EPA has reviewed and revised the PM
The main precursor pollutants for PM
Given the downward trend in precursor emissions noted above and the small increases in those emissions with a relaxation of the RVP standard (less than 0.1 tpd for each pollutant), and given that RVP will not affect the most significant PM
On February 17, 2012, EPA designated all counties in Tennessee as unclassifiable/attainment for the 2010 NO
EPA is proposing to approve Tennessee's November 21, 2016, SIP revision consisting of a revision to its 110(a)(1) maintenance plan for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS for the Middle Tennessee Area and the technical noninterference demonstration supporting the State's request to relax the RVP standard to 9.0 psi in the Area. Specifically, EPA is proposing to accept updated emissions inventory and projections associated with the mobile source modeling used in the State's noninterference demonstration related to RVP. EPA is also proposing to find that this change in the RVP requirements for the Middle Tennessee Area will not interfere with attainment or maintenance of any NAAQS or with any other applicable requirement of the CAA.
EPA is proposing that Tennessee's November 21, 2016, SIP revision, including the technical demonstration associated with the State's request for the removal of the federal RVP requirements, and the updated attainment inventory and emissions projections, are consistent with the applicable provisions of the CAA. Should EPA decide to remove the counties of the Middle Tennessee Area from those areas subject to the 7.8 psi federal RVP requirements, such action will occur in a separate, subsequent rulemaking.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations.
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Food and Nutrition Service (FNS), U.S. Department of Agriculture.
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice invites the general public and other public agencies to comment on the proposed collection of information for the Scanner Capability Assessment of SNAP-Authorized Small Retailers (SCANR) Study. This is a NEW information collection.
The SCANR Study will provide FNS with an understanding of the extent to which small retailers participating in the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) are able to meet Section 4002 of the Agricultural Act of 2014 (2014 Farm Bill) requirement that all authorized SNAP retailers use scanning technologies at the point of sale (POS) to redeem SNAP benefits. Understanding the number of small retailers that lack scanning systems, the costs of adopting and maintaining scanning systems, and the barriers small retailers face in adopting the technology are key to informing rulemaking for the 2014 Farm Bill requirement.
Written comments must be submitted on or before April 25, 2017.
Comments are invited on (a) whether the proposed data collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information has practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions that were used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
All written comments will be open for public inspection at the office of the Food and Nutrition Service during regular business hours (8:30 a.m. to 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday) at 3101 Park Center Drive, Room 1014, Alexandria, VA 22302.
All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval. All comments will also be a matter of public record.
Requests for additional information should be directed to Jenny Laster Genser at 703-305-2559.
Specifically, this study will employ a mixed-methods approach in which both quantitative and qualitative data will be collected, analyzed, and synthesized to assess the economic and technological barriers of adopting scanning technologies by small SNAP-authorized retailers and possible inducements. The study design will include industry interviews, a national survey of small SNAP-authorized retailers, and follow-up interviews with a subset of survey respondents to provide qualitative information on the barriers and inducements to adopting scanning systems.
The study design comprises three data collection components to address four study objectives:
•
•
•
•
The data collection components are as follows:
FNS is interested in the requirements and costs for two options of functionality for scanning systems: (1) Scanning systems that can identify which items are eligible to be purchased with SNAP and are integrated with the store inventory to scan the item's price and (2) scanning systems that can identify which items are eligible to be purchased with SNAP and are integrated with the store inventory to scan the item's price
The target population for the survey is small SNAP-authorized retailers defined as small grocery stores, medium grocery stores, convenience stores, and specialty stores excluding chains that have 10 or more outlets under the same owner. The sample design for the survey will be sufficiently powered to provide national and subgroup estimates by store type and urbanicity. The survey approach will use multiple modes to facilitate response (hard copy or web-based) and telephone reminders to nonrespondents to maximize the response rate.
Approximately half of the retailers selected for the interviews will be stores that reported on the survey that they currently are using scanning systems (via in-person interviews) and half will be stores that do not use scanning systems (via phone interviews). The interviews will provide the opportunity to learn about costs, benefits, and challenges associated with implementing and operating scanning systems from a group of retailers that currently use them and about costs and other concerns of retailers that do not use scanning systems. Interview questions will also provide insight regarding the level of knowledge about scanning technology among small retailers and the information gaps, particularly among nonusers.
There are a total of 1,389. The respondent groups that were identified include 12 POS vendors and 1,377 SNAP-authorized small retailers.
• POS vendors that supply retailers with scanning systems. We estimate that nine vendors will participate in the interviews.
• SNAP-authorized small retailers: Store owner, store manager, or regional manager. Out of 1,377 respondents, we estimate that 936 of the small retailers sampled will go on to participate in the survey.
• SNAP-authorized small retailers: Store owner, store manager, or regional manager. Out of 936 small retailers who participated in the SCANR survey, we estimate that 50 of them will take part in a follow-up interview.
For the industry interviews, it is estimated that 12 of the industry interview respondents will be contacted and, of these, 9 will complete the interview, 3 will be non-respondents.
For the SCANR Survey, a multimode, two-phase approach will be used. For phase I (survey), respondents can choose to participate by hard copy (mail survey) or web, and for phase II (interview), all non-respondents will be re-contacted by phone and asked to complete the survey (by phone or reminded to complete the survey by mail or web). Out of 123,000 small retailers, a sample of 1,377 will be selected. It is estimated that, of these, 207 will not be eligible for the survey (
For the follow-up interviews, a sample of 71 respondents that completed the SCANR Survey will be selected for either telephone or on-site interviews. It is estimated that 50 of the selected respondents will take part in the interview (70% response rate).
For the industry interviews with vendors, there is one response per respondent. For retailers, there is one response for 886 of the respondents (SCANR Survey only) and two responses for 50 of the respondents who participate in follow-up interviews.
For the industry interviews, this total includes 9 completed interviews with vendors and 3 attempted interviews. For the SCANR Survey, this total includes 936 responses from small retailers and 441 attempted, but non-completed or non-responses. For the follow-up interviews, this total includes 50 completed interviews and 21 attempted interviews.
For the telephone interviews with vendors: Vendors will take up to 1 hour to participate in the telephone interviews. Vendors who choose not to participate will spend 5 minutes (0.08 hours) reading the recruitment materials.
For the SCANR Survey: Small retailers will take 15 minutes (0.25 hours) to respond to the survey (via mail, web, or phone). Small retailers who choose not to participate will spend 5 minutes (0.08 hours) reading the recruitment materials.
For the follow-up interviews: Small retailers will take 30 minutes (0.5 hours) to respond to the in-depth telephone or on-site interviews. Small retailers selected for a follow-up interview who choose not to participate will spend 5 minutes (0.08 hours) reading the recruitment materials.
Food and Nutrition Service (FNS), U.S. Department of Agriculture.
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice invites the general public and other public agencies to comment on this proposed information collection. This is a new collection for the Evaluation of the Direct Certification with Medicaid for Free and Reduced-Price Meals (DCM-F/RP) Demonstrations.
Written comments must be received on or before April 25, 2017.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions that were used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments may be sent to: Conor McGovern, Food and Nutrition Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 3101 Park Center Drive, Room 1040, Alexandria, VA 22302. Comments may also be submitted via fax to the attention of Conor McGovern at 703-305-2576 or via email to
All written comments will be open for public inspection at the office of the Food and Nutrition Service during regular business hours (8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m., Monday through Friday) at 3101 Park Center Drive, Room 1040, Alexandria, VA 22302.
All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval. All comments will be a matter of public record.
Requests for additional information or copies of this information collection should be directed to Conor McGovern at 703-457-7740.
Recently, FNS has sought ways to further expand direct certification, including experimenting with allowing direct certification based on data from means-tested programs that do not confer categorical eligibility. Prior DCM demonstrations have authorized selected States and districts to use income information from Medicaid files to determine students' eligibility based on their household income and directly certify those students found to be eligible for free meals. The new DCM-F/RP demonstration expands the use of direct certification using income information from Medicaid files to include eligibility for reduced-price meals. The evaluation of the DCM-F/RP demonstration will investigate the processes, challenges, and outcomes of using Medicaid data to directly certify students.
The study will gather data from State, School Food Authority,
FNS is also conducting research with the State Child Nutrition and Medicaid agency officials, school district directors and school district food service staff to develop, test, and improve the evaluation data collection instruments and methodologies. This pre-testing burden was approved by the Office of Management and Budget on December 19, 2016 under OMB # 0584-0606 FNS Generic Clearance for Pre-Testing, Pilot, and Field Test Studies.
Businesses—Respondent groups identified include 2 State Child Nutrition agency vendors and 2 Medicaid Agency vendors that play key roles in the direct certification process.
A total of 45 State Child Nutrition Agency staff (3 per State) will take part in the on-site interviews, with 30 of those respondents (2 per State) also taking part in on-site observations. Of the 45 State Child Nutrition Agency respondents, 15 (one from each State) will complete the follow-up telephone interview, administrative records request, and collection logs used to track State cost data. A total of 45 State Medicaid Agency staff (3 per State) will also take part in the on-site interviews, with 30 of those respondents (2 per State) also taking part in the on-site observations. Of the 45 State Medicaid Agency respondents, 15 (one from each State) will be asked to complete the follow-up telephone interview and collection logs used to track State cost data (including 14 respondents and 1 non-responder). A total of 3 respondents from other State Agencies (1 in each of 3 States) will take part in the on-site interviews and complete the collection logs used to track State cost data.
A total of 96 district respondents (3 per participating district) will take part in the on-site interviews, with 64 (2 per district) of those respondents also taking part in on-site observations. Of the 96 district respondents, 32 (one per district) will be asked to complete the follow-up telephone interview (including 29 respondents and 3 non-responders).
A total of 4 respondents from State Agency vendors (1 for each of 2 State Child Nutrition Agency vendors and 2 Medicaid Agency vendors) will take part in the on-site interviews.
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) that a meeting of the Idaho State Advisory Committee (Committee) to the Commission will be held at 1:00 p.m. (Mountain Time) Friday, March 10, 2017, for the purpose discussing civil rights issues in the state and deliberating on a topic of study. The Committee will also discuss a report on school equity in the state.
The meeting will be held on Friday, March 10, 2017, at 1:00 p.m. MST.
Public call information:
Ana Victoria Fortes at
This meeting is available to the public through the following toll-free call-in number: 800-327-5138, conference ID number: 3765784. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. Callers can expect to incur charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-977-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Members of the public are entitled to make comments during the open period at the end of the meeting. Members of the public may also submit written comments; the comments must be received in the Regional Programs Unit within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Western Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 300 North Los Angeles Street, Suite 2010, Los Angeles, CA 90012. They may be faxed to the Commission at (312) 353-8311, or emailed Ana Victoria Fortes at
Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing prior to and after the meeting at
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) preliminarily determines that emulsion styrene-butadiene rubber (ESB rubber) from Poland is being, or is likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV). The period of investigation (POI) is July 1, 2015, through June 30, 2016.
Effective February 24, 2017.
Stephen Bailey, AD/CVD Operations, Office IV, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-0193.
This preliminary determination is made in accordance with section 733(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). The Department published the notice of initiation of this investigation on August 19, 2016.
The product covered by this investigation is ESB rubber from Poland. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
In accordance with the preamble to the Department's regulations,
The Department is conducting this investigation in accordance with section 731 of the Act. Export prices have been calculated in accordance with section 772(a) of the Act. Normal value (NV) is calculated in accordance with section 773 of the Act. For a full description of the methodology underlying our preliminary conclusions,
Sections 733(d)(1)(A)(ii) and 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provide that, in the preliminary determination, the Department shall determine an estimated all-others rate for all exporters and producers not individually investigated, which shall be an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for exporters and producers individually investigated, excluding any zero and
The Department calculated a company-specific rate for Synthos Dwory (Synthos) that is not zero,
The Department preliminarily determines that the following weighted-average dumping margins exist:
In accordance with section 733(d)(2) of the Act, the Department will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of subject merchandise as described in the scope of the investigation section entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of this notice in the
We intend to disclose the calculations performed to interested parties in this proceeding within five days of the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
As provided in section 782(i) of the Act, we intend to verify information relied upon in making our final determination.
Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than seven days after the date on which the final verification report is issued in this proceeding, and rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in case briefs, may be submitted no later than five days after the deadline date for case briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, limited to issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain the party's name, address, and telephone number, the number of participants, whether any participant is a foreign national, and a list of the issues to be discussed. If a request for a hearing is made, the Department intends to hold the hearing at the U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230, at a time and date to be determined. Parties should confirm by telephone the date, time, and location of the hearing two days before the scheduled date.
Section 735(a)(2) of the Act provides that a final determination may be postponed until not later than 135 days after the date of the publication of the preliminary determination if, in the event of an affirmative preliminary determination, a request for such postponement is made by exporters who account for a significant proportion of exports of the subject merchandise, or in the event of a negative preliminary determination, a request for such postponement is made by the petitioners. Section 351.210(e)(2) of the Department's regulations requires that requests by respondents for postponement of a final antidumping determination be accompanied by a request for extension of provisional measures from a four-month period to a period not more than six months in duration.
On February 3, 2017, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.210(e), Synthos requested that the Department postpone the final determination and that provisional measures be extended to a period not to exceed six months.
In accordance with section 733(f) of the Act, we are notifying the International Trade Commission (ITC) of our preliminary determination. If our final determination is affirmative, the ITC will determine before the later of 120 days after the date of this preliminary determination or 45 days after our final determination whether these imports are materially injuring, or threaten material injury to, the U.S. industry.
This determination is issued and published in accordance with sections
For purposes of this investigation, the product covered is cold-polymerized emulsion styrene-butadiene rubber (ESB rubber). The scope of the investigation includes, but is not limited to, ESB rubber in primary forms, bales, granules, crumbs, pellets, powders, plates, sheets, strip,
ESB rubber is produced and sold in accordance with a generally accepted set of product specifications issued by the International Institute of Synthetic Rubber Producers (IISRP). The scope of the investigation covers grades of ESB rubber included in the IISRP 1500 and 1700 series of synthetic rubbers. The 1500 grades are light in color and are often described as “Clear” or “White Rubber.” The 1700 grades are oil-extended and thus darker in color, and are often called “Brown Rubber.”
Specifically excluded from the scope of this investigation are products which are manufactured by blending ESB rubber with other polymers, high styrene resin master batch, carbon black master batch (
The products subject to this investigation are currently classifiable under subheadings 4002.19.0015 and 4002.19.0019 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). ESB rubber is described by Chemical Abstract Services (CAS) Registry No. 9003-55-8. This CAS number also refers to other types of styrene butadiene rubber. Although the HTSUS subheadings and CAS registry number are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
As a result of the determinations by the Department of Commerce (the “Department”) and the International Trade Commission (the “ITC”) that revocation of the antidumping duty (“AD”) duty order on wooden bedroom furniture from the People's Republic of China (“PRC”) would likely lead to a continuation or recurrence of dumping and material injury to an industry in the United States, the Department is publishing a notice of continuation of the AD duty order.
Effective February 24, 2017.
Aleksandras Nakutis or Howard Smith, AD/CVD Operations, Office IV, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: 202-482-3147 or 202-482-5193, respectively.
On January 4, 2005, the Department published in the
The product covered by the
As a result of the determinations by the Department and the ITC that revocation of the AD duty order would likely lead to a continuation or recurrence of dumping and material injury to an industry in the United States, pursuant to section 751(d)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.218(a), the Department hereby orders the continuation of the AD duty order on wooden bedroom furniture from the PRC. U.S. Customs and Border Protection will continue to collect AD duty cash deposits at the rates in effect at the time of entry for all imports of subject merchandise. The effective date of the continuation of the order will be the date of publication in the
This five-year sunset review and this notice are in accordance with section 751(c) and 751(d)(2) of the Act and published pursuant to section 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.218(f)(4).
This notice also serves as the only reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (“APO”) of their responsibility concerning the return/destruction or conversion to judicial protective order of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Failure to comply is a violation of the APO which may be subject to sanctions.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) preliminarily determines that emulsion styrene-butadiene rubber (ESB rubber) from Mexico is being, or is likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV). The period of investigation (POI) is July 1, 2015, through June 30, 2016.
Effective February 24, 2017.
Julia Hancock or Javier Barrientos, AD/CVD Operations, Office V, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-1394 or (202) 482-2243, respectively.
This preliminary determination is made in accordance with section 733(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). The Department published the notice of initiation of this investigation on August 19, 2016.
The product covered by this investigation is ESB rubber from Mexico. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
In accordance with the preamble to the Department's regulations,
The Department is conducting this investigation in accordance with section 731 of the Act. Constructed export prices have been calculated in accordance with section 772(b) of the Act. Normal value (NV) is calculated in accordance with section 773 of the Act. For a full description of the methodology underlying our preliminary conclusions,
Sections 733(d)(1)(A)(ii) and 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provide that in the preliminary determination the Department shall determine an estimated all-others rate for all exporters and producers not individually investigated, which shall be an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for exporters and producers individually investigated,
The Department calculated a company-specific rate for Industrias Negromex S.A. de C.V.—Planta Altamira (Negromex) that is not zero,
The Department preliminarily determines that the following weighted-average dumping margins exist:
In accordance with section 733(d)(2) of the Act, the Department will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of subject merchandise as described in the scope of the investigation section entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of this notice in the
We intend to disclose the calculations performed to interested parties in this proceeding within five days of the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
As provided in section 782(i) of the Act, we intend to verify information relied upon in making our final determination.
Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than seven days after the date on which the final verification report is issued in this proceeding, and rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in case briefs, may be submitted no later than five days after the deadline date for case briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, limited to issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain the party's name, address, and telephone number, the number of participants, whether any participant is a foreign national, and a list of the issues to be discussed. If a request for a hearing is made, the Department intends to hold the hearing at the U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230, at a time and date to be determined. Parties should confirm by telephone the date, time, and location of the hearing two days before the scheduled date.
Section 735(a)(2) of the Act provides that a final determination may be postponed until not later than 135 days after the date of the publication of the preliminary determination if, in the event of an affirmative preliminary determination, a request for such postponement is made by exporters who account for a significant proportion of exports of the subject merchandise, or in the event of a negative preliminary determination, a request for such postponement is made by the petitioners. Section 351.210(e)(2) of the Department's regulations requires that requests by respondents for postponement of a final antidumping determination be accompanied by a request for extension of provisional measures from a four-month period to a period not more than six months in duration.
On January 24, 2017, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.210(e), Negromex requested that the Department postpone the final determination and that provisional measures be extended to a period not to exceed six months.
In accordance with section 733(f) of the Act, we are notifying the International Trade Commission (ITC) of our preliminary determination. If our final determination is affirmative, the ITC will determine before the later of 120 days after the date of this preliminary determination or 45 days after our final determination whether these imports are materially injuring, or threaten material injury to, the U.S. industry.
This determination is issued and published in accordance with sections 733(f) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(c).
For purposes of this investigation, the product covered is cold-polymerized emulsion styrene-butadiene rubber (ESB rubber). The scope of the investigation includes, but is not limited to, ESB rubber in primary forms, bales, granules, crumbs, pellets, powders, plates, sheets, strip,
ESB rubber is produced and sold in accordance with a generally accepted set of product specifications issued by the International Institute of Synthetic Rubber Producers (IISRP). The scope of the investigation covers grades of ESB rubber included in the IISRP 1500 and 1700 series of synthetic rubbers. The 1500 grades are light in color and are often described as “Clear” or “White Rubber.” The 1700 grades
Specifically excluded from the scope of this investigation are products which are manufactured by blending ESB rubber with other polymers, high styrene resin master batch, carbon black master batch (
The products subject to this investigation are currently classifiable under subheadings 4002.19.0015 and 4002.19.0019 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). ESB rubber is described by Chemical Abstract Services (CAS) Registry No. 9003-55-8. This CAS number also refers to other types of styrene butadiene rubber. Although the HTSUS subheadings and CAS registry number are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) preliminarily determines that emulsion styrene-butadiene rubber (ESB rubber) from the Republic of Korea (Korea) is being, or is likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV). The period of investigation (POI) is July 1, 2015, through June 30, 2016.
Effective February 24, 2017.
Carrie Bethea or Kabir Archuletta, AD/CVD Operations, Office V, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-1491 or (202) 482-2593, respectively.
This preliminary determination is made in accordance with section 733(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). The Department published the notice of initiation of this investigation on August 19, 2016.
The product covered by this investigation is ESB rubber from Korea. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
In accordance with the preamble to the Department's regulations,
The Department is conducting this investigation in accordance with section 731 of the Act. The Department has calculated export prices in accordance with section 772(a) of the Act. Constructed export prices have been calculated in accordance with section 773 of the Act. Normal value (NV) For a full description of the methodology underlying our preliminary conclusions,
In accordance with section 733(e) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.206, we preliminarily find that critical circumstances do not exist for LG Chem, Ltd. (LG Chem). However, because Daewoo International Corporation (Daewoo) and Kumho Petrochemical Co, Ltd (Kumho) did not respond to the Department's questionnaires, we have determined pursuant to sections 776(a) and (b) of the Act, that critical circumstances exist for both Daewoo and Kumho as adverse facts available (AFA). For a full description of the methodology and results of our critical circumstances analysis,
Daewoo and Kumho were each selected as a mandatory respondent, but each failed to respond to the Department's questionnaires. Accordingly, we preliminarily determine to based their dumping margins on AFA, in accordance with sections 776(a) and (b) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.308. As AFA, we applied the
Sections 733(d)(1)(A)(ii) and 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provide that in the preliminary determination the Department shall determine an estimated all-others rate for all exporters and producers not individually investigated, which shall be an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for exporters and producers individually investigated, excluding any zero and
The Department calculated a company-specific rate for LG Chem that is not zero,
The Department preliminarily determines that the following weighted-average dumping margins exist:
In accordance with section 733(d)(2) of the Act, the Department will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of subject merchandise as described in the scope of the investigation section entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of this notice in the
Section 733(e)(2) of the Act provides that, given an affirmative determination of critical circumstances, any suspension of liquidation shall apply to unliquidated entries of merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the later of (a) the date which is 90 days before the date on which the suspension of liquidation was first ordered, or (b) the date on which notice of initiation of the investigation was published. The Department preliminarily finds that critical circumstances exist for imports of subject merchandise produced and exported by Daewoo and Kumho. In accordance with section 733(e)(2)(A) of the Act, the suspension of liquidation shall apply to unliquidated entries of merchandise from the exporters identified in this paragraph that were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date which is 90 days before the publication of this notice.
We intend to disclose the calculations performed to interested parties in this proceeding within five days of the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
As provided in section 782(i) of the Act, we intend to verify information relied upon in making our final determination.
Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than seven days after the date on which the final verification report is issued in this proceeding, and rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in case briefs, may be submitted no later than five days after the deadline date for case briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, limited to issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain the party's name, address, and telephone number, the number of participants, whether any participant is a foreign national, and a list of the issues to be discussed. If a request for a hearing is made, the Department intends to hold the hearing at the U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230, at a time and date to be determined. Parties should confirm by telephone the date, time, and location of the hearing two days before the scheduled date.
Section 735(a)(2) of the Act provides that a final determination may be postponed until not later than 135 days after the date of the publication of the preliminary determination if, in the event of an affirmative preliminary determination, a request for such postponement is made by exporters who account for a significant proportion of exports of the subject merchandise, or in the event of a negative preliminary determination, a request for such postponement is made by the petitioners. Section 351.210(e)(2) of the Department's regulations requires that requests by respondents for postponement of a final antidumping determination be accompanied by a request for extension of provisional measures from a four-month period to a period not more than six months in duration.
On January 10, 2017, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.210(e), LG Chem requested that the Department postpone the final determination and that provisional measures be extended to a period not to exceed six months.
In accordance with section 733(f) of the Act, we are notifying the International Trade Commission (ITC) of our preliminary affirmative determination. If our final determination is affirmative, the ITC will determine before the later of 120 days after the date of this preliminary determination or 45 days after our final determination whether these imports are materially injuring, or threaten material injury to, the U.S. industry.
This determination is issued and published in accordance with sections 733(f) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(c).
For purposes of this investigation, the product covered is cold-polymerized emulsion styrene-butadiene rubber (ESB rubber). The scope of the investigation includes, but is not limited to, ESB rubber in primary forms, bales, granules, crumbs, pellets, powders, plates, sheets, strip,
ESB rubber is produced and sold in accordance with a generally accepted set of product specifications issued by the International Institute of Synthetic Rubber Producers (IISRP). The scope of the investigation covers grades of ESB rubber included in the IISRP 1500 and 1700 series of synthetic rubbers. The 1500 grades are light in color and are often described as “Clear” or “White Rubber.” The 1700 grades are oil-extended and thus darker in color, and are often called “Brown Rubber.”
Specifically excluded from the scope of this investigation are products which are manufactured by blending ESB rubber with other polymers, high styrene resin master batch, carbon black master batch (
The products subject to this investigation are currently classifiable under subheadings 4002.19.0015 and 4002.19.0019 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). ESB rubber is described by Chemical Abstract Services (CAS) Registry No. 9003-55-8. This CAS number also refers to other types of styrene butadiene rubber. Although the HTSUS subheadings and CAS registry number are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) preliminarily determines that emulsion styrene-butadiene rubber (ESB rubber) from Brazil is being, or is likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV). The period of investigation (POI) is July 1, 2015, through June 30, 2016.
Effective February 24, 2017.
Drew Jackson, AD/CVD Operations, Office IV, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-4406.
This preliminary determination is made in accordance with section 733(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). The Department published the notice of initiation of this investigation on August 19, 2016.
The product covered by this investigation is ESB rubber from Brazil. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
In accordance with the preamble to the Department's regulations,
The Department is conducting this investigation in accordance with section 731 of the Act. Constructed export prices have been calculated in accordance with section 772(b) of the Act. Normal value (NV) is calculated in accordance with section 773 of the Act. For a full description of the methodology underlying our preliminary conclusions,
In accordance with section 733(e) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.206, we preliminarily find that critical circumstances do not exist for mandatory respondent, Arlanxeo Brasil S.A. (Arlanxeo Brasil), or for exporters and producers not individually investigated (
Sections 733(d)(1)(A)(ii) and 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provide that in the preliminary determination the Department shall determine an estimated all-others rate for all exporters and producers not individually investigated, which shall be an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for exporters and producers individually investigated, excluding any zero and
The Department calculated a company-specific rate for Arlanxeo Brasil that is not zero,
The Department preliminarily determines that the following weighted-average dumping margins exist:
In accordance with section 733(d)(2) of the Act, the Department will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of subject merchandise as described in the scope of the investigation section entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of this notice in the
We intend to disclose the calculations performed to interested parties in this proceeding within five days of the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
As provided in section 782(i) of the Act, we intend to verify information relied upon in making our final determination.
Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than seven days after the date on which the final verification report is issued in this proceeding, and rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in case briefs, may be submitted no later than five days after the deadline date for case briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, limited to issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain the party's name, address, and telephone number, the number of participants, whether any participant is a foreign national, and a list of the issues to be discussed. If a request for a hearing is made, the Department intends to hold the hearing at the U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230, at a time and date to be determined. Parties should confirm by telephone the date, time, and location of the hearing two days before the scheduled date.
Section 735(a)(2) of the Act provides that a final determination may be postponed until not later than 135 days after the date of the publication of the preliminary determination if, in the event of an affirmative preliminary determination, a request for such postponement is made by exporters who account for a significant proportion of exports of the subject merchandise, or in the event of a negative preliminary determination, a request for such postponement is made by Petitioners. Section 351.210(e)(2) of the Department's regulations requires that requests by respondents for postponement of a final antidumping determination be accompanied by a request for extension of provisional measures from a four-month period to a period not more than six months in duration.
On January 17, 2017, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.210(e), Arlanxeo Brasil requested that the Department postpone the final determination and that provisional measures be extended to a period not to exceed six months.
In accordance with section 733(f) of the Act, we are notifying the International Trade Commission (ITC) of our preliminary determination. If our final determination is affirmative, the ITC will determine before the later of 120 days after the date of this preliminary determination or 45 days after our final determination whether these imports are materially injuring, or threaten material injury to, the U.S. industry.
This determination is issued and published in accordance with sections 733(f) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(c).
For purposes of this investigation, the product covered is cold-polymerized emulsion styrene-butadiene rubber (ESB rubber). The scope of the investigation includes, but is not limited to, ESB rubber in primary forms, bales, granules, crumbs, pellets, powders, plates, sheets, strip,
ESB rubber is produced and sold in accordance with a generally accepted set of product specifications issued by the International Institute of Synthetic Rubber Producers (IISRP). The scope of the investigation covers grades of ESB rubber included in the IISRP 1500 and 1700 series of synthetic rubbers. The 1500 grades are light in color and are often described as “Clear” or “White Rubber.” The 1700 grades are oil-extended and thus darker in color, and are often called “Brown Rubber.”
Specifically excluded from the scope of this investigation are products which are manufactured by blending ESB rubber with other polymers, high styrene resin master batch, carbon black master batch (
The products subject to this investigation are currently classifiable under subheadings 4002.19.0015 and 4002.19.0019 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). ESB rubber is described by Chemical Abstract Services (“CAS”) Registry No. 9003-55-8. This CAS number also refers to other types of styrene butadiene rubber. Although the HTSUS subheadings and CAS registry number are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; 12-month finding and availability of status review document.
We, NMFS, have completed a comprehensive status review under the Endangered Species Act (ESA) for thorny skate (
This finding was made on February 24, 2017.
The status review document for thorny skate is available electronically at:
Kim Damon-Randall, NMFS Greater Atlantic Regional Fisheries Office, 978-282-8485; or Marta Nammack, NMFS Office of Protected Resources, 301-427-8469.
We received a petition, dated May 28, 2015, from Animal Welfare Institute (AWI) and Defenders of Wildlife (DW) requesting that we list a “Northwest Atlantic DPS” of thorny skate as threatened or endangered under the ESA, or, as an alternative, a “U.S. DPS” as threatened or endangered. The petition also requests we designate critical habitat for thorny skate. In response to this petition, we published a “positive” 90-finding on October 26, 2015 (80 FR 65175), in which we concluded that the petition presented substantial scientific and commercial information indicating that listing under the ESA may be warranted, and a review of the status of the species was initiated.
We then performed a detailed review and determined that the best available scientific and commercial information does not support a listing. The resulting status review report included an in-depth review of the available scientific literature, an analysis of the five ESA section 4(a)(1) factors (16 U.S.C. 1533(a)(1)(A)-(E)), and an assessment of extinction risk. The status review report was independently peer reviewed by external experts. This listing determination is based on the status
We are responsible for determining whether the thorny skate is threatened or endangered under the ESA (16 U.S.C. 1531
Section 3 of the ESA further defines an endangered species as “any species which is in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range” and a threatened species as one “which is likely to become an endangered species within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range.” Thus, we interpret an “endangered species” to be one that is presently in danger of extinction. A “threatened species,” on the other hand, is not presently in danger of extinction, but is likely to become so in the foreseeable future (that is, at a later time). In other words, the primary statutory difference between a threatened and endangered species is the timing of when a species may be in danger of extinction, either presently (endangered) or in the foreseeable future (threatened). Section 4(a)(1) of the ESA also requires us to determine whether any species is endangered or threatened as a result of any of the following five factors: The present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of its habitat or range; overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes; disease or predation; the inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; or other natural or manmade factors affecting its continued existence. (16 U.S.C. 1533(a)(1)(A)-(E)). Section 4(b)(1)(A) of the ESA requires us to make listing determinations based solely on the best scientific and commercial data available after conducting a review of the status of the species and after taking into account efforts being made by any state or foreign nation or political subdivision thereof to protect the species. In evaluating the efficacy of existing domestic protective efforts, we rely on the Services' joint
The status review report for thorny skate is composed of two components: (1) A scientific literature review and analysis of the five ESA section 4(a)(1) factors and (2) an assessment of the extinction risk. A biologist in NMFS' Greater Atlantic Region, working in cooperation with NMFS Northeast Fisheries Science Center (NEFSC), completed the first component, undertaking a scientific review of the life history and ecology, distribution and abundance, and an analysis of the ESA section 4(a)(1) factors. The Extinction Risk Assessment (ERA) was compiled by a biologist in NMFS' Greater Atlantic Region. The ERA was informed by invited workshop participants who based their individual expert opinions on the information contained in the scientific literature review. The workshop participants were comprised of a fisheries management specialist from NMFS' Highly Migratory Species Management Division, two research fishery biologists from NMFS' Northeast Fisheries Science Center, an elasmobranch expert from Sharks International, a fisheries manager from the New England Fishery Management Council, and a research director from the New England Aquarium. The workshop participants had expertise in elasmobranch biology and ecology, population dynamics, fisheries management, climate change and/or stock assessment science. The workshop participants reviewed the information from the scientific literature review. The status review report for thorny skate (NMFS 2017) compiles the best available information on the status of the species as required by the ESA, provides an evaluation of the discreteness and significance of populations in terms of the DPS policy, and assesses the current and future extinction risk, focusing primarily on threats related to the five statutory factors set forth above. We prepared this report to summarize the workshop participants' professional judgments of the extinction risk facing thorny skate. The workshop participants made no recommendations as to the listing status of the species, nor does the status review report. The status review report is available electronically at the Web site listed in
The status review report underwent independent peer review as required by the Office of Management and Budget Final Information Quality Bulletin for Peer Review (M-05-03; December 16, 2004). The status review report was peer reviewed by three independent specialists selected from government, academic, and scientific communities, with expertise in elasmobranch biology, conservation and management, and specific knowledge of thorny skates. The peer reviewers were asked to evaluate the adequacy, quality, and completeness of the data considered and whether uncertainties in these data were identified and characterized in the status review report, as well as to evaluate the findings made in the “Assessment of Extinction Risk” section of the report. They were also asked to specifically identify any information missing or lacking justification, or whether information was applied incorrectly in reaching conclusions. We addressed all peer reviewer comments prior to finalizing the status review report. Comments received are posted online at
We subsequently reviewed the status review report, the cited references, and the peer review comments, and we concluded that the status review report, upon which this listing determination is based, provides the best available scientific and commercial information on thorny skate. Much of the information discussed below on thorny skate biology, genetic diversity, distribution, abundance, threats, and extinction risk is attributable to the status review report. However, we have independently applied the statutory provisions of the ESA, including evaluation of the factors set forth in section 4(a)(1)(A)-(E); our regulations regarding listing determinations; and, our DPS and Significant Portion of its Range (SPR) policies in making the listing determination.
The thorny skate belongs to the family Rajidae, genus
Despite its generalist nature, some habitat preferences exist. There is some evidence that the species prefers complex hard bottom habitat instead of sand or mud. Scott (1982) reported that catch rates of thorny skate were highest on coarser grained sediment, and catch rates diminished as grain size decreased on the Scotian Shelf. Also, more skates are caught by longlines in bottom areas that are considered categorized as rough versus those considered smooth (Sosebee
Generally, thorny skate appear to prefer deeper waters within their range, although the specific depth varies by location and may be impacted by other factors including temperature. Survey data from the inshore waters in the Gulf of Maine stratified by depth indicate catch by trawl survey gear increases sharply in depths greater than 40 meters (m), and peaks at around 95 m. Most individuals are caught between 70 m and the upper depth limit for the survey, 120 m (Sosebee
Thorny skate have been caught at temperatures ranging from −1.4 to 14 °Celsius (C) (McEachran and Musick 1975); however, they have a more narrow thermal range than most sympatric species (Hogan
Seasonal migrations have been noted on the Scotian Shelf and the Grand Banks, but are not well understood (NEFSC 2003). Within the Gulf of St. Lawrence, skates move into deeper waters in November and December and into shallower waters in April and May, with peak numbers present there in late summer and fall (Clay 1991; Darbyson and Benoit 2003). A change in spring and fall distributions results in higher density and concentration of biomass in deeper waters during the spring, corresponding with areas of warmer temperature in Canadian waters (Kulka and Miri 2003). These may be examples of skates seeking out their preferred temperature range.
Few data are available regarding thorny skates' preferred salinity, although catch is highest between 32 and 35 practical salinity units (PSU) (COSEWIC, 2012). In U.S. waters during the spring, they are primarily caught at salinities of 33-34 PSU and in the fall at salinities of 32-35 parts per thousand (ppt), with more than 60 percent at 33 ppt (Packer
Thorny skates eat a varied diet, with smaller skates consuming copepods, krill, polychaete worms and amphipods, and larger skates eating other fish and larger crustaceans including shrimp and crabs (Skjaeraasen and Bergstad 2000; Dolgov 2002). Thorny skate are opportunistic feeders; important fish prey species can include cod, capelin, and redfish (Pedersen 1995; Dolgov 2002). Within the Gulf of Maine, fish make up the majority of the thorny skate diet (Link and Sosebee 2011).
Overall, thorny skate are considered a habitat generalist, found over a wide variety of substrates, depths and temperatures. Thorny skate vary widely in depth preferences over the range of the species (Dolgov
Thorny skate, like other skate, ray and shark species, are relatively slow-growing, late to mature and have low fecundity when compared to bony fishes. An oviparous (egg-laying) species, they reproduce year-round (Kneebone
Lifespan for the species is difficult to estimate, due to the slow growth of the species and limited number of maximum-sized fish available for aging. A limited number of maximum-sized fish may result from fishing and natural mortality or from differential capture rates for different sized skates. Individuals estimated to be up to 16 years of age using vertebral and caudal thorn aging have been observed from the Gulf of Maine (Sulikowski
Total length and length at reproductive maturity vary widely over the species' range. Maximum length and length at maturity (L50) decrease with increases in latitude. Maximum lengths range from 90 cm on the Labrador Shelf to 100-110 cm in the Gulf of Maine (COSEWIC 2012). The smallest L50s were reported farthest north, with female L50 reported at 44-47 cm, and male L50 at 44-50 cm reported for skates caught around Baffin Island on the Labrador Shelf (Templeman 1987). In the Gulf of Maine, L50 for females occurred at approximately 11 years and 87.5 cm; for males, L50 was reached at 10.9 years and 85.6 cm (Sulikowski
Age at maturity was estimated to be 11 years for females and 10.9 years for males. Size and age at maturity for thorny skate were greater and also demonstrated more variability than for sympatric skate species (Sosebee 2005; McPhie and Campana, 2009). Size and maturity were not found to correlate with depth (Templeman 1987).
Overall, thorny skates were found to have the highest potential reproductive rate and predicted population increase when compared to sympatric skate species (McPhie and Campana 2009); this may indicate a greater ability to recover from fishing for thorny skate than for similar species. Reproductive rate is still considered low overall compared to teleost species.
Tagging data from both sides of the Atlantic show thorny skates remaining in or returning to the same area with 85 percent of individuals traveling less than 120 kilometers (km) from their tagging locations (Templeman 1984; Walker
Conventional tagging data have several limitations when it comes to accurately monitoring movement for this species, including that all returns are produced from commercial fishing gear. First, these data rely on recaptures and reporting (commercial/recreational fishermen or surveys may report catch of a tagged fish) and the information obtained is generally limited to the location where the fish was recaptured in relation to where it was originally tagged. Second, the information from conventional tagging is limited by the small number of thorny skates tagged and recaptured. Return rates in the western Atlantic were 14 percent (Templeman 1984) and 25 percent in the eastern Atlantic (Walker
Comparisons with sympatric skate species suggest that the thorny skate has one of the highest levels of haplotype and nucleotide genetic diversity when compared to other western Atlantic skate species, although this can be skewed by some individuals (Coulson
Distribution of genetic diversity did not mirror geographic distribution in the thorny skate, with the center of the range having the highest genetic diversity (Lynghammar
Comparisons of haplotype frequencies between the Northwest and Northeast Atlantic alone indicated that there was a statistically significant difference between haplotype frequencies of thorny skates in these two areas; however, when samples from Greenland were included, the differences in haplotype frequencies among thorny skates from these locations were not statistically significant (Lynghammar
Further work comparing individuals of different sizes from two sites in the Gulf of Maine and two sites in Canadian waters found no significant genetic differences (Tsang
In summary, current information indicates thorny skates in the Northwestern Atlantic comprise a single stock, despite the differences in length and length at maturity. Some genetic differentiation is present between the Northwest Atlantic and Northeast Atlantic, but the center of the range appears to have genetic mixing between these two areas. This is likely made possible by the depth range of the species, which allows for continuous distribution as there are no known barriers to migration.
The best available information regarding population abundance and trends is provided by independent trawl surveys within different regions of the species' range. Trawl surveys underestimate thorny skate abundance, however, because skates are able to escape capture by sliding under the foot rope of trawl gear (Templeman 1984). Capture efficiency varies widely with the configuration of the gear and size of the fish, as well as area (COSEWIC 2012), making it difficult to compare results or pool surveys. In addition, surveys are generally conducted to support fisheries management and are designed for other (commercial) species and thus may not be optimal for estimating skate abundance. In Europe, the areas surveyed do not always overlap with areas of known thorny skate abundance, particularly in deeper waters (Templeman 1984; Walker and Hislop 1998). Across the species' range, available data vary widely in survey gear, timing of surveys, and time series, making comparisons between different areas difficult (COSEWIC 2012).
Trawl surveys are limited in the types of bottom they can survey. For trawls, catch efficiency increases with the smoothness of the bottom. The roughest bottoms may be avoided by survey operators to prevent gear hang-ups. The increase in number and length of skates caught by longline surveys, particularly on rough bottom (Sosebee
The utility of trawl survey data to provide information on the thorny skate is thus limited in two ways: By location, missing an unknown portion of the species' preferred habitat; and by catch efficiency, underestimating the number of skates in surveyed areas. Trawl survey data, therefore, are an index and represent a minimum estimate of overall thorny skate abundance. Trends are still evident from these data but should be viewed with the sampling caveats described above, given the lack of information collected beyond the survey areas and the unknown proportion of individuals in un-trawlable habitat (see Davies and Jonsen 2011).
In U.S. waters, the relative abundance of the thorny skate is measured via NEFSC bottom trawl surveys. The NEFSC trawl survey has been conducted in the autumn from the Gulf of Maine to Southern New England since 1963 as a method of measuring abundance of groundfish for fishery management purposes. A spring survey was started in 1968. The autumn surveys provide a longer time series and are used for stock assessment purposes.
Numbers and catch-per-unit-effort (CPUE; abundance or biomass per tow) of thorny skates caught by this survey have declined over time. After reaching a peak during the 1970s with 5.3 kilogram (kg) per tow (2.9 fish per tow) during the spring survey and 5.9 kg per tow (1.8 fish per tow) in the autumn survey, catch has declined to less than five percent of these maximum levels, with the average current CPUE from 2013-2015 being 0.17 kg/tow (Sosebee
It is important to note that the low efficiency of the gear in capturing skate for these surveys (as described above) indicates minimum abundance and biomass in the survey area, and true abundance and biomass are higher than numbers reflect. Historical survey efforts also likely underestimated thorny skate abundance and biomass. Edwards (1968) estimates the catch efficiency of thorny skates in the NEFSC trawl survey at 0.1. Using this value, the 2015 autumn survey represents an estimated 8,440 mt and 6 million fish within U.S. waters surveyed by NEFSC (Sosebee
Additional surveys in shallow water show similar patterns regarding trends of thorny skate biomass and abundance, or fluctuations without trend. The Massachusetts Division of Marine Fisheries (MADMF) surveys inshore state waters in spring and autumn. Catch of thorny skates is variable in this survey (1978 to 2015) but demonstrates an overall decreasing trend in thorny skate biomass and abundance. The spring index had stabilized around the median of 0.07 kg/tow throughout the 2000s, but has since declined, and none were caught in 2013. The autumn index has generally been below the median of 0.14 kg/tow since 1994. Average length of fish in this survey is variable but tends toward smaller fish (Sosebee
The Maine-New Hampshire Inshore Trawl Survey was established in 2000. This survey is stratified by depth and demonstrates low abundance of thorny skates in the inshore area with little trend over the time series (Sosebee
The Atlantic States Marine Fisheries Commission shrimp survey samples deeper offshore waters within the Gulf of Maine. A decreasing trend is evident here in both abundance and biomass of skate for the duration of the time series (1985-2015); however, recent survey results show stable biomass estimates from 2009-2015. Although average length has varied considerably over the time series (1985-2015), in general it shows a stable trend (Sosebee
Overall, NEFSC bottom trawl surveys indicate that thorny skates are most abundant in the Gulf of Maine and Georges Bank offshore strata regions, with very few fish caught in inshore (<27 m depth), Southern New England, or MA regions (NEFSC 2007, Sosebee
Where data are available, a decrease in abundance has been observed since the 1970s in Canadian waters; however, recent data indicate an increasing or stable trend in Canadian waters. The thorny skate is widely distributed and is the most common skate species in Canadian waters. The amount of decrease varies widely between different regions, varying from 30 percent on the Southern Labrador Shelf to more than 80 percent on the Scotian Shelf between 1977 and 2010 (COSEWIC 2012). Over the same time period, the average individual weight of commercially targeted demersal fish on the Scotian Shelf declined from 41-51 percent with the larger decline being on the eastern portion of the shelf (Zwanenburg 2000). Most Canadian areas saw a decline in abundance of thorny skates between 50-60 percent during this time period (COSEWIC 2012).
From 1990 to 2011, survey abundance has been mostly stable on the Southern Labrador Shelf and Northern Gulf of St. Lawrence, and has increased 61 percent on the Grand Banks (COSEWIC 2012). More recent information is available for the Grand Banks region, where a fishery persists for skates. Biomass in some Northwest Atlantic Fisheries Organization (NAFO) subdivisions has been increasing, but overall abundance and biomass remains at low levels, averaging 33,500 tons (t) (30,391 mt) from 1993 to 2012 (DFO 2013). Biomass of thorny skates overall on the Grand Banks has been stable since 2006 (Simpson
Overall declines in abundance have been higher for larger thorny skates (COSEWIC 2012). In Canadian waters around Newfoundland, mortality for the smallest thorny skates has declined since the 1970s, while mortality has increased for older juveniles and adults in the Gulf of St. Lawrence (Swain
Despite the overall downward trend in abundance of thorny skates within Canadian waters throughout the entire time series, recent (mid to late 1990s to 2012) trends for abundance, biomass, average length, and recruitment rate have been stable and increasing and thorny skates remain numerous. Estimated minimum abundance for Canada in 2010 was more than 188 million individuals, with recent increases in abundance of 61 percent on the Grand Banks (COSEWIC 2012). The true number is likely much higher because of the limitations of sampling gear and sampling locations and depth (as discussed above). Approximately 30-40 percent of the species' range lies within Canadian waters (COSEWIC 2012).
The thorny skate is widely distributed and is the most common skate species in the Northeast Atlantic. Within the Barents Sea, the population abundance was estimated to average 143 million fish and the biomass 95,000 mt during the period 1998 through 2001 (Dolgov
In the North Sea off the coast of Scotland, thorny skates comprise eighty percent of the total skate biomass (Walker and Heeseen 1996; Piet
Some evidence suggests a contraction of the thorny skate's range over time. In Canadian waters, area occupied has remained stable through much of the species' range. Populations off Labrador, north of Newfoundland and on the St. Pierre Bank have all remained stable. Areas south of Newfoundland and St. Pierre Bank have experienced a decline in area occupied. On the Grand Banks, area occupied has decreased approximately 50 percent from a high of almost 60,000 km
On the Scotian Shelf, area occupancy has declined steadily over the time series, by 58 percent since 1970-1972, and 66 percent since 1974-1976 (when it occupied 150,000 km
Within the United States, NEFSC bottom trawl surveys show an approximately 75 percent decrease in number of total tows containing skate from 1965 to 2008. There is an upward trend in the number of positive tows since 2008. There are several distribution indicators of possible contractions or expansions in distribution, such as positive tows, the Gini index (a measure indicating deviation from equal spatial distribution), and design-weighted area of occupancy, which takes into account
An example of this is the design-weighted area of occupancy from the spring and fall NEFSC surveys, which incorporate a stratified random survey design (Kulka 2012). This index takes into account the area swept by the tows and the proportion of positive tows (Swain
Abundance of the thorny skate has declined since the highs of the 1970s. The areas of greatest decline have been along the southern portion of their range, including U.S. waters and Canadian waters of the Scotian shelf. Abundance has declined by up to 80 or 95 percent in these areas (COSEWIC 2012), although recent surveys show the number of thorny skates in these areas are stable or slightly increasing (Sosebee
Biomass has also decreased, in part due to decreased abundance but also due to high average adult mortality. Recent biomass estimates indicate stabilization (at low levels) or increasing trends in some regions (COSEWIC 2012; Sosebee
As described above, the ESA's definition of “species” includes “any subspecies of fish or wildlife or plants, and any distinct population segment of any species of vertebrate fish or wildlife which interbreeds when mature.” The term “distinct population segment” is not recognized in the scientific literature and is not defined in the ESA or its implementing regulations. Therefore, the Services adopted a joint policy for recognizing DPSs under the ESA (DPS Policy; 61 FR 4722) on February 7, 1996. Congress has instructed the Secretaries of Interior and Commerce to exercise this authority with regard to DPSs “ * * * . . . sparingly and only when biological evidence indicates such an action is warranted.” The DPS Policy requires the consideration of two elements when evaluating whether a vertebrate population segment qualifies as a DPS under the ESA: (1) The discreteness of the population segment in relation to the remainder of the species or subspecies to which it belongs; and (2) the significance of the population segment to the species or subspecies to which it belongs.
A population segment of a vertebrate species may be discrete if it satisfies either one of the following conditions: (1) It is markedly separated from other populations of the same taxon (an organism or group of organisms) as a result of physical, ecological, or behavioral factors. Quantitative measures of genetic or morphological discontinuity may provide evidence of this separation; or (2) it is delimited by international governmental boundaries within which differences in control of exploitation, management of habitat, conservation status, or regulatory mechanisms exist that are significant in light of section 4(a)(1)(D) of the ESA (
The petition from AWI and DW requested that we list a “Northwest Atlantic DPS” of the thorny skate as threatened or endangered under the ESA, or, as an alternative, a “United States DPS” as threatened or endangered under the ESA.
In May 2016, we convened an ERA workshop with thorny skate experts. The workshop participants provided individual expert opinions regarding the available information to assess whether there are any thorny skate population segments that satisfy the DPS criteria of both discreteness and significance. Data relevant to the discreteness question included physical, ecological, behavioral, tagging, and genetic data. As described above, the thorny skate is widely distributed across the Northern Atlantic, without any significant known gaps or barriers in the species range (COSEWIC 2012) or between the Northwest and Northeast Atlantic. Likewise, populations are considered contiguous between the United States and Canada.
Conventional tagging data suggest that individual movement is limited (Templeman 1984; Walker
As highlighted in the DPS Policy, quantitative measures of morphological discontinuity or differentiation can serve as evidence of marked separation of populations. No genetic difference was detected between thorny skates caught within Canadian versus U.S. waters (Tsang
In summary, current information indicates thorny skates in the North Atlantic comprise a single species, despite the differences in age and length at maturity. Some genetic differentiation is present between the Northwest Atlantic and Northeast Atlantic, but the center of the range bridges genetic diversity between these two areas, indicating that there is mixing and gene flow across the range. This is likely made possible by the continuous distribution and depth range of the species, as there are no known physical barriers to migration. Morphological differences in thorny skate populations are limited to body size and age at maturity. Comparisons of individuals of different sizes from two sites in the Gulf of Maine and two sites in Canadian waters found no significant genetic differences (Tsang
Thorny skates are habitat generalists. None of the populations appear to occur in an ecological setting unusual or unique for the taxon. Thorny skates are well distributed throughout the Atlantic; there is no population that represents the only surviving natural occurrence of the taxon. Thorny skates do not exist as an introduced population outside their historical range.
A population can be determined to be discrete if it is delimited by international governmental boundaries within which differences in control of exploitation, management of habitat, conservation status, or regulatory mechanisms exist that are significant in light of section 4(a)(1)(D) of the ESA. A directed fishery for thorny skates is permitted in the central portion of the species' range comprising the area of the Grand Banks in Canadian waters, as well as Iceland and Greenland. Landings of thorny skates are prohibited in the extreme western (U.S.) and eastern (U.K. eastward) portions of the species' range. In most shallow water areas across the species' range, thorny skates undergo some form of fishing mortality because they are a common bycatch species. There are some differences in management in the Northwestern Atlantic (by the Northwest Atlantic Fisheries Organization (NAFO) and the Northeastern Atlantic (by ICES). In 2004, the NAFO Fisheries Commission set a total allowable catch (TAC) of 13,500 mt for 2005-2009 in Division 3 LNO. This TAC was lowered by NAFO to 12,000 mt for 2010-2011, and to 8,500 mt for 2012. The TAC was further reduced to 7,000 mt for 2013, 2014, 2015 (Simpson
Within U.S. waters, thorny skates are managed under the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (MSA). Landings of thorny skates within U.S. waters were unregulated until 2003 when the New England Fishery Management Council (NEFMC) established a Fishery Management Plan (FMP) for the skate complex. In 2003, the stock was deemed “overfished” and a landing prohibition was put in place, requiring all catch of thorny skates to be discarded at sea. Compliance with the prohibition against landing thorny and other skates is examined via port sampling. While thorny skates are still considered overfished within the United States, overfishing is no longer occurring (NEFMC 2009), indicating that fishery management measures are successfully controlling fishing mortality in those waters.
Under the Fisheries Act, Canadian fisheries may take thorny skates as bycatch in other fisheries, and a small directed fishery still operates on the Grand Banks. Available information suggests that catch is well below the total allowable catch limits as set by NAFO and Canada, indicating fishing mortality is controlled (Simpson
Throughout its range, thorny skates cross international governmental boundaries. There are regulatory mechanisms in place across the species' range with respect to conserving and recovering the thorny skate. While there are regulatory differences in different parts of its range, when evaluated as described further below in the Inadequacy of Existing Regulatory Mechanisms section, these regulatory mechanisms are adequate and the effects on thorny skates are similar. These mechanisms include regulating directed catch and bycatch, and result in effective management of the harvest of thorny skates throughout their range.
In summary, thorny skates rangewide exhibit genetic continuity between the Northwest and Northeast Atlantic through a high degree of diversity in the center of their range, a lack of significant differences in control of exploitation, management of habitat, conservation status, or regulatory mechanisms across international borders. We have determined that neither thorny skates in the United States nor thorny skates in the Northwest Atlantic are discrete from thorny skates throughout the rest of the North Atlantic.
The workshop participants provided their individual expert opinions regarding the best available information related to the discreteness criterion for thorny skates. Upon our review of their individual analyses and the DPS policy, we have concluded that there are no populations of the thorny skate that are discrete. Because we do not find any populations that are discrete, we do not go on to the second element of the DPS criteria (significance). Therefore, none of the segments suggested by the petitioners (
The ESA (section 3) defines endangered species as “any species which is in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range.” A threatened species is “any species which is likely to become an endangered species within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range.” We consider the best available information and apply professional judgment in evaluating the level of risk faced by a species in deciding whether the species is currently in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range (endangered) or likely to become so in the foreseeable future (threatened). We evaluate both demographic risks, such as low abundance and productivity, and threats to the species, including those related to the factors specified by the ESA sections 4(a)(1)(A)-(E).
As described above, we convened a workshop of invited experts to provide individual input regarding extinction risk to the species. This section discusses the methods used to evaluate demographic factors, threats, and overall extinction risk to the species now and in the foreseeable future. For this assessment, the term “foreseeable future” was defined as 40 years. The workshop participants reviewed other comparable assessments (which used generation times of either one or two generations) and provided their expert opinions on the appropriate timeframe for the thorny skate. Each of the workshop participants considered thorny skate generation time (16 years), the ability to predict population trends, climate-modeling predictions, and the time for management actions to be realized and reflected in abundance trends when considering a foreseeable future timeline. The individual workshop participants determined that, for the thorny skate, there was reasonable confidence across this time-period (40 years) that the information on threats and management is accurate. We agree that, because of the factors listed above, this is a reasonable definition of “foreseeable future” for the thorny skate, and we use the same definition here.
Often the ability to measure or document risk factors is limited, and information is not quantitative or very often is lacking altogether. Therefore, in assessing risk, it is important to include both qualitative and quantitative information. In previous NMFS status reviews, Biological Review Teams have used a risk matrix method, described in detail by Wainwright and Kope (1999), to organize and summarize the professional judgement of a panel of knowledgeable scientists. The approach of considering demographic risk factors to help frame the consideration of extinction risk has been used in many of our status reviews (see
Using these concepts, the workshop participants each evaluated demographic risks by individually assigning a risk score to each of the four demographic criteria (abundance, growth rate/productivity, spatial structure/connectivity, diversity). The scoring for the demographic risk criteria corresponded to the following values: 1—very low risk, 2—low risk, 3—moderate risk, 4—high risk, and 5—very high risk. A demographic factor (or viable population descriptor) was ranked very low if it was unlikely that this descriptor contributed significantly to risk of extinction, either by itself or in combination with other viable population descriptors. A factor was ranked low risk if it was unlikely that this descriptor contributed significantly to long-term or near future risk of extinction by itself, but there was some concern that it may, in combination with other viable population descriptors. A factor was ranked moderate risk if this descriptor contributed significantly to long-term risk of extinction, but did not in itself constitute a danger of extinction in the near future. A factor was ranked high risk if this descriptor contributed significantly to long-term risk of extinction and was likely to contribute to short-term risk of extinction in the near future, and a factor was ranked very high risk if this descriptor by itself indicated danger of extinction in the near future.
Each workshop participant scored each demographic factor individually. Each workshop participant identified other demographic factors and/or threats that would work in combination with factors ranked in the higher categories to increase risk to the species. During the workshop, the participants provided their expert opinions for each of the demographic risks, including considerations outlined in McElhany
Each workshop participant also performed a threats assessment for the thorny skate by evaluating the impact that a particular threat was currently having on the extinction risk of the species. Threats considered included habitat destruction, modification, or curtailment; overutilization; disease or predation; inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; and other natural or manmade threats, because these are the five factors identified in section 4(a)(1) of the ESA. Workshop participants each ranked the threats for the thorny skate at a range-wide scale. The workshop participants used the “likelihood point” (FEMAT) method to allow individuals to express uncertainty in determining the contribution to extinction risk of each threat to the species. Each workshop participant was allotted five likelihood points to rank each threat. Workshop participants individually ranked the severity of each threat through the allocation of these five likelihood points across five ranking criteria ranging from a score of “very low contribution” to “very high contribution.” The scoring for the threats correspond to the following values: 1—very low contribution, 2—low contribution, 3—moderate contribution, 4—high contribution, and 5—very high contribution. A threat was given a rank of very low if it is unlikely that this threat contributes significantly to risk of extinction, either by itself or in combination with other threats. That is, it is unlikely that the threat will have population-level impacts that reduce the viability of the species. A threat was ranked as low contribution if it is unlikely that this threat contributes significantly to long-term or near future risk of extinction by itself, but there is some concern that it may, in combination with other threats. A threat was ranked as medium contribution if this threat contributes significantly to long-term risk of extinction, but does not in itself constitute a danger of extinction in the near future. A threat was ranked high contribution if this threat contributes significantly to long-
Similar to the demographic parameters, the workshop participants were asked to identify other threat(s) and/or demographic factor(s) that may interact to increase the species' extinction risk. The workshop participants also considered the ranking with respect to the interactions with other factors and threats. For example, workshop participants identified that threats due to the inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms may interact with the threat of overutilization and slow population growth rates (a demographic factor) to increase the risk extinction.
Workshop participants were asked to rank the effect that the threat was currently having on the extinction risk of the species. Each workshop participant could allocate all five likelihood points to one ranking criterion or distribute the likelihood points across several ranking criteria to account for any uncertainty. Each individual workshop participant distributed the likelihood points as she/he deemed appropriate with the condition that all five likelihood points had to be used for each threat. Workshop participants also had the option of ranking the threat as “0” to indicate that, in their opinion, there was insufficient data to assign a score, or “N/A” if in their opinion the threat was not relevant to the species either throughout its range or for individual stock complexes. When a workshop participant chose either N/A (Not Applicable) or 0 (Unknown) for a threat, all five likelihood points had to be assigned to that category only.
During the group discussion, the workshop participants were asked to identify other threat(s) or demographic factor(s) that were interacting with the threats or demographic factors to increase the species' extinction risk. As scores were provided by individual workshop participants, each individual stated his or her expert opinion regarding each of the threats, and the supporting data on which it was based. We considered these along with the demographic scores in our overall risk assessment.
The workshop participants were then asked to use their informed professional judgment to individually qualitatively score overall extinction risk for the thorny skate. The results of the demographic risks analysis and threats assessment, described below, informed this ranking. For this analysis, the workshop participants used three levels of extinction risk, consistent with the NMFS (2016) listing guidance: Low risk, moderate risk, and high risk. Low risk was defined as: “A species or DPS is at low risk of extinction if it is not at moderate or high level of extinction risk (see “Moderate risk” and “High risk”). A species or DPS may be at low risk of extinction if it is not facing threats that result in declining trends in abundance, productivity, spatial structure, or diversity. A species or DPS at low risk of extinction is likely to show stable or increasing trends in abundance and productivity with connected, diverse populations.” Moderate risk was defined as: “A species or DPS is at moderate risk of extinction if it is on a trajectory that puts it at a high level of extinction risk in the foreseeable future (see description of “High risk”). A species or DPS may be at moderate risk of extinction due to projected threats or declining trends in abundance, productivity, spatial structure, or diversity. The appropriate time horizon for evaluating whether a species or DPS will be at high risk in the foreseeable future depends on various case- and species-specific factors. For example, the time horizon may reflect certain life history characteristics (
The workshop participants adopted the “likelihood point” method for ranking the overall risk of extinction to allow individual workshop participants to express uncertainty. For this approach, each workshop participant distributed 10 `likelihood points' among the extinction risk categories (that is, each workshop participant had 10 points to distribute among the three extinction risk categories). Uncertainty is expressed by assigning points to different risk categories. For example, a workshop participant would assign all 10 points to the `low risk' category if he/she was certain that the definition for `low risk' was met. However, he/she might assign a small number of points to the `moderate risk' category and the majority to the `low risk' category if there was a low level of uncertainty regarding the risk level. The more points assigned to one particular category, the higher the level of certainty. This approach has been used in previous NMFS status reviews (
The workshop participants did not make recommendations as to whether the species should be listed as threatened or endangered. Rather, the workshop participants drew scientific conclusions about the overall risk of extinction faced by the thorny skate under present conditions and in the foreseeable future (as noted above, defined as 40 years) based on his/her evaluation of the species' demographic risks and assessment of threats.
The workshop participants identified several threats in the low to moderate category for contribution to extinction risk, including: Climate change, manmade non-fishing habitat impacts, commercial discards, commercial landings, global and national climate regulation, and inadequacy of existing NAFO regulations. Both climate change and global or national climate change regulations received the most likelihood points in the moderate contribution to extinction risk category. Only one threat, climate change, received likelihood points in the high contribution category, but the majority of points were in the low to moderate category. We summarize the threats to the thorny skate and provide the workshop participants' expert opinions on their degree of contribution to extinction risk.
Within the Northwest Atlantic, the species' range from Greenland south is a mixing zone for different currents. The Labrador Current flows down the inner shelf, bringing cooler and fresher water from the north, which flows down over the ocean shelves, including the Grand Banks, Scotian Shelf, Georges Bank and into the Gulf of Maine. Meanwhile, the Gulf Stream in deeper offshore waters brings warmer, saltier water up from the south (Saba
In U.S. waters, the thorny skate has experienced a relatively high amount of range contraction as measured during NEFSC surveys. A small but statistically significant northward shift in range, and increased concentration in deeper waters has been detected (Nye
There is no information regarding the impacts of ocean acidification on the thorny skate. However, a study on the sympatric little skate,
Since climate change impacts are expected to shift species distributions northward and impact species diversity, recent studies have focused on the impacts of climate change to fish community assemblages, particularly on species richness and diversity. Some impacts have been observed for “coastal” or shallow water communities (<200 m/656 ft in depth) in the Gulf of St. Lawrence (Tamdrari
There is some evidence that suggests the species is shifting to deeper waters. Thorny skates comprised 7.97 percent of fish in the “coastal” species assemblage (<200m) in the early 1990s and only 5.58 percent on average from 2004-2010 in the Gulf of St. Lawrence. In the deeper species assemblage (>200m) they went from 3.71 percent in the early 1990s to 4.52 percent averaged from 2004-2010 (Tamdrari
Recent climate vulnerability analyses have been performed for fish species in the Northeast United States and for fish assemblages on the Scotian Shelf in Canada. Despite having similar methodologies, these studies came to different conclusions regarding the vulnerability of thorny skates to climate change. Stortini
Hare
While thorny skates in U.S. waters are at high risk for being impacted by climate change (likely to manifest as loss of cold water habitat in U.S. waters), the best available information indicates that throughout most of the range, the generalist habitat requirements of the thorny skate will limit impacts of climate change. This conclusion is supported by studies on species diversity that indicate impacts to species assemblages have not yet occurred on communities including the thorny skate, due to its depth preferences (Stefansdottir
Ocean temperature changes due to climate change may be contributing to a contraction of the thorny skate's range at its southern edges. Thorny skates appear to have comparatively low exposure to potentially harmful pollutants, and there is no information suggesting their individual fitness or populations are threatened by pollution. The mean score we calculated based on the workshop participants' individual scores indicates that climate change and non-fishing related modifications to habitat (
Thorny skates were and are taken as bycatch by fisheries throughout their range, including those in the North Sea, Barents Sea, Gulf of St. Lawrence and on the Canadian and U.S. continental shelves. Targeted fisheries, particularly by foreign fleets including those of Spain, Portugal and Russia, developed in the 1990s (COSEWIC 2012; Sosebee
Total landings for all skate species within U.S. waters reached 9,462 mt in 1969 and declined after that, reaching a low of 847 mt in 1981 (Sosebee
In 2003, the NEFMC implemented a FMP for the seven skates present within the Gulf of Maine. The FMP prohibited landings of thorny skates as the stock status was considered overfished (NEFMC 2009). The limited information regarding species biomass required the NEFSC to develop survey-based overfished and overfishing reference points for the thorny skate: “Thorny skate is in an overfished condition when the three-year moving average of the autumn survey mean weight-per-tow is less than one half of the 75th percentile of the mean weight-per-tow observed in the autumn trawl survey from the selected reference time series. Overfishing occurs when the three year moving average of the autumn survey mean weight per tow declines 20% or more, or when the autumn survey mean weight per tow declines for three consecutive years. The reference points and selected time series may be re-specified through a peer reviewed process and/or as updated stock assessments are completed
The MSA states: “A stock or stock complex is considered “overfished” when its biomass has declined below a level that jeopardizes the capacity of the stock or stock complex to produce Maximum Sustainable Yield (MSY) on a continuing basis. MSY is defined as the largest long-term average catch or yield that can be taken from a stock or stock complex.” The overfished/overfishing status of a stock is determined relative to its ability to produce continued yield from a fishery. The overfished status of thorny skates within the United States means that fishing mortality rates (including past landings and discards) have been too high, and caused the population to decline below acceptable levels. The stock must be rebuilt to biomass levels that can produce MSY for a fishery to be sustainable. The prohibition on harvest in U.S. waters is expected to help the stock rebuild. This means any thorny skates caught within U.S. waters must be discarded at sea.
Estimated thorny skate discards are low relative to other skates (Sosebee
Thorny skates comprise the majority of skates caught in commercial fisheries in Canada. The majority of thorny skate catch comes from the coast of Labrador and Newfoundland, including the Grand Banks area. This has ranged from a high of approximately 24,000 mt in the early 1990s to current levels around 6,000 mt. Relative fishing mortality has remained stable (1985- 2009) in this area at approximately ten percent (COSEWIC 2012).
Within the southern Gulf of St. Lawrence, estimated landings of thorny skates peaked in 1994 at approximately 38 t, and have since decreased to an average 1-2.7 t over the period 2006-2011(Benoit 2013). The thorny skate is the most common discarded skate species. On average, 490 t were discarded in the early 1990s, this dropped to 53.7 t on average over the period 2006 -2011 (Benoit 2013). While the majority of discards in the past came from trawl fisheries, currently half are from trawl and half from the gillnet fishery for Greenland halibut (Benoit 2013). Overall fishing effort in this area has declined or remained stable since the 1990s (COSEWIC 2012).
The only remaining directed fishery for the thorny skate is executed within the Grand Banks Area. This area is managed between two areas, 3Ps directly south of Newfoundland and entirely within the Canadian Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), and divisions 3LNO, which comprise the outer banks, some of which lies outside the Canadian EEZ. Quota regulation within the EEZ was enacted in 1995 (Simpson
There is little directed fishing effort on thorny skates across most of the Northeast Atlantic, with a prohibition against landings currently in place in European Union waters in the Barents Sea and east of the United Kingdom (ICES 2015). There is a small fishery landing thorny skates from Iceland and Greenland. Landings here have increased but still remain below 2,000 mt, or about half that of Canada's yearly landings.
The available information indicates that current thorny skate populations are numerous in many areas and that area occupied is increasing. While the portion of the population within the United States is not currently capable of sustaining a fishery, fisheries for thorny skates are well-controlled throughout the range. Fishing mortality relative to biomass has decreased across the range through time, and is currently rather low in most areas. The mean score we calculated based on the workshop participants' individual scores indicate that commercial landings across the range of the species present a
We have also considered the best available information on the mortality rates of thorny skates that are discarded (
Regarding predation, there is no indication that this species would be threatened by excessive predation pressure. Egg capsules for the species are reportedly preyed upon by halibut, Greenland shark and goosefish (Collette and Klein-MacPhee 2002). Gastropods may also predate on egg cases, with a predicted predation frequency ranging from 4 to 18 percent (Cox
Skates, including thorny skates, are prey for a number of species: Flounder, other skates, seabirds, marine mammals, sharks, cod and other large demersal fishes, with the last being the most important (Morissette
Thorny skates are at least a minor source of prey for gray seals, composing up to 6 percent of their diet depending on age and season (Beck
Predation by gray seals may have increased within the range of the thorny skate. Gray seal populations have recovered during the same time period of decreasing mortality for small thorny skates. Numbering only 15,000 individuals in the 1960s, the gray seal population increased to 350,000 by 2007. In 2014, the population estimate within the Canadian range and Gulf of Maine had increased to 505,000 (Hamill
Gray seals stay mostly local (within 50 km) to haul-out sites and forage in mostly shallow depths (~100 m) (McConnell
Harp seals migrate to the Gulf of St. Lawrence to whelp before returning to Artic waters on the overlapping range of thorny skate. They migrate along the coast of Labrador and Greenland northward. Small numbers of harp seals may remain year-round in southern waters, with the majority living in the Artic. Currently there is no evidence that thorny skates comprise more than an incidental portion of the harp seal diet. Harp seal reproductive rates decreased in the latest assessment, with 8.3 million individuals estimated in 2008 and 7.7 million estimated in 2012 (DFO 2012). Harp seal predation on thorny skates is likely stable or slightly decreasing and centered around whelping sites.
Modeling indicates marine mammal predation may contribute to high natural mortality of adult thorny skates in some discrete areas, suppressing recovery of their populations (DFO 2012). For now, high levels of recruitment in small skates are still evident despite this pressure. Recent abundance of thorny skates has also been stable in areas where marine mammal populations are centered. The recent population increase of gray seals in U.S. waters and coinciding stabilization of thorny skate abundance indices suggests that seal predation was not likely responsible for thorny skate declines. The mean score we calculated based on the workshop participants' individual scores indicates that predation represents a
Within U.S. waters, thorny skates are managed under the MSA. Landings of thorny skates within U.S. waters were unregulated until 2003 when the NEFMC established an FMP for the skate complex. At that time, the stock was deemed “overfished” and a landing prohibition was put in place, requiring all catch of thorny skates to be discarded at sea. At that time, the same prohibitions were put into place for the sympatric species, barndoor and smooth skates, to help rebuild these stocks. The skate complex FMP does still allow catch of other skate species, and other fisheries may also catch thorny skates but are likewise required to discard them.
MSA regulations are enforced in U.S. waters by the U.S. Coast Guard, NOAA's Office of Law Enforcement and state partners. Fishermen who do not comply with regulations established under the MSA are subject to fines and criminal penalties, depending on the severity of the offense. Compliance with the prohibition against landing thorny and other skates was examined via port sampling. In 2005, 3.61 percent of skate wing landings were identified as thorny skate. In the years since, this declined rapidly with less than 1 percent of wings identified as thorny skate in 2007, and further declined to 0.01 percent in 2012, indicating that compliance with the discard regulations and misidentifications or mislabeling is not an issue in the United States (Curtis and Sosebee 2015). While the thorny skate is still considered overfished within the United States, overfishing is no longer occurring (NEFMC 2009), indicating that fishery management measures are successfully controlling fishing mortality in those waters.
Under the Fisheries Act, Canadian fisheries may take thorny skates as bycatch in other fisheries, and a small, directed fishery still operates on the Grand Banks. Available information suggests that catch is well below the total allowable catch limits as set by NAFO and Canada, indicating fishing mortality is controlled (Simpson
There is a prohibition against landing thorny skates from European Union waters in the Barents Sea and east of the United Kingdom (ICES 2015). A very small fishery exists in Iceland and off East Greenland, where survey numbers have remained stable since 2000 (ICES 2015). With populations within the Northeast Atlantic currently considered stable (ICES 2015), existing regulatory measures appear sufficient to control fishing mortality within this region. Iceland reported 1625 t of thorny skate landings in 2014. A 2016 EU regulation prohibits thorny skate landings in EU waters of ICES divisions IIa, IIIa and VIId and ICES subarea IV Subareas II and IV and Division IIIa (Norwegian Sea, North Sea, Skagerrak, and Kattegat), based on ICES advice that a precautionary approach dictates no targeted fishing and measures to reduce bycatch. ICES advice for this species west of the UK is currently pending. Thorny skates taken from these EU waters are counted under a regional EU skate quota that lacks a robust scientific basis. EU limits on these species have been generally trending toward more precautionary over the last decade.
Legal protections for thorny skates vary between outright prohibitions on landings in the United States and much of the Northeast Atlantic, with limited fishing permitted in Canada and Iceland. While thorny skates are also a bycatch species within many fisheries, stable population numbers indicate existing protections are sufficient through its range. The mean score we calculated based on workshop participants' individual scores for both global/national climate change regulations and NAFO fishing regulations indicate that inadequacy of these regulations represents a
The workshop participants individually evaluated the available information on other potential threats as summarized in the status review report. Natural threats focused on the thorny skate's inherent biological vulnerability, which is also reflected in the demographic factors described above. The species has low productivity because of its life history characteristics and is vulnerable to exploitation and population perturbations. Populations can be quickly depleted and take many years to recover. However, their mobility, high genetic diversity, and generalist habitat and diet strategy contribute to a low risk of extinction. The mean scores we calculated based on workshop participants' individual scores indicate that both manmade catastrophic events and stochastic events represent
Both demographic factors and threats were qualitatively ranked on a scale from very low to very high by the workshop participants (NMFS 2017). No demographic factors or threats were ranked high or very high. Abundance, diversity and spatial structure/connectivity were ranked very low to low, and growth rate/productivity was ranked low to moderate risk. For the workshop participants' threats assessments, both climate change and global or national climate change regulations received the most likelihood points in the moderate contribution to extinction risk category. Only one threat, climate change, received likelihood points in the high contribution category, though the majority of points were in the moderate contribution category. No threats considered by workshop participants were given an overall average score of medium, high or very high contributions to extinction risk of thorny skate. All workshop participants placed their individual point allocations in the very low contribution to extinction risk category for the following threats: Recreational fishing, recreational discards, educational collection, and stochastic events.
The only demographic factor ranked above low was growth rate/productivity (low to moderate risk). The thorny skate's life history traits make the populations vulnerable to threats and slow to recover from depletion. Once we compiled the individual workshop participant scores and calculated the mean score, only six threats were ranked in the low to moderate category, all others were in the very low to low categories. The threats ranked low to moderate included: Climate change,
As described previously, the workshop participants used a “likelihood analysis” to evaluate the overall risk of extinction. Each workshop participant had 10 likelihood points to distribute among the following overall extinction risk categories: Low risk, moderate risk or high risk.
Overall, the mean scores we calculated based on the workshop participants' individual scores indicate that rangewide, thorny skates have a 93.3 percent likelihood of being at low risk of extinction, 6.6 percent likelihood of moderate risk of extinction, and 0 percent likelihood of high risk of extinction.
The mean scores we calculated based on the workshop participants' individual scores indicate that, overall, the thorny skate is at low risk of extinction. None of the workshop participants indicated that there was any likelihood of the thorny skate having a high risk of extinction. Additionally, there was very little likelihood of a moderate risk of extinction (4 points out of 60 total).
Thorny skates have been subjected to considerable fishing pressure for many decades, but improved fisheries management efforts in recent years have reduced fishing mortality rates on thorny skate stocks, and populations are no longer declining. Return to historical abundance may take decades, but demographic risks are mostly low and significant threats have been reduced. Based upon the available information summarized here, the mean scores we calculated based on the workshop participants' individual scores indicate that the thorny skate has a low risk of extinction, assuming the dominant threats to its populations continue to be managed. We have no reason to believe that these dominant threats will not continue to be managed.
We have independently reviewed the best available scientific and commercial information, including the status review report (NMFS 2017) and other published and unpublished information. We conclude that the thorny skate is not in danger of extinction or likely to become so in the foreseeable future throughout its range. As described earlier, an endangered species is “any species which is in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range” and a threatened species is one “which is likely to become an endangered species within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range.” The workshop participants individually ranked the demographic criteria and the five factors identified in the ESA, completed an assessment of overall extinction risk, and each submitted his/her individual expert opinions to us. We reviewed the results of the ERA and concurred with the workshop participant's individual expert opinions regarding extinction risk. We then applied the statutory definitions of “threatened species” and “endangered species” to the ERA results and other available information to determine if listing the thorny skate was warranted.
The mean scores we calculated based on the ERA workshop participant scores indicate that the level of extinction risk to the thorny skate is low, with 93.3 percent of the workshop participants' likelihood points allocated to the “low risk” category. The workshop participants allocated only 6.6 percent of their likelihood points to the “moderate extinction risk” category. Given this low level of extinction risk, which is based on an evaluation of the contribution of the thorny skate's demographic parameters and threats to extinction risk, we have determined that the thorny skate does not meet the definition of an endangered or threatened species and, as such, listing under the ESA is not warranted at this time.
Though we find that the thorny skate rangewide is not in danger of extinction now or in the foreseeable future, under the SPR Policy, we must go on to evaluate whether these species are in danger of extinction, or likely to become so in the foreseeable future, in a “significant portion of its range” (79 FR 37578; July 1, 2014).
When we conduct an SPR analysis, we first identify any portions of the range that warrant further consideration. The range of a species can theoretically be divided into portions in an infinite number of ways. However, there is no purpose to analyzing portions of the range that are not reasonably likely to be significant or in which a species may not be endangered or threatened. To identify only those portions that warrant further consideration, we determine whether there is substantial information indicating that (1) the portions may be significant and (2) the species may be in danger of extinction in those portions or likely to become so within the foreseeable future. We emphasize that answering these questions in the affirmative is not a determination that the species is endangered or threatened throughout a significant portion of its range—rather, it is a step in determining whether a more detailed analysis of the issue is required (79 FR 37578; July 1, 2014). Making this preliminary determination triggers a need for further review, but does not prejudge whether the portion actually meets these standards such that the species should be listed.
If this preliminary determination identifies a particular portion or portions for potential listing, those portions are then fully evaluated under the “significant portion of its range” authority as to whether the portion is
The SPR policy further explains that, depending on the particular facts of each situation, we may find it is more efficient to address the significance issue first, but in other cases, it will make more sense to examine the status of the species in the potentially significant portions first. Whichever question is asked first, an affirmative answer is required to proceed to the second question.
As described previously, we determined that there are no DPSs of the thorny skate, and rangewide, the thorny skate is at a low risk of extinction. Applying the SPR policy to the thorny skate, we first evaluated whether there is substantial information indicating that any portions of the species' range may be significant. After a review of the best available information and invited experts' opinions, as described below, we find that the data do not indicate any portion of the thorny skate's range as being more significant than another. Thorny skates are distributed across the North Atlantic and have very few restrictions governing their movements. Movements are restricted by depth and temperature; however, there are no known gaps in suitable habitat, thus allowing a continuous range. Because the Northwest Atlantic and the Northeast Atlantic are the two largest portions of the species' range, the workshop participants individually considered the SPR questions related to abundance, productivity, spatial distribution, and diversity outlined in the NMFS listing guidance. As explained below, we determined that neither the Northwest Atlantic nor the Northeast Atlantic were significant portions. Given that neither the Northwest Atlantic nor the Northeast Atlantic represents a significant portion of the range, we do not find that thorny skate in U.S. waters represent a significant portion of the range of the thorny skate. The following questions related to significance of portions were considered:
• Without that portion, would the level of abundance of the remainder of the species cause the species to be at moderate or high risk of extinction due to environmental variation or anthropogenic perturbations (of the patterns and magnitudes observed in the past and expected in the future)?
• Without that portion, would the abundance of the remainder of the species be so low, or variability in abundance so high, that it would be at moderate or high risk of extinction due to depensatory processes?
• Without that portion, would abundance of the remainder of the species be so low that its genetic diversity would be at risk due to inbreeding depression, loss of genetic variation, or fixation of deleterious alleles?
• Without that portion, would abundance of the remainder of the species be so low that it would be at moderate or high risk of extinction due to its inability to provide important ecological functions throughout its life-cycle?
• Without that portion, would the abundance of the remainder of the species be so low that it would be at risk due to demographic stochasticity?
• Without that portion, would the average population growth rate of the remainder of the species be below replacement such that it would be at moderate or high risk of satisfying the abundance conditions described above?
• Without that portion, would the average population growth rate of the remainder of the species be below replacement such that it is unable to exploit requisite habitats/niches/etc. or at risk due to depensatory processes during any life-history stage?
• Without that portion, would the remainder of the species exhibit trends or shifts in demographic or reproductive traits that portend declines in the per capita growth rate, which pose a risk of satisfying any of the preceding conditions?
• Will the loss of one or more of the portions significantly increase the risk of extinction to the species as a whole by making the species more vulnerable to catastrophic events such as storms, disease or temperature anomalies?
• Will connectivity between portions of the species' range be maintained if a portion is lost (
• Are there particular habitat types that the species occupies that are only found in certain portions of the species' range? If so, would these habitat types be accessible if a portion or portions of the range of the species are lost?
• Are threats to the species concentrated in particular portions of the species' range and if so, do these threats pose an increased risk of extinction to those portions' persistence?
• Will unique genetic diversity be lost if a portion of the range of the species is lost?
• Does the loss of this genetic diversity pose an increased risk of extinction to the species?
As described more fully in the status review report and below, the workshop participants individually answered “no” to all of the abundance, productivity and diversity questions related to whether the Northwest Atlantic or the Northeast Atlantic portion represent a significant portion of the species' range. One workshop participant answered “yes” to two spatial distribution questions.
Given estimates of 1.8 billion animals in Northwest Atlantic waters, which represent 30-40 percent of the overall population, loss of the Northwest Atlantic population would have a large impact on the species rangewide, but would not put the species at a moderate or high risk of extinction because of the remaining large population size and wide geographic distribution. When considering productivity, the group noted that the average growth rate for the species does not depend on the growth rate in the Northwest Atlantic and vice versa for the Northeast Atlantic and that the areas do not exhibit source-sink dynamics. There was no evidence that without either area the average population growth rate of the remainder of the species would drop below replacement, resulting in the population being unable to exploit requisite habitat, nor was there any evidence that the remainder of the species would be at risk due to depensatory processes. Regarding shifts in demographic or reproductive traits, the group could not identify evidence that a decline in the Northwest Atlantic would result in a decline in the Northeast Atlantic. Given the large spatial distribution of the thorny skate and the foreseeable future of 40 years, the group could not identify a stochastic event that could impact the entire Northwest Atlantic or Northeast Atlantic distribution of the thorny skate. There is no information to suggest that loss of any portion would severely fragment and isolate the species to the point where individuals would be precluded from moving to suitable habitats or have an increased vulnerability to threats. The loss of either the Northwest Atlantic population or the Northeast Atlantic population would result in the loss of connectivity rangewide, given that it is a continuous population. However, loss of the Northwest Atlantic population would not affect spatial connectivity of the Northeast Atlantic population and vice versa. Some genetic differentiation is present between the Northwest and Northeast Atlantic, but the central portion of the range appears to bridge diversity between these two areas. This is likely made possible by the continuous distribution and depth range of the species. There is no substantial evidence to indicate that the loss of genetic diversity from one portion of the species' range would result in the remaining populations lacking enough
The petitioners identified the U.S. population as a potential DPS. As noted above, this portion does not qualify as a DPS. We considered whether U.S. waters could be a significant portion of the species' range. However, due to the workshop participants individual expert opinions related to abundance, productivity, spatial distribution, and diversity questions for the larger Northwest Atlantic and Northeast Atlantic populations and our findings that neither of these constitute a significant portion of the species' range, and given the United States represents only a small portion of the global range of the thorny skate, there is little evidence for concluding that the U.S. population is significant to the entire species under the SPR policy. Furthermore, there is no indication that loss of the U.S. portion of the species' range would result in a moderate or high extinction risk to the global species. As was mentioned previously, the available population and trend data do not indicate that past declines in the United States have affected global populations of thorny skate. Thus, the United States population would not qualify as “significant” under the SPR Policy. Likewise, there is no substantial evidence to indicate that the loss of genetic diversity from one portion of the species' range would result in the remaining populations lacking enough genetic diversity to allow for adaptations to changing environmental conditions. Similarly, there is no information to suggest that loss of any portion would severely fragment and isolate the species to the point where individuals would be precluded from moving to suitable habitats or have an increased vulnerability to threats. In other words, loss of any portion of its range would not likely isolate the species to the point where the remaining populations would be at risk of extinction from demographic processes.
In summary, areas exhibiting source-sink dynamics, which could affect the survival of the species, were not evident in any part of the thorny skate's range. There is also no evidence of a portion that encompasses aspects that are important to specific life history stages, but another portion that does not, where loss of the former portion would severely impact the growth, reproduction, or survival of the entire species. In other words, the viability of the species does not appear to depend on the productivity of the population or the environmental characteristics in any one portion. It is important to note that the overall distribution of the thorny skate is still uncertain. As better data become available, the species' distribution (and potentially significant portions of its range) will become better resolved. However, at this time, there is no evidence to suggest that any specific portion of the species' range has increased importance over another with respect to the species' survival. We reviewed the individual workshop participants' expert opinions and application of the SPR policy. We conclude that under the SPR policy, the preliminary determination that a portion of the species' range may be both significant and endangered or threatened has not been met. Therefore, listing the thorny skate based on it being threatened or endangered in a significant portion of its range is not warranted under the SPR policy.
Section 4(b)(1) of the ESA requires that listing determinations be based solely on the best scientific and commercial data available after conducting a review of the status of the species and taking into account those efforts, if any, being made by any state or foreign nation, or political subdivisions thereof, to protect and conserve the species. We have independently reviewed the best available scientific and commercial information, including the petition, information submitted in response to the 90-day finding (80 FR 65175; October 28, 2015), the status review report (NMFS 2017), and other published and unpublished information cited herein, and we have consulted with species experts and individuals familiar with the thorny skate. We identified no DPSs of the thorny skate and therefore considered the species rangewide. We considered each of the section 4(a)(1) factors to determine whether any one of the factors contributed significantly to the extinction risk of the species. We also considered the combination of those factors to determine whether they collectively contributed significantly to extinction risk. As previously explained, we could not identify any portion of the species' range that met both criteria of the SPR policy. Therefore, our determination set forth below is based on a synthesis and integration of the foregoing information, factors and considerations, and their effects on the status of the species throughout its range.
We conclude that the thorny skate is not in danger of extinction, nor is it likely to become so in the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range. We summarize the factors supporting this conclusion as follows: (1) The species is broadly distributed over a large geographic range within the North Atlantic Ocean, with no barrier to dispersal; (2) genetic data indicate that populations are not isolated and that the species has high genetic diversity, (3) while the species possesses life history characteristics that increase its vulnerability to overutilization, overfishing is not currently occurring within the range; (4) the best available information indicates that abundance and biomass has stabilized rangewide and on the edge of the range in U.S. waters; (5) current thorny skate populations are numerous in many areas and the area occupied is increasing; (6) while the current population size has declined from historical numbers, the population size is sufficient to maintain population viability into the foreseeable future and consists of at least millions of individuals; (7) a main threat to the species is fishery-related mortality from incidental catch (bycatch); however, there are strict management measures in place to minimize this threat throughout the species' range, and these measures appear to be effective in addressing this threat as evidenced by stabilizing numbers of thorny skates; (8) there is no evidence that disease or predation is contributing to increasing the risk of extinction; and (9) there is no evidence that the species is currently suffering from depensatory processes (such as reduced likelihood of finding a mate or mate choice or diminished fertilization and recruitment success) or is at risk of extinction due to environmental variation or anthropogenic perturbations.
Since the thorny skate is not in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range or likely to become so within the foreseeable future, it does not meet the definition of a threatened species or an endangered species. Therefore, the thorny skate does not warrant listing as threatened or endangered at this time.
Thorny skates in the Atlantic Ocean from West Greenland to New York were
A complete list of all references cited herein is available upon request (see
The authority for this action is the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) is scheduling a public meeting of its NEFMC External Peer Review Management Strategy Evaluation of Atlantic Herring Acceptable Biological Catch Control Rules from to consider actions affecting New England fisheries in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ). Recommendations from this group will be brought to the full Council for formal consideration and action, if appropriate.
This meeting will be held on Monday, March 13, 2017 through Wednesday, March 15 starting at 9 a.m. all three days.
The meeting will be held at the Embassy Suites, Boston Logan Airport, 207 Porter Street, Boston, MA 02128: (617) 657-5000.
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492.
The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) is conducting a peer review of the Management Strategy Evaluation (MSE) of Atlantic Herring Acceptable Biological Catch (ABC) Control Rules. Atlantic herring, predators, and economic models were developed to evaluate control rules and performance metrics. Experts have been invited by the Council to evaluate the MSE methods, data, and results. The panel will evaluate whether the MSE is sufficient for the Council to use when identifying and analyzing a range of ABC control rule alternatives in Amendment 8 to the Atlantic Herring Fishery Management Plan. This public meeting will have designated times on the agenda when public comment is welcome.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, at (978) 465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date. This meeting will be recorded. Consistent with 16 U.S.C. 1852, a copy of the recording is available upon request.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The Scientific and Statistical Committee (SSC) of the Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council (Council) will hold a meeting.
The meeting will be held on Wednesday and Thursday, March 15-16, 2017, beginning at 1 p.m. on March 15 and conclude by 1 p.m. on March 16. For agenda details, see
The meeting will at the Royal Sonesta Harbor Court, 550 Light Street, Baltimore, MD 21202; telephone: (410) 234-0550.
Christopher M. Moore, Ph.D., Executive Director, Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council, telephone: (302) 526-5255.
The purpose of this meeting is to make multi-year ABC recommendations for golden and blueline tilefish based on updated stock assessment information recently complied for both species. In addition, topics to be discussed include the NEFSC Ecosystem Status Report, SSC OFL CV Progress Report, MRIP Evaluation Report and establishing status determination criteria for chub mackerel.
These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aid should be directed to M. Jan Saunders, (302) 526-5251, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before April 25, 2017.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via the Internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Ashley Chappell, NOAA Integrated Ocean and Coastal Mapping Coordinator, 1315 East West Hwy SSMC3 Rm 6813, Silver Spring, MD 20910, 240-429-0293, or
The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) Office of Coast Survey and the U.S. Geological Survey (USGS) National Geospatial Program plan to conduct a follow-on study to the National Enhanced Elevation Assessment (NEEA) white paper finalized in 2012 (NEEA overview can be found at
NOAA, USGS and partner mapping agencies are working to improve the technology systems, data, and services that provide information about 3D data and related applications within the United States. By learning more about business uses and associated benefits that would be realized from improved 3D data, the agencies will be able to prioritize and direct investments that will best serve user needs. This questionnaire is part of an effort to develop and refine future program alternatives that would provide enhanced 3D data to meet many Federal, State, and other national business needs.
Because 3D data are collected and used to meet a wide range of mission critical needs, we are seeking input from managers and data users from a variety of government entities (
Emails will be sent to a comprehensive list of stakeholders, with requests to forward to any other interested participants. The emails will include a link to the online survey, which can also be provided upon request by paper or other means. In-person interviews may follow to resolve questions, clarify answers and add more detail to responses.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of sub-loan repayment.
NMFS issues this notice to inform interested parties that the
Comments must be submitted on or before 5 p.m. EST March 13, 2017.
Send comments about this notice to Paul Marx, Chief, Financial Services Division, NMFS, Attn: Washington coastal Dungeness crab Buyback, 1315 East-West Highway, Silver Spring, MD 20910 (see
Michael A. Sturtevant at (301) 427-8782 or
On November 16, 2004, NMFS published a proposed rule in the
The Washington coastal Dungeness crab Buyback sub-loan in the amount of $369,425.93 will be repaid in full upon receipt of buyback fees on landings through January 31, 2017. NMFS has received $620,742.30 to repay the principal and interest on this sub-loan since fee collection began September 8, 2005. Based on Buyback fees received to date, landings after January 31, 2017, will not be subject to the Buyback fee. Therefore, Buyback fees will no longer be collected in the Washington coastal Dungeness crab fishery on future landings.
Buyback fees not yet forwarded to NMFS for Washington coastal Dungeness crab landings through January 31, 2017, should be forwarded to NMFS immediately. Any overpayment of Buyback fees submitted to NMFS will be refunded on a pro-rata basis to the fish buyers based upon best available fish ticket landings data. The fish buyers should return excess Buyback fees collected to the harvesters, including Buyback fees collected but not yet remitted to NMFS for landings after January 31, 2017. Any discrepancies in fees owed and fees paid must be resolved immediately. After the sub-loan is closed, no further adjustments to fees paid and fees received can be made.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) is scheduling a public workshop of its Habitat Committee to consider actions affecting New England fisheries in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ). Recommendations from this group will be brought to the full Council for formal consideration and action, if appropriate.
This meeting will be held on Monday, March 13, 2017, Tuesday, March 14, 2017 and Wednesday, March 15, 2017 at 9:30 a.m. each day.
The meeting will be held at the Fairfield Inn & Suites, 185 MacArthur Drive, New Bedford, MA 02740 on Monday, March 13 and Tuesday, March 14, 2017 and at the Sheraton Harborside, 250 Market Street, Portsmouth, NH 03801 on Wednesday, March 15, 2017.
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492.
The Council is developing management areas to protect deep-sea or cold water corals found offshore New England from impacts due to fishing gear interactions. Concentrations of corals occur in the canyons, continental slope, and seamounts south of Georges Bank, and also in deep waters of the Gulf of Maine, including some inshore sites (Mt. Desert Rock and Outer Schoodic Ridge) as well as in Jordan and Georges Basins offshore. Some coral habitats appear to be actively fished, while others appear to be beyond the current footprint of bottom-tending gear operations.
In developing these coral management areas, the Council is seeking to minimize their impacts on existing fisheries. Designing these areas to accommodate fishing activity requires a detailed understanding of where different gears are used in relation to the potential coral management areas. Therefore, the Council is seeking guidance from active fishermen who use bottom-tending gears (trawls, traps, and other gear types) offshore in the Gulf of Maine and in the slope and canyon region south of Georges Bank. Other stakeholders interested in coral management are also welcome to attend the workshops and provide their input. Specifically, the Council is seeking: (1) Industry information on fishing activities within proposed coral protection zones; and (2) suggestions about how to refine management area boundaries to limit impacts to fishing operations while still providing protection for corals.
Three days of discussion in two locations are scheduled:
• In New Bedford (March 13 and 14) the workshop will focus on fishing activity in and around the draft deep-sea coral zones south of Georges Bank (canyons and continental slope). These zones are generally deeper than 150 fathoms. Note that large pelagic fishermen who work in the canyon/slope region are
• In Portsmouth (March 15) the workshop will focus on fishing activity in Jordan Basin and the Lindenkohl Knoll area of Georges Basin. Proposals for the inshore areas around Outer Schoodic Ridge and Mount Desert Rock are
The purpose of these workshops is to refine the boundaries of the Council's existing proposals. Public hearings will be conducted later this spring to solicit comments, including general support of or opposition to, all areas proposed in the amendment.
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during these meetings. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided the public has
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, at (978) 465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date. This meeting will be recorded. Consistent with 16 U.S.C. 1852, a copy of the recording is available upon request.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Telecommunications and Information Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice; Extension of Comment Period.
In response to requests for additional time, the Department of Commerce is extending the closing deadline for submitting comments to a request for public comments entitled “The Benefits, Challenges, and Potential Roles for the Government in Fostering the Advancement of the Internet of Things.” 82 FR 4313 (Jan. 13, 2017). In the request for comment, the Department is seeking broad input from all interested stakeholders—including the private industry, researchers, academia, and civil society—on the issues and proposed approach, current initiatives, and next steps laid out in the green paper “Fostering the Advancement of the Internet of Things.” Through this notice, the Department extends the comment period to March 13, 2017.
Comments are due on March 13, 2017, at 5:00 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time (EDT).
Written comments may be submitted by email to
Travis Hall, National Telecommunications and Information Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Room 4725, Washington, DC 20230; Telephone: (202) 482-3522; Email:
Recognizing the vital importance of the Internet to U.S. innovation, prosperity, education, and civic and cultural life, the Department of Commerce (Department) has made it a top priority to encourage growth of the digital economy and ensure that the Internet remains an open platform for innovation. Thus, as part of the Department's Digital Economy Agenda, the National Telecommunications and Information Administration (NTIA) issued a green paper “Fostering the Advancement of the Internet of Things” that lays out an approach and areas of engagement for the Department's possible future work on the Internet of Things (IoT). Through the request for comments, NTIA seeks broad input from all interested stakeholders—including the private industry, researchers, academia, and civil society—on the issues and proposed approach, current initiatives, and next steps laid out in this paper. These comments will help inform Department leadership on possible future Department action regarding IoT. Instructions for commenters, including specific questions for discussion, are available in the original notice. 82 FR 4313 (Jan. 13, 2017), available at
The original deadline for submission of comments was February 27, 2017. With this notice, NTIA announces that the closing deadline for submission of comments has been extended until March 13, 2017, at 5:00 p.m. EDT.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.
Addition to the Procurement List.
This action adds a service to the Procurement List that will be provided by nonprofit agency employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 1401 S. Clark Street, Suite 715, Arlington, Virginia, 22202-4149.
Amy B. Jensen, Telephone: (703) 603-7740, Fax: (703) 603-0655, or email
On 5/27/2016 (81 FR 33665- 33666), the Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled published notice of proposed addition to the Procurement List.
After consideration of the material presented to it concerning capability of qualified nonprofit agency to provide the service and impact of the addition on the current or most recent contractors, the Committee has determined that the service listed below are suitable for procurement by the Federal Government under 41 U.S.C. 8501-8506 and 41 CFR 51-2.4.
I certify that the following action will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. The major factors considered for this certification were:
1. The action will not result in any additional reporting, recordkeeping or other compliance requirements for small entities other than the small organization that will provide the service to the Government.
2. The action will result in authorizing small entities to provide the service to the Government.
3. There are no known regulatory alternatives which would accomplish the objectives of the Javits-Wagner-O'Day Act (41 U.S.C. 8501-8506) in connection with the service proposed for addition to the Procurement List.
Accordingly, the following service is added to the Procurement List:
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.
Proposed deletions from the procurement list.
The Committee is proposing to delete products from the Procurement List that was previously furnished by nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 1401 S. Clark Street, Suite 715, Arlington, Virginia 22202-4149.
Amy B. Jensen, Telephone: (703) 603-7740, Fax: (703) 603-0655, or email
This notice is published pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 8503 (a)(2) and 41 CFR 51-2.3. Its purpose is to provide interested persons an opportunity to submit comments on the proposed actions.
The following products are proposed for deletion from the Procurement List:
Department of Defense.
Notice of meeting.
The Department of Defense is publishing this notice to announce the following Federal Advisory Committee meeting of the Judicial Proceedings Since Fiscal Year 2012 Amendments Panel (“the Judicial Proceedings Panel” or “the Panel”). The meeting is open to the public.
A meeting of the Judicial Proceedings Panel will be held on Friday, March 10, 2017. The public session will begin at 9:00 a.m. and end at 4:30 p.m.
One Liberty Center, Executive Conference Center, 14th Floor, 875 N. Randolph Street, Arlington, Virginia 22203.
Ms. Julie Carson, Judicial Proceedings Panel, One Liberty Center, Suite 150, 875 N. Randolph Street, Arlington, Virginia 22203. Email:
This public meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended), the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976 (5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended), and 41 CFR 102-3.150.
Department of the Navy, DOD.
Notice of open meeting.
The Ocean Research Advisory Panel (ORAP) will hold a regularly scheduled meeting. The meeting will be open to the public.
The meeting will be held on Tuesday, March 7, 2017 from 1:00 p.m. to 3:00 p.m., Eastern Time. Members of the public should submit their comments in advance of the meeting to the meeting Point of Contact.
This will be a teleconference. For access, connect to:
CDR Joel W. Feldmeier, Office of Naval Research, 875 North Randolph Street, Suite 1425, Arlington, VA 22203-1995, telephone 703-696-5121.
This notice of open meeting is provided in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. App. 2). The meeting will include discussions on ocean research, resource management, and other current issues in the ocean science and management communities.
Department of the Navy, Department of Defense; Bureau of Land Management, Department of the Interior.
Notice of availability.
The Department of the Navy (DoN) announces the availability of the Records of Decision (RODs) by the DoN and the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) for the Supplemental Environmental Impact Statement for Land Acquisition and Airspace Establishment to Support Large-Scale Marine Air Ground Task Force Live-Fire and Maneuver Training at Marine Corps Air Ground Combat Center, Twentynine Palms, California. The Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Navy (Energy, Installations and Environment) signed the DoN ROD on February 10, 2017. The BLM California Desert District Manager signed the BLM ROD on February 9, 2017.
Copies of the DoN ROD and the BLM ROD, along with the Final SEIS and other supporting documents, are available for public viewing on the DoN's project Web site:
DoN: Mr. Jesse Martinez, Project Manager, SEIS for 29Palms Land Acquisition/Airspace Establishment Project, Naval Facilities Engineering Command Southwest, 1220 Pacific Highway, San Diego, California 92132-5190. Telephone: 619-532-3844. BLM: Ms. Katrina Symons, Field Manager, BLM Barstow Field Office, 2601 Barstow Road, Barstow, CA 92311. Telephone: 760-252-6004.
Pursuant to Section 102(2)(c) of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969, 42 United States Code 4321-4370h, as implemented by the Council on Environmental Quality regulations, 40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) parts 1500-1508, the DoN NEPA regulations (32 CFR part 775), and Marine Corps Order P5090.2A (with Changes 1-3) Marine Corps Environmental Compliance and Protection Manual, Chapter 12, the DoN, after carefully considering the operational and environmental consequences of the proposed action and alternatives analyzed in a Supplemental Environmental Impact Statement (SEIS), announces the availability of its ROD to translocate a population of the federal-listed threatened Agassiz's desert tortoise (Gopherus agassizii, hereinafter “desert tortoise”) from high- and moderate-impact training areas at the Marine Corps Air Ground Combat Center at Twentynine Palms, California (hereinafter, “the Combat Center”). In its ROD, the DoN has selected the preferred alternative (Alternative 2) from the Final SEIS, which provides for the implementation of a June 2016 Desert Tortoise Translocation Plan. The Plan will guide translocation of desert tortoises in accordance with requirements of a January 2017 United States Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS) Biological Opinion (hereinafter the “2017 BO,” which superseded a previous 2012 BO), and a 2013 DoN ROD associated with the 2012 Final EIS for Land Acquisition and Airspace Establishment to Support Large-Scale Marine Air Ground Task Force Live-Fire and Maneuver Training at the Combat Center (hereinafter the “2012 Final EIS”).
The DoN ROD documents why the DoN has chosen to implement the preferred alternative as described in the 2017 Final SEIS. This decision adopts all of the special conservation measures that were identified in the Final SEIS to avoid or minimize adverse environmental impacts from the preferred alternative. The ROD also includes descriptions and discussions of the anticipated environmental impacts of the proposed action, and responds to substantive comments received since the Final SEIS was released.
The BLM, which served as a Cooperating Agency during preparation of the SEIS, adopted the SEIS and prepared a separate ROD regarding the SEIS actions proposed on BLM-managed lands. The BLM's involvement as a cooperating agency in the development of the SEIS was triggered by its current jurisdiction by law and special expertise over a portion of lands considered for translocation of desert tortoises. The BLM has unique knowledge of the public lands under its management and has the expertise essential to help evaluate appropriate parcels of land to meet translocation requirements. The BLM conducted frequent coordination with DON throughout the SEIS process. The BLM ROD explains the rationale for its independent selection of Alternative 2 (Preferred Alternative) of the SEIS. The BLM decision is subject to a 30-day appeal period commencing with the publication of this Notice. A party that is adversely affected by the BLM's decision may file an appeal in accordance with the procedures in 43 CFR part 4.
Federal Student Aid (FSA), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 3501
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before March 27, 2017.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Beth Grebeldinger, 202-377-4018.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric securities filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that on February 3, 2017, Southern Natural Gas Company, L.L.C. (SNG), filed in Docket No. CP17-46-000 an application pursuant to section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA) requesting authorization to construct and operate its Fairburn Expansion Project to add 343,164 dekatherms per day of firm transportation service to its existing pipeline system. Specifically, SNG proposes to: (i) Construct a new 4.9-mile, 30-inch-diameter pipeline that will interconnect with the existing Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company pipeline in Fayette County, Georgia; (ii) construct a 1.6-mile, 30-inch-diameter extension of the South Main Line System in Monroe County, Georgia; (iii) acquire an existing 19.7-mile, 30-inch-diameter pipeline lateral in Cobb and Fulton Counties, Georgia; (iv) install 18,000 horsepower of compression at a new compressor station in Fulton County, Georgia; (v) construct three new meter stations in Fayette, Fulton, and Cobb Counties, Georgia; and (vi) modify two existing meter stations in Fulton and Clayton Counties, Georgia. SNG estimates the cost of the project to be approximately $240 million, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection. The filing is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site web at
All questions should be directed to Brooks Henderson, Director, Rates & Regulatory Affairs, Southern Natural Gas Company, L.L.C., 569 Brookwood Village, Suite 749, Birmingham, Alabama 35209, by phone (205) 325-3843 or by email
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
There are two ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project. First, any person wishing to obtain legal status by becoming a party to the proceedings for this project should, on or before the comment date stated below file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.214 or 385.211) and the Regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.10). A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties. A party must submit seven copies of filings made in the proceeding with the Commission and must mail a copy to the applicant and to every other party. Only parties to the
However, a person does not have to intervene in order to have comments considered. The second way to participate is by filing with the Secretary of the Commission, as soon as possible, an original and two copies of comments in support of or in opposition to this project. The Commission will consider these comments in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but the filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. The Commission's rules require that persons filing comments in opposition to the project provide copies of their protests only to the party or parties directly involved in the protest.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commentors will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commentors will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commentors will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This notice identifies the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission staff's revised schedule for the completion of the environmental assessment (EA) for Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC's (Columbia) B-System Project. The original notice of schedule, issued on December 20, 2016, identified March 13, 2017 as the EA issuance date. Due to updated B-System Project information filed by Columbia on February 7, 2017, staff has revised the schedule for issuance of the EA.
If a schedule change becomes necessary, an additional notice will be provided so that the relevant agencies are kept informed of the project's progress.
In order to receive notification of the issuance of the EA and to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription (
On August 11, 2016, and supplemented on November 28, 2016 and January 24, 2017, Mr. John A. Dodson (transferor) and the Village of Highland Falls High-Point Utility, LDC (transferee) filed an application to transfer the license for the Buttermilk Falls Hydroelectric Project No. 7656. The project is located on Buttermilk Falls Brook in Orange County, New York.
The above parties seek Commission approval to transfer the license for the project from the transferor to the transferee.
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
On January 18, 2017, Merchant Hydro Developers, LLC, filed an application for a preliminary permit, pursuant to section 4(f) of the Federal Power Act (FPA), proposing to study the feasibility of the Girard Estate Pumped Storage Hydro Project to be located near Zerbe Township in Northumberland County, Pennsylvania. The sole purpose of a preliminary permit, if issued, is to grant the permit holder priority to file a license application during the permit term. A preliminary permit does not authorize the permit holder to perform any land-disturbing activities or otherwise enter upon lands or waters owned by others without the owners' express permission.
The proposed project would consist of the following: (1) A new upper reservoir with a surface area of 90 acres and a storage capacity of 1,350 acre-feet at a surface elevation of approximately 1,400 feet above mean sea level (msl) created through construction of a new roller-compacted concrete or rock-filled dam; (2) a new lower reservoir, including an existing abandoned mine pit, with a surface area of 25 acres and a storage capacity of 1,620 acre-feet at a surface elevation of 1,000 feet msl; (3) a new 2,242-foot-long, 48-inch-diameter penstock connecting the upper and lower reservoirs; (4) a new 150-foot-long, 50-foot-wide, 25-foot-high powerhouse containing two turbine-generator units with a total rated capacity of 44 megawatts; (5) a new 10,000-foot-long transmission line connecting the powerhouse to the Sunbury-Eldred-Frackville 230-kilovolt circuit owned by PPL Corporation; and (6) appurtenant facilities. The proposed project would have an annual generation of 161,587 megawatt-hours.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments, motions to intervene, notices of intent, and competing applications using the Commission's eFiling system at
More information about this project, including a copy of the application, can
Take notice that on February 16, 2017, pursuant to Rule 207 of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission) Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.207(a)(2), Consumers Energy Company (Consumers Energy) filed a petition seeking to terminate a long-standing controversy, and to remove uncertainty, between Consumers Energy and Michigan Electric Transmission Company regarding the ownership of Consumer Energy current transmission assets, as more fully explained in the petition.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest in this proceeding must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Petitioner.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, DOE.
Comment request.
In compliance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) is submitting its information collection [FERC-549D (Quarterly Transportation and Storage Report for Interstate Gas and Hinshaw Pipelines) and FERC-733 (Demand Response/Time-Based Rate Programs and Advanced Metering)] to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review of the information collection requirements. Any interested person may file comments directly with OMB and should address a copy of those comments to the Commission as explained below. The Commission previously issued a Notice in the
Comments on the collection of information are due by March 27, 2017.
Comments filed with OMB, identified by the OMB Control No. 1902-0253 (FERC-549D) and 1902-0271 (FERC-733) should be sent via email to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs:
A copy of the comments should also be sent to the Commission, in Docket No. IC17-2-000, by either of the following methods:
•
•
Ellen Brown may be reached by email at
The FERC Form 549D collects the following information:
• Full legal name and identification number of the shipper receiving service;
• Type of service performed for each transaction;
• The rate charged under each transaction;
• The primary receipt and delivery points for the transaction, specifying the rate schedule/name of service and docket were approved;
• The quantity of natural gas the shipper is entitled to transport, store, and deliver for each transaction;
• The term of the transaction, specifying the beginning and ending month and year of current agreement;
• Total volumes transported, stored, injected or withdrawn for the shipper; and
• Annual revenues received for each shipper, excluding revenues from storage services.
Filers submit the Form-549D on a quarterly basis.
The Commission previously issued a 60-day Notice in the
(A) saturation and penetration rate of advanced meters and communications technologies, devices and systems;
(B) existing demand response programs and time-based rate programs;
(C) the annual resource contribution of demand resources;
(D) the potential for demand response as a quantifiable, reliable resource for regional planning purposes;
(E) steps taken to ensure that, in regional transmission planning and operations, demand resources are provided equitable treatment as a quantifiable, reliable resource relative to the resource obligations of any load-serving entity, transmission provider, or transmitting party; and
(F) regulatory barriers to improved customer participation in demand response, peak reduction and critical period pricing programs.
Take notice that on February 3, 2017, Texas Eastern Transmission, LP (Texas Eastern) in Docket No. CP17-56-000 and Brazoria Interconnector Gas Pipeline LLC (Brazoria Pipeline) in Docket No. CP17-57-000, 5400 Westheimer Court, Houston, Texas 77056, jointly filed an application pursuant to section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act and Part 157 of the Commission's regulations for the proposed Stratton Ridge Expansion Project (Project) located in Brazoria County, Texas. The Project will create 322,000 Dth/d of firm transportation capacity to deliver natural gas from multiple receipt points on Texas Eastern's interstate pipeline system to a delivery point on Brazoria Pipeline's intrastate pipeline system at Stratton Ridge in Brazoria County, Texas.
Specifically, the applicants request: (i) A certificate of public convenience and necessity for Texas Eastern to construct, install, own, operate and maintain the Project facilities, as proposed in the application, and acquire, by lease, capacity on the Brazoria Pipeline's non-jurisdictional facilities; (ii) authorization for Texas Eastern to charge the initial incremental recourse rates, an incremental fuel percentage and incremental electric power costs for firm service on the Project; (iii) authorization for Texas Eastern to establish separate initial incremental recourse rates and an applicable fuel percentage for service under Rate Schedules FT-1 and IT-1 applicable to shippers desiring access to the capacity leased on Brazoria Pipeline's facilities; and (iv) a limited jurisdiction certificate of public convenience and necessity authorizing Brazoria Pipeline to lease 322,000 Dth/d of pipeline capacity on its non-jurisdictional facilities to Texas Eastern. The Project is part of Texas Eastern's plan to develop firm bi-directional transportation service to connect diverse supply basins with emerging Gulf Coast markets, all as more fully set forth in the application, which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection. The filing may also be viewed on the Web at
Any questions regarding this application should be directed to Berk Donaldson, General Manager, Rates and Certificates, Texas Eastern Transmission, LP and Brazoria Interconnector Gas Pipeline LLC, P.O. Box 1642, Houston, Texas 77251, or phone by: (713) 627-4488, or fax: (713) 627-5947 or by email:
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
There are two ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project. First, any person wishing to obtain legal status by becoming a party to the proceedings for this project should, on or before the comment date stated below, file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.214 or 385.211) and the Regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.10). A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties. A party must submit 7 copies of filings made with the Commission and must mail a copy to the applicant and to every other party in the proceeding. Only parties to the proceeding can ask for court review of Commission orders in the proceeding.
However, a person does not have to intervene in order to have comments considered. The second way to participate is by filing with the Secretary of the Commission, as soon as possible, an original and two copies of comments in support of or in opposition to this project. The Commission will consider these comments in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but the filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. The Commission's
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commentors will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commentors will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commentors will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
There is an “eSubscription” link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Take notice that on February 10, 2017, pursuant to 18 CFR parts 41, 101 and 141 (2016) of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) Regulations, 4C Acquisition, LLC filed a request for waiver of accounting and financial reporting requirements for the Fourth Quarter of 2016.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Federal Election Commission.
Tuesday, February 7, 2017 At 10:00 a.m. and its continuation on February 9, 2017.
999 E Street NW., Washington, DC.
This meeting was closed to the public.
This meeting was continued on February 22, 2017.
Judith Ingram, Press Officer, Telephone: (202) 694-1220.
Federal Election Commission.
999 E Street NW., Washington, DC (Ninth Floor).
This meeting will be open to the public.
82 FR 11221.
The February 23, 2017 meeting was cancelled.
Judith Ingram, Press Officer, Telephone: (202) 694-1220.
Federal Maritime Commission.
Notice.
The Adjusted Cap amount will be effective April 25, 2017.
Sandra L. Kusumoto, Director, Bureau of Certification and Licensing, 202-523-5787,
In accordance with the Final Rule published in the
The formula used to determine the percent change is as follows:
The index percent change for use in 2017 was calculated to be 1.26 and the Adjusted Cap was calculated to be $30.4 million. The Adjusted Cap rounded to the nearest $1 million is $30 million. For 2017 and 2018, the cap for Financial Responsibility for Indemnification of Passengers for Nonperformance of Transportation shall remain at $30 million. The next adjustment will be conducted in 2019 and will continue to use $30 million as the Base Cap for adjustment.
The notificants listed below have applied under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) and § 225.41 of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41) to acquire shares of a bank or bank holding company. The factors that are considered in acting on the notices are set forth in paragraph 7 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(7)).
The notices are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The notices also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing to the Reserve Bank indicated for that notice or to the offices of the Board of Governors. Comments must be received not later than March 8, 2017.
1.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than March 17, 2017.
1.
1.
In accordance with Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) announces a meeting for the initial review of applications in response to Funding Opportunity Announcements (FOAs) IP17-002, Improving HPV Vaccination Coverage among Adolescent Patients: A Randomized Controlled Trial of AFIX and Remote Physician-to-Physician Engagement Strategies and IP17-003, Rapid-Cycle Survey Collaborative for Provider Input on Immunization Issues.
10:00 a.m.-5:00 p.m., EDT, March 15, 2017 (Closed)
Teleconference
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with provisions set forth in Section 552b(c) (4) and (6), Title 5 U.S.C., and the determination of the Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, CDC, pursuant to Public Law 92-463.
The meeting will include the initial review, discussion, and evaluation of applications received in response to “Improving HPV Vaccination Coverage Among Adolescent Patients: A Randomized Controlled Trial of AFIX and Remote Physician-to-Physician
Gregory Anderson, M.S., M.P.H., Scientific Review Officer, CDC, 1600 Clifton Road, NE., Mailstop E60, Atlanta, Georgia 30333, Telephone: (404) 718-8833.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
In accordance with section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) announces the following meeting of the aforementioned subcommittee:
10:00 a.m.-11:30 a.m., EDT, March 21, 2017.
This meeting will be held by teleconference.
This meeting is open to the public, limited only by the availability of telephone ports. The public is welcome to participate during the public comment, which is tentatively scheduled from 11:15 a.m.-11:20 a.m. EDT. To participate on the teleconference, please dial (855) 644-0229 and enter code 1482483.
The Subcommittee will provide advice to the CDC Director through the ACD on strategies, future needs, and challenges faced by State, Tribal, Local and Territorial health agencies, and will provide guidance on opportunities for CDC.
The STLT Subcommittee members will discuss progress on implementation of ACD-adopted recommendations related to the health department of the future, other emerging challenges and how CDC can best support STLT health departments in the transforming health system.
The agenda is subject to change as priorities dictate.
Jose Montero, MD, MPH, Designated Federal Officer, STLT Subcommittee, ACD, CDC, 4770 Buford Highway, MS E70, Atlanta, Georgia 30341, Telephone (404) 498-0300, Email:
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The notice for the proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address any of the following: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
Early Hearing Detection and Intervention (EHDI) Follow-up Survey (OMB Control No. 0920-0733, Expiration Date: 8/31/2016)—Reinstatement with Change—National Center on Birth Defects and Developmental Disabilities (NCBDDD), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
NCBDDD promotes the health of babies, children, and adults, with a focus on preventing birth defects and developmental disabilities and optimizing the health outcomes of those with disabilities. As part of these efforts NCBDDD is actively involved in addressing the early identification of hearing loss among newborns and infants. Congenital hearing loss is a common birth defect that affects 1 to 3 per 1,000 live births, or approximately 12,000 children across the United States annually. Studies have shown that children with a delayed diagnosis of hearing loss can experience preventable delays in speech, language, and cognitive development. To ensure children with hearing loss are identified as soon as possible, many states and United States (U.S.) territories have implemented Early Hearing Detection and Intervention (EHDI) programs and enacted laws related to infant hearing screening. The majority of these EHDI programs have adopted the “1-3-6” plan, which consists of three core goals: (1) Screening all infants for hearing loss before 1 month of age, (2) ensuring diagnostic audiologic evaluation before 3 months of age for those who do not pass the screening, and (3) enrollment
Federal support for identifying children with hearing loss began with the Children's Health Act of 2000, which authorized federal programs to support EHDI activities at the state level. Since then, funds have been distributed to states via cooperative agreements from the CDC and grants from the Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA). States are using these federal monies to enhance EHDI programs and develop corresponding tracking and surveillance systems. These systems are intended to help EHDI programs ensure infants and children are receiving recommended hearing screening, follow-up, and intervention services.
The mission of the CDC EHDI team is for every state and U.S. territory to have a complete EHDI tracking and surveillance system that will help ensure infants and children with hearing loss achieve communication and social skills commensurate with their cognitive abilities. As part of this mission the CDC EHDI team, in collaboration with representatives of state and U.S. territorial EHDI programs, developed seven National EHDI Goals that reflect the “1-3-6 plan” and address integration with the medical home (coordinated care by a medical provider) and development of tracking and surveillance systems to minimize loss to follow-up and loss to documentation. Many of the defined performance indicators for these goals involve obtaining data related to the number of children screened for hearing loss, referred for and receiving follow-up testing (
The purpose of the revised survey is to obtain annual state data on the performance indicators in a consistent manner, which is needed to assess progress towards meeting the National EHDI goals. In addition, the availability of these data will better enable the CDC EHDI team to provide technical assistance to states and respond to questions by the general public, policy makers, and Healthy People 2020 officials.
In accordance with Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) announces a meeting for the initial review of applications in response to Funding Opportunity Announcements (FOAs): CK17-001, “Creation of a Healthcare-Associated Infectious Disease Modeling Network to Improve Prevention Research and Healthcare Delivery”; CK17-002, “Evaluation of Clinical Interventions, Surveillance, and Ecological Factors that Influence the Burden of Human Monkeypox in the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC)”; and CK17-004, “Determining and Monitoring Health Conditions Identified in the Medical Assessment of US-Bound Refugees.”
Contact Person for More Information: Gregory Anderson, M.S., M.P.H., Scientific Review Officer, CDC, 1600 Clifton Road NE., Mailstop E60, Atlanta, Georgia 30333, Telephone: (404) 718-8833.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
ICD-10 Coordination and Maintenance (C&M) Committee meeting.
9:00 a.m.-5:00 p.m., EST, March 7-8, 2017
Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) Auditorium, 7500 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, Maryland 21244
Open to the public, limited only by the space available. The meeting room accommodates approximately 240 people. We will be broadcasting the meeting live via Webcast at
Due to increased security requirements CMS has instituted stringent procedures for entrance into the building by non-government employees. Attendees will need to present valid government-issued picture identification, and sign-in at the security desk upon entering the building.
Attendees who wish to attend the March 7-8, 2017 ICD-10-CM C&M meeting must submit their name and organization by February 24, 2016 for inclusion on the visitor list. This visitor list will be maintained at the front desk of the CMS building and used by the guards to admit visitors to the meeting.
Participants who attended previous Coordination and Maintenance meetings will no longer be automatically added to the visitor list. You must request inclusion of your name prior to each meeting you wish attend.
Please register to attend the meeting on-line at:
The ICD-10 Coordination and Maintenance (C&M) Committee is a public forum for the presentation of proposed modifications to the International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification and ICD-10 Procedure Coding System.
Agenda items include:
Agenda items are subject to change as priorities dictate.
Donna Pickett, Medical Systems Administrator, Classifications and Public Health Data Standards Staff, NCHS, 3311 Toledo Road Hyattsville, Maryland 20782, email
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
In accordance with Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) announces a meeting for the initial review of application in response to Funding Opportunity Announcement (FOA) PAR 15-361, NIOSH Centers of Excellence for Total Worker Health (TWH).
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, HHS.
Proposed notice.
This proposed notice acknowledges the receipt of an application from the Center for Improvement in Healthcare Quality (CIHQ) for continued recognition as a national accrediting organization for hospitals that wish to participate in the Medicare or Medicaid programs.
To be assured consideration, comments must be received at one of the addresses provided below, no later than 5 p.m. on March 27, 2017.
In commenting, please refer to file code CMS-3338-PN. Because of staff and resource limitations, we cannot accept comments by facsimile (FAX) transmission.
You may submit comments in one of four ways:
1.
2.
Please allow sufficient time for mailed comments to be received before the close of the comment period.
3.
4.
a. For delivery in Washington, DC—Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, Department of Health and Human Services, Room 445-G, Hubert H. Humphrey Building, 200 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20201.
(Because access to the interior of the Hubert H. Humphrey Building is not readily available to persons without Federal government identification, commenters are encouraged to leave their comments in the CMS drop slots located in the main lobby of the building. A stamp-in clock is available for persons wishing to retain a proof of filing by stamping in and retaining an extra copy of the comments being filed.)
Comments erroneously mailed to the addresses indicated as appropriate for hand or courier delivery may be delayed and received after the comment period.
b. For delivery in Baltimore, MD—Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, Department of Health and Human Services, 7500 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21244-1850.
If you intend to deliver your comments to the Baltimore address, call telephone number (410) 786-9994 in advance to schedule your arrival with one of our staff members.
For information on viewing public comments, see the beginning of the
Lillian Williams, (410) 786-8636, Patricia Chmielewski, (410) 786-6899, or Monda Shaver, (410) 786-3410.
Comments received timely will also be available for public inspection as they are received, generally beginning approximately 3 weeks after publication of a document, at the headquarters of the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, 7500 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, Maryland 21244, Monday through Friday of each week from 8:30 a.m. to 4 p.m. To schedule an appointment to view public comments, phone 1-800-743-3951.
Under the Medicare program, eligible beneficiaries may receive covered services from a hospital, provided that certain requirements are met. Section 1861(e) of the Social Security Act (the Act), establishes distinct criteria for facilities seeking designation as a hospital. Regulations concerning provider agreements are at 42 CFR part 489 and those pertaining to activities relating to the survey and certification of facilities are at 42 CFR part 488. The regulations at 42 CFR part 482 specify the minimum conditions that a hospital must meet to participate in the Medicare program.
Generally, to enter into an agreement, a hospital must first be certified by a State survey agency as complying with the conditions or requirements set forth in part 482 of our regulations. Thereafter, the hospital is subject to regular surveys by a State survey agency to determine whether it continues to meet these requirements
Section 1865(a)(1) of the Act provides that, if a provider entity demonstrates through accreditation by an approved national accrediting organization that all applicable Medicare conditions are met or exceeded, we may deem those provider entities as having met the requirements. Accreditation by an accrediting organization is voluntary and is not required for Medicare participation.
If an accrediting organization is recognized by the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services (the Secretary) as having standards for accreditation that meet or exceed Medicare requirements, any provider entity accredited by the national accrediting body's approved program may be deemed to meet the Medicare conditions. A national accrediting organization applying for approval of its accreditation program under part 488, subpart A, must provide the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) with reasonable assurance that the accrediting organization requires the accredited provider entities to meet requirements that are at least as stringent as the Medicare conditions. Our regulations concerning the approval of accrediting organizations are set forth at § 488.5. The regulations at § 488.5(e)(2)(i) require accrediting organizations to reapply for continued approval of its accreditation program every 6 years or sooner as determined by CMS.
The Center for Improvement in Healthcare Quality (CIHQ's) current term of approval for their hospital accreditation program expires July 26, 2017.
Section 1865(a)(2) of the Act and our regulations at § 488.5 require that our findings concerning review and approval of a national accrediting organization's requirements consider, among other factors, the applying accrediting organization's requirements for accreditation; survey procedures; resources for conducting required surveys; capacity to furnish information for use in enforcement activities; monitoring procedures for provider entities found not in compliance with the conditions or requirements; and ability to provide CMS with the necessary data for validation.
Section 1865(a)(3)(A) of the Act further requires that we publish, within 60 days of receipt of an organization's complete application, a notice identifying the national accrediting body making the request, describing the nature of the request, and providing at least a 30-day public comment period. We have 210 days from the receipt of a complete application to publish notice of approval or denial of the application.
The purpose of this proposed notice is to inform the public of CIHQ's request for continued approval of its hospital accreditation program. This notice also solicits public comment on whether CIHQ's requirements meet or exceed the Medicare Conditions of Participation (CoPs) for hospitals.
CIHQ submitted all the necessary materials to enable us to make a determination concerning its request for continued approval of its hospital accreditation program. This application was determined to be complete on December 28, 2016. Under section 1865(a)(2) of the Act and our regulations at § 488.5 (Application and re-application procedures for national accrediting organizations), our review and evaluation of CIHQ's will be conducted in accordance with, but not necessarily limited to, the following factors:
• The equivalency of CIHQ's standards for hospitals as compared with CMS' hospital CoPs.
• CIHQ's survey process to determine the following:
++ The composition of the survey team, surveyor qualifications, and the ability of the organization to provide continuing surveyor training.
++ The comparability of CIHQ's processes to those of state agencies, including survey frequency, and the ability to investigate and respond appropriately to complaints against accredited facilities.
++ CIHQ's processes and procedures for monitoring a hospital found out of compliance with the CIHQ's program requirements. These monitoring procedures are used only when the CIHQ identifies noncompliance. If noncompliance is identified through validation reviews or complaint surveys, the state survey agency monitors corrections as specified at § 488.9(c).
++ CIHQ's capacity to report deficiencies to the surveyed facilities and respond to the facility's plan of correction in a timely manner.
++ CIHQ's capacity to provide CMS with electronic data and reports necessary for effective validation and assessment of the organization's survey process.
++ The adequacy of CIHQ's staff and other resources, and its financial viability.
++ CIHQ's capacity to adequately fund required surveys.
++ CIHQ's policies with respect to whether surveys are announced or unannounced, to assure that surveys are unannounced.
++ CIHQ's agreement to provide CMS with a copy of the most current accreditation survey together with any other information related to the survey as we may require (including corrective action plans).
This document does not impose information collection requirements, that is reporting, recordkeeping or third-party disclosure requirements. Consequently, there is no need for review by the Office of Management and Budget under the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
Because of the large number of public comments we normally receive on
Upon completion of our evaluation, including evaluation of comments received as a result of this notice, we will publish a final notice in the
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), HHS.
Notice.
This notice announces the dates, time, and location of the Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) public meetings to be held in calendar year 2017 to discuss our preliminary coding and payment determinations for all new public requests for revisions to the HCPCS. These meetings provide a forum for interested parties to make oral presentations or to submit written comments in response to preliminary coding and payment determinations. The discussion will be focused on responses to our specific preliminary recommendations and will include all items on the public meeting agenda. As indicated in this notice, we are reorganizing public meeting content under two main headings: Drugs/Biologicals/Radiopharmaceuticals/Radiologic Imaging Agents, and Durable Medical Equipment (DME) and Accessories; Orthotics and Prosthetics (O & P); Supplies and “Other”.
1. Tuesday, May 16, 2017, 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. eastern daylight time (e.d.t.)
Drugs/Biologicals/Radiopharmaceuticals/Radiologic Imaging Agents).
2. Wednesday, May 17, 2017, 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. e.d.t.
(Drugs/Biologicals/Radiopharmaceuticals/Radiologic Imaging Agents).
3. Thursday, May 18, 2017, 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. e.d.t.
(Drugs/Biologicals/Radiopharmaceuticals/Radiologic Imaging Agents).
4. Wednesday, June 7, 2017, 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. e.d.t.
(Durable Medical Equipment (DME) and Accessories; Orthotics and Prosthetics (O & P); Supplies and “Other”).
5. Thursday, June 8, 2017, 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. e.d.t.
(Durable Medical Equipment and Accessories; Orthotics and Prosthetics (O & P); Supplies and “Other”).
• May 2, 2017 for the May 16, 2017, May 17, 2017 and May 18, 2017 public meetings.
• May 24, 2017 for the June 7, 2017 and June 8, 2017 public meetings.
• April 21, 2017 for the May 16, 2017, May 17, 2017 and May 18, 2017 public meetings.
• May 10, 2017 for the June 7, 2017 and June 8, 2017 public meetings.
• May 05, 2017 for the May 16, 2017, May 17, 2017 and May 18, 2017 public meetings.
• May 26, 2017 for the June 7, 2017 and June 8, 2017 public meeting dates.
• May 2, 2017 for the May 16, 2017, May 17, 2017 and May 18, 2017 public meetings.
• May 24, 2017 for the June 7, 2017 and June 8, 2017 public meetings.
Requests for Special Accommodation may be made within the on-line registration located at
Judi Wallace at (410) 786-3197 or
On December 21, 2000, the Congress passed the Medicare, Medicaid, and SCHIP Benefits Improvement and Protection Act of 2000 (BIPA) (Pub. L. 106-554). Section 531(b) of BIPA mandated that we establish procedures that permit public consultation for coding and payment determinations for new durable medical equipment (DME) under Medicare Part B of title XVIII of the Social Security Act (the Act). In the November 23, 2001
It is our intent to distribute any materials submitted to us to the Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) workgroup members for their consideration. CMS and the HCPCS workgroup members require sufficient preparation time to review all relevant materials. Therefore, we implemented a 10-page submission limit and firm deadlines for receipt of any presentation materials a meeting speaker wishes us to consider. For this reason, our HCPCS Public Meeting Coordinators will only accept and review presentation materials received by the deadline for each public meeting, as specified in the
The following information must be provided when registering:
• Name.
• Company name and address.
• Direct-dial telephone and fax numbers.
• Email address.
• Special needs information.
A CMS staff member will confirm your registration by email.
Individuals must also indicate whether they are the “primary speaker” for an agenda item. Primary speakers must be designated by the entity that submitted the HCPCS coding request. When registering, primary speakers must provide a brief written statement regarding the nature of the information they intend to provide, and advise one of the HCPCS Public Meeting Coordinators regarding needs for audio/visual support. To avoid disruption of the meeting and ensure compatibility with our systems, tapes and disk files are tested and arranged in speaker sequence well in advance of the meeting. We will accept tapes and disk files that are received by the deadline for submissions for each public meeting as specified in the
The materials may be emailed or delivered by regular mail to the HCPCS Public Meeting Coordinator as specified in the
To afford the same opportunity to all attendees, 5-minute speakers are not required to register as primary speakers. However, 5-minute speakers must still register as attendees by the deadline set forth under “Registration Deadlines for all Other Attendees” in the
Please note that all of the CMS' 2017 HCPCS public meetings will begin at 9:00 a.m. each day as noted in the
The product category reported in the HCPCS code application by the applicant may not be the same as that assigned by us. Prior to registering to attend a public meeting, all participants are advised to review the public meeting agendas at
Additional details regarding the public meeting process for all new public requests for revisions to the HCPCS, along with information on how to register and guidelines for an effective presentation, will be posted at least 4 weeks before the first meeting date on the official HCPCS Web site at
The HCPCS Web site also contains a document titled “HCPCS Decision Tree & Definitions” which illustrates, in flow diagram format, HCPCS coding standards as described in our Coding Procedures document.
A summary of each public meeting will be posted on the HCPCS Web site by the end of August 2017.
We can only estimate the amount of meeting time that will be needed since it is difficult to anticipate the total number of speakers that will register for each meeting. Meeting participants should arrive early to allow time to clear security and sign-in. Each meeting is expected to begin promptly as scheduled. Meetings may end earlier than the stated ending time.
All primary speakers must register as provided under the section titled “Meeting Registration.” Materials and writings that will be used in support of an oral presentation should be submitted to the CMS' HCPCS Public Meeting Coordinator.
The materials may be emailed or delivered by regular mail to the HCPCS Public Meeting Coordinator as specified in the
The individual or entity requesting revisions to the HCPCS coding system for a particular agenda item may designate one “primary speaker” to make a presentation for a maximum of 15 minutes. Fifteen minutes is the total time interval for the presentation, and the presentation must incorporate any demonstration, set-up, and distribution of material. In establishing the public meeting agenda, we may group multiple, related requests under the same agenda item. In that case, we will decide whether additional time will be allotted, and may opt to increase the amount of time allotted to the speaker by increments of less than 15 minutes.
Individuals designated to be the primary speaker must register to attend the meeting using the registration procedures described under the “Meeting Registration” section of this notice and contact one of the HCPCS Public Meeting Coordinators, specified in the
Meeting attendees can sign up in-person only on the date of the meeting, on a first-come, first-served basis, to make presentations for up to 5 minutes on individual agenda items. Based on the number of items on the agenda and the progress of the meeting, a determination will be made at the meeting by the meeting coordinator and the meeting moderator regarding how many “5-minute speakers” can be accommodated and whether the 5-minute time allocation would be reduced, to accommodate the number of speakers.
On the day of the assigned public meeting, and no later than the end of the meeting, all primary speakers and 5-minute speakers must provide a brief written summary of their comments and conclusions to the HCPCS Public Meeting Coordinator.
Every primary speaker and 5-minute speaker must declare at the beginning of their presentation at the meeting, as well as in their written summary, whether they have any financial involvement with the manufacturers or competitors of any items being discussed; this includes any payment, salary, remuneration, or benefit provided to that speaker by the manufacturer or the manufacturer's representatives.
Written comments will be accepted from the general public and meeting registrants anytime up to the date of the public meeting at which a request is discussed. Comments must be sent to the address listed in the
Meeting attendees may also submit their written comments at the meeting. Due to the close timing of the public
The meetings are held within the CMS Complex which is not open to the general public. Visitors to the complex are required to show a valid Government issued photo identification at the time of entry. As of October, 10, 2015, visitors seeking access to federal agency facilities using their state-issued driver's license or identification cards must present proper identification issued by a state that is compliant with the REAL ID Act of 2005 (Pub. L. 109-13, 119 Statute 302, enacted on May 11, 2005) or a state that has received an extension. What constitutes proper identification and whether a driver's license is acceptable identification for accessing a federal facility may vary, based on which state issued the driver's license. For detailed information, please refer to the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Web site at:
Visitors will also be subject to a vehicle security inspection before access to the complex is granted. Participants not in possession of a valid identification or who are in possession of prohibited items will be denied access to the complex. Prohibited items on federal property include but are not limited to, alcoholic beverages, illegal narcotics, explosives, firearms or other dangerous weapons (including pocket knives), dogs or other animals except service animals. Once cleared for entry to the complex participants will be directed to visitor parking by a security officer.
To ensure expedited entry into the building it is recommended that participants have their government ID and a copy of their written meeting registration confirmation readily available and that they do not bring large/bulky items into the building. Participants are reminded that photography on the CMS complex is prohibited. We have also been declared a tobacco free campus and violators are subject to legal action. In planning arrival time, we recommend allowing additional time to clear security. Individuals who are not registered in advance will not be permitted to enter the building and will be unable to attend the meeting. The invited guests may not enter the building earlier than 45 minutes before the convening of the meeting each day.
Guest access to the complex is limited to the meeting area, the main entrance lobby, and the cafeteria. If a visitor is found outside of those areas without proper escort they may be escorted off of the premises. Also, be mindful that there will be an opportunity for everyone to speak and we request that everyone waits for the appropriate time to present their product and opinions. Disruptive behavior will not be tolerated and may result in removal from the meetings and escort from the complex. No visitor is allowed to attach USB cables, thumb drives or any other equipment to any CMS information technology (IT) system or hardware for any purpose at any time. Additionally, our staff is prohibited from taking such actions on behalf of a visitor or utilizing any removable media provided by a visitor.
We cannot assume responsibility for coordinating the receipt, transfer, transport, storage, set-up, safety, or timely arrival of any personal belongings or items used for demonstration or to support a presentation. Special arrangements and approvals are required at least 2 weeks prior to each public meeting to bring pieces of equipment or medical devices. These arrangements need to be made directly with the CMS' Public Meeting Coordinator. It is possible that certain requests made in advance of the public meeting could be denied because of unique safety, security or handling issues related to the equipment. A minimum of 2 weeks is required for approvals and security procedures. Any request not submitted at least 2 weeks in advance of the public meeting will be denied.
Foreign National Visitors are defined as Non-US Citizens, and non-lawful permanent residents, non-resident aliens or non-green-card holders.
Attendees that are foreign nationals must identify themselves as such, and provide the following information for security clearance to the public meeting coordinator by the date specified in the
• Building to Visit/Destination.
• Visit start date, start time, end date, end time.
• Visitor full name.
• Gender.
• Visitor Title.
• Visitor Organization/Employer.
• Citizenship.
• Birth Place (City, Country).
• Date of Birth.
• ID Type (Passport or State Department ID).
• Passport issued by Country.
• ID (passport) Number.
• ID (passport) issue date.
• ID (passport) expiration date.
• Visa Type.
• Visa Number.
• Purpose of Visit.
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), HHS.
Notice of meeting.
This notice announces the next meeting of the Advisory Panel on Outreach and Education (APOE) (the Panel) in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act. The Panel advises and makes recommendations to the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) and the Administrator of the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) on opportunities to enhance the effectiveness of consumer education strategies concerning the Health Insurance Marketplace
Thomas Dudley, Designated Federal Official, Office of Communications, CMS, 7500 Security Boulevard, Mail Stop S1-05-06, Baltimore, MD 21244-1850, 410-786-1442, email
The Advisory Panel for Outreach and Education (APOE) (the Panel) is governed by the provisions of Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) (Pub. L. 92-463), as amended (5 U.S.C. Appendix 2), which sets forth standards for the formation and use of federal advisory committees. The Panel is authorized by section 1114(f) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1314(f)) and section 222 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 217a) and sec. 10(a) of Public Law 92-463 (5 U.S.C. App. 2, sec. 10(a) and 41 CFR 102-3).
The Secretary of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) (the Secretary) signed the charter establishing the Citizen's Advisory Panel on Medicare Education
The Medicare Modernization Act of 2003 (MMA) (Pub. L. 108-173) expanded the existing health plan options and benefits available under the M+C program and renamed it the Medicare Advantage (MA) program. We have had substantial responsibilities to provide information to Medicare beneficiaries about the range of health plan options available and better tools to evaluate these options. The successful MA program implementation required CMS to consider the views and policy input from a variety of private sector constituents and to develop a broad range of public-private partnerships.
In addition, Title I of the MMA authorized the Secretary and the Administrator of CMS (by delegation) to establish the Medicare prescription drug benefit. The drug benefit allows beneficiaries to obtain qualified prescription drug coverage. In order to effectively administer the MA program and the Medicare prescription drug benefit, we have substantial responsibilities to provide information to Medicare beneficiaries about the range of health plan options and benefits available, and to develop better tools to evaluate these plans and benefits.
The Affordable Care Act (Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, Pub. L. 111-148, and Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010, Pub. L. 111-152) expanded the availability of other options for health care coverage and enacted a number of changes to Medicare as well as to Medicaid and the Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP). Qualified individuals and qualified employers are now able to purchase private health insurance coverage through a competitive marketplace, called an Affordable Insurance Exchange (also called Health Insurance Marketplace
The scope of this panel also includes advising on issues pertaining to the education of providers and stakeholders with respect to the Affordable Care Act and certain provisions of the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health (HITECH) Act enacted as part of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 (ARRA).
On January 21, 2011, the Panel's charter was renewed and the Panel was renamed the Advisory Panel for Outreach and Education. The Panel's charter was most recently renewed on January 21, 2017, and will terminate on January 21, 2019 unless renewed by appropriate action.
Under the current charter, the APOE will advise the Secretary and the Administrator on optimal strategies for the following:
• Developing and implementing education and outreach programs for individuals enrolled in, or eligible for, Medicare, Medicaid, and the Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP), or coverage available through the Health Insurance Marketplace
• Enhancing the federal government's effectiveness in informing Health Insurance Marketplace
• Expanding outreach to vulnerable and underserved communities, including racial and ethnic minorities, in the context of Health Insurance Marketplace
• Assembling and sharing an information base of “best practices” for helping consumers evaluate health coverage options.
• Building and leveraging existing community infrastructures for information, counseling, and assistance.
• Drawing the program link between outreach and education, promoting consumer understanding of health care coverage choices, and facilitating consumer selection/enrollment, which in turn support the overarching goal of improved access to quality care, including prevention services, envisioned under the Affordable Care Act.
The current members of the Panel are: Kellan Baker, Associate Director, Center for American Progress; Robert Blancato, President, Matz, Blancato & Associates; Dale Blasier, Professor of Orthopaedic Surgery, Department of Orthopaedics, Arkansas Children's Hospital; Deborah Britt, Executive Director of Community & Public Relations, Piedmont Fayette Hospital; Deena Chisolm, Associate Professor of Pediatrics & Public Health, The Ohio State University, Nationwide Children's Hospital; Josephine DeLeon, Director, Anti-Poverty Initiatives, Catholic Charities of California; Robert Espinoza, Vice President of Policy, Paraprofessional Healthcare Institute; Louise Scherer Knight, Director, The Sidney Kimmel Comprehensive Cancer Center at Johns Hopkins; Roanne Osborne-Gaskin, M.D., Senior Medical Director, MDWise, Inc.; Cathy Phan, Outreach and Education Coordinator, Asian American Health Coalition DBA HOPE Clinic; Kamilah Pickett, Litigation Support, Independent Contractor; Brendan Riley, Outreach and Enrollment Coordinator, NC Community Health Center Association; Alvia Siddiqi, Medicaid Managed Care Community Network (MCCN) Medical Director, Advocate Physician Partners, Carla Smith, Executive Vice President, Healthcare Information and Management Systems Society (HIMSS); Tobin Van Ostern, Vice President and Co-Founder, Young Invincibles Advisors; and Paula Villescaz, Senior Consultant, Assembly Health Committee, California State Legislature.
In accordance with section 10(a) of the FACA, this notice announces a meeting of the APOE. The agenda for the March 22, 2017 meeting will include the following:
Individuals or organizations that wish to make a 5-minute oral presentation on an agenda topic should submit a written copy of the oral presentation to the DFO at the address listed in the
This meeting will be held in a federal government building; therefore, federal security measures are applicable. The Real ID Act, enacted in 2005, establishes minimum standards for the issuance of state-issued driver's licenses and identification (ID) cards. It prohibits federal agencies from accepting an official driver's license or ID card from a state unless the Department of Homeland Security determines that the state meets these standards. Beginning October 2015, photo IDs (such as a valid driver's license) issued by a state or territory not in compliance with the Real ID Act will not be accepted as identification to enter federal buildings. Visitors from these states/territories will need to provide alternative proof of identification (such as a valid passport) to gain entrance into CMS buildings. The current list of states from which a federal agency may accept driver's licenses for an official purpose is found at
• Presentation of government issued photographic identification to the Federal Protective Service or Guard Service personnel.
• Inspection of vehicle's interior and exterior (this includes engine and trunk inspection) at the entrance to the grounds. Parking permits and instructions will be issued after the vehicle inspection.
• Inspection, via metal detector or other applicable means, of all persons entering the building. We note that all items brought into CMS, whether personal or for the purpose of presentation or to support a presentation, are subject to inspection. We cannot assume responsibility for coordinating the receipt, transfer, transport, storage, set up, safety, or timely arrival of any personal belongings or items used for presentation or to support a presentation.
Individuals who are not registered in advance will not be permitted to enter the building and will be unable to attend the meeting. The public may not enter the building earlier than 45 minutes prior to the convening of the meeting.
All visitors must be escorted in areas other than the lower and first floor levels in the Central Building.
Sec. 1114(f) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1314(f)), sec. 222 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 217a), and sec. 10(a) of Pub. L. 92-463 (5 U.S.C. App. 2, sec. 10(a) and 41 CFR 102-3).
National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice.
HHS gives notice concerning the final effect of the HHS decision to designate a class of employees from the Pantex Plant in Amarillo, Texas, as an addition to the Special Exposure Cohort (SEC) under the Energy Employees Occupational Illness Compensation Program Act of 2000.
Stuart L. Hinnefeld, Director, Division of Compensation Analysis and Support, NIOSH, 1090 Tusculum Avenue, MS C-46, Cincinnati, OH 45226-1938, Telephone 877-222-7570. Information requests can also be submitted by email to
42 U.S.C. 7384q(b). 42 U.S.C. 7384
On January 4, 2017, as provided for under 42 U.S.C. 7384l(14)(C), the Secretary of HHS designated the following class of employees as an addition to the SEC:
All employees of the Department of Energy, its predecessor agencies, and their contractors and subcontractors who worked at the Pantex Plant in Amarillo, Texas, during the period from January 1, 1951, through December 31, 1957, for a number of work days aggregating at least 250 work days, occurring either solely under this employment or in combination with work days within the parameters established for one or more other classes of employees in the Special Exposure Cohort.
This designation became effective on February 3, 2017. Therefore, beginning
National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
NIOSH gives notice of a decision to evaluate a petition to designate a class of employees from Area IV of the Santa Susana Field Laboratory in eastern Ventura County, California, to be included in the Special Exposure Cohort under the Energy Employees Occupational Illness Compensation Program Act of 2000.
Stuart L. Hinnefeld, Director, Division of Compensation Analysis and Support, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, 1090 Tusculum Avenue, MS C-46, Cincinnati, OH 45226-1938, Telephone 877-222-7570. Information requests can also be submitted by email to
42 CFR 83.9-83.12.
Pursuant to 42 CFR 83.12, the initial proposed definition for the class being evaluated, subject to revision as warranted by the evaluation, is as follows:
National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice.
HHS gives notice concerning the final effect of the HHS decision to designate a class of employees from Area IV of the Santa Susana Field Laboratory in Ventura County, California, as an addition to the Special Exposure Cohort (SEC) under the Energy Employees Occupational Illness Compensation Program Act of 2000.
Stuart L. Hinnefeld, Director, Division of Compensation Analysis and Support, NIOSH, 1090 Tusculum Avenue, MS C-46, Cincinnati, OH 45226-1938, Telephone 877-222-7570. Information requests can also be submitted by email to
42 U.S.C. 7384q(b). 42 U.S.C. 7384
On January 6, 2017, as provided for under 42 U.S.C. 7384l(14)(C), the Secretary of HHS designated the following class of employees as an addition to the SEC:
All employees of the Department of Energy, its predecessor agencies, and their contractors and subcontractors who worked in any area at Area IV of the Santa Susana Field Laboratory in Ventura County, California, from January 1, 1965, through December 31, 1988, for a number of work days aggregating at least 250 work days, occurring either solely under this employment or in combination with work days within the parameters established for one or more other classes of employees included in the Special Exposure Cohort.
This designation became effective on February 5, 2017. Therefore, beginning on February 5, 2017, members of this class of employees, defined as reported in this notice, became members of the SEC.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of accreditation and approval of Intertek USA, Inc., as a commercial gauger and laboratory.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that Intertek USA, Inc., has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes for the next three years as of April 12, 2016.
Approved Gauger and Accredited Laboratories Manager, Laboratories and Scientific Services Directorate, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that Intertek USA, Inc., 1881 W. State Rd. 84, Bay 105, Ft. Lauderdale, FL 33315, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13. Intertek USA, Inc., is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):
Intertek USA, Inc., is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of approval of Intertek USA, Inc., as a commercial gauger.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that Intertek USA, Inc., has been approved to gauge petroleum and petroleum products for customs purposes for the next three years as of August 20, 2015.
Approved Gauger and Accredited Laboratories Manager, Laboratories and Scientific Services Directorate, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.13, that Intertek USA, Inc., 4951A East Adamo Drive, Suite 130, Tampa, FL 33605, has been approved to gauge petroleum and petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.13. Intertek USA, Inc., is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the American Petroleum Institute (API):
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of accreditation and approval of Camin Cargo Control, Inc., as a commercial gauger and laboratory.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that Camin Cargo Control, Inc., has been approved to gauge and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes for the next three years as of September 21, 2016.
Approved Gauger and Accredited Laboratories Manager, Laboratories and Scientific Services Directorate, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that Camin Cargo Control, Inc., 201 Texas Ave., La Marque, TX 77568, has been approved to gauge and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13. Camin Cargo Control, Inc., is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the American Petroleum Institute (API):
Camin Cargo Control, Inc., is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of accreditation and approval of Chem Coast, Inc., as a commercial gauger and laboratory.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that Chem Coast, Inc., has been approved to gauge and accredited to test petroleum and petroleum products, organic chemicals and vegetable oils for customs purposes for the next three years as of June 8, 2016.
Approved Gauger and Accredited Laboratories Manager, Laboratories and Scientific Services, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that Chem Coast, Inc., 11820 North H Street, LaPorte, TX 77571, has approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13. Chem Coast, Inc., is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):
Chem Coast, Inc., is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of accreditation and approval of AmSpec Services, LLC, as a commercial gauger and laboratory.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that AmSpec Services, LLC, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes for the next three years as of May 24, 2016.
Approved Gauger and Accredited Laboratories Manager, Laboratories and Scientific Services Directorate, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that AmSpec Services, LLC, 30 Commercial Dr., Everett, MA 02149, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13. AmSpec Services, LLC is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):
AmSpec Services, LLC is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This is a notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the Hoopa Valley Tribe (FEMA-4302-DR), dated February 14, 2017, and related determinations.
Effective February 14, 2017.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated February 14, 2017, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
I have determined that the damage to the lands associated with the Hoopa Valley Tribe resulting from a severe winter storm during the period of January 3-5, 2017, is of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant a major disaster declaration under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
In order to provide Federal assistance, you are hereby authorized to allocate from funds available for these purposes such amounts as you find necessary for Federal disaster assistance and administrative expenses.
You are authorized to provide Public Assistance and Hazard Mitigation for the Hoopa Valley Tribe and associated lands. Consistent with the requirement that Federal assistance be supplemental, any Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Hazard Mitigation will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs. Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Public Assistance also will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs, with the exception of projects that meet the eligibility criteria for a higher Federal cost-sharing percentage under the Public Assistance Alternative Procedures Pilot Program for Debris Removal implemented pursuant to Section 428 of the Stafford Act.
Further, you are authorized to make changes to this declaration for the approved assistance to the extent allowable under the Stafford Act.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Timothy J. Scranton, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.
The following areas have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:
The Hoopa Valley Indian Reservation for Public Assistance.
The Hoopa Valley Tribe is eligible to apply for assistance under the Hazard Mitigation Grant Program.
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households In Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Georgia (FEMA-4297-DR), dated January 26, 2017, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Georgia is hereby amended to include the following areas among those areas determined to have been adversely affected by the event declared a major disaster by the President in his declaration of January 26, 2017.
Appling, Brantley, Bulloch, Echols, Lowndes, Randolph, Tattnall, Upson, and Ware Counties for Public Assistance.
Berrien County for Public Assistance (already designated for Individual Assistance).
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Georgia (FEMA-4297-DR), dated January 26, 2017, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Georgia is hereby amended to include the Public Assistance program for the following areas among those areas determined to have been adversely affected by the event declared a major disaster by the President in his declaration of January 26, 2017.
Baker, Brooks, Calhoun, Clay, and Crisp Counties for Public Assistance.
Cook, Dougherty, Thomas, Turner, Wilcox, and Worth Counties for Public Assistance (already designated for Individual Assistance).
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This is a notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of California (FEMA-4301-DR), dated February 14, 2017, and related determinations.
February 14, 2017.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated February 14, 2017, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
I have determined that the damage in certain areas of the State of California resulting from severe winter storms, flooding, and mudslides during the period of January 3-12, 2017, is of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant a major disaster declaration under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
In order to provide Federal assistance, you are hereby authorized to allocate from funds available for these purposes such amounts as you find necessary for Federal disaster assistance and administrative expenses.
You are authorized to provide Public Assistance in the designated areas and Hazard Mitigation throughout the State. Consistent with the requirement that Federal assistance be supplemental, any Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Hazard Mitigation will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs. Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Public Assistance also will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs, with the exception of projects that meet the eligibility criteria for a higher Federal cost-sharing percentage under the Public Assistance Alternative Procedures Pilot Program for Debris Removal implemented pursuant to section 428 of the Stafford Act.
Further, you are authorized to make changes to this declaration for the approved assistance to the extent allowable under the Stafford Act.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Timothy J. Scranton, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.
The following areas of the State of California have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:
Alameda, Amador, Butte, Calaveras, Contra Costa, El Dorado, Humboldt, Inyo, Lake, Lassen, Marin, Mendocino, Merced, Mono, Monterey, Napa, Nevada, Placer, Plumas, Sacramento, San Benito, San Luis Obispo, Santa Clara, Santa Cruz, Shasta, Sierra, Siskiyou, Solano, Sonoma, Sutter, Trinity, Tuolumne, Yolo, and Yuba Counties for Public Assistance.
All areas within the State of California are eligible for assistance under the Hazard Mitigation Grant Program.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Tennessee (FEMA-4293-DR), dated December 15, 2016, and related determinations.
Effective February 8, 2017.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Lai Sun Yee, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.
This action terminates the appointment of W. Michael Moore as Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households In Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This is a notice of the Presidential declaration of an emergency for the State of California (FEMA-3381-EM), dated February 14, 2017, and related determinations.
Effective date: February 14, 2017.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated February 14, 2017, the President issued an emergency declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121-5207 (the Stafford Act), as follows:
I have determined that the emergency conditions in certain areas of the State of California resulting from the potential failure of the emergency spillway at Lake Oroville Dam beginning on February 7, 2017, and continuing, are of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant an emergency declaration under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
You are authorized to provide appropriate assistance for required emergency measures, authorized under Title V of the Stafford Act, to save lives and to protect property and public health and safety, and to lessen or avert the threat of a catastrophe in the designated areas. Specifically, you are authorized to provide assistance for emergency protective measures (Category B), limited to direct Federal assistance, under the Public Assistance program.
Consistent with the requirement that Federal assistance is supplemental, any Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Public Assistance will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs. In order to provide Federal assistance, you are hereby authorized to allocate from funds available for these purposes such amounts as you find necessary for Federal emergency assistance and administrative expenses.
Further, you are authorized to make changes to this declaration for the approved assistance to the extent allowable under the Stafford Act.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, Department of Homeland Security, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Timothy J. Scranton, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this declared emergency.
The following areas of the State of California have been designated as adversely affected by this declared emergency:
Butte, Sutter, and Yuba Counties for emergency protective measures (Category B), limited to direct federal assistance, under the Public Assistance program.
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households In Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This is a notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of Louisiana (FEMA-4300-DR), dated February 11, 2017, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated February 11, 2017, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
I have determined that the damage in certain areas of the State of Louisiana resulting from severe storms, tornadoes, and straight-line winds on February 7, 2017, is of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant a major disaster declaration under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
In order to provide Federal assistance, you are hereby authorized to allocate from funds available for these purposes such amounts as you find necessary for Federal disaster assistance and administrative expenses.
You are authorized to provide Individual Assistance in the designated areas, Hazard Mitigation throughout the State, and any other forms of assistance under the Stafford
Consistent with the requirement that Federal assistance is supplemental, any Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Hazard Mitigation and Other Needs Assistance will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs.
Further, you are authorized to make changes to this declaration for the approved assistance to the extent allowable under the Stafford Act.
The time period prescribed for the implementation of section 310(a), Priority to Certain Applications for Public Facility and Public Housing Assistance, 42 U.S.C. 5153, shall be for a period not to exceed six months after the date of this declaration.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, William J. Doran III, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.
The following areas of the State of Louisiana have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:
Livingston and Orleans Parishes for Individual Assistance.
All areas within the State of Louisiana are eligible for assistance under the Hazard Mitigation Grant Program.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This is a notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of Oklahoma (FEMA-4299-DR), dated February 10, 2017, and related determinations.
Effective February 10, 2017.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated February 10, 2017, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
I have determined that the damage in certain areas of the State of Oklahoma resulting from a severe winter storm during the period of January 13-16, 2017, is of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant a major disaster declaration under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
In order to provide Federal assistance, you are hereby authorized to allocate from funds available for these purposes such amounts as you find necessary for Federal disaster assistance and administrative expenses.
You are authorized to provide Public Assistance in the designated areas and Hazard Mitigation throughout the State. Consistent with the requirement that Federal assistance be supplemental, any Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Hazard Mitigation will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs. Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Public Assistance also will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs, with the exception of projects that meet the eligibility criteria for a higher Federal cost-sharing percentage under the Public Assistance Alternative Procedures Pilot Program for Debris Removal implemented pursuant to section 428 of the Stafford Act.
Further, you are authorized to make changes to this declaration for the approved assistance to the extent allowable under the Stafford Act.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, John Long, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.
The following areas of the State of Oklahoma have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:
Beaver, Beckham, Dewey, Ellis, Harper, Major, Roger Mills, Texas, Woods, and Woodward Counties for Public Assistance.
All areas within the State of Oklahoma are eligible for assistance under the Hazard Mitigation Grant Program.
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households In Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This is a notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of South Dakota (FEMA-4298-DR), dated February 1, 2017, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated February 1, 2017, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
I have determined that the damage in certain areas of the State of South Dakota resulting from a severe winter storm during the period of December 24-26, 2016, is of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant a major disaster declaration under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
In order to provide Federal assistance, you are hereby authorized to allocate from funds available for these purposes such amounts as you find necessary for Federal disaster assistance and administrative expenses.
You are authorized to provide Public Assistance in the designated areas and Hazard Mitigation throughout the State. Consistent with the requirement that Federal assistance be supplemental, any Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Hazard Mitigation will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs. Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Public Assistance also will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs, with the exception of projects that meet the eligibility criteria for a higher Federal cost-sharing percentage under the Public Assistance Alternative Procedures Pilot Program for Debris Removal implemented pursuant to section 428 of the Stafford Act.
Further, you are authorized to make changes to this declaration for the approved assistance to the extent allowable under the Stafford Act.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Nancy M. Casper, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.
The following areas of the State of South Dakota have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:
Butte, Clark, Codington, Day, Deuel, Dewey, Edmunds, Fall River, Faulk, Grant, Haakon, Hamlin, Harding, Jackson, Jones, Marshall, McPherson, Meade, Pennington, Perkins, Roberts, Stanley, Sully, and Ziebach Counties. The Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe within Dewey and Ziebach Counties and the Oglala Sioux Tribe within Jackson County for Public Assistance.
All areas within the State of South Dakota are eligible for assistance under the Hazard Mitigation Grant Program.
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Housing-Federal Housing Commissioner, HUD.
Notice.
HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comment from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 4176, Washington, DC 20410-5000; telephone 202-402-3400 (this is not a toll-free number) or email at
Harry Messner, Office of Asset Management and Portfolio Oversight, Policy Administration Office, Department of Housing, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Harry Messner at
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Colette Pollard at
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice; request for comments.
We (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service) will ask the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to approve the information collection (IC) described below. As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 and as part of our continuing efforts to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, we invite the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on this IC. This IC is scheduled to expire on May 31, 2017. We may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
To ensure that we are able to consider your comments on this IC, we must receive them by April 25, 2017.
Send your comments on the IC to the Service Information Collection Clearance Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 5275 Leesburg Pike, MS: BPHC, Falls Church, VA 22041-3803 (mail); or
Madonna Baucum, at
This information collection covers permit applications and reports that our Division of Management Authority uses to determine the eligibility of applicants for permits requested in accordance with the criteria in various Federal wildlife conservation laws and international treaties. Service regulations implementing these statutes and treaties are in chapter I, subchapter B of title 50, Code of Federal Regulations (CFR). These regulations stipulate general and specific requirements that, when met, allow us to issue permits to authorize activities that are otherwise prohibited.
Information collection requirements associated with the Federal fish and wildlife permit applications and reports are currently approved under three different OMB control numbers: 1018-0093, “Federal Fish and Wildlife Permit Applications and Reports—Management Authority; 50 CFR 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 21, 23”; 1018-0150, “Renewal of CITES Registration of Commercial Breeding Operations for Appendix I Wildlife and Other CITES Requirements, 50 CFR 17 and 23”; and 1018-0164, “Import of Sport-Hunted African Elephant Trophies, 50 CFR 17.” In this revision of 1018-0093, we will include all of the information collection requirements associated with all three OMB Control Numbers. If OMB approves this revision, we will discontinue OMB Control Numbers 1018-0150 and 1018-0164.
We invite comments concerning this information collection on:
• Whether or not the collection of information is necessary, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;
• The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information;
• Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this IC. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice; request for comments.
We (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service) will ask the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to approve the information collection (IC) described below. As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 and as part of our continuing efforts to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, we invite the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on this IC. This IC is scheduled to expire on June 30, 2017. We may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
To ensure that we are able to consider your comments on this IC, we must receive them by April 25, 2017.
Send your comments on the IC to the Service Information Collection Clearance Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, MS: BPHC, 5275 Leesburg Pike, Falls Church, VA 22041-3803 (mail); or
To request additional information about this IC, contact Madonna Baucum at
Under section 101(b) of the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972 (MMPA), as amended (16 U.S.C. 1361-1407), Alaska Natives residing in Alaska and dwelling on the coast of the North Pacific or Arctic Oceans may harvest polar bears, northern sea otters, and Pacific walruses for subsistence or handicraft purposes. Section 109(i) of the MMPA authorizes the Secretary of the Interior to prescribe marking, tagging, and reporting regulations
On behalf of the Secretary, we implemented regulations at 50 CFR 18.23(f) for Alaska Natives harvesting polar bears, northern sea otters, and Pacific walruses. These regulations enable us to gather data on the Alaska Native subsistence and handicraft harvest and on the biology of polar bears, northern sea otters, and Pacific walruses in Alaska to determine what effect such take may be having on these populations. The regulations also provide us with a means of monitoring the disposition of the harvest to ensure that any commercial use of products created from these species meets the criteria set forth in section 101(b) of the MMPA. We use three forms to collect the information: FWS Form 3-2414 (Polar Bear Tagging Certificates), FWS Form 3-2415 (Walrus Tagging Certificates), and FWS Form 3-2416 (Sea Otter Tagging Certificates). The information we collect includes, but is not limited to:
• Date of kill.
• Sex of the animal.
• Kill location.
• Age of the animal (
• Form of transportation used to make the kill of polar bears.
• Amount of time (
• Type of take (live-killed or beach-found) for walrus.
• Number of otters present in and number of otters harvested from pod.
• Condition of the polar bear and whether or not bear cubs were present.
• Name of the hunter or possessor of the specified parts at the time of marking, tagging, and reporting.
We are proposing to use FWS Form 3-2406 (Registration of Certain Dead Marine Mammal Hard Parts) to record the collection of bones, teeth, or ivory of dead marine mammals by non-Native and Natives not eligible to harvest marine mammals under the MMPA. It is legal to collect such parts from a beach or from land within a quarter of a mile of the ocean (50 CFR 18.26). The information we collect will include, but is not limited to:
• Date and location found.
• Age, sex, and size of the animal.
• Tag numbers.
• Name, address, phone number, and birthdate of the collector.
We invite comments concerning this information collection on:
• Whether or not the collection of information is necessary, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;
• The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information;
• Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this IC. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice; request for comments.
We (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service) will ask the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to approve the information collection (IC) described below. As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 and as part of our continuing efforts to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, we invite the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on this IC. This IC is scheduled to expire on May 31, 2017. We may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
To ensure that we are able to consider your comments on this IC, we must receive them by April 25, 2017.
Send your comments on the IC to the Service Information Collection Clearance Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, MS: BPHC, 5275 Leesburg Pike, Falls Church, VA 22041-3803 (mail); or
Madonna Baucum, at
Our Regional Migratory Bird Permit Offices use information that we collect on permit applications to determine the eligibility of applicants for permits requested in accordance with the criteria in various Federal wildlife conservation laws and international treaties, including:
(1) Migratory Bird Treaty Act (16 U.S.C. 703
(2) Lacey Act (16 U.S.C. 3371
(3) Bald and Golden Eagle Protection Act (16 U.S.C. 668).
Service regulations implementing these statutes and treaties are in chapter I, subchapter B of title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR). These regulations stipulate general and specific requirements that, when met, allow us to issue permits to authorize activities that are otherwise prohibited.
All Service permit applications are in the 3-200 series of forms, each tailored to a specific activity based on the requirements for specific types of permits. We collect standard identifier information for all permits. The information that we collect on applications and reports is the minimum necessary for us to determine if the applicant meets/continues to meet issuance requirements for the particular activity.
Information collection requirements associated with the Federal fish and wildlife permit applications and reports for migratory birds and eagles are currently approved under two different OMB control numbers: 1018-0022, “Federal Fish and Wildlife Permit Applications and Reports—Migratory Birds and Eagles; 50 CFR 10, 13, 21, 22,” and 1018-0167, “Eagle Take Permits and Fees, 50 CFR 22.” In this revision of 1018-0022, we are including all of the information collection requirements associated with both OMB Control Numbers. If OMB approves this revision, we will discontinue OMB Control Number 1018-0167.
We invite comments concerning this information collection on:
• Whether or not the collection of information is necessary, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;
• The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information;
• Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this IC. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice; request for comments.
We (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service) will ask the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to approve the information collection (IC) described below. As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 and as part of our continuing efforts to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, we invite the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on this IC. This IC is scheduled to expire on June 30, 2017. We may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
To ensure that we are able to consider your comments on this IC, we must receive them by April 25, 2017.
Send your comments on the IC to the Service Information Collection Clearance Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, MS: BPHC, 5275 Leesburg Pike, Falls Church, VA 22041-3803 (mail); or
Madonna Baucum, at
The National Wildlife Refuge System Administration Act of 1966 (16 U.S.C. 668dd-668ee) (Administration Act), as amended by the National Wildlife Refuge System Improvement Act of 1997, consolidated all refuge units into a single National Wildlife Refuge System (System). It also authorized us to offer visitor and public programs, including those facilitated by commercial visitor and management support services, on lands of the System when we find that the activities are appropriate and compatible with the purpose for which the refuge was established and the System's mission. The Refuge Recreation Act of 1962 (16 U.S.C. 460k-460k-4) (Recreation Act) allows the use of refuges for public recreation when it is not inconsistent or
We issue special use permits for a specific period as determined by the type and location of the management activity or visitor service provided. These permits authorize activities such as:
• Agricultural activities (haying and grazing, 50 CFR 29.1 and 29.2).
• Beneficial management tools that we use to provide the best habitat possible on some refuges (50 CFR 30.11, 31.14, 31.16, and 36.41).
• Special events, group visits and other one-time events (50 CFR 25.41, 25.61, 26.36, and 36.41).
• Recreational visitor service operations (50 CFR 25.41, 25.61, and 36.41).
• Guiding for fishing, hunting, wildlife education, and interpretation (50 CFR 25.41 and 36.41).
• Commercial filming (43 CFR 5, 50 CFR 27.71) and other commercial activities (50 CFR 29.1 and 36.41).
• Building and using cabins to support subsistence or commercial activities (in Alaska) (50 CFR 26.35 and 36.41).
• Research, inventory and monitoring, and other noncommercial activities (50 CFR 26.36 and 36.41).
We use three forms to collect applicant information:
• FWS Form 3-1383-G (General Activities Special Use Application).
• FWS Form 3-1383-C (Commercial Activities Special Use Application).
• FWS Form 3-1383-R (Research and Monitoring Special Use Application).
The information we collect helps ensure that: (1) Applicants are aware of the types of information that may be needed for permit issuance; (2) requested activities are appropriate and compatible with the purpose(s) for which the refuge was established and the System's mission; and (3) the applicant is eligible or is the most qualified applicant to receive the special use permit.
We may collect the necessary information in a nonform format (through discussions in person or over the phone, over the Internet, by email, or by letter). In some instances, respondents will be able to provide information verbally. Often, a simple email or letter describing the activity will suffice. For activities (
We issue permits for a specific period as determined by the type and location of the use or service provided. We use these permits to ensure that the applicant is aware of the requirements of the permit and his/her legal rights. Refuge-specific special conditions may be required for the permit. We identify conditions as an addendum to the permit. Most of the special conditions pertain to how a permitted activity may be conducted and do not require the collection of information. However, some special conditions, such as activity reports, before and after site photographs, or data sharing, would qualify as an information collection, and we have included the associated burden in the table below.
We invite comments concerning this information collection on:
• Whether or not the collection of information is necessary, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;
• The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information;
• Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this IC. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice; request for comments.
We (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service) will ask the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to approve the information collection (IC) described below. As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 and as part of our continuing efforts to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, we invite the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on this IC. This IC is scheduled to expire on June 30, 2017. We may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
To ensure that we are able to consider your comments on this IC, we must receive them by April 25, 2017.
Send your comments on the IC to the Service Information Collection Clearance Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, MS: BPHC, 5275 Leesburg Pike, Falls Church, VA 22041-3803 (mail); or
Madonna Baucum, at
The Migratory Bird Treaty Act (16 U.S.C. 703-711) and the Fish and Wildlife Act of 1956 (16 U.S.C. 742d) designate the Department of the Interior as the key agency responsible for (1) the wise management of migratory bird populations frequenting the United States, and (2) setting hunting regulations that allow appropriate harvests that are within the guidelines that will allow for those populations' well-being. These responsibilities dictate that we gather accurate data on various characteristics of migratory bird harvest. Based on information from harvest surveys, we can adjust hunting regulations as needed to optimize harvests at levels that provide a maximum of hunting recreation while keeping populations at desired levels.
Under 50 CFR 20.20, migratory bird hunters must register for the Migratory Bird Harvest Information Program (HIP) in each State in which they hunt each year. State natural resource agencies must send names and addresses of all migratory bird hunters to Branch of Harvest Surveys, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service Division of Migratory Bird Management, on an annual basis.
The Migratory Bird Hunter Survey is based on the Migratory Bird Harvest Information Program. We randomly select migratory bird hunters and ask them to report their harvest. The resulting estimates of harvest per hunter are combined with the complete list of migratory bird hunters to provide estimates of the total harvest for the species surveyed.
The Parts Collection Survey estimates the species, sex, and age composition of the harvest, and the geographic and temporal distribution of the harvest. Randomly selected successful hunters who responded to the Migratory Bird Hunter Survey the previous year are asked to complete and return a postcard if they are willing to participate in the Parts Collection Survey. We provide postage-paid envelopes to respondents before the hunting season and ask them to send in a wing or the tail feathers from each duck or goose that they harvest, or a wing from each mourning dove, woodcock, band-tailed pigeon, snipe, rail, or gallinule that they harvest. We use the wings and tail feathers to identify the species, sex, and age of the harvested sample. We also ask respondents to report on the envelope the date and location of harvest for each bird. We combine the results of this survey with the harvest estimates obtained from the Migratory Bird Hunter Survey to provide species-specific national harvest estimates.
The combined results of these surveys enable us to evaluate the effects of season length, season dates, and bag limits on the harvest of each species, and thus help us determine appropriate hunting regulations.
The Sandhill Crane Harvest Survey is an annual questionnaire survey of people who obtained a sandhill crane hunting permit. At the end of the hunting season, we randomly select a sample of permit holders and ask them to report the date, location, and number of birds harvested for each of their sandhill crane hunts. Their responses provide estimates of the temporal and geographic distribution of the harvest as well as the average harvest per hunter, which, combined with the total number of permits issued, enables us to estimate the total harvest of sandhill cranes. Based on information from this survey, we adjust hunting regulations as needed.
We invite comments concerning this information collection on:
• Whether or not the collection of information is necessary, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;
• The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information;
• Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this IC. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
30-day notice and request for comments.
The Bureau of Land Management (BLM) has submitted an information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to continue the collection of information to request approval from individuals, private entities, and State or local governments seeking leases, permits, and easements for the use, occupancy, or development of public lands administered by the BLM. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) previously approved this information collection activity, and assigned it control number 1004-0009.
The OMB is required to respond to this information collection request within 60 days but may respond after 30 days. For maximum consideration, written comments should be received on or before March 27, 2017.
Please submit comments directly to the Desk Officer for the Department of the Interior (OMB #1004-0009), Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, fax 202-395-5806, or by electronic mail at
Please indicate “Attn: 1004-0009” regardless of the form of your comments.
Jeffrey Cartwright, at 208-373-3885. Persons who use a telecommunication device for the deaf may call the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-877-8339, to leave a message for Mr. Cartwright. You may also review the information collection request online at
The Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521) and OMB regulations at 5 CFR part 1320 provide that an agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. Until OMB approves a collection of information, you are not obligated to respond. In order to obtain and renew an OMB control number, Federal agencies are required to seek public comment on information collection and recordkeeping activities (see 5 CFR 1320.8(d) and 1320.12(a)).
As required at 5 CFR 1320.8(d), the BLM published a 60-day notice in the
The BLM now requests comments on the following subjects:
1. Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper functioning of the BLM, including whether the information will have practical utility;
2. The accuracy of the BLM's estimate of the burden of collecting the
3. The quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and
4. How to minimize the information collection burden on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other forms of information technology.
Please send comments as directed under
The following information pertains to this request:
The estimated burdens are itemized in the following table:
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The State Historical Society of North Dakota, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, has determined that the cultural item listed in this notice meets the definition of an unassociated funerary object. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to claim these cultural items should submit a written request to the State Historical Society of North Dakota. If no additional claimants come forward, transfer of control of the cultural items to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to claim these cultural items should submit a written request with information in support of the claim to the State Historical Society of North Dakota at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Wendi Field Murray, State Historical Society of North Dakota, 612 East Boulevard Avenue, Bismarck, ND 58505, telephone (701) 328-3506,
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3005, of the intent to repatriate a cultural item under the control of the State Historical Society of North Dakota, Bismarck, ND, that meets the definition of an unassociated funerary object under 25 U.S.C. 3001.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American cultural items. The National
Sometime between 1850 and 1931, one cultural item was removed from a gravesite in Lincoln County, GA. Dr. James Grassick, a University of North Dakota physician, collected a stone pipe fragment from a “grave in Lincoln, Georgia” (according to records). Dr. Grassick donated more than 400 Native American items to the State Historical Society on October 26, 1931, from various states, including Georgia. The one unassociated funerary object is a pipe bowl fragment made of steatite. The pipe is likely of the handle or elbow type. Records do not provide any additional information regarding the object's archeological context or provenance.
In consultation with Native American tribes, State Historical Society officials determined that the museum records actually refer to Lincoln County, GA, which is located on the state's eastern border. The pipe bowl was recovered from what were the traditional lands of the Cherokee Nation, The Muscogee (Creek) Nation, and United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma. The determination of cultural affiliation of the unassociated funerary object is based on geographical, archeological, anthropological, and historical evidence, as well as other expert opinions. The unassociated funerary object is consistent with cultural items typically found in the burial contexts among these three groups. Lincoln County, GA, falls within Creek and Cherokee aboriginal lands ceded in the Treaty of Augusta (1773). Archeological evidence indicates the presence of stone pipes in burials at Middle Mississippi site (Dallas phase), believed to be ancestral to contemporary Creek and Cherokee tribes. They are also found archeologically, associated with adult burials among the Creek and Cherokee. The manufacture of steatite was also known among the Cherokee, and is a practice that continues to the present day. The extant evidence narrows the possibilities for cultural affiliation to modern-day Creek and Cherokee groups, but the lack of information regarding the object's date or provenience does not allow for a more specific determination. The Cherokee Nation, The Muscogee (Creek) Nation, and United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma have filed a joint claim for the object.
Officials of the State Historical Society of North Dakota have determined that
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(B), the 1 cultural item described above is reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony and are believed, by a preponderance of the evidence, to have been removed from a specific burial site of a Native American individual.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the unassociated funerary objects and the Cherokee Nation, The Muscogee (Creek) Nation, and United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to claim these cultural items should submit a written request with information in support of the claim to Wendi Field Murray, State Historical Society of North Dakota, 612 East Boulevard Avenue, Bismarck, ND 58505, telephone (701) 328-3506,
The State Historical Society of North Dakota is responsible for notifying the Absentee-Shawnee Tribe of Indians of Oklahoma, Alabama-Coushatta Tribe of Texas (previously listed as the Alabama-Coushatta Tribes of Texas), Alabama-Quassarte Tribal Town, Cherokee Nation, Coushatta Tribe of Louisiana, Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians, Eastern Shawnee Tribe of Oklahoma, Jena Band of Choctaw Indians, Kialegee Tribal Town, Miccosukee Tribe of Indians, Mississippi Band of Choctaw Indians, Poarch Band of Creeks (previously listed as the Poarch Band of Creek Indians of Alabama), Seminole Tribe of Florida (previously listed as the Seminole Tribe of Florida (Dania, Big Cypress, Brighton, Hollywood & Tampa Reservations)), Shawnee Tribe, The Chickasaw Nation, The Muscogee (Creek) Nation, The Seminole Nation of Oklahoma, Thlopthlocco Tribal Town, and United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request to the Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains and associated funerary objects to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Kristina Boykin, Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department, P.O. Box 2261, Little Rock, AR 72203, telephone (501) 569-2079, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by the Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department professional staff in consultation with representatives of The Quapaw Tribe of Indians.
In 2004, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Gilmore South site (3CT340) in Crittenden County, AR, during Phase III mitigation for the improvements to Highway 63. The Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department contracted the excavations out to SPEARS, Inc., in West Fork, AR. The human remains were transferred to the Arkansas Archeological Survey (AAS) for curation in 2009. The human remains were identified as one adult (18-20 years) and female. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects are present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3CT340 indicate these human remains were probably buried during the Transitional Late Woodland/Early Mississippian period (A.D. 700-1200).
In 2004, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from the Gilmore North site (3CT341) in Crittenden County, AR, during Phase III mitigation for the improvements to Highway 63. The Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department contracted the excavations out to SPEARS, Inc., in West Fork, AR. The human remains were transferred to the AAS for curation in 2009. The human remains were identified as two youths of unknown sex. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects are present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3CT341 indicate these human remains were probably buried during the Transitional Late Woodland/Early Mississippian period (A.D. 700-1200).
In 1968, 1969, and 1974, human remains representing, at minimum, 62 individuals were recovered from the Hazel site (3PO6), Poinsett County, AR. The Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department planned to reroute State Highway 308 which went directly through the Hazel site. The excavations were undertaken by the AAS, and the human remains and associated funerary objects have remained at the AAS's collections since the time of their removal. The human remains were identified as eight infants (less than two years old), 12 children (2 to 12 years), one youth (13 to 18 years), 34 adults (19 to 35 years), two old adults (over 35 years), and five undetermined. The human remains were further identified as eight female, 24 males, and 30 undetermined. No known individuals were identified. The 251 associated funerary objects are 59 whole or partial ceramic vessels, 2 ceramic discs, 1 large body sherd, 16 bone beads, 1 bone gorget, 3 bone awls, 1 deer humerus scraper, 1 antler dagger, 1 raccoon jaw, 1 beaver tooth, 14 conch shell beads, 89 disc-shaped shell beads, 40 pearl-slug shell beads, 7 barrel-shaped shell beads, 2 disc-shaped shell ear ornaments, 2 shell fragments, 1 shell mask gorget, 1 shell spoon, 1 conch shell pendant, 1 willow-leaf knife, 1 biface, 1 ball of red ocher, 1 disc-shaped stone, 1 piece of coarse sandstone, 1 triangular piece of sandstone, 1 cymbal-shaped copper disc, and 1 piece of unidentified chalky material. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Hazel site (3PO6) indicate that the human remains were probably buried during the Parkin Phase (A.D. 1300-1600).
In 1984, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals (84-712, 84-712-1, Burials 1 and 2) were recovered from the Ink Bayou site (3PU252) in Pulaski County, AR. The Ink Bayou site was excavated to mitigate the impacts of construction of a bridge over Ink Bayou. The Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department contracted the excavations out to the AAS, and the human remains have remained at the AAS's collections since the time of their removal. The human remains consisted of three adults of unknown age, one male and two undetermined. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects are present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Ink Bayou site (3PU252) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Plum Bayou Phase (A.D. 750-950).
For the human remains listed in this notice, geographic affiliation is consistent with the historically documented territory of The Quapaw Tribe of Indians. Archeological evidence is consistent with the documented use of the area by The Quapaw Tribe of Indians.
Officials of the Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 68 individuals of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(A), the 251 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects and The Quapaw Tribe of Indians.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Kristina Boykin, Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department, P.O. Box 2261, Little Rock, AR 72203, telephone (501) 569-2079, email
The Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department is responsible for notifying The Quapaw Tribe of Indians that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The Arkansas Archeological Survey has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request to the Arkansas Archeological Survey. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains and associated funerary objects to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the Arkansas Archeological Survey at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Dr. George Sabo, Director, Arkansas Archeological Survey, 2475 North Hatch Avenue, Fayetteville, AR 72704, telephone (479) 575-3556.
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects under the control of the Arkansas Archeological Survey, Fayetteville, AR. The human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from multiple counties in the state of Arkansas.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d) (3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by the Arkansas Archeological Survey professional staff in consultation with representatives of the Caddo Nation of Oklahoma, The Osage Nation (previously listed as the Osage Tribe), and The Quapaw Tribe of Indians. These human remains were inventoried and documented by physical anthropologists at the University of Arkansas.
In 1992, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Massey Place site (3AR1) in Arkansas County, AR. No known individual was identified. The two associated funerary objects include two shell tempered bowls (catalog #2014-350-1, 2). Diagnostic artifacts found at the Massey Place site (3AR1) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 900-1500).
In 1980, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Menard Hodges site (3AR4) in Arkansas County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Menard Hodges site (3AR4) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Menard Complex (A.D. 1500-1700).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Menard Hodges site (3AR4) in Arkansas County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Menard Hodges site (3AR4) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Menard Complex (A.D. 1500-1700).
In 1974, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Moore Place site (3AR12) in Arkansas County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Moore Place site (3AR12) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Kent Phase (A.D. 1350-1600).
In 1971, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Old River Landing site (3AR14) in Arkansas County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Old River Landing site (3AR14) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1996, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Wallace site (3AR25) in Arkansas County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Wallace site (3AR25) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Roland Mound site (3AR30) in Arkansas County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1977. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Roland Mound site (3AR30) indicate that the human remains were probably buried during either the Baytown Period (A.D. 400-700) or Coles Creek Period (A.D. 700-1000).
In 1968, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Baker Brothers site (3AR45) in Arkansas County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Baker Brothers site (3AR45) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Baytown Period (A.D. 400-700).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Gibbens site (3AR48) in Arkansas County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1975. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Gibbens site (3AR48) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the late Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, six individuals were recovered from the Gibbens site (3AR48) in Arkansas County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Gibbens site (3AR48) indicate that the human remains were probably buried during the late Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950).
In 1978, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Reback site (3AR66) in Arkansas County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Reback site (3AR66) indicate that the human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950).
In 1979, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from the Rounsaville site (3AR73) in Arkansas County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Rounsaville site (3AR73) indicate that the human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered at the Starr site (3CY449) in Clay County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1996. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Starr site (3CY449) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 900) or Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 2008, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Point Remove site (3CN4) in Conway County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Point Remove Mound site (3CN4) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1974, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Betty Roach site (3CG4) in Craighead County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Betty Roach site (3CG4) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Late Archaic Period (3000-650 B.C.).
In 1976, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the McDuffee site (3CG21) in Craighead County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the McDuffee site (3CG21) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1968, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Weist site (3CG37) in Craighead County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Weist site (3CG37) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Late Archaic Period (3000-650 B.C.).
In 1969, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Old Town Ridge site (3CG41) in Craighead County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Old Town Ridge site (3CG41) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 900-1541).
In 1979, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Frierson #4 site (3CG56) in Craighead County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Frierson #4 site (3CG56) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C-A.D. 950).
In 1968, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Dunkerson site (3CG67) in Craighead County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Dunkerson site (3CG67) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Late Woodland Period (A.D. 600-950) or Early Mississippi Period (A.D. 700-1000).
In 1970, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Pierre Cache site (3CG78) in Craighead County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Pierre Cache site (3CG78) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Archaic Period (9500-650 B.C.).
In 1979, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Burns site (3CG79) in Craighead County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Burns site (3CG79) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950) or Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-541).
In 1978, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Burris #2 site (3CG218) in Craighead County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Burris #2 site (3CG218) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the middle Mississippi Period (A.D. 1000-1350).
In 1971, human remains representing, at minimum, 12 individuals were recovered from site 3CG347 in Craighead County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3CG347 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Late Archaic Period (3000-650 B.C.).
In 1974, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Krebs Place site (3CG453) in Craighead County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Krebs Place site (3CG453) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the middle Mississippi Period (A.D. 1000-1350).
In 1978, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3CG688 in Craighead County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3CG688 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Late Woodland Period (A.D. 600-950) or Early Mississippi Period (A.D. 700-1000).
In 1982, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3CG739 in Craighead County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3CG739 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Late Woodland Period (A.D. 600-950) or Early Mississippi Period (A.D. 700-1000).
In 1984, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Milner site (3CG902) in Craighead County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Milner site (3CG902) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3CG937 in Craighead County, AR. These
In 1990, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3CG990 in Craighead County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3CG990 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Arnold site (3CW77) in Crawford County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Arnold site (3CW77) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950).
In 1968 and 1973, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Bradley Place site (3CT7) in Crittenden County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Bradley Place site (3CT7) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1992, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Richard's Bridge site (3CT11/22) in Crittenden County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Richard's Bridge site (3CT11/22) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 2015, human remains representing, at minimum, five individuals were recovered from the Richard's Bridge site (3CT11/22) in Crittenden County, AR. No known individuals were identified. The 47 associated funerary objects include 2 ceramic sherds, 10 shell fragments, 2 shell ear plugs, 3 ceramic vessels, and 30 burned corn kernels (catalog # 2015-347). Diagnostic artifacts found at the Richard's Bridge site (3CT11/22) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the `Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1973, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Barton Ranch site (3CT18) in Crittenden County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Barton Ranch site (3CT18) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Ross site (3CT50) in Crittenden County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1973. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Ross site (3CT50) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Vernon Paul site (3CS25) in Cross County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1991. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Vernon Paul site (3CS25) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Parkin Phase (A.D. 1350-1550).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Rose Mound site (3CS27) in Cross County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1991. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Rose Mound site (3CS27) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Parkin Phase (A.D. 1350-1550).
In 1994 and 2009, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals were recovered from the Parkin site (3CS29) in Cross County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Parkin site (3CS29) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Parkin site (3CS29) in Cross County, AR. In 2015, these human remains were discovered in the collections of the Arkansas Archeological Survey. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Parkin site (3CS29) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals were recovered from the Wittsburg site (3CS138) in Cross County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1991. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Physical anthropologists determined these human remains were from a prehistoric archeological context. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Wittsburg site (3CS138) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3CS256 in Cross County, AR. In 2015, these human remains were discovered in the collections of the Arkansas Archeological Survey. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3CS256 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals were recovered from the White Oak Mouth/Trotter Place site (3FR4) in Franklin County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1983. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the White Oak Mouth/Trotter Place site (3FR4) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3FR274 in Franklin County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1997. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3FR274 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1997, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Walnut Corners Church site (3GE6) in Greene County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Walnut Corners Church site
In 1974, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Sloan/Dalton Field site (3GE94) in Greene County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Sloan/Dalton Field site (3GE94) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Archaic period (9500-650 B.C.).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3JA1 in Jackson County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1972. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3JA1 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1978, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3JA456 in Jackson County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3JA456 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950).
In 1968, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals were recovered from Webb Farm #1 site (3JE2) in Jefferson County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Webb Farm #1 site (3JE2) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Late Woodland Period (A.D. 600-950).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Webb Farm #2 site (3JE6) in Jefferson County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1968. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Webb Farm #2 site (3JE6) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Late Woodland Period (A.D. 600-950).
In 1979, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Noble Lake site (3JE19) in Jefferson County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Noble Lake site (3JE19) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Walt #1 site (3JE45) in Jefferson County, AR. These remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1993. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Walt #1 site (3JE45) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Coles Creek Phase (A.D. 700-1000).
In 1968, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from the Greer site (3JE50) in Jefferson County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Greer site (3JE50) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during either the Late Woodland Period (A.D. 600-950) or Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1968, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3JE62 in Jefferson County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3JE62 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Late Woodland Period (A.D. 600-950).
In 1972 and 1974, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3LW44 in Lawrence County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3LW44 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Middle Mississippi Period (A.D. 1000-1350).
In 2015, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from site 3LW809 in Lawrence County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3LW809 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1983, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Barrett site (3LE3) in Lee County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Barrett site (3LE3) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Soudan site (3LE5) in Lee County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1991. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Soudan site (3LE5) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Middle Mississippi Period (A.D. 1000-1350).
In 1970, 1984, and 1995, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals were recovered from the Soudan site (3LE5) in Lee County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Soudan site (3LE5) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Middle Mississippi Period (A.D. 1000-1350).
In 1988, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Kent site (3LE8) in Lee County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Kent site (3LE8) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541) or Kent Phase (A.D. 1350-1600).
In 1988 and 1989, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals were recovered from the Clay Hill site (3LE11) in Lee County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Clay Hill site (3LE11) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541) or Kent Phase (A.D. 1350-1600).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Clay Hill site (3LE11) in Lee County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1970. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Clay Hill site (3LE11) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 900-1500) or Kent Phase (A.D. 1350-1600).
In 1980, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals were recovered from the Starkley site (3LE17) in Lee County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No
In 1984, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Conner site (3LE18) in Lee County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Conner site (3LE18) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Baytown Period (A.D. 400-700) or Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1972, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Carnes site (3LE29) in Lee County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Carnes site (3LE29) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541) or Kent Phase (A.D. 1350-1600).
In 1973, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Parson site (3LE50) in Lee County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Parson site (3LE50) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1984, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Troublesome Lake site (3LE128) in Lee County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Troublesome Lake site (3LE128) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Baytown Period (A.D. 400-700) to Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1988, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Peters Church site (3LE130) in Lee County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Peters Church site (3LE130) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Haynes Bluff site (3LE245) in Lee County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1987. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Haynes Bluff site (3LE245) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1994, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from site 3LE286 in Lee County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3LE286 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541) or Kent Phase (A.D. 1350-1600).
In 2013, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were excavated from the Toltec Mounds site (3LN42) in Lonoke County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects are present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Toltec Mounds site (3LN42) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Plum Bayou Phase (A.D. 700-1000).
In 1994 and 1995, human remains representing, at minimum, five individuals were recovered from site 3LO12 in Logan County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3LO12 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the River Mountain Indian site (3LO31) in Logan County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1971. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the River Mountain Indian site (3LO31) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 2013, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Toltec Mounds site (3LN42) in Lonoke County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Toltec Mounds site (3LN42) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Plum Bayou Culture (A.D. 700-1000).
In 1973, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from the Upper Nodena site (3MS4) in Mississippi County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Upper Nodena site (3MS4) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Late Woodland (A.D. 600-950), Early Mississippi periods (A.D. 700-1000), or Nodena Phase (A.D. 1400-1650).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3MS25 in Mississippi County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3MS25 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Friend Levee site (3MS69) in Mississippi County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 2009. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Friend Levee site (3MS69) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1980, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Bradbury site (3MS100) in Mississippi County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Bradbury site (3MS100) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 2009, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Bradbury site (3MS100) in Mississippi County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Bradbury site (3MS100) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 2005, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Eaker site (3MS105) in Mississippi County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Eaker site (3MS105) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 2006, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Eaker site (3MS105) in Mississippi County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present.
In 1980, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Barfield's Landing site (3MS109) in Mississippi County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Barfield's Landing site (3MS109) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1974, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3MS111 in Mississippi County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3MS111 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1988, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3MS441 in Mississippi County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3MS441 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 2001, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Bo site (3MS631) in Mississippi County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Bo site (3MS631) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered near Blytheville in Mississippi County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1998. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Mississippi County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1970, 1978, and 1990, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Baytown site (3MO1) in Monroe County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Baytown site (3MO1) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Baytown Period (A.D. 400-700).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Webster's Camp site (3MO3) in Monroe County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1968. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Webster's Camp site (3MO3) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Baytown Period (A.D. 400-700) or Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1979, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Green River site (3MO55) in Monroe County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Green River site (3MO55) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Baytown Period (A.D. 400-700) or Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Walnut Ridge/Brinker Place site (3MO61) in Monroe County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1983. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Walnut Ridge/Brinker Place site (3MO61) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Baytown Period (A.D. 400-700) or Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals were recovered from the Bank of Brinkley site (3MO72) in Monroe County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1998. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Bank of Brinkley site (3MO72) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950).
In 1969, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Dupree site (3PH1) in Phillips County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Dupree site (3PH1) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Dupree site (3PH1) in Phillips County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1973. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Dupree site (3PH1) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1978, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals were recovered from the Moore site (3PH7) in Phillips County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Moore site (3PH7) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1977, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Old Town site (3PH20) in Phillips County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Old Town site (3PH20) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Shadden site (3PH39) in Phillips County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1990. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Shadden site (3PH39) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Eloise Toney site (3PH42) in Phillips County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1990. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Eloise Toney site (3PH42) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1969, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered at site 3PH45 in Phillips County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3PH45 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Baytown Period (A.D. 400-700).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one
In 1977, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the College site (3PH53) in Phillips County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the College site (3PH53) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950).
In 1969, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Montgomery #2 site (3PH60) in Phillips County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Montgomery #2 site (3PH60) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950).
In 1969, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Chip Franklin site (3PH65) in Phillips County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Chip Franklin site (3PH65) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1972 and 1973, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Martin site (3PH126) in Phillips County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Martin site (3PH126) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1977, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3PH153 in Phillips County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3PH153 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 2015, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Potter's Field site (3PO2/23) in Poinsett County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Potter's Field site (3PO2/23) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1974 and 1980, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals were recovered from the Miller site (3PO24) in Poinsett County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Miller site (3PO24) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi (A.D. 900-1541) or Parkin Phase (A.D. 1300-1600).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Roby Cooper Place site (3PO40) in Poinsett County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1974. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Roby Cooper Place site (3PO40) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Baytown Period (A.D. 400-700).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Hubbard #2 site (3PO146) in Poinsett County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 2013. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Hubbard #2 site (3PO146) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered near Marked Tree in Poinsett County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey at an unknown date. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Poinsett County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1971, human remains representing, at minimum, 19 individuals were recovered from the Howell Farm site (3PP17) in Pope County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts recovered from the Howell Farm site (3PP17) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950).
In 1972 and 1973, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Fowler's Point/Mulberry Hill site (3PR21) in Prairie County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Fowler's Point/Mulberry Hill site (3PR21) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Baytown Period (A.D. 400-700) or Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from the Fowler's Point/Mulberry Hill site (3PR21) in Prairie County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1987. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Fowler's Point/Mulberry Hill site (3PR21) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Baytown Period (A.D. 400-700) or Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1972 and 2011, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Sanner-Ferguson site (3PR22) in Prairie County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Sanner-Ferguson site (3PR22) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1978, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Bull Farm #1 site (3PR26) in Prairie County, AR. No known individual was identified. The one associated funerary object is one Winterville incised ceramic fragment (catalog # 78-1216-1). Diagnostic artifacts found at the Bull Farm #1 site (3PR26) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Honey Creek site (3PR28) in Prairie County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey at an unknown date. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Prairie County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Plunkett C-9 site (3PR97) in Prairie County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1991. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Plunkett C-9 site (3PR97) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Baytown Period (A.D. 400-700).
In 2008 and 2009, human remains representing, at minimum, 20 individuals were recovered from the Isgrig site (3PU15) in Pulaski County, AR. No known individuals were identified. The 45 associated funerary objects include 26 ceramic vessels, 15 arrow points, and 4 deer ulna awls. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Isgrig site (3PU15) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1990, human remains representing, at minimum, 25 individuals were recovered from the Kuykendall Brake site (3PU111) in Pulaski County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Kuykendall Brake site (3PU111) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Menard Complex (A.D. 1500-1700).
In 1995, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the County Dairy Farm site (3PU163) in Pulaski County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the County Dairy Farm site (3PU163) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Late Woodland Period (A.D. 600-950).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from site 3PU473 in Pulaski County, AR. These human remains were sent to the Arkansas Archeological Survey from the state Medical Examiner at an unknown date. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts from site 3PU473 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Baytown Period (A.D. 400-700) or Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 2012, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Grigsby site (3RA262) in Randolph County, AR. No known individual was identified. In accordance with Arkansas State Law, these human remains were reburied at the Grigsby site (3RA262) at an unknown date. The 1,866 associated funerary objects include 1,841 glass beads, 6 metal fragments, 1 metal kettle, 8 metal beads, 2 tinkling cones, 2 iron knives, 4 iron coils, 1 metal spoon, and 1 coil bracelet. These diagnostic artifacts indicate that the associated human remains were probably originally buried during the Protohistoric Period (A.D. 1541-1700).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Big Eddy site (3SF9) in St. Francis County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1991. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Big Eddy site (3SF9) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Big Eddy site (3SF9) in St. Francis County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 2014. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Big Eddy site (3SF9) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from the Castile Landing site (3SF12) in St. Francis County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1991. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Castile Landing site (3SF12) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, seven individuals were recovered from the Manley site (3SF25) in St. Francis County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1991. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Manley site (3SF25) indicate that these remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1969, human remains representing, at minimum, seven individuals were recovered from the Soc site (3WH34) in White County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Soc site (3WH34) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3WH73 in White County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1970. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts at site 3WH73 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1973, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Glaze Creek Access site (3WH168) in White County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts at the Glaze Creek Access site (3WH168) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Baytown Period (A.D. 400-700).
In 1989, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from site 3WH462 in White County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts at site 3WH462 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950) or Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1983, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered near Augusta in White County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found near Augusta in White County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Old Barn site (3WO239) in Woodruff County, AR. No known individual was
In 1967, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Delaware Creek site (3YE6) in Yell County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Delaware Creek site (3YE6) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Bullock site (3YE20) in Yell County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1970. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Bullock site (3YE20) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1992, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Carden Bottoms site (3YE25) in Yell County, AR. No known individual was identified. The 3 associated funerary objects include 3 tubular shell beads (92-380-51, -56). Diagnostic artifacts found at the Carden Bottoms site (3YE25) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Late Mississippi Period (A.D. 1350-1650).
In 1991 and 1992, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3YE347 in Yell County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3YE347 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Late Mississippi Period (A.D. 1350-1650).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Cache River in Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1991. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found along the Cache River indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1500).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, four individuals were recovered from an unknown location in Northeast Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 2015. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Northeast Arkansas indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1500).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from Willshand Farms in Northeast Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1991. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at Willshand Farms indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Atkins Bottoms site in Pope County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 2015. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Atkins Bottoms site indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1500).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from Memphis, Crittenden County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1994. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in the Memphis, AR, vicinity indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from an unknown location in Northeast Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1973. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Northeast Arkansas indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from an unknown location in Northeast Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1968. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Northeast Arkansas indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from an unknown location in White County, AR, by the State Medical Examiner. These human remains were determined to be of Native American descent and were transferred to the Arkansas Archeological Survey at an unknown date. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in White County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from an unknown location in St. Francis County, AR, by the State Medical Examiner. These human remains were determined to be of Native American descent and were transferred to the Arkansas Archeological Survey at an unknown date. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in St. Francis County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from an unknown location in Mississippi County, AR, by the State Medical Examiner. These human remains were determined to be of Native American descent and were transferred to the Arkansas Archeological Survey at an unknown date. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Mississippi County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
This notice includes a variety of terms commonly used in discussions of Arkansas archeology and the historical trajectories that gave rise to specific Native American communities identified in the historical record. Based on the archeological context for these sites and what is presently known about the peoples who pre-date the historic Quapaw and occupied the sites listed in this notice, the Arkansas Archeological Survey has determined the human remains listed in this notice are culturally affiliated with The Quapaw Tribe of Indians.
Officials of the Arkansas Archeological Survey have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 276 individuals of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(A), the 1,964 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects and The Quapaw Tribe of Indians.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Dr. George Sabo, Director, Arkansas Archeological Survey, 2475 North Hatch Avenue, Fayetteville, AR 72704, telephone (479) 575-3556, by March 27, 2017. After that date, if no additional requestors have come forward, transfer of control of the human remains to and associated funerary objects to The Quapaw Tribe of Indians may proceed.
The Arkansas Archeological Survey is responsible for notifying The Quapaw Tribe of Indians that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The Arkansas Archeological Survey has completed an inventory of human remains, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes, and has determined that there is no cultural affiliation between the human remains and any present-day Indian tribes. Representatives of any Indian tribe not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request to the Arkansas Archeological Survey. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains to the Indian tribes stated in this notice may proceed.
Representatives of any Indian tribe not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the Arkansas Archeological Survey at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Dr. George Sabo, Director, Arkansas Archeological Survey, 2475 North Hatch Avenue, Fayetteville, AR 72704, telephone (479) 575-3556.
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains under the control of the Arkansas Archeological Survey, Fayetteville, AR. The human remains were removed from unknown locations in the state of Arkansas.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3) and 43 CFR 10.11(d). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by the Arkansas Archeological Survey professional staff in consultation with representatives of Caddo Nation of Oklahoma, The Osage Nation (previously listed as the Osage Tribe), The Quapaw Tribe of Indians, and Tunica-Biloxi Indian Tribe. These human remains were inventoried and documented by physical anthropologists at the University of Arkansas.
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual (75 FSN 182) were recovered from an unknown location in the state of Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey at an unknown date. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects are present.
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual (85-814) were recovered from an unknown location in the state of Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1985. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects are present.
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals (85-812) were recovered from an unknown location in the state of Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1985. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects are present.
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals (94-1046) were recovered from an unknown location in the state of Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1994. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present.
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual (94-603) were recovered from an unknown location in the state of Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1994. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present.
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, five individuals (97-734-1 to -5) were recovered from an unknown location in the state of Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1997. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present.
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals (97-735) were recovered from an unknown location in the state of Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1997. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present.
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals (98-687 and 98-688) were recovered from an unknown location in the state of Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1998. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present.
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals (94-1019) were recovered from an unknown location in the state of Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1994. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present.
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual (92-1343) were recovered from an unknown location in the state of Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1992. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present.
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals (95-929) were recovered from an unknown location in the state of Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1995. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present.
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals (95-930) were recovered from an unknown location in the state of Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1995. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present.
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual (2011-503-116) were recovered from an unknown location in Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 2011. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present.
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals (2015-613, 667) were recovered from an unknown location in Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 2015. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present.
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual (2015-673) were recovered from an unknown location in Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 2015. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present.
On occasion, the Arkansas Archeological Survey has received human remains that have been unaccompanied by any information about the location of discovery beyond the state of Arkansas. Diagnostic artifacts found in the state of Arkansas indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541). Inspection and documentation by physical anthropologists at the University of Arkansas indicate that these human remains are of an age and character to be identified as the remains of individuals who were buried in now unknown locations at least three centuries ago. The preponderance of evidence indicates that these are Native Americans who resided in Arkansas during the Prehistoric period.
Current research indicates that the earliest Paleoindian migrants were present in Arkansas in the waning centuries of the Pleistocene. Diagnostic Clovis and affiliated projectile points found in the state demonstrate that this residence began at least 11,600 years ago. Native people continued to reside in all parts of Arkansas through the end of the Prehistoric period which is marked at A.D. 1541 with the arrival of Spanish explorers on the Hernando DeSoto expedition.
Since none of the human remains enumerated in this NIC can be traced to a known archeological site, it is not possible to make a determination with regard to their potential affiliation with any of the Indian tribes with whom the Arkansas Archeological Survey engages in consultation.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice are Native American based on inspection and documentation by physical anthropologists at the University of Arkansas.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 31 individuals of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), a relationship of shared group identity cannot be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and any present-day Indian tribe and any present-day Indian tribe.
• According to final judgments of the Indian Claims Commission, the land from which the Native American human remains were removed is the aboriginal land of Caddo Nation of Oklahoma, The Osage Nation (previously listed as the Osage Tribe), The Quapaw Tribe of Indians, and Tunica-Biloxi Indian Tribe.
• Pursuant to 43 CFR 10.11(c)(1), the disposition of the human remains may be to Caddo Nation of Oklahoma, The Osage Nation (previously listed as the Osage Tribe), The Quapaw Tribe of Indians, and Tunica-Biloxi Indian Tribe.
Representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request Dr. George Sabo, Director, Arkansas Archeological Survey, 2475 North Hatch Avenue, Fayetteville, AR 72704, telephone (479) 575-3556, by March 27, 2017. After that date, if no additional requestors have come forward, transfer of control of the human remains to Caddo Nation of Oklahoma, The Osage Nation (previously listed as the Osage Tribe), The Quapaw Tribe of Indians, and Tunica-Biloxi Indian Tribe may proceed.
The Arkansas Archeological Survey is responsible for notifying Caddo Nation of Oklahoma, The Osage Nation (previously listed as the Osage Tribe), The Quapaw Tribe of Indians, and Tunica-Biloxi Indian Tribe that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
Vanderbilt University has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is no cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and any present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request to Vanderbilt University. If no additional requestors come forward,
Representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Vanderbilt University at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Arrin Richards, Assistant General Counsel, Vanderbilt University, 2100 West End Avenue, Suite 750, Nashville, TN 37203, telephone (615) 322-5157, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects under the control of the Vanderbilt University. The human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from the Arnold Village site in Brentwood, Williamson County, TN.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3) and 43 CFR 10.11(d). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed inventory of the human remains was made by Vanderbilt University Associate Professor of Anthropology, Tiffiny A. Tung. An assessment of the human remains was made in consultation with Professor Tiffiny Tung, Professor Beth Conklin (Chair of the Department of Anthropology), Arrin Richards (Vanderbilt University Counsel), and representatives of the Cherokee Nation, Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians, The Chickasaw Nation, The Choctaw Nation of Oklahoma, The Muscogee (Creek) Nation, and United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma.
Between 1966 and 1967, human remains representing, at minimum, 208 individuals were removed from the Arnold Village site in Williamson County, TN. The Southeastern Indian Antiquities Survey Inc. (SIAS) excavated the site when it “was threatened with partial destruction” (Ferguson 1972: page 5) by the planned construction of homes. The Ferguson report indicates that the ceramic sherds from Burial #38 were transferred to the University of Tennessee (presumably at Knoxville) (Ferguson 1972: page 30), and Charles Nash (from Memphis State University) also examined the Arnold site ceramics, suggesting that some ceramics may have been transferred to Memphis State University. Excavations at the Arnold site uncovered the remnants of 17 ancient house structures and 151 graves of the “stone box” style (
Officials of Vanderbilt University have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice are Native American based on the archeological context and radiocarbon dating.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 208 individuals of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(A), 2 ceramic objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), a relationship of shared group identity cannot be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects and any present-day Indian tribe.
• The Treaty of 1805 indicates that the land from which the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects were removed is the aboriginal land of the Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians, The Chickasaw Nation, and United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians.
• Pursuant to 43 CFR 10.11(c)(1), the disposition of the human remains and associated funerary objects may be to the Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians, The Chickasaw Nation, and United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians.
Representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Arrin Richards, Assistant General Counsel, Vanderbilt University, 2100 West End Avenue, Suite 750, Nashville, TN 37203, telephone (615) 322-5157, email
Vanderbilt University is responsible for notifying the Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians, The Chickasaw Nation, and United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS), Alaska Region, has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organization. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization, not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request to the Alaska Region USFWS. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains and associated funerary objects to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the Alaska Region USFWS at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Edward J. DeCleva, Regional Historic Preservation Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Alaska Region, 1011 East Tudor Road, MS-235, Anchorage, AK 99503, telephone (907) 786-3399, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects under the control of the Alaska Region USFWS. The human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from site MT-1, Mikisagmiut Bay, Nunivak Island, AK.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by the Alaska Region USFWS professional staff in consultation with representatives of the Native Village of Mekoryuk, the NIMA Corporation, and the Calista Corporation.
In 1973, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were removed from site MT-1 (now known as site 49-XNI-032), Mikisagmiut Bay, Nunivak Island, AK, during excavations by University of Oregon archeologists. No known individuals were identified. The seven associated funerary objects include one awl, one bone tube, two shaped bones, one ivory labret, one plain gravel-tempered potsherd, and one bone line shuttle or sled runner.
Nunivak Island is traditional territory of the Central-Yup'ik-speaking Nunivak Eskimo or Nuniwarmiut people. Oral tradition and archeological investigations indicate that Nunivak Island was peopled at least 2600 years ago and most likely continuously occupied by descendants of the initial population. The nature of the funerary artifacts suggests a late prehistoric age for the burials. The human remains are thought to represent a woman, most likely a young adult. The human remains and associated artifacts were transferred to the University of Oregon Museum of Natural and Cultural History in 2005 by the archeologist responsible for collecting them.
Officials of the Alaska Region USFWS have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(A), the seven objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects and the Nuniwarmiut people of Alaska and Native Village of Mekoryuk.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wishes to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Edward DeCleva, Regional Historic Preservation Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Alaska Region, 1011 East Tudor Road, MS-235, Anchorage, AK 99503, telephone (907) 786-3399, email
Alaska Region USFWS is responsible for notifying the Nuniwarmiut people and Native Village of Mekoryuk that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The Arkansas Archeological Survey has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request to the Arkansas Archeological Survey. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains and associated funerary objects to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to
George Sabo, Director, Arkansas Archeological Survey, 2475 North Hatch Avenue, Fayetteville, AR 72704, telephone (479) 575-3556.
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects under the control of the Arkansas Archeological Survey, Fayetteville, AR. The human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from multiple counties in the state of Arkansas.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains were made by the Arkansas Archeological Survey professional staff in consultation with representatives of the Caddo Nation, The Osage Nation (previously listed as the Osage Tribe), and The Quapaw Tribe of Indians. These human remains were inventoried and documented by physical anthropologists at the University of Arkansas.
In 1968, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Galatia Shelter site (3BA5) in Baxter County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Galatia Shelter site (3BA5) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Galatia Shelter site (3BA5) in Baxter County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1997. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Galatia Shelter site (3BA5) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Elmo Hurst Indian Grave site (3BA65) in Baxter County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1975. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at Elmo Hurst Indian Grave site (3BA65) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1968, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals were recovered from the Sheep Cave site (3BE42) in Benton County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Sheep Cave site (3BE42) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950 to 1541).
In 1979, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Butler Shelter #2 site (3BE205) in Benton County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Butler Shelter #2 site (3BE205) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from the Eagle's Nest Bottom site (3BE243) in Benton County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1973. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Eagle's Nest Bottom site (3BE243) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1986, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the War Eagle Creek site (3BE486) in Benton County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the War Eagle Creek site (3BE486) indicate that these remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from an unknown location in Boone County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1993. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Boone County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 2016, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from an unknown location in Boone County, Arkansas. These human remains were determined to be of Native American descent by the state Medical Examiner and were transferred to the Arkansas Archeological Survey. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Boone County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1971, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Blue Springs Shelter site (3CR4) in Carroll County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Blue Springs Shelter site (3CR4) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1985, human remains representing, at minimum, five individuals were recovered from the Berryville site (3CR91) in Carroll County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Berryville site (3CR91) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the David Land site (3CR260) in Carroll County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1993. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the David Land site indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from Carroll County, AR. These human remains were determined to be of Native American ancestry after being taken to the state crime lab and were then donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1992. No known individual was identified. No
In 1975, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Beaver Pond and Bluffs site (3CW11) in Crawford County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts recovered from the Beaver Pond and Bluffs site (3CW11) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3FA118 in Faulkner County, AR. These human remains were found on premises in 2015. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3FA118 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 2008, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals were recovered from the Blackhawk I site (3IN6) in Independence County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Blackhawk I site (3IN6) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3IN11 in Independence County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3IN11 in Independence County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 2009, human remains representing, at minimum, five individuals were recovered from the Harter Knoll site (3IN54) in Independence County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Harter Knoll site (3IN54) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 2002, human remains representing, at minimum, 11 individuals were recovered from the Gardner #2 site (3IN505) in Independence County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Gardner #2 site (3IN505) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 2002, human remains representing, at minimum, 15 individuals were recovered from the Gardner site (3IN680) in Independence County, AR. No known individuals were identified. The one associated funerary object includes one bone tool (2002-600). Diagnostic artifacts found at the Gardner site (3IN680) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from an unknown location in Independence County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Independence County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from the area of Calico Rock in Izard County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1985. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Izard County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals were recovered from an unknown site in Johnson County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1985. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Johnson County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from an unknown site in Madison County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1994. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Madison County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from an unknown site in Madison County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1975. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Madison County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, possibly 1972, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Turner Cave site (3MA20-83) in Madison County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Turner Cave site (3MA20-83) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1971, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Loy Watson #2 site (3MA53) in Madison County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Loy Watson #2 site (3MA53) indicate that these human remains were probably during the Archaic period (9500-650 B.C.).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals from the Kings River site (3MA113) in Madison County, AR, were transferred from the University of Arkansas to the Arkansas Archeological Survey. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site (MA113) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1980, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3MA120 in Madison County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3MA120 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 1984, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3MA127 in Madison County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3MA127 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C-950 A.D).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from site 3MA158 in Madison County, AR. These human remains were donated to the
In 1968, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Cowcreek site (3MR33) in Marion County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Cowcreek site (3MR33) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1968, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the White Eagle site (3MR53) in Marion County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the White Eagle site (3MR53) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the White Eagle site (3MR53) in Marion County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1968. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the White Eagle site (3MR53) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, four individuals were recovered from the Clear Creek Cave site (3MR77) in Marion County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1996. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Clear Creek Cave site (3MR77) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Kading site in Marion County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Marion County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1970, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from site 3NW14 in Newton County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3NW14 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1969 and 1970, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from the Old Saltpeter's Cave site (3NW29) in Newton County, AR. No known individuals were identified. The three associated funerary objects include one nutting stone and two projectile points (70-105). Diagnostic artifacts found at the Old Saltpeter's Cave site (3NW29) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3NW405 in Newton County, AR. These remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1971. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3NW405 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3NW408 in Newton County, AR. These remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1971. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3NW408 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from an unknown site in Newton County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. These human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1982, human remains representing, at minimum, six individuals were recovered from the George W. Cheek estate site (3PP105) in Pope County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts recovered from the George W. Cheek estate site (3PP105) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from an unknown site in Searcy County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1994. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. These human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1978, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the White Bluff site (3SE26) in Searcy County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. These human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from the Bixler Hole Shelter in Van Buren County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 2015. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at Bixler Hole Shelter indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1994, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Brown's Bluff site (3WA10) in Washington County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. These human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1973, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Blue Springs site (3WA122) in Washington County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Blue Springs site (3WA122) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1969, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Lynch site (3WA143) in Washington County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Lynch site (3WA143) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1988, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3WA823 in Washington County, AR. No known
In 1981, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3WH276 in White County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts at site 3WH276 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from an unknown location in the state of Arkansas. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Northwest Arkansas indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
This notice includes a variety of terms commonly used in discussions of Arkansas archeology and the historical trajectories that gave rise to specific Native American communities identified in the historical record. Based on the archeological context for these sites and what is presently known about the peoples who pre-date the historic Osage and occupied the sites listed in this notice, the Arkansas Archeological Society has determined the human remains listed in this notice are culturally affiliated with The Osage Nation (previously listed as the Osage Tribe).
Officials of the Arkansas Archeological Survey have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 107 individuals of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(A), the four objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects and The Osage Nation (previously listed as the Osage Tribe).
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Dr. George Sabo, Director, Arkansas Archeological Survey, 2475 North Hatch Avenue, Fayetteville, AR 72704, telephone (479) 575-3556, by March 27, 2017. After that date, if no additional requestors have come forward, transfer of control of the human remains and associated funerary objects to The Osage Nation (previously listed as the Osage Tribe) may proceed.
The Arkansas Archeological Survey is responsible for notifying The Osage Nation (previously listed as the Osage Tribe) that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The U.S. Department of the Army, United States Army Garrison, Presidio of Monterey has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is no cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and any present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request to the United States Army Garrison, Presidio of Monterey. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains and associated funerary objects to the Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the United States Army Garrison, Presidio of Monterey at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Colonel Lawrence Brown, Department of the Army, United States Army Garrison, Presidio of Monterey, 1759 Lewis Road, Suite 210, Monterey, CA 93944-3223, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects under the control of the United States Army Garrison, Presidio of Monterey, Monterey, CA. The human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from the Presidio of Monterey, Monterey County, CA.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3) and 43 CFR 10.11(d). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by the United States Army Garrison, Presidio of Monterey professional staff, with the assistance of the United States Army Corps of Engineers, St. Louis District, Mandatory Center of Expertise in the Curation and Management of Archaeological Collections, and in consultation with representatives of Picayune Rancheria of the Chukchansi Indians of California; Santa Rosa Indian Community of the Santa Rosa Rancheria, California; Santa Ynez Band of Chumash Mission Indians of the Santa Ynez Reservation, California; Table Mountain Rancheria of California; Tule River Indian Tribe of the Tule River Reservation, California, and the following non-federally recognized Indian group: Ohlone/Costanoan-Esselen Nation. The Tuolumne Band of Me-Wuk Indians of
In 1910, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals were purportedly collected by an individual named Heath in the vicinity of El Castillo, site CA-MNT-101, in Monterey County, CA. A.R. Pilling stated that Heath gave him the human remains when Pilling donated them to the Phoebe A. Hearst Museum of Anthropology, University of California, Berkeley, CA, in 1947. The human remains were identified as two adult males and one sub-adult of indeterminate sex. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects are present.
In 1947 and 1953, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual, were found by A.R. Pilling at the Phoebe A. Hearst Museum of Anthropology, University of California, Berkeley, CA, stored within faunal collections associated with El Castillo (CA-MNT-101), Monterey County, CA. The human remains were identified as one adult of indeterminate sex. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects are present.
In 1960, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual, were purportedly collected from the vicinity of El Castillo (CA-MNT-101), Monterey County, CA. The human remains were donated to the Pacific Grove Museum of Natural History, Pacific Grove, CA by Donald Howard. The catalog card states that the human remains were from “the Presidio of Monteray (sic) near the intersection of Foam and Lighthouse above the cliff.” The human remains were identified as an adult of indeterminate sex. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects are present.
In 1967, human remains representing, at minimum, nine individuals, were excavated from El Castillo (CA-MNT-101), Monterey County, CA. The excavations resulted from a proposal to establish a State Park or Monument at El Castillo, for which the CA Department of Parks and Recreation and the National Park Service contracted the Central California Archaeological Foundation to survey and excavate the proposed site. Collections from the excavation were curated at the California State Parks, Department of Parks and Recreation, California State Museum Resource Center, now titled the California Statewide Museum Collections Center, McClellan, CA. The human remains were identified as three adults (one male, one female and one of indeterminate sex), two sub-adults of indeterminate sex and four infants of indeterminate sex. No known individuals were identified. The 122 associated funerary objects include: 1 andesite chipped stone scrapper or preform, 2 complete hammer stones (1 is basalt), 1 gray chert core, 1 antler flaking tool (burned), 1 incomplete antler tool, 1 fragmented antler tine, 3 Olivella shell bead fragments, 1 shell fishhook fragment, 1 possible Haliotis ornament preform, 1 fragmented clam shell ornament, 19 unmodified mammal bones, 4 unmodified bird bones, 3 unmodified fish bones, 3 unmodified crustacean shells, and 80 unmodified shells (including fragments of Haliotis, Olivella and Turban and few complete Haliotis, some of which may be modified).
In 1985, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were excavated from El Castillo (CA-MNT-101), Monterey County, CA. The archeological test excavations were conducted by Archaeological Consulting and Research Services to determine the effect on cultural resources of a proposed easement along Lighthouse Avenue, with a connection to Van Buren Street. The collection was originally stored at Fort Ord, Seaside, CA. In 1994, Cultural Resources Management Services (CRMS) inventoried archeological collections from the Presidio of Monterey. These collections were temporarily stored at their laboratory in Paso Robles, CA until they were moved to the San Diego Archaeological Center, Escondido, CA in 2003. The human remains were identified as one adult and one sub-adult of indeterminate sex. No known individuals were identified. The 188 associated funerary objects include: 3 chert projectile points, 1 granite and 1 metavolcanic hammerstone, 4 granite pestle fragments, 1 chert and 1 metavolcanic chopper, 1 siltstone scrapper, 10 biface fragments, 67 chipped stone debitage, 2 bone awl tips, 6 Mytilus fish hook fragments, 30 Olivella shell beads, 12 Haliotis shell pendant fragments, 1 modified Mytilus shell fragment, and 48 unmodified Olivella shell and shell fragments.
In the 1984, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were excavated from CA-MNT-932, Monterey County, CA. The excavations were undertaken by Far Western Anthropological Research Group, Inc. to evaluate the site's eligibility for inclusion in the National Register of Historic Places. The collection was originally curated at San Jose State University, Department of Anthropology, San Jose, CA. In 1994, CRMS inventoried archeological collections from the Presidio of Monterey and stored them at their laboratory in Paso Robles, CA, until they were moved to the SDAC, Escondido, CA in 2003. SDAC inventoried the collection, and only at that time was the bone material in the collection positively identified as human. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects are present.
Officials of the United States Army Garrison, Presidio of Monterey have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice are Native American based on morphological characteristics and the archeological context of the sites from which they were removed.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 17 individuals of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(A), the 310 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), a relationship of shared group identity cannot be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects and any present-day Indian tribe.
• A treaty signed in 1851 identified Indian lands to be ceded to the United States in exchange for compensation, and included the land from which the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects listed in this notice were removed. That treaty was one of 18 such treaties between the United States and Indian entities in California that were negotiated and signed in 1851 and 1852, wherein certain Indian lands were ceded to the U.S. in exchange for compensation. On July 8, 1852, the U.S. Senate refused to ratify any of those 18 treaties. Nonetheless, the United States proceeded to take the lands to be ceded, but without paying compensation.
• According to the California Indians Jurisdictional Act of 1928 (45 Stat. 602), Congress declared that the uncompensated taking of these lands, including the land from which the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects listed in this notice were removed, provided grounds for granting equitable relief to
• According to a final judgment of the Indian Claims Commission (8 Ind. Cl. Comm. 39a) and a final judgment of the Court of Federal Claims (102 Ct. C1. 837), the Indian entities in California that signed those 18 treaties held aboriginal title to the lands to be ceded, including the land from which the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects listed in this notice were removed. Consequently, the Court and the Commission awarded compensation to the descendants of the Indian entities that signed those treaties.
• The present-day Indian tribes that are descended from the Indian entities that signed the 1851 treaty ceding the land from which the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects listed in this notice were removed are the Picayune Rancheria of the Chukchansi Indians of California; Santa Rosa Indian Community of the Santa Rosa Rancheria, California; Table Mountain Rancheria of California; Tule River Indian Tribe of the Tule River Reservation, California; and Tuolumne Band of Me-Wuk Indians of the Tuolumne Rancheria of California.
• According to an Act of Congress and final judgments of the Indian Claims Commission and the Court of Federal Claims, the land from which the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects were removed is the aboriginal land of the Picayune Rancheria of the Chukchansi Indians of California; Santa Rosa Indian Community of the Santa Rosa Rancheria, California; Table Mountain Rancheria of California; Tule River Indian Tribe of the Tule River Reservation, California; and Tuolumne Band of Me-Wuk Indians of the Tuolumne Rancheria of California.
• Pursuant to 43 CFR 10.11(c)(1), the disposition of the human remains and associated funerary objects may be to Picayune Rancheria of the Chukchansi Indians of California; Santa Rosa Indian Community of the Santa Rosa Rancheria, California; Table Mountain Rancheria of California; Tule River Indian Tribe of the Tule River Reservation, California; and Tuolumne Band of Me-Wuk Indians of the Tuolumne Rancheria of California.
Representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Colonel Lawrence Brown, Department of the Army, United States Army Garrison, Presidio of Monterey, 1759 Lewis Road, Suite 210, Monterey, CA 93944-3223, email
The United States Army Garrison, Presidio of Monterey is responsible for notifying the Picayune Rancheria of the Chukchansi Indians of California; Santa Rosa Indian Community of the Santa Rosa Rancheria, California; Santa Ynez Band of Chumash Mission Indians of the Santa Ynez Reservation, California; Table Mountain Rancheria of California; Tule River Indian Tribe of the Tule River Reservation, California; and Tuolumne Band of Me-Wuk Indians of the Tuolumne Rancheria of California, that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The Ohio History Connection has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request to the Ohio History Connection. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains and associated funerary objects to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the Ohio History Connection at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Bradley Lepper, Ohio History Connection, 800 East 17th Avenue, Columbus, OH 43211, telephone (614) 298-2064, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects under the control of the Ohio History Connection, Columbus, OH. The human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from Newcomers Town and Cemetery, Tuscarawas County, OH.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by the Ohio History Connection professional staff in consultation with representatives of the Delaware Nation, Oklahoma.
In July 1934, construction activities relating to the installation of sewer and waterlines along Mulvane Street in Newcomerstown, Tuscarawas County, OH, uncovered human remains. Emerson F. Greenman, Curator of Archaeology for the Ohio History Connection investigated the discovery and collected human remains and
Newcomers Town, also known as
Officials of the Ohio History Connection have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(A), the 52 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near the human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects and the Delaware Nation, Oklahoma.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Bradley Lepper, Ohio History Connection, 800 East 17th Avenue, Columbus, OH 43211, telephone (614) 298-2064, email
The Ohio History Connection is responsible for notifying the Delaware Nation, Oklahoma, that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The Arkansas Archeological Survey, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, has determined that the cultural items listed in this notice meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to claim these cultural items should submit a written request to the Arkansas Archeological Survey. If no additional claimants come forward, transfer of control of the cultural items to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to claim these cultural items should submit a written request with information in support of the claim to the Arkansas Archeological Survey at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Dr. George Sabo, Director, Arkansas Archeological Survey, 2475 North Hatch Avenue, Fayetteville, AR 72704, telephone (479) 575-3556.
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3005, of the intent to repatriate cultural items under the control of the Arkansas Archeological Survey that meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects under 25 U.S.C. 3001.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American cultural items. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
At an unknown date, six cultural items were removed from unknown areas in southern Arkansas. These cultural items were given to Southern Arkansas University at an unknown date, and donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 2016. The six unassociated funerary objects are one East Incised fragmentary jar, one East Incised bowl, one Nash Neck Banded jar, one effigy jar, one plain bowl, and one Hempstead Engraved bottle (Catalog #95-440-49, 50, 52, 55, 60, 61).
The pottery types are well known examples of Caddo traditional wares. East Incised and Hempstead Engraved finewares are found throughout Southwest Arkansas, along the Red River Valley in the vicinity of the Great Bend, and into adjoining corners of Texas, Louisiana, and Oklahoma. The time spans for the types overlap, with East Incised associated with the East Phase and ranging between A.D. 1100 and 1400, Hempstead Engraved is associated with the Haley Phase as well as the East Phase and was made between about A.D. 1200 and 1450. Nash Neck Banded was made in the 15th and 16th centuries. All three types were made before European contact and during the Caddo tradition.
The Caddo archeological tradition developed between A.D. 900 and 1000 in the four corners region of Arkansas, Texas, Louisiana and Oklahoma. Distinctive characteristics include a dispersed residential settlement of families with a lifestyle grounded in farming and collecting wild plants and animals. The core of community life was a religious and political center with ceremonial and burial mounds, public areas for community events and rituals, and a small residential population believed to be religious and political leaders and their families. Caddo ceramics are highly distinctive with dual manufacturing traditions that produced both refined wares decorated with complex stylized incised and engraved designs and utilitarian wares with highly plastic incised, punctuated, and brushed designs that are dominated by geometric motifs.
The Caddo continued to practice traditional settlement arrangements and material crafts well into the contact period. This is confirmed in part by past discoveries of distinctive Caddo ceramics and other artifacts found with European trade items in locations where French and Spanish observers
Officials of the Arkansas Archeological Survey have determined that
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(B), the 6 cultural items described above are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony and are believed, by a preponderance of the evidence, to have been removed from a specific burial site of a Native American individual.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the unassociated funerary objects and the Caddo Nation of Oklahoma.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to claim these cultural items should submit a written request with information in support of the claim to Dr. George Sabo, Director, Arkansas Archeological Survey, 2475 North Hatch Avenue, Fayetteville, AR 72704, telephone (479) 575-3556, by March 27, 2017. After that date, if no additional claimants have come forward, transfer of control of the unassociated funerary objects to the Caddo Nation of Oklahoma may proceed.
The Arkansas Archeological Survey is responsible for notifying the Caddo Nation of Oklahoma that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The Arkansas Archeological Survey, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, has determined that the cultural items listed in this notice meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to claim these cultural items should submit a written request to the Arkansas Archeological Survey. If no additional claimants come forward, transfer of control of the cultural items to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to claim these cultural items should submit a written request with information in support of the claim to the Arkansas Archeological Survey at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Dr. George Sabo, Director, Arkansas Archeological Survey, 2475 North Hatch Avenue, Fayetteville, AR 72704, telephone (479) 575-3556.
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3005, of the intent to repatriate cultural items under the control of the Arkansas Archeological Survey that meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects under 25 U.S.C. 3001.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American cultural items. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
In 1979, 1983, and 1986, 27 cultural items were removed from the Belle Meade site (3CT30) in Crittenden County, AR. These unassociated funerary objects were recovered by the University of Memphis in 1979, 1983, and 1986, and were curated at the C.H. Nash Museum in Memphis, TN. These cultural items were transferred to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in December of 2015. The 27 unassociated funerary objects are 10 partial jars, 5 fragmentary bottles, 1 frog effigy, 10 reconstructed bowls, and 1 reconstructed Ogee bowl (Catalog #2016-551, 552, 553, 554, 555, and 556).
At an unknown date, 10 cultural items were removed from the Belle Meade site (3CT30) in Crittenden County, AR. These unassociated funerary objects were donated to the C.H. Nash Museum in Memphis, TN, part of the University of Memphis. These cultural items were transferred to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in December of 2015. The 10 unassociated funerary objects are 1 reconstructed bowl, 1 fragmentary bottle, 5 fragmentary jar, 2 large bag of sherds, and 1 partial Ogee short necked bottle (Catalog # 2016-556, 557).
In 1980 and 1983, 22 cultural items were removed from the Beck site (3CT8) in Crittenden County, AR. These unassociated funerary objects were recovered by the University of Memphis and curated at the C.H. Nash Museum in Memphis, TN. These cultural items were transferred to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in December of 2015. The 22 unassociated funerary objects include 5 reconstructed jars, 1 wide-mouthed bottle, 2 reconstructed effigy bowls, 4 fragmentary bottles, 1 effigy jar, 6 fragmentary bowls, 2 fragmentary jars, and 1 fragmentary teapot vessel (Catalog #2016-473, 477).
The items detailed in this inventory represent late prehistoric and protohistoric items common to large village sites located in the central Mississippi Valley province of northeastern Arkansas. It is difficult to link historic ethnic identities to prehistoric cultural manifestations identified for this region solely on the basis of archeological evidence. In response to this circumstance, modern Native American communities assert cultural affiliations for the purpose of NAGPRA repatriation claims based on settlement locations at the beginning of the Colonial era as documented by early European accounts. Colonial records from the late 17th century and extending through the 18th century place Quapaws in the region encompassed by the modern counties from which the collections listed above are derived. The first treaty the Quapaws signed with the United States, in 1818, further establishes residence and control over, or interest in, these portions of Arkansas.
Officials of the Arkansas Archeological Survey have determined that
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(B), the 59 cultural items described above are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony and are believed, by a preponderance of the evidence, to have been removed from a specific burial site of a Native American individual.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the unassociated funerary objects and the Quapaw Tribe of Indians, Oklahoma.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to claim these cultural items should submit a written request with information in support of the claim to Dr. George Sabo, Director, Arkansas Archeological Survey, 2475 North Hatch Avenue, Fayetteville, AR 72704, telephone (479) 575-3556 by March 27, 2017. After that date, if no additional claimants have come forward, transfer of control of the unassociated funerary objects to the Quapaw Tribe of Indians, Oklahoma may proceed.
The Arkansas Archeological Survey is responsible for notifying the Quapaw Tribe of Indians, Oklahoma that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The Arkansas Archeological Survey has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request to the Arkansas Archeological Survey. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains and associated funerary objects to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the Arkansas Archeological Survey at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Dr. George Sabo, Director, Arkansas Archeological Survey, 2475 North Hatch Avenue, Fayetteville, AR 72704, telephone (479) 575-3556.
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects under the control of the Arkansas Archeological Survey, Fayetteville, AR. The human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from multiple counties in the state of Arkansas.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by the Arkansas Archeological Survey professional staff in consultation with representatives of the Caddo Nation, The Osage Nation (previously listed as the Osage Tribe), and The Quapaw Tribe of Indians. These human remains were inventoried and documented by physical anthropologists at the University of Arkansas.
At an unknown date, human remains representing at minimum, one individual were removed from the East site (3CL21) in Clark County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 2015. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the East site (3CL21) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Caddo tradition (A.D. 900-1650).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, four individuals were removed from site 3CL24 in Clark County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1974. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3CL24 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were removed from the Bayou Sel site (3CL27) in Clark County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1973. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary items were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Bayou Sel site (3CL27) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Caddo tradition (A.D. 900-1650).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were removed from the Copeland Ridge site (3CL195) in Clark County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1991. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Copeland Ridge site (3CL195) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Caddo tradition (A.D. 900-1650), Late Caddo (A.D. 1450-1650), or Social Hill Phase (A.D. 1500-1600).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were removed from site 3CL287 in Clark County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1980. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3CL287 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Late Caddo Period (A.D. 1450-1650).
In 1984, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from the Wilson site (3CV109) in Cleveland County, AR. No known individuals were identified. The
In 1970, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Kelly Sears site (3CO3) in Columbia County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Kelly Sears site (3CO3) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950) or Fourche Maline tradition (500 B.C.-A.D. 900).
In 1971, human remains representing, at minimum, 10 individuals were recovered from the Hood site (3HE54) in Hempstead County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Hood site (3HE54) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950) or Fourche Maline tradition (500 B.C.-A.D. 900).
In 1972 and 1974, human remains representing, at minimum, 20 individuals were recovered from the Ferguson site (3HE63) in Hempstead County, AR. No known individuals were identified. The 51 associated artifacts include 42 ceramic vessels, two broken siltstone discs, one cut shell, one tool kit, one worked flake, one Gary point, one fragmentary biface, one quartz crystal, and one clay objects (72-22). Diagnostic artifacts found at the Ferguson site (3HE63) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Fourche Maline tradition (500 B.C.-A.D. 900) or Haley Phase (A.D. 1200-1400).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Purtle site (3HE70) in Hempstead County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1973. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Purtle site (3HE70) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950) or Fourche Maline tradition (500 B.C.-A.D. 900).
In 1983 and 1984, human remains representing, at minimum, five individuals were recovered from the Martin Farm site (3HE92) in Hempstead County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Martin Farm site (3HE92) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950) or Fourche Maline tradition (500 B.C.-A.D. 900).
In 1996, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Barkman Salt site (3HS10) in Hot Spring County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Barkman Salt site (3HS10) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Caddo tradition (A.D. 900-1650).
In 1974, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3HS15 in Hot Spring County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3HS15 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Caddo tradition (A.D. 900-1650).
In 1976, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals were recovered from site 3HS22 in Hot Spring County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3HS22 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Late Caddo (A.D. 1450-1600) or Caddo IV Period (A.D. 1500-1700).
In 1972, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from site 3HS38 in Hot Spring County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3HS38 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Late Caddo Period (A.D. 1450-1600) or Caddo IV Period (A.D. 1500-1700).
In 1996, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3HS450 in Hot Spring County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the site 3HS450 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Caddo III period (A.D. 1400-1500).
In 1992, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered near site 3LO17 in Logan County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found near site 3LO17 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 2016, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the surface of the Wild Violet Site (3LO226) in Logan County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Wild Violet site (3LO226) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Late Archaic Period (2000 B.C.-A.D. 800) or Fourche Maline tradition (500 B.C.-A.D. 900).
In 1994, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Moore/Higginbotham site (3MI3/30) in Miller County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Moore/Higginbotham site (3MI3/30) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Fourche Maline tradition (500 B.C.-A.D. 900).
In 1968, 1969, 1983, and 2009, human remains representing, at minimum, 380 individuals were recovered from the Crenshaw site (3MI6) in Miller County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts and radiocarbon dates found at the Crenshaw site (3MI6) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Middle Caddo Period (A.D. 1200-1400).
In 1994, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered near the Caddo River in Montgomery County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found along the Caddo River indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from an unknown site in Ouachita County. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1987. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary items were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Ouachita County indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from the Slough Bend site (3SA7) in Saline County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1969. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts
In 2002, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Hughes Mound site (3SA11) in Saline County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Hughes Mound site (3SA11) indicate that the human remains were probably buried during the Late Caddo Period (A.D. 1450-1650).
In 1978 and 1985, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from the Holman Springs site (3SV29) in Sevier County, AR. No known individuals were identified. The two associated funerary objects include one lot of grey clay and one ceramic vessel (85-380-270, 271). Diagnostic artifacts found at the Holman Springs site (3SV29) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Middle (A.D. 1300-1450) or Late Caddo Period (A.D. 1450-1650).
In 1987, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals were recovered from the Wake site (3SV224) in Sevier County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Wake site (3SV224) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Late Woodland period (A.D. 600-950).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, six individuals were recovered from the Bowman site in Southwest Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1984. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Bowman site indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Caddo tradition (A.D. 900-1650).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from an unknown location in Southwest Arkansas. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 2006 and 2007. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Southwest Arkansas indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from an unknown location in Sebastian County, AR. These human remains were determined to be of Native American descent and were transferred to the Arkansas Archeological Survey. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Sebastian County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from an unknown location in Garland County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 2015. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Garland County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
This notice includes a variety of terms commonly used in discussions of Arkansas archeology and the historical trajectories that gave rise to specific Native American communities identified in the historic record. Based on the archeological context for these sites and what is presently known about the peoples who pre-date the historic Caddo and occupied the sites listed in this notice, the Arkansas Archeological Society has determined the human remains listed in this notice are culturally affiliated with the Caddo Nation of Oklahoma.
Officials of the Arkansas Archeological Survey have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 459 individuals of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(A), the 54 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and the Caddo Nation of Oklahoma.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Dr. George Sabo, Director, Arkansas Archeological Survey, 2475 North Hatch Avenue, Fayetteville, AR 72704, telephone (479) 575-3556, by March 27, 2017. After that date, if no additional requestors have come forward, transfer of control of the human remains and associated funerary objects to the Caddo Nation of Oklahoma may proceed.
The Arkansas Archeological Survey is responsible for notifying the Caddo Nation of Oklahoma that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The Thomas Burke Memorial Washington State Museum (Burke Museum) has completed an inventory of human remains, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request to the Burke Museum. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of
Peter Lape, Burke Museum, University of Washington, Box 353010, Seattle, WA 98195, telephone (206) 685-3849x2, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains under the control of the Burke Museum, Seattle, WA. The human remains were removed from “Arctic Alaska”.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by Burke Museum professional staff in consultation with representatives of the Inupiat Community of the Arctic Slope, the Native Village of Barrow Inupiat Traditional Government, the Native Village of Point Hope, and the North Slope Borough's Department of Inupiat History, Language and Culture, an entity that does not have standing under the law, but assists the tribes and Native Villages with repatriation efforts.
On an unknown date prior to 1923, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were removed from an unknown location in the Alaskan Arctic. The original museum catalog ledger information notes these human remains are from “Arctic Alaska”. Based on where the catalog number entry (#3499) falls on the ledger, these human remains were brought to the museum prior to 1923. No known individuals were identified. No funerary objects are present.
These human remains have been determined to be Native American based on geographical and biological information. Archeological and biological information suggest continuity between past populations and the modern Inupiat. These human remains exhibit characteristics of being collected from the surface, including bleaching and lichen adhered to the cranium and mandible. This is consistent with traditional Inupiat burial practices of laying the deceased on the surface or in boxes on the surface. The Inupiat are now members of the Atqasuk Village (Atkasook), Kaktovik Village (a.k.a. Barter Island), Native Village of Nuiqsut (a.k.a. Nooiksut), Native Village of Point Lay, Village of Anaktuvuk Pass, and Village of Wainwright, which are all represented by the Inupiat Community of the Arctic Slope, Native Village of Barrow Inupiat Traditional Government, and Native Village of Point Hope.
Officials of the Burke Museum have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and the Inupiat Community of the Arctic Slope, Native Village of Barrow Inupiat Traditional Government, and Native Village of Point Hope.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Peter Lape, Burke Museum, University of Washington, Box 353010, Seattle, WA 98195, telephone (206) 685-3849 ext 2, email
The Burke Museum is responsible for notifying the Inupiat Community of the Arctic Slope, Native Village of Barrow Inupiat Traditional Government, and Native Village of Point Hope that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice; correction.
The Arkansas Archeological Survey has corrected an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects, published in a Notice of Inventory Completion in the
Dr. George Sabo, Director, Arkansas Archeological Survey, 2475 North Hatch Avenue, Fayetteville, AR 72704, telephone (479) 575-3556.
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the correction of an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects previously thought to be under the control of the Arkansas Archeological Survey. The human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from Clark County, Poinsett County, and Pulaski County, AR.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
This notice removes human remains and associated funerary objects published in a Notice of Inventory Completion in the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
The Arkansas Archeological Survey is responsible for notifying the Caddo Nation of Oklahoma and the Quapaw Tribe of Indians that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The Thomas Burke Memorial Washington State Museum (Burke Museum) has completed an inventory of human remains in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request to the Burke Museum. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the Burke Museum at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Peter Lape, Burke Museum, University of Washington, Box 353010, Seattle, WA 98195, telephone (206) 685-3849x2, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains under the control of the Burke Museum, Seattle, WA. The human remains were removed from Point Hope, North Slope Borough, AK.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by the Burke Museum professional staff in consultation with representatives of the Native Village of Point Hope.
In 1929, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were removed from Point Hope, North Slope Borough, AK. The human remains were removed by William A. Shanafelt and loaned to the Burke Museum in 1930. While the Burke Museum has never formally accessioned these human remains, it has been advised to proceed and comply with NAGPRA regarding this individual. No known individuals were identified. No funerary objects are present.
The human remains have been determined to be Native American based on osteological and geographical evidence. Based on the donor's history and general provenience of removal, the human remains have been determined to be related to the Inupiat people of the Point Hope area. The Inupiat were the aboriginal occupants of the archeological sites documented in the Point Hope area, which date between A.D. 1000-1700 (Damas, 1984). The modern day Inupiat descendants are members of the Native Village of Point Hope (Tikigaq).
Officials of the Burke Museum have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and Native Village of Point Hope.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Peter Lape, Burke Museum, University of Washington, Box 353010, Seattle, WA 98195, telephone (206) 685-3849, email
The Burke Museum is responsible for notifying the Native Village of Point Hope that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The Arkansas Archeological Survey has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the Arkansas Archeological Survey at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
George Sabo, Director, Arkansas Archeological Survey, 2475 North Hatch Avenue, Fayetteville, AR 72704, telephone (479) 575-3556.
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects under the control of the Arkansas Archeological Survey, Fayetteville, AR. The human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from multiple counties in the state of Arkansas.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by the Arkansas Archeological Survey professional staff in consultation with representatives of Caddo Nation of Oklahoma, The Quapaw Tribe of Indians, and The Osage Nation (previously listed as the Osage Tribe). These human remains were inventoried and documented by physical anthropologists at the University of Arkansas. The Tunica-Biloxi Indian Tribe, which the Arkansas Archeological Survey had invited to consult, did not participate.
In 2011, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from a back dirt pile at site 3AS1 in Ashley County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3AS1 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Baytown Phase (A.D. 400-700).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Big Mound Ridge site (3AS6) in Ashley County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 2015. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Big Mound Ridge site (3AS6) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Baytown Phase (A.D. 400-700).
In 1977, human remains representing, at minimum, six individuals were recovered from the Boydell site (3AS58) in Ashley County, AR. No known individuals were identified. The 8 associated funerary objects include 1 Addis Plain,
In 1970, human remains representing, at minimum, 15 individuals were recovered from the Gordon site (3AS152) in Ashley County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Gordon site (3AS152) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541) or Bartholomew Phase (A.D. 1200-1400).
In 1978, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Gordon site (3AS152) in Ashley County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Gordon site (3AS152) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541) or Bartholomew Phase (A.D. 1200-1400).
In 1975, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Fifty Miles an Hour site (3AS189) in Ashley County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Fifty Miles an Hour site (3AS189) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
In 2010, human remains representing, at minimum, 15 individuals were recovered from the Sheppard site (3AS437) in Ashley County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Sheppard site (3AS437) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered near the town of Marsden in Bradley County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1985. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Bradley County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1971, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from the Coon Island site (3BR10) in Bradley County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Coon Island site (3BR10) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Marksville Period (100 B.C.-A.D. 400).
In 1978, human remains representing, at minimum, 17 individuals were recovered from the Saline Sand and Gravel site (3BR40) in Bradley County, AR. No known individuals were identified. The 5 associated funerary objects include 1 Belcher Engraved bottle, 1 Mississippi Plain jar, 1 Wallace Incised bowl, 1 turtle carapace, and 1 lot of 607 grams of burial fill (78-1189). Diagnostic artifacts found at the Saline Sand and Gravel site (3BR40) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541) or Bartholomew Phase (A.D. 1200-1400).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Saline Sand and Grave site (3BR40) in Bradley County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1982. No
In 1995, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Gene Thompson site (3BR122) in Bradley County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Gene Thompson site (3BR122) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950).
In 1983, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Bangs Slough site (3CA3) in Calhoun County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Bangs Slough site (3CA3) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Coles Creek culture (A.D. 700-1000).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Keller site (3CA13) in Calhoun County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Keller site (3CA13) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Coles Creek culture (A.D. 700-1000).
In 1981, human remains representing, at minimum, nine individuals were recovered from the Powell Canal site (3CH14) in Chicot County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Powell Canal site (3CH14) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Baytown Period (A.D. 400-700).
In 1967, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Bunker Black Plantation site (3CH25) in Chicot County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Bunker Black Plantation site (3CH25) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Woodland Period (650 B.C.-A.D. 950).
In 1970, human remains representing, at minimum, eight individuals were recovered from the McArthur site (3CH49) in Chicot County, AR. No known individuals were identified. The 8 associated funerary objects include 1 shell tempered bowl, 1 mussel shell fragment, 2 clay beads, 1 fragmentary Manchac jar, 1 reconstructed bowl, 1 turtle carapace, and 1 clay ball (70-386). Diagnostic artifacts found at the McArther site indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Bartholomew Phase (A.D. 1200-1400).
In 1984, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Hunter site (3CH135) in Chicot County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Hunter site (3CH135) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippi Period (A.D. 950-1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Possum Trap or Coon Bayou site (3DE37) in Desha County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Possum Trap or Coon Bayou site (3DE37) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Marksville Period (100 B.C.-A.D. 400).
In 1973, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the R.H. Wolfe site (3DR1) in Drew County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the R.H. Wolfe site (3DR1) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Tillar Complex (A.D. 1400-1700).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Taylor Mounds site (3DR2) in Drew County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1981. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Taylor Mounds site (3DR2) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Marksville Period (100 B.C.-A.D. 400).
In 1973, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Tillar Farms site (3DR30) in Drew County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Tillar Farms site (3DR30) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Tillar Complex (A.D. 1400-1700).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, four individuals were recovered from the Tillar site (3DR49) in Drew County, AR. These individuals were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1982 and 1985. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Tillar site (3DR49) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Tillar Complex (A.D. 1400-1700).
In 1972, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Austin site (3DR50) in Drew County, AR. No known individual was identified. The two associated artifacts include two clay pipes (72-153-1, -4). Diagnostic artifacts found at the Austin site (3DR50) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Tillar Complex (A.D. 1400-1700).
In 1981, human remains representing, at minimum, nine individuals were recovered from the McClendon site (3DR144) in Drew County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the McClendon site (3DR144) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Tillar Complex (A.D. 1400-1700).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the McClendon site (3DR144) in Drew County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1982. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the McClendon site (3DR144) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Tillar Complex (A.D. 1400-1700).
In 1982, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Land's End site (3DR184) in Drew County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Land's End site (3DR184) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Early Mississippi Period (A.D. 700-1000).
In 1982 and 1983, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Cherry site (3DR190) in Drew County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Cherry site (3DR190) indicate that these human remains were
In 1982, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Dark Dirt Site (3DR191) in Drew County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Dark Dirt site (3DR191) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Bartholomew Phase (1200-1400 A.D.).
In 1982, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Lone Holly site (3DR196) in Drew County, AR. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Lone Holly site (3DR196) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Bartholomew Phase (A.D. 1200-1400).
In 1986, human remains representing, at minimum, 133 individuals were recovered from the Ables Creek site (3DR214) in Drew County, AR. No known individuals were identified. The 82 funerary objects include 1 Barton Incised
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from an unknown location in Drew County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1969. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Drew County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1967 and 1971, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals were recovered from the Paw-Paw site (3OU22) in Ouachita County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Paw-Paw site (3OU22) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Archaic Period (9500-650 B.C.) or Fourche Maline Tradition (800 B.C.-A.D. 900).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from an unknown location in Union County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1985. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Union County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1972, human remains representing, at minimum, four individuals were recovered from the Locust Ridge site (3UN8) in Union County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Locust Ridge site (3UN8) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Baytown (A.D. 400-700) or Coles Creek Period (A.D. 700-1000).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Watts Field site (3UN22) in Union County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1973. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Watts Field site (3UN22) in Union County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
In 1972 and 1975, human remains representing, at minimum, 18 individuals were recovered from the Shallow Lake site (3UN52) in Union County, AR. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Shallow Lake site (3UN52) indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Coles Creek Period (A.D. 700-1000).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from the Shallow Lake site (3UN52) in Union County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1985. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Shallow Lake site (3UN52) in Union County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
At an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from an unknown location in Drew County or Chicot County, AR. These human remains were donated to the Arkansas Archeological Survey in 1985. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects were present. Diagnostic artifacts found in Drew County and Chicot County, AR, indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Prehistoric Period (11,650 B.C.-A.D. 1541).
This notice includes a variety of terms commonly used in discussions of Arkansas archeology and the historical trajectories that gave rise to specific Native American communities identified in the historic record. Based on the archeological context for these sites and what is presently known about the peoples who pre-date the historic Tunica and occupied the sites listed in this notice, the Arkansas Archeological Society has determined the human remains listed in this notice are culturally affiliated with the Tunica-Biloxi Indian Tribe.
Officials of the Arkansas Archeological Survey have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 269 individuals of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(A), the 105 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects and the Tunica-Biloxi Indian Tribe.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Dr. George Sabo, Director, Arkansas Archeological Survey, 2475 North Hatch Avenue, Fayetteville, AR 72704, telephone (479) 575-3556, by March 27, 2017. After that date, if no additional requestors have come forward, transfer of control of the human remains and associated funerary objects to the Tunica-Biloxi Indian Tribe may proceed.
The Arkansas Archeological Survey is responsible for notifying the Tunica-Biloxi Indian Tribe that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The Peabody Museum of Natural History has completed an inventory of human remains, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request to the Peabody Museum of Natural History. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the Peabody Museum of Natural History at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Professor David Skelly, Director, Yale Peabody Museum of Natural History, P.O. Box 208118, New Haven, CT 06520-8118, telephone (203) 432-3752.
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains under the control of the Peabody Museum of Natural History, Yale University, New Haven, CT. The human remains were removed from a site near the Little Medicine Bow River in the Freeze Out Hills, Carbon County, WY.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by the Peabody Museum of Natural History professional staff in consultation with representatives of the Arapaho Tribe of the Wind River Reservation, Wyoming and Cheyenne and Arapaho Tribes, Oklahoma (previously listed as the Cheyenne-Arapaho Tribes of Oklahoma).
Around 1883, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals were removed from a site near the Little Medicine Bow River in the Freeze Out Hills in Carbon County, WY, and donated to the Peabody Museum of Natural History in 1925. The human remains represent one adult of indeterminate sex, aged 40-50 years; one adult female, aged 25-35 years; and one subadult, probable female, aged 15-18 years. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects are present.
According to historical documentation, an Arapaho village near the Little Medicine Bow River was attacked in 1846 and the villagers were massacred by a group of trappers from the American and Northwest Fur Companies in retribution for an earlier attack on a wagon train. Around 1883, the site was visited and human remains were removed.
Officials of the Peabody Museum of Natural History have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of three individuals of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and the Arapaho Tribe of the Wind River Reservation, Wyoming, and Cheyenne and Arapaho Tribes, Oklahoma (previously listed as the Cheyenne-Arapaho Tribes of Oklahoma).
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Professor David Skelly, Director, Yale Peabody Museum of Natural History, P.O. Box 208118, New Haven, CT 06520-8118, telephone (203) 432-3752, by March 27, 2017. After that date, if no additional requestors have come forward, transfer of control of the human remains to the Arapaho Tribe of the Wind River Reservation, Wyoming, and Cheyenne and Arapaho Tribes, Oklahoma (previously listed as the Cheyenne-Arapaho Tribes of Oklahoma), may proceed.
The Peabody Museum of Natural History is responsible for notifying the Arapaho Tribe of the Wind River Reservation, Wyoming, and Cheyenne and Arapaho Tribes, Oklahoma (previously listed as the Cheyenne-Arapaho Tribes of Oklahoma), that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department has completed an inventory of human remains, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Kristina Boykin, Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department, P.O. Box 2261, Little Rock, AR 72203, telephone (501) 569-2079, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains under the control of the Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department. The human remains were removed from multiple counties in Arkansas.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
In 1974, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals were recovered from Sylamore Ferry site (3ST26) in Stone County, AR. A portion of the Sylamore Ferry site was going to be impacted by Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department (AHTD) construction. The excavations were undertaken by the AHTD, and the human remains were stored at Texas A&M University. In 1985, the human remains were returned to the AHTD and then eventually were taken for permanent storage to the Arkansas Archeological Survey (AAS). The gender and age of the human remains were undetermined. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects are present. Diagnostic artifacts found at the Sylamore Ferry site (3ST26) indicate that the human remains were probably buried during the Mississippian period (A.D. 1100 to 1600).
In 1988, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were recovered from site 3LW15 in Lawrence County, AR, during preliminary analysis of the U.S. Highway 67 relocation in northeast Arkansas. No further work was done at this site because it was not within the project's footprint. The human remains have remained in the AAS's collections since the time of their removal. The gender and age of the human remains were undetermined. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects are present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3LW15 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Mississippian period (A.D. 900 to 1500).
In 1995, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were recovered from site 3CG1059 in Craighead County, AR. The burials were discovered during Phase II excavation for the construction of Cash Bypass. The AHTD contracted the excavations out to the Center of Archaeological Research at Southwest Missouri State University. The human remains were transferred to the AAS for curation. The human remains were identified as two adults. The gender of the human remains was undetermined. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects are present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3CG1059 indicate that these human remains were probably buried possibly during the Mississippian period (A.D. 900 to 1500).
In 1996, human remains representing, a minimum, six individuals were recovered from the Holden-Conner site (3JA632) in Jackson County, AR, during Phase III mitigation for the expansion and relocation of U.S. Highway 67. The AHTD contracted the excavations out to the Center of Archaeological Research at Southwest Missouri State University. The human remains were transferred to the AAS for curation. The human remains were identified as one infant (1-4 years), three children (4-8 years), and two young adults (16 to 21 years). The gender of the human remains was undetermined. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects are present. Diagnostic artifacts found at site 3JA632 indicate that these human remains were probably buried during the Late Mississippian period (A.D. 1400 to 1650).
Officials of the Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 12 individuals of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and the Caddo Nation of Oklahoma, Cherokee Nation, The Osage Nation (previously listed as the Osage Tribe), The Quapaw Tribe of Indians, Tunica-Biloxi Indian Tribe, and United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Kristina Boykin, Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department, P.O. Box 2261, Little Rock, AR 72203, telephone (501) 569-2079, email
The Arkansas State Highway and Transportation Department is responsible for notifying the Caddo Nation of Oklahoma, Cherokee Nation of Oklahoma, the Osage Nation (previously listed as the Osage Tribe), the Quapaw Tribe of Indians, Tunica-Biloxi Indian, and the United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District, has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request to the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains and associated funerary objects to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Ms. Sandra Barnum, U.S. Army Engineer District, Omaha, ATTN: CENWO-PM-AB, 1616 Capital Avenue, Omaha, NE 68102, telephone, (402) 995-2674, email
Notice is hereby given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects under the control of the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District. The human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from multiple counties in the state of South Dakota.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains and associated funerary objects was made by the South Dakota State Archeological Research Center and U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District professional staff in consultation with representatives of Three Affiliated Tribes of the Fort Berthold Reservation, North Dakota.
In 1973, human remains representing, at minimum, 1 individual were removed from site 39CH206 in Charles Mix County, SD. The human remains are presently located at the South Dakota State Archeological Research Center (SARC), under the managerial control of the Omaha District. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects are present.
In August 1973, the University of Arkansas conducted an archeological survey of 36 sites along the Fort Randall shoreline under a contract with the National Park Service. The purpose was to assess damage to sites and make recommendations on site protection. A partial cranium was discovered eroding out of the cutbank at 39CH206. The collection was originally stored at the National Park Service Midwest Archeological Center, Lincoln, NE, and transferred to SARC in the 1980s. The human remains were sent to the University of Tennessee, Knoxville, in 1988 for documentation by a physical anthropologist and returned to SARC in 1995. Based on morphological characteristics and the site's artifact assemblage, the human remains are determined to be Native American.
Site 39CH206 is located on the east bank of the Missouri River and represents a small occupation. Archeologists have suggested an association between site 39CH206 and a nearby site, 39CH205. 39CH205 is a village whose artifacts indicate an Initial Middle Missouri Tradition (A.D. 900-1350) of the Plains Village Period. The Initial Middle Missouri Tradition is believed to be ancestral Mandan. The Mandan are represented today by Three Affiliated Tribes of the Fort Berthold Reservation.
In 1965, human remains representing, at minimum, 1 individual were removed from site 39HU7 in Hughes County, SD. The human remains are presently located at the South Dakota State Archeological Research Center (SARC), under the managerial control of the Omaha District. No known individual was identified. No associated funerary objects are present.
McClure's Ranch, site 39HU7, was excavated in 1965 by Richard B. Johnson for the Smithsonian Institution River Basin Surveys. The site collection originally stayed with the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers until Johnson took a sabbatical in 1978/1979 from Trent University in order to complete the site report. The collection was then transferred to SARC in 1982. The human remains were sent to the University of Tennessee, Knoxville, for inventory in 1986 and returned to SARC in 1995. Based on morphological characteristics and the site's artifact assemblage, the human remains are determined to be Native American.
Site 39HU7 is a single component earth lodge village site located on the north shore of Lake Sharpe in Hughes County, SD. Based on evidence from archeological excavations, including house structure and the presence of Iona and Talking Crow ceramic wares, the site dates to the Felicia phase of the Post-Contact Coalescent variant (A.D. 1690-1700) of the Plains Village Tradition. Based on archeological, physical anthropological, oral tradition, historic evidence, and geography, Post-Contact populations are believed to be ancestral Arikara. The Arikara are represented today by the Three Affiliated Tribes of the Fort Berthold Reservation.
In 1964, human remains representing, at minimum, 1 individual was removed from site 39LM34 in Lyman County, SD. The human remains are presently located at the South Dakota State Archeological Research Center (SARC), under the managerial control of the Omaha District. No known individual was identified. The 12 associated funerary objects are 7 ceramic body sherds, 1 incomplete sandstone grinding stone, 1 modified faunal fragment, 1 faunal knife, and 2 charred corn kernels.
In 1964, Dr. O.L. Mallory re-examined a number of sites after the flooding of the Fort Randall Reservoir. At site 39LM34, bank slumping exposed a single nearly complete adult male burial and 12 funerary objects which were collected and stored at the National Park Service Midwest Archeological Center, Lincoln, NE, until 1986. At that time, both the human remains and object were transferred to SARC. SARC sent the remains of the nearly complete adult male to the University of Tennessee, Knoxville, for documentation by a physical anthropologist that same year. The majority of the individual was returned to SARC and reburied along the Missouri River north of Ft. Pierre in 1991. The tibiae and ribs, which had been kept by the University of Tennessee for further analysis, were returned to SARC in 1995, and are accounted for in this notice. Based on
Site 39LM34 is an earth lodge village situated on a low terrace of the right bank of the Missouri River in central South Dakota. Based on the ceramic types (Talking Crow Straight Rim, Iona Indented, and Cloistered Rims), and brass and copper ornaments, the site is dated to the Post-Contact Coalescent variant (A.D. 1675-1780) of the Plains Village Tradition. Based on archeological, physical anthropological, oral tradition, historic evidence, and geography, Post-Contact populations are believed to be ancestral Arikara. The Arikara are represented today by the Three Affiliated Tribes of the Fort Berthold Reservation.
In 1955, human remains representing, at minimum, 4 individuals were removed from site 39WW301 in Walworth County, SD. The human remains are presently located at the South Dakota State Archeological Research Center (SARC), under the managerial control of the Omaha District. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects are present.
Site 39WW301 was excavated by Wesley R. Hurt, University of South Dakota Museum (now known as the W.H. Over Museum) in conjunction with the South Dakota Archeological Commission as part of the Smithsonian Institute River Basin Surveys in 1955. The human remains of three infants and one subadult were collected. Two infants and one subadult were found together in a secondary burial. One infant was found in a refuse mound.
Following excavation, the collection became part of the W.H. Over Museum collections in Vermillion, SD. The collection was transferred to SARC in 1974. In 1978, an infant skull, probably belonging to Individual 1, was inventoried at SARC and by the University of Tennessee, Knoxville, after which it was reburied in 1986 at site 39ST15. During a collection review at SARC in 1993, additional human remains from Individual 1, as well as remains from Individuals 2, 3, and 4 were located. Based on morphological characteristics and the site's artifact assemblage, the human remains are determined to be Native American.
Site 39WW301 is a multi-component site on a high terrace above the confluence of Swan Creek and the Missouri River in Walworth County, north central South Dakota. Based on ceramics, projectile points, architectural features, and feature typologies, two components are represented—the Akaska Focus of the Extended Coalescent variant (A.D. 1500-1675) and the LeBeau Phase of the Post-Contact Coalescent variant (A.D. 1675-1780). Based on archeological, physical anthropological, oral tradition, historic evidence, and geography, Extended and Post-Contact populations are believed to be ancestral Arikara, but in some cases may also represent the Mandan populations. The Mandan and Arikara are represented today by the Three Affiliated Tribes of the Fort Berthold Reservation.
Officials of the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 7 individuals of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(A), the 12 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects and Three Affiliated Tribes of the Fort Berthold Reservation, North Dakota.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Ms. Sandra Barnum, U.S. Army Engineer District, Omaha, ATTN: CENWO-PM-AB, 1616 Capital Avenue, Omaha, NE 68102, telephone, (402) 995-2674, email
The U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District is responsible for notifying Three Affiliated Tribes of the Fort Berthold Reservation, North Dakota, that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The American Museum of Natural History, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, has determined that the cultural item listed in this notice meets the definition of object of cultural patrimony. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to claim this cultural item should submit a written request to the American Museum of Natural History. If no additional claimants come forward, transfer of control of the cultural item to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to claim these cultural items should submit a written request with information in support of the claim to the American Museum of Natural History at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Nell Murphy, Director of Cultural Resources, American Museum of Natural History, Central Park West at 79th Street, New York, NY 10024-5192, telephone (212) 769-5837, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3005, of the intent to repatriate a cultural item under the control of the American Museum of Natural History, New York, NY, that meets the definition of an object of cultural patrimony under 25 U.S.C. 3001.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in
In 1901, while on a museum-sponsored expedition to conduct linguistic and ethnological investigations among the Meskwaki (Fox), William Jones acquired the grizzly bear claw necklace from an unspecified individual(s) in Tama, Tama County, IA. The necklace consists of a circular core wrapped in otter fur, onto which are attached 27 grizzly bear claws, each spaced apart by 3 blue glass beads. The necklace has a long trailer that is formed from the folded pelt of the otter which hangs from the back and is decorated by three areas of beading.
Based on the museum's records and consultation with representatives of the Sac & Fox Tribe of the Mississippi in Iowa, this grizzly bear claw necklace is affiliated with the Sac & Fox Tribe of the Mississippi in Iowa. Evidence from museum records, scholarly publications, and information provided during consultation indicates that the necklace has ongoing historical, traditional, and cultural importance to the tribe, and that no individual had the right to alienate it.
Officials of the American Museum of Natural History have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(D), the 1 cultural item described above has ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group or culture itself, rather than property owned by an individual.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the object of cultural patrimony and the Sac & Fox Tribe of the Mississippi in Iowa.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to claim these cultural items should submit a written request with information in support of the claim to Nell Murphy, Director of Cultural Resources, American Museum of Natural History, Central Park West at 79th Street, New York, NY 10024-5192, telephone (212) 769-5837, email
The American Museum of Natural History is responsible for notifying the Sac & Fox Tribe of the Mississippi in Iowa that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The Department of Anthropology at Indiana University has completed an inventory of human remains in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is no cultural affiliation between the human remains and any present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request to the Indiana University NAGPRA Office. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains to the Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the Indiana University NAGPRA Office at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Dr. Jayne-Leigh Thomas, NAGPRA Director, Indiana University, NAGPRA Office, Student Building 318, 701 East Kirkwood Avenue, Bloomington, IN 47405, telephone (812) 856-5315, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains under the control of the Department of Anthropology at Indiana University, Bloomington, IN.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3) and 43 CFR 10.11(d). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by Indiana University professional staff in consultation with representatives of the Lummi Tribe of the Lummi Reservation; Samish Indian Nation (previously listed as the Samish Indian Tribe, Washington); Stillaguamish Tribe of Indians of Washington (previously listed as the Stillaguamish Tribe of Washington); and Swinomish Indian Tribal Community (previously listed as the Swinomish Indians of the Swinomish Reservation of Washington). The following tribes were contacted but did not participate in consultations: Confederated Tribes of the Chehalis Reservation; Cowlitz Indian Tribe; Jamestown S'Klallam Tribe; Lower Elwha Tribal Community (previously listed as the Lower Elwha Tribal Community of the Lower Elwha Reservation, Washington); Makah Indian Tribe of the Makah Indian Reservation; Muckleshoot Indian Tribe (previously listed as the Muckleshoot Indian Tribe of the Muckleshoot Reservation, Washington); Nisqually Indian Tribe (previously listed as the Nisqually Indian Tribe of the Nisqually Reservation, Washington); Nooksack Indian Tribe; Puyallup Tribe of the Puyallup Reservation; Quileute Tribe of the Quileute Reservation; Quinault Indian Nation (previously listed as the Quinault Tribe of the Quinault Reservation, Washington); Sauk-Suiattle Indian Tribe; Shoalwater Bay Indian Tribe of the Shoalwater Bay Indian Reservation (previously listed as the Shoalwater Bay Tribe of the Shoalwater Bay Indian Reservation, Washington); Skokomish Indian Tribe (previously listed as the Skokomish Indian Tribe of the Skokomish Reservation, Washington); Snoqualmie Indian Tribe (previously listed as the Snoqualmie Tribe, Washington); Squaxin Island
On an unknown date, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were removed from an unknown location along the “Northwest Coast.” This individual was transferred to Indiana University from the University of Chicago during the 1950s along with four other individuals. Notes with these four individuals indicated they were likely collected from the Anacortes area of Washington State. The boxes are recorded as having been previously from the University of Washington; however, efforts in collaboration with NAGPRA personnel at the University of Washington have failed to locate additional information regarding the collection's presence at the University of Washington and its subsequent transfer to the University of Chicago. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects are present.
The four individuals were transferred to the Lummi Tribe of the Lummi Reservation in summer of 2016. Through consultation, it was decided that this individual should be transferred with the other four individuals, as it is likely that they were collected together from the same location.
Officials of the Department of Anthropology at Indiana University have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice are Native American based on osteological evidence and collection history.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), a relationship of shared group identity cannot be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and any present-day Indian tribe.
• On January 22, 1855, the Point Elliot Treaty was signed by representatives from the Lummi Tribe of the Lummi Reservation, Muckleshoot Indian Tribe (previously listed as the Muckleshoot Indian Tribe of the Muckleshoot Reservation, Washington), Nooksack Indian Tribe, Samish Indian Nation (previously listed as the Samish Indian Tribe, Washington), Sauk-Suiattle Indian Tribe, Snoqualmie Indian Tribe (previously listed as the Snoqualmie Tribe, Washington), Stillaguamish Tribe of Indians of Washington (previously listed as the Stillaguamish Tribe of Washington), Suquamish Indian Tribe of the Port Madison Reservation, Swinomish Indian Tribal Community (previously listed as the Swinomish Indians of the Swinomish Reservation of Washington), Tulalip Tribes of Washington (previously listed as the Tulalip Tribes of the Tulalip Reservation, Washington), and the Upper Skagit Tribe (hereinafter referred to as “The Aboriginal Land Tribes”). The Point Elliot Treaty established an agreement between the United States Government and The Aboriginal Land Tribes for lands in western Washington. The lands around Anacortes, WA from which the Native American human remains were removed were a part of the aboriginal lands ceded by the Point Elliot Treaty.
• Pursuant to 43 CFR 10.11(c)(1), the disposition of the human remains may be to The Aboriginal Land Tribes.
Representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Dr. Jayne-Leigh Thomas, NAGPRA Director, Indiana University, NAGPRA Office, Student Building 318, 701 East Kirkwood Avenue, Bloomington, IN 47405, telephone (812) 856-5315, email
Indiana University is responsible for notifying The Invited and Consulted Tribes that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The U.S. Department of Defense, Department of the Navy (DoN) has completed an inventory of human remains, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request to the Department of the Navy. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the Department of the Navy at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Dr. Susan S. Hughes, Archaeologist, Department of the Navy, NAVFAC NW., 1101 Tautog Circle, Silverdale, WA 98315, telephone (360) 396-0083, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains under the control of the Department of the Navy. The human remains were removed from Indian Island, Jefferson County, WA.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3) and 43 CFR 10.11(d). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by the Department of the Navy professional staff in consultation with representatives of the Jamestown S'Klallam Tribe and Port Gamble S'Klallam Tribe (previously listed as the Port Gamble Band of S'Klallam Indians).
In 1976, human remains representing, at minimum, 2 individuals were removed from Walan Point, Indian Island in Jefferson County, WA. The site was first recorded by G.L. Coale in 1956. Prior to the construction of an ammunitions pier and support facilities on the sandspit, Astrida Blukis Onat with Seattle Central Community College conducted test excavations at the site in 1975. Analysis of the materials indicated the site to be a temporary procurement camp less than 2000 years old. Among the many artifacts recovered were fragments of unidentified human bone from four excavation units: 92N10W, 98N8W, 114N8W, and 130N11W. These materials were briefly mentioned in Blukis Onat's 1976 report. During pier construction later that year, heavy equipment unearthed two human burials at depths of 40 to 60 centimeters below the surface along with several surface bone fragments. One of the burials was estimated to be 300 years old based on the decomposition of the cedar box that the individual was buried in. These remains were studied by a physical anthropologist and the results summarized in Blukis Onat and Haversat (1977). All materials recovered from the excavations were transferred to the Washington State University's Museum of Anthropology for storage.
Following a 1995 curation assessment performed by the Washington State University Museum (Andrefsky et al. 1995), all known human remains and associated funerary objects from the Walan Point site were repatriated with the Jamestown S'Klallam Tribe. The Notice of Inventory Completion was published in the
In 2016, these two bones were sent to Dr. Guy Tasa, forensic anthropologist with the Washington State Department of Archaeology and Historic Preservation, for identification. Dr. Tasa identified the bones as representing two sub-adult humans of unknown sex. The first is a humoral head belonging to a child, aged 5 to 16 years of age; the second, the left tibia epiphysis from a sub-adult, aged 10 to 15 years. These bones appear to have been recovered from Blukis Onat's 1976 excavation, units 92N10W and 98N8W, respectively. It is the intent of the Department of the Navy to repatriate these additional human remains from the Walan Point site. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects are present.
Based on the ethnographic data, tribal accounts, and archeological data, the Department of the Navy has determined that the Jamestown S'Klallam, Lower Elwha Clallam, and Port Gamble S'Klallam Tribes are most closely affiliated with these remains. Ethnographic studies place Indian Island within the traditional territory of the Chemakum Tribe. By the early 1850s, the Chemakum population was reduced to 90 individuals; by 1878, only 13 individuals remained. The much larger Clallam (S'Klallam) Tribe, whose territory joined the Chemakum's on the west, took over Chemakum territory in the later 1800s, and the few remaining Chemakum still living in the area joined with the Clallam Tribe.
Officials of the Department of the Navy have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 2 individuals of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human and the Jamestown S'Klallam Tribe, Lower Elwha Tribal Community (previously listed as the Lower Elwha Tribal Community of the Lower Elwha Reservation, Washington), and Port Gamble S'Klallam Tribe (previously listed as the Port Gamble Band of S'Klallam Indians).
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Dr. Susan S. Hughes, Archaeologist, Department of the Navy, NAVFAC NW., 1101 Tautog Circle, Silverdale, WA 98315, telephone (360) 396-0083, email
The Department of the Navy is responsible for notifying the Jamestown S'Klallam Tribe, Lower Elwha Tribal Community (previously listed as the Lower Elwha Tribal Community of the Lower Elwha Reservation, Washington), and Port Gamble S'Klallam Tribe (previously listed as the Port Gamble Band of S'Klallam Indians) that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The Thomas Burke Memorial Washington State Museum (Burke Museum), in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, has determined that the cultural items listed in this notice meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects. Lineal
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to claim these cultural items should submit a written request with information in support of the claim to the Burke Museum at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Peter Lape, Burke Museum, University of Washington, Box 353010, Seattle, WA 98195, telephone (206) 685-3849, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3005, of the intent to repatriate cultural items under the control of the Burke Museum, Seattle, WA, that meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects under 25 U.S.C. 3001.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American cultural items. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
In the late 19th century, 33 cultural items were removed from an unknown location by James T. White from Point Hope, North Slope Borough, AK, and later donated to the Burke Museum by his wife in 1904. The 33 unassociated funerary objects are 1 wooden mask, 4 ground stone tools, 1 lot of earthenware fragments, 1 ivory thimble holder, 1 needle, 1 needle case, 1 comb, 1 scoop, 1 pipe, 2 pipe bowls, 1 ivory tool, 3 ground stone knives, 2 stone points, 2 bone points, 2 harpoon heads, 1 scraper blade, 4 harpoon points, 1 lance, 1 sinew rope, and 2 adzes.
In the late 19th century, one unassociated funerary object was removed from Point Hope, AK. It is believed that this object was also removed by James T. White and donated to Young Naturalist Society, who then donated it to the Burke Museum in 1904. The one unassociated funerary object is one lot of earthenware fragments. These fragments are labeled with the same writing and are given similar numbers to the other fragments from James T. White.
The objects were listed in the accession records as being removed from “old Tigarah” or “old Eskimo” graves at Point Hope. The objects are consistent with historic and prehistoric material cultural from this area and are related to the Inupiat people of the Point Hope (Tikigaq, aka Tigara) area (Damas, 1984). The modern day Inupiat descendants from Point Hope are members of the Native Village of Point Hope.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(B), the 34 cultural items described above are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony and are believed, by a preponderance of the evidence, to have been removed from a specific burial site of a Native American individual.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the unassociated funerary objects and the Native Village of Point Hope.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to claim these cultural items should submit a written request with information in support of the claim to Peter Lape, Burke Museum, University of Washington, Box 353010, Seattle, WA 98195, telephone (206) 685-3849, email
The Burke Museum is responsible for notifying the Native Village of Point Hope that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The Dana Adobe Nipomo Amigos has completed an inventory of human remains, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request to the Dana Adobe Nipomo Amigos. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the Dana Adobe Nipomo Amigos at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Donna L Gillette, Ph.D., NAGPRA Collections Manager, Dana Adobe Nipomo Amigos, 671 South Oakglen Avenue, Nipomo, CA 93444, telephone (805) 929-5679, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains under the control of the Dana Adobe Nipomo Amigos, Nipomo, CA. The human remains were removed from Nipomo, San Luis Obispo County, CA.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by Dana Adobe Nipomo Amigos professional staff in consultation with osteologists and representatives of the Santa Ynez Band of Chumash Mission Indians of the Santa Ynez Reservation, California, and the yak tityu tityu Northern Chumash Tribe, a non-federally recognized Indian group.
In July 2012, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were removed from the Dana Adobe site in San Luis Obispo County, CA. The human remains were excavated from the northeast corner of the 1840s adobe while in the process of installing a four-inch wide drain pipe at a depth of 20-30 cm around the perimeter of the building. The firm that conducted the excavation initially identified all of the materials removed from the site as belonging to a medium to large unidentified mammal. Subsequently, the Dana Adobe Nipomo Amigos consulted with an osteologist to confirm that all materials in its possession were non-human. In the process, eight fragments were identified as one adult human, over the age of 20, and probably a female, while a ninth fragment was identified as likely of human origin. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects are present.
Archeological evidence shows that the geographical area where the site is located has seen aboriginal activity for over 11,000 years, as evidenced by the recovery of a fluted point within the viewshed. In addition, ethnographic evidence identifies the Chumash as having occupied the area. Based on evidence provided by postmortem damage, these human remains predate the 1839-1840 construction of the Dana Adobe.
Officials of the Dana Adobe Nipomo Amigos have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and the Santa Ynez Band of Chumash Mission Indians of the Santa Ynez Reservation, California.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Donna L. Gillette, Ph.D., NAGPRA Collections Manager, Dana Adobe Nipomo Amigos, 671 South Oakglen Avenue, Nipomo, CA 93444, telephone (805) 929-5679, email
The Dana Adobe Nipomo Amigos is responsible for notifying the Santa Ynez Band of Chumash Mission Indians of the Santa Ynez Reservation, California, and the yak tityu tityu Northern Chumash Tribe, that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The Robert S. Peabody Museum of Archaeology has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request to the Robert S. Peabody Museum of Archaeology. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains and associated funerary objects to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the Robert S. Peabody Museum of Archaeology at the address in this notice by March 27, 2017.
Ryan Wheeler, Robert S. Peabody Museum of Archaeology, Phillips Academy, 180 Main Street, Andover, MA 01810, (978) 749-4490, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects under the control of the Robert S. Peabody Museum of Archaeology, Phillips Academy. The human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from Pecos Pueblo, San Miguel County, NM.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by the Robert S. Peabody Museum of Archaeology professional staff in consultation with representatives of the Pueblo of Jemez, New Mexico.
In 1915, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were removed from a burial at Pecos Pueblo in San Miguel County, NM during excavations conducted by Alfred Vincent Kidder under the auspices of the Phillips Academy Department of Archaeology (now the Robert S. Peabody Museum of Archaeology). The individual is a fetus or infant wrapped in cloth. No known individuals were identified. The two associated funerary objects are the cotton textile wrapping and knit cordage with tassels, including three copper sequins and other small metal wires on one tassel. A conservation report on file indicates that the cloth is a commercial cotton textile that looks like crepe. The accession and
Additional information on file indicates that this burial was situated within the ruins of the Spanish church at the Pecos Pueblo site. Archeologist Jesse L. Nusbaum conducted repairs and stabilization of the mission church ruins at Pecos in 1915. It is possible that this burial was recovered during that time. Kidder (see
In 1916, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were removed from a burial at Pecos Pueblo in San Miguel County, NM, during excavations conducted by Alfred Vincent Kidder under the auspices of the Phillips Academy Department of Archaeology (now the Robert S. Peabody Museum of Archaeology). The human remains are represented by hair. No known individuals were identified. The one associated funerary object is leather wrapping, though general deterioration makes it impossible to distinguish between the hair and any leather wrapping that is still present. The accession ledgers indicate that the hair and wrapping were associated with Skeleton 471. The accession and catalog number for this group is 100633/67654; alternate catalog number 12378 is associated with this individual as well.
Copies of burial cards from the excavation describe the mode of burial as flexed, with the individual on his left side and his head to the north. A bone awl and two bone beads (not addressed in this Notice) were included with the burial, and fragments of at least two decayed corn cobs were noted in the grave. Michèle Morgan's 2010 edited volume
The majority of human remains, associated funerary objects, and unassociated funerary objects excavated by Alfred V. Kidder from Pecos Pueblo and allied sites between 1915 and 1929 were addressed in Notices of Inventory Completion, Corrections, and Notices of Intent to Repatriate Cultural Items published in the
The chronology developed for Pecos Pueblo, based on ceramic types, indicates the site was occupied from ca. A.D. 1300 to 1700. Historic records document occupation at the site until 1838, when the last inhabitants left the Pueblo and went to the Pueblo of Jemez. In 1936, an Act of Congress recognized the Pueblo of Jemez as a “consolidation” and “merger” of the Pueblo of Pecos and the Pueblo of Jemez; this Act further recognized that all property, rights, titles, interests, and claims of both pueblos were consolidated under the Pueblo of Jemez, New Mexico.
Further evidence supporting a shared group identity between the Pecos and Jemez pueblos emerges in numerous aspects of present-day Jemez life. The 1992-1993 Pecos Ethnographic Project (unrelated to NAGPRA) states: “[T]he cultural evidence of Pecos living traditions are (1) the official tribal government position of a Second Lieutenant/Pecos Governor; (2) the possession of the Pecos Pueblo cane of office; (3) the statue and annual feast day of Porcingula (Nuestra Senora de los Angeles) on August 2; (4) the Eagle Watchers' Society; (5) the migration of Pecos people in the early nineteenth century; (6) the knowledge of the Pecos language by a few select elders” (see “An Ethnographic Overview of Pecos National Historical Park” by Frances Levine, Marilyn Norcini, and Morris Foster 1994:2-3).
Officials of the Robert S. Peabody Museum of Archaeology have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of two individuals of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(A), the three objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects and the Pueblo of Jemez, New Mexico.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains and associated funerary objects should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Ryan Wheeler, Robert S. Peabody Museum of Archaeology, Phillips Academy, 180 Main Street, Andover, MA 01810, (978) 749-4490, email
The Robert S. Peabody Museum of Archaeology is responsible for notifying the Pueblo of Jemez, New Mexico that this notice has been published.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has received a complaint entitled
Lisa R. Barton, Secretary to the Commission, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. The public version of the complaint can be accessed on the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS) at
General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server at United States International Trade Commission (USITC) at
The Commission has received a complaint and a submission pursuant to § 210.8(b) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure filed on behalf of Pathway Innovations and Technologies, Inc. on February 17, 2017. The complaint alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1337) in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain document cameras and software for use therewith. The complaint names as respondents IPEVO, Inc. of Sunnyvale, CA; A Ver Information Inc. of Fremont, CA; and Lumens Integration, Inc. of Fremont, CA. The complainant requests that the Commission issue a limited exclusion order, a cease and desist order, and impose a bond upon respondents' alleged infringing articles during the 60-day Presidential review period pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1337(j).
Proposed respondents, other interested parties, and members of the public are invited to file comments, not to exceed five (5) pages in length, inclusive of attachments, on any public interest issues raised by the complaint or § 210.8(b) filing. Comments should address whether issuance of the relief specifically requested by the complainant in this investigation would affect the public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, or United States consumers.
In particular, the Commission is interested in comments that:
(i) Explain how the articles potentially subject to the requested remedial orders are used in the United States;
(ii) identify any public health, safety, or welfare concerns in the United States relating to the requested remedial orders;
(iii) identify like or directly competitive articles that complainant, its licensees, or third parties make in the United States which could replace the subject articles if they were to be excluded;
(iv) indicate whether complainant, complainant's licensees, and/or third party suppliers have the capacity to replace the volume of articles potentially subject to the requested exclusion order and/or a cease and desist order within a commercially reasonable time; and
(v) explain how the requested remedial orders would impact United States consumers.
Written submissions must be filed no later than by close of business, eight calendar days after the date of publication of this notice in the
Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above and submit 8 true paper copies to the Office of the Secretary by noon the next day pursuant to § 210.4(f) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 210.4(f)). Submissions should refer to the docket number (“Docket No. 3198”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. (
Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment.
This action is taken under the authority of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and of §§ 201.10 and 210.8(c) of the
By order of the Commission.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
60-day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until April 25, 2017.
If you have additional comments, particularly with respect to the estimated public burden or associated response time, have suggestions, need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions, or desire any additional information, please contact Gus Jakowitsch, Professional/Technical Training & Development Branch, either by mail at 99 New York Avenue NE., Washington, DC 20226 or by email at
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
Overview of this information collection:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
If additional information is required contact: Melody Braswell, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., 3E.405A, Washington, DC 20530.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
30-day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection was previously published in the [
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until March 27, 2017.
If you have additional comments, particularly with respect to the estimated public burden or associated response time, have suggestions, need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions, or desire any other additional information, please contact Gary Schaible, Office of Enforcement Programs and Services, National Firearms Act Division, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF) either by mail at 99 New York Ave NE., Washington, DC 20226, by email at
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
Overview of this information collection:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
If additional information is required contact: Melody Braswell, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., 3E.405A, Washington, DC 20530.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until March 27, 2017.
If you have additional comments, particularly with respect to the estimated public burden or associated response time, have suggestions, need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions, or desire any other additional information, please contact Shawn Stevens, Federal Explosives Licensing Center either by mail at 244 Needy Road, Martinsburg, WV 25405, or by telephone at 304-616-4421. Written comments and/or suggestions can also be directed to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention Department of Justice Desk Officer, Washington, DC 20503 or sent to
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
Overview of this information collection:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
If additional information is required contact: Melody Braswell, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., 3E.405A, Washington, DC 20530.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
30-day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until March 27, 2017.
If you have additional comments, particularly with respect to the estimated public burden or associated response time, have suggestions, need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions, or desire any other additional information, please contact Mark Pawielski, Firearm & Ammunition Technology Division either by mail at 244 Needy Road, Martinsburg, WV 25405, by email at
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
Overview of this information collection:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
If additional information is required contact: Melody Braswell, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., 3E.405A, Washington, DC 20530.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
60-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until April 25, 2017.
If you have additional comments, particularly with respect to the estimated public burden or associated response time, have suggestions, need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions, or desire any additional information, please contact Anita Scheddel, Program Analyst, Explosives Industry Programs Branch, either by mail 99 New York Ave. NE., Washington, DC 20226, by email at
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
Overview of this information collection:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until March 27, 2017.
If you have additional comments, particularly with respect to the estimated public burden or associated response time, have suggestions, need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions, or desire any other additional information, please contact Danielle Thompson Murray, Special Agent/Industry Operations Investigator Recruitment, Diversity and Hiring Division, either by mail at Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms, 99 New York Ave. NE., Washington, DC 20226, or by telephone at 202-648-9098. Written comments and/or suggestions can also be directed to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention Department of Justice Desk Officer, Washington, DC 20503 or sent to
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
Overview of this information collection:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
30-day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection was previously published in the [
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until March 27, 2017.
If you have additional comments, particularly with respect to the estimated public burden or associated response time, have suggestions, need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions, or desire any other additional information, please contact Rinell Lawrence, Firearms Industry Program Branch, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), either by mail at 99 New York Ave. NE., Washington, DC 20226, by email at
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
Overview of this information collection:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
60-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until April 25, 2017.
If you have additional comments, particularly with respect to the estimated public burden or associated response time, have suggestions, need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions, or desire any additional information, please contact Gary Schaible, Office of Enforcement Programs and Services, National Firearms Act Division, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF) either by mail at 99 New York Ave. NE., Washington, DC 20226, by email at
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
Overview of this information collection:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) sponsored information collection request (ICR) titled, “Access to Employee Exposure and Medical Records” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for continued use, without change, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). Public comments on the ICR are invited.
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before March 27, 2017.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the
Submit comments about this request by mail or courier to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-OSHA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Contact Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
This ICR seeks to extend PRA authority for the Access to Employee Exposure and Medical Records information collection requirements codified in regulations 29 CFR 1910.1020 that require an Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSH Act) covered employer to preserve and to provide access to records associated with workers' exposure to toxic chemicals and harmful physical agents. OSH Act sections 2(b)(9), 6, and 8(c) authorize this information collection.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal, and the current approval for this collection is scheduled to expire on February 28, 2017. The DOL seeks to extend PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) more years, without any change to existing requirements. The DOL notes that existing information collection requirements submitted to the OMB receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) sponsored information collection request (ICR) titled, “Student Data,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for continued use, without change, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). Public comments on the ICR are invited.
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before March 27, 2017.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the RegInfo.gov Web site at
Submit comments about this request by mail or courier to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-OSHA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
This ICR seeks to extend PRA authority for the
A student attending OSHA Training Institute courses completes Form OSHA-182 on the first day of class. The Form collects information under five major categories: course information, personal data, employer data, emergency contacts, and student groups. The OSHA uses information provided on the Student Data Form to contact a designated person in case of an emergency, to prepare certain OSH Act-required reports, tuition receipts, to evaluate training output, and to make decisions regarding program/course revisions, budget support, and tuition costs. OSH Act section 21 authorizes this information collection.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal, and the current approval for this collection is scheduled to expire on February 28, 2017. The DOL seeks to extend PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) more years, without any change to existing requirements. The DOL notes that existing information collection requirements submitted to the OMB receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) sponsored information collection request (ICR) titled, “Occupational Safety and Health Administration Conflict of Interest and Disclosure,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for continued use, without change, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). Public comments on the ICR are invited.
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before March 27, 2017.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the
Submit comments about this request by mail or courier to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-OSHA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Contact Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064,
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
This ICR seeks to extend PRA authority for the OSHA Conflict of Interest and Disclosure, Forms OSHA-80.1 and OSHA 80.1, information collection. The OSHA uses the forms to determine whether a conflict of interest exists for a potential panel member when important scientific information is peer reviewed by qualified specialists before public dissemination by the OSHA. PRA section 2 and Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2001 section 515(1), authorize this information collection.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal, and the current approval for this collection is scheduled to expire on February 28, 2017. The DOL seeks to extend PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) more years, without any change to existing requirements. The DOL notes that existing information collection requirements submitted to the OMB receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) sponsored information collection request (ICR) titled, “Aerial Lifts Standard,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for continued use, without change, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). Public comments on the ICR are invited.
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before March 27, 2017.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the
Submit comments about this request by mail or courier to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-OSHA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Contact Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
This ICR seeks to extend PRA authority for the Aerial Lifts Standard information collection requirements specified in regulations 29 CFR 1926.453. More specifically, the information collection requirement in the Aerial Lifts Standard is a certification provision found in paragraph (a)(2). This provision requires an Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSH Act) covered employer subject to the Standard who modifies an aerial lift for a use not intended by the lift manufacturer (
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal, and the current approval for this collection is scheduled to expire on February 28, 2017. The DOL seeks to extend PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) more years, without any change to existing requirements. The DOL notes that existing information collection requirements submitted to the OMB receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), Department of Labor.
Request for nominations to the BLS Data Users Advisory Committee.
The BLS is soliciting new members for its Data Users Advisory Committee (DUAC). The current membership expires on January 15, 2018. The DUAC provides advice to the Bureau of Labor Statistics from the points of view of data users from various sectors of the U.S. economy, including the labor, business, research, academic, and government communities, on matters related to the analysis, dissemination, and use of the Bureau's statistics, on its published reports, and on gaps between or the need for new Bureau statistics. The Committee will consist of 20 members and will be chosen from a cross-section of individuals who represent a balance of expertise across a broad range of BLS program areas, including employment and unemployment statistics, occupational safety and health statistics, compensation measures, price indexes, and productivity measures; or other areas related to the subject matter of BLS programs. BLS invites persons interested in serving on the DUAC to submit their names for consideration for committee membership.
Nominations for the DUAC membership should be postmarked by March 3, 2017.
Nominations for the DUAC membership should be sent to: Acting Commissioner William Wiatrowski, U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, 2 Massachusetts Avenue NE., Room 4040, Washington, DC 20212.
Kathy Mele, Deputy Associate Commissioner, U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, 2 Massachusetts Avenue NE. Office of Publications and Special Studies, Room 2850, Washington, DC 20212. Telephone: (202)691-6102. This is not a toll free number.
BLS intends to renew membership in the DUAC for another three years. The BLS operates over two dozen surveys that measure employment and unemployment, compensation, worker safety, productivity, and consumer and producer price movements. BLS provides a wealth of economic data and analyses to support public and private decision making. The DUAC was established to provide advice to the Commissioner of Labor Statistics on the priorities of data users, suggestions concerning the addition of new programs, changes in emphasis of existing programs or cessation of obsolete programs, and advice on potential innovations in data analysis, dissemination, and presentation.
This notice was prepared in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), as amended,5 U.S.C. App. 2, the Secretary of Labor has determined that the Bureau of Labor Statistics Data Users Advisory Committee is in the public interest in connection with the performance of duties
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Request for public comments.
OSHA solicits public comments concerning its proposal to extend the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) approval of the information collection requirements specified in the Standard on Concrete and Masonry Construction.
Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by April 25, 2017.
Theda Kenney or Todd Owen, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor, Room N-3609, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210; telephone (202) 693-2222.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
The warning signs/barriers required by paragraph 1926.701(c)(2) reduce exposure of non-essential workers to the hazards of post-tensioning operations, principally a failed rope or wire striking a worker and causing serious injury. The requirements for lockout and tag ejection systems and other hazardous equipment (
Construction contractors and workers use the drawings, plans, and designs required by paragraph 1926.703(a)(2) to provide specific instructions on how to construct, erect, brace, maintain, and remove shores and formwork if they pour concrete at the job site. Paragraph 1926.705(b) requires employers to mark the rated capacity of jacks and lifting units. This requirement prevents overloading and subsequent collapse of jacks and lifting units, as well as their loads, thereby sparing exposed workers from serious injury or death.
OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:
• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the Agency's functions, including whether the information is useful;
• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information collection and transmission techniques.
OSHA is requesting that OMB extend its approval of the information collection requirements specified in the Concrete and Masonry Construction Standard. The Agency is requesting to retain its current burden hours of 12,771 burden hours.
You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) Electronically at
Because of security procedures, the use of regular mail may cause a significant delay in the receipt of comments. For information about security procedures concerning the delivery of materials by hand, express delivery, messenger, or courier service, please contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627).
Comments and submissions are posted without change at
Contact the OSHA Docket Office for information about materials not available from the Web site and for assistance in using the Internet to locate docket submissions.
Dorothy Dougherty, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506
National Aeronautics and Space Administration.
Notice of meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Public Law 92-463, as amended, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration announces a meeting of the Ad Hoc Task Force on Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematics (STEM) of the NASA Advisory Council (NAC). This Task Force reports to the NAC.
Monday, March 13, 2017, 9:30 a.m.-3:00 p.m., Local Time.
NASA Headquarters, Room 3H42 (MIC 3A), 300 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20546.
Dr. Beverly Girten, Executive Secretary, NAC Ad Hoc Task Force on STEM Education, NASA Headquarters, Washington, DC 20546, (202) 358-0212, or
The meeting will be open to the public to the capacity of the room. This meeting will also be available telephonically and by WebEx. You must use a touch tone phone to participate in this meeting. Any interested person may dial the toll free access number 844-467-6272 or toll access number 720-259-6462, and then the numeric participant passcode: 329152 followed by the # sign. To join via WebEx, the link is
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Draft regulatory guide; request for comment.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing for public comment draft regulatory guide (DG), DG-2004, “Emergency Planning for Research and Test Reactors and Other Non-Power Production and Utilization Facilities.” This DG is proposed Revision 2 of Regulatory Guide (RG) 2.6, “Emergency Planning for Research and Test Reactors.” The NRC proposes to revise the RG by updating it to approve the use of the most current version of the American National Standards Institute (ANSI)/American Nuclear Society (ANS) standard ANSI/ANS-15.16-2015, “Emergency Planning for Research Reactors.” The proposed revision provides licensees and applicants with a method that the NRC staff considers acceptable for use in complying with the regulations on the content of emergency plans for research and test reactors and other non-power production and utilization facilities.
Submit comments by April 25, 2017. Comments received after this date will be considered if it is practical to do so, but the NRC is able to ensure consideration only for comments received on or before this date. Although a time limit is given, comments and suggestions in connection with items for inclusion in guides currently being developed or improvements in all published guides are encouraged at any time.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Geoffrey Wertz, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, telephone: 301-415-0893, email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2017-0056 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this action. You may obtain publically-available information related to this action, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Please include Docket ID NRC-2017-0056 in your comment submission, in order to ensure that the NRC is able to make your comment submission available to the public in this docket.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC posts all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment submissions into ADAMS.
The NRC is issuing for public comment a DG in the NRC's “Regulatory Guide” series. This series was developed to describe and make available to the public information regarding methods that are acceptable to the NRC staff for implementing specific parts of the NRC's regulations, techniques that the staff uses in evaluating specific issues or postulated events, and data that the staff needs in its review of applications for permits and licenses.
The DG, entitled “Emergency Planning for Research and Test Reactors and Other Non-Power Production and Utilization Facilities,” is proposed Revision 2 of RG 2.6, “Emergency Planning for Research and Test Reactors.” The DG is temporarily identified by its task number, DG-2004. This proposed revision addresses new issues identified since the guide was last revised in March 1983. This revision endorses the latest version of the consensus standard, ANSI/ANS-15.16-2015, “Emergency Planning for Research Reactors” (Ref. 9) (ANSI/ANS-15.16 or the standard). The scope was expanded to address non-power facilities according to part 50 of title 10 of the
Copies of ANSI/ANS-15.16-2015 may be purchased from the American Nuclear Society (ANS) Web site (
The regulatory positions held in this DG demonstrate the method that the NRC staff finds acceptable for an applicant or holder of a license under 10 CFR part 50 for a research and test reactor and other non-power production or utilization facility to meet the applicable emergency preparedness requirements.
The issuance of the guidance in this DG would not constitute “backfitting,” as that term is defined in 10 CFR 50.109, “Backfitting,” because non-power production and utilization facility licensees are not included within the scope of entities protected by 10 CFR 50.109.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Draft regulatory guide; request for comment.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing for public comment draft regulatory guide (DG), DG- 5056, “Physical Inventories and Material Balances at Fuel Cycle Facilities.” This new regulatory guide (RG) would provide implementing guidance for material control and accounting (MC&A) requirements in NRC regulations related to the performance, evaluation, and reporting of physical inventories of special nuclear material, and material balances at fuel cycle facilities. Guidance on these requirements was previously provided in RG 5.13, “Conduct of Nuclear Material Physical Inventories,” and RG 5.33, “Statistical Evaluation of Material Unaccounted For,” that were issued in 1973 and 1974, respectively. Both RG 5.13 and RG 5.33 would be withdrawn concurrent with issuance of DG-5056 in final form.
Submit comments by April 25, 2017. Comments received after this date will be considered if it is practical to do so, but the NRC is able to ensure consideration only for comments received on or before this date. Although a time limit is given, comments and suggestions in connection with items for inclusion in guides currently being developed or improvements in all published guides are encouraged at any time.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specified subject):
•
•
For additional direction on accessing information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Glenn Tuttle, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, 301-415-7230, email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2017-0057 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this action. You may obtain publically-available information related to this action, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Please include Docket ID NRC-2017-0057 in your comment submission, in order to ensure that the NRC is able to make your comment submission available to the public in this docket.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC posts all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment
The NRC is issuing for public comment a DG in the NRC's “Regulatory Guide Series. This series was developed to describe and make available to the public information regarding methods that are acceptable to the NRC staff for implementing specific parts of the NRC's regulations, techniques that the staff uses in evaluating specific problems or postulated events, and data that the staff needs in its review of applications for permits and licenses. The DG, entitled “Physical Inventories and Material Balances at Fuel Cycle Facilities,” is a proposed new guide, temporarily identified by its task number, DG-5056. This new RG would provide guidance for meeting the nuclear material control and accounting (MC&A) requirements in part 74 of title 10 of the
• RG 5.13, “Conduct of Nuclear Material Physical Inventories,” published in November 1973; and
• RG 5.33, “Statistical Evaluation of Material Unaccounted For” published in June 1974.
Due to several rulemakings that occurred from 1985 to 2002, which significantly amended the MC&A requirements, the above regulatory guides are now outdated as they no longer cite the correct sections of the regulations. Accordingly, RG 5.13 and RG 5.33 will be withdrawn concurrent with any later issuance of DG-5056 in final form, as DG-5056 would provide the correct citations to the 10 CFR part 74 regulations.
The NRC's guidance on the MC&A requirements pertaining to the performance, evaluation, and reporting of physical inventories and material balances at fuel cycle facilities is also provided in the following NUREGs that were issued in conjunction with the 1985-2002, MC&A rulemakings:
• NUREG-1280, “Standard Format and Content Acceptance Criteria for the Material Control and Accounting (MC&A) Reform Amendment,” applicable to facilities using formula quantities of strategic SNM.
• NUREG-1065, “Acceptable Standard Format and Content for the Fundamental Nuclear Material Control (FNMC) Plan Required for Low-Enriched Uranium Facilities,” applicable to fuel fabrication facilities using low-enriched uranium.
• NUREG/CR-5734, “Recommendations to the NRC on Acceptable Standard Format and Content for the Fundamental Nuclear Material Control (FNMC) Plan Required for Low-Enriched Uranium Enrichment Facilities,” applicable to uranium enrichment plants.
This DG-5056 incorporates guidance from these NUREGs that relates to physical inventories and material balances for SNM. In addition to providing guidance on these topics, the NUREGs listed above cover other MC&A requirements as well. Accordingly, these NUREGs would not be withdrawn when DG-5056 is issued in final form.
Issuance of DG-5056 in final form would not constitute backfitting as defined in 10 CFR 70.76 or violate the issue finality provisions of part 52 for several reasons. First, many of the provisions in the guidance are only updated to reflect the codification of several MC&A provisions in part 74 from part 70, and do not represent substantive changes. Second, DG-5056 would incorporate relevant guidance from NUREG-1280, NUREG-1065, and NUREG/CR-5734 and associated rulemakings without making substantive changes to those positions; these rulemakings and guidance considered the backfitting implications of any new positions, as appropriate, upon their issuance. Finally, as discussed in the “Implementation” section of DG-5056, applicants and licensees may voluntarily use its guidance to demonstrate compliance with the part 74 MC&A regulations pertaining to the performance, evaluation, and reporting of physical inventories and material balances. Alternate methods of demonstrating such compliance may be deemed acceptable if they provide sufficient basis and information for the NRC staff to verify that the proposed alternative demonstrates compliance with the relevant NRC regulations.
Accordingly, the issuance of this guidance in final form would not constitute a “new” or “different” staff position within the definition of “backfitting” in 10 CFR 70.76 or the issue finality provisions in part 52.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Peace Corps.
60-day notice and request for comments.
The Peace Corps will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. The purpose of this notice is to allow 60 days for public comment in the
Submit comments on or before April 25, 2017.
Comments should be addressed to Denora Miller, FOIA/Privacy Act Officer. Denora Miller can be contacted by telephone at 202-692-1236 or email at
Denora Miller at Peace Corps address above.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the Railroad Retirement Board (RRB) is forwarding 4 Information Collection Requests (ICR) to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Our ICR describes the information we seek to collect from the public. Review and approval by OIRA ensures that we impose appropriate paperwork burdens.
The RRB invites comments on the proposed collections of information to determine (1) the practical utility of the collections; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the collections; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information that is the subject of collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of collections on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Comments to the RRB or OIRA must contain the OMB control number of the ICR. For proper consideration of your comments, it is best if the RRB and OIRA receive them within 30 days of the publication date.
1.
The RRB currently utilizes four forms to obtain information needed to carry out its job placement responsibilities. Form ES-2,
Completion of these forms is required to obtain or maintain a benefit. In addition, the RRB also collects Railroad Job Vacancies information received voluntarily from railroad employers.
The burden estimate for the ICR is as follows:
2.
Under Section 4 of the Railroad Unemployment Insurance Act (RUIA), an employee who leaves work voluntarily is disqualified for unemployment benefits unless the employee left work for good cause and is not qualified for unemployment benefits under any other law. RRB Form
Completion of Form UI-45 is required to obtain or retain benefits. One response is received from each respondent.
The burden estimate for the ICR is as follows:
3.
Section 2 of the Railroad Retirement Act (RRA) provides for payment of annuities to qualified employees and their spouses. In order to receive an age and service annuity, Section 2(e)(3) states that an applicant must stop all railroad work and give up any rights to return to such work. However, applicants are not required to stop nonrailroad work or self-employment.
The RRB considers some work claimed as “self-employment” to actually be employment for an employer. Whether the RRB classifies a particular activity as self-employment or as work for an employer depends upon the circumstances of each case. These circumstances are prescribed in 20 CFR 216.
Under the 1988 amendments to the RRA, an applicant is no longer required to stop work for a “Last Pre-Retirement Nonrailroad Employer” (LPE). However, Section 2(f)(6) of the RRA requires that a portion of the employee's Tier II benefit and supplemental annuity be deducted for earnings from the “LPE.”
The “LPE” is defined as the last person, company, or institution with whom the employee or spouse applicant was employed concurrently with, or after, the applicant's last railroad employment and before their annuity beginning date. If a spouse never worked for a railroad, the LPE is the last person for whom he or she worked.
The RRB utilizes Form AA-4,
4.
The Internal Revenue Code requires that all payers of tax liable private pensions to U.S. citizens or residents: (1) Notify each recipient at least concurrent with initial withholding that the payer is, in fact, withholding benefits for tax liability and that the recipient has the option of electing not to have the payer withhold, or to withhold at a specific rate; (2) withhold benefits for tax purposes (in the absence of the recipient's election not to withhold benefits); and (3) notify all beneficiaries, at least annually, that they have the option to change their withholding status or elect not to have benefits withheld.
The RRB provides Form RRB-W4P, Withholding Certificate for Railroad
Completion of the form is required to obtain or retain a benefit. One response is requested of each respondent.
Estimated annual number of respondents: 25,000.
Total annual responses: 25,000.
Total annual reporting hours: 1.
5.
The RRB utilizes Form G-19-F,
Currently the claimant is asked to enter the date they stopped working, if applicable. If a respondent fails to complete the form, the RRB may be unable to pay them benefits. One response is requested of each respondent.
6.
Completion is voluntary. One response is requested from each respondent.
Comments regarding the information collection should be addressed to Brian Foster, Railroad Retirement Board, 844 North Rush Street, Chicago, Illinois 60611-1275 or emailed to
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend the Exchange's Pricing Schedule at Section I, entitled “Rebates and Fees for Adding and Removing Liquidity in SPY,” and Section IV, Part A entitled “PIXL Pricing” to amend pricing related to PIXL
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to amend the Exchange's Pricing Schedule at Section I, entitled “Rebates and Fees for Adding and Removing Liquidity in SPY,” to amend PIXL Executions in Standard and Poor's Depositary Receipts/SPDRs (“SPY”).
Section I of the Pricing Schedule contains pricing for PIXL Executions in SPY. Today, with respect to PIXL executions in SPY, the Exchange assesses an Initiating Order fee of $0.05 per contract. Today, the Initiating Order Fee for Professional,
The Exchange proposes to continue to assess an Initiating Order fee of $0.05 per contract for SPY Orders within PIXL. The Exchange proposes to no longer offer the ability to not be assessed an Initiating Order Fee for Professional, Firm, Broker-Dealer, Specialist and Market Maker orders that are contra to a Customer PIXL Order, which are currently reduced to $0.00 if the Customer PIXL Order is greater than 399 contracts. The Exchange is replacing the incentive which reduces the Initiating Order Fee for Professional, Firm, Broker-Dealer, Specialist and Market Maker orders that are contra to a Customer PIXL Order, provided the
The Exchange proposes to offer Phlx members or member organizations that qualify for Section B, Customer Rebate Tiers
The Exchange also proposes to amend its SPY PIXL pricing so that when the PIXL Order is contra to other than the Initiating Order, the PIXL Order will continue to be assessed $0.00 per contract, unless the order is a Customer, in which case the Customer will receive an increased rebate of $0.40 per contract (an increase from $0.38 per contract). The Exchange also proposes to amend the SPY PIXL pricing so that all other Non-Customer contra parties to the PIXL Order, other than the Initiating Order, will be assessed an increased Fee for Removing Liquidity of $0.50 per contract (an increase from $0.42 per contract) or will receive the Rebate for Adding Liquidity.
The Exchange proposes that when the PIXL Order is contra to a Specialist or Market Maker quote, which was established at the initiation of a PIXL auction, the Customer PIXL Order will not be eligible for a rebate. The Exchange believes that this proposal will encourage Specialists and Market Makers to quote their best price at the initiation of a PIXL auction to obtain the rebate.
Today, the PIXL pricing in all Multiply-Listed symbols except SPY is as described below. The Exchange assesses an Initiating Order Fee of $0.07 per contract. If the member or member organization qualifies for the Tier 4 or 5 Customer Rebate in Section B the member or member organization will be assessed $0.05 per contract. Today, if the member or member organization executes equal to or greater than 3.00% of National Customer Volume in Multiply-Listed equity and ETF Options Classes (excluding SPY Options) in a given month, the member or member organization will be assessed $0.00 per contract for Complex PIXL Orders.
Today, any member or member organization under Common Ownership with another member or member organization that qualifies for a Customer Rebate Tier 4 or 5 in Section B, or executes equal to or greater than 3.00% of National Customer Volume in Multiply-Listed equity and ETF Options Classes (excluding SPY Options) in a given month will receive one of the PIXL Initiating Order discounts as described above. Today, the Initiating Order Fee for Professional, Firm, Broker-Dealer, Specialist and Market Maker orders that are contra to a Customer PIXL Order will be reduced to $0.00 if the Customer PIXL Order is greater than 399 contracts.
The Exchange proposes to continue to assess an Initiating Order Fee of $0.07 per contract. The Exchange proposes that if the member or member organization qualifies for the Tier 3, 4 or 5 Customer Rebate in Section B the member or member organization will be assessed $0.05 per contract. The Tier 3 qualifier is being added to provide another means to qualify for the lower fee. If the member or member organization executes equal to or greater than 3.00% of National Customer Volume in Multiply-Listed equity and ETF Options Classes (excluding SPY Options) in a given month, the member or member organization will continue to be assessed $0.00 per contract for Complex PIXL Orders. Any member or member organization under Common Ownership with another member or member organization that qualifies for a Customer Rebate Tier 4 or 5 in Section B, or executes equal to or greater than 3.00% of National Customer Volume in Multiply-Listed equity and ETF Options Classes (excluding SPY Options) in a given month will continue to receive one of the PIXL Initiating Order discounts as described above.
The Exchange proposes to no longer offer the ability to not be assessed an Initiating Order Fee for Professional, Firm, Broker-Dealer, Specialist and Market Maker orders that are contra to a Customer PIXL Order if the Customer PIXL Order is greater than 399 contracts. Instead, the Exchange proposes to offer another incentive to attract more liquidity for Complex PIXL Orders similar to proposed SPY PIXL pricing. The Exchange proposes to offer Phlx members and member organizations that qualify for Section B, Customer Rebate Tiers 2 through 6
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Commission and the courts have repeatedly expressed their preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. In Regulation NMS, while adopting a series of steps to improve the current market model, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and SRO revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.”
Likewise, in
Further, “[n]o one disputes that competition for order flow is `fierce.' . . . As the SEC explained, `[i]n the U.S. national market system, buyers and sellers of securities, and the broker-dealers that act as their order-routing agents, have a wide range of choices of where to route orders for execution'; [and] `no exchange can afford to take its market share percentages for granted' because `no exchange possesses a monopoly, regulatory or otherwise, in the execution of order flow from broker dealers' . . . .”
The Exchange's proposal to no longer offer the ability to not be assessed an Initiating Order Fee for Professional, Firm, Broker-Dealer, Specialist and Market Maker orders that are contra to a Customer SPY PIXL Order if the Customer SPY PIXL Order is greater than 399 contracts and instead offer Phlx members or member organizations that qualify for Section B, Customer Rebate Tiers
The Exchange's proposal to no longer offer the ability to not be assessed an Initiating Order Fee for Professional, Firm, Broker-Dealer, Specialist and Market Maker orders that are contra to a Customer SPY PIXL Order if the Customer SPY PIXL Order is greater than 399 contracts and instead offer Phlx members and member organizations that qualify for Section B, Customer Rebate Tiers 2 through 6 or qualify for the Monthly Firm Fee Cap a rebate of $0.10 per contract for all SPY Complex PIXL Orders greater than 499 contracts, provided the member or member organization executes an average of 2,500 contracts per day of SPY Complex PIXL Orders in a month is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. All members and member organizations are eligible for the proposed rebate, provided they met the requisite qualifications. Members and member organizations would be uniformly paid the new rebate. No member or member organization will be eligible to eliminate the Initiating Order Fee for Professional, Firm, Broker-Dealer, Specialist and Market Maker orders that are contra to a Customer SPY PIXL Order if the Customer SPY PIXL Order is greater than 399 contracts.
The Exchange's proposal to amend its SPY PIXL pricing so that when the PIXL Order is contra to other than the Initiating Order, the PIXL Order will continue to be assessed $0.00 per contract, unless the order is a Customer, in which case the Customer will receive an increased rebate of $0.40 per contract is reasonable. The Exchange is increasing this rebate from $0.38 per contract to incentivize members and member organizations to transact a greater number of SPY PIXL Orders to earn the increased rebate.
The Exchange's proposal to amend its SPY PIXL pricing so that when the PIXL Order is contra to other than the Initiating Order, the PIXL Order will continue to be assessed $0.00 per contract, unless the order is a Customer, in which case the Customer will receive an increased rebate of $0.40 per contract is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange will uniformly pay this rebate.
The Exchange's proposal to amend the SPY PIXL pricing so that all other Non-Customer contra parties to the PIXL Order, other than the Initiating Order, will be assessed an increased Fee for Removing Liquidity of $0.50 per contract or will receive the Rebate for Adding Liquidity is reasonable.
The Exchange's proposal to amend the SPY PIXL pricing so that all other Non-Customer contra parties to the PIXL Order, other than the Initiating Order, will be assessed an increased Fee for Removing Liquidity of $0.50 per contract or will receive the Rebate for Adding Liquidity is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange will uniformly assess the increased Fee for Removing Liquidity to all applicable members and member organizations.
The Exchange's proposal to not offer a rebate when the PIXL Order is contra to a Specialist or Market Maker quote, which was established at the initiation of a PIXL auction, the Customer PIXL Order is reasonable. The Exchange believes that not paying a rebate to the PIXL Order in this case is reasonable because the Exchange will be paying Specialists and Market Makers the
The Exchange's proposal to not offer a rebate when the PIXL Order is contra to a Specialist or Market Maker quote, which was established at the initiation of a PIXL auction, the Customer PIXL Order is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. The Exchange will uniformly not offer a rebate to any member or member organizations when the PIXL Order is contra to a Specialist or Market Maker quote, which was established at the initiation of a PIXL auction.
The Exchange's proposal that if the member or member organization qualifies for the Tier 3, 4 or 5 Customer Rebate in Section B the member or member organization will be assessed $0.05 per contract, instead of the $0.07 per contract Initiating Order fee is reasonable because the Exchange is offering members and member organizations a greater opportunity to qualify for the lower fee by adding Tier 3 as a qualifier.
The Exchange's proposal that if the member or member organization qualifies for the Tier 3, 4 or 5 Customer Rebate in Section B the member or member organization will be assessed $0.05 per contract, instead of the $0.07 per contract Initiating Order fee is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange will assess the fee in a uniform manner to all applicable members and member organizations.
The Exchange's proposal to no longer offer the ability to not be assessed an Initiating Order Fee for Professional, Firm, Broker-Dealer, Specialist and Market Maker orders that are contra to a Customer PIXL Order if the Customer PIXL Order is greater than 399 contracts and instead replace this offer with a rebate to attract more liquidity for Complex SPY PIXL Orders similar to proposed SPY PIXL pricing is reasonable. The proposed rebate will incentivize members and member organizations to transact a greater number of Complex SPY PIXL Orders will also incentivizing members and member organizations to submit Customer order flow on Phlx. All members and member organizations are eligible for this rebate, which applies to all Complex PIXL Orders excluding SPY Options,
The Exchange's proposal to no longer offer the ability to not be assessed an Initiating Order Fee for Professional, Firm, Broker-Dealer, Specialist and Market Maker orders that are contra to a Customer PIXL Order if the Customer PIXL Order is greater than 399 contracts and instead replace this offer with a rebate to attract more liquidity for PIXL SPY Complex Orders similar to proposed SPY PIXL pricing is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. All members and member organizations are eligible for the proposed rebate, provide they met the requisite qualifications. Members and member organizations would be uniformly paid the rebate, provided they qualify. No member will be eligible to eliminate the Initiating Order Fee for Professional, Firm, Broker-Dealer, Specialist and Market Maker orders that are contra to a Customer PIXL Order if the Customer PIXL Order is greater than 399 contracts.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. In terms of inter-market competition, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive, or rebate opportunities available at other venues to be more favorable. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually adjust its fees to remain competitive with other exchanges and with alternative trading systems that have been exempted from compliance with the statutory standards applicable to exchanges. Because competitors are free to modify their own fees in response, and because market participants may readily adjust their order routing practices, the Exchange believes that the degree to which fee changes in this market may impose any burden on competition is extremely limited. In sum, if the changes proposed herein are unattractive to market participants, it is likely that the Exchange will lose market share as a result. Accordingly, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed changes will impair the ability of members or competing order execution venues to maintain their competitive standing in the financial markets.
In terms of intra-market competition, the Exchange believes that its proposed rebates and fees continue to remain competitive in SPY and Multiply Listed Options. In sum, if the changes proposed herein are unattractive to market participants, it is likely that the Exchange will lose market share as a result. Accordingly, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed changes will impair the ability of members or competing order execution venues to maintain their competitive standing in the financial markets.
The Exchange's proposal to no longer offer the ability to not be assessed an Initiating Order Fee for Professional, Firm, Broker-Dealer, Specialist and Market Maker orders that are contra to a Customer SPY PIXL Order if the Customer SPY PIXL Order is greater than 399 contracts and instead offer Phlx members and member organizations that qualify for Section B, Customer Rebate Tiers 2 through 6 or qualify for the Monthly Firm Fee Cap a rebate of $0.10 per contract for all SPY Complex PIXL Orders greater than 499 contracts, provided the member or member organization executes an average of 2,500 contracts per day of SPY Complex PIXL Orders in a month does not impose an undue burden on intra-market competition. All members and member organizations are eligible for the proposed rebate, provide they met the requisite qualifications. Members and member organizations would be uniformly paid the new rebate. No member or member organization will be eligible to eliminate the Initiating Order Fee for Professional, Firm, Broker-Dealer, Specialist and Market Maker orders that are contra to a Customer SPY PIXL Order if the Customer SPY PIXL Order is greater than 399 contracts.
The Exchange's proposal to amend its SPY PIXL pricing so that when the PIXL
The Exchange's proposal to amend the SPY PIXL pricing so that all other Non-Customer contra parties to the PIXL Order, other than the Initiating Order, will be assessed an increased Fee for Removing Liquidity of $0.50 per contract or will receive the Rebate for Adding Liquidity does not impose an undue burden on intra-market competition because the Exchange will uniformly assess the increased Fee for Removing Liquidity to all applicable members and member organizations.
The Exchange's proposal to not offer a rebate when the PIXL Order is contra to a Specialist or Market Maker quote, which was established at the initiation of a PIXL auction, the Customer PIXL Order does not impose an undue burden on intra-market competition. The Exchange will uniformly not offer a rebate to any member or member organization when the PIXL Order is contra to a Specialist or Market Maker quote, which was established at the initiation of a PIXL auction.
The Exchange's proposal that if the member or member organization qualifies for the Tier 3, 4 or 5 Customer Rebate in Section B the member or member organization will be assessed $0.05 per contract, instead of the $0.07 per contract Initiating Order fee does not impose an undue burden on intra-market competition because the Exchange will assess the fee in a uniform manner to all applicable members and member organizations.
The Exchange's proposal to no longer offer the ability to not be assessed an Initiating Order Fee for Professional, Firm, Broker-Dealer, Specialist and Market Maker orders that are contra to a Customer PIXL Order if the Customer PIXL Order is greater than 399 contracts and instead replace this offer with a rebate to attract more liquidity for PIXL SPY Complex Orders similar to proposed SPY PIXL pricing does not impose an undue burden on intra-market competition. All members and member organizations are eligible for the proposed rebate, provide they met the requisite qualifications. Members and member organizations would be uniformly paid the rebate, provided they qualify. No member or member organization will be eligible to eliminate the Initiating Order Fee for Professional, Firm, Broker-Dealer, Specialist and Market Maker orders that are contra to a Customer PIXL Order if the Customer PIXL Order is greater than 399 contracts.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to the provisions of Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange is filing a proposal to amend the MIAX Options Fee Schedule (the “Fee Schedule”).
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its Fee Schedule to provide a definition of the MIAX Express Network Interconnect (“MENI”) and that any Member
The Exchange provides to Members and non-Members a network infrastructure pursuant to which such Members and non-Members establish connectivity to the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facilities of the Exchange. The Exchange refers to this network infrastructure as the MIAX Express Network Interconnect, or the MENI. The MENI consists of the low latency and ultra-low latency (“ULL”) connectivity options set forth in the Exchange's Fee Schedule. The MENI also provides members and non-members of MIAX PEARL network connectivity to the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facilities of MIAX PEARL. Further, for Members and non-Members of the Exchange that wish to establish connectivity to both the Exchange and MIAX PEARL, the MENI can be configured to provide such Members and non-Members of the Exchange network connectivity to the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facilities of both the Exchange and MIAX PEARL, via a single, shared connection.
Accordingly, the Exchange is proposing to clarify that, when a Member or non-Member of the Exchange establishes network connectivity to the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facilities of both the Exchange and MIAX PEARL, via a single, shared connection, for purposes of: (i) Section 4) of the Exchange's Fee Schedule, the Member or non-Member will only be assessed one Network Connectivity Testing and Certification Fee per connection tested, regardless of the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facilities accessed via such connection, and (ii) Section 5) of the Exchange's Fee Schedule, the Member or non-Member will only be assessed one Network Connectivity Fee per connection, regardless of the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facilities accessed via such connection.
In particular, regarding Network Connectivity Testing and Certification, new users of the Exchange's System (and existing users of the System that seek to change connectivity options) require testing and certification prior to actual use in the production environment, and are assessed fees for such testing and certification as are specified in the Exchange's Fee Schedule. Accordingly, the Exchange now proposes to amend Section 4)c) of the Fee Schedule to provide that Members utilizing the MENI to connect to the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facilities of the Exchange and MIAX PEARL via a single, shared connection will only be assessed one Network Connectivity Testing and Certification Fee per connection tested, regardless of the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facilities accessed via such connection. Further, the Exchange similarly proposes to amend Section 4)d) of the Fee Schedule to provide that non-Members utilizing the MENI to connect to the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facilities of the Exchange and MIAX PEARL via a single, shared connection will only be assessed one Network Connectivity Testing and Certification Fee per connection tested, regardless of the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facilities accessed via such connection.
Regarding System Network Connectivity Fees, Members and non-Members of the Exchange are assessed fees for connectivity to the Exchange as is set forth in the Fee Schedule, depending on the connection size (
The proposed rule change is intended to provide greater transparency to Members and non-Members of the Exchange regarding how network connectivity testing and certification fees and network connectivity fees will
The Exchange believes that its proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The proposed rule change furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(4) of the Act
The proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes that the proposed changes would increase both intermarket and intramarket competition by defining the assessments of such network connectivity testing and certification fees and network connectivity fees for all users of the Exchange, thereby creating greater clarity around the Exchange's assessment of such fees for participants that wish to begin using MIAX PEARL's System through its existing MIAX Options' network connection and to continue using the Exchange's facilities through the same shared connection, thereby enabling a potential user of both systems to assess the competitive nature of the fees. This should benefit all market participants and improve competition on the Exchange.
The Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually adjust its fees to remain competitive with other exchanges and to attract order flow to the Exchange. The Exchange believes that the proposal will enhance competition, because market participants will have more clarity surrounding how they will be assessed the network connectivity testing and certification fees and network connectivity fees if they desire to connect to both the MIAX Options and MIAX PEARL through the MENI and will also understand that they will not be double charged for these network fees for using the same, shared connections to both exchanges.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act,
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On December 16, 2016, Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated (the “Exchange” or “CBOE”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
CBOE proposes to move P.M.-settled S&P 500 Index options expiring on the third-Friday of the month (“third-Friday”), currently listed in a separate class and trading under the symbol “SPXPM”, to the Hybrid 3.0 S&P 500 Index options class. In connection with the move, the Exchange proposes changing the trading symbol for these options from “SPXPM” to “SPXW.”
The Exchange currently lists A.M.-settled
In addition, the Hybrid 3.0 options class also includes nonstandard P.M.-settled S&P 500 Index options trading under the symbol “SPXW,” which may expire on Mondays, Wednesdays, Fridays (other than the third-Friday-of-the-month) (
In its filing, the Exchange noted that a gap exists currently in Friday expirations for SPXW as a user of SPXW options cannot roll an existing SPXW position that expires on a first or second Friday of a month into a SPXW position that expires on a third-Friday, because the latter is part of the separate SPXPM class.
In its filing, the Exchange noted its belief that moving SPXPM into the SPX options class under the symbol SPXW should not adversely impact market participants.
SPXPM options currently are approved for listing and trading on a pilot basis.
After careful review, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act
The Exchange represents that trading P.M.-settled third-Friday expirations as part of the S&P 500 Index options class under the SPXW symbol, rather than as a separate class under the SPXPM symbol, will help remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market by providing market participants with access to a single class
Further, the Exchange represents that there are minimal differences in the trading parameters of the two options classes.
Finally, SPXPM options currently are listed on a pilot basis. As part of the pilot, the Exchange has been required to submit to the Commission quarterly reports and annual reports that analyze the market impact and trading patterns of third-Friday P.M.-settled S&P 500 options. The Exchange represents that it will continue to provide this data in exactly the same scope and format.
Based on the Exchange's representations discussed above, and for the reasons noted above, the Commission believes that the proposal to move SPXPM options into the SPX options class is consistent with the Act.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 6.62 to eliminate Price Improving Orders and Quotes, and amend Rule 6.73 to eliminate the electronic and open outcry bidding and offering requirements associated with a Price Improving Order or Quote, and make a conforming change to Rule 6.47A. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 6.62 to eliminate Price Improving Orders and Quotes, and amend Rule 6.73 to eliminate the electronic and open outcry bidding and offering requirements associated with a Price Improving Order or Quote, and make a conforming change to Rule 6.47A. The Exchange proposes to eliminate these order types in order to streamline its rules and reduce complexity among its order type offerings.
The Exchange proposes to eliminate, and thus delete from its rules, Price Improving Orders and Quotes, as defined in Rule 6.62(s).
A Price Improving Order or Price Improving Quote is an order or quote to buy or sell an option at a specified price at an increment smaller than the minimum price variation in the security. Price Improving Orders and Quotes may be entered in increments as small as one cent. Because the Exchange has not implemented this functionality, the Exchange believes it is appropriate to delete the functionality from its rules.
To reflect this elimination, the Exchange proposes to delete all references to Price Improving Orders and Quotes in Rule 6.62(s), and to the electronic and open outcry bidding and offering requirements associated with a Price Improving Order or Quote in the second introductory paragraph of Rule 6.73 and Rules 6.73(a), 6.73(b) and 6.73(c), and to delete in the Commentary to Rule 6.47A references to Rule 6.62(s) and 6.73, as follows:
• Delete Rule 6.62(s), which defines Price Improving Orders and Quotes;
• delete the second introductory paragraph of Rule 6.73, which describes which options may be designated for penny price improvement;
• delete Rule 6.73(a), which describes the electronic submission process in connection with a Price Improving Order or Quote;
• delete Rule 6.73(b), which describes the open outcry submission process in connection with a Price Improving Order or Quote;
• delete Rule 6.73(c), which describes the requirement to electronically “sweep” any penny pricing interest in the Exchange's System; and
• delete in the Commentary to Rule 6.47A references to Rules 6.62(s) and 6.73.
The proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b)
Specifically, the Exchange believes that eliminating Price Improving Orders and Quotes would remove impediments to and perfect a national market system by simplifying the functionality and complexity of its order types. The Exchange believes that eliminating these order types would be consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors because investors will not be harmed and in fact would benefit from the removal of complex functionality. The Exchange also believes that eliminating Price Improving Orders and Quotes would benefit investors and add transparency and clarity to the Exchange's rules because the functionality of those order types was not implemented and therefore is not available. The Exchange further believes that deleting a corresponding reference in Exchange rules to deleted order types, and the associated bidding and offering process in connection with a deleted order type, also removes impediments to and perfects the mechanism of a free and open market by ensuring that members, regulators and the public can more easily navigate the Exchange's rulebook and better understand the order types available for trading on the Exchange. Removing an obsolete cross reference also furthers the goal of transparency and adds clarity to the Exchange's rules.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed change is not designed to address any competitive issue but would rather eliminate complex functionality and references to functionality that is not available, thereby reducing confusion and making the Exchange's rules easier to understand and navigate.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to the provisions of Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange is filing a proposal to establish the MIAX PEARL Fee Schedule (the “Fee Schedule”) by adopting rebates and fees applicable to participants trading options on and/or using services provided by MIAX PEARL.
MIAX PEARL commenced operations as a national securities exchange registered under Section 6 of the Act
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to establish transaction rebates and fees, regulatory fees, and certain non-transaction fees applicable to market participants trading options on and/or using services provided by the Exchange. These rebates and fees will apply to all market participants trading options on and/or using services provided by MIAX PEARL.
The Exchange has included a Definitions section at the beginning of the Fee Schedule. The purpose of the Definitions section is to streamline the Fee Schedule by placing many of the defined terms used in the Fee Schedule in one location at the beginning of the Fee Schedule. Many of the defined terms are also defined in Exchange Rules, particularly in Exchange Rule 100. Any defined terms that are also defined or otherwise explained in Exchange Rules contain a cross reference to the relevant Exchange Rule. The Exchange notes that other exchanges have Definitions sections in their respective fee schedule,
The proposed Fee Schedule sets forth transaction rebates and fees for all options traded on the Exchange in amounts that vary depending upon certain factors, including the type of market participant for whom the transaction is executed (
In general, the Exchange proposes that Add/Remove Tiered Rebates/Fees applicable to all market participants will be based upon the total monthly volume executed by the Member
In addition, the per contract transaction rebates and fees shall be applied retroactively to all eligible volume once the threshold tier (“Tier”) has been reached by the Member. The Exchange additionally proposes to aggregate the volume of Members and their Affiliates.
The Add/Remove Tiered Rebates/Fees proposed by the Exchange are similar in structure to and in the range of the transaction rebates and fees charged by BATS BZX Options Exchange (“BATS”) to its market participants.
The Exchange's transaction rebates and fees structure is also similar to that of ISE Gemini, LLC (“Gemini”).
Transaction rebates/fees applicable to all orders submitted by a Member for the account of a Priority Customer
Transactions on behalf of a BATS “Customer” are similar to transactions by a Member on behalf of the Exchange's origin type “Priority Customer”.
Transaction rebates/fees applicable to all Market Makers
The Market Maker rebates and fees proposed by the Exchange are similar in structure to the transaction rebates and fees charged by BATS to its market makers. For example, for a market maker adding liquidity in a Penny Pilot class, BATS pays a rebate of (i) $0.35 for ADV (and below) of less than 0.40% of average OCV; (ii) $0.40 for volume equal to or greater than 0.40% of average OCV; and (iii) $0.42 if the member has an average daily added volume in market maker and/or away market maker orders equal to or greater than 1.30% of average OCV and has average daily volume equal to or greater than 2.60% of average OCV. For a market maker adding liquidity in a Non-Penny class, BATS pays a rebate of (i) $0.42 for volume less than 0.40% of OCV; (ii) $0.45 for volume equal to or greater than 0.40% of average OCV; (iii) $0.52 for volume equal to or greater than 1.30% of average OCV; and (iv) $0.65 if the member has an average daily added volume in market maker orders in Non-Penny classes equal to or greater than 0.10% of average OCV and has average daily added volume in non-Priority Customer orders equal to or greater than 3.00% of average OCV.
Additionally, for a market maker taking liquidity in a Penny Pilot class, BATS assesses a fee of (i) $0.50 for average daily added volume of less than 1.30% of average OCV; (ii) $0.47 for average daily added volume of equal to or greater than 1.30% of average OCV; and (iii) $0.44 for average daily added volume of equal to or greater than 1.70% of average OCV.
Transaction rebates/fees applicable to all orders submitted by a Member for the account of non-Priority Customers, Firms, Broker-Dealers and non-MIAX Pearl Market Makers will be assessed according to the following table:
The Add/Remove Tiered Rebates and Fees assessable to these market participants who are not Priority Customers and who are not MIAX PEARL Market Makers proposed by the Exchange are also similar in structure to and in the range of the transaction rebates and fees charged by BATS for transactions for the accounts of similar market participants. The Exchange notes, however, that BATS has three separate groupings for these other market participants,
Additionally, for transactions on behalf of professionals, firm, broker-dealer or away market maker taking liquidity in a Penny Pilot class, BATS assesses a fee of (i) $0.50 for average daily added volume of less than 1.30% of average OCV; (ii) $0.47 for average daily added volume of equal to or greater than 1.30% of average OCV; and (iii) $0.44 for average daily added volume of equal to or greater than 1.70% of average OCV.
MIAX PEARL proposes to assess Routing Fees in order to recoup costs incurred by MIAX PEARL when routing orders to various away markets. The amount of the applicable fee, if any, is based upon (i) the origin type of the order, (ii) whether or not it is an order for an option in a Penny or Non-Penny class (or other explicitly identified classes) and (iii) to which away market it is being routed, according to the following table:
In analyzing its fees, the Exchange took into account clearing costs,
The Sales Value Fee
Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (“FINRA”), through the Web CRD
The Exchange proposes to establish certain non-transaction fees, including membership, testing, system connectivity and market data fees, applicable to Members and non-Members using services provided by MIAX PEARL.
MIAX PEARL proposes to assess Membership fees for Applications and Trading Permits.
A one-time application fee based upon the applicant's status as either an Electronic Exchange Member (“EEM”) or as a Market Maker will be assessed by MIAX PEARL. The Exchange proposes to assess the one-time application fee on the earlier of (i) the date the applicant is certified in the Exchange's membership system or (ii) once an application for MIAX PEARL membership is finally denied. MIAX PEARL proposes that the one-time application fee for membership will be waived for a period of time, which the Exchange has defined in the Fee Schedule as the Waiver Period,
MIAX PEARL proposes to issue Trading Permits that confer the ability to transact on MIAX PEARL. Trading Permits will be issued to EEMs and Market Makers. Members receiving Trading Permits during a particular calendar month will be assessed monthly Trading Permit Fees as shall be set forth in the Fee Schedule. The Exchange notes that the Exchange's affiliate, MIAX Options, charges trading permit fees as well, and the Exchange's proposed structure for its Trading Permit fees is based on the structure of MIAX Options, particularly as it relates to EEMs. As it relates to Market Makers, MIAX Options charges its market makers based on the number of options classes to which the market maker is appointed. Since the market making structure on the Exchange is not identical to the market making structure on MIAX Options, the Exchange may propose to charge its Market Makers in a different manner than is charged at MIAX Options. The monthly Trading Permit Fees assessable to EEMs and Market Makers are being waived by the Exchange for the Waiver Period. The Exchange will submit a rule filing to the Commission to establish the fee amount and any related requirements, and provide notice to terminate the applicable Waiver Period. Even though the Exchange is proposing to waive this particular fee during the Waiver Period, the Exchange believes that is appropriate to provide market participants with the overall structure of the fee by outlining the structure on the Fee Schedule without setting forth a specific fee amount, so that there is general awareness that the Exchange intends to assess such a fee in the future, should the Waiver Period terminate and the Exchange establish an applicable fee.
MIAX PEARL proposes to assess an Application Programming Interface (“API”) testing and certification fee on all Members depending upon the type of interface being tested. An API makes it possible for Member software to communicate with MIAX PEARL software applications, and is subject to Member testing with, and certification by, MIAX PEARL. The Exchange proposes to offer four types of interfaces: (i) the Financial Information Exchange (“FIX”) Port, which allows Members to electronically send orders in all products traded on the Exchange; (ii) the MIAX Express Network (“MEO”) Port, which allows EEMs and Market Makers to submit electronic orders to the Exchange; (iii) the Clearing Trade Drop (“CTD”) Port, which provides real-time trade clearing information to the participants to a trade on MIAX PEARL and to the participants' respective clearing firms; and (iv) FIX Drop Copy (“FXD”) Port, which provides a copy of real-time trade execution, correction and cancellation information through a FIX Port to any number of FIX Ports designated by an EEM to receive such messages. API Testing and Certification Fees will be assessed (i) initially per API per interface in the month the Member has been credentialed to use one or more ports in the production environment for the tested API, and (ii) each time a Member initiates a change to its system that requires testing and certification. API Testing and Certification Fees will not be assessed in situations where the Exchange initiates a mandatory change to the Exchange's system that requires testing and certification. The fees represent costs incurred by the Exchange as it works with each Member for testing and certifying that the Member's software systems communicate properly with MIAX PEARL's interfaces. MIAX PEARL has set a one-time fee so that MIAX PEARL Members will know the full cost for the service prior to beginning to use
In order to provide an incentive to prospective Members to apply early for membership and to engage in API testing and certification such that they will be able to trade options on MIAX PEARL as soon as possible, API Testing and Certification fees assessable to Members will be waived by the Exchange for all interfaces for the Waiver Period. The Exchange will submit a rule filing to the Commission to establish the fee amount and any related requirements, and provide notice to terminate the applicable Waiver Period. Even though the Exchange is proposing to waive this particular fee during the Waiver Period, the Exchange believes that is appropriate to provide market participants with the overall structure of the fee by outlining the structure on the Fee Schedule without setting forth a specific fee amount, so that there is general awareness that the Exchange intends to assess such a fee in the future, should the Waiver Period terminate and the Exchange establish an applicable fee.
MIAX PEARL proposes to assess a one-time API Testing and Certification fee per interface on third-party vendors, Service Bureaus and other non-Members whose software interfaces with MIAX PEARL software. As with Members, an API makes it possible for the software of third-party vendors, Service Bureaus and other non-Members to communicate with MIAX PEARL software applications, and is subject to testing with, and certification by, MIAX PEARL. API Testing and Certification Fees will be assessed (i) initially per API per interface in the month the non-Member has been credentialed to use one or more ports in the production environment for the tested API, and (ii) each time a non-Member initiates a change to its system that requires testing and certification. API Testing and Certification Fees will not be assessed in situations where the Exchange initiates a mandatory change to the Exchange's system that requires testing and certification.
Other exchanges, including NASDAQ PHLX, LLC and NASDAQ Stock Market, charge a fee for similar services to Members and non-Members.
As described below under “System Connectivity Fees”, MIAX PEARL will establish electronic communication connections with Members and proposes to assess Members a Testing and Certification Fee of $1,000.00 per Member per one (1) Gigabit (“Gb”) connection, $4,000.00 per Member per ten (10) Gb connection and $4,000.00 per Member per ten (10) Gb ultra-low-latency (“ULL”) connection. Member Network Connectivity Testing and Certification Fees will be assessed (i) initially per connection in the month the Member has been credentialed to use any API or Market Data feeds in the production environment utilizing the tested network connection, and (ii) each time a Member initiates a change to its system that requires network connectivity testing and certification. Network Connectivity Testing and Certification Fees will not be assessed in situations where the Exchange initiates a mandatory change to the Exchange's system that requires testing and certification. Member Network Connectivity Testing and Certification Fees will not be assessed for testing and certification of connectivity to the Exchange's Disaster Recovery Facility.
These proposed fee amounts are identical to the fees currently assessed for the same services at MIAX Options. The Exchange notes that the MENI, which is defined in the Definitions section of the Fee Schedule, is a network infrastructure which provides Members and non-Members network connectivity to the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facility of the Exchange. The MENI consists of the low latency and ultra-low latency (“ULL”) connectivity options set forth in the Exchange's Fee Schedule. The MENI can also be configured to provide network connectivity to the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facility of the Exchange's affiliate, MIAX Options, via a single, shared connection. Accordingly, Members utilizing the MENI to connect to the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facilities of the Exchange and MIAX Options via a single, shared connection will only be assessed one Network Connectivity Testing and Certification Fee per connection tested, regardless of the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facilities accessed via such connection.
MIAX PEARL will establish electronic connections with and proposes to assess Service Bureaus, Extranet Providers and other non-Members a Testing and Certification Fee of $1,200.00 per non-Member per one (1) Gigabit (“Gb”) connection, $4,200.00 per non-Member per ten (10) Gb connection and $4,200.00 per non-Member per ten (10) Gb ultra-low-latency (“ULL”) connection.
Non-Member Network Connectivity Testing and Certification Fees will be assessed (i) initially per connection in the month the non-Member has been credentialed to use any API or Market Data feeds in the production environment utilizing the tested network connection, and (ii) each time a non-Member initiates a change to its system that requires network connectivity testing and certification. Network Connectivity Testing and Certification Fees will not be assessed in situations where the Exchange initiates a mandatory change to the Exchange's system that requires testing and certification. Non-Member Network Connectivity Testing and Certification
These proposed fee amounts are identical to the fees currently assessed for the same services at MIAX Options. As with Member subscribers, the MENI can also be configured to provide network connectivity to the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facility of the Exchange's affiliate, MIAX Options, via a single, shared connection. Accordingly, non-Members utilizing the MENI to connect to the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facilities of the Exchange and MIAX Options via a single, shared connection will only be assessed one Network Connectivity Testing and Certification Fee per connection tested, regardless of the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facilities accessed via such connection.
MIAX PEARL proposes to assess fees to Members and non-Members for electronic connections between those entities and MIAX PEARL. The connectivity fees are generally based upon the amount of bandwidth that will be used by the Member or non-Member. MIAX PEARL currently offers fiber optic connectivity with a bandwidth of (i) one (1) Gb; (ii) ten (10) Gb; and (iii) ten (10) Gb ULL, which connects the user to MIAX PEARL using an ultra-low latency switch, which provides faster processing of messages sent to it in comparison to the switch used for the other types of connectivity. The Exchange offers connectivity to its Primary, Secondary and Disaster Recovery Facilities through the 1 Gb and 10 Gb connections and offers connectivity to its Primary and Secondary Facilities through the 10 Gb ULL connection.
MIAX PEARL proposes to assess a monthly Member Network Connectivity fee of (i) $1,100 per one (1) Gb connection to the Exchange's Primary and Secondary Facilities; (ii) $500.00 per one (1) Gb connection to the Exchange's Disaster Recovery Facility; (iii) $5,500.00 per ten (10) Gb connection to the Exchange's Primary and Secondary Facilities; (iv) $2,500.00 per ten (10) Gb connection to the Exchange's Disaster Recovery Facility; and (v) $8,500 per ten (10) Gb ULL connection to the Exchange's Primary and Secondary Facilities. MIAX PEARL charges a higher fee for the 10 Gb and 10 Gb ULL connections due the higher costs of the bandwidths and the low latency switch in the case of the 10 Gb ULL connection. MIAX PEARL's monthly Member Network Connectivity fees are identical to those charged by MIAX Options and are comparable to the monthly fees charged for similar connectivity at Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated (“CBOE”), which are (i) $750 for a 1 Gb connection, (ii) $4,000 for a 10 Gb connection and (iii) $250 for 1 Gb connection to CBOE's Disaster Recovery facility,
Monthly Member Network Connectivity fees for connectivity with the Primary/Secondary Facility will be assessed in any month the Member is credentialed to use any of the MIAX PEARL APIs or Market Data feeds in the production environment and will be pro-rated when a Member makes a change to the connectivity (by adding or deleting connections) with such pro-rated fees based on the number of trading days that the Member has been credentialed to utilize any of the MIAX PEARL APIs or Market Data feeds in the production environment through such connection, divided by the total number of trading days in such month multiplied by the applicable monthly rate. Monthly Member Network Connectivity fees for connectivity with the Disaster Recovery Facility will be assessed in each month during which the Member has established connectivity with the Disaster Recovery Facility.
The Exchange notes that the MENI can be configured to provide network connectivity to the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facility of the Exchange's affiliate, MIAX Options, via a single, shared connection. Accordingly, Members utilizing the MENI to connect to the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facilities of the Exchange and MIAX Options via a single, shared connection will only be assessed one Member Network Connectivity Fee per connection, regardless of the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facilities accessed via such connection.
MIAX PEARL proposes to assess a monthly non-Member Network Connectivity fee of (i) $1,100 per one (1) Gb connection to the Exchange's Primary and Secondary Facilities; (ii) $500.00 per one (1) Gb connection to the Exchange's Disaster Recovery Facility; (iii) $5,500.00 per ten (10) Gb connection to the Exchange's Primary and Secondary Facilities; (iv) $2,500.00 per ten (10) Gb connection to the Exchange's Disaster Recovery Facility; and (v) $8,500 per ten (10) Gb ULL connection to the Exchange's Primary and Secondary Facilities. MIAX PEARL charges a higher fee for the 10 Gb and 10 Gb ULL connections due the higher costs of the bandwidths and the low latency switch in the case of the 10 Gb ULL connection. MIAX PEARL's monthly non-Member Network Connectivity fees are identical to those charged by MIAX Options and are comparable to the monthly fees charged for similar connectivity at CBOE, which are (i) $750 for a 1 Gb connection, (ii) $4,000 for a 10 Gb connection and (iii) $250 for 1 Gb connection to CBOE's Disaster Recovery facility
Monthly non-Member Network Connectivity fees for connectivity with the Primary/Secondary Facility will be assessed in each month the non-Member has been credentialed to use any of the MIAX PEARL APIs or Market Data feeds via the network connection in the production environment and will be pro-rated when a non-Member makes a change to the connectivity (by adding or deleting connections) with such pro-rated fees based on the number of trading days that the non-Member has been credentialed to utilize any one of the two MIAX Exchanges' APIs or Market Data feeds in the production environment through such connection, divided by the total number of trading days in such month multiplied by the applicable monthly rate. Monthly Non-Member Network Connectivity fees for connectivity with the Disaster Recovery Facility will be assessed in each month during which the non-Member has established connectivity with the Disaster Recovery Facility.
As with Members, the MENI can be configured to provide network connectivity to the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facility of the Exchange's affiliate, MIAX Options, via a single, shared connection. Accordingly, non-Members utilizing the MENI to connect to the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facilities of the Exchange and MIAX Options via a single, shared connection will only be assessed one non-Member Network Connectivity Fee per connection, regardless of the trading platforms, market data systems, test systems, and disaster recovery facilities accessed via such connection.
MIAX PEARL proposes to assess External Connectivity fees to Members and non-Members that establish connections with MIAX PEARL through a third-party. Fees charged to MIAX PEARL by third-party external vendors on behalf of a Member or non-Member connecting to MIAX PEARL (including cross-connects), will be passed through to the Member or non-Member. External Connectivity fees include one-time set-up fees and monthly charges charged to MIAX PEARL by a third-party.
The purpose of the External Connectivity fee is to recoup costs incurred by MIAX PEARL in establishing connectivity with external vendors acting on behalf of a Member or non-Member. MIAX PEARL will only pass-through the actual costs it is charged by the third-party external vendors. Other exchanges, including MIAX Options, charge a fee for similar services to Members and non-Members.
Once network connectivity is established, MIAX PEARL proposes to assess fees for access and services used by Members and non-Members via connections known as “Port”. MIAX PEARL provides four (4) Port types, including (i) the FIX Port, which allows Members to electronically send orders in all products traded on the Exchange; (ii) the MEO Port, which allows EEMs and Market Makers to submit electronic orders to the Exchange; (iii) the CTD Port, which provides real-time trade clearing information to the participants to a trade on MIAX PEARL and to the participants' respective clearing firms; and (iv) FXD Port, which provides a copy of real-time trade execution, correction and cancellation information through a FIX Port to any number of FIX Ports designated by an EEM to receive such messages.
MIAX PEARL will assess monthly Port Fees on Members and non-Members in each month the market participant is credentialed to use a Port in the production environment and based upon the number of credentialed Ports that a user is entitled to use. MIAX PEARL has Primary and Secondary Facilities and a Disaster Recovery Facility. Each type of Port provides access to all three facilities for a single fee. The Exchange notes that, unless otherwise specifically set forth in the Fee Schedule, the Port Fees include the information communicated through the Port. That is, unless otherwise specifically set forth in the Fee Schedule, there is no additional charge for the information that is communicated through the Port apart from what the user is assessed for each Port.
The Exchange will offer different options of MEO Ports depending on the services required by the Member or non-Member, including a Full Service MEO Port—Bulk,
Other exchanges, including MIAX Options, charge a fee for similar services to Members and non-Members. The Exchange's proposed structure for its Port Fees is based on the structure of MIAX Options, subject to a few differences as discussed below. First, the Exchange is not currently proposing to have tiered pricing for FIX Ports, as does MIAX Options. If the Exchange determines to adopt a tiered pricing structure in the future, the Exchange will submit a proposed rule change with the Commission to establish such a structure. Second, the Exchange is proposing to have two types of Full Service MEO Port Fees (Bulk and Single), whereas MIAX Options only has one type of full service port fee (MEI Port Fee). Further, MIAX Options charges for its MEI port fees based on the options class assignments, as measured by the national volume. Since the market making structure on the Exchange is not identical to the market making structure on MIAX Options, the Exchange may propose to assess its MEO Port Fees in a different manner than is assessed by MIAX Options for its MEI Port Fees. Finally, the amount of the CTD Port Fee assessed by MIAX Options is based on the transacted volume of the MIAX Options member. The Exchange is proposing to structure its CDT Port Fee as a monthly fixed amount, not tied to transacted volume of the Member. This fixed fee structure is the same structure in place at Nasdaq
MIAX PEARL proposes to assess monthly Member Participant Identifier (“MPID”) fees on Members based upon the type of MPID. Type of MPID will be either FIX MPID, using the FIX Port interface, or MEO MPID, using the MEO Port interface. MIAX PEARL intends to assess MPID fees in order to cover the administrative costs it incurs in assigning and managing these identifiers for each Member.
Other exchanges, including MIAX Options, charge a fee for similar services to Members, however there are the following differences between the structure proposed by the Exchange and the structure at MIAX Options, as discussed below. First, as discussed above, the Exchange is proposing to distinguish between MPIDs associated with FIX and MPIDs associated with MEO, and thus both types of MPIDs will respectively have their own associated fee amount. MIAX Options does not make that distinction, and thus has only one type of MPID fee. The Exchange has determined to make this distinction (between FIX MPIDs and MEO MPIDs) due to the difference in market structure between the Exchange and MIAX Options, as the Exchange believes that its maker-taker, price time market structure makes it appropriate to for having a dual MPID fee structure, given the expected trading behavior of Members over the respective interface and the Exchange's costs associated with maintaining each type of interface. Further, MIAX Options only assesses MPID fees on EEMs, whereas the Exchange proposes to assess MPID fees on all Members. Again, the Exchange has determined to make this distinction (assessing MPID fees on all Members versus only on EEMs) because it believes that its maker-taker, price time market structure makes it appropriate for assessing all Members based on expected trading behavior of Members on the Exchange and the Exchange's costs associated with maintaining each type of interface. Second, the Exchange is not currently proposing to have tiered pricing for MPIDs, as does MIAX Options. The Exchange has determined to make this distinction (not offering tiered pricing versus offering tiered pricing) because it believes that its maker-taker, price time market structure will result in Members needing fewer MPIDs, therefore lessening the need for a tiered pricing structure. If the Exchange determines to adopt a tiered pricing structure in the future, the Exchange will submit a proposed rule change with the Commission to establish such a structure. In order to provide an incentive to Members to start trading on MIAX PEARL as soon as possible, all MPID fees assessable to Members will be waived by the Exchange for the Waiver Period for such fees. The Exchange will submit a rule filing to the Commission to establish the fee amount and any related requirements, and provide notice to terminate the applicable Waiver Period. Even though the Exchange is proposing to waive this particular fee during the Waiver Period, the Exchange believes that is appropriate to provide market participants with the overall structure of the fee by outlining the structure on the Fee Schedule without setting forth a specific fee amount, so that there is general awareness that the Exchange intends to assess such a fee in the future, should the Waiver Period terminate and the Exchange establish an applicable fee.
MIAX PEARL proposes to assess a technical support request fee to both Members and non-Members that request MIAX PEARL technical support at any of the MIAX PEARL data centers. MIAX PEARL proposes that such fee will be $200 per hour for such technical support. The purpose of the proposed fee is to permit users to request the use of Exchange's on-site data center personnel as technical support as a convenience to the users to test or otherwise assess the user's connectivity to the Exchange. Other exchanges, including MIAX Options, charge a fee for similar services to Members and non-Members.
The Exchange proposes to assess fees for its market data products, MIAX PEARL Top of Market (“ToM”) and MIAX PEARL Liquidity Feed (“PLF”). The Exchange notes that it has separately filed with the Commission a proposed rule change to establish the ToM and PLF products (the “Market Data Product Filing”).
PLF is a real-time full order book data feed that provides information for orders on the MIAX PEARL order book. PLF will provide real-time information to enable users to keep track of the simple order book for all symbols listed on MIAX PEARL. PLF will provide the following real-time data to its users with respect to each order for the entire order book: Origin, limit price, side, size, and time-in-force (
The Exchange proposes to charge monthly fees to Distributors of the ToM and/or PLF market data products. MIAX PEARL will assess market data fees applicable to the market data products on Internal and External Distributors in each month the Distributor is credentialed to use the applicable market data product in the production environment. A “Distributor” of MIAX PEARL data is any entity that receives a feed or file of data either directly from
Other exchanges, including MIAX Options, charge fees for market data products to Members and non-Members. In order to provide an incentive to Members and non-Members to receive the market data feeds as soon as possible, all market data fees assessable to Distributors for ToM and PLF will be waived by the Exchange for the Waiver Period for such fees. The Exchange will submit a rule filing to the Commission to establish the fee amount and any related requirements, and provide notice to terminate the applicable Waiver Period. Even though the Exchange is proposing to waive this particular fee during the Waiver Period, the Exchange believes that is appropriate to provide market participants with the overall structure of the fee by outlining the structure on the Fee Schedule without setting forth a specific fee amount, so that there is general awareness that the Exchange intends to assess such a fee in the future, should the Waiver Period terminate and the Exchange establish an applicable fee.
The Exchange does not propose to adopt any other fees at this time. The Exchange expects to adopt additional fees after the terminations of applicable Waiver Periods as determined by the Exchange, which shall be at a later date. The Exchange will submit rule filings with the Commission prior to any such fees becoming effective.
The Exchange believes that its proposal to amend its Fee Schedule is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The Exchange believes the rebates and fees proposed for transactions on MIAX PEARL are reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. MIAX PEARL operates within a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily send order flow to several other competing venues if, among other things, they deem fees at a particular venue to be unreasonable or excessive. The proposed fee structure is intended to attract order flow to MIAX PEARL by offering market participants incentives to submit their orders to MIAX PEARL.
Volume-based pricing models such as those proposed on the Exchange have been widely adopted by options exchanges and are equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because they are open to all Members and provide additional benefits or discounts that are reasonably related to the value of an exchange's market quality associated with higher levels of market activity, such as higher levels of liquidity provision and/or growth patterns, and introduction of higher volumes of orders into the price and volume discovery processes.
The Exchange's proposal to offer a rebate to Makers that provide liquidity in Penny and Non-Penny classes is also equitable and not unfairly discriminatory under the Act. The Exchange believes that the proposed maker-taker model is an important competitive tool for exchanges and directly or indirectly can provide better prices for investors. The proposed fee structure may incentivize the MIAX PEARL Bid and Offer (“MBBO”) because the rebate payable to Makers effectively subsidizes, and thus encourages, the posting of liquidity. The Exchange believes that the Maker rebate will also provide MIAX PEARL Market Makers with greater incentive to either match or improve upon the best price displayed on MIAX PEARL, all to the benefit of investors and the public in the form of improved execution prices. MIAX PEARL believes the proposed Add/Remove Tiered transaction rebates and fees assessed to Market Makers are reasonable because they are comparable to transaction fees charged by other options exchanges.
The Exchange believes that its proposed Add/Remove Tiered transaction rebates and fees are equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because they are available to all Market Makers and are reasonably related to the value to the Exchange that comes with higher market quality and higher levels of liquidity in the price and volume discovery processes. Such increased liquidity at the Exchange should allow it to spread its administrative and infrastructure costs over a greater number of transactions leading to lower costs per transaction.
The Exchange believes it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory for MIAX PEARL Market Makers to be assessed generally lower fees than other professional market participants (referred to as non-Priority Customers, Non-Member Broker-Dealers, non-MIAX PEARL Market Makers and Firms in the Fee Schedule). Market Makers have obligations that other professional market participants do not. In particular, they must maintain continuous two-sided markets in the classes in which they are registered to trade, and must meet certain minimum quoting requirements. Therefore, the Exchange believes it is appropriate that Market Makers be assessed lower Add/Remove Tiered transaction fees since they have the potential to provide greater volumes of liquidity to the market.
The Exchange believes the proposed Add/Remove Tiered rebates and fees assessed on Priority Customers are reasonable, equitable, and not unfairly discriminatory because they are, as detailed in the Purpose section above, comparable to fees that Priority Customers are assessed at other competing exchanges.
The Exchange believes that the proposed Routing Fees are reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because they seek to recoup costs that are incurred by the Exchange when routing Public Customer orders to away markets on behalf of Members. Each destination market's transaction charge varies and there is a cost incurred by the Exchange when routing orders to away markets. The costs to the Exchange include clearing costs, administrative, regulatory and technical costs associated with routing options. The Exchange believes that the proposed Routing Fees would enable the Exchange to recover the costs it incurs to route orders to away markets in addition to transaction fees assessed to market participants for the execution of Public Customer orders by the away market. The Exchange is proposing to have 8 different exchange groupings, based on the exchange, order type, and option class. The Exchange believes that having more groupings will offer the Exchange greater precision in covering its costs associated with routing orders to away markets. The per-contract transaction fee amount associated with each grouping closely approximates the Exchange's all-in cost (plus an additional, non-material amount) to execute that corresponding contract at that corresponding exchange. For example, to execute a Priority Customer order in a Penny Pilot symbol (other than SPY) at AMEX costs the Exchange approximately $0.15 a contract. Since this is also the approximate cost to execute that same order at BOX, the Exchange is able to group AMEX and BOX together in the same grouping. This same logic and structure applies to all of the groupings in the Routing Fees table. Other exchanges, like the Exchange's affiliate, Miami International Securities Exchange, LLC (“MIAX Options”), have routing fee structures that simply pass onto the Member the actual charge assessed by the away market where the order is executed plus a fixed fee surcharge (which in the case of MIAX Options is $0.10). However, in the Exchange's experience, this structure of simply passing on the actual charge plus a mark-up can be administratively burdensome, particularly when multiple, third-party, unaffiliated routing broker-dealers are used to route and execute the orders at the away market. By utilizing the structure proposed by the Exchange, the Exchange will know immediately the cost of the execution and it can eliminate the administratively burdensome month end reconciliation process, as well as provide more certainty and transparency for execution costs to its Members for the execution of orders that are routed to away markets.
In addition, the Exchange believes that it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to assess lower routing fees to Priority Customer orders than to non-Priority Customer orders. A Priority Customer is by definition not a broker or dealer in securities, and does not place more than 390 orders in listed options per day on average during a calendar month for its own beneficial account(s). This limitation does not apply to non-Priority Customers, who will generally submit a higher number of orders (many of which do not result in executions) than Priority Customers. Further, the routing fees for Priority Customer orders are based on the fees charged by the away market for the execution of such orders, therefore it is reasonable and appropriate for the routing fees to be lower than the routing fees for non-Priority Customer orders, as this is fee construct at the away markets.
The assessment by the Exchange of the proposed Sales Value Fee is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory since it allows the Exchange to offset the cost it incurs in payment to the Commission of a transaction fee that is designed to recover the costs related to the government's supervision and regulation of the securities markets and securities professionals. The amount of the fee is the same amount assessed to the Exchange pursuant to Section 31 of the Exchange Act. The Exchange believes it is reasonable to recover the actual costs associated with the payment of Section 31 fees and other exchanges, including MIAX Options, charge the same fee to their market participants.
The Exchange believes it is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory for the proposed FINRA fees to be included on the Fee Schedule because these fees are not being assessed or set by MIAX PEARL, but by FINRA, and will be assessed to broker-dealers that register associated persons through FINRA's Web CRD system, and other exchanges, including MIAX Options, charge the same fees to their market participants.
The Exchange believes that the assessment of one-time Membership Application fees is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. As described in the Purpose section, the one-time application fees are charged by other options exchanges, including MIAX Options, and are designed to recover costs associated with the processing of such applications. MIAX PEARL believes it is reasonable and equitable to waive the fee to applicants who apply for membership during the Waiver Period since the waiver of such fees provides incentives to interested applicants to apply early for MIAX PEARL membership. This in turn provides MIAX PEARL with potential order flow and liquidity providers as it begins operations. The waiver will apply equally to all applicants during the Waiver Period for the membership application fee.
The Exchange believes that the assessment of Trading Permit fees is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. The assessment of Trading Permit fees is done by the Exchange's affiliate, MIAX Options, and is commonly done by other exchanges as described in the Purpose section above. MIAX PEARL believes it is reasonable and equitable to waive the fee to Members during the Waiver Period since the waiver of such fees provides incentives to interested Members to apply early for trading permits. This in turn provides MIAX PEARL with potential order flow and liquidity providers as it begins operations. The waiver of the Trading Permit fees will apply equally to all Members during the Waiver Period.
MIAX PEARL believes that the assessment of API and Network Testing and Certification fees is a reasonable allocation of its costs and expenses among its Members and other persons using its facilities since it is recovering the costs associated with providing such infrastructure testing and certification services. Other exchanges, including MIAX Options, charge a fee for similar services to Members and non-Members.
MIAX PEARL believes it is reasonable and equitable to waive the API Testing and Certification fee assessable to Members and non-Members during the Waiver Period since the waiver of such fees provides incentives to interested Members and non-Members to test their APIs early. Determining system operability with the Exchange's system early will in turn provide MIAX PEARL with potential order flow and liquidity providers as it begins operations. The waiver of API Testing and Certification fees will apply equally to all Members and non-Members during the Waiver Period.
Additionally, MIAX PEARL believes it is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to assess different Network Testing and Certification fees to Members and non-Members. The higher fee charged to non-Members reflects the greater amount of time spent by MIAX PEARL employees testing and certifying non-Members. It has been MIAX PEARL's experience that Member testing takes less time than non-Member testing because Members have more experience testing these systems with exchanges; generally fewer questions and issues arise during the testing and certification process.
The Exchange believes that the proposed System Connectivity Fees constitute an equitable allocation of fees, and are not unfairly discriminatory, because they allow the Exchange to recover costs associated with offering access through the network connections and access and services through the Ports, responding to customer requests, configuring MIAX PEARL systems, programming API user specifications and administering the various services. Access to the MIAX PEARL market will be offered on fair and non-discriminatory terms. The proposed System Connectivity Fees are also expected to offset the costs MIAX PEARL incurs in maintaining, and implementing ongoing improvements to the trading systems, including connectivity costs, costs incurred on gateway software and hardware enhancements and resources dedicated to gateway development, quality assurance, and technology support. The Exchange believes that its proposed fees are reasonable in that they are competitive with those charged by other exchanges and are identical to those charged by MIAX Options for the same connectivity.
MIAX PEARL believes it is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to pass-through External Connectivity fees to Members and non-Members that establish connections with MIAX PEARL through a third-party. MIAX PEARL will only pass-through the actual costs it is charged by third-party external vendors. MIAX PEARL believes it is reasonable and equitable to recover costs charged it on behalf of a Member or non-Member that establishes connections with MIAX PEARL through a third party. Other exchanges, including MIAX Options, charge a fee for similar services to Members and non-Members.
MIAX PEARL believes it is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to assess Port fees on both Members and non-Members who use such services. In particular, the Exchange believes that it is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to assess Port fees on Members since the Ports enable Members to submit orders and to receive information regarding transactions. Specifically, the FIX Port and the various MEO Ports enable Members to submit orders electronically to the Exchange for processing. The Exchange believes that its proposed fees are reasonable in that other exchanges offer similar ports with similar services and charge fees for the use of such ports, including MIAX Options.
MIAX PEARL believes it is reasonable and equitable to waive the Port fees assessable to Members and non-Members during the Waiver Period since the waiver of such fees provides incentives to Members and non-Members to connect to the Ports early. Determining connectivity and system operability with the Exchange's system early will in turn provide MIAX PEARL with potential order flow and liquidity providers as it begins operations. The waiver of Port fees will apply equally to all Members and non-Members during the Waiver Period.
The Exchange believes that its fees for MPIDs are reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory in that they apply to all Members using either FIX or MEO equally and allow the Exchange to recover operational and administrative costs in assigning and maintaining such services. The Exchange believes that its proposed fees are reasonable in that other exchanges charge fees for similar services, including MIAX Options, subject to the differences discussed above, which the Exchange believes are reasonable given the different market structure between the Exchange and MIAX Options.
MIAX PEARL believes it is reasonable and equitable to waive the MPID fee to Members during the Waiver Period since the waiver of such fees provides incentives to Members to apply early. This in turn provides MIAX PEARL with potential order flow and liquidity providers as it begins operations. The waiver of the MPID fees will apply equally to all Members during the Waiver Period.
The Exchange believes that the proposed Technical Support fee is fair, equitable and not unreasonably discriminatory, because it is assessed equally to all Members and Non-Members who request technical support. Furthermore, Members and Non-Members are not required to use the service but instead it is offered as a convenience to all Members and Non-Members. The proposed fee is reasonably designed because it will permit both Members and Non-Members to request the use of the Exchange's on-site data center personnel as technical support and as a convenience in order to test or otherwise assess the User's connectivity to the Exchange and the fee is within the range of the fee charged by other exchanges for similar services and is identical to the same fee assessed by MIAX Options.
The Exchange believes that its proposal to assess market data fees is consistent with the provisions of Section 6(b)(4) of the Act in that it provides an equitable allocation of reasonable fees among distributors of ToM and PLF, because all Distributors in each of the respective category of Distributor (
In adopting Regulation NMS, the Commission granted self-regulatory organizations and broker-dealers increased authority and flexibility to offer new and unique market data to the public. It was believed that this authority would expand the amount of data available to consumers, and also spur innovation and competition for the provision of market data:
“[E]fficiency is promoted when broker-dealers who do not need the data beyond the
By removing “unnecessary regulatory restrictions” on the ability of exchanges to sell their own data, Regulation NMS advanced the goals of the Act and the principles reflected in its legislative history. If the free market should determine whether proprietary data is sold to broker-dealers at all, it follows that the price at which such data is sold should be set by the market as well.
In July, 2010, Congress adopted H.R. 4173, the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010 (“Dodd-Frank Act”), which amended Section 19 of the Act. Among other things, Section 916 of the Dodd-Frank Act amended paragraph (A) of Section 19(b)(3) of the Act by inserting the phrase “on any person, whether or not the person is a member of the self-regulatory organization” after “due, fee or other charge imposed by the self-regulatory organization.” As a result, all SRO rule proposals establishing or changing dues, fees or other charges are immediately effective upon filing regardless of whether such dues, fees or other charges are imposed on members of the SRO, non-members, or both. Section 916 further amended paragraph (C) of Section 19(b)(3) of the Act to read, in pertinent part, “At any time within the 60-day period beginning on the date of filing of such a proposed rule change in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (1) [of Section 19(b)], the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend the change in the rules of the self-regulatory organization made thereby, if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of this title. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under paragraph (2)(B) [of Section 19(b)] to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.”
The Exchange believes that these amendments to Section 19 of the Act reflect Congress's intent to allow the Commission to rely upon the forces of competition to ensure that fees for market data are reasonable and equitably allocated. Although Section 19(b) had formerly authorized immediate effectiveness for a “due, fee or other charge imposed by the self-regulatory organization,” the Commission adopted a policy and subsequently a rule stating that fees for data and other products available to persons that are not members of the self-regulatory organization must be approved by the Commission after first being published for comment. At the time, the Commission supported the adoption of the policy and the rule by pointing out that unlike members, whose representation in self-regulatory organization governance was mandated by the Act, non-members should be given the opportunity to comment on fees before being required to pay them, and that the Commission should specifically approve all such fees. MIAX PEARL believes that the amendment to Section 19 reflects Congress's conclusion that the evolution of self-regulatory organization governance and competitive market structure have rendered the Commission's prior policy on non-member fees obsolete. Specifically, many exchanges have evolved from member-owned, not-for-profit corporations into for-profit, investor-owned corporations (or subsidiaries of investor-owned corporations). Accordingly, exchanges no longer have narrow incentives to manage their affairs for the exclusive benefit of their members, but rather have incentives to maximize the appeal of their products to all customers, whether members or non-members, so as to broaden distribution and grow revenues. Moreover, the Exchange believes that the change also reflects an endorsement of the Commission's determinations that reliance on competitive markets is an appropriate means to ensure equitable and reasonable prices. Simply put, the change reflects a presumption that all fee changes should be permitted to take effect immediately, since the level of all fees are constrained by competitive forces. The Exchange therefore believes that the assessment of fees for the use of ToM and PLF is proper for non-member Distributors.
The decision of the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit in
“In fact, the legislative history indicates that the Congress intended that the market system `evolve through the interplay of competitive forces as unnecessary regulatory restrictions are removed' and that the SEC wield its regulatory power `in those situations where competition may not be sufficient,' such as in the creation of a `consolidated transactional reporting system.' ”
The court's conclusions about Congressional intent are therefore reinforced by the Dodd-Frank Act amendments, which create a presumption that exchange fees, including market data fees, may take effect immediately, without prior Commission approval, and that the Commission should take action to suspend a fee change and institute a proceeding to determine whether the fee change should be approved or disapproved only where the Commission has concerns that the change may not be consistent with the Act.
MIAX PEARL believes that the assessment of the proposed market data fees for ToM and PF is fair and equitable in accordance with Section 6(b)(4) of the Act, and not unreasonably discriminatory in accordance with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act. As described above, market data fees are assessed by other exchanges, including MIAX Options.
Moreover, the decision as to whether or not to subscribe to ToM or PLF is entirely optional to all parties. Potential subscribers are not required to purchase the ToM or PLF market data feed, and MIAX PEARL is not required to make the ToM or PLF market data feed available. Subscribers can discontinue their use at any time and for any reason, including due to their assessment of the reasonableness of fees charged. The allocation of fees among subscribers is fair and reasonable because, if the market deems the proposed fees to be unfair or inequitable, firms can diminish or discontinue their use of this data.
MIAX PEARL believes it is reasonable and equitable to waive the market data fees to Distributors during the Waiver Period since the waiver of such fees provides incentives to interested Distributors to receive the data feeds early. This in turn provides MIAX PEARL with potential order flow and liquidity providers as it begins operations. The waiver of the market data fees will apply equally to all Distributors during the Waiver Period.
Finally, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues. In such an environment, the Exchange must
MIAX PEARL does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Unilateral action by MIAX PEARL in establishing rebates and fees for services provided to its Members and others using its facilities will not have an impact on competition. As a new entrant in the already highly competitive environment for equity options trading, MIAX PEARL does not have the market power necessary to set prices for services that are unreasonable or unfairly discriminatory in violation of the Act. MIAX PEARL's proposed rebates and fees, as described herein, are comparable to rebates and fees charged by other options exchanges for the same or similar services, including those rebates and fees assessed by its affiliate, MIAX Options.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act,
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the Government in the Sunshine Act, Public Law 94-409, that the Commission will host the SEC-NYU Dialogue on Securities Markets—Securities Crowdfunding in the U.S. on Tuesday, February 28, 2017 beginning at 8:30 a.m., in the Auditorium, Room L-002.
The event will include welcome remarks by SEC Acting Chairman Michael Piwowar, concluding remarks by SEC Commissioner Kara Stein and panel discussions that Commissioners may attend. The panel discussions will explore the economic rationale and legal framework for securities crowdfunding, investor protection and capital formation in securities crowdfunding and empirical evidence and data on securities crowdfunding. This Sunshine Act notice is being issued because a majority of the Commission may attend the meeting.
For further information, please contact Brent J. Fields from the Office of the Secretary at (202) 551-5400.
Small Business Administration.
30-day notice.
The Small Business Administration (SBA) is publishing this notice to comply with requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), which requires agencies to submit proposed reporting and recordkeeping requirements to OMB for review and approval, and to publish a notice in the
Submit comments on or before March 27, 2017.
Comments should refer to the information collection by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to:
Curtis Rich, Agency Clearance Officer, (202) 205-7030
Small Business Administration collects this information from lenders who participate in the secondary market program. The information is used to facilitate and administer secondary market transactions in accordance with 15 U.S.C. 634(f)3 and to monitor the program for compliance with 15 U.S.C. 639(h).
The Advisory Committee on Historical Diplomatic Documentation will meet on March 6, June 19, September 11, and December 11, 2017, in open session to discuss unclassified matters concerning declassification and transfer of Department of State records to the National Archives and Records Administration and the status of the
The Committee will meet in open session from 11:00 a.m. until noon in SA-4D Conference Room, Department of State, 2300 E Street NW., Washington DC 20372 (Potomac Navy Hill Annex), on all four dates. RSVP should be sent as directed below:
• March 6, not later than February 27, 2017. Requests for reasonable accommodation should be made by February 21, 2017.
• June 19, not later than June 12, 2017. Requests for reasonable accommodation should be made by June 5, 2017.
• September 11, not later than September 5, 2017. Requests for reasonable accommodation should be made by August 28, 2017.
• December 11, not later than December 4, 2017. Requests for reasonable accommodation should be made by November 27, 2017.
Personal data is requested pursuant to Public Law 99-399 (Omnibus Diplomatic Security and Antiterrorism Act of 1986), as amended; Public Law 107-56 (USA PATRIOT Act); and Executive Order 13356. The purpose of the collection is to validate the identity of individuals who enter Department facilities. The data will be entered into the Visitor Access Control System (VACS-D) database. Please see the Security Records System of Records Notice (State-36) at
Questions concerning the meeting should be directed to Dr. Stephen P. Randolph, Executive Secretary, Advisory Committee on Historical Diplomatic Documentation, Department of State, Office of the Historian, Washington, DC 20372, telephone (202) 955-0215, (email
Note that requests for reasonable accommodation received after the dates indicated in this notice will be considered, but might not be possible to fulfill.
The meeting of the Advisory Committee on International Economic Policy (ACIEP) originally scheduled from 2:00 until 5:00 p.m., on Tuesday, February 28 in Washington DC at the State Department, 320 21st St NW has been canceled. It is expected that the next ACIEP meeting will be held at the State Department in June.
The ACIEP serves the U.S. government in a solely advisory capacity, and provides advice concerning topics in international economic policy. Further questions can be directed to Melike Yetken (
Office of the United States Trade Representative.
Extension of date for submission of post-hearing rebuttal comments.
The Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) published a document in the
William L. Busis, Deputy Assistant U.S. Trade Representative for Monitoring and Enforcement and Chair of the Section 301 Committee, or Katherine Linton, Assistant General Counsel, at (202) 395-3150.
1.
In the
2.
In the
3.
In the
Texas Department of Transportation (TxDOT), Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of Limitation on Claims for Judicial Review of Actions by TxDOT and Federal Agencies.
This notice announces actions taken by TxDOT and Federal agencies that are final within the meaning of 23 U.S.C. 139(l)(1). The environmental review, consultation, and other actions required by applicable Federal environmental laws for this project are being, or have been, carried-out by TxDOT pursuant to 23 U.S.C. 327 and a Memorandum of Understanding dated December 16, 2014 and executed by FHWA and TxDOT. The actions relate to a proposed highway project, I-35E from US 67 to I-30 and US 67 from I-20 to I-35E, in Dallas County in the State of Texas. Those actions grant licenses, permits, and approvals for the project.
By this notice, TxDOT is advising the public of final agency actions subject to 23 U.S.C. 139(l)(1). A claim seeking judicial review of the Federal agency actions on the highway project will be barred unless the claim is filed on or before July 24, 2017. If the Federal law that authorizes judicial review of a claim provides a time period of less than 150 days for filing such claim, then that shorter time period still applies.
Mr. Carlos Swonke, P.G., Environmental Affairs Division, Texas Department of Transportation, 125 East 11th Street, Austin, Texas 78701; telephone: (512) 416-2734; email:
Notice is hereby given that TxDOT and Federal agencies have taken final agency actions by issuing licenses, permits, and approvals for the following highway project in the State of Texas: I-35E from US 67 to I-30 and US 67 from I-20 to I-35E, in Dallas County. The project consists of the conversion of the reversible high occupancy vehicles (HOVs) to non-toll reversible express lanes between Colorado Boulevard (Blvd.) and Reunion Blvd., full reconstruction of the section of I-35E between US 67 and Colorado Blvd. and the addition of general purpose lanes along US 67 between I-20 and I-35E. Non-tolled reversible express lanes would be implemented within the entire project limits. Sidewalks and bicycle accommodations would be implemented along those frontage roads and cross-streets proposed to be reconstructed.
The purpose of the project is to reduce traffic congestion, improve mobility, and meet current roadway design standards.
The actions by TxDOT and the Federal agencies, and the laws under which such actions were taken, are described in the final Environmental Assessment (EA) for the project, for which a Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI) was issued on December 27, 2016, and in other documents in the TxDOT project file. The EA, FONSI, and other documents in the TxDOT project file are available by contacting TxDOT at the addresses provided above. The TxDOT EA and FONSI can be viewed and downloaded from the project Web site at
This notice applies to all Federal agency decisions as of the issuance date of this notice and all laws under which such actions were taken, including but not limited to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
23 U.S.C. 139(l)(1).
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of application for exemption; re-opening of comment period.
FMCSA re-opens the public comment period for the Agency's January 19, 2017, notice announcing the application for exemption from J.B. Hunt Transport, Inc. (J.B. Hunt), Schneider National Carriers, Inc. (Schneider), Werner Enterprises, Inc. (Werner), Knight Transportation, Inc. (Knight), Dupre Logistics, Inc. (Dupree), and Maveric Transportation, LLC (Maverick) to allow hair analysis in lieu of urine testing for pre-employment controlled substances testing of commercial driver's license (CDL) holders. On January 23, 2017, the American Federation of Labor and Congress of Industrial Organizations' (AFL-CIO) Transportation Trades Department requested a 60-day extension of the comment period. On February 7, 2017, the International Brotherhood of Teamsters requested a 60-day extension of the comment period. The Agency re-opens and extends the deadline for the submission of public comments.
FMCSA re-opens and extends the comment period for the notice of application for exemption published on January 19, 2017. You must submit comments by April 25, 2017.
You may submit comments identified by Federal Docket Management System Number FMCSA-2017-0002 by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Each submission must include the Agency name and the docket number for this notice. Note that DOT posts all comments received, without change, to
For information concerning this notice, contact Mr. Thomas Yager, Chief, FMCSA Driver and Carrier Operations Division; Office of Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards; Telephone: (614) 942-6477. Email:
FMCSA encourages you to participate by submitting comments and related materials.
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice (FMCSA-2017-0002), indicate the specific section of this document to which the comment applies, and provide a reason for suggestions or recommendations. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so the Agency can contact you if it has questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to
On January 19, 2017 (82 FR 6688), FMCSA published a notice of application for exemption from J.B. Hunt, Schneider, Werner, Knight, Dupre, and Maveric (Applicants). Applicants requested an exemption from 49 CFR 382.105 and 382.301 with specific authorization for obtaining and releasing hair test results to comply with 49 CFR 391.23,
The Applicant carriers that would be covered by the exemption, if granted, already use hair analysis as a method for pre-employment controlled substances testing of drivers on a voluntary basis. However, they also conduct urine testing for drugs because it is the only screening method accepted under the Department's regulations. The Applicants view their use of multiple screening methods as an unnecessary and redundant financial burden. Also, the Applicants consider urine testing to be less effective in pre-employment screening for drugs than hair analysis.
A copy of the exemption application and all supporting documents submitted by the Applicants is available for review in the docket referenced at the beginning of this notice.
On January 23, 2017, the AFL-CIO's Transportation Trades Department requested that the Agency provide a 60-day extension of the comment period. The International Brotherhood of Teamsters requested a 60-day extension of the comment period on February 7, 2017. A copy of each request is in the docket identified at the beginning of this notice.
FMCSA acknowledges the Transportation Trades Department's and the International Brotherhood of Teamsters' concerns. After reviewing the requests, FMCSA hereby grants a 60-day re-opening of the comment period to April 25, 2017, to provide all interested parties additional time to respond to the notice of application for exemption.
A.
The BEA Program complements the community development activities of banks and thrifts (collectively referred
B.
C.
D.
1.
2.
3.
E.
F.
A.
B.
C.
D.
CDFI Related Activities (12 CFR 1806.103) include Equity Investments, Equity-Like Loans, and CDFI Support Activities.
Distressed Community Financing Activities (12 CFR 1806.103) include Affordable Housing Loans, Affordable Housing Development Loans and related Project Investments; Education Loans; Commercial Real Estate Loans and related Project Investments; Home Improvement Loans; Small Business Loans and related Project Investments, and Small Dollar Consumer Loans.
Service Activities (12 CFR 1806.103) include Deposit Liabilities, Financial Services, Community Services, Targeted Financial Services, and Targeted Retail Savings/Investment Products.
When calculating BEA Program Award amounts, the CDFI Fund will only consider the amount of a Qualified Activity that has been fully disbursed or, in the case of a partially disbursed Qualified Activity, will only consider the amount that an Applicant reasonably expects to disburse for a Qualified Activity within 12 months from the end of the Assessment Period. Subject to the requirements outlined in Section VI of this NOFA, in the case of Commercial Real Estate Loans and related Project Investments, the total principal amount of the transaction must be $10 million or less to be considered a Qualified Activity. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the CDFI Fund, in its sole discretion, may consider transactions with a total principal value of over $10 million, subject to review.
An activity funded with prior BEA Program Award dollars, or funded to satisfy requirements of an Award Agreement from a prior award, shall not constitute a Qualified Activity for the purposes of calculating or receiving an award.
A Distressed Community must meet certain minimum geographic area and eligibility requirements, which are defined in the Interim Rule at 12 CFR 1806.103 and more fully described in 12 CFR 1806.401. Applicants should use the CDFI Fund's Information Mapping System (CIMS Mapping Tool) to determine whether a Baseline Period activity or Assessment Period activity is located in a qualified Distressed Community. The CIMS Mapping Tool can be accessed through AMIS or the CDFI Funds Web site at
1.
2.
A BEA Applicant shall determine an area is a Distressed Community by:
a. Selecting a census tract where the Qualified Activity occurred that meets the minimum area and eligibility requirements; or
b. selecting the census tract where the Qualified Activity occurred, plus one or more census tracts directly contiguous to where the Qualified Activity occurred that when considered in the aggregate, meet the minimum area and eligibility requirements set forth in this section.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
H.
1.
a.
b.
2.
3.
I.
1. The Recipient shall use BEA Program Award funds only for the eligible activities described in Section II.D. of this NOFA and its Award Agreement.
2. The Recipient may not distribute BEA Program Award funds to an affiliate, Subsidiary, or any other entity, without the CDFI Fund's prior written approval.
3. BEA Program Award funds shall only be disbursed to the Recipient.
4. The CDFI Fund, in its sole discretion, may disburse BEA Program Award funds in amounts, or under terms and conditions, which are different from those requested by an Applicant.
J.
A.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a. For purposes of this NOFA, “materially below market interest rate” is defined as an annual percentage rate that does not exceed 100 percent of yields on Treasury securities at constant maturity as interpolated by Treasury from the daily yield curve and available on the Treasury Web site at
b. For purposes of this NOFA, a deposit placed by an Applicant directly with a CDFI Partner that participates in a deposit network or service may be treated as eligible under this NOFA if it otherwise meets the criteria for deposits in 1806.103 and the CDFI Partner retains the full amount of the initial deposit or an amount equivalent to the full amount of the initial deposit through a deposit network exchange transaction.
6.
7.
a. At the end of the initial term, the loan must have a definite rolling maturity date that is automatically extended on an annual basis if the CDFI borrower continues to be financially sound and carry out a community development mission;
b. Periodic payments of interest and/or principal may only be made out of the CDFI borrower's available cash flow after satisfying all other obligations;
c. Failure to pay principal or interest (except at maturity) will not automatically result in a default of the loan agreement; and
d. The loan must be subordinated to all other debt except for other Equity-Like Loans.
Notwithstanding the foregoing, the CDFI Fund reserves the right to determine, in its sole discretion and on a case-by-case basis, whether an instrument meets the above-stated characteristics of an Equity-Like Loan.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
a.
b.
c.
13.
a. $100.00 per account for Targeted Financial Services including safe transaction accounts, youth transaction accounts, Electronic Transfer Accounts and Individual Development Accounts;
b. $50.00 per account for checking and savings accounts that do not meet the definition of Targeted Financial Services;
c. $5.00 per check cashing transaction;
d. $50,000 per new ATM installed at a location in a Distressed Community;
e. $500,000 per new retail bank branch office opened in a Distressed Community, including school-based bank branches approved by the Applicant's Federal bank regulator; and
f. In the case of Applicants engaging in Financial Services activities not described above, the CDFI Fund will determine the unit value of such services.
g. When reporting the opening of a new retail bank branch office, the Applicant must certify that such new branch will remain in operation for at least the next five years.
h. Financial Service Activities must be provided by the Applicant to Eligible Residents or enterprises that are located in a Distressed Community. An Applicant may determine the number of Eligible Residents who are recipients of Financial Services by either: (i) Collecting the addresses of its Financial Services customers, or (ii) certifying that the Applicant reasonably believes that such customers are Eligible Residents or enterprises located in a Distressed Community and providing a brief analytical narrative with information describing how the Applicant made this determination. Citations must be provided for external sources. In addition, if external sources are referenced in the narrative, the Applicant must explain how it reached the conclusion that the cited references are directly related to the Eligible
i. When reporting changes in the dollar amount of deposit accounts, only calculate the net change in the total dollar amount of eligible Deposit Liabilities between the Baseline Period and the Assessment Period. Do not report each individual deposit. If the net change between the Baseline Period and Assessment Period is a negative dollar amount, then a negative dollar amount may be recorded for Deposit Liabilities only. Instructions for determining the net change is available in the Supplemental Guidance to the FY 2016 BEA Program Application.
14.
15.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
16.
a.
In Distressed Community Financing Activities' subcategory of Consumer Lending, for a CDFI Applicant, the estimated award amount will be 18 percent of the weighted value of the increase in this subcategory of Qualified Activity. If an Applicant is not a CDFI Applicant, the estimated award amount will be equal to 6 percent of the weighted value of the increase in Qualified Activity for this subcategory.
In Distressed Community Financing Activities' subcategory of Commercial Lending and Investments, for a CDFI Applicant, the estimated award amount will be 9 percent of the weighted value of the increase in this subcategory of
In Service Activities category, for a CDFI Applicant, the estimated award amount will be equal to 9 percent of the weighted value of the increase in Qualified Activity for the category. If an Applicant is not a CDFI Applicant, the estimated award amount will be equal to 3 percent of the weighted value of the increase in Qualified Activity for the category.
b.
For purposes of calculating award disbursement amounts, the CDFI Fund will treat Qualified Activities with a total principal amount less than or equal to $250,000 as fully disbursed. For all other Qualified Activities, Recipients will have 12 months from the end of the Assessment Period to make disbursements and 18 months from the end of the Assessment Period to submit to the CDFI Fund disbursement requests for the corresponding portion of their awards, after which the CDFI Fund will rescind and de-obligate any outstanding award balance and said outstanding award balance will no longer be available to the Recipient.
B.
1.
2.
Within each category, CDFI Applicants will be ranked first according to the ratio of the actual award amount calculated by the CDFI Fund for the category to the total assets of the Applicant, followed by Applicants that are not CDFI Applicants according to the ratio of the actual award amount calculated by the CDFI Fund for the category to the total assets of the Applicant. Selections within each priority category will be based on the Applicants' relative rankings within each such category, subject to the availability of funds and any established maximum dollar amount of total awards that may be awarded for the Distressed Community Financing Activities category of Qualified Activities, as determined by the CDFI Fund.
The CDFI Fund, in its sole discretion: (i) May adjust the estimated award amount that an Applicant may receive; (ii) may establish a maximum amount that may be awarded to an Applicant; and (iii) reserves the right to limit the amount of an award to any Applicant if the CDFI Fund deems it appropriate.
The CDFI Fund reserves the right to contact the Applicant to confirm or clarify information. If contacted, the Applicant must respond within the CDFI Fund's time parameters or run the risk of having its Application rejected.
The CDFI Fund reserves the right to change its eligibility and evaluation criteria and procedures. If those changes materially affect the CDFI Fund's award decisions, the CDFI Fund will provide information regarding the changes through the CDFI Fund's Web site.
3.
Furthermore, the CDFI Fund will not approve a BEA Program Award for the following reasons if at the time of application, or during the CDFI Fund's evaluation of the application, the Applicant received any of the following:
a. A CRA assessment rating of below “Satisfactory” on its most recent examination;
b. a going concern opinion on its most recent audit;
c. a Prompt Corrective Action directive from its regulator.
Applicants and/or their appropriate Federal bank regulator agency may be contacted by the CDFI Fund to provide additional information related to Federal bank regulatory or CRA information. The CDFI Fund will consider this information and may choose to disapprove a BEA Program Award for an Applicant if the information indicates that the Applicant may be unable to responsibly manage, re-invest, and/or report on a BEA Program Award during the performance period.
4.
C.
A.
B.
If the Recipient's certification status as a CDFI changes, the CDFI Fund reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to re-calculate the award, and modify the Award Agreement based on the Recipient's non-CDFI status.
By executing an Award Agreement, the Recipient agrees that, if the CDFI Fund becomes aware of any information (including an administrative error) prior to the effective date of the Award Agreement that either adversely affects the Recipient's eligibility for an award, or adversely affects the CDFI Fund's evaluation of the Recipient's Application, or indicates fraud or mismanagement on the part of the Recipient, the CDFI Fund may, in its discretion and without advance notice to the Recipient, terminate the Award Agreement or take other actions as it deems appropriate.
The CDFI Fund reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to rescind an award if the Recipient fails to return the Award Agreement, signed by the authorized representative of the Recipient, and/or provide the CDFI Fund with any other requested documentation, within the CDFI Fund's deadlines.
In addition, the CDFI Fund reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to terminate and rescind the Award Agreement and the award made under this NOFA for any criteria described in the following table:
C.
D.
The CDFI Fund may collect information from each Recipient including, but not limited to, an Annual Report with the following components:
Each Recipient is responsible for the timely and complete submission of the reporting requirements. The CDFI Fund reserves the right to contact the Recipient to request additional information and documentation. The CDFI Fund will use such information to monitor each Recipient's compliance with the requirements in the Award Agreement and to assess the impact of the BEA Program. The CDFI Fund reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to modify these reporting requirements if it determines it to be appropriate and necessary; however, such reporting requirements will be modified only after notice has been provided to Recipients.
E.
A.
The following table lists CDFI Fund contact information:
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
12 U.S.C. 1834a, 4703, 4703 note, 4713; 12 CFR part 1806.
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, HUD.
Notice.
This Notice identifies unutilized, underutilized, excess, and surplus Federal property reviewed by HUD for suitability for use to assist the homeless.
Juanita Perry, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 Seventh Street SW., Room 7266, Washington, DC 20410; telephone (202) 402-3970; TTY number for the hearing- and speech-impaired (202) 708-2565 (these telephone numbers are not toll-free), call the toll-free Title V information line at 800-927-7588 or send an email to
In accordance with 24 CFR part 581 and section 501 of the Stewart B. McKinney Homeless Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 11411), as amended, HUD is publishing this Notice to identify Federal buildings and other real property that HUD has reviewed for suitability for use to assist the homeless. The properties were reviewed using information provided to HUD by Federal landholding agencies regarding unutilized and underutilized buildings and real property controlled by such agencies or by GSA regarding its inventory of excess or surplus Federal property. This Notice is also published in order to comply with the December 12, 1988 Court Order in
Properties reviewed are listed in this Notice according to the following categories: Suitable/available, suitable/unavailable, and suitable/to be excess, and unsuitable. The properties listed in the three suitable categories have been reviewed by the landholding agencies, and each agency has transmitted to HUD: (1) Its intention to make the property available for use to assist the homeless, (2) its intention to declare the property excess to the agency's needs, or (3) a statement of the reasons that the property cannot be declared excess or made available for use as facilities to assist the homeless.
Properties listed as suitable/available will be available exclusively for homeless use for a period of 60 days from the date of this Notice. Where property is described as for “off-site use only” recipients of the property will be required to relocate the building to their own site at their own expense. Homeless assistance providers interested in any such property should send a written expression of interest to HHS, addressed to: Ms. Theresa M. Ritta, Chief Real Property Branch, the Department of Health and Human Services, Program Support Center, 7700 Wisconsin Ave., Suite 8216, Bethesda, MD 20857, (301) 443-6672 (This is not a toll-free number.) HHS will mail to the interested provider an application packet, which will include instructions for completing the application. In order to maximize the opportunity to utilize a suitable property, providers should submit their written expressions of interest as soon as possible. For complete details concerning the processing of applications, the reader is encouraged to refer to the interim rule governing this program, 24 CFR part 581.
For properties listed as suitable/to be excess, that property may, if subsequently accepted as excess by GSA, be made available for use by the homeless in accordance with applicable law, subject to screening for other Federal use. At the appropriate time, HUD will publish the property in a Notice showing it as either suitable/available or suitable/unavailable.
For properties listed as suitable/unavailable, the landholding agency has decided that the property cannot be declared excess or made available for use to assist the homeless, and the property will not be available.
Properties listed as unsuitable will not be made available for any other purpose for 20 days from the date of this Notice. Homeless assistance providers interested in a review by HUD of the determination of unsuitability should call the toll free information line at 1-800-927-7588 or send an email to
For more information regarding particular properties identified in this Notice (
Comments: off-site removal only; no future agency need; 35/86+ yrs. old; usage varies; contact Army for more info. on a specific property; access./removal requirements.
Comments: off-site removal only; poor conditions; contamination; secured area; contact Army for info. on a specific property; accessibility removal reqs.
Comments: off-site removal; 10-94 yrs. old for buildings respectively above; toilet/shower; laundry; administrative; poor condition; no future agency need; contact Army for more information.
Comments: off-site removal; 10-50 yrs. old for buildings respectively above; poor condition; toilet/shower, range; no future agency need; contact Army for more information.
Comments: public access denied and no alternative method to gain access without compromising national security.
Reasons: Secured Area
National Labor Relations Board.
Final rule.
The National Labor Relations Board amends its procedural Rules and Regulations to: Reflect modern technology, such as E-Filing, and eliminate references to telegraphs, carbon copies, and the requirements for hard copy submissions and multiple copies; use more plain language and eliminate legalistic terms such as “therefrom,” “thereupon,” “therein,” “herein,” and “said;” reorganize the Rules and add headings so that the subject matter is easier to find; incorporate current practices that had not been included in the published Rules, such as the Board's Alternative Dispute Resolution Program; and update and streamline procedural provisions of the FOIA regulations. The amendments also clarify the means by which documents are filed and service is made by the parties and the Board. They also promote the parties' use of E-Filing, which will facilitate sharing documents with the public. These revisions are procedural rather than substantive.
This rule will be effective on March 6, 2017.
Gary Shinners, Executive Secretary, National Labor Relations Board, 1015 Half Street SE., Washington, DC 20570, (202) 273-3737 (this is not a toll-free number), 1-866-315-6572 (TTY/TDD).
The changes are summarized below and grouped as follows: I. Global Changes; II. Definitions, Filing, and Service; III. Unfair Labor Practice Cases; IV. FOIA; and V. Other Sections.
Throughout the Rules the Board has eliminated requirements for filing multiple copies and references to antiquated technology, such as carbon paper, stenographic copies, and telegraphic communications. The Rules have also been revised to use plain language and eliminate terms such as “therefrom.” Time periods have been changed to multiples of 7, the use of gender specific pronouns has been minimized, and the term “shall” was replaced with “must,” “will,” or “may” as appropriate. The revisions also ensure that terms, such as E-Filing, and capitalization of titles, such as “Regional Director” and “Administrative Law Judge,” are consistent throughout the Rules. Changes were also made to ensure consistency in terminology by, for example, using only the term “paragraph” instead of using “subsection” interchangeably with “paragraph.” Where feasible, headings were added to facilitate finding particular rules.
The filing and service requirements found in §§ 102.111 through 102.114 were moved to the beginning of part 102 so that these provisions, which apply to all parties and many different types of documents, are easily found in one location at the beginning of the Rules and not buried throughout the Rules. This change and others are discussed below in numerical sequence (based on where the material is located in the revised version).
The changes convert subpart A to a definitions section and subpart B to a section that covers the service and filing of documents. The revisions renumber the definitions currently in §§ 102.1 through 102.8 as § 102.1(a) through (h). The service and filing provisions currently in §§ 102.111 through 102.114 are moved to §§ 102.2 through 102.5 to give them a higher profile position closer to the beginning of the Rules so that users who are not familiar with the Rules may find them more easily. Sections 102.6 and 102.7 are new and address notice to the Board of supplemental authority and signatures on E-Filed documents.
Section 102.2 (Formerly § 102.111),
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Section 102.3 (Formerly § 102.112).
Section 102.4 (Formerly § 102.113).
Section 102.5 (Formerly § 102.114).
Paragraph (a) consolidates § 102.114(d) and other paragraphs that specified the form of filing (such as § 102.46(j)). The revisions change the font requirements from 12 points per inch to 12 point type with no more than 10.5 characters per inch, and add more detail to the spacing requirements. Multiple references to the requirement that briefs longer than 20 pages must contain a subject index and a table of cases are consolidated here.
Paragraph (b) specifies the means by which parties may file requests to exceed the page limits for documents. Previously this provision was located in a number of places.
Paragraph (c) is new and addresses E-Filing with the Agency. It provides that charges, petitions in representation proceedings, and showings of interest may be filed in paper format or by E-Filing, and that all other documents must be E-Filed unless the party filing also files an accompanying statement explaining why the party does not have access to the means for filing electronically or why filing electronically would impose an undue burden.
Paragraph (d) consolidates the oft-repeated requirement in the Rules that documents are to be filed with the Board in Washington, DC. For uniformity, it also specifies filing locations for the Regions and the Administrative Law Judges.
Paragraphs (e) and (f) continue the general limitation on filing documents via fax to encourage E-Filing instead.
Paragraph (e) limits the documents that may be filed via fax to unfair labor practice charges, petitions in representation cases, objections to elections, and requests for extension of time for filing documents with the Agency.
Paragraph (h) adds elements such as fax number and email address to the statement of service requirement. This paragraph was revised to eliminate language that restricted the types of documents that could be E-Filed, and permits E-Filing of charges, petitions in representation cases, and showings of interest.
Section 102.6
Section 102.7
The changes include: (a) In §§ 102.11 and 102.12, eliminating the requirement to submit an original copy of a charge filed by facsimile and making minor language changes to the contents of the charge; (b) in § 102.14 revising language regarding service of charges; (c) in § 102.19, eliminating the requirement that a Charging Party serve notice of appeal; (d) in § 102.24, adding language about replies and further responses to an opposition to a motion; (e) in the subpoena section (now § 102.32), including electronic data as well as the more traditional books and records; (f) in § 102.37, adding language about the unavailability of a judge; (g) in § 102.45, adding language about the Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) Program; and (h) in § 102.53, deleting the requirement that a Charging Party serve notice of appeal of a compliance determination and adding language specifically permitting the filing of an opposition to a compliance appeal. Those revisions are described more fully below.
Section 102.11
Section 102.12
This section was revised to eliminate the requirement that the Charging Party serve a copy of the appeal on all parties. This requirement was deemed unnecessary because the Office of Appeals routinely sends an acknowledgement letter notifying all parties of the appeal. Further, the existing rule specifically provides that the failure to serve a copy of the appeal does not invalidate the appeal. This requirement also sometimes led to confusion as to whether a party had to serve the appeal form on the other parties or had to serve the document explaining why the appeal should be granted, which might discuss specific affidavit evidence provided during the investigation.
A new paragraph was added addressing replies to an opposition to a motion and further responsive documents.
This section codifies the rule established by the Board in
Paragraph (a) of this section was revised to clarify that subpoenas can require production of “electronic data” as well as books, records, correspondence, and documents. Paragraph (b) was revised to reflect the current practice of allowing parties to file oppositions to petitions to revoke subpoenas and replies to oppositions, as well as the practice of allowing the party aggrieved by an adverse ruling to make the ruling and other filings part of the official record during a formal proceeding (rather than at the investigative stage of the proceeding). Paragraph (b) was also revised to reflect that petitions to revoke subpoenas filed in response to a subpoena issued upon request of the Contempt, Compliance, and Special Litigation Branch must be filed with that Branch, which shall refer the petition to the Board for ruling.
This section was amended to add a paragraph (b) regarding the unavailability of Administrative Law Judges. This provision was previously in the Rules, but did not have a separate lettered paragraph.
New paragraphs (c)(1) through (10) cover the Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) Program. The ADR Program provides for a neutral to assist in resolving unfair labor practice cases pending before the Board. Although the ADR pilot program was launched in December 2005 and was converted to permanent status in March 2009, it had not previously been incorporated in the Rules. Incorporating this provision in the Rules will help ensure that the public will be more fully aware of the ADR Program.
Paragraph (a) of this section was revised to delete the requirement that the Charging Party serve a copy of the appeal on all other parties inasmuch as the Office of Appeals notifies all parties of the appeal.
A new paragraph (e) was added specifically to permit the filing of an opposition to the compliance appeal.
The revisions update and streamline procedural provisions of the FOIA regulations (§ 102.117). They are intended to make the regulations consistent with the restructuring of the Agency's Headquarters offices and centralization of the FOIA processing.
The changes explain that the FOIA Branch will handle all FOIA requests for Agency records, with the exception of Office of Inspector General records, which are handled by the Office of Inspector General. They also explain that all appeals for Agency documents will be decided by the Chief FOIA Officer, who is the Associate General Counsel for the Division of Legal Counsel.
The changes also set forth the various methods for submitting requests, and in particular, state that the Agency's preferred method of submission is through its Web site. Regarding requests for documents maintained by the Office of the Inspector General (OIG), the changes state that such requests should be submitted to the FOIA Branch, which will then forward such requests to the OIG for processing. This permits requesters to make requests for Inspector General documents through the Agency's Web site. Nonetheless, the revised Rules maintain the option for requesters to make requests directly to the Office of the Inspector General (by mail).
Some of the specific changes include:
• Section 102.117(a)(1) deletes a sentence stating the Agency's policy that discretionary disclosures may be made when there is no foreseeable harm to an interest protected by a FOIA exemption, as the FOIA Improvement Act now requires disclosure when there is no such foreseeable harm;
• Section 102.117(c)(1)(ii) updates the most significant procedural change, that all FOIA requests should be made to the FOIA Branch in Washington, DC, with electronic submissions being the preferred method for making requests, including requests to the Office of the Inspector General;
• Section 102.117(a)(2)(i)-(iii) is new and identifies the Agency's FOIA officials;
• Section 102.117(a)(3) is new and explains the authority of each of the FOIA officials to respond to requests and administrative appeals;
• Section 102.117(a)(4) deletes the list of records made available, as the FOIA itself provides what records are to be made available;
• Section 102.117(b)(2) was modified to specify that the Division of Legal Counsel will certify General Counsel records and that the Executive Secretary will continue to certify Board records;
• Section 102.117(c)(2)(v) was modified to provide 90 days, rather than 28 days, for a requester to file an administrative appeal of an adverse determination, as required by the FOIA Improvement Act;
• Section 102.117(c)(2)(vi) was modified to clarify that the Agency will provide requesters an opportunity to limit their requests so that the request may be processed within the statutory time periods.
• Several paragraphs have been modified to add that requesters will be notified of their right to seek assistance from the Agency's FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services, as required by the FOIA Improvement Act.
This section was reworded to use plain language to make it more easily understandable.
This section dealt with Enforcement of Rights, Privileges, and Immunities Granted or Guaranteed Under Section 222(f), Communications Act of 1934 to Employees of Merged Telegraph Carriers. The section has been deleted because the original Section 222(f) to which this section refers was repealed, and the subpart and Section number have been reserved for future use.
This section was revised to delete the reference to Office of Management and Budget Circular A-63 (rev. March 27, 1975) and Advisory Committee Management Guidance, 39 FR 12389-12391, because they are obsolete. Currently, each federal agency that sponsors advisory committees must adhere to the requirements established by the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) as well as regulations promulgated by the U.S. General Services Administration's (GSA) Committee Management Secretariat. GSA has had the responsibility for overseeing the FACA since 1977. OMB Circular A-63 from 1975 and the Advisory Committee Management Guidance, 39 FR 12389-12391 were superseded by a 2001 Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) Final Rule. Accordingly, the references to the OMB Circular and Advisory Committee Management Guidance were deleted and replaced by a more generic reference to “applicable rules and regulations.”
Appendix A was deleted because this information is already on the Agency's Web site, and would have to be modified frequently to keep it current. Section 102.2(b) directs the public to our Web site for this information.
Pursuant to Section 605(b) of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 605(b), the Agency has determined that these rule amendments will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities.
These rule amendments will not result in the expenditure by state, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100,000,000 or more in any one year, and it will not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. Therefore, no actions are deemed necessary under the provisions of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995.
This action is not a major rule as defined by Section 804 of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, 5 U.S.C. 804. These amendments will not result in an annual effect on the economy of $100,000,000 or more or a major increase in costs or prices, nor will these amendments have significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or on the ability of United States-based companies to compete with foreign-based companies in domestic and export markets.
The amended regulations contain no additional information-collection or record-keeping requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3501,
This rule is published as a final rule. The National Labor Relations Board considers this rule to be a procedural rule which is exempt from notice and public comment, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3)(A), as a rule of “agency organization, procedure, or practice.” If you wish to contact the Agency, please do so at the above listed address. However, before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Administrative practice and procedure, Labor management relations.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the National Labor Relations Board amends 29 CFR part 102 as follows:
Sections 1, 6, National Labor Relations Act (29 U.S.C. 151, 156). Section 102.117 also issued under section 552(a)(4)(A) of the Freedom of Information Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(A)), and Section 102.117a also issued under section 552a(j) and (k) of the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a(j) and (k)). Sections 102.143 through 102.155 also issued under section 504(c)(1) of the Equal Access to Justice Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. 504(c)(1)).
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(a)
(b)
(1) Charges filed pursuant to Section 10(b) of the Act (see also § 102.14).
(2) Applications for awards and fees and other expenses under the Equal Access to Justice Act.
(3) Petitions to revoke subpoenas.
(4) Requests for extensions of time to file any document for which such an extension may be granted.
(c)
(d)
(i) In unfair labor practice proceedings, motions, exceptions, answers to a complaint or a backpay specification, and briefs; and
(ii) In representation proceedings, exceptions, requests for review, motions, briefs, and any responses to any of these documents.
(2) A party seeking to file such documents beyond the time prescribed by these Rules must file, along with the document, a motion that states the grounds relied on for requesting permission to file untimely. The specific facts relied on to support the motion must be set forth in affidavit form and sworn to by individuals with personal knowledge of the facts. The time for filing any document responding to the untimely document will not commence until the date a ruling issues accepting the untimely document. In addition, cross-exceptions are due within 14 days, or such further period as the Board may allow, from the date a ruling issues accepting the untimely filed documents.
Where service is made by mail, private delivery service, or email, the date of service is the day when the document served is deposited in the United States mail, is deposited with a private delivery service that will provide a record showing the date the document was tendered to the delivery service, or is sent by email, as the case may be. Where service is made by personal delivery or facsimile, the date of service will be the date on which the document is received.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
(1) Rejecting the document; or
(2) Withholding or reconsidering any ruling on the subject matter raised by the document until after service has
Pertinent and significant authorities that come to a party's attention after the party's submission to the Administrative Law Judge or the Board has been filed may be brought to the Judge's or the Board's attention by the party promptly filing a letter with the judge or the Board and simultaneously serving all other parties. The body of the letter may not exceed 350 words. A party may file and serve on all other parties a response that is similarly limited. In unfair labor practice cases, the response must be filed no later than 14 days after service of the letter. In representation cases, the response must be filed no later than 7 days after service of the letter. No extension of time will be granted to file the response.
Documents filed with the Agency by E-Filing may contain an electronic signature of the filer which will have the same legal effect, validity, and enforceability as if signed manually. The term “electronic signature” means an electronic sound, symbol, or process, attached to or logically associated with a contract or other record and executed or adopted by a person with the intent to sign the document.
Any person may file a charge alleging that any person has engaged in or is engaging in any unfair labor practice affecting commerce. The charge may be withdrawn, prior to the hearing, only with the consent of the Regional Director with whom such charge was filed; at the hearing and until the case has been transferred to the Board pursuant to § 102.45, upon motion, with the consent of the Administrative Law Judge designated to conduct the hearing; and after the case has been transferred to the Board pursuant to § 102.45, upon motion, with the consent of the Board. Upon withdrawal of any charge, any complaint based thereon will be dismissed by the Regional Director issuing the complaint, the Administrative Law Judge designated to conduct the hearing, or the Board.
Except as provided in § 102.33, a charge must be filed with the Regional Director for the Region in which the alleged unfair labor practice has occurred or is occurring. A charge alleging that an unfair labor practice has occurred or is occurring in two or more Regions may be filed with the Regional Director for any of those Regions.
Charges must be in writing and signed, and either must be sworn to before a notary public, Board agent, or other person duly authorized by law to administer oaths and take acknowledgments or must contain a declaration by the person signing it,
(a) A charge must contain the following:
(1) The full name and address of the person making the charge.
(2) If the charge is filed by a labor organization, the full name and address of any national or international labor organization of which it is an affiliate or constituent unit.
(3) The full name and address of the person against whom the charge is made (referred to as the Charged Party).
(4) A brief statement of the conduct constituting the alleged unfair labor practices affecting commerce.
(b) Attachments to charges are not permitted.
(a)
(b)
(c)
After a charge has been filed, if it appears to the Regional Director that formal proceedings may be instituted, the Director will issue and serve on all parties a formal complaint in the Board's name stating the alleged unfair labor practices and containing a Notice of Hearing before an Administrative Law Judge at a fixed place and at a time not less than 14 days after the service of the complaint. The complaint will contain:
(a) A clear and concise statement of the facts upon which the Board asserts jurisdiction, and
(b) A clear and concise description of the acts which are claimed to constitute unfair labor practices, including, where known, the approximate dates and places of such acts and the names of Respondent's agents or other representatives who committed the acts.
(a) Upon the Regional Director's own motion or upon proper cause shown by any other party, the Regional Director issuing the complaint may extend the hearing date or change the hearing place, except that the Regional Director's authority to extend the hearing date is limited to the following circumstances:
(1) Where all parties agree or no party objects to extension of the hearing date;
(2) Where a new charge or charges have been filed which, if meritorious, might be appropriate for consolidation with the pending complaint;
(3) Where negotiations which could lead to settlement of all or a portion of the complaint are in progress;
(4) Where issues related to the complaint are pending before the General Counsel's Division of Advice or Office of Appeals; or
(5) Where more than 21 days remain before the scheduled hearing date.
(b) In circumstances other than those set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, motions to reschedule the hearing may be filed with the Division of Judges in accordance with § 102.24(a). When a motion to reschedule has been granted, the Regional Director issuing the complaint retains the authority to order a new hearing date and the responsibility to make the necessary arrangements for conducting the hearing, including its location and the transcription of the proceedings.
A complaint may be amended upon such terms as may be deemed just, prior to the hearing, by the Regional Director issuing the complaint; at the hearing and until the case has been transferred to the Board pursuant to § 102.45, upon motion, by the Administrative Law Judge designated to conduct the hearing; and after the case has been transferred to the Board pursuant to § 102.45, at any time prior to the issuance of an order based thereon, upon motion, by the Board.
A complaint may be withdrawn before the hearing by the Regional Director on the Director's own motion.
(a) If, after the charge has been filed, the Regional Director declines to issue a complaint or, having withdrawn a complaint pursuant to § 102.18, refuses to reissue it, the Director will so advise the parties in writing, accompanied by a simple statement of the procedural or other grounds for that action. The Charging Party may obtain a review of such action by filing the “Appeal Form” with the General Counsel in Washington, DC, and filing a copy of the “Appeal Form” with the Regional Director, within 14 days from the service of the notice of such refusal to issue or reissue by the Regional Director, except where a shorter period is provided by § 102.81. The Charging Party may also file a statement setting forth the facts and reasons upon which the appeal is based. If such a statement is timely filed, the separate “Appeal Form” need not be served. A request for extension of time to file an appeal must be in writing and be received by the General Counsel, and a copy of such request filed with the Regional Director, prior to the expiration of the filing period. Copies of the acknowledgment of the filing of an appeal and of any ruling on a request for an extension of time for filing of the appeal must be served on all parties. Consideration of an appeal untimely filed is within the discretion of the General Counsel upon good cause shown.
(b) Oral presentation in Washington, DC, of the appeal issues may be permitted by a party on written request made within 4 days after service of acknowledgement of the filing of an appeal. In the event such request is granted, the other parties must be notified and afforded, without additional request, a like opportunity at another appropriate time.
(c) The General Counsel may sustain the Regional Director's refusal to issue or reissue a complaint, stating the grounds of the affirmance, or may direct the Regional Director to take further action; the General Counsel's decision must be served on all the parties. A motion for reconsideration of the decision must be filed within 14 days of service of the decision, except as hereinafter provided, and must state with particularity the error requiring reconsideration. A motion for
The Respondent must, within 14 days from the service of the complaint, file an answer. The Respondent must specifically admit, deny, or explain each of the facts alleged in the complaint, unless the Respondent is without knowledge, in which case the Respondent must so state, such statement operating as a denial. All allegations in the complaint, if no answer is filed, or any allegation in the complaint not specifically denied or explained in an answer filed, unless the Respondent states in the answer that the Respondent is without knowledge, will be deemed to be admitted to be true and will be so found by the Board, unless good cause to the contrary is shown.
An original and four copies of the answer shall be filed with the Regional Director issuing the complaint. Immediately upon the filing of his answer, respondent shall serve a copy thereof on the other parties. An answer of a party represented by counsel or non-attorney representative shall be signed by at least one such attorney or non-attorney representative of record in his/her individual name, whose address shall be stated. A party who is not represented by an attorney or non-attorney representative shall sign his/her answer and state his/her address. Except when otherwise specifically provided by rule or statute, an answer need not be verified or accompanied by affidavit. The signature of the attorney or non-attorney party representative constitutes a certificate by him/her that he/she has read the answer; that to the best of his/her knowledge, information, and belief there is good ground to support it; and that it is not interposed for delay. If an answer is not signed or is signed with intent to defeat the purpose of this section, it may be stricken as sham and false and the action may proceed as though the answer had not been served. For a willful violation of this section an attorney or non-attorney party representative may be subjected to appropriate disciplinary action. Similar action may be taken if scandalous or indecent matter is inserted.
Upon the Regional Director's own motion or upon proper cause shown by any other party, the Regional Director issuing the complaint may by written order extend the time within which the answer must be filed.
The Respondent may amend its answer at any time prior to the hearing. During the hearing or subsequently, the Respondent may amend the answer in any case where the complaint has been amended, within such period as may be fixed by the Administrative Law Judge or the Board. Whether or not the complaint has been amended, the answer may, in the discretion of the Administrative Law Judge or the Board, upon motion, be amended upon such terms and within such periods as may be fixed by the Administrative Law Judge or the Board.
(a) All motions under §§ 102.22 and 102.29 made prior to the hearing must be filed in writing with the Regional Director issuing the complaint. All motions for default judgment, summary judgment, or dismissal made prior to the hearing must be filed in writing with the Board pursuant to the provisions of § 102.50. All other motions made prior to the hearing, including motions to reschedule the hearing under circumstances other than those set forth in § 102.16(a), must be filed in writing with the Chief Administrative Law Judge in Washington, DC, with the Associate Chief Judge in San Francisco, California, or with the Associate Chief Judge in New York, New York, as the case may be. All motions made at the hearing must be made in writing to the Administrative Law Judge or stated orally on the record. All motions filed subsequent to the hearing, but before the transfer of the case to the Board pursuant to § 102.45, must be filed with the Administrative Law Judge, care of the Chief Administrative Law Judge in Washington, DC, the Associate Chief Judge in San Francisco, or the Associate Chief Judge in New York, as the case may be. Motions must briefly state the order or relief applied for and the grounds therefor. All motions filed with a Regional Director or an Administrative Law Judge as set forth in this paragraph (a) must be filed together with an affidavit of service on the parties. All motions filed with the Board, including motions for default judgment, summary judgment, or dismissal, must be filed with the Executive Secretary of the Board in Washington, DC, together with an affidavit of service on the parties. Unless otherwise provided in these Rules, motions, oppositions, and replies must be filed promptly and within such time as not to delay the proceeding.
(b) All motions for summary judgment or dismissal must be filed with the Board no later than 28 days prior to the scheduled hearing. Where no hearing is scheduled, or where the hearing is scheduled less than 28 days after the date for filing an answer to the complaint or compliance specification, whichever is applicable, the motion must be filed promptly. Upon receipt of the motion, the Board may deny the motion or issue a Notice to Show Cause why the motion may not be granted. If a Notice to Show Cause is issued, the hearing, if scheduled, will normally be postponed indefinitely. If a party desires to file an opposition to the motion prior to issuance of the Notice to Show Cause to prevent postponement of the hearing, it may do so. However, any such opposition must be filed no later than 21 days prior to the hearing. If a Notice to Show Cause is issued, an opposing party may file a response notwithstanding any opposition it may have filed prior to issuance of the notice. The time for filing the response must be fixed in the Notice to Show Cause. Neither the opposition nor the response must be supported by affidavits or other documentary evidence showing that there is a genuine issue for hearing. The Board in its discretion may deny the motion where the motion itself fails to establish the absence of a genuine issue, or where the opposing party's pleadings, opposition and/or response indicate on their face that a genuine issue may exist. If the opposing party files no opposition or response, the Board may treat the motion as conceded, and default judgment, summary judgment, or dismissal, if appropriate, will be entered.
(c) A party that has filed a motion may file a reply to an opposition to its motion within 7 days of receipt of the opposition, but in the interest of administrative finality, further responses are not permitted except where there are special circumstances warranting leave to file such a response.
An Administrative Law Judge designated by the Chief Administrative Law Judge, the Deputy Chief Administrative Law Judge, or an Associate Chief Administrative Law Judge as the case may be, will rule on all prehearing motions (except as provided in §§ 102.16, 102.22, 102.29, and 102.50), and all such rulings and orders will be issued in writing and a copy served on each of the parties. The Administrative Law Judge designated to conduct the hearing will rule on all motions after opening of the hearing (except as provided in § 102.47), and any related orders, if announced at the hearing, will be stated orally on the record; in all other cases, the Administrative Law Judge will issue such rulings and orders in writing and must cause a copy to be served on each of the parties, or will make the ruling in the decision. Whenever the Administrative Law Judge has reserved ruling on any motion, and the proceeding is thereafter transferred to and continued before the Board pursuant to § 102.50, the Board must rule on such motion.
All motions, rulings, and orders will become a part of the record, except that rulings on motions to revoke subpoenas will become a part of the record only upon the request of the party aggrieved thereby as provided in § 102.31. Unless expressly authorized by the Rules and Regulations, rulings by the Regional Director or by the Administrative Law Judge on motions and/or by the Administrative Law Judge on objections, and related orders, may not be appealed directly to the Board except by special permission of the Board, but will be considered by the Board in reviewing the record if exception to the ruling or order is included in the statement of exceptions filed with the Board pursuant to § 102.46. Requests to the Board for special permission to appeal from a ruling of the Regional Director or of the Administrative Law Judge, together with the appeal from such ruling, must be filed in writing promptly and within such time as not to delay the proceeding, and must briefly state the reasons special permission may be granted and the grounds relied on for the appeal. The moving party must simultaneously serve a copy of the request for special permission and of the appeal on the other parties and, if the request involves a ruling by an Administrative Law Judge, on the Administrative Law Judge. Any statement in opposition or other response to the request and/or to the appeal must be filed within 7 days of receipt of the appeal, in writing, and must be served simultaneously on the other parties and on the Administrative Law Judge, if any. If the Board grants the request for special permission to appeal, it may proceed immediately to rule on the appeal.
If any motion in the nature of a motion to dismiss the complaint in its entirety is granted by the Administrative Law Judge before the filing of the Judge's decision, any party may obtain a review of such action by filing a request with the Board in Washington, DC, stating the grounds for review, and, immediately on such filing must serve a copy on the Regional Director and on the other parties. Unless such request for review is filed within 28 days from the date of the order of dismissal, the case will be closed.
The right to make motions or to make objections to rulings upon motions will not be deemed waived by the filing of an answer or by other participation in the proceedings before the Administrative Law Judge or the Board.
Any person desiring to intervene in any proceeding must file a motion in writing or, if made at the hearing, may move orally on the record, stating the grounds upon which such person claims an interest. Prior to the hearing, such a motion must be filed with the Regional Director issuing the complaint; during the hearing, such motion must be made to the Administrative Law Judge. Immediately upon filing a written motion, the moving party must serve a copy on the other parties. The Regional Director will rule upon all such motions filed prior to the hearing, and will serve a copy of the rulings on the other parties, or may refer the motion to the Administrative Law Judge for ruling. The Administrative Law Judge will rule upon all such motions made at the hearing or referred to the Judge by the Regional Director, in the manner set forth in § 102.25. The Regional Director or the Administrative Law Judge, as the case may be, may, by order, permit intervention in person, or by counsel or other representative, to such extent and upon such terms as may be deemed proper.
Witnesses must be examined orally under oath at a hearing, except that for good cause shown after the issuance of a complaint, testimony may be taken by deposition.
(a) Applications to take depositions must be in writing and set forth the reasons why the depositions may be taken, the name, mailing address and email address (if available) of the witness, the matters concerning which it is expected the witness will testify, and the time and place proposed for taking the deposition, together with the name and mailing and email addresses of the person before whom it is desired that the deposition be taken (for the purposes of this section hereinafter referred to as the “officer”). Such application must be made to the Regional Director prior to the hearing, and to the Administrative Law Judge during and subsequent to the hearing but before transfer of the case to the Board pursuant to § 102.45 or § 102.50. Such application must be served on the Regional Director or the Administrative Law Judge, as the case may be, and on all other parties, not less than 7 days (when the deposition is to be taken within the continental United States) and 15 days (if the deposition is to be taken elsewhere) prior to the time when it is desired that the deposition be taken. The Regional Director or the Administrative Law Judge, as the case may be, will upon receipt of the application, if in the Regional Director's or Administrative Law Judge's discretion, good cause has been shown, make and serve on the parties an order specifying the name of the witness whose deposition is to be taken and the time, place, and designation of the officer before whom the witness is to testify, who may or may not be the same officer as that specified in the application. Such order will be served on all the other parties by the Regional Director or on all parties by the Administrative Law Judge.
(b) The deposition may be taken before any officer authorized to administer oaths by the laws of the United States or of the place where the examination is held, including any Board agent authorized to administer oaths. If the examination is held in a foreign country, it may be taken before any secretary of embassy or legation, consul general, consul, vice consul, or consular agent of the United States.
(c) At the time and place specified in the order, the officer designated to take
(d) The Administrative Law Judge will rule upon the admissibility of the deposition or any part of the deposition.
(e) All errors or irregularities in compliance with the provisions of this section will be deemed waived unless a motion to suppress the deposition or some part thereof is made with reasonable promptness after such defect is or, with due diligence, might have been ascertained.
(f) If the parties so stipulate in writing, depositions may be taken before any person at any time or place, upon any notice and in any manner, and when so taken may be used like other depositions.
(a) The Board or any Board Member will, on the written application of any party, issue subpoenas requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of any evidence, including books, records, correspondence, electronic data, or documents, in their possession or under their control. The Executive Secretary has the authority to sign and issue any such subpoenas on behalf of the Board or any Board Member. Applications for subpoenas, if filed before the hearing opens, must be filed with the Regional Director. Applications for subpoenas filed during the hearing must be filed with the Administrative Law Judge. Either the Regional Director or the Administrative Law Judge, as the case may be, will grant the application on behalf of the Board or any Member. Applications for subpoenas may be made
(b) Any person served with a subpoena, whether
(c) Upon refusal of a witness to testify, the Board may, with the approval of the Attorney General of the United States, issue an order requiring any individual to give testimony or provide other information at any proceeding before the Board if, in the judgment of the Board:
(1) The testimony or other information from such individual may be necessary to the public interest; and
(2) Such individual has refused or is likely to refuse to testify or provide other information on the basis of the privilege against self-incrimination. Requests for the issuance of such an order by the Board may be made by any party. Prior to hearing, and after transfer of the proceeding to the Board, such requests must be made to the Board in Washington, DC, and the Board will take such action thereon as it deems appropriate. During the hearing, and thereafter while the proceeding is pending before the Administrative Law Judge, such requests must be made to the Administrative Law Judge. If the Administrative Law Judge denies the request, the ruling will be subject to appeal to the Board, in Washington, DC, in the manner and to the extent provided in § 102.26 with respect to rulings and orders by an Administrative Law Judge, except that requests for permission to appeal in this instance must be filed within 24 hours of the Administrative Law Judge's ruling. If no appeal is sought within such time, or if the appeal is denied, the ruling of the Administrative Law Judge becomes final and the denial becomes the ruling of the Board. If the Administrative Law Judge deems the request appropriate, the Judge will recommend that the Board seek the approval of the Attorney General for the issuance of the order, and the Board will take such action on the Administrative Law Judge's recommendation as it deems appropriate. Until the Board has issued the requested order, no individual who claims the privilege against self-incrimination will be required or permitted to testify or to give other information respecting the subject matter of the claim.
(d) Upon the failure of any person to comply with a subpoena issued upon the request of a private party, the General Counsel will, in the name of the Board but on relation of such private party, institute enforcement proceedings in the appropriate district court, unless in the judgment of the Board the enforcement of the subpoena would be inconsistent with law and with the
(e) Persons compelled to submit data or evidence at a public proceeding are entitled to retain or, on payment of lawfully prescribed costs, to procure copies or transcripts of the data or evidence submitted by them. Persons compelled to submit data or evidence in the nonpublic investigative stages of proceedings may, for good cause, be limited by the Regional Director to inspection of the official transcript of their testimony, but must be entitled to make copies of documentary evidence or exhibits which they have produced.
Witnesses summoned before the Administrative Law Judge must be paid the same fees and mileage that are paid witnesses in the courts of the United States, and witnesses whose depositions are taken and the officer taking them are severally entitled to the same fees as are paid for like services in the courts of the United States. Witness fees and mileage will be paid by the party at whose instance the witnesses appear, and the persons taking the deposition will be paid by the party at whose instance the deposition is taken.
(a) Whenever the General Counsel deems it necessary to effectuate the purposes of the Act or to avoid unnecessary costs or delay, a charge may be filed with the General Counsel in Washington, DC, or, at any time after a charge has been filed with a Regional Director, the General Counsel may order that such charge and any proceeding regarding the charge be:
(1) Transferred to and continued before the General Counsel for investigation or consolidation with any other proceeding which may have been instituted in a Regional Office or with the General Counsel; or
(2) Consolidated with any other proceeding which may have been instituted in the same region; or
(3) Transferred to and continued in any other Region for the purpose of investigation or consolidation with any proceeding which may have been instituted in or transferred to such other region; or
(4) Severed from any other proceeding with which it may have been consolidated pursuant to this section.
(b) The provisions of §§ 102.9 through 102.32 will, insofar as applicable, govern proceedings before the General Counsel, pursuant to this section, and the powers granted to Regional Directors in such provisions will, for the purpose of this section, be reserved to and exercised by the General Counsel. After the transfer of any charge and any proceeding which may have been instituted with respect thereto from one Region to another pursuant to this section, the provisions of this subpart will, insofar as possible, govern such charge and such proceeding as if the charge had originally been filed in the Region to which the transfer is made.
(c) The Regional Director may, prior to hearing, exercise the powers in paragraphs (a)(2) and (4) of this section with respect to proceedings pending in the Director's Region.
(d) Motions to consolidate or sever proceedings after issuance of complaint must be filed as provided in § 102.24 and ruled upon as provided in § 102.25, except that the Regional Director may consolidate or sever proceedings prior to hearing upon the Director's own motion. Rulings by the Administrative Law Judge upon motions to consolidate or sever may be appealed to the Board as provided in § 102.26.
The hearing for the purpose of taking evidence upon a complaint will be conducted by an Administrative Law Judge designated by the Chief Administrative Law Judge, Deputy Chief Administrative Law Judge, or any Associate Chief Judge, as the case may be, unless the Board or any Board Member presides. At any time, an Administrative Law Judge may be designated to take the place of the Administrative Law Judge previously designated to conduct the hearing. Hearings will be public unless otherwise ordered by the Board or the Administrative Law Judge.
(a) The Administrative Law Judge will inquire fully into the facts as to whether the Respondent has engaged in or is engaging in an unfair labor practice affecting commerce as set forth in the complaint or amended complaint. The Administrative Law Judge has authority, with respect to cases assigned to the Judge, between the time the Judge is designated and transfer of the case to the Board, subject to the Rules and Regulations of the Board and within its powers, to:
(1) Administer oaths and affirmations.
(2) Grant applications for subpoenas.
(3) Rule upon petitions to revoke subpoenas.
(4) Rule upon offers of proof and receive relevant evidence.
(5) Take or cause depositions to be taken whenever the ends of justice would be served.
(6) Regulate the course of the hearing and, if appropriate or necessary, to exclude persons or counsel from the hearing for contemptuous conduct and to strike all related testimony of witnesses refusing to answer any proper question.
(7) Hold conferences for the settlement or simplification of the issues by consent of the parties, but not to adjust cases.
(8) Dispose of procedural requests, motions, or similar matters, including motions referred to the Administrative Law Judge by the Regional Director and motions for default judgment, summary judgment, or to amend pleadings; also to dismiss complaints or portions thereof; to order hearings reopened; and, upon motion, to order proceedings consolidated or severed prior to issuance of Administrative Law Judge decisions.
(9) Approve stipulations, including stipulations of facts that waive a hearing and provide for a decision by the Administrative Law Judge. Alternatively, the parties may agree to waive a hearing and decision by an Administrative Law Judge and submit directly to the Executive Secretary a stipulation of facts, which, if approved, provides for a decision by the Board. A statement of the issues presented may be set forth in the stipulation of facts, and each party may also submit a short statement (no more than three pages) of its position on the issues. If the Administrative Law Judge (or the Board) approves the stipulation, the Judge (or the Board) will set a time for the filing of briefs. In proceedings before an Administrative Law Judge, no further briefs may be filed except by special leave of the Judge. In proceedings before the Board, answering briefs may be filed within 14 days, or such further period as the Board may allow, from the last date on which an initial brief may be filed. No further briefs may be filed except by special leave of the Board. At the conclusion of the briefing schedule, the Administrative Law Judge (or the Board) will decide the case or otherwise dispose of it.
(10) Make and file decisions, including bench decisions delivered within 72 hours after conclusion of oral
(11) Call, examine, and cross-examine witnesses and to introduce into the record documentary or other evidence.
(12) Request the parties at any time during the hearing to state their respective positions concerning any issue in the case and/or supporting theory(ies).
(13) Take any other necessary action authorized by the Board's published Rules and Regulations.
(b) Upon the request of any party or of the Administrative Law Judge assigned to hear a case, or upon the Chief Judge, Deputy Chief Judge, or Associate Chief Judge's own motion, the Chief Judge, Deputy Chief Judge or an Associate Chief Judge may assign a Judge other than the trial judge to conduct settlement negotiations. In exercising this discretion, the Chief Judge, Deputy Chief Judge, or Associate Chief Judge making the assignment will consider, among other factors, whether there is reason to believe that resolution of the dispute is likely, the request for assignment of a settlement judge is made in good faith, and the assignment is otherwise feasible. However, no such assignment will be made absent the agreement of all parties to the use of this procedure.
(1) The settlement judge will convene and preside over conferences and settlement negotiations between the parties, assess the practicalities of a potential settlement, and report to the Chief Judge, Deputy Chief Judge, or Associate Chief Judge the status of settlement negotiations, recommending continuation or termination of the settlement negotiations. Where feasible, settlement conferences will be held in person.
(2) The settlement judge may require that the attorney or other representative for each party be present at settlement conferences and that the parties or agents with full settlement authority also be present or available by telephone.
(3) Participation of the settlement judge will terminate upon the order of the Chief Judge, Deputy Chief Judge, or Associate Chief Judges issued after consultation with the settlement judge. The conduct of settlement negotiations must not unduly delay the hearing.
(4) All discussions between the parties and the settlement judge will be confidential. The settlement judge must not discuss any aspect of the case with the trial judge, and no evidence regarding statements, conduct, offers of settlement, and concessions of the parties made in proceedings before the settlement judge will be admissible in any proceeding before the Board, except by stipulation of the parties. Documents disclosed in the settlement process may not be used in litigation unless voluntarily produced or obtained pursuant to subpoena.
(5) No decision of a Chief Judge, Deputy Chief Judge, or Associate Chief Judge concerning the assignment of a settlement judge or the termination of a settlement judge's assignment is appealable to the Board.
(6) Any settlement reached under the auspices of a settlement judge is subject to approval in accordance with the provisions of § 101.9 of the Board's Statements of Procedure.
(a) An Administrative Law Judge may withdraw from a proceeding because of a personal bias or for other disqualifying reasons. Any party may request the Administrative Law Judge, at any time following the Judge's designation and before filing of the Judge's decision, to withdraw on grounds of personal bias or disqualification, by filing with the Judge promptly upon the discovery of the alleged facts a timely affidavit setting forth in detail the matters alleged to constitute grounds for disqualification. If, in the Administrative Law Judge's opinion, the affidavit is filed with due diligence and is sufficient on its face, the Judge will promptly disqualify himself/herself and withdraw from the proceeding. If the Administrative Law Judge does not disqualify himself/herself and withdraw from the proceeding, the Judge must rule upon the record, stating the grounds for that ruling, and proceed with the hearing, or, if the hearing has closed, the Judge will proceed with issuance of the decision, and the provisions of § 102.26, with respect to review of rulings of Administrative Law Judges, will apply.
(b) If the Administrative Law Judge designated to conduct the hearing becomes unavailable to the Board after the hearing has been opened, the Chief Administrative Law Judge, Deputy Chief Administrative Law Judge, or an Associate Chief Administrative Law Judge, as the case may be, may designate another Administrative Law Judge for the purpose of further hearing or other appropriate action.
Any party has the right to appear at the hearing in person, by counsel, or by other representative, to call, examine, and cross-examine witnesses, and to introduce into the record documentary or other evidence, except that the Administrative Law Judge may limit the participation of any party as appropriate. Documentary evidence must be submitted in duplicate for the record with a copy to each party.
The hearing will, so far as practicable, be conducted in accordance with the rules of evidence applicable in the district courts of the United States under the rules of civil procedure for the district courts of the United States, adopted by the Supreme Court of the United States pursuant to the Act of June 19, 1934 (U.S.C., title 28, Sections 723-B, 723-C).
Stipulations of fact may be introduced in evidence with respect to any issue.
Any objection with respect to the conduct of the hearing, including any objection to the introduction of evidence, may be stated orally or in writing, accompanied by a short statement of the grounds of such objection, and included in the record. No such objection will be deemed waived by further participation in the hearing.
Any party is entitled, upon request, to oral argument, for a reasonable period at the close of the hearing. Oral argument and any presentation of proposed findings and conclusions will be included in the transcript of the hearing. In the discretion of the Administrative Law Judge, any party may, upon request made before the close of the hearing, file a brief or proposed findings and conclusions, or both, with the Administrative Law Judge, who may fix a reasonable time for such filing, but not in excess of 35 days from the close of the hearing. Requests for further extensions of time must be made to the Chief Administrative Law Judge, Deputy Chief Administrative Law Judge, or an Associate Chief Administrative Law Judge, as the case may be. Notice of the request for any extension must be immediately served on all other parties, and proof of service must be furnished. The brief or proposed findings and conclusions must be served on the other parties, and a statement of such service must be furnished. In any case in which the Administrative Law Judge believes that written briefs or proposed findings of fact and conclusions may not be
In the Administrative Law Judge's discretion, the hearing may be continued from day to day, or adjourned to a later date or to a different place, by announcement at the hearing by the Administrative Law Judge, or by other appropriate notice.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) The parties may request participation in the ADR Program by contacting the program director. Deadlines for filing pleadings with the Board will be stayed effective the date that the case enters the ADR Program. If the case is removed from the ADR Program, the time period for filing will begin to run and will consist of the time period that remained when the case entered the ADR Program. Notice will be provided to the parties of the date the case enters the ADR Program and the date it is removed from the ADR Program.
(2) A case may remain in the ADR Program for 28 days from the first settlement meeting or until the parties reach a settlement, whichever occurs first. A request for extension of the stay beyond the 28 days will be granted only with the approval and in the discretion of both the neutral and the program director upon a showing that such an extension is supported by good cause.
(3) Once the case enters the ADR Program, the program director will arrange for the appointment of a neutral to assist the parties in settling the case.
(4) The preferred method of conducting settlement conferences is to have the parties or their representatives attend in person, and therefore the neutral will make every reasonable effort to meet with the participants face-to-face at the parties' location. Settlement conferences by telephone or through videoconference may be held if the parties so desire.
(5) Parties may be represented by counsel at the conferences, but representation by counsel is not required. However, each party must have in attendance a representative who has the authority to bind the party to the terms of a settlement agreement.
(6) The neutral may ask the parties to submit pre-conference memos setting forth the issues in dispute, prior settlement efforts, and anything else that the parties would like to bring to the neutral's attention. A party's memo will be treated as a confidential submission unless the party that prepared the memo authorizes its release to the other parties.
(7) Settlement discussions held under the ADR Program will be confidential. All documents submitted to the neutral and statements made during the ADR proceedings, including proposed settlement terms, are for settlement purposes only and are confidential. However, evidence otherwise admissible or discoverable will not be rendered inadmissible or undiscoverable because of its use in the ADR proceedings. No evidence as to what transpired during the ADR proceedings will be admissible in any administrative or court proceeding except to the extent it is relevant to determining the existence or meaning of a settlement agreement. The parties and their representatives will not discuss with the press any matters concerning settlement positions communicated during the ADR proceedings except by express written permission of the other parties. There will be no communication between the ADR Program and the Board on specific cases submitted to the ADR Program, except for procedural information such as case name, number, timing of the process, and status.
(8) The neutral has no authority to impose a settlement. Settlement agreements are subject to approval by the Board in accordance with its existing procedures for approving settlements.
(9) No party will at any time or in any proceeding take the position that participation in the ADR Program resulted in the waiver of any legal rights related to the underlying claims in the case, except as set forth in any settlement agreement.
(10) Nothing in the ADR Program is intended to discourage or interfere with settlement negotiations that the parties wish to conduct outside the ADR Program.
(a)
(1)
(A) Specify the questions of procedure, fact, law, or policy to which exception is taken;
(B) Identify that part of the Administrative Law Judge's decision to which exception is taken;
(C) Provide precise citations of the portions of the record relied on; and
(D) Concisely state the grounds for the exception. If a supporting brief is filed, the exceptions document must not contain any argument or citation of authorities in support of the exceptions; any argument and citation of authorities must be set forth only in the brief. If no supporting brief is filed, the exceptions document must also include the citation of authorities and argument in support of the exceptions, in which event the exceptions document is subject to the 50-page limit for briefs set forth in paragraph (h) of this section.
(ii) Any exception to a ruling, finding, conclusion, or recommendation which is not specifically urged will be deemed to have been waived. Any exception which fails to comply with the foregoing requirements may be disregarded.
(2)
(i) A clear and concise statement of the case containing all that is material to the consideration of the questions presented.
(ii) A specification of the questions involved and to be argued, together with a reference to the specific exceptions to which they relate.
(iii) The argument, presenting clearly the points of fact and law relied on in support of the position taken on each question, with specific page citations to the record and the legal or other material relied on.
(b)
(2) The answering brief to the exceptions must be limited to the questions raised in the exceptions and in the brief in support. It must present clearly the points of fact and law relied on in support of the position taken on each question. Where exception has been taken to a factual finding of the Administrative Law Judge and the party filing the answering brief proposes to support the Judge's finding, the answering brief must specify those pages of the record which the party contends support the Judge's finding.
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
All motions filed after the case has been transferred to the Board pursuant to § 102.45 must be filed with the Board in Washington, DC, and served upon the other parties. Such motions must be printed or otherwise legibly duplicated.
(a)
(b)
(2) Where exception is taken to a factual finding of the Administrative Law Judge, the Board, in determining whether the finding is contrary to a preponderance of the evidence, may limit its consideration to such portions of the record as are specified in the exceptions, the supporting brief, and the answering brief.
(c)
(1) A motion for reconsideration must state with particularity the material
(2) Any motion pursuant to this section must be filed within 28 days, or such further period as the Board may allow, after the service of the Board's decision or order, except that a motion to reopen the record must be filed promptly on discovery of the evidence to be adduced.
(3) The filing and pendency of a motion under this provision will not stay the effectiveness of the action of the Board unless so ordered. A motion for reconsideration or rehearing need not be filed to exhaust administrative remedies.
Within the limitations of the provisions of Section 10(c) of the Act, and § 102.48, until a transcript of the record in a case is filed in a court, within the meaning of Section 10 of the Act, the Board may at any time upon reasonable notice modify or set aside, in whole or in part, any findings of fact, conclusions of law, or order made or issued by it. Thereafter, the Board may proceed pursuant to § 102.50, insofar as applicable.
Whenever the Board deems it necessary to effectuate the purposes of the Act or to avoid unnecessary costs or delay, it may, at any time, after a complaint has issued pursuant to § 102.15 or § 102.33, order that such complaint and any proceeding which may have been instituted with respect thereto be transferred to and continued before it or any Board Member. The provisions of this subpart, insofar as applicable, govern proceedings before the Board or any Board Member pursuant to this section, and the powers granted to Administrative Law Judges in such provisions will, for the purpose of this section, be reserved to and exercised by the Board or the Board Member who will preside.
At any stage of a proceeding prior to hearing, where time, the nature of the proceeding, and the public interest permit, all interested parties have an opportunity to submit to the Regional Director, with whom the charge was filed, for consideration, facts, arguments, offers of settlement, or proposals of adjustment.
After entry of a Board order directing remedial action, or the entry of a court judgment enforcing such order, the Regional Director will seek compliance from all persons having obligations under the order. As appropriate, the Regional Director will make a compliance determination and notify the parties of that determination. A Charging Party adversely affected by a monetary, make-whole, reinstatement, or other compliance determination will be provided, on request, with a written statement of the basis for that determination.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(a) If it appears that controversy exists with respect to compliance with a Board order which cannot be resolved without a formal proceeding, the Regional Director may issue and serve on all parties a compliance specification in the name of the Board. The specification will contain or be accompanied by a Notice of Hearing before an Administrative Law Judge at a specific place and at a time not less than 21 days after the service of the specification.
(b) Whenever the Regional Director deems it necessary to effectuate the purposes and policies of the Act or to avoid unnecessary costs or delay, the Regional Director may issue a compliance specification, with or without a notice of hearing, based on an outstanding complaint.
(c) Whenever the Regional Director deems it necessary to effectuate the purposes and policies of the Act or to avoid unnecessary costs or delay, the Regional Director may consolidate with a complaint and Notice of Hearing issued pursuant to § 102.15 a compliance specification based on that complaint. After opening of the hearing, the Board or the Administrative Law Judge, as appropriate, must approve consolidation. Issuance of a compliance specification is not a prerequisite or bar to Board initiation of proceedings in any administrative or judicial forum which the Board or the Regional Director determines to be appropriate for obtaining compliance with a Board order.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Upon the Regional Director's own motion or upon proper cause shown, the Regional Director issuing the compliance specification and Notice of Hearing may extend the hearing date.
Any compliance specification and Notice of Hearing may be withdrawn before the hearing by the Regional Director upon the Director's own motion.
After the issuance of a compliance specification and Notice of Hearing, the procedures provided in §§ 102.24 through 102.51 will be followed insofar as applicable.
Whenever it is charged that any person has engaged in an unfair labor practice within the meaning of Section 8(b)(7) of the Act, the Regional Director will investigate such charge, giving it the priority specified in subpart H of this part.
If it appears to the Regional Director that the charge has merit, formal proceedings will be instituted in accordance with the procedures described in §§ 102.15 through 102.51, insofar as they are applicable, and insofar as they are not inconsistent with the provisions of this subpart. If it appears to the Regional Director that issuance of a complaint is not warranted, the Director will decline to issue a complaint, and the provisions of § 102.19, including the provisions for appeal to the General Counsel, are applicable unless an election has been directed under §§ 102.77 and 102.78, in which event the provisions of § 102.81 are applicable.
If it appears to the Regional Director that issuance of a complaint may be warranted but for the pendency of a petition under Section 9(c) of the Act, which has been filed by any proper party within a reasonable time not to exceed 30 days from the commencement of picketing, the Regional Director will suspend proceedings on the charge and will proceed to investigate the petition under the expedited procedure provided below, pursuant to the first proviso to subparagraph (C) of Section 8(b)(7) of the Act.
When picketing of an employer has been conducted for an object proscribed by Section 8(b)(7) of the Act, a petition for the determination of a question concerning representation of the employees of such employer may be
(b) If, after the investigation of such petition or any petition filed under subpart D of this part, and after the investigation of the charge filed pursuant to § 102.73, it appears to the Regional Director that an expedited election under Section 8(b)(7)(C) of the Act is warranted, and that the policies of the Act would be effectuated thereby, the Regional Director shall forthwith proceed to conduct an election by secret ballot of the employees in an appropriate unit, or make other disposition of the matter, except that in any case in which it appears to the Regional Director that the proceeding raises questions which cannot be decided without a hearing, the Director may issue and cause to be served on the parties, individuals, and labor organizations involved a Notice of Hearing before a Hearing Officer at a time and place fixed therein. In this event, the method of conducting the hearing and the procedure following, shall be governed insofar as applicable by §§ 102.63 through 102.68.
A petition to rescind the authority of a labor organization to make an agreement requiring as a condition of employment membership in such labor organization may be filed by an employee or group of employees on behalf of 30 percent or more of the employees in a bargaining unit covered by such an agreement. The petition shall be in writing and signed, and either must be sworn to before a notary public, Board agent, or other person duly authorized by law to administer oaths and take acknowledgments or must contain a declaration by the person signing it, under the penalties of the Criminal Code, that its contents are true and correct to the best of his knowledge and belief. One original of the petition must be filed with the Regional Director wherein the bargaining unit exists or, if the unit exists in two or more Regions, with the Regional Director for any of such Regions. A person filing a petition by facsimile must also file an original for the Agency's records, but failure to do so must not affect the validity of the filing by facsimile, if otherwise proper. A person filing a petition electronically need not file an original. The petition may be withdrawn only with the approval of the Regional Director with whom such petition was filed. Upon approval of the withdrawal of any petition the case will be closed.
(l) Evidence supporting the statement that 30 percent or more of the bargaining unit employees desire to rescind the authority of their employer and labor organization to enter into an agreement made pursuant to Section 8(a)(3) of the Act. Such evidence must be filed together with the petition, but must not be served on any other party.
Where a petition has been filed pursuant to § 102.83, and it appears to the Regional Director that the petitioner has made an appropriate showing, in such form as the Regional Director may determine, that 30 percent or more of the employees within a unit covered by an agreement between their employer and a labor organization requiring membership in such labor organization desire to rescind the authority of such labor organization to make such an agreement, the Regional Director will proceed to conduct a secret ballot of the employees involved on the question whether they desire to rescind the authority of the labor organization to make such an agreement with their employer, except that, in any case in which it appears to the Regional Director that the proceeding raises questions which cannot be decided without a hearing, the Director may issue and cause to be served on the parties a Notice of Hearing before a Hearing Officer at a time and place fixed therein. The Regional Director will fix the time and place of the election, eligibility requirements for voting, and other arrangements of the balloting, but the parties may enter into an agreement, subject to the approval of the Regional Director, fixing such arrangements. In any such consent agreements, provision may be made for final determination of all questions arising with respect to the balloting by the Regional Director or upon grant of a request for review, by the Board.
The method of conducting the hearing and the procedure following the hearing will be governed, insofar as applicable, by §§ 102.63 through 102.68.
The method of conducting the balloting and the postballoting procedure will be governed by the provisions of § 102.69, insofar as applicable.
If, after a petition has been filed, and prior to the close of the hearing, it appears to the Regional Director that no referendum should be conducted, the Regional Director will dismiss the petition by administrative action. Such dismissal will be in writing and accompanied by a simple statement of the procedural or other grounds. The petitioner may obtain a review of such action by filing a request therefor with the Board in Washington, DC, and filing a copy of such request with the Regional Director and the other parties within 14 days from the service of notice of such dismissal. The request must contain a complete statement setting forth the facts and reasons upon which the request is based.
Whenever it is charged that any person has engaged in an unfair labor practice within the meaning of Section 8(b)(4)(D) of the Act, the Regional Director of the office in which such charge is filed or to which it is referred will, as soon as possible after the charge has been filed, serve on the parties a copy of the charge and will investigate such charge and if it is deemed appropriate to seek injunctive relief of a district court pursuant to Section 10(l) of the Act, the Regional Director will give it priority over all other cases in the office except other cases under Section 10(l) and cases of like character.
If it appears to the Regional Director that the charge has merit and the parties to the dispute have not submitted satisfactory evidence to the Regional Director that they have adjusted, or have agreed-upon methods for the voluntary adjustment of, the dispute out of which such unfair labor practice has arisen, the Regional Director will serve on all parties to such dispute a Notice of Hearing under Section 10(k) of the Act before a Hearing Officer at a time and place stated in the Notice. The hearing date will not be less than 10 days after service of the notice of the filing of the charge. The Notice of Hearing must contain a simple statement of the issues involved in such dispute. Such Notice will be issued promptly, and, in cases in which it is deemed appropriate to seek injunctive relief pursuant to Section 10(l) of the Act, will normally be issued within 5 days of the date upon which injunctive relief is first sought. Hearings will be conducted by a Hearing Officer, and the procedure will conform, insofar as applicable, to the procedure set forth in §§ 102.64 through 102.68. Upon the close of the hearing, the proceeding will be transferred to the Board, and the Board will proceed either promptly upon the record, or after oral argument, or the submission of briefs, or further hearing, to determine the dispute or otherwise dispose of the matter. Parties who desire to file a brief with the Board must do so within 7 days after the close of the hearing. However, no briefs will be filed in cases designated in the Notice of Hearing as involving the national defense, and the parties, after the close of the evidence, may argue orally upon the record their respective contentions and positions; except that, upon application for leave to file briefs expeditiously made to the Board in Washington, DC, after the close of the hearing, the Board may for good cause shown, grant leave to file briefs and set a time for filing. Simultaneously upon such filing, a copy must be served on the other parties. No reply brief may be filed except upon special leave of the Board.
If, after issuance of the determination by the Board, the parties submit to the Regional Director satisfactory evidence that they have complied with the determination, the Regional Director will dismiss the charge. If no satisfactory evidence of compliance is submitted, the Regional Director will proceed with the charge under Section 8(b)(4)(D) and Section 10 of the Act and the procedure prescribed in §§ 102.9 through 102.51 will, insofar as applicable, govern. However, if the Board determination is that employees represented by a Charged Union are entitled to perform the work in dispute, the Regional Director will dismiss the charge as to that union irrespective of whether the employer has complied with that determination.
The record of the proceeding under Section 10(k) and the determination of the Board will become a part of the record in such unfair labor practice proceeding and may be subject to judicial review in proceedings to enforce or review the final order of the Board under Section 10(e) and (f) of the Act.
If, either before or after service of the Notice of Hearing, the parties submit to the Regional Director satisfactory evidence that they have adjusted the dispute, the Regional Director will dismiss the charge and will withdraw the Notice of Hearing if Notice has issued. If, either before or after issuance of the Notice of Hearing, the parties submit to the Regional Director satisfactory evidence that they have agreed-upon methods for the voluntary adjustment of the dispute, the Regional Director will defer action upon the charge and will withdraw the Notice of Hearing if Notice has issued. If it appears to the Regional Director that the dispute has not been adjusted in accordance with such agreed-upon methods and that an unfair labor practice within the meaning of Section 8(b)(4)(D) of the Act is occurring or has occurred, the Regional Director may issue a complaint under § 102.15, and the procedure prescribed in §§ 102.9 through 102.51 will, insofar as applicable, govern; and §§ 102.90 through 102.92 are inapplicable, except that if an agreed-upon method for voluntary adjustment results in a determination that employees represented by a Charged Union are entitled to perform the work in dispute, the Regional Director will dismiss the charge as to that union irrespective of whether the employer has complied with that determination.
(a) Whenever temporary relief or a restraining order pursuant to Section 10(j) of the Act has been procured by the Board, the complaint which has been the basis for such temporary relief or restraining order will be heard expeditiously and the case will be given priority by the Board in its successive steps following the issuance of the complaint (until ultimate enforcement or dismissal by the appropriate circuit court of appeals) over all other cases except cases of like character and cases under Section 10(l) and (m) of the Act.
(b) In the event the Administrative Law Judge hearing a complaint, concerning which the Board has procured temporary relief or a restraining order pursuant to Section 10(j), recommends a dismissal in whole or in part of such complaint, the chief law officer will promptly suggest to the district court which issued such temporary relief or restraining order the possible change in circumstances arising out of the findings and recommendations of the Administrative Law Judge.
(a) Whenever a charge is filed alleging the commission of an unfair labor practice within the meaning of Section 8(b)(4)(A), (B), (C), 8(b)(7), or 8(e) of the Act, the Regional Office in which such charge is filed or to which it is referred will give it priority over all other cases in the office except cases of like character and cases under Section 8(b)(4)(D) in which it is deemed appropriate to seek injunctive relief of a district court pursuant to Section 10(l) of the Act.
(b) Whenever a charge is filed alleging the commission of an unfair labor practice within the meaning of Section 8(a)(3) or 8(b)(2), the Regional Office in which such charge is filed or to which it is referred will give it priority over all other cases in the office except cases of like character and cases under Section 10(l) of the Act.
Whenever injunctive relief pursuant to Section 10(l) of the Act is sought in district court, a complaint against the party or parties sought to be enjoined, covering the same subject matter as the application for injunctive relief, will be issued promptly, normally within 5 days of the date when injunctive relief is first sought, except in cases in which a Notice of Hearing under Section 10(k) of the Act has issued.
(a) Any complaint issued pursuant to § 102.95(a) or, in a case in which it is deemed appropriate to seek injunctive relief of a district court pursuant to Section 10(l) of the Act, any complaint issued pursuant to § 102.93 or Notice of Hearing issued pursuant to § 102.90 will be heard expeditiously and the case will be given priority in such successive steps following its issuance (until ultimate enforcement or dismissal by the appropriate circuit court of appeals) over all cases except cases of like character.
(b) Any complaint issued pursuant to § 102.95(b) will be heard expeditiously and the case will be given priority in its successive steps following its issuance (until ultimate enforcement or dismissal by the appropriate circuit court of appeals) over all cases except cases of like character and cases under Section 10(l) of the Act.
(a) A petition for an advisory opinion, when filed by an agency or court of a State or territory, must allege the following:
(1) The name of the agency or court.
(2) The names of the parties to the proceeding and the docket number.
(3) The nature of the proceeding, and the need for the Board's opinion on the jurisdictional issue to the proceeding.
(4) The general nature of the business involved in the proceeding and, where appropriate, the nature of and details concerning the employing enterprise.
(5) The findings of the agency or court or, in the absence of findings, a statement of the evidence relating to the commerce operations of such business and, where appropriate, to the nature of the employing enterprise.
(b) The petition or request must be submitted to the Board in Washington, DC.
Upon the filing of a petition, the petitioner must simultaneously serve, in the manner provided by § 102.5(g), a copy of the petition on all parties to the proceeding and on the Director of the Board's Regional Office having jurisdiction over the territorial area in which such agency or court is located. A statement of service must be filed with the petition as provided by § 102.5(h).
Any party served with such petition may, within 14 days after service thereof, respond to the petition, admitting or denying its allegations. The response must be filed with the Board in Washington, DC. The response must simultaneously be served on all other parties to the proceeding, and a statement of service must be filed in accordance with the provisions of § 102.5(h).
Any person desiring to intervene must file a motion for intervention, stating the grounds upon which such person claims to have an interest in the petition. The motion must be filed with the Board in Washington, DC.
The Board will thereupon proceed, upon the petition, responses, and submission of briefs, to determine whether, on the facts before it, the commerce operations of the employer involved are such that the Board would or would not assert jurisdiction. Such determination will be in the form of an advisory opinion and will be served on the parties. No briefs may be filed except upon special permission of the Board.
The petitioner may withdraw the petition at any time prior to issuance of the Board's advisory opinion.
Whenever both an unfair labor practice charge and a representation case relating to the same employer are contemporaneously on file in a Regional Office of the Board, and the General Counsel entertains doubt whether the Board would assert jurisdiction over the employer involved, the General Counsel may file a petition with the Board for a declaratory order disposing of the jurisdictional issue in the case. Such petition may be withdrawn at any time prior to the issuance of the Board's order.
(a) A petition for a declaratory order must allege the following:
(1) The name of the employer.
(2) The general nature of the employer's business.
(3) The case numbers of the unfair labor practice and representation cases.
(4) The commerce data relating to the operations of such business.
(5) Whether any proceeding involving the same subject matter is pending before an agency or court of a State or territory.
(b) The petition must be filed with the Board in Washington, DC.
Upon filing a petition, the General Counsel will simultaneously serve a copy thereof on all parties and must file a statement of service as provided by § 102.5(h).
Any party to the representation or unfair labor practice case may, within 14 days after service, respond to the petition, admitting or denying its allegations. The response must be filed with the Board in Washington, DC. The response must be served on the General Counsel and all other parties, and a statement of service must be filed as provided by § 102.5(h).
Any person desiring to intervene must file a motion for intervention, stating the grounds upon which such person claims to have an interest in the petition. The motion must be filed with the Board in Washington, DC.
The Board will proceed, upon the petition, responses, and submission of briefs, to determine whether, on the facts before it, the commerce operations of the employer involved are such that the Board would or would not assert jurisdiction over the employer. Such determination will be made by a declaratory order, with like effect as in the case of other orders of the Board, and will be served on the parties. Any party desiring to file a brief must file the brief with the Board in Washington, DC, with a statement that copies are being served simultaneously on the other parties.
The Executive Secretary of the Board, or, in the event of the Executive Secretary's absence or disability, whomever may be designated by the Board in the Executive Secretary's place, will certify copies of all papers and documents which are a part of any of the files or records of the Board as necessary or desirable from time to time.
The Executive Secretary, Deputy Executive Secretary, or an Associate Executive Secretary, or, in the event of their absence or disability, whomever may be designated by the Board in their place, is hereby authorized to sign all orders of the Board.
(a)(1)
(2)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(3)
(4)
(b)(1)
(2)
(c)(1)
(B)
(C)
(ii)
(A) Requesters may file FOIA requests electronically through the Agency's Web site (
(B) Requests not made through the Agency's Web site should be clearly marked to indicate that they contain a request for records under the Freedom of Information Act.
(C) Requests made to an Agency division, branch, or any office other than the FOIA Branch will be forwarded to the FOIA Branch by the receiving office, but in that event, the applicable time limit for response set forth in paragraph (i) of this section will be calculated from the date of receipt by the FOIA Branch. The receiving office will normally forward the request to the FOIA Branch within 10 days of the initial receipt.
(D) Requests made to the Agency for records that originated with another governmental agency may be referred to that agency.
(2)
(ii)
(A) The lack of expedited treatment could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
(B) There is an urgency to inform the public about an actual or alleged federal government activity, if made by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information; or
(C) The loss of substantial due process rights; or
(D)(
(
(iii)
(A)
(B)
(C) Adverse determinations may consist of: A determination to withhold any requested record in whole or in part; a determination that a requested record does not exist or cannot be located; a determination that what has been requested is not a record subject to the FOIA; a determination on any disputed fee matter, including a denial of a request for a fee waiver or reduction or placement in a particular fee category; and a denial of a request for expedited treatment. An adverse determination to an administrative appeal by the Chief FOIA Officer will be the final action of the Agency. An adverse determination will inform the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the Agency's FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services, as well as the right to appeal the adverse determination under the administrative appeal provisions of paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section.
(iv)
(A) For purposes of this section:
(
(
(B) A submitter of business information will use good faith efforts to designate, by appropriate markings, either at the time of submission or at a reasonable time thereafter, any portions of its submission that it considers to be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4. These designations will expire 10 years after the date of the submission unless the submitter requests, and provides justification for, a longer designation period. The Agency will provide a submitter with prompt written notice of a FOIA request or administrative appeal that seeks its business information wherever required under paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(C) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(F) of this section, in order to give the submitter an opportunity to object to disclosure of any specified portion of that information under paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(D) of this section. The notice will either describe the business information requested or include copies of the requested records or record portions containing the information. When notification of a voluminous number of submitters is required, notification may be made by posting or publishing the notice in a place reasonably likely to accomplish notification.
(C) Notice will be given to a submitter whenever: The information has been designated in good faith by the submitter as information considered protected from disclosure under Exemption 4; or the Agency has reason to believe that the information may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4.
(D) The Agency will allow a submitter a reasonable time to respond to the notice described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(B) of this section. If a submitter has any objection to disclosure, it is required to submit a detailed written statement. The statement must specify all grounds for withholding any portion of the information under any exemption of the FOIA and, in the case of Exemption 4, it must show why the information is a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential. In the event that a submitter fails to respond to the notice within the time specified in it, the submitter will be considered to have no objection to disclosure of the information. Information provided by a submitter under this paragraph may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.
(E) The Agency will consider a submitter's objections and specific grounds for nondisclosure in deciding whether to disclose business information. Whenever the Agency decides to disclose business information over the objection of a submitter, the Agency will give the submitter written notice, which will include: A statement of the reason(s) why each of the submitter's disclosure objections was not sustained; a description of the business information to be disclosed; and a specified disclosure date, which will be a reasonable time subsequent to the notice.
(F) The notice requirements of paragraphs (c)(2)(iv)(B) and (E) of this section will not apply if: The Agency determines that the information may not be disclosed; the information lawfully has been published or has been officially made available to the public; disclosure of the information is required by statute (other than the FOIA) or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12600 (3 CFR, 1988 Comp., p. 235); or the designation made by the submitter under paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(B) of this section appears obviously frivolous—except that, in such a case, the Agency will, within a reasonable time prior to a specified disclosure date, give the submitter written notice of any final decision to disclose the information.
(G) Whenever a requester files a lawsuit seeking to compel the disclosure of business information, the Agency will promptly notify the submitter.
(H) Whenever the Agency provides a submitter with notice and an opportunity to object to disclosure under paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(B) of this section, the Agency will also notify the requester(s). Whenever the Agency notifies a submitter of its intent to disclose requested information under paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(E) of this section, the Agency will also notify the requester(s). Whenever a submitter files a lawsuit seeking to prevent the disclosure of business information, the Agency will notify the requester(s).
(v)
(B) As provided in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, an adverse determination will notify the requester of the right to appeal the adverse determination and will specify where such appeal may be filed. Within 20 working days after receipt of an appeal, the Chief FOIA Officer will make a determination with respect to such appeal and will notify the requester in writing. If the determination is to grant the appeal, the responsive records will be made promptly available to the requester upon receipt of payment of any charges due in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (d)(2) of this section. If the appeal is denied, in whole or in part, the requester will be notified of the reasons for the decision, the name and title or position of any person responsible for the denial, and the provisions for judicial review of that determination under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. Section 552(4)(B).
(C) Before seeking judicial review of an adverse determination, a requester must first submit a timely administrative appeal.
(D) Even if no FOIA appeal is filed, the Chief FOIA Officer may, without regard to the time limit for filing of an appeal, initiate reconsideration of an adverse determination by issuing written notice to the requester. In such event, the time limit for making the determination will commence with the issuance of such notification.
(vi)
(A) The need to search for and collect the requested records from other offices in the Agency that are separate from the FOIA Branch;
(B) The need to search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records which are sought in a single request;
(C)(
(
(vii)
(d)(1)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(2)
(i)
(A) For each one-quarter hour or portion thereof of clerical time $3.10.
(B) For each one-quarter hour or portion thereof of professional time $9.25.
(C) For each sheet of duplication (not to exceed 8
(D) All other direct costs of preparing a response to a request will be charged to the requester in the same amount as incurred by the Agency. Such costs will include, but not be limited to: Certifying that records are true copies; sending records to requesters or receiving records from the Federal records storage centers by special methods such as express mail; and, where applicable, conducting computer searches for information and for providing information in electronic format.
(ii) Fees incurred in responding to information requests are to be charged in accordance with the following categories of requesters:
(A) Commercial use requesters will be assessed charges to recover the full direct costs for searching for, reviewing for release, and duplicating the records sought. Requesters must reasonably describe the records sought.
(B) Educational institution requesters will be assessed charges for the cost of reproduction alone, excluding charges for the first 100 pages. To be eligible for inclusion in this category, requesters must show that the request is being made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are not sought for commercial use, but are sought in furtherance of scholarly research. Requesters must reasonably describe the records sought.
(C) Requesters who are representatives of the news media will be assessed charges for the cost of reproduction alone, excluding charges for the first 100 pages. To be eligible for inclusion in this category, a requester must meet the criteria in paragraph (d)(1)(vii) of this section, and the request must not be made for commercial use. In reference to this
(D) All other requesters, not elsewhere described, will be assessed charges to recover the full reasonable direct cost of searching for and reproducing records that are responsive to the request, except that the first 100 pages of reproduction and the first 2 hours of search time will be furnished without charge. Requesters must reasonably describe the records sought.
(E) Absent a reasonably based factual showing that a requester may be placed in a particular user category, fees will be imposed as provided for in the commercial use requester category.
(iii)
(B) If the Agency reasonably believes that a requester or a group of requesters acting together is attempting to divide a request into a series of requests for the purpose of avoiding fees, the Agency may aggregate those requests and charge accordingly. The Agency may presume that multiple requests of this type made within a 30-day period have been made to avoid fees. Where requests are separated by a longer period, the Agency will aggregate them only where there exists a solid basis for determining that aggregation is warranted under all the circumstances involved. Multiple requests involving unrelated matters will not be aggregated.
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(A) If the anticipated charges are likely to exceed $250, the Agency will notify the requester of the likely cost and obtain satisfactory assurance of full payment when the requester has a history of prompt payment of FOIA fees, or require an advance payment of an amount up to the full estimated charges in the case of requesters with no history of payment.
(B) If a requester has previously failed to pay fees that have been charged in processing a request within 30 days of the date the notification of fees was sent, the requester will be required to pay the entire amount of fees that are owed, plus interest as provided for in paragraph (d)(2)(v) of this section, before the Agency will process a further information request. In addition, the Agency may require advance payment of fees that the Agency estimates will be incurred in processing the further request before the Agency commences processing that request. When the Agency acts under paragraph (d)(2)(vi)(A) or (B) of this section, the administrative time limits for responding to a request or an appeal from initial determinations will begin to run only after the Agency has received the fee payments required in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
(vii)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(1) If the entire contents of any such statement relate to the subject matter of the testimony of the witness, the Administrative Law Judge must order the statement to be delivered directly to the respondent for examination and use for the purpose of cross-examination.
(2) If the General Counsel claims that any statement ordered to be produced under this section contains matter which does not relate to the subject matter of the testimony of the witness, the Administrative Law Judge will order the General Counsel to deliver the statement for the inspection of the Administrative Law Judge
(f)
(g)
(1) A written statement made by the witness and signed or otherwise adopted or approved by the witness; or
(2) A stenographic, mechanical, electrical, or other recording, or a transcription thereof, which is a substantially verbatim recital of an oral statement made by the witness to an agent of the party obligated to produce the statement and recorded contemporaneously with the making of the oral statement.
(a)(1) An individual will be informed whether a system of records maintained by the Agency contains a record pertaining to such individual. An inquiry may be made in writing or in person during normal business hours to the official of the Agency designated for that purpose and at the address set forth in a notice of a system of records published by this Agency, in a Notice of Systems of Government-wide Personnel Records published by the Office of Personnel Management, or in a Notice of Government-wide Systems of Records published by the Department of Labor. Copies of such notices, and assistance in preparing an inquiry, may be obtained from any Regional Office of the Board or at the Board offices in Washington, DC. The inquiry may contain sufficient information, as defined in the notice, to identify the record.
(2) Reasonable verification of the identity of the inquirer, as described in paragraph (e) of this section, will be required to assure that information is disclosed to the proper person. The Agency will acknowledge the inquiry in writing within 10 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) and, wherever practicable, the acknowledgment will supply the information requested. If, for good cause shown, the Agency cannot supply the information within 10 days, the inquirer will within that time period be notified in writing of the reasons therefor and when it is anticipated the information will be supplied. An acknowledgment will not be provided when the information is supplied within the 10-day period. If the Agency refuses to inform an individual whether a system of records contains a record pertaining to an individual, the inquirer will be notified in writing of that determination and the reasons therefor, and of the right to obtain review of that determination under the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section. The provisions of this paragraph (a)(2) do not apply to the extent that requested information from the relevant system of records has been exempted from this Privacy Act requirement.
(b)(1) An individual will be permitted access to records pertaining to such individual contained in any system of records described in the notice of system of records published by the Agency, or access to the accounting of disclosures from such records. The request for access must be made in writing or in person during normal business hours to the person designated for that purpose and at the address set forth in the published notice of system of records. Copies of such notices, and assistance in preparing a request for access, may be obtained from any Regional Office of the Board or at the Board offices in Washington, DC. Reasonable verification of the identity of the requester, as described in paragraph (e) of this section, will be required to assure that records are disclosed to the proper person. A request for access to records or the accounting of disclosures from such records will be acknowledged in writing by the Agency within 10 days of receipt (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) and, wherever practicable, the acknowledgment will inform the requester whether access will be granted and, if so, the time and location at which the records or accounting will be made available. If access to the record of accounting is to be granted, the record or accounting will normally be provided within 30 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) of the request, unless for good cause shown the Agency is unable to do so, in which case the individual will be informed in writing within that 30-day period of the reasons therefor and when it is anticipated that access will be granted. An acknowledgment of a request will not be provided if the record is made available within the 10-day period.
(2) If an individual's request for access to a record or an accounting of disclosure from such a record under the provisions of this paragraph (b) is denied, the notice informing the individual of the denial will set forth the reasons therefor and advise the individual of the right to obtain a review of that determination under the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section. The provisions of this paragraph (b)(2) do not apply to the extent that requested information from the relevant system of records has been exempted from this Privacy Act requirement.
(c) An individual granted access to records pertaining to such individual contained in a system of records may review all such records. For that purpose, the individual may be accompanied by a person of the individual's choosing, or the record may be released to the individual's representative who has written consent of the individual, as described in paragraph (e) of this section. A first copy of any such record or information will ordinarily be provided without charge to the individual or representative in a form comprehensible to the individual. Fees for any other copies of requested records will be assessed at the rate of 12 cents for each sheet of duplication.
(d) An individual may request amendment of a record pertaining to such individual in a system of records maintained by the Agency. A request for amendment of a record must be in writing and submitted during normal business hours to the person designated for that purpose and at the address set forth in the published notice for the system of records containing the record of which amendment is sought. Copies of such notices, and assistance in preparing a request for amendment, may be obtained from any Regional Office of the Board or at the Board offices in Washington, DC. The requester must provide verification of identity as described in paragraph (e) of this section, and the request must set forth the specific amendment requested and the reason for the requested amendment. The Agency will acknowledge in writing receipt of the request within 10 days of receipt (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) and, whenever practicable, the acknowledgement will advise the individual of the determination of the request. If the review of the request for amendment cannot be completed and a determination made within 10 days, the review will be completed as soon as possible, normally within 30 days (Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays excluded) of receipt of the request unless unusual circumstances preclude completing the review within that time, in which event the requester will be notified in writing within that 30-day period of the reasons for the delay and when the determination of the request may be expected. If the determination is to amend the record, the requester will be so notified in writing and the record will be amended in accordance with that determination. If any disclosures accountable under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c) have been made, all previous recipients of the record which was amended must be advised of the amendment and its substance. If it is determined that the request may not be granted, the requester will be notified in writing of that determination and of the reasons therefor, and advised of the right to obtain review of the adverse determination under the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section. The provisions of this paragraph (d) do not apply to the extent that requested information from the relevant system of records has been exempted from this Privacy Act requirement.
(e) Verification of the identification of individuals required under paragraphs (a), (b), (c), and (d) of this section to assure that records are disclosed to the proper person will be required by the Agency to an extent consistent with the nature, location, and sensitivity of the records being disclosed. Disclosure of a record to an individual will normally be made upon the presentation of acceptable identification. Disclosure of records by mail may be made on the basis of the identifying information set forth in the request. Depending on the nature, location, and sensitivity of the requested record, a signed notarized statement verifying identity may be required by the Agency. Proof of authorization as representative to have access to a record of an individual must be in writing, and a signed notarized statement of such authorization may be required by the Agency if the record requested is of a sensitive nature.
(f)(1) Review may be obtained with respect to:
(i) A refusal, under paragraph (a) or (g) of this section, to inform an individual if a system of records contains a record concerning that individual;
(ii) A refusal, under paragraph (b) or (g) of this section, to grant access to a record or an accounting of disclosure from such a record; or
(iii) A refusal, under paragraph (d) of this section, to amend a record.
(iv) The request for review may be made to the Chairman of the Board if the system of records is maintained in the office of a Member of the Board, the Office of the Executive Secretary, the Office of the Solicitor, the Office of Congressional and Public Affairs, or the Division of Administrative Law Judges. Consistent with the provisions of Section 3(d) of the Act, and the delegation of authority from the Board to the General Counsel, the request may be made to the General Counsel if the system of records is maintained by an office of the Agency other than those enumerated above. Either the Chairman of the Board or the General Counsel may designate in writing another officer of the Agency to review the refusal of the request. Such review will be completed within 30 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays)
(2) If, upon review of a refusal under paragraph (a) or (g) of this section, the reviewing officer determines that the individual may be informed of whether a system of records contains a record pertaining to that individual, such information will be promptly provided. If the reviewing officer determines that the information was properly denied, the individual will be so informed in writing with a brief statement of the reasons therefor.
(3) If, upon review of a refusal under paragraph (b) or (g) of this section, the reviewing officer determines that access to a record or to an accounting of disclosures may be granted, the requester will be so notified and the record or accounting will be promptly made available to the requester. If the reviewing officer determines that the request for access was properly denied, the individual will be so informed in writing with a brief statement of the reasons therefor, and of the right to judicial review of that determination under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1)(B).
(4) If, upon review of a refusal under paragraph (i) of this section, the reviewing official grants a request to amend, the requester will be so notified, the record will be amended in accordance with the determination, and, if any disclosures accountable under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c) have been made, all previous recipients of the record which was amended will be advised of the amendment and its substance. If the reviewing officer determines that the denial of a request for amendment may be sustained, the Agency will advise the requester of the determination and the reasons therefor, and that the individual may file with the Agency a concise statement of the reason for disagreeing with the determination, and may seek judicial review of the Agency's denial of the request to amend the record. In the event a statement of disagreement is filed, that statement:
(i) Will be made available to anyone to whom the record is subsequently disclosed together with, at the discretion of the Agency, a brief statement summarizing the Agency's reasons for declining to amend the record; and
(ii) Will be supplied, together with any Agency statements, to any prior recipients of the disputed record to the extent that an accounting of disclosure was made.
(g) To the extent that portions of systems of records described in notices of Government-wide systems of records published by the Office of Personnel Management are identified by those notices as being subject to the management of an officer of this Agency, or an officer of the Agency is designated as the official to contact for information, access, or contents of those records, individual requests for access to those records, requests for their amendment, and review of denials of requests for amendment will be in accordance with the provisions of 5 CFR 297.101 through 297.501, as promulgated by the Office of Personnel Management. To the extent that portions of systems of records described in notices of Government-wide systems of records published by the Department of Labor are identified by those notices as being subject to the management of an officer of the Agency, or an officer of the Agency is designated as the official to contact for information, access, or contents of those records, individual requests for access to those records, requests for their amendment, and review of denials of requests for amendment will be in accordance with the provisions of this section. Review of a refusal to inform an individual whether such a system of records contains a record pertaining to that individual and review of a refusal to grant an individual's request for access to a record in such a system may be obtained in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section.
(h) Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), the system of records maintained by the Office of the Inspector General of the National Labor Relations Board that contains Investigative Files will be exempted from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a, except subsections (b), (c)(1) and (2), (e)(4)(A) through (F), (e)(6), (7), (9), (10), and (11), and (i), from 29 CFR 102.117(c) and (d), and from 29 CFR 102.119(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f), insofar as the system contains investigatory material compiled for criminal law enforcement purposes.
(i) Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), the system of records maintained by the Office of the Inspector General of the National Labor Relations Board that contains the Investigative Files must be exempted from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f), from 29 CFR 102.117(c) and (d), and from 29 CFR 102.119(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f), insofar as the system contains investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes not within the scope of the exemption at 29 CFR 102.119(h).
(j) Privacy Act exemptions contained in paragraphs (h) and (i) of this section are justified for the following reasons:
(1) 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) requires an agency to make the accounting of each disclosure of records available to the individual named in the record at that individual's request. These accountings must state the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure of a record and the name and address of the recipient. Accounting for each disclosure would alert the subjects of an investigation to the existence of the investigation and the fact that they are subjects of the investigation. The release of such information to the subjects of an investigation would provide them with significant information concerning the nature of the investigation and could seriously impede or compromise the investigation, endanger the physical safety of confidential sources, witnesses, law enforcement personnel, and their families and lead to the improper influencing of witnesses, the destruction of evidence, or the fabrication of testimony.
(2) 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(4) requires an agency to inform any person or other agency about any correction or notation of dispute made by the agency in accordance with subsection (d) of the Act. Since this system of records is being exempted from subsection (d) of the Act, concerning access to records, this section is inapplicable to the extent that this system of records will be exempted from subsection (d) of the Act.
(3) 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) requires an agency to permit an individual to gain access to records pertaining to the individual, to request amendment to such records, to request a review of an agency decision not to amend such records, and to contest the information contained in such records. Granting access to records in this system of records could inform the subject of an investigation of an actual or potential criminal violation, of the existence of that investigation, of the nature and scope of the information and evidence obtained as to the individual's activities, or of the identity of confidential sources, witnesses, and law enforcement personnel and could provide information to enable the subject to avoid detection or apprehension. Granting access to such information could seriously impede or compromise an investigation, endanger the physical safety of confidential sources, witnesses, law enforcement personnel, and their families, lead to the improper influencing of witnesses, the destruction of evidence, or the fabrication of testimony, and disclose investigative
(4) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(1) requires each agency to maintain in its records only such information about an individual as is relevant and necessary to accomplish a purpose of the agency required by statute or by executive order of the President. The application of this provision could impair investigations and law enforcement because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of specific information in the early stages of an investigation. Relevance and necessity are often questions of judgment and timing, and it is only after the information is evaluated that the relevance and necessity of such information can be established. In addition, during the course of the investigation, the investigator may obtain information which is incidental to the main purpose of the investigative jurisdiction of another agency. Such information cannot readily be segregated. Furthermore, during the course of the investigation, the investigator may obtain information concerning the violation of laws other than those which are within scope of the investigator's jurisdiction. In the interest of effective law enforcement, OIG investigators may retain this information, since it can aid in establishing patterns of criminal activity and can provide valuable leads for other law enforcement agencies.
(5) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(2) requires an agency to collect information to the greatest extent practicable directly from the subject individual when the information may result in adverse determinations about an individual's rights, benefits, and privileges under Federal programs. The application of this provision could impair investigations and law enforcement by alerting the subject of an investigation, thereby enabling the subject to avoid detection or apprehension, to influence witnesses improperly, to destroy evidence, or to fabricate testimony. Moreover, in certain circumstances, the subject of an investigation cannot be required to provide information to investigators and information must be collected from other sources. Furthermore, it is often necessary to collect information from sources other than the subject of the investigation to verify the accuracy of the evidence collected.
(6) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(3) requires an agency to inform each person whom it asks to supply information, on a form that can be retained by the person, of the authority under which the information is sought and whether disclosure is mandatory or voluntary; of the principal purposes for which the information is intended to be used; of the routine uses which may be made of the information; and of the effects on the person, if any, of not providing all or any part of the requested information. The application of this provision could provide the subject of an investigation with substantial information about the nature of that investigation that could interfere with the investigation. Moreover, providing such a notice to the subject of an investigation could seriously impede or compromise an undercover investigation by revealing its existence and could endanger the physical safety of confidential sources, witnesses, and investigators by revealing their identities.
(7) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(G) and (H) require an agency to publish a
(8) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(I) requires an agency to publish a
(9) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(5) requires an agency to maintain its records with such accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness as is reasonably necessary to assure fairness to the individual in making any determination about the individual. Since the Act defines
(10) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(8) requires an agency to make reasonable efforts to serve notice on an individual when any record on such individual is made available to any person under compulsory legal process when such process becomes a matter of public record. Complying with this provision could prematurely reveal an ongoing criminal investigation to the subject of the investigation.
(11) 5 U.S.C. 552a(f)(1) requires an agency to promulgate rules that establish procedures whereby an individual can be notified in response to the individual's request if any system of records named by the individual contains a record pertaining to the individual. The application of this provision could impede or compromise an investigation or prosecution if the subject of an investigation were able to use such rules to learn of the existence of an investigation before it could be completed. In addition, mere notice of the fact of an investigation could inform the subject and others that their activities are under or may become the subject of an investigation and could enable the subjects to avoid detection or apprehension, to influence witnesses improperly, to destroy evidence, or to fabricate testimony. Since this system would be exempt from subsection (d) of the Act, concerning access to records, the requirements of subsection (f)(2) through (5) of the Act, concerning agency rules for obtaining access to such records, are inapplicable to the extent that this system of records will be exempted from subsection (d) of the Act. Although this system would be exempt from the requirements of
(12) 5 U.S.C. 552a(g) provides for civil remedies if an agency fails to comply with the requirements concerning access to records under subsections (d)(1) and (3) of the Act; maintenance of records under subsection (e)(5) of the Act; and any other provision of the Act, or any rule promulgated thereunder, in such a way as to have an adverse effect on an individual. Since this system of records would be exempt from subsections (c) (3) and (4), (d), (e)(1), (2), and (3) and (4)(G) through (I), (e)(5), and (8), and (f) of the Act, the provisions of subsection (g) of the Act would be inapplicable to the extent that this system of records will be exempted from those subsections of the Act.
(k) Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), the system of records maintained by the NLRB containing Agency Disciplinary Case Files (Nonemployees) are exempt from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4) (G), (H), and (I), and (f) insofar as the system contains investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes other than material within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
(l) The Privacy Act exemption set forth in paragraph (k) of this section is claimed on the ground that the requirements of subsections (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4) (G), (H), and (I), and (f) of the Privacy Act, if applied to Agency Disciplinary Case Files, would seriously impair the ability of the NLRB to conduct investigations of alleged or suspected violations of the NLRB's misconduct rules, as set forth in paragraphs (j)(1), (3), (4), (7), (8), and (11) of this section.
(m) Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes that is contained in the Next Generation Case Management System (NxGen) (NLRB-33), are exempt from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f). This information was formerly contained within the following legacy systems, which remain accessible and which also are exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), as follows:
(1) The following three legacy systems of records are exempt in their entirety from provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f), because the systems contain investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2): Case Activity Tracking System (CATS) and Associated Regional Office Files (NLRB-25), Regional Advice and Injunction Litigation System (RAILS) and Associated Headquarters Files (NLRB-28), and Appeals Case Tracking System (ACTS) and Associated Headquarters Files (NLRB-30).
(2) Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), limited categories of information from the following four systems of records are exempt from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f), insofar as the systems contain investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2):
(i) The legacy Judicial Case Management Systems-Pending Case List (JCMS-PCL) and Associated Headquarters Files (NLRB-21)—information relating to requests to file injunctions under 29 U.S.C. 160(j), requests to initiate federal court contempt proceedings, certain requests that the Board initiate litigation or intervene in non-Agency litigation, and any other investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes;
(ii) The legacy Solicitor's System (SOL) and Associated Headquarters Files (NLRB-23)—information relating to requests to file injunctions under 29 U.S.C. 160(j), requests to initiate federal court contempt proceedings, certain requests that the Board initiate litigation or intervene in non-Agency litigation, and any other investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes;
(iii) The legacy Special Litigation Case Tracking System (SPLIT) and Associated Headquarters Files (NLRB-27)—information relating to investigative subpoena enforcement cases, injunction and mandamus actions regarding Agency cases under investigation, bankruptcy case information in matters under investigation, Freedom of Information Act cases involving investigatory records, certain requests that the Board initiate litigation or intervene in non-Agency litigation, and any other investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes; and
(iv) The Freedom of Information Act Tracking System (FTS) and Associated Agency Files (NLRB-32)—information requested under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, that relates to the Agency's investigation of unfair labor practice and representation cases or other proceedings described in paragraphs (m)(1) and (2) of this section.
(n) The reasons for exemption under 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) are as follows:
(1) 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) requires an agency to make the accounting of each disclosure of records available to the individual named in the record at such individual's request. These accountings must state the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure of a record, and the name and address of the recipient. Providing such an accounting of investigatory information to a party in an unfair labor practice or representation matter under investigation could inform that individual of the precise scope of an Agency investigation, or the existence or scope of another law enforcement investigation. Accordingly, this Privacy Act requirement could seriously impede or compromise either the Agency's investigation, or another law enforcement investigation, by causing the improper influencing of witnesses, retaliation against witnesses, destruction of evidence, or fabrication of testimony.
(2) 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) requires an agency to permit an individual to gain access to records pertaining to such individual, to request amendment to such records, to request review of an agency decision not to amend such records, and, where the Agency refuses to amend records, to submit a statement of disagreement to be included with the records. Such disclosure of investigatory information could seriously impede or compromise the Agency's investigation by revealing the identity of confidential sources or confidential business information, or causing the improper influencing of witnesses, retaliation against witnesses, destruction of evidence, fabrication of testimony, or unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others. Amendment of the records could interfere with ongoing law enforcement proceedings and impose an undue administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continuously reinvestigated.
(3) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(1) requires an agency to maintain in its records only such information about an individual as is relevant and necessary to accomplish a purpose of the agency required by statute or by executive order of the President. This requirement could foreclose investigators from acquiring or receiving information the relevance and necessity of which is not readily apparent and could only be ascertained after a complete review and evaluation of all the evidence.
(4) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(G) and (H) require an agency to publish a
(5) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(I) requires an agency to publish a
(6) 5 U.S.C. 552a(f) requires an agency to promulgate rules for notifying individuals of Privacy Act rights granted by subsection (d) of the Act concerning access and amendment of records. Because certain information from these systems is exempt from subsection (d) of the Act, the requirements of subsection (f) of the Act are inapplicable to that information.
Former officers and employees of the Agency who were attached to any of its Regional Offices or the Washington staff are subject to the applicable post-employment restrictions imposed by 18 U.S.C. 207. Guidance concerning those restrictions may be obtained from the Designated Agency Ethics Officer and any applicable regulations issued by the Office of Government Ethics.
The Rules and Regulations in this part will be liberally construed to effectuate the purposes and provisions of the Act.
Any interested person may petition the Board, in writing, for the issuance, amendment, or repeal of a rule or regulation. An original of such petition must be filed with the Board and must state the rule or regulation proposed to be issued, amended, or repealed, together with a statement of grounds in support of such petition.
Upon the filing of such petition, the Board will consider the same and may either grant or deny the petition in whole or in part, conduct an appropriate hearing thereon, or make other disposition of the petition. Should the petition be denied in whole or in part, prompt notice will be given of the denial, accompanied by a simple statement of the grounds unless the denial is self-explanatory.
(a) No interested person outside this Agency may, in an on-the-record proceeding of the types defined in § 102.128, make or knowingly cause to be made any prohibited
(b) No Board agent of the categories defined in § 102.128, participating in a particular proceeding as defined in that section, may:
(i) Request any prohibited
(ii) Make or knowingly cause to be made any prohibited
(a) The term
Unless otherwise provided by specific order of the Board entered in the proceeding, the prohibition of § 102.126 will be applicable in the following types of on-the-record proceedings to unauthorized
(a) In a pre-election proceeding pursuant to Section 9(c)(1) or 9(e), or in a unit clarification or certification amendment proceeding pursuant to Section 9(b) of the Act, in which a formal hearing is held, communications to the Regional Director and the Director's staff who review the record and prepare a draft of the decision, and Board Members and their staff, from the time the hearing is opened.
(b) In a postelection proceeding pursuant to Section 9(c)(1) or 9(e) of the Act, in which a formal hearing is held, communications to the Hearing Officer, the Regional Director and the Director's staff who review the record and prepare a draft of the report or decision, and Board Members and their staff, from the time the hearing is opened.
(c) In a postelection proceeding pursuant to Section 9(c)(1) or 9(e), or in a unit clarification or certification amendment proceeding pursuant to Section 9(b) of the Act, in which no formal hearing is held, communications to Board Members and their staff, from the time the Regional Director's report or decision is issued.
(d) In a proceeding pursuant to Section 10(k) of the Act, communications to Board Members and their staff, from the time the hearing is opened.
(e) In an unfair labor practice proceeding pursuant to Section 10(b) of the Act, communications to the Administrative Law Judge assigned to hear the case or to make rulings upon any motions or issues therein and Board Members and their staff, from the time the complaint and/or Notice of Hearing is issued, or the time the communicator has knowledge that a complaint or Notice of Hearing will be issued, whichever occurs first.
(f) In any other proceeding to which the Board by specific order makes the prohibition applicable, to the categories of personnel and from the stage of the proceeding specified in the order.
Except as provided in § 102.130,
(a) Such communications, when written, if copies are not contemporaneously served by the communicator on all parties to the proceeding in accordance with the provisions of § 102.5(g).
(b) Such communications, when oral, unless advance notice is given by the communicator to all parties in the proceeding and adequate opportunity afforded to them to be present.
(a) Which relate solely to matters which the Hearing Officer, Regional Director, Administrative Law Judge, or Board Member is authorized by law or Board Rules to entertain or dispose of on an
(b) For information solely with respect to the status of a proceeding.
(c) Which all the parties to the proceeding agree, or which the responsible official formally rules, may be made on an
(d) Proposing settlement or an agreement for disposition of any or all issues in the proceeding.
(e) Which concern matters of general significance to the field of labor-management relations or administrative practice and which are not specifically related to pending on-the-record proceedings.
(f) From the General Counsel to the Board when the General Counsel is acting as counsel for the Board.
No person may knowingly and willfully solicit the making of an unauthorized
(a) Any Board agent of the categories defined in § 102.128 to whom a prohibited oral
(1) The communication, if it was written;
(2) A memorandum stating the substance of the communication, if it was oral;
(3) All written responses to the prohibited communication; and
(4) Memoranda stating the substance of all oral responses to the prohibited communication.
(b) The Executive Secretary, if the proceeding is then pending before the Board, the Administrative Law Judge, if the proceeding is then pending before any such judge, or the Regional Director, if the proceeding is then pending before a Hearing Officer or the Regional Director, will serve copies of all such materials placed on the public record of the proceeding on all other parties to the proceeding and on the attorneys of record for the parties. Within 14 days after service of such copies, any party may file with the Executive Secretary, Administrative Law Judge, or Regional Director serving the communication, and serve on all other parties, a statement setting forth facts or contentions to rebut those contained in the prohibited communication. All such responses will be placed in the public record of the proceeding, and provision may be made for any further action, including reopening of the record which may be required under the circumstances. No action taken pursuant to this provision will constitute a waiver of the power of the Board to impose an appropriate penalty under § 102.133.
(a) Where the nature and circumstances of a prohibited communication made by or caused to be made by a party to the proceeding are such that the interests of justice and statutory policy may require remedial action, the Board, the Administrative Law Judge, or the Regional Director, as the case may be, may issue to the party making the communication a Notice to Show Cause, returnable before the Board within a stated period not less than 7 days from the date of issuance, why the Board may not determine that the interests of justice and statutory policy require that the claim or interest in the proceeding of a party who knowingly makes a prohibited communication, or knowingly causes a prohibited communication to be made may be dismissed, denied, disregarded, or otherwise adversely affected on account of such violation.
(b) Upon notice and hearing, the Board may censure, suspend, or revoke the privilege of practice before the Agency of any person who knowingly and willfully makes or solicits the making of a prohibited
(c) The Board may censure, or, to the extent permitted by law, suspend, dismiss, or institute proceedings for the dismissal of, any Board agent who knowingly and willfully violates the prohibitions and requirements of this rule.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Advisory committees may from time to time be established or used by the Agency in the interest of obtaining advice or recommendations on issues of concern to the Agency. The establishment, use, and functioning of such committees will be in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. 2, applicable Rules and Regulations.
Every portion of every meeting of the Board will be open to public observation, except as provided in § 102.139, and Board Members will not jointly conduct or dispose of Agency business other than in accordance with the provisions of this subpart.
For purposes of this subpart,
(a) Except where the Board determines that the public interest requires otherwise, meetings, or portions thereof, will not be open to public observation where the deliberations concern the issuance of a subpoena, the Board's participation in a civil action or proceeding or an arbitration, or the initiation, conduct, or disposition by the Board of particular representation or unfair labor practice proceedings under Section 8, 9, or 10 of the Act, or any court proceedings collateral or ancillary thereto.
(b) Meetings, or portions thereof, may also be closed by the Board, except where it determines that the public interest requires otherwise, when the deliberations concern matters or information falling within the reasons for closing meetings specified in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(1) (secret matters concerning national defense or foreign policy); (c)(2) (internal personnel rules and practices); (c)(3) (matters specifically exempted from disclosure by statute); (c)(4) (privileged or confidential trade secrets and commercial or financial information); (c)(5) (matters of alleged criminal conduct or formal censure); (c)(6) (personal information where disclosure would cause a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy); (c)(7) (certain materials or information from investigatory files compiled for law enforcement purposes); or (c)(9)(B) (disclosure would significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed Agency action).
A meeting will be closed to public observation under § 102.139, only when a majority of the Board Members who will participate in the meeting vote to take such action.
(a) When the meeting deliberations concern matters specified in § 102.139(a), the Board Members will vote at the beginning of the meeting, or portion of the meeting, on whether to close such meeting, or portion of the meeting, to public observation, and on whether the public interest requires that a meeting which may properly be closed may nevertheless be open to public observation. A record of such vote, reflecting the vote of each Board Member, will be kept and made available to the public at the earliest practicable time.
(b) When the meeting deliberations concern matters specified in § 102.139(b), the Board will vote on whether to close such meeting, or portion of the meeting, to public observation, and on whether there is a public interest which requires that a meeting which may properly be closed may nevertheless be open to public observation. The vote will be taken at a time sufficient to permit inclusion of information concerning the open or closed status of the meeting in the public announcement of the vote. A single vote may be taken with respect to a series of meetings at which the deliberations will concern the same particular matters where such subsequent meetings are scheduled to be held within 30 days after the initial meeting. A record of such vote, reflecting the vote of each Board Member, will be kept and made available to the public within one day after the vote is taken.
(c) Whenever any person whose interests may be directly affected by deliberations during a meeting, or a portion of a meeting, requests that the Board close the meeting, or a portion of the meeting, to public observation for any of the reasons specified in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(5) (matters of alleged criminal conduct or formal censure), (c)(6) (personal information where disclosure would cause a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy), or (c)(7) (certain materials or information from investigatory files compiled for law enforcement purposes), the Board Members participating in the meeting, upon request of any one of its Members, will vote on whether to close such meeting, or a portion of the meeting, for that reason. A record of such vote, reflecting the vote of each Board Member participating in the meeting will be kept and made available to the public within 1 day after the vote is taken.
(d) After public announcement of a meeting as provided in § 102.141, a meeting, or portion of a meeting, announced as closed may be opened, or a meeting, or portion of a meeting, announced as open may be closed, only if a majority of the Board Members who will participate in the meeting determine by a recorded vote that Board business so requires and that an earlier announcement of the change was not possible. The change made and the vote of each Board Member on the change will be announced publicly at the earliest practicable time.
(e) Before a meeting may be closed pursuant to § 102.139, the Solicitor of the Board will certify that in the Solicitor's opinion the meeting may
(a) A public announcement setting forth the time, place, and subject matter of meetings or portions of meetings closed to public observation pursuant to the provisions of § 102.139(a) will be made at the earliest practicable time.
(b) Except for meetings closed to public observation pursuant to the provisions of § 102.139(a), the Agency will publicly announce each meeting to be held at least 7 days before the scheduled date of the meeting. The announcement will specify the time, place, and subject matter of the meeting, whether it is to be open to public observation or closed, and the name, address, and phone number of an Agency official designated to respond to requests for information about the meeting. The 7-day period for advance notice may be shortened only upon a determination by a majority of the Board Members who will participate in the meeting that Agency business requires that such meeting be called at an earlier date, in which event the public announcements will be made at the earliest practicable time. A record of the vote to schedule a meeting at an earlier date will be kept and made available to the public.
(c) Within 1 day after the vote to close a meeting, or any portion of a meeting, pursuant to the provisions of § 102.139(b), the Agency will make publicly available a full written explanation of its action closing the meeting, or portion of a meeting, together with a list of all persons expected to attend the meeting and their affiliation.
(d) If after public announcement required by paragraph (b) of this section has been made, the time and place of the meeting are changed, a public announcement will be made at the earliest practicable time. The subject matter of the meeting may be changed after the public announcement only if a majority of the Members of the Board who will participate in the meeting determine that Agency business so requires and that no earlier announcement of the change was possible. When such a change in subject matter is approved a public announcement of the change will be made at the earliest practicable time. A record of the vote to change the subject matter of the meeting will be kept and made available to the public.
(e) All announcements or changes issued pursuant to the provisions of paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section, or pursuant to provisions of § 102.140(d), will be submitted for publication in the
(f) Announcements of meetings made pursuant to the provisions of this section shall be made publicly available by the executive secretary.
(a) For every meeting or portion of a meeting closed under the provisions of § 102.139, the presiding officer will prepare a statement setting forth the time and place of the meeting and the persons present, which statement will be retained by the Agency. For each such meeting or portion of a meeting there will also be maintained a complete transcript or electronic recording of the proceedings, except that for meetings closed pursuant to § 102.139(a) the Board may, in lieu of a transcript or electronic recording, maintain a set of minutes fully and accurately summarizing any action taken, the reasons for taking the action, and views on the action taken, documents considered, and the Board Members' vote on each roll call vote.
(b) The Agency will promptly make available to the public copies of transcripts, recordings, or minutes maintained as provided in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, except to the extent the items contain information which the Agency determines may be withheld pursuant to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552(c). Copies of transcripts or minutes, or transcriptions of electronic recordings including the identification of speakers, will, to the extent determined to be publicly available, be furnished to any person, subject to the payment of duplication costs in accordance with the schedule of fees set forth in § 102.117(c)(2)(iv), and the actual cost of transcription.
(c) The Agency will maintain a complete verbatim copy of the transcript, a complete electronic recording, or a complete set of the minutes for each meeting or portion of a meeting closed to the public, for a period of at least one year after the close of the Agency proceeding of which the meeting was a part, but in no event for a period of less than 2 years after such meeting.
(a) The term
(b) A Respondent in an adversary adjudication who prevails in that proceeding, or in a significant and discrete substantive portion of that proceeding, and who otherwise meets the eligibility requirements of this section, is eligible to apply for an award of fees and other expenses allowable under the provisions of § 102.145.
(c) Applicants eligible to receive an award are as follows:
(1) An individual with a net worth of not more than $2 million;
(2) A sole owner of an unincorporated business who has a net worth of not more than $7 million, including both personal and business interests, and not more than 500 employees;
(3) A charitable or other tax-exempt organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) with not more than 500 employees;
(4) A cooperative association as defined in Section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)) with not more than 500 employees; and
(5) Any other partnership, corporation, association, unit of local government, or public or private organization with a net worth of not more than $7 million and not more than 500 employees.
(d) For the purpose of eligibility, the net worth and number of employees of an applicant will be determined as of the date of the complaint in an unfair labor practice proceeding or the date of the Notice of Hearing in a backpay proceeding.
(g) The net worth and number of employees of the applicant and all of its affiliates will be aggregated to determine eligibility. Any individual, corporation, or other entity that directly or indirectly controls or owns a majority of the voting shares or other interest of the applicant, or any corporation or other entity of which the applicant directly or indirectly owns or controls a majority of the voting shares or other interest, will
(b) No award for the attorney or agent fees under these Rules may exceed $75 per hour. However, an award may also include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agent, or witness as a separate item, if the attorney, agent, or expert witness ordinarily charges clients separately for such expenses.
(c) In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought for an attorney, agent, or expert witness, the following matters will be considered:
(1) If the attorney, agent, or expert witness is in practice, that person's customary fee for similar services, or, if an employee of the applicant, the fully allocated cost of the services;
(2) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent, or expert witness ordinarily performs services;
(3) The time actually spent in the representation of the applicant; and
(4) The time reasonably spent in light of the difficulty or complexity of the issues in the adversary adjudicative proceeding.
Any person may file with the Board a petition under § 102.124 for rulemaking to increase the maximum rate for attorney or agent fees. The petition should specify the rate the petitioner believes may be established and explain fully why the higher rate is warranted by an increase in the cost of living or a special factor (such as the limited availability of qualified attorneys or agents for the proceedings involved).
(a) An application for an award of fees and expenses under the Act must identify the applicant and the adversary adjudication for which an award is sought. The application must state the particulars in which the applicant has prevailed and identify the positions of the General Counsel in that proceeding that the applicant alleges were not substantially justified. Unless the applicant is an individual, the application must also state the number, category, and work location of employees of the applicant and its affiliates and describe briefly the type and purpose of its organization or business.
(b) The application must include a statement that the applicant's net worth does not exceed $2 million (if an individual) or $7 million (for all other applicants, including their affiliates). However, an applicant may omit this statement if:
(1) It attaches a copy of a ruling by the Internal Revenue Service that it qualifies as an organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) or, in the case of a tax-exempt organization not required to obtain a ruling from the Internal Revenue Service on its exempt status, a statement that describes the basis for the applicant's belief that it qualifies under such Section; or
(2) It states that it is a cooperative association as defined in Section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)).
(c) The application must state the amount of fees and expenses for which an award is sought.
(e) The application must be signed by the applicant or an authorized officer or attorney of the applicant. It must also contain or be accompanied by a written verification under oath or under penalty of perjury that the information provided in the application is true.
(f) Each applicant, except a qualified tax-exempt organization or cooperative association, must provide with its application a detailed exhibit showing the net worth of the applicant and any affiliates (as defined in § 102.143(g)) when the adversary adjudicative proceeding was initiated. The exhibit may be in any form convenient to the applicant that provides full disclosure of the applicant's and its affiliates' assets and liabilities and is sufficient to determine whether the applicant qualifies under the standards in this part. The Administrative Law Judge may require an applicant to file such additional information as may be required to determine its eligibility for an award.
(g)(1) Unless otherwise directed by the Administrative Law Judge, the net worth exhibit will be included in the public record of the fee application proceeding. An applicant that objects to public disclosure of information in any portion of the exhibit may submit that portion of the exhibit in a sealed envelope labeled
(2) If the Administrative Law Judge grants the motion to withhold from public disclosure, the exhibit will remain sealed, except to the extent that its contents are required to be disclosed at a hearing. The granting of the motion to withhold from public disclosure will not determine the availability of the document under the Freedom of Information Act in response to a request made under the provisions of § 102.117. Notwithstanding that the exhibit may be withheld from public disclosure, the General Counsel may disclose information from the exhibit to others if required in the course of an investigation to verify the claim of eligibility.
(h) The application must be accompanied by full documentation of the fees and expenses for which an award is sought. A separate itemized statement must be submitted for each professional firm or individual whose services are covered by the application, showing the dates and the hours spent in connection with the proceeding by each individual, a description of the specific services performed, the rate at which each fee has been computed, any expenses for which reimbursement is sought, the total amount claimed, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services provided. The Administrative Law Judge may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, or other substantiation for any expenses claimed.
(a) An application may be filed after entry of the final order establishing that the applicant has prevailed in an adversary adjudication proceeding or in a significant and discrete substantive portion of that proceeding, but in no case later than 30 days after the entry of the Board's final order in that proceeding. The application for an award must be filed with the Board in Washington, DC, together with a certificate of service. The application must be served on the Regional Director and on all parties to the adversary adjudication in the same manner as other pleadings in that proceeding, except as provided in § 102.147(g)(1) for financial information alleged to be confidential.
(b) Upon filing, the application will be referred by the Board to the Administrative Law Judge who heard the adversary adjudication upon which the application is based, or, in the event that proceeding had not previously been heard by an Administrative Law Judge, it will be referred to the Chief Administrative Law Judge for designation of an Administrative Law Judge, in accordance with § 102.34, to consider the application. When the Administrative Law Judge to whom the application has been referred is or becomes unavailable, the provisions of §§ 102.34 and 102.36 will apply.
(c) Proceedings for the award of fees, but not the time limit of this section for filing an application for an award, will be stayed pending final disposition of the adversary adjudication in the event any person seeks reconsideration or review of the decision in that proceeding.
(d) For purposes of this section the withdrawal of a complaint by a Regional Director under § 102.18 will be treated as a final order, and an appeal under § 102.19 will be treated as a request for reconsideration of that final order.
(a) All motions and pleadings after the time the case is referred by the Board to the Administrative Law Judge until the issuance of the Administrative Law Judge's decision must be filed with the Administrative Law Judge together with proof of service. Copies of all documents filed must be served on all parties to the adversary adjudication.
(b) Motions for extensions of time to file motions, documents, or pleadings permitted by § 102.150 or by § 102.152 must be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, the Deputy Chief Administrative Law Judge, or an Associate Chief Administrative Law Judge, as the case may be, no later than 3 days before the due date of the document. Notice of the request must be immediately served on all other parties and proof of service furnished.
(a) Within 35 days after service of an application, the General Counsel may file an answer to the application. Unless the General Counsel requests an extension of time for filing or files a statement of intent to negotiate under paragraph (b) of this section, failure to file a timely answer may be treated as a consent to the award requested. The filing of a motion to dismiss the application will stay the time for filing an answer to a date 35 days after issuance of any order denying the motion. Within 21 days after service of any motion to dismiss, the applicant may file a response. Review of an order granting a motion to dismiss an application in its entirety may be obtained by filing a request with the Board in Washington, DC, pursuant to § 102.27.
(b) If the General Counsel and the applicant believe that the issues in the fee application can be settled, they may jointly file a statement of their intent to negotiate toward a settlement. The filing of such a statement will extend the time for filing an answer for an additional 35 days.
(c) The answer must explain in detail any objections to the award requested and identify the facts relied on in support of the General Counsel's position. If the answer is based on alleged facts not already in the record of the adversary adjudication, supporting affidavits must be provided or a request made for further proceedings under § 102.152.
(d) Within 21 days after service of an answer, the applicant may file a reply. If the reply is based on alleged facts not already in the record of the adversary adjudication, supporting affidavits must be provided or a request made for further proceedings under § 102.152.
(e) Any party to an adversary adjudication other than the applicant and the General Counsel may file comments on a fee application within 35 days after it is served and on an answer within 21 days after it is served. A commenting party may not participate further in the fee application proceeding unless the Administrative Law Judge determines that such participation is required in order to permit full exploration of matters raised in the comments.
The applicant and the General Counsel may agree on a proposed settlement of the award before final action on the application. If a prevailing party and the General Counsel agree on a proposed settlement of an award before an application has been filed, the proposed settlement must be filed with the application. All such settlements are subject to approval by the Board.
(a) Ordinarily, the determination of an award will be made on the basis of the documents in the record. The Administrative Law Judge, however, upon request of either the applicant or the General Counsel, or on the General Counsel's own initiative, may order further proceedings, including an informal conference, oral argument, additional written submission, or an evidentiary hearing. An evidentiary hearing will be held only when necessary for resolution of material issues of fact.
(b) A request that the Administrative Law Judge order further proceedings under this section must specifically identify the disputed issues and the evidence sought to be adduced, and must explain why the additional proceedings are necessary to resolve the issues.
(c) An order of the Administrative Law Judge scheduling further proceedings will specify the issues to be considered.
(d) Any evidentiary hearing held pursuant to this section will be open to the public and will be conducted in accordance with §§ 102.30 through 102.43, except §§ 102.33, 102.34, and 102.38.
(e) Rulings of the Administrative Law Judge are reviewable by the Board only in accordance with the provisions of § 102.26.
(a) Upon conclusion of proceedings under §§ 102.147 through 102.152, the Administrative Law Judge will prepare a decision, which will include written findings and conclusions as necessary to dispose of the application. The Administrative Law Judge will transmit the decision to the Board. Upon receipt of the decision, the Board will enter an order transferring the case to the Board and will serve copies on all the parties of the Judge's decision and the Board's order, setting forth the date of the transfer.
(b) The record in a proceeding on an application for an award of fees and expenses includes the application and any amendments or attachments, the net worth exhibit, the answer and any amendments or attachments, any reply to the answer, any comments by other parties, motions, rulings, orders, stipulations, written submissions, the transcript of any oral argument, the transcript of any hearing, exhibits, and depositions, together with the Administrative Law Judge's decision and exceptions, any cross-exceptions or answering briefs as provided in § 102.46, and the record of the adversary adjudication upon which the application is based.
Procedures before the Board, including the filing of exceptions to the Administrative Law Judge's decision and briefs, and action by the Board, will be in accordance with §§ 102.46, 102.47, 102.48, and 102.50. The Board will issue a decision on the application or remand the proceeding to the Administrative Law Judge for further proceedings.
To obtain payment of an award made by the Board, the applicant must submit to the Director of the Division of Administration, a copy of the Board's final decision granting the award, accompanied by a statement that the applicant will not seek court review of the decision. If such statement is filed, the Agency will pay the amount of the award within 60 days, unless judicial review of the award or of the underlying decision has been sought.
The regulations in this subpart specify the Agency procedures that will be followed to implement the administrative offset procedures set forth in the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-365), 31 U.S.C. 3716.
(e) A debt is considered
(a)(1) The Agency is not authorized by the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (31 U.S.C. 3716) to use administrative offset with respect to:
(i) Debts owed by any State or local government;
(ii) Debts arising under or payments made under the Social Security Act, the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, or the tariff laws of the United States; or
(iii) When a statute explicitly provides for or prohibits using administrative offset to collect the claim or type of claim involved.
(2) No claim that has been outstanding for more than 10 years after the Board's right to collect the debt first accrued may be collected by means of administrative offset, unless facts material to the right to collect the debt were not known, and could not reasonably have been known, by the official of the Agency who was charged with the responsibility to discover and collect such debts until within 10 years of the initiation of the collection action. A determination of when the debt first accrued may be made according to existing laws regarding the accrual of debts, such as under 28 U.S.C. 2415. Unless otherwise provided by contract or law, debts or payments owed the Board which are not subject to administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 may be collected by administrative offset under the common law or other applicable statutory authority, pursuant to this paragraph (a) or Board regulations established pursuant to such other statutory authority.
(b) Collection by offset against a judgment obtained by a debtor against the United States will be accomplished in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3728.
(a) The Agency will provide appropriate written or other guidance to Agency officials in carrying out this subpart, including the issuance of guidelines and instructions. The Agency will also take such administrative steps as may be appropriate to carry out the purposes and ensure the effective implementation of this subpart.
(d) Administrative offset must be considered by the Agency only after attempting to collect a claim under 31 U.S.C. 3711(a).
(a) The Agency must send a written demand to the debtor in terms which inform the debtor of the consequences of failure to cooperate. In the demand letter, the Agency must provide the name of an Agency employee who can provide a full explanation of the claim. When the Agency deems it appropriate to protect the Government's interests (for example, to prevent the statute of limitations, 28 U.S.C. 2415, from expiring), written demand may be preceded by other appropriate actions.
(b) In accordance with guidelines established by the Agency, the Agency official responsible for collection of the debt must send written notice to the debtor, informing the debtor, as appropriate, of the:
(1) Nature and amount of the Board's claim;
(2) Date by which payment is to be made (which normally may be not more than 30 days from the date that the initial notification was mailed or hand delivered);
(3) Agency's intent to collect by administrative offset and of the debtor's rights in conjunction with such an offset;
(4) Agency's intent to collect, as appropriate, interest, penalties, administrative costs and attorneys fees;
(5) Rights of the debtor to a full explanation of the claim, of the opportunity to inspect and copy Agency records with respect to the claim and to dispute any information in the Agency's records concerning the claim;
(6) Debtor's right to administrative appeal or review within the Agency concerning the Agency's claim and how such review must be obtained;
(7) Debtor's opportunity to enter into a written agreement with the Agency to repay the debt; and
(8) Date on which, or after which, an administrative offset will begin.
(a) The Agency must afford the debtor the opportunity to repay the debt or enter into a repayment plan which is agreeable to the Agency and is in a written form signed by the debtor. The Agency may deem a repayment plan to be abrogated if the debtor, after the repayment plan is signed, fails to comply with the terms of the plan.
(b) The Agency has discretion and may exercise sound judgment in determining whether to accept a repayment agreement in lieu of administrative offset.
(e) Nothing in this subpart will preclude the Agency from
The regulations in this subpart specify the Agency procedures that will be followed to implement the federal income tax refund offset procedures set forth in 26 U.S.C. 6402(d) of the Internal Revenue Code (Code), 31 U.S.C. 3720A, and 301.6402-6 of the Treasury Regulations on Procedure and Administration (26 CFR 301.6402-6). This statute and the implementing regulations of the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) at 26 CFR 301.6402-6 authorize the IRS to reduce a tax refund by the amount of a past-due legally enforceable debt owed to the United States. The regulations apply to past-due legally enforceable debts owed to the Agency by individuals and business entities. The regulations are not intended to limit or restrict debtor access to any judicial remedies to which the debtor may otherwise be entitled.
(a)
(b)
(a) * * *
(3) The amount of the debt; and
(b) The Agency will ensure the confidentiality of taxpayer information as required by the IRS in its Tax Information Security Guidelines.
(c) As necessary, the Agency will submit updated information at the times and in the manner prescribed by the IRS to reflect changes in the status of debts or debtors referred for tax refund offset.
(d) Amounts erroneously offset will be refunded by the Agency or the IRS in accordance with the Memorandum of Understanding.
(a) Tax refund offset is intended to be an administrative collection remedy to be used consistent with IRS requirements for participation in the program, and the costs and benefits of pursuing alternative remedies when the tax refund offset program is readily available. To the extent practical, the requirements of the program will be met by merging IRS requirements into the Agency's overall requirements for delinquent debt collection.
(a) The Agency must send appropriate written demand to the debtor in terms which inform the debtor of the consequences of failure to repay debts or claims owed to the Board.
(b) Before the Agency refers a debt to the IRS for tax refund offset, it will make a reasonable attempt to notify the debtor that:
(2) Unless the debt is repaid or a satisfactory repayment agreement is established within 60 days thereafter, the debt will be referred to the IRS for offset from any overpayment of tax remaining after taxpayer liabilities of greater priority have been satisfied; and
(d) The notification required by paragraph (b) of this section and sent to the address specified in paragraph (c) of this section may, at the option of the Agency, be incorporated into demand letters required by paragraph (a) of this section.
(a) The Agency official responsible for collection of the debt will consider any evidence submitted by the debtor as a result of the notification required by § 102.174 and notify the debtor of the result. If appropriate, the debtor will also be advised where and to whom to request a review of any unresolved dispute.
(b) The debtor will be granted 30 days from the date of the notification required by paragraph (a) of this section to request a review of the determination of the Agency official responsible for collection of the debt on any unresolved dispute. The debtor will be advised of the result.
(a) Any attorney or other representative appearing or practicing before the Agency must conform to the standards of ethical and professional conduct required of practitioners before
(b) Misconduct by any person at any hearing before an Administrative Law Judge, Hearing Officer, or the Board may be grounds for summary exclusion from the hearing. Notwithstanding the procedures set forth in paragraph (e) of this section for handling allegations of misconduct, the Administrative Law Judge, Hearing Officer, or Board has the authority in the proceeding in which the misconduct occurred to admonish or reprimand, after due notice, any person who engages in misconduct at a hearing.
(c) The refusal of a witness at any such hearing to answer any question which has been ruled to be proper may, in the discretion of the Administrative Law Judge or Hearing Officer, be grounds for striking all testimony previously given by such witness on related matters.
(d) Misconduct by an attorney or other representative at any stage of any Agency proceeding, including but not limited to misconduct at a hearing, may be grounds for discipline. Such misconduct of an aggravated character may be grounds for suspension and/or disbarment from practice before the Agency and/or other sanctions.
(e) All allegations of misconduct pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section, except for those involving the conduct of Agency employees, will be handled in accordance with the following procedures:
(1) Allegations that an attorney or party representative has engaged in misconduct may be brought to the attention of the Investigating Officer by any person. The Investigating Officer, for purposes of this paragraph (e)(1), is the head of the Division of Operations-Management, or designee.
(2) The Investigating Officer or designee will conduct such investigation as is deemed appropriate and will have the usual powers of investigation provided in Section 11 of the Act. Following the investigation, the Investigating Officer will make a recommendation to the General Counsel, who will make the determination whether to institute disciplinary proceedings against the attorney or party representative. The General Counsel's authority to make this determination is not delegable to the Regional Director or other personnel in the Regional Office. If the General Counsel determines not to institute disciplinary proceedings, all interested persons will be notified of the determination, which is final.
(3) If the General Counsel decides to institute disciplinary proceedings against the attorney or party representative, the General Counsel or designee will serve the respondent with a complaint which will include: A statement of the acts which are claimed to constitute misconduct including the approximate date and place of such acts together with a statement of the discipline recommended; notification of the right to a hearing before an Administrative Law Judge with respect to any material issues of fact or mitigation; and an explanation of the method by which a hearing may be requested. The complaint will not be issued until the respondent has been notified of the allegations in writing and has been afforded a reasonable opportunity to respond.
(4) Within 14 days of service of the disciplinary complaint, the Respondent must file an answer admitting or denying the allegations, and may request a hearing. If no answer is filed or no material issue of fact or relevant to mitigation warranting a hearing is raised, the matter may be submitted directly to the Board. If no answer is filed, then the allegations will be deemed admitted.
(5) Sections 102.24 through 102.51, rules applicable to unfair labor practice proceedings, apply to disciplinary proceedings under this section to the extent that they are not contrary to the provisions of this section.
(6) The hearing will be conducted at a reasonable time, date, and place. In setting the hearing date, the Administrative Law Judge will give due regard to the Respondent's need for time to prepare an adequate defense and the need of the Agency and the Respondent for an expeditious resolution of the allegations.
(7) The hearing will be public unless otherwise ordered by the Board or the Administrative Law Judge.
(8) Any person bringing allegations of misconduct or filing a petition for disciplinary proceedings against an attorney or party representative will be given notice of the scheduled hearing. Any such person will not be a party to the disciplinary proceeding, however, and will not be afforded the rights of a party to call, examine or cross-examine witnesses and introduce evidence at the hearing, to file exceptions to the Administrative Law Judge's decision, or to appeal the Board's decision.
(9) The Respondent will, upon request, be provided with an opportunity to read the transcript or listen to a recording of the hearing.
(10) The General Counsel must establish the alleged misconduct by a preponderance of the evidence.
(11) At any stage of the proceeding prior to hearing, the Respondent may submit a settlement proposal to the General Counsel, who may approve the settlement or elect to continue with the proceedings. Any formal settlement reached between the General Counsel and the Respondent, providing for entry of a Board order reprimanding, suspending, disbarring or taking other disciplinary action against the Respondent, is subject to final approval by the Board. In the event any settlement, formal or informal, is reached after opening of the hearing, such settlement must be submitted to the Administrative Law Judge for approval. In the event the Administrative Law Judge rejects the settlement, either the General Counsel or the Respondent may appeal such ruling to the Board as provided in § 102.26.
(12) If it is found that the Respondent has engaged in misconduct in violation of paragraph (d) of this section, the Board may issue a final order imposing such disciplinary sanctions as it deems appropriate, including, where the misconduct is of an aggravated character, suspension and/or disbarment from practice before the Agency, and/or other sanctions.
(f) Any person found to have engaged in misconduct warranting disciplinary sanctions under paragraph (d) of this section may seek judicial review of the administrative determination.
During any period when the Board lacks a quorum, all motions for default judgment, summary judgment, or dismissal filed or pending pursuant to § 102.50 will be referred to the Chief Administrative Law Judge in Washington, DC, for ruling. Such rulings by the Chief Administrative Law
During any period when the Board lacks a quorum, any request for special permission to appeal filed or pending pursuant to § 102.26 will be referred to the Chief Administrative Law Judge in Washington, DC, for ruling. Such rulings by the Chief Administrative Law Judge, and orders in connection therewith, may not be appealed directly to the Board, but will be considered by the Board in reviewing the record if exception to the ruling or order is included in the statement of exceptions filed with the Board pursuant to § 102.46.
During any period when the Board lacks a quorum, administrative and procedural requests that would normally be filed with the Office of the Executive Secretary for decision by the Board prior to the filing of a request for review under § 102.67, or exceptions under §§ 102.46 and 102.69, will be referred to the Executive Secretary for ruling. Rulings by the Executive Secretary, and orders in connection therewith, may not be appealed directly to the Board, but will be considered by the Board if such matters are raised by a party in its request for review or exceptions.
During any period when the Board lacks a quorum, the second proviso of § 102.67(b) regarding the automatic impounding of ballots will be suspended. To the extent practicable, all representation cases may continue to be processed and the appropriate certification should be issued by the Regional Director notwithstanding the pendency of a request for review, subject to revision or revocation by the Board pursuant to a request for review filed in accordance with this subpart.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |