Page Range | 3131-3599 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
82 FR 3290 - Nominations for the National Sea Grant Advisory Board (NSGAB) | |
82 FR 3333 - Joint Meeting of the Drug Safety and Risk Management Advisory Committee and the Anesthetic and Analgesic Drug Products Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting; Establishment of a Public Docket; Request for Comments | |
82 FR 3350 - Proposed Information Collection; Incidental Take of Marine Mammals During Specified Oil and Gas Industry Activities | |
82 FR 3345 - National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
82 FR 3345 - Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health & Human Development; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
82 FR 3345 - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
82 FR 3343 - Fogarty International Center; Notice of Meeting | |
82 FR 3343 - Center For Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 3362 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Disability Employment Initiative Evaluation | |
82 FR 3311 - Notice of Tentative Approval and Opportunity for Public Comment and Public Hearing for Public Water System Supervision Program Revision for West Virginia | |
82 FR 3352 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Request for Comments | |
82 FR 3382 - E.O. 13224 Designation of Ali Damush, aka Ali Daghmoush, aka Ali Dagmoush, aka Ali Daamoush, aka Ali Dagmush, aka Shiekh Ali Musa Da'amoush as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist | |
82 FR 3211 - EB-5 Immigrant Investor Regional Center Program | |
82 FR 3363 - Licensing Support System Advisory Review Panel | |
82 FR 3363 - Toshiba Corporation, Advanced Boiling-Water Reactor; Design Certification | |
82 FR 3340 - Loan Repayment Program for Repayment of Health Professions Educational Loan; Announcement Type-Initial | |
82 FR 3320 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
82 FR 3300 - Notice of Intent To Grant an Exclusive License | |
82 FR 3324 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
82 FR 3348 - Announcement of Funding Awards; Rural Capacity Building for Community Development and Affordable Housing Program; Fiscal Year (FY) 2016 | |
82 FR 3299 - Meeting of the U.S. Naval Academy Board of Visitors | |
82 FR 3282 - Countervailing Duty Investigation of Certain Biaxial Integral Geogrid Products From the People's Republic of China: Final Affirmative Determination and Final Determination of Critical Circumstances, in Part | |
82 FR 3284 - Certain Biaxial Integral Geogrid Products From the People's Republic of China: Final Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value | |
82 FR 3292 - Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council (MAFMC); Public Meeting | |
82 FR 3294 - Fisheries of the South Atlantic; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review (SEDAR); Post-Data Workshop Webinar for Atlantic Blueline Tilefish; Public Meeting | |
82 FR 3356 - Certain Potassium Chloride Powder Products; Commission Determination Not To Review an Initial Determination Granting Joint Motion To Terminate the Investigation Based Upon Settlement; Termination of the Investigation | |
82 FR 3359 - Certain Flash Memory Devices and Components Thereof; Institution of Investigation | |
82 FR 3295 - Record of Decision (ROD) for the United States Marine Corps Santa Margarita River Conjunctive Use Project (SMR CUP) at Marine Corps Base (MCB) Camp Pendleton, California | |
82 FR 3291 - North Pacific Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
82 FR 3292 - New England Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
82 FR 3289 - Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council (MAFMC); Public Meeting | |
82 FR 3348 - Proposed Settlement Agreement Under Environmental Protection Statutes | |
82 FR 3363 - Notice on Penalty Inflation Adjustments for Civil Monetary Penalties | |
82 FR 3336 - Current Good Manufacturing Practice Requirements for Combination Products; Guidance for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff; Availability | |
82 FR 3365 - New Postal Products | |
82 FR 3349 - Marianas Trench Marine National Monument, Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands; Completion of the Northern Islands Submerged Lands Transfer to the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands | |
82 FR 3356 - Notice of Proposed Information Collection; Request for Comments for 1029-0024 | |
82 FR 3280 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 3146 - Airworthiness Directives; Rolls-Royce plc Turbofan Engines | |
82 FR 3347 - Center for Substance Abuse Prevention; Notice of Meeting | |
82 FR 3382 - Petition for Exemption; Summary of Petition Received; The Boeing Company | |
82 FR 3307 - Western Refining Pipeline Company; Notice for Temporary Waiver of Filing and Reporting Requirements | |
82 FR 3308 - CP Bloom Wind LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
82 FR 3310 - Notice of Effectiveness of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status | |
82 FR 3310 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
82 FR 3304 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
82 FR 3301 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
82 FR 3307 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
82 FR 3302 - FirstLight Hydro Generating Company; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing and Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Protests | |
82 FR 3308 - Algonquin Power and Utilities Corporation; Notice of Existing Licensee's Failure To File Notice of Intent To File a New License Application, Soliciting Pre-Application Documents and Notices of Intent To File a License Application | |
82 FR 3310 - Enbridge Energy, Limited Partnership; Notice of Filing of Supplement to Facilities Surcharge Settlement | |
82 FR 3305 - Notice of Commission Staff Attendance | |
82 FR 3307 - Sustainable Power Group, LLC; sPower Development Company, LLC; sPower Development Company, LLC; Notice of Petition for Enforcement | |
82 FR 3300 - Northern Natural Gas Company; Notice of Request Under Blanket Authorization | |
82 FR 3309 - Pomelo Connector, LLC; Notice of Application | |
82 FR 3306 - Mountain Regional Water Special Services District; Notice of Preliminary Determination of a Qualifying Conduit Hydropower Facility and Soliciting Comments and Motions To Intervene | |
82 FR 3302 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
82 FR 3332 - Recommended Warning for Over-the-Counter Acetaminophen-Containing Drug Products and Labeling Statements Regarding Serious Skin Reactions; Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
82 FR 3335 - Recommended Statement for Over-the-Counter Aspirin-Containing Drug Products Labeled With Cardiovascular Related Imagery; Draft Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
82 FR 3326 - International Drug Scheduling; Convention on Psychotropic Substances; Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs; World Health Organization; Scheduling Recommendations; 4-Methylethcathinone and Nine Other Substances; Request for Comments | |
82 FR 3372 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Depository Trust Company; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1, Regarding the Update of Its Corporate Action Service for the Processing of Redemptions Events and the Transition to International Organization for Standardization 20022 Messaging for Corporate Action Announcements | |
82 FR 3379 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Fees Schedule | |
82 FR 3375 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; C2 Options Exchange, Incorporated; Order Approving a Proposed Rule Change Relating to Opening and Closing Rotations for Series Trading on the Exchange | |
82 FR 3366 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change Relating to the Listing and Trading of the Shares of the United States 3x Oil Fund and United States −3x Short Oil Fund Under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.200 | |
82 FR 3352 - Protocol for Categorical Exclusions Supplementing the Council on Environmental Quality Regulations Implementing the Procedural Provisions of the National Environmental Policy Act for Certain National Indian Gaming Commission Actions and Activities | |
82 FR 3360 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-PXI Systems Alliance, Inc. | |
82 FR 3319 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request (3064-0018 & -0137) | |
82 FR 3315 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection Renewals; Comment Request (3064-0006, & -0184) | |
82 FR 3292 - Endangered Species; File No. 17225 | |
82 FR 3361 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-Interchangeable Virtual Instruments Foundation, Inc. | |
82 FR 3361 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-American Society Of Mechanical Engineers | |
82 FR 3361 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-ASTM International Standards | |
82 FR 3360 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research And Production Act of 1993-Cooperative Research Group on Ros-Industrial Consortium-Americas | |
82 FR 3361 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-ODPI, Inc. | |
82 FR 3360 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-Petroleum Environmental Research Forum Project No. 2014-10, Direct Monitoring of Flare Combustion Efficiency | |
82 FR 3288 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Vessel Monitoring System Requirements in Western Pacific Fisheries | |
82 FR 3288 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; Reporting Requirements for the Ocean Salmon Fishery Off the Coasts of Washington, Oregon, and California | |
82 FR 3355 - National Register of Historic Places; Notification of Pending Nominations and Related Actions | |
82 FR 3311 - Information Collections Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission Under Delegated Authority | |
82 FR 3314 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission | |
82 FR 3313 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission | |
82 FR 3258 - Petitions for Reconsideration of Action in Rulemaking Proceeding | |
82 FR 3279 - Petitions for Reconsideration of Action in Rulemaking Proceeding | |
82 FR 3170 - Affirmative Action for Individuals With Disabilities in Federal Employment; Correction | |
82 FR 3281 - Sensors and Instrumentation Technical Advisory Committee; Notice of Open Meeting | |
82 FR 3281 - Information Systems; Technical Advisory Committee; Notice of Open Meeting | |
82 FR 3338 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection: Public Comment Request; Nurse Anesthetist Traineeship (NAT) Program | |
82 FR 3385 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Form 211 | |
82 FR 3383 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request on Information Collection Tools Relating to Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery | |
82 FR 3384 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request on Capitalization of Interest | |
82 FR 3383 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Tax Exempt Entity Leasing | |
82 FR 3294 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; NTIA/FCC Web-Based Frequency Coordination System | |
82 FR 3209 - Atlantic Highly Migratory Species; Technical Amendment to Regulations | |
82 FR 3234 - Air Plan Approval and Air Quality Designation; KY; Redesignation of the Kentucky Portion of the Louisville 1997 Annual PM2.5 | |
82 FR 3339 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission to OMB for Review and Approval; Public Comment Request; Ryan White HIV/AIDS Program Outcomes and Expanded Insurance Coverage | |
82 FR 3364 - Information Collection: NRC Form 327, Special Nuclear Material (SNM) and Source Material (SM) Physical Inventory Summary Report, and NUREG/BR-0096, Instructions and Guidance for Completing Physical Inventory | |
82 FR 3281 - Revisions to User Fees for Export and Investment Promotion Services/Events | |
82 FR 3233 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Maryland; Control of Nitrogen Oxide Emissions from Coal-Fired Electric Generating Units | |
82 FR 3293 - Draft Arctic Marine Mammal Disaster Response Guidelines | |
82 FR 3287 - Endangered and Threatened Species; Take of Anadromous Fish | |
82 FR 3289 - Endangered and Threatened Species; Take of Anadromous Fish | |
82 FR 3325 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
82 FR 3342 - National Cancer Institute; Notice of Meeting | |
82 FR 3346 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 3167 - Establishment of Class E Airspace, Thermopolis, WY | |
82 FR 3385 - Notice of Availability of a Record of Decision (ROD) for the Reconfiguration of VA Black Hills Health Care System (BHHCS) | |
82 FR 3250 - Revision of the America's Marine Highway Program Regulations | |
82 FR 3295 - Intent To Grant an Exclusive License of U.S. Government-Owned Patents | |
82 FR 3186 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Endangered Species Status for Rusty Patched Bumble Bee | |
82 FR 3168 - 2017 Civil Monetary Penalties Inflationary Adjustment | |
82 FR 3173 - Uniform National Discharge Standards for Vessels of the Armed Forces-Phase II Batch One | |
82 FR 3219 - National Industrial Security Program | |
82 FR 3131 - Regional Innovation Program | |
82 FR 3185 - Child Care and Development Fund (CCDF) Program; Correction | |
82 FR 3171 - Approval and Promulgation of Implementation Plans; Texas; Control of Air Pollution From Visible Emissions and Particulate Matter | |
82 FR 3172 - Determination of Nonattainment and Reclassification of the Houston-Galveston-Brazoria 2008 8-Hour Ozone Nonattainment Area; Texas; Correction | |
82 FR 3357 - Notice of Publication of Petitions for Duty Suspensions and Reductions and Opportunity To Comment on Petitions | |
82 FR 3217 - Airworthiness Directives; 328 Support Services GmbH (Type Certificate Previously Held by AvCraft Aerospace GmbH; Fairchild Dornier GmbH; Dornier Luftfahrt GmbH) Airplanes | |
82 FR 3143 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Defense and Space S.A. (Formerly Known as Construcciones Aeronauticas, S.A.) Airplanes | |
82 FR 3258 - Updates Concerning Non-Geostationary, Fixed-Satellite Service Systems and Related Matters | |
82 FR 3149 - Alternative Pilot Physical Examination and Education Requirements | |
82 FR 3518 - National Primary Drinking Water Regulations; Announcement of the Results of EPA's Review of Existing Drinking Water Standards and Request for Public Comment and/or Information on Related Issues | |
82 FR 3554 - Federal Plan Requirements for Commercial and Industrial Solid Waste Incineration Units | |
82 FR 3140 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
82 FR 3137 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
82 FR 3388 - Financial Responsibility Requirements Under CERCLA § 108(b) for Classes of Facilities in the Hardrock Mining Industry | |
82 FR 3512 - Financial Responsibility Requirements for Facilities in the Chemical, Petroleum and Electric Power Industries |
Economic Development Administration
Industry and Security Bureau
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
National Telecommunications and Information Administration
Army Department
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Food and Drug Administration
Health Resources and Services Administration
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National Institutes of Health
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National Indian Gaming Commission
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Economic Development Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Final rule.
The Economic Development Administration (“EDA” or “the Agency”), U.S. Department of Commerce (“DOC”), is issuing a Final Rule implementing the Regional Innovation Program as authorized by section 27 of the Stevenson-Wydler Technology Innovation Act of 1980, as amended (“Stevenson-Wydler” or the “Act”). Through the Regional Innovation Strategies Program (“RIS Program”), the centerpiece of the Regional Innovation Program, EDA currently awards grants for capacity-building programs that provide proof-of-concept and commercialization assistance to innovators and entrepreneurs and for operational support for organizations that provide essential early-stage funding to startup companies. This Final Rule lays out the overarching regulatory framework for the Regional Innovation Program and specifically focuses on outlining the structure of the RIS Program.
On September 21, 2016, EDA published a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (“NPRM”) and received two public comments, one non-germane and one substantive. The Final Rule responds to the substantive comment by making two clarifying edits and one conforming edit to the section regarding eligible RIS Program project activities. EDA also made one technical correction, unrelated to the substantive comment, to the general terms and conditions section relating to the RIS Program.
This Final Rule becomes effective on February 10, 2017.
EDA posted both public comments on the
Mara Quintero Campbell, Regional Counsel, Office of the Chief Counsel, Economic Development Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Suite 72023, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-9055.
In recent years, concerns about America's global competitiveness led to calls for the Federal Government to more actively foster innovation and better coordinate Federal support for scientific and technological research and development, technology transfer, and commercialization. In particular, without Federal support, local communities struggled to effectively support the development of regional innovation clusters (defined below), which research has shown to be a significant catalyst of economic development. At the same time, regional innovation was hampered by limited access to the capital necessary to implement the innovative manufacturing technologies required to compete in the twenty-first century global economy.
In response to these concerns and with a desire to maintain America's role as a leader in innovation, Congress enacted section 27 of Stevenson-Wydler (“section 27” or “Regional Innovation Program”) as part of the America Creating Opportunities to Meaningfully Promote Excellence in Technology, Education, and Science Reauthorization Act of 2010, Public Law 111-358 (Jan. 4, 2011) (“COMPETES Act”). As originally enacted by Congress, section 27 authorized the Secretary of Commerce (“Secretary”) to “establish a regional innovation program to encourage and support the development of regional innovation strategies, including regional innovation clusters and science and research parks.” In 2014, Congress enacted legislation that narrowed the scope of the Regional Innovation Program.
Given EDA's leadership in and support of innovation and entrepreneurship as key elements of a robust economy, the Secretary turned to EDA to develop and implement the Regional Innovation Program. Established under the Public Works and Economic Development Act of 1965, as amended (42 U.S.C. 3121
Through the RIS Program (section 27(b) of Stevenson-Wydler), the core of the Regional Innovation Program, EDA competitively awards grants to eligible applicants for activities related to the formation and development of regional innovation clusters. 15 U.S.C. 3722(b). Stevenson-Wydler defines a regional innovation cluster as “a geographically bounded network of similar, synergistic, or complementary entities that—(A) are engaged in or with a particular industry sector and its related sectors; (B) have active channels for business transactions and communication; (C) share specialized infrastructure, labor markets, and services; and (D) leverage the region's unique competitive strengths to stimulate innovation and create jobs.” 15 U.S.C. 3722(f)(1).
The RIRI Program (section 27(c) of Stevenson-Wydler) is designed to formulate and disseminate best practices for regional innovation strategies, provide technical assistance for the development and implementation of regional innovation strategies, support the development of metrics to evaluate regional innovation strategies, collect and publicize data on regional innovation cluster activity in the United States, and fund competitive research grants to support the goals of the RIRI Program.
This Final Rule (hereafter “Rule”) focuses on the RIS Program because EDA has not yet implemented the RIRI Program. However, these regulations—and, in particular, the definition sections—are structured to incorporate the RIRI Program into a future subpart C of part 312 of title 13 of the Code of Federal Regulations once EDA implements the RIRI Program.
EDA's economic development assistance programs under PWEDA and the RIS Program seek to increase economic growth and resilience, enhance prosperity, and improve quality of life, but they approach the goal from different angles, as reflected in the enabling statutes and regulations. For example, the focus of PWEDA's core programs is increasing employment and private investment in economically distressed regions. Funding generally is limited to regions that meet chronic high unemployment or low per capita income criteria, and grant rates increase with the level of economic distress up to a maximum of 100 percent in limited circumstances. Conversely, the RIS Program focuses on encouraging scientific and technological innovation and collaboration; it thus provides funding to a broader range of entities and does not require applicants to demonstrate economic distress. Moreover, it also is capped at a 50 percent grant rate.
In addition to awarding grants under the RIS and RIRI Programs, EDA anticipates conducting at a future date COMPETES Act prize competitions that support the goals and objectives of the Regional Innovation Program.
EDA publicly launched the RIS Program in September 2014 when it announced the first round of competitions for funding under the Program. The announcement of a Federal Funding Opportunity (“FFO”) identified three separate competitions for a total of $15 million in Federal funding: The i6 Challenge, Science and Research Park Development Grants, and Seed Fund Support (“SFS”) Grants (formerly known as Cluster Grants for Seed Capital Funds). The i6 Challenge, first launched in 2010 as part of the multi-agency Startup America Initiative, is designed to support the creation of programs for innovation and entrepreneurship—specifically, the development, creation, or expansion of proof-of-concept and commercialization programs that increase the development of innovations, ideas, intellectual property, and research into viable companies. Science and Research Park Development Grants supported feasibility and planning studies to create innovation hubs for driving the results of applied research and development to the commercial marketplace by supporting the entire product or process lifecycle from idea generation to business creation. SFS Grants support activities related to the feasibility, planning, formation, launch, or expansion of cluster-based seed capital funds to assist innovation-based startups with high growth potential. After considering 241 applications, in early 2015, EDA awarded 17 i6 Grants, 12 Science and Research Park Development Grants, and 9 SFS Grants to applicants throughout EDA's six regions.
In 2014, Congress amended the Regional Innovation Program in section 705 of the Revitalize American Manufacturing and Innovation Act of 2014, Public Law 113-235 (Dec. 16, 2014) (“RAMI”). Under RAMI, Congress eliminated the provisions authorizing Science and Research Park Development Grants and Loan Guarantees for Science Park Infrastructure but did maintain eligibility for such parks to apply for RIS Program awards. Accordingly, when EDA announced a second round of RIS Program competitions in August 2015, it included $10 million in Federal funding for i6 Challenge Grants and SFS Grants, and no longer had a separate Science and Research Park Development Grant competition. In addition, consistent with changes made by Congress in RAMI to section 27(b)(7) of the Act, EDA implemented a targeted outreach program to ensure that public and private sector entities in rural communities were aware of the opportunity. After considering 168 applications for funding, EDA awarded 17 i6 Grants and 8 SFS Grants in early 2016.
A third round of competitions for $15 million in funding for i6 Challenge Grants and SFS Grants was completed in November 2016. After considering 215 applications for funding, EDA awarded 27 i6 Grants and 8 SFS Grants.
With EDA's RIS Program funding, successful applicants have undertaken transformative projects such as the development of a hardware entrepreneurship ecosystem, expansion of a seed capital fund focused on commercializing water technology, and investigation of the feasibility of constructing a test track for connected and autonomous vehicles. Grant recipients are required to provide semi-annual reports, using EDA-developed metrics that are consistent across grantees, that EDA uses to evaluate the impact of the RIS Program.
Administration and management of the Regional Innovation Program is an EDA-wide responsibility. The Regional Innovation Program (including the RIS Program) is broadly overseen by the Office of Innovation and Entrepreneurship (“OIE”), which was established by the Secretary pursuant to section 25 of the Act. 15 U.S.C. 3720. Housed within EDA, OIE works to foster a more innovative U.S. economy focused on turning new ideas and inventions into products and technologies that spur job growth and competitiveness while promoting economic development through innovation and entrepreneurship. In addition, EDA's Deputy Assistant Secretary for Regional Affairs has served as the Grants Officer for RIS Program awards, with day-to-day administration of these awards being handled by the Agency's regional offices.
Because of the significant differences in EDA's authority under PWEDA and Stevenson-Wydler, there is a need for a standalone regulatory framework for the Regional Innovation Program. This Rule creates such a framework. From the outset, the Rule makes it clear that the Regional Innovation Program is made up of two sub-programs, the RIS and RIRI Programs, administered by EDA. While focusing on the RIS Program given that EDA has not yet implemented the RIRI Program, the Rule is designed to accommodate future implementation of the RIRI Program by defining terms applicable to the RIRI Program and reserving a subpart for future implementing regulations.
The Rule establishes definitions applicable to the Regional Innovation Program generally and a set of terms specific to the RIS Program. In addition, the Rule describes the purpose and scope of the RIS Program and delineates the eligible recipients, eligible program activities, investment rate, matching share, application components,
On September 21, 2016 EDA published an NPRM in the
The commenter advocates for removing several items from the list of “Eligible project activities” under Section 312.7—namely, the purchase of equipment (312.7(a)(9) of the NPRM), construction (312.7(a)(10) of the NPRM), and other activities approved by the Assistant Secretary (312.7(a)(11) of the NPRM). It suggests eliminating equipment and construction funding to avoid compromising the core value and unique nature of the RIS Program, or, in the alternative, it recommends permitting the purchase of equipment with matching share but not Federal funds. It similarly expresses concern that Section 312.7(a)(11) “could be used to expand the program beyond the legislation's intent.”
While EDA disagrees with the commenter's position that these activities should be ineligible, EDA does acknowledge that some clarification of eligible activities will be helpful in overcoming any misperceptions that these regulations somehow dilute the essence of the RIS Program or conflict with Congressional intent. In response to the comment on equipment and construction, EDA is combining Sections 312.7(a)(9) and (10) into a new Section 312.7(a)(9) to make clear that construction activities may be funded only as ancillary activities necessary to permit the installation of equipment. The Rule further removes ambiguity by expressly providing in new Section 312.7(a)(9) that the purchase of equipment and its installation are allowable only if necessary to support another eligible activity. Accordingly, projects involving only the purchase and/or installation of equipment will not be funded, keeping the core purposes of the RIS Program intact. EDA is also modifying a cross-reference in Section 312.7(b)(3), part of the list of ineligible activities, to account for the consolidation of these sections.
Likewise, EDA is adding language to new Section 312.7(a)(10) (312.7(a)(11) in the NPRM) to address the commenter's concern that this provision has the potential to extend the RIS Program beyond what Congress intended. Stevenson-Wydler clearly affords the Assistant Secretary (through delegation from the Secretary) broad discretion to add to the inventory of activities already authorized by the statute by stating that “[g]rants awarded under this subsection may be used for activities determined appropriate by the Secretary” and then identifying a non-exhaustive list of some permissible activities.
Referencing the NPRM preamble, the commenter agrees with EDA's position that Stevenson-Wydler does not permit the use of RIS Program funds or matching share for equity investments. However, the commenter takes issue with EDA's statement that early-stage companies can access other relevant Federal sources of investment capital, arguing that a Federally-funded seed fund program does not exist but is needed and would increase innovation and entrepreneurial activity.
While EDA appreciates the commenter's advocacy for Federal programs that would directly provide investment capital, the commenter's argument does not implicate the regulatory provision itself. For this reason, as well as the commenter's acknowledgment that the provision is consistent with Stevenson-Wydler, no change is being made in this Rule regarding the prohibition on the use of RIS Program funds for equity investments.
The commenter also conveys its views on two aspects of Section 312.10. First, it suggests that the application components outlined in Section 312.10 “will help ensure applicants apply a broad strategic framework to their cluster activities” but nevertheless should not be scoring criteria for the RIS Program. Second, the commenter states that the nature of the workforce information requested in Section 312.10(e) is unclear and recommends replacing EDA's proposed Section 312.10(e) with “the extent to which the regional innovation cluster is likely to improve the training or employment opportunities of the regional workforce”.
Regarding the commenter's first suggestion on scoring, section 27(b) of Stevenson-Wydler contains a list of required application components for the RIS Program and Section 312.10 simply mirrors this statutory scheme.
The commenter's second suggested modification is unduly narrow, focusing this selection factor exclusively on how the regional innovation cluster will improve workforce training or employment opportunities while overlooking the statute's explicitly broad and potentially multi-dimensional emphasis on the capacity of cluster participants to access or contribute to a well-trained workforce. Put another way, Section 312.10(e) parallels the statutory language, providing unambiguous flexibility to the applicant to demonstrate the extent and nature of the project's connection to and support of a well-trained workforce, of which training and employment opportunities may be a part.
In light of the above, the Rule leaves Section 312.10 unchanged from the NPRM.
The commenter also suggests that stronger national-level coordination of the RIS Program could provide greater value in terms of increased opportunities “to share best practices in seed fund and cluster development across awardees and the innovation community as a whole.”
EDA has no plans at this time to significantly change how it administers and manages the Regional Innovation Program. Although the Agency comprises a Washington, DC headquarters (“HQ”) office and six regional offices, there is a unified EDA that leverages the strengths and skills of all of its geographically-dispersed staff. As explained above, the Regional Innovation Program is managed and overseen by OIE, based out of HQ. The day-to-day administration of RIS Program grants is handled by the regional offices, in close coordination with OIE. This integrated approach effectively balances resource allocation with program execution by providing a coordinated and responsive national agenda. At the same time, this puts grant administration in the hands of those who are the Agency's day-to-day grants experts and offers the program's diverse stakeholders valuable points of contact in the field. No change is being made to the regulations, as proposed, in response to the commenter's recommendation.
Finally, the commenter seeks additional clarity on the Agency's statement in the NPRM's preamble that EDA may in the future conduct prize competitions that support the goals and objectives of the Regional Innovation Program. The commenter notes that it strongly believes that the current scale and structure of the RIS Program awards is integral to the value of the program and should not change “unless the program scales toward its original conception as a $100 million program.” The commenter can, however, foresee a positive role for prize competitions if the Agency were to use remaining portions of the fiscal year's available funding on smaller projects that support regional innovation clusters.
EDA agrees with the commenter that the RIS Program is primarily a grant-making initiative. To allay any concerns, the Agency reiterates that it does not anticipate making any immediate and significant changes to the program's current funding model. The Agency, however, is exploring the use of prize competitions at some point as a complementary tool to respond to evolving regional innovation cluster needs and support the overall objectives of the Regional Innovation Program, particularly as it works to develop the RIRI Program. No change to the proposed regulations is necessitated by this issue raised by the commenter.
Unrelated to the substantive comment received, EDA is making one technical correction in this Rule. In Section 312.12, EDA is adding 13 CFR 302.17, dealing with conflicts of interest, to the list of PWEDA general terms and conditions that do not apply to the RIS Program. The conflict of interest provision contained in 13 CFR 302.17 is specific to the requirements of PWEDA and thus is inapplicable to the RIS Program, which is instead based on the statutory requirements of Stevenson-Wydler.
Prior notice and opportunity for public comment are not required for rules concerning public property, loans, grants, benefits, and contracts. 5 U.S.C. 553(a)(2). Because prior notice and an opportunity for public comment are not required pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553, or any other law, the analytical requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
This Rule was drafted in accordance with Executive Orders 12866 and 13563. It was reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”), which found that the Rule will be a “significant regulatory action” as defined by Executive Orders 12866 and 13563.
This Rule is not major under the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Executive Order 13132 requires agencies to develop an accountable process to ensure “meaningful and timely input by State and local officials in the development of regulatory policies that have federalism implications.” “Policies that have federalism implications” is defined in Executive Order 13132 to include regulations that have “substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.” It has been determined that this Rule does not contain policies that have federalism implications.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The following table provides a complete list of the collections of information (and corresponding OMB Control Numbers) set forth in this Rule. These collections of information are necessary for the proper performance and functions of EDA.
Application requirements, Cluster grants, Financial assistance, Regional innovation, Regional innovation clusters, Regional Innovation Program, Regional Innovation Research and Information Program, Regional Innovation Strategies Program, Research.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, EDA amends title 13, chapter III of the Code of Federal Regulations by adding part 312 to read as follows:
15 U.S.C. 3701
The purpose of the Regional Innovation Program is to encourage and support the development of regional innovation strategies. The Regional Innovation Program includes two sub-programs. One is focused on the formation and development of regional innovation clusters and implemented through the Regional Innovation Strategies Program. 15 U.S.C. 3722(b). The second program is focused on best practices, metrics and the collection and dissemination of information related to regional innovation strategies, achieved through the Regional Innovation Research and Information Program. 15 U.S.C. 3722(c). The Secretary has delegated to the Economic Development Administration the authority to implement and administer the Regional Innovation Program.
The definitions contained in § 300.3 of this chapter do not apply to this part.
As used in this part, the following terms shall have the following meanings:
Under the RIS Program, EDA makes grants on a competitive basis to eligible applicants to foster connected, innovation-centric economic regions that support commercialization and entrepreneurship. The grants are intended to build public and private capacity to invent and improve products and services and to bring those products and services to market through a process often referred to as technology commercialization, as demonstrated by methodologically sound metrics for output and outcome.
In addition to the defined terms set forth in subpart A of this part, the following term applies specifically to the RIS Program:
(1) An educational institution in any State that—
(i) Admits as regular students only persons having a certificate of graduation from a school providing secondary education, or the recognized equivalent of such a certificate, or persons who meet the requirements of 20 U.S.C. 1091(d);
(ii) Is legally authorized within such State to provide a program of education beyond secondary education;
(iii) Provides an educational program for which the institution awards a bachelor's degree or provides not less than a 2-year program that is acceptable for full credit toward such a degree, or awards a degree that is acceptable for admission to a graduate or professional degree program, subject to review and approval by the Secretary of Education; and
(iv) Is accredited by a nationally recognized accrediting agency or association, or if not so accredited, is an institution that has been granted preaccreditation status by such an agency or association that has been recognized by the Secretary of Education for the granting of preaccreditation status, and the Secretary of Education has determined that there is satisfactory assurance that the institution will meet the accreditation standards of such an agency or association within a reasonable time.
(2)
(i) Any school that provides not less than a 1-year program of training to prepare students for gainful employment in a recognized occupation and that meets the provisions of paragraphs (1)(i), (ii), and (iv) of this definition; and
(ii) An educational institution in any State that, in lieu of the requirement in paragraph (1)(i) of this definition, admits as regular students individuals—
(A) Who are beyond the age of compulsory school attendance in the State in which the institution is located; or
(B) Who will be dually or concurrently enrolled in the institution and a secondary school.
A recipient eligible for investment assistance includes:
(a) A State;
(b) An Indian tribe;
(c) A city or other political subdivision of a State;
(d) An entity that is a nonprofit organization and whose application for funding under the RIS Program is supported by a State or a political subdivision of a State;
(e) An entity that is an institution of higher education, a public-private partnership, a science or research park, a Federal laboratory, or an economic development organization or similar entity, and whose application for funding under the RIS Program is supported by a State or a political subdivision of a State; or
(f) A consortium of any of the entities described in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section.
(a) Activities eligible for a RIS Program grant include:
(1) Feasibility studies;
(2) Planning activities;
(3) Technical assistance;
(4) Developing or strengthening communication and collaboration between and among participants of a regional innovation cluster;
(5) Attracting additional participants to a regional innovation cluster;
(6) Facilitating market development of products and services of a regional innovation cluster, including through demonstration, deployment, technology transfer, and commercialization activities;
(7) Developing relationships between a regional innovation cluster and entities or clusters in other regions;
(8) Interacting with the public and State and local governments to meet the goals of the regional innovation cluster;
(9) Purchase of equipment and equipment-related modifications or renovations of a facility, but only to the extent that such equipment and any related modifications or renovations are used to support another eligible activity as described in this section (the recipient may be required to secure and record the Federal interest in the equipment); and
(10) Any other activity determined appropriate by the Assistant Secretary and consistent with section 27(b) of Stevenson-Wydler.
(b) An ineligible activity includes, but is not limited to:
(1) Use of Federal funds or matching share for equity investments;
(2) Acquisition or improvement of real property;
(3) Construction except to the extent provided in paragraph (a)(9) of this section; and
(4) Lending programs, such as a direct loan program or capitalizing a revolving loan fund.
(a)
(b)
The required matching share of a project's eligible costs may consist of cash or in-kind contribution(s) whose value can be readily determined, verified, and justified. Applicants must show at the time of application that the matching share is committed to the project, will be available as needed, and is not or will not be conditioned or encumbered in any way that would preclude its use consistent with the requirements of the investment assistance. EDA shall determine at its sole discretion whether the matching share documentation adequately addresses the requirements of this section.
In addition to the criteria set forth in the FFO, to be considered for a RIS Program grant, eligible applicants must provide the following information:
(a) A description of the regional innovation cluster supported by the proposed activity;
(b) The extent to which the regional innovation cluster is supported by the private sector, State and local units of government, and other relevant stakeholders;
(c) The methods that participants in the regional innovation cluster will use to encourage and solicit participation by all types of entities that might benefit from participation, including newly formed entities and rival existing participants;
(d) The extent to which the regional innovation cluster is likely to stimulate innovation and have a positive effect on regional economic growth and development;
(e) The capacity of participants in the regional innovation cluster to access, or contribute to, a well-trained workforce;
(f) The ability of participants in the regional innovation cluster to attract additional funds to support the cluster with non-Federal funds; and
(g) The likelihood that participants in the regional innovation cluster will be able to sustain activities after the grant expires.
(a) EDA will evaluate and select complete applications in accordance with the evaluation criteria, funding priority considerations, availability of funding, competitiveness of the application, and requirements set forth in section 27(b) of Stevenson-Wydler, the FFO, and other applicable Federal statutes and regulations. All awards are subject to the availability of funds.
(b) EDA will endeavor to notify applicants as soon as practicable regarding whether their applications are selected for funding.
(c) Stevenson-Wydler does not require nor does EDA provide an appeal process for denial of applications for EDA investment assistance.
RIS Program grants are subject to all requirements contained in part 302 of this chapter, except §§ 302.2, 302.3, 302.9, 302.10, and 302.17.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP series airplanes. This AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder (DAH) indicating that the nose wheel well is subject to widespread fatigue damage (WFD). This AD requires modification, inspections, and corrective actions of the nose wheel body structure. We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective February 15, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of February 15, 2017.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone: 562-797-1717; Internet:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Nathan Weigand, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6428; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain The Boeing Company Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP series airplanes. The NPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We have considered the comments received. Boeing and United Airlines supported the NPRM.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed, except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
Since the NPRM was issued, we have updated the AD with Boeing's new contact information.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015. The service information describes procedures for modification of the nose wheel body structure; a detailed inspection of the nose wheel body structure for any cracking; a web surface HFEC and an open hole HFEC inspection of the vertical beam outer chord for any cracking; and repair. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 107 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective February 15, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP series airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder indicating that the nose wheel well is subject to widespread fatigue damage. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking in the nose wheel well structure; such cracking could adversely affect the structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
For groups 1 and 4 airplanes as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015: Except as required by paragraph (j)(1) of this AD, at the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015, modify the nose wheel body structure, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015.
For groups 1 and 4 airplanes on which the actions of paragraph (g) have been done: Except as required by paragraph (j)(1) of this AD, at the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015, do a detailed inspection of the nose wheel body structure for any cracking; do a surface high frequency eddy current inspection (HFEC) or an open hole HFEC inspection of the vertical beam outer chord and web for any cracking; and do all applicable related investigative, other specified actions, and corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015; except as required by paragraph (j)(2) of this AD. Do all applicable related investigative actions, other specified actions, and corrective actions before further flight. Repeat the detailed inspection of the nose wheel body structure, and either the surface HFEC or the open hole HFEC inspection of the vertical beam outer chord, thereafter, at the applicable interval specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015.
For groups 2, 3, 5 and 6 airplanes identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015: Except as required by paragraph (j)(1) of this AD, at the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015, do a detailed inspection of the nose wheel well body structure for any cracking, and do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015; except as required by paragraph (j)(2) of this AD. Do all related investigative and corrective actions before further flight. Repeat the detailed inspection thereafter at the applicable intervals specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015.
(1) Where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015, specifies a compliance time “after the original issue date of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(2) If any crack is found during any inspection required by this AD, and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015, specifies to contact Boeing for appropriate action, and specifies that action as “RC” (Required for Compliance): Before further flight, repair using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (k) of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (l) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) Except as required by paragraph (j)(2) of this AD: For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (k)(4)(i) and (k)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or sub-step is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or sub-step. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
For more information about this AD, contact Nathan Weigand, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle ACO, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6428; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For Boeing service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone: 562-797-1717; Internet:
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 787-8 airplanes. This AD was prompted by reports indicating that certain wing side-of-body upper stringer fittings have been installed with faying surface mismatch beyond the allowed machining tolerance. This AD requires inspections of certain stringer fittings, replacement if necessary, and replacement of certain fasteners. We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective February 15, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of February 15, 2017.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Allen Rauschendorfer, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6487; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain The Boeing Company Model 787-8 airplanes. The NPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
United Airlines (UA) and All Nippon Airways (ANA) asked that we revise the NPRM to reference Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB570018-00, Issue 002, because Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB570018-00, Issue 001, dated July 1, 2015, is currently being revised by Boeing. UA and ANA added that by including the revised service information for accomplishing the specified actions, requests for alternative methods of compliance (AMOCs) will be reduced.
We do not agree because the revised service information is not yet released. In an AD, we cannot refer to service information that does not exist because doing so violates Office of the Federal Register (OFR) regulations for approval of materials incorporated by reference in rules. To allow operators to use service information issued after publication of an AD, either we must supersede the AD to reference specific service information, or operators must request approval to use the new service information as an AMOC for the AD under the provisions of paragraph (j) of this AD. We consider addressing the unsafe condition as soon as possible a necessity. We might consider issuing a global AMOC if revised service information is approved. We have not changed this AD in this regard.
Boeing asked that we clarify that the proposed AD was prompted by reports indicating that the wing side-of-body stringer fittings that were installed with a faying surface mismatch beyond allowed tolerances were the upper stringer fittings.
We agree that clarification of the language describing what prompted the AD is necessary. We have changed the
Boeing asked that we clarify the Discussion section of the NPRM, which stated that the faying surface mismatch produces a gouge. Boeing requested that we revise this wording to indicate that a gouge produced from a faying surface mismatch is a possibility, not a certainty.
We do not agree that the description in the Discussion section of the NPRM is inaccurate, because excessive cutter mismatch will produce a gouge in the mating surface eventually. In addition, the Discussion section of NPRMs is not fully repeated in final rules. Therefore, we have not changed this AD in this regard.
Boeing asked that we clarify the description of the corrective actions in the “Related Service Information under 1 CFR part 51” section of the NPRM by distinguishing certain conditions associated with the various corrective actions.
We agree that clarification of the language is necessary. The “Related Service Information under 1 CFR part 51” section in an AD simply describes the various actions in the service information; it does not describe the detailed requirements with specific corrective actions for specific inspection findings. Therefore, we have changed that section in this final rule to simply list the different actions provided in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB570018-00, Issue 001, dated July 1, 2015.
Boeing asked that the word “other” be removed from the “FAA's Determination” section of the NPRM, which specifies that the unsafe condition “is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.” Boeing stated that the unsafe condition resulted from a quality escapement applicable to specific line numbers, and therefore is not likely to develop in other products of the same type design (
We do not agree to remove the word “other” from the specified sentence. In 14 CFR 39.5, which defines the reason for issuing ADs, it states that an AD addresses “a product” when the unsafe condition is likely to exist or develop in “other products” of the same type design. The product addressed by an AD refers to the airplane(s) associated with the incident or specific findings that prompted the AD. In this case, the “other products” extends to Model 787-8 airplanes that are identified in paragraph (c) of this AD—that is, airplanes identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB570018-00, Issue 001, dated July 1, 2015—not the entire fleet. We have not changed this AD in this regard.
Boeing asked that we change the compliance time wording in paragraph (g) of the proposed AD for clarification by referring to Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB570018-00, Issue 001, dated July 1, 2015, instead of specifying the actual compliance time.
We do not agree with the request. Paragraph (g) of the proposed AD (which is retained in this final rule) provides the compliance time (before the accumulation of 18,000 total flight cycles, or within 13 years after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs first) because the Accomplishment Instructions of the service information do not provide a compliance time for the inspection. We have not changed this AD regarding this issue.
Boeing asked that we clarify the description of the inspections specified in paragraphs (g)(1), (g)(2), and (g)(3) of the proposed AD as follows: (1) Do a detailed inspection for a machine mismatch condition of the stringer 1 fitting faying surface; (2) Do a detailed inspection of the faying surface of the aluminum T-chord common to stringer 1 fitting for fretting damage; and (3) Do an eddy current inspection for cracking of the fastener holes common to stringer fittings 1 and 5 through 11. Boeing stated that this will more closely match the information and sequence of the inspections specified in the referenced service information.
We agree with the commenter's request to clarify the inspection language specified in paragraphs (g)(1), (g)(2), and (g)(3) of this AD, for the reasons provided. We have clarified those paragraphs accordingly.
Boeing asked that we revise paragraph (h) of the proposed AD to clarify the corrective actions. The commenter defined four corrective actions (which are also defined in the service information).
We agree with the commenter's request in part. We do not agree to clarify the corrective actions because the actions described by the commenter are for the inspections required by paragraph (g) of this AD, and are clearly specified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB570018-00, Issue 001, dated July 1, 2015. Those corrective actions are identified in paragraph (g) of this AD as, simply, “corrective actions,” and are further defined by reference to Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB570018-00, Issue 001, dated July 1, 2015. However, we do agree to change the title of paragraph (h) of this AD to specify “Modification, Inspection, and Repair” to encompass the requirements specified in paragraph (h) of this AD.
To ensure that all provisions within the RC steps for contacting Boeing are captured, Boeing requested that we revise paragraph (i) of the proposed AD to refer to repair of the “applicable condition” instead of just “cracking.”
We do not agree with the commenter's request. Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB570018-00, Issue 001, dated July 1, 2015, specifies contacting Boeing if there is a crack; corrective actions for other discrepancies are provided within the service information.
Boeing also asked that we add the following exception in paragraph (i) of the proposed AD:
Additionally, where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB570018-00, Issue 001, dated July 1, 2015, specifies a compliance time “after the original issue date of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
We do not agree to include the compliance time exception. As explained previously, the compliance times in this AD are defined using specific times instead of referring to the service information. Therefore, there are no exceptions to the service information regarding the compliance times in this AD. We have not changed this AD regarding this issue.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD with the changes described previously and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of this AD.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB570018-00, Issue 001, dated July 1, 2015. The service information describes procedures for inspection of the left and right hand side stringer 1 fittings for faying surface mismatch common to the side-of-body rib chord, replacement of the stringer 1 fitting, and removal and replacement of the clearance fit fasteners common to the side-of-body fittings and upper side-of-body rib chord with tapered sleeve bolts from stringer 5 to stringer 11. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 5 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary corrective action for fretting damage or cutter mismatch based on the results of the inspection. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these corrective actions:
We have received no definitive data that enables us to provide cost estimates for the crack repair specified in this AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective February 15, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 787-8 airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB570018-00, Issue 001, dated July 1, 2015.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 57, Wings.
This AD was prompted by reports indicating that certain wing side-of-body upper stringer fittings have been installed with faying surface mismatch beyond the allowed machining tolerance. We are issuing this AD to prevent an unacceptable reduction of the fatigue life in the upper side-of-body rib chord. Associated fatigue cracks can reduce the structural capability of the upper side-of-body t-chord to a point where it cannot sustain limit load, which could
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Before the accumulation of 18,000 total flight cycles, or within 13 years after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs first, do the inspections specified in paragraphs (g)(1), (g)(2), and (g)(3) of this AD, and all applicable corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB570018-00, Issue 001, dated July 1, 2015, except as required by paragraph (i) of this AD. Do all applicable corrective actions before further flight.
(1) Do a detailed inspection for a machine mismatch condition of the stringer 1 fitting faying surface.
(2) Do a detailed inspection of the faying surface of the aluminum T-chord common to the stringer 1 fitting for fretting damage.
(3) Do an eddy current inspection for cracking of the fastener holes common to stringer fitting 1 and stringer fittings 5 through 11.
Concurrently with accomplishment of the requirements of paragraph (g) of this AD: Modify the stringer fitting fasteners, and do an eddy current inspection for cracking of the fastener holes, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB570018-00, Issue 001, dated July 1, 2015. If any crack is found, before further flight, repair using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (j) of this AD.
Where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB570018-00, Issue 001, dated July 1, 2015, specifies to contact Boeing for repair of cracking: Before further flight, repair the cracking using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (j) of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) Except as required by paragraph (i) of this AD: For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (j)(4)(i) and (j)(4)(ii) apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
For more information about this AD, contact Allen Rauschendorfer, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6487; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB570018-00, Issue 001, dated July 1, 2015.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Airbus Defense and Space S.A. Model CN-235, CN-235-100, CN 235-200, and CN-235-300 airplanes. This AD was prompted by reports of cracks in certain areas of the rear fuselage. This AD requires repetitive borescope and detailed visual inspections of the rear fuselage lateral beam and its external area, and repair if necessary. We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective February 15, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publications listed in this AD as of February 15, 2017.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus Defence and Space, Services/Engineering Support, Avenida de Aragón 404, 28022 Madrid, Spain; telephone +34 91 585 55 84; fax +34 91 585 31 27; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Shahram Daneshmandi, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1112; fax 425-227-1149.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to all Airbus Defense and Space S.A. Model CN-235, CN-235-100, CN-235-200, and CN-235-300 airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued Airworthiness Directive 2016-0064, dated April 4, 2016 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Airbus Defense and Space S.A. Model CN-235, CN-235-100, CN-235-200, and CN-235-300 airplanes. The MCAI states:
During a scheduled visual inspection accomplished in accordance with the CN-235 Maintenance Review Board (MRB) Document task 53.160, cracking was found, affecting the rear fuselage lateral beam, both left hand (LH) and right hand (RH) sides. The investigation to determine the cause of these cracks is on-going.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could lead to failure of the affected components, resulting in reduced structural integrity of the fuselage.
To address this potential unsafe condition, Airbus Defence and Space (D&S) issued Alert Operator Transmission (AOT) AOT-CN235-53-0002 Revision 1 (hereafter referred to as `the AOT' in this AD) to provide inspection instructions.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD requires repetitive inspections [special detailed inspection with a borescope and detailed visual] of the rear fuselage lateral beam and its external area and, depending on findings, [cracks or discrepancies], accomplishment of applicable corrective action(s) [repair].
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We reviewed Airbus Defense and Space Alert Operators Transmission (AOT), AOT-CN235-53-0002, Revision 1, dated September 17, 2015. This service information describes repetitive borescope and detailed visual inspection requirements for the rear fuselage lateral beam and its external area. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 13 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We have received no definitive data that will enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective February 15, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to Airbus Defense and Space S.A. (formerly known as Construcciones Aeronauticas, S.A.) Model CN-235, CN-235-100, CN-235-200, and CN-235-300 airplanes, certificated in any category, all manufacturer serial numbers.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by reports of cracks in certain areas of the rear fuselage. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracks in the rear fuselage lateral beam and its external area; such cracking could lead to failure of the affected components, and result in reduced structural integrity of the fuselage.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within the compliance time specified in table 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD, and thereafter at intervals not to exceed the values specified in table 2 to paragraph (g) of this AD, as applicable to airplane model, accomplish the inspections as specified in paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD, in accordance with the instructions of Airbus Defense and Space Alert Operators Transmission (AOT) AOT-CN235-53-0002, Revision 1, dated September 17, 2015.
(1) A special detailed inspection for cracks and other discrepancies with a borescope of the rear fuselage lateral beam between frame (FR) 31 and FR 45, left-hand (LH) and right-hand (RH) side.
(2) A detailed visual inspection for cracks and other discrepancies of the external area of the rear fuselage lateral beam, LH and RH side.
If any crack or discrepancy is found during any inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD: Before further flight, contact and obtain repair instructions from Airbus Defense and Space S.A. in accordance with paragraph (k)(2) of this AD, and within the compliance time indicated in those instructions, accomplish the repair accordingly, including any post-repair maintenance task(s), as applicable.
Accomplishment of a repair on an airplane, as required by paragraph (h) of this AD, does not constitute terminating action for the repetitive inspections as required by paragraph (g) of this AD for that airplane, unless specified in the applicable repair instructions obtained in paragraph (h).
This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraphs (g) and (h) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD, using Airbus Defense and Space AOT AOT-CN235-53-0002, dated August 28, 2015.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2016-0064, dated April 4, 2016, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) Service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the addresses specified in paragraphs (m)(3) and (m)(4) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Airbus Defense and Space Alert Operators Transmission (AOT), AOT-CN235-53-0002, Revision 1, dated September 17, 2015.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact EADS-CASA, Military Transport Aircraft Division (MTAD), Integrated Customer Services (ICS), Technical Services, Avenida de Aragón 404, 28022 Madrid, Spain; telephone +34 91 585 55 84; fax +34 91 585 55 05; email
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule; request for comments.
We are superseding airworthiness directive (AD) 2014-05-25 for all Rolls-Royce plc (RR) RB211-Trent 970-84, RB211-Trent 970B-84, RB211-Trent 972-84, RB211-Trent 972B-84, RB211-Trent 977-84, RB211-Trent 977B-84, and RB211-Trent 980-84 turbofan engines. AD 2014-05-25 required inspections of the low-pressure turbine (LPT) exhaust case and support assembly or tail bearing housing (TBH) to detect cracks or damage. This AD modifies the inspection schedule for the affected engines and adds an optional terminating action. This AD was prompted by RR performing additional analysis of inspection results and determining that the existing inspections need to be modified. We are issuing this AD to correct the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective January 26, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of January 26, 2017.
We must receive any comments on this AD by February 27, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this AD, contact Rolls-Royce plc, Corporate Communications, P.O. Box 31, Derby, England, DE24 8BJ; phone: 011-44-1332-242424; fax: 011-44-1332-245418, or email:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Robert Green, Aerospace Engineer, Engine Certification Office, FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803; phone: 781-238-7754; fax: 781-238-7199; email:
This AD is a final rule that involves requirements affecting flight safety, and we did not provide you with notice and an opportunity to provide your comments before it becomes effective. However, we invite you to send any written data, views, or arguments about this AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
On February 27, 2014, we issued AD 2014-05-25, Amendment 39-17798 (79 FR 15665, March 21, 2014), “AD 2014-05-25,” for all RR RB211-Trent 970-84, RB211-Trent 970B-84, RB211-Trent 972-84, RB211-Trent 972B-84, RB211-Trent 977-84, RB211-Trent 977B-84, and RB211-Trent 980-84 turbofan engines. AD 2014-05-25 required inspections of the LPT exhaust case and support assembly or TBH to detect cracks or damage. AD 2014-05-25 resulted from an RR structural re-analysis indicating that the TBH may not retain full limit load capability in all fail-safe conditions. We issued AD 2014-05-25 to prevent failure of the
Since we issued AD 2014-05-25, RR has analyzed inspection results and determined that the existing inspections need to be modified. Also since we issued AD 2014-05-25, the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) has issued AD 2016-0193, dated September 30, 2016, which modifies the inspection schedule for the affected engines and adds an optional terminating action.
RR has issued Alert Non-Modification Service Bulletin (NMSB) RB.211-72-AG971, Revision 2, dated May 5, 2016; Alert NMSB RB.211-72-AH154, Revision 5, dated May 5, 2016; Alert NMSB RB.211-72-AJ101, dated May 5, 2016; and Service Bulletin (SB) RB.211-72-J055, dated March 22, 2016. RR Alert NMSB RB.211-72-AG971 describes procedures for on-wing or in-shop inspection of the TBH mount lug run-outs. RR Alert NMSB RB.211-72-AH154 describes procedures for an on-wing or in-shop inspection of a pre-mod 72-J024 TBH. RR Alert NMSB RB.211-72-AJ101 describes procedures for on-wing or in-shop inspection of a post-mod 72-J024 TBH. RR SB RB.211-72-J055 describes procedures for modifying the engine by introducing a revised TBH. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
RR has also issued Technical Variance (TV) No. 124801, Issue 2, dated July 4, 2012; TV No. 124851, Issue 2, dated July 4, 2012; Repeater TV No. 132043, Issue 1, dated March 25, 2013; and Repeater TV No. 132217, Issue 5, dated May 23, 2013. RR TV No. 124801 and RR TV No. 124851 provide details on the fluorescent penetrant inspection of the TBH mount lug run-outs. RR Repeater TV No. 132043 includes details of the inspection of the mount lug forging LE areas. RR Repeater TV No. 132217 makes the removal and installation of the exhaust nozzle and forward and aft exhaust plugs optional tasks.
We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This AD modifies the inspection schedule for the affected engines and adds an optional terminating action.
No domestic operators use this product. Therefore, we find that notice and opportunity for prior public comment are unnecessary and that good cause exists for making this amendment effective in less than 30 days.
We estimate that this AD affects 0 engines installed on airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701, “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends part 39 of the Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR part 39) as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective January 26, 2017.
This AD replaces AD 2014-05-25, Amendment 39-17798 (79 FR 15665, March 21, 2014).
This AD applies to all Rolls-Royce plc (RR) RB211-Trent 970-84, RB211-Trent 970B-84, RB211-Trent 972-84, RB211-Trent 972B-84,
Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC) Code 7200, Engine (Turbine/Turboprop).
This AD was prompted by RR performing additional analysis of inspection results and determining that the existing inspections need to be modified. We are issuing this AD to prevent failure of the tail bearing housing (TBH), resulting in damage to the engine and to the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) Within the compliance times and using the service information specified in Table 1 to paragraph (f) of this AD, accomplish on-wing inspections of the TBH features using the following instructions, as applicable.
(i) If during any on-wing inspection of the TBH mount lug run-outs done using the Accomplishment Instructions, paragraph 3.A.(1), of RR Alert Non-Modification Service Bulletin (NMSB) RB.211-72-AG971, Revision 2, dated May 5, 2016, any cracks less than or equal to 2 mm in length are found, remove the engine from service within 10 flight cycles (FCs). If any cracks greater than 2 mm are found, remove the engine from service before further flight.
(ii) If during any on-wing inspection of the TBH mount lug run-outs done using the Accomplishment Instructions, paragraph 3.A.(2), of RR Alert NMSB RB.211-72-AG971, Revision 2, dated May 5, 2016, any crack indications resulting in an inspection signal with an amplitude of 50% full screen height or more are found, remove the engine from service before further flight.
(iii) If during any on-wing inspection of a pre-mod 72-J024 TBH, any crack or damage is found on the TBH mount lug forging leading edge (LE) areas, re-inspect the engine or remove the engine from service in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions, paragraph 3.A.(3)(t), of RR Alert NMSB RB.211-72-AH154, Revision 5, dated May 5, 2016.
(iv) If during any on-wing inspection of a post-mod 72-J024 TBH, any crack is found on the TBH mount lug forging LE or cutback areas, re-inspect the engine or remove the engine from service in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions, paragraph 3.A.(3)(t), of RR Alert NMSB RB.211-72-AJ101, dated May 5, 2016.
(2) Within the compliance times and using the service information specified in Table 2 to paragraph (f) of this AD, peform in-shop inspections of the TBH features using the following instructions, as applicable.
(i) If during any in-shop inspection of the TBH, any crack is found on the TBH mount lug or central male catcher run-outs, replace the TBH with a TBH eligible for installation before the engine is returned to service.
(ii) If during any in-shop inspection of the TBH, any crack is found on the top core vanes, reject as unserviceable or repair the TBH in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions, paragraph 3.C.(1)(f), of RR Alert NMSB RB.211-72-AG971 Revision 2, dated May 5, 2016, before the engine is returned to service.
(iii) If during any in-shop inspection of a pre-mod 72-J024 TBH, any crack or damage is found on the TBH mount lug forging LE areas, reject as unserviceable or repair the TBH in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions, paragraph 3.B.(2)(u)(ii), of RR Alert NMSB RB.211-72-AH154, Revision 5, dated May 5, 2016, or the Accomplishment Instructions, paragraph 3.C.(1)(f), of RR Alert NMSB RB.211-72-AG971, Revision 2, dated May 5, 2016, before the engine is returned to service.
(iv) If during any in-shop inspection of a post-mod 72-J024 TBH, any crack is found on the TBH mount lug forging LE or cutback areas, repair the TBH in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions, paragraph 3.B.(2)(u)(ii), of RR Alert NMSB RB.211-72-AJ101, dated May 5, 2016, or the Accomplishment Instructions, paragraph 3.C.(1)(f), of Alert NMSB RB.211-72-AG971, Revision 2, dated May 5, 2016, before the engine is returned to service.
(1) If you performed inspections and corrective actions on an engine before the effective date of this AD, in accordance with earlier versions of RR Alert NMSB RB.211-72-AG971, Revision 2, dated May 5, 2016, or RR Alert NMSB RB.211-72-AH154, Revision 5, dated May 5, 2016, you met the requirements of paragraph (f)(1) or (2) of this AD, as applicable.
(2) If, on or before April 7, 2014, you performed the inspections and corrective actions required by paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) of this AD using RR Technical Variance (TV) No. 124801, Issue 2, dated July 4, 2012 or earlier versions; or RR TV No. 124851, Issue 2, dated July 4, 2012 or earlier versions; you met the requirements for a mount lug run-out inspection.
(3) If, on or before April 7, 2014, you performed the inspections and corrective actions required by paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) of this AD using RR Repeater TV No. 132043, Issue 1, dated March 25, 2013 or earlier versions; or using RR Repeater TV No. 132217, Issue 5, dated May 23, 2013 or earlier versions; you met the requirements for the mount lug forging LE inspections of this AD.
(1) Accomplishment of corrective actions required by paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) of this AD does not constitute terminating action for the repetitive inspections required by this AD.
(2) Modification of an engine in accordance with the instructions of RR SB RB.211-72-J055, dated March 22, 2016, constitutes terminating action for the repetitive inspections required by paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) of this AD for that engine, provided that, following this modification, no affected TBH is installed on that engine.
The Manager, Engine Certification Office, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Use the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19 to make your request. You may email your request to:
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Robert Green, Aerospace Engineer, Engine Certification Office, FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803; phone: 781-238-7754; fax: 781-238-7199; email:
(2) Refer to MCAI European Aviation Safety Agency AD 2016-0193, dated September 30, 2016, for more information. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
(3) RR TV No. 124801, Issue 2, dated July 4, 2012; RR TV No. 124851, Issue 2, dated July 4, 2012, Repeater TV No. 132043, Issue 1, dated March 25, 2013, and Repeater TV No. 132217, Issue 5, dated May 23, 2013; which are not incorporated by reference in this AD, can be obtained from RR using the contact information in paragraph (k)(3) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Rolls-Royce plc (RR) Service Bulletin RB.211-72-J055, dated March 22, 2016.
(ii) RR Alert Non-Modification Service Bulletin (NMSB) RB.211-72-AJ101, dated May 5, 2016;
(iii) RR Alert NMSB RB.211-72-AG971, Revision 2, dated May 5, 2016; and
(iv) RR Alert NMSB RB.211-72-AH154, Revision 5, dated May 5, 2016.
(3) For RR service information identified in this AD, contact Rolls-Royce plc, Corporate Communications, P.O. Box 31, Derby, England, DE24 8BJ; phone: 011-44-1332-242424; fax: 011-44-1332-245418, or email:
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 781-238-7125.
(5) You may view this service information at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
This final rule will allow airmen to exercise pilot in command privileges in certain aircraft without holding a current medical certificate. This rule, which conforms FAA regulations with legislation, is intended to ensure that pilots who complete a medical education course, meet certain medical requirements, and comply with aircraft and operating restrictions are allowed to act as pilot in command for most part 91 operations.
This rule is effective on May 1, 2017.
John Linsenmeyer, General Aviation and Commercial Division, AFS-800, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, 55 M Street SE., 8th floor, Washington, DC 20003; telephone: (202) 267-1100; email:
The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) Extension, Safety, and Security Act of 2016 (Pub. L. 114-190) (FESSA) was enacted on July 15, 2016. Section 2307 of FESSA, Medical Certification of Certain Small Aircraft Pilots, directed the FAA to “issue or revise regulations to ensure that an individual may operate as pilot in command of a covered aircraft” without having to undergo the medical certification process under 14 CFR part 67 if the pilot and aircraft meet certain prescribed conditions as outlined in FESSA. The FAA is amending parts 61 and 91 and creating a new part 68 to conform to this legislation.
This final rule implements, without interpretation, the requirements of section 2307 of FESSA. This rule reiterates the provisions of section 2307 of FESSA and describes how the FAA is implementing those provisions.
The FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code (49 U.S.C.). Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority.
This final rule is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart iii, section 44701, General Requirements; section 44702, Issuance of Certificates; and section 44703, Airman Certificates. Under these sections, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations and minimum standards for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. The FAA is also authorized to issue certificates, including airman certificates and medical certificates, to qualified individuals. This rule is within the scope of that authority.
This rule is further promulgated under section 2307 of Public Law 114-190, the FAA Extension, Safety and Security Act of 2016. Section 2307, Medical Certification of Certain Small Aircraft Pilots, provides the requirements and terms of this rule.
The Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3)(B)) requires an agency to conduct notice and comment rulemaking except when the agency for good cause finds (and incorporates the finding and a brief statement of reasons therefor in the rules issued) that notice and public procedure thereon are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest. The FAA finds that notice and the opportunity to comment are unnecessary and contrary to the public interest in this action because the FAA has simply adopted the statutory language without interpretation and is implementing that language directly into the regulations. The FAA further finds that delaying implementation of this rule to allow for notice and comment would be contrary to the public interest as to do so would delay the new privileges Congress sought to provide.
In general, a person may serve as a required pilot flightcrew member of an aircraft only if that person holds the appropriate medical certificate.
A medical certificate provides validation that a person meets FAA medical certification requirements. Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 67 provides for the issuance of three classes of medical certificates—first-, second-, and third-class medical certificates.
A person obtains a medical certificate by completing an online application (FAA form 8500-8, Application for Medical Certificate) using the FAA's medical certificate application tool, MedXPress, on the FAA Web site and undergoing a physical examination with an FAA-designated Aviation Medical Examiner (AME). The majority of applicants are issued an unrestricted medical certificate by an AME. An AME may defer an applicant to the FAA for further review (which may include further examination by a specialist physician) when there is information indicating the existence or potential of an adverse medical finding that may warrant further FAA medical evaluation and oversight. Title 14 CFR 61.23 specifies the duration of validity for unrestricted medical certificates based on the applicant's age on the date of examination. For third-class medical certificates, certificates for airmen under age 40 are valid for 5 years and for airmen age 40 and over are valid for 2 years.
Section 2307, Medical Certification of Certain Small Aircraft Pilots, provides that, within 180 days of enactment of Public Law 114-190, the FAA Extension, Safety and Security Act of 2016, the Administrator of the FAA shall issue or revise regulations to ensure that an individual may operate as pilot in command of a covered aircraft if certain provisions stipulated in section 2307 of FESSA are met. Those provisions, discussed further below, include requirements for the person to:
• Possess a valid driver's license;
• Have held a medical certificate at any time after July 15, 2006;
• Have not had the most recently held medical certificate revoked, suspended, or withdrawn;
• Have not had the most recent application for airman medical certification completed and denied;
• Have taken a medical education course within the past 24 calendar months;
• Have completed a comprehensive medical examination within the past 48 months;
• Be under the care of a physician for certain medical conditions;
• Have been found eligible for special issuance of a medical certificate for certain specified mental health, neurological, or cardiovascular conditions;
• Consent to a National Driver Register check;
• Fly only certain small aircraft, at a limited altitude and speed, and only within the United States;
• Not fly for compensation or hire.
The FAA notes that the use of this rule by any eligible pilot is voluntary. Persons may elect to use this rule or may continue to operate using any valid FAA medical certificate.
Section 2307(a)(1) through (7) contains several requirements the pilot must meet in order to act as pilot-in-command (PIC) of a covered aircraft. The FAA is implementing those requirements by revising § 61.23(c)(1) and by adding new § 61.23(c)(3).
Section 2307(a) states that an “individual” may operate as PIC of a covered aircraft in accordance with the requirements of FESSA. Thus, the privileges of this rule are not limited to persons holding a private pilot certificate; it also applies to persons exercising student pilot, recreational pilot, and private pilot privileges and to persons exercising flight instructor privileges when acting as PIC.
Section 2307(a)(1) of FESSA requires that, to be eligible to act as PIC without a medical certificate, an individual possess a valid driver's license issued by a State, territory, or possession of the United States and comply with all medical requirements or restrictions associated with that license. As with other FAA regulations, the FAA interprets “valid driver's license” to mean a current and valid U.S. driver's license. Each State will determine what, if any, medical requirements or restrictions are necessary and associated with each driver's license issued.
The FAA is implementing section 2307(a)(1) by revising § 61.23(c)(1) and by adding new § 61.23(c)(3). The FAA is adding paragraphs (v) and (vi) to § 61.23(c)(1) to require a person exercising a student pilot certificate, recreational pilot certificate, private pilot certificate, or flight instructor certificate (while acting as the pilot in command or as a required flight crewmember) to hold and possess either a medical certificate or a driver's license issued by a State, territory, or possession of the U.S. when operating under this rule. Additionally, the FAA is adding new § 61.23(c)(3) to require a person using a U.S. driver's license to meet the requirements of § 61.23(c)(1) while operating under section 2307 of FESSA to comply with all medical requirements or restrictions associated with his or her U.S. driver's license.
The FAA notes that, while some pilots use an official passport as a valid form of photo identification under § 61.3(a)(2), it does not meet the requirements of section 2307(a)(1) of FESSA. All pilots, including pilots who were issued U.S. private pilot certificates in accordance with § 61.75,
Individuals who do not have a medical certificate and whose driver's license has been revoked or rescinded for any reason are not eligible to use this rule, unless and until the driver's license is reinstated. Any restrictions on a driver's license (
Since FESSA requires the individual to possess a driver's license, pilots are required to have the driver's license in their personal possession when operating using this rule.
Section 2307(a)(2) of FESSA requires that the individual (1) hold a medical certificate issued by the FAA on the date of enactment of Public Law 114-190, (2) have held a medical certificate at any point during the 10-year period preceding the date of enactment, or (3) obtain a medical certificate after the date of enactment. Because Public Law 114-190 was signed into law on July 15, 2016,
Consistent with section 2307(a)(3) of FESSA, the medical certificate required under § 61.23(c)(3)(i)(B) may have been a first-, second-, or third-class medical certificate, including a medical certificate issued under an authorization for special issuance (“special issuance medical certificate”).
A person who has not held a medical certificate at any point after July 14, 2006, must obtain a medical certificate issued under part 67. After that medical certificate expires, that person may use, or continue to use, the alternative pilot physical examination and education requirements, provided that person meets the other conditions and limitations.
For individuals relying on an already expired certificate, a person should use the date that his or her most recent medical certificate expired to determine whether it meets the 10-year period look-back described in FESSA. Special-issuance medical certificates are always time-limited and will explicitly state the date when the certificate expires or is no longer valid. Therefore, any special-issuance medical certificate with an expiration date on or after July 15, 2006, would meet the 10-year look-back requirement.
Unrestricted (“regular issuance”) medical certificates do not list a specific expiration date. Therefore, persons with an unrestricted FAA medical certificate should refer to the “Date of Examination” displayed on the certificate, and then use § 61.23(d) to determine when it expired for operations requiring a third-class medical certificate.
Persons age 40 or over on the date of their examination would meet the 10-year period described in FESSA if their examination was on or after July 15, 2004. This date is based on the two-year validity period for third class medical certificates issued to persons age 40 or over. Persons under age 40 on the date of their examination would meet the 10-year period described in FESSA if their examination was on or after July 15, 2003. This date is based on the three-year validity period for third class medical certificates issued to persons under 40 years of age that was in effect prior to 2008.
Individuals operating under this rule are not required to carry or possess the expired medical certificate when operating under this rule.
Section 2307(a)(3) of FESSA requires that the most recent medical certificate issued by the FAA to the individual: (1) Indicates whether the certificate isfirst-, second-, or third-class; (2) may include authorization for special issuance; (3) may be expired; (4) cannot have been revoked or suspended; and (5) cannot have been withdrawn.
The requirement that the medical certificate indicate whether the certificate is first-, second-, or third-class is captured in § 61.23(c)(3)(i)(B), which requires the medical certificate to have been issued under part 67.
Thus, the most recently issued medical certificate, which the person must have held at any point after July 14, 2006, may have been a special issuance medical certificate and may be expired. However, it may not have been suspended or revoked, or in the case of an authorization for a special issuance (
Section 2307 of FESSA states that the medical certificate “cannot have been revoked or suspended.” Accordingly, if
Further, if the person's medical certificate expired while under suspension, the person must apply for and be issued a new medical certificate to use the privileges of this rule. This requirement is based on the language in FESSA stating that the certificate “cannot have been suspended.” The fact that the certificate expired while under suspension does not change the fact that it was suspended (for purposes of exercising relief under this rule).
Finally, § 2307 requires that the most recently issued medical certificate “cannot have been withdrawn.” The FAA notes that unrestricted medical certificates may be denied, suspended, or revoked and authorizations for special issuances (
Section 2307(a)(4) of FESSA requires that the most recent application for airman medical certification submitted to the FAA by the individual cannot have been completed and denied. The FAA is implementing this requirement in § 61.23(c)(3)(iv).
Consistent with the Guide for Aviation Medical Examiners and online information on the Aerospace Medical Certification Subsystem (AMCS), the FAA considers an application to be completed once the AME imports the individual's MedXPress application data into AMCS.
After importing a MedXPress application into AMCS, the AME may take one of three actions on the completed application. The AME may: (1) Issue a medical certificate; (2) defer issuance to the FAA; or (3) deny the issuance of a medical certificate. Guidance to AMEs makes clear that once the AME has imported the individual's application in MedXpress, the AME is required to transmit the application to the FAA,
An individual's application is considered completed and denied and that individual is unable to use the privileges of this rule when:
(1) An AME denies an application immediately after completing the examination and the FAA does not reverse that decision.
(2) The FAA denies the application after the applicant has been deferred by the AME.
(3) A denied application remains under judicial appeal (
Additionally, if a person held a medical certificate within the 10-year period preceding July 15, 2016, but subsequently submitted a new application that was completed and denied, that person could not revert to the previous medical certificate meeting the 10-year look back requirement. That person would need to re-apply and be issued a new medical certificate to use the privileges of this rule.
Section 2307(a)(5) of FESSA requires the individual to have completed a medical education course during the 24 calendar months before acting as pilot in command of a covered aircraft and demonstrate proof of completion of the course. The FAA notes that section 2307(c) prescribes the medical education course requirements, which are implemented in new part 68 and discussed in section VI of this preamble.
Section 61.23(c)(3)(i)(C) implements the requirement to have completed the medical education course during the 24 calendar months before acting as PIC of an operation under § 61.113(i).
Section 2307(a)(6) of FESSA requires that the individual, when serving as PIC, is under the care and treatment of a physician if the individual has been diagnosed with any medical condition that may impact the ability of the individual to fly. This requirement is implemented in § 61.23(c)(3)(i)(E).
Section 2307(a)(7) of FESSA requires the individual to have received a comprehensive medical examination from a State-licensed physician during the previous 48 months. This requirement is implemented in § 61.23(c)(3)(i)(D). The FAA notes that section 2307(a)(7) contains additional requirements regarding the comprehensive medical examination. Those additional requirements are implemented in new part 68 and discussed in section VII of this preamble.
In implementing section 2307(a)(7), the FAA notes that section 2307(a)(5) uses the term “calendar months” and section 2307(a)(7) uses the term “months.” As evident from a legal interpretation issued on February 24, 2000,
Section 2307(j) of FESSA contains the covered aircraft requirements and section 2307(a)(8) contains the operating requirements. The FAA is implementing these requirements in new § 61.113(i).
Throughout section 2307, FESSA refers to a “covered aircraft.” Section 2307(j) of FESSA defines a covered aircraft as an aircraft that (1) is authorized under Federal law to carry not more than 6 occupants; and (2) has a maximum certificated takeoff weight of not more than 6,000 pounds.
The FAA is implementing these requirements for type certificated aircraft in § 61.113(i)(1). For type certificated aircraft, the aircraft's design approval would authorize the number of occupants the aircraft may carry and would contain the maximum certificated takeoff weight. The aircraft's design approval may be a type certificate (TC), a supplemental type certificate (STC), or an amended type certificate (ATC). The FAA recognizes that changes could be made to an aircraft's type design. For example, an aircraft type certificated to carry more than 6 occupants may be altered to carry 6 or less occupants. In order to make such a change, that aircraft would have to obtain a new design approval, such as an STC or an ATC. So long as an aircraft's design approval (
The FAA is implementing the requirements of section 2307(j) for experimental aircraft by adding paragraph (j) to § 91.319. Experimental aircraft, which are not type certificated, are issued special airworthiness certificates. The FAA prescribes operating limitations to accompany the special airworthiness certificates. Additionally, § 91.319 prescribes operating limitations for aircraft having experimental certificates. Consistent with section 2307(j) of FESSA, § 91.319(j) states that no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate under § 61.113(i) unless the aircraft is carrying not more than 6 occupants. The FAA is adding this paragraph to make clear that experimental aircraft meet the requirements for covered aircraft under this rule.
The FAA notes that the maximum takeoff weight of an experimental aircraft is determined as part of the special airworthiness certification process. Prior to issuing a special airworthiness certificate, the FAA checks the current weight and balance information for an aircraft, which includes the maximum gross weight established by the operator.
While a person may operate an aircraft that meets the requirements of section 2307(j) under this rule, the FAA notes that section 2307 does not relieve an aircraft from the requirement to be operated in accordance with its operating limitations.
Section 2307(a)(8) of FESSA requires that the individual operate in accordance with the following operating requirements:
• The covered aircraft is carrying not more than 5 passengers.
• The individual is operating the covered aircraft under visual flight rules or instrument flight rules.
• The flight, including each portion of that flight, is not carried out—
• for compensation or hire, including that no passenger or property on the flight is being carried for compensation or hire;
• at an altitude that is more than 18,000 feet above mean sea level;
• outside the United States, unless authorized by the country in which the flight is conducted; or
• at an indicated airspeed exceeding 250 knots.
The following sections discuss the FAA's implementation of these requirements in more detail.
Section 2307(a)(8)(A) of FESSA requires that the covered aircraft carry no more than five passengers. This requirement is implemented in § 61.113(i)(1).
As previously discussed, section 2307(j) of FESSA requires the covered aircraft to be authorized to carry no more than six occupants. While section 2307(j) and section 2307(a)(8)(A) may appear to conflict, the FAA notes that it interprets the terms “occupants” and “passengers” differently. The term “occupants” includes all persons onboard an aircraft including any required flightcrew members.
The operations under this rule include training operations. As such, a person may receive flight training from an FAA-authorized flight instructor while the person receiving flight training is acting as PIC and operating under this rule. Alternatively, an individual may receive flight instruction from a flight instructor while the flight instructor is acting as PIC and operating under this rule.
This rule is applicable only to the person acting as the PIC. Thus, for any flight operated under this rule, the status of the medical certificate of any other pilot aboard who is not acting as the PIC is irrelevant. For example, flight instructors meeting the requirements of this rule may act as PIC while giving flight training without holding a medical certificate, regardless of whether the person receiving flight training holds a medical certificate. While flight training for compensation is considered “other commercial flying” for flight and duty requirements under parts 121 and 135,
Section 2307(a)(8)(B) of FESSA permits an operation under that section to be conducted under visual flight rules or instrument flight rules. An individual operating under this rule may, therefore, conduct the flight in visual meteorological conditions or instrument meteorological conditions. The FAA notes, however, that FESSA does not relieve an individual from the requirement to hold an instrument rating and be instrument current to act as PIC under instrument flight rules. Nor does FESSA relieve an aircraft from the requirement to be approved for IFR operations in order to be operated under instrument flight rules.
Section 2307(a)(8)(C) requires that the flight, including each portion of the flight, is not carried out: (i) For compensation or hire, including that no passenger or property on the flight is being carried for compensation or hire; (ii) at an altitude that is more than 18,000 feet above mean sea level; (iii) outside the United States, unless authorized by the country in which the flight is conducted; or (iv) at an indicated air speed exceeding 250 knots.
Because the statute includes the phrase “. . . flight, including each portion of the flight,” all of the limitations for the operation set forth in section 2307(a)(8)(C)(i)-(iv) (
Section 2307(a)(8)(C)(i) of FESSA requires that the flight, including each portion of that flight, is not carried out for compensation or hire, including that no passenger or property on the flight is being carried for compensation or hire. Section 61.113(a) already prohibits private pilots from acting as PIC of an aircraft that is carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire and from acting as PIC for compensation or hire. Accordingly, this FESSA requirement is already addressed by the existing regulation.
Section 2307(a)(8)(C)(ii) of FESSA requires that the flight, including each portion of that flight, is not carried out at an altitude that is more than 18,000 feet above mean sea level (MSL). This requirement is implemented in § 61.113(i)(2)(ii).
For pilots operating aircraft capable of flight above 18,000 feet MSL, the pilot's preflight planning must accommodate the altitude limitation. For instance, if weather phenomena like icing or thunderstorms are forecast (or is within reasonable possibility) within the pilot's route of flight that would necessitate climbing above 18,000 feet MSL, the FAA considers initiating such a flight to be contrary to this rule. The aircraft must operate at or below 18,000 feet MSL during the entire flight.
Section 2307(a)(8)(C)(iii) of FESSA requires that the flight, including each portion of that flight is conducted within the United States, unless authorized by the country in which the flight is conducted. This requirement is implemented in § 61.113(i)(2)(iii).
Title 14 CFR 1.1 defines the United States as the States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and the possessions, including the territorial waters, and the airspace of those areas. Thus, a pilot operating in the United States, as defined in § 1.1, may elect to use this rule.
Airmen certificated by the FAA are represented to the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) as compliant with ICAO standards for private pilots, among other requirements. As FESSA and this final rule describe standards that divert from ICAO requirements,
Section 2307(a)(8)(C)(iv) of FESSA requires that the flight, including each portion of that flight, is conducted at an indicated airspeed not exceeding 250 knots. The FAA is implementing this requirement in § 61.113(i)(2)(iv).
Recognizing that many aircraft have airspeed indicators that read in miles per hour (mph), 250 knots is equivalent to 288 mph. No aircraft may be operated in any phase of flight at an airspeed greater than 250 KIAS (knots indicated airspeed).
The following sections describe the medical education course requirements of section 2307 of FESSA and the FAA's implementation of those requirements.
Section 2307(c)(1) requires the medical education course to be available on the internet free of charge. Section 2307(c)(2) requires the course to be developed and periodically updated in coordination with representatives of relevant nonprofit and not-for-profit general aviation stakeholder groups.
To implement these requirements, the FAA will work with nonprofit and not-for-profit general aviation stakeholder groups to coordinate and develop a medical education course that meets the requirements of FESSA, which are discussed in more detail below. A nonprofit or not-for-profit general aviation stakeholder group may submit a medical education course to the FAA for consideration. Upon receipt of the submission, the FAA will verify the course meets the requirements of § 68.3. If the FAA accepts the course, the FAA will provide a link to the course on the FAA public Web site. Thus, for public awareness, the FAA's Web site will contain a list of each medical education course that the FAA has accepted.
The FAA has determined that it is appropriate to enter into agreements with nonprofit or not-for-profit general aviation stakeholder groups who elect to provide the course.
Pursuant to the requirements of section 2307(c)(3) through (9) of FESSA, the course must:
• Educate pilots on conducting medical self-assessments;
• Advise pilots on identifying warning signs of potential serious medical conditions;
• Identify risk mitigation strategies for medical conditions;
• Increase awareness of the impacts of potentially impairing over-the-counter and prescription drug medications;
• Encourage regular medical examinations and consultations with primary care physicians;
• Inform pilots of the regulations pertaining to the prohibition on operations during medical deficiency and medically disqualifying conditions; and
• Provide the checklist developed by the Federal Aviation Administration in accordance with section 2307(b).
The FAA is implementing these requirements in § 68.3(a)(1)-(7). The FAA notes that the requirements for the checklist, which the course must provide, are implemented in § 68.5.
Pursuant to the requirements of section 2307(c)(10) of FESSA, upon successful completion of the course, the medical education course must electronically provide to the individual and transmit to the FAA—
• A certification of completion of the medical education course;
• A release authorizing the National Driver Register through a designated State Department of Motor Vehicles to furnish to the FAA information pertaining to the individual's driving record;
• A certification by the individual that the individual is under the care and treatment of a physician if the individual has been diagnosed with any medical condition that may impact the ability of the individual to fly;
• A form that includes information regarding the individual, the physician, the comprehensive medical exam, and a certification by the individual that the checklist was followed and signed by the physician; and
• A statement signed by the individual certifying that the individual understands the existing prohibition on operations during medical deficiency. A copy of this signed statement must be provided to the pilot and retained by the pilot.
These requirements are implemented in § 68.3(b)(1)-(5) and are discussed in more detail below.
Section 2307(c)(10)(A) requires the certification of completion of the medical education course to be printed and retained in the individual's logbook and made available upon request. This certification of completion must contain only the individual's name, address, and airman certificate number.
The PIC must maintain the certification of completion along with his or her pilot logbook. The certification must be available along with the logbook at any time the pilot is presenting the logbook to comply with any regulatory requirement (such as applying for a certificate or rating), or upon request by a representative of the FAA Administrator. Under the terms of FESSA, there is no requirement for pilots to carry compliance documentation that shows their compliance with the relief described in this rule.
The FAA recognizes that many pilots maintain logbooks electronically. Pilots may carry an electronic facsimile or representation of the certification along with their pilot logbook entries, as long as that representation of the certification is available and clearly legible when the logbook is being used to comply with a regulatory requirement or upon request by a representative of the FAA Administrator.
Section 2307(c)(10)(B) requires a release authorizing the National Driver Register through a designated State Department of Motor Vehicles to furnish to the FAA information pertaining to the individual's driving record. Section 2307(d) states that the authorization under section 2307(c)(10)(B) shall be an authorization for a single access to the information contained in the National Driver Register. The FAA is implementing these requirements in § 68.3(b)(2).
The National Driver Register (NDR) is a division in the National Center for Statistics and Analysis under the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA). The NDR maintains the computerized database known as the Problem Driver Pointer System (PDPS), which contains information on individuals whose privilege to operate a motor vehicle has been revoked, suspended, canceled or denied or who have been convicted of serious traffic-related offenses.
Each time an individual indicates his or her consent for the NDR release, the FAA will conduct a single NDR check in an identical manner to the NDR check currently conducted when a person applies for a medical certificate. Similarly, the information the FAA receives from the NDR check will be used in the same way as for an applicant for a medical certificate.
Section 2307(c)(10)(C) requires a certification by the individual that the individual is under the care and treatment of a physician if the individual has been diagnosed with any medical condition that may impact the ability of the individual to fly, as required by section 2307(a)(6).
The FAA recognizes that there are many thousands of diagnosable medical conditions, as well as innumerable medical treatments and medications. Many conditions, treatments, or medications are unlikely to impact a person's ability to safely operate an aircraft. However, there are numerous conditions, treatments, and medications that are aviation safety risks. Potential adverse effects may result from sudden incapacitation (
While the pilot is required to attest that he or she is under the care and treatment of a physician for any condition that affects safe flight, the FAA emphasizes that all pilots are expected to exercise good judgment (whether operating under this rule or not) and conduct a personal self-assessment of their condition before every flight.
The FAA notes that under section 2307(e) of FESSA, which prescribes requirements for the special issuance process, an individual clinically diagnosed with a mental health condition or a neurological condition shall certify every 2 years,
Section 2307(c)(10)(D) of FESSA requires the form, which must be electronically provided to the individual and transmitted to the FAA upon successful completion of the course, to include the following information:
• The name, address, telephone number, and airman certificate number of the individual;
• The name, address, telephone number, and State medical license number of the physician performing the comprehensive medical examination
• The date of the comprehensive medical examination required in section 2307(a)(7); and
• A certification by the individual that the checklist described in subsection (b) was followed and signed by the physician in the comprehensive medical examination required in section 2307(a)(7).
These requirements are implemented in § 68.3(b)(4)(i)-(iv).
Section 2307(c)(10)(E) of FESSA requires the individual to sign
The Advisory Circular (AC) 68-1, Alternative Medical Qualifications, contains additional information about the medical education course requirements.
In order to act as PIC under this rule, an individual must receive a comprehensive medical examination from a State-licensed physician during the previous 48 months in accordance with section 2307(a)(7). This requirement is reflected in § 61.23(c)(3)(i)(D).
Section 2307(a)(7)(A) requires that prior to the examination, the individual do the following: (1) Complete the individual's section of the medical examination checklist described in section 2307(b); and (2) provide the
Section 2307(a)(7)(B) of FESSA requires the physician to: (1) Conduct the comprehensive medical examination in accordance with the checklist; (2) check each item specified during the examination; and (3) address, as medically appropriate, every medical condition listed and any medications the individual is taking. The FAA is implementing these requirements in § 68.5(b)(1)-(3).
Section 2307(b)(1) of FESSA requires that the FAA develop a checklist for an individual to complete and provide to the physician performing the required comprehensive medical examination.
Section 2307(b)(2) of FESSA requires the checklist to contain three sections: (1) A section for the individual to complete; (2) a section with instructions for the individual to provide the completed checklist to the physician performing the examination; and (3) a section for the physician to complete, which contains instructions for the physician performing the examination. Section 2307(b) prescribes requirements for each of these sections, which are discussed below. The FAA is implementing the comprehensive medical examination checklist requirements in § 68.7 and has developed the checklist in accordance with these requirements.
Section 2307(b)(2)(A)(i) of FESSA requires the checklist to contain a section for the individual to complete, which contains boxes 3 through 13 and boxes 16 through 19 of the FAA form 8500-8, Application for Airman Medical Certificate (3-99).
Section 2307(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FESSA requires the checklist to contain (in the section for the individual) a signature line for the individual to affirm that:
• The answers provided by the individual on that checklist, including the individual's answers regarding medical history, are true and complete;
• The individual understands that he or she is prohibited under Federal Aviation Administration regulations from acting as pilot in command, or any other capacity as a required flight crew member, if he or she knows or has reason to know of any medical deficiency or medically disqualifying condition that would make the individual unable to operate the aircraft in a safe manner; and
• The individual is aware of the regulations pertaining to the prohibition on operations during medical deficiency and has no medically disqualifying conditions in accordance with applicable law.
The FAA is implementing these requirements in § 68.7(a)(2)(i)-(iii).
Section 2307(b)(2)(B) requires the checklist to contain a section with instructions for the individual to provide the completed checklist to the physician performing the comprehensive medical examination. The FAA is implementing this requirement in § 68.7(b).
Section 2307(b)(2)(C)(i) of FESSA requires the checklist to include a section for the physician to complete, that instructs the physician to perform a clinical examination of the following:
• Head, face, neck, and scalp;
• Nose, sinuses, mouth, and throat;
• Ears, general (internal and external canals), and eardrums (perforation);
• Eyes (general), ophthalmoscopic, pupils (equality and reaction), and ocular motility (associated parallel movement, nystagmus);
• Lungs and chest (not including breast examination);
• Heart (precordial activity, rhythm, sounds, and murmurs);
• Vascular system (pulse, amplitude, and character, and arms, legs, and others);
• Abdomen and viscera (including hernia);
• Anus (not including digital examination);
• Skin;
• G-U system (not including pelvic examination);
• Upper and lower extremities (strength and range of motion);
• Spine and other musculoskeletal;
• Identifying body marks, scars, and tattoos (size and location);
• Lymphatics;
• Neurologic (tendon reflexes, equilibrium, senses, cranial nerves, and coordination, etc.);
• Psychiatric (appearance, behavior, mood, communication, and memory);
• General systemic;
• Hearing;
• Vision (distant, near, and intermediate vision, field of vision, color vision, and ocular alignment);
• Blood pressure and pulse; and
• Anything else the physician, in his or her medical judgment, considers necessary.
The FAA is implementing these requirements in § 68.7(c)(1)(i)-(xxii).
Section 2307(b)(2)(C)(ii) requires the physician to exercise medical discretion to address, as medically appropriate, any medical conditions identified, and to exercise medical discretion in determining whether any medical tests are warranted as part of the comprehensive medical examination. The FAA is implementing this requirement in § 68.7(c)(2).
Section 2307(b)(2)(C)(iii) of FESSA requires the checklist to instruct the physician to discuss all drugs the individual reports taking (prescription and nonprescription) and their potential to interfere with the safe operation of an aircraft or motor vehicle. The FAA is implementing this requirement in § 68.7(c)(3).
Furthermore, section 2307(b)(2)(C)(iv) of FESSA requires the checklist to instruct the physician to sign the checklist, stating: “I certify that I discussed all items on this checklist with the individual during my examination, discussed any medications the individual is taking that could interfere with his or her ability to safely operate an aircraft or motor vehicle, and performed an examination that included all of the items on this checklist. I certify that I am not aware of any medical condition that, as presently treated, could interfere with the individual's ability to safely operate an aircraft.” The FAA is implementing this requirement in § 68.7(c)(4).
Lastly, section 2307(b)(2)(C)(v) of FESSA requires the checklist to instruct the physician to provide the date the comprehensive medical examination was completed, and the physician's full name, address, telephone number, and State medical license number. This requirement is implemented in § 68.7(c)(5).
The FAA relies on the determination of each State (as well as each territory and possession of the United States) as
Existing FAA prohibitions against self-endorsements would apply, prohibiting a State-licensed physician from conducting the physical examination on himself or herself.
Section 2307(b)(3) of FESSA requires that the completed checklist be retained in the pilot's logbook and be made available upon request. The FAA is implementing this requirement in § 61.113(i)(3).
The FAA recognizes that many pilots now maintain logbook information electronically. Similar to the requirements described previously for the course completion certification described in section 2307(c)(10)(A), the FAA notes that pilots may retain an electronic version of the completed checklist using whatever method they choose so long as an accurate electronic or physical representation of the document can be made available upon request.
Section 2307(c)(9) of FESSA requires the medical education course to provide the medical examination checklist developed by the FAA. For purposes of implementation, the FAA will require that any nonprofit or not-for-profit general aviation stakeholder group that provides a medical course for this rule make the checklist available at that group's Web site.
To implement the medical checklist provisions of FESSA, the FAA has developed the Comprehensive Medical Examination Checklist. The checklist is a fillable PDF form available on the FAA Web site, in addition to the location discussed immediately above. Pilots may complete the form either electronically or may print it out and complete it. Regardless of how the pilot chooses to complete the form, the pilot must print the form, sign it, and take it to the State-licensed physician performing the medical examination. The FAA will provide the blank Comprehensive Medical Examination Checklist but will not be collecting and maintaining the checklist in any FAA system of records. As noted, the pilot will be required to retain the checklist as one of the items necessary for verification that he or she is eligible to operate under this rule.
Section 2307(e)(1) of FESSA states that an individual who has qualified for the third-class medical certificate exemption under subsection (a) of section 2307 and is seeking to serve as a PIC of a covered aircraft shall be required to have completed the process for obtaining an Authorization for Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate if that person has any of the following: (1) A mental health disorder; (2) a neurological disorder; or a (3) cardiovascular condition.
Section 2307(e)(1)(A) states that a mental health disorder is limited to an established medical history or clinical diagnosis of:
• Personality disorder that is severe enough to have repeatedly manifested itself by overt acts;
• Psychosis, defined as a case in which an individual: (i) Has manifested delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of psychosis; or (ii) may reasonably be expected to manifest delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of psychosis;
• Bipolar disorder; or
• Substance dependence within the previous 2 years, as defined in § 67.307(a)(4) of title 14, Code of Federal Regulations.
Section 2307(e)(1)(B) states that a neurological disorder is limited to an established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following:
• Epilepsy.
• Disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause.
• A transient loss of control of nervous system functions without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause.
Section 2307(e)(1)(C) states that a cardiovascular condition is limited to a one-time special issuance for each diagnosis of the following:
• Myocardial infarction.
• Coronary heart disease that has required treatment.
• Cardiac valve replacement.
• Heart replacement.
The FAA is implementing the requirements of section 2307(e)(1)(A)-(C) in § 68.9(a)(1)-(3).
Section 2307(e)(2) of FESSA states that in the case of an individual with a cardiovascular condition, the process for obtaining an Authorization for Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate shall be satisfied with the successful completion of an appropriate clinical evaluation without a mandatory wait period.
The FAA is implementing this requirement in § 68.9(b).
Section 2307(e)(3)(A)(i) of FESSA states that in the case of an individual with a clinically diagnosed mental health condition, the ability to operate without a third-class medical certificate under subsection (a) of section 2307 shall not apply if in the judgment of the individual's State-licensed medical specialist, the condition: (1) Renders the individual unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the airman privileges described in the operating requirements of subsection (a)(8); or (2) may reasonably be expected to make the individual unable to perform the duties or exercise the privileges described in the operating requirements of subsection (a)(8).
Additionally, section 2307(e)(3)(A)(ii) states that in the case of an individual with a clinically diagnosed mental health condition, the ability to operate without a third-class medical certificate under section 2307(a) shall not apply if the individual's driver's license is revoked by the issuing agency as a result of a clinically diagnosed mental health condition.
The FAA is implementing section 2307(e)(3)(A)(i)-(ii) in § 68.9(c)(1)(i)-(ii).
Section 2307(e)(3)(B) of FESSA requires that an individual clinically
Section 2307(e)(4)(A)(i) states that in the case of an individual with a clinically diagnosed neurological condition, the ability to operate without a third-class medical certificate under subsection (a) of section 2307 shall not apply if in the judgment of the individual's State-licensed medical specialist, the condition: (1) Renders the individual unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the airman privileges described in the operating requirements of subsection (a)(8); or (2) may reasonably be expected to make the individual unable to perform the duties or exercise the privileges described in the operating requirements of subsection (a)(8).
Section 2307(e)(4)(A)(ii) states that in the case of an individual with a clinically diagnosed neurological condition, the ability to operate without a third-class medical certificate under subsection (a) of section 2307 shall not apply if the individual's driver's license is revoked by the issuing agency as a result of a clinically diagnosed neurological condition.
The FAA is implementing the requirements of section 2307(4)(A) in § 68.9(d)(1)(i)-(ii).
Section 2307(4)(B) of FESSA requires that an individual clinically diagnosed with a neurological condition shall certify every 2 years, in conjunction with the certification under subsection (c)(10)(C), that the individual is under the care of a State-licensed medical specialist for that neurological condition. As with the requirements for certain mental health disorders, this certification will be incorporated into the medical education course process.
Regarding the certification related to mental health disorders and neurological disorders, the FAA recognizes that the inclusion of such a certification could create confusion. So to clarify, the FAA has written the certifications for the individual to attest (1) that the individual does not have a mental health disorder or neurological disorder or, (2) if the individual has a mental health disorder or neurological disorder, that the individual is under the care of a State-licensed medical specialist for that mental health condition or neurological condition. The FAA's intent is to ensure that no medical information is collected. Rather, the FAA views these certifications as a place for the individuals to attest that if they have a mental health or neurological disorder listed in section 2307, then they meet the section 2307 requirement that they are under the care of a State-licensed medical specialist for that condition.
All persons who currently hold an FAA-issued special issuance medical certificate, or who have held an FAA-issued special issuance medical certificate within the 10-year period preceding the enactment of FESSA, for conditions other than the specified cardiovascular, mental health, and neurological conditions listed in FESSA, may elect to use this rule. These persons are no longer required to maintain their special issuance medical certificate if they choose to comply with the requirements of section 2307 of FESSA. The FAA emphasizes that it expects all pilots, including persons who hold or have held a special issuance medical certificate, to comply with care and treatment protocols recommended by their State-licensed physician.
If a pilot, while using this rule, is diagnosed with a condition that would have, in the past, required the pilot to be considered for a special issuance medical certificate, but is not one of the specified conditions described in FESSA, then that pilot may continue to exercise the privileges of this rule so long as all other requirements of section 2307 of FESSA are met.
FESSA prescribes specific responsibilities and prohibitions that must be met for pilots who have certain cardiovascular, neurological, or mental health conditions. Persons who have, or are newly diagnosed with, a cardiovascular, neurological, or mental health condition described in FESSA, may not use this rule until they have been found eligible for special issuance of a medical certificate. Once issued a medical certificate, the person may then use this rule if he or she meets all other requirements of FESSA.
Section 2307(l)(1) of FESSA states that if the Administrator receives credible or urgent information, including from the National Driver Register or the FAA Hotline Program, that reflects on an individual's ability to safely operate a covered aircraft under the third-class medical certificate exemption in subsection (a) of section 2307, the Administrator may require the individual to provide additional information or history so that the Administrator may determine whether the individual is safe to continue operating a covered aircraft. Section 2307(l)(2) states that the Administrator may use credible or urgent information received to request an individual to provide additional information or to take actions under section 44709(b) of title 49, United States Code.
The FAA has implemented the provisions of section 2307(l) in new § 68.11.
To further implement this final rule, the FAA has developed Advisory Circular 68-1, Alternative Pilot Physical Examination and Education Requirements. The advisory circular describes the relief and provides guidance on how to comply with the rule's provisions. It also includes frequently asked questions and guidance on how a nonprofit or not-for-profit general aviation stakeholder group can offer an approved course under this rule.
In part 61, Certification: Pilots, flight instructors, and ground instructors, § 61.3, requirement for certificates, ratings, and authorizations, is revised to add operations conducted under this rule to the list of exceptions to the requirement to hold a medical certificate.
Section 61.23, medical certificates: requirement and duration, is revised to provide an exception for operations conducted under this rule for persons otherwise required to hold a third-class medical certificate.
For operations requiring either a medical certificate or U.S. driver's license, § 61.23(c)(1) is amended to state that a person must hold and possess either a medical certificate or a U.S. driver's license when exercising the
The FAA is also adding § 61.23(c)(3), which contains the requirements for persons using a U.S. driver's license to operate under this rule.
In § 61.89, the FAA is adding paragraph (d) to allow the holder of a student pilot certificate to operate under this rule without holding a medical certificate.
In § 61.101, the FAA is adding paragraph (k) to allow a recreational pilot to operate under this rule without holding a medical certificate.
Section 61.113 is revised to add paragraph (i), which contains the operational requirements of section 2307.
The FAA is adding part 68, Requirements for operating certain small aircraft without a medical certificate, to title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations. Section 68.1 provides the applicability of the part.
Section 68.3 provides the Medical Education Course Requirements.
Section 68.5 implements the requirements for the Comprehensive Medical Examination, including the requirements for the physician and the individual.
Section 68.7 provides the requirements for the Comprehensive Medical Examination Checklist.
Section 68.9 implements the requirements for the Special Issuance Process.
Section 68.11 provides the FAA with authority to require additional information as described in FESSA.
In § 91.319, the FAA is adding paragraph (j) to make clear that experimental aircraft may operate under the conditions and limitations of § 61.113(i).
Changes to Federal regulations must undergo several economic analyses. First, Executive Order 12866 and Executive Order 13563 direct that each Federal agency shall propose or adopt a regulation only upon a reasoned determination that the benefits of the intended regulation justify its costs. Second, the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-354) requires agencies to analyze the economic impact of regulatory changes on small entities. Third, the Trade Agreements Act (Pub. L. 96-39 as amended) prohibits agencies from setting standards that create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States. In developing U.S. standards, the Trade Agreements Act requires agencies to consider international standards and, where appropriate, that they be the basis of U.S. standards. Fourth, the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4) requires agencies to prepare a written assessment of the costs, benefits, and other effects of proposed or final rules that include a Federal mandate likely to result in the expenditure by State, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more annually (adjusted for inflation with base year of 1995). This portion of the preamble summarizes the FAA's analysis of the economic impacts of this final rule. We suggest readers seeking greater detail read the full regulatory evaluation, a copy of which we have placed in the docket for this rulemaking.
In conducting these analyses, FAA has determined that this final rule: (1) Has benefits that justify its costs, (2) is not an economically “significant regulatory action” as defined in section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, (3) is not “significant” as defined in DOT's Regulatory Policies and Procedures; (4) will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities; (5) will not create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States; and (6) will not impose an unfunded mandate on State, local, or tribal governments, or on the private sector by exceeding the threshold identified above. These analyses are summarized below.
All pilots with eligible pilot certificates are affected by this rule. Eligible pilots will need to have held a valid FAA medical certificate within the 10 years preceding the date of enactment of FESSA, July 15, 2016, and will need a valid U.S. driver's license.
Assumptions:
• Costs and benefits are estimated over 10 years from 2017 through 2026.
• Costs and benefits are presented in 2016 dollars.
• The present value discount rate of seven percent is used as required by the Office of Management and Budget.
• An FAA medical examination with an AME is approximately $117.
• An FAA follow-up evaluation with an AME is approximately $58.50.
• A pilot's medical examination with a state-licensed physician is approximately $225.
• An annual growth rate of 1.0 percent per year is applied to hourly
• Vehicle operating cost per mile (VOC) as determined by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) is $0.19.
• The hourly rate of a pilot's travel time (VTTS) as determined by the Department of Transportation (DOT) is $12.50 in 2013. This value is augmented by 1.0 percent per year to project future benefits of travel time saved from 2013 to 2026.
• The hourly rate of a pilot's time (VPT) as determined by DOT is $25.00 in 2013. This value is augmented by 1.0 percent per year to project the annual growth rate of real median household income from 2013 to 2026.
• The FAA assumes 0.5 hours to complete the MedXpress form.
• The FAA assumes that the time required to fill out the MedXpress form will be the same time required to fill out section 1 of the medical checklist that must be partially completed by the pilot and taken to the physician.
• The FAA assumes 1 hour to complete a medical examination.
• The FAA assumes 0.5 hours to complete a follow-up evaluation.
• The value of FAA time to review medical applications per hour is shown in table 1 and includes fringe benefits for federal employees.
The FAA estimates potential savings to pilots, based on age and a pilot's medical condition, from eliminating medical examinations with an AME. The elimination of these examinations will save pilots the time to complete the online medical application (MedXpress), travel time to the medical examination, the time required to complete the medical examination, vehicle operating costs based on miles traveled to the examination, and the cost of the medical examination. For pilots with special-issuances, the FAA anticipates added savings by eliminating follow-up medical evaluations, determined by their medical condition, with an AME. Additionally, the FAA will save time by reducing the number of applications reviewed for special-issuance medical certificates. Total savings are estimated at $382.9 million ($272.8 million at a 7 percent present value) over 10 years.
Costs for this rule are attributed to the physical examination completed by a State-licensed physician every 48 months, the medical education course that pilots will complete every 24 calendar months, and an increase in NDR checks for pilots under age 40 with a special issuance medical certificate. Unlike pilots 40 years of age and older, who the FAA expects will benefit from the elimination of the AME examinations, the FAA expects the savings to pilots under 40 years of age will only occur for those pilots requiring Authorization for a special issuance medical certificate. Total costs are estimated at $315.1 million ($227.8 million at a 7 percent present value) over 10 years.
Overall, the rule results in a net benefit of $67.7 million over 10 years.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-354) (RFA) establishes “as a principle of regulatory issuance that agencies shall endeavor, consistent with the objectives of the rule and of applicable statutes, to fit regulatory and informational requirements to the scale of the businesses, organizations, and governmental jurisdictions subject to regulation. To achieve this principle, agencies are required to solicit and consider flexible regulatory proposals
Agencies must perform a review to determine whether a rule will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. If the agency determines that it will, the agency must prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis as described in the RFA.
The FAA believes that this final rule would not have a significant impact on a substantial number of entities for the following reason: Pilots that choose to use this alternative requirement will receive a savings, however this final rule is voluntary hence there are no costs imposed on small entities.
If an agency determines that a rulemaking will not result in a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, the head of the agency may so certify under section 605(b) of the RFA. Therefore, as provided in section 605(b), the head of the FAA certifies that this rulemaking will not result in a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The Trade Agreements Act of 1979 (Pub. L. 96-39), as amended by the Uruguay Round Agreements Act (Pub. L. 103-465), prohibits Federal agencies from establishing standards or engaging in related activities that create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States. Pursuant to these Acts, the establishment of standards is not considered an unnecessary obstacle to the foreign commerce of the United States, so long as the standard has a legitimate domestic objective, such as the protection of safety, and does not operate in a manner that excludes imports that meet this objective. The statute also requires consideration of international standards and, where appropriate, that they be the basis for U.S. standards. The FAA has assessed the potential effect of this final rule and determined that it will only have a domestic impact and therefore will not create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States.
Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4) requires each Federal agency to prepare a written statement assessing the effects of any Federal mandate in a proposed or final agency rule that may result in an expenditure of $100 million or more (in 1995 dollars) in any one year by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector; such a mandate is deemed to be a “significant regulatory action.” The FAA currently uses an inflation-adjusted value of $155.0 million in lieu of $100 million.
This final rule does not contain such a mandate; therefore, the requirements of Title II of the Act do not apply.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)) requires that the FAA consider the impact of paperwork and other information collection burdens imposed on the public. According to the 1995 amendments to the Paperwork Reduction Act, (5 CFR 1320.8(b)(2)(vi)), an agency may not collect or sponsor the collection of information, nor may it impose an information collection requirement unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)), the FAA will submit these information collection amendments to OMB for its review.
To implement the Act, the FAA is establishing one new information collection. This information collection includes the medical education course as well as the Individual Checklist for Medical Examination. Pursuant to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the FAA published a 60-day notice seeking comment regarding this new information collection.
For those individuals who elect to use this rule the FAA considers that they no longer possess any airman medical certificate. Thus, the FAA is making a corresponding change to information collection 2120-0034, Application for Airman Medical Certificate, to reduce the burden associated with that information collection. The FAA published a 60-day notice seeking comment regarding the revision of this existing information collection.
In keeping with U.S. obligations under the Convention on International Civil Aviation, it is FAA policy to conform to International Civil Aviation Organization Standards and Recommended Practices to the maximum extent practicable. The FAA has reviewed ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs) applicable to private pilots.
The FAA has filed new differences and modified certain existing differences to reflect that certain U.S. private pilots no longer are required to hold a current FAA airman medical certificate. A filing is required for certain ICAO Annex 1 SARPs found in Chapters 1, 2, and 6.
FAA Order 1050.1F identifies FAA actions that are categorically excluded from preparation of an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement under the National Environmental Policy Act in the absence of extraordinary circumstances. The FAA has determined this rulemaking action qualifies for the categorical exclusion identified in paragraph 5-6.6f and involves no extraordinary circumstances.
The FAA has analyzed this rule under the principles and criteria of Executive Order 13132, Federalism. The agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, or the relationship between the Federal Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, and, therefore, will not have Federalism implications.
The FAA analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13211, Actions Concerning Regulations that Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use (May 18, 2001). The agency has determined that it is not a “significant energy action” under the executive order and is not likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy.
Executive Order 13609, Promoting International Regulatory Cooperation, (77 FR 26413, May 4, 2012) promotes international regulatory cooperation to meet shared challenges involving health, safety, labor, security, environmental, and other issues and to reduce, eliminate, or prevent unnecessary differences in regulatory requirements. The FAA has analyzed this action under the policies and agency responsibilities of Executive Order 13609, and has determined that this action would have no effect on international regulatory cooperation.
An electronic copy of rulemaking documents may be obtained from the Internet by—
• Searching the Federal eRulemaking Portal (
• Visiting the FAA's Regulations and Policies Web site at
• Accessing the Government Publishing Office's Web site at
Copies may also be obtained by sending a request to the Federal Aviation Administration, Office of Rulemaking, ARM-1, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591, or by calling (202) 267-9677. Requestors must identify the docket or amendment number of this rulemaking.
All documents the FAA considered in developing this final rule, including economic analyses and technical reports, may be accessed from the Internet through the Federal eRulemaking Portal referenced above.
The Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (SBREFA) requires FAA to comply with small entity requests for information or advice about compliance with statutes and regulations within its jurisdiction. A small entity with questions regarding this document may contact its local FAA official, or the person listed under the
Aircraft, Airmen, Aviation safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Aircraft, Airmen, Health, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Aircraft, Airmen, Aviation safety.
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends chapter I of title 14, Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-44711, 44729, 44903, 45102-45103, 45301-45302; Sec. 2307 Pub. L. 114-190, 130 Stat. 615 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note).
(c) * * *
(2) * * *
(viii) Is exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate, provided the person is not acting as pilot in command or as a required pilot flight crewmember;
* * *
(x) Is operating an aircraft within a foreign country using a pilot license issued by that country and possesses evidence of current medical qualification for that license;
(xi) Is operating an aircraft with a U.S. pilot certificate, issued on the basis of a foreign pilot license, issued under § 61.75, and holds a medical certificate issued by the foreign country that issued the foreign pilot license, which is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that airman certificate;
(xii) Is a pilot of the U.S. Armed Forces, has an up-to-date U.S. military medical examination, and holds military pilot flight status;
(xiii) Is exercising the privileges of a student, recreational or private pilot certificate for operations conducted under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i) and holds a U.S. driver's license; or
(xiv) Is exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate and acting as pilot in command for operations conducted under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i) and holds a U.S. driver's license.
(l)
(a) * * *
(3) Must hold at least a third-class medical certificate—
(i) When exercising the privileges of a private pilot certificate, recreational pilot certificate, or student pilot certificate, except when operating under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i);
(ii) When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate and acting as the pilot in command or as a required flightcrew member, except when operating under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i);
(iii) When taking a practical test in an aircraft for a recreational pilot, private pilot, commercial pilot, or airline transport pilot certificate, or for a flight instructor certificate, except when operating under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i); or
(iv) When performing the duties as an Examiner in an aircraft when administering a practical test or proficiency check for an airman certificate, rating, or authorization.
(c) * * *
(1) * * *
(iii) Exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating while acting as pilot in command or serving as a required flight crewmember of a light-sport aircraft other than a glider or balloon;
(iv) Serving as an Examiner and administering a practical test for the issuance of a sport pilot certificate in a light-sport aircraft other than a glider or balloon;
(v) Exercising the privileges of a student, recreational or private pilot certificate if the flight is conducted under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i); or
(vi) Exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate and acting as the pilot in command or as a required flight crewmember if the flight is conducted under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i).
(2) A person using a U.S. driver's license to meet the requirements of paragraph (c) while exercising sport pilot privileges must—
* * *
(3) A person using a U.S. driver's license to meet the requirements of paragraph (c) while operating under the conditions and limitations of § 61.113(i) must meet the following requirements—
(i) The person must—
(A) Comply with all medical requirements or restrictions associated with his or her U.S. driver's license;
(B) At any point after July 14, 2006, have held a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter;
(C) Complete the medical education course set forth in § 68.3 of this chapter during the 24-calendar months before acting as pilot in command in an operation conducted under § 61.113(i) and retain a certification of course completion in accordance with § 68.3(b)(1) of this chapter;
(D) Receive a comprehensive medical examination from a State-licensed physician during the 48 months before acting as pilot in command of an operation conducted under § 61.113(i) and that medical examination is conducted in accordance with the requirements in part 68 of this chapter; and
(E) If the individual has been diagnosed with any medical condition that may impact the ability of the individual to fly, be under the care and treatment of a State-licensed physician when acting as pilot in command of an operation conducted under § 61.113(i).
(ii) The most recently issued medical certificate—
(A) May include an authorization for special issuance;
(B) May be expired; and
(C) Cannot have been suspended or revoked.
(iii) The most recently issued Authorization for a Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate cannot have been withdrawn; and
(iv) The most recent application for an airman medical certificate submitted to the FAA cannot have been completed and denied.
(d) The holder of a student pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft without holding a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter provided the student pilot holds a valid U.S. driver's license, meets the requirements of § 61.23(c)(3), and the operation is conducted consistent with the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the conditions of § 61.113(i). Where the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section conflict with § 61.113(i), a student pilot must comply with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
(k) A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft without holding a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter provided the pilot holds a valid U.S. driver's license, meets the requirements of § 61.23(c)(3), and the operation is conducted consistent with this section and the conditions of § 61.113(i). Where the requirements of this section conflict with § 61.113(i), a recreational pilot must comply with this section.
(i) A private pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft without holding a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter provided the pilot holds a valid U.S. driver's license, meets the requirements of § 61.23(c)(3), and complies with this section and all of the following conditions and limitations:
(1) The aircraft is authorized to carry not more than 6 occupants, has a maximum takeoff weight of not more than 6,000 pounds, and is operated with no more than five passengers on board; and
(2) The flight, including each portion of the flight, is not carried out—
(i) At an altitude that is more than 18,000 feet above mean sea level;
(ii) Outside the United States unless authorized by the country in which the flight is conducted; or
(iii) At an indicated airspeed exceeding 250 knots; and
(3) The pilot has available in his or her logbook—
(i) The completed medical examination checklist required under § 68.7 of this chapter; and
(ii) The certificate of course completion required under § 61.23(c)(3).
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 44701-44703, sec. 2307 of Pub. L. 114-190, 130 Stat. 615 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note).
This part prescribes the medical education and examination requirements for operating an aircraft under § 61.113(i) of this chapter without holding a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter.
(a) The medical education course required to act as pilot in command in an operation under § 61.113(i) of this chapter must—
(1) Educate pilots on conducting medical self-assessments;
(2) Advise pilots on identifying warning signs of potential serious medical conditions;
(3) Identify risk mitigation strategies for medical conditions;
(4) Increase awareness of the impacts of potentially impairing over-the-counter and prescription drug medications;
(5) Encourage regular medical examinations and consultations with primary care physicians;
(6) Inform pilots of the regulations pertaining to the prohibition on operations during medical deficiency and medically disqualifying conditions; and
(7) Provide the checklist developed by the FAA in accordance with § 68.7.
(b) Upon successful completion of the medical education course, the following items must be electronically provided to the individual seeking to act as pilot in command under the conditions and limitations of § 61.113(i) of this chapter and transmitted to the FAA—
(1) A certification of completion of the medical education course, which shall be retained in the individual's logbook and made available upon request, and shall contain the individual's name, address, and airman certificate number;
(2) A release authorizing single access to the National Driver Register through a designated State Department of Motor Vehicles to furnish to the FAA information pertaining to the individual's driving record;
(3) A certification by the individual that the individual is under the care and treatment of a physician if the individual has been diagnosed with any medical condition that may impact the ability of the individual to fly, as
(4) A form that includes—
(i) The name, address, telephone number, and airman certificate number of the individual;
(ii) The name, address, telephone number, and State medical license number of the physician performing the comprehensive medical examination;
(iii) The date of the comprehensive medical examination; and
(iv) A certification by the individual that the checklist described in § 68.7 was followed and signed by the physician during the medical examination required by this section; and
(5) A statement, which shall be signed by the individual certifying that the individual understands the existing prohibition on operations during medical deficiency by stating: “I understand that I cannot act as pilot in command, or any other capacity as a required flight crew member, if I know or have reason to know of any medical condition that would make me unable to operate the aircraft in a safe manner.”.
(a) Prior to the medical examination required by § 61.23(c)(3) of this chapter, an individual must—
(1) Complete the individual's section of the checklist described in § 68.7; and
(2) Provide the completed checklist to the State-licensed physician performing the medical examination.
(b) The physician must—
(1) Conduct the medical examination in accordance with the checklist set forth in § 68.7,
(2) Check each item specified during the examination; and
(3) Address, as medically appropriate, every medical condition listed and any medications the individual is taking.
The comprehensive medical examination required to conduct operations under § 61.113(i) must include a checklist containing the following:
(a) A section, for the individual to complete that contains—
(1) Boxes 3 through 13 and boxes 16 through 19 of the FAA Form 8500-8 (3-99); and
(2) A signature line for the individual to affirm that—
(i) The answers provided by the individual on that checklist, including the individual's answers regarding medical history, are true and complete;
(ii) The individual understands that he or she is prohibited under FAA regulations from acting as pilot in command, or any other capacity as a required flight crew member, if he or she knows or has reason to know of any medical deficiency or medically disqualifying condition that would make the individual unable to operate the aircraft in a safe manner; and
(iii) The individual is aware of the regulations pertaining to the prohibition on operations during medical deficiency and has no medically disqualifying conditions in accordance with applicable law;
(b) A section with instructions for the individual to provide the completed checklist to the State-licensed physician performing the comprehensive medical examination required under § 68.5; and
(c) A section, for the physician to complete, that instructs the physician—
(1) To perform a clinical examination of—
(i) Head, face, neck, and scalp;
(ii) Nose, sinuses, mouth, and throat;
(iii) Ears, general (internal and external canals), and eardrums (perforation);
(iv) Eyes (general), ophthalmoscopic, pupils (equality and reaction), and ocular motility (associated parallel movement, nystagmus);
(v) Lungs and chest (not including breast examination);
(vi) Heart (precordial activity, rhythm, sounds, and murmurs);
(vii) Vascular system (pulse, amplitude, and character, and arms, legs, and others);
(viii) Abdomen and viscera (including hernia);
(ix) Anus (not including digital examination);
(x) Skin;
(xi) G-U system (not including pelvic examination);
(xii) Upper and lower extremities (strength and range of motion);
(xiii) Spine and other musculoskeletal;
(xiv) Identifying body marks, scars, and tattoos (size and location);
(xv) Lymphatics;
(xvi) Neurologic (tendon reflexes, equilibrium, senses, cranial nerves, and coordination, etc.);
(xvii) Psychiatric (appearance, behavior, mood, communication, and memory);
(xviii) General systemic;
(xix) Hearing;
(xx) Vision (distant, near, and intermediate vision, field of vision, color vision, and ocular alignment);
(xxi) Blood pressure and pulse; and
(xxii) Anything else the physician, in his or her medical judgment, considers necessary;
(2) To exercise medical discretion to address, as medically appropriate, any medical conditions identified, and to exercise medical discretion in determining whether any medical tests are warranted as part of the comprehensive medical examination;
(3) To discuss all drugs the individual reports taking (prescription and nonprescription) and their potential to interfere with the safe operation of an aircraft or motor vehicle;
(4) To sign the checklist, stating: “I certify that I discussed all items on this checklist with the individual during my examination, discussed any medications the individual is taking that could interfere with his or her ability to safely operate an aircraft or motor vehicle, and performed an examination that included all of the items on this checklist. I certify that I am not aware of any medical condition that, as presently treated, could interfere with the individual's ability to safely operate an aircraft.”; and
(5) To provide the date the comprehensive medical examination was completed, and the physician's full name, address, telephone number, and State medical license number.
(a)
(1) A mental health disorder, limited to an established medical history or clinical diagnosis of—
(i) A personality disorder that is severe enough to have repeatedly manifested itself by overt acts;
(ii) A psychosis, defined as a case in which an individual—
(A) Has manifested delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of psychosis; or
(B) May reasonably be expected to manifest delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of psychosis;
(iii) A bipolar disorder; or
(iv) A substance dependence within the previous 2 years, as defined in § 67.307(a)(4) of this chapter.
(2) A neurological disorder, limited to an established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following:
(i) Epilepsy;
(ii) Disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause; or
(iii) A transient loss of control of nervous system functions without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause.
(3) A cardiovascular condition, limited to a one-time special issuance for each diagnosis of the following:
(i) Myocardial infarction;
(ii) Coronary heart disease that has required treatment;
(iii) Cardiac valve replacement; or
(iv) Heart replacement.
(b)
(c)
(i) In the judgment of the individual's State-licensed medical specialist, the condition—
(A) Renders the individual unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the airman privileges required to operate an aircraft under § 61.113(i) of this chapter; or
(B) May reasonably be expected to make the individual unable to perform the duties or exercise the privileges required to operate an aircraft under § 61.113(i) of this chapter; or
(ii) The individual's driver's license is revoked by the issuing agency as a result of a clinically diagnosed mental health condition.
(2) Subject to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, an individual clinically diagnosed with a mental health condition shall certify every 2 years, in conjunction with the certification under § 68.3(b)(3), that the individual is under the care of a State-licensed medical specialist for that mental health condition.
(d)
(i) In the judgment of the individual's State-licensed medical specialist, the condition—
(A) Renders the individual unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the airman privileges required to operate an aircraft under § 61.113(i) of this chapter; or
(B) May reasonably be expected to make the individual unable to perform the duties or exercise the privileges required to operate an aircraft under § 61.113(i) of this chapter; or
(ii) The individual's driver's license is revoked by the issuing agency as a result of a clinically diagnosed neurological condition.
(2) Subject to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, an individual clinically diagnosed with a neurological condition shall certify every 2 years, in conjunction with the certification under § 68.3(b)(3), that the individual is under the care of a State-licensed medical specialist for that neurological condition.
(a) If the Administrator receives credible or urgent information, including from the National Driver Register or the Administrator's Safety Hotline, that reflects on an individual's ability to safely operate an aircraft under § 61.113(i) of this chapter, the Administrator may require the individual to provide additional information or history so that the Administrator may determine whether the individual is safe to continue operating under that section.
(b) The Administrator may use credible or urgent information received under paragraph (a) to request an individual to provide additional information or to take actions under 49 U.S.C. 44709(b).
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 1155, 40101, 40103, 40105, 40113, 40120, 44101, 44111, 44701, 44704, 44709, 44711, 44712, 44715, 44716, 44717, 44722, 46306, 46315, 46316, 46504, 46506-46507, 47122, 47508, 47528-47531, 47534, Pub. L. 114-190, 130 Stat. 615 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note); articles 12 and 29 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation (61 Stat. 1180), (126 Stat. 11).
(j) No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate under § 61.113(i) of this chapter unless the aircraft is carrying not more than 6 occupants.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This action establishes Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Hot Springs County Airport, Thermopolis, WY, to support the development of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) operations under standard instrument approach and departure procedures at the airport, for the safety and management of aircraft within the National Airspace System.
Effective 0901 UTC, March 2, 2017. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under Title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed on line at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Tom Clark, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Western Service Center, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057; telephone (425) 203-4511.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it establishes controlled airspace at Hot Spring County Airport, Thermopolis, WY.
On November 4, 2016, the FAA published in the
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order 7400.11A, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR part 71.1. The Class E airspace designation listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016. FAA Order 7400.11A is publicly available as listed in the
This amendment to Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 establishes Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 4.8-mile radius of the Hot Springs County Airport, Thermopolis, WY with segments extending to 7 miles southwest of the airport, and 5.5 miles northeast of the airport. This airspace is established to accommodate new Area Navigation (RNAV) Global Positioning System (GPS) standard instrument approach procedures developed for the airport.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a Regulatory Evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
Department of State.
Final rule.
This final rule is issued to adjust the civil monetary penalties (CMP) for regulatory provisions maintained and enforced by the Department of State. The revised CMP adjusts the amount of civil monetary penalties assessed by the Department of State based on the December 2016 guidance from the Office of Management and Budget. The new amounts will apply only to those penalties assessed on or after the effective date of this rule, regardless of the date on which the underlying facts or violations occurred.
This final rule is effective on January 11, 2017.
Alice Kottmyer, Attorney-Adviser, Office of Management,
The Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, Public Law 101-410 (the 1990 Act), as amended by the Debt Collection Improvement Act of
Based on these statutes, the Department of State (the Department) published a final rule on June 8, 2016, to implement the “catch-up” provisions (“June 2016 final rule”).
On December 16, 2016, OMB notified agencies that the annual cost-of-living adjustment multiplier for 2017, based on the Consumer Price Index, is 1.01636. Additional information may be found in OMB Memorandum M-17-11, which can be found at
Within the Department of State (Title 22, Code of Federal Regulations), this rule affects four areas:
(1) Part 35, which implements the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act of 1986 (PFCRA), codified at 31 U.S.C. 3801-3812;
(2) Part 103, which implements the Chemical Weapons Convention Implementation Act of 1998 (CWC Act);
(3) Part 127, which implements the penalty provisions of sections 38(e), 39A(c), and 40(k) of the Arms Export Control Act (AECA) (22 U.S.C. 2778(e), 2779a(c), 2780(k)); and
(4) Part 138, which implements Section 319 of Public Law 101-121, codified at 31 U.S.C. 1352, and prohibits recipients of federal contracts, grants, and loans from using appropriated funds for lobbying the Executive or Legislative Branches of the federal government in connection with a specific contract.
The PFRCA, enacted in 1986, authorizes agencies, with approval from the Department of Justice, to pursue individuals or firms for false claims. According to the June 2016 final rule, the maximum liability under the PFRCA is $10,781, up to a maximum of $323,442. Applying the 2016 multiplier (1.01636) provided by OMB, the new maximum liabilities are as follows: $10,957, up to a maximum of $328,734.
The CWC Act provided domestic implementation of the Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, Stockpiling, and Use of Chemical Weapons and on Their Destruction. The penalty provisions of the CWC Act are codified at 22 U.S.C. 6761. Based on the June 2016 final rule, a person violating 22 U.S.C. 6761(a)(1)(A),
Applying the 2016 multiplier (1.01636), the new maximum amounts are as follows:
The Assistant Secretary of State for Political-Military Affairs is responsible for the imposition of CMPs under the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR), which is administered by the Directorate of Defense Trade Controls (DDTC).
(1)
According to the June 2016 final rule, the new maximum penalty under 22 U.S.C. 2778(e), or Section 38(e) of the AECA, is $1,094,010 per violation. Applying the 2016 multiplier (1.01636), the new maximum penalty is $1,111,908.
(2)
According to the June 2016 final rule, the new maximum adjusted penalty for 22 U.S.C. 2779a(c), or Section 39A(c) of the AECA, is $795,445 per violation. Applying the 2016 multiplier (1.01636), the new maximum penalty is $808,458.
(3)
According to the June 2016 final rule, the maximum penalty for 22 U.S.C. 2780(k), or Section 40(k) of the AECA, is $946,805 per violation. Applying the 2016 multiplier (1.01636), the new maximum penalty is $962,295.
Section 319 of Public Law 101-121, codified at 31 U.S.C. 1352, provides penalties for recipients of federal contracts, grants, and loans who use appropriated funds to lobby the Executive or Legislative Branches of the federal government in connection with a specific contract, grant, or loan. Any person who violates that prohibition is subject to a civil penalty. The statute also requires each person who requests or receives a federal contract, grant, cooperative agreement, loan, or a federal commitment to insure or guarantee a loan, to disclose any lobbying; there is a penalty for failure to disclose.
The June 2016 final rule raised the maximum penalties for both improper expenditures and failure to disclose, to not less than $18,936 and not more than $189,361. Applying the 2016 multiplier (1.01636), the new maximum penalty under 31 U.S.C. 1352 is: not less than $19,246, and not more than $192,459.
The revised CMP amounts will go into effect on the date this rule is published. All violations for which CMPs are assessed on or after the effective date of this rule, regardless of whether the violation occurred before the effective date, will be assessed at the adjusted penalty level.
The 2015 Act directed agencies to undertake an annual review of CMPs using a formula prescribed by the statute. Annual adjustments to CMPs are made in accordance with the guidance issued by OMB. As in this rulemaking, the Department of State will publish notification of annual inflation adjustments to CMPs in the
The Department of State is publishing this rule using the “good cause” exception to the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553(b)), as the Department has determined that public comment on this rulemaking would be impractical, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest. This rulemaking is mandatory; it implements Public Law 114-74.
Because this rulemaking is exempt from Section 553 of the Administrative Procedures Act, a Regulatory Flexibility Analysis is not required.
This rule does not involve a mandate that will result in the expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in
This rule has been found not to be a major rule within the meaning of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996.
This amendment will not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, in accordance with Executive Order 13132, it is determined that this amendment does not have sufficient federalism implications to require consultations or warrant the preparation of a federalism summary impact statement.
The Department believes that benefits of the rulemaking outweigh any costs, and there are no feasible alternatives to this rulemaking. It is the Department's position that this rulemaking is not an economically significant rule under the criteria of Executive Order 12866, and is consistent with the provisions of Executive Order 13563.
The Department of State has reviewed the proposed amendment in light of Executive Order 12988 to eliminate ambiguity, minimize litigation, establish clear legal standards, and reduce burden.
The Department of State has determined that this rulemaking will not have tribal implications, will not impose substantial direct compliance costs on Indian tribal governments, and will not preempt tribal law. Accordingly, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this rulemaking.
This rulemaking does not impose or revise any information collections subject to 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Administrative practice and procedure, Claims, Fraud, Penalties.
Administrative practice and procedure, Chemicals, Classified information, Foreign relations, Freedom of information, International organization, Investigations, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Arms and munitions, Exports.
Government contracts, Grant programs, Loan programs, Lobbying, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth above, 22 CFR parts 35, 103, 127, and 138 are amended as follows:
22 U.S.C. 2651a; 31 U.S.C. 3801
22 U.S.C. 2651a; 22 U.S.C. 6701
Sections 2, 38, and 42, Pub. L. 90-629, 90 Stat. 744 (22 U.S.C. 2752, 2778, 2791); 22 U.S.C. 401; 22 U.S.C. 2651a; 22 U.S.C. 2779a; 22 U.S.C. 2780; E.O. 13637, 78 FR 16129; Pub. L. 114-74, 129 Stat. 584.
22 U.S.C. 2651a; 31 U.S.C. 1352; Pub. L. 114-74, 129 Stat. 584.
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
Final rule; correction.
The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC or Commission) is correcting a final rule that appeared in the
Effective March 6, 2017.
Christopher Kuczynski, Assistant Legal Counsel, (202) 663-4665, or Aaron Konopasky, Senior Attorney-Advisor, (202) 663-4127 (voice), or (202) 663-7026 (TTY), Office of Legal Counsel, U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. (These are not toll free numbers.) Requests for this document in an alternative format should be made to the Office of Communications and Legislative Affairs at (202) 663-4191 (voice) or (202) 663-4494 (TTY). (These are not toll free numbers.)
In FR Doc. 2016-31397 appearing on page 654 in the
1. On page 654, in the first column, in
For the Commission.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
Pursuant to the Federal Clean Air Act (CAA or Act), the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving revisions to the Texas State Implementation Plan (SIP) submitted by the State of Texas that pertain to particulate matter and outdoor burning regulations. The State submitted the SIP revisions in the years 1989, 2004, 2006 and 2014.
This rule is effective on February 10, 2017.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R06-OAR-2014-0222. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Mr. Randy Pitre, 214-665-7299,
Throughout this document “we,” “us,” and “our” means the EPA.
The background for this action is discussed in detail in our proposal at 81 FR 74739 (October 27, 2016). In that document we proposed to approve five Texas SIP revisions that pertain to particulate matter and outdoor burning regulations. We did not receive comments regarding our proposal.
We are approving the Texas SIP revisions dated from 1989, 2004, 2006 and 2014. Specifically, we are approving the August 21, 1989, and June 9, 2006, submittals that repealed Rule 105.2 of the Texas Administrative Code (TAC) (subsequently renumbered as 30 TAC Section 111.155 and repealed). We are also approving the July 18, 2006, submittal that revises 30 TAC Section 111.203. We are also approving the November 15, 2004, and July 18, 2006, submittals that revise 30 TAC Section 111.209. We are also approving the March 3, 2014, submittal that revises 30 TAC Section 111.211.
In this rule, we are finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with the requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, we are finalizing the incorporation by reference of the revisions to the Texas regulations as described in the Final Action section above. We have made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Public Law 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by March 13, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
42 U.S.C. 7401
The amendments read as follows:
(c) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Correcting amendment.
EPA issued a final rule on December 14, 2016, (81 FR 90207), that determined that the Houston-Galveston-Brazoria, Texas nonattainment area (HGB area) failed to attain the 2008 8-hour ozone national ambient air quality standard (NAAQS) by the applicable attainment deadline of July 20, 2016, and thus was classified by operation of law as “Moderate”. In that action, EPA also determined January 1, 2017 as the deadline by which Texas must submit to the EPA the State Implementation Plan (SIP) revisions that meet the Clean Air Act (CAA) statutory and regulatory requirements that apply to 2008 ozone NAAQS nonattainment areas reclassified as Moderate. The language in the December 14, 2016
This final rule correction is effective on January 11, 2017.
Ms. Nevine Salem, (214) 665-7222,
EPA issued a final rule on December 14, 2016, (81 FR 90207) (EPA-R06-OAR-2016-0275; FRL-9956-08-Region 6), that reclassified the HGB nonattainment area from Marginal to Moderate for the 2008 8-hour Ozone NAAQS standards. In that document, EPA incorrectly listed the classification date for the HGB ozone nonattainment area in § 81.344, the table titled “Texas—2008 8-Hour Ozone NAAQS (Primary and secondary)” to be 1/13/17. Instead the document should have the classification date in the table as 12/14/2016. This document corrects that mistake.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control.
40 CFR part 81 is corrected as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency and Department of Defense.
Final rule.
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) are promulgating discharge performance standards for 11 discharges incidental to the normal operation of a vessel of the Armed Forces into the navigable waters of the United States, the territorial seas, and the contiguous zone. When implemented, the discharge performance standards will reduce the adverse environmental impacts associated with the vessel discharges, stimulate the development of improved vessel pollution control devices, and advance the development of environmentally sound vessels of the Armed Forces. The 11 discharges addressed by the final rule are the following: aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF), chain locker effluent, distillation and reverse osmosis brine, elevator pit effluent, gas turbine water wash, non-oily machinery wastewater, photographic laboratory drains, seawater cooling overboard discharge, seawater piping biofouling prevention, small boat engine wet exhaust, and welldeck discharges.
This final rule is effective on February 10, 2017.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket No. EPA-HQ-OW-2013-0469. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Katherine B. Weiler, Marine Pollution Control Branch (4504T), U.S. EPA, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20460; (202) 566-1280;
The EPA and DoD promulgate this rule under the authority of Clean Water Act (CWA) section 312 (33 U.S.C. 1322). Section 325 of the National Defense Authorization Act of 1996 (“NDAA”), entitled “Discharges from Vessels of the Armed Forces” (Pub. L. 104-106, 110 Stat. 254), amended CWA section 312, to require the Administrator of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (Administrator) and the Secretary of Defense of the U.S. Department of Defense (Secretary) to develop uniform national standards to control certain discharges incidental to the normal operation of a vessel of the Armed Forces. The term Uniform National Discharge Standards, or UNDS, is used in this preamble to refer to the provisions in CWA section 312(a)(12) through (14) and (n) (33 U.S.C. 1322(a)(12) through (14) and (n)).
UNDS are intended to enhance the operational flexibility of vessels of the Armed Forces domestically and internationally, stimulate the development of innovative vessel pollution control technology, and advance the development of environmentally sound ships. Section 312(n)(3)(A) of the CWA requires the EPA and DoD to promulgate uniform national discharge standards for certain discharges incidental to the normal operation of a vessel of the Armed Forces (CWA section 312(a)(12)), unless the Secretary finds that compliance with UNDS would not be in the national security interests of the United States (CWA section 312(n)(1)).
This rule amends title 40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part 1700 to establish discharge performance standards for 11 discharges incidental to the normal operation of a vessel of the Armed Forces from among the 25 discharges for which the EPA and DoD previously determined (64 FR 25126, May 10, 1999) that it is reasonable and practicable to require a marine pollution control device (MPCD). The 11 discharges addressed by this rule are the following: Aqueous film-forming foam; chain locker effluent; distillation and reverse osmosis brine; elevator pit effluent; gas turbine water wash; non-oily machinery wastewater; photographic laboratory drains; seawater cooling overboard discharge; seawater piping biofouling prevention; small boat engine wet exhaust; and welldeck discharges.
These discharge performance standards do not become enforceable until after promulgation of a final rule, as well as promulgation of regulations by DoD under CWA section 312(n)(5)(C) to govern the design, construction, installation, and use of a MPCD.
UNDS do not apply to the following discharges from vessels of the Armed Forces: Overboard discharges of rubbish, trash, garbage, or other such materials; sewage; air emissions resulting from the operation of a vessel propulsion system, motor-driven equipment, or incinerator; or discharges that require permitting under the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) program, including operational discharges and other discharges that are not incidental to the normal operation of a vessel of the Armed Forces.
The final rule applies to vessels of the Armed Forces. For the purposes of the rulemaking, the term “vessel of the Armed Forces” is defined at CWA section 312(a)(14). “Vessel of the Armed Forces” means any vessel owned or operated by the U.S. Department of Defense (
This rule is applicable to discharges from a vessel of the Armed Forces operating in the navigable waters of the United States, territorial seas, and the contiguous zone (CWA section 1322(n)(8)(A)). The rule applies in both fresh and marine waters and can include bodies of water such as rivers, lakes, and oceans. Together, the preamble refers to these waters as “waters subject to UNDS.”
Sections 502(7), 502(8), and 502(9) of the CWA define the term “navigable waters,” “territorial seas,” and “contiguous zone,” respectively. The term “navigable waters” means waters of the United States including the territorial seas, where the United States includes the states, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto
The UNDS rulemaking is a joint rulemaking between the EPA and DoD and is under development in three phases. The first two phases reflect joint rulemaking between the EPA and DoD; the third phase is a DoD-only rule.
The EPA and DoD promulgated the Phase I regulations on May 10, 1999 (64 FR 25126), and these existing regulations are codified at 40 CFR part 1700. During Phase I, the EPA and DoD identified the discharges incidental to the normal operation of a vessel of the Armed Forces for which it is reasonable and practicable to require control with a MPCD to mitigate potential adverse impacts on the marine environment (CWA section 312(n)(2)), as well as those discharges for which it is not. Section 312(a)(13) of the CWA defines a MPCD as any equipment or management practice, for installation or use on a vessel of the Armed Forces, that is designed to receive, retain, treat, control, or discharge a discharge incidental to the normal operation of a vessel; and determined by the Administrator and the Secretary to be the most effective equipment or management practice to reduce the environmental impacts of the discharge consistent with the considerations set forth by UNDS.
During Phase I, the EPA and DoD identified the following 25 discharges as requiring control with a MPCD: Aqueous film-forming foam; catapult water brake tank and post-launch retraction exhaust; chain locker effluent; clean ballast; compensated fuel ballast; controllable pitch propeller hydraulic fluid; deck runoff; dirty ballast; distillation and reverse osmosis brine; elevator pit effluent; firemain systems; gas turbine water wash; graywater; hull coating leachate; motor gasoline and compensating discharge; non-oily machinery wastewater; photographic laboratory drains; seawater cooling overboard discharge; seawater piping biofouling prevention; small boat engine wet exhaust; sonar dome discharge; submarine bilgewater; surface vessel bilgewater/oil-water separator effluent; underwater ship husbandry; and welldeck discharges (40 CFR 1700.4).
During Phase I, the EPA and DoD identified the following 14 discharges as not requiring control with a MPCD: Boiler blowdown; catapult wet accumulator discharge; cathodic protection; freshwater layup; mine countermeasures equipment lubrication; portable damage control drain pump discharge; portable damage control drain pump wet exhaust; refrigeration/air conditioning condensate; rudder bearing lubrication; steam condensate; stern tube seals and underwater bearing lubrication; submarine acoustic countermeasures launcher discharge; submarine emergency diesel engine wet exhaust; and submarine outboard equipment grease and external hydraulics.
As of the effective date of the Phase I rule (June 9, 1999), neither states nor political subdivisions of states may adopt or enforce any state or local statutes or regulations with respect to the 14 discharges that were identified as not requiring control, except to establish no-discharge zones (CWA sections 312(n)(6)(A) and 312(n)(7)). However, section 312(n)(5)(D) of the CWA authorizes a Governor of any state to submit a petition to the EPA and DoD and requesting the re-evaluation of a prior determination that a MPCD is required for a particular discharge (40 CFR 1700.4) or that a MPCD is not required for a particular discharge (40 CFR 1700.5), if there is significant new information not considered previously, that could reasonably result in a change to the determination (CWA section 312(n)(5)(D) and 40 CFR 1700.11).
Section 312(n)(3) of the CWA provides for Phase II and requires the EPA and DoD to develop federal discharge performance standards for each of the 25 discharges identified in Phase I as requiring control. In doing so, the EPA and DoD are required to consult with the Department in which the U.S. Coast Guard is operating, the Secretary of Commerce, interested states, the Secretary of State, and other interested federal agencies. In promulgating Phase II discharge performance standards, CWA section 312(n)(2)(B) directs the EPA and DoD to consider seven factors: The nature of the discharge; the environmental effects of the discharge; the practicability of using the MPCD; the effect that installation or use of the MPCD would have on the operation or the operational capability of the vessel; applicable U.S. law; applicable international standards; and the economic costs of installation and use of the MPCD. Section 312(n)(3)(C) of the CWA further provides that the EPA and DoD may establish discharge standards that (1) distinguish among classes, types, and sizes of vessels; (2) distinguish between new and existing vessels; and (3) provide for a waiver of applicability of standards as necessary or appropriate to a particular class, type, age, or size of vessel.
The EPA and DoD developed a process to establish the Phase II discharge performance standards in three batches (three separate rulemakings). The first batch of discharge performance standards was proposed on February 3, 2014 (79 FR 6117) and addressed 11 of the 25 discharges identified as requiring control (64 FR 25126). A notice of proposed rulemaking for the second batch of discharge performance standards was published on October 7, 2016 (81 FR 69753) and addressed 11 additional discharges identified as requiring control (64 FR 25126). The third batch of discharge performance standards that will address the remaining three discharges will be proposed in a separate rule.
In developing the Phase II discharge performance standards, the EPA and DoD reference the 2013 NPDES Vessel General Permit and the 2014 NPDES Small Vessel General Permit (hereinafter referred to collectively as the NPDES VGPs) as the baseline for each comparable discharge incidental to the normal operation of a vessel of the Armed Forces (78 FR 21938, April 12, 2013 and 79 FR 53702, September 10, 2014). The NPDES VGPs provide for CWA authorization of discharges incidental to the normal operation of non-military and non-recreational vessels extending to the outer reach of the three-mile territorial sea as defined in CWA section 502(8). The NPDES VGPs include effluent limits that are based on both the technology available to treat pollutants (
Using the NPDES VGPs as a baseline for developing the performance standards for discharges incidental to the normal operation of a vessel of the Armed Forces allowed the EPA and DoD to maximize the use of the EPA's scientific and technical work developed to support the NPDES VGPs. The NPDES VGPs technology-based and water quality-based effluent limitations were then adapted, as appropriate, for the relevant discharges from vessels of the Armed Forces.
Phase III of UNDS requires DoD, in consultation with the EPA and the Secretary of the Department in which the U.S. Coast Guard is operating, within one year of finalization of the Phase II standards, to promulgate regulations governing the design, construction, installation, and use of MPCDs necessary to meet the discharge performance standards. DoD will implement the Phase III regulations under the authority of the Secretary as a DoD publication. The Phase III regulations will be publicly released and are expected to be made available on the Defense Technical Information Center Web site:
Following the effective date of regulations under Phase III, it will be unlawful for a vessel of the Armed Forces to operate within waters subject to UNDS if the vessel is not equipped with a MPCD that meets the Phase II standards (CWA section 312 (n)(7)). It also will be unlawful for a vessel of the Armed Forces to discharge a regulated UNDS discharge into an UNDS no-discharge zone (
In addition, as of the effective date of the Phase III regulations, neither a state nor political subdivision a of state may adopt or enforce any state or local statute or regulation with respect to discharges identified as requiring control, except to establish no-discharge zones (CWA section 312(n)(6)). CWA section 312(n)(7) provides for the establishment of no-discharge zones either (1) by state prohibition after application and a determination by the EPA, or (2) directly by EPA prohibition. The Phase I UNDS regulations established the criteria and procedures for establishing UNDS no-discharge zones (40 CFR 1700.9 and 40 CFR 1700.10).
If a state determines that the protection and enhancement of the quality of some or all of its waters require greater environmental protection, the state may prohibit one or more discharges incidental to the normal operation of a vessel of the Armed Forces, whether treated or not, into those waters (40 CFR 1700.9). A state prohibition does not apply until after the Administrator determines that (1) the protection and enhancement of the quality of the specified waters within the state require a prohibition of the discharge into the waters; (2) adequate facilities for the safe and sanitary removal of the discharge incidental to the normal operation of a vessel are reasonably available for the waters to which the prohibition would apply; and (3) the prohibition will not have the effect of discriminating against a vessel of the Armed Forces by reason of the ownership or operation by the federal government, or the military function, of the vessel (40 CFR 1700.9(b)(2)).
Alternatively, a state may request that the EPA prohibit, by regulation, the discharge of one or more discharges incidental to the normal operation of a vessel of the Armed Forces, whether treated or not, into specified waters within a state (40 CFR 1700.10). In this case, the EPA would make a determination that the protection and enhancement of the quality of the specified waters requires a prohibition of the discharge. As with the application of a state prohibition described above, the Administrator would need to determine that (1) the protection and enhancement of the quality of the specified waters within the state require a prohibition of the discharge into the waters; (2) adequate facilities for the safe and sanitary removal of the discharge incidental to the normal operation of a vessel are reasonably available for the waters to which the prohibition would apply; and (3) the prohibition will not have the effect of discriminating against a vessel of the Armed Forces by reason of the ownership or operation by the federal government, or the military function, of the vessel (40 CFR 1700.9(b)(2)). The EPA may not, however, disapprove a state application for this latter type of prohibition for the sole reason that there are not adequate facilities for the safe and sanitary removal of such discharges (CWA section 312(n)(7)(B)(ii) and 40 CFR 1700.10(b)).
The statute also requires the EPA and DoD to review the determinations and standards every five years and, if necessary, to revise them based on significant new information. Specifically, CWA section 312(n)(5)(A) and (B) contain provisions for reviewing and modifying both of the following determinations: (1) Whether control should be required for a particular discharge, and (2) the substantive standard of performance for a discharge for which control is required. A Governor also may petition the Administrator and the Secretary to review a UNDS determination or standard if there is significant new information, not considered previously, that could reasonably result in a change to the determination or standard (CWA section 312(n)(5)(D) and 40 CFR 1700.11).
During the development of the rule, the EPA and DoD consulted with other federal agencies, states, and tribes regarding the reduction of adverse environmental impacts associated with discharges from vessels of the Armed Forces; development of innovative vessel pollution control technology; and advancement of environmentally sound vessels of the Armed Forces. In addition, the EPA and DoD reviewed comments on the NPDES VGPs.
This rule is supported by “Technical Development Document (TDD) Phase I Uniform National Discharge Standards (UNDS) for Vessels of the Armed Forces,” the UNDS Phase I rules, the “Final 2013 Vessel General Permit for Discharges Incidental to the Normal Operation of Vessels (VGP),” the “Vessel General Permit (VGP) Fact Sheet,” the “Final Small Vessel General Permit for Discharges Incidental to the Normal Operation of Vessels Less Than 79 Feet (sVGP),” the “Small Vessel General Permit (sVGP) Fact Sheet,” the “Economics and Benefits Analysis of the Final 2013 Vessel General Permit (VGP),” the “Economics and Benefits Analysis of the Final 2013 Small Vessel General Permit (sVGP),” the “February 2014 Uniform National Discharge Standards for Vessels of the Armed Forces—Phase II,” the “Report to
During the development of the discharge performance standards, the EPA and DoD analyzed the information from the Phase I of UNDS, considered the relevant language in the NPDES VGPs effluent limitations, and took into the consideration the seven statutory factors listed in CWA section 312(n)(2)(B). These seven statutory factors are: The nature of the discharge; the environmental effects of the discharge; the practicability of using the MPCD; the effect that installation or use of the MPCD would have on the operation or operational capability of the vessel; applicable U.S. law; applicable international standards; and the economic costs of the installation and use of the MPCD. The EPA and DoD determined that the NPDES VGPs effluent limitations, which include technology-based and water quality-based effluent limitations, provide a sound basis to serve as a baseline for developing the discharge performance standards for the 11 discharges in this rule. The subsections below outline the EPA and DoD's approach to considering the seven statutory factors listed in CWA section 312(n)(2)(B).
During Phase I, the EPA and DoD gathered information on the discharges incidental to the normal operation of a vessel of the Armed Forces and developed nature of the discharge reports. The nature of the discharge reports discuss how the discharge is generated, volumes and frequencies of the generated discharge, where the discharge occurs, and the constituents present in the discharge. In addition, the EPA and DoD reviewed relevant discharge information in the supporting documentation of the NPDES VGPs. The EPA and DoD briefly describe the nature of each of the 11 discharges below; however, the complete nature of the discharge reports can be found in Appendix A of the Technical Development Document—EPA 821-R-99-001.
Discharges incidental to the normal operation of a vessel of the Armed Forces have the potential to negatively impact the aquatic environment. The discharges contain a wide variety of constituents that have the potential to negatively impact aquatic species and habitats. These discharges can cause thermal pollution and can contain aquatic nuisance species (ANS), nutrients, bacteria and pathogens (
The universe of vessels of the Armed Forces affected by the rule encompasses more than 6,000 vessels distributed among the U.S. Navy, Military Sealift Command, U.S. Coast Guard, U.S. Army, U.S. Marine Corps, and U.S. Air Force. These vessels range in design and size from small boats with lengths of less than 20 feet for coastal operations, to aircraft carriers with lengths of over 1,000 feet for global operations. Approximately 80 percent of the vessels of the Armed Forces are less than 79 feet in length. Larger vessels (
The EPA and DoD assessed the relative costs, practicability, and operational impacts of the rule by comparing current operating conditions and practices of vessels of the Armed Forces with the anticipated operating conditions and practices that will be required to meet the discharge performance standards. The EPA and DoD determined that the discharge performance standards applicable to operating conditions and practices for the 11 discharges will only result in a marginal increase in performance costs, practicability, and operational impacts.
The EPA and DoD reviewed U.S. laws and international standards that would be relevant to discharges incidental to the normal operation of a vessel of the Armed Forces. A number of U.S. environmental laws include specific provisions for federal facilities and properties that may result in different environmental requirements for federal and non-federal entities. Similarly, many international treaties do not apply to vessels of the Armed Forces either because vessels of the Armed Forces are entitled to sovereign immunity under international law or because any particular treaty may apply different approaches to the adoption of appropriate environmental control measures consistent with the objects and purposes of such treaties. The EPA and DoD incorporated any relevant information in the development of the discharge standards after reviewing the requirements of the following treaties and domestic implementing legislation, as well as other relevant and potentially applicable U.S. environmental laws: International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (also referred to as MARPOL); International Convention on the Control of Harmful Anti-Fouling Systems on Ships; Act to Prevent Pollution from Ships; CWA section 311, as amended by the Oil Pollution Control Act of 1990; CWA section 402 and the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System Vessel General Permit and small Vessel General Permit; Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA); Hazardous Materials Transportation Act; Title X of the Coast Guard Authorization Act of 2010; National Marine Sanctuaries Act; Antiquities Act of 1906; Resource Conservation and Recovery Act; Toxic
The EPA and DoD added UNDS definitions to 40 CFR part 1700. Specifically, this rule defines the terms: Bioaccumulative; biodegradable; environmentally acceptable lubricants; federally-protected waters; hazardous material; minimally-toxic; not bioaccumulative; person in charge; toxic materials; and waters subject to UNDS.
This section describes the performance standards determined to be reasonable and practicable to mitigate the adverse impacts to the marine environment for the 11 discharges. In developing these standards, the EPA and DoD considered the information from Phase I of UNDS, the NPDES VGPs effluent limitations, and the seven statutory factors listed in CWA section 312(n)(2)(B). For more information on each discharge included in this rule, please see the Phase I Uniform National Discharge Standards for Vessels of the Armed Forces: Technical Development Document; EPA 821-R-99-001.
The 11 discharge performance standards described in each section below apply to vessels of the Armed Forces operating within waters subject to UNDS, except as otherwise expressly excluded in the “exceptions” in 40 CFR 1700.39. In addition, if two or more regulated discharge streams are combined prior to discharge, then the resulting discharge would need to meet the discharge performance standards applicable to each of the discharges that are being combined (40 CFR 1700.40). Furthermore, recordkeeping (40 CFR 1700.41) and non-compliance reporting (40 CFR 1700.42) apply generally to each discharge performance standard unless expressly provided in a particular discharge performance standard.
The EPA and DoD prohibit the discharge of AFFF (
The EPA and DoD require that all anchor chains from surface vessels (submarines are not subject to this requirement) must be carefully and thoroughly washed down (
In addition, the EPA and DoD prohibit the rinsing or pumping out of chain lockers for vessels that sail seaward of waters subject to UNDS at least once per month. For vessels that do not sail seaward of waters subject to UNDS at least once per month, the rinsing or pumping out of chain lockers must occur as far from shore as possible and, if technically feasible, must not occur in federally-protected waters.
The EPA and DoD prohibit the discharge of the distillation and reverse osmosis brine and the discharge of reverse osmosis reject water if it comes in contact with machinery or industrial equipment (other than distillation or reverse osmosis machinery), toxic or hazardous materials, or wastes.
The EPA and DoD prohibit the direct discharge of elevator pit effluent. Notwithstanding the prohibition of direct discharges of elevator pit effluent, elevator pit effluent can be discharged when commingled with another discharge for the purposes of treatment prior to discharge; under no circumstances may oils, including oily mixtures, be discharged from that combined discharge in quantities that cause a film or sheen upon or discoloration of the surface of the water or adjoining shorelines, or cause a sludge or emulsion to be deposited beneath the surface of the water or upon adjoining shorelines, or contain an oil content above 15 ppm as measured by EPA Method 1664a or other appropriate method for determination of oil content as accepted by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) (
The EPA and DoD prohibit the direct discharge of gas turbine water wash. To the greatest extent practicable, gas turbine water wash must be collected separately and disposed of onshore in accordance with any applicable solid waste and hazardous substance management and disposal requirements. Notwithstanding the prohibition of direct discharges of gas turbine water wash overboard, if gas turbine water wash is commingled with any other discharge for the purposes of treatment prior to discharge, then under no circumstances may oils, including oily mixtures, be discharged from that combined discharge in quantities that cause a film or sheen upon or discoloration of the surface of the water or adjoining shorelines, or cause a sludge or emulsion to be deposited beneath the surface of the water or upon adjoining shorelines, or contain an oil content above 15 ppm as measured by EPA Method 1664a or other appropriate method for determination of oil content as accepted by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) (
The EPA and DoD require that discharges of non-oily machinery wastewater must not contain any additives that are toxic or bioaccumulative in nature. In addition, under no circumstances may oils, including oily mixtures be discharged in quantities that cause a film or sheen upon or discoloration of the surface of the water or adjoining shorelines, or cause a sludge or emulsion to be deposited beneath the surface of the water or upon adjoining shorelines, or contain an oil content above 15 ppm as measured by EPA Method 1664a or other appropriate method for determination of oil content as accepted by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) (
The EPA and DoD prohibit the discharge of photographic laboratory drain effluent.
The EPA and DoD require that non-contact engine cooling water, hydraulic system cooling water, refrigeration cooling water, and other seawater cooling overboard discharges be
The EPA and DoD require a performance standard for seawater piping biofouling prevention that minimizes, to the greatest extent practicable, the amount of biofouling chemicals (
Lastly, this performance standard requires practices consistent with the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) (7 U.S.C. 136
The EPA and DoD require that low sulfur or alternative fuels be used to the greatest extent practicable. In addition, the performance standard requires that, to the greatest extent practicable, four-stroke engines be used instead of two-stroke engines. Vessels using two-stroke engines are required to use environmentally acceptable lubricants (found in the definitions for this term at 40 CFR 1700.3) unless such use would be technologically infeasible. If technologically infeasible, the use and justification for the use of a non-environmentally acceptable lubricant must be recorded in the vessel recordkeeping documentation.
The EPA and DoD prohibit welldeck discharges containing graywater from smaller vessels. In addition, discharges containing washdown of gas turbine engines within nautical miles of the United States is prohibited and, to the greatest extent practicable, must be discharged seaward of waters subject to UNDS. Welldeck discharges from equipment and vehicle washdowns need to be free from garbage, and must not contain oil in quantities that cause a film or sheen upon or discoloration of the surface of the water or adjoining shorelines, or cause a sludge or emulsion to be deposited beneath the surface of the water or upon adjoining shorelines, or contain an oil content above 15 ppm as measured by EPA Method 1664a or other appropriate method for determination of oil content as accepted by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) (
This section provides an overview of the additional amendments for 40 CFR part 1700. These changes include an amendment to subsections referenced Effect (section 1700.2), a provision that authorizes certain discharges notwithstanding the performance standards in situations where vessel safety or lives are endangered (section 1700.39), a provision that requires combined discharge streams to meet the requirements applicable to all discharge streams that are combined (section 1700.40), a requirement for recordkeeping (section 1700.41), and a requirement to report instances of non-compliance with MPCD performance standards (section 1700.42).
The EPA and DoD amend the reference sections noted in the Effect Section 1700.2 (a) by amending “Federal standards of performance for each required Marine Pollution Control Device are listed in section 1700.14” to “Federal standards of performance for each required Marine Pollution Control Device are listed in sections 1700.14 through 1700.38. Federal standards of performance apply to all vessels, whether existing or new, and regardless of vessel class, type, or size, unless otherwise expressly provided in sections 1700.14 through 1700.38.”
As noted previously, the EPA and DoD are proposing the Phase II standards in three batches. For the purpose of proposing the remaining batches, this rule reserves the following sections for those future rulemaking actions:
The EPA and DoD add an “Exceptions” subsection at section 1700.39, which provides a place to identify certain excluded discharges from the scope of UNDS, notwithstanding the performance standards, in situations where vessel safety or lives are endangered. The section also identifies requirements for maintaining records of all discharge exceptions.
4. Section 1700.40 Commingling of Discharges
The EPA and DoD add a “Commingling of Discharges” subsection at section 1700.40. By adding this subsection, the EPA and DoD stipulate that if two or more regulated discharge streams are combined into one, the resulting discharge stream must meet the requirements applicable to all discharge streams that are combined prior to discharge unless otherwise specified by the specific discharge standard.
The EPA and DoD add a “Records” subsection at section 1700.41. By adding this subsection, the EPA and DoD include recordkeeping requirements that shall document all inspections, instances of non-compliance, and instances of an exception.
The EPA and DoD add a “Non-Compliance Reports” subsection at section 1700.42. By adding this subsection, the EPA and DoD include reporting requirements for any non-compliance with performance standards prescribed for this Part.
On February 3, 2014, the EPA and DoD published proposed discharge
The EPA and DoD consider the public comment period vital to creating a rule that is effective at meeting regulatory standards and also is readily understandable and useful to the public. The EPA and DoD received one comment on the proposed rule regarding some of the terms and definitions used in the UNDS Phase II Batch One Proposed Rule. The comment noted that the definitions used in the UNDS proposed rule were slightly different than the definitions used in the NPDES VGP and could potentially cause confusion in production and sales of certain goods, such as lubricants, that are widely used on both commercial vessels and vessels of the Armed Forces. The EPA and DoD agreed with the comment and incorporated changes to the following definitions in Section 1700.3 of this final rule:
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Pursuant to Section 7(a)(2) of the Endangered Species Act (ESA) the EPA and DoD consulted the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) and the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), collectively “the Services.” The Biological Evaluation developed by the EPA and DoD concluded that the issuance of the Batch One final rule for the Uniform National Discharge Standards for Vessels of the Armed Forces—Phase II is not likely to adversely affect listed or proposed species or adversely modify designated or proposed critical habitat.
Pursuant to Section 307 of the CZMA, the EPA and DoD have determined that the performance standards are consistent to the maximum extent practicable with the enforceable policies of federally-approved coastal state and territory Coastal Management Plans (CMPs) for the coastal zones including state waters where discharges from vessels of the Armed Forces would be regulated by UNDS. Following proposal of the Uniform National Discharge Standards for Vessels of the Armed Forces—Phase II issued on February 3, 2014, the EPA and DoD provided 34 states and territories with the EPA and DoD's August 2016 “National Consistency Determination: Uniform National Discharge Standards (UNDS) Program for Phase II Batch One Discharges.”
The EPA and DoD are modifying the batch process. In the proposed rule, the EPA and DoD indicated that Phase II—the establishment of discharge performance standards—would be completed in two batches. The EPA and DoD have since determined to develop the discharge performance standards in three batches to allow for more time to collect and incorporate additional information into the development of the discharge performance standards.
The EPA and DoD are modifying the definitions and standards to make them more clear and concise, in addition to changes made due to the public and federal comments. The non-substantive changes made to the definitions and standards are intended to clarify, simplify, and/or improve understanding and readability of the discharge performance standards. There are no technical changes to the definitions or standards.
Additional information about these statutes and Executive Orders can be found at
This action is not a significant regulatory action and was therefore not submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review.
This action does not impose any new information collection burden, as the EPA and DoD have determined that Phase II of UNDS does not create any additional collection of information beyond that already mandated under the Phase I of UNDS. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has previously approved the information collection requirements contained in the existing regulations (40 CFR part 1700) under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501
We certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. This action will not impose any requirements on small entities.
This action does not contain any unfunded mandate as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. The action implements mandates specifically and explicitly set forth in CWA section 312 without the exercise of any policy discretion by the EPA.
The EPA and DoD concluded that the rule, once finalized in Phase III, will have federalism implications. Once the discharge performance standards are promulgated in Phase III by DoD, adoption and enforcement of new or existing state or local regulations for the discharges will be preempted.
Accordingly, the EPA and DoD provide the following federalism
During Phase II, the EPA and DoD consulted again with state representatives early in the process of developing the regulation to allow them to have meaningful and timely input into the development of the discharge standards. On March 14, 2013, the EPA held a Federalism consultation briefing in Washington, DC, which was attended by representatives from the National Governors Association, the National Conference of State Legislatures, the National League of Cities, the National Association of Counties, the United States Conference of Mayors, the County Executives of America, the Environmental Council of States, the Association of Clean Water Administrators, two U.S. states and one U.S. territory, in order to obtain meaningful and timely input in the development of the proposed discharge standards. The EPA and DoD informed the state representatives that the two agencies planned to use the NPDES VGPs effluent limitations as a baseline for developing the discharge performance standards for the 25 discharges identified in Phase I as requiring control.
Pursuant to the terms of Executive Order 13132, as well as EPA policy for implementing it, a federalism summary impact statement is required to summarize not only the issues and concerns raised by state and local government commenters during the course of the rule's development, but also to describe how and the extent to which the agencies addressed those concerns. No formal, substantive comments were received from state and local government entities during the course of developing this action.
As required by section 8(a) of Executive Order 13132, the EPA included a certification from its Federalism Official stating that the EPA had met the Executive Order's requirements in a meaningful and timely manner. A copy of this certification is included in the public version of the official record for this final action.
This action does not have tribal implication as specified in Executive Order 13175. The UNDS rulemaking will not impact vessels operated by tribes because the rule only regulates discharges from vessels of the Armed Forces. However, tribes may be interested in this action because vessels of the Armed Forces, including U.S. Coast Guard vessels, may operate in or near tribal waters. The EPA hosted a National Teleconference on March 23, 2013, in order to obtain meaningful and timely input during the development of the discharge standards. The EPA and DoD informed the representatives that the two agencies planned to use the NPDES VGPs effluent limitations as a baseline for developing the discharge performance standards for the 25 discharges identified in Phase I as requiring control. During the Tribal consultation period, the EPA and DoD did not receive any substantive comments from the Indian Tribal Governments.
The Coastal Zone Management Act (CZMA) and its implementing regulations (15 CFR part 930) require that any Federal agency activity or Federally licensed or permitted activity occurring within (or outside but affecting) the coastal zone of a state with an approved Coastal Management Plan (CMP) be consistent with the enforceable policies of that approved program to the maximum extent practicable. According to the August 2016 “National Consistency Determination: Uniform National Discharge Standards (UNDS) Program for Phase II Batch One Discharges,” the EPA and DoD have determined that the performance standards are consistent to the maximum extent practicable with the enforceable policies of the 34 federally-approved state and territory CMPs.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it is not economically significant as defined in Executive Order 12866, and because the EPA and DoD do not believe the environmental health or safety risks addressed by this action present a disproportionate risk to children. The 11 discharge standards are designed to control discharges incidental to the normal operation of a vessel of the Armed Forces that could adversely affect human health and the environment. The standards reduce the impacts to the receiving waters and any person using the receiving waters, regardless of age.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, because is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
This action involves technical standards. The EPA and DoD propose to use ISO Method 9377—determination of hydrocarbon oil index. ISO Method 9377 is a voluntary consensus standard developed by an independent, non-governmental international organization.
Section 7(a)(2) of the Endangered Species Act (ESA) requires each Federal agency, in consultation with and with the assistance of the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) and the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), collectively “the Services,” to ensure that the actions they authorize, fund, or carry out are not likely to adversely affect the continued existence of any endangered or threatened species (referred to as “listed species”) or result in the destruction or adverse modification of their designated critical habitats.
The Services have published regulations implementing ESA section 7 at 50 CFR part 402. The regulations provide that a federal agency (such as the EPA and DoD) must consult with FWS, NMFS, or both if the agency determines that an activity authorized, funded, or carried out by the agency may affect listed species or critical habitat. The kinds of effects that trigger the consultation obligation could include, among other things, beneficial, detrimental, direct and indirect effects. The EPA and DoD commenced discussion with the Services in November 2014. The consultation process included multiple steps: Briefings with the Services on the contents of the rulemaking, discussions
Executive Order 13112, entitled “Invasive Species” (64 FR 6183, February 8, 1999), requires each federal agency, whose actions may affect the status of invasive species, to identify such actions, and, subject to the availability of appropriations, use relevant programs and authorities to, among other things, prevent, detect, control, and monitor the introduction of invasive species. As defined by this Executive Order, “invasive species” means an alien species whose introduction causes, or is likely to cause, economic or environmental harm or harm to human health.
As part of the environmental effects analyses, the EPA and DoD considered the control of invasive species when developing the discharge performance standards for all 11 discharges (See Section II).
Executive Order 13089, entitled “Coral Reef Protection” (63 FR 32701, June 16, 1998), requires all federal agencies to identify actions that may affect U.S. coral reef ecosystems; utilize their programs and authorities to protect the conditions of such ecosystems; and to the extent permitted by law, ensure that any actions they authorize, fund, or carry out will not degrade the conditions of such ecosystems. These discharge standards are designed to control or eliminate the discharges incidental to the normal operation of vessels of the Armed Forces, ultimately minimizing the potential for causing adverse impacts to the marine environment including coral reefs.
The EPA and DoD believe that this action does not have disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority populations, low-income populations and/or indigenous peoples, as specified in Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994). The discharge performance standards only apply to vessels of the Armed Forces and ultimately increase environmental protection.
This action is subject to the CRA, and the EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
Environmental protection, Armed Forces, Vessels, Coastal zone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Water pollution control.
33 U.S.C. 1322, 1361.
(a) This part identifies those discharges, other than sewage, incidental to the normal operation of vessels of the Armed Forces that require control within the navigable waters of the United States, including the territorial seas and the waters of the contiguous zone, and those discharges that do not require control. Discharges requiring control are identified in § 1700.4. Discharges not requiring control are identified in § 1700.5. Federal standards of performance for each required Marine Pollution Control Device are listed in §§ 1700.14 through 1700.38. Federal standards of performance apply to all vessels, whether existing or new, and regardless of vessel class, type, or size, unless otherwise expressly provided in §§ 1700.14 through 1700.38.
(1) Regarding
(2) Regarding cleaning products,
(3) Regarding biocidal substances,
(1) Marine sanctuaries designated under the National Marine Sanctuaries Act (16 U.S.C. 1431
(2) A unit of the National Wildlife Refuge System, including Wetland Management Districts, Waterfowl Production Areas, National Game Preserves, Wildlife Management Areas, and National Fish and Wildlife Refuges;
(3) National Wilderness Areas; and
(4) Any component designated under the National Wild and Scenic Rivers System.
(1) A Commanding Officer, Officer in Charge, or senior commissioned officer on board the vessel;
(2) A civilian, military, or U.S. Coast Guard person assigned to a shore command or activity that has been designated as the PIC for one or more vessels, such as a group of boats or craft;
(3) A Tugmaster, Craftmaster, Coxswain, or other senior enlisted person onboard the vessel;
(4) A licensed civilian mariner onboard a Military Sealift Command vessel; or
(5) A contracted commercial person at a shore installation that is not part of the Armed Forces but as identified by the U.S. Department of Defense or the Department in which the U.S. Coast Guard is operating.
(a) For the purposes of this section, regulated aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF) refers only to firefighting foam and seawater mixture discharged during training, testing, or maintenance operations.
(b) For all vessels that sail seaward of waters subject to UNDS at least once per month, the discharge of AFFF is prohibited.
(c) For all vessels that do not sail seaward of waters subject to UNDS at least once per month:
(1) The discharge of fluorinated AFFF is prohibited; and
(2) The discharges of non-fluorinated or alternative foaming agent are prohibited in port or in or near federally-protected waters, and must occur as far from shore as possible.
(a) For all vessels, except submarines, the anchor chain must be carefully and thoroughly washed down (
(b) For all vessels, the chain lockers must be cleaned periodically to eliminate accumulated sediments and any potential accompanying pollutants. The dates of all chain locker inspections must be recorded in the ship's log or other vessel recordkeeping documentation.
(c) For all vessels that sail seaward of waters subject to UNDS at least once per month, the rinsing or pumping out of chain lockers is prohibited.
(d) For all vessels that do not sail seaward of waters subject to UNDS at least once per month, the rinsing or pumping out of chain lockers must occur as far from shore as possible and, if technically feasible, the rinsing or pumping out of chain lockers must not occur in federally-protected waters.
The discharge of brine from the distillation system and the discharge of reverse osmosis reject water are prohibited if they come in contact with machinery or industrial equipment (other than distillation or reverse osmosis machinery), toxic or hazardous materials, or wastes.
(a) The direct discharge of elevator pit effluent is prohibited.
(b) Notwithstanding the prohibition of direct discharges of elevator pit effluent overboard, if the elevator pit effluent is commingled with any other discharge for the purposes of treatment prior to discharge, then under no circumstances may oils, including oily mixtures, be discharged from that combined discharge in quantities that:
(1) Cause a film or sheen upon or discoloration of the surface of the water or adjoining shorelines; or
(2) Cause a sludge or emulsion to be deposited beneath the surface of the water or upon adjoining shorelines; or
(3) Contain an oil content above 15 ppm as measured by EPA Method 1664a or other appropriate method for determination of oil content as accepted by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) (
(4) Otherwise are harmful to the public health or welfare of the United States.
(a) The direct discharge of gas turbine water wash is prohibited.
(b) To the greatest extent practicable, gas turbine water wash must be collected separately and disposed of onshore in accordance with any applicable solid waste and hazardous substance management and disposal requirements.
(c) Notwithstanding the prohibition of direct discharges of gas turbine water wash overboard, if the gas turbine water wash is commingled with any other discharge for the purposes of treatment prior to discharge then under no circumstances may oils, including oily mixtures be discharged from that combined discharge in quantities that:
(1) Cause a film or sheen upon or discoloration of the surface of the water or adjoining shorelines; or
(2) Cause a sludge or emulsion to be deposited beneath the surface of the water or upon adjoining shorelines; or
(3) Contain an oil content above 15 ppm as measured by EPA Method 1664a or other appropriate method for determination of oil content as accepted by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) (
(4) Otherwise are harmful to the public health or welfare of the United States.
The discharge of non-oily machinery wastewater must not contain any additives that are toxic or bioaccumulative in nature, and under no circumstances may oils, including oily mixtures, be discharged in quantities that:
(a) Cause a film or sheen upon or discoloration of the surface of the water or adjoining shorelines; or
(b) Cause a sludge or emulsion to be deposited beneath the surface of the water or upon adjoining shorelines; or
(c) Contain an oil content above 15 ppm as measured by EPA Method 1664a or other appropriate method for determination of oil content as accepted by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) (
(d) Otherwise are harmful to the public health or welfare of the United States.
The discharge of photographic laboratory drains is prohibited.
(a) For discharges from vessels that are less than 79 feet in length:
(1) To the greatest extent practicable, minimize non-contact engine cooling water, hydraulic system cooling water, refrigeration cooling water and other seawater cooling overboard discharges when the vessel is in port.
(2) To reduce the production and discharge of seawater cooling overboard discharge, the vessel should use shore based power when in port if:
(i) Shore power is readily available for the vessel from utilities or port authorities; and
(ii) Shore based power supply systems are capable of providing all needed electricity required for vessel operations; and
(iii) The vessel is equipped to connect to shore-based power and such systems are compatible with the available shore power.
(3) Fouling organisms must be removed from seawater piping on a regular basis. The discharge of fouling organisms removed during cleanings is prohibited.
(b) For discharges from vessels that are greater than or equal to 79 feet in length:
(1) To the greatest extent practicable, minimize non-contact engine cooling water, hydraulic system cooling water, refrigeration cooling water and other seawater cooling overboard discharges when the vessel is in port.
(2) To reduce the production and discharge of seawater cooling overboard discharge, the vessel should use shore based power when in port if:
(i) Shore power is readily available for the vessel from utilities or port authorities; and
(ii) Shore based power supply systems are capable of providing all needed electricity required for vessel operations; and
(iii) The vessel is equipped to connect to shore-based power and such systems are compatible with the available shore power.
(3) Maintenance of all piping and seawater cooling systems must meet the requirements of § 1700.32 (Seawater Piping Biofouling Prevention). For all vessels, except submarines, fouling organisms removed during maintenance must not be discharged.
(a) Seawater piping biofouling chemicals subject to registration under the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) (7 U.S.C. 136
(b) To the greatest extent practicable, only the minimum amount of biofouling chemicals must be used to keep fouling under control.
(c) Fouling organisms must be removed from seawater piping on a regular basis. For all vessels, except submarines, the discharge of fouling organisms removed during cleanings is prohibited.
(a) For the purposes of this section small boat engine wet exhaust discharges refers only to discharges from vessels that are less than 79 feet in length.
(b) Vessels generating small boat engine wet exhaust must be maintained
(c) To the greatest extent practicable, low sulfur or alternative fuels must be used to reduce the concentration of pollutants in discharges from small boat engine wet exhaust.
(d) To the greatest extent practicable, use four-stroke engines instead of two-stroke engines for vessels generating small boat engine wet exhaust.
(e) Vessels using two-stroke engines must use environmentally acceptable lubricants unless use of such lubricants is technologically infeasible. If technologically infeasible, the use and justification for the use of a non-environmentally acceptable lubricant must be recorded in the vessel recordkeeping documentation.
(a) Welldeck discharges that contain graywater from smaller vessels are prohibited.
(b) Welldeck discharges containing washdown from gas turbine engines are prohibited within three miles of the United States and to the greatest extent practicable must be discharged seaward of waters subject to UNDS.
(c) Welldeck discharges from equipment and vehicle washdowns must not contain garbage and must not contain oil in quantities that:
(1) Cause a film or sheen upon or discoloration of the surface of the water or adjoining shorelines; or
(2) Cause a sludge or emulsion to be deposited beneath the surface of the water or upon adjoining shorelines; or
(3) Contain an oil content above 15 ppm as measured by EPA Method 1664a or other appropriate method for determination of oil content as accepted by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) (
(4) Otherwise are harmful to the public health or welfare of the United States.
(a) Notwithstanding each of the MPCD performance standards established in this Part, a vessel of the Armed Forces is authorized to discharge, into waters subject to UNDS, when the PIC or their designated representative determines that such discharge is necessary to prevent loss of life, personal injury, vessel endangerment, or severe damage to the vessel.
(b) A vessel of the Armed Forces must maintain the following records for all discharges under paragraph (a) of this section:
(1) Name and title of the PIC who determined the necessity of the discharge;
(2) Date, location, and estimated volume of the discharge;
(3) Explanation of the reason the discharge occurred; and
(4) Actions taken to avoid, minimize, or otherwise mitigate the discharge.
(c) All records prepared under paragraph (b) of this section must be maintained in accordance with § 1700.41.
If two or more regulated discharge streams are combined into one, the resulting discharge stream must meet the requirements applicable to all discharge streams that are combined prior to discharge.
(a) All records must be generated and maintained in the ship's logs (main, engineering, and/or damage control) or an UNDS Record Book and must include the following information:
(1) Vessel owner information (
(2) Vessel name and class; and
(3) Name of the PIC.
(b) The PIC must maintain complete records of the following information:
(1) Any inspection or recordkeeping requirement as specified in §§ 1700.14 through 1700.38;
(2) Any instance of an exception and the associated recordkeeping requirements as specified in § 1700.39; and
(3) Any instance of non-compliance with any of the performance standards as specified in §§ 1700.14 through 1700.38. The information recorded must include the following:
(i) Description of any non-compliance and its cause;
(ii) Date of non-compliance;
(iii) Period of non-compliance (time and duration);
(iv) Location of the vessel during non-compliance;
(v) Corrective action taken;
(vi) Steps taken or planned to reduce, eliminate, and prevent non-compliance in the future; and
(vii) If the non-compliance has not been corrected, an estimate of the time the non-compliance is expected to continue.
(c) All records prepared under this section must be maintained for a period of five years from the date they are created. The information in this paragraph will be available to the EPA, states, or the U.S. Coast Guard upon request. Any information made available upon request must be appropriately classified, as applicable, and handled in accordance with applicable legal requirements regarding national security.
The PIC must report any non-compliance, including the information as required under § 1700.41, to the Armed Service's designated office in writing and/or electronically within five days of the time the PIC becomes aware of the circumstances.
Office of Child Care (OCC), Administration for Children and Families (ACF), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Correcting amendment.
The Department of Health and Human Services published a final rule in the
Effective on January 11, 2017.
Andrew Williams, Office of Child Care, at 202-401-4795 (not a toll-free call). Deaf and hearing impaired individuals may call the Federal Dual Party Relay Services at 1-800-877-8339 between 8 a.m. and 7 p.m. Eastern Time.
The Department of Health and Human Services published a final rule in the
Child care, Grant programs—social programs.
Accordingly, 45 CFR part 98 is corrected by making the following correcting amendments:
42 U.S.C. 618, 9858.
(d)(1) Tribal Lead Agencies shall not be subject to:
(i) The requirement to produce a consumer education Web site at § 98.33(a). Tribal Lead Agencies still must collect and disseminate the provider-specific consumer education information described at § 98.33(a) through (d), but may do so using methods other than a Web site;
(ii) The requirement to have licensing applicable to child care services at § 98.40;
(iii) The requirement for a training and professional development framework at § 98.44(a);
(iv) The market rate survey or alternative methodology described at § 98.45(b)(2) and the related requirements at § 98.45(c), (d), (e), and (f);
(v) The requirement that Lead Agencies shall give priority for services to children of families with very low family income at § 98.46(a)(1);
(vi) The requirement that Lead Agencies shall prioritize increasing access to high-quality child care in areas with significant concentrations of poverty and unemployment at § 98.46(b);
(vii) The requirements about Mandatory and Matching Funds at § 98.50(e);
(viii) The requirement to complete the quality progress report at § 98.53(f);
(ix) The requirement that Lead Agencies shall expend no more than five percent from each year's allotment on administrative costs at § 98.54(a); and
(x) The Matching Fund requirements at §§ 98.55 and 98.63.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Final rule.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), determine endangered species status under the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (Act), as amended, for the rusty patched bumble bee (
This rule becomes effective February 10, 2017.
This final rule is available on the internet at
Peter Fasbender, Field Supervisor, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Twin Cities Ecological Services Field Office, 4101 American Blvd. E., Bloomington, MN 55425, by telephone 952-252-0092, extension 210. Persons who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Relay Service at 800-877-8339.
An SSA team prepared an SSA for the rusty patched bumble bee. The SSA team was composed of U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service biologists, in consultation with other species experts. The SSA represents a compilation of the best scientific and commercial data available concerning the status of the species, including the impacts of past, present, and future factors (both negative and beneficial) affecting the rusty patched bumble bee. The SSA underwent independent peer review by 15 scientists with expertise in bumble bee biology, habitat management, and stressors (factors negatively affecting the species). We incorporated peer review suggestions into the SSA. The SSA and other materials relating to this final rule can be found on the Midwest Region Web site at
Please refer to the proposed listing rule for the rusty patched bumble bee (81 FR 65324; September 22, 2016) for a detailed description of previous Federal actions concerning this species.
A thorough review of the taxonomy, life history, and ecology of the rusty patched bumble bee (
The rusty patched bumble bee is a eusocial (highly social) organism forming colonies consisting of a single queen, female workers, and males. Colony sizes of the rusty patched bumble bee are considered large compared to other bumble bees, and healthy colonies may consist of up to 1,000 individual workers in a season (Macfarlane
The rusty patched bumble bee's annual cycle begins in early spring with colony initiation by solitary queens and progresses with the production of workers throughout the summer and ending with the production of reproductive individuals (males and potential queens) in mid- to late summer and early fall (Macfarlane
The rusty patched bumble bee has been observed and collected in a variety of habitats, including prairies, woodlands, marshes, agricultural landscapes, and residential parks and gardens (Colla and Packer 2008, p. 1381; Colla and Dumesh 2010, p. 46; USFWS rusty patched bumble bee unpublished geodatabase 2016). The species requires areas that support sufficient food (nectar and pollen from diverse and abundant flowers), undisturbed nesting sites in proximity to floral resources, and overwintering sites for hibernating queens (Goulson
Bumble bees are generalist foragers, meaning they gather pollen and nectar from a wide variety of flowering plants (Xerces 2013, pp. 27-28). The rusty patched bumble bee is one of the first bumble bees to emerge early in the spring and the last to go into hibernation, so to meet its nutritional needs, the species requires a constant and diverse supply of blooming flowers.
Rusty patched bumble bee nests are typically in abandoned rodent nests or other similar cavities (Plath 1922, pp. 190-191; Macfarlane
Prior to the mid- to late 1990s, the rusty patched bumble bee was widely distributed across areas of 31 States/Provinces: Connecticut, Delaware, District of Columbia, Georgia, Illinois, Indiana, Iowa, Kentucky, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, Michigan, Minnesota, Missouri, New Hampshire, New Jersey, New York, North Carolina, North Dakota, Ohio, Ontario, Pennsylvania, Quebec, Rhode Island, South Carolina, South Dakota, Tennessee, Vermont, Virginia, West Virginia, and Wisconsin. Since 2000, the rusty patched bumble bee has been reported from 14 States/Provinces: Illinois, Indiana, Iowa, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, Minnesota, North Carolina, Ontario, Ohio, Pennsylvania, Tennessee, Virginia, and Wisconsin (figure 1).
The Act directs us to determine whether any species is an endangered species or a threatened species because of any factors affecting its continued existence. We completed a comprehensive assessment of the biological status of the rusty patched bumble bee, and prepared a report of the assessment, which provides a thorough account of the species' overall viability. We define viability as the ability of the species to persist over the long term and, conversely, to avoid extinction. In this section, we summarize the conclusions of that assessment, which can be accessed at Docket No. FWS-R3-ES-2015-0112 on
To assess rusty patched bumble bee viability, we used the three conservation biology principles of resiliency, representation, and redundancy (Shaffer and Stein 2000, pp. 306-310). Briefly, resiliency supports the ability of the species to withstand environmental and demographic stochasticity (for example, wet or dry, warm or cold years); representation supports the ability of the species to adapt over time to long-term changes in the environment (for example, climate changes); and redundancy supports the ability of the species to withstand catastrophic events (for example, droughts, hurricanes). In general, the more redundant, representative, and resilient a species is, the more likely it is to sustain populations over time, even under changing environmental conditions. Using these principles, we identified the species' ecological requirements for survival and reproduction at the individual, population, and species levels, and described the beneficial and risk factors influencing the species' viability.
We evaluated the change in resiliency, representation, and redundancy from the past until the present, and projected the anticipated future states of these conditions. To forecast the biological condition into the future, we devised plausible future scenarios by eliciting expert information on the primary stressors anticipated in the future to the rusty patched bumble bee: Pathogens, pesticides, habitat loss and degradation, effects of climate change, and small population dynamics. To assess resiliency, we evaluated the trend in rusty patched bumble bee occurrences (populations) over time. To forecast future abundance, we used a population model to project the number of populations expected to persist based on plausible future risk scenarios. To
Our analyses indicate that the resiliency, representation, and redundancy of the rusty patched bumble bee have all declined since the late 1990s and are projected to continue to decline over the next several decades. Historically, the species was abundant and widespread, with hundreds of populations across an expansive range, and was the fourth-ranked
Since the late 1990s, rusty patched bumble bee abundance and distribution has declined significantly. Historically, the rusty patched bumble bee has been documented from 926 populations; since 1999, the species has been observed at 103 populations, which represents an 88 percent decline from the number of populations documented prior to 2000). We assumed any population with at least one record (one individual rusty patched bumble bee seen) since 1999 is current, and thus, the overall health and status of these 103 current populations is uncertain. Indeed, many populations have not been reconfirmed since the early 2000s and may no longer persist. For example, no rusty patched bumble bees were observed at 41 (40 percent) of the current sites since 2010 and at 75 (73 percent) of the 103 sites since 2015. Furthermore, many of the current populations are documented by only a few individuals; 95 percent of the populations are documented by 5 or fewer individuals; the maximum number found at any site was 30. The number of individuals constituting a healthy colony is typically several hundred, and a healthy population typically contains tens to hundreds of colonies (Macfarlane
Along with the loss of populations, a marked decrease in the range and distribution has occurred in recent times. As noted above, the rusty patched bumble bee was broadly distributed historically across the Eastern United States, upper Midwest, and southern Quebec and Ontario, an area comprising 15 ecoregions, 31 States/Provinces, and 394 U.S. counties and 38 county-equivalents in Canada. Since 2000, the species' distribution has declined across its range, with current records from 6 ecoregions, 14 States or Provinces, and 55 counties (figure 1); this represents an 87-percent loss of spatial extent (expressed as a loss of counties with the species) within the historical range. The losses in both the number of populations and spatial extent render the rusty patched bumble bee vulnerable to extinction even without further external stressors (
Many of the existing populations, however, continue to face the effects of past and ongoing stressors, including pathogens, pesticides, habitat loss and degradation, small population dynamics, and effects of climate change. A brief summary of these primary stressors is presented below; for a full description of these stressors, refer to chapter 5 of the SSA report.
In addition to fungi such as
Neonicotinoids are a class of insecticides used to target pests of agricultural crops, forests (for example, emerald ash borer), turf, gardens, and pets and have been strongly implicated as the cause of the decline of bees in general (European Food Safety Authority 2015, p. 4211; Pisa
Most studies examining the effect of neonicotinoids on bees have been conducted using the European honey bee (
Although habitat loss has established negative effects on bumble bees (Goulson
Like many insect species, the rusty patched bumble bee has haplodiploidy sex differentiation, in which haploid (having one set of chromosomes) males are produced from unfertilized eggs and diploid (containing two complete sets of chromosomes) females from fertilized eggs (Zayed 2009, p. 239). When females mate with related males (as is more likely to happen in small populations), however, half of the females' progeny will develop into diploid males instead of females. Having fewer females decreases the health of the colony, as males do not contribute food resources to the colony (Ellis
A few organizations have or may soon start monitoring programs, such as Bumble Bee Watch (
In summary, the magnitude of population losses and range contraction to date has greatly reduced the rusty patched bumble bee's ability to adapt to changing environmental conditions and to guard against further losses of adaptive diversity and potential extinction due to catastrophic events. In reality, the few populations persisting and the limited distribution of these populations have substantially reduced the ability of the rusty patched bumble bee to withstand environmental variation, catastrophic events, and changes in physical and biological conditions. Coupled with the increased risk of extirpation due to the interaction of reduced population size and its haplodiploidy reproductive strategy, the rusty patched bumble bee may lack the resiliency required to sustain populations into the future, even without further exposure to stressors.
In preparing this final rule, we reviewed and fully considered comments from the public and peer reviewers on the proposed rule. This final rule incorporates minor changes to our proposed listing based on the comments we received, as discussed below in Summary of Comments and Recommendations, and newly available occurrence data. These data allowed us to refine occurrence information, thus, the final numerical results are slightly different from those in the proposed rule.
We have reevaluated the viability of the rusty patched bumble bee in the SSA given this new information, and found that the probability of the species' persistence has not changed from the proposed rule. Specifically, in four of the ecoregions, the probability of extirpation exceeds 90 percent within 10 years, and extirpation in the remaining ecoregions is greater than 90 percent by year 30. The new information we received in response to the proposed rule did not change our determination that the rusty patched bumble bee is an endangered species, nor was it significant enough to warrant reopening the public comment period.
In the proposed rule published on September 22, 2016 (81 FR 65324), we requested that all interested parties submit written comments on the proposal by November 21, 2016. We also contacted appropriate Federal and State agencies, scientific experts and organizations, and other interested parties and invited them to comment on the proposal. A newspaper notice inviting general public comment was published in USA Today on October 6, 2016. We did not receive any requests for a public hearing.
We reviewed all comments received in response to the proposed rule for substantive issues and new information. Over 70 commenters provided substantive information. Those commenters included members of the general public, local governments, nongovernmental organizations, State agencies, species experts, agricultural organizations, and industry. We did not receive comments from Federal agencies or Tribes.
We also received more than 100 individual comments supporting the proposed rule to list rusty patched bumble bee, and thousands (more than 90,000) of supportive comments submitted in form-letter format by
All substantive information provided during the comment period has either been incorporated directly into this final determination or addressed below. The new occurrence data we received was incorporated into our SSA analysis.
In accordance with our peer review policy published on July 1, 1994 (59 FR 34270), we solicited review of the SSA report from 25 knowledgeable individuals with scientific expertise that included familiarity with the rusty patched bumble bee and its habitat, biological needs, and threats. We received responses from 15 of the peer reviewers.
We reviewed all comments we received from the peer reviewers for substantive issues and new information regarding the rusty patched bumble bee. The peer reviewers generally concurred with our methods and conclusions and provided additional information, clarifications, and suggestions to improve the assessment. Peer reviewer comments are addressed in an appendix to the SSA, as appropriate; therefore, our proposal and this final rule were developed in consideration of peer reviewer comments.
In 2016, no rusty patched bumble bees were found at the 50 sites surveyed in Michigan, and the species was detected at 15 of the approximately 120 locations surveyed in Minnesota. Maine initiated a statewide 5-year bumble bee atlas program in 2015 to better understand the status of the State's bumble bees through citizen science. The rusty patched bumble bee was not among approximately 4,500 submitted vouchers and photos from Maine in 2015, nor was it detected in the 2016 survey effort. Given the amount of sampling within the range of the rusty patched bumble bee, we find that the likelihood of discovering a significant number of new populations is low. Further, given the condition of the persisting populations and the stressors that those populations face, adding a small number of new populations does not change our endangered determination, since the additional populations likely face similar stressors.
We have determined that, based on the best scientific and commercial data available at the time of listing, the rusty patched bumble bee warrants listing as an endangered species. A complete discussion is provided in the Determination section of the preamble to this rule. Section 4(d) of the Act allows for development of rules for species listed as threatened. As this species is being listed as an endangered species, a section 4(d) rule cannot be promulgated.
Primary or original information sources are those that are closest to the subject being studied, as opposed to those that cite, comment on, or build upon primary sources. The Act and our regulations do not require us to use only peer-reviewed literature, but instead they require us to use the “best scientific and commercial data available” in listing determinations. We have relied on published articles, unpublished research, habitat modeling reports, digital data publicly available on the Internet, and the expertise of subject biologists to make our determination for the rusty patched bumble bee. Although many information sources were used, we acknowledge that data gaps for the species still exist; however, our analyses made the data gaps explicit and we utilized expert opinion to help bridge the data gaps.
Furthermore, in accordance with our peer review policy published on July 1, 1994 (59 FR 34270), we solicited peer review from knowledgeable individuals with scientific expertise that included familiarity with the species, the geographic region in which the species occurs, and conservation biology principles. Additionally, we requested comments or information from other concerned governmental agencies, Native American Tribes, the scientific community, industry, and any other interested parties concerning the proposed rule. Comments and information we received helped inform this final rule.
In assessing the status of the rusty patched bumble bee, we applied the general understanding of “in danger of extinction” discussed in the Polar Bear Memo. The Polar Bear Memo provides further guidance on the statutory difference between a threatened species and an endangered species and clarifies that if a species is in danger of
We agree that habitat impacts are not likely the sole cause of the rusty patched bumble bee declines; rather, as explained, we find there are a multitude of stressors acting on the species. We acknowledge, however, that habitat losses may have become more of a factor as the colonies have been compromised by other, seemingly new, exposures to specific insecticides and pathogens.
It is difficult to determine how much of the species' decline is due to a single factor, including neonicotinoids, as there are a myriad of other stressors (
The listing of a species does not obstruct the development of conservation agreements or partnerships to conserve the species. Once a species is listed as either endangered or threatened, the Act provides many tools to advance the conservation of listed species. Conservation of listed species in many parts of the United States depends on working partnerships with a wide variety of entities, including the voluntary cooperation of non-Federal landowners. Building partnerships and promoting cooperation of landowners are essential to understanding the status of species on non-Federal lands, and may be necessary to implement recovery actions such as reintroducing listed species, habitat restoration, and habitat protection.
We do not find substantial disagreement regarding the sufficiency or accuracy of the available scientific data relevant to this determination. Therefore, we are not extending the period for making a final determination for the purposes of soliciting additional data. However, we agree that results from ongoing studies would further our understanding and help us with recovery planning and implementation. We will consider further research needs in our recovery planning efforts.
We acknowledge that proper herbicide use can reduce invasive or unwanted plant species from rusty patched bumble bee habitat, but label restrictions alone may not be protective of the rusty patched bumble bee. For example, one common herbicide label allows a mixture with imidacloprid, which has documented sublethal and lethal effects to bees. It is unclear which populations could be affected by these activities, what the effects might be, and how the effects might be minimized. The Service can provide technical assistance to help determine whether the rusty patched bumble bee may be present in a project area. If noxious weed control is needed where the rusty patched bumble bee is likely to be present, for example, the Service will work with landowners or land managers to identify techniques that avoid take. As we work to conserve the rusty patched bumble bee, we will provide landowners and land managers with information to assist with understanding what activities are likely to cause take of the species and what actions may be implemented to conserve the species.
Section 4 of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1533), and its implementing regulations at 50 CFR part 424, set forth the procedures for adding species to the Federal Lists of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants. Under section 4(a)(1) of the Act, we may list a species based on (A) The present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of its habitat or range; (B) Overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes; (C) Disease or predation; (D) The inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; or (E) Other natural or manmade factors affecting its continued existence. Listing actions may be warranted based on any of the above threat factors, singly or in combination.
We have carefully assessed the best scientific and commercial information available regarding the past, present, and future threats to the rusty patched bumble bee. Habitat loss and degradation from residential and commercial development and agricultural conversion occurred rangewide and resulted in fragmentation and isolation of the species from
The species' range (as measured by the number of counties occupied) has been reduced by 87 percent, and its current distribution is limited to just one to a few populations in each of 12 States and Ontario, with an 88-percent decrease in the number of populations known historically. Of the 103 known current populations, 96 percent have been documented by 5 or fewer individual bees; only 1 population has had more than 30 individuals observed in any given year. Drought frequency and increased duration of high temperatures are likely to increase due to climate change, further restricting floral resources, reducing foraging times, and fragmenting or eliminating populations (Factor E). Fungi such as
Pesticide use, including the use of many insecticides that have known lethal and sublethal effects to bumble bees, is occurring at increasing levels rangewide (Factor E). Similarly, herbicide use occurs rangewide and can reduce available floral resources (Factor A). Additionally, the rusty patched bumble bee is not able to naturally recolonize unoccupied areas that are not connected by suitable dispersal habitat (Factors A and E).
The rusty patched bumble bee's reproductive strategy makes it particularly vulnerable to the effects of small population size. The species can experience a “diploid male vortex,” where the number of nonviable males increases as abundance declines, thereby further reducing population size (Factor E). There is virtually no redundancy of populations within each occupied ecoregion, further increasing the risk of loss of representation of existing genetic lineages and, ultimately, extinction.
These threats have already resulted in the extirpation of the rusty patched bumble bee throughout an estimated 87 percent of its range, and these threats are likely to continue or increase in severity. Although the relative contributions of pesticides, pathogens, loss of floral resources, and other threats to the species' past and continued decline are not known, the prevailing data indicate that threats are acting synergistically and additively and that the combination of multiple threats is likely more harmful than a single threat acting alone. Regardless of the sources of the decline, the last 16 years of population data are not indicative of healthy colonies or healthy populations. Thus, the species is vulnerable to extinction even without further external stressors acting upon the populations.
Existing regulatory mechanisms vary across the species' range. The rusty patched bumble bee is listed as State endangered in Vermont (which prohibits taking, possessing, or transporting) and as special concern (no legal protection) in Connecticut, Michigan, and Wisconsin, and is protected under Canada's Species at Risk Act. Although these and other regulatory mechanisms exist, they do not currently ameliorate threats to the rusty patched bumble bee, as evidenced by the species' rapid, ongoing decline.
The Act defines an endangered species as any species that is “in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range” and a threatened species as any species “that is likely to become endangered throughout all or a significant portion of its range within the foreseeable future.” We find that the rusty patched bumble bee is presently in danger of extinction throughout its entire range. Relative to its historical (pre-2000s) condition, the abundance of rusty patched bumble bees has declined precipitously over a short period of time.
Further adding to the species' imperilment, its reproductive strategy (haplodiploidy) renders it particularly sensitive to loss of genetic diversity, which is further exacerbated by decreasing population size (for example, diploid male vortex). The persisting colonies are few in number and continue to be affected by high-severity stressors, including pathogens, pesticides, habitat loss and degradation, effects of climate change, and small population dynamics, throughout all of the species' range. These stressors are acting synergistically and additively on the species, and the combination of multiple stressors is more harmful than a single stressor acting alone. Due to the above factors, the species does not have the adaptive capacity in its current state to withstand physical and biological changes in the environment presently or into the future, and optimistic modeling suggests that all but one of the ecoregions are predicted to be extirpated within 5 years (Szymanski
In conclusion, the species' spatial extent has been considerably reduced and the remaining populations are under threat from a variety of factors acting in combination to significantly reduce the overall viability of the species. The risk of extinction is currently high because the number of remaining populations is small, most of those populations are extremely small in size (all but 2 have 10 or fewer individuals), and the species' range is severely reduced. Therefore, on the basis of the best available scientific and commercial information, we are listing the rusty patched bumble bee as an endangered species in accordance with sections 3(6) and 4(a)(1) of the Act. We find that a threatened species status is not appropriate for the rusty patched bumble bee because (1) given its current condition, the species presently lacks the ability to withstand physical and biological changes in the environment; (2) based on the prediction that all but one ecoregion will be extinct within 5 years, the species presently has a high probability of extinction; and (3) even if the current stressors were to be reduced or eliminated, the species would still be at high risk of extinction based on small population size effects alone.
Under the Act and our implementing regulations, a species may warrant listing if it is endangered or threatened throughout all or a significant portion of its range. Because we have determined that the rusty patched bumble bee is endangered throughout all of its range, no portion of its range can be “significant” for purposes of the definitions of “endangered species” and “threatened species.” See the Final Policy on Interpretation of the Phrase “Significant Portion of Its Range” in the Endangered Species Act's Definitions of “Endangered Species” and “Threatened Species” (79 FR 37577; July 1, 2014).
Section 4(a)(3) of the Act, as amended, and implementing regulations in 50 CFR 424.12, require that, to the maximum extent prudent and determinable, we designate critical habitat at the time the species is determined to be an endangered or threatened species. Critical habitat is defined in section 3 of the Act as:
(1) The specific areas within the geographical area occupied by the species, at the time it is listed in accordance with the Act, on which are
(a) Essential to the conservation of the species, and
(b) Which may require special management considerations or protection; and
(2) Specific areas outside the geographical area occupied by the species at the time it is listed, upon a determination that such areas are essential for the conservation of the species.
Our regulations at 50 CFR 424.02 define the geographical area occupied by the species as: An area that may generally be delineated around species' occurrences, as determined by the Secretary (
Conservation, as defined under section 3 of the Act, means to use, and the use of, all methods and procedures that are necessary to bring an endangered or threatened species to the point at which the measures provided pursuant to the Act are no longer necessary. Such methods and procedures include, but are not limited to, all activities associated with scientific resources management such as research, census, law enforcement, habitat acquisition and maintenance, propagation, live trapping, and transplantation, and, in the extraordinary case where population pressures within a given ecosystem cannot be otherwise relieved, may include regulated taking.
Critical habitat receives protection under section 7 of the Act through the requirement that Federal agencies ensure, in consultation with the Service, that any action they authorize, fund, or carry out is not likely to result in the destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat. The designation of critical habitat does not affect land ownership or establish a refuge, wilderness, reserve, preserve, or other conservation area. Critical habitat designation does not allow the government or public to access private lands, nor does it require implementation of restoration, recovery, or enhancement measures by non-Federal landowners. Where a landowner requests Federal agency funding or authorization for an action that may affect a listed species or critical habitat, the Federal agency would be required to consult under section 7(a)(2) of the Act, but even if consultation leads to a finding that the action would likely cause destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat, the resulting obligation of the Federal action agency and the landowner is not to restore or recover the species, but rather to implement reasonable and prudent alternatives to avoid destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat.
Under the first prong of the Act's definition of critical habitat, areas within the geographical area occupied by the species at the time it was listed are included in a critical habitat designation if they contain physical or biological features (1) that are essential to the conservation of the species and (2) that may require special management considerations or protection. For these areas, critical habitat designations identify, to the extent known using the best scientific and commercial data available, those physical or biological features that are essential to the conservation of the species (such as space, food, cover, and protected habitat). In identifying those physical or biological features, we focus on the specific features that support the life-history needs of the species, including but not limited to, water characteristics, soil type, geological features, prey, vegetation, symbiotic species, or other features. A feature may be a single habitat characteristic, or a more complex combination of habitat characteristics. Features may include habitat characteristics that support ephemeral or dynamic habitat conditions. Features may also be expressed in terms relating to principles of conservation biology, such as patch size, distribution distances, and connectivity. Under the second prong of the Act's definition of critical habitat, we can designate critical habitat in areas outside the geographical area occupied by the species at the time it is listed if we determine that such areas are essential for the conservation of the species.
Section 4 of the Act requires that we designate critical habitat on the basis of the best scientific data available. Further, our Policy on Information Standards Under the Endangered Species Act (published in the
Our regulations (50 CFR 424.12(a)(1)) state that the designation of critical habitat is not prudent when any of the following situations exist: (i) The species is threatened by taking or other human activity, and identification of critical habitat can be expected to increase the degree of threat to the species, or (ii) such designation of critical habitat would not be beneficial to the species. The regulations also provide that, in determining whether a designation of critical habitat would not be beneficial to the species, the factors that the Services may consider include but are not limited to: Whether the present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of a species' habitat or range is not a threat to the species, or whether any areas meet the definition of “critical habitat” (50 CFR 424.12(a)(1)(ii)).
We do not know of any imminent threat of take attributed to collection or vandalism for the rusty patched bumble bee. The available information does not indicate that identification and mapping of critical habitat is likely to initiate any threat of collection or vandalism for the bee. Therefore, in the absence of finding that the designation of critical habitat would increase threats to the species, if there are benefits to the species from a critical habitat designation, a finding that designation is prudent is warranted.
The potential benefits of designation may include: (1) Triggering consultation under section 7 of the Act, in new areas for actions in which there may be a Federal nexus where it would not otherwise occur because, for example, it is unoccupied; (2) focusing conservation activities on the most essential features and areas; (3) providing educational benefits to State or county governments or private entities; and (4) preventing people from causing inadvertent harm to the protected species. Because designation of critical habitat will not likely increase the degree of threat to the species and may provide some measure of benefit, designation of critical habitat may be prudent for the rusty patched bumble bee.
Our regulations (50 CFR 424.12(a)(2)) further state that critical habitat is not determinable when one or both of the following situations exists: (1) Information sufficient to perform required analysis of the impacts of the designation is lacking; or (2) the biological needs of the species are not sufficiently well known to permit identification of an area as critical habitat.
Delineation of critical habitat requires identification of the physical or biological features, within the geographical area occupied by the species, essential to the species' conservation. In considering whether features are essential to the conservation of the species, the Service may consider an appropriate quality, quantity, and spatial and temporal arrangement of habitat characteristics in the context of the life-history needs, condition, and status of the species. These characteristics include but are not limited to space for individual and population growth and for normal behavior; food, water, air, light, minerals, or other nutritional or physiological requirements; cover or shelter; sites for breeding, reproduction, or rearing (or development) of offspring; and habitats that are protected from disturbance. Information regarding the rusty patched bumble bee life-history needs is complex, and complete data are lacking for most of them. For example, little is known about the overwintering habitats of foundress queens; however, information is currently being collected that may provide important knowledge on this topic. Consequently, a careful assessment of the biological information is still ongoing, and we are still in the process of acquiring the information needed to perform that assessment. The information sufficient to perform a required analysis of the impacts of the designation is lacking, and therefore, we find designation of critical habitat to be not determinable at this time.
Conservation measures provided to species listed as endangered or threatened species under the Act include recognition, recovery actions, requirements for Federal protection, and prohibitions against certain practices. Recognition through listing results in public awareness, and conservation by Federal, State, Tribal, and local agencies, private organizations, and individuals. The Act encourages cooperation with the States and other countries and calls for recovery actions to be carried out for listed species. The protection required by Federal agencies and the prohibitions against certain activities are discussed, in part, below.
The primary purpose of the Act is the conservation of endangered and threatened species and the ecosystems upon which they depend. The ultimate goal of such conservation efforts is the recovery of these listed species, so that they no longer need the protective measures of the Act. Subsection 4(f) of the Act calls for the Service to develop and implement recovery plans for the conservation of endangered and threatened species. The recovery planning process involves the identification of actions that are necessary to address the threats to its survival and recovery. The goal of this process is to restore listed species to a point where they are secure, self-sustaining, and functioning components of their ecosystems.
Recovery planning includes the development of a draft and final recovery plan. Revisions of the plan may be done to address continuing or new threats to the species, as new substantive information becomes available. The recovery plan also identifies recovery criteria for review of when a species may be ready for downlisting or delisting, and methods for monitoring recovery progress. Recovery plans also establish a framework for agencies to coordinate their recovery efforts and provide estimates of the cost of implementing recovery tasks. When completed, the draft recovery plan and the final recovery plan will be available on our Web site (
Implementation of recovery actions generally requires the participation of a broad range of partners, including other Federal agencies, States, Tribes, nongovernmental organizations, businesses, and private landowners. Examples of recovery actions include habitat restoration (for example, restoration of native vegetation), research, captive-propagation and reintroduction, and outreach and education. The recovery of many listed species cannot be accomplished solely on Federal lands because their range may occur primarily or solely on non-Federal lands. To achieve recovery of these species requires cooperative conservation efforts on private, State, and Tribal lands. Following publication of this final listing rule, funding for recovery actions will be available from a variety of sources, including Federal budgets, State programs, and cost-share grants for non-Federal landowners, the academic community, and nongovernmental organizations. In addition, pursuant to section 6 of the Act, the States of Connecticut, Delaware, Georgia, Illinois, Indiana, Iowa, Kentucky, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, Michigan, Minnesota, Missouri, New Hampshire, New Jersey, New York, North Carolina, North Dakota, Ohio, Pennsylvania, Rhode Island, South Carolina, South Dakota, Tennessee, Vermont, Virginia, West Virginia, and Wisconsin are eligible for Federal funds to implement management actions that promote the protection or recovery of the rusty patched bumble bee. Information on our grant programs that are available to aid species recovery can be found at:
Please let us know if you are interested in participating in recovery efforts for this species. Additionally, we invite you to submit any new information on this species whenever it becomes available and any information you may have for recovery planning purposes (see
Section 7(a) of the Act requires Federal agencies to evaluate their actions with respect to any species that is proposed or listed as an endangered or threatened species and with respect to its critical habitat, if any is proposed or designated. Regulations implementing this interagency cooperation provision of the Act are codified at 50 CFR part 402. Section 7(a)(2) of the Act requires Federal agencies to ensure that activities they authorize, fund, or carry out are not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any endangered or threatened species or destroy or adversely modify its critical habitat. If a Federal action may affect a listed species or its critical habitat, the responsible Federal agency must enter into consultation with the Service.
Federal agency actions within the species' habitat that may require consultation as described in the preceding paragraph include management and any other landscape-altering activities on Federal lands, for example, lands administered by the National Park Service, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, and U.S. Forest Service.
The Act and its implementing regulations set forth a series of general prohibitions and exceptions that apply to endangered wildlife. The prohibitions of section 9(a)(1) of the Act, codified at 50 CFR 17.21, make it illegal for any person subject to the jurisdiction of the United States to take (which includes harass, harm, pursue, hunt, shoot, wound, kill, trap, capture, or collect; or to attempt any of these) endangered wildlife within the United States or on the high seas. In addition, it is unlawful to import; export; deliver, receive, carry, transport, or ship in interstate or foreign commerce in the course of commercial activity; or sell or offer for sale in interstate or foreign commerce any listed species. It is also illegal to possess, sell, deliver, carry, transport, or ship any such wildlife that has been taken illegally. Certain exceptions apply
We may issue permits to carry out otherwise prohibited activities involving endangered wildlife under certain circumstances. Regulations governing permits are codified at 50 CFR 17.22. With regard to endangered wildlife, a permit may be issued for the following purposes: for scientific purposes, to enhance the propagation or survival of the species, and for incidental take in connection with otherwise lawful activities. There are also certain statutory exemptions from the prohibitions, which are found in sections 9 and 10 of the Act.
It is our policy, as published in the
Based on the best available information, the following activities may potentially result in a violation of section 9 of the Act; this list is not comprehensive:
(1) Unauthorized handling or collecting of the species;
(2) The unauthorized release of biological control agents that attack any life stage of the rusty patched bumble bee, including the unauthorized use of herbicides, pesticides, or other chemicals in habitats in which the rusty patched bumble bee is known to occur;
(3) Unauthorized release of nonnative species or native species that carry pathogens, diseases, or fungi that are known or suspected to adversely affect rusty patched bumble bee where the species is known to occur;
(4) Unauthorized modification, removal, or destruction of the habitat (including vegetation and soils) in which the rusty patched bumble bee is known to occur; and
(5) Unauthorized discharge of chemicals or fill material into any wetlands in which the rusty patched bumble bee is known to occur.
Questions regarding whether specific activities would constitute a violation of section 9 of the Act should be directed to the Twin Cities Ecological Services Field Office (see
We have determined that environmental assessments and environmental impact statements, as defined under the authority of the National Environmental Policy Act (42 U.S.C. 4321
A complete list of references cited in this rulemaking is available on the Internet at
The primary authors of this final rule are the staff members of the Twin Cities Ecological Services Field Office and the Region 3 Regional Office.
Endangered and threatened species, Exports, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transportation.
Accordingly, we amend part 17, subchapter B of chapter I, title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as set forth below:
16 U.S.C. 1361-1407; 1531-1544; 4201-4245, unless otherwise noted.
(h) * * *
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Final rule; technical amendments.
NMFS is hereby making technical amendments to the regulations for Atlantic highly migratory species. Currently, certain cross-references meant to be in the regulations are either missing or incorrect. This final action will make the cross-references in the regulations accurate. The action also simplifies regulatory text by removing unnecessary language. The rule is administrative in nature and does not make any change with substantive effect to the regulations governing Atlantic highly migratory species (HMS) fisheries.
This final rule is effective on January 11, 2017.
Copies of other documents relevant to this rule are available from the HMS Management Division Web site at
Larry Redd or Karyl Brewster-Geisz by phone at 301-427-8503.
Atlantic HMS are managed under the dual authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, 16 U.S.C. 1801
The regulations in 50 CFR 635.71 contain specific prohibitions, and those prohibitions contain or should contain regulatory cross-references specific to the regulatory requirements in other sections of 50 CFR part 635. The regulatory text in § 635.71 ensures that person(s) under United States jurisdiction are in compliance with the Federal rules promulgated under the Atlantic Tunas Convention Act and the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act when fishing for Atlantic HMS. This technical amendment corrects the cross-references in the HMS regulations. It also simplifies regulatory text at § 635.71(b)(23) by removing unnecessary language.
The regulations at § 635.71(a)(9), (b)(21), (e)(9), and (e)(10) are missing a clarifying cross-reference. This final action adds a cross reference to those regulations.
Additionally, the regulations at § 635.71(a)(17), (a)(18), (a)(37), (a)(54), (a)(56), (a)(59), (b)(36), (b)(37), (b)(39), (b)(40), and (e)(17) contain one or more incorrect cross-references. This final action corrects those cross-references. Additionally, § 635.71(b)(23) has an incorrect cross reference, which this action corrects. This action would remove language referencing that incidental to recreational fishing for other species would be retained in accordance with § 635.23(b) and (c), and simplifies the regulatory text to more broadly refer to the provisions of § 635.23.
The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries has determined that this final rule is necessary for the conservation and management of U.S. fisheries and that it is consistent with the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, the 2006 Consolidated Atlantic HMS FMP and its amendments, and ATCA.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), there is good cause to waive prior notice and an opportunity for public comment on this action, as notice and comment are unnecessary and contrary to the public interest. This final rule makes only corrective, non-substantive changes to add missing, or correct, cross-references to HMS regulations or, in one instance, to remove confusing, unnecessary language, and is solely administrative in nature. Therefore, public comment would serve no purpose and is unnecessary. Furthermore, it is in the public interest to correct or insert the cross-references as quickly as possible to more clearly articulate the regulatory requirements to the public. Any delay in implementation would result in the continuation of incorrect cross-references in the regulations at 50 CFR 635. It is in the best interest of both the public and law enforcement to effectively enforce the new changes on publication to ensure person(s) are justifiably operating within U.S. law. Thus, there is also good cause under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3) to waive the 30-day delay in effective date.
This final rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
Because prior notice and opportunity for public comment are not required for this rule by 5 U.S.C. 553, or any other law, and a proposed rule is not being published, the analytical requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601
NMFS has determined that fishing activities conducted pursuant to this rule will not affect endangered and/or threatened species or critical habitat listed under the Endangered Species Act, or marine mammals protected by the Marine Mammal Protection Act, because the action will not result in any change or increase in fishing activity, and is solely administrative in nature.
Fisheries, Fishing, Fishing vessels, Foreign relations, Imports, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Treaties.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR part 635 is amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 971
(a) * * *
(9) Fail to report the catching of any Atlantic HMS to which a conventional tag has been affixed under a tag and release program as specified in § 635.26(a).
(17) Fish for Atlantic tunas or swordfish with a gillnet or possess Atlantic tunas or swordfish on board a vessel with a gillnet on board, as specified in § 635.19(a), (b), and (e).
(18) Fail to retrieve fishing gear and move after an interaction with a protected species, as specified in § 635.21(b)(3).
(37) Fail to report to NMFS, at the number designated by NMFS, the incidental capture of listed whales with shark gillnet gear as required by § 635.21(g)(1).
(54) Possess, use, or deploy, in the Gulf of Mexico, any circle hook, other than as described at § 635.21(c). Vessels in the Gulf of Mexico, with pelagic gear onboard, are prohibited from possessing, using, or deploying circle hooks that are constructed of round wire stock which is larger than 3.65 mm in diameter (See: § 635.21(c)(5)(iii)(B)(
(56) Have been issued a valid HMS Commercial Caribbean Small Boat permit and to purchase, barter for, or trade for HMS harvested by other vessels with the intent to sell, as specified in § 635.4(o)(5).
(59) Fish for, retain, possess, or land any HMS from a vessel with a pelagic longline on board when the Atlantic Tunas Longline category fishery is closed, as specified in § 635.28(a)(3), (b)(7), (c)(3), and (d).
(b) * * *
(21) Transfer a tuna as specified in § 635.29(a), except as may be authorized for the transfer of Atlantic BFT between purse seine vessels, as specified in § 635.29(c).
(23) Fish for, catch, possess, or retain a bluefin tuna, except as specified under § 635.23.
(36) Possess J-hooks onboard a vessel that has pelagic longline gear onboard, and that has been issued, or is required to have, a limited access swordfish, shark, or Atlantic Tunas Longline category permit for use in the Atlantic Ocean, including the Caribbean Sea and the Gulf of Mexico, except when green-stick gear is onboard, as specified at § 635.21(c)(2)(vii)(A) and (c)(5)(iii)(B)(
(37) Use or deploy J-hooks with pelagic longline gear from a vessel that has been issued, or is required to have, a limited access swordfish, shark, or tuna longline category permit for use in the Atlantic Ocean, including the Caribbean Sea and Gulf of Mexico, as specified in § 635.21(c)(5)(iii)(B).
(38) As specified in § 635.21(c)(5)(iii)(B)(
(39) Use or deploy more than 10 hooks at one time on any individual green-stick gear, as specified in § 635.21(j), (c)(2)(vii)(A), or (c)(5)(iii)(B)(
(40) Possess, use, or deploy J-hooks smaller than 1.5 inch (38.1 mm), when measured in a straight line over the longest distance from the eye to any part of the hook, when fishing with or possessing green-stick gear onboard a vessel that has been issued, or is required to have, a limited access swordfish, shark, or tuna longline category permit for use in the Atlantic Ocean, including the Caribbean Sea and Gulf of Mexico, as specified at § 635.21(c)(5)(iii)(B)(
(e) * * *
(9) Fish for swordfish from the South Atlantic swordfish stock using gear other than pelagic longline, as specified at § 635.19(e)(1) and § 635.27(c)(1)(ii).
(10) Fish for, catch, possess, retain, or land an Atlantic swordfish using, or captured on, “buoy gear” as defined at § 635.2, unless, as specified in § 635.19(e)(3), the vessel owner has been issued a swordfish directed limited access permit or a swordfish handgear limited access permit in accordance with § 635.4(f) or a valid HMS Commercial Caribbean Small Boat permit in accordance with § 635.4(o).
(17) Failure to construct, deploy, or retrieve buoy gear as specified at § 635.21(h).
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, DHS.
Advance notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS) is considering making regulatory changes to the EB-5 Immigrant Investor Regional Center Program. Based on decades of experience operating the program, DHS has determined that program changes are needed to better reflect business realities for regional centers and EB-5 immigrant investors, to increase predictability and transparency in the adjudication process for stakeholders, to improve operational efficiency for the agency, and to enhance program integrity. This Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) is organized to include requests for comment immediately following discussions of the relevant issues.
Written comments must be received on or before April 11, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by DHS Docket No. USCIS-2016-0008, by any one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Lori MacKenzie, Division Chief, Operations Policy and Performance, Immigrant Investor Program Office, U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security, 131 M St. NE., 3rd Floor, Washington, DC 20529; Telephone 202-357-9214.
This ANPRM provides an opportunity for DHS to hear and consider the views of the public on potential changes to improve and modify the EB-5 Regional Center Program. DHS invites comments, data, and information from all interested parties, including regional centers, investors, advocacy groups, nongovernmental organizations, community-based organizations, and legal representatives who specialize in immigration law, as well as corporate and securities law. DHS welcomes comments on any and all aspects of this ANPRM. Your comments can help shape the outcome of this possible rulemaking.
DHS is issuing this ANPRM to seek comment from all interested stakeholders on several topics, including: (1) The process for initially designating entities as regional centers, (2) a potential requirement for regional centers to utilize an exemplar filing process, (3) “continued participation” requirements for maintaining regional center designation, and (4) the process for terminating regional center designation. While DHS has gathered some information related to these topics, DHS is seeking additional information that can help the Department make operational and security updates to the Regional Center Program while minimizing the impact of such changes on regional center operations and EB-5 investors.
When submitting comments, please indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, indicate the specific question number to which each comment applies, and provide reasons for each suggestion or recommendation. Feedback that simply states that a stakeholder strongly prefers a particular outcome, unaccompanied by careful reasoning and actionable data, is much less useful to DHS.
DHS is particularly interested in data that would inform a quantitative and qualitative assessment of the costs and benefits of the potential changes described in this ANPRM. DHS is also interested in comments from the public that provide more information how to identify the small entity status of EB-5 stakeholder entities, such as regional centers and new commercial enterprises. DHS specifically requests information on revenue or employment data sources on regional centers and new commercial enterprises.
Comments must be submitted in English, or an English translation must be provided. Written comments may be submitted electronically or by mail, as explained previously in the
As part of the Immigration Act of 1990, Public Law 101-649, 104 Stat. 4978, Congress established the EB-5 immigrant visa classification to incentivize employment creation in the United States. Under the EB-5 program, lawful permanent resident (LPR) status is available to foreign nationals who invest at least $1 million in a new commercial enterprise (NCE) that will create at least 10 full-time jobs in the United States.
Enacted in 1992, section 610 of the Departments of Commerce, Justice, State, and State, and Related Agencies Appropriations Act, 1993, Public Law 102-395, 106 Stat. 1828, established a pilot program that requires the allocation of a limited number of EB-5 immigrant visas to individuals who invest in new commercial enterprises through DHS-designated regional centers.
Requests for regional center designation must be filed with USCIS on the Application for Regional Center Under the Immigrant Investor Program (Form I-924).
The former Immigration and Naturalization Service last promulgated comprehensive regulations implementing the EB-5 Regional Center Program in 1993. 58 FR 44606. Although Congress has revised the program multiple times since,
DHS is considering changes to the Regional Center Program regarding the requirements for initial designation and continued participation, a potential requirement for regional centers to utilize an exemplar process, and the grounds for terminating regional center designation.
DHS is considering ways to improve the process associated with the initial designation of regional centers and the approval of “exemplar” projects. Currently, an entity applying for initial designation as a regional center may choose whether to present a hypothetical project, an actual project, or an exemplar project with their Application For Regional Center Under the Immigrant Investor Program (Form I-924 application). A request for review of a hypothetical project should be supported by general proposals and general predictions showing that the proposed regional center will more likely than not promote economic growth and job creation. Organizational and transactional supporting documents are not required for a hypothetical project. Previous determinations based on hypothetical projects will not receive deference in the adjudication of subsequent filings.
If the entity includes an actual or exemplar project proposal with its Form I-924 application, USCIS determines, as part of the Form I-924 adjudication, whether USCIS will accord deference to its approval of that project when USCIS later reviews investor petitions associated with the same regional center
A request for review of an exemplar project is comprised of a sample Form I-526 petition filed with a proposed actual project containing copies of the new commercial enterprise's organizational and transactional documents. USCIS currently reviews exemplars to determine if they are in compliance with established EB-5 eligibility requirements. If the exemplar project is approved, the determination generally is accorded deference in subsequent related Form I-526 and Form I-829 filings.
DHS believes that the existing process presents two problems. First, the adjudication of initial applications for regional center designation become much more complex when entities seeking such designation “bundle” their initial applications with actual or exemplar projects. Under the current process, regional centers often include a host of documents related to actual or exemplar projects with their Form I-924 applications, including project proposals and related organization and transactional documents, such as private placement memoranda, subscription agreements, operating and partnership agreements, and other information. USCIS must review all such documents submitted with Form I-924 applications, even though the information contained in such documents is frequently unrelated to adjudication of the regional center designation (
Second, by allowing regional centers to choose whether to submit an exemplar project at all, USCIS effectively lets those entities determine the level of workload for the agency related to each EB-5 project. When a regional center submits an exemplar proposal, USCIS must only assess the project once at an initial stage. Any issues related to project approval are considered and resolved at this initial stage, thus making individual immigrant investor petitions submitted pursuant to that project simpler to adjudicate. In contrast, when a regional center does not use the exemplar process, USCIS is presented with the project proposal multiple times, including with each individual immigrant investor petition submitted pursuant to that project. At this stage, issues related to project approval often require USCIS to issue a Request for Evidence (RFE) or a Notice of Intent to Deny (NOID) to each individual petitioner who is investing in that project. This presents a significant burden on the agency and each individual petitioner, and significantly delays the adjudication of their petitions.
To address these issues, DHS is seeking comment on whether it should bifurcate the Form I-924 application process into two steps, as follows: DHS would first require submission of a more general application for initial designation, and then, subsequent to designation, would require submission of a more specific application for approval of an exemplar project. DHS is considering a different form and fee for each of the two steps. DHS believes these changes would significantly reduce the issuance of RFEs and NOIDs and improve processing times for both applications for regional center designation and immigrant investor petitions. Individual immigrant investors would also bear a lower paperwork burden and would benefit from improved predictability in adjudications. DHS describes each potential change in turn below.
As noted above, DHS seeks comment on its proposal to require entities seeking regional center designation to submit a more general application for such designation (
DHS believes this change would provide several benefits to stakeholders and USCIS. First, DHS believes the change would reduce confusion by simplifying the application for regional center designation and providing increased guidance on the limited types of information expected by the agency for adjudicating such applications. Second, the change would likely improve adjudication times related to such applications, as USCIS adjudicators would no longer need to review documentation that is unrelated to determining whether the applicant has satisfied the basic requirements for initial designation. Third, the change should reduce the frustration currently experienced by entities that meet the evidentiary requirements for initial designation but fail to meet the evidentiary requirements necessary to meet applicable deference guidelines for their projects and investment offerings. DHS understands that the inability of entities to file other requests when seeking initial designation as a regional center could effectively delay the ability of entities to receive decisions on those requests. DHS, however, believes these impacts may be outweighed by the clarity provided to stakeholders and the operational efficiencies gained by the proposal.
As noted above, DHS also seeks comment on its proposal to implement an exemplar filing requirement for all designated regional centers. DHS is considering (1) requiring regional centers to file exemplar project requests, both to support individual EB-5 immigrant petitions and to maintain regional center designation and (2) requiring the approval of such a request before any investor may submit his or her EB-5 immigrant petition associated with a project covered by such request. As envisioned by DHS, USCIS would use the approved exemplar as evidence when adjudicating individual immigrant petitions related to the exemplar project.
Under the exemplar filing requirement, regional centers would be required to submit all documentation necessary to establish that investments in the project would satisfy the eligibility criteria related to investment and job creation, in addition to evidence demonstrating the regional center's continued compliance with Regional Center Program rules. Currently, exemplars typically include a comprehensive business plan, economic impact analysis, offering documents and organizational documents. Because DHS wants to ensure investments sponsored by the regional center are fully compliant with program requirements to maintain regional center designation, DHS is considering requiring that additional documentation be provided with exemplar filings, including (1) any documents related to the investment offering that have been filed with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission; and (2) any investment and offering documents that the regional center intends to provide to investors, as well as any agreements between the investor and the regional center.
DHS also seeks comment on the appropriate validity period for the approval of an exemplar project to ensure the regional center is actively promoting economic growth. DHS is considering limiting each exemplar's validity period to a specific period of time,
Finally, DHS seeks public comment on possible modifications to the existing policy governing the impact of a “material change” on an approved exemplar. Current policy requires DHS to deny petitions where, after the petition has been filed, there are significant changes to the exemplar project, including significant changes to the job-creating entity or entities receiving associated EB-5 investment. Under this policy, DHS has also denied petitions, on a case-by-case basis, where in the time between approval of the exemplar and adjudication of the petition, there were significant changes to project timelines and changes to job creation methodologies.
DHS is considering these process changes as a means of addressing the increasing processing times associated with EB-5 immigrant petitions. DHS believes that by addressing potential issues with EB-5 projects in the exemplar process, the Department would significantly streamline the adjudication process for immigrant petitions filed by associated investors, including by significantly reducing the need to issue RFEs and NOIDs to those investors. Individual immigrant investors would also bear a lower paperwork burden and would benefit from improved predictability in adjudications. Moreover, an exemplar requirement may also lead to substantial government cost savings by reducing the paperwork, staffing, and physical space required to process EB-5 immigrant petitions. DHS understands that a mandatory exemplar process could negatively impact regional centers and investors by delaying investor filings and, as a practical matter given the prevailing structure of many regional center investment offerings, by delaying funding to regional center projects. DHS believes, however, that the operational efficiencies, reduced processing times, increased stakeholder predictability, and reduced paperwork burden resulting from the exemplar process described above would provide sufficient benefits to overcome these impacts.
DHS welcomes public comment on all aspects of the potential changes described above, but would particularly benefit from commenters addressing one or more of the following questions:
1. How can USCIS improve the initial designation process?
2. How would requiring an entity to obtain initial designation as a regional center prior to, and separate from, filing for approval of an exemplar project impact entities seeking regional center designation and investors seeking to associate with designated regional centers?
3. Would a bifurcated initial application process achieve the benefits discussed above—
4. What additional costs or benefits, if any, would occur as a result of adopting the suggested approach?
5. Would adopting the suggested approach impact small entities? If so, how? Please provide data to support your response. Please identify any alternative policy proposals or other recommendations that would accomplish some or all of the goals identified above, while mitigating impacts on small entities.
6. Would it benefit potential immigrant investors to know whether or not an entity has been designated as a regional center, if the initial designation decision notice is solely for designation and does not include any decisions on exemplar projects?
7. Would a streamlined exemplar filing process impact any regional center or investor costs?
8. Should exemplar approval be required prior to a regional center-associated investor submitting an EB-5 immigrant petition? Please support the response by providing information regarding the costs and benefits of alternatives (
9. What additional costs and benefits would regional centers or investors incur as a result of a required exemplar approval prior to submitting EB-5 immigrant petitions?
10. What documentation should be required to accompany an exemplar application?
11. In what circumstances should a regional center be required to file to amend a previously approved exemplar?
12. For what duration should an exemplar approval be valid, and why?
13. Under what circumstances should USCIS seek to terminate a previously approved exemplar?
14. What effect, if any, should termination or expiration of an approved exemplar have on an investor whose immigrant visa petition has not yet been adjudicated?
15. What concerns, if any, would be raised by the elimination of the “actual” project deference process, wherein regional centers seek approval of the business plan and economic impact analysis associated with an investment offering, but not the investment offering documents?
16. Would some projects be deterred by a requirement to have an approved exemplar? DHS is particularly interested in how the exemplar requirement may affect the number of projects that obtain EB-5 investment and associated parties. Additionally, DHS seeks input on how an exemplar requirement might affect costs related to project timelines, business plan fees, and regional center administrative fees.
17. Would an exemplar requirement impact the financial structure of regional center investments? For example, would such a requirement decrease or increase the EB-5 capital portion of a project's total finance? Would it impact the overall financing costs and rates of return for investors, regional centers, and developers?
18. How could USCIS define the term “material change” to account for the exemplar process, consistent with applicable regulations and case law, including regulations requiring petitioners to be eligible for the requested benefit at the time of filing and to remain eligible until the benefit is granted?
DHS has found that current regulations would benefit from additional safeguards to ensure that all regional centers (1) use immigrant investor funds to promote economic growth, and (2) protect against the misuse of such funds. DHS is therefore considering incorporating additional regulatory requirements for initial designation as a regional center. For instance, DHS could require assurances that the regional center commit to an appropriate level of internal monitoring and oversight of investment offerings and business activities associated with the regional center or under its sponsorship. This would include investment offerings and business activities of any associated new commercial enterprises (NCEs) or job-creating entities (JCEs). DHS is seeking to help ensure that the stakeholder granted a regional center designation will perform appropriate oversight and monitoring with respect to capital investments, job creation, and business activities under its auspices such that the pooled capital investments at its NCEs and JCEs will promote economic growth.
DHS seeks data and information on potential methods for ensuring an appropriate level of monitoring and oversight, including through regional center attestations, the submission of detailed information about the regional center's oversight efforts of its NCEs and JCEs, and other compliance and enforcement mechanisms. DHS understands that these and similar measures may be burdensome to stakeholders, but believes that such requirements could improve the regional center program by providing regional centers with the tools to ensure that associated NCEs and JCEs comply with program requirements. This would ensure only regional centers with effective oversight could operate within the program. DHS believes that this would enhance the program's integrity and ultimately benefit both regional centers and investors by providing greater trust in the entities operating within the program.
DHS welcomes public comment on the issues described above, but would particularly benefit from commenters addressing one or more of the following questions:
1. What would be the most effective and efficient way to add monitoring and oversight requirements? Should such requirements be incorporated into the initial designation stage, the exemplar stage, or throughout the period of the regional center's designation?
2. What forms of monitoring and oversight of NCEs, JCEs, and investor funds are regional centers currently utilizing as part of their best practices?
3. Do other entities associated with regional centers engage in monitoring and oversight?
4. What benefits, if any, would additional monitoring and oversight offer to regional centers and to immigrant investors?
5. What types of documentation would be appropriate for regional centers to submit to establish that they will have an adequate monitoring and oversight process in place upon designation?
6. What measures, if any, have regional centers put in place to identify conflicts of interest by regional center participants? What requirements for identification and disclosure of conflicts of interest would be appropriate in the regional center context?
7. What investment and other economic impacts could be expected from the establishment of new monitoring and oversight requirements?
8. What data and information should USCIS consider affirmatively disclosing to increase transparency in the EB-5 program?
9. What additional costs would stakeholders incur in setting up and maintaining a monitoring and oversight process?
10. Would an additional filing fee or additional costs to regional centers in preparing documentation for separate filings be too burdensome to support or justify the suggested initial filing framework?
11. Would any of the potential changes described above either deter or incentivize participation in the program, or directly affect the viability of certain types of investment projects? If so, how could USCIS best measure the likely effects?
12. Would any of the potential changes described above impact small entities? If so, how? Please provide data to support your response. Please identify any alternative policy proposals or other recommendations that would accomplish some or all of the goals identified above, while mitigating impacts on small entities.
DHS is considering ways to clarify the requirements for regional centers to maintain their designation. Under the current regulatory framework, regional centers must provide USCIS with updated information to demonstrate they are continuing to meet program requirements—
The requirement that regional centers continue to serve the purpose of promoting economic growth is subject to varying interpretations, and regional centers have expressed uncertainty regarding the requirements for continued participation. In addition, DHS has found that a number of regional centers have maintained their designation without actually engaging in work related to the EB-5 program, which has led to growing concerns of potential fraud.
DHS is therefore considering certain changes to the regulations governing
• Requiring evidence of active participation in the regional center program. Such evidence could include having an approved and currently valid exemplar; having pending exemplar applications that were filed within a specific time frame; or the existence of pending Form I-526 or I-829 petitions that are associated with the regional center and that were filed within a specific time frame.
• Requiring periodic demonstrations that the regional center has active monitoring and oversight activities as described in the previous section.
• Requiring prompt notification to DHS of significant changes to the regional center through the timely filing of amendments to the regional center designation. The effect of such a requirement would turn on how DHS interprets the term “significant” in this context. For instance, DHS currently considers the following change to the regional center to be significant:
• Changes to the regional center's name;
• Changes to the regional center's ownership;
• Changes to the regional center's organizational structure;
• Changes to the regional center's administration that affect its oversight and reporting responsibilities;
• Changes to add or remove regional center principals; and/or
• Changes to the geographic scope of the regional center.
DHS welcomes public comment on all aspects of the potential changes described above, but would particularly benefit from commenters addressing one or more of the following questions:
1. How would regional centers or immigrant investors benefit, if at all, from an explicit requirement that the regional center actively participate in the Regional Center Program?
2. What activities demonstrate active participation in the Regional Center Program? What evidence should regional centers be required to provide to demonstrate active participation?
3. If DHS conditions a finding of active participation on evidence that the regional center is associated with an approved and valid exemplar, a pending exemplar application, or a pending Form I-526 or I-829 petition associated with the regional center, how long should the regional center be able to retain its designation in the absence of such approved or pending exemplar or pending petition? Why is such a timeframe appropriate?
4. How would a continual monitoring and oversight requirement impact currently designated regional centers?
5. How would a monitoring and oversight requirement impact small entities? Please provide data to support your response. Please identify any alternative policy proposals or other recommendations that would accomplish some or all of the goals identified above, while mitigating impacts on small entities.
6. In what circumstances should a regional center be required to amend a regional center designation during an out-of-cycle filing?
7. What additional changes to the regional center amendment process would assist stakeholders in complying with the process?
8. Should DHS reconsider the current filing structure for notifying USCIS of the suggested changes—
Currently, USCIS can issue a Notice of Intent to Terminate and subsequently terminate a regional center designation if the regional center fails to submit required information annually, or if USCIS determines that the regional center no longer serves the purpose of promoting economic growth.
Some of the activities that DHS is considering explicitly listing as activities that would result in termination of the regional center include:
• Failure to meet the continued participation requirements;
• Obtaining designation by fraud or misrepresentation;
• Using unlawfully sourced funds to run regional center operations; or
• Misusing investor funds, including, but not limited to, use in any unlawful activity (
DHS is seeking stakeholder input on actions that would cause USCIS to initiate termination actions against a regional center. DHS welcomes public comment on all aspects of the termination considerations, but would particularly benefit from commenters addressing one or more of the following questions:
1. What should DHS do to more effectively regulate the regional centers participating in this program?
2. Should the failure to maintain approved exemplar filings result in termination?
3. What activities should be considered a failure to promote economic growth and result in termination of the regional center?
4. What impact, positive or negative, would changes to clarify the termination grounds and process have on regional centers and/or investors? What impact would the changes have on small entities? Please provide data to support your response. Please identify any alternative policy proposals or other recommendations that would accomplish some or all of the goals identified above, while mitigating impacts on small entities.
5. What other factors impacting the regional center and/or investors should DHS consider when terminating a regional center?
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain 328 Support Services GmbH Model 328-100 airplanes and 328 Support Services GmbH Model 328-300 airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by reports of broken bonding wires of certain fuel line clamps. This proposed AD would require a one-time inspection of certain fuel line clamps for discrepancies, and replacement of any discrepant clamps. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by February 27, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact 328 Support Services GmbH, Global Support Center, P.O. Box 1252, D-82231 Wessling, Federal Republic of Germany; telephone +49 8153 88111 6666; fax +49 8153 88111 6565; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Todd Thompson, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1175; fax 425-227-1149.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2016-0169, dated August 17, 2016 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain 328 Support Services GmbH Model 328-100 and Model 328-300 airplanes. The MCAI states:
Occurrences of broken bonding wires of the fuel line clamps have been reported on Dornier 328-100 and Dornier 328-300 aeroplanes equipped with fuel line clamps Part Number (P/N) 14C02-10A, or P/N 14C02-12A, or P/N 14C02-16A. The affected fuel line clamps have been installed in accordance with the instructions of SB-328-28-490 or SB-328J-28-241 to reduce occurrences of fuel line chafing.
The results of the investigation did not identify design deficiency or production failure of the fuel line clamps. It is assumed that the chafing and breaking of the bonding wires are caused either by excessive vibration, misalignment, excessive installation tolerances or mistakes on installation or a combination * * * thereof.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could lead to the loss of bonding function and, in combination with a lightning strike, create a source of ignition in a fuel tank, possibly resulting in a fire or explosion and consequent loss of the aeroplane.
To address this unsafe condition, 328 Support Services issued Alert Service Bulletin ASB-328-28-041 for Dornier 328-100 aeroplanes and ASB-328J-28-018 for Dornier 328-300 aeroplanes respectively (hereafter referred to collectively as `the applicable ASB' in this [EASA] AD) providing inspection instructions.
For the reason stated above, this [EASA] AD requires a one-time inspection of the fuel line clamps [for discrepancies including damaged, worn, or missing bonding wires, and chafing or incorrect alignment of jet pumps, connection parts, and fuel lines] and, depending on findings, replacement. This [EASA] AD also requires the reporting of all inspection results to the design approval holder.
This [EASA] AD is considered an interim action and further [EASA] AD action may follow.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
328 Support Services GmbH issued Alert Service Bulletin ASB-328J-28-018, Revision 1, dated October 13, 2016; and Alert Service Bulletin ASB-328-28-041, Revision 1, dated October 13, 2016. The service information describes a one-time inspection of the fuel line clamps, and replacement of any clamps with worn or missing bonding wires. These documents are distinct since they apply to different airplane models.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 35 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary replacements that would be required based on the results of the proposed inspection. We have no way of determining the number of airplanes that might need these replacements.
A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB control number. The control number for the collection of information required by this proposed AD is 2120-0056. The paperwork cost associated with this proposed AD has been detailed in the Costs of Compliance section of this document and includes time for reviewing instructions, as well as completing and reviewing the collection of information. Therefore, all reporting associated with this proposed AD is mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at 800 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20591, ATTN: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by February 27, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to 328 Support Services GmbH (Type Certificate Previously Held by AvCraft Aerospace GmbH; Fairchild Dornier GmbH; Dornier Luftfahrt GmbH) airplanes, certificated in any category, identified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this AD.
(1) Model 328-100 airplanes, on which Dornier 328 Service Bulletin SB-328-28-490, has been incorporated.
(2) Model 328-300 airplanes, on which Dornier 328J Service Bulletin SB-328J-28-241, has been incorporated.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 28, Fuel.
This AD was prompted by reports of broken bonding wires of certain fuel line clamps. We are issuing this AD to prevent the loss of bonding function, which, in combination with a lightning strike, could create a source of ignition in a fuel tank, possibly resulting in a fire or explosion and consequent loss of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 6 months after the effective date of this AD, do a one-time general visual inspection for discrepancies, as identified in, and in accordance with, the Accomplishment Instructions of the service information specified in paragraph (g)(1) or (g)(2) of this AD, as applicable.
(1) 328 Support Services GmbH Alert Service Bulletin ASB-328-28-041, Revision 1, dated October 13, 2016 (Model 328-100 airplanes).
(2) 328 Support Services GmbH Alert Service Bulletin ASB-328J-28-018, Revision 1, dated October 13, 2016 (Model 328-300 airplanes).
If any discrepancy is found during the inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, before further flight, replace the affected clamp in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the service information specified in paragraph (g)(1) or (g)(2) of this AD, as applicable.
At the applicable time specified in paragraph (i)(1) or (i)(2) of this AD, report the inspection results, positive or negative, to 328 Support Services, GmbH, Global Support Center, P.O. Box 1252, D-82231 Wessling, Federal Republic of Germany; fax +49 8153 88111 6565; email
(1) If the inspection was done on or after the effective date of this AD: Submit the report within 30 days after the inspection.
(2) If the inspection was done before the effective date of this AD: Submit the report within 30 days after the effective date of this AD.
This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraphs (g) and (h) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using the service information specified in paragraph (j)(1) or (j)(2) of this AD.
(1) 328 Support Services GmbH Alert Service Bulletin ASB-328-28-041, dated June 14, 2016.
(2) 328 Support Services GmbH Alert Service Bulletin ASB-328J-28-018, dated June 3, 2016.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2016-0169, dated August 17, 2016, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact 328 Support Services GmbH, Global Support Center, P.O. Box 1252, D-82231 Wessling, Federal Republic of Germany; telephone +49 8153 88111 6666; fax +49 8153 88111 6565; email
Information Security Oversight Office, National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).
Proposed rule.
The Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO) of the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA), proposes to revise the National Industrial Security Program (NISP) Directive. The NISP safeguards classified information the Federal Government or foreign governments release to contractors, licensees, grantees, and certificate holders. This proposed revision adds provisions incorporating executive branch insider threat policy and minimum standards, identifies the Office of the Director of National Intelligence (ODNI) and the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) as new cognizant security agencies (CSAs), and adds responsibilities for all CSAs and non-CSA departments and agencies (to reflect oversight functions that are already detailed for private sector entities in the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)). The proposed revisions also make other administrative changes to be consistent with recent revisions to the NISPOM and with updated regulatory language and style.
Submit comments by February 10, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by RIN 3095-AB79, by any of the following methods:
For information about this regulation and the regulatory process, contact Kimberly Keravuori, External Policy Program Manager, by email at
We have coordinated and vetted the proposed revisions through the CSAs listed in Executive Order (E.O.) 12829, National Industrial Security Program (January 6, 1993 (58 FR 3479)), as amended by E.O. 12885 (December 14, 1993 (58 FR 65863): Department of Defense, Department of Energy, Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Office of the Director of National Intelligence, and Department of Homeland Security. We have also coordinated this with the other executive branch agencies that are members of the National Industrial Security Program Policy Advisory Committee (NISPPAC) or that release classified information to contractors, licensees, grantees, or certificate holders, and with the industry members of the NISPPAC. The proposed revisions do not change requirements for industry (which are contained in the NISPOM), but instead clarify agency responsibilities.
The NISP is the Federal Government's single, integrated industrial security program. E.O. 12829 (amended in 1993) established the NISP to safeguard classified information in industry and preserve the nation's economic and technological interests. The President issued E.O. 13691, Promoting Private Sector Cybersecurity Information Sharing (February 13, 2015 (80 FR 9347)), and E.O. 13708, Continuance or Reestablishment of Certain Federal Advisory Committees (September 30, 2015 (80 FR 60271)), which further amended E.O. 12829.
E.O. 12829, sec. 102(b), delegated oversight of the NISP to the Director of NARA's Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO). As part of ISOO's responsibilities under E.O. 12829, it is authorized to issue such directives as necessary to implement the E.O., which are binding on agencies. In 2006, ISOO issued, and periodically updates, this regulation, which functions as one of those directives.
This regulation establishes uniform standards throughout the Program, and helps agencies implement requirements in E.O. 12829, as amended (collectively referred to as “E.O. 12829”). This revision also establishes agency responsibilities for implementing the insider threat provisions of E.O. 13587, Structural Reforms to Improve the Security of Classified Networks and the Responsible Sharing and Safeguarding of Classified Information (October 7, 2011 (76 FR 63811)) within the NISP. However, the regulation does not stand alone; users should refer concurrently to the underlying executive orders for guidance.
Nothing in this regulation supersedes the authority of the Secretary of Energy or the Nuclear Regulatory Commission under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2011,
This proposed rule reflects a national level policy framework that should not change existing practices and procedures for any of the affected agencies or for entities in any significant way. A working group comprised of NISP CSA representatives, ISOO staff, the Department of Defense's (DoD) Defense Security Service (DSS), and the Central Intelligence Agency, drafted this proposed rule.
We initiated the proposed revisions in 2013 to incorporate new insider threat program requirements as a result of E.O. 13587, Structural Reforms to Improve the Security of Classified Networks and the Responsible Sharing and Safeguarding of Classified Information, October 2011, and the associated National Insider Threat Policy and Minimum Standards from the White House in November 2012. The national insider threat policy directs that the Government apply insider threat provisions to private sector entities that access classified information, which the executive branch accomplishes through the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM), issued by the NISP Executive Agent, DoD. The NISPOM also provides private sector entities that access classified information with other NISP requirements and procedures. On the other side of the equation, this NISP regulation gives policy direction and establishes responsibilities for the agencies that release classified information
During review of the regulation, the working group determined that, although the NISPOM provides requirements and procedures for entities, this regulation did not include many of the coinciding oversight requirements for agencies. We therefore expanded the revision to include adding aspects of NISP implementation for which the agencies have a responsibility that weren't already spelled out in the regulation. These proposed changes include adding responsibility provisions
We have also made some proposed revisions to more clearly set out items that were already in the regulation. One such proposed change is the approach to reciprocity. Because of the separate and unique authorities of the CSAs, one CSA might not, in some cases, reciprocally accept entity eligibility determinations made by another CSA. However, the proposed revision stipulates that CSAs will not require entities to go through duplicate steps for eligibility determinations. This should help reduce and streamline eligibility determinations for entities receiving classified information from more than one agency.
We are also proposing some new, more general terminology (like “entity eligibility determination,” which describes a process all CSAs do, instead of “facility security clearance (FCL),” which is an agency-specific term for a favorable determination resulting from that process). Our goal is to create a common framework that all CSAs can effectively use because it sets out requirements in terms that encompass CSA processes for varying types of classified information under the NISP. These terminology changes do not preclude the CSAs from using their traditional terminology in agency policies that implement this rule or in the NISPOM.
The NISPOM currently includes a limited facility security clearance as an option for agencies to consider when foreign ownership, control, or influence (FOCI) of an entity cannot be mitigated or negated. We have added the limited eligibility determination option to this regulation, but have also expanded it to include limited eligibility for entities that are not under FOCI, but for which an agency considers it appropriate to limit access to a specific and narrow purpose.
In addition, we have made some drafting changes to make the regulation more readable.
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has reviewed this proposed regulation.
Executive Order 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, 58 FR 51735 (September 30, 1993), and Executive Order 13563, Improving Regulation and Regulation Review, 76 FR 23821 (January 18, 2011), direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). This proposed rule is “significant” under Executive Order 12866, sec. 3(f), but is not a major rule as defined in 5 U.S.C. Chapter 8, Congressional Review of Agency Rulemaking. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has reviewed this proposed regulation.
This review requires an agency to prepare an initial regulatory flexibility analysis and publish it when the agency publishes the proposed rule. This requirement does not apply if the agency certifies that the rule will not, if promulgated, have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities (5 U.S.C. 603). As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act, we certify that this proposed rulemaking will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities because it applies only to Federal agencies. This regulation does not establish requirements for entities; those requirements are established in the NISPOM. This rule sets out coinciding requirements for agencies. However, agencies implementing this regulation will do so through contracts with businesses (as well as other agreements with entities) and thus it indirectly affects those entities. Agencies have been applying the requirements and procedures contained in the NISPOM (and, to a lesser extent, contained in this regulation) to entities for 20 years, with the exception of insider threat provisions added to the NISPOM in 2016, and the proposed additions to this regulation do not substantially alter those requirements. Most of the provisions being added to this regulation have applied to entities through the NISPOM; we are simply incorporating the agency responsibilities for those requirements into the regulation.
Other revisions to this regulation are primarily administrative, except the new insider threat requirements. The insider threat requirements make minor additions to training, oversight, information system security, and similar functions already being conducted by entities, and thus will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small business entities.
This proposed rule contains information collection activities that are subject to review and approval by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act. We refer to the following OMB-approved DoD information collection in §§ 2004.34(b), 2004.34(c)(1) of this regulation: OMB control No. 0704-0194, SF 328, Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests, approved through September 30, 2019. DoD published the information collection notice in the
Review under Executive Order 13132 requires that agencies review regulations for federalism effects on the
Classified information, National Industrial Security Program.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the National Archives and Records Administration proposes to revise 32 CFR part 2004 to read as follows:
Section 102(b)(1) of E.O. 12829 (January 6, 1993), as amended by E.O. 12885 (December 14, 1993), E.O. 13691 (February 12, 2015), and section 4 of E.O. 13708 (September 30, 2015).
(a) This part sets out the National Industrial Security Program (“NISP” or “the Program”) governing the protection of executive-branch agency classified information released to Federal contractors, licensees, grantees, and certificate holders. It establishes uniform standards throughout the Program, and helps agencies implement requirements in E.O. 12829, National Industrial Security Program, as amended by E.O. 12558 and E.O.13691 (collectively referred to as “E.O. 12829”), E.O. 13691, Promoting Private Sector Cybersecurity Information Sharing, and E.O. 13587, Structural Reforms to Improve the Security of Classified Networks and the Responsible Sharing and Safeguarding of Classified Information. It applies to any executive branch agency that releases classified information to current, prospective, or former Federal contractors, licensees, grantees, or certificate holders. However, this part does not stand alone; users should refer concurrently to the underlying executive orders for guidance. ISOO maintains policy oversight over the NISP as established by E.O.12829.
(b) This part also does not apply to release of classified information pursuant to criminal proceedings. The Classified Information Procedures Act (CIPA) (18 U.S.C. Appendix 3) governs release of classified information in criminal proceedings.
(c) Nothing in this part supersedes the authority of the Secretary of Energy or the Nuclear Regulatory Commission under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2011,
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The Director, ISOO:
(a) Implements E.O. 12829, including ensuring that:
(1) The NISP operates as a single, integrated program across the executive branch of the Federal Government (
(2) A responsible CSA oversees each entity's NISP implementation in accordance with § 2004.22;
(3) All agencies that contract for classified work include the Security Requirements clause, 48 CFR 52.204-2, from the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR), or an equivalent clause, in contracts that require access to classified information;
(4) Those agencies for which the Department of Defense (DoD) serves as the CSA or provides industrial security services have agreements with DoD defining the Secretary of Defense's responsibilities on behalf of their agency;
(5) Each CSA issues directions to entities under their cognizance that are consistent with the NISPOM insider threat guidance;
(6) CSAs share with each other, as lawful and appropriate, relevant information about entity employees that indicates an insider threat; and
(7) CSAs conduct ongoing analysis and adjudication of adverse or relevant information about entity employees that indicates an insider threat.
(b) Raises an issue to the National Security Council (NSC) for resolution if the EA's NISPOM coordination process cannot reach a consensus on NISPOM security standards (see § 2004.20(d)).
(a) Each CSA implements NISP practices in part through policies and guidelines that are consistent with this part, so that agencies for which it serves as the CSA are aware of appropriate security standards, engage in consistent practices with entities, and so that practices effectively protect classified information those entities receive (including foreign government information that the U.S. Government must protect in the interest of national security).
(b) Each CSA must also routinely review and update its NISP policies and guidelines and promptly issue revisions when needed (including when a change in national policy necessitates a change in agency NISP policies and guidelines).
(c) Non-CSA agencies may choose to augment CSA NISP policies or guidelines as long as the agency policies or guidelines are consistent with the CSA's policies or guidelines and this part.
(a) ISOO fulfills its oversight role based, in part, on information received from NISP Policy Advisory Committee (NISPPAC) members, from on-site reviews that ISOO conducts under the authority of E.O. 12829, and from any submitted complaints and suggestions. ISOO reports findings to the responsible CSA or agency.
(b) ISOO reviews agency policies and guidelines to ensure consistency with NISP policies and procedures. ISOO may conduct reviews during routine oversight visits, when a problem or potential problem comes to ISOO's attention, or after a change in national policy that impacts agency policies and guidelines. ISOO provides the responsible agency with findings from these reviews.
(a) The executive agent (EA) for NISP is the Secretary of Defense. The EA:
(1) Provides industrial security services for agencies that are not CSAs but that release classified information to entities. The EA provides industrial security services only through an agreement with the agency. Non-CSA agencies must enter an agreement with the EA and comply with EA industrial security service processes before releasing classified information to an entity;
(2) Provides services for other CSAs by agreement; and
(3) Issues and maintains the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM) in consultation with all affected agencies and with the concurrence of the other CSAs.
(b) The NISPOM sets out the procedures and standards that entities must follow during all phases of the contracting process to safeguard any classified information an agency releases to an entity. The NISPOM requirements may apply to the entity directly (
(c) The EA, in consultation with all affected agencies and with the concurrence of the other CSAs, develops the requirements, restrictions, and safeguards contained in the NISPOM. The EA uses security standards applicable to agencies as the basis for developing NISPOM entity standards to the extent practicable and reasonable.
(d) The EA also facilitates the NISPOM coordination process, which addresses issues raised by entities, agencies, ISOO, or the NISPPAC, including requests to create or change NISPOM security standards.
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(2) In general, the goal is to have one responsible CSA for each agency and for each entity, to minimize the burdens that can result from complying with differing CSA procedures and requirements.
(i) With regard to agencies, NISP accomplishes this goal by a combination of designated CSAs and agreements between agencies and CSAs.
(ii) With regard to entities, CSAs strive to reduce the number of responsible CSAs for a given entity as much as possible. To this end, when more than one CSA releases classified information to a given entity, those CSAs agree on which is the responsible CSA. However, due to certain unique agency authorities, there may be circumstances in which a given entity is under the oversight of more than one responsible CSA.
(3)
(ii) DoD serves as the responsible CSA for DHS with the exception of the CCIPP, based on an agreement between the two CSAs.
(iii) DoD serves as the responsible CSA on behalf of all non-CSA agencies, except CSA components, based on E.O. 12829 and its role as NISP EA.
(iv) ODNI serves as the responsible CSA for CIA.
(4)
(5) Responsible CSAs may delegate oversight responsibility to a cognizant security office (CSO) through CSA policy or by written delegation. The CSA must inform entities under its cognizance if it delegates responsibilities. For purposes of this rule, the term CSA also refers to the CSO.
(c)
(2) As CSA, the CSA performs or delegates the following responsibilities:
(i) Designates a CSA senior agency official (SAO) for NISP;
(ii) Identifies the insider threat senior official (SO) to the Director, ISOO;
(iii) Shares insider threat information with other CSAs, as lawful and appropriate, including information that indicates an insider threat about entity employees eligible to access classified information;
(iv) Acts upon and shares—with security management, GCAs, insider threat program employees, and Government program and CI officials—any relevant entity-reported information about security or CI concerns, as appropriate;
(v) Submits reports to ISOO as required by this part; and
(vi) Develops, coordinates, and provides concurrence on changes to the NISPOM when requested by the EA.
(3) As a responsible CSA, the CSA also performs or delegates the following responsibilities:
(i) Determines whether an entity is eligible for access to classified information (see § 2004.32);
(ii) Allocates funds, ensures appropriate investigations are conducted, and determines entity employee eligibility for access to classified information (see § 2004.36);
(iii) Reviews and approves entity safeguarding measures, including making safeguarding capability determinations (see § 2004.38);
(iv) Conducts periodic security reviews of entity operations (see § 2004.26) to determine that entities: Effectively protect classified information provided to them; and follow NISPOM (or equivalent) requirements;
(v) Provides and regularly updates guidance, training, training materials, and briefings to entities on:
(A) Entity implementation of NISPOM (or equivalent) requirements, including: Responsibility for protecting classified information, requesting NISPOM interpretations, establishing training programs, and submitting required reports;
(B) Initial security briefings and other briefings required for special categories of information;
(C) Authorization measures for information systems processing classified information (except DHS) (see § 2004.40);
(D) Security training for security officers (or CCIPP POCs) and other employees whose official duties include performing NISP-related functions;
(E) Insider threat programs in accordance with the National Insider Threat Policy and Minimum Standards; and
(F) Other guidance and training as appropriate;
(vi) Establishes a mechanism for entities to submit requests for waivers to NISPOM (or equivalent) provisions;
(vii) Reviews, continuously analyzes, and adjudicates, as appropriate, reports from entities regarding events that:
(A) Impact the status of the entity's eligibility for access to classisfied information;
(B) Impact an employee's eligibility for access;
(C) May indicate an employee poses an insider threat;
(D) Affect proper safeguarding of classified information; or
(E) Indicate that classified information has been lost or compromised.
(viii) Verifies that reports offered in confidence and so marked by an entity may be withheld from public disclosure under applicable exemptions of the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552).
(ix) Requests any additional information needed from an entity about involved employees to determine continued eligibility for access to classified information when the entity reports loss, possible compromise, or unauthorized disclosure of classified information; and
(x) Posts hotline information on its Web site for entity access, or otherwise
(d)
(1) Designates an SAO for the NISP;
(2) Identifies the SO for insider threat to ISOO to facilitate information sharing;
(3) Enters into an agreement with the EA (except agencies that are components of another agency or a cross-agency oversight office) to act as the responsible CSA on the agency's behalf (see paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section);
(4) Performs, or delegates in writing to a GCA, the following responsibilities:
(i) Provides appropriate education and training to agency personnel who implement the NISP;
(ii) Includes FAR security requirements clause 52.204-2, or equivalent (such as the DEAR clause 952.204-2), and a contract security classification specification into contracts and solicitations that require access to classified information (see § 2004.30); and
(iii) Reports to the appropriate CSA adverse information and insider threat activity pertaining to entity employees having access to classified information.
(a) Responsible CSAs oversee and analyze entity activity to ensure entities implement an insider threat program in accordance with the National Insider Threat Policy and Minimum Standards (via requirements in the NISPOM or its equivalent) and guidance from the CSA, to include:
(1) Verifying that entities appoint SOs for insider threat;
(2) Requiring entities to monitor, report, and review insider threat program activities and response actions in accordance with the provisions set forth in the NISPOM (or equivalent);
(3) Providing entities with access to data relevant to insider threat program activities and applicable reporting requirements and procedures;
(4) Providing entities with a designated means to report insider threat-related activity; and
(5) Advising entities on appropriate insider threat training for authorized entity employees.
(b) CSAs share with other CSAs any insider threat information reported to them by entities, as lawful and appropriate.
(a) The responsible CSA conducts recurring oversight reviews of entities' NISP security programs to verify that the entity is protecting classified information and is implementing the provisions of the NISPOM (or equivalent). The CSA determines the scope and frequency of reviews. The CSA generally notifies entities when a review will take place, but may also conduct unannounced reviews at its discretion.
(b) CSAs make every effort to avoid unnecessarily intruding into entity employee personal effects during the reviews.
(c) A CSA may, on entity premises, physically examine the interior spaces of containers not authorized to store classified information in the presence of the entity's representative.
(d) As part of a security review, the CSA:
(1) Verifies that the entity limits entity employees with access to classified information to the minimum number necessary to perform on classified contracts.
(2) Validates that the entity has not provided its employees unauthorized access to classified information;
(3) Reviews the entity's self-inspection program and evaluates and records the entity's remedial actions; and
(4) Verifies that the GCA approved any public release of information pertaining to a classified contract.
(e) As a result of findings during the security review, the CSA may, as appropriate, notify:
(1) GCAs if there are unfavorable results from the review; and
(2) A prime entity if the CSA discovers unsatisfactory security conditions pertaining to a sub-entity.
(f) The CSA maintains a record of reviews it conducts and the results. Based on review results, the responsible CSA determines whether an entity's eligibility for access to classified information may continue. See § 2004.32(g).
(a) Agencies must annually report to the Director, ISOO, on their NISP implementation costs for the previous year.
(b) CSAs must annually collect information on NISP implementation costs incurred by entities under their cognizance and submit a report to the Director, ISOO.
(a)
(2) The GCA must also include a contract security classification specification (or equivalent guidance) with each contract or agreement and solicitation that requires access to classified information. The contract security classification specification (or equivalent guidance) must identify the specific elements of classified information involved in each phase of the contract or agreement life-cycle, such as:
(i) Level of classification;
(ii) Where the entity will access or store the classified information, and any requirements or limitations on transmitting classified information outside the entity;
(iii) Any special accesses;
(iv) Any classification guides or other guidance the entity needs to perform during that phase of the contract or agreement;
(v) Any authorization to disclose information about the classified contract or agreement; and
(vi) GCA personnel responsible for interpreting and applying the contract security specifications (or equivalent guidance).
(3) The GCA revises the contract security classification specification (or equivalent guidance) throughout the contract or agreement life-cycle as security requirements change.
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(2) The responsible CSA assists entities to obtain appropriate classification guidance from the GCA, and to obtain a classification challenge response from the GCA.
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(2) The GCA also determines whether the entity may retain classified information for particular purposes after the contract or agreement terminates, and if so, provides written authorization to the entity along with any instructions or limitations (such as which information, for how long, etc).
(a)
(2) A favorable access eligibility determination is not the same as a safeguarding capability determination. Entities may access classified information with a favorable eligibility determination, but may possess classified information only if the CSA determines both access eligibility and safeguarding capability, based on the GCA's requirement in the contract security classification specification (or equivalent).
(3) If an entity has an existing eligibility determination, a CSA will not duplicate eligibility determination processes performed by another CSA. If a CSA cannot acknowledge an entity eligibility determination to another CSA, that entity may be subject to duplicate processing.
(4) Each CSA maintains a record of its entities' eligibility determinations (or critical infrastructure entity eligibility status under the CCIPP, for DHS) and responds to inquiries from GCAs or entities, as appropriate and to the extent authorized by law, regarding the eligibility status of entities under their cognizance.
(b)
(2) The CSA coordinates with appropriate authorities to determine whether an entity meets the eligibility criteria in paragraph (e) of this section. This includes coordinating with appropriate U.S. Government regulatory authorities to determine entity compliance with laws and regulations.
(3) An entity cannot apply for its own eligibility determination. A GCA or an eligible entity must sponsor the entity to the responsible CSA for an eligibility determination. The GCA or eligible entity may sponsor an entity at any point during the contracting or agreement life-cycle at which the entity must have access to classified information to participate (including the solicitation or competition phase). An entity with limited eligibility granted under paragraph (f) of this section may sponsor a sub-entity for a limited eligibility determination for the same contract, agreement, or circumstance so long as the sponsoring entity is not under FOCI (see § 2004.34(i)).
(4) The GCA must include enough lead time in each phase of the acquisition or agreement cycle to accomplish all required security actions. Required security actions include any eligibility determination necessary for an entity to participate in that phase of the cycle. The GCA may award a contract or agreement before the CSA completes the entity eligibility determination. However, in such cases, the entity may not begin performance on portions of the contract or agreement that require access to classified information until the CSA makes a favorable entity eligibility determination.
(5) When a CSA is unable to make an eligibility determination in sufficient time to qualify an entity to participate in the particular procurement action or phase that gave rise to the GCA request (this includes both solicitation and performance phases), the GCA may request that the CSA continue the determination process to qualify the entity for future classified work, provided that the processing delay was not due to the entity's lack of cooperation.
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(2) The CSA must ensure that all entities needing access to classified information as part of a legitimate U.S. or foreign government requirement have or receive a favorable eligibility determination before accessing classified information. This includes both prime or parent entities and sub-entities, even in cases in which an entity intends to have the classified work performed only by sub-entities. A prime or parent entity must have a favorable eligibility determination at the same classification level or higher than its sub-entity(ies), unless the CSA determined that the parent entity could be effectively excluded from access (see paragraph (a)(1) of this section).
(3) If a parent and sub-entity need to share classified information with each other, the CSA must validate that both the parent and the sub-entity have favorable eligibility determinations at the level required for the classified information prior to sharing the information.
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(1) It must need to access classified information as part of a legitimate U.S. Government or foreign government requirement, and access must be consistent with U.S. national security interests as determined by the CSA;
(2) It must be organized and existing under the laws of any of the 50 States, the District of Columbia, or an organized U.S. territory (Guam, Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Island, Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and the U.S. Virgin Islands); or an American Indian or Alaska native tribe formally acknowledged by the Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs, of the U.S. Department of the Interior;
(3) It must be located in the United States or its territorial areas;
(4) It must have a record of compliance with pertinent laws, regulations, and contracts (or other relevant agreements).
(5) Its KMOs must each have and maintain eligibility for access to
(6) It and all of its KMOs must not be excluded by a Federal agency, contract review board, or other authorized official from participating in Federal contracts or agreements;
(7) It must meet all requirements the CSA or the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy establishes for access to the type of classified information or program involved; and
(8) If the CSA determines the entity is under foreign ownership, control, or influence (FOCI), the responsible CSA must:
(i) Agree that sufficient security measures are in place to mitigate or negate risk to national security interests due to the FOCI (see § 2004.34);
(ii) Determine that it is appropriate to grant eligibility for a single, narrowly defined purpose (see § 2004.34(i)); or
(iii) Determine that the entity is not eligible to access classified information.
(9) DoD and DOE cannot award a contract involving access to proscribed information to an entity effectively owned or controlled by a foreign government unless the Secretary of the agency first issues a waiver (see 10 U.S.C. 2536). A waiver is not required if the CSA determines the entity is eligible and it agrees to establish a voting trust agreement (VTA) or proxy agreement (PA) (see § 2004.34(f)) because both VTAs and PAs effectively negate foreign government control.
(f)
(1) The GCA, or an entity with limited eligibility, must first request a limited entity eligibility determination from the CSA for the relevant entity and provide justification for limiting eligibility in that case;
(2) Limited entity eligibility is specific to the requesting GCA's classified information, and to a single, narrowly defined contract, agreement, or circumstance;
(3) The entity must otherwise meet the requirements for entity eligibility set out in this part;
(4) The CSA documents the requirements of each limited entity eligibility determination it makes, including the scope of, and any limitations on, access to classified information;
(5) The CSA verifies limited entity eligibility determinations only to the requesting GCA or entity. In the case of multiple limited entity eligibility determinations for a single entity, the CSA verifies each one separately only to its requestor; and
(6) CSAs administratively terminate the limited entity eligibility when there is no longer a need for access to the classified information for which the CSA approved the limited entity eligibility.
(g)
(2) The responsible CSA revokes the entity's eligible status if the entity is unable or unwilling to protect classified information.
(3) The CSA coordinates with the GCA(s) to take interim measures, as necessary, toward either termination or revocation.
(a)
(1) A foreign interest has the power to direct or decide matters affecting the entity's management or operations in a manner that could:
(i) Result in unauthorized access to classified information; or
(ii) Adversely affect performance of a classified contract or agreement; and
(2) The foreign interest exercises that power:
(i) Directly or indirectly;
(ii) Through ownership of the U.S. entity's securities, by contractual arrangements, or other similar means;
(iii) By the ability to control or influence the election or appointment of one or more members to the entity's governing board (
(iv) Prospectively (
(b)
(c)
(1) Considers information the entity or its parent provides on the SF 328 (OMB Control No. 0704-0194), and any other relevant information; and
(2) Considers in the aggregate the following factors about the entity:
(i) Record of espionage against U.S. targets, either economic or Government;
(ii) Record of enforcement actions against the entity for transferring technology without authorization;
(iii) Record of compliance with pertinent U.S. laws, regulations, and contracts or agreements;
(iv) Type and sensitivity of the information the entity would access;
(v) Source, nature, and extent of FOCI, including whether foreign interests hold a majority or minority position in the entity, taking into consideration the immediate, intermediate, and ultimate parent entities;
(vi) Nature of any relevant bilateral and multilateral security and information exchange agreements;
(vii) Ownership or control, in whole or in part, by a foreign government; and
(viii) Any other factor that indicates or demonstrates foreign interest capability to control or influence the entity's operations or management.
(d)
(2) The CSA may not determine that the entity is eligible to access classified information until the entity has put into place appropriate security measures to negate or mitigate FOCI or is otherwise no longer under FOCI. If the degree of FOCI is such that no mitigation or negation efforts will be sufficient, or access to classified information would be inconsistent with national security interests, then the CSA will determine the entity ineligible for access to classified information.
(3) If an entity comes under FOCI, the CSA may allow the existing eligibility status to continue while the CSA and the entity negotiate acceptable FOCI mitigation or negation measures, as long as there is no indication that classified information is at risk. If the entity does not actively negotiate mitigation or negation measures in good faith, or
(e)
(1) The Secretary of DHS proposes appropriate FOCI risk mitigation or negation measures (see paragraph (f) of this section) to the other CSAs and ensures the anticipated release of classified information:
(i) Is authorized for release to the country involved;
(ii) Does not include information classified under the Atomic Energy Act; and
(iii) Does not impede or interfere with the entity's ability to manage and comply with regulatory requirements imposed by other Federal agencies, such as the State Department's International Traffic in Arms Regulation.
(2) If the CSAs agree the mitigation or negation measures are sufficient, DHS may proceed to enter a CCIPP information sharing agreement with the entity. If one or more CSAs disagree, the Secretary of DHS may seek a decision from the Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs before entering a CCIPP information sharing agreement with the entity.
(f)
(2) Any mitigation or negation measures the CSA approves for an entity must not impede or interfere with the entity's ability to manage and comply with regulatory requirements imposed by other Federal agencies (such as Department of State's International Traffic in Arms Regulation).
(3) If the CSA approves a FOCI mitigation or negation measure for an entity, it may agree that the measure, or particular portions of it, may apply to all of the present and future sub-entities within the entity's organization.
(4) Mitigation or negation options are different for ownership versus control or influence; ownership necessitates a stronger mitigation or negation measure.
(5) Methods to mitigate foreign control or influence (unrelated to ownership) may include:
(i) Assigning specific oversight duties and responsibilities to independent board members;
(ii) Formulating special executive-level security committees to consider and oversee matters that affect entity performance on classified contracts or agreements;
(iii) Modifying or terminating loan agreements, contracts, agreements, and other understandings with foreign interests;
(iv) Diversifying or reducing foreign-source income;
(v) Demonstrating financial viability independent of foreign interests;
(vi) Eliminating or resolving problem debt;
(vii) Separating, physically or organizationally, the entity component performing on classified contracts or agreements;
(viii) Adopting special board resolutions; and
(ix) Other actions that effectively negate or mitigate foreign control or influence.
(6) Methods to mitigate or negate foreign ownership include:
(i) Board resolutions. The CSA and the entity may agree to a board resolution when a foreign interest does not own voting interests sufficient to elect, or is otherwise not entitled to representation on, the entity's governing board. The resolution must identify the foreign shareholders and their representatives (if any), note the extent of foreign ownership, certify that the foreign shareholders and their representatives will not require, will not have, and can be effectively excluded from, access to all classified information, and certify that the entity will not permit the foreign shareholders and their representatives to occupy positions that might enable them to influence the entity's policies and practices, affecting its performance on classified contracts or agreements.
(ii) Security control agreements (SCAs). The CSA and the entity may agree to use an SCA when a foreign interest does not effectively own or control an entity (
(iii) Special security agreements (SSAs). The CSA and the entity may agree to use an SSA when a foreign interest effectively owns or controls an entity. The SSA preserves the foreign owner's right to be represented on the entity's board or governing body with a direct voice in the entity's business management, while denying the foreign owner majority representation and unauthorized access to classified information. When a GCA requires an entity to have access to proscribed information, and the CSA proposes or approves an SSA as the mitigation measure, the GCA must also make a national interest determination (NID) before the CSA can determine an entity's eligibility for access. See paragraph (h) of this section for more information on NIDs.
(iv) Voting trust agreements (VTAs) or proxy agreements (PAs). The CSA and the entity may agree to use one of these measures when a foreign interest effectively owns or controls an entity. The VTA and PA are substantially identical arrangements that vest the voting rights of the foreign-owned stock in cleared U.S. citizens approved by the CSA. Under the VTA, the foreign owner transfers legal title in the entity to the trustees approved by the CSA. Under the PA, the foreign owner conveys their voting rights to proxy holders approved by the CSA. The entity must be organized, structured, and financed to be capable of operating as a viable business entity independently from the foreign owner. Both VTAs and PAs can effectively negate foreign ownership and control; therefore, neither imposes any restrictions on the entity's eligibility to have access to classified information or to compete for classified contracts or agreements, including those involving proscribed information. Both VTAs and PAs can also effectively negate foreign government control.
(v) Combinations of the above measures or other similar measures that effectively mitigate or negate the risks involved with foreign ownership.
(g)
(1) Annual certification and annual compliance reports by the entity's governing board and the KMOs;
(2) The U.S. Government remedies in case the entity is not adequately protecting classified information or not adhering to the provisions of the mitigation or negation measure;
(3) Supplements to FOCI mitigation or negation measures as the CSA deems necessary. In addition to the standard FOCI mitigation or negation measure's requirements, the CSA may require more procedures via a supplement, based upon the circumstances of an
(4) For agreements to mitigate or negate ownership (PAs, VTAs, SSAs, and SCAs), the following additional requirements apply:
(i) FOCI oversight. The CSA verifies that the entity establishes an oversight body consisting of trustees, proxy holders or outside directors, as applicable, and those officers or directors whom the CSA determines are eligible for access to classified information (see § 2004.36). The entity's security officer is the principal advisor to the oversight body and attends their meetings. The oversight body:
(A) Maintains policies and procedures to safeguard classified information in the entity's possession with no adverse impact on classified contract or agreement performance; and
(B) Verifies the entity is complying with the FOCI mitigation or negation measure and related documents, contract security requirements or equivalent, and the NISP;
(ii) Qualifications of trustees, proxy holders, and outside directors. The CSA determines eligibility for access to classified information for trustees, proxy holders, and outside directors at the classification level of the entity's eligibility determination. Trustees, proxy holders, and outside directors must meet the following criteria:
(A) Be resident U.S. citizens who can exercise management prerogatives relating to their position in a way that ensures that the foreign owner can be effectively insulated from the entity or effectively separated from the entity's classified work; and
(B) Be completely disinterested individuals with no prior involvement with the entity, the entities with which it is affiliated, or the foreign owner;
(C) No other circumstances that may affect an individual's ability to serve effectively; such as, the number of boards on which the individual serves, the length of time serving on any other boards.
(iii) Annual meeting. The CSA meets at least annually with the oversight body to review the purpose and effectiveness of the FOCI mitigation or negation agreement; establish a common understanding of the operating requirements and their implementation; and provide guidance on matters related to FOCI mitigation and industrial security. These meetings include a CSA review of:
(A) Compliance with the approved FOCI mitigation or negation measure;
(B) Problems regarding practical implementation of the mitigation or negation measure; and
(C) Security controls, practices, or procedures and whether they warrant adjustment; and
(iv) Annual certification. The CSA reviews the entity's annual report; addresses, and resolves issues identified in the report; and documents the results of this review and any follow-up actions.
(h)
(i) The CSA requests a NID from the GCA for new contracts or agreements at any phase that requires access to proscribed information; and existing contracts or agreements (or any relevant sub-contracts or sub-agreements) when the GCA adds a requirement for access to proscribed information or adds a new sub-entity that operates under an SSA and requires access to proscribed information. The GCA may initiate a NID prior to receiving the request from the CSA, when appropriate.
(ii) While CSAs normally request NIDs on a case-by-case contract- or agreement-specific basis, the CSA, GCA, and applicable controlling agency may decide to make a NID on another basis, using criteria the CSA establishes. In such cases, the GCA provides the CSA with a written statement that the NID covers a specific contract or program and all follow-on contracts associated that program, and lists all contracts or agreements covered by the NID in cases in which the GCA can identify them.
(iii) When an entity has a favorable NID for a given contract or agreement, the CSA does not have to request a new NID for the same entity when the access requirements for proscribed information and terms remain unchanged for:
(A) Renewal of the contract or agreement;
(B) New task orders issued under the contract or agreement;
(C) A new contract or agreement that contains the same provisions as the previous (this usually applies when the contract or agreement is for a program or project); or
(D) Renewal of the SSA.
(2)
(ii) If another agency (or agencies) controls any category of the proscribed information involved, the GCA or CSA also coordinates with the controlling agency(ies) to request their concurrence on the GCA's NID. In cases involving one or more controlling agencies, a favorable NID is not final until the relevant controlling agencies concur with the determination in writing for the proscribed information under their control. The GCA or CSA provides the relevant controlling agency(ies) with: A statement that “Access to the proscribed information by the entity is consistent with the national security interests of the United States”; the FOCI assessment; a copy of the SSA; a contract security classification specification (or equivalent); justification for access and a description of the proscribed information involved; and any other relevant information that might help the controlling agency consider the request.
(iii) In cases in which the GCA has authority over all the categories of proscribed information involved, the CSA may make an entity eligibility determination or upgrade an existing eligibility level to top secret only after the GCA notifies the CSA in writing of a favorable NID, except as described in paragraph (h)(3)(iii)(A) of this section.
(iv) In cases in which the GCA requests concurrence from one or more controlling agencies, it does not notify the CSA of its NID until the controlling agency concurs. In cases in which the CSA requests concurrence from the controlling agency, the CSA may not act upon a favorable GCA NID until it also receives written concurrence from the controlling agency(ies). In both cases, the CSA may not make an eligibility determination until all the relevant controlling agencies concur in writing on a favorable NID and the GCA notifies the CSA in writing of its final NID,
(3)
(ii) If a controlling agency controls any of the involved categories of proscribed information, the GCA provides a final, written NID to the CSA, with a copy to the entity, within 60 days after the GCA receives the NID request.
(A) In such cases, the GCA notifies the relevant controlling agency(ies) of its NID in writing within 30 days after it receives the NID request, and each controlling agency concurs or non-concurs in writing to the GCA or CSA within the next 30 days unless there are extenuating circumstances.
(B) In cases in which there are extenuating circumstances, the controlling agency responds to the GCA or CSA within 30 days to explain the extenuating circumstances, request additional information as needed, and coordinate a plan and timeline for completion.
(iii) If the GCA cannot make the NID within the 30- or 60-day timeframes in paragraphs (h)(3)(i) and (h)(3)(ii) of this section, the GCA must notify the CSA in writing and explain the extenuating circumstances causing the delay. The GCA must provide written updates to the CSA, or its designee, every 30 days until it makes the determination. In turn, the CSA provides the entity with updates every 30 days.
(A) When the GCA has authority over all the categories of the proscribed information involved, if the GCA does not provide the CSA with a NID within 30 days, the CSA does not have to delay any longer to make the entity eligibility determination or upgrade it to top secret and implement an SSA to wait for the NID, as long as the GCA does not indicate that the NID might be negative. However, the entity must not have access to proscribed information under a new contract until the GCA makes a favorable NID.
(B) In some cases in which one or more controlling agencies have authority over any category of the proscribed information involved, the GCA or CSA might receive concurrence on a favorable NID from some of the controlling agencies within 60 days, but not others. In such cases, the CSA may proceed with an eligibility determination or upgrade it to top secret eligibility and implement an SSA, but only for those categories of proscribed information for which a controlling agency has concurred. The entity must not have access to any category of proscribed information for which a controlling agency that has not yet concurred.
(iv) Unless cancelled sooner by the GCA that made the NID, a NID remains in effect for the duration of the contract or agreement. When a NID is not contract- or agreement-specific, the CSA, the GCA, and any applicable controlling agency determine how long the NID remains in effect based on the criteria used to make the NID.
(i)
(2) The GCA first decides whether to request a limited eligibility determination for the entity and must articulate a compelling need for it that is in accordance with U.S. national security interests. The GCA must verify that access to classified information is essential to contract or agreement performance, and accept the risk inherent in not mitigating or negating the FOCI.
(3) The CSA may grant a limited eligibility determination if the GCA requests and the entity meets all other eligibility criteria in § 2004.32(e).
(4) A foreign government may sponsor a U.S. sub-entity of a foreign entity for limited eligibility when the foreign government desires to award a contract or agreement to the U.S. sub-entity that involves access to classified information for which the foreign government is the original classification authority (
(5) Limited eligibility determinations are specific to the classified information of the requesting GCA or foreign government, and specific to a single, narrowly defined contract, agreement, or circumstance of that GCA or foreign government.
(6) The access limitations of a favorable limited eligibility determination apply to all of the entity's employees, regardless of citizenship.
(7) A limited eligibility determination is not an option for entities that require access to proscribed information when a foreign government has ownership or control over the entity. See § 2004.32(e)(9).
(8) The CSA administratively terminates the entity's limited eligibility when there is no longer a need for access to the classified information for which the CSA made the favorable limited eligibility determination. Terminating one limited eligibility status does not impact other ones the entity may have.
(a)
(i) Determines whether entity employees meet the criteria established in the Revised Adjudicative Guidelines for Determining Eligibility for Access to Classified Information issued by White House memorandum, December 29, 2005, and in accordance with applicable executive branch procedures. Entity employees must have a legitimate requirement (
(ii) Notifies entities of its determinations of employee eligibility for access to classified information.
(iii) Terminates eligibility status when there is no longer a need for access to classified information by entity employees.
(2) The responsible CSA maintains:
(i) SF 312s, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreements, or other approved nondisclosure agreements, executed by entity employees, as prescribed by ODNI in accordance with 32 CFR 2001.80 and E.O. 13526; and
(ii) Records of its entity employee eligibility determinations, suspensions, and revocations.
(3) CSAs ensure that entities limit the number of employees with access to classified information to the minimum number necessary to work on classified contracts or agreements.
(4) The CSA determines the need for event-driven reinvestigations for entity employees.
(5) CSAs use the Federal Investigative Standards (FIS) issued jointly by the Suitability and Security Executive Agents.
(6) The CSA provides guidance to entities on:
(i) Requesting employee eligibility determinations, to include guidance for submitting fingerprints; and
(ii) Granting employee access to classified information when the
(7) If the CSA receives adverse information about an eligible entity employee, the CSA should consider and possibly investigate to determine whether the employee's eligibility to access classified information remains clearly consistent with the interests of national security. If the CSA determines that an entity employee's continued eligibility is not in the interest of national security, the CSA implements procedures leading to suspension and ultimate revocation of the employee's eligible status, and notifies the entity.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(i) A non-U.S. citizen employee possesses unique or unusual skill or expertise that the agency urgently needs to support a specific U.S. Government contract or agreement; and
(ii) A U.S. citizen with those skills is not available.
(2) A CSA may grant LAAs up to the secret classified level.
(3) CSAs may not use LAAs for access to:
(i) Top secret (TS) information;
(ii) RD or FRD information;
(iii) Information that a Government-designated disclosure authority has not determined releasable to the country of which the individual is a citizen;
(iv) COMSEC information;
(v) Intelligence information, to include SCI;
(vi) NATO information, except as follows: Foreign nationals of a NATO member nation may be authorized access to NATO information subject to the terms of the contract, if the responsible CSA obtains a NATO security clearance certificate from the individual's country of citizenship. NATO access is limited to performance on a specific NATO contract;
(vii) Information for which the U.S. Government has prohibited foreign disclosure in whole or in part; or
(viii) Information provided to the U.S. Government by another government that is classified or provided in confidence.
(4) The responsible CSA provides specific procedures to entities for requesting LAAs. The GCA must concur on an entity's LAA request before the CSA may grant it.
(a)
(2) The CSA maintains records of its safeguarding capability determinations and, upon request from GCAs or entities, and as appropriate and to the extent authorized by law, verifies that it has made a favorable safeguarding determination for a given entity and at what level.
(b)
(a) The responsible CSA must authorize an entity information system before the entity can use it to process classified information. The CSA must use the most complete, accurate, and trustworthy information to make a timely, credible, and risk-based decision whether to authorize an entity's system.
(b) The responsible CSA issues to entities guidance that establishes protection measures for entity information systems that process classified information. The responsible CSA must base the guidance on standards applicable to Federal systems, which must include the Federal Information Security Modernization Act of 2014 (FISMA), Public Law 113-283, and may include National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) publications, Committee on National Security Systems (CNSS) publications, and Federal information processing standards (FIPS).
For details on many of these terms, see the definitions at § 2004.4.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a state implementation plan (SIP) revision submitted by the State of Maryland. This SIP submittal consists of a regulation for inclusion in the Maryland SIP which regulates nitrogen oxides (NO
Written comments must be received on or before February 10, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R03-OAR-2016-0238 at
Marilyn Powers, (215) 814-2308 or by email at
On November 20, 2015, the State of Maryland, through the Maryland Department of the Environment (MDE), submitted a revision to its SIP seeking to include regulation COMAR 26.11.38.01—.05—Control of NO
On March 12, 2008, EPA strengthened the national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS) for ground level ozone, setting both the primary and secondary standards to a level of 0.075 parts per million (ppm) or 75 parts per billion (ppb) averaged over an 8-hour period (2008 ozone NAAQS). On May 21, 2012 (77 FR 30088), EPA designated areas that were not attaining the 2008 ozone NAAQS as nonattainment, including the following three areas or portions of areas in Maryland: Cecil County (part of the Philadelphia-Wilmington-Atlantic City Nonattainment Area); Calvert, Charles, Frederick, Montgomery, and Prince Georges Counties (part of the Washington, DC-MD-VA Nonattainment Area); and Anne Arundel, Baltimore, Carroll, Harford, and Howard Counties and the City of Baltimore (the Baltimore Nonattainment Area). The Philadelphia-Wilmington-Atlantic City Area and Washington, DC-MD-VA Area were classified as marginal nonattainment areas, and the Baltimore Area was classified as a moderate nonattainment area for the 2008 ozone NAAQS.
On November 20, 2015, MDE submitted a regulation as a SIP revision for EPA approval and incorporation into the Maryland SIP. The revision consists of Maryland regulation COMAR 26.11.38—Control of NO
COMAR 26.11.38 defines the affected units for the regulation as Brandon Shores Units 1 and 2, C.P. Crane Units 1 and 2, Chalk Point Units 1 and 2, Dickerson Units 1, 2, and 3, H.A. Wagner Units 2 and 3, Morgantown Units 1 and 2, and Warrior Run. The regulation requires an affected EGU to minimize NO
The regulation establishes a system-wide emissions rate of 0.15 pounds per million British thermal units (lbs/mmBtu) on a 30-day rolling average for coal-burning EGUs during the ozone season.
To demonstrate compliance with the requirement to optimize controls, MDE established 24-hour block emissions levels for each coal-burning EGU based on historical emissions data.
The 14 affected units at the seven plants that are subject to COMAR 26.11.38 have all installed controls as a result of programs requiring NO
EPA finds that the submittal strengthens the Maryland SIP. COMAR 26.11.38 imposes NO
EPA is proposing to approve the November 20, 2015 Maryland SIP submittal which seeks to include regulation COMAR 26.11.38, Control of Nitrogen Oxides Emissions from Coal-Fired Electric Generating Units, in the Maryland SIP as a SIP strengthening measure in accordance with CAA section 110. EPA is soliciting public comments on the issues discussed in this document. These comments will be considered before taking final action.
In this proposed rule, EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference Maryland regulation COMAR 26.11.28—Control of Nitrogen Oxides Emissions from Coal-Fired Electric Generating Units. EPA has made, and will continue to make, these materials generally available through
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this proposed action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this action proposing to approve Maryland's regulation to control NO
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
On March 5, 2012, the Commonwealth of Kentucky, through the Kentucky Energy and Environment Cabinet, Division for Air Quality (DAQ), submitted a request for the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) to redesignate the portion of Kentucky that is within the bi-state Louisville, KY-IN fine particulate matter (PM
Comments must be received on or before February 10, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2012-0773 at
Madolyn Sanchez of the Air Regulatory Management Section, in the Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Madolyn Sanchez may be reached by phone at (404) 562-9644, or via electronic mail at
EPA is proposing to take the following two separate but related actions: (1) To approve Kentucky's plan for maintaining the 1997 Annual PM
EPA is proposing to approve Kentucky's maintenance plan for its portion of the bi-state Louisville Area as meeting the requirements of section 175A (such approval being one of the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) criteria for redesignation to attainment status). The maintenance plan is designed to help keep the bi-state Louisville Area in attainment for the 1997 Annual PM
EPA also proposes to determine that the Kentucky portion of the bi-state Louisville Area has met the requirements for redesignation under section 107(d)(3)(E) of the CAA. Accordingly, in this action, EPA is proposing to approve a request to change the legal designation of Bullitt and Jefferson Counties within the Kentucky portion of the bi-state Louisville Area, as found at 40 CFR part 81, from nonattainment to attainment for the 1997 Annual PM
EPA is also notifying the public of the status of EPA's adequacy process for the 2015 and 2025 MVEBs for NO
In summary, this proposed rulemaking is in response to Kentucky's March 5, 2012, redesignation request and associated SIP submission that addresses the specific issues summarized above and the necessary elements for redesignation described in section 107(d)(3)(E) of the CAA for the redesignation of the Kentucky portion of the bi-state Louisville Area to attainment for the 1997 Annual PM
Fine particle pollution can be emitted directly or formed secondarily in the atmosphere.
On July 18, 1997, EPA promulgated the first air quality standards for PM
On January 5, 2005, at 70 FR 944, and supplemented on April 14, 2005, at 70 FR 19844, EPA designated the bi-state Louisville Area as nonattainment for the Annual 1997 PM
All 1997 PM
On July 29, 2016, EPA issued a rule entitled, “Fine Particulate Matter National Ambient Air Quality Standards: State Implementation Plan Requirements” (PM
The CAA provides the requirements for redesignating a nonattainment area to attainment. Specifically, section 107(d)(3)(E) of the CAA allows for redesignation provided the following criteria are met: (1) The Administrator determines that the area has attained the applicable NAAQS; (2) the Administrator has fully approved the applicable implementation plan for the area under section 110(k); (3) the Administrator determines that the improvement in air quality is due to permanent and enforceable reductions in emissions resulting from implementation of the applicable SIP and applicable federal air pollutant control regulations, and other permanent and enforceable reductions; (4) the Administrator has fully approved a maintenance plan for the area as meeting the requirements of section 175A; and (5) the state containing such area has met all requirements applicable to the area under section 110 and part D of title I of the CAA.
On April 16, 1992, EPA provided guidance on redesignation in the General Preamble for the Implementation of title I of the CAA Amendments of 1990 (57 FR 13498), and the Agency supplemented this guidance on April 28, 1992 (57 FR 18070). EPA has provided further guidance on processing redesignation requests in the following documents:
1. “Procedures for Processing Requests to Redesignate Areas to Attainment,” Memorandum from John Calcagni, Director, Air Quality Management Division, September 4, 1992 (hereinafter referred to as the “Calcagni Memorandum”);
2. “State Implementation Plan (SIP) Actions Submitted in Response to Clean Air Act (CAA) Deadlines,” Memorandum from John Calcagni, Director, Air Quality Management Division, October 28, 1992; and
3. “Part D New Source Review (Part D NSR) Requirements for Areas Requesting Redesignation to Attainment,” Memorandum from Mary D. Nichols, Assistant Administrator for Air and Radiation, October 14, 1994.
On March 5, 2012, Kentucky requested that EPA redesignate the Kentucky portion of the bi-state Louisville Area to attainment for the 1997 Annual PM
As stated above, in accordance with the CAA, EPA proposes to approve the 1997 Annual PM
For redesignating a nonattainment area to attainment, the CAA requires EPA to determine that the area has attained the applicable NAAQS (CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(i)). For PM
On September 9, 2016, EPA determined that the bi-state Louisville Area has attained the 1997 Annual PM
As shown in Table 1 above, the bi-state Louisville Area has a 2013-2015 design value of 11.7 μg/m
For redesignating a nonattainment area to attainment, the CAA requires EPA to determine that the state has met all applicable requirements under section 110 and part D of title I of the CAA (CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(v)) and that the state has a fully approved SIP under section 110(k) for the area (CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(ii)). EPA proposes to find that the Commonwealth has met all applicable SIP requirements for the Kentucky portion of the Area under section 110 of the CAA (general SIP requirements) for purposes of redesignation. Additionally, EPA proposes to find that the Kentucky SIP satisfies the criterion that it meets applicable SIP requirements for purposes of redesignation under part D of title I of the CAA in accordance with section 107(d)(3)(E)(v). Further, EPA proposes to determine that the SIP is fully approved with respect to all requirements applicable for purposes of redesignation in accordance with section 107(d)(3)(E)(ii). In making these determinations, EPA ascertained which requirements are applicable to the Area and, if applicable, that they are fully approved under section 110(k). SIPs must be fully approved only with respect to requirements that were applicable prior to submittal of the complete redesignation request.
Section 110(a)(2)(D) requires that SIPs contain certain measures to prevent sources in a state from significantly contributing to air quality problems in another state. To implement this provision, EPA has required certain states to establish programs to address the interstate transport of air pollutants. The section 110(a)(2)(D) requirements for a state are not linked with a particular nonattainment area's designation and classification in that state. EPA believes that the requirements linked with a particular nonattainment area's designation and classifications are the relevant measures to evaluate in reviewing a redesignation request. The transport SIP submittal requirements, where applicable, continue to apply to a state regardless of the designation of any one particular area in the state. Thus, EPA does not believe that the CAA's interstate transport requirements should be construed to be applicable requirements for purposes of redesignation.
In addition, EPA believes that other section 110 elements that are neither connected with nonattainment plan submissions nor linked with an area's attainment status are not applicable requirements for purposes of redesignation. The area will still be subject to these requirements after the area is redesignated. The section 110 and part D requirements which are linked with a particular area's designation and classification are the relevant measures to evaluate in reviewing a redesignation request. This approach is consistent with EPA's existing policy on applicability (
EPA has reviewed Kentucky's SIP and has preliminarily concluded that it meets the general SIP requirements under section 110(a)(2) of the CAA to the extent they are applicable for purposes of redesignation. EPA has previously approved provisions of Kentucky's SIP addressing CAA section 110(a)(2) requirements including provisions addressing the 1997 Annual PM
On March 9, 2011, EPA determined that the bi-state Louisville Area had attained the 1997 annual PM
Section 172(c)(1) requires the plans for all nonattainment areas to provide
On July 14, 2015, the Sixth Circuit vacated EPA's redesignation of the Indiana and Ohio portions of the Cincinnati nonattainment area for the 1997 PM
On August 9, 2016, Kentucky submitted a SIP revision containing a RACM determination for the Kentucky portion of the Louisville Area, in accordance with CAA 172(c)(1) and the Sixth Circuit decision in
Because attainment has been reached in the Area, the section 172(c)(2) requirement that nonattainment plans contain provisions promoting reasonable further progress toward attainment is not relevant for purposes of redesignation. In addition, because the Area has attained the standard and is no longer subject to a RFP requirement, the requirement to submit the section 172(c)(9) contingency measures is not applicable for purposes of redesignation. Section 172(c)(6) requires the SIP to contain control measures necessary to provide for attainment of the NAAQS. Because attainment has been reached, no additional measures are needed to provide for attainment.
Section 172(c)(3) requires submission and approval of a comprehensive, accurate, and current inventory of actual emissions. On August 2, 2012 (77 FR 45956), EPA approved Kentucky's 2002 base-year emissions inventory for the bi-state Louisville Area.
Section 172(c)(4) requires the identification and quantification of allowable emissions for major new and modified stationary sources to be allowed in an area, and section 172(c)(5) requires source permits for the construction and operation of new and modified major stationary sources anywhere in the nonattainment area. EPA has determined that, since PSD requirements will apply after redesignation, areas being redesignated need not comply with the requirement that a NSR program be approved prior to redesignation, provided that the area demonstrates maintenance of the NAAQS without part D NSR. A more detailed rationale for this view is described in a memorandum from Mary Nichols, Assistant Administrator for Air and Radiation, dated October 14, 1994, entitled, “Part D New Source Review Requirements for Areas Requesting Redesignation to Attainment.” The Commonwealth has demonstrated that the Kentucky portion of the bi-state Louisville Area will be able to maintain the NAAQS without part D NSR in effect, and therefore Kentucky need not have fully approved part D NSR programs prior to approval of the redesignation request. Kentucky's PSD program will become effective in the Kentucky portion of the bi-state Louisville Area upon redesignation to attainment.
Section 172(c)(7) requires the SIP to meet the applicable provisions of section 110(a)(2). As noted above, EPA believes that the Kentucky SIP meets the requirements of section 110(a)(2) applicable for purposes of redesignation.
EPA believes that it is reasonable to interpret the conformity SIP requirements
For these reasons, EPA proposes to find that Kentucky has satisfied all applicable requirements for purposes of redesignation of the Area under section 110 and part D of the CAA.
EPA has fully approved the applicable Kentucky SIP for the Kentucky portion of the bi-state Louisville Area for the 1997 Annual PM
As indicated above, EPA believes that the section 110 elements not connected with nonattainment plan submissions and not linked to an area's nonattainment status are not applicable requirements for purposes of redesignation.
For redesignating a nonattainment area to attainment, the CAA requires EPA to determine that the air quality improvement in the area is due to permanent and enforceable reductions in emissions resulting from implementation of the SIP and applicable federal air pollution control regulations and other permanent and enforceable reductions (CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(iii)). EPA has preliminarily determined that Kentucky has demonstrated that the observed air quality improvement in the Kentucky portion of the bi-state Louisville Area is due to permanent and enforceable reductions in emissions resulting from implementation of the SIP and federal measures.
Federal measures enacted in recent years have resulted in permanent emission reductions in particulate matter and its precursors. The federal measures that have been implemented include:
In 2008 the D.C. Circuit initially vacated CAIR,
Numerous parties filed petitions for review of CSAPR in the D.C. Circuit, and on August 21, 2012, the court issued its ruling, vacating and remanding CSAPR to EPA and ordering continued implementation of CAIR.
To the extent that bi-state Louisville relies on CSAPR for maintenance of the standard, EPA has identified the bi-state Louisville Area as having been significantly impacted by pollution transported from other states in both CAIR and CSAPR, and these rules greatly reduced the tons of SO
In addition to the above federal measures, Kentucky also identified the following State control measures, incorporated into Kentucky's SIP, that provide emission reductions in particulate matter and its precursors:
For redesignating a nonattainment area to attainment, the CAA requires EPA to determine that the area has a fully approved maintenance plan pursuant to section 175A of the CAA
Section 175A of the CAA sets forth the elements of a maintenance plan for areas seeking redesignation from nonattainment to attainment. Under section 175A, the plan must demonstrate continued attainment of the applicable NAAQS for at least 10 years after the Administrator approves a redesignation to attainment. Eight years after the redesignation, the Commonwealth of Kentucky must submit a revised maintenance plan demonstrating that attainment will continue to be maintained for the 10 years following the initial 10-year period. To address the possibility of future NAAQS violations, the maintenance plan must contain such contingency measures, as EPA deems necessary, to assure prompt correction of any future 1997 Annual PM
As discussed above, EPA has previously determined that the bi-state Louisville Area attained the 1997 Annual PM
The emissions inventories are composed of four major types of sources: Point, area, on-road mobile, and non-road mobile. The attainment and future year emissions inventories were projected by the Visibility Improvement State and Tribal Association of the Southeast and the Lake Michigan Air Directors Consortium using the 2005 base year inventory methodology as provided in the Appendix D of Kentucky's submittal. The future year emissions inventories have been estimated using projected rates of growth in population, traffic, economic activity, expected control programs, and other parameters. Non-road mobile emissions estimates were based on EPA's non-road mobile model, with the exception of the railroad locomotives, commercial marine, and aircraft. On-road mobile source emissions were calculated using EPA's MOVES2010 on-road mobile emission model.
Section 175A requires a state seeking redesignation to attainment to submit a SIP revision to provide for the maintenance of the NAAQS in the Area “for at least 10 years after the redesignation.” EPA has interpreted this as a showing of maintenance “for a period of ten years following redesignation.” Calcagni Memorandum, p. 9. Where the emissions inventory method of showing maintenance is used, the purpose is to show that emissions during the maintenance period will not increase over the attainment year inventory. Calcagni Memorandum, pp. 9-10.
As discussed in detail below, Kentucky's maintenance plan submission expressly documents that the Area's overall emissions inventories will remain well below the attainment year inventories through 2025. In addition, for the reasons set forth below, EPA believes that the Area will continue to maintain the 1997 Annual PM
The maintenance plan for the Kentucky portion of the bi-state Louisville Area includes a maintenance demonstration that:
(i) Shows compliance with and maintenance of the Annual PM
(ii) Uses 2008 as the attainment year and includes future emission inventory projections for 2015 and 2025.
(iii) Identifies an “out year” at least 10 years after EPA review and potential approval of the maintenance plan. Per 40 CFR part 93, NO
(iv) Provides, as shown in Tables 2 through 7 below, the estimated and projected emissions inventories, in tpy, for the Kentucky portion of the Louisville (Bullitt
In situations where local emissions are the primary contributor to nonattainment, such as the bi-state Louisville Area, if the future projected emissions in the nonattainment area remain at or below the baseline emissions in the nonattainment area, then the ambient air quality standard should not be exceeded in the future. As reflected above in Table 9, future emissions of all the relevant pollutants in the bi-state Louisville Area are expected to be well below the “attainment level” emissions in 2008, thus illustrating that the bi-state Louisville Area is expected to continue to attain the 1997 PM
A maintenance plan requires the state to show that projected future year emissions will not exceed the level of emissions which led the Area to attain the NAAQS. Kentucky has projected emissions as described previously and determined that emissions in the bi-state Louisville Area will remain below those in the attainment year inventory for the duration of the maintenance plan.
While DAQ's maintenance plan projects maintenance of the 1997 Annual PM
There are currently four monitors in Jefferson County measuring PM
The Commonwealth of Kentucky, through DAQ, has the legal authority to enforce and implement the requirements of the Kentucky portion of the bi-state Louisville Area 1997 Annual PM
DAQ will track the progress of the maintenance plan by performing future reviews of triennial emission inventories for the Kentucky portion of the bi-state Louisville Area as required in the Air Emissions Reporting Rule (AERR). Emissions information will be compared to the 2008 attainment year and the 2025 projected maintenance year inventories to assess emission trends, as necessary, and to assure continued compliance with the annual PM
Section 175A of the CAA requires that a maintenance plan include such contingency measures as EPA deems necessary to assure that a state will promptly correct a violation of the NAAQS that occurs after redesignation. The maintenance plan should identify the contingency measures to be adopted, a schedule and procedure for adoption and implementation, and a time limit for action by the Commonwealth. A state should also identify specific indicators to be used to determine when the contingency measures need to be implemented. The maintenance plan must include a requirement that a state will implement all measures with respect to control of the pollutant that were contained in the SIP before redesignation of the area to attainment in accordance with section 175A(d).
In the March 5, 2012, submittal, Kentucky commits to maintaining the existing control measures identified in Chapter 5 of its submission (addressing section 107(d)(3)(E)(v)) after redesignation. The contingency plan included in the submittal identifies triggers to determine when contingency measures are needed and a process of developing and implementing appropriate control measures. The Commonwealth will use actual ambient monitoring data to determine whether a trigger event has occurred and when contingency measures should be implemented.
In the event of a monitored violation of the 1997 Annual PM
• Implementation of a program to require additional emissions reductions on stationary sources;
• Implementation of fuel programs, including incentives for alternative fuels;
• Restriction of certain roads or lanes, or construction of such lanes for use by passenger buses or high-occupancy vehicles;
• Trip-reduction ordinances;
• Employer-based transportation management plans, including incentives;
• Programs to limit or restrict vehicle use in downtown areas, or other areas of emission concentration, particularly during periods of peak use;
• Programs for new construction and major reconstruction of paths or tracks for use by pedestrians or by non-motorized vehicles when economically feasible and in the public interest;
• Diesel reduction emissions strategies, including diesel retrofit programs;
• Any other control program that is developed and deemed to be more advantageous for the Area.
In the event that a measured value of the weighted annual arithmetic mean, as determined in accordance with 40 CFR part 50, Appendix N, is 15.5 µg/m
EPA preliminarily concludes that the maintenance plan adequately addresses the five basic components of a maintenance plan: Attainment emission inventory, maintenance demonstration, monitoring network, verification of continued attainment, and a contingency plan. Therefore, EPA proposes to find that the maintenance plan SIP revision submitted by the Commonwealth for the Kentucky portion of the bi-state Louisville Area meets the requirements of section 175A of the CAA and is approvable.
As discussed in section II of this action, the D.C. Circuit remanded the 1997 PM
For the purposes of evaluating Kentucky's redesignation request for its portion of the bi-state Louisville Area, to the extent that implementation under subpart 4 would impose additional requirements for areas designated nonattainment, EPA believes that those requirements are not “applicable” for the purposes of CAA section 107(d)(3)(E), and thus EPA is not required to consider subpart 4 requirements with respect to the redesignation of the Kentucky portion of the bi-state Louisville Area. Under its longstanding interpretation of the CAA, EPA has interpreted section 107(d)(3)(E) to mean, as a threshold matter, that the part D provisions which are “applicable” and which must be approved in order for EPA to redesignate an area include only those which came due prior to a state's submittal of a complete redesignation request.
On June 2, 2014, EPA published a rule entitled “Identification of Nonattainment Classification and Deadlines for Submission of State Implementation Plan (SIP) Provisions for the 1997 Fine Particle (PM
Even though the substantive requirements of subpart 4 were not applicable requirements that Kentucky was required to have met at the time of its redesignation request submission, EPA believes that even the imposition of those substantive requirements would not pose a bar to the redesignation of the Kentucky portion of the bi-state Louisville Area. The additional requirements found in subpart 4 are either designed to help an area achieve attainment (also known as “attainment planning requirements”) or are related to new source permitting. None of these additional requirements are applicable for purposes of evaluating a redesignation from nonattainment to attainment under EPA's long-standing interpretation of CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(ii) and (v).
As background, EPA notes that subpart 4 incorporates components of subpart 1 of part D, which contains general air quality planning requirements for areas designated as nonattainment.
As noted above, in the Classification and Deadlines Rule, EPA initially classified all areas designated nonattainment for either the 1997 or the 2006 PM
The permit requirements of subpart 4, as contained in section 189(a)(1)(A), refer to and apply the subpart 1 permit provisions requirements of sections 172 and 173 to PM
With respect to the specific attainment planning requirements under subpart 4,
Thus, at the time of Kentucky's submission of its redesignation request, the requirement for the bi-state Louisville Area to comply with subpart 4 had not yet come due and was, therefore, not applicable for purposes of EPA's evaluation of the redesignation. Moreover, even if Kentucky had been required to comply with those subpart 4 requirements, the additional substantive requirements for a moderate nonattainment area under subpart 4 were not applicable for purposes of redesignation anyway, given EPA's long-standing interpretation of the applicability of certain requirements to areas that are attaining the NAAQS.
As noted previously, EPA does not believe that the requirement to comply with subpart 4 applied to Kentucky's redesignation request for its portion of the bi-state Louisville Area because that request was submitted prior to the moderate area SIP submission date of December 31, 2014. However, even if the requirements of subpart 4 were to apply to the Area, EPA nevertheless believes that the additional
Under subpart 1 and EPA's prior implementation rule, all major stationary sources of PM
In the General Preamble, EPA discusses its approach to implementing section 189(e).
As noted earlier, EPA determined in March 2011 (76 FR 12860) and September 2011 (76 FR 55544) that the bi-state Louisville Area was attaining the 1997 Annual PM
EPA proposes to determine that the Commonwealth's maintenance plan shows continued maintenance of the standard by tracking the levels of the precursors whose control brought about attainment of the 1997 Annual PM
First, as noted above in EPA's discussion of section 189(e), VOC emission levels in this area have historically been well-controlled under SIP requirements related to ozone and other pollutants. Second, total ammonia emissions throughout the bi-state Louisville Area are projected to be approximately 2,000 tpy in 2020.
The emissions inventories used in the regulatory impact analysis (RIA) for the 2012 PM
While the RIA emissions inventories are only projected out to 2020, there is no reason to believe that this downward trend would not continue through 2027. Given that the bi-state Louisville Area is already attaining the 1997 PM
In addition, available air quality data and modeling analysis show continued maintenance of the standard during the maintenance period. As noted above, the bi-state Louisville Area has an annual PM
Thus, EPA believes that there is ample justification to conclude that the bi-state Louisville Area should be redesignated, even taking into consideration the emissions of VOCs and ammonia potentially relevant to PM
Under section 176(c) of the CAA, new transportation plans, programs, and projects, such as the construction of new highways, must “conform” to (
Under the CAA, states are required to submit, at various times, control strategy SIPs and maintenance plans for nonattainment areas. These control strategy SIPs (including RFP and attainment demonstration) and maintenance plans create MVEBs for criteria pollutants and/or their precursors to address pollution from cars and trucks. Per 40 CFR part 93, a MVEB must be established for the last year of the maintenance plan. A state may adopt MVEBs for other years as well. The MVEB is the portion of the total allowable emissions in the maintenance demonstration that is allocated to highway and transit vehicle use and emissions.
After interagency consultation with the transportation partners for the bi-state Louisville Area, Kentucky has elected to develop MVEBs for NO
As mentioned above, Kentucky has chosen to allocate a portion of the available safety margin for the bi-state Louisville Area to the NO
Through this rulemaking, EPA is proposing to approve into the Kentucky SIP the MVEBs for NO
When reviewing submitted “control strategy” SIPs or maintenance plans containing MVEBs, EPA may affirmatively find the MVEBs contained therein adequate for use in determining transportation conformity. Once EPA affirmatively finds that the submitted MVEBs is adequate for transportation conformity purposes, that MVEBs must be used by state and federal agencies in determining whether proposed transportation projects conform to the SIP as required by section 176(c) of the CAA.
EPA's substantive criteria for determining adequacy of a MVEBs are set out in 40 CFR 93.118(e)(4). The process for determining adequacy consists of three basic steps: Public notification of a SIP submission, a public comment period, and EPA's adequacy determination. This process for determining the adequacy of submitted MVEBs for transportation conformity purposes was initially outlined in EPA's May 14, 1999, guidance, “Conformity Guidance on Implementation of March 2, 1999, Conformity Court Decision.” EPA adopted regulations to codify the adequacy process in the Transportation Conformity Rule Amendments for the “New 8-Hour Ozone and PM
As discussed earlier, Kentucky's maintenance plan submission includes NO
EPA intends to make its determination on the adequacy of the 2015 and 2025 MVEBs for the bi-state Louisville Area for transportation conformity purposes in the near future by completing the adequacy process that was started on January 24, 2012. If EPA finds these MVEBs adequate or takes final action to approve them into the Kentucky SIP, these new MVEBs for NO
EPA's proposed actions establish the basis upon which EPA may take final action on the issues being proposed for approval. Approval of Kentucky's redesignation request would change the legal designation of Bullitt and Jefferson Counties in Kentucky for the 1997 Annual PM
EPA is proposing to: (1) Approve the maintenance plan for the Kentucky portion of the bi-state Louisville Area, including the PM
If finalized, approval of the redesignation request would change the official designation of Bullitt and Jefferson Counties in Kentucky for the 1997 Annual PM
Under the CAA, redesignation of an area to attainment and the accompanying approval of a maintenance plan under section 107(d)(3)(E) are actions that affect the status of a geographical area and do not impose any additional regulatory requirements on sources beyond those imposed by state law. A redesignation to attainment does not in and of itself create any new requirements, but rather results in the applicability of requirements contained in the CAA for areas that have been redesignated to attainment. Moreover, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations.
• Are not significant regulatory actions subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January, 21, 2011);
• do not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• are certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• do not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• do not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• are not economically significant regulatory actions based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• are not significant regulatory actions subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• are not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• will not have disproportionate human health or environmental effects under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs of tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen oxides, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Maritime Administration, Department of Transportation.
Notice of Proposed Rulemaking.
This notice serves to inform interested parties and the public that the Maritime Administration (MARAD) proposes to revise in full Title 46 Part 393 of the Code of Federal Regulations, which concerns the America's Marine Highway Program (AMHP). This action is necessary to implement provisions of the Coast Guard and Maritime Transportation Act of 2012 (CGMTA), to improve AMHP processes and to streamline the regulations. MARAD solicits written comments on this proposed rulemaking.
Comments must be received on or before March 13, 2017. MARAD will consider comments filed after this date to the extent practicable.
You may submit comments identified by DOT Docket Number MARAD-2016-0130 by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
• The Docket Management Facility is open 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday, except on Federal holidays.
• You may view the public comments submitted on this rulemaking at
If you fax, mail or hand-deliver your input, we recommend that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a telephone number in the body of your document so that we can contact you if we have questions regarding your
Tim Pickering, Office of Marine Highways and Passenger Services, at (202) 366-0704, or via email at
The Energy Independence and Security Act of 2007 (EISA) authorized the Secretary of Transportation (Secretary) to promulgate regulations to implement the AMHP. The Secretary of Transportation delegated authority to the Maritime Administrator to issue AMHP implementing regulations. On April 9, 2010, MARAD published in the
The Secretary, in consultation with the Environmental Protection Agency, submitted a Report to Congress in April 2011 that included a description of the benefits of the AMHP and activities conducted under the program. It also included recommendations for further legislative and administrative action that the Secretary considered appropriate.
In December 2012, the Coast Guard and Maritime Transportation Act of 2012 (CGMTA), which built on some of the ideas in the report, was signed into law. The CGMTA expanded the scope of the AMHP by adding the words “or to promote short sea transportation” to the existing purpose of reducing landside congestion. This added language expanded the focus of the AMHP to include efforts that increase utilization or efficiency of short sea transportation on designated Marine Highway Routes.
In November 2015, the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2016 added to the definition of short sea transportation, that is the subject of the AMHP, to include the carriage by a documented vessel of cargo that is: (1) shipped in discrete units, or packages that are handled individually, palletized; or, (2) unitized for purposes of transportation or freight vehicles carried aboard commuter ferry boats.
As part of our routine systematic review of existing regulations, MARAD is updating its AMHP implementing regulations to conform to statutory changes and streamline the regulations for ease of use. Accordingly, the proposed rule revises in full the AMHP implementing regulations to: (1) Add “promote short sea shipping” as a purpose of the AMHP; (2) redesignate “corridors, connectors, and crossings” as used in the rule as “Routes” for purposes of simplicity; (3) expand and clarify the definition of AMHP-eligible cargo to include discrete units or packages that are handled individually, palletized, or unitized as well as freight vehicles carried aboard commuter ferry boats; (4) add a requirement for the project sponsors to provide updates on project status; (5) expand the eligibility criteria for services and Routes that may participate in AMHP; (6) clarify criteria for Project Designation; and, (7) reorganize the regulations for ease of use.
Congress authorized the AMHP to promote short sea shipping by designating routes, also called Marine Highways, as a way to relieve congestion on America's roads and railways. Marine Highway designations are intended to assist the maritime industry in meeting national freight transportation needs. The AMHP encourages the use of marine transportation to reduce freight and passenger travel delays caused by congestion, reduce greenhouse gas emissions, conserve energy, improve safety, and reduce landside infrastructure maintenance costs.
Congestion on the U.S. surface transportation system significantly impacts America's economic prosperity and way of life. Overall, the U.S. Department of Transportation (USDOT) estimates that congestion on our roads, bridges, railways, and in ports costs the United States as much as $200 billion a year and projects that cargoes moving through our ports will nearly double over the next 15 years. Most of this additional cargo will ultimately move along our surface transportation corridors, many of which are already at or beyond capacity.
Your comments must be written and in English. Include the docket number in your comments to ensure that your comments are correctly filed in the Docket. We encourage you to provide concise comments; however, you may attach additional documents as necessary. There is no limit on the length of the attachments. Please submit your comments, including the attachments, following the instructions provided under the above entitled heading
MARAD will consider all comments received before the close of business on the comment closing date indicated above under
For access to the docket to read background documents, including those referenced in this document, or to submit or read comments received, go to the Docket Management Facility, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Building, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590. The Docket Management Facility is open 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday, except on Federal holidays. To review documents, read comments or to submit comments, the docket is also available online at
Please note that even after the comment period has closed, MARAD will continue to file relevant information in the Docket as it becomes available. Further, some people may submit late comments. Accordingly, MARAD recommends that you periodically check the Docket for new material.
Before including your address, phone number, email address or other personal information in your comment, be aware that your entire comment, including
If you wish to submit comments under a claim of confidentiality, you should submit three copies of your complete submission, including the information you claim to be confidential business information, to the Department of Transportation, Maritime Administration, Office of Legislation and Regulations, MAR-225, W24-220, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590. When you send comments containing information claimed to be confidential information, you should include a cover letter setting forth with specificity the basis for any such claim and, if possible, a summary of your submission that can be made available to the public.
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), USDOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. USDOT posts these comments, without edit, to
Under Executive Order (E.O.) 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993), supplemented by EO13563 (76 FR 3821, January 18, 2011) and USDOT policies and procedures, MARAD must determine whether a regulatory action is “significant,” and therefore subject to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) review and the requirements of the Order. The Order defines “significant regulatory action” as one likely to result in a rule that may: (1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal government or communities. (2) Create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another Agency. (3) Materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof. (4) Raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in the E.O.
MARAD has determined that this notice of proposed rulemaking is not considered a significant regulatory action under section 3(f) of E.O. 12866 and, therefore, it was not reviewed by OMB. This rulemaking will not result in an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more. It is also not considered a major rule for purposes of Congressional review under Pub. L. 104-121. This rulemaking is also not significant under the Regulatory Policies and Procedures of the Department of Transportation (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979). The costs and overall economic impact of this rulemaking do not require further analysis.
MARAD analyzed this rulemaking in accordance with the principles and criteria contained in E.O. 13132 (“Federalism”) and has determined that it does not have sufficient Federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a Federalism summary impact statement. This rulemaking has no substantial effect on the States, or on the current Federal-State relationship, or on the current distribution of power and responsibilities among the various local officials. Nothing in this document preempts any State law or regulation. Therefore, MARAD was not required to consult with State and local officials.
MARAD does not believe that this rulemaking will significantly or uniquely affect the communities of Indian tribal governments when analyzed under the principles and criteria contained in E.O. 13175 (Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments); therefore, the funding and consultation requirements of this Executive Order do not apply.
The regulations implementing E.O. 12372 regarding intergovernmental consultation on Federal programs and activities do not apply to this rulemaking.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 requires MARAD to assess whether this rulemaking would have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities and to minimize any adverse impact. MARAD certifies that this rulemaking will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
MARAD has evaluated this proposed rule under Maritime Administrative Order (MAO) 600-1, “Procedures for Considering Environmental Impacts,” 50 FR 11606 (March 22, 1985), which guides the MARAD in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, 42 U.S.C. 4321
In accordance with section 4.05 and Appendix 2 of MAO 600-1, the Agency has further concluded that no extraordinary circumstances exist with respect to this regulation that might trigger the need for a more detailed environmental review. As a result, MARAD finds that this proposed regulatory revision is not a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment. We seek any comments or information that may lead to the discovery of a significant environmental impact from this proposed rule.
MARAD has determined that this rulemaking will not significantly affect energy supply, distribution, or use. Therefore, no Statement of Energy Effects is required.
This action meets applicable standards in sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of E.O. 12988, Civil Justice Reform, to minimize litigation, eliminates ambiguity, and reduce burden.
This rulemaking will not affect a taking of private property or otherwise have taking implications under E.O. 12630, Governmental Actions and Interference with Constitutionally Protected Property Rights.
This rulemaking is not expected to contain standards-related activities that create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States.
Section 522(a)(5) of the Transportation, Treasury, Independent Agencies, and General Government Appropriations Act, 2005 (Pub. L. 108-447, div. H, 118 Stat. 2809 at 3268) requires the USDOT and certain other Federal agencies to conduct a privacy impact assessment of each proposed rule that will affect the privacy of individuals. Claims submitted under this rule will be treated the same as all legal claims received by MARAD. The processing and treatment of any claim within the scope of this rulemaking by MARAD shall comply with all legal, regulatory and policy requirements regarding privacy.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires Agencies to evaluate whether an Agency action would result in the expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $141.3 million or more (as adjusted for inflation) in any 1 year, and if so, to take steps to minimize these unfunded mandates. This rulemaking will not impose unfunded mandates under the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995. It will not result in costs of $141.3 million or more to either State, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or to the private sector, and is the least burdensome alternative that achieves the objectives of the rule.
A regulation identifier number (RIN) is assigned to each regulatory action listed in the Unified Agenda of Federal Regulations. The Regulatory Information Service Center publishes the Unified Agenda in April and October of each year. The RIN number contained in the heading of this document can be used to cross-reference this action with the Unified Agenda.
We would evaluate any rule that might be promulgated to determine whether it would be expected to significantly change the current requirement for the collection of information.
E.O. 12866 requires each Agency to write regulations that are easy to understand. We invite your comments on how to make this proposed rule easier to understand. Including answers to questions such as the following:
(1) Are the requirements in the proposed rule clearly stated?
(2) Does the proposed rule contain technical language or terminology that interferes with its clarity?
(3) Does the format of the proposed rule (grouping and order of sections, use of headings, paragraphs, etc.) aid or reduce its clarity?
(4) Would the rule be easier to understand if it were divided into more but shorter sections (a “section” appears in bold type and is preceded by the symbol “§ ” and a numbered heading; for example, “§ 393.21 Who can apply?”)
(5) Is the description of the proposed rule in the
(6) What else could we do to make the proposed rule easier to understand? Send a copy of any comments that concern how we could make this proposed rule easier to understand to: Division of Legislation and Regulations, Department of Transportation, Maritime Administration, Office of the Chief Counsel, Room W24-220, 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE., Washington, DC 20590. You may also email the comments to this address:
America's Marine Highway Program—Short sea transportation, Marine highway route and project application and designation, Marine highway incentive, Research, Transportation.
For the purposes of this part, when used in capitalized form:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(k)
(1) That is—
(i) Contained in intermodal cargo containers and loaded by crane on the vessel;
(ii) Loaded on the vessel by means of wheeled technology;
(iii) Shipped in discrete units or packages that are handled individually, palletized, or unitized for purposes of transportation; or
(iv) Freight vehicles carried aboard commuter ferry boats; and,
(2) That is—
(i) Loaded at a port in the United States and unloaded either at another port in the United States or at a port in Canada located in the Great Lakes-Saint Lawrence Seaway System; or,
(ii) Loaded at a port in Canada located in the Great Lakes-Saint Lawrence Seaway System and unloaded at a port in the United States.
(l)
(1) MARAD may recommend Marine Highway Routes that relieve landside congestion along coastal corridors or that promote short sea transportation; and,
(2) That advance the objectives of the AMHP in paragraph (c) of this section.
(1) The Department accepts Marine Highway Route designation requests any time. Route Sponsors must submit designation requests through the Program Office.
(2) The Maritime Administration publishes all designated Routes on its Web site. Go to
(1) Route Sponsors designation requests should explain how a proposed route will help achieve the following objectives:
(i) Establishing Marine Highway Routes as extensions of the national surface transportation system;
(ii) Developing multi-jurisdictional coalitions and partnerships that focus public and private efforts to improve reliability and resiliency of the Route for freight and passengers;
(iii) Obtaining public benefits as described in paragraph (d)(1)(vi) of this section; and,
(iv) Identifying potential savings that could be realized by providing an alternative to existing supply chains through short sea transportation.
(2) [Reserved].
(1) One or more eligible Route Sponsors may submit Marine Highway Route designation requests to the Program Office. Designation requests should include the following information:
(i)
(ii)
(B) U.S. Domestic Shipping Lane Served. For Marine Highway Routes that pass through waters outside U.S. territorial waters, provide a summary of the shipping routes or trade lanes that the Marine Highway Route would benefit. Include a description of the route, its primary users, the nature, locations and occurrence of travel delays, urban areas affected, and other geographic or jurisdictional issues that impact its overall operation and performance.
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(2) [Reserved].
(1) The Program Office will evaluate and recommend Route Designations based on an analysis and technical review of the information provided by the Route Applicant. The Maritime Administration will recommend Routes that receive a favorable technical review, and meet other criteria described in this part, for designation by the Secretary.
(2) The Program Office may consider additional factors and may request supplemental information during the review process. USDOT will notify Route Applicants as to the status of their application in writing once the Secretary makes a determination.
(1) MARAD may recommend only those Marine Highway Projects that will use U.S. documented vessels and mitigate landside congestion or promotes short sea transportation.
(2) MARAD may recommend only those Marine Highway Projects that:
(i) Involve the carriage of cargo in Short Sea Transportation as defined in subsection 393.1(k);
(ii) Involve new or expand existing services for the carriage of cargo; and,
(iii) Are on a designated Marine Highway Route.
(3) Proposed Route Designations are accepted at any time, and may be submitted together with the proposed Project Designation.
(4) Successful MARAD Project sponsors must demonstrate a direct connection between a proposed Marine Highway Project and the carriage of cargo through ports on Designated Marine Highway Routes.
(1) The Administrator will announce by notice in the
(2) [Reserved].
(1) The market or customer base to be served by the service and the service's value proposition to customers. This includes—
(i) A description of how the market is currently served by transportation options;
(ii) Identities of shippers that have indicated an interest in, and level of commitment to, the proposed service;
(iii) Specific commodities, markets, and shippers the Project is expected to attract;
(iv) Extent to which interested entities have been educated about the Project and expressed support, and,
(v) A marketing strategy for the project if one exists.
(2)
(3)
(4) An overall quantification of the net public benefits estimated to be gained through the successful initiation of the Marine Highway Project, including highway miles saved, road maintenance savings, air emissions savings, and safety and resiliency impacts.
(5)
(6)
(7)
(ii)
(iii)
(8)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(9)
(10)
(11)
(1) The Program Office will evaluate and recommend for designation by the Secretary those Projects based on an analysis and technical review of the information provided by the Project Applicant. MARAD will recommend Projects that operate on a designated Marine Highway Route, receive a favorable technical review, and meet other criteria described in this part, for designation by the Secretary.
(2) The Program Office may consider additional factors and may request supplemental information during the review process. USDOT will notify Project Applicants as to the status of their application in writing once the Secretary makes a determination.
(1) Upon designation as a Marine Highway Project, the Department Program Office will coordinate with the Project Applicants to identify the most appropriate departmental actions to support the project. USDOT support could include any of the following, as appropriate and subject to agency resources:
(i) Promote the service with appropriate governmental, regional, State, local or tribal government transportation planners, private sector entities or other decision makers to the extent permitted by law.
(ii) Coordinate with ports, State Departments of Transportation, metropolitan planning organizations, localities, other public agencies and the private sector to support the designated service. Efforts can be aimed at identifying resources, obtaining access to land or terminals, developing landside facilities and infrastructure, and working with Federal, regional, State, local or Tribal governmental entities to remove barriers to success.
(iii) Pursue commitments from Federal entities to transport Federally owned or generated cargo using the services of the designated project, when practical or available.
(iv) In cases where transportation infrastructure is needed, Project Applicants may request to be included on the Secretary's list of high-priority transportation infrastructure projects under EO 13274, “Environmental Stewardship and Transportation Infrastructure Project Review.”
(v) Assist with developing individual performance measures for Marine Highway Projects.
(vi) Work with Federal entities and regional, State, local and tribal governments to include designated Projects in transportation planning.
(vii) Coordinate with public and private entities to resolve impediments to the success of Marine Highway Projects.
(viii) Conduct research on issues specific to Marine Highway Projects.
(ix) Advise Route Sponsors on the availability of various Federal funding mechanisms to support the Projects.
(x) Maintain liaison with Sponsors and representatives of designated Projects to provide ongoing support and identify lessons learned and best practices for other projects and the overall Marine Highway program.
(2) [Reserved].
(1) If your application, including attachments, includes information that you consider to be a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information, or otherwise exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), as implemented by the Department at 49 CFR part 7, you may assert a claim of confidentiality.
(2)
(i) Note on the front cover that the submission “Contains Confidential Business Information (CBI);”
(ii) Mark each affected page “CBI;” and
(iii) Clearly highlight or otherwise denote the CBI portions. The USDOT protects such information from
(3)
(1) When responding to specific solicitations for Marine Highway Projects by the Program Office, applicants should include all of the information requested by paragraph (c) above organized in a manner consistent with the elements set forth in that section. The Program Office reserves the right to ask any applicant to supplement the data in its application, but expects applications to be complete upon submission. The narrative portion of an application should not exceed 20 pages in length. Documentation supporting the assertions made in the narrative portion may also be provided in the form of appendices, but limited to relevant information. Applications may be submitted electronically via the
(2) In the event that the sponsor of a Marine Highway Project that has already been designated by the Secretary seeks a modification to the designation because of a change in project scope, an expansion of the project, or other significant change to the project, the project applicant should request the change in writing to the Secretary via the Maritime Administrator. The request must contain any changed or new information that is relevant to the project.
(1) Once designated projects enter the operational phase (either start of a new service, or expansion of existing service), the Program Office will evaluate them regularly to determine if the project is likely to achieve its objectives.
(2) Overall project performance will be assessed according to three categories-exceeds, meets, or does not meet original projections in each of the three areas defined below:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(1) Project Designations are effective for a period of five years, or until the date the project is completed, or MARAD cancels the designation. Project Designation will expire after three years of inactivity.
(2) Project Sponsors wishing to extend a Project Designation must submit an updated application no later than six months before the five-year designation period ends. Applicants who no longer wish to maintain project designation may submit a request to the Secretary to revoke their designation.
(1) The Program Office engages in coordination and Planning Activities with Federal, State, local and tribal governments and planning and private entities organizations to encourage the use of designated Marine Highway Routes and Projects. These activities include:
(i) Works with these entities to assess plans and develop strategies, where appropriate, to incorporate Marine Highway transportation and other short sea transportation solutions to their statewide and metropolitan transportation plans, including the Statewide Transportation Improvement Programs and State Freight Plans.
(ii) Facilitates groups of States and multi-State transportation entities to determine how Marine Highway transportation can address port congestion, traffic delays, bottlenecks, and other interstate transportation challenges to their mutual benefit.
(iii) Identifies other Federal agencies that have jurisdiction over services, or which currently provide funding for components of services, in order to determine which agencies should be consulted and assist in the coordination process.
(iv) Organizes the Department's modal administrations, including Federal Highway Administration, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, Federal Railroad Administration, Saint Lawrence Seaway Development Corporation, and Federal Transit Administration, as appropriate, for support and to evaluate costs and benefits of proposed Marine Highway Routes and Projects.
(1) The Program Office works in consultation with public and private entities as appropriate, within the limits of available resources, to identify impediments, develop incentives, and conduct innovative research, in support of the America's Marine Highway Program or in direct support of specific designated Marine Highway Routes and Projects. The primary objectives of selected research projects are to:
(i) Identify markets, cargoes, and service parameters that could facilitate the development of new or expanded Marine Highway Services.
(ii) Identify existing or emerging technology, vessel design, infrastructure designs, and other improvements that would reduce emissions, increase fuel economy, and lower costs of Marine Highway transportation and increase the efficiency of intermodal transfers.
(iii) Identify impediments to the establishment of Marine Highway services.
(iv) Identify incentives to increase the use and efficiency of Marine Highway services.
(b) The Secretary, in consultation with the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency, may conduct research on short sea transportation regarding:
(1) The environmental and transportation benefits to be derived from short sea transportation alternatives for other forms of transportation;
(2) Technology, vessel design, and other improvements that would reduce emissions, increase fuel economy, and lower costs of short sea transportation and increase the efficiency of intermodal transfers; and
(3) Solutions to impediments to short sea transportation projects designated.
(1) The Associate Administrator for Intermodal Systems Development manages the program under the guidance and the immediate administrative direction of the Maritime Administrator.
(2) MARAD establishes grant program priorities as reflected in its grant opportunity announcements and, from time-to-time, issues clarifying guidance documents through the MARAD Web site and the
(3) The Administrator makes funding recommendations to the Secretary, who has the authority to award grants.
(1) MARAD determines which grant opportunities it will offer, and establishes application deadlines, and programmatic requirements when grant funds become available to the AMHP.
(2) The MARAD staff prepares Notice of Funding Opportunity (NOFO) announcements consisting of all information necessary to apply for each grant and publishes the announcement in the
(3) The MARAD staff publishes notice of each announcement on
(1) Applicants may apply for a grant using
(2) [Reserved].
By Order of the Maritime Administrator.
Federal Communications Commission.
Petition for reconsideration; correction.
The Federal Communications Commission (Commission) published a document in the
John Schauble, Wireless Telecommunications Bureau, (202) 418-0797; email:
In the
Oppositions to the Petitions must be filed on or before January 17, 2017. Replies to an opposition must be filed on or before January 27, 2017.
Federal Communications Commission.
Proposed rule.
The Federal Communications Commission proposes to update, clarify, and streamline its rules to facilitate the deployment of recently proposed non-geostationary-satellite orbit (NGSO), fixed-satellite service (FSS) satellite systems.
Comments are due February 27, 2017. Reply comments are due March 27, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by IB Docket No. 16-408, by any of the following methods:
•
•
For detailed instructions for submitting comments and additional information on the rulemaking process, see the
Clay DeCell, 202-418-0803.
This is a summary of the Commission's Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM), FCC 16-170, adopted December 14, 2016, and released December 15, 2016. The full text of the NPRM is available at
Interested parties may file comments and reply comments on or before the dates indicated in the
•
•
Filings may be sent by hand or messenger delivery, by commercial overnight courier, or by first-class or overnight U.S. Postal Service mail. All filings must be addressed to the Commission's Secretary, Office of the Secretary, Federal Communications Commission.
○ All hand-delivered or messenger-delivered paper filings for the Commission's Secretary must be delivered to FCC Headquarters at 445 12th Street SW., Room TW-A325, Washington, DC 20554. All hand deliveries must be held together with rubber bands or fasteners. Any envelopes must be disposed of before entering the building.
○ Commercial overnight mail (other than U.S. Postal Service Express Mail and Priority Mail) must be sent to 9300 East Hampton Drive, Capitol Heights, MD 20743.
○ U.S. Postal Service first-class, Express, and Priority mail must be addressed to 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554.
•
Pursuant to 47 CFR 1.1200(a), this proceeding will be treated as a “permit-but-disclose” proceeding in accordance with the Commission's
This document contains proposed new and modified information collection requirements. The Commission, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, invites the general public and the Office of Management and Budget to comment on the information collection requirements contained in this document, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. In addition, pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, we seek specific comment on how we might further reduce the information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
In this NPRM, we propose revisions to certain of the Commission's rules and policies governing satellite services, prompted by a planned new generation of large NGSO FSS systems. We propose to update, clarify, and streamline our rules to facilitate the deployment of NGSO FSS systems, which have the capability to provide services, including Internet access, to underserved communities worldwide. We also propose to update certain rules governing operation of FSS space stations in the geostationary-satellite orbit (GSO) to enable greater operational flexibility.
Thus, we are no longer concerned about coordination and delay concerns that the Commission expressed in 2000. The Commission did not discuss the adequacy of any PFD limits in this context. And, both NGSO FSS and GSO FSS systems have been successfully authorized to operate in this band by waiver on an unprotected, non-interference basis with respect to the FS. We also note that WorldVu Satellites Limited, d/b/a OneWeb, has filed a petition for declaratory ruling to access the U.S. market in the 17.8-18.6 GHz band using its proposed system of 720 NGSO satellites. Accordingly, and to promote additional operational flexibility, we propose to adopt a secondary allocation to the FSS (space-
We understand that satellites in the low-Earth orbit (LEO) region,
In light of the ability of the O3b NGSO FSS system to operate within existing e.i.r.p. density criteria for GSO FSS earth stations, and considering the spectrum sharing benefits of such criteria, we invite comment on adopting e.i.r.p. density limits for NGSO FSS uplink transmissions. These could be based, for example, on the limits we have prescribed for FSS earth stations transmitting to GSO space stations. Such default limits could be exceeded to the extent that higher levels are coordinated with all other NGSO FSS systems authorized in the same frequency bands. If we were to adopt e.i.r.p. density limits for NGSO FSS uplink transmissions, should we simply require a certification from applicants that they will abide by these default power limits unless higher transmission levels are appropriately coordinated? This certification requirement could be similar to certification requirements the Commission has recently adopted for GSO FSS and 17/24 GHz BSS space station operations. We also seek comment on whether, similar to our policy regarding GSO FSS space stations, there are appropriate downlink power limits and earth station receive gain criteria that we should adopt to facilitate sharing among NGSO FSS systems. We further seek comment on any other measures that should be recommended to facilitate sharing.
As an alternative to specifying a percentage of the authorized constellation for an initial milestone, for example, should we require the launch and operation of a number of satellites specific to the services and constellation proposed? If so, should the applicant be required to state the minimum number of satellites necessary to provide the services it proposes? If we adopt a more flexible milestone requirement, should it be limited to large NGSO constellations, and if so what size? Should we add additional, periodic milestones, to automatically reduce the number of authorized satellites if a licensee demonstrates that it is unlikely to maintain its larger, authorized constellation size following the decommissioning of its initial deployment? We could, for example, specify that the number of authorized satellites is reduced automatically to the greatest number operated concurrently during the previous year if the licensee falls below a certain percentage of its authorized constellation. If, after satisfaction of any milestones, an NGSO licensee fails to maintain at least one operational satellite in orbit for a specified period of time, should its license be terminated automatically?
The Commission requires the design of NGSO FSS systems that will operate in the 10.7-14.5 GHz, 18.8-19.3 GHz, or 28.6-29.1 GHz bands to enable service worldwide for at least 18 hours every day. This requirement is intended to foster seamless global communication networks and to maximize the use of global spectrum resources, but also prohibits certain NGSO system designs. In light of the spectrum sharing opportunities among NGSO FSS systems, and given the separate requirements for coverage of the United States already included in our rules, we propose to eliminate this global coverage requirement in order to provide operators greater flexibility to design their systems to meet market demands. We invite comment on this proposal.
As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), the Commission has prepared this Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) of the possible significant economic impact on small entities by the policies and rules proposed in this NPRM. We request written public comments on this IRFA. Commenters must identify their comments as responses to the IRFA and must file the comments by the deadlines for comments on the Notice in the
The Notice seeks comment on several proposals relating to the Commission's rules and policies for satellite services, especially those concerning non-geostationary-satellite (NGSO), fixed-satellite service (FSS) systems. Adoption of the proposed changes would, among other things, provide for more flexible use of the 17.8-20.2 GHz bands for FSS; promote shared use of spectrum among NGSO FSS satellite systems; and remove unnecessary design restrictions on NGSO FSS systems.
The NPRM proposes several changes to 47 CFR parts 2 and 25. Principally, it proposes to:
(1) Allocate additional spectrum for use by FSS systems on a secondary basis in the 17.8-18.3 GHz band, subject to power flux-density limits designed to protect primary terrestrial services.
(2) Allow additional operation of NGSO FSS systems in segments of the 17.8-20.2 GHz band within limits protective of FSS satellite systems in the geostationary-satellite orbit (GSO).
(3) Allow GSO FSS operation in the 18.8-19.3 GHz band on an unprotected, non-interference basis with regard to NGSO FSS systems, to provide additional operational flexibility.
(4) Amend the Commission's satellite milestone policies and geographic coverage rules to provide additional regulatory flexibility to operators of NGSO FSS systems.
The proposed action is authorized under sections 4(i), 303, and 316 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 154(i), 303, 316.
The RFA directs agencies to provide a description of, and, where feasible, an estimate of, the number of small entities that may be affected by adoption of proposed rules. The RFA generally defines the term “small entity” as having the same meaning as the terms “small business,” “small organization,” and “small governmental jurisdiction.” In addition, the term “small business” has the same meaning as the term “small business concern” under the Small Business Act. A small business concern is one which: (1) Is independently owned and operated; (2) is not dominant in its field of operation; and (3) satisfies any additional criteria established by the Small Business Administration (SBA). Below, we describe and estimate the number of small entity licensees that may be affected by adoption of the proposed rules.
The rules proposed in this Notice would affect some providers of satellite telecommunications services, if adopted. Satellite telecommunications service providers include satellite and earth station operators. Since 2007, the SBA has recognized two census categories for satellite telecommunications firms: “Satellite Telecommunications” and “Other Telecommunications.” Under both categories, a business is considered small if it had $32.5 million or less in annual receipts.
The first category of Satellite Telecommunications “comprises establishments primarily engaged in providing point-to-point telecommunications services to other establishments in the telecommunications and broadcasting industries by forwarding and receiving communications signals via a system of satellites or reselling satellite telecommunications.” For this category, Census Bureau data for 2007 show that there were a total of 512 satellite communications firms that operated for the entire year. Of this total, 482 firms had annual receipts of under $25 million.
The second category of Other Telecommunications is comprised of entities “primarily engaged in providing specialized telecommunications services, such as satellite tracking, communications telemetry, and radar station operation. This industry also includes establishments primarily engaged in providing satellite terminal stations and associated facilities connected with one or more terrestrial systems and capable of transmitting telecommunications to, and receiving telecommunications from, satellite systems. Establishments providing Internet services or voice over Internet protocol (VoIP) services via client-supplied telecommunications connections are also included in this industry.” For this category, Census Bureau data for 2007 show that there were a total of 2,383 firms that operated for the entire year. Of this total, 2,346 firms had annual receipts of under $25 million. We anticipate that some of these “Other Telecommunications firms,” which are small entities, are earth station applicants/licensees that might be affected if our proposed rule changes are adopted.
We anticipate that our proposed rule changes may have an impact on earth station and space station applicants and licensees. Space station applicants and licensees, however, rarely qualify under the definition of a small entity. Generally, space stations cost hundreds of millions of dollars to construct, launch, and operate. Consequently, we do not anticipate that any space station operators are small entities that would be affected by our proposed actions.
The Notice proposes and seeks comment on several rule changes that would affect compliance requirements for earth station and space station operators. Most proposed changes, however, are directed at space station applicants and licensees. As noted above, these parties rarely qualify as small entities.
For example, we propose to allow additional uses of certain frequencies within the 17.8-20.2 GHz band, subject to compliance with power limits designed to protect other users of the bands. We also seek comment on revised or new technical standards to promote sharing among NGSO FSS systems, and ask whether we should allow entities to certify that that will comply with such resulting requirements, as a means to avoid unnecessary regulatory burdens.
We also propose modified rules for satellite system implementation to provide additional flexibility to operators. We propose to eliminate a geographic service requirement that restricts the design possibilities of certain NGSO FSS satellite systems. In total, the proposals and questions in the Notice are designed to achieve the Commission's mandate to regulate in the public interest while imposing the lowest necessary burden on all affected parties, including small entities.
The RFA requires an agency to describe any significant, specifically small business, alternatives that it has considered in reaching its proposed approach, which may include the following four alternatives (among others): “(1) the establishment of differing compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) the clarification, consolidation, or simplification of compliance and reporting requirements under the rules for such small entities; (3) the use of performance rather than design standards; and (4) an exemption from coverage of the rule, or any part thereof, for such small entities.”
The Notice seeks comment from all interested parties. The Commission is aware that some of the proposals under consideration may impact small entities. Small entities are encouraged to bring to the Commission's attention any specific concerns they may have with the proposals outlined in the Notice.
The Commission expects to consider the economic impact on small entities, as identified in comments filed in response to the NPRM, in reaching its final conclusions and taking action in this proceeding.
In this NPRM, the Commission invites comment on means to minimize negative economic impacts on applicants and licensees, including small entities. For example, the Commission seeks comment on whether compliance with certain power limits could be certified to by applicants, rather than demonstrated technically, thereby reducing burdens. And the Commission proposes to relax a satellite system geographic coverage requirement, which could lessen the economic burden on applicants and licensees. Overall, the proposals in the Notice seek to increase flexibility for NGSO FSS applicants and licensees and reduce burdens, while maintaining adequate protections against interference.
None.
In § 25.108, we propose to incorporate by reference a portion of Appendix 4 of the ITU Radio Regulations concerning the orbital information of satellite networks. Specifically, we propose to incorporate by reference the ITU Radio Regulations, Volume 2: Appendices, Appendix 4, “Consolidated list and tables of characteristics for use in the application of the procedures of Chapter III,” Annex 2, “Characteristics of satellite networks, earth stations or radio astronomy stations,” Section A.4, “Orbital Information,” Edition of 2012. This material is reasonably available to interested parties from the International Telecommunication Union (ITU), Place des Nations, 1211 Geneva 20 Switzerland;
Radio, Table of frequency allocations.
Administrative practice and procedure, Earth stations, Incorporation by reference, Satellites.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission proposes to amend 47 CFR parts 2 and 25 as follows:
47 U.S.C. 154, 302a, 303, and 336, unless otherwise noted.
NG164 The use of the band 18.6-18.8 GHz by the fixed-satellite service (space-to-Earth) is limited to geostationary-satellite networks.
NG165 In the bands 18.8-19.3 GHz (space-to-Earth) and 28.6-29.1 GHz
NG166 The use of the bands 19.4-19.6 GHz (space-to-Earth) and 29.1-29.25 GHz (Earth-to-space) by the fixed-satellite service is limited to feeder links for non-geostationary-satellite systems in the mobile-satellite service.
NGXX1 The use of the bands 10.7-11.7 GHz (space-to-Earth) and 12.75-13.25 GHz (Earth-to-space) by non-geostationary-satellite systems in the fixed-satellite service is limited to communications with individually licensed earth stations.
NGXX2 The use of the bands 17.8-18.3 GHz, 19.3-19.4 GHz, and 19.6-19.7 GHz by the fixed-satellite service (space-to-Earth) is limited to communications with individually licensed earth stations. Ubiquitously deployed user terminals are not permitted.
NGXX3 In the bands 17.8-18.6 GHz (space-to-Earth), 19.3-19.4 GHz (space-to-Earth), 19.6-20.2 GHz (space-to-Earth), 27.5-28.6 GHz (Earth-to-space), and 29.3-30 GHz (Earth-to-space), non-geostationary-satellite systems in the fixed-satellite service shall not cause unacceptable interference to, or claim protection from, geostationary-satellite networks in the fixed-satellite service.
A non-geostationary-satellite system operating within the applicable equivalent power flux-density limits set forth in § 25.208 of this chapter shall not be considered to cause unacceptable interference to any geostationary-satellite network in the fixed-satellite service.
NGXX4 The use of the band 29.25-29.3 GHz by the fixed-satellite service (Earth-to-space) is limited to geostationary-satellite networks and to feeder links for non-geostationary-satellite systems in the mobile-satellite service.
(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this part with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved material is available for inspection at the Federal Communications Commission, 445 12th Street SW., Reference Information Center, Room CY-A257, Washington, DC 20554, 202-418-0270, and is available from the sources listed below. It is also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to
(b) * * *
(2) ITU Radio Regulations, Volume 2: Appendices, Appendix 4, “Consolidated list and tables of characteristics for use in the application of the procedures of Chapter III,” Annex 2, “Characteristics of satellite networks, earth stations or radio astronomy stations,” Section A.4, “Orbital Information,” Edition of 2012,
(d) * * *
(12) The information required by § 25.146, if the application is for an NGSO FSS system authorization in the 10.7-14.5 GHz, 17.8-18.6 GHz, 18.8-19.4 GHz, 19.6-20.2 GHz, 27.5-29.1 GHz, or 29.3-30 GHz bands.
(a) A comprehensive technical showing must be submitted for the proposed NGSO FSS system in the 10.7-14.5 GHz, 17.8-18.6 GHz, 18.8-19.4 GHz, 19.6-20.2 GHz, 27.5-29.1 GHz, or 29.3-30 GHz bands. * * *
(b) Ninety days prior to the initiation of service to the public, the NGSO FSS system licensee must submit a comprehensive technical showing for the NGSO FSS system. * * *
(1) * * *
(v) Provide the result, the cumulative probability distribution function of EPFD, of the execution of the verification computer program described in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section by using only the input parameters contained in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (b)(1)(iv) of this section for each of the submitted test points provided by the Commission. These test points are based on information from U.S.-licensed GSO FSS and Broadcasting-Satellite Service operators in the 10.7-14.5 GHz, 17.8-18.6 GHz, 18.8-19.4 GHz, 19.6-20.2 GHz, 27.5-29.1 GHz, and 29.3-30 GHz bands. Each U.S.-licensed GSO FSS and Broadcasting-Satellite Service operator may submit up to 10 test points for this section containing the latitude, longitude, altitude, azimuth, elevation angle, antenna size, efficiency to be used by NGSO FSS licensees during the upcoming year.
(2)
(c) Applicants for NGSO FSS system authorizations proposing space-to-Earth transmissions in the 10.7-11.7 GHz,
(e) An NGSO FSS system licensee operating a system in compliance with the limits specified in § 25.208(g), (i), (j), (k), (l), and (m) must not claim protection from GSO FSS and BSS networks operating in accordance with this part.
(i) NGSO FSS applicants must also provide the following:
(1) Sufficient information on the NGSO FSS system characteristics to properly model the system in computer sharing simulations, including, at a minimum, NGSO hand-over and satellite switching strategies, NGSO satellite antenna gain patterns, and NGSO earth station antenna gain patterns. In particular, except for operation in the 18.8-19.3 GHz or 28.6-29.1 GHz bands, each NGSO FSS applicant must explain the switching protocols it will use to avoid transmitting while passing through the geostationary satellite orbit arc, or provide an explanation as to how the PFD limits in § 25.208 will be met without using geostationary-satellite orbit arc avoidance. In addition, each NGSO FSS applicant must provide the orbital parameters contained in Section A.4 of Annex 2 to Appendix 4 of the ITU Radio Regulations (incorporated by reference,
(2) For operation in the 10.7 GHz-14.5 GHz, 18.8-19.3 GHz, or 28.6-29.1 GHz bands, a demonstration that the proposed system is capable of providing FSS on a continuous basis throughout the fifty states, Puerto Rico and the U.S. Virgin Islands.
(b)(1) The procedures prescribed in this section do not apply to an application for authority to operate a replacement space station(s) that meets the relevant criteria in § 25.165(e)(1) and (2) and that will be launched before the space station(s) to be replaced is retired from service or within a reasonable time after loss of a space station during launch or due to premature failure in orbit.
(2) The procedures in paragraphs (e), (f), and (g) of this section do not apply to an application granted with a condition to share spectrum pursuant to § 25.261.
(a)(1) The failure to meet an applicable milestone specified in § 25.164(a) and/or (b), if no authorized space station is functional in orbit;
(2) The failure to meet an applicable milestone specified in § 25.164(b)(1) or (b)(2), if at least one authorized space station is functional in orbit, which failure will result in the termination of authority for the number, type, and orbital parameters of space stations not in orbit as of the milestone date; or
(3) The failure to meet any other milestone or construction requirement imposed as a condition of authorization. In the case of a space station authorization when at least one authorized space station is functional in orbit, however, such termination will be with respect to only the authorization for any space stations not in orbit as of the milestone date.
(a) The recipient of an initial license for a GSO space station, other than a DBS space station, SDARS space station, or replacement space station as defined in § 25.165(e), must launch the space station, position it in its assigned orbital location, and operate it in accordance with the station authorization no later than five years after the grant of the license, unless a different schedule is established by Title 47, Chapter I, or the Commission.
(b)(1) The recipient of an initial authorization for an NGSO satellite system, other than an SDARS system, must launch 75 percent of the maximum number of space stations authorized for service, place them in their assigned orbits, and operate them in accordance with the station authorization no later than six years after the grant of the authorization, unless a different schedule is established by Title 47, Chapter I, or the Commission. This paragraph does not apply to replacement NGSO space stations as defined in § 25.165(e).
(2) A licensee that satisfies the requirement in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must launch the remaining space stations necessary to complete its authorized service constellation, place them in their assigned orbits, and operate each of them in accordance with the authorization no later than nine years after the grant of the authorization.
(g) Licensees of satellite systems that include both NGSO satellites and GSO satellites must meet the requirement in paragraph (a) of this section with respect to the GSO satellite(s) and the applicable requirements in paragraph (b) of this section with respect to the NGSO satellites.
(c) A licensee will be considered to be in default with respect to a bond filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section if it surrenders the license before meeting the applicable milestone requirement(s) in § 25.164(a) and/or (b)(1) or if it fails to satisfy any such milestone.
(d) A licensee will be relieved of its bond obligation under paragraph (a) of this section upon a Commission finding that the licensee has satisfied the applicable milestone requirement(s) in § 25.164(a) and/or (b)(1) for the authorization.
(a)(1) In addition to the frequency-use restrictions set forth in § 2.106 of this chapter, the following restrictions apply:
(i) In the 27.5-28.35 GHz band, the FSS (Earth-to-space) is secondary to the Upper Microwave Flexible Use Service authorized pursuant to part 30 of this chapter, except for FSS operations associated with earth stations authorized pursuant to § 25.136.
(ii) Use of the 37.5-40 GHz band by the FSS (space-to-Earth) is limited to individually licensed earth stations. Earth stations in this band must not be ubiquitously deployed and must not be used to serve individual consumers.
(c) For a GSO space station in the 17.7-19.7 GHz, 22.55-23.55 GHz, or 24.45-24.75 GHz bands, or for an NGSO space station in the 22.55-23.55 GHz or 24.45-24.75 GHz bands, the PFD at the Earth's surface produced by emissions for all conditions and for all methods of modulation must not exceed the following values:
(e) For an NGSO space station, the PFD at the Earth's surface produced by emissions in the 17.8-18.6 GHz or 18.8-19.7 GHz bands, for all conditions and for all methods of modulation, must not exceed the following values, unless the aggregate PFD produced by the entire authorized constellation at any point at the Earth's surface does not exceed -115 ((dBW/m
(f) The EPFD produced at any point in the geostationary-satellite orbit by emissions from all the space stations in an NGSO FSS system (EPFD
(g) In the frequency bands and Regions listed in Tables IG through 4G below, the single-entry EPFD in the space-to-Earth direction (EPFD
Note to paragraph (g): These limits relate to the EPFD that would be obtained under free-space propagation conditions for all conditions and for all methods of modulation. (h) In the frequency bands and Regions listed in Tables 1H through 4H below, the aggregate EPFD in the space-to-Earth direction (EPFD
Note to paragraph (h): These limits relate to the EPFD, which would be obtained under free-space propagation conditions, for all conditions and for all methods of modulation.
(j) In the frequency bands and Regions listed in Tables 1J and 2J, the operational EPFD in the space-to-Earth direction (operational EPFD
Note to paragraph (j): These limits relate to the operational EPFD which would be obtained under free-space propagation conditions, for all conditions, for all methods of modulation and for the specified inclined GSO FSS operations.
(k) In the frequency bands and Regions listed in the following Table, the EPFD in the Earth-to-space direction (EPFD
(b)(1) For all NGSO-like satellite licenses for which the application was filed pursuant to the procedures set forth in § 25.157 after August 27, 2003, authorizing operations in a frequency band for which the Commission has not adopted frequency band-specific service rules at the time the license is granted, the licensee will be required to comply with the following technical requirements, notwithstanding the frequency bands specified in these rule provisions: §§ 25.143(b)(2)(ii), (iii), 25.204(e), 25.210(f), (i).
(c)(1) For all GSO-like satellite licenses for which the application was filed pursuant to the procedures set forth in § 25.158 after August 27, 2003, authorizing operations in a frequency band for which the Commission has not adopted frequency band-specific service rules at the time the license is granted, the licensee will be required to comply with the following technical requirements, notwithstanding the frequency bands specified in these rule provisions: §§ 25.143(b)(2)(iv), 25.204(e), 25.210(f), (i), (j).
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) Each of
(2) The affected space station(s) of the respective satellite systems must operate only in the selected (1/
(3) All affected space station(s) may resume operations throughout the frequency range associated with the in-line event once the angular separation between the space stations exceeds 10°.
(d)
(e) The licensee or market access recipient for an NGSO FSS satellite system operating in the 10.7-14.5 GHz, 17.8-18.6 GHz, 18.8-19.4 GHz, 19.6-20.2 GHz, 27.5-29.1 GHz, or 29.3-30 GHz bands must maintain an electronic Web site bulletin board to list the satellite ephemeris data for each satellite in the constellation, using the North American Aerospace Defense Command (NORAD) two-line orbital element format. The orbital elements must be updated at least once every three days.
Federal Communications Commission.
Petition for reconsideration; correction.
The Federal Communications Commission (Commission) published a document in the
Benjamin Arden, Media Bureau, (202) 418-2605; email:
In the
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
The National Telecommunications and Information Administration (NTIA) launched BroadbandUSA in January 2015 in response to demand from communities that realized broadband access and use are vital to their economic development, innovation, education, and healthcare needs. BroadbandUSA provides technical assistance, guidance, and resources to communities across the country that want to expand their broadband capacity and promote broadband adoption. BroadbandUSA brings stakeholders together to solve problems, contribute to emerging policies, link communities to other federal agencies and funding sources, and address barriers to collaboration across agencies.
In March 2015, President Obama created the Broadband Opportunity Council (Council), an interagency collaboration among 25 federal agencies co-chaired by the Departments of Commerce and Agriculture, to determine what actions the federal government could take to eliminate regulatory barriers to broadband deployment and to encourage investment in broadband networks and services.
The purpose of the Community Connectivity Initiative is to support communities with tools and resources to attract broadband investment and promote meaningful use. NTIA and the National Economic Council conducted outreach to more than 200 stakeholders and communities to seek input on the implementation of the Community Connectivity Initiative. The initial findings of that outreach resulted in collaborators and communities assisting in the creation of the framework for the community connectivity self-assessment tool. The questions developed for the community connectivity self-assessment tool reflect extensive input from stakeholders in communities, businesses, and nonprofits across America. Throughout 2016, NTIA conducted more than 20 webinars and workshops where individuals and groups served as collaborators in shaping the Community Connectivity framework, assessment, and resources. That stakeholder input is the foundation of the Community Connectivity Initiative.
The objectives of the Community Connectivity Initiative are to: (1) Support communities as they convene, assess, and act to promote local priorities and advance broadband access, adoption, policies, and use; and (2) increase the number of communities actively assessing connectivity impacts and investing to improve broadband outcomes. The Community Connectivity Initiative includes three resources for communities, including the community connectivity framework, an online self-assessment tool, and resources that support local planning and action. The community connectivity framework provides a structure to engage local stakeholders in conversations about broadband access and community priorities.
The online self-assessment tool will provide local leaders with a means for assessing broadband needs in their communities. The tool will enable them to record findings and integrate assessments with national datasets on community broadband by providing users with data and asking questions covering three specific categories: access, adoption, and community. Initially, at the time of the 60-day
The community connectivity self-assessment tool will collect input on the same information outlined in the 60-day
Upon completion of the self-assessment tool, communities will receive a report that combines input from the self-assessment tool with other data sources, along with resources that communities could use to improve their broadband capabilities. Through this effort, the community connectivity self-assessment tool will produce improved broadband planning assets for communities, thereby increasing the number of communities actively investing to improve broadband access and digital inclusion.
NTIA published a Notice in the
This information collection request may be viewed at reginfo.gov or
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
The Sensors and Instrumentation Technical Advisory Committee (SITAC) will meet on February 1, 2017, 9:30 a.m., (Pacific Standard Time) at the SPIE Photonics West, Moscone South, 747 Howard Street, Exhibit Level, Room 102, San Francisco, CA 94103. The Committee advises the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Export Administration on technical questions that affect the level of export controls applicable to sensors and instrumentation equipment and technology.
The open session will be accessible via teleconference to 20 participants on a first come, first serve basis. To join the conference, submit inquiries to Ms. Yvette Springer at
A limited number of seats will be available during the public session of the meeting.
Reservations are not accepted. To the extent that time permits, members of the public may present oral statements to the Committee. The public may submit written statements at any time before or after the meeting. However, to facilitate distribution of public presentation materials to the Committee members, the Committee suggests that the materials be forwarded before the meeting to Ms. Springer.
For more information contact Yvette Springer on (202) 482-2813.
The Information Systems Technical Advisory Committee (ISTAC) will meet on January 25, 2017, 9:00 a.m., in the Herbert C. Hoover Building, Room 3884, 14th Street between Constitution and Pennsylvania Avenues NW., Washington, DC. The Committee advises the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Export Administration on technical questions that affect the level of export controls applicable to information systems equipment and technology.
The open session will be accessible via teleconference to 20 participants on a first come, first serve basis. To join the conference, submit inquiries to Ms. Yvette Springer at
A limited number of seats will be available for the public session. Reservations are not accepted. To the extent time permits, members of the public may present oral statements to the Committee. The public may submit written statements at any time before or after the meeting. However, to facilitate distribution of public presentation materials to Committee members, the Committee suggests that public presentation materials or comments be forwarded before the meeting to Ms. Springer.
For more information, call Yvette Springer at (202) 482-2813.
U.S. & Foreign Commercial Service, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Extension of comment period.
The U.S. & Foreign Commercial Service (US&FCS) within the International Trade Administration (ITA) is extending the comment period for the notice, “Revisions to User Fees for Export and Investment Promotion Services/Events.” The comment period is extended from January 16, 2016, to January 21, 2017.
The comment period for the notice that was published on December 21, 2016 (81 FR 93660), is extended. Comments must be received on or before January 21, 2017.
You may submit comments by either of the following methods:
•
• Postal Mail/Commercial Delivery to Docket No. ITA-2016-0012, International Trade Administration, U.S. & Foreign Commercial Service, Office of Strategic Planning & Resource Management, 1400 Constitution Avenue NW., Rm. C125, Washington, DC 20235.
Ms. Aditi Palli, International Trade Administration, U.S. & Foreign Commercial Service, Office of Strategic Planning, 1400 Constitution Avenue NW., Rm. 21022, Washington, DC 20230, Phone: (202) 482-2025.
On December 21, 2016, US&FCS published
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the “Department”) determines that countervailable subsidies are being provided to producers and exporters of certain biaxial integral geogrid products (“geogrids”) from the People's Republic of China (the “PRC”). The period of investigation is January 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015. For information on the estimated subsidy rates, see the “Suspension of Liquidation” section of this notice.
Effective January 11, 2017.
Bob Palmer or Ryan Mullen, AD/CVD Operations, Office V, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone 202-482-9068 or 202-482-5260, respectively.
The petitioner in this investigation is Tensar Corporation (“Petitioner”). In addition to the Government of China (“GOC”), the mandatory respondents in this investigation are BOSTD Geosynthetics Qingdao Ltd. and its crossed-owned company Beijing Orient Science & Technology Development Co., Ltd. (“BOSTD”), and Taian Modern Plastic Co., Ltd. (“Taian Modern”).
The Department published its
The Department conducted this countervailing duty (“CVD”) investigation in accordance with section 701 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the “Act”). For each of the subsidy programs found countervailable, we determine that there is a subsidy (
The products covered by this investigation are geogrids from the PRC. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation, see Appendix II.
All issues raised in the comments filed by interested parties to this proceeding are discussed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. A list of the issues raised by interested parties and responded to by the Department in the Issues and Decisions Memo are attached at Appendix II to this notice.
For purposes of this final determination, we relied, in part, on facts available and, because certain respondents did not act to the best of their ability to respond to the Department's requests for information, we drew an adverse inference, where appropriate, in selecting from among the facts otherwise available.
In accordance with sections 705(c)(1)(B)(i)(I) and 705(c)(5)(A)(i) of the Act, we calculated an estimated countervailable subsidy rate for each producer/exporter of the subject merchandise individually investigated. These rates are:
In accordance with sections 705(c)(5)(A) of the Act, for companies not investigated, we apply an “all-others” rate, which is normally calculated by weighting the subsidy rates of the individual companies selected as mandatory respondents by those companies' exports of the subject merchandise to the United States. Under section 705(c)(5)(i) of the Act, the all-others rate should exclude zero and
As a result of our
If the U.S. International Trade Commission (“ITC”) issues a final affirmative injury determination, we will issue a CVD order and will reinstate the suspension of liquidation under section 706(a) of the Act and will require a cash deposit of estimated CVDs for such entries of subject merchandise in the amounts indicated above. If the ITC determines that material injury, or threat of material injury, does not exist, this proceeding will be terminated and all estimated duties deposited or securities posted as a result of the suspension of liquidation will be refunded or canceled.
In accordance with section 705(d) of the Act, we will notify the ITC of our determination. In addition, we are making available to the ITC all non-privileged and non-proprietary information relating to this investigation. We will allow the ITC access to all privileged and business proprietary information in our files, provided the ITC confirms that it will not disclose such information, either publicly or under an administrative protective order (“APO”), without the written consent of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.
In the event that the ITC issues a final negative injury determination, this notice will serve as the only reminder to parties such to an APO of their responsibility concerning the destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials or, alternatively, conversion to judicial protective order, is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation that is subject to sanction.
This determination is published pursuant to section 705(d) and 777(i) of the Act.
The products covered by the scope are certain biaxial integral geogrid products. Biaxial integral geogrid products are a polymer grid or mesh material (whether or not finished, slit, cut-to-length, attached to woven or non-woven fabric or sheet material, or packaged) in which four-sided openings in the form of squares, rectangles, rhomboids, diamonds, or other four-sided figures predominate. The products covered have integral strands that have been stretched to induce molecular orientation into the material (as evidenced by the strands being thinner in width toward the middle between the junctions than at the junctions themselves) constituting the sides of the openings and integral junctions where the strands intersect. The scope includes products in which four-sided figures predominate whether or not they also contain additional strands intersecting the four-sided figures and whether or not the inside corners of the four-sided figures are rounded off or not sharp angles. As used herein, the term “integral” refers to strands and junctions that are homogenous with each other. The products covered have a tensile strength of greater than 5 kilonewtons per meter (“kN/m”) according to American Society for Testing and Materials (“ASTM”) Standard Test Method D6637/D6637M in any direction and average overall flexural stiffness of more than 100,000 milligram-centimeter according to the ASTM D7748/D7748M Standard Test Method for Flexural Rigidity of Geogrids, Geotextiles and Related Products, or other equivalent test method standards.
Subject merchandise includes material matching the above description that has been finished, packaged, or otherwise further processed in a third country, including by trimming, slitting, coating, cutting, punching holes, stretching, attaching to woven or non-woven fabric or sheet material, or any other finishing, packaging, or other further processing that would not otherwise remove the merchandise from the scope of the investigations if performed in the country of manufacture of the biaxial integral geogrid.
The products subject to the scope are currently classified in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (“HTSUS”) under the following subheading: 3926.90.9995. Subject merchandise may also enter under subheadings 3920.20.0050 and 3925.90.0000. The HTSUS subheadings set forth above are provided for convenience and U.S. Customs purposes only. The written description of the scope is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (Department) determines that certain biaxial integral geogrid products (geogrids) are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV), as provided in section 735 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). The final weighted-average dumping margins for the investigation on geogrids from the PRC are listed in the “Final Determination Margins” section of this notice.
Effective January 11, 2017.
Julia Hancock or Susan Pulongbarit, AD/CVD Operations, Office V, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-1394 or (202) 482-4031, respectively.
On August 22, 2016, the Department published its
The period of investigation (POI) is July 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015. This period corresponds to the two most recent fiscal quarters prior to the month of the filing of the petition, which was January 2016.
The products covered by this investigation are geogrids from the People's Republic of China (PRC). Subject geogrids enter the United States through Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) statistical subheading 3926.90.9995, but may also enter through HTSUS subheadings 3920.20.0050 and 3925.90.0000. While HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and Customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
No interested party commented on the scope of this investigation. For a complete description of the scope of the investigation,
We addressed all issues raised by parties in case and rebuttal briefs in the Issues and Decision Memorandum.
As provided in section 782(i) of the Act, in September 2016, the Department conducted verification of the information submitted by BOSTD Geosynthetics Qingdao Ltd. (BOSTD) and Taian Modern Plastic Co., Ltd. (Taian Modern) for use in the final determination. We issued our verification reports on November 4, 2016, and November 14, 2016.
Based on the Department's analysis of the comments received and our findings at verification, we find that BOSTD and Taian Modern failed to cooperate by not acting to the best of their ability in this proceeding and, pursuant to section 776(b) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.308(a), we based BOSTD's and Taian Modern's respective dumping margins on total adverse facts available (AFA). For further discussion,
In the
For the
In this final determination, as discussed above, we are applying a rate based entirely on adverse facts available to the PRC-wide entity (which now includes the two mandatory respondents). Additionally, as explained in the
For the final determination, we assigned as the AFA rate for the PRC-wide entity the highest dumping margin from the petition,
The Department determines that the estimated final weighted-average dumping margins are as follows:
Because our final determination is based entirely on AFA, there are no calculations to disclose.
In accordance with section 735(c)(1)(B) of the Act, the Department will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to continue to suspend liquidation of all appropriate entries of geogrids from the PRC as described in the “Scope of the Investigation” section, which were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after August 22, 2016, the date of publication in the
Further, pursuant to section 735(c)(1)(B)(ii) of the Act, the Department will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit
As we stated in the
In accordance with section 735(d) of the Act, we notified the International Trade Commission (ITC) of the final affirmative determination of sales at LTFV. As the Department's final determination is affirmative, in accordance with section 735(b)(2) of the Act, the ITC will determine, within 45 days, whether the domestic industry in the United States is materially injured, or threatened with material injury, by reason of imports of geogrids for sale from the PRC, or sales (or the likelihood of sales) for importation, of geogrids from the PRC. If the ITC determines that such injury does not exist, this proceeding will be terminated and all securities posted will be refunded or canceled. If the ITC determines that such injury does exist, the Department will issue an antidumping duty order directing CBP to assess, upon further instruction by the Department, antidumping duties on all imports of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the effective date of the suspension of liquidation.
This notice also serves as a reminder to the parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of propriety information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305. Timely written notification of return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
This determination is issued and published in accordance with sections 735(d) and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
The products covered by the scope are certain biaxial integral geogrid products. Biaxial integral geogrid products are a polymer grid or mesh material (whether or not finished, slit, cut-to-length, attached to woven or non-woven fabric or sheet material, or packaged) in which four-sided openings in the form of squares, rectangles, rhomboids, diamonds, or other four-sided figures predominate. The products covered have integral strands that have been stretched to induce molecular orientation into the material (as evidenced by the strands being thinner in width toward the middle between the junctions than at the junctions themselves) constituting the sides of the openings and integral junctions where the strands intersect. The scope includes products in which four-sided figures predominate whether or not they also contain additional strands intersecting the four-sided figures and whether or not the inside corners of the four-sided figures are rounded off or not sharp angles. As used herein, the term “integral” refers to strands and junctions that are homogenous with each other. The products covered have a tensile strength of greater than 5 kilonewtons per meter (“kN/m”) according to American Society for Testing and Materials (“ASTM”) Standard Test Method D6637/D6637M in any direction and average overall flexural stiffness of more than 100,000 milligram-centimeter according to the ASTM D7748/D7748M Standard Test Method for Flexural Rigidity of Geogrids, Geotextiles and Related Products, or other equivalent test method standards.
Subject merchandise includes material matching the above description that has been finished, packaged, or otherwise further processed in a third country, including by trimming, slitting, coating, cutting, punching holes, stretching, attaching to woven or non-woven fabric or sheet material, or any other finishing, packaging, or other further processing that would not otherwise remove the merchandise from the scope of the investigations if performed in the country of manufacture of the biaxial integral geogrid.
The products subject to the scope are currently classified in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (“HTSUS”) under the following subheading: 3926.90.9995. Subject merchandise may also enter under subheadings 3920.20.0050 and 3925.90.0000. The HTSUS subheadings set forth above are provided for convenience and U.S. Customs purposes only. The written description of the scope is dispositive.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Application for one enhancement permit renewal.
Notice is hereby given that NMFS has received, from the United States Bureau of Reclamation (Reclamation), a permit application (16608-2R) to enhance the propagation and survival of species listed under the Endangered Species Act (ESA) of 1973, as amended. Under permit application 16608-2R, Reclamation is requesting renewal of permit 16608, for a five year period, to continue implementation of the San Joaquin River Restoration Program (SJRRP) Steelhead Monitoring Program. The permit application may be viewed online at:
Comments or requests for a public hearing on the applications must be received at the appropriate address or fax number (see
Written comments on the application should be submitted to the California Central Valley Office, NMFS, 650 Capitol Mall, Suite 5-100, Sacramento, CA 95814. Comments may also be submitted via fax to 916-930-3629 or by email to
Jeff Abrams, Sacramento, CA (ph.: 916-930-3714, Fax: 916-930-3629, email:
The following listed species are covered in this notice:
Chinook salmon (
Steelhead (
Enhancement permits are issued in accordance with Section 10(a)(1)(A) of the ESA (16 U.S.C. 1531
Anyone requesting a hearing on an application listed in this notice should set out the specific reasons why a hearing on that application would be appropriate (see
Reclamation has applied for an enhancement permit under Section 10(a)(1)(A) of the ESA for a period of 5 years that would allow take of adult CCV steelhead, and adult CV spring-run Chinook salmon. Actions taken pursuant to the application are designed to monitor for the presence of CCV steelhead that may be attracted into the SJRRP Restoration Area (Restoration Area), and to relocate those captured fish to locations with better access to suitable spawning habitat. Prior to the completion of ongoing SJRRP efforts to improve fish passage, fish that are attracted into the Restoration Area will not have access to spawning habitat upstream. The proposed activities are intended to benefit listed species by relocating captured steelhead back to areas where they have access to spawning habitat in the Merced River or other San Joaquin River tributaries. The proposed monitoring would further benefit steelhead by providing data on the distribution of steelhead and their use of the Restoration Area in order to inform future ESA consultations and SJRRP management actions. While adult CV spring-run Chinook salmon are not the target species for these efforts, some may be captured during permitted activities. The post capture handling of CV spring-run Chinook salmon is covered under ESA Section 10(a)(1)(A) permit 17781.
Listed fish would be captured by: Boat mounted electrofisher, fyke net, and trammel net. Handling would include conducting length measurements, gender identification, tissue and scale collection, checking for the presence of tags, and tagging by Passive Integrated Transponder (PIT). Captured steelhead would be transported by tank truck and released in the San Joaquin River downstream of the mouth of the Merced River. Observe/harass take may occur at occur at temporary weirs with electronic fish counting devices installed. Recaptured steelhead would be identified by the presence of a PIT tag. All persons implementing proposed activities would follow appropriate protocols to minimize injury to captured fish, including: Handling live steelhead with extreme care, monitoring water temperature to the maximum extent possible during sampling and processing procedures, maintaining adequate circulation and replenishment of water in holding units, following the NMFS 2000 electrofishing guidelines, and checking all traps at least daily. In addition, when a sample is comprised of a mix of species, any captured steelhead would be processed first, and steelhead rescued at the capture site would be allowed to recover to the maximum extent possible prior to being released into the mainstem San Joaquin River. The applicants are not proposing to kill any of the fish they capture, but a small number may die as an unintended result of the activities.
NMFS invites the public to comment on the permit application and associated HGMPs during a 30 day public comment period beginning on the date of this notice. This notice is
NMFS will evaluate the applications, associated documents, and comments submitted to determine whether the applications meet the requirements of Section 10(a)(1)(A) of the ESA and Federal regulations. The final permit decisions will not be made until after the end of the 30-day public comment period and after NMFS has fully considered all relevant comments received. NMFS will publish notice of its final action in the
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before March 13, 2017.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via the Internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Peggy Mundy, (206) 526-4323 or
This request is for an extension of a currently approved information collection.
Based on the management regime specified each year, designated regulatory areas in the commercial ocean salmon fishery off the coasts of Washington, Oregon, and California may be managed by numerical quotas. To accurately assess catches relative to quota attainment during the fishing season, catch data by regulatory area must be collected in a timely manner. Requirements to land salmon within specific time frames and in specific areas may be implemented in the preseason regulations to aid in timely and accurate catch accounting for a regulatory area. State landing systems normally gather the data at the time of landing. If unsafe weather conditions or mechanical problems prevent compliance with landing requirements, fishermen need an alternative to allow for a safe response. Fishermen would be exempt from landing requirements if the appropriate notifications are made to provide the name of the vessel, the port where delivery will be made, the approximate amount of salmon (by species) on board, and the estimated time of arrival.
Notifications are made by at-sea radio or cellular phone transmissions.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before March 13, 2017.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via the Internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Walter Ikehara, (808) 725-5175 or
This request is for extension of a currently approved information collection.
As part of fishery management plans developed under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, owners of commercial fishing vessels in the Hawaii pelagic longline fishery, American Samoa pelagic longline fishery (only vessels longer than 50 feet), Northwestern Hawaiian Islands lobster fishery (currently inactive), and Northern Mariana Islands bottomfish fishery (only vessels longer than 40 feet) must allow the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) to install vessel monitoring system (VMS) units on their vessels when directed to do so by NOAA enforcement personnel. VMS units automatically send periodic reports on the position of the vessel. NOAA uses the reports to monitor the vessel's location and activities, primarily to enforce regulated fishing areas. NOAA pays for the units and messaging. There is no public burden for the automatic messaging; however, VMS installation and annual maintenance are considered public burden.
Automatic electronic submission.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council's (MAFMC's) Summer Flounder, Scup, and Black Sea Bass Advisory Panel will hold a public meeting via webinar, jointly with the Atlantic States Marine Fisheries Commission's (ASMFC's) Summer Flounder, Scup, and Black Sea Bass Advisory Panel.
The meeting will be held on Monday, February 6, 2017, from 2 p.m. to 5 p.m. See
The meeting will take place over webinar with a telephone-only connection option. The webinar can be accessed at:
Christopher M. Moore, Ph.D., Executive Director, Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council, telephone: (302) 526-5255.
The Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council's Summer Flounder, Scup, and Black Sea Bass Advisory Panel, together with the Atlantic States Marine Fisheries Commission's Advisory Panel, will meet on Monday, February 6, 2017 via webinar (see
A detailed agenda and background documents will be made available on the Council's Web site (
The meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aid should be directed to M. Jan Saunders, (302) 526-5251, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of availability and request for comment.
Notice is hereby given that the Northwest Indian Fisheries Commission (NWIFC) has submitted a Tribal Resource Management Plan (Tribal Plan) for NMFS to evaluate. It was presented by the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA) on behalf of the Northwest Indian Tribes. The submission fulfills the Tribes' obligations under the protective regulations promulgated for Puget Sound (PS) Chinook salmon, Hood Canal summer-run (HCS) chum salmon, PS steelhead, and Southern (S) eulachon under the Endangered Species
Comments or requests for a public hearing on the applications must be received at the appropriate address or fax number (see
Written comments on the applications should be sent to the Protected Resources Division, NMFS, 1201 NE Lloyd Blvd., Suite 1100, Portland, OR 97232-1274. Comments may also be sent via fax to 503-230-5441.
Mitch Dennis, Lacey, WA (ph.: 360-753-9580), Fax: 360-753-9517, email:
The following listed species are covered in this notice:
Chinook salmon (
Steelhead (
Chum salmon (
Eulachon (
Under section 4 of the ESA, the Secretary is required to adopt such regulations as he deems necessary and advisable for the conservation of the species listed as threatened. The ESA Tribal 4(d) rule (70 FR 37160; June 28, 2005) states that the ESA section 9 take prohibitions do not apply to Tribal Plans that will not appreciably reduce the likelihood of survival and recovery for the listed species.
The NWIFC—through the BIA and on behalf of the Northwest Indian Tribes—has submitted a Tribal Plan for scientific research and assessment activities within the range of the PS Chinook salmon, HCS chum salmon, PS steelhead, and S eulachon. The Northwest Indian Tribes conduct, independently and in cooperation with other agencies, a variety of research and assessment projects. These projects provide the technical basis for managing fisheries and conserving and restoring salmon stocks and their habitat. The need for an improved understanding of salmonid survival in the freshwater and early marine life stages drives much of the current research. The Tribal Plan includes implementation, monitoring, and evaluation procedures designed to ensure that the research is consistent with the objectives of the ESA. The research activities described in the Tribal Plan would take place over a five-year period starting in 2017.
As 50 CFR 223.209 requires, the Secretary must determine whether the Tribal Plan would appreciably reduce the likelihood of survival and recovery for PS Chinook salmon, HCS chum salmon, PS steelhead, and S eulachon. The Secretary must take comments on how the Tribal Plan addresses the criteria in 50 CFR 223.209 in making that determination.
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, Commerce. (NOAA)
Notice of solicitation for nominations for the National Sea Grant Advisory Board.
This notice responds to Section 209 of the Sea Grant Program Improvement Act of 1976, which requires the Secretary of Commerce to solicit nominations at least once a year for membership on the National Sea Grant Advisory Board (Board), a Federal Advisory Committee that provides advice on the implementation of the National Sea Grant College Program. The NOAA intends to fill two expected vacancies on the Board in 2017. To apply for membership to the Board, applicants should submit a current resume, via the methodology discussed in the Contact Information Section of this notice. A cover letter highlighting specific areas of expertise relevant to the purpose of the Board is helpful, but not required. NOAA is an equal opportunity employer.
Applications must be postmarked no later than March 1st 2017. Applications will be kept on file for consideration of any Board vacancy for a period of three years from the closing date of this notice.
Nominations will be accepted by email or mail. They should be sent to the attention of Ms. Mary Ann Garlic, National Sea Grant College Program, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, 1315 East-West Highway, SSMC 3, Room 11717, Silver Spring, Maryland 20910.
If you need additional assistance, please email
Established by Section 209 of the Act and as amended the National Sea Grant College Program Amendments Act of 2008 (Pub. L. 110-394), the duties of the Board are as follows:
(1) In general, the Board shall advise the Secretary and the Director concerning:
(A) Strategies for utilizing the Sea Grant College Program to address the Nation's highest priorities regarding the understanding, assessment, development, management, utilization, and conservation of ocean, coastal, and Great Lakes resources;
(B) The designation of Sea Grant Colleges and Sea Grant Institutes; and
(C) Such other matters as the Secretary refer to the Board for review and advice.
(2) Biennial Report. The Board shall report to the Congress every two years on the state of the National Sea Grant College Program. The Board shall indicate in each such report the progress made toward meeting the priorities identified in the strategic plan in effect under section 204(c). The Secretary shall make available to the Board such information, personnel, and administrative services and assistance as it may reasonably require carrying out its duties under this title.
The Board shall consist of 15 voting members who shall be appointed by the Secretary for a 4-year term, renewable for a 2nd 4-year term at the discretion of the Secretary. The Director and a director of a Sea Grant program who is elected by the various directors of Sea Grant programs shall serve as nonvoting members of the Board. Not less than 8 of the voting members of the Board shall be individuals who, by reason of knowledge, experience, or training, are especially qualified in one or more of
(a) Security Clearance (on-line Background Security Check process and fingerprinting), and other applicable forms, both conducted through NOAA Workforce Management; and (b) Confidential Financial Disclosure Report. As an SGE, you are required to file a Confidential Financial Disclosure Report annually to avoid involvement in a real or apparent conflict of interest. You may find the Confidential Financial Disclosure Report at the following Web site.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meeting.
The North Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) and its advisory committees will meet in Seattle, WA.
The meetings will be held January 30, 2017 through February 7, 2017. See
The meeting will be held at the Renaissance Hotel, 515 Madison St., Seattle, WA 98104.
David Witherell, Council staff; telephone: (907) 271-2809.
The Council will begin its plenary session at 8 a.m. in the South Room on Wednesday, February 1, continuing through Tuesday, February 7, 2017. The Scientific and Statistical Committee (SSC) will begin at 8 a.m. in the East Room on Monday, January 30, and continue through Wednesday, February 1, 2017. The Council's Advisory Panel (AP) will begin at 8 a.m. in the North/West Room on Tuesday, January 31, and continue through Saturday, February 4, 2017. The IFQ Committee will meet on Monday, January 30, 2017 at 12 p.m. in the Marion Room. The Ecosystem Committee will meet on Tuesday, January 31, 2017, from 8 a.m. to 12 p.m. in the Marion Room.
The Advisory Panel will address most of the same agenda issues as the Council except B reports.
The SSC agenda will include the following issues:
In addition to providing ongoing scientific advice for fishery management decisions, the SSC functions as the Councils primary peer review panel for scientific information as described by the Magnuson-Stevens Act section 302(g)(1)(e), and the National Standard 2 guidelines (78 FR 43066). The peer review process is also deemed to satisfy the requirements of the Information Quality Act, including the OMB Peer Review Bulletin guidelines.
The Agenda is subject to change, and the latest version will be posted at
These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Shannon Gleason at (907) 271-2809 at least 7 working days prior to the meeting date.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; issuance of permit.
Notice is hereby given that the NMFS Northeast Fisheries Science Center (NEFSC), 166 Water Street, Woods Hole, MA 02543 [Responsible Party: Jon Hare, Ph.D.], has been issued a permit to take Atlantic sturgeon (
The permit and related documents are available for review upon written request or by appointment in the Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, 1315 East-West Highway, Room 13705, Silver Spring, MD 20910; phone (301) 427-8401; fax (301) 713-0376.
Malcolm Mohead or Amy Hapeman, (301) 427-8401.
On January 15, 2016, notice was published in the
Permit No. 17255 authorizes the NEFSC to conduct research on Atlantic sturgeon and sea turtles in Northwest Atlantic waters from Massachusetts to Florida, testing and evaluating gear modifications used within commercial fisheries in efforts to minimize or prevent future interactions with sea turtles and Atlantic sturgeon. Researchers may capture, measure, weigh, tag, genetic tissue sample, and photograph animals prior to release. The permit is valid for five years from the date of issuance.
Issuance of this permit, as required by the ESA, was based on a finding that such permit (1) was applied for in good faith, (2) will not operate to the disadvantage of such endangered or threatened species, and (3) is consistent with the purposes and policies set forth in section 2 of the ESA.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) is scheduling a public meeting of its Habitat Advisory Panel to consider actions affecting New England fisheries in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ). Recommendations from this group will be brought to the full Council for formal consideration and action, if appropriate.
This meeting will be held on Monday, January 30, 2017 at 9:30 a.m.
The meeting will be held at the Four Points by Sheraton, 1 Audubon Road, Wakefield, MA 01880; phone: (781) 245-9300.
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492.
The advisory panel will review the alternatives and analyses in the Council's Deep-Sea Coral Amendment and provide feedback. They will specifically review (1) Management alternatives: Are the alternatives clearly specified,
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, at (978) 465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The Law Enforcement Committee of the Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council (Council) will hold a meeting.
The meeting will be held on Tuesday, February 7, beginning at 2
The meeting will be held via webinar with a telephone-only connection option.
Christopher M. Moore, Ph.D., Executive Director, Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council, telephone: (302) 526-5255.
The purpose of the meeting is to review and comment on the NOAA Fisheries 2017 Enforcement Priorities.
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency.
The meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aid should be directed to M. Jan Saunders, (302) 526-5251, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of availability.
NMFS, in an effort to increase preparedness for wildlife response under the Oil Pollution Act of 1990, has drafted guidelines for marine mammal response in northern Alaska entitled “Arctic Marine Mammal Disaster Response Guidelines.” NMFS invites the public to comment on and/or provide additional information for NMFS to consider in finalizing the guidelines.
Comments must be submitted on or before March 13, 2017.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2016-0143, by any one of the following methods;
•
•
Electronic copies of the Draft Arctic Marine Mammal Disaster Response Guidelines and associated Appendices may be obtained from
Sadie Wright, (907) 586-7630 or
Marine mammal oil spill response and preparedness in Arctic Alaska presents many challenges including large populations of marine mammals, remote conditions, and lack of infrastructure, equipment, and trained personnel. Additionally, marine mammals are important subsistence and cultural resources for Alaska Native coastal communities, and response efforts must be cooperative with and sensitive to local communities. NMFS developed the Arctic Marine Mammal Disaster Response Guidelines (Guidelines) for the Bering Strait, Northwest Alaska, and the North Slope of Alaska through stakeholder engagement to develop regionally specific and culturally sensitive response strategies.
NMFS sought input on communication and response protocols for carcass collection, de-oiling, tissue sampling, necropsies, and subsistence food issues through meetings with local leaders in Nome, Kotzebue, Wainwright, and Barrow, and teleconferences and email correspondence with outlying communities. These stakeholder meetings resulted in three key recommendations for the Guidelines: (1) Include a communication structure that is locally based and efficient, (2) prioritize public health and food safety, and (3) address the lack of infrastructure, equipment, and trained personnel for response efforts.
These recommendations are addressed by the Guidelines in the following ways:
(1) The local stranding agreement holder or community-appointed organization(s) is the local lead, and communication protocols outline cooperative approaches between stakeholders;
(2) All response protocols are congruent with food safety testing, and the Alaska state public health representative is part of the communication loop; and
(3) Caches of equipment should be developed and stored in hub communities with smaller caches in outlying villages, to include modular and adaptive infrastructure for response activities.
Finally, the Guidelines recommend that trainings be developed for village residents that can be deployed remotely.
The draft Guidelines focus on Arctic marine mammal species under NMFS jurisdiction (principally whales and ice-associated seals), and different approaches may be appropriate for walrus and polar bears, which are managed by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service. Any response to marine mammals per these Guidelines should occur in coordination with NMFS through the Incident Command Structure, if put in place for an oil spill or other major incident.
Comments are invited on any aspect of the draft Guidelines. We are particularly interested in maintaining an efficient communication strategy for marine mammal disaster response in the Arctic, and seek suggestions to ensure the Guidelines provide that framework. In addition, NMFS appreciates specific suggestions on how to improve the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of SEDAR 50 Post-Data Workshop Webinar.
The SEDAR 50 assessment of the Atlantic stock of
The SEDAR 50 Post-Data Workshop Webinar will be held on Thursday, February 2, 2017, from 1 p.m. to 5 p.m.
Julia Byrd, SEDAR Coordinator, 4055 Faber Place Drive, Suite 201, North Charleston, SC 29405; phone (843) 571-4366; email:
The Gulf of Mexico, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils, in conjunction with NOAA Fisheries and the Atlantic and Gulf States Marine Fisheries Commissions, have implemented the Southeast Data, Assessment and Review (SEDAR) process, a multi-step method for determining the status of fish stocks in the Southeast Region. SEDAR is a three-step process including: (1) Data Workshop; (2) Assessment Process utilizing webinars; and (3) Review Workshop. The product of the Data Workshop is a data report which compiles and evaluates potential datasets and recommends which datasets are appropriate for assessment analyses. The product of the Assessment Process is a stock assessment report which describes the fisheries, evaluates the status of the stock, estimates biological benchmarks, projects future population conditions, and recommends research and monitoring needs. The assessment is independently peer reviewed at the Review Workshop. The product of the Review Workshop is a Summary documenting panel opinions regarding the strengths and weaknesses of the stock assessment and input data. Participants for SEDAR Workshops are appointed by the Gulf of Mexico, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils and NOAA Fisheries Southeast Regional Office, Highly Migratory Species Management Division, and Southeast Fisheries Science Center. Participants include: Data collectors and database managers; stock assessment scientists, biologists, and researchers; constituency representatives including fishermen, environmentalists, and non-governmental organizations (NGOs); international experts; and staff of Councils, Commissions, and state and federal agencies.
The items of discussion at the Pre-Data Workshop webinar are as follows:
Participants will finalize data recommendations from the Data Workshop and provide early modeling advice.
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.
This meeting is accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for auxiliary aids should be directed to the SAFMC office (see
The times and sequence specified in this agenda are subject to change.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Telecommunications and Information Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice; information collection.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on this proposed information collection, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)).
Written comments must be submitted on or before March 13, 2017.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, (202) 482-0336, Department of Commerce, Room 6612, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via email at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Bruce M. Washington at
The National Telecommunications and Information Administration (NTIA) hosts a web-based system that collects specific identification information (
NTIA collects the data by means of an Internet-based system. The system provides real-time responses for an applicant to obtain either: (1) A validation of the coordination of a single frequency, or (2) a notification of the unavailability of a frequency at one site which will require further coordination by the FCC and NTIA.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have a practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
Department of the Army, DoD.
Notice.
The comment period for the Intent to Grant an Exclusive License of U.S. Government-Owned Patents published in the
Mr. Barry Datlof, Office of Research & Technology Assessment, (301) 619-0033. For patent issues, Ms. Elizabeth Arwine, Patent Attorney, (301) 619-7808, both at telefax (301) 619-5034.
Bureau of Reclamation (Reclamation), Department of the Navy (DoN).
Record of Decision.
The Department of the Navy (DoN), after carefully considering the environmental consequences of the proposed action, announces its decision to implement a project for the conjunctive use of surface water and groundwater within the Lower Santa Margarita River (SMR) Basin. The DoN has selected the preferred alternative as identified in the 2016 Final Environmental Impact Statement (EIS)/Environmental Impact Report (EIR). This alternative consists of construction and operation of new facilities for adaptive management of surface water and groundwater resources that would be achieved through the enhanced diversion of SMR surface waters to groundwater recharge ponds and the active use of groundwater aquifers for water storage. The proposed action would resolve the water rights disputes between the United States (on behalf of the Marine Corps) and Fallbrook Public Utility District (FPUD) and satisfy the United States District Court for the Southern District of California order to find a “physical solution” to the ongoing litigation in
This ROD documents why the DoN has chosen to implement the preferred alternative as described in the 2016 Final EIS/EIR. The ROD includes descriptions and discussions of the anticipated environmental impacts of the proposed action as well as all practical means to avoid or minimize environmental impacts from the selected alternative. It also includes descriptions and discussions of all related actions and their anticipated impacts.
SMR CUP EIS Project Manager, Commanding General, Marine Corps Installations West-Marine Corps Base Camp Pendleton, CA 92055-5010, Attn: Environmental Security, 760-725-1721.
Pursuant to Section 102(2)(c) of the NEPA of
In addition to NEPA and other environmental laws, the DoN considered applicable executive orders (EO), including the requirements of EO 12898, Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low Income Populations; EO 13045, Environmental Health Risk and Safety Risks to Children; EO 11990, Protection of Wetlands; and EO 11988, Floodplain Management.
MCB Camp Pendleton and FPUD entered into a Memorandum of Understanding in 2001 agreeing to jointly participate in the project in good faith and with full cooperation. MCB Camp Pendleton, Reclamation, and FPUD signed a Conceptual Points of Agreement in January 2011.
The range of issues analyzed in the EIS/EIR was determined from the initial DoN, Reclamation, and FPUD evaluation of the action alternatives, as well as, comments received during the public scoping process and written and verbal comments received during the 2010 public review period for the California State Water Resources Control Board water right permit extension petitions.
A Notice of Availability/Notice of Completion for the Draft EIS/EIR was published in the
The Final EIS/EIR was published in the
This alternative would include diversion system upgrades, groundwater recharge, and groundwater production. Raw groundwater would be pumped from the aquifer and conveyed to the Haybarn Canyon area on MCB Camp Pendleton. The water delivered to Haybarn Canyon would then be diverted to either MCB Camp Pendleton's existing Haybarn Canyon Advanced Water Treatment Plant (AWTP), or to a new FPUD water treatment plant (WTP) via a new bi-directional pipeline. The bi-directional pipeline between FPUD and MCB Camp Pendleton would also allow imported water to be delivered from FPUD to MCB Camp Pendleton during drier than normal periods when local groundwater is insufficient to meet demands or during emergency conditions.
Replacement of Existing Sheet Pile Diversion with Inflatable Weir Diversion Structure. The existing sheet pile diversion structure on the SMR (within MCB Camp Pendleton) would be replaced with an inflatable weir diversion structure. The inflatable weir diversion structure would extend for up to one foot (ft) (0.3 meter [m]) higher than the existing diversion structure to allow for the proposed increase in the amount of water to be diverted from the SMR into O'Neill Ditch from the current 60 cubic feet per second (cfs) to a maximum of 200 cfs. Water diverted from the SMR would flow to the aquifer recharge ponds, be stored in Lake O'Neill, or bypassed back to the SMR.
The inflatable weir gates would be operated based on the operation plan outlined in the AMP/FOP guidelines and procedures as described below. During large streamflow events (
Improvements to O'Neill Ditch and Headgate. The headgate (
Improvements to Recharge Ponds 1-7. The overall performance of the existing MCB Camp Pendleton Recharge Ponds 1-7 is currently reduced by operational inefficiencies related to lack of water level control and the inability to measure flow between ponds. Proposed improvements to Recharge Ponds 1-7 include redesigning the culverts and weirs that transfer water from one pond to the next. Operation of the recharge ponds would be based on the AMP/FOP guidelines and procedures as described below.
Groundwater Production Wells and Associated Collection System Infrastructure. The existing groundwater production wells operated and maintained by MCI West-MCB Camp Pendleton would be augmented by the installation of four new groundwater production wells in the Upper Ysidora and Chappo sub-basins, along with appurtenant collection pipelines, power lines, and access roads. Operation of existing and new production wells would be based on AMP/FOP guidelines and procedures as described below. The pumping schedule would be designed to optimize groundwater levels during the winter to create storage in the aquifer, capture wintertime flow events, and
Water Conveyance/Distribution, including Bi-Directional Pipeline from MCB Camp Pendleton to a new FPUD Water Treatment Plant. Raw groundwater would be pumped from the aquifer and conveyed to the Haybarn Canyon area on MCB Camp Pendleton. The water delivered to Haybarn Canyon would then be diverted to either MCB Camp Pendleton's existing Haybarn Canyon AWTP, or to the new FPUD WTP via a new bi-directional pipeline. The bi-directional pipeline between FPUD and MCB Camp Pendleton would also allow imported water to be delivered from FPUD to MCB Camp Pendleton during drier than normal periods when local groundwater is insufficient to meet demands or during emergency conditions.
MCB Camp Pendleton would continue to process water for its own use at the existing Haybarn Canyon AWTP and FPUD would treat its portion of the project water at a new FPUD WTP (see detailed description below). Raw groundwater delivered to FPUD would average 3,100 acre-feet per year (afy) and would not exceed 800 acre-feet (af) in any given month.
However, total volumes of raw water deliveries to FPUD would vary annually dependent upon multiple factors including, but not limited to, precipitation, river surface flows, surface diversions, and environmental considerations.
FPUD WTP. A new FPUD WTP would be constructed on FPUD property adjacent to the existing FPUD WTP. The new FPUD WTP would be designed to provide potable water and would include an iron and manganese removal and demineralization facility. The new FPUD WTP would have the capacity to treat a maximum of 800 af per month, equivalent to up to 8.4 million gallons per day, although it would remain subject to the maximum 3,100 afy raw water processing limit.
Brine from the FPUD WTP would be discharged to the Pacific Ocean via FPUD's pipeline connection to the City of Oceanside Ocean Outfall (Ocean Outfall). FPUD's existing National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) Permit (CA0108031) would be amended to allow for the inclusion of the additional brine from the project.
Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) System. Operation of a SCADA system, as included in the project, would be overseen and managed by the MCI West-MCB Camp Pendleton Facilities Maintenance Division. The spillway gates on the inflatable weir diversion structure, turnouts to the recharge ponds and Lake O'Neill, production and monitoring wells, flow measurement, and pumping plants would be designed for remote operation and/or data acquisition using the SCADA system.
Open Space Management Zone (OSMZ). A legal framework would be established by FPUD to permanently preserve 1,392 acres (563 hectares) of riparian open-space land in the City of Fallbrook that was acquired by FPUD in 1958 for water supply development purposes. Under Alternative 1, all or most of the OSMZ would be placed in conservation management to preserve open space and riparian values that currently exist on the site. Conservation approaches currently being considered by FPUD include, but are not limited to: (1) purchase and management of the OSMZ by Reclamation, MCI West-MCB Camp Pendleton, or another agency or conservation related organization; (2) continued ownership of the property by FPUD subject to a conservation easement purchased by a third party that restricts future development; or (3) management of the property as a mitigation bank by FPUD or its designee.
Adaptive Management Plan/Facilities Operation Plan (AMP/FOP). As part of the project, an AMP/FOP would be developed by MCI West-MCB Camp Pendleton to manage project diversion, recharge, production, and delivery facilities. The AMP/FOP would allow for diversions, recharge, production, and delivery to vary based on hydrologic conditions, with greater amounts of water diverted, recharged, produced, and delivered during wet years and less during drier years. The AMP/FOP would rely on near real-time and historical environmental and hydrologic data from existing and proposed gauges to determine project operations and meet delivery requirements balanced with environmental constraints. Actual field data gathered during project operations would be processed using a numerical groundwater model to determine future locations and rates of pumping that would protect environmental concerns while meeting project proponents' water requirements. The pumping schedules and proposed operations would then be published annually in a FOP that would describe how and when the inflatable weir, headgate, turnout gates, and wells are operated on a seasonal and monthly basis. The use of the AMP/FOP and its ability to rely on an alternative water supply (
Alternative 2 is similar to Alternative 1 in terms of diversion system upgrades, groundwater recharge, and groundwater production. Alternative 2 includes the following components described under Alternative 1 (see Alternative 1 description for details on each of the following components):
• Replacement of Existing Sheet Pile Diversion with Inflatable Weir Diversion Structure,
• Improvements to O'Neill Ditch and Headgate,
• Improvements to Recharge Ponds 1-7,
• Groundwater Production Wells and Associated Collection System Infrastructure,
• Bi-directional Pipeline,
• The OSMZ, and
• The SCADA system.
Alternative 2 differs from Alternative 1 in that a new surface water treatment facility located adjacent to the MCB Camp Pendleton Haybarn Canyon AWTP would treat surface water diverted from four new gallery wells installed between the recharge ponds and SMR. Treated water would be delivered to the MCB Camp Pendleton potable water distribution system and to FPUD via a bi-directional pipeline as previously discussed. The project components specific to Alternative 2 are discussed below.
Expand Haybarn Canyon AWTP and Add a Surface Water Treatment Facility at MCB Camp Pendleton. Groundwater from MCB Camp Pendleton's existing wells and SMR CUP's four new production wells would be treated at an expanded Haybarn Canyon AWTP. The expansion of MCB Camp Pendleton's existing Haybarn Canyon AWTP would occur to handle the increased Alternative 2 flow volumes. The existing Haybarn Canyon AWTP's groundwater water quality treatment goals would continue to be met under this expansion. The gallery wells would produce surface water that would be treated at the proposed new surface water treatment facility located adjacent to the existing Haybarn Canyon AWTP. The treated surface water would then be blended with the treated groundwater and distributed to MCB Camp Pendleton and FPUD.
Under Alternative 2, an additional average daily brine discharge of 3.5 cfs would be produced and discharged to the Pacific Ocean via the existing Ocean Outfall. The additional brine would be conveyed to the Ocean Outfall via the existing brine discharge pipeline constructed for MCB Camp Pendleton's Haybarn AWTP, which is connected to the Ocean Outfall via the Haybarn Canyon AWTP's connection to the Ocean Outfall Pump Station. The brine discharge would be covered under either an amendment to FPUD's existing NPDES Permit (CA0108031) to the Ocean Outfall or an amendment to MCI West-MCB Camp Pendleton NPDES Permit (CA0109347).
Gallery Wells and Associated Collection System Infrastructure. Four gallery wells would be installed adjacent to the SMR along the west side of the recharge ponds at MCB Camp Pendleton. Operation of the gallery wells would be based on AMP/FOP guidelines and procedures as described under Alternative 2 in the Final EIS/EIR.
Water Conveyance/Distribution System, including Bi-Directional Pipeline. As previously discussed, a bi-directional water conveyance pipeline would be installed between the Haybarn Canyon AWTP and FPUD's WTP. The new pipeline would have two main turnouts to provide treated water directly MCB Camp Pendleton and FPUD users. As noted in Alternative 1, the bi-directional pipeline would also allow water to be delivered to MCB Camp Pendleton during drier than normal periods when groundwater is insufficient to meet demands or emergency situations.
Under the No-Action Alternative, the water rights are not perfected, and other water development projects upstream of MCB Camp Pendleton could occur that would result in a reduction of water supply available to MCB Camp Pendleton to meet its existing and future water demands. Without implementation of a “physical solution,” the ongoing
Existing and future water demands on MCB Camp Pendleton would be met through the use of existing facilities or from the development of more expensive alternative water supplies, such as ocean desalination or construction of a new pipeline to an off-base water purveyor and purchase of imported water. Without access to an alternative water supply through the bi-directional pipeline, groundwater level declines during extended drought periods could not be mitigated nor could MCB Camp Pendleton water demands be met during drier than normal periods or emergency conditions.
Under the No-Action Alternative, FPUD has no direct water supply benefit from the OSMZ property and no remaining justification for maintaining this property as open space. Without implementation of the SMR CUP, the OSMZ is eligible to revert to the original landowners and be developed, in which case there could be adverse impacts on wildlife, water quality, aesthetics, and other environmental values at the site and downstream. Under this alternative, the potential development of water resources by landowners could result in a reduction of available water supply to MCB Camp Pendleton and FPUD.
Although the No-Action Alternative would not meet the purpose and need for the proposed action, it is included to serve as the baseline against which impacts of the alternatives can be compared.
The Final EIS/EIR identifies Alternative 1 as the Preferred Alternative. The Preferred Alternative best meets the purpose and need; has environmental impacts less than or comparable to the other action alternative (making Alternative 1 the Environmentally Preferable Alternative); and provides the most operational efficiency, construction flexibility, and cost-effectiveness of the action alternatives.
Significant impacts to geological resources would not occur due to project design, implementation of SCMs, and implementation of the AMP/FOP.
Significant impacts to water resources would not occur due to the implementation of the following mitigation measures. The AMP/FOP would include the maintenance of groundwater levels within historical range constraints; groundwater levels would be monitored by a series of telemetered groundwater monitoring wells; and pumping would be reduced or shut off if the groundwater level drops to within historic levels and remains reduced or discontinued until the average monthly groundwater levels recover to above historic levels.
Significant impacts to biological resources would not occur due to the implementation of the following mitigation measures. MCB Camp Pendleton will implement the AMP/FOP and adhere to the terms and conditions of the United States Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS) and National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration/National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) Biological Opinions (BOs) for Federal threatened and endangered species and state special status species, including least Bell's vireo, southwestern willow flycatcher, arroyo toad, and southern California steelhead.
Significant impacts to cultural resources would not occur, because adverse impacts to cultural resources within the Area of Potential Effect will be avoided through construction design.
Significant impacts to air quality would not occur due to project design, implementation of SCMs, and implementation of the AMP/FOP.
Significant impacts would not occur due to hazardous materials and waste, which would be managed during construction and operation in accordance with applicable Federal and state regulations. The proposed new wells have been sited so that
Significant impacts to existing utilities would not occur due to project design, implementation of SCMs, and implementation of the AMP/FOP.
Unavoidable impacts to jurisdictional wetlands and other waters of the United States may require mitigation. The development of a mitigation and monitoring plan is a requirement of Clean Water Act Sections 401 and 404 permit applications for activities that would discharge dredge or fill materials into Waters of the United States. This plan will include details regarding site appropriateness, preparation (
MCI West-MCB Camp Pendleton submitted a Biological Assessment to the USFWS on September 15, 2015, and received a Final BO on August 15, 2016, concluding that the proposed action is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of Federal threatened and endangered species and state special status species within the project area, including least Bell's vireo, southwestern willow flycatcher, and arroyo toad.
MCI West-MCB Camp Pendleton submitted a Biological Assessment to NMFS on February 10, 2014, and received a Final BO on September 28, 2016, concluding that the proposed action is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of the southern California steelhead.
MCI West-MCB Camp Pendleton submitted a consultation letter to the SHPO on March 19, 2012, requesting concurrence on the Finding of Effect for the proposed action, and received concurrence on September 19, 2013. MCI West-MCB Camp Pendleton consulted with the following Native American Tribes: La Jolla Band of Mission Indians; Pauma Band of Mission Indians; Pechanga Band of Luiseno Mission Indians; Rincon Band of Luiseno Indians; Pala Band of Mission Indians, Soboba Band of Luiseno Indians; San Luis Rey Band of Luiseno Indians; Juaneno Band of Mission Indians-Acjachemen Nation (Belardes); Juaneno Band of Mission Indians-Acjachemen Nation (Rivera/Romero); and Juaneno Band of Mission Indians-Acjachemen Nation (Reyes). The Rincon Band of Luiseno Indians requested to be kept informed on all updates for the project. The Pala Band of Mission Indians concurred with the methods for determining eligibility and treatment of historic properties and asked to be consulted if any new information or conclusions are reached.
MCI West-MCB Camp Pendleton has submitted a Section 401 water quality certification application to the San Diego RWQCB and a 404 individual permit application to the USACE for the Preferred Alternative. To the maximum extent practicable, MCI West-MCB Camp Pendleton will avoid and minimize impacts to waters of the United States and will implement pre- and post-construction BMPs for sediment and erosion control. The proposed action will also comply with the MCI West-MCB Camp Pendleton Integrated Natural Resources Management Plan.
35 U.S.C. 207; 37 CFR part 404.
Department of the Navy, DoD.
Notice of Partially Closed Meeting.
The U.S. Naval Academy Board of Visitors will meet to make such inquiry, as the Board shall deem necessary, into the state of morale and discipline, the curriculum, instruction, physical equipment, fiscal affairs, and
The open session of the meeting will be held on March 27, 2017, from 9:00 a.m. to 11:00 a.m. The executive session held from 11:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. will be the closed portion of the meeting.
The meeting will be held at the U.S. Naval Academy, Annapolis, MD. The meeting will be handicap accessible.
Lieutenant Commander Eric Madonia, USN, Executive Secretary to the Board of Visitors, Office of the Superintendent, U.S. Naval Academy, Annapolis, MD 21402-5000, 410-293-1503.
This notice of meeting is provided per the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.). The executive session of the meeting from 11:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. on March 27, 2017, will consist of discussions of new and pending administrative/minor disciplinary infractions and non-judicial punishments involving midshipmen attending the Naval Academy to include but not limited to, individual honor/conduct violations within the Brigade. The discussion of such information cannot be adequately segregated from other topics, which precludes opening the executive session of this meeting to the public. Accordingly, the Department of the Navy/Assistant for Administration has determined in writing that the meeting shall be partially closed to the public because the discussions during the executive session from 11:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. will be concerned with matters protected under sections 552b(c) (5), (6), and (7) of title 5, United States Code.
National Energy Technology Laboratory, Department of Energy.
Notice of intent to grant an exclusive license.
This notice is issued in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209(c)(1) and 37 CFR 404.7(a)(1)(i). The National Energy Technology Laboratory (NETL) hereby gives notice that the Department of Energy (DOE) intends to grant an exclusive license to practice the invention described and claimed in U.S. Patent Application Number 14/619,501, “Variable Grid Method for Simultaneously Visualizing Uncertainty and Attribute Trends Associated with Spatial Data” to VariGrid Explorations, LLC, a small business, having its principal place of business in Missouri City, Texas. The patent application is owned by the United States of America, as represented by DOE. The prospective exclusive license complies with the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR 404.7.
Written comments, objections, or nonexclusive license applications must be received at the address listed below no later than fifteen (15) days after the date of this published Notice. Objections submitted in response to this notice will not be made available to the public for inspection and, to the extent permitted by law, will not be released under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552.
Comments, applications for nonexclusive licenses, or objections relating to the prospective exclusive license should be submitted to Jessica Sosenko, Technology Transfer Program Manager, U.S. Department of Energy, National Energy Technology Laboratory, P.O. Box 10940, Pittsburgh, PA 15236-0940 or via facsimile to (412) 386-4183.
Jessica Sosenko, Technology Transfer Program Manager, U.S. Department of Energy, National Energy Technology Laboratory, P.O. Box 10940, Pittsburgh, PA 15236; Telephone (412) 386-7417; Email:
Section 209(c) of title 35 of the United States Code gives DOE the authority to grant exclusive or partially exclusive licenses in Department-owned inventions where a determination is made that, among other things, the desired practical application of the invention has not been achieved, or is not likely to be achieved expeditiously, under a nonexclusive license. The statute and implementing regulations (37 CFR 404) require that the necessary determinations be made after public notice and opportunity for filing written comments and objections.
VariGrid Explorations, Inc., a small business, has applied for an exclusive license to practice the invention and has a plan for commercialization of the invention. DOE intends to grant the license, upon a final determination in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209(c), unless within 15 days of publication of this notice, NETL's Technology Transfer Manager (contact information listed above), receives in writing any of the following, together with supporting documents:
(i) A statement from any person setting forth reasons why it would not be in the best interest of the United States to grant the proposed license; or
(ii) An application for a nonexclusive license to the invention, in which the applicant states that it already has brought the invention to practical application or is likely to bring the invention to practical application expeditiously.
The proposed license would be exclusive, subject to a license and other rights retained by the United States, and subject to a negotiated royalty. DOE will review all timely written responses to this notice, and will grant the license if, after expiration of the 15-day notice period, and after consideration of any written responses to this notice, a determination is made in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209(c) that the license is in the public interest.
Take notice that on December 23, 2016 Northern Natural Gas Company (Northern Natural), 1111 South 103rd Street, Omaha, Nebraska 68124 filed a prior notice request pursuant to sections 157.205 and 157.213(b) of the Commission's regulations under the Natural Gas Act for authorization to
Any questions regarding this Application should be directed to Michael T. Loeffler, Senior Director, Certificates and External Affairs for Northern, 1111 South 103rd Street, Omaha, Nebraska 68124, by calling (402) 398-7278, or by fax (402) 398-7592, or by email at
Any person may, within 60 days after the issuance of the instant notice by the Commission, file pursuant to Rule 214 of the Commission's Procedural Rules (18 CFR 385.214) a motion to intervene or notice of intervention. Any person filing to intervene or the Commission's staff may, pursuant to section 157.205 of the Commission's Regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.205) file a protest to the request. If no protest is filed within the time allowed therefore, the proposed activity shall be deemed to be authorized effective the day after the time allowed for protest. If a protest is filed and not withdrawn within 30 days after the time allowed for filing a protest, the instant request shall be treated as an application for authorization pursuant to section 7 of the NGA.
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commenter's will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with he Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commenter's will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commentary, will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests, and interventions via the internet in lieu of paper. See 18 CFR 385.2001(a)(1)(iii) and the instructions on the Commission's Web site (
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
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The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene, protests, comments, or recommendations using the Commission's eFiling system at
The Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person whose name appears on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.
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m. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.
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Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Description: Market-Based Triennial Review Filing: Northwest Triennial to be effective 12/31/2016.
Description: § 205(d) Rate Filing: Revisions to OATT Sch 12-Appdx and Appdx A for 2017 RTEP Annual Cost Allocations to be effective 1/1/2017.
Description: § 205(d) Rate Filing: 2016-12-30 Amdt 1 to CAISO and BANC Dynamic Transfer Balancing Authority Agmt to be effective 3/1/2017.
Description: § 205(d) Rate Filing: Revisions to Transmission Revenue Requirement to be effective 3/1/2017.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) hereby gives notice that members of the Commission's staff may attend the following meetings related to the transmission planning activities of the New York Independent System Operator, Inc. (NYISO):
The above-referenced meeting will be via web conference and teleconference.
The above-referenced meeting is open to stakeholders.
Further information may be found at:
The above-referenced meeting will be via web conference and teleconference.
The above-referenced meeting is open to stakeholders.
Further information may be found at:
The above-referenced meeting will be via web conference and teleconference.
The above-referenced meeting is open to stakeholders.
Further information may be found at:
The above-referenced meeting will be via web conference and teleconference.
The above-referenced meeting is open to stakeholders.
Further information may be found at:
The above-referenced meeting will be via web conference and teleconference.
The above-referenced meeting is open to stakeholders.
Further information may be found at:
The discussions at the meetings described above may address matters at issue in the following proceedings:
For more information, contact James Eason, Office of Energy Market Regulation, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission at (202) 502-8622 or
On December 30, 2016, Mountain Regional Water Special Services District filed a notice of intent to construct a qualifying conduit hydropower facility, pursuant to section 30 of the Federal Power Act (FPA), as amended by section 4 of the Hydropower Regulatory Efficiency Act of 2013 (HREA). The proposed Silver Creek Hydro Energy Recovery Facility Project would have a maximum installed capacity of 200 kilowatts (kW) and would be located on Signal Hill Water Treatment Plant's proposed 14-inch-diameter water transmission pipe, in an existing pump station. The project would be located in Park City, in Summit County, Utah.
A qualifying conduit hydropower facility is one that is determined or deemed to meet all of the criteria shown in the table below.
The deadline for filing motions to intervene is 30 days from the issuance date of this notice.
Anyone may submit comments or a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.210 and 385.214. Any motions to intervene must be received on or before the specified deadline date for the particular proceeding.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene and comments using the Commission's eFiling system at
Take notice that on December 30, 2016, pursuant to section 210(h)(2)(B) of the Public Utility Regulatory Policies Act of 1978 (PURPA),
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. On or before the comment date, it is not necessary to serve motions to intervene or protests on persons other than the Petitioners.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
On December 16, 2016, Western Refining Pipeline Company (Western) filed a Request to Amend previously granted waiver of Interstate Commerce Act tariff and reporting requirements and Commission's related implementing regulations.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest in this proceeding must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and § 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant. In reference to filings initiating a new proceeding, interventions or protests submitted on or before the comment deadline need not be served on persons other than the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First St. NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above proceedings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of CP Bloom Wind LLC`s application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is January 25, 2017.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
The current license for Algonquin Power and Utilities Corporation's (Algonquin) Squa Pan Hydroelectric Project No. 2368 was issued on December 4, 1991, for a term of 30 years, ending December 3, 2021.
The principal project works consist of: (1) A 35-foot-high, 60-foot-long reinforced concrete dam; (2) a 45-foot-high embankment dam, consisting of a 330-foot-long northern section and a 370-foot-long southern section; (3) a 24-foot-wide, 13.5-foot-high radial gate; (4) a 5,043-acre reservoir at a normal maximum water surface elevation of 603.2 feet National Geodetic Vertical Datum of 1929; (5) a 26-foot-wide, 67-foot-long concrete powerhouse with a single 1.5-MW turbine-generator unit; and (6) a 7.6-mile-long transmission line.
The project is subject to section 15 of the Federal Power Act (FPA),
Pursuant to FPA section 15 and 18 CFR 16.9, any application for a new license for this project must be filed with the Commission at least 24 months prior to the expiration of the existing license. Because the current license expires on December 3, 2021, all applications for license for this project must be filed by December 3, 2019.
Because the existing license expires on December 3, 2021, the NOI, PAD, and any request to use alternative licensing procedures were due to be filed no later than the close of business on December 5, 2016.
Pursuant to 18 CFR 16.23(a), an existing licensee subject to section 15 of the FPA that fails to file a an NOI at least 5 years before the existing license expires shall be deemed to have filed a notice indicating that it does not intend to file an application for new license. Additionally, pursuant to 18 CFR 16.24(a), an existing licensee that informs the Commission that it does not intend to file an application, may not file an application for a new license for the project, either individually or in conjunction with an entity or entities that are not currently licensees of the project.
The Commission is not taking action on Algonquin's late-filed NOI at this time;
To the extent that Algonquin or any competing applicant elects or is required to use the Commission's ILP, a process plan will be issued within 180 days of this notice that accelerates the steps of the ILP to allow for filing a new license application by the December 3, 2019, deadline.
Questions concerning this notice should be directed to John Baummer at (202) 502-6837 or
Take notice that on December 22, 2016, Pomelo Connector, LLC (Pomelo), 1331 Lamar Street, Suite 1675, Houston, Texas 77010, filed in Docket No. CP17-26-000 an application pursuant to sections 7(b) and 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA), as amended, for authorization to: (i) Construct, own, operate, and maintain an approximately 14-mile 30-inch-diameter pipeline in Nueces County, Texas; (ii) construct a 9,000 horsepower compressor station; and (iii) abandon by lease the entire 400,000 dekatherms per day of capacity to Texas Eastern Transmission, LP. Pomelo further requests a Part 157, Subpart F blanket certificate, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection. The filing is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site web at
Any questions concerning this application may be directed to Mark Fuqua, Senior Vice President, Pomelo Connector, LLC, 1331 Lamar Street, Suite 1675, Houston, Texas 77010, by telephone at (713) 308-8117.
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's EA.
There are two ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project. First, any person wishing to obtain legal status by becoming a party to the proceedings for this project should, on or before the comment date stated below file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.214 or 385.211) and the Regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.10). A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties. A party must submit seven copies of filings made in the proceeding with the Commission and must mail a copy to the applicant and to every other party. Only parties to the proceeding can ask for court review of Commission orders in the proceeding.
However, a person does not have to intervene in order to have comments considered. The second way to participate is by filing with the Secretary of the Commission, as soon as possible, an original and two copies of comments in support of or in opposition to this project. The Commission will consider these comments in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but the filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. The Commission's rules require that persons filing comments in opposition to the project provide copies of their protests only to the party or parties directly involved in the protest.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commentors will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commentors will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commentors will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that on December 14, 2016, Enbridge Energy, Limited Partnership (Petitioner), with the support of the Canadian Association of Petroleum Producers (CAPP), submitted a Supplement to the Facilities Surcharge Settlement approved by the Commission on June 30, 2004, in Docket No. OR04-2-000 at 107 FERC ¶ 61,336 (2004).
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214 (2016)) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on Petitioner.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that during the month of December 2016, the status of the above-captioned entities as Exempt Wholesale Generators became effective by operation of the Commission's regulations. 18 CFR 366.7(a) (2017)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of approval and solicitation of requests for public hearing.
Notice is hereby given that the State of West Virginia is revising its approved Public Water System Supervision Program. West Virginia has adopted drinking water regulations for the Revised Total Coliform Rule. The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has determined that West Virginia's Revised Total Coliform Rule meets all minimum federal requirements, and that it is no less stringent than the corresponding federal regulation. Therefore, EPA has tentatively decided to approve the State program revisions.
Comments or a public hearing must be submitted by February 10, 2017. This determination shall become final and effective on February 10, 2017 if no timely and appropriate request for a hearing is received, and the Regional Administrator does not elect to hold a hearing on his own motion, and if no comments are received which cause EPA to modify its tentative approval.
Comments or a request for a public hearing must be submitted to the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region III, 1650 Arch Street, Philadelphia, PA 19103-2029. All documents relating to this determination are available for inspection between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, at the following offices:
• Drinking Water Branch, Water Protection Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency Region III, 1650 Arch Street, Philadelphia, PA 19103-2029.
• West Virginia Department of Health and Human Resources, Environmental Engineering Division, 350 Capitol Street, Room 313, Charleston, West Virginia 25301-3713.
Kelly Moran, Drinking Water Branch (3WP21) at the Philadelphia address given above, via email at
All interested parties are invited to submit written comments on this determination and may request a hearing. All comments will be considered, and if necessary EPA will issue a response. Frivolous or insubstantial requests for a hearing will be denied by the Regional Administrator. If a substantial request for a public hearing is made by February 10, 2017, a public hearing will be held. A request for public hearing shall include the following: (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the individual, organization, or other entity requesting a hearing; (2) a brief statement of the requesting person's interest in the Regional Administrator's determination and of information that the requesting person intends to submit at such hearing; and (3) the signature of the individual making the request; or, if the request is made on behalf of an organization or other entity, the signature of a responsible official of the organization or other entity.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before March 13, 2017. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
On March 3, 2011, the Commission adopted a Second Report and Order (“Second R&O”), First Order on Reconsideration, and Second Further Notice of Proposed Rule Making in MB Docket No. 09-52, FCC 11-28. The First Order on Reconsideration modified the initially adopted Tribal Priority coverage requirement, by creating an alternate coverage standard under criterion (2), enabling Tribes to qualify for the Tribal Priority even when their Tribal lands are too small or irregularly shaped to comprise 50 percent of a station's signal. In such circumstances, Tribes may claim the priority (i) if the proposed principal community contour encompasses 50 percent or more of that Tribe's Tribal lands, but does not cover more than 50 percent of the Tribal lands
The modifications to the Commission's allotment and assignment policies adopted in the Second R&O included a rebuttable “Urbanized Area service presumption” under Priority (3), whereby an application to locate or relocate a station as the first local transmission service at a community located within an Urbanized Area, that would place a daytime principal community signal over 50 percent or more of an Urbanized Area, or that could be modified to provide such coverage, will be presumed to be a proposal to serve the Urbanized Area rather than the proposed community. In the case of an AM station, the determination of whether a proposed facility “could be modified” to cover 50 percent or more of an Urbanized Area will be made based on the applicant's certification in the Section 307(b) showing that there could be no rule-compliant minor modifications to the proposal, based on the antenna configuration or site, and spectrum availability as of the filing date, that could cause the station to place a principal community contour over 50 percent or more of an Urbanized Area. To the extent the applicant wishes to rebut the Urbanized Area service presumption, the Section 307(b) showing must include a compelling showing (a) that the proposed community is truly independent from the Urbanized Area; (b) of the community's specific need for an outlet of local expression separate from the Urbanized Area; and (c) the ability of the proposed station to provide that outlet.
In the case of applicants for new AM stations making a showing under Priority (4), other public interest matters, an applicant that can demonstrate that its proposed station would provide third, fourth, or fifth reception service to at least 25 percent of the population in the proposed primary service area, where the proposed community of license has two or fewer transmission services, may receive a dispositive Section 307(b) preference under Priority (4). An applicant for a new AM station that cannot demonstrate that it would provide the third, fourth, or fifth reception service to the required population at a community with two or fewer transmission services may also, under Priority (4), calculate a “service value index” as set forth in the case of Greenup, Kentucky and Athens, Ohio, Report and Order, 2 FCC Rcd 4319 (MMB 1987). If the applicant can demonstrate a 30 percent or greater difference in service value index between its proposal and the next highest ranking proposal, it can receive a dispositive Section 307(b) preference under Priority (4). Except under these circumstances, dispositive Section 307(b) preferences will not be granted under Priority (4) to applicants for new AM stations. The Commission specifically stated that these modified allotment and assignment procedures will not apply to pending applications for new AM stations and major modifications to AM facilities filed during the 2004 AM Auction 84 filing window.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees. The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before March 13, 2017. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicole Ongele, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Nicole Ongele at (202) 418-2991.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees. The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before March 13, 2017. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communication Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before March 13, 2017. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
The
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC).
Notice and request for comment.
The FDIC, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the renewal of existing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 35). Currently, the FDIC is soliciting comment on renewal of the information collections described below.
Comments must be submitted on or before March 13, 2017.
Interested parties are invited to submit written comments to the FDIC by any of the following methods:
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Jennifer Jones, at the FDIC address above.
Proposal to renew the following currently approved collections of information:
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2.
The reporting requirements are found in §§ 351.12(e) and 351.20(d); the recordkeeping requirements are found in §§ 351.3(d)(3), 351.4(b)(3)(i)(A), 351.5(c), 351.11(a)(2), and 351.20(b)-(f); and the disclosure requirements are found in § 351.11(a)(8)(i). The recordkeeping burden for §§ 351.4(a)(2)(iii), 351.4(b)(2)(iii), 351.5(b)(1), 351.5(b)(2)(i), 351.5(b)(2)(iv), 351.13(a)(2)(i), and 351.13(a)(2)(ii)(A) is accounted for in § 351.20(b); the recordkeeping burden for Appendix B is accounted for in § 351.20(c); the reporting and recordkeeping burden for Appendix A is accounted for in § 351.20(d); and the recordkeeping burden for §§ 351.10(c)(12)(i) and 351.10(c)(12)(iii) is accounted for in § 351.20(e). The information collection requirements affecting FDIC-supervised institutions are described more fully below.
Section 351.12(e) states that, upon application by a banking entity, the Board may extend the period of time to meet the requirements on ownership limitations in this section for up to 2 additional years, if the Board finds that an extension would be consistent with safety and soundness and not detrimental to the public interest. An application for extension must (1) be submitted to the Board at least 90 days prior to expiration, (2) provide the reasons for application including information that addresses the factors in paragraph (e)(2) of § 351.12, and (3) explain the banking entity's plan for reducing the permitted investment in a covered fund through redemption, sale, dilution or other methods.
Section 351.3(d)(3) specifies that proprietary trading does not include any purchase or sale of a security by a banking entity for the purpose of liquidity management in accordance with a documented liquidity management plan of the banking entity that (1) specifically contemplates and authorizes the particular securities to be used for liquidity management purposes, the amount, types, and risks of these securities that are consistent with liquidity management, and the liquidity circumstances in which the particular securities may or must be used; (2) requires that any purchase or sale of securities contemplated and authorized by the plan be principally for the purpose of managing the liquidity of the banking entity, and not for the purpose of short-term resale, benefitting from actual or expected short-term price movements, realizing short-term arbitrage profits, or hedging a position taken for such short-term purposes; (3) requires that any securities purchased or sold for liquidity management purposes be highly liquid and limited to securities the market, credit and other risks of which the banking entity does not reasonably expect to give rise to appreciable profits or losses as a result of short-term price movements; (4) limits any securities purchased or sold for liquidity management purposes, together with any other instruments purchased or sold for such purposes, to an amount that is consistent with the banking entity's near-term funding needs, including deviations from normal operations of the banking entity or any affiliate thereof, as estimated and documented pursuant to methods specified in the plan; (5) includes written policies and procedures, internal controls, analysis and independent testing to ensure that the purchase and sale of securities that are not permitted under § 351.6(a) or (b) of this part are for the purpose of liquidity management and in accordance with the liquidity management plan described in this paragraph; and (6) is consistent with the appropriate agency's supervisory requirements, guidance and expectations regarding liquidity management.
Section 351.4(b)(3)(i)(A) provides that a trading desk or other organizational unit of another entity with more than $50 billion in trading assets and liabilities is not a client, customer, or counterparty unless the trading desk documents how and why a particular trading desk or other organizational unit of the entity should be treated as a client, customer, or counterparty of the trading desk for purposes of § 351.4(b). This modification responds to comments received on the proposal regarding the definition of client, customer, or counterparty for purposes of the market making exemption.
Section 351.11(a)(2) requires that covered funds generally must be organized and offered only in connection with the provision of bona fide trust, fiduciary, investment advisory, or commodity trading advisory services and only to persons that are customers of such services of the banking entity, pursuant to a written plan or similar documentation outlining how the banking entity intends to provide advisory or other similar services to its customers through organizing and offering the covered fund.
Section 351.20(b) specifies the contents of the compliance program for a banking entity with total consolidated assets of $10 billion or more. It includes: (1) Written policies and procedures reasonably designed to document, describe, monitor and limit trading activities, including setting and monitoring required limits set out in § 351.4 and § 351.5 and activities and investments with respect to a covered fund (including those permitted under
Section 351.20(e) specifies additional documentation required for covered funds. Any banking entity that has more than $10 billion in total consolidated assets as reported on December 31 of the previous two calendar years shall maintain records that include: (1) Documentation of the exclusions or exemptions other than sections 3(c)(1) and 3(c)(7) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 relied on by each fund sponsored by the banking entity (including all subsidiaries and affiliates) in determining that such fund is not a covered fund; (2) for each fund sponsored by the banking entity (including all subsidiaries and affiliates) for which the banking entity relies on one or more of the exclusions from the definition of covered fund provided by §§ 351.10(c)(1), 351.10(c)(5), 351.10(c)(8), 351.10(c)(9), or 351.10(c)(10) of subpart C, documentation supporting the banking entity's determination that the fund is not a covered fund pursuant to one or more of those exclusions; (3) for each seeding vehicle described in §§ 351.10(c)(12)(i) or 351.10(c)(12)(iii) of subpart C that will become a registered investment company or SEC-regulated business development company, a written plan documenting the banking entity's determination that the seeding vehicle will become a registered investment company or SEC-regulated business development company; the period of time during which the vehicle will operate as a seeding vehicle; and the banking entity's plan to market the vehicle to third-party investors and convert it into a registered investment company or SEC-regulated business development company within the time period specified in § 351.12(a)(2)(i)(B) of subpart C; and (4) for any banking entity that is, or is controlled directly or indirectly by a banking entity that is, located in or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State, if the aggregate amount of ownership interests in foreign public funds that are described in § 351.10(c)(1) of subpart C owned by such banking entity (including ownership interests owned by any affiliate that is controlled directly or indirectly by a banking entity that is located in or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State) exceeds $50 million at the end of two or more consecutive calendar quarters, beginning with the next succeeding calendar quarter, documentation of the value of the ownership interests owned by the banking entity (and such affiliates) in each foreign public fund and each jurisdiction in which any such foreign public fund is organized, calculated as of the end of each calendar quarter, which documentation must continue until the banking entity's aggregate amount of ownership interests in foreign public funds is below $50 million for two consecutive calendar quarters.
Section 351.20(f)(1) applies to banking entities with no covered activities. A banking entity that does not engage in activities or investments pursuant to subpart B or subpart C (other than trading activities permitted pursuant to § 351.6(a) of subpart B) may satisfy the requirements of this section by establishing the required compliance program prior to becoming engaged in such activities or making such investments (other than trading activities permitted pursuant to § 351.6(a) of subpart B).
Section 351.20(f)(2) applies to banking entities with modest activities. A banking entity with total consolidated assets of $10 billion or less as reported on December 31 of the previous two calendar years that engages in activities or investments pursuant to subpart B or subpart C of this part (other than trading activities permitted under section 351.6(a)) may satisfy the requirements of this section by including in its existing compliance policies and procedures appropriate references to the requirements of section 13 and this part and adjustments as appropriate given the activities, size, scope and complexity of the banking entity.
Section 351.11(a)(8)(i) requires that a banking entity must clearly and conspicuously disclose, in writing, to any prospective and actual investor in the covered fund (such as through disclosure in the covered fund's offering documents) (1) that “any losses in [such covered fund] will be borne solely by investors in [the covered fund] and not by [the banking entity]; therefore, [the banking entity's] losses in [such covered fund] will be limited to losses attributable to the ownership interests in the covered fund held by [the banking entity] in its capacity as investor in the [covered fund] or as beneficiary of a restricted profit interest held by [the banking entity]”; (2) that such investor should read the fund offering documents before investing in the covered fund; (3) that the “ownership interests in the covered fund are not insured by the FDIC, and are not deposits, obligations of, or endorsed or guaranteed in any way, by any banking entity” (unless that happens to be the case); and (4) the role of the banking entity and its affiliates and employees in sponsoring or providing any services to the covered fund.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collections of information are necessary for the proper performance of the FDIC's functions, including whether the information has practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the estimates of the burden of the information collections, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collections of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. All comments will become a matter of public record.
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC).
Notice and request for comment.
The FDIC, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the renewal of existing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501,
Comments must be submitted on or before February 10, 2017.
Interested parties are invited to submit written comments to the FDIC by any of the following methods:
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All comments should refer to the relevant OMB control number. A copy of the comments may also be submitted to the OMB desk officer for the FDIC: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503.
Jennifer Jones, at the FDIC address above.
Proposal to renew the following currently-approved collections of information:
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2.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collections of information are necessary for the proper performance of the FDIC's functions, including whether the information has practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the estimates of the burden of the collections of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collections of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. All comments will become a matter of public record.
Federal Housing Finance Agency.
30-day notice of submission of information collection for approval from Office of Management and Budget.
In accordance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA or the Agency) is seeking public comments concerning the information collection known as “Community Support Requirements,” which was assigned control number 2590-0005 by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). FHFA intends to submit the information collection to OMB for review and approval of a reinstatement of the control number, which expired on February 29, 2016, for a period of three years.
Interested persons may submit comments on or before February 10, 2017.
Submit comments to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of the Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for the Federal Housing Finance Agency, Washington, DC 20503, Fax: (202) 395-3047, Email:
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We will post all public comments we receive without change, including any personal information you provide, such as your name and address, email address, and telephone number, on the FHFA Web site at
Deattra D. Perkins, Senior Policy Analyst, Division of Housing Mission & Goals,
The Federal Home Loan Bank System consists of eleven regional Federal Home Loan Banks (Banks) and the Office of Finance (a joint office of the Banks that issues and services their debt securities). The Banks are wholesale financial institutions, organized under authority of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (Bank Act) to serve the public interest by enhancing the availability of residential housing finance and community lending credit through their member institutions and, to a limited extent, through eligible non-member “housing associates.”
Section 10(g)(1) of the Bank Act requires the Director of FHFA to promulgate regulations establishing standards of community investment or service that Bank member institutions must meet in order to maintain access to long-term advances (
Part 1290 requires that each Bank member submit to FHFA biennially a completed Community Support Statement (Form 060), which contains several short questions the answers to which are used by FHFA to assess the responding member's compliance with the community support standards.
FHFA has revised Form 060 to reflect the new streamlined procedures. These revisions reduce slightly the number of questions on the Form and modify the formatting so that members will be able to complete and submit the Form online. In substance, the revised Form 060 is materially the same as the existing Form. In part I of the Form, a member that is subject to the CRA must record its most recent CRA rating and the year of that rating. Part II of the Form addresses a member's efforts to assist first-time homebuyers. A member may either record the number and dollar amount of mortgage loans made to first-time homebuyers in the previous or current calendar year (part II.A), or indicate the types of programs or activities it has undertaken to assist first-time homebuyers by checking selections from a list (part II.B), or do both. If a member has received a CRA rating of “Outstanding,” it need not complete part II of the Form. A copy of the revised Form and related instructions appear at the end of this Notice.
Part 1290 also establishes the circumstances under which FHFA will restrict a member's access to long-term Bank advances and to Affordable Housing Program (AHP), Community Investment Program (CIP) and Community Investment Cash Advance (CICA) programs for failure to meet the community support requirements.
FHFA uses the information collection contained in FHFA Form 060 and part 1290 to determine whether Bank members satisfy the statutory and regulatory community support requirements and to ensure that, as required by statute and regulation, only Bank members that meet those requirements maintain continued access to long-term Bank advances and to AHP, CIP, and CICA programs.
FHFA has analyzed the two facets of this information collection in order to estimate the hour burdens that the collection will impose upon Bank members annually over the next three years. Based on that analysis, FHFA estimates that the total annual hour burden will be 2,287 hours. The method FHFA used to determine the annual hour burden for each facet of the information collection is explained in detail below.
FHFA estimates that, on average over the next several years, 7,000 Bank members will be required to submit completed Community Support Statements biennially. This corresponds to an annual average of 3,500 respondents. FHFA estimates that the average preparation time for each Community Support Statement will be 0.65 hours. The estimate for the total annual hour burden on Bank members in connection with the preparation and submission of Community Support Statements is 2,275 hours (3,500 Statements × 0.65 hours).
FHFA estimates that an annual average of 16 Bank members whose access to long-term advances and to AHP, CIP, and CICA programs has been restricted will submit requests to FHFA to remove those restrictions, and that the average preparation time for each request will be 0.75 hours. The estimate for the total annual hour burden on members in connection with the preparation and submission of requests to remove a restriction on access to long-term advances is 12 hours (16 requests × 0.75 hours).
In accordance with the requirements of 5 CFR 1320.8(d), FHFA published an initial notice requesting comments regarding this information collection in the
In accordance with the requirements of 5 CFR 1320.10(a), FHFA is publishing this second notice to request comments regarding the following: (1) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FHFA functions, including whether the information has practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FHFA's estimates of the burdens of the collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on members and project sponsors, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Comments should be submitted in writing to both OMB and FHFA as instructed above in the Comments section.
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, HHS.
Notice.
This notice announces the intention of the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) to request that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approve the proposed information collection project “
Comments on this notice must be received by March 13, 2017.
Written comments should be submitted to: Doris Lefkowitz, Reports Clearance Officer, AHRQ, by email at
Copies of the proposed collection plans, data collection instruments, and specific details on the estimated burden can be obtained from the AHRQ Reports Clearance Officer.
Doris Lefkowitz, AHRQ Reports Clearance Officer, (301) 427-1477, or by email at
AHRQ has developed a systematic method for its grantees and vendors to report project progress and important preliminary findings for grants and contracts funded by the Agency. This system, the AHRQ Research Reporting System (ARRS), previously known as the Grants Reporting System (GRS), was last approved by OMB on May 16, 2014. The system addressed the shortfalls in the previous reporting process and established a consistent and comprehensive grants reporting solution for AHRQ. The ARRS provides a centralized repository of grants and contract research progress and additional information that can be used to support initiatives within the Agency. This includes future research planning and support for administrative activities such as performance monitoring, budgeting, dissemination and strategic planning.
This project has the following goals:
This study is being conducted by AHRQ pursuant to AHRQ's statutory authority to conduct and support research on health care and on systems for the delivery of such care, including activities with respect to the quality, effectiveness, efficiency, appropriateness and value of health care services and with respect to quality measurement and improvement. 42 U.S.C. 299a(a)(1) and (2).
To achieve the goals of this project the following data collections will be implemented:
AHRQ Research Reporting System (ARRS)—Grantees and vendors use the ARRS system to report project progress and important preliminary findings for grants and contracts funded by the Agency. Grantees and vendors submit progress reports on a monthly or quarterly basis which are reviewed by AHRQ personnel. All users access the ARRS system through a secure online interface which requires a user I.D. and password entered through the ARRS login screen. When status reports are due AHRQ notifies principal investigators and vendors via email.
The ARRS is an automated user-friendly resource that is utilized by AHRQ staff for preparing, distributing, and reviewing reporting requests to grantees and vendors for the purpose of information sharing. AHRQ personnel are able to systematically search the information collected and stored in the ARRS database. Personnel will also use the information to address internal and/or external requests for information regarding grant progress, preliminary findings, and other requests, such as Freedom of Information Act requests, and producing responses related to federally mandated programs and regulations.
Exhibit 1 shows the estimated annualized burden hours for the respondents. It will take grantees and vendors an estimated 10 minutes to enter the necessary data into the ARRS System and reporting will occur four times annually. The total annualized burden hours are estimated to be 333 hours.
Exhibit 2 shows the estimated annualized cost burden for the respondents. The total estimated cost burden for respondents is $12,454.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, comments on AHRQ's information collection are requested with regard to any of the following: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of AHRQ health care research and health care information dissemination functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of AHRQ's estimate of burden (including hours and costs) of the proposed collection(s) of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information upon the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the Agency's subsequent request for OMB approval of the proposed information collection. All comments will become a matter of public record.
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services.
Notice.
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Comments must be received by March 13, 2017.
When commenting, please reference the document identifier or OMB control number. To be assured consideration, comments and recommendations must be submitted in any one of the following ways:
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2.
To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, you may make your request using one of following:
1. Access CMS' Web site address at
2. Email your request, including your address, phone number, OMB number, and CMS document identifier, to
3. Call the Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
This notice sets out a summary of the use and burden associated with the following information collections. More detailed information can be found in each collection's supporting statement and associated materials (see
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA requires federal agencies to publish a 60-day notice in the
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Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is providing interested persons with the opportunity to submit written comments, and to request an informal public meeting concerning recommendations by the World Health Organization (WHO) to impose international manufacturing and distributing restrictions, under international treaties, on certain drug substances. The comments received in response to this notice and/or public meeting will be considered in preparing the United States' position on these proposals for a meeting of the United Nations Commission on Narcotic Drugs (CND) in Vienna, Austria, in March 2017. This notice is issued under the Controlled Substances Act (CSA).
Submit either electronic or written comments by February 10, 2017. Submit requests for a public meeting on or before January 23, 2017. The short time period for the submission of comments and requests for a public meeting is needed to ensure that HHS may, in a timely fashion, carry out the required action and be responsive to the United Nations. For additional information, see section IV of this document.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
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• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
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• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
James R. Hunter, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Controlled Substance Staff, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 5150, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-3156,
The United States is a party to the 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances (Psychotropic Convention). Section 201(d)(2)(B) of the CSA (21 U.S.C. 811(d)(2)(B)) provides that when the United States is notified under Article 2 of the Psychotropic Convention that the CND proposes to decide whether to add a drug or other substance to one of the schedules of the Psychotropic Convention, transfer a drug or substance from one schedule to another, or delete it from the schedules, the Secretary of State must transmit notice of such information to the Secretary of Health and Human Services (Secretary of HHS). The Secretary of HHS must then publish a summary of such information in the
As detailed in the following paragraphs, the Secretary of State has received notification from the Secretary-General of the United Nations (the Secretary-General) regarding eight substances to be considered for control under the Psychotropic Convention. This notification reflects the recommendation from the 38th WHO Expert Committee for Drug Dependence (ECDD), which met in November 2016. In the
The full text of the notification from the Secretary-General is provided in section II of this document. Section 201(d)(2)(B) of the CSA requires the Secretary of HHS, after receiving a notification proposing scheduling, to publish a notice in the
The United States is also a party to the 1961 Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs (1961 Single Convention). The Secretary of State has received a notification from the Secretary-General regarding two substances to be considered for control under this convention. The CSA does not require HHS to publish a summary of such information in the
The formal notification from the United Nations that identifies the drug substances and explains the basis for the recommendations is reproduced as follows (non-relevant text removed):
The Secretary-General of the United Nations presents his compliments to the Secretary of State of the United States of America and has the honour to inform the Government that the Director-General of the World Health Organization (WHO), pursuant to article 3, paragraphs 1 and 3 of the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs of 1961 as amended by the 1972 Protocol (1961 Convention) and article 2, paragraphs 1 and 4 of the Convention on Psychotropic Substances of 1971 (1971 Convention) notified the Secretary-General of the following recommendations:
Substances recommended to be placed in Schedule I of the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs (1961), as amended by the 1972 Protocol:
In addition, in the letter from the Director-General of the World Health Orgazniation to the Secretary-General, reference is also made to the recommendations by the thirty-eighth meeting of the WHO Expert Committee on Drug Dependence (ECDD) for carrying out a critical review of one substance at a subsequent Expert Committee meeting, as well as for one substance to continue to be kept under surveillance. Furthermore, the letter also makes reference to the recommendation by the Expert Committee with regard to cannabis and its component substances.
In accordance with the provisions of article 3, paragraph 2 of the 1961 Convention and article 2, paragraph 2 of the 1971 Convention, the Secretary-General hereby transmits the notification as annex I to the present note. In accordance with the provisions of article 3, paragraph 2 of the 1961 Convention and article 2, paragraph 2 of the 1971 Convention, the notification from WHO will be brought to
In connection with the notification, WHO has also submitted the relevant extract from the report of the thirty-eighth meeting of the WHO Expert Committee on Drug Dependence which is hereby transmitted as annex II.
In order to assist the Commission in reaching a decision, it would be appreciated if the Government could communicate any economic, social, legal, administrative or other factors that it considers relevant to the possible scheduling of the afore-mentioned substances that are recommended by WHO to be placed under international control under the 1961 Convention (namely: U-4770 and butyrfentanyl) and the 1971 Convention (namely: 4-MEC, ethylone, pentedrone, ethylphenidate, MPA, MDMB-CHMICA, 5F- APINACA, and XLR-11).
Communications are to be sent at the latest by 20 January 2017 to the Executive Director of the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime, c/o Secretary, Commission on Narcotic Drugs, P.O. Box 500, 1400 Vienna, Austria, fax: +43-1-26060-5885, email:
“The Thirty-eighth meeting of the WHO Expert Committee on Drug Dependence convened from 14 to 18 November 2016, at WHO headquarters in Geneva. The objective of this meeting was to carry out an in-depth evaluation of psychoactive substances in order to determine whether or not WHO should recommend these substances to be placed under international control.
With reference to Article 2, paragraphs 1 and 4 of the Convention on Psychotropic Substances (1971) and Article 3, paragraphs 1 and 3 of the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs (1961), as amended by the 1972 Protocol, I am pleased to submit recommendations of the World Health Organization as follows:
to be placed in Schedule I of the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs (1961), as amended by the 1972 Protocol:
In addition, the Expert Committee recommended to carry out a critical review at a subsequent Expert Committee meeting for:
It also recommended to continue to keep the following substance under surveillance:
The Committee recommended that a specific ECDD meeting dedicated to cannabis and its component substances should be held within the next eighteen months from the 38th meeting, and will carry out pre-reviews for the following substances:
The recommendations and the assessments and findings on which they are based are set out in detail in the Report of the 38th Expert Committee on Drug Dependence, which is the Committee that advises me on these issues. An extract of the Committee's Report is attached in Annex 1 to this letter.
I am very pleased with the ongoing collaboration among the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC), International Narcotics Control Board (INCB) and WHO, in particular, how this collaboration has supported the work of the WHO Expert Committee on Drug Dependence, and more generally, the implementation of operational recommendations from the United Nations General Assembly Special Session (UNGASS) 2016.”
Substances recommended to be scheduled in Schedule I and Schedule IV of the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs (1961), as amended by the 1972 Protocol:
Chemically, U-47700 is 3,4-dichloro-N-(2-dimethylamino-cyclohexyl)-N-methyl-benzamide. U47700 has two chiral centres resulting in four isomers; cis and trans conformations each have two enantiomers [cis: are (1R,2R), and (1S,2S); trans are (1R,2S) and (1S,2R)].
U-47700 was not previously pre-reviewed or critically reviewed by the Committee. A direct critical review is proposed based on information brought to the attention of the WHO that U-47700 is clandestinely manufactured, poses risk to public health and society, and has no recognized therapeutic use by any Party.
U-47700 (3,4-dichloro-N-(2-dimethylamino-cyclohexyl)-N-methyl-benzamide) is a compound liable to similar abuse and with similar ill-effects to controlled opioids such as morphine and AH-7921 that are included in Schedule I of the 1961 Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs. It has no recorded therapeutic use, and its use has resulted in fatalities. There is sufficient evidence that it is being or is likely to be abused so as to constitute a public health and social problem warranting the placing of the substance under international control. Thus, because it meets the required condition of similarity, it is recommended that U-47700 be placed in Schedule I of the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, 1961, as consistent with Article 3, paragraph 3 (iii) of that Convention in that the substance is liable to similar abuse and productive of similar ill effects as drugs in Schedule I.
Chemically, butyrfentanyl is N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]butanamide.
Butyrfentanyl has not been previously pre-reviewed or critically reviewed by the Committee. A direct critical review is proposed based on information brought to the attention of the WHO that butyrfentanyl is clandestinely manufactured, poses risk to public health and society, and has no recognized therapeutic use by any Party.
Butyrfentanyl (N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]butanamide) is a compound liable to similar abuse and with similar ill-effects to controlled opioids such as morphine and fentanyl that are included in Schedule I of the 1961 Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs. It can be converted into fentanyl as well. It has no recorded therapeutic use and its use has resulted in fatalities. There is sufficient evidence that it is being or is likely to be abused so as to constitute a public health and social problem warranting the placing of the substance under international control. Thus, because it meets either of the required conditions of similarity or convertibility, it is recommended that butyrfentanyl be placed in Schedule I of the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, 1961, as consistent with Article 3, paragraph 3 (iii) of that Convention in that the substance is liable to similar abuse and productive of similar ill effects as drugs in Schedule I.
Substances recommended to be scheduled in Schedule II of the Convention on Psychotropic Substances (1971):
Chemically, 4-methylethcathinone (4-MEC) is 2-(ethylamino)-1-(4-methylphenyl)propan-1-one. 4-MEC has a chiral centre giving rise to an enantiomeric pair of (S)-4-MEC and (R)-4-MEC isomers.
A critical review report on 4-MEC was discussed in June 2014 at the 36th meeting of the WHO Expert Committee on Drug Dependence. The Committee recommended that 4-MEC not be placed under international control at that time due to insufficiency of data regarding dependence, abuse and risks to public health, but be kept under surveillance. 4-MEC continues to appear as a psychostimulant with monoamine transporter activity with indications of abuse liability. New data have emerged from in vitro and in vivo studies since the 36th ECCD meeting that has prompted the current critical review.
The Committee considered that the degree of risk to public health and society associated with the abuse of 4-MEC (2-(ethylamino)-1-(4-methylphenyl)propan-1-one) is substantial. Therapeutic usefulness has not been recorded. It recognized that it has similar abuse and similar ill-effects as substances in Schedule II of the UN 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances. The Committee considered that there is sufficient evidence that 4-MEC is being or is likely to be abused so as to constitute a public health and social problem warranting the placing of the substance under international control. As per the Guidance on the WHO review of psychoactive substances for international control, higher regard was accorded to the substantial public health risk than to the lack of therapeutic usefulness. The Committee recommended that 4-MEC be placed in Schedule II under the UN 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances.
Chemically, ethylone is 1-(2H-1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)propan-1-one. It is a chiral compound with isomers, and its hydrochloride salt can exist in two conformations (polymorphs) at the C-C bond linking the side chain to the aromatic ring.
Ethylone was not previously pre-reviewed or critically reviewed. A direct critical review is proposed based on information brought to the attention of the WHO that ethylone is clandestinely manufactured, poses serious risk to public health and society, and has no recognized therapeutic use by any Party.
The Committee considered that the degree of risk to public health and society associated with the abuse of ethylone (1-(2H-1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)propan-1-one) is substantial. Therapeutic usefulness has not been recorded. It recognized that it has similar abuse and similar ill-effects as substances in Schedule II of the UN 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances. The Committee considered that there is sufficient evidence that ethylone is being or is likely to be abused so as to constitute a public health and social problem warranting the placing of the substance under international control. As per the Guidance on the WHO review of psychoactive substances for international control, higher regard was accorded to the substantial public health risk than to the lack of therapeutic usefulness. The Committee recommended that ethylone be placed in Schedule II under the UN 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances.
Chemically, pentedrone is 2-(methylamino)-1-phenylpentan-1-one. It has a chiral centre giving rise to two stereoisomers, (S)- and (R)- pentedrone.
Pentedrone has not been previously reviewed or critically reviewed by the Expert Committee on Drug Dependence of the WHO. A direct critical review is proposed based on information brought to WHO's attention that pentedrone is clandestinely manufactured, poses serious risk to public health and society, and has no recognized therapeutic use by any Party.
The Committee considered that the degree of risk to public health and society associated with the abuse of pentedrone (2-(methylamino)-1-phenylpentan-1-one) is substantial. Therapeutic usefulness has not been recorded. It recognized that it has similar abuse and similar ill-effects as substances in Schedule II of the UN 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances. The Committee considered that there is sufficient evidence that pentedrone is being or is likely to be abused so as to constitute a public health and social problem warranting the placing of the substance under international control. As per the Guidance on the WHO review of psychoactive substances for international control, higher regard was accorded to the substantial public health risk than to the lack of therapeutic usefulness. The Committee recommended that pentedrone be placed in Schedule II under the UN 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances.
Chemically, ethylphenidate is ethyl phenyl(piperidin-2-yl)acetate.
Ethylphenidate was not previously pre-reviewed or critically reviewed. A direct critical review is proposed based on information brought to the attention of the WHO that ethylphenidate is clandestinely manufactured, poses serious risk to public health and society, and has no recognized therapeutic use by any Party.
The Committee considered that the degree of risk to public health and society associated with the abuse of ethylphenidate (ethyl phenyl(piperidin-2-yl)acetate) is substantial. Therapeutic usefulness has not been recorded. It recognized that it has similar abuse and similar ill-effects as substances in Schedule II of the UN 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances. The Committee considered that there is sufficient evidence that ethylphenidate is being or is likely to be abused so as to constitute a public health and social problem warranting the placing of the substance under international control. As per the Guidance on the WHO review of psychoactive substances for international control, higher regard was accorded to the substantial public health risk than to the lack of therapeutic usefulness. The Committee recommended that ethylphenidate be placed in Schedule II under the UN 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances.
Chemically, methiopropamine is N-methyl-1-(thiophen-2-yl)propan-2-amine. It has a chiral centre with two enantiomers.
Methiopropamine was previously critically reviewed by the Committee at its 36th meeting. Owing to the insufficiency of data regarding dependence, abuse and risks to public health, the Committee recommended that methiopropamine not be placed under international control but be kept under surveillance. Subsequent data collected from the literature and from different countries indicated that this substance may cause substantial harm and that it has no medical use warranting an updated critical review.
The Committee considered that the degree of risk to public health and society associated with the abuse of methiopropamine (N-methyl-1-(thiophen-2-yl)propan-2-amine) is substantial. Therapeutic usefulness has not been recorded. It recognized that it has similar abuse and similar ill-effects as substances in Schedule II of the UN 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances. The Committee considered that there is sufficient evidence that methiopropamine is being or is likely to be abused so as to constitute a public health and social problem warranting the placing of the substance under international control. As per the Guidance on the WHO review of psychoactive substances for international control, higher regard was accorded to the substantial public health risk than to the lack of therapeutic usefulness. The Committee recommended that methiopropamine be placed in Schedule II under the UN 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances.
Chemically, MDMB-CHMICA is methyl N-{[1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indol-3-yl]carbonyl}-3-methyl-L-valinate. MDMB-CHMICA has a chiral carbon in the butanoic chain. Therefore, two stereoisomers exist: (S)-MDMB-CHMICA and (R)-MDMB-CHMICA.
MDMB-CHMICA has not been previously pre-reviewed or critically reviewed. A direct critical review is proposed based on information brought to the attention of the WHO that MDMB-CHMICA is clandestinely manufactured, poses serious risk to public health and society, and has no recognized therapeutic use by any Party.
The Committee considered that the degree of risk to public health and society associated with the abuse of MDMB-CHMICA (methyl N-{[1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indol-3-yl]carbonyl}-3-methyl-L-valinate) is substantial. Therapeutic usefulness has not been recorded. It recognized that it has similar abuse and similar ill-effects as substances in Schedule II of the UN 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances. The Committee considered that there is sufficient evidence that MDMB-CHMICA is being or is likely to be abused so as to constitute a public health and social problem warranting the placing of the substance under international control. As per the Guidance on the WHO review of psychoactive substances for international control, higher regard was accorded to the substantial public health risk than to the lack of therapeutic usefulness. The Committee recommended that MDMB-CHMICA be placed in Schedule II under the UN 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances.
Chemically, 5F-APINACA is N-(adamantan-1-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide.
5F-APINACA has not been previously pre-reviewed or critically reviewed by the Expert
The Committee considered that the degree of risk to public health and society associated with the abuse of 5F-APINACA (N-(adamantan-1-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide) is substantial. Therapeutic usefulness has not been recorded. It recognized that it has similar abuse and similar ill-effects as substances in Schedule II of the UN 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances. The Committee considered that there is sufficient evidence that 5F-APINACA is being or is likely to be abused so as to constitute a public health and social problem warranting the placing of the substance under international control. As per the Guidance on the WHO review of psychoactive substances for international control, higher regard was accorded to the substantial public health risk than to the lack of therapeutic usefulness. The Committee recommended that 5F-APINACA be placed in Schedule II under the UN 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances.
Chemically, XLR-11 is [1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indol-3-yl](2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone.
XLR-11 has not been previously pre-reviewed or critically reviewed. A direct critical review is proposed based on information brought to WHO's attention that XLR-11 is clandestinely manufactured, poses serious risk to public health and society, and has no recognized therapeutic use by any Party.
The Committee considered that the degree of risk to public health and society associated with the abuse of XLR-11 ([1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indol-3-yl](2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone) is substantial. Therapeutic usefulness has not been recorded. It recognized that it has similar abuse and similar ill-effects as substances in Schedule II of the UN 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances such as JWH-018 and AM-2201. The Committee considered that there is sufficient evidence that XLR-11 is being or is likely to be abused so as to constitute a public health and social problem warranting the placing of the substance under international control. As per the Guidance on the WHO review of psychoactive substances for international control, higher regard was accorded to the substantial public health risk than to the lack of therapeutic usefulness. The Committee recommended that XLR-11 be placed in Schedule II under the UN 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances.
Substance recommended for critical review:
Chemically, 3-MMC is 2-(methylamino)-1-(3-methylphenyl)propan-1-one. 3-MMC contains a chiral centre at the C-2 carbon of the propane sidechain, so two enantiomers exist: (R)-3-MMC and (S)-3-MMC.
3-MMC was not previously pre-reviewed or critically reviewed. A direct critical review is proposed based on information brought to the attention of the WHO that 3-MMC is clandestinely manufactured, poses serious risk to public health and society, and has no recognized therapeutic use by any Party.
The Committee deliberated at length regarding the information available pertinent to the degree of risk to public health and society associated with the abuse of 3-MMC (2-(methylamino)-1-(3-methylphenyl)propan-1-one). The Committee decided that the information as currently provided, and the ensuing discussions that had occurred, were inadequate to form a consensus and confident recommendation regarding the scheduling of 3-MMC. As per paragraph 59 of the Guidance on the WHO review of psychoactive substances for international control, and as supported by its procedural reference to the Thirty-fourth report of the WHO Expert Committee on Drug Dependence, “. . . in cases where additional information concerning the substance under review is required, the Committee may decide that it will reach a final opinion at a subsequent meeting.” “. . . then it should request another critical review in order to refer the matter to a subsequent Expert Committee.” As directed by these guidelines, the Committee requested that the Secretariat arrange another critical review of 3-MMC at a subsequent Expert Committee.
Substance recommended for surveillance:
Chemically, JWH-073 is (1-butyl-1H-indol-3-yl)(1-naphthyl)methanone.
During its 36th meeting, the WHO Expert Committee on Drug Dependence discussed the critical review report on JWH-073 and concluded that owing to the current insufficiency of data regarding dependence, abuse and risks to public health, JWH-073 should not be placed under international control at that time but be kept under surveillance. New information on its pharmacology and abuse potential warranted an update of the critical review report for discussion at the 38th ECDD.
The available pharmacodynamic data related to JWH-073 (1-butyl-1H-indol-3-yl)(1-naphthyl)methanone) demonstrates that this substance has the capacity to produce some effects similar to its homologue, JWH-018, that is included in Schedule II of the UN 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances. However, the data currently available does not make it possible to establish a direct link between JWH-073 abuse and appearance of public health and social problems that would be a requirement for placing this substance under international control. It is therefore recommended not to place JWH-073 under international control but to continue to keep it under surveillance.
Update on Cannabis and Cannabis resin:
At the 37th ECDD meeting the Committee requested that Secretariat begin collecting data towards a pre-review of cannabis, cannabis resin, extracts and tinctures of cannabis at a future meeting. Consistent with this request, two updates on the scientific literature on cannabis were prepared and subsequently presented to the Expert Committee. Following its deliberations the Committee noted that the current Schedule I of the 1961 Convention groups together cannabis and cannabis resin, extracts and tinctures of cannabis. Cannabis plant and cannabis resin are also in Schedule IV of the 1961 Convention. The Committee further noted that there are natural and synthetic cannabinoids in Schedule I and Schedule II of the 1971 Convention. The Committee recognized:
The Committee requested that the Secretariat prepare relevant documentation in accordance with the Guidance on the WHO review of psychoactive substances for international control in order to conduct pre-reviews for the following substances:
The Committee recommended that these pre-reviews be evaluated at a specific ECDD meeting dedicated to cannabis and its component substances to be held within the next eighteen months from the 38th meeting.
The purpose of the pre-review is to determine whether current information justifies an Expert Committee critical review. The categories of information for evaluating substances in pre-reviews are identical to those used in critical reviews. The pre-review is a preliminary analysis, and findings at this stage should not determine whether the control status of a substance should be changed.
Although WHO has made specific scheduling recommendations for each of the drug substances, the CND is not obliged to follow the WHO recommendations. Options available to the CND for substances considered for control under the Psychotropic Convention include the following: (1) Accept the WHO recommendations; (2) accept the recommendations to control, but control the drug substance in a schedule other than that recommended; or (3) reject the recommendations entirely.
U-47700 is a synthetic opioid drug developed in the 1970s. U-47700 is structurally related to the opioid AH-7921. U-47700 is selective for the µ-opioid receptor. U-47700 has never been studied on humans, but would be expected to produce effects similar to those of other potent opioid agonists, including strong analgesia, sedation, euphoria, constipation, itching, and respiratory depression which could be harmful or fatal. Overdoses and
Butyrfentanyl (butyrylfentanyl) is a synthetic opioid and analog of fentanyl. Fentanyl is controlled in Schedule II of the CSA, and an active ingredient in drug products approved for medical use and marketed in the United States. Butyrylfentanyl has a pharmacological profile similar to that of fentanyl and other µ-opioid receptor agonists. Risks associated with abuse of butyrylfentanyl include development of substance use disorder, overdose, and death similar to that of other µ-opioid agonists. The DEA is aware of at least 40 confirmed fatalities associated with butyrylfentanyl. It has no approved medical use in the United States. On May 12, 2016, butyrylfentanyl was temporarily placed into Schedule I of the CSA for 2 years upon finding that it posed an imminent hazard to the public safety. The Attorney General, though, may extend this temporary scheduling for up to 1 year. As such, additional permanent controls will be necessary to fulfill U.S. obligations if butyrylfentanyl is controlled under Schedule I of the 1961 Single Convention.
4-Methylethcathinone (4-MEC), 3-Methylmethcathinone (3-methyl-N-methylcathinone; 3-MMC): 3-methyl-methcathinone (3-MMC), pentedrone, and ethylone (3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylcathinone; bk-MDEA; MDEC) are synthetic cathinones that are structurally and pharmacologically similar to amphetamine, 3-4 methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA), cathinone, and other related substances. These substances are central nervous system stimulants with psychoactive properties similar to Schedule I and II amphetamine type substances. Public health risks associated with the use of synthetic cathinones suggest that these substances are associated with cardiac, psychiatric, and neurological symptoms that may lead to emergency department admissions, violent behaviors causing harm to self or others, or death. 4-MEC and pentedrone have no known medical use in the United States. On March 7, 2014, the DEA published a final order in the
In the United States, ethylone has been sold as the street drug “Molly” and encountered as a replacement for methylone. Ethylone has no known medical use in the United States. As a positional isomer of the controlled drug butylone, ethylone is considered a Schedule I controlled substance under the CSA. As such, no additional controls will be necessary to fulfill U.S. obligations if ethylone is controlled under Schedule II of the 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances.
Ethylphenidate is structurally related to methylphenidate. Methylphenidate is controlled in Schedule IV of the CSA, and an active ingredient in drug products approved for medical use and marketed in the United States. Ethylphenidate is not approved for medical use in the United States. Ethylphenidate is structurally related to methylphenidate are being marketed as novel psychoactive substances with psychoactive effects similar to methylphenidate, therefore posing similar health risks to the users. Ethylphenidate is a controlled substance in several European countries, and is not a controlled substance in the United States under the CSA. As such, additional permanent controls will be necessary to fulfill U.S. obligations if ethylphenidate is controlled under Schedule II of the 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances.
Methiopropamine (MPA) is a structural analogue of the Schedule II controlled substance methamphetamine. Pharmacologically, it functions as a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor and, secondarily, as a serotonin reuptake inhibitor. MPA is a thiophene based analog of methamphetamine. It has stimulant properties as an inhibitor of dopamine, norepinephrine transporters in the central nervous system. MPA is not approved for medical use or controlled in the United States under the CSA. As such, additional permanent controls will be necessary to fulfill U.S. obligations if MPA is controlled under Schedule II of the 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances.
MDMB-CHMICA is an indole-based synthetic cannabinoid that is a potent full agonist at cannabinoid type 1 (CB1) receptors and mimics functionally (biologically) the effects of the structurally unrelated delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol, a Schedule I substance, and the main active ingredient of marijuana. Synthetic cannabinoids are marketed under the guise of “herbal incense,” and promoted by drug traffickers as legal alternatives to marijuana. MDMB-CHMICA use is associated with serious adverse events including death in several European countries. There are no commercial or approved medical uses for MDMB-CHMICA. MDMB-CHMICA is not controlled under the CSA, but may be treated as a “controlled substance analogue” under the CSA pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 802(32)(A) and 813, and is a controlled substance in the State of Louisiana. As such, additional permanent controls will be necessary to fulfill U.S. obligations if MDMB-CHMICA is controlled under Schedule II of the 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances.
5F-APINACA (5F-AKB48) is a synthetic cannabinoid belonging to a chemical structural class with an indazole core. In vitro studies show that it binds to the CB1 receptors and displays agonist properties in functional assays, suggesting that it would share in vivo effects with delta-9-THC and various synthetic cannabinoids. There are no commercial or medical uses for 5F-APINACA. Synthetic cannabinoids are marketed under the guise of “herbal incense,” and promoted by drug traffickers as legal alternatives to marijuana. SF-APINACA is not a controlled substance under the CSA, but may be treated as a “controlled substance analogue” under the CSA pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 802(32)(A) and 813. As such, additional permanent controls will be necessary to fulfill U.S. obligations if SF-APINACA is controlled under Schedule II of the 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances.
XLR-11 (5-Fluoro-UR-144, 5F-UR-144) is an indole-based synthetic cannabinoid and acts as an agonist at CB1 receptors. Animal studies indicate that it mimics functionally (biologically) the effects of the structurally unrelated delta-9-THC, a Schedule I substance, and the main active ingredient of marijuana and numerous other
FDA, on behalf of the Secretary of HHS, invites interested persons to submit comments on the notifications from the United Nations concerning these drug substances. FDA, in cooperation with the National Institute on Drug Abuse, will consider the comments on behalf of HHS in evaluating the WHO scheduling recommendations. Then, under section 201(d)(2)(B) of the CSA, HHS will recommend to the Secretary of State what position the United States should take when voting on the recommendations for control of substances under the Psychotropic Convention at the CND meeting in March 2017.
Comments regarding the WHO recommendations for control of U-47700 and Butyrylfentanyl under the 1961 Single Convention will also be forwarded to the relevant Agencies for consideration in developing the U.S. position regarding narcotic substances at the CND meeting.
FDA does not presently plan to hold a public meeting. If any person believes that, in addition to written comments, a public meeting would contribute to the development of the U.S. position on the substances to be considered for control under the Psychotropic Convention, a request for a public meeting and the reasons for such a request should be sent to James R. Hunter (see
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing the availability of a guidance for industry entitled “Recommended Warning for Over-the-Counter Acetaminophen-Containing Drug Products and Labeling Statements Regarding Serious Skin Reactions.” This guidance is intended to inform manufacturers, members of the medical and scientific community, and other interested persons that at this time FDA does not intend to take action against the marketing of single- and combination-ingredient, acetaminophen-containing, nonprescription (commonly referred to as over-the-counter (OTC)) drug products bearing a warning as described in the guidance alerting consumers that the use of acetaminophen may cause severe skin reactions.
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Submit written requests for single copies of this guidance to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10001 New Hampshire Ave., Hillandale Building, 4th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. See the
Emily Baker, Office of Unapproved Drugs and Labeling Compliance, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-7524,
FDA is announcing the availability of a guidance for industry entitled “Recommended Warning for Over-the-Counter Acetaminophen-Containing Drug Products and Labeling Statements Regarding Serious Skin Reactions.” Acetaminophen, included in many prescription and OTC products, is a common active ingredient indicated to treat pain and reduce fever. On August 1, 2013, FDA issued a Drug Safety Communication (DSC) informing the public that use of acetaminophen has been associated with a risk of rare but serious skin reactions.
The DSC explained that reddening of the skin, rash, blisters, and detachment of the upper surface of the skin can occur with the use of drug products that contain acetaminophen. These skin reactions can occur with the first-time use of acetaminophen or even if acetaminophen has been used in the past without any problems. FDA advised health care professionals to be aware of this rare risk and consider acetaminophen, along with other drugs already known to have such an association, when assessing patients with potentially drug-induced skin reactions. FDA also advised that anyone who develops a skin rash or reaction while using acetaminophen or any other pain reliever/fever reducer should stop taking the drug and seek medical attention right away. Furthermore, the announcement advised that anyone who has experienced a serious skin reaction when taking acetaminophen in the past should not take the drug again and should contact their health care professional to discuss alternative pain relievers/fever reducers.
In response to FDA's letters to manufacturers holding new drug applications and abbreviated new drug applications, most manufacturers of acetaminophen-containing prescription and OTC drug products marketed under an approved application now include a warning statement on their product labels to address the risk of serious skin reactions. FDA recommends that manufacturers of all acetaminophen-containing OTC drug products (both single- and combination-ingredient acetaminophen products) marketed under the Tentative Final Monograph (TFM) for Internal Analgesic, Antipyretic, and Antirheumatic Drug Products include in labeling the language recommended in this guidance to warn consumers that acetaminophen may cause severe skin reactions. At this time, FDA does not intend to take action against the marketing of single- and combination-ingredient, acetaminophen-containing, OTC drug products bearing the recommended allergy warning that are otherwise marketed in compliance with the TFM and applicable regulations.
In the
This guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The guidance represents the current thinking of FDA on the recommended warning for OTC acetaminophen-containing drug products and labeling statements regarding serious skin reactions. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.
Under the guidance, manufacturers may add to their drug product labeling a warning statement supplied by FDA that pertains to acetaminophen to address the risk of serious skin reactions. Inclusion of the warning statement on the labels for these drug products would be exempt from review by the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) because the public disclosure of information originally supplied by the Federal government to the recipient for the purpose of disclosure to the public is not included within the definition of “collection of information” (see 5 CFR 1320.3(c)(2)).
Persons with access to the Internet may obtain the document at either
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; establishment of a public docket; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) announces a forthcoming public advisory committee meeting of the Drug Safety and Risk Management Advisory Committee and the Anesthetic and Analgesic Drug Products Advisory Committee. The general function of the committees is to provide advice and recommendations to the Agency on FDA's regulatory issues. At least one portion of the meeting will be closed to the public. FDA is establishing a docket for public comment on this document.
The meeting will be held on March 13, 2017, from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m. and March 14, 2017, from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m.
College Park Marriott Hotel and Conference Center, Potomac Ballroom, 3501 University Blvd. East, Hyattsville, MD 20783. The conference center's telephone number is 301-985-7300. Answers to commonly asked questions including information regarding special accommodations due to a disability, visitor parking, and transportation may be accessed at:
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Stephanie L. Begansky, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31, Rm. 2417, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-9001, FAX: 301-847-8533, email:
FDA intends to make background material available to the public no later than 2 business days before the meeting. If FDA is unable to post the background material on its Web site prior to the meeting, the background material will be made publicly available at the
Persons attending FDA's advisory committee meetings are advised that the Agency is not responsible for providing access to electrical outlets.
FDA is establishing a docket for public comment on this meeting. The docket number is FDA-2017-N-0067. The docket will close on March 10, 2017. Comments received on or before February 27, 2017, will be provided to the committee. Comments received after that date will be taken into consideration by the Agency.
FDA welcomes the attendance of the public at its advisory committee meetings and will make every effort to accommodate persons with disabilities. If you require accommodations due to a disability, please contact Stephanie L. Begansky at least 7 days in advance of the meeting.
FDA is committed to the orderly conduct of its advisory committee meetings. Please visit our Web site at
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app. 2).
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing the availability of a draft guidance for industry entitled “Recommended Statement for Over-the-Counter Aspirin-Containing Drug Products Labeled With Cardiovascular Related Imagery.” The guidance is intended to promote the safe use of nonprescription (also referred to as over-the-counter or OTC) aspirin drug products by encouraging drug manufacturers, packagers, and labelers marketing aspirin drug products with cardiovascular related imagery to include a statement that reminds consumers to talk to their health care provider before using aspirin for their heart.
Although you can comment on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(a)(5)), to ensure that the Agency considers your comments on this draft guidance before it begins work on the final version of the guidance, submit either electronic or written comments on the draft guidance by March 13, 2017.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential
Submit written requests for single copies of the draft guidance to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10001 New Hampshire Ave., Hillandale Building, 4th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your request. See the
Emily Baker, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 5203, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-7524,
FDA is announcing the availability of a draft guidance for industry entitled “Recommended Statement for Over-the-Counter Aspirin-Containing Drug Products Labeled With Cardiovascular Related Imagery.” Aspirin is a common active ingredient in many prescription and OTC drug products. Most OTC aspirin drug products are currently marketed pursuant to the Tentative Final Monograph (TFM) for Internal Analgesic, Antipyretic, and Antirheumatic (IAAA) Drug Products (53 FR 46204, November 16, 1988) for the temporary relief of minor aches and pains associated with a cold, headache, backache, toothache, premenstrual and menstrual cramps; minor pain of arthritis; and reduction in fever.
In addition to the OTC conditions of use in the IAAA TFM, FDA regulations at § 343.80 (21 CFR 343.80) also contain professional labeling about cardiovascular uses of aspirin directed at health care practitioners (63 FR 56802, October 23, 1998). After publication of the professional labeling regulation for aspirin, some OTC aspirin labels were modified to include cardiovascular related imagery (
Because of the potential side effects associated with long-term aspirin therapy, FDA recommends that any cardiovascular related imagery on OTC aspirin labels be accompanied by a statement that reminds consumers to talk to their health care provider before using aspirin for the professional indication of secondary prevention of cardiovascular events. Therefore, this draft guidance provides that FDA does not intend to take action against manufacturers of single-ingredient aspirin, buffered aspirin, and aspirin in combination with an antacid, marketed pursuant to the TFM for IAAA Drug Products because the product label includes cardiovascular related imagery (
This draft guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The draft guidance, when finalized, will represent the current thinking of FDA on this topic. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.
The recommendations in this draft guidance are not subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget because they do not constitute a “collection of information” under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). Rather, the labeling statements are a “public disclosure of information originally supplied by the Federal government to the recipient for the purpose of disclosure to the public” (5 CFR 1320.3(c)(2)).
Persons with access to the Internet may obtain the draft guidance at either
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing the availability of a final guidance for industry and FDA staff entitled “Current Good Manufacturing Practice Requirements for Combination Products.” The guidance describes and explains the document on current good manufacturing practice (CGMP) requirements for combination products, which published in the
Submit either electronic or written comments on this guidance at any time.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Submit written requests for single copies of the guidance document entitled “Current Good Manufacturing Practice Requirements for Combination Products” to the Office of Combination Products, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 32, Rm. 5129, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your request. See the
Melissa Burns or John Barlow Weiner, Office of Combination Products, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 32, Rm. 5129, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-8930.
FDA is announcing the availability of a guidance for industry and FDA staff entitled “Current Good Manufacturing Practice Requirements for Combination Products.” The guidance provides background on combination products, including an overview of the document on CGMP requirements for combination products, which published in the
FDA carefully considered the comments received on the draft guidance, and, where possible, has incorporated into the final guidance additional detailed discussion of how the requirements apply and acceptable CGMP compliance approaches. FDA encourages combination product manufacturers to contact the lead Center for their combination product and/or the Office of Combination Products if they have questions on CGMP compliance or approaches they are considering for meeting CGMP requirements.
Persons with access to the Internet may obtain the document at
This guidance refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). We note that the information collected under the underlying CGMP regulations for drugs, devices, and biological products, including current good tissue practices for human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products, found at parts 211, 820, 600 through 680, and 1271 (21 CFR parts
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
In compliance with the requirement for opportunity for public comment on proposed data collection projects of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, HRSA announces plans to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR), described below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Prior to submitting the ICR to OMB, HRSA seeks comments from the public regarding the burden estimate, below, or any other aspect of the ICR.
Comments on this ICR should be received no later than February 10, 2017.
Submit your comments to
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the data collection plans and draft instruments, email
When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the information request collection title for reference.
HRSA is streamlining the data collection forms from three tables to two tables by making the following changes:
•
•
•
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
In compliance with Section 3507(a)(1)(D) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, HRSA has submitted an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. Comments submitted during the first public review of this ICR will be provided to OMB. OMB will accept further comments from the public during the review and approval period.
Comments on this ICR should be received no later than February 10, 2017.
Submit your comments, including the ICR Title, to the desk officer for HRSA, either by email to
To request a copy of the clearance requests submitted to OMB for review, email the HRSA Information Collection Clearance Officer at
OMB No. 0906-xxxx—NEW
As a result of the 60-day
Total Estimated Annualized Burden Hours:
The Indian Health Service (IHS) estimated budget request for Fiscal Year (FY) 2017 includes $30,022,000 for the IHS Loan Repayment Program (LRP) for health professional educational loans (undergraduate and graduate) in return for full-time clinical service as defined in the IHS LRP policy at
This program announcement is subject to the appropriation of funds. This notice is being published early to coincide with the recruitment activity of the IHS which competes with other Government and private health management organizations to employ qualified health professionals.
This program is authorized by the Indian Health Care Improvement Act (IHCIA) Section 108, codified at 25 U.S.C. 1616a.
The estimated amount available is approximately $18,400,000 to support approximately 400 competing awards averaging $46,000 per award for a two year contract. The estimated amount available is approximately $9,325,000 to support approximately 373 competing awards averaging $25,000 per award for a one year extension. One year contract extensions will receive priority consideration in any award cycle. Applicants selected for participation in the FY 2017 program cycle will be expected to begin their service period no later than September 30, 2017.
Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 1616a(b), to be eligible to participate in the LRP, an individual must:
(1)(A) Be enrolled—
(i) In a course of study or program in an accredited institution, as determined by the Secretary, within any State and be scheduled to complete such course of study in the same year such individual applies to participate in such program; or
(ii) In an approved graduate training program in a health profession; or
(B) Have a degree in a health profession and a license to practice in a State; and
(2)(A) Be eligible for, or hold an appointment as a commissioned officer in the Regular Corps of the Public Health Service (PHS); or
(B) Be eligible for selection for service in the Regular Corps of the PHS; or
(C) Meet the professional standards for civil service employment in the IHS; or
(D) Be employed in an Indian health program without service obligation; and
(3) Submit to the Secretary an application for a contract to the LRP. The Secretary must approve the contract before the disbursement of loan repayments can be made to the participant. Participants will be required to fulfill their contract service agreements through full-time clinical practice at an Indian health program site determined by the Secretary. Loan repayment sites are characterized by physical, cultural, and professional isolation, and have histories of frequent staff turnover. Indian health program sites are annually prioritized within the Agency by discipline, based on need or vacancy. The IHS LRP's ranking system gives high site scores to those sites that are most in need of specific health professions. Awards are given to the applications that match the highest priorities until funds are no longer available.
Any individual who owes an obligation for health professional service to the Federal Government, a State, or other entity is not eligible for the LRP unless the obligation will be completely satisfied before they begin service under this program.
25 U.S.C. 1616a authorizes the IHS LRP and provides in pertinent part as follows:
(a)(1) The Secretary, acting through the Service, shall establish a program to be known as the Indian Health Service Loan Repayment Program (hereinafter referred to as the Loan Repayment Program) in order to assure an adequate supply of trained health professionals necessary to maintain accreditation of, and provide health care services to Indians through, Indian health programs.
For the purposes of this program, the term “Indian health program” is defined in 25 U.S.C. 1616a(a)(2)(A), as follows:
(A) The term Indian health program means any health program or facility funded, in whole or in part, by the Service for the benefit of Indians and administered—
(i) Directly by the Service;
(ii) By any Indian Tribe or Tribal or Indian organization pursuant to a contract under—
(I) The Indian Self-Determination Act, or
(II) Section 23 of the Act of April 30, 1908, (25 U.S.C. 47), popularly known as the Buy Indian Act; or
(iii) By an urban Indian organization pursuant to Title V of this Act.
25 U.S.C. 1616a, authorizes the IHS to determine specific health professions for which IHS LRP contracts will be awarded. Annually, the Director, Division of Health Professions Support, sends a letter to the Director, Office of Clinical and Preventive Services, IHS Area Directors, Tribal health officials,
Not applicable.
Interested individuals are reminded that the list of eligible health and allied health professions is effective for applicants for FY 2017. These priorities will remain in effect until superseded.
Each applicant will be responsible for submitting a complete application. Go to
• Employment Verification—Documentation of your employment with an Indian health program as applicable:
○ Commissioned Corps orders, Tribal employment documentation or offer letter, or Notification of Personnel Action (SF-50)—For current Federal employees.
• License to Practice—A photocopy of your current, non-temporary, full and unrestricted license to practice (issued by any state, Washington, DC or Puerto Rico).
• Loan Documentation—A copy of all current statements related to the loans submitted as part of the LRP application.
• Transcripts—Official Transcripts
• If applicable, if you are a member of a Federally recognized Tribe or Alaska Native (recognized by the Secretary of the Interior), provide a certification of Tribal enrollment by the Secretary of the Interior, acting through the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA) (Certification: Form BIA-4432 Category A—Members of Federally-Recognized Indian Tribes, Bands or Communities or Category D—Alaska Native).
Applications for the FY 2017 LRP will be accepted and evaluated monthly beginning January 15, 2017 and will continue to be accepted each month thereafter until all funds are exhausted for FY 2017. Subsequent monthly deadline dates are scheduled for Friday of the second full week of each month until August 15, 2017.
Applications shall be considered as meeting the deadline if they are either:
(1) Received on or before the deadline date; or
(2) Received after the deadline date, but has a legible postmark dated on or before the deadline date. (Applicants should request a legibly dated U.S. Postal Service postmark or obtain a legibly dated receipt from a commercial carrier or U.S. Postal Service. Private metered postmarks are not acceptable as proof of timely mailing).
Applications submitted after the monthly closing date will be held for consideration in the next monthly funding cycle. Applicants who do not receive funding by September 30, 2017, will be notified in writing.
Application documents should be sent to: IHS Loan Repayment Program, 5600 Fishers Lane, Mail Stop: OHR (11E53A), Rockville, Maryland 20857.
This program is not subject to review under Executive Order 12372.
Not applicable.
New applicants are responsible for using the online application. Applicants requesting a contract extension must do so in writing by January 1, 2017 to ensure the highest possibility of being funded a contract extension.
The IHS has identified the positions in each Indian health program for which there is a need or vacancy and ranked those positions in order of priority by developing discipline-specific prioritized lists of sites. Ranking criteria for these sites may include the following:
(1) Historically critical shortages caused by frequent staff turnover;
(2) Current unmatched vacancies in a health profession discipline;
(3) Projected vacancies in a health profession discipline;
(4) Ensuring that the staffing needs of Indian health programs administered by an Indian Tribe or Tribal health organization or urban Indian organization receive consideration on an equal basis with programs that are administered directly by the Service; and
(5) Giving priority to vacancies in Indian health programs that have a need for health professionals to provide health care services as a result of individuals having breached LRP contracts entered into under this section.
Consistent with this priority ranking, in determining applications to be approved and contracts to accept, the IHS will give priority to applications made by American Indians and Alaska Natives and to individuals recruited through the efforts of Indian Tribes or Tribal or Indian organizations.
Loan repayment awards will be made only to those individuals serving at facilities which have a site score of 70 or above through March 1, 2017, if funding is available.
One or all of the following factors may be applicable to an applicant, and the applicant who has the most of these factors, all other criteria being equal, will be selected.
(1) An applicant's length of current employment in the IHS, Tribal, or urban program.
(2) Availability for service earlier than other applicants (first come, first served).
(3) Date the individual's application was received.
Not applicable.
Notice of awards will be mailed on the last working day of each month.
Applicants may sign contractual agreements with the Secretary for two years. The IHS may repay all, or a portion, of the applicant's health profession educational loans (undergraduate and graduate) for tuition expenses and reasonable educational and living expenses in amounts up to $20,000 per year for each year of contracted service. Payments will be made annually to the participant for the purpose of repaying his/her outstanding health profession educational loans. Payment of health profession education loans will be made to the participant within 120 days, from the date the contract becomes effective. The effective date of the contract is calculated from the date it is signed by the Secretary or his/her delegate, or the IHS, Tribal, urban, or Buy Indian health center entry-on-duty date, whichever is more recent.
In addition to the loan payment, participants are provided tax assistance payments in an amount not less than 20 percent and not more than 39 percent of the participant's total amount of loan repayments made for the taxable year involved. The loan repayments and the tax assistance payments are taxable income and will be reported to the Internal Revenue Service (IRS). The tax assistance payment will be paid to the IRS directly on the participant's behalf. LRP award recipients should be aware that the IRS may place them in a higher tax bracket than they would otherwise have been prior to their award.
Any individual who enters this program and satisfactorily completes his or her obligated period of service may apply to extend his/her contract on a year-by-year basis, as determined by the IHS. Participants extending their contracts may receive up to the maximum amount of $20,000 per year plus an additional 20 percent for Federal withholding.
Please address inquiries to Ms. Jacqueline K. Santiago, Chief, IHS Loan Repayment Program, 5600 Fishers Lane, Mail Stop: OHR (11E53A), Rockville, Maryland 20857, Telephone: 301/443-3396 [between 8:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. (Eastern Standard Time) Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays].
IHS area offices and service units that are financially able are authorized to provide additional funding to make awards to applicants in the LRP, but not to exceed the maximum allowable amount authorized by statute per year plus tax assistance. All additional funding must be made in accordance with the priority system outlined below. Health professions given priority for selection above the $20,000 threshold are those identified as meeting the criteria in 25 U.S.C. 1616a(g)(2)(A) which provides that the Secretary shall consider the extent to which each such determination:
(i) Affects the ability of the Secretary to maximize the number of contracts that can be provided under the LRP from the amounts appropriated for such contracts;
(ii) Provides an incentive to serve in Indian health programs with the greatest shortages of health professionals; and
(iii) Provides an incentive with respect to the health professional involved remaining in an Indian health program with such a health professional shortage, and continuing to provide primary health services, after the completion of the period of obligated service under the LRP.
Contracts may be awarded to those who are available for service no later than September 30, 2017 and must be in compliance with 25 U.S.C. 1616a and subject to the availability of appropriations. In order to ensure compliance with the statutes, area offices or service units providing additional funding under this section are responsible for notifying the LRP of such payments before funding is offered to the LRP participant.
Should an IHS area office contribute to the LRP, those funds will be used for only those sites located in that area. Those sites will retain their relative ranking from the national site-ranking list. For example, the Albuquerque Area Office identifies supplemental monies for dentists. Only the dental positions within the Albuquerque Area will be funded with the supplemental monies consistent with the national ranking and site index within that area.
Should an IHS service unit contribute to the LRP, those funds will be used for only those sites located in that service unit. Those sites will retain their relative ranking from the national HPSA score site-ranking list.
Pursuant to section 10(a) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Cancer Institute Clinical Trials and Translational Research Advisory Committee.
The meeting will be open to the public, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting. The meeting will also be videocast and can be accessed from the NIH Videocasting and Podcasting Web site (
Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person.
In the interest of security, NIH has instituted stringent procedures for entrance onto the NIH campus. All visitor vehicles, including taxicabs, hotel, and airport shuttles will be inspected before being allowed on campus. Visitors will be asked to show one form of identification (for example, a government-issued photo ID, driver's license, or passport) and to state the purpose of their visit.
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of a meeting of the Fogarty International Center Advisory Board.
The meeting will be open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person.
In the interest of security, NIH has instituted stringent procedures for entrance onto the NIH campus. All visitor vehicles, including taxicabs, hotel, and airport shuttles will be inspected before being allowed on campus. Visitors will be asked to show one form of identification (for example, a government-issued photo ID, driver's license, or passport) and to state the purpose of their visit.
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The contract proposals and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the contract proposals, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to Public Law 92-463, notice is hereby given for the meeting of the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration's (SAMHSA) Center for Substance Abuse Prevention National Advisory Council (CSAP NAC) on February 1, 2017.
The Council was established to advise the Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services (HHS); the Administrator, SAMHSA; and Center Director, CSAP concerning matters relating to the activities carried out by and through the Center and the policies respecting such activities.
The meeting will be open to the public and will include the discussion of the substance use prevention workforce and the changing landscape of prevention. The meeting will also include updates on CSAP program developments.
The meeting will be held in Rockville, Maryland. Attendance by the public will be limited to the space available. Interested persons may present data, information, or views, orally or in writing, on issues pending before the Council. Written submissions should be forwarded to the contact person on or before one week prior to the meeting. Oral presentations from the public will be scheduled at the conclusion of the meeting. Individuals interested in making oral presentations are encouraged to notify the contact on or before one week prior to the meeting. Five minutes maximum will be allotted for each presentation.
To attend onsite, submit written or brief oral comments, or request special accommodations for persons with disabilities, please register at the SAMHSA Committees' Web site,
Substantive program information may be obtained after the meeting by accessing the SAMHSA Committee Web site,
Office of the Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, HUD.
Announcement of funding awards.
In accordance with Section 102(a)(4)(C) of the Department of Housing and Urban Development Reform Act of 1989, this announcement notifies the public of funding decisions made by the Department in a competition for funding under the FY 2016 Notice of Funding Availability (NOFA) for the Rural Capacity Building for Community Development and Affordable Housing Program. This announcement contains the names and addresses of the award recipients under said NOFA.
Steven K. Washington, Director, Office of Policy Development and Coordination, Office of Community Planning and Development, U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 7140, Washington, DC 20410, or email
As authorized by the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2016 (Pub. L. 114-113, approved December 18, 2015, the purpose of the Rural Capacity Building for Community Development and Affordable Housing program is to fund capacity building activities performed by national rural housing organizations. Through this program, grants are made to eligible organizations to then provide training, education, support and advice to enhance the technical and administrative capabilities of rural housing development organizations, Community Development Corporations (CDCs), Community Housing Development Organizations (CHDOs), local governments and Indian tribes. Eligible organizations are defined in the NOFA as a national, non-profit entity or consortium that has on-going experience in rural housing in five or more HUD regions.
Grants may be used by eligible organizations (grantees) to assist rural organizations to improve their capacity to participate in local, regional and State planning processes such as those for the Consolidated Plan, fair housing plan and the Continuum of Care for homeless assistance. Grantees will also help rural community organizations to build their capacity to evaluate performance, work broadly with the community, cooperatively plan for the use of available resources, and to link plans with neighboring communities in order to foster regional planning. Eligible activities to accomplish these purposes include making loans, pass-through grants, development assistance, predevelopment assistance, or other financial assistance to rural housing organizations, CDCs, CHDOs, local governments, and Indian tribes. Community development and affordable housing activities must benefit low-income and low- and moderate-income families and persons, for both housing and economic development activities. Finally, other activities as determined by the grantees in consultation with the HUD Secretary or his or her designee, may be allowed.
The FY 2016 awards announced in this Notice were selected for funding in a NOFA competition posted on the
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of proposed settlement; request for public comments.
Notice is hereby given that the Department of the Interior, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (DOI), together with the State of New York Department of Environmental Conservation (DEC), reached agreement on a proposed settlement with Atlantic Richfield Company regarding natural resource
Comments must be submitted by February 10, 2017.
Direct technical questions to Amy Roe (see
This proposed settlement with Atlantic Richfield Company regarding natural resource damages arising from environmental contamination at the Sinclair Refinery Superfund Site, located in Allegany County, NY, will resolve claims in accordance with section 122(j) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 9622(j); CERCLA), and Executive Order 12580 (52 FR 2923; January 29, 1987). The settling party to this settlement is Atlantic Richfield Company. The settlement includes a covenant not to sue the settling party pursuant to section 107(a)(1)(C) of CERCLA, 42 U.S.C. 9607(a)(1)(C); the Oil Pollution Act of 1990, 33 U.S.C. 2701
The settlement will require Atlantic Richfield Company to pay a total of $275,000. DOI and DEC will receive $9,000 and $1,500, respectively, to reimburse assessment costs. The rest of the money, $264,500, will fund projects to restore, rehabilitate, replace, and/or acquire the equivalent of the natural resources injured at the site, including the costs of restoration planning and oversight activities. In exchange, DOI and DEC will provide the settling party a covenant not to sue. The settlement has been approved by the Environmental and Natural Resources Division of the United States Department of Justice.
For 30 days following the date of publication of this notice (see
Written comments that we receive become part of the public record associated with this action. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can request in your comment that we withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee we will be able to do so. All submissions from organizations or businesses, and from individuals identifying themselves as representatives or officials of organizations or businesses, will be made available for public disclosure in their entirety.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), announce the availability of our finding of no significant impact (FONSI) and final environmental assessment (Final EA) for the Marianas Trench Marine National Monument (Monument) Northern Islands Submerged Lands (submerged lands) Transfer to the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands (CNMI). The FONSI documents our decision to implement Alternative 2, as it is described in the Final EA, resulting in the Department of the Interior (DOI) conveying title to certain submerged lands within the Monument from the United States to the CNMI Government through a Patent, under the authority of the Territorial Submerged Lands Act (TSLA), as amended, 48 U.S.C. 1705,
The Service's Regional Director, Pacific Region, signed the FONSI on September 15, 2016, and the conveyance was effective December 21, 2016.
You may download the FONSI, Final EA, and related documents from our Web site
You may direct questions to the Service regarding the submerged lands transfer by any one of the following methods.
Charles Houghten, 503-231-6207 (phone).
With this notice, we are announcing the completion of our Final EA, FONSI, Memorandum of Agreement (MOA), and Patent, developed in cooperation with the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) and the CNMI Government. Copies of the documents are available on the Monument's Web site:
The Final EA and FONSI were developed in compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4321
The subject of our Final EA and FONSI is the submerged lands adjacent to the islands of Farallon de Pajaros (Uracas), Maug, and Asuncion permanently covered by tidal waters up to the mean low water line and extending three miles seaward from the mean high tide line. The submerged lands are among some of the most biologically diverse in the Western Pacific Ocean, with relatively pristine coral reef ecosystems that have been proclaimed objects of scientific interest and reserved for their protection as part of the Islands Unit of the Monument by Presidential Proclamation (PP) 8335 of January 6, 2009.
The submerged lands were excepted from transfer by operation of law (TSLA) to the CNMI Government by PP 9077 of January 15, 2014. PP 9077 also stated that it did not affect the authority of the Secretary of the Interior under the TSLA to convey the excepted submerged lands to CNMI after an agreement has been entered for coordination of management that ensures the protection of the Monument within the excepted area. We developed the agreement (Memorandum of Agreement or MOA) in cooperation with the CNMI Government, DOI, and the Department of Commerce (DOC) as part of our conveyance process and Draft and Final EA.
We released our Draft EA to the public for a 30-day comment period announced in the
Alternative 1 was the Current Land Status Alternative (No Action); under it, DOI would not convey the submerged lands, including associated mineral rights to CNMI, and the Service and NOAA would continue to coordinate management of the submerged lands and associated waters, including fishery-related activities, in consultation with the CNMI Government.
We selected Alternative 2 for implementation in our Finding of No Significant Impact, signed by the Service's Regional Director for the Pacific Region on September 15, 2016. Under this alternative (the Northern Islands Submerged Lands Conveyance Alternative), the parties would sign the MOA, and DOI would convey the submerged lands, including mineral rights, to the CNMI Government through the Patent with a reserved conservation easement.
The MOA was signed by the CNMI Government, DOI, and the Department of Commerce (DOC), on September 22, 2016. The MOA identifies the roles and responsibilities of the CNMI Government, DOI, and DOC, for ensuring the protection of and coordinating the management of the conveyed submerged lands and associated waters. Under the MOA, the Service and NOAA are managing the conveyed submerged lands for the benefit of the CNMI people and in consultation with the CNMI Government.
The MOA provides for the CNMI Government to assume primary responsibility for managing the submerged lands and associated waters, consistent with the purposes and requirements of PP 8335 and PP 9077, by notifying DOI and DOC of its desire to do so. CNMI's management would include the benthic and living marine resources of the associated water column, and subterranean of the submerged lands and the associated mineral rights within. The MOA became effective upon conveyance of the submerged lands, consistent with the requirements of PP 9077. A copy of the MOA is available in the Final EA.
Completing the Draft EA and public comment period, and the Final EA, FONSI, MOA, and Patent, were milestone accomplishments in our conveyance process. After the public comment period ended for the Draft EA, we initiated the Congressional Review (CR) period for the proposed conveyance, in accordance with the process required by subsection 1(c) of the TSLA. The CR period was 60 legislative days, which was initiated by the Secretary of the Interior by describing our proposal in letters to the House of Representatives Committee on Natural Resources and the Senate Committee on Energy and Natural Resources, dated June 17, 2016. The CR period was completed on November 14, 2016, thereafter we moved forward with completing the conveyance.
Interior Secretary Sally Jewell executed a Patent conveying the submerged lands from the United States to the CNMI Government on November 29, 2016. Governor Ralph Torres (CNMI) accepted and signed the patent on December 21, 2016. The Patent reserves an easement to ensure that the submerged lands and associated resources conveyed to the CNMI Government are managed and maintained for the protection of the Monument or other federal conservation status, unless such conservation status is withdrawn by an Act of Congress. A copy of the Patent is available in an appendix in the Final EA.
A copy of the Final EA/FONSI, which includes copies of the MOA and Patent, are available at the following libraries and through sources identified under
• Joeten-Kiyu Public Library, Insåtto Street, Susupe, Sa'ipan, MP, 96950-1092.
• Tini'an Municipal Public Library, Riverside Drive, Tinian, MP 96952.
• Antonio Camacho Atalig Memorial Library, Rota Northern Marianas Campus, Tatachog Village, Rota, MP.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice; request for comments.
We (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service) will ask the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to approve the information collection (IC) described below. As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 and as part of our continuing efforts to reduce paperwork and respondent
To ensure that we are able to consider your comments on this IC, we must receive them by March 13, 2017.
Send your comments on the IC to the Information Collection Clearance Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, MS BPHC, 5275 Leesburg Pike, Falls Church, VA 22041-3803 (mail); or
To request additional information about this IC, contact Tina Campbell at
This information collection includes requirements associated with specified oil and gas industry activities and their incidental taking of polar bears (
Applicants seeking to conduct activities must request a Letter of Authorization (LOA) for the specific activity and submit monitoring reports of polar bear and Pacific walrus observations and a final summary report of the monitoring and the impacts of the activity upon polar bears and Pacific walruses to the Secretary. This is a nonform collection. Regulations at 50 CFR 18.27 outline the procedures and requirements for submitting a request. Specific regulations governing authorized activities in the Beaufort Sea are in 50 CFR 18, subpart J. Regulations governing authorized activities in the Chukchi Sea are in 50 CFR 18, subpart I. These regulations provide the applicant with a detailed description of information that we need to evaluate the proposed activity and determine whether or not to issue specific regulations and, subsequently, LOAs. We use the information to verify the findings required to issue incidental take regulations, to decide if we should issue an LOA, and, if issued, what conditions should be in the LOA. In addition, we analyze the information to determine impacts to polar bears and Pacific walruses and the availability of those marine mammals for subsistence purposes of Alaska Natives.
Holders of an LOA seeking to carry out onshore activities in known or suspected polar bear denning habitat during the denning season, must make efforts to locate occupied polar bear dens within and near proposed areas of operation. They may use any appropriate tool, such as, forward-looking infrared (FLIR) imagery and/or polar bear scent-trained dogs in concert with denning habitat maps along the Alaskan coast. In accordance with 50 CFR 18.118(a)(6)(ii)(A) and 18.128(a)(2)(ii), LOA holders must report all observed or suspected polar bear dens to us prior to the initiation of activities. We use this information to determine the appropriate terms and conditions to be used in an individual LOA in order to minimize potential impacts and disturbance to polar bears.
We invite comments concerning this information collection on:
• Whether or not the collection of information is necessary, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;
• The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information;
• Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this IC. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
U.S. Geological Survey (USGS), Interior.
Notice of a new information collection, Ecosystems Program Stakeholder Satisfaction Survey.
We (the U.S. Geological Survey) will ask the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to approve the information collection (IC) described below. As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, and as part of our continuing efforts to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, we invite the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on this IC.
To ensure that your comments are considered, we must receive them on or before March 13, 2017.
You may submit comments on this information collection to the Information Collection Clearance Officer, U.S. Geological Survey, 12201 Sunrise Valley Drive, MS 807, Reston, VA 20192 (mail); (703) 648-7197 (fax); or
Linn Kwan, Senior Program Officer, Tel. 703.648.4494 or
The survey will be sent to USGS Ecosystems Mission Area stakeholders/partners to provide respondents the opportunity to share their comments, insights and satisfaction of USGS Ecosystems research products, training, and technical assistance. The survey results will be compiled and reported in three new performance measures that are being proposed for FY2018-2022. The survey is voluntary and anonymous. The respondents' identities will only be known if they chose to share that information in the response.
We are soliciting comments as to: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the agency to perform its duties, including whether the information is useful; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, usefulness, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) how to minimize the burden on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please note that the comments submitted in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your personal mailing address, phone number, email address, or other personally identifiable information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personally identifiable information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personally identifiable information from public view, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
The National Indian Gaming Commission, Department of the Interior.
Notice of proposed action and request for comments.
The National Indian Gaming Commission (NIGC or “the Commission”) is amending its protocol for categorical exclusions under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), as amended, Executive Order 11514, as amended, and Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ) regulations for implementing the procedural provisions of NEPA (40 CFR parts 1500-1508) for certain NIGC actions.
Comments and related material must be post marked no later than 60 days after publication of this notice.
Please submit your comments by only one of the following means: (1) By mail to: NIGC Attn: Andrew Mendoza, Staff Attorney, C/O Department of the Interior, 1849 C Street NW., Mailstop #1621, Washington, DC 20240; (2) by facsimile to: (202) 632-7066; (3) by email to:
Andrew Mendoza, Staff Attorney at the National Indian Gaming Commission: 202-632-7003 (not a toll-free number).
The NIGC encourages interested persons to submit written comments. Persons submitting information concerning the Protocol should include their name, address, and other appropriate contact information. You may submit your information by one of the means listed under
On December 4, 2009, the Commission published a draft NEPA manual in the
On May 22, 2012, after reviewing the comments submitted on the draft NEPA manual, the Commission published a Protocol for Categorical Exclusions Supplementing the Council on Environmental Quality Regulations Implementing the Procedural Provisions of the National Environmental Policy Act for Certain National Indian Gaming Commissions Actions and Activities (77 FR 30315) and requested comments by June 30, 2012. This publication formally adopted two of the three categorical exclusions listed in the draft NEPA manual.
In 2015, after evaluating its past environmental reviews for management contract approvals and the comments received on the 2009 draft NEPA manual, the Commission decided to revisit its policies and procedures for implementing NEPA. To obtain updated views from the regulated community, the Commission held several consultation sessions over a two-year period with tribal nations and solicited comments regarding the scope and extent of its NEPA responsibilities. Following consultation, the Commission evaluated the newly submitted comments in conjunction with those received in response to the 2009 draft manual and decided to amend the 2012 Protocol to include a third CATEX for Management Contract and Agreement Review Activities. This CATEX will apply to certain management contract approvals that are not associated with an application to take land into trust and do not provide for construction or expansion of existing structures. In identifying this category of actions, the NIGC relied on its past experience, several environmental professionals' opinions and comparisons with other Federal agency actions that are categorically excluded.
The Commission hereby adopts the amended protocol set forth below for determining whether a categorical exclusion applies to particular action as well as the categories of actions the Commission has determined are eligible for categorical exclusions.
A copy of this
Regulatory Flexibility Act: This Protocol will not have a significant economic effect on a substantial number of small entities as defined under the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601
This Protocol is not a major rule under 5. U.S.C. 804(2), the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act. This Protocol does not have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more. This rule will not cause a major increase in costs or prices for consumers, individual industries, Federal, state or local government agencies or geographic regions, and does not have a significant adverse effect on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or the ability of U.S.-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises.
The Commission, as an independent regulatory agency within the Department of the Interior, is exempt from compliance with the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act. 2 U.S.C. 1502(1); 2 U.S.C. 658(1).
In accordance with Executive Order 12630, the Commission has determined that this Protocol does not have significant takings implications. A takings implication assessment is not required.
In accordance with Executive Order 12988, the Office of General Counsel has determined that the Protocol does not unduly burden the judicial system and meets the requirements of sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of the Executive Order.
This Protocol supplements CEQ regulations and provides guidance to NIGC employees regarding procedural requirements for the application of NEPA provisions to certain NIGC actions. The CEQ does not direct agencies to prepare a NEPA analysis or document before establishing agency procedures for implementing NEPA.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, the National Indian Gaming Commission establishes the following Protocol:
The use of a CATEX can only be applied to an action if all of the following criteria are met:
1. The responsible NIGC official must determine that the entirety of the NIGC action is encompassed by one of the listed CATEXs.
2. The responsible NIGC official must determine that the action has not been segmented in order for the NIGC action to meet the definition of an action that can qualify for a CATEX. Segmentation occurs when an action is broken into smaller parts in an effort to avoid properly documenting impacts associated with the complete action. Segmentation also occurs when the NIGC action is too narrowly defined and the potential impacts are minimized in order to avoid a higher level of NEPA documentation. Connected and cumulative actions must be considered (
3. The responsible NIGC official must determine if the NIGC action will involve any extraordinary circumstances that would prevent the use of a categorical exclusion.
The NIGC, based on past experience with similar actions, has determined that the following types of actions are categorically excluded and do not require the preparation of an EA or EIS because they will not individually or cumulatively result in a significant impact on the human environment. These types of federal actions meet the criteria established in 40 CFR 1508.4.
A. Normal personnel, fiscal, and administrative activities involving
B. Preparation of administrative or personnel-related studies, reports, or investigations.
C. Routine procurement of goods and services to support operations and infrastructure, including routine utility services and contracts, conducted in accordance with applicable procurement regulations, executive orders, and policies (
D. Normal administrative office functions (record keeping; inspecting, examining, and auditing papers, books, and records; processing correspondence; developing and approving budgets; setting fee payments; responding to request for information).
E. Routine activities and operations conducted on or in an existing structure that are within the scope and compatibility of the present functional use of the building, will not result in a substantial increase in waste discharge to the environment, will not result in substantially different waste discharges from current or previous activities, and will not result in emissions that exceed established permit limits, if any. In these cases, a Record of Environmental Consideration (REC), documentation is required.
F. NIGC training in classrooms, meeting rooms, gaming facilities, or via the internet.
A. Promulgation or publication of regulations, procedures, manuals, and guidance documents.
B. Support of compliance and enforcement functions by conducting compliance training for tribal gaming regulators and managers in classrooms, meeting rooms, gaming facilities, or via the internet.
C. Preparing and issuing subpoenas, holding hearings, and taking depositions for informational gathering purposes, not associated with administrative enforcement actions.
A. Approval or disapproval of management contracts, management contract amendments and collateral agreements that meet the following criteria: (1) Are not associated with an application to take land into trust; (2) does not provide for construction or expansion of existing structures; (3) ensures compliance with all federal, state, local and tribal environmental laws (
B. Conducting background investigations in connection with a management contract or management contract amendment.
Actions that can normally be categorically excluded may not qualify for a CATEX because an extraordinary circumstance exists (
A. The proposed action/project would threaten a violation of applicable federal, state, local or tribal statutory, regulatory, or permit requirements with regard to public health and safety.
B. The proposed action/project has effects on the environment that involve risks that are highly uncertain, unique, or are scientifically controversial.
C. The proposed action/project violates one or more federal, tribal, state, or local environmental laws, regulations, or permit requirements.
D. The proposed action/project has an adverse effect on a property or structure eligible for listing or listed on the National Register of Historical Places, including the degradation, loss, or destruction of (1) scientific, cultural, or historical resources protected by the National Historic Preservation Act of 1966, as amended; (2) on World Heritage properties; or (3) other significant scientific, cultural, or historical resources.
E. The proposed action/project has adverse effects on natural, ecological, or scenic resources of federal, tribal, state and/or local significance. These resources include: (1) Resources protected by Coastal Zone Management Act (CZMA); (2) resources protected by the Fish and Wildlife Coordination Act; (3) prime, unique, tribal, state or locally important farmlands; (4) known cultural or archaeological resources; (5) park lands; (6) federal or state listed wild or scenic rivers; and/or (7) other ecologically critical areas.
F. The proposed action/project is related to other actions that may, when considered cumulatively, have significant adverse effects.
G. The proposed action/project may adversely affect (1) a federal or state listed endangered, threatened, or candidate species; or (2) designated or proposed critical habitat under the Endangered Species Act (ESA).
H. The proposed action/project has effects which will impact floodplains and/or wetlands on Federal property.
I. The proposed action/project has effects that will cause a criteria pollutant listed under the Clean Air Act to exceed the threshold level of one or more of the National Ambient Air Quality Standards for the surrounding geographical area.
J. The proposed action/project has effects that may cause disproportionately high adverse environmental or health impacts specific to children, minorities, or low-income populations.
K. The proposed action/project is likely to have adverse effects on migratory bird populations.
L. The proposed action/project has the potential to disturb hazardous substances, pollutants, contaminants, or CERCLA-excluded petroleum and natural gas products that preexist in the environment such that there would be uncontrolled or unpermitted releases.
M. The proposed action/project has effects that are highly controversial on environmental grounds.
The purpose of categorical exclusions is to reduce paperwork and delay. The NIGC is not required to repeatedly document actions that qualify for a categorical exclusion and do not involve an extraordinary circumstance (
A. A complete description of the proposed action/project;
B. The CATEX relied upon, including a brief discussion of why there are no extraordinary circumstances;
C. Supplemental documentation that supports the conclusions in the narrative. Examples include exhibit(s) showing boundaries of historical or archeological site(s) previously identified near the proposed project, documentation from the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service noting that no endangered species or habitat is present near the proposed project, evidence that the proposed project site is located outside any non-attainment area(s), etc. In some cases, a “no effect” determination from the State Historic Preservation Office or Tribal Historic Preservation Office may be required;
D. The following statement:
E. A signature from an environmental professional with a signature block that includes the professional's credentials.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The National Park Service is soliciting comments on the significance of properties nominated before December 10, 2016, for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places.
Comments should be submitted by January 26, 2017.
Comments may be sent via U.S. Postal Service to the National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1849 C St. NW., MS 2280, Washington, DC 20240; by all other carriers, National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1201 Eye St. NW., 8th floor, Washington, DC 20005; or by fax, 202-371-6447.
The properties listed in this notice are being considered for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places. Nominations for their consideration were received by the National Park Service before December 10, 2016. Pursuant to section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60, written comments are being accepted concerning the significance of the nominated properties under the National Register criteria for evaluation.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
A request for removal has been made for the following resource(s):
Additional documentation has been received for the following resource(s):
60.13 of 36 CFR Part 60.
Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, Interior.
Notice and request for comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement (OSMRE) is announcing its intention to request renewed approval for the collection of information for the Procedures and Criteria for Approval or Disapproval of State Program Submissions.
Comments on the proposed information collection must be received by March 13, 2017, to be assured of consideration.
Mail comments to John A. Trelease, Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, 1951 Constitution Ave., NW., Room 203—SIB, Washington, DC 20240. Comments may also be submitted electronically to
To receive a copy of the information collection request contact John Trelease at (202) 208-2783, or via email at
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) regulations at 5 CFR 1320, which implement provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13), require that interested members of the public and affected agencies have an opportunity to comment on information collection and recordkeeping activities [see 5 CFR 1320.8 (d)]. OSMRE will be requesting that OMB extend its approval for the collection of information for 30 CFR part 732.
OSMRE has revised burden estimates, where appropriate, to reflect current reporting levels or adjustments based on reestimates of burden or respondents. OSMRE will request a 3-year term of approval for these information collection activities.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The OMB control number for part 732 is 1029-0024, and may be found in OSMRE's regulations at 30 CFR 732.10.
Comments are invited on: (1) The need for the collection of information for the performance of the functions of the agency; (2) the accuracy of the agency's burden estimates; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collections; and (4) ways to minimize the information collection burden on respondents, such as use of automated means of collection of the information. A summary of the public comments will accompany OSMRE's submission of the information collection request to OMB.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
This notice provides the public with 60 days in which to comment on the following information collection activity:
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has determined not to review an initial determination (“ID”) (Order No. 10) of the presiding administrative law judge (“ALJ”) granting a joint motion to terminate the investigation based upon settlement. The investigation is terminated.
Houda Morad, Office of the General Counsel, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 708-4716. Copies of non-confidential documents filed in connection with this investigation are or will be available for inspection during official business hours (8:45 a.m. to 5:15 p.m.) in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server at
The Commission instituted Investigation No. 337-TA-1013 on July 27, 2016, based on a complaint filed by Complainants Lehigh Valley Technologies, Inc. of Allentown, Pennsylvania; Endo Global Ventures of Hamilton, Bermuda; Endo Ventures Limited, of Dublin, Ireland; and Generics Bidco I, LLC (d/b/a Qualitest Pharmaceuticals and Par Pharmaceutical) of Huntsville, Alabama (collectively, “Complainants”).
On November 18, 2016, Complainants and Respondents (collectively, “the Private Parties”) filed a joint motion to terminate the investigation based upon settlement (“Joint Motion”). On November 30, 2016, the Commission Investigative Attorney filed a response in support of the Joint Motion.
On December 19, 2016, the ALJ issued a corrected initial determination (“ID”) (Order No. 10) granting the Joint Motion. As noted in the ID, the Private Parties “state[d] that `there are no other agreements, written or oral, express or implied between Complainants and Respondents concerning the subject matter of this Investigation' other than the documents submitted with the Joint Motion.”
No party has filed a petition for review of the subject ID.
The Commission has determined not to review the subject ID. The investigation is terminated.
The authority for the Commission's determination is contained in section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and in part 210 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR part 210).
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
Notice of publication on the Commission's Web site of petitions for duty suspensions and reductions and request for comments on the petitions filed.
As required by the American Manufacturing Competitiveness Act of 2016, the Commission has published on its Web site the petitions for duty suspensions and reductions that were timely filed and contain the required information, and the Commission is requesting members of the public to submit comments to the Commission on the petitions published no later than the close of business February 24, 2017.
January 11, 2017: Date of publication on the Commission's Web site of petitions for duty suspensions and reductions and opening date for filing comments concerning those petitions. February 24, 2017, 5:15 p.m., EST: Closing date and time for the submission of comments concerning the petitions for duty suspensions and reductions published on the Commission's Web site. Comments must be submitted in electronic form via the Commission's secure web portal. The Commission will not accept comments submitted in paper or in any other form or format.
All Commission offices are located in the United States International Trade Commission Building, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC. The public file for this proceeding may be viewed on the Commission's Miscellaneous Tariff Bill Petition System (MTBPS) at
For general inquiries, contact Jennifer Rohrbach at
The media should contact Peg O'Laughlin, Public Affairs Officer (202-205-1819 or
Following conclusion of the period for filing comments, the Commission will, as required by sections 3(b)(3)(C) and (E) of the Act, submit preliminary and final reports to the House Committee on Ways and Means and the Senate Committee on Finance (Committees) on the petitions received. The Commission will submit its reports in June and August 2017, respectively. The reports are to include the Commission's analysis and recommendations regarding the petitions, including whether there is domestic production of the article, whether the estimated loss in revenues due to the duty suspension or reduction does not exceed $500,000, and whether the duty suspension or reduction will be available to any person importing the article. The Commission is required to classify the petitions into categories based on whether (1) the petition meets the requirements for inclusion in a miscellaneous tariff bill; (2) the Commission recommends inclusion in such a bill with specified technical changes, changes in product scope, or adjustment in the amount of duty reduction; (3) the Commission recommends against inclusion in a bill because the petition does not meet the petitioning requirements or the petitioner is not a likely beneficiary; and (4) the Commission otherwise recommends not including the petition. The Committees and the Congress will make the final decision regarding the imported articles to be included in a bill.
Section 3(c) of the Act also requires the U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce), with input from U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) and other Federal agencies, to submit a report to the Commission and to the Committees. This report is to include information related to domestic production and technical changes that are necessary for purposes of administration when articles are presented for importation.
Petitioning parties may also submit comments. However, any such comments must not amend or seek to amend a petition that the submitter previously filed, and the Commission will not consider any comments from a petitioner to such effect.
Persons filing comments should be aware that they must be prepared to complete their entire comment when they enter the portal. The portal will not allow them to edit, amend, or complete the comment at a later time. Accordingly, they should have all the information in hand that they will need to complete their comment at the time they enter the portal. The types of information that a person submitting a comment may need are listed in the Commission's Before You File a Comment guide, which is also located on the Commission's Web site at
Confidential business information submitted to the Commission in comments may be disclosed to and/or used by (1) the Commission in calculating the estimated revenue loss required under the Act, which may be based in whole or in part on the estimated values of imports submitted in comments (as well as by petitioners in their petitions); or (2) the Commission, its employees, and contract personnel (a) in processing petitions and comments and preparing reports under the American Manufacturing Competitiveness Act of 2016 or (b) in internal investigations, audits, reviews, and evaluations relating to the programs, personnel, and operations of the Commission including under 5 U.S.C. Appendix 3; or (3) Commerce for use in preparing its report to the Commission and the Committees, and the U.S. Department of Agriculture and CBP for use in providing information for that report; or (4) U.S. government employees and contract personnel, solely for cybersecurity purposes, subject to the requirement that all contract personnel will sign appropriate nondisclosure agreements.
By order of the Commission.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that a complaint was filed with the U.S. International Trade Commission on December 6, 2016, under section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, 19 U.S.C. 1337, on behalf of Memory Technologies, LLC of Las Vegas, Nevada. An amended complaint was filed on December 12, 2016. The amended complaint alleges violations of section 337 based upon the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain flash memory devices and components thereof by reason of infringement of certain claims of U.S. Patent No. RE45,542 (“the '542 patent”); U.S. Patent No. RE45,486 (“the '486 patent”); U.S. Patent No. 7,565,469 (“the '469 patent”); U.S. Patent No. 9,063,850 (“the '850 patent”); and U.S. Patent No. 8,307,180 (“the '180 patent”). The amended complaint further alleges that an industry in the United States exists as required by subsection (a)(2) of section 337.
The complainant requests that the Commission institute an investigation and, after the investigation, issue a limited exclusion order and cease and desist orders.
The amended complaint, except for any confidential information contained therein, is available for inspection during official business hours (8:45 a.m. to 5:15 p.m.) in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Room 112, Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. Hearing impaired individuals are advised that information on this matter can be obtained by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on (202) 205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at (202) 205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server at
The Office of Unfair Import Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, telephone (202) 205-2560.
The authority for institution of this investigation is contained in section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, and in section 210.10 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, 19 CFR 210.10 (2016).
(1) Pursuant to subsection (b) of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, an investigation be instituted to determine whether there is a violation of subsection (a)(1)(B) of section 337 in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, or the sale within the United States after importation of certain flash memory devices and components thereof by reason of infringement of one or more of claim 38 of the '542 patent; claims 6, 9, 10, 22, 23, 26, and 27 of the '486 patent; claim 19 of the '469 patent; claim 10 of the '850 patent; and claims 17-19, 21, 22, and 27 of the '180 patent, and whether an industry in the United States exists as required by subsection (a)(2) of section 337;
(2) Pursuant to Commission Rule 210.50(b)(1), 19 CFR 210.50(b)(1), the presiding Administrative Law Judge shall take evidence or other information and hear arguments from the parties or other interested persons with respect to the public interest in this investigation, as appropriate, and provide the Commission with findings of fact and a recommended determination on this issue, which shall be limited to the statutory public interest factors set forth in 19 U.S.C. 1337(d)(1), (f)(1), (g)(1);
(3) For the purpose of the investigation so instituted, the following are hereby named as parties upon which this notice of investigation shall be served:
(a) The complainant is:
(b) The respondents are the following entities alleged to be in violation of section 337, and are the parties upon which the amended complaint is to be served:
(c) The Office of Unfair Import Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Suite 401, Washington, DC 20436; and
(4) For the investigation so instituted, the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. International Trade Commission, shall designate the presiding Administrative Law Judge.
Responses to the amended complaint and the notice of investigation must be submitted by the named respondents in accordance with section 210.13 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, 19 CFR 210.13. Pursuant to 19 CFR 201.16(e) and 210.13(a), such responses will be considered by the Commission if received not later than 20 days after the date of service by the
Failure of a respondent to file a timely response to each allegation in the amended complaint and in this notice may be deemed to constitute a waiver of the right to appear and contest the allegations of the amended complaint and this notice, and to authorize the administrative law judge and the Commission, without further notice to the respondent, to find the facts to be as alleged in the amended complaint and this notice and to enter an initial determination and a final determination containing such findings, and may result in the issuance of an exclusion order or a cease and desist order or both directed against the respondent.
By order of the Commission.
Notice is hereby given that, on December 15, 2016, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and PXI Systems Alliance, Inc. intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On November 22, 2000, PXI Systems Alliance, Inc. filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on September 30, 2016. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on December 7, 2016, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and PERF Project No. 2014-10 intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On February 18, 2016, PERF Project No. 2014-10 filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on September 1, 2016. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on November 30, 2016, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
Also, HDT Robotics, Inc., Fredericksburg, VA; University of Texas at Arlington, Arlington, TX; and Flextronics, San Jose, CA, have withdrawn as parties to this venture.
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and RIC-Americas intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership or planned activities.
On April 30, 2014, RIC-Americas filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on August 29, 2016. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on December 6, 2016, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
On September 15, 2004, ASTM filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on September 12, 2016. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on December 14, 2016, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
Also, Telstra, Melbourne, Victoria, AUSTRALIA, has withdrawn as a party to this venture.
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and ODPi intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On November 23, 2015, ODPi filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on September 26, 2016. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on December 15, 2016, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
Also, Kepco, Inc., Flushing, NY; and Gigatronics, San Ramon, CA, have withdrawn as parties to this venture.
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and Interchangeable Virtual Instruments Foundation, Inc. intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On May 29, 2001, Interchangeable Virtual Instruments Foundation, Inc. filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on April 28, 2016. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on November 14, 2016, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
On September 15, 2004, ASME filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification with the Attorney General was filed on May 31, 2016. A notice was filed in the
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Office of Disability Employment Policy (ODEP) sponsored information collection request (ICR) proposal titled, “Disability Employment Initiative Evaluation,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for use in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before February 10, 2017.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the
Submit comments about this request by mail or courier to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-ODEP, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Contact Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129 (this is not a toll-free number) or by email at
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
This ICR seeks PRA authority for the information collection requirements to conduct an evaluation of the Disability Employment Initiative (DEI). The DEI was designed to improve educational, training and employment opportunities and outcomes of youth and adults with disabilities by refining and expanding already identified successful public workforce strategies; improving coordination and collaboration among employment and training and asset development programs implemented at state and local levels; and build effective community partnerships that leverage public and private resources better to serve individuals with disabilities and improve employment outcomes. The study will use two distinct quasi-experimental design study designs to determine the impact of DEI interventions on participant outcomes. Information will be collected through annual site visits, a participant tracking system, and a survey.
This proposed information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information if the collection of information does not display a valid Control Number.
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
National Science Foundation.
Notice announcing updated penalty inflation adjustments for civil monetary penalties for 2017.
The National Science Foundation (NSF or Foundation) is providing notice of its adjusted maximum civil monetary penalties, effective January 15, 2017. These adjustments are required by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (the 2015 Act).
Bijan Gilanshah, Assistant General Counsel, Office of the General Counsel, National Science Foundation, 4201 Wilson Boulevard, Room 1265, Arlington, Virginia 22230, 703-292-8060.
On June 27, 2016, NSF published an interim final rule amending its regulations to adjust, for inflation, the maximum civil monetary penalties that may be imposed for violations of the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978 (ACA), as amended, 16 U.S.C. 2401
U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Notice of renewal of the Charter of the Licensing Support Network Advisory Review Panel (LSNARP).
The Licensing Support System Advisory Review Panel was established by the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) as a Federal Advisory Committee in 1989. Its purpose was to provide advice on the fundamental issues of design and development of an electronic information management system to be used to store and retrieve documents relating to the licensing of a geologic repository for the disposal of high-level radioactive waste, and on the operation and maintenance of the system. This electronic information management system was known as the Licensing Support System (LSS). In November 1998, the Commission approved amendments to title 10 of the
Membership on the Panel will continue to be drawn from those whose interests that could be affected by the use of the LSN document collection, including the Department of Energy, the NRC, the State of Nevada, the National Congress of American Indians, affected units of local governments in Nevada, the Nevada Nuclear Waste Task Force, and nuclear industry groups. Federal agencies with expertise and experience in electronic information management systems may also participate on the Panel.
The NRC has determined that renewal of the charter for the LSNARP until January 5, 2019, is in the public interest in connection with duties imposed on the Commission by law. This action is being taken in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act after consultation with the Committee Management Secretariat, General Services Administration.
Andrew L. Bates, Office of the Secretary, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555; Telephone 301 415-1963.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Application for design certification renewal; withdrawal and closure of docket.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is closing the NRC's docket for the Advanced Boiling-Water Reactor (ABWR) design certification renewal application submitted by Toshiba Corporation. Toshiba Corporation has withdrawn its application to renew the ABWR design certification rule.
The effective date of the closure of the NRC's docket for Toshiba Corporation's renewal of the ABWR design certification rule is January 11, 2017.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2010-0361 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Getachew Tesfaye, Office of New Reactors, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-8013; email:
A notice of receipt and availability of the ABWR renewal application submitted by Toshiba Corporation was previously published in the
By letter dated April 29, 2015 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15110A121), the NRC issued a request for additional information (RAI). On May 25, 2015 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15154A547), Toshiba responded to the RAI requesting postponement of further review of the application until July 1, 2016. By the letter dated December 1, 2015 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15215A318), the NRC accepted Toshiba's request to postpone the NRC review. By letter dated June 9, 2016 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16173A310), Toshiba announced its withdrawal of the application to renew the ABWR design certification from the docket.
The NRC notes that this action does not affect the existing NRC docket (52-045) for the ABWR design certification rule renewal application filed by GE-Hitachi Nuclear Energy 76 FR 9612 (February 18, 2011).
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Notice of submission to the Office of Management and Budget; request for comment.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) invites public comment on the renewal of Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for an existing collection of information. The information collection is entitled, “NRC Form 327, Special Nuclear Material (SNM) and Source Material (SM) Physical Inventory Summary Report, and NUREG/BR-0096, Instructions and Guidance for Completing Physical Inventory.”
Submit comments by February 10, 2017.
Submit comments directly to the OMB reviewer at: Vlad Dorjets, Desk Officer, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OMB 3150-0139), NEOB-10202, Office of Management and Budget, Washington, DC 20503; telephone: 202-395-7315, email:
David Cullison, NRC Clearance Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-2084; email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0062 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2016-0062 in the subject line of your comment submission, in order to ensure that the NRC is able to make your comment submission available to the public in this docket.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information in comment submissions that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. All comment submissions are posted at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the OMB, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that comment submissions are not routinely edited to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment into ADAMS.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the NRC recently
The NRC published a
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For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing recent Postal Service filings for the Commission's consideration concerning negotiated service agreements. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
The Commission gives notice that the Postal Service filed request(s) for the Commission to consider matters related to negotiated service agreement(s). The request(s) may propose the addition or removal of a negotiated service agreement from the market dominant or the competitive product list, or the modification of an existing product currently appearing on the market dominant or the competitive product list.
Section II identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, the title of each Postal Service request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. For each request, the Commission appoints an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in the proceeding, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505 (Public Representative). Section II also establishes comment deadline(s) pertaining to each request.
The public portions of the Postal Service's request(s) can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's request(s) in the captioned docket(s) are consistent with the policies of title 39. For request(s) that the Postal Service states concern market dominant product(s), applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3622, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3010, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. For request(s) that the Postal Service states concern competitive product(s), applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3632, 39 U.S.C. 3633, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3015, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comment deadline(s) for each request appear in section II.
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This notice will be published in the
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to list and trade the shares of the following under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.200, Commentary .02 (“Trust Issued Receipts”): United States 3x Oil Fund and United States −3x Short Oil Fund. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to list and trade shares (“Shares”) of the following under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.200, Commentary .02, which governs the listing and trading of Trust Issued Receipts: United States 3x Oil Fund and United States −3x Short Oil Fund (each a “Fund” and, collectively, the “Funds”).
Each Fund is a series of the USCF Funds Trust (the “Trust”), a Delaware statutory trust.
In its capacity as the Custodian for the Funds, Brown Brothers Harriman & Co. (the “Custodian”) may hold the Funds' Treasuries, cash and/or cash equivalents pursuant to a custodial agreement. Brown Brothers Harriman & Co. is also the registrar and transfer agent for the shares. In addition, in its capacity as Administrator for the Funds, Brown Brothers Harriman & Co. (the “Administrator”) performs certain administrative and accounting services for the Funds and prepares certain Commission, NFA and CFTC reports on behalf of the Funds. ALPS Fund Services, Inc. is the “Marketing Agent” for the Funds.
According to the Registration Statement, the investment objective of the Fund will be for the daily changes in percentage terms of its Shares' per Share net asset value (“NAV”) to reflect three times (3x) the daily change in percentage terms of the price of a specified short-term futures contract on light, sweet crude oil (the “Benchmark Oil Futures Contract”) less the Fund's expenses. To achieve this objective, USCF will endeavor to have the notional value of the Fund's aggregate exposure to the Benchmark Oil Futures Contract at the close of each trading day approximately equal to 300% of the Fund's NAV. The Fund will seek a return that is 300% of the return of the Benchmark Oil Futures Contract for a single day and does not seek to achieve its stated investment objective over a period of time greater than one day.
The Benchmark Oil Futures Contract is the futures contract on light, sweet crude oil as traded on the New York Mercantile Exchange (the “NYMEX”, which is part of the CME Group, Inc. (“CME”)) that is the near month contract to expire, except when the near month contract is within two weeks of expiration, in which case it will be measured by the futures contract that is the next month contract to expire.
The Fund will seek to achieve its investment objective by primarily investing in futures contracts for light, sweet crude oil that are traded on the NYMEX, ICE Futures-U.S. or other U.S. and foreign exchanges (collectively, “Oil Futures Contracts”).
The Fund will, to a lesser extent and in view of regulatory requirements and/or market conditions:
(i) Next invest in (a) cleared swap transactions based on the Benchmark Futures Contract, (b) non-exchange traded (“over-the-counter” or “OTC”), negotiated swap contracts that are valued based on the Benchmark Futures Contract, and (c) forward contracts for oil;
(ii) followed by investments in futures contracts for other types of crude oil, diesel-heating oil, gasoline, natural gas, and other petroleum-based fuels, each of which are traded on the NYMEX, ICE Futures U.S. or other U.S. and foreign exchanges as well as cleared swap transactions and OTC swap contracts valued based on the foregoing; and
(iii) finally, invest in exchange-traded cash settled options on Oil Futures Contracts.
All such other investments are referred to as “Other Oil-Related Investments” and, together with Oil Futures Contracts, are “Oil Interests.”
For the Fund to maintain a consistent 300% return versus the Benchmark Oil Futures Contract, the Fund's holdings must be rebalanced on a daily basis by buying additional Oil Interests or selling Oil Interests that it holds.
The Fund anticipates that, to the extent it invests in Oil Futures Contracts other than the Benchmark Oil Futures Contract or Other Oil-Related Investments, it will enter into various non-exchange-traded derivative contracts, including swaps and/or forward contracts, to hedge the short-term price movements of such Oil Futures Contracts (to the extent necessary) and Other Oil-Related Investments against the current Benchmark Oil Futures Contract. For example, if the Fund invested in diesel-heating oil futures contracts, it may also enter into a swap or forward contract that is valued based on the difference between the diesel-heating oil futures contract and the Benchmark Oil Futures Contract.
USCF currently anticipates that regulatory requirements such as accountability levels or position limits, and market conditions including those allowing the Fund to obtain greater liquidity or to execute transactions with more favorable pricing, could cause the Fund to invest in Other Oil-Related Investments.
The Fund will support its investments by holding the amounts of its margin, collateral and other requirements relating to these obligations in short-term obligations of the United States of two years or less (“Treasuries”), cash, and cash equivalents. The Fund may invest in money market funds, as well as Treasuries with a maturity date of two years or less, as an investment for assets not used for margin or collateral in the Oil Interests. The majority of the Fund's assets will be held in Treasuries, cash and/or cash equivalents with the Custodian.
The Fund will seek to invest in a combination of Oil Interests such that the daily changes in its NAV, measured in percentage terms, less the Fund's expenses, will track three times (3x) the daily changes in the price of the Benchmark Oil Futures Contract, also measured in percentage terms. As a specific benchmark, USCF will endeavor to place the Fund's trades in Oil Interests and otherwise manage the Fund's investments so that the difference between “A” and “B” will be plus/minus 0.30 percent (0.30%) of “B”, where:
• A is the average daily percentage change in the Fund's per Share NAV for any period of thirty (30) successive valuation days,
• B is three times the average daily percentage change in the price of the Benchmark Oil Futures Contract over the same period.
According to the Registration Statement, the design of the Fund's Benchmark Oil Futures Contract is such that every month it begins by using the near month contract to expire until the near month contract is within two weeks of expiration, when, over a four day period, it transitions to the next month contract to expire as its benchmark contract and keeps that contract as its benchmark until it becomes the near month contract and close to expiration. In the event of a crude oil futures market where near month contracts trade at a higher price than next month to expire contracts (“backwardation”), then, absent the impact of the overall movement in crude oil prices, the value of the benchmark contract would tend to rise as it approaches expiration. Conversely, in the event of a crude oil futures market where near month contracts trade at a lower price than next month contracts (“contango”), then, absent the impact of the overall movement in crude oil prices, the value of the benchmark contract would tend to decline as it approaches expiration.
According to the Registration Statement, USCF believes that market arbitrage opportunities will cause daily changes in the Fund's Share price on the Exchange on a percentage basis, to closely track the daily changes in the Fund's per Share NAV on a percentage basis.
According to the Registration Statement, the Fund has not limited the size of its offering and is committed to utilizing substantially all of its proceeds to purchase Oil Futures Contracts and Other Oil-Related Investments. If the Fund encounters accountability levels, position limits, or price fluctuation limits for Oil Futures Contracts on the NYMEX or ICE Futures U.S., it may then, if permitted under applicable regulatory requirements, purchase Oil Futures Contracts on other exchanges that trade listed crude oil futures or invest in Other Oil-Related Investments to meet its investment objective.
The Fund will invest in Oil Interests to the fullest extent possible without being unable to satisfy its current or potential margin or collateral obligations with respect to its investments in Oil Interests. In pursuing this objective, the primary focus of USCF will be the investment in futures contracts and the management of the Fund's investments in Treasuries, cash and/or cash equivalents for margining purposes and as collateral.
On each day during the four-day period, USCF anticipates it will “roll” the Fund's positions in Oil Interests by closing, or selling, a percentage of the Fund's positions in Oil Interests and reinvesting the proceeds from closing those positions in new Oil Interests that reflect the change in the Benchmark Oil Futures Contract.
Approximately 15% to 90% of the Fund's assets will be committed as margin for commodity futures contracts. However, from time to time, the percentage of assets committed as margin may be substantially more, or less, than such range. Ongoing margin and collateral payments will generally be required for both exchange-traded and OTC contracts based on changes in the value of the Oil Interests.
According to the Fund's Registration Statement, the investment objective of the Fund will be for the daily changes in percentage terms of its shares' per share net asset value (“NAV”) to reflect three times the inverse (−3x) of the daily change in percentage terms of the price of the Benchmark Oil Futures Contract, less the Fund's expenses. To achieve this objective, USCF will endeavor to have the notional value of the Fund's aggregate short exposure to the Benchmark Oil Futures Contract at the close of each trading day approximately equal to the 300% of the Fund's NAV. The Fund will seek a return that is −300% of the return of the Benchmark Oil Futures Contract for a single day and does not seek to achieve its stated investment objective over a period of time greater than one day.
The Fund will seek to achieve its investment objective by primarily investing in futures contracts for light, sweet crude oil that are traded on the NYMEX, ICE Futures U.S. or other U.S. and foreign exchanges (collectively, “Oil Futures Contracts”).
The Fund will, to a lesser extent and in view of regulatory requirements and/or market conditions:
(i) Next invest in (a) cleared swap transactions based on the Benchmark Futures Contract, (b) OTC negotiated swap contracts that are valued based on the Benchmark Futures Contract, and (c) forward contracts for oil;
(ii) followed by investments in futures contracts for other types of crude oil, diesel-heating oil, gasoline, natural gas, and other petroleum-based fuels, each of which that are traded on the NYMEX, ICE Futures U.S. or other U.S. and foreign exchanges and as well cleared swap transactions and OTC swap contracts valued based on the foregoing; and
(iii) finally, invest in exchange-traded cash settled options on Oil Futures Contracts.
For the Fund to maintain a consistent −300% return versus the Benchmark Oil Futures Contract, the Fund's holdings must be rebalanced on a daily basis by buying additional Oil Interests or selling Oil Interests that it holds.
The Fund anticipates that to the extent it invests in Oil Futures Contracts other than and the Benchmark Oil Futures Contract or Other Oil-Related Investments, it will enter into various non-exchange-traded derivative contracts, including swaps and/or forward contracts, to hedge the short-term price movements of such Oil Futures Contracts (to the extent necessary) and Other Oil-Related Investments against the current Benchmark Oil Futures Contract. For example, if the Fund invested in diesel-heating oil futures contracts, it may also enter into a swap or forward contract that is valued based on the difference between the diesel-heating oil futures contract and the Benchmark Oil Futures Contract.
USCF currently anticipates that regulatory requirements such as accountability levels or position limits, and market conditions including those allowing the Fund to obtain greater liquidity or to execute transactions with more favorable pricing, could cause the Fund to invest in Other Oil-Related Investments.
The Fund will support its investments by holding the amounts of its margin, collateral and other requirements relating to these obligations in Treasuries, cash, and cash equivalents. The Fund may invest in money market funds, as well as Treasuries with a maturity date of two years or less, as an investment for assets not used for margin or collateral in the Oil Interests. The majority of the Fund's assets will be held in Treasuries, cash and/or cash equivalents with the Custodian.
The Fund will seek to invest in a combination of Oil Interests such that the daily changes in its NAV, measured in percentage terms, less the Fund's expenses, will track three times the inverse (−3x) of the daily changes in the price of the Benchmark Oil Futures Contract, also measured in percentage terms. As a specific benchmark, USCF will endeavor to place the Fund's trades in Oil Interests and otherwise manage the Fund's investments so that the difference between “A” and “B” will be plus/minus 0.30 percent (0.30%) of “B”, where:
• A is the average daily percentage change in the Fund's per Share NAV for any period of thirty (30) successive valuation days,
• B is three times the inverse of the average daily percentage change in the price of the Benchmark Oil Futures Contract over the same period.
The design of the Fund's Benchmark Oil Futures Contract is such that every month it begins by using the near month contract to expire until the near month contract is within two months of expiration, when, over a four-day period, it transitions to the next month contract to expire as its benchmark contract and keeps that contract as its benchmark until it becomes the near month contract and close to expiration. In the event of a crude oil futures market where the near month contracts trade at a higher price than next month to expire contracts (“backwardation”), then, absent the impact of the overall movement in crude oil prices, the value of the benchmark contract would tend to rise as it approaches expiration. Conversely, in the event of a crude oil futures market where near month contracts trade at a lower price than next month contracts (“contango”), then, absent the impact of the overall movement in crude oil prices, the value of the benchmark contract would tend to decline as it approaches expiration.
USCF believes that market arbitrage opportunities will cause daily changes in the Fund's Share price on the Exchange on a percentage basis, to closely track the daily changes in the Fund's per Share NAV on a percentage basis.
According to the Registration Statement, the Fund has not limited the size of its offering and is committed to utilizing substantially all of its proceeds to purchase Oil Futures Contracts and Other Oil-Related Investments. If the Fund encounters accountability levels, position limits, or price fluctuation limits for Oil Futures Contracts on the NYMEX or ICE Futures, it may then, if permitted under applicable regulatory requirements, purchase Oil Futures Contracts on other exchanges that trade listed crude oil futures or invest in Other Oil-Related Investments to meet its investment objective.
The Fund will invest in Oil Interests to the fullest extent possible without being unable to satisfy its current or potential margin or collateral obligations with respect to its investments in Oil Interests. In pursuing this objective, the primary focus of USCF is the investment in futures contracts and the management of the Fund's investments in Treasuries, cash and/or cash equivalents for margining purposes and as collateral.
On each day during the four-day period, USCF anticipates it will “roll” the Fund's positions in Oil Interests by closing, or selling, a percentage of the Fund's positions in Oil Interests and reinvesting the proceeds from closing those positions in new Oil Interests that reflect the change in the Benchmark Oil Futures Contract.
Approximately 15% to 90% of the Fund's assets will be committed as margin for commodity futures contracts. However, from time to time, the percentage of assets committed as margin may be substantially more, or less, than such range. Ongoing margin and collateral payments will generally be required for both exchange-traded and OTC contracts based on changes in the value of the Oil Interests.
According to the Registration Statements, each Fund's per Share NAV will be calculated by taking the current market value of its total assets; subtracting any liabilities; and dividing that total by the total number of outstanding Shares.
The Administrator intends to calculate the NAV of each Fund once each NYSE trading day. The NAV for a normal trading day will be released after 4:00 p.m. Eastern time. Trading during the Exchange's Core Trading Session typically closes at 4:00 p.m. Eastern time. The Administrator will use the
In addition, in order to provide updated information relating to a Fund for use by investors and market professionals, the Exchange will calculate and disseminate throughout the Exchange's Core Trading Session of 9:30 a.m. Eastern time to 4:00 p.m. Eastern time on each trading day an updated “Indicative Fund Value” (“IFV”). The IFV will be calculated by using the prior day's closing NAV per Share of a Fund as a base and updating that value throughout the trading day to reflect changes in the most recently reported trade price for the active light, sweet Oil Futures Contract on the NYMEX.
The IFV will be disseminated on a per Share basis for each Fund every 15 seconds during the Exchange's Core Trading Session. The normal trading hours of the NYMEX are 9:00 a.m. Eastern time to 2:30 p.m. Eastern time. There will be a gap in time at the end of each day during which a Fund's Shares are traded on the NYSE Arca, but real-time NYMEX trading prices for oil futures contracts traded on the NYMEX are not available. During such gaps in time, the IFV will be calculated based on the end of day price of such Oil Futures Contracts from the NYMEX's immediately preceding trading session. In addition, other Oil Futures Contracts, Other Oil-Related Investments and Treasuries held by a Fund will be valued by the Administrator, using rates and points received from client-approved third party vendors and advisor quotes. These investments will not be included in the IFV.
According to the Registration Statements, each Fund intends to create and redeem Shares in one or more “Creation Baskets” or “Redemption Baskets” of 50,000 Shares. The creation and redemption of baskets will be made only in exchange for delivery to a Fund or the distribution by a Fund of the amount of Treasuries and/or cash represented by the baskets being created or redeemed, the amount of which will be equal to the combined NAV of the number of Shares of a Fund included in the baskets being created or redeemed determined as of 4:00 p.m. Eastern time on the day the order to create or redeem baskets is properly received.
Authorized Participants will be the only persons that may place orders to create and redeem baskets. Authorized Participants must be (1) registered broker-dealers or other securities market participants, such as banks and other financial institutions, that are not required to register as broker-dealers to engage in securities transactions described below, and (2) Depository Trust Company (“DTC”) Participants.
On any business day, an Authorized Participant may place an order with the Marketing Agent to create one or more baskets. For purposes of processing purchase and redemption orders, a “business day” means any day other than a day when NYSE or any futures exchange upon which a Benchmark Oil Futures Contract is traded is closed for regular trading. Purchase orders must be placed by 12:00 p.m. Eastern time or the close of regular trading on NYSE Arca, whichever is earlier. The day on which the Marketing Agent receives a valid purchase order is referred to as the purchase order date.
By placing a purchase order, an Authorized Participant agrees to (1) deposit Treasuries, cash, or a combination of Treasuries and cash with the Custodian of a Fund, and (2) if required by USCF in its sole discretion, enter into or arrange for a block trade, an exchange for physical or exchange for swap, or any other OTC transaction (through itself or a designated acceptable broker) with a Fund for the purchase of a number and type of futures contracts at the closing settlement price for such contracts on the purchase order date. If an Authorized Participant fails to consummate (1) and (2), the order shall be cancelled.
The total deposit required to create each basket (“Creation Basket Deposit”) is the amount of Treasuries and/or cash that is in the same proportion to the total assets of a Fund (net of estimated accrued but unpaid fees, expenses and other liabilities) on the purchase order date as the number of Shares to be created under the purchase order is in proportion to the total number of Shares outstanding on the purchase order date. The Marketing Agent will publish an estimate of the Creation Basket Deposit requirements at the beginning of each business day.
An Authorized Participant who places a purchase order will be responsible for transferring to a Fund's account with the Custodian the required amount of Treasuries and/or cash by noon Eastern time on the third business day following the purchase order date. Upon receipt of the deposit amount, the Administrator will direct DTC to credit the number of baskets ordered to the Authorized Participant's DTC account on the third business day following the purchase order date.
According to the Registration Statement, the procedures by which an Authorized Participant will be able to redeem one or more baskets will mirror the procedures for the creation of baskets. On any business day, an Authorized Participant may place an order with the Marketing Agent to redeem one or more baskets. Redemption orders must be placed by 12:00 p.m. Eastern time or the close of regular trading on NYSE Arca, whichever is earlier. A redemption order so received will be effective on the date it is received in satisfactory form by the Marketing Agent (“Redemption Order Date”). An Authorized Participant may not withdraw a redemption order.
The redemption distribution from a Fund will consist of a transfer to the redeeming Authorized Participant of an amount of Treasuries and/or cash that is in the same proportion to the total assets of a Fund (net of estimated accrued but unpaid fees, expenses and other
USCF may, in its discretion, suspend the right of redemption, or postpone the redemption settlement date, (1) for any period during which NYSE Arca or any of the futures exchanges upon which a Benchmark Oil Futures Contract is traded is closed other than customary weekend or holiday closings, or trading on NYSE Arca or such futures exchanges is suspended or restricted, (2) for any period during which an emergency exists as a result of which delivery, disposal or evaluation of Treasuries is not reasonably practicable, or (3) for such other period as USCF determines to be necessary for the protection of the shareholders. For example, USCF may determine that it is necessary to suspend redemptions to allow for the orderly liquidation of a Fund's assets at an appropriate value to fund a redemption. If USCF has difficulty liquidating a Fund's positions,
The NAV for the Funds' Shares will be disseminated daily to all market participants at the same time. The Exchange will make available on its Web site daily trading volume of each of the Shares, closing prices of such Shares, and number of Shares outstanding. The intraday, closing prices, and settlement prices of the Oil Futures Contracts will be readily available from the applicable futures exchange Web sites, automated quotation systems, published or other public sources, or major market data vendors.
Complete real-time data for the Oil Futures Contracts is available by subscription through on-line information services. ICE Futures U.S. and NYMEX also provide delayed futures information on current and past trading sessions and market news free of charge on their respective Web sites. Quotation and last-sale information regarding the Shares will be disseminated through the facilities of the Consolidated Tape Association (“CTA”). The IFV will be available through on-line information services.
In addition, the Funds' Web site,
With respect to trading halts, the Exchange may consider all relevant factors in exercising its discretion to halt or suspend trading in the Shares of a Fund.
The Exchange may halt trading during the day in which an interruption to the dissemination of the IFV or the value of the Benchmark Oil Futures Contract occurs. If the interruption to the dissemination of the IFV, or the value of the Benchmark Oil Futures Contract persists past the trading day in which it occurred, the Exchange will halt trading no later than the beginning of the trading day following the interruption. In addition, if the Exchange becomes aware that the NAV with respect to the Shares is not disseminated to all market participants at the same time, it will halt trading in the Shares until such time as the NAV is available to all market participants.
The Exchange deems the Shares to be equity securities, thus rendering trading in the Shares subject to the Exchange's existing rules governing the trading of equity securities. Shares will trade on the NYSE Arca Marketplace from 4 a.m. to 8 p.m. E.T. in accordance with NYSE Arca Equities Rule 7.34 (Early, Core, and Late Trading Sessions). The Exchange has appropriate rules to facilitate transactions in the Shares during all trading sessions. As provided in NYSE Arca Equities Rule 7.6, the minimum price variation (“MPV”) for quoting and entry of orders in equity securities traded on the NYSE Arca Marketplace is $0.01, with the exception of securities that are priced less than $1.00 for which the MPV for order entry is $0.0001.
The Shares will conform to the initial and continued listing criteria under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.200. The trading of the Shares will be subject to NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.200, Commentary .02(e), which sets forth certain restrictions on Equity Trading Permit (“ETP”) Holders acting as registered Market Makers in Trust Issued Receipts to facilitate surveillance. The Exchange represents that, for initial and/or continued listing, the Funds will be in compliance with Rule 10A-3
The Exchange represents that trading in the Shares will be subject to the existing trading surveillances administered by the Exchange, as well as cross-market surveillances administered by the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (“FINRA”) on behalf of the Exchange, which are designed to detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws.
The surveillances referred to above generally focus on detecting securities trading outside their normal patterns, which could be indicative of manipulative or other violative activity. When such situations are detected, surveillance analysis follows and investigations are opened, where appropriate, to review the behavior of all relevant parties for all relevant trading violations.
The Exchange or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, will
Not more than 10% of the net assets of a Fund in the aggregate invested in futures contracts shall consist of futures contracts whose principal market is not a member of the ISG or is a market with which the Exchange does not have a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement.
In addition, the Exchange also has a general policy prohibiting the distribution of material, non-public information by its employees.
All statements and representations made in this filing regarding (a) the description of the portfolios, or (b) limitations on portfolio holdings or reference assets shall constitute continued listing requirements for listing the Shares on the Exchange.
The issuer has represented to the Exchange that it will advise the Exchange of any failure by a Fund to comply with the continued listing requirements, and, pursuant to its obligations under Section 19(g)(1) of the Act, the Exchange will monitor for compliance with the continued listing requirements. If a Fund is not in compliance with the applicable listing requirements, the Exchange will commence delisting procedures under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 5.5(m).
Prior to the commencement of trading, the Exchange will inform its ETP Holders in an Information Bulletin of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares. Specifically, the Information Bulletin will discuss the following: (1) The risks involved in trading the Shares during the Opening and Late Trading Sessions when an updated IFV will not be calculated or publicly disseminated; (2) the procedures for purchases and redemptions of Shares in Creation Baskets and Redemption Baskets (and that Shares are not individually redeemable); (3) NYSE Arca Equities Rule 9.2(a), which imposes a duty of due diligence on its ETP Holders to learn the essential facts relating to every customer prior to trading the Shares; (4) how information regarding the IFV is disseminated; (5) that a static IFV will be disseminated, between the close of trading on the CME and the close of the NYSE Arca Core Trading Session; (6) the requirement that ETP Holders deliver a prospectus to investors purchasing newly issued Shares prior to or concurrently with the confirmation of a transaction; and (7) trading information.
In addition, the Information Bulletin will advise ETP Holders, prior to the commencement of trading, of the prospectus delivery requirements applicable to a Fund. The Exchange notes that investors purchasing Shares directly from a Fund will receive a prospectus. ETP Holders purchasing Shares from a Fund for resale to investors will deliver a prospectus to such investors. The Information Bulletin will also discuss any exemptive, no-action, and interpretive relief granted by the Commission from any rules under the Act. In addition, the Information Bulletin will reference that a Fund is subject to various fees and expenses described in the Registration Statement. The Information Bulletin will also reference that the CFTC has regulatory jurisdiction over the trading of Oil Futures Contracts traded on U.S. markets.
The Information Bulletin will also disclose the trading hours of the Shares and that the NAV for the Shares will be calculated after 4:00 p.m. E.T. each trading day. The Information Bulletin will disclose that information about the Shares will be publicly available on the Funds' Web site.
The basis under the Act for this proposed rule change is the requirement under Section 6(b)(5)
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices in that the Shares will be listed and traded on the Exchange pursuant to the initial and continued listing criteria in NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.200. The Exchange has in place surveillance procedures that are adequate to properly monitor trading in the Shares of the Funds in all trading sessions and to deter and detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws. The Exchange or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares, and certain Oil Futures Contracts with other markets and other entities that are members of the ISG, and the Exchange or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, may obtain trading information regarding trading in the Shares and certain Oil Futures Contracts from such markets and other entities. In addition, the Exchange may obtain information regarding trading in the Shares and certain Oil Futures Contracts from markets and other entities that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has in place a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement. Not more than 10% of the net assets of a Fund in the aggregate invested in futures contracts shall consist of futures contracts whose principal market is not a member of the ISG or is a market with which the Exchange does not have a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement. The Exchange will make available on its Web site daily trading volume of each of the Shares, closing prices of such Shares, and number of Shares outstanding. The intraday, closing prices, and settlement prices of the Oil Futures Contracts will be readily available from the applicable exchange Web site, automated quotation systems, published or other public sources, or on-line information services.
Complete real-time data for the Oil Futures Contracts is available by subscription from on-line information services. ICE Futures U.S. and NYMEX also provide delayed futures information on current and past trading sessions and market news free of charge on their Web sites. Information regarding exchange-traded cash-settled options and cleared swap contracts will be available from the applicable exchanges and major market data vendors. Quotation and last-sale information regarding the Shares will be disseminated through the facilities of the CTA. In addition, the Funds' Web site, will display the applicable end of day closing NAV. Each Fund's total portfolio composition will be disclosed each business day that the NYSE Arca is open for trading, on the Funds' Web site. The Web site disclosure of portfolio
Moreover, prior to the commencement of trading, the Exchange will inform its Equity Trading Permit Holders in an Information Bulletin of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares. Trading in Shares of a Fund will be halted if the circuit breaker parameters in NYSE Arca Equities Rule 7.12 have been reached or because of market conditions or for reasons that, in the view of the Exchange, make trading in the Shares inadvisable.
The proposed rule change is designed to perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest in that it will facilitate the listing and trading of additional types of Trust Issued Receipts based on oil prices that will enhance competition among market participants, to the benefit of investors and the marketplace. As noted above, the Exchange has in place surveillance procedures that are adequate to properly monitor trading in the Shares in all trading sessions and to deter and detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purpose of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change will facilitate the listing and trading of additional types of Trust Issued Receipts based on oil prices and that will enhance competition among market participants, to the benefit of investors and the marketplace.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The proposed rule change by DTC would revise its Procedures
In its filing with the Commission, DTC included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. DTC has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The proposed rule change by DTC would revise its Procedures set forth in the Guide to: (1) Update its corporate action service by transitioning corporate action functions on its PTS and PBS systems for the processing of Redemptions events to CA Web; (2) reflect the transition from DTC's proprietary CCF files to ISO 20022 messaging to communicate Announcements; (3) establish the Fee Start Date associated with CCF Reorganizations Announcement files, and the dates for the retirement of CCF files for all Announcements; and (4) make other ministerial changes as more fully described below.
Beginning in 2011, DTC has filed a series of rule changes to update its corporate action services by migrating the corporate action functions for Distributions from PTS/PBS to CA Web, a then new browser user interface,
With this proposed rule change, DTC would transition PTS/PBS functions for Redemptions to CA Web,
Since 2011, DTC has been encouraging Participants to migrate from CCF Announcement files to ISO 20022 messaging
In response to these Participant requests, on December 24, 2015, DTC filed a rule change postponing the date for the retirement of CCF Announcement files for Distributions, Redemptions, and Reorganizations, and, in order to encourage the transition to ISO 20022, implementing, in phases, a fee (“CCF File Fee”) for Participants that have not migrated to ISO 20022 messaging and continue to receive the
This proposed rule change would amend the Fee Schedule to reflect a Fee Start Date of January 1, 2018 for Reorganizations Announcements. In addition, the proposed rule change would provide for the retirement of all corporate action CCF files for Announcements in accordance with the schedule below. DTC has communicated with its Participants about the retirement of CCF Announcement files for corporate action events through several DTC Important Notices, industry conferences and monthly industry calls.
The retirement of CCF Announcement files would be implemented in the following phases:
Finally, in order to align the Guide to Participants' use of ISO 20022 messaging for Redemptions Announcements, the Guide would be updated to add the appropriate references to ISO 20022.
The proposed rule change would update the Guide to make ministerial updates to reflect current terminology and practice, and to remove references to outdated functions which had been replaced, as set forth below. The Guide would be updated to:
(1) Remove references to the functions of PTS that had been replaced by other functions over the past several years: Completion Flash (RIPS provides the same functionality), SDAL (replaced by SDAR), ACLP (replaced by RIPS), PTSI (replaced by dtcc.com and REOG (Reorganization Selection Menu)), and the PTS Network (replaced by RIPS).
(2) Remove references to the use of PTS Printers, PTS tickets, and PTS Flash. Similar functionality is available electronically on PTS/PBS, and would be available on CA Web.
(3) Remove references to the PTS Manual, which has been superseded.
(4) Remove reference to hard copy monthly bills. Hardcopy bills for corporate actions services were discontinued several years ago. Bills are sent via email and are available on iBill on the DTCC Portal.
(5) Remove the provision that states that the Guide does not cover procedures relating to maturities and redemptions of commercial paper (“CP”) as it is no longer accurate. Currently, DTC does announce CP maturities, and therefore the Guide is applicable.
(6) Remove references to Next Day Funds Settlement (“NDFS”) service and related processes, which were superseded by DTC's Same Day Funds Settlement (“SDFS”) Service.
(7) Replace references to Reorganization Notice (REORGN) CCF File, which had been replaced with the REOGN2 CCF File.
(8) In the section under the heading About Charge-Backs and Adjustments, replace the statement “After crediting you with a redemption payment, DTC occasionally determines that this credit was improper due to an issuer's default on the payment, an error on the part of DTC, or some other reason” with “DTC does not credit proceeds to Participants until it is funded by the issuer/agent. Occasionally, it is determined that the proceeds
(9) In the section under the heading Reorg Deposit Service, correct the statement that DTC's Reorg Deposits Service allows Participants to deposit Eligible Securities “that are undergoing or have undergone within the last two years, redemptions, maturity or mandatory reorganization maturity processing” to (a) reflect that the Reorg Deposits Service accepts deposits of Eligible Securities that have undergone such processing at any point in time, and (b) remove the reference to “mandatory reorganization maturity processing” as it is duplicative of “maturity”.
(10) Move screenshots of the “Impartial Lottery Method for Allocating Called Securities” and related images to Appendix A.
(11) Remove duplicative text.
(12) Update the text to reflect book-entry and FAST inventory, in addition to physical certificates.
(13) Clarify and streamline the text to improve readability.
(14) Add the title of the Guide and update the `Important Legal Information' to align with other DTC service guides.
(15) Add background information on Redemptions services.
(16) Correct spelling, grammatical and typographical errors throughout.
(17) Update other text, including address, phone numbers, Web site information, and methods of delivering information.
The proposed rule change would take effect on January 1, 2017.
DTC believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act.
Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act requires,
In addition, by establishing the Fee Start Date for the Reorganizations CCF File Fee and the retirement dates for CCF files for Distributions, Redemptions, and Reorganizations Announcements, the proposed rule change would require Participants to complete their transition to ISO 20022 messaging by a date certain. ISO 20022 messaging provides Participants with (a) more data fields than are in CCF files, increasing transparency about the events being announced, and (b) near real-time industry standard messaging, which is not available for CCF files, providing consistency for Participants and accelerating the flow of information, therefore increasing efficiency. Ultimately, DTC expects that Participants would better process their announcements, instructions, entitlements and allocations, promoting the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions consistent with the requirements of the Act, in particular Section 17A(b)(3)(F), cited above.
DTC does not believe that the proposed rule change would have any impact on competition, because the transition from PTS/PBS functions for the processing of Redemptions to CA Web would only enhance and simplify a current service and process, and the retirement of the CCF Announcement files would remove an outdated process and replace it with an improved standard of messaging. Both the CA Web and ISO 20022 messaging would be available to Participants without additional costs. In addition, since Participants have been aware of these forthcoming changes, and any related operational impact on their systems, for several years, DTC believes that, they have had sufficient time to mitigate any implementation costs.
Written comments relating to the proposed rule change have not been solicited or received. DTC will notify the Commission of any written comments received by DTC.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 1, is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On November 4, 2016, C2 Options Exchange, Incorporated (“Exchange” or “C2”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
C2 proposes to amend its rules relating to the opening and closing of series for trading on the Exchange. Rule 6.11 describes the process that the automated trading system used by the Exchange for the trading of options contracts (the “System”) uses to open series on the Exchange each trading day. The Exchange may also use this process for closing series or opening series after a trading halt. The Exchange is proposing various changes to reorganize and simplify the rule and to more accurately reflect current System functionality.
According to the Exchange, the System generally processes the opening of each series in four stages:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
According to C2, the proposed rule change is designed to more clearly organize Rule 6.11 in this sequential order and makes the additional specific changes discussed in more detail below.
Rule 6.11(a) currently provides that the System accepts orders and quotes for a period of time before the opening of trading in the underlying security or, in the case of index options, prior to 8:30 a.m.
Under the proposal, the Exchange generally will not restrict the size or origin code of orders that may be submitted during the pre-opening period. Therefore, the proposed rule change amends Rule 6.11(a)(1) to delete the provision that requires the Exchange to designate on a class-by-class basis the eligible order size, eligible order type, and eligible order origin code which the System will accept.
The proposed rule change amends Rule 6.11(a)(2) in several ways. First, it defines EOIs and specifies the timing of their dissemination. EOIs contain information based on resting orders and quotes in the Book, including the EOP, the EOS, any reason why a series may not open pursuant to paragraph (d) of Rule 6.11,
The proposed rule change further modifies Rule 6.11(a)(2) to redefine the terms EOP and EOS and address when that information will be disseminated. Currently, Rule 6.11(a)(2) states that the EOP is the price at which the greatest number of orders and quotes in the book are expected to trade and provides that an EOP will only be calculated if (a) there are market orders in the book, or the book is crossed or locked and (b) at least one quote is present. The proposed rule change revises this language to state that the EOP is the price at which any opening trade is expected to execute and adds that the EOS is the size of any expected opening trade. The proposed rule change further states the System will only disseminate EOP and EOS messages if the width between the highest quote bid and lowest quote offer on the Exchange or disseminated by other exchanges is no wider than the “Opening Exchange Prescribed Width range” or “OEPW range” (as described below).
Rule 6.11(b) currently provides that, unless unusual circumstances exist, at a randomly selected time within a number of seconds after the opening trade and/or the opening quote is disseminated in the market for the underlying security
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 6.11(b) to provide that the System will initiate the opening rotation procedure and send out a Rotation Notice on a class-by-class basis as follows:
○ With respect to equity and ETP options, after the opening trade or the opening quote is disseminated in the market for the underlying security, or at 8:30 a.m. for classes determined by the Exchange (including over-the-counter equity classes); or
○ with respect to index options, at 8:30 a.m., or at the later of 8:30 a.m. and the time the Exchange receives a
Rule 6.11(c) provides that after the Rotation Notice is sent, the System enters into a rotation period, during which the opening price is established for each series. The proposed rule change reorganizes paragraph (c) to more clearly demarcate and further describe (1) when the opening rotation period begins, (2) what happens during the period, (3) the handling of EOIs during the period, and (4) when the period ends.
During the opening rotation period, the System establishes the opening trade price and the opening BBO by matching and executing resting orders and quotes against each other. The proposed rule change modifies the definition of the opening trade price of a series to be the “market-clearing” price, which is the single price at which the largest number of contracts in the book can execute, leaving bids and offers that cannot trade with each other.
The proposed rule change clarifies that the System will continue to disseminate EOIs (not just the EOP and EOS) during the opening rotation period, which may be disseminated at more frequent intervals closer to the opening.
In its filing, the Exchange represented that, pursuant to the Options Price Reporting Authority (“OPRA”) Plan, once a series opens, the System disseminates all quote and trade price information to OPRA, including opening quote and trade price information.
Current Rule 6.11(e) provides that the System will not open a series if one of a number of specified conditions is met, including the absence of a quote or if the opening price would not be within an acceptable range, or if the opening trade would be at a price that is not the national best bid or offer (“NBBO”) or would leave a market order imbalance.
(1) If there are no quotes on the Exchange or disseminated from at least one away exchange present in the series, the System will not open the series;
(2) if the width between the best quote bid and best quote offer, which may consist of Market-Makers quotes or bids and offers disseminated from an away exchange, is wider than an acceptable opening price range (as determined by the Exchange on a class-by-class and premium basis) (the OEPW range)
(3) if the opening trade price would be outside the OEPW range or the NBBO, the System will open the series by matching orders and quotes to the extent they can trade and will report the opening trade, if any, at an opening trade price not outside either the OEPW range or NBBO. The System will then expose any remaining marketable buy (sell) orders at the widest offer (bid) point of the OEPW range or NBO (NBB), whichever is lower (higher);
(4) if the opening trade would leave a market order imbalance, the System will open the series by matching orders and quotes to the extent they can trade and will report the opening trade, if any, at the opening trade price. The System will then expose any remaining marketable buy (sell) orders at the widest offer (bid) point of the OEPW range or NBO (NBB), whichever is lower (higher); or
(5) if the opening quote bid (offer) or the NBB (NBO) crosses the opening
In addition, the proposed rule change moves provisions related to the exposure of orders at the open from current subparagraph (g)(2) and Interpretation and Policy .04 to proposed paragraph (d) to eliminate duplicative language and to include all provisions regarding the opening exposure process in one place.
The Exchange also proposes to add to paragraph (d) that if the System does not open a series pursuant to paragraph (d), notwithstanding proposed paragraph (c) (which states the opening rotation period may not last more than 60 seconds), the opening rotation period continues (including the dissemination of EOIs) until the condition causing the delay is satisfied or the Exchange otherwise determines it is necessary to open a series in accordance with proposed paragraph (e).
Current Rule 6.11 provides in various places, including paragraphs (b)(2) and (h), that a senior Exchange official in the Help Desk may determine whether to modify the opening procedures when they deem necessary. The Exchange proposes to delete paragraph (b)(2) and centralize references to the Help Desk in one paragraph (retitled from (h) to (e)). The proposed rule change lists examples of actions the Help Desk may take in the interests of commencing or maintaining a fair and orderly market, in the event of unusual market conditions, or in the public interest, including delaying or compelling the opening of any series in any options class, and modifying timers or settings described in Rule 6.11. The proposed rule change adds that the Exchange will make and maintain records to document all determinations to deviate from the standard manner of the opening procedure, and periodically review these determinations.
The Exchange also proposes to amend Interpretation and Policy .02, which states all pronouncements regarding determinations by the Exchange pursuant to Rule 6.11 and the Interpretations and Policies thereunder will be announced via Regulatory Circular with appropriate advanced notice to ensure participants are aware of these determinations and have sufficient time to make any necessary changes in response to the determinations. The proposed rule change adds that notice of determinations with respect to the opening process may be made “as otherwise provided,” which recognizes that some parts of Rule 6.11 provide that certain notifications will be made in a different manner (for example, via electronic message rather than via Regulatory Circular).
The proposed rule change also amends current Rule 6.11(i) and proposed Rule 6.11(f) to indicate that the procedure described in Rule 6.11 may be used to reopen a series, in addition to a class, after a trading halt to address a potential situation in which only certain series are subjected to halt. The proposed rule change also adds detail regarding notice of use of this opening procedure following a trading halt and clarifies that the procedure would be the same, though depending on facts and circumstances, there may be no pre-opening period or a shorter pre-opening period. Proposed paragraph (f) further states the Exchange will announce the reopening of a class or series after a trading halt as soon as practicable via electronic message to Participants that request to receive such messages.
The Exchange proposes to amend Interpretation and Policy .01, which states the Exchange may determine on a class-by-class basis which electronic algorithm from Rule 6.12 applies to the class during rotations. The proposed rule change makes the electronic algorithm that applies to a class intraday the default algorithm during rotations, but continues to leave the Exchange flexibility to apply a different algorithm to a class during rotations if it deems such action to be necessary or appropriate.
Finally, the proposed rule change makes numerous non-substantive and clerical changes throughout Rule 6.11 (and its Interpretations and Policies), including adding or amending headings and defined terms, updating cross-references, adding introductory and clarifying language, using consistent language and punctuation, and replacing terms such as “option series” with series in recognition of the fact that C2 only trades options.
After careful review, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of Section 6 of the Act,
In particular, the proposed rule change reorganizes and attempts to clarify the description of the opening (and sometimes closing) procedures, deletes text that the Exchange believes is either obsolete or unnecessary, removes certain discretion for the Exchange to make determinations under the rule on a class-by-class basis where C2 no longer needs that discretion, and is intended to promote greater consistency across Rule 6.11. The Commission notes that these changes may offer market participants a better understanding of how the Exchange's opening (and sometimes closing) procedures operate. To the extent the changes achieve that goal, they may promote transparency, reduce the potential for investor confusion, and assist market participants in deciding whether to participate in C2's trading rotations and, if they do participate, have confidence and certainty as to how their orders will be processed by the C2 System.
The Commission believes that the proposed rule change is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade by seeking to ensure that series open in a fair and orderly manner with sufficient liquidity and opportunities for execution at prices that are determined by market forces. In particular, the Exchange notes that the proposed rule change is designed to ensure that market participants are aware of the circumstances under which the System may not open a series.
For the foregoing reasons, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend its Fees Schedule. The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site (
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its Fees Schedule. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to waive transaction fees incurred from certain transactions executed in compression forums.
SEC Rule 15c3-1 (Net Capital Requirements for Brokers or Dealers) (“Net Capital Rules”) requires every registered broker-dealer [sic] maintain certain specified minimum levels of capital.
All Options Clearing Corporation (“OCC”) clearing members are subject to the Net Capital Rules. However, a subset
The Exchange believes these regulatory capital requirements could impede efficient use of capital and undermine the critical liquidity role that Market-Makers play in the SPX options market by limiting the amount of capital clearing TPHs can allocate to clearing member transactions. Specifically, the rules may cause clearing TPHs to impose stricter position limits on their clearing members. These stricter position limits may impact the liquidity Market-Makers might supply in the SPX market, and this impact may be compounded when a clearing TPH has multiple Market-Maker client accounts, each having largely risk-neutral portfolio holdings.
Currently, TPHs may reduce open interest in SPX options for regulatory capital purposes by simply trading out of positions at the end of each month as they would trade any open position. The Exchange currently waives transaction fees incurred as a result of transactions that compress or reduce certain open positions.
To encourage TPHs to submit compression-list positions in advance of monthly compression forums and compress these positions during compression forums, the Exchange proposes to rebate all transaction fees for closing transactions involving SPX and SPXW compression-list positions executed in a compression forum (pursuant to Rule 6.56).
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
In particular, the Exchange believes rebating transaction fees to TPHs that submit compression-list positions to the Exchange in advance is reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory because it encourages TPHs to submit to the Exchange these positions in advance of compression forums. The Exchange may then aggregate these positions, which will allow TPHs to more easily identify counterparty interest and increase opportunities for TPHs to ultimately close these positions during a compression forum. The Exchange believes compression of these positions would improve market liquidity by freeing capital currently tied up in positions for which there is a minimal chance that a significant loss would occur. All TPHs may submit compression-list positions, are subject to the same submission deadline, and may participate in compression forums.
The Exchange believes rebating transaction fees for transactions closing compression-list positions during compression forums is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because compression forums will provide an opportunity for TPHs to efficiently conduct closing transactions of these positions. These positions would result in extremely large bank capital requirements for Clearing TPHs even though there is minimal change [sic] for large losses to occur. Additionally, these positions have little or no economic benefit to the TPHs that hold these positions, who would likely prefer to close them but for the associated transaction fees. The fee rebate therefore allows TPHs to close out of these positions that are needlessly burdensome on themselves and Clearing TPHs.
The Exchange believes it is reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory to limit the rebate to transactions that close compression-list positions, which must either have a required capital charge equal to the minimum capital charge pursuant to the RBH calculator in OCC's rules or a delta of ten or less, because these criteria identify option positions that are truly out-of-the-money or spread positions that are essentially riskless strategies. Particularly, the Exchange notes theoretically riskless positions can be identified when the required capital charge equals the minimum capital charge under OCC's RBH calculator. Transactions comprised of option series with a delta of no greater than 10 would indicate an option position that is, by definition, out-of-the-money.
The Exchange believes it is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to limit the rebate to SPX options (including SPXW) because only SPX options may be traded in compression forums. SPX has a substantially higher notional value than other options classes. As such, open interest in SPX has a much greater effect on a bank's regulatory capital requirements. Compressing riskless SPX option positions therefore has a greater impact on reducing a bank regulatory capital requirement.
The Exchange believes it is reasonable to limit the rebate of transactions fees to closing-only transactions, [sic] only closing transactions are permitted during compression forums. If a transaction were to open interest, it would defeat the purpose of the proposed rebate, which is to encourage the closing of positions creating high bank regulatory capital requirements for positions that are of low economic benefit and risk and could otherwise be offset. The Exchange notes it already waives transaction fees for compression of certain eligible SPX positions.
The Exchange believes requiring TPHs to submit a request for a rebate within three business days of the transactions clarifies the manner in which the rebate can be accomplished in a timely manner and will eliminate any confusion and provide a clear procedure for applicants to get a rebate for their compression transactions, removing impediments to and perfecting the mechanism of a free and open market. Additionally, the Exchange notes such requirement will apply to all TPHs and is similar to the current requirement for requesting a rebate of transaction fees for compression of certain eligible SPX positions.
CBOE does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange does not believe the proposed rule change will impose any burden on intramarket competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the Act because it applies to all TPHs in the same manner with positions that meet the eligible criteria. The proposed rule change would encourage closing of positions that needlessly result in burdensome capital requirements. Closing of the positions would alleviate the capital requirement constraints on TPHs and improve overall market liquidity by freeing capital currently tied up in certain out-of-the-money and riskless SPX positions. The proposed rule change also encourages TPHs to submit to the Exchange in advance a list of these positions, which will allow TPHs to more easily identify counterparty interest and increase opportunities for to efficiently conduct closing transactions of these positions during compression forums.
The Exchange does not believe the proposed rule change will impose any burden on intermarket competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because the proposed rule change applies only to the trading of SPX options, which are exclusively-listed on CBOE. To the extent the proposed rule change makes the Exchange a more attractive marketplace for market participants at other exchanges, such market participants are welcome to become CBOE market participants.
Furthermore, as stated above, submission of lists of positions for compression is completely voluntary, open to all TPHs, and non-binding, in that submission of a list does not require a TPH to trade any position or even represent any position in a trading crowd. Lists of positions will be made available to all TPHs and contain very limited information regarding open interest in positions in SPX. The list will simply alert TPHs to certain SPX positions that other TPHs are interested in closing at the end of each calendar month.
The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Acting under the authority of and in accordance with section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, as amended by Executive Order 13268 of July 2, 2002, and Executive Order 13284 of January 23, 2003, I hereby determine that the person known as Ali Damush, also known as Ali Daghmoush, also known as Ali Dagmoush, also known as Ali Daamoush, also known as Ali Dagmush, also known as Shiekh Ali Musa Da'amoush committed, or poses a significant risk of committing, acts of terrorism that threaten the security of U.S. nationals or the national security, foreign policy, or economy of the United States.
Consistent with the determination in section 10 of Executive Order 13224 that prior notice to persons determined to be subject to the Order who might have a constitutional presence in the United States would render ineffectual the blocking and other measures authorized in the Order because of the ability to transfer funds instantaneously, I determine that no prior notice needs to be provided to any person subject to this determination who might have a constitutional presence in the United States, because to do so would render ineffectual the measures authorized in the Order. This notice shall be published in the
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of petition for exemption received.
This notice contains a summary of a petition seeking relief from specified requirements of Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR). The purpose of this notice is to improve the public's awareness of, and participation in, this aspect of the FAA's regulatory activities. Neither publication of this notice nor the inclusion or omission of information in the summary is intended to affect the legal status of the petition or its final disposition.
Comments on this petition must identify the petition docket number involved and must be received on or before January 23, 2017.
You may send comments identified by docket number FAA-2016-9340 using any of the following methods:
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Mike Collins, ANM-112, Federal Aviation Administration, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356, email
This notice is published pursuant to 14 CFR 11.85.
Issued in Renton, WA, on January 5, 2017.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13(44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning tax exempt entity leasing.
Written comments should be received on or before March 13, 2017 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6528, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the regulations should be directed to R. Joseph Durbala at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number.
Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13(44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning the collection of qualitative feedback on agency service delivery.
Written comments should be received on or before March 13, 2017 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6528, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the collection tools should be directed to R. Joseph Durbala, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or at (202)317-5746, or through the internet at
Currently, the IRS is seeking comments concerning the following information collection
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning TD 8584, capitalization of interest.
Written comments should be received on or before March 13, 2017 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6528, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection should be directed to R. Joseph Durbala (202) 317-5746, or at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington DC 20224, or through the internet, at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13(44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Form 211, Application for Reward for Original Information.
Written comments should be received on or before March 13, 2017 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6528, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form and instructions should be directed to R. Joseph Durbala, at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington DC 20224, or through the internet, at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Department of Veterans Affairs (VA).
Notice of Availability.
VA announces the availability of the ROD for the Reconfiguration of VA Black Hills Health Care System (BHHCS). The ROD states the decision to implement VA's preferred alternative as described in the Final EIS. Environmental consequences of the action are discussed in the ROD, along with the required minimization and mitigation measures.
The ROD is effective January 11, 2017.
The ROD may be viewed online at
Staff Assistant to the Director, VA Black Hills Health Care System, 113 Comanche Road, Fort Meade, SD 57741, or by email to
VA BHHCS provides health care to approximately 19,000 Veterans over 100,000 square miles in western South Dakota (SD), northwestern Nebraska (NE), and eastern Wyoming (WY). VA BHHCS consists of two medical centers at Fort Meade and Hot Springs, eight community-based outpatient clinics (CBOC), and six Compensated Work Therapy locations. VA BHHCS has identified a need to reconfigure the health care services to ensure it continues to provide high quality, safe, and accessible health care services across its service area. The existing locations and facilities constrain the quality of care, range of services, and access to care that VA offers in the catchment area. The Hot Springs campus includes buildings constructed in 1907 as part of the Battle Mountain Branch of the National Home for Disabled Volunteer Soldiers. The Battle Mountain Sanitarium was recognized as a National Historic Landmark in 2011.
Pursuant to NEPA, VA has identified and analyzed potential environmental
The Secretary of Veterans Affairs, or designee, approved this document and authorized the undersigned to sign and submit the document to the Office of the Federal Register for publication electronically as an official document of the Department of Veterans Affairs. Robert A. McDonald, Secretary, Department of Veterans Affairs, approved this document on January 4, 2017, for publication.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing requirements under section 108(b) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) for demonstrating financial responsibility. This proposed rule would create a new Part in the CERCLA regulations to require financial responsibility under CERCLA § 108(b), define requirements for demonstration of financial responsibility, define requirements for maintenance of financial responsibility instruments, and establish criteria for owners and operators to be released from financial responsibility requirements. In addition, this proposal would establish specific financial responsibility requirements applicable to certain classes of mines and associated mineral processing facilities within the hardrock mining industry. EPA expects this proposed rule will, when made final, increase the likelihood that owners and operators will provide funds necessary to address the CERCLA liabilities at their facilities, thus preventing owners or operators from shifting the burden of cleanup to other parties, including the taxpayer. In addition, EPA expects that by adjusting the amount of financial responsibility to account for environmentally safer practices, it would provide an incentive for implementation of sound practices at hardrock mining facilities and thereby decrease the need for future CERCLA actions.
Comments must be received on or before March 13, 2017. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), comments on the information collection provisions are best assured of consideration if the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) receives a copy of your comments on or before February 10, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-SFUND-2015-0781, at
For more information contact Barbara Foster, Program Implementation and Information Division, Office of Resource Conservation and Recovery, Mail Code 5303P, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone (703) 308-7057; (email)
Section 108(b) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA), also known as Superfund, directs EPA to develop regulations that require classes of facilities to establish and maintain evidence of financial responsibility consistent with the degree and duration of risk associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous substances. When releases of hazardous substances occur, or when a threat of release of hazardous substances must be averted, a Superfund response action may be necessary. Since the Superfund tax has expired, EPA's Superfund appropriation is increasingly funded by the general revenues. Therefore, the costs of such response actions can fall to the taxpayer if parties responsible for the release or potential release of hazardous substances are unable to assume the costs. In addition, the likelihood of a CERCLA response action being needed, as well as the costs of such a response action, are likely to be higher where protective management practices were not utilized during facility operations. This proposed rule is intended to address both concerns. By assuring that owners and operators establish financial responsibility consistent with the risks associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous substances at their facilities, this proposed rule would increase the likelihood that owners and operators will provide funds necessary to address the CERCLA liabilities at their facilities, thus preventing the burden from shifting to the taxpayer or to other parties. In addition, this proposed rule would provide an incentive for implementation of sound practices at hardrock mining facilities that would decrease the need for future CERCLA actions.
EPA identified hardrock mining as the classes for which it would first develop financial responsibility requirements in a
The proposed rule would require owners and operators subject to the rule to demonstrate and to maintain financial responsibility consistent with the degree and duration of risk associated with the treatment, production, transportation, storage and disposal of hazardous substances at their facilities. The Agency is proposing that current owners and operators of facilities subject to the rule be required to demonstrate financial responsibility to cover the three types of costs associated with releases and potential releases of hazardous substances from their facilities, including response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damages. These are the same types of costs that CERCLA makes specified parties, including current owners or operators, liable for under CERCLA § 107. Thus, by requiring current owners or operators of facilities that manage hazardous substances to set aside funds for cleanup (or otherwise demonstrate their ability to pay for it), EPA expects this proposed rule would increase the likelihood that owners or operators subject to the rule will be able to pay the costs associated with releases or potential releases of hazardous substances from their facilities for which they are responsible, in the event a CERCLA cleanup becomes necessary.
The proposal would establish a process for owners and operators subject to the proposed rule to identify a financial responsibility amount for their sites, to demonstrate evidence of financial responsibility, and to maintain the required amount of financial responsibility until the requirement for financial responsibility for the site is released by EPA. The proposed rule would promote efficiency and accuracy of information collected by requiring electronic submission of information. Further, the proposal would encourage public participation in the effective implementation of the rule by requiring owners or operators to post information related to their compliance with the financial responsibility requirements of this rule on their company Web sites.
The proposal includes a formula by which EPA expects facilities to calculate an amount of financial responsibility. The formula is also structured to allow facilities, upon certain showings, to reduce that calculated amount to account for the current conditions of their sites. EPA expects that many, if not most, facilities, will be able to adjust the amount required based on the calculation. By requiring an amount of financial responsibility consistent with the degree and duration of risk at the site, while allowing for adjustments as a result of environmentally-protective practices, the proposed rule should create economic incentives for owners and operators to employ environmentally sound practices. In turn, EPA expects that the proposed rule would ultimately have the effect of decreasing Superfund liabilities because it would create incentives for owners and operators to minimize the risk associated with their facilities thereby lowering their financial responsibility amounts. This is also consistent with CERCLA's overarching goal of encouraging potentially responsible parties to increase the level of care with which they manage the hazardous substances at their sites. Similarly, the proposed rule would provide for the release of the owner and operator's financial responsibility requirements when EPA makes a determination that the risks from the facility are minimal. This provision would encourage protective and responsible closure and cleanup of their facilities.
The proposed rule also would establish conditions for payment of funds from the financial responsibility instruments. Under the proposed rule, financial responsibility instruments could be used to pay a party that has sought reimbursement through the courts for costs; to pay as specified in a settlement with the Federal Government, or to pay into a trust fund established by the owner or operator pursuant to a Federal Government administrative order under CERCLA § 106(a). EPA has thus sought to ensure
EPA assessed the industrial and social costs as well as benefits of the regulatory options of the proposed rule. The details of the analysis are presented in the Regulatory Impact Analysis (RIA), which can be accessed in the docket supporting this rulemaking (Docket No. EPA-HQ-SFUND-2015-0781). This preamble provides an overview of the methodology that EPA applied in the RIA and the key results including the identification and characterization of the potentially regulated universe; the projected economic impacts from industry and society standpoints; and potential social welfare benefits of the proposed rule. Detailed discussions of the uncertainties and limitations of the analysis are provided in the RIA.
Hardrock mining is the extraction and beneficiation of rock and other materials from the earth that contain a target metallic or non-fuel non-metallic mineral. Mineral processing separates and refines mineral concentrates to extract the target material.
From a list of potentially regulated facilities, EPA excluded 35,103 coal mining operations. EPA also removed 44,845 mines associated with 59 non-fuel hardrock commodities to conform with the scope of those classes of facilities identified in the 2009 Priority Notice.
EPA believes that 221 facilities (208 active and thirteen intermittent or temporarily idled) will currently be subject to this rule. The Agency acknowledges that the population of mines and mineral processors that are operating at any given point in time can fluctuate significantly due to fluctuating commodity prices, other business-related factors, mining and processing technical operations issues, and weather conditions. As such, EPA may not have accurately identified all facilities that would be subjected to the rule. Thus, the Agency requests comments on the included universe.
The most common activities at these facilities are surface mining (88), underground mining (56), and processing (68).
This rule includes two proposed Options for use of a financial test—the no financial test option (Option 1), and the financial test option (Option 2). Option 1 requires all owners and operators to acquire third-party financial instruments to demonstrate financial responsibilities. Alternatively, under Option 2 the owner or operator could qualify to self-insure (or use the corporate guarantee) by passing the proposed financial test. Owners or operators unable to qualify for the Option 2 financial test must acquire a third-party instrument or a trust fund to comply with the rule. EPA's RIA assessed the costs associated with obtaining third-party instruments under the two options, as well as costs associated with the reporting and recordkeeping requirements of the rule. These costs represent the primary economic impacts of the proposed rule to the regulated industry.
To assess the cost, EPA developed and implemented a multi-dimensional analysis that involves: (1) An estimation of the owner or operator's financial responsibility obligations under baseline scenario; (2) estimation of the price of third-party instruments; and (3) assessment of the industrial (
As described earlier in this preamble, EPA identified 221 facilities owned by 121 ultimate parent companies that would be subject to the rule. To estimate
The compliance costs of acquiring third-party financial instruments depends on the financial responsibility amounts the instrument covers. Thus, EPA first estimated the baseline financial responsibility amounts for facilities in the modeled universe. EPA used a financial responsibility formula that the Agency developed for facilities to calculate their financial responsibility amount on a national basis. As described in Section VI.D.4. of this preamble, the proposed formula consists of three key components that capture the potential costs associated with release of hazardous substances at hardrock mining facilities. These include the response component; health assessment component; and natural resources damages.
For the response component, EPA estimated the financial responsibility amounts for each facility for twelve categories of response activities that EPA has undertaken at hardrock mining sites. These include categories for types of engineering costs (
The proposed rule is also structured to provide reductions in the financial responsibility amount required at a facility for risk-reducing practices, including controls established in compliance with Federal and state reclamation and closure programs. For the purpose of the RIA, EPA adjusted the maximum financial responsibility amount for owners and operators, where EPA identified risk-reducing practices in enforceable documents backed by financial bonding. In applying the reductions, EPA assumed that identified risk-reducing practices would fully meet EPA's proposed criteria. As such, for qualified facilities, EPA applied full reductions in the financial responsibility amount for the relevant response categories. EPA acknowledges this assumption simplifies the construct of the proposed rule's requirements for reductions.
Table X-1 presents the adjusted baseline financial responsibility estimates for future CERCLA liability of owners and operators in the modeled universe. The table also provides the extrapolation of results from the modeled universe to the full universe. As shown in the table, Column C presents the median financial responsibility amount of the modeled universe by facility types. EPA used these median values to estimate the financial responsibility amounts of the full universe. Column D presents the financial responsibility amount for the full universe, which was calculated by multiplying the total number of mines in the full universe (Column A) by the median financial responsibility amount calculated for modeled universe.
As shown in the table, the estimated financial responsibility amount for the regulated industry is $7.1 billion. EPA assumed this amount represents the baseline financial responsibility amount of the regulated industry, for which owners and operators must demonstrate financial assurance under the proposed rule by procuring third-party financial instruments, or through self-insurance (or corporate guarantee).
EPA estimated the compliance costs to industry assuring payment of financial responsibility amounts by focusing on the 21 owners and operators of 38 mining facilities
To determine whether owners and operators pass the financial test, EPA compared the relevant financial characteristics of each company to the financial test described in § 320.43 of the preamble. Consistent with the proposed test, EPA's analysis allowed owners and operators to self-insure their entire obligation if they hold at least one long-term corporate credit rating equal to or higher than A− as issued by S&P or another equivalent rating agency. Furthermore, EPA also allowed self-insurance of up to one-half of an owner or operator's obligation if it holds at least one long-term credit rating of BBB+ or BBB. EPA assumed owners and operators that pass the test would elect to self-insure either the full or one-half of their obligations. For these facilities, EPA assumed compliance costs associated with acquiring third-party instruments would be zero, and that the owner or operator would only incur compliance costs associated with the reporting and recordkeeping requirements of the proposed rule.
For owners or operators that did not pass the financial test, and for the regulatory option where the financial test is precluded (Option 1), EPA estimated the costs of obtaining third-party financial responsibility instruments. For each facility, EPA modeled separately the costs of three representative financial instruments, which included letter of credit, trust fund, and insurance.
The actual compliance cost incurred by industry in securing these instruments comes from the transactional costs (
EPA assumed owners and operators would need to acquire funding to purchase financial instruments every three years
Table X-2 summarizes the average annualized compliance costs for the two regulatory options, as a percentage of the financial responsibility amounts of owners and operators in the modeled universe. The annualized costs are categorized based on the credit worthiness of the firms in the modeled universe. Entities with a stronger financial profile (Category 1) were simulated to experience an annual cost as low as 1.1 percent of the financial responsibility amount. Similarly, poorly rated entities (Category 4) would experience annual costs as high as four percent. Overall, on a weighted average basis, annualized compliance costs as a percentage of the financial responsibility amount equal approximately 2.3 to 2.4 percent.
EPA applied these weighted average percentages to extrapolate results to the entire universe. Table X-3 presents the calculation of annualized compliance costs for the full universe under the two regulatory options. As shown in the table, Column A lists the aggregated financial responsibility amount covered by third-party instruments by mine type under the proposed financial test regulatory option, while Column B lists the financial responsibility amounts under the no-test option. Columns C and D calculate the annualized acquisition costs for each facility type by multiplying the aggregate financial responsibility amounts under each regulatory option with the respective weighted average annualized costs generated for the model universe, as shown in Table X-3. The extrapolation calculation assumes that the full universe of owners and operators would have similar financial characteristics as the modeled universe. Similarly, for the financial test option, EPA assumed that a similar proportion of owners and operators would pass the financial test in both the full universe and in the modeled universe. EPA acknowledges that there are uncertainties with this supposition, and request comments from the public.
As shown in the table, under the baseline scenario, the total financial obligation amount for the potentially regulated universe is approximately $7.1 billion. Under the financial test, the amount of financial obligations covered through third-party instruments is $4.9 billion, whereas for the no-financial test option, the entire baseline financial responsibility amounts would be covered by third-party instruments. In addition, the annualized industry compliance costs to secure the third-party instruments under the no-financial test option is $171 million, whereas annualized costs are $111 million for the financial test option. The difference between the two regulatory options is approximately 35 percent. These values represent the range of potential incremental costs of the proposed rule to industry.
In addition, EPA's compliance cost estimate also included the administrative reporting and recordkeeping costs to industry associated with the proposed rule for the potentially regulated universe. These costs consist of labor, O&M, and capital costs and include the costs of reading the regulations; submitting initial facility information to EPA and to the public; calculating financial responsibility amounts; choosing a financial responsibility instrument; acquiring and maintaining a financial responsibility instrument, recalculating financial responsibility amounts to reflect any changes in facility operations; and any requirements that apply to the owners and operators upon the transfer of a facility, owner or operator default, a CERCLA claim against any of the owners and operators, or release of the owners and operators from the regulations. The labor costs are estimated on an annual basis, as of the first year of compliance. Table X-4 presents the annualized administrative cost of the rule under the two options using a seven percent social discount rate.
The annualized compliance costs calculated and presented in Table X-3 and X-4 represent industry costs,
Some portion of the industry cost is also a social cost,
Under proposed Option 1, of the $174 million cost to industry, the annualized intra-industry transfer is estimated to be $127 million. Thus, the social cost amounts to $44 million. Option 2 engenders slightly lower social costs at $30 million. As shown in the table, the administrative costs related to the reporting and recordkeeping requirements of the rule are approximately $0.3 million under the two regulatory options.
The primary effect of this proposed rule is to transfer the risk associated with CERCLA liabilities from the taxpayer to the private sector. Table X-6 presents the estimated magnitude of this shift of potential CERCLA liabilities across the baseline and regulatory scenario. For the purposes of estimating changes in government burden due to the rule, EPA calculated the government burden assuming that financial responsibility amounts are representative of costs associated with future CERCLA cleanups. In the baseline, the Government is burdened with the CERCLA cost if an owner or operator defaults, as no third-party instruments will be in place. For the baseline, EPA estimated, the government burden rate using the firm exit rate derived from the Census Bureau's Business Dynamics Statistics (BDS).
As shown in Table X-6, under the baseline scenario, the potential liability transfer from private parties to government is $527 million over the period of analysis (
EPA assessed the economic impacts of the proposed rule in two areas: (1) An assessment of the impact of compliance costs on the modeled universe, based on the comparison of compliance costs with relevant financial characteristics of the owner and operator; and (2) an assessment of the potential for employment impacts at the national level of the proposed rule. The following sections summarize the methods and findings for these analyses.
EPA assessed the economic impacts of the proposed regulatory options relying on the modeled universe for which detailed financial data are available. EPA assessed the impacts using two financial characteristics of the owner and operator: (1) A screening-level assessment which compares the annualized industrial costs to the firms' revenue; and (2) an alternative assessment that utilizes the firms' operating cash flow.
For the 21 firms in the modeled universe, the annual revenues range from approximately $300 million to over $60 billion. Their annual cash flow from operations (cash flow associated with their primary business activity) ranges from $800,000 to over $3 billion. Relative to the companies' revenues, the per-company annualized costs of financial responsibility range from zero percent to 1.1 percent, with the majority of companies (20 of 21) falling between zero and 1 percent. Relative to operating cash flow, the range of annualized financial responsibility cost percentages is wider: From zero to over 160 percent (the latter is for the company whose operating cash flow is under $1 million). Approximately eighty percent of all companies experience impacts that are under one percent of operating cash flow and approximately 95 percent of companies experience impacts under ten percent.
Due to limitation in financial data, EPA did not expand the screening analysis to the full universe of regulated facilities. EPA acknowledges that the results generated based on the modeled universe may not be reflective of the impacts on the entire industry.
EPA routinely assesses the employment impacts of economically significant regulations. Executive Order 13563, “Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review,” states, “Our regulatory system must protect public health, welfare, safety, and our environment while promoting economic growth, innovation, competitiveness, and job creation.” In general, the national employment effects of environmental regulation are complex and multi-faceted and very likely involve both negative and positive effects. Neoclassical theory of production and factor demand provides a constructive framework for understanding and conducting employment impacts analysis of environmental regulations. It describes how firms adjust their demand for inputs, such as labor, in response to changes in economic conditions.
EPA did not have sufficient data to model and quantify the potential changes in mines' employment levels as a result of the proposed regulation. Analysis provided by the U.S. Geological Survey (USGS) suggests that “the primary metals industry and the nonmetallic minerals products industry are fundamentally cyclical.” The industries are affected both by the domestic business cycle and the global economic environment. Composite indices constructed by USGS suggest that the industry experienced significantly decreased activity surrounding the Great Recession. In 2014, the most recent year analyzed by USGS, industry growth rates were positive.
This section provides an overview of the methodology EPA used to assess or identify benefits of the proposal. EPA expects the CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility provisions to yield social welfare benefits because of reductions in overall mining facility environmental obligations and an increase in the proportion of those obligations borne by the private sector through financial responsibility instruments.
Identified benefits of the proposed rule include a reduction in costs the government must bear to fulfill cleanup obligations, improved environmental practices at mining sites, avoided impacts to impaired waters, and faster cleanups. The reduction in the cost to
The establishment of financial responsibility requirements for potential CERCLA § 108(b) liabilities will reduce the costs incurred by the Government to finance remediation expenditures for companies that are unable to meet cleanup obligations. Section 7 of the RIA considered government costs associated with potentially responsible parties' (PRP) defaults on CERCLA § 108(b) liabilities at mining facilities, including response costs, natural resource damages, and health assessment costs. Without the rule, EPA estimated that the Government would potentially incur a total cost of $527 million (over the 34-year period of analysis) for the cost categories described earlier. Under the proposed financial test option, the Government would incur an estimated $16 million in costs, whereas for the no-test option, the taxpayer's burden would be reduced to zero. Thus, the analysis concluded that the public, through the Government, would experience a cost savings from $511 million to $527 million over 34 years because of the proposed rule.
Financial responsibility requirements may provide an incentive for regulated entities to minimize future environmental obligations. When regulated entities rely on a letter of credit, insurance policy, or other third-party instrument to meet financial responsibility requirements, the issuer will have an incentive to require sound environmental management as a condition for providing access to these instruments.
To the extent that the proposed rule leads to improvements in facilities' environmental performance, the rule may reduce acid mine drainage and other discharges into waterways caused by mining activities. Waterways identified as impaired waters by section 303(d) of the Clean Water Act (CWA) and waters identified as wild and scenic rivers under the 1968 Wild and Scenic Rivers Act may benefit the most from improved environmental performance. Adverse impacts to waterbodies may be reduced or avoided in accordance with improvements in the environmental performance of mines. To gauge the potential magnitude of the benefits associated with avoided environmental impacts, EPA identified the number of sites in the potentially regulated universe that are located near CWA impaired waters or wild and scenic rivers. Of the 221 facilities in the potentially regulated universe, EPA identified the status of waterways adjacent to 172 facilities. Overall, EPA believes that the magnitude of these benefits in the context of the proposed rule is contingent upon changes in behavior among regulated entities to reduce the environmental risk.
Under the financial responsibility requirements outlined in the proposed rule, the cleanup of sites owned by companies in default could begin more rapidly than under the baseline. Because funding for site remediation would be secured prior to a firm's insolvency, the initiation of cleanup would not be delayed by EPA budget constraints. Expedited cleanups would benefit human health and ecosystems as exposure to harmful contaminants may decline.
EPA is issuing these proposed regulations under the authority of sections 101, 104, 108 and 115 of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, as amended, 42 U.S.C §§ 9601, 9604, 9608 and 9615, and Executive Order 12580. 52 FR 2923, 3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 193.
CERCLA, as amended by the Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 (SARA), establishes a comprehensive environmental response and cleanup program. Generally, CERCLA authorizes EPA
CERCLA § 107 imposes liability for response costs on a variety of parties, including certain past owners and operators, current owners and operators, and certain transporters of hazardous substances. Such parties are liable for any costs of removal or remedial action incurred by the Federal Government, so long as the costs incurred are “not inconsistent with the national contingency plan,” (NCP).
CERCLA § 108(b) generally requires that EPA develop regulations requiring owners and operators of facilities to establish evidence of financial responsibility, and provides for publication of a “Priority Notice” identifying the classes of facilities for which EPA would first develop requirements. Paragraph (b)(1) also directs that priority in the development of requirements shall be accorded to those classes of facilities, owners, and operators that present the highest level of risk of injury. This proposed rule for
Under CERCLA § 108(b), classes of facilities must establish and maintain evidence of financial responsibility “consistent with the degree and duration of risk associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous substances.”
CERCLA § 108(b) also discusses particular instruments for EPA to consider in its regulations. Specifically, paragraph (b)(2) states that financial responsibility may be established by any one, or any combination, of the following: insurance, guarantee, surety bond, letter of credit, or qualification as a self-insurer. Paragraph (b)(2) further authorizes the President to specify policy or other contractual terms, conditions, or defenses that are necessary, or that are unacceptable in establishing evidence of financial responsibility. Paragraph (b)(2) also requires EPA to cooperate with and seek the advice of the commercial insurance industry to the maximum extent practicable when developing financial responsibility requirements. Paragraph (b)(4) provides direction on how the CERCLA § 108(b) instruments are to address multiple owners and operators at a single facility. Section VI.C. of this preamble discusses each of these financial responsibility instruments in detail.
CERCLA § 108(b)(3) requires that regulations promulgated under CERCLA § 108(b) incrementally impose financial responsibility requirements as quickly as can reasonably be achieved, but in no event more than four years after the date of promulgation. Section VI.A.1. of this preamble discusses how EPA intends to phase in the CERCLA § 108(b) requirements in accordance with this provision.
CERCLA § 108(c) also includes a “direct action” provision, under which CERCLA claims can be brought directly against an insurer or other entity issuing an instrument pursuant to the CERCLA § 108(b) regulations. CERCLA § 108(c)(2) provides that any claim authorized by CERCLA § 107 or § 111 may be asserted directly against any guarantor providing evidence of financial responsibility under CERCLA § 108(b) if the person liable under CERCLA § 107 is: (1) In bankruptcy, reorganization, or arrangement pursuant to the Federal Bankruptcy Code, or (2) likely to be solvent at the time of judgment but over whom jurisdiction in the Federal courts cannot be reached with reasonable diligence. EPA discusses the direct action provision and other ways that it envisions the instruments provided pursuant to the CERCLA § 108(b) program may pay out and otherwise support cleanup efforts in section VI.B.5. of this preamble.
CERCLA § 114(d) is an express preemption provision addressing state, tribal, and local financial responsibility requirements. This provision states:
Except as provided in this subchapter, no owner or operator of a . . . facility who establishes and maintains evidence of financial responsibility in accordance with this subchapter shall be required under any State or local law, rule or regulation to establish or maintain any other evidence of financial responsibility in connection with liability for the release of a hazardous substance from such . . . facility. Evidence of compliance with the financial responsibility requirements of this subchapter shall be accepted by a State in lieu of any other requirement of financial responsibility imposed by such State in connection with liability for the release of a hazardous substance from such . . . facility.
Many states already have financial responsibility requirements applicable to some of the hardrock mining facilities that would be subject to this proposed rule. Thus, in developing this proposal, EPA had to carefully consider the effects of its CERCLA § 108(b) rules on other programs to avoid any unanticipated consequences. The Agency's conclusions regarding the relationship of CERCLA § 108(b) requirements to financial responsibility requirements under other laws is discussed in Section V. of this preamble.
On March 11, 2008, Sierra Club, Great Basin Resource Watch, Amigos Bravos, and Idaho Conservation League filed a suit against former EPA Administrator Stephen Johnson and former Secretary of the U.S. Department of Transportation Mary E. Peters, in the U.S. District Court for the Northern District of California. Sierra Club, et al. v. Johnson, No. 08- 01409 (N. D. Cal.). On February 25, 2009, that court ordered EPA to publish the 2009
EPA issued the Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking discussed in section III.D. in early 2010, and continued to work on this proposed rule for the next several years. Dissatisfied with the pace of EPA's progress, however, in August 2014, the groups Idaho Conservation League, Earthworks, Sierra Club, Amigos Bravos, Great Basin Resource Watch, and Communities for a Better Environment filed a new lawsuit in the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit, for a writ of mandamus requiring issuance of CERCLA § 108(b) financial assurance rules for the hardrock mining industry and for three other industries—chemical manufacturing; petroleum and coal products manufacturing; and electric power generation, transmission, and distribution.
Following oral argument, the court issued an Order in May 2015 requiring the parties to submit, among other things, supplemental submissions addressing a schedule for further administrative proceedings under CERCLA § 108(b). The Court's May 19, 2015 Order further encouraged the parties to confer regarding a schedule and, if possible, to submit a jointly agreed upon proposal. Petitioners and EPA were able to reach agreement on a schedule. The parties requested an Order from the court with a schedule calling for the Agency to sign for publication in the
On January 29, 2016, the court granted the joint motion and issued an Order that mirrored the submitted
As described earlier in this preamble, CERCLA § 108(b)(1) requires the President to identify those classes of facilities for which requirements will be first developed and to publish notice of such identification in the
The 2009
It is important to recognize the necessary, but limited, role of the 2009
The 2009
On January 6, 2010, EPA published an Advanced Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (2010 ANPR)
In the 2010 ANPR, EPA requested public comment on whether to propose a regulation under CERCLA § 108(b) for any class or classes, or the industry as a whole, including information demonstrating why such financial responsibility requirements would not be appropriate for those particular classes. In addition, the Agency requested information related to the industry categories discussed in the notice, including data on facility operations, information on past and expected future environmental responses, use of financial instruments by the industry categories, existing financial responsibility requirements, and other information the Agency might consider in setting financial responsibility amounts. Finally, EPA requested information from the insurance and the financial sectors related to instrument implementation and availability, and potential instrument conditions.
As noted earlier, the
EPA received comments on the 2010 ANPR, which can be found in the docket for that notice (Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-SFUND-2009-0834). EPA considered those comments as part of its decision whether to proceed with issuing proposed rules for the additional sectors, as described in the companion noticed issued by the Agency. EPA intends the future rulemaking processes for these sectors to be the venue through which the public can engage with EPA on issues related to those sectors. In this proposed rule for hardrock mining, EPA is not seeking, nor will it respond to, comments on issues relating only to sectors outside of hardrock mining, including its determinations on whether to proceed with the rulemakings for those other sectors.
In accordance with an instruction regarding the CERCLA § 108(b) proposed rule in the Conference Committee Report for the Consolidated Appropriations Act (2016), EPA conducted a study of the market capacity regarding the necessary instruments (surety bonds, letters of credit, insurance and trusts) for meeting any new CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility requirements and post the study on the Agency's website ninety days prior to this proposed rulemaking. The Agency also provided an explanation of how the CERCLA § 108(b) rule will avoid requiring financial responsibility obligations that are duplicative of those already required by other Federal agencies as of the time it was released to the public. EPA also included the Market Capacity Study in the docket for this proposal.
The Market Capacity Study assessed the likely availability of financial responsibility instruments and the capacity of third-party markets to underwrite financial responsibility requirements for responsible parties subject to CERCLA § 108(b). The study relies on a substantial amount of quantitative and qualitative data in the public domain from readily referenced industry sources, as well as information gained in meetings held during 2015 and 2016 with instrument providers regarding factors that may affect instrument availability.
The Agency's evaluation further focuses on characterizing that portion of the commercial insurance and surety markets that specifically underwrite environmental liability coverage as a way to gauge future capacity. The results of the research suggest that sufficient capacity likely will be available to cover the financial responsibility obligations called for under CERCLA § 108(b), but caution that this capacity will be highly dependent upon the overall amount of financial responsibility that the market will need to accommodate. Overall capacity may also be influenced by: (1) The diversity of instruments allowed, (2) whether the rule allows insurance and surety markets to form risk retention groups (RRGs), and (3) whether the proposed rule permits the use of a financial test. All such features, if included in the rule, could help to relieve pressure on third-party surety markets and ensure greater market capacity.
In consideration of these market issues, the rule as currently proposed includes a number of specific features to help ensure that the capacity of the market for financial responsibility instruments will be sufficient to meet demand subsequent to promulgation. First, preliminary results from draft regulatory impact analyses reveal estimates of total demand for instruments to be below that of the Agency's estimate of overall capacity. The proposal also offers further flexibility by permitting owners and operators to use a variety of alternative instruments to meet the requirements of the rule. Further, RRGs are not prohibited under the proposed provision for insurance, and the Agency is taking comment on their potential permissibility for the final rule. Lastly, as discussed in detail in VI.C.9 of this preamble, EPA has co-proposed options regarding the availability of a financial test and corporate guarantee mechanism. Under Option 1 (EPA's preferred option), use of a financial test and corporate guarantee would not be allowed. However, under Option 2, use of a financial test and corporate guarantee would be allowed, thus those instruments would be available as well if Option 2 were to be adopted in the final rule.
Given the number of unknown factors, the ultimate availability of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility instruments cannot be predicted with certainty until the final rule has been promulgated. At that time, the available instruments will be determined, and the market will have an opportunity to respond.
This is the first EPA proposed rule under the authority of CERCLA § 108(b). As a result, this proposed rule would establish a financial responsibility program under CERCLA § 108(b), in addition to imposing requirements specific to the hardrock mining industry. EPA anticipates that core financial responsibility program requirements established under this proposal, such as procedures for establishing financial responsibility, public involvement, recordkeeping and reporting, establishing and maintaining instruments, and the wording of some of the instruments would apply to hardrock mining facilities subject to this rule and to classes of facilities subject to further rules promulgated under CERCLA § 108(b) authority. EPA therefore solicits comments on these provisions from all interested parties, including representatives of industries other than the hardrock mining industry.
Other requirements of this proposed rule would likely apply only to the hardrock mining facilities for which they were designed. For example, the financial responsibility formula proposed in this rule was designed for use by hardrock mining facilities. A method for determining financial responsibility amounts would be identified for future industry sectors in future proposed rulemakings. EPA intends that the provisions of this rule be severable. In the event that any individual provision or part of this rule is invalidated, EPA intends that this would not render the entire rule invalid, and that any individual provisions that can continue to operate will be left in place.
Development of these regulations has proven to be a complex and unique task for EPA, and the Agency has explored a number of options for key components of the proposed rule. Thus, while the Agency is proposing an approach for implementing CERCLA § 108(b), the Agency also has attempted to present a broad range of options and is seeking comment on a variety of issues throughout the preamble. Because this proposed rule represents the initial steps in development of a CERCLA § 108(b) program, EPA is particularly interested in receiving information from a broad range of parties with suggestions for improving EPA's proposed new CERCLA § 108(b) program.
This proposed rule is the first to be issued by EPA under the authority of CERCLA § 108(b).
The proposed rule would not establish any regime regulating the conduct of hardrock mining and mineral processing activities. Instead, EPA intends for CERCLA § 108(b) requirements to apply alongside other programs that directly regulate the operation of hardrock mines. Nor does the proposed rule modify the existing Superfund enforcement authorities, including those to gather information, identify responsible parties, effect cleanup (especially through EPA's enforcement first policy), assess penalties, or provide for citizen suits. Instead, the proposal is designed to complement and support those existing processes. The impact of this proposal on existing processes would be to increase the likelihood that parties have funds to conduct cleanup; increase the likelihood of successful recovery of costs under CERCLA, including claims brought under CERCLA §§ 107 or 113(f) from the parties providing the financial responsibility instruments, increase the likelihood that funds will be available for owners and operators to settle their Superfund liabilities with the Federal Government, and provide an instrument that may be used by an owner or operator, to assure work required under a CERCLA § 106 unilateral administrative order by EPA and other Federal agencies.
Set within the context of CERCLA's response program, CERCLA § 108(b) establishes a broad authority for EPA to promulgate requirements that classes of facilities establish and maintain evidence of financial responsibility consistent with the risk associated with various hazardous substance management activities. CERCLA as a whole is generally designed to ensure that, ultimately, risks to human health and the environment are addressed by those responsible for contamination in the first instance (commonly called the “polluter pays” principle). The CERCLA § 108(b) requirements can complement this goal in two particular ways. First, the rules should help assure that businesses make financial arrangements to address risks from the hazardous substances at their sites in the event that a CERCLA cleanup ultimately becomes necessary. The rules can thus promote the polluter pays principle underlying the CERCLA scheme. Second, CERCLA § 108(b) rules should serve to create effective incentives for regulated entities to manage the hazardous substances present at their facilities more carefully and thereby minimize the threats of future releases. These sorts of measures directly promote protection of human health and the environment by preventing the environmental harm caused by releases, and by creating a culture of responsible behavior among the regulated community that will minimize the need for future Superfund actions.
CERCLA § 108(b) does not provide specific direction on the types of liabilities that the regulations for facilities are to cover. Paragraph (a)(1) of § 108 requires evidence of financial responsibility for
Finally, EPA has not identified a basis for it to exclude any of these particular types of costs based upon the data EPA has gathered in preparing this proposal. All three types of CERCLA § 107 costs have been incurred by hardrock mining facilities as EPA has documented elsewhere in this preamble. (
Under this proposal, requirements would apply to owners and operators of mining facilities that fall within the classes described in the 2009
The proposal would require owners and operators subject to the rule to notify EPA that they are subject to the rule and intend to comply, and to provide basic facility information, within thirty days of the effective date of the final rule. Those owners and operators would then be required to identify a CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount for their facility, and to submit evidence of financial responsibility to EPA.
The rule proposes a hardrock mining financial responsibility formula for determining a financial responsibility amount for response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damages. The formula, and EPA's approach and methodology for developing the formula, are described in detail in section VI.D.4. of this preamble. In summary, the proposed formula is designed to reflect the relative risk to human health and the environment, of facility practices for managing hazardous substances, including reductions in risk that may
Once the amount is ascertained through the formula, owners and operators would then be required to obtain an acceptable financial responsibility instrument for that amount, submit evidence of the instrument to the Agency, and make information about the instrument available to the public. EPA is not proposing to require a preliminary review and approval of the application of the formula to the facility's features, nor prior review and approval of the financial responsibility instrument, prior to it becoming effective. The Agency may choose to review and verify the adequacy of a financial responsibility amount, or the terms of the instrument provided to EPA under CERCLA § 108(b), at a facility at any time. If EPA determines the financial responsibility amount submitted by the owner or operator to be inadequate, EPA may choose to initiate enforcement proceedings.
The Agency considered an alternative approach to establishing a CERCLA § 108(b) cost estimate that more closely resembles more traditional financial responsibility programs developed to complement a permit-based regulatory program. Financial responsibility requirements under many other programs
However, EPA soon recognized that there may be problems adopting such an approach. First, selection of a particular response under CERCLA is determined in accordance with the NCP, but after a release or threatened release is identified, and on a case-by-case basis. By contrast, a permit program has the advantage of identifying the appropriate engineering controls for closure before they become necessary, through the permit process. EPA was unable to identify a basis to specify a site-specific set of engineering controls for a site-specific cost estimate, without going through a process similar to applying the NCP at each facility. Such an approach would present a significant regulatory burden on the Agency. First, it would necessitate a case-by-case evaluation of each facility to determine the appropriate engineering controls that CERCLA might require, and then the Agency would need to compare that set of controls to any applicable regulatory requirements, such as state or Federal reclamation requirements. Second, it would be difficult for EPA to create a CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility instrument that would be written to cover only the particular “gaps” the Agency sought to cover for each engineering requirement at a facility without having the instrument overlap with other requirements given that some closure programs conduct activities that reduce CERCLA risks. This would present problems those presented by sub-limits on instruments (discussed earlier). EPA has other important concerns with such an approach aside from these implementation concerns. EPA has policy concerns about overseeing other Federal and state programs' financial responsibility requirements for adequacy, given other authorities' expertise with mining regulation. Based on these considerations, EPA is proposing the formula approach in this rule. EPA solicits comment on the proposed approach.
It should be noted that, as mentioned in section III.F. of this preamble, the financial responsibility formula developed for this proposed rule is
The proposed rule considers the use of all financial responsibility instruments identified in CERCLA § 108(b)(2) of the statute, that is, insurance, guarantee, surety bond, letter of credit, or qualification as a self-insurer. The proposal includes a trust fund as an available form of qualifying as a self-insurer. The proposed rule would allow owners and operators to demonstrate the financial responsibility amount required at a facility using one or a combination of these instruments. In addition, the proposed rule would allow the owner or operator to demonstrate financial responsibility for multiple facilities using a single instrument.
The Agency is proposing two approaches for qualifying as a self-insurer through a financial test instrument for self-insurance. Under Option 1, EPA would not include a financial test as a form of self-insurance. EPA prefers this option because it believes the weight of the evidence supports more secure forms of financial responsibility. With respect to Option 2, EPA would include a stringent credit rating-based financial test to cover all or partial costs of a facility's obligations, depending on the owner or operator's credit rating. Under Option 2, the owner or operator could use the financial test itself, or the test may be used by a corporate parent, a firm owned by the same parent corporation as the owner or operator, or a firm with a substantial business relationship with the owner or operator, to demonstrate financial responsibility for the owner or operator through a corporate guarantee. The proposed approaches are discussed in section VI.C.4. of this preamble.
The proposed rule includes wording for the financial responsibility instruments. The instruments would be required to conform to this wording. This simplifies administration of the rule. The proposed financial responsibility instruments are designed to pay costs under CERCLA for which the owner or operator is responsible at the facility. Depending on the requirements of the instrument provider, both the owner and operator may or may not be named on the financial responsibility instrument, but all instruments must be available to pay for costs of either party.
The financial responsibility instruments proposed are designed to pay for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damages under three scenarios in addition to, and independent of, the direct action scenario provided in CERCLA § 108(c). First, the instruments are designed to pay the party obtaining the judgment after a court finding of CERCLA liability against any owner or operator covered by the instrument. In this case, the instrument would pay any party obtaining a judgment.
Second, the instruments are designed to pay upon settlement of CERCLA liability with the United States, into an account designated under the settlement. This could include a CERCLA special account under CERCLA § 122, in which those funds can be used for carrying out the settlement at the site, or into the Superfund. In situations where a facility is in bankruptcy or jurisdiction over the owner or operator is not available and a direct action is brought against the instrument provider under CERCLA § 108(c), the instrument would be available to pay in settlement of the owner or operator's CERCLA liabilities upon settlement with the instrument provider, standing in the shoes of the owner or operator.
Finally, the instruments are designed to pay in certain limited administrative order situations under CERCLA § 106; that is, where the financial responsibility instrument is named in an administrative order and a trust fund is established pursuant to the order, the funds would be available to be paid into that trust fund if performance at the facility as required by the order had not occurred.
In considering options for this proposed rule, EPA examined how CERCLA § 108(b) may relate to other financial responsibility authorities currently implemented by EPA and from closure and reclamation programs implemented by other Federal agencies and by states and tribes. EPA has concluded that CERCLA § 108(b) requirements apply in addition to requirements under other Federal law. EPA also believes that preemption of state reclamation bonding programs is not intended by CERCLA, nor necessary or appropriate. Thus, EPA expects CERCLA § 108(b) to effectively complement, not duplicate or disrupt, those programs.
CERCLA authorizes EPA to issue financial assurance requirements to cover CERCLA liabilities, whether or not a facility is subject to financial responsibility requirements under another Federal law. Thus, CERCLA § 108(b) requirements apply even where a hardrock mine or mineral processor may be subject to, for example, Federal reclamation bonding requirements. This interpretation gives full effect to CERCLA § 108(b) and carries out its purpose in ensuring that facilities that manage CERCLA hazardous substances make arrangements to cover any CERCLA liabilities that may arise.
This approach is fully consistent with the plain language of the statute. CERCLA § 108(b)(1) addresses other Federal law only in a very limited way. It states that the requirements under that section are to be “for facilities
EPA's intent in this proposal, consistent with its interpretation described earlier, is to apply CERCLA § 108(b) to address potential CERCLA risks at a facility, even when that facility is subject to regulation and/or financial responsibility requirements under other Federal law, such as mine reclamation bonding requirements required by Bureau of Land Management (BLM) or the U.S. Forest Service (USFS). As explained elsewhere, these proposed regulations are not designed to ensure compliance with technical engineering requirements imposed through a permit, or to ensure proper closure or reclamation of an operating mine. Instead, EPA has structured these rules to address the CERCLA
EPA has also considered, in developing the proposed CERCLA § 108(b) regulations for hardrock mining classes, what effect, if any, compliance with the Federal requirements would have under CERCLA § 114(d), an express preemption provision relating to specific state financial responsibility requirements. Many states have mine financial responsibility requirements. EPA compiled summaries of all 50 states' mine bonding requirements to get a general understanding of the types of requirements applicable under other programs. These summaries are also available in the docket. EPA's general understanding of state mining programs indicates that those programs vary, and that states use mine permitting authorities to enforce compliance with state mining regulations. Some states may address different risks, or address risks in a different manner from those for which EPA's proposed Financial Responsibility Formula is designed to account. In developing the proposed rule, the Agency sought the input of several states with significant mining regulatory programs on the state preemption question. EPA received responses from Alaska, Arizona, Colorado, and New Mexico. The comment letters also are included in the docket for this proposal.
EPA does not intend its CERCLA § 108(b) regulations to result in widespread displacement of those programs, nor does EPA believe that such preemption is intended by CERCLA, necessary, or appropriate.
EPA does not believe that CERCLA § 114(d)
(a) Nothing in this chapter shall be construed or interpreted as preempting any State from imposing any additional liability or requirements with respect to the release of hazardous substances within such State.
. . .
(d) Except as provided in this subchapter, no owner or operator of a . . . facility who establishes and maintains evidence of financial responsibility in accordance with this subchapter shall be required under any State or local law, rule, or regulation to establish or maintain any other evidence of financial responsibility in connection with liability for the release of a hazardous substance from such . . . facility. Evidence of compliance with the financial responsibility requirements of this subchapter shall be accepted by a State in lieu of any other requirement of financial responsibility imposed by such State in connection with liability for the release of a hazardous substance from such . . . facility.
Second, CERCLA § 114 taken as a whole makes clear that states are not prohibited from requiring reclamation bonding. The section begins with a general disclaimer of preemptive effect in paragraph (a), specifically directing that “nothing in this chapter” “be construed or interpreted as preempting any State from imposing any additional liability or requirements with respect to the release of hazardous substances within such State.” This reflects Congressional intent that preemption of state law requirements should be minimized. Moreover, CERCLA § 114(d)'s preemptive effect is qualified—“except as provided in this subchapter”—a reference that logically encompasses the limitations on preemption outlined in paragraph (a). Taken together, these references quite naturally preserve state mine bonding requirements as “additional requirements” to the extent that they may also address the release of hazardous substances.
Third, many state requirements serve significantly different purposes from any final CERCLA § 108(b) regulations, and for this reason alone those state requirements should not be considered to be “in connection with liability for the release of hazardous substances” within the meaning of CERCLA § 114(d). As discussed, the CERCLA § 108(b) regulations being proposed today are intended to address facilities' potential for releases or threatened releases that result in CERCLA liability. By contrast, many mine bonding programs are designed to ensure that a facility can comply with otherwise-applicable regulatory requirements, that may or may not be connected with (or may be only partially connected with) hazardous substance releases or threatened releases. See ALASKA STATUTE § 27.19.040(a), Reclamation Financial Assurance (requiring financial responsibility to ensure performance of a reclamation plan); ARIZ. REV. STAT. § 27-971(B)(11), Submission and contents of reclamation plan (financial responsibility is required to ensure completion of all activities in the approved reclamation plan for mining units); CAL. PUB. RES. CODE § 2773.1(a), Reclamation of Mined Lands and the Conduct of Surface Mining Operations (financial responsibility is required to ensure the completion of the lead agency-approved reclamation plan); 2 COLO CODE REGS. § 407-1 R. 4.2.1(1), Adequacy of Financial Warranties (For mining operations, financial responsibility is required to ensure the fulfillment of the requirements of the reclamation plan that is attached to the reclamation permit application); FLA. ADMIN. CODE ANN. r. 62C-16.0075(5)(f), Financial Responsibility (required to demonstrate financial responsibility in order to cover reclamation through the initial revegetation of the reclaimed area); IDAHO ADMIN. CODE r.20.03.02.070(01), Reclamation Plan
Fourth, it makes sound policy sense for CERCLA § 114(d) to be read to allow these programs to apply in tandem. EPA cannot write its national CERCLA § 108(b) requirements to simultaneously correspond to 50 different states' reclamation requirements. These requirements can vary substantially, and particular requirements may have only a limited relationship to liability for the release of hazardous substances.
This proposed rule would establish financial responsibility requirements under CERCLA applicable to current owners and operators of hardrock mining facilities that are authorized to operate or should be authorized to operate, that is, owners and operators that are required to obtain authorization to operate and have done so, as well as those who are required to obtain authorization to operate and have failed to do so. The proposed rule would not apply to owners or operators of past hardrock mining facilities, such as abandoned mines, nor would it apply to former owners or operators of mines that are covered by the rule. The financial responsibility requirements for those current owners or operators would extend to all potential CERCLA liabilities at the facility, based on current conditions at the site. This approach balances the dual goals of providing funds to address CERCLA liabilities at their sites, and of creating incentives for sound practices that will minimize the likelihood of a need for a future CERCLA response.
In developing this proposed rule, EPA considered whether to propose conditions applicable to all owners and operators, past and present, of facilities covered by the rule, or whether to limit the rule to current owners and operators. EPA also considered whether CERCLA § 108(b) requirements could be applied to abandoned facilities. Although CERCLA § 108(b) could potentially be interpreted to cover such owners, operators and facilities, EPA is proposing requirements applicable only to current owners and operators of currently authorized to operate facilities for a number of reasons.
The plain language of CERCLA § 108(b) is ambiguous on the owners, operators and facilities to which it is intended to apply. The section uses the terms “owner” and “operator” and “facility” repeatedly, but says nothing about whether these terms could include
Looking at the statute more broadly, however, indicates that it is appropriate to adopt a narrower interpretation than the bare terms in CERCLA § 108(b) would suggest. First, reading CERCLA § 108(b) as applying to current owners and operators of currently-active or -idled facilities comports with CERCLA § 108 when read as a whole. CERCLA § 108 requires evidence of financial responsibility for three different types of facilities: vessels under CERCLA § 108(a), motor carriers under CERCLA § 108(b)(5), and other facilities under CERCLA § 108(b). The provisions applicable to vessels and motor carriers logically apply to current owners and operators of existing vessels and motor carriers. For example, CERCLA § 108(a) refers, as does CERCLA § 108(b), to “owners” and “operators” of “vessels” without qualification. However, logically only current owners and operators of existing vessels are able to “use[] any port or place within the United States” as required by CERCLA § 108(a), and only those entities and vessels would be subject to the remedies available to the Secretaries of the Treasury and Transportation in CERCLA §§ 108(a)(2) and (3). Indeed, the U.S. Coast Guard's CERCLA § 108(a) regulations apply only to current owners and operators of vessels used or capable of being used as a means of transportation on the water.
Current owners and operators are the primary actors at facilities and as such would be able to evaluate the applicability of the rules and apply the formula to the features present. EPA anticipates that requiring entities that may no longer have the legal rights to access a facility to evaluate it for purposes of determining whether they are subject to the rule and if so, the appropriate amount of financial responsibility, would be difficult in many cases. Thus EPA intends for this proposal to be focused upon an easily-identified, particular subset of parties that has control over and are thus in the best position to control and address hazardous substance management activities. Such incentives would not exist in the case of owners and operators that no longer have activities at the site. Nor does EPA expect that applying the rules to such former owners would further a primary goal of financial responsibility, that is, to develop incentives for good practices.
Similar reasoning leads EPA to propose applying the CERCLA § 108(b) requirements only to currently-active or currently-idled facilities. These facilities are readily identifiable and because they are ongoing concerns, are more likely to be able to obtain the kind of financial responsibility necessary under the regulation, and to further the dual goals of CERCLA § 108(b) regulations. By contrast, EPA is concerned that a rule applicable to facilities that are not currently active or currently idled would be very difficult to implement, and has the potential to divert significant resources from existing Superfund priorities with minimal benefit to the program. Therefore, EPA believes that attempting to regulate and oversee CERCLA § 108(b) requirements for this vast universe of facilities would impose a tremendous administrative burden on the Superfund program, with the likelihood of very little return. EPA
EPA has sought to complement CERCLA's liability provisions by requiring owners and operators subject to the rule, to provide assurance against all potential risks associated with hazardous substance management at their facility. In this way EPA's proposed approach thus also is intended to support CERCLA's broad remedial purposes, while accounting for the differences between CERCLA § 108(b)'s regulatory program and CERCLA's liability and enforcement provisions.
As discussed in further detail in following sections of this preamble, requirements for financial responsibility under CERCLA § 108(b) do not affect the liability of any parties potentially responsible for CERCLA costs. This would include that of any former owners and operators. The existing CERCLA processes for enforcement, contribution, cost recovery, and assignment of liability are unaffected by CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility requirements, and are available to ensure that responsible parties pay the costs associated with releases or threatened releases of hazardous substances. In fact, while not required by the proposed rule itself, EPA believes that requiring current owners and operators to demonstrate CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility may have the salutatory effect of inducing those subject to the rule to seek out any other parties who may be liable for contamination at their facility in order to obtain their assistance with cleanup. The result could be a potential reduction in threats to human health and the environment at the site which could in turn result in a reduced CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount. Given the practical difficulties of imposing CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility requirements upon past owners and operators, EPA expects that those existing processes are the appropriate means for parties to divide liabilities amongst themselves.
The proposed rule at § 320.1(c) would exempt states and the Federal Government from the requirements of part 320. This provision is modeled on a similar, long-standing exemption in EPA's regulations for RCRA Subtitle C hazardous waste treatment, storage, and disposal facilities.
E.O. 12580 delegates the responsibility for developing regulations under CERCLA § 108(b) for non-transportation-related facilities to EPA. Responsibility for developing regulations for transportation-related facilities is delegated to the Department of Transportation. Thus, transportation-related facilities at hardrock mining sites would not be subject to requirements under this proposed rule. The Agency anticipates that jurisdictional issues between EPA and the Department of Transportation will be worked out in implementation. EPA solicits comment on this approach.
The Agency is proposing the following definitions for use in Part 320:
Section 2.203(b) of this chapter provides procedures through which any person submitting information to EPA in accordance with this Part may assert a claim of business confidentiality covering part or all of that information. Information covered by such a claim will be disclosed by EPA only to the extent, and by means of the procedures, set forth in Part 2, Subpart B, of this chapter. However, if no such claim accompanies the information when it is received by EPA, it may be made available to the public without further notice to the person submitting it.
This rule proposes an option to require owners or operators to post on their company website all information submitted to EPA that is not identified as confidential business information (CBI). EPA anticipates that owners or operators will claim some of the information submissions required under this rule as CBI. However, the Agency believes that there are categories of information required that will not be CBI including, but not limited to, identification of the type of financial responsibility instrument used, the amount of financial responsibility required at a facility, the facility contact information, failure of instrument providers, an owner or operator entering bankruptcy, claims made against the owner or operator, or an owner or operator's request for release from financial responsibility requirements. To facilitate implementation of this proposed rule, the Agency is considering making Class Determinations for certain types of CBI information. EPA solicits comment on the types of information that owners or operators anticipate would be CBI, and on the value of CBI Class Determinations.
EPA is proposing to require owners or operators subject to the requirements of this rule to submit a notification form to EPA. Owners or operators authorized to operate on the promulgation date of this rule would be required to submit the initial notification form within thirty days of the effective date of the final rule. Owners or operators that become authorized to operate after the effective date of the final rule would be required to submit the notification form and comply with the requirements of this proposed rule prior to beginning operations
The notification form is specified in proposed § 320.5. Owners or operators would be required to provide, at a minimum, the following information: (1) The name, mailing address, and location of the facility, (2) the facility's EPA ID number, if one has been previously issued, (3) the name and contact information for a contact person for financial responsibility issues, (4) the land type on which the facility is located, (5) owner and operator information, (6) and information about the activities conducted at the facility.
Within thirty days of receiving the notification form, EPA would issue an EPA identification number to the facility, if the facility has not yet received one.
The requirement for this notification form would serve several purposes important to the implementation of financial responsibility requirements under this proposed rule. First, it would
This proposed rule would require that owners or operators of facilities subject to the rule submit information to EPA. The Agency believes that submission of the information proposed in this rule would be needed for effective implementation of CERCLA § 108(b) requirements. By requiring the owner or operator to submit information about the facility to EPA, these requirements would better enable the Agency to ensure full compliance with the requirements for financial responsibility throughout the time the facility is subject to those requirements.
Under § 320.5, owners and operators would be required to submit an initial notification form. The form would provide EPA basic information about the facility. The form can be found in Appendix A of Part 320. EPA solicits comment on the information required in the form.
Owners or operators would further be required to submit evidence of financial responsibility. The precise submittal requirements for each financial instrument are described in subpart C. Generally, owners or operators demonstrating financial responsibility using a surety bond would be required to submit the surety bond to EPA. Owners or operators using a letter of credit would be required to submit the letter of credit to EPA unless it is held by a trustee, as provided in § 320.40, in which case they would be required to submit a certified copy. Owners or operators using insurance would be required to submit the endorsement. Owners or operators using a trust agreement (either a stand-alone trust or a stand-by trust established for use with another instrument) would be required to provide a duplicate original. If the final rule allows for the use of a financial test and corporate guarantee, owners or operators using the corporate guarantee would be required to submit a signed corporate guarantee, as well as a letter from the Chief Financial Officer (CFO letter), audited financial statements, and agreed upon procedures report, as required in § 320.44. Finally, owners or operators using the financial test, if allowed in the final rule, would be required to submit the CFO letter, audited financial statements, and agreed upon procedures report, as required in § 320.43. In the case of the corporate guarantee and the financial test, the CFO letter, auditors report, and agreed upon procedures report would be required to be updated annually.
This proposal also requires information submission to assure proper maintenance of financial responsibility. The precise submittal requirements for each of the following are described in § 320.65. These requirements include a requirement to update financial responsibility amount calculations every three years, at a minimum, and to notify EPA of changes in the information on the facility's initial notification form, facility transfer, claims filed against the instrument or owner or operator, intent to close the facility, failure of an instrument provider, instrument provider intent to cancel, and owner or operator bankruptcy.
Owners or operators are also required to submit information that may vary according to facility class. These requirements will be specified in the relevant Subparts to 40 CFR part 320, but for clarity, those submission requirements are also incorporated into the general information submission requirement in proposed § 320.6. Thus, for example, owners and operators of hardrock mining facilities must calculate a financial responsibility amount for their facilities using the formula in § 320.66, and § 320.67 requires submission of information to support that calculation, including data inputs to the proposed formula to determine a financial responsibility amount, and documentation supporting all data inputs and assumptions. Under proposed § 320.6, this information must be submitted to EPA.
The Agency solicits comment on these information submission requirements including comments on the need for these requirements and suggestions for additional information that should be required under this rule.
This proposed rule includes information submission requirements throughout the financial responsibility process. These information submission requirements include: (1) Initial notification, (2) demonstration of financial responsibility, (3) notifications pursuant to financial responsibility maintenance, (4) submission of a financial responsibility amount and support for the amount, and (5) request for release from financial responsibility. The Agency is proposing to require that the submissions under this rule be in electronic format.
Adopting electronic information submission across its programs will benefit the Agency, owners and operators, and the general public. Electronic information submission will save Agency resources and improve data quality by reducing the need for manual data entry, and will help the Agency manage environmental programs more efficiently and effectively. EPA also expects electronic information submission to promote public participation by facilitating EPA's ability to make information submitted more readily accessible to interested parties. In this respect, electronic reporting can work in concert with another requirement in the proposed rule—that owners and operators have a publicly-accessible Web site (
Use of electronic forms should also facilitate the effective submission of required information. Owners and operators may benefit through integration of data entry error prevention and compliance assistance into the reporting tool. Namely, electronic systems can provide automatic data quality checks, such as for improperly formatted addresses, math errors, or significant changes in cost estimates, and flag these for correction, if needed, before submission. A system can also provide automated reminders and prompts (
This approach is also consistent with the Agency's 2013 E-Reporting Policy Statement for EPA Regulations, which reflects that, in developing new regulations, EPA will assume that reporting will be electronic and not paper-based.
Electronic reporting also is a key component of the Next Generation Compliance Strategy.
To realize these benefits, EPA is considering development of a Financial Responsibility Portal to collect information relevant to the rule and to serve as an electronic tool that guides owners and operators through the reporting and submission processes with built-in compliance assistance and data quality checks. EPA envisions that this system would be a component of EPA's Central Data Exchange,
EPA envisions that users would access the portal through a Web form based on Extensible Mark-up Language (XML). EPA expects that XML schemas and stylesheets, when combined with XML enabled browsers, data bases, and other applications are currently the method of choice for conducting data exchange using the Internet to transfer and manipulate data.
Once the Financial Assurance Portal is developed, EPA is proposing to require that regulated facilities electronically submit the following categories of information through the portal: (1) Initial notification form required under § 320.5, (2) submission of URL where CERCLA § 108(b) information will be available, (3) financial responsibility formula data (upload documentation), (4) financial responsibility instrument evidence, (5) notification of change in financial responsibility amount, (6) notification of change in instrument, (7) notification of claim filed against the instrument or owner or operator, (8) notification of closure, (9) request for release from financial responsibility; and (10) notice of owner or operator bankruptcy. In addition, EPA is proposing to provide for both paper and electronic submission of the following notices from instrument providers: (1) Notice of cancellation (by provider), and (2) notice of provider incapacity. Within these categories, EPA expects that certain types of information will need to be submitted using different types of electronic means, which are discussed in detail in later sections.
In order to gain the full benefits of electronic reporting, obtaining as much information as possible in an electronic format is preferable. At the same time, the Agency is considering whether some of the information submission requirements of this proposed rule may not be appropriate for electronic information submission. For example, some of the information submission requirements proposed in this rule will result in more frequent submissions to EPA than will others. An example of submissions that EPA expects to occur more frequently relate to facility conditions—every facility will have to notify the Agency, and the notification form will have to be updated to reflect changed facility conditions. On the other hand, other requirements may be less frequent. For example, EPA's analysis of instrument providers (conducted for purposes of evaluating provider qualifications) indicates that failures are relatively uncommon. Thus, it is possible that few owners or operators will have to submit notification of instrument provider failure. Where infrequent submissions are likely, EPA expects that developing an electronic form for that submission may not have significant benefits. In addition, there may be specific types of documents (
As EPA develops its data system, it is considering technical issues associated with its development as described later in this section. EPA solicits comment on how an electronic submission system can be constructed to appropriately capture submission of the categories of information that EPA proposes to
The electronic system envisioned by EPA would have both mandatory and optional data entry fields. Submissions will not be processed until each of the mandatory fields have data entered, ensuring complete data entry before final submission. Data entry fields are expected to be a variety of drop down lists, number fields, calendars, and open test fields depending on the information that is required. For example, the type of activities occurring at the facility could be chosen from a drop down list, and the date of a facility's last financial responsibility amount calculation or financial test submission could be chosen from a calendar.
EPA expects these types of controls on data input can result in reduced errors. In turn this should provide efficiencies by substantially decreasing the time needed for EPA to review and process the submissions, and the time needed for the submitter to correct deficiencies. As discussed earlier, EPA is considering the ability to duplicate previous submissions when seeking to update or renew information. This will simplify future submissions to only those fields that require updates. To address the issue of CBI (described in § 320.4) the Agency envisions establishing a database that tags information as public or confidential upon receipt. This would allow the system to then auto-populate an EPA webpage to provide information not identified as CBI to the public. EPA solicits comment on this approach.
As discussed earlier, EPA would like to make it possible for users to enter some types of information through electronic forms available in the Portal. For example, EPA intends that the following information would be entered into the Financial Assurance Portal using smart forms with data-entry boxes that specify the exact information needed: (1) Initial notification; (2) website URL; (3) amount of financial responsibility required; (4) amount of financial responsibility secured; (5) type of instrument; and, if the financial test is used, credit rating, tangible net worth, and assets in the United States; and (6) instrument provider information (
EPA intends other submissions to be accomplished through forms with electronic signatures and verification: (1) Financial responsibility instruments, (2) certain information demonstrating passage of the financial test, (3) notice of a change in financial status if using the financial test, (4) notice of cancellation of a financial assurance instrument, (5) notice of a claim against the instrument, (6) notice of bankruptcy; (7) notice of a change in instrument, (8) notification of change in the amount of financial responsibility required, and (9) notice of incapacity of the instrument provider. Where an electronic signature is required, the proposal requires that the signature be a legally valid and enforceable signature under applicable EPA and other Federal requirements pertaining to electronic signatures.
EPA also expects that the user will need to upload other information from outside the system. EPA expects that this information will need to meet certain document requirements (
The Agency solicits comment on these expectations for information submission format.
EPA envisions that owners or operators will receive a password and/or user identification number to access the portal when they notify EPA that they are a regulated entity. The system will then assist owners or operators in obtaining a unique user identification number, similar to the electronic interface that EPA has recently made available for states and the regulated community to use to electronically submit RCRA Site Identification (Site ID) forms, which are used by facilities to notify regulators that they are involved in RCRA waste activities. EPA intends to establish an electronic notification form for owners or operators to comply with proposed § 320.5. EPA solicits comment on whether instrument providers should be given access to the Financial Assurance Portal in order to submit notices to EPA and to owners and operators as required under this rule (
Because the Agency anticipates that the Financial Assurance Portal will not be available to receive submissions when this rule is made final, the Agency is proposing that owners or operators be required to initially submit information in paper format until the electronic capability is available. Thus, EPA is proposing to identify an electronic filing compliance date in § 320.7(a). Because that date is not currently known, EPA is proposing to announce that date in the
EPA is considering an alternative approach under which electronic reporting would be phased in over the four-year compliance timeframe. EPA would require the initial notification to be submitted electronically, but would roll out other electronic forms as parts of the rule become effective or required (
As part of the proposal for mandatory electronic reporting, the proposed rule would provide two options through which the Administrator could waive the requirement for electronic submission. EPA recognizes that there may be some circumstances where it may be necessary to provide for paper reporting of information otherwise required electronically,
EPA has included both a general waiver provision and an emergency waiver provision in the proposed rule. A general waiver could be granted to owners or operators that cannot comply with the requirement for electronic submission. The owner or operator would be required to submit a request for a general waiver to the Administrator at least thirty days in advance of the date the information is due to EPA. The Administrator could grant a general waiver upon a finding that: (1) The owner or operator is unable to gain access to a system allowing electronic reporting because it is located in an area with insufficient broadband access, or (2) religious practices of the owner or operator prohibit the use of necessary technologies. A general waiver could be granted for one year, and the owner or operator would be able to reapply annually.
In addition, the Administrator could grant a waiver of the requirements for electronic submission in emergency situations. To obtain an emergency waiver, the owner or operator would be required to submit a request within ten days of the date the information is due to EPA. The request for an emergency waiver must describe the conditions that prevent electronic submission of information and must be accompanied by a paper copy of the information due. The Administrator may grant an emergency waiver upon a finding that the owner or operator was unable to comply with the requirement for electronic information submission due to: (1) A large-scale national disaster (
EPA is proposing that owners or operators be required to develop and maintain a facility record that includes information documenting compliance with the financial responsibility requirements of this proposed rule. The facility record must include at least all information required to be submitted to EPA under this Part, comments received from the public, and all notifications received from EPA related to the financial responsibility obligations of the facility. The rule would require owners or operators to maintain this information until three years after the Agency releases the owner or operator from the requirement for financial responsibility. EPA solicits comment on these recordkeeping requirements.
EPA is proposing requirements for public notice for owners and operators subject to CERCLA § 108(b) requirements. This approach will add the benefit of transparency to implementation of CERCLA § 108(b) requirements. In addition, these proposed requirements are consistent with EPA's commitment to assuring that the public is aware of EPA's Superfund activities at sites, even when there may not be an active Superfund action underway.
First, such public notice would help to ensure that the financial responsibility formula is applied as intended, so that the resulting financial responsibility level reflects the degree and duration of risk at the facility. As discussed in the financial responsibility formula section of this preamble, § 320.63, the financial responsibility formula is intended to be implemented by owners or operators, rather than by EPA. While EPA expects that in the vast majority of cases the financial responsibility formula will be applied accurately, EPA believes that providing information to the public can enhance the incentives for owners and operators to fully comply with regulatory requirements. The reliance on public notice as an incentive for compliance under this proposal is consistent with the 2010 guidance issued by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), where that office recognized that the public disclosure of information is an increasingly common and important regulatory tool.
Second, the proposed rules are structured to support CERCLA responses undertaken by the Federal Government, states, and private parties—a structure that is consistent with the CERCLA scheme. EPA is proposing to require owners and operators to make readily available to the public information about the levels of financial responsibility, information on claims made, and information that may relate to the continued validity of the instruments—for example, any notices of instrument cancellation by providers. EPA believes that ready access to this information will help ensure that parties with CERCLA claims, and parties potentially impacted by the CERCLA claims of others, will have the opportunity to monitor changes in the facility's financial responsibility.
EPA is today proposing two approaches for public notice procedures. Under the first approach, the owner or operator would be required to maintain a web site to convey information regarding its compliance with the requirements of proposed part 320. Under the second, EPA would provide information to the public on the Agency's Web site.
Under the first approach, owners and operators would be required to post information on a Web site created and maintained by the owner and operator. EPA is considering this approach because, as those generating the information, owners and operators are in the best position to track information about their facilities. In addition,
The owner or operator would be required to establish a Web site titled “CERCLA § 108(b) Financial Responsibility Information” within sixty days of the date it first becomes subject to CERCLA § 108(b) requirements to and provide EPA with the URL of the location on its company Web site where it will make information available to the public about the implementation of financial responsibility requirements at the facility.
EPA would be required, within thirty days of receiving the URL, to post on its Web site the facility name, company EPA identification number, and the URL where information will be made available to the public by the owner or operator.
The proposed rule would then require the owner or operator to provide information on its company Web site beginning ninety days after the date it becomes subject to requirements under CERCLA § 108(b). The initial posting of information must include the name and contact information for a person that can provide the public information about the facility's CERCLA § 108(b) requirements. In addition to this information, the rule would require the owner or operator to make public at least the following information: (1) Any information that the owner or operator is required to submit to EPA under this proposed rule, and (2) notifications from EPA to the owner or operator .
This approach would also establish conditions for maintenance of the information on the company Web site. For example, § 320.9(e) would require that the information be posted in a location where a visitor to the Web site would reasonably expect to see announcement of issues related to compliance with requirements of CERCLA. In addition, that section would require that the owner or operator assure freely available access to the information, and that the access not be obstructed by complex access processes or passwords. The Agency believes these requirements are necessary to assure meaningful access to information.
To assure that current information is made available to the public, this approach would require the owner or operator to post all information submitted to EPA within thirty days of its submission. Thus, for example, the rule would require the owner or operator to submit to EPA the Initial Notification Form required under § 320.5 within thirty days of the promulgation date of this rule, and to post that form on the company's Web site within thirty days of submitting it to EPA. By requiring that the owner or operator post information submitted to EPA, the proposed rule will require that the Web site information be updated at key financial responsibility implementation points including: (1) When the level of financial responsibility required at the facility is initially determined and when it changes, (2) upon application for release from financial responsibility requirements, (3) when a claim is made on the instrument, (4) upon receiving notification of cancellation of an instrument, (5) upon transfer of ownership of the facility, and (6) upon submitting notice to a regulator of closure of the facility. The Agency believes that this approach will allow the public or claimants the opportunity to follow the implementation of financial responsibility requirements and the facility and be aware of changes that occur.
Under the second approach proposed in this rule, the owner or operator would not be required to post information on a Web site; rather, EPA would make the required information available to the public on the Agency's Web site.
EPA solicits comment on these approaches to providing notice to the public regarding the CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility at a facility. EPA particularly solicits comment on whether the owner or operator should be required to post information, what information would be of most benefit to the public in the implementation of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility, and how the information would be used for that purpose.
As discussed in section VI.A.3. of this preamble, some information that owners and operators would be required to submit under this proposed rule may be claimed as CBI. This proposal would not require or allow posting of CBI. However, the Agency expects that much of the information submitted to EPA under the proposal would not be CBI, and could be made available. EPA is considering issuing a Class Determination under 40 CFR 2.207 notifying parties how it intends to treat information submitted under this rule. The purpose of a Determination is to state the Agency's position regarding the manner in which information within a class will be treated when information received by the Agency shares characteristics and necessarily results in identical treatment of the information. EPA expects that a Class Determination would clarify the Agency position on what does and does not constitute CBI under this rule. The Agency solicits comment on this approach. In particular, the Agency requests information regarding what the information that would be required under this proposed rule might owners or operators consider to be CBI.
Finally, EPA notes that it is planning to develop a Financial Responsibility Portal to receive and track financial responsibility information. Ultimately, when developed and populated, the goal is for that system to auto-populate an Agency public database and make available to the public information submitted under this rule. EPA solicits comment on whether, when the EPA public database becomes available, the requirement for the owner or operator to maintain a Web site should continue if that requirement is adopted in the final rule.
This proposed rule is designed to set up a regulatory program for multiple classes of facilities. Thus, the proposed rule includes several basic provisions that are intended to be used in conjunction with the class-specific requirements in Subparts D-Z.
These requirements are intended to guide the regulated community through the general requirements to establish the required evidence of financial responsibility, and also provide requirements that EPA anticipates will be applicable to multiple facility classes.
EPA has included a general requirement that owners and operators calculate a current amount of financial responsibility at their facilities in accordance with this part. Because this proposed rule also includes requirements for hardrock mining classes, proposed § 320.20 includes a cross reference to Table A-1 in § 320.2, which identifies the class-specific
Each instrument included in the proposed rule has its own particular supporting information. The specific instruments proposed in this rule are further discussed in section VI.C.1. of this preamble.
The proposed rule would require the owner or operator to recalculate the financial responsibility level three years after the date the facility is required to provide the full amount of financial responsibility at its facility under § 320.61, every three years thereafter, and within sixty days after every successful claim against a CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility instrument. The recalculation must use the most current facility information available. The owner or operator must submit the revised financial responsibility amount to EPA, along with supporting documentation.
Whenever the required financial responsibility amount changes, the owner or operator would be required to compare the new amount with the value of the financial responsibility instrument(s). If the resulting amount of financial responsibility required is greater than the amount of financial responsibility provided by the current CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility instrument(s), the owner or operator, within sixty days after the change in the required financial responsibility amount, would be required to increase the value of the instrument(s), or obtain a new instrument(s), in accordance with Subpart C, so that the value of the instrument(s) is at least equal to the newly required financial responsibility amount. This proposed provision ensures that adjustments to the required level are made promptly.
Conversely, if the resulting amount of financial responsibility required is less than the amount of financial responsibility provided by the current CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility instrument(s), the owner or operator may send a written request to the Regional Administrator to lower the required financial responsibility amount at the facility. The request must include updated information to support the revised financial responsibility amount as required in § 320.22. The amount of financial responsibility required at the facility would be reduced to the recalculated amount only with written approval by the Administrator.
This provision would ensure that the owner or operator first receive approval from EPA that the financial responsibility may be lowered, which provides a check against improper implementation of the requirements. Furthermore, under the proposed wording of the trust agreement, EPA would need to provide notification to the trustee that funds may be released (
This proposed requirement is intended to ensure that the amount of financial responsibility at the facility continues to reflect the level of risk at the facility. EPA recognizes that facility conditions and operations may change over time, or that new information may be available that may affect the amount of financial responsibility required. EPA thus is proposing a three-year periodic recalculation of the required financial responsibility amount to ensure the amount reflects the current risk at the facility. EPA expects that three years was a frequent enough requirement to provide current information while not overly burdening owners, operators and EPA with a more frequent implementation of the recalculation requirements. EPA requests comment on requiring recalculation of the amount of financial responsibility every three years.
Furthermore, EPA recognized that claims against the instrument may be successfully made that would correspondingly reduce the amount of financial responsibility at the facility. In some cases, the claims may be the result of responses that lower the risk at the facility. However, this is not expected to always be the case. Accordingly, EPA believes it is necessary for owners and operators to recalculate the required amount of financial responsibility after successful claims against the CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility instruments in order to compare the new required amount to the remaining financial responsibility at the facility.
Under this proposed rule, an owner or operator would be required to notify the Administrator by certified mail of the commencement of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under Title 11 U.S.C. (Bankruptcy), naming the owner or operator as debtor, within ten days after commencement of the proceeding. [Option 2 only: A guarantor of a corporate guarantee would be required to make such a notification if he is named as debtor, as required under the terms of the corporate guarantee. Those requirements are discussed in section VI.C.5. of this preamble.]
This provision is modeled after a similar requirement in the requirements for hazardous waste treatment, storage, and disposal facilities at 40 CFR part 264 and 265. EPA believes it is important for EPA to be made aware of the owner or operator entering bankruptcy, as that event may have implications for the owner's or operator's ability to meet financial obligations under CERCLA. Likewise, EPA believes it is important for the Agency to be aware of situations where a guarantor of a corporate guarantee is entering bankruptcy as it may have implications for the guarantor's ability to meet financial obligations under the guarantee.
An owner or operator who demonstrates CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility for CERCLA liabilities by obtaining a trust fund, surety bond, letter of credit, or insurance policy would be deemed to be without the required financial responsibility in the event of bankruptcy of the trustee or issuing institution, or a suspension or revocation of the authority of the trustee institution to act as trustee or of the institution issuing the surety bond, letter of credit, or insurance policy to issue such instruments. The owner or operator would be required to provide other evidence of financial responsibility within sixty days after such an event. This provision is also modeled on existing RCRA Subtitle C requirements. As with those regulations, EPA expects that this requirement will make clear what must be done by the owner or operator when the institution providing trustee services or issuing a bond, letter of credit, or insurance policy goes bankrupt or loses its authority to act as a trustee or issue such instruments.
The owner or operator would be required to notify the Regional Administrator by certified mail, within ten days of a CERCLA claim being filed against the owner or operator or financial responsibility guarantor. The proposed rule also requires that this notification include certain key information: a copy of any papers filed by the claimant with a court, or other information allowing the Regional Administrator to identify the court, case
In this section of the preamble EPA discusses generally the key payment methods that are associated with each instrument. Proposed Subpart B does not contain corresponding language. Instead, this is contained in Subpart C of the proposed regulations, in the required wording of each instrument. Instead of addressing these considerations multiple times, however, EPA is presenting its approach to these common provisions once in this section of this preamble.
Under this proposed rule, the funds from all types of financial responsibility instruments except the financial test would be available under three circumstances and also under direct action scenarios. In essence, EPA has sought to allow for maximum flexibility in how the instruments pay out through the payment terms. EPA believes this approach will help integrate the operation of the CERCLA § 108(b) instruments into the various CERCLA enforcement and cleanup processes and therefore will efficiently support the goal of ensuring that funds be made available for the payment of CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damages.
It is EPA's intent that each payment term as well as direct action be available independently of one another, and claimants may use any or any combination of the terms as the circumstances dictate. Similarly, use of one payment term by a particular claimant would not prevent its reuse or use of another payment term by another claimant. Again, this is to maximize flexibility in the manner in which the instruments can be payable, to promote the goal of ensuring cleanup while avoiding unnecessary litigation over whether the instruments are in fact payable. EPA seeks comment on these proposed payment terms.
Under this proposed rule, the financial responsibility instruments would be available to pay a final judgment from a Federal court awarding CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with the facility against any of the current owner or operators for which payment as required by the judgment has not otherwise been made within thirty days. This is intended to cover all types of CERCLA actions, including those under CERCLA §§ 107 or 113(f). This is also intended to cover judgments in favor of both governmental claimants (
EPA is requiring that the claim be reduced to a final judgment under this payment term for two reasons. First, this provision provides court oversight to ensure the validity of the claims. This is important because EPA or another regulatory agency may not be directly involved in a particular cleanup. Second, the requirement to present a valid final court judgment may help alleviate concerns of potential instrument providers about instruments that could pay to multiple potential claimants. In discussions with representatives of the financial industry, certain representatives expressed concern that the availability of the instruments to multiple claimants would either: (1) Raise the risk to the instrument provider of fraudulent claims, or (2) increase the potential claims management and investigation costs of determining which claims are valid. While the preferred option of several representatives of the financial community was to have EPA specified as the beneficiary of the instrument, EPA had concerns with such an option in the context of CERCLA § 108(b) (see, for example, discussion in Section VI.C.1. of this preamble in the section titled “
This payment provision also requires that the party may only make a claim if they have not recovered or been paid the funds from any other source. This is intended to provide further assurance to providers and current owners and operators that the claims are valid and that the claimant is not being paid twice for the same costs or damages.
It should be noted that EPA does not intend for this provision to displace the standard manner in which CERCLA claims are brought and resolved outside of the CERCLA § 108(b) instrument. Claims can continue to be asserted against the owner and/or operator in the first instance, and EPA expects that in most instances, the owner or operator would pay the claim itself, without resort to the instrument.
Under this proposal, the financial responsibility instruments also would be available to pay for a CERCLA settlement with agencies of the Federal Government, including but not limited to administrative settlements and consent decrees. Specifically, the instruments provide for payment to the Administrator or another authorized Federal agency if payment has not been made as required by a CERCLA settlement associated with the facility with a current owner or operator. EPA's current CERCLA model settlements often include a financial responsibility component to ensure that funds are available, should the respondent fail to perform. EPA expects that future settlements could rely on an owner or operator's CERCLA § 108(b) instrument for this purpose if the settling parties agreed to employ the instrument in this manner. EPA expects to review and, if necessary, modify its existing models to account for the possibility that CERCLA § 108(b) instruments could be used to assure the work required by future settlements. Additionally, some settlements are structured on a “cash out” basis, where the respondent is not doing work, but is instead resolving liability as a lump-sum payment to the United States. EPA's intent is for this payment term to function in any of these settlement scenarios. Such payments, in the case of settlements with EPA, would be expected to be made into the Superfund and/or a CERCLA special account.
Again, EPA does not intend for this provision to displace the standard manner in which CERCLA claims are brought and resolved outside of the CERCLA § 108(b) instrument. Federal agency claims may continue to be asserted against the owner and/or operator, where appropriate, and the parties would remain free to settle those claims as they determine appropriate under the circumstances. EPA expects that in most instances, the owner or operator would make the payment required in the settlement directly, in order to avoid the costs incurred in drawing upon the instrument which may result in the owner or operator incurring costs as discussed earlier. However, should the owner or operator fail to make payment as provided in a settlement, the instruments are structured to become available for payment to (an) authorized Federal government agency(ies).
EPA is proposing including this term for several reasons. First, the Agency intends to make express provision for settlement accomplished under direct Federal oversight to assure that any necessary response actions are completed in a manner that protects human health and the environment. Such a provision would provide the flexibility for payment into special accounts under CERCLA § 122(b)(3), when appropriate as determined in the particular settlement, in order to provide an avenue for settlement funds to be used at a particular site. This provision also would allow for money recovered by the Federal Government to be deposited back into the Superfund Trust Fund under 26 U.S.C. 9507(b). EPA expects that this payment term would therefore provide a further incentive for owners and operators to undertake necessary CERCLA response actions at their sites or otherwise settle their liabilities without protracted litigation, even where their ability to pay for such a settlement would otherwise be limited. In this role, the instruments would help promote the goal of CERCLA § 108(b) to support CERCLA's “polluter pays” principle.
As noted earlier, this payment term is independent of other payment terms. Thus for example, in the absence of any settlement, the instruments could be made available upon obtaining a CERCLA judgment. Similarly, this would not affect settlements between non-Federal parties and owners and operators. Such settlements could also proceed under the payment term discussed in the previous subsection, but would require court approval and reduction to a CERCLA judgment for costs. EPA solicits comment on this approach.
This proposal would also allow the financial responsibility instruments to pay into a trust fund established pursuant to a unilateral administrative order under CERCLA § 106(a) under certain circumstances. Specifically, under the proposal, the Administrator or another Federal agency may make a claim against the instrument requesting payment into a trust fund established pursuant to a CERCLA unilateral administrative order issued to a current owner or operator if performance at the facility as required by the order had not occurred. The proposed rules also provide that the Administrator or another Federal agency may only make the claim against the instrument if the owner or operator has provided a written statement that the instrument may be used to assure the performance of the work required in the order.
These provisions of the proposed rule are intended to complement existing EPA model orders. Under EPA's existing models, EPA requires recipients to provide evidence of financial responsibility to ensure that funds will be available to complete the work, should the recipient fail to perform as required under the unilateral administrative order. In essence, the owner or operator chooses the instrument to comply with the financial responsibility provisions of the order. EPA expects to review and, if necessary, modify its existing model administrative orders to account for the possibility that CERCLA § 108(b) instruments could be used to assure the work required by future unilateral administrative orders. EPA believes that this approach would provide owners and operators the maximum amount of flexibility to use the CERCLA § 108(b) instrument, should they become subject to a unilateral administrative order.
Finally, CERCLA § 108(c)(2) contains a “direct action” provision, under which claims can be brought against the guarantor, instead of against the owner or operator, as in the case of the other payment triggers discussed earlier. CERCLA § 108(c)(2) generally provides that any claim authorized by CERCLA §§ 107 or 111 may be asserted directly against the provider of the financial responsibility instrument in situations where the owner or operator is in bankruptcy or is unavailable. In addition, CERCLA § 108(d)(1) generally provides that the total liability of any guarantor in a direct action suit is limited to the aggregate amount of the monetary limits of the policy of insurance, guarantee, surety bond, letter of credit, or similar instrument obtained from the guarantor by the person subject to liability.
The proposed CERCLA § 108(b) instruments are intended to account for direct actions authorized by these provisions. Where an owner or operator is bankrupt or unavailable, there is uncertainty around a claimant's ability to obtain a judgment. Thus, the ability
The direct action provisions of the statute received attention during meetings EPA held with representatives of financial institutions that provide financial instruments or services being considered for use in the proposed rule. Information on these meetings is available in the docket for this proposed rule (Docket No. EPA-HQ-SFUND-2015-0781). Specifically, EPA asked representatives how the direct action provision may affect their willingness to provide instruments for the CERCLA § 108(b) rule. Financial industry representatives indicated that providers' willingness to issue instruments was impacted by the availability of direct action and the potential scope of claimants, although to varying degrees across the instruments. With the exception of insurance providers, financial instrument providers expressed some degree of aversion to the direct action provision.
Representatives of the insurance industry informed the Agency that the industry is familiar with direct action because it is required under some state insurance laws. Insurance providers indicated that direct action would not generally have an effect on market participation.
Representatives from the surety industry had a mixed reception to the direct action provision. Sureties typically have some ability to step into the shoes of the owner or operator to perform or fulfill the obligation insured by the bond. Sureties have experience stepping into the shoes of an owner or operator and thus had some level of comfort in assuming the owner or operator's responsibilities in negotiating a settlement for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damages on behalf of the facility. However, surety representatives were concerned about the risk of direct action attracting class action suits and suits from environmental groups who did not have valid claims. The representatives also communicated concern over legal fees incurred in responding to numerous invalid suits.
Members of the banking community who issue or are expert in letters of credit or serve as trustees expressed great concern about the direct action provision. Letter of credit specialists asserted that direct action would be out of the realm of the typical responsibilities of a bank providing letters of credit. In fact, EPA was told that banks in their role as issuers of letters of credit can only be subject to suit if they do not complete the obligation to pay according to the specifications of the letter of credit.
Banking institutions that serve as trustees expressed that trust institutions would not participate in a program where the institution can be subject to any liability. Trustees also communicated that there is a distinction between a trust and the trustee—the trust itself holds the financial assurance, whereas the trustee executes the trust agreement in order to manage the instrument. Following this argument trustees suggested that the trust itself might qualify as a CERCLA “guarantor” and therefore direct action could be applied against the trust itself. Trustees stated that the possibility of liability on the trust institution would greatly and negatively impact their participation in providing trustee services to facilities subject to the proposed rule.
While the ability to bring a direct action against a guarantor is created by the statute itself, EPA has nonetheless sought to address the major issues raised by the financial community to the extent possible, in development of the proposed rules. EPA has included language in the instruments that mirror the terms of the direct action provision, specifically referring to claims authorized by CERCLA §§ 107 or 111.
EPA has also sought to lessen the perceived barriers for participation of banks issuing letters of credit and trustee institutions acting as guarantors. Specifically, EPA is proposing two structures for use of a letter of credit—first a letter of credit payable directly to claimants, and second a letter of credit held and managed by a trust fund. The owner or operator could choose either option. In the second arrangement the trustee would have direct access to draw on the letter of credit to satisfy the claims. EPA intends for this arrangement to address concerns about direct action claims for letters of credit, because claimants would bring those claims to the trust fund holding the letter of credit, instead of the letter of credit provider. In addition, EPA has structured the trust fund instrument with the express intent that direct action would be taken against the trust fund itself, not the trustee. This is intended to address concerns about potential trustee liability from their role as trustee under the trust agreement. Section 3 of the proposed trust agreement states explicitly that the trust Grantor and Trustee do not intend for the Trustee to qualify as a “guarantor” as that term is used in CERCLA §§ 101(13) and 108(c)(2), and therefore intend that the Trustee will not be subject to a direct action by Trustee's agreement to act as Trustee for the trust fund. The proposed trust agreement further states that the Grantor and Trustee intend for the trust fund to qualify as a “guarantor” as that term is used in CERCLA §§ 101(13) and 108(c)(2), and therefore intend that only the trust fund will be subject to any direct action brought pursuant to CERCLA § 108(c)(2). The trust agreement provides further that any claim authorized by §§ 107 or 111 of CERCLA may be asserted directly against the trust fund as provided by CERCLA § 108(c)(2) subject to the limitations in CERCLA § 108(d). Stand-alone, funded trusts are structured similarly. The proposed structure of the trust fund is discussed in more detail in VI.C.6 of this preamble. EPA seeks comment on the effectiveness of this structure for the proposed trust and letter of credit to increase the likelihood that a bank or trustee institution will issue letters of credit or agree to be a trustee under the proposed regulations.
EPA recognizes that the direct action provision is an important and potentially unfamiliar feature to potential instrument providers, and the Agency requests comment on how its function in practice may affect the availability of instruments.
This proposed rule would require that the owner or operator subject to the rule maintain financial responsibility in accordance with part 320 upon transfer of ownership, in whole or in part, to a new owner, or upon transfer of operations to a new operator, until the Administrator releases the previous owner or operator. EPA would provide a release to the former owner or operator upon the new owner or operator's demonstration of financial responsibility in accordance with this proposed rule.
These requirements assure continuity of financial responsibility coverage and prevent circumvention of the requirements by changes in facility ownership or operation. The Administrator's release of the old owner and operator would not affect the old owner's and operator's liability under CERCLA, only their responsibility to maintain financial responsibility for the facility under Part 320. EPA solicits comment on these requirements.
Section 320.26 requires a facility owner or operator to notify the Administrator thirty days prior to either the date the facility will no longer be authorized to operate or the date the owner or operator is required under
The proposed rule provides that CERCLA § 108(b) requirements continue until EPA releases the owner or operator from such obligations. Thus, closure of a facility would not, in and of itself, trigger release from requirements under proposed part 320. Owners or operators of closed facilities would be required to maintain financial responsibility instruments until CERCLA § 108(b) obligations are released by EPA. In developing this proposed rule, the Agency has considered whether some financial responsibility instruments might be better suited than others where the owner or operator no longer is operating the facility. For example, EPA has considered whether owners or operators should be able to continue to use a financial test to provide financial responsibility where they are no longer operating the facility, or whether financial responsibility should be converted to a trust instrument at facilities where obligations continue after the facility ceases operation. EPA has not identified any reasons to restrict the options for instruments, and is therefore proposing that the same instruments available to owners and operators of operating facilities would continue to be available to owners and operators of facilities that cease operation. However, EPA solicits comment on the reliability of instruments where an owner or operator is no longer operating a site.
Under this proposed rule, owners or operators and operators subject to CERCLA § 108(b) requirements under part 320 would remain subject to those requirements until released by EPA. Thus, those obligations would continue regardless of the operating status of the facility.
Proposed § 320.25 discussed earlier provides for release of the owner or operator from its obligations under part 320 upon transfer of ownership of the facility, or transfer of operations of the facility, where the new owner or operator provides evidence of financial responsibility that satisfies the requirements of this proposed rule. Where release from the regulations is not accompanied by a transfer of the regulatory obligation to maintain CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility, EPA is proposing a different process that reflects the final nature of the determination. EPA also explains the importance of this determination in its discussion of the public involvement requirements in proposed § 320.9.
Proposed § 320.27 provides that the owner or operator may petition to be released from its CERCLA § 108(b) obligations by submitting a request to the Administrator. The request must include evidence demonstrating that the degree and duration of risk associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage and disposal of hazardous substances is minimal. The opportunity provided in § 320.27 is not intended to provide for adjustments of financial responsibility levels, but is intended to be limited to decisions to release the owner or operator from CERCLA § 108(b) requirements. Thus, owners or operators that cannot demonstrate minimal levels of risk at the facility would not be eligible to petition the Agency under this provision. A demonstration of minimal levels of risk at the facility is important because following the owner's and operator's release from the CERCLA § 108(b) requirements financial responsibility would not be available if needed at a later date. Upon receiving such request, proposed § 320.27 provides that the Administrator would evaluate facility information, including the information submitted by the owner or operator, regarding the degree and duration of risk associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous substances at the facility, and make a determination regarding the owner or operator's request.
If the Administrator determines that the degree and duration of risk associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous substances at the facility is minimal, and that the facility should therefore be released from CERCLA § 108(b) requirements, the Administrator would follow the procedures described in § 320.9 to involve the public in the decision. Under those procedures, EPA would post the draft decision on the Agency's Web site, provide the public opportunity to comment on the decision, and post the Agency's final decision, and response to comments received, on the EPA Web site.
If, on the other hand, the Administrator determines that the degree and duration of risk associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous substances is not minimal, the Administrator would not release the owner or operator from the requirement to maintain financial responsibility in accordance with this part. Section 320.9 provides that upon a finding that the owner or operator should not be released from financial responsibility requirements, the Administrator would provide notice of the Agency's final decision, and response to comments received, and will provide the owner or operator with written notice of its decision. EPA is considering whether to make these available through EPA's Web site, or alternatively through traditional
The Agency is proposing not to initiate a public involvement process in cases where the Agency decides to deny the request of the owner or operator to release its financial responsibility obligation. In these cases, the obligation to maintain financial responsibility continues, and thus continues to be available should CERCLA liabilities arise. Thus, EPA does not see any benefit for public comment in these situations. EPA solicits comment on this approach.
EPA is proposing a site-by-site evaluation of facility risk for decisions to release an owner or operator from CERCLA § 108(b) requirements for a number of reasons. First and foremost, EPA has not identified a set of circumstances that if followed, would allow it to determine on a national basis that every facility across the country would demonstrate a minimal degree and duration of risk. Moreover, EPA has substantial experience making individualized determinations of site risk, as this practice is consistent with EPA's practice under the Superfund program, for example, in selecting remedies under the NCP. EPA solicits comment on the proposed approach to releasing owners or operators from CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility requirements.
The proposed rule also provides that owners or operators may petition the Administrator for a renewed determination regarding its continued
While beyond the scope of this rulemaking, EPA notes in the interest of transparency that EPA and the owner or operator might, in some cases, elect to enter into a CERCLA settlement regarding the facility. The work provided for in such a settlement, depending upon its scope, may provide the basis for a renewed determination by the agency that results in a release from part 320.
Finally, EPA recognizes that in some instances, facilities may be located in locations under the jurisdiction, custody or control of another Federal agency. In that instance, EPA will work with the other agencies to gather the necessary information for it to make a determination on whether to release an owner or operator from the requirements of part 320.
Under this proposed rule, an owner or operator would have to establish financial responsibility by obtaining one or a combination of mechanisms as specified in proposed subpart C. CERCLA § 108(b)(2) states that “financial responsibility may be established by any one, or any combination, of the following: Insurance, guarantee, surety bond, letter of credit, or qualification as a self-insurer. In promulgating requirements [under CERCLA § 108(b)], EPA is authorized to specify policy or other contractual terms, conditions, or defenses which are necessary, or which are unacceptable, in establishing such evidence of financial responsibility in order to effectuate the purposes of [CERCLA].”
EPA is proposing to establish required wording for all of the instruments (including the financial test and corporate guarantee) for several reasons. By specifying the instrument terms, EPA reduces the administrative burden to the Agency of reviewing the wide range of potential instrument wording that may otherwise be employed. EPA does not wish to create a situation where resources that otherwise would have been devoted to cleanups would be expended reviewing the myriad possible instrument constructions. EPA is also specifying the terms of the instruments so that they operate in a manner that integrates the CERCLA § 108(b) instruments into the overall CERCLA scheme and are uniformly enforceable by the Agency or other parties seeking compensation for costs and damages. Third, EPA's RCRA Subtitle C, subpart H financial assurance requirements (see 40 CFR 264.151) similarly specify the required wording of the instruments and EPA has found this to be a beneficial feature. Fourth, EPA has received comment as it developed this proposal from stakeholders that the RCRA Subtitle C instruments are well-understood by regulated entities and the financial industry. Without nationally-consistent provisions, EPA does not expect that a similar familiarity with the CERCLA § 108(b) regulations would be as likely to develop.
Those same commenters suggested that EPA use the RCRA Subtitle C regulations as the basis for its proposed CERCLA § 108(b) instruments because those instruments are well-developed and understood by regulators, the regulated community, and the financial-services industry. This proposal does in fact use the instruments specified in the RCRA Subtitle C, subpart H regulations as the model from which EPA developed its proposed CERCLA § 108(b) instruments, in part, for that reason.
An owner or operator would be able to satisfy the requirements of this section by obtaining an irrevocable standby letter of credit in accordance with the proposed requirements of § 320.40 and the proposed wording of § 320.50(b). A letter of credit is an independent agreement by the issuer (
The issuing institution would be required to be an entity that has the authority to issue letters of credit and whose letter of credit operations are regulated and examined by a Federal or state agency. These proposed requirements ensure that the letter of credit operations are overseen by a regulator, a requirement that EPA intends to help protect against failure of the issuing institution by ensuring that the operations are regularly examined (
The Institute of International Banking Law and Practice (IIBLP) suggested to EPA that the minimum issuer qualifications may be improved by specifying that the institution must be one that “regularly issues standby letters of credit.” IIBLP's stated intent of the recommended specification was to align the EPA requirement with the Uniform Commercial Code
EPA is proposing required wording of the letter of credit. The proposal would require that instruments be worded identically to the language proposed in § 320.50(b) of this proposed rule, except that the instructions in brackets would be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted. The IIBLP also suggested that EPA should allow for greater flexibility to accommodate confirmations, other parties obtaining the letter of credit or state variations. Specifically, IIBLP recommended that the letter of credit wording be “substantially in accordance with” the specified instrument language. While flexibility may help accommodate a wider range of circumstances, EPA has found in its financial assurance programs that standardized wording is generally acceptable to providers, and provides significant benefits. Most significantly, standardized wording saves EPA staff from having to review and assess the myriad variations in instrument wording that may arise, which the Agency may not have the technical expertise to readily undertake. However, EPA requests comment on whether specific additional aspects of the proposed wording could benefit from additional flexibility. Specifically, EPA requests comments on additional variations that should explicitly be provided for in brackets that may improve the effectiveness of the proposed letter of credit specifications.
The proposed required wording provides for two separate letter of credit constructs—one in which the letter would be issued in favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants and one in which the letter of credit would be issued in favor of the trustee of a trust fund established by an agreement worded identically to the language for the proposed trust fund. EPA is proposing to allow for two possible letter of credit constructions based on feedback the Agency received during discussions with the banking community. Providing both options enhances flexibility and is consistent with the RCRA third-party liability program where a similar letter of credit arrangement is employed.
The first option for a letter of credit is for it to be issued in favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants. Under this arrangement, parties seeking payment from the letter of credit for CERCLA claims against the current owners or operators of the facility would be able to make claims by presenting the necessary documents directly to the issuing institution. This would provide a streamlined approach for paying claims and may entail lower fees and expenses than the second option. EPA intends for the CERCLA 108(b) instruments to be available to any potential CERCLA claimant. Given that the identity of potential claimants is both difficult to ascertain at a given point and because they may change over time, EPA is concerned that attempting to name particular beneficiaries would be unworkable. For example, EPA would be unable to determine in many cases what claims made by what parties would arise. In addition, EPA wishes to avoid a claims administration role that could result if EPA were the named beneficiary. EPA is concerned about the resources that would be necessary to assess the merits of and make all CERCLA claims that may be made against the instruments nationwide. Such a role would have the potential to redirect Superfund programmatic resources away from cleanups and other high priority activities to assessing claims at facilities where EPA may not otherwise have been involved or considered a priority. Further, in instances where EPA is involved, EPA may be a claimant. EPA was concerned that the Agency may be placed in the awkward position of administering and prioritizing claims in that situation. Finally, EPA is concerned that specifying EPA as the beneficiary of the instruments may be inconsistent with the direct action provision and preclude other claimants from taking direct actions against the instruments as provided by 108(c)(2).
At the same time, several industry representatives expressed their concerns about the possibility of such a wide range of potential claimants who could not possibly be ascertained at the time the letter of credit is established. Instead, these representatives indicated a strong preference for a named beneficiary.
In light of this feedback, and because EPA does not intend to restrict options such that institutions may be unwilling to issue letters of credit, EPA is also proposing letter of credit language that would provide the option for the letter of credit to be issued in favor of a single named beneficiary, specifically the trustee of a trust fund that would be established pursuant to the proposed trust fund regulations. In this case, the letter of credit would authorize the trustee to make draws on the letter of credit to administer the claims process for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damages in accordance with the terms of the trust agreement. Parties seeking payment from the letter of credit for CERCLA claims against the current owners or operators of the facility would be able to present claims against the trust fund in accordance with the proposed trust agreement language. The trustee would, upon receipt and review of the required documents, accordingly make a draw on the letter of credit and provide the claimant with payment.
This latter option also appears to provide other advantages. First, letter of credit issuers indicated to EPA that this option is more consistent with commercial practice. Second, representatives of trustee institutions expressed a high level of comfort and willingness to provide such administrative services over a letter of credit. Third, the trust fund itself could be the subject of any direct actions authorized by CERCLA § 108(c). Accordingly, in this proposal, the language acknowledging that direct action claims may be brought against
Even with these advantages, EPA expects that the principal disadvantage in having the trustee hold the letter of credit and channel claims through the trust fund is that it will result in higher trustee expenses and fees in comparison with the letter of credit issued in favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants. This is because the trustee would need to hold the letter of credit and review the documents presented as part of the claims process to determine whether payment was merited under the terms of the trust. EPA is proposing nevertheless to offer such an arrangement in order to provide additional flexibility in compliance options for the owners and operators subject to the rule as well as offer an option that the Agency has been told is more consistent with commercial practice.
EPA considered a third possible letter of credit option. Under this option, EPA would be the named beneficiary of the letter of credit and would administer the claims process but would require that the letter of credit provide for assignment of proceeds to other parties as identified by EPA. EPA recognized that this approach may provide the familiarity of a named beneficiary for issuers of letters of credit and may reduce trustee expenses because they would not need to provide a custodial service over the standby letter of credit. However, as discussed earlier in this preamble section, EPA's concerns about administering the claims process has led EPA not to include provisions for this option in this proposal. However, EPA solicits comment on this option.
Finally, the proposed rule also includes specific information submission requirements in proposed § 320.40(c) and (d). Where the beneficiary is a trustee, the original letter of credit would be held by the trustee as part of the trust fund property. A certified copy of the letter of credit would be required to be submitted to the Administrator. In addition, the owner or operator would be required to submit the original letter to the trustee authorized to make draws on the letter of credit, and then submit to the Administrator an acknowledgment of receipt of the letter of credit by the trustee. Submission of this information to EPA is intended to assist the Agency in monitoring compliance as part of its program oversight role.
If the letter of credit is issued in the favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants, under proposed § 320.40(d) the original letter of credit would be submitted to EPA, also to assist the Agency to monitor compliance.
Standby letters of credit are typically issued for specific, finite periods of time although they may automatically extend provided the issuer has the right to allow the credit to expire. In developing this proposal, one consideration for EPA was how to assure funds would be available when necessary. One consideration with the letter of credit was that the issuer may wish not to extend the letter of credit at some point potentially leaving the owner or operator without the required evidence of financial responsibility. EPA was concerned that the decision not to extend a letter of credit may occur at a time when the owner's or operator's finances were in decline at which point the ability of the owner or operator to obtain alternate financial responsibility may be constrained. To ensure continuity of financial responsibility coverage EPA is proposing a suite of regulatory provisions intended to provide strong assurance that funds would be available when necessary.
First, an owner or operator who uses a letter of credit to satisfy the requirements of this regulation would also be required to establish a trust fund and update Schedule A of the trust agreement within sixty days after a change in the amount of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility. The requirement to establish a trust fund is included regardless of whether the letter of credit is issued in favor of all third-party CERCLA claimants, or in favor of the trustee of a trust fund. EPA is proposing to require that a trust fund either hold the letter of credit or be established alongside the letter of credit to provide a repository for funds drawn from the letter of credit in instances where the issuing institution declines to extend the letter of credit and the owner or operator fails to obtain replacement financial responsibility.
This standby trust fund would be worded identically to the proposed trust fund language (see § 320.50(a) for the proposed wording of the trust agreement) and would meet the same requirements specified for the trust funds (
Second, EPA is proposing that the letter of credit must be irrevocable and issued for a period of at least one year. Without this provision the letter of credit could potentially be withdrawn or modified for any reason and at any time by the issuer unilaterally, without notification to the current owner or operator. With this provision, the owner or operator, third-party CERCLA claimants, and EPA are assured of at least one year of coverage.
Further, EPA is proposing that the letter of credit must provide that the expiration date would automatically be extended for a period of at least one year unless, at least 120 days before the current expiration date, the issuing institution notifies the owner or operator, the trust fund trustee (if the letter of credit is held by the trustee) and the Administrator by certified mail of a decision not to extend the expiration date. Under the terms of the letter of credit, the 120 days would begin on the date when the owner or operator, the trust fund trustee (if the letter is issued in favor of the trustee), and the Administrator have received the notice, as evidenced by the return receipts. This proposed automatic extension provision would help to ensure that coverage continues. Combined with the irrevocability provision, the owner and operator, EPA and other third-party CERCLA claimants can be assured of continuous coverage unless notified by the issuing institution.
As a final proposed provision to ensure continuity of coverage, the proposed rule would provide for the possibility for the letter of credit to fund the trust fund in one of two ways if the letter of credit were not extended. The first way would apply when the letter of credit is issued in favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants. In that scenario, if the owner or operator did not establish alternate financial responsibility as specified in this proposed rule and obtain written
The Administrator would be able to delay the drawing of funds or the notification to the trustee of the trust fund that the owner or operator had not established alternate financial responsibility, if the issuing institution grants an extension of the term of the credit. During the last thirty days of any such extension, if the owner or operator has failed to provide alternate financial responsibility as specified in this section and obtain written approval of such financial responsibility from the Administrator, the Administrator would draw on the letter of credit or notify the trustee of the trust fund that the owner or operator had not established alternate financial responsibility and obtained written approval of such alternate financial responsibility. Under the terms of the letter of credit, all amounts paid pursuant to a draft by the Administrator or the trust fund trustee in the circumstances described in this paragraph would be deposited by the issuing institution directly into the trust fund.
A similar arrangement is required under the RCRA Subtitle C closure post closure financial assurance regulations and the Agency has found it to be a valuable feature. The accompanying trust fund and the automatic extension provisions for letters of credit are an important feature of this proposal because letters of credit might otherwise not be extended after a release of hazardous substances or after marked financial decline of the owner or operator. Absent the ability for the trustee or the Administrator to make a draw on the letter of credit in instances of issuer notice of non-extension and the owner's or operator's failure to obtain replacement financial responsibility, financial responsibility may not be available when necessary. After notice of non-extension, a CERCLA claim may not necessarily be possible for some time because the CERCLA processes leading to a claim may be lengthy. In such an instance, the letter of credit may expire, leaving no financial responsibility instrument available. The proposed arrangement would ensure that funds are still available to pay the valid CERCLA claims. This provision, and the similar provisions for other proposed instruments, as well as alternatives are discussed in more depth in section VI.C.7 of this preamble.
IIPLP also provided comments to EPA on these proposed automatic extension and non-extension notification requirements. With respect to the non-extension notification, the IIBLP suggested that the wording of the letter of credit should not explicitly require notification to the owner or operator of the decision not to extend the credit as discussed earlier. Rather, IIBLP noted that the means of how issuers and their applicants communicate is typically left to a separate agreement from the letter of credit itself. However, EPA believes that specifying such a notification term in the letter of credit itself, including notice to the owner or operator, is preferable because timely receipt of such notice by both EPA and the owner or operator is important as it would establish the timeframe in which the owner or operator must obtain alternate financial responsibility. Further, the provision helps prevent expiration from taking place without the knowledge of EPA and the owner or operator, or a draw being necessitated due to pending expiration without the knowledge of the owner or operator. Finally, while it may be unusual as a general matter of commercial practice, such a provision is a common feature of government financial responsibility programs. For example, similar notification requirements are required in the RCRA Subtitle C closure and post closure letter of credit which has been broadly used as a financial assurance instrument by regulated entities in that program.
With respect to the automatic extension provisions, the IIBLP stated that a date should be identified beyond which extension should not be able to occur. However, such a provision would be inconsistent with other EPA financial assurance programs and necessitate more frequent re-establishment of financial responsibility on the part of the owner or operator or draws on the letter of credit prompted by pending expiration. Further, given that the time horizon over which an owner and operator must maintain financial responsibility under CERCLA § 108(b) may vary on a case-by-case basis, EPA could not identify a nationally-uniform date beyond which the letter of credit should be allowed to expire.
Under the proposed letter of credit language (§ 320.50(b)) and regulations (§ 320.40(j)), when the letter of credit is issued in favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants, it would provide payment to third-party CERCLA claimants under three scenarios provided that the claimant provides the necessary documentation, in addition to authorizing direct action claims against the issuing institution itself. Under the proposed regulations the following claims would be authorized against the letter of credit when issued in favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants:
(1) Any party that obtained a final court judgment from a Federal court awarding CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with the facility against any of the current owners or operators to whom payment as required by the judgment had not been made within thirty days would be able to make a claim against the letter of credit. However, the party would only be able to make a claim if it had not recovered or been paid the funds from any other source.
(2) The Administrator or another authorized Federal agency would be able to make a claim against the letter of credit requesting payment if payment had not been made as required by a CERCLA settlement associated with the facility between a current owner or operator and EPA or another Federal agency.
(3) The Administrator or another authorized Federal agency would be able to make a claim against the letter of credit requesting payment into a trust fund established pursuant to a CERCLA unilateral administrative order issued to a current owner or operator if performance at the facility as required by the order had not occurred. The Administrator or other Federal agency would be able to make the claim against the letter of credit only if the owner or operator had provided a written statement that the letter of credit may be
In order to make a draw on the letter of credit under these three scenarios, claimants would need to present one of two sets of documents. The first set of documents would consist of a demand for payment bearing reference to the letter of credit by number, a final court judgment dated at least thirty days earlier from a Federal court, in favor of the claimant, awarding CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with the facility against any of the current owners or operators, and a certification from the claimant that reads as follows: “I hereby certify that the amount of the demand is payable pursuant to regulations issued under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1980 as amended.”
Because a claimant seeking satisfaction of a final court judgment awarding CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages may be any of a wide range of potential parties including Federal and state government officials, natural resource trustees, or private parties, EPA was told by several representatives of the financial industry that the potential for inappropriate claims in this scenario may be higher than in typical financial assurance programs where a particular regulator is the only named beneficiary. (The RCRA Subtitle C closure and post-closure letter of credit at 40 CFR 264.151(d) is an example of a single-beneficiary letter of credit). EPA was informed by one bank representative that documentary payment conditions requiring presentation of a court judgment would help ease concerns in this regard. Specifically, the representative suggested that the risk of fraud would be reduced if the rules required production of a court judgment in addition to a demand and certification. EPA does not expect that such a requirement would present a significant burden to legitimate claimants, and wishes to lower any perceived barriers to issuing the necessary instruments under this proposed rule. Thus, EPA is proposing that the language of the letter of credit issued in favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants require not just a demand for payment and a certification from the claimant but the presentation of the final court judgment as well.
As discussed in the general payment provisions section of the preamble, the proposed regulatory text in § 320.40(j) regarding letters of credit includes other requirements for making draws on the letter of credit. EPA's proposed letter of credit certification requirement is intended to encompass these requirements and thereby to help ensure that those supplemental criteria have been met. These requirements are designed to foster fairness for both potential claimants as well as to the owners or operators who provide the CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility. These requirements are (1) that a claim for satisfaction of a final court judgment may only be made against a CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility instrument if the judgment has been obtained against a current owner or operator at the facility and if the owner or operator has failed to make payment on the judgment within thirty days; and (2) that the claimant may only make such a claim if they have not recovered or been paid the funds from any other source. EPA is aware that letters of credit are designed to be an independent undertaking that would preclude the issuing institution from considering non-documentary conditions such as whether the previously-mentioned supplemental criteria had been met. EPA is thus requiring that claimants certify that the funds are payable pursuant to regulations issued under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1980 as amended. EPA believes this additional documentary condition helps curb the potential for inappropriate draws when the letter of credit is issued in favor of any and all third party claimants.
The second set of documents that could be presented in order for EPA or another authorized Federal agency to make a draw when the letter of credit is issued in favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants is a demand for payment bearing reference to the letter of credit by number and a certification from the Administrator or another Federal agency that reads as follows: “I hereby certify that the amount of the demand is payable pursuant to regulations issued under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1980 as amended.” EPA intends for this second set of documents to be presented by EPA or another authorized Federal agency in order to obtain payment for a CERCLA settlement or into a trust fund established pursuant to a CERCLA § 106 unilateral administrative order in instances where either (1) payment was not made as required by a CERCLA settlement associated with the facility with a current owner or operator, or (2) performance at the facility had not occurred as required by a CERCLA § 106 unilateral administrative order issued to a current owner or operator.
Because these payment scenarios are explicitly provided for in the proposed rules at 320.40(j)(2) and (3), and because those scenarios are limited to Federal agencies acting pursuant to CERCLA, EPA sees no reason to require any additional documentation beyond the demand for payment and the certification. A similar documentary payment condition is employed in the RCRA Subtitle C closure and post-closure letter of credit. See 40 CFR 264.143(d)(8); 264.151(d). Requiring only a certification and a demand for payment also streamlines the claims process in these scenarios and imposes a lower administrative burden on the claimants and on the issuing institutions because fewer documents would require review.
Other supplementary documentary requirements EPA considered were the presentation of the CERCLA settlement agreement or CERCLA unilateral administrative order themselves. However, EPA did not believe these additional requirements provided significant value beyond the certification from the Administrator or other authorized Federal agency. In discussions with representatives of the banking community, participants suggested a high degree of comfort with a certification from a Federal government agency as a documentary payment requirement, provided it was specified in the letter of credit. Thus, to avoid unnecessary documentary provisions, EPA is proposing that the required wording of the letter of credit issued in favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants not include a requirement to produce the underlying settlement or unilateral administrative order, in the scenarios limited to Federal government claimants.
Further, EPA is today also proposing letter of credit wording that does not require that the original letter of credit itself be presented by claimants requesting a draw. EPA's financial assurance programs under RCRA Subtitle C (closure/post-closure letters of credit and liability coverage letters of credit) similarly do not require presentation of the original letter of credit itself. Such a requirement would entail a greater level of administrative burden on both EPA and claimants, in particular due to the wide range of potential claimants and the need to coordinate between EPA and potential claimants. In discussions with representatives of the banking community, EPA was told that banks are likely to prefer that the presentation of
If the letter of credit is issued in favor of the trust fund trustee, parties would be able to make claims against the trust fund in accordance with the terms of the trust agreement in order to receive payment from the letter of credit. Accordingly, the proposed language of the letter of credit (§ 320.50(b)) would require only a demand for payment from the trust fund trustee bearing reference to the letter of credit by number. This is similar to the required documentary provisions in the RCRA Subtitle C third-party liability letter of credit when it is issued in favor of a trustee. Other documentary requirements appear unnecessary under this construction because the third-party CERCLA claimants would be making claims against the trust fund instead of the letter of credit and would therefore need to meet the documentary conditions laid out in the trust agreement or successfully make a direct action claim against the trust fund itself. (Payments from the trust fund are discussed further in the trust fund section of the preamble.) This arrangement provides for a very streamlined process for the trustee to draw on the letter of credit when necessary to make payments to the successful claimants. EPA did not intend to burden this process with extra documentary conditions as that would only occasion greater fees and expenses on the part of the trustee and provide no clear benefit beyond the documentary review already performed by the trustee.
Such a documentary requirement would also provide the trustee of the trust fund the ability to make draws on the letter of credit when necessary to cover trustee expenses. While the proposed required wording of the trust agreement specifies that fees and expenses would be first paid by the grantor of the trust agreement, the proposed language also provides that all expenses not paid directly by the grantor shall be paid from the corpus of the trust fund which may require a draw on a letter of credit held by the trust fund. This allowance is important to allow trust expenses to be covered in instances where the grantor may cease to exist or is otherwise unavailable.
EPA recognizes that, when a letter of credit is issued in favor of a trustee of a trust fund, the trustee may incur significant fees and expenses in determining whether or not payment should be made from the trust fund, particularly in instances of a direct action against the trust fund. These expenses would likely reduce the value of the trust fund (and by extension potentially the value of the letter of credit held by the trust fund). However, given the apparent reluctance of institutions that issue letters of credit to provide letters of credit that could pay to a wide range of unnamed beneficiaries and institutions' expressed concerns regarding the institution itself being potentially subject to direct action suit from CERCLA claimants, EPA is proposing this compliance option. EPA requests comment on both options: (1) Where the letter of credit may pay to CERCLA claimants directly (i.e. be issued in favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants) or (2) where the letter of credit may pay to the trustee of a trust fund issued in accordance with the proposed trust fund regulations who would then pay valid claims (i.e. be issued in favor of the trustee). EPA is also interested in provisions or specifications that may allow for lower expenses or fees or that would protect the value of the trust fund (and thus the letter of credit) from expenses and fees when the letter of credit is issued in favor of the trust fund trustee.
Under the proposed regulations, the issuing institution would be subject to direct action claims only when the letter of credit is issued in favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants. Because direct action is authorized by the statute, the possibility of a direct action suit should be clearly acknowledged by issuing institutions. Thus EPA has included required language acknowledging that direct action suits may be brought against the issuing institution for letters of credit issued in favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants and that the issuing institution consents to suit in those circumstances. The language further acknowledges that the liability of the issuing institution is limited by CERCLA § 108(d) and that the institution is entitled to the rights and defenses provided to guarantors in CERCLA § 108(c). The reader should note that this language is not required for those letters of credit issued in favor of a trustee. In the latter case, EPA intends the trust fund itself would be the subject of direct action suits. However, under the proposed regulations, the issuing institution would be subject to direct action claims when the letter of credit is issued in favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants.
Also included in the direct action language in the letter of credit is a provision that the issuing institution will provide notice of any such claims and payments resulting from a direct action to the Administrator. EPA has included a similar provision applicable to the owner and operator in proposed § 320.24, under which they are obligated to provide notice to EPA of claims made. However, EPA is including this proposed term as part of the letter of credit, because it expects that the owner or operator may not be able to provide such a notice of payment in a direct action scenario. Providing a mechanism for EPA to remain informed of claims against the instrument and of the value of the letter of credit in case of a direct action, is appropriate for similar reasons as described in proposed § 320.24.
The proposed language of the letter of credit would require the identification of the facilities covered, and the amount of financial responsibility provided by the letter of credit. EPA is today proposing language that allows (but does not require) a single letter of credit to cover multiple facilities if that is determined to be optimal by the owner and operator and their letter of credit provider. EPA anticipates that allowing coverage of multiple facilities simultaneously may have administrative efficiency benefits. As discussed in section VI.3.9. of this preamble, providing for one instrument to cover multiple facilities may provide for some administrative ease in the compliance and implementation process and is a common feature of EPA financial assurance programs.
Thus, EPA has made provision in the letter of credit language for facility-specific sub-limits (i.e. the identification
EPA recognizes that such information may not typically be included in letters of credit, where the preference is typically for the simplest and briefest language possible. However, this approach allows the letter of credit to reflect the site-by-site amounts of financial responsibility required, and at the same time, it will assist all parties (e.g. the issuing institution, third-party CERCLA claimants) in knowing the amount of financial responsibility available for claims associated with any of the facilities.
EPA is also considering whether to limit each letter of credit to coverage of a single facility. The additional information about other facilities and facility-specific sub-limits would not need to be included. In this way the letter of credit could be drafted in a simpler manner. However, as the EPA is not proposing to require that multiple facilities must be covered by one letter of credit, EPA believes the proposed language provides the flexibility to draft a relatively simple letter of credit. As such, EPA is today proposing language that allows the letter of credit to cover multiple facilities if that is determined to be optimal. EPA requests comment on this proposed provision and the alternative option of requiring only one facility per letter of credit.
An owner or operator would be able to satisfy the proposed CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility requirements by obtaining a surety bond in accordance with the proposed requirements including the proposed required wording and submitting the originally signed bond to the Administrator. Through a surety bond, the Surety would guarantee that it will pay third-party CERCLA claims for response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damages associated with the facility against any of the current owners and operators, even if not listed as the principal on the bond, under certain circumstances in the event the claims are not satisfied by the owners or operators, up to the bond limits.
The surety company issuing the bond would be required to, at a minimum, be among those listed as acceptable sureties on Federal bonds in Circular 570 of the U.S. Department of the Treasury. This requirement for providers of surety bonds is the same as that in the RCRA Subtitle C financial assurance regulations which EPA believes has worked well and will provide familiarity for implementing staff and the regulated community. In selecting this eligibility criteria EPA is also taking advantage of a pre-existing Federal examination and authorization process designed specifically for sureties. EPA recognizes that a Federal government agency will not be listed as the obligee of CERCLA § 108(b) surety bonds under the proposed language and thus Circular 570 listing may not be strictly necessary to comply with Treasury regulations. However, EPA and other Federal government agencies are likely to be claimants under the proposed CERCLA § 108(b) construct and thus EPA believes a similar level of oversight of the solvency of a surety providing a bond is merited. Further, upon examination of eleven years of data EPA did not identify any instances of default of a surety listed on Circular 570 suggesting the criterion is robust. EPA considered additional qualifications for surety companies but is today proposing the same qualifications as are required in the RCRA Subtitle C regulations. This decision was based largely on the desire to not unduly constrain supply, a desire to leverage the pre-existing robust criterion for sureties already well established, and to avoid the administrative burden on EPA of verifying additional qualifications. For more information on the consideration of alternative provider qualifications, please see the background document on instrument provider qualifications titled “Potential Issuer Eligibility Requirements for Insurance, Surety Bonds, Letters of Credit, and Trust Agreements and Standby Trust Agreements under CERCLA § 108(b).”
EPA is proposing a suite of regulatory provisions in order to ensure continuity of CERCLA 108(b) financial responsibility coverage. First, an owner or operator that elected to use a surety bond to satisfy the requirements of this section would also be required to establish a standby trust fund and update Schedule A of the trust agreement within sixty days after a change in the amount of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility. This standby trust fund would have to be worded identically to the proposed trust fund language in § 320.50(a) and meet the same requirements specified for the trust funds, except that: (1) an originally signed duplicate of the trust agreement would be submitted to the Administrator with the surety bond; and (2) until the standby trust fund is funded pursuant to the requirements of this section, the following would not be required by the proposed regulations: (1) payments into the trust fund as specified in § 320.45, (2) annual valuations as required by the trust agreement; and (3) notices of payment as required by the trust agreement.
The second proposed provision designed to ensure continuity of the CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility is the cancellation provision in the bond. EPA is proposing that, under the terms of the bond, the surety would be able to cancel the bond by sending notice of cancellation by certified mail to the owner or operator and to the Administrator. Cancellation would not occur, however, during the 120 days beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the owner or operator and the Administrator, as evidenced by the return receipts.
Finally, EPA is proposing that, under the terms of the bond, the surety would become liable up to the penal sum
A similar arrangement is required under the RCRA Subtitle C hazardous waste financial assurance regulations for closure and post closure care and the Agency believes it has been a valuable feature. EPA believes the standby trust and cancellation provisions are an important feature of this proposal as bonds could otherwise be cancelled after a release of hazardous substances from the facility or after marked financial decline of the owner operator. A CERCLA claim for payment from the bond would not necessarily be mature
In addition to guaranteeing that replacement financial responsibility will be obtained in the event the surety provides notice of cancellation of the bond, the bond would also guarantee payment of CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damages to third-parties. Under the proposed terms of the bond, the bond would guarantee that the owner or operator would make payments for or ensure payments are made for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with a facility covered by the bond as required in a final court judgment from a Federal court awarding such costs against any of the owners or operators within thirty days to the parties obtaining the judgment. In these circumstances a claimant would present the unsatisfied final court judgment dated at least thirty days earlier from a Federal court, in favor of the claimant, awarding CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with the facility against any of the current owners or operators at the facility to the surety directly. Additionally, the claimant would be required to provide a signed statement from the claimant certifying that the amounts sought had not been recovered or paid from any other source, including, but not limited to, the owner or operator, insurance, judgments, agreements, and other financial responsibility instruments.
Upon receipt of these documents the surety would then make payment in accordance with the instructions of the successful claimant. These documentary payment requirements were selected as it removes EPA from the claims administration process but ensures that a court has determined that payment is due to the party making the claim under CERCLA and that the party has not already recovered or been paid the funds from another source. Further, by relying on objective documentary submissions the Surety should be able to determine whether payment should occur under the terms of the bond with only minimal due diligence.
Additionally, the bond would guarantee the owner or operator would make payments or ensure payments were made as required in a CERCLA settlement associated with the facility between any of the current owners and operators at the facility and EPA or another authorized Federal agency. The Administrator or the other Federal agency, in these situations, would present a written signed statement to the surety requesting payment from the surety on the grounds that payment had not been made as required by a CERCLA settlement associated with the facility and with any of the current owners or operators. Additionally, the Administrator or the Federal agency would need to present a signed statement certifying that the funds sought had not been recovered or paid from any other source, including, but not limited to, the owner or operator, insurance, judgments, agreements, and other financial responsibility instruments.
EPA believes that, similar to EPA's thinking on the documentary payment conditions for the letter of credit issued in favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants (discussed in section VI.C.1. of this preamble), in the instances when the potential claimants are limited to Federal government agencies a more streamlined payment condition is optimal. EPA believes that the requirement of a signed statement from the Administrator or another Federal agency is a clear documentary condition and will require minimal due diligence on the part of sureties.
Finally, the bond would guarantee that the owner or operator performs or ensures the performance of the work at the facility as required by a CERCLA unilateral administrative order issued to any of the current owners or operators by EPA or another Federal agency for which the owner or operator has provided a written statement allowing for the bond to assure performance of the work. Payments would be made at the request of EPA or another Federal agency into a standby trust established pursuant to the administrative order if the work was not performed in accordance with the order.
In this scenario, to make a claim against the surety bond the Administrator or the other Federal agency would present a written signed statement requesting payment from the surety into a trust fund established pursuant to a CERCLA unilateral administrative order on the grounds that performance at the facility had not occurred as required by a CERCLA administrative order issued to a current owner or operator. Additionally, the EPA Regional Administrator or the Federal agency would need to present a signed statement certifying that the funds sought had not been recovered or paid from any other source, including, but not limited to, the owners or operators, insurance, judgments, agreements, or other financial responsibility instruments.
As discussed earlier, in the two payment scenarios limited to Federal government claimants EPA is attempting to limit the complexity of the documentary requirements. EPA believes the relatively simple requirements of signed statements from EPA or another Federal agency will streamline the claims process and reduce uncertainty on the part of the surety as to whether or not payment should be made.
EPA requests comment on the proposed documentary requirements for payment from the surety bond. In particular, EPA is interested in hearing if there are other documentary payment requirements that could further limit the discretion required on the part of the surety and yet still provide assurance against inappropriate claims being paid.
EPA recognizes that the payment mechanics of the surety bond involve multiple parties that will not be listed explicitly on the surety bond. In discussions with representatives of the surety bond industry, EPA learned that such a construction may likely be less palatable to potential providers of surety bonds than a construction with one designated claimant. Similarly, the Surety and Fidelity Association of America (SFAA) recommended that EPA be the only claimant on the bond. SFAA stated that multiple claimants enlarges the surety's exposure to claims and possibly dilutes the protection to EPA as the Agency may have less assurance of the proper use of the funds by third-parties other than EPA. However, EPA is not proposing to list EPA as the sole obligee on the bond for several reasons. First, non U.S. Government claimants would need a final court judgment from a Federal court awarding payment for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages ensuring that a court had reviewed the merits of the claim (e.g. the consistency of the action with the national contingency plan) and found the claim to be valid. As a result, EPA does not share the concern that payment of funds to parties other than EPA will compromise the protection of human health and the environment. EPA
EPA considered an option whereby EPA would be listed as the obligee and administer the claims process however, as discussed in the letter of credit § 320.40 of the preamble. EPA is not proposing this option for several reasons. First, EPA would not necessarily be involved in all CERCLA actions at facilities and did not wish to redirect its programmatic resources away from high priority sites to administer the claims process for CERCLA § 108(b). Moreover, EPA may not be able to assess the merits of all CERCLA claims which include natural resource damages and health assessments that are primarily the responsibility of other entities. Finally, it may create a perception of partiality were EPA to administer the claims process in scenarios where the Agency was one of the claimants. EPA believes that the proposed construction best achieves the need of providing payment to the full range of potential CERCLA claimants while simultaneously protecting against improper claims and preventing the sub-optimal redirection of Superfund resources away from high-priority sites.
Under the terms of the bond, the surety would become liable on the bond obligation when the owner or operator fails to perform as guaranteed by the bond. EPA believes that this is an additional advantage of the proposed instrument payment terms. In discussions with representatives of the surety industry, representatives stressed to EPA that the surety company should be secondary to the owners and operators and claimants should first look to the owner or operators for satisfaction. EPA hopes that this feature of the proposed CERCLA § 108(b) surety bond's consistency with that aspect of surety practice will encourage participation on the part of surety companies in the CERCLA § 108(b) program.
The liability of the surety would be limited to the penal sum
In addition to the payment triggers described earlier, the proposed language of the CERCLA § 108(b) surety bond would also include language that the surety acknowledges that direct action suits may be brought against the surety. The direct action provision would allow for parties with CERCLA § 107 or § 111 claims, in certain instances identified in CERCLA § 108(c)(2), to take actions directly against the surety. It is a cause of action authorized by the statute and EPA expects it would operate independently of the three previously-described payment scenarios. In these instances, as described in the proposed bond language, the surety would have the rights and defenses identified in CERCLA § 108(c) and the liability protections in CERCLA § 108(d).
Similar to the corporate guarantee, insurance and letter of credit issued in favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants, EPA is proposing that the required wording of the bond include a provision that the surety notify EPA of any claims and payments made as a result of a direct action. EPA believes this notification requirement is valuable as the owner or operator may not be available to provide such a notice of claims and payments in a direct action scenario yet EPA wishes to remain informed of claims against the instrument and the value of the financial responsibility.
The SFAA also expressed concern that the direct action provision in a CERCLA § 108(b) surety bond may expose the sureties to too many claims. Specifically, SFAA stated that a surety bond is a conditional obligation under which the surety's obligation is triggered when the principal defaults. SFAA stated that bankruptcy (one of the preconditions for a direct action identified in CERCLA § 108(c)) is too broad as, in many cases, an owner or operator may still be able to fulfill its responsibilities even though bankrupt. EPA agrees that the owner or operator could still potentially fulfill its obligations even though bankrupt. Claimants could still pursue the potentially responsible party directly without implicating CERCLA § 108(b) instruments. EPA believes including the direct action provision is important as in some cases it may not be possible for EPA, or another third-party CERCLA claimant to obtain satisfaction from or obtain a court judgment against the party liable under CERCLA § 107 (or other necessary documents to make a claim against the bond) and thus recognizes the need for the surety, as guarantor, to stand in the owner's or operator's shoes
The surety bond would be able to be issued by multiple sureties provided that each is liable for its individual vertical percentage share of the total penal sum of the bond. (§ 320.41(e))
In the proposed CERCLA § 108(b) surety bond language, individual sureties would identify percentage limits of their liability in the surety bond for which they would each be liable while these individual surety limits would sum to the total penal sum of the bond. EPA believes that such an arrangement may increase surety bond issuers' capacity to collectively cover greater amounts of financial responsibility because the surety's level of coverage would not be impacted by the potential risk for non-payment by other sureties.
When multiple sureties issue a single bond, the proposed regulations would require that each surety be liable for their individual vertical percentage share of the total penal sum of the bond. EPA is proposing that the sureties' individual amounts of liability be
An alternative EPA considered was proposing that multiple sureties could form a tower of coverage comprised of horizontal layers. In such an arrangement each surety in the horizontal tower would be agreeing to cover its layer of the tower, not a percentage of the total. Those sureties higher up the horizontal tower become responsible on a layer-by-layer basis as the limits of each underlying surety's obligation become exhausted. However, EPA is not proposing such an arrangement due to several concerns with such an arrangement. First, a horizontal arrangement presents the opportunity for sureties covering higher coverage layers to avoid liability if a surety on a lower level becomes insolvent and cannot cover the liability within its layer. This was a concern also identified by the U.S. Coast Guard in development of its CERCLA § 108(a) regulations (
EPA requests comment on the proposed arrangement for allowing multiple sureties to execute one bond by identifying their vertical percentage share of the penal sum. Specifically, EPA is interested in other potential arrangements that may encourage surety participation in the program and provide for relatively high amounts of financial responsibility coverage yet not overly complicate implementation of the claims process.
EPA believes a bond written as required under this proposal may implicate state insurance law and thus the validity of any such bond may depend on state law. This issue has come up in other EPA rulemakings including the financial responsibility requirements for underground storage tanks containing petroleum (
The owner or operator would be able to terminate the bond if the Administrator has given prior written consent based on his receipt of evidence of alternate financial responsibility as specified in Part 320 or if the Administrator releases the owner and operator from the financial responsibility requirements of that part. To assist in implementing this requirement the proposed wording of the surety bond includes a provision governing the principal's (i.e. the owner's or operator's) termination of the bond. The proposed bond language states that the principal may terminate the bond by sending written notice to the surety(ies), provided however, that no such notice shall become effective until the surety(ies) receive(s) written authorization for termination of the bond by the Administrator. In this way, the owner or operator would not be able to unilaterally terminate the bond without the authorization of EPA.
In meetings with potential providers EPA was told that sureties typically prefer having an option of either performing or paying under a bond. EPA considered providing such an option as the Agency believed it may encourage greater participation from sureties in the CERCLA § 108(b) program as well as potentially allow sureties to conduct work in certain cases, which may be more economical than EPA or another Federal agency conducting the work itself. Specifically, EPA thought that the option of performance could be advantageous in some situations, for example, when the surety became liable because an owner or operator either did not perform as required by a CERCLA unilateral administrative order or failed to perform work as required by a CERCLA settlement.
However, EPA could not determine how to specify a workable performance option into the CERCLA § 108(b) surety bond in light of some of the features of the rule's framework. Unlike typical reclamation and closure programs, CERCLA § 108(b) does not include a series of defined and costed-out activities (e.g. closure) which the surety guarantees will be completed. In such programs, if the principal defaults and the surety elects to perform, the surety is typically liable until the defined tasks are all completed. CERCLA § 108(b) does not include any pre-defined obligations. Rather, a CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility instrument could be subject to multiple claims by a variety of claimants under the various payment scenarios over the life of the instrument. Therefore, a very accurate accounting of the liability of the surety is necessary with respect to the claims paid and the penal sum of the bond. Such accounting would be difficult if claims were satisfied by performance as it is not clear how the performance should be valued absent a pre-existing accounting of the activities to be conducted. Therefore, surety performance would leave questions about the remaining value of the bond which would create uncertainty around future claims and the availability of financial responsibility. Further, as CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amounts may be relatively large, EPA anticipates that multiple sureties may issue single bonds. This would create even greater complexity around coordinating performance and determining the remaining value of the bond. In light of these considerations, EPA is today
An owner or operator would be able to satisfy the CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility requirements by obtaining insurance for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damages which conforms to the requirements of the regulations. Through the policy the insurer agrees to pay for the CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damages associated with the facility of the current owners and operators under certain circumstances should the current owners or operators fail to do so. Each insurance policy would be required to be amended by the attachment of a CERCLA § 108(b) insurance endorsement as worded in § 320.50(d).
At a minimum, the insurer would be required to be licensed to transact the business of insurance, or eligible to provide insurance as an excess or surplus lines insurer, in one or more states. These proposed minimum criteria for an insurer providing insurance under the regulations are the same as those used under the RCRA Subtitle C financial assurance program, which EPA believes have worked well. Additionally, these requirements would be familiar to the regulated community and implementing EPA staff. EPA believes that such standards help assure the integrity of the insurers whose policies are being used by owners or operators to meet the financial responsibility requirements. EPA believes these qualifications will assure that insurers are subject to some regulatory oversight by state insurance departments but will still permit broad participation in providing the insurance. EPA considered alternative qualifications for providers of insurance but is proposing that providers of insurance policies meet the requirements described in this section. In making this decision EPA attempted to balance the benefit of potentially lower default rates by insurers providing insurance under the proposed regulations on the one hand, and the potential impact on the supply of instruments and the administrative burden on the Agency entailed in verifying providers met additional qualifications of these alternatives on the other. For more information on alternatives considered, please see the background document that addresses instrument provider qualifications.
EPA also requests comment on allowing owners and operators to obtain insurance policies from captive insurers and/or risk retention groups. A captive insurer is an insurance company that provides insurance primarily or exclusively to its owner(s). A pure captive is defined as having only one owner and providing insurance coverage to only one corporate entity, whereas a group captive is defined as having more than one owner and providing insurance coverage only to members of the group. A risk retention group (RRG) is a liability insurance company owned by its members (policy holders) and organized under the Federal Liability Risk Retention Act.
EPA is aware that some observers have noted concerns with such forms of insurance suggesting that captive insurance and risk retention groups may present a higher level of risk than commercial insurance. EPA is particularly concerned about the risk that captive insurers may present. Specifically, the EPA Inspector General in its 2001 and 2005 reports on the RCRA financial assurance program has pointed to the limited financial independence between the insurer and the owner or operator as one source of risk. The OIG, in the 2005 report, explained that the financial health of the captive insurer is tied to the parent company. Most captive insurance companies are wholly owned subsidiaries, so there is a lack of independence between the captive and the parent company. If the parent company has financial difficulties, then the captive insurer may not have the funds to cover the assured costs. (see Office of Inspector General, Audit Report: RCRA Financial Assurance for Closure and Post-Closure, Report No. 2001-P-007 March 30, 2001; and Office of the Inspector General, Continued EPA Leadership Will Support State Needs for Information and Guidance on RCRA Financial Assurance, Report No. 2005-P-00026, September 26, 2005). EPA has concerns that pure captive insurers in particular may offer insufficient assurance in the context of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility. Pure captive insurance has a limited ability to fulfill a basic purpose of insurance: To spread the risks of potential losses among multiple parties. In their 2007 report on captive insurance the Environmental Financial Advisory Board (EFAB) noted that the greatest risk to the solvency of a captive insurer is an infrequent, large insurance claim. (See Environmental Financial Advisory Board. The Use of Captive Insurance as a Financial Assurance Tool in Office of Solid Waste and Emergency Response Programs. March 2007.) This may be the very nature of claims for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damages associated with hardrock mining facilities, which can be quite large and difficult to predict with certainty, for which the 108(b) financial responsibility instruments would be intended to pay.
EPA believes that risk retention groups may also carry potentially higher risk than commercial insurance but may be better suited to provide insurance under CERCLA 108(b) than pure captive insurers due to their greater ability to spread risk across multiple insureds. Risk retention groups were the subject of a 2005 GAO report that identified some concerns with risk retention groups. One of the primary concerns identified by the GAO was the `patchwork' nature of state regulation and oversight of risk retention groups. (See Government Accountability Office, Risk Retention Groups: Common Regulatory Standards and Greater Member Protections Are Needed, GAO-05-536. August 2005.) Such a patchwork regime of state regulation and oversight may allow some risk retention groups to operate with limited oversight, including solvency regulation.
EPA also recognizes that allowing insurance policies written by captive insurers and risks retention groups may add potential insurance capacity. EPA believes insurance is an important financial responsibility instrument under CERCLA § 108(b). EPA also understands from its discussions with representatives of the commercial insurance industry as it developed this proposal that environmental insurance policies commonly issued may be narrower in scope than the proposed CERCLA § 108(b) requirements. The Agency was also told that the scope of the insurance coverage the Agency is proposing to require today would likely be viewed as a hybrid between a closure and risk transfer policy.
In light of these tradeoffs between potentially higher risk to third-party claimants and taxpayers presented by captive insurers and risk retention groups and the possible additional capacity they may provide, EPA requests comment on allowing policies written by these types of insurers. Specifically, EPA requests comments on allowing policies issued by captives or risk retention groups provided the issuer had a minimum financial strength rating from A.M. Best or a comparable rating from another Nationally Recognized Statistical Ratings Organization (NRSRO). EPA believes requiring, at a minimum, that captives and risk retention groups have a minimum financial strength rating may address some of the concerns associated with these types of policies. First, recognizing the limited financial independence between the owner or operator and the insurer and that captive insurance in particular has some similarities to self-insurance, a financial strength rating would help to demonstrate that the insurer has the financial wherewithal to pay claims on behalf of the owner or operator. Secondly, the financial strength rating provides an independent and common assessment of the financial strength of the insurer and thus may alleviate the concerns of the state-by-state variation in oversight and solvency examination the GAO noted with respect to risk retention groups. Such a provision would also be consistent with one of the findings in the 2007 EFAB report that the use of independent credit analysis (
The value of a potential rating requirement for a captive insurer or risk retention group can also be illustrated by lower historical default rates for higher rated insurers. In 2015 AM Best reported
EFAB also recommended to EPA in its 2007 report on captive insurance that in addition to the captive insurer having a minimum rating, the financially responsible affiliate (
EPA recognizes, however, that a requirement for a financial strength rating would not address all concerns with these instruments. These remaining concerns would include: (1) A concern that state insurance regulation of captives and risk retention groups may not be as uniform as that for commercial insurance and may be limited to only the state in which the insurer is chartered;
For example, EPA requests comment on the concept of allowing policies issued by risk retention groups or group captives that met a certain minimum rating, but not allowing pure captive insurers to meet the CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility requirements. The rationale for such a distinction would be that risk retention groups and group captives may be able to spread risk across a larger pool of financially and legally independent policy holders than a pure captive insurer that may be restricted to spreading risk amongst its own financially-related affiliates. As such, accepting insurance policies from risk retention groups or group captives, but not pure captives, may address the second concern identified. EPA also requests comment on whether insurance policies provided by risk retention groups and group captive insurers more generally should be treated equivalently.
EPA recognizes that a financial strength rating would not necessarily be available in the near term as some captive insurers or risk retention groups, were they to ultimately be considered acceptable issuers, may be newly created in response to these regulations. EPA is thus accepting comment on whether, if EPA ultimately allows policies written by captives and/or risk retention groups, to phase in the ratings requirement. A phased ratings requirement could operate by requiring that owners and operators provide evidence of the requisite financial strength of a captive insurer or risk retention group beginning five years after the effective date of the rule. In this way, a rating agency would be able to review a multi-year track record of the insurer's performance which may be necessary in order to accurately rate the insurer.
Typically, financial responsibility regulations require submission of either a certificate of insurance or an endorsement as evidence of the required insurance coverage. A certificate of insurance is a form that typically is completed by an insurance broker or agent at the request of an insurance
In discussions with representatives of the insurance industry, EPA was told by the participating representatives that they were indifferent between a certificate of insurance and an endorsement as the form of the evidence of financial responsibility. EPA did not want to require the whole policy be submitted in all cases and is thus today proposing that an endorsement be submitted as evidence of financial responsibility. Other financial responsibility programs specify either certificates, endorsement or both. In order to reduce the complexity of the proposed regulations and provide a narrower range of documents EPA would need to review during implementation, the Agency is proposing an endorsement be submitted. Further, because an endorsement is part of the insurance contract itself, it may provide greater certainty with respect to the insurance coverage provided by the policy than a certificate of insurance.
An owner or operator using insurance to satisfy the requirements of this section would also be required to establish a standby trust and update Schedule A of the trust agreement within sixty days of a change in the amount of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility. Similar to the requirements for the letter of credit and surety bond, the standby trust is being required alongside the insurance instrument to ensure continued coverage, in conjunction with the automatic renewal provision of the policy and the potential liability of the insurer if the owner or operator does not obtain replacement financial responsibility. EPA's concern is that an insurance policy might be cancelled, not renewed or otherwise terminated leaving no financial responsibility in place for the payment of valid third-party CERCLA claims. EPA is especially concerned that policies may be cancelled, terminated or otherwise not renewed following the issuance of a notice letter of potential liability for the release of hazardous substances or marked financial decline of the owner or operator, and financial responsibility may not be in place when a claim is made. Amplifying these concerns is the recognition that the CERCLA processes leading to a claim (
As a result, in addition to the requirement to establish a standby trust, EPA is proposing an automatic renewal provision. Specifically, EPA is proposing that the endorsement provide that cancellation, failure to renew, or any other termination of the insurance by the insurer will be effective only upon written notice to the owner and operator and the Administrator by certified mail and only after the expiration of 120 days beginning with the date of receipt of the notice by both the Administrator and the owner or operator, as evidenced by the return receipts. Such an automatic renewal provision in the policy would be required to provide the insured with the option of renewal at the face amount of the expiring policy. In this way, insurance coverage could only lapse after 120 days' notice providing the owner and operator an opportunity to obtain replacement financial responsibility.
The cancellation and termination language in the endorsement proposed today was intended to closely follow the language used in the RCRA Subtitle I insurance endorsement for underground storage tank financial responsibility. A 2004 court decision held that those regulations preclude rescission as a remedy for misrepresentation and provide only for prospective cancellation of the insurance.
Finally, the endorsement would be required to specify that in instances where the owner or operator fails to obtain alternate financial responsibility and obtain written approval of such alternate financial responsibility from the Administrator within ninety days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the Administrator of a notice from the insurer that it has decided to cancel, not renew or otherwise terminate the insurance policy, the insurer would be liable up to the face value of the policy for payment into the standby trust in accordance with the terms of the endorsement. EPA believes the combination of the requirements for a standby trust, a notice of cancellation, failure to renew or other termination of the policy and the insurers potential liability if the owner or operator did not obtain alternate financial responsibility would provide assurance to EPA and other claimants that funds will be available to make payment for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damages as required under the proposal. This requirement would be similar to those for owners and operators using letters of credit or surety bonds. This arrangement, and the similar provisions for other proposed instruments, as well as alternatives are
A notable feature of the issuer cancellation provision proposed today for insurance is how failure to pay the premium would be treated. Under this proposed rule, if failure to pay the premium was the rationale for the insurer's decision to cancel, not renew, or otherwise terminate the policy, the insurer would be liable on the policy to fund a standby trust if the owner or operator failed to obtain alternate financial responsibility and obtain written approval of such alternate financial responsibility from the Administrator within ninety days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the Administrator of the notice of the insurers intent to cancel, not renew, or otherwise terminate the policy. EPA believes that this is the appropriate treatment of the insured's failure to pay the premium. EPA believes that the instances in which the owner or operator is unable to pay the premium are likely instances where financial responsibility coverage is most needed as the owner's or operator's ability to satisfy valid third-party CERCLA claims is likely limited. EPA believes one of the benefits of CERCLA § 108(b) is that the credit risk of the owners and operators of facilities managing hazardous substances can be transferred from the taxpayer and other third-party CERCLA claimants to the insurance and financial responsibility providers better able to manage, assess and make arrangements for such credit risks.
One alternative option would be to allow cancellation in the event of the insured's failure to pay the premium, without potential insurer liability. While, for the reasons discussed earlier, EPA is not proposing such an arrangement, the Agency requests comments on this alternative and the proposed treatment of failure to pay the premium on the part of the insured.
Under the proposed regulations the insurance would provide for payment to third-party CERCLA claims with three payment triggers in addition to providing for direct action as provided by CERCLA. EPA anticipates these four payment scenarios would operate independently of each other. These payment scenarios are the same as for the other instruments and are discussed more fully in section VI.B.5. of this preamble.
The policy would be required to provide for the payment awarded in final court judgments from a Federal court against any of the current owners and operators awarding CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with the facility to the party obtaining the judgment should such payment not be made within thirty days.
The policy would be required to provide for payment as required by a CERCLA settlement associated with the facility between any of the current owners or operators at the facility and EPA or another Federal government agency should the payment as required by the settlement not be made.
The policy would also be required to provide for payment into a trust fund established pursuant to a CERCLA unilateral administrative order issued to any of the current owners or operators at the facility by EPA or another Federal agency in instances where performance at the facility as required by the order does not occur. The owner or operator must have provided a written statement allowing the insurance policy be used to assure performance of the work required in the order.
In addition to the three proposed payment scenarios identified for which EPA intends to provide insurance coverage, the proposed CERCLA § 108(b) insurance would also be required to provide for direct action against the insurer in instances identified in CERCLA § 108(c)(2). Specifically, the proposed required wording of the CERCLA § 108(b) insurance endorsement includes language stating that in the case of a release or threatened release of (a) hazardous substance(s) from a facility covered by the policy, the insurer acknowledges that any claim authorized by CERCLA §§ 107 or 111 may be asserted directly against the insurer as provided by CERCLA § 108(c)(2). The endorsement would also state that the insurer consents to suit with respect to these claims subject to the limitations in CERCLA § 108(d), and that the insurer will be entitled to all rights and defenses provided to guarantors by CERCLA § 108(c). Further, under the proposed terms of the endorsement the insurer would provide notice of any such resulting claims and payments to the Administrator. EPA believes this notification requirement is valuable as the owner and operator may not be available to provide such a notice of payments or claims in a direct action scenario yet EPA wishes to remain informed of claims against the instrument and the value of the financial responsibility.
The proposed insurance endorsement language includes a general or blanket performance clause as a means to address the myriad number of ways the scope of insurance coverage provided by an insurance policy may be limited. EPA recognizes that the ability to tailor insurance coverage to the specific needs of the insured is one of the virtues of insurance contracts; however, the Agency believes that in the context of statutorily required financial responsibility such limiting provisions of the policy may conflict with the intended scope of the financial responsibility coverage and may frustrate the realization of the public policy goals. Environmental insurance policies can be long, complex contracts that operate as a whole to define and restrict the coverage provided.
EPA believes it is necessary to propose a performance clause in the language of the endorsement that would amend any terms of the policy inconsistent with the regulatory requirements for CERCLA § 108(b) insurance or the terms specified in the endorsement. Similar performance clauses are employed in the certificate of insurance required as evidence of financial assurance for closure and post-closure care of hazardous waste facilities in the RCRA Subtitle C program (
The proposed performance clause states that the insurance afforded with respect to the covered facilities is subject to all of the terms and conditions of the policy; provided, however, that any provision, exclusion, definition, condition, retroactive date, clause, defense, or other term of the policy inconsistent with 40 CFR 320.42 or certain identified required specifications in the endorsement are hereby amended to conform with 40 CFR 320.42 and the required specifications in the endorsement. EPA intends for the performance clause to
The most notable aspect of the proposed performance clause may be the specification that any retroactive date
This issue relates to the concept of CERCLA § 108(b) presenting a hybrid risk from the viewpoint of insurers mentioned earlier. In discussions with representatives of the insurance community, EPA was informed that the scope of a CERCLA response cost is broad and has elements suited to risk transfer policies that commonly have retroactive dates (
One possible arrangement that representatives from the insurance community offered was to separate the financial responsibility requirements into two separate obligations. Such an arrangement for CERCLA § 108(b) would allow EPA to specify an appropriate retroactive date for the fortuitous risks and not have one for the more “known” CERCLA response and health assessment costs. In the RCRA Subtitle C financial assurance program EPA was able to specify separate instruments for known costs (
EPA is proposing that up to four insurers would be able to provide the required amount of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility at a single facility. EPA expects the required amounts of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility may be relatively large and wishes to provide this flexibility. The proposed endorsement language would require that the participating insurers identify their percentage share of the coverage at facilities covered by the policy and the corresponding dollar value of that percentage share.
The proposed arrangement for allowing multiple insurers to cover a single facility is consistent with the proposed arrangement for multiple sureties with a few exceptions. As described in the surety bond section of the preamble, the proposed language of the surety bond requires sureties to bind themselves jointly and severally for purposes of allowing a joint action(s) against the issuers of the surety bond, but allow for payment based on pre-determined proportions of the penal sum (several liability). Unlike in the case of surety bonds where such a provision has a great deal of precedent, such a provision for insurers participating in vertical towers of coverage is less common in the financial assurance programs EPA reviewed. As a result, EPA is proposing that participation by multiple insurers be limited to four insurers to ensure a manageable claims process. The U.S. Coast Guard included the same cap on the number of participating insurers (59 FR 34220 (July 1, 1994)). EPA does not want to create a scenario whereby claimants need to take action against many insurers which would complicate the claims process and create a protracted process for the satisfaction of valid claims. EPA requests comment on this limitation. Specifically, EPA is interested in comments as to whether, in instances where multiple insurers provide coverage at a single facility, requiring participating insurers to bind themselves jointly and severally for the purposes of allowing a joint action(s) against the group of insurers would be possible and how such a provision might best be specified.
When multiple insurers do provide coverage at a single facility, the
An alternative EPA considered was proposing that multiple insurers could form a tower of coverage comprised of horizontal layers. In such an arrangement each insurer in the horizontal tower would be agreeing to cover its layer of the tower, not a percentage of the total. Those insurers higher up the horizontal tower become responsible on a layer-by-layer basis as the limits of each underlying policy become exhausted. However, EPA is not proposing such an arrangement due to several concerns. First, a horizontal arrangement presents the opportunity for insurers covering higher coverage layers to avoid liability if an insurer on a lower level becomes insolvent and cannot cover the liability within its layer. This is a concern also identified by the U.S. Coast Guard when it developed its CERCLA § 108(a) regulations.
EPA requests comment on the proposed regulatory provision allowing up to four insurers to provide coverage at one facility by identifying their vertical percentage share of the total CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount in the submitted endorsement. Specifically, EPA is interested in other potential arrangements that may encourage insurer participation in the program and provide for relatively high amounts of financial responsibility coverage yet not overly complicate implementation or the claims process.
The owner or operator would be required to maintain the insurance in full force and effect until the Administrator consents to termination of the insurance by the owner or operator. The Administrator would give written consent to the owner or operator that he or she may terminate the endorsement when: (1) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial responsibility as specified in this section; or (2) the Administrator releases the owner or operator from the requirements of this section in accordance with § 320. 26. This provision is intended to ensure that the coverage of the financial responsibility does not cease, and that funds remain available when needed, until the release provisions are met or alternate financial responsibility is provided.
CERCLA § 108(b) (2) provides that financial responsibility may be established by any one, or any combination of, the instruments listed in that paragraph, including “qualification for self-insurance.” A financial test is a financial responsibility instrument that allows an owner or operator to qualify for self-insurance by demonstrating that it has sufficient financial strength to meet its environmental obligations. When allowing the use of a financial test, the Government accepts the facility's demonstration of financial strength as the only assurance that the owner or operator will meet its environmental obligations, and does not require that it establish a trust fund or obtain additional security in the form of a third-party financial instrument, such as insurance, a surety bond, or letter of credit.
The Agency is co-proposing two separate regulatory approaches in the form of options regarding the use of a financial test to assure that this important issue is thoroughly considered before the Agency makes a decision in the final rule. The Agency is proposing, under Option 1, not to allow the use of a financial test or corporate guarantee, and is proposing under Option 2 allowing the use of a credit rating-based financial test and corporate guarantee. At this time, EPA prefers Option 1. However, the Agency is proposing both options to fully evaluate this issue, and to gather as much information as possible to inform its ultimate decision on whether the financial test and corporate guarantee mechanisms are appropriate for use by hardrock mining facilities under CERCLA § 108(b). EPA has identified, and presented in this preamble discussion, a number of factors that the Agency will consider in making its final decision, and seeks public comment on these factors, as well as additional information from the public that could inform the Agency's final decision.
By replacing the requirement to obtain a third-party instrument with a demonstration of financial strength, the financial test results in significant cost savings to eligible owners or operators, from not having to purchase a third-party financial responsibility instrument. However, by allowing a financial test, EPA would accept the risk that, if the company's financial situation deteriorates and it cannot obtain a third-party instrument or fund a trust fund to meet its environmental obligations, the costs of addressing the environmental risk at the facility could fall to the public. With the added layer of a third-party financial responsibility instrument, however, the risk of default to the public would be lessened by the financial strength of the instrument provider. Nonetheless, EPA recognizes that the risk of default exists regardless of the type of financial responsibility instrument. For example, even in the case of secured financial responsibility instruments, the possibility remains that the banks and insurance companies underwriting these instruments could also fail. Regardless of the scenario, with or without a financial test, EPA and the public are not without some risk of having to cover such obligations.
EPA also is carefully considering the elements of the financial test. Financial tests can vary in approach and in sensitivity. The combination of terms
Further, the financial strength of an owner or operator as measured by a financial test represents a snapshot in time. Thus, for a financial test to be effective, the owner or operator must provide periodic evidence that it continues to pass the financial test and that it can meet the costs associated with its facility over time. For a financial test to be effective: (1) The financial test must accurately reflect the financial strength of the owner or operator; (2) the Agency and/or owners and operators must identify when the owner or operator no longer qualifies for self-insurance under the financial test; (3) the owners or operators that no longer qualify for the financial test must be able to quickly obtain an alternate instrument(s) to cover their obligations instead of self-insuring; and (4) the requisite instruments must in turn be available to such owners and operators who no longer are able to self-insure. The Agency is concerned, however, that third-party financial instruments may not be available to a company that is experiencing a period of financial hardship. While, in general, such an issue has not been a widespread problem in other EPA financial responsibility programs, the Agency is concerned that the highly cyclical, capital-intensive nature of the mining industry may present unique challenges under a CERCLA § 108(b) rule for hardrock mines.
There are several other broader considerations with respect to the adoption of a financial test. First, EPA has concerns regarding the extent to which sufficient resources and expertise will be available to implement a financial test under CERCLA § 108(b). Second, EPA has policy concerns about: (1) Whether offering a financial test would adversely affect the incentives created by the rule for better practices; (2) the potential inequity of offering a test due to the advantage that the test may create for larger versus smaller owners and operators; and (3) whether, given the potentially significant costs associated with Superfund liabilities, should the financial test fail as an instrument, these costs may not be paid or may fall to the taxpayer to pay. All of these considerations are discussed elsewhere in the preamble. The Agency remains extremely concerned regarding the boom and bust nature inherent to the hardrock mining industry and recent volatility in commodity prices and global markets. History suggests that the increased risk of default for these companies makes this sector particularly problematic from the perspective of allowing them to self-insure through a financial test. Finally, many hardrock mining facilities require long-term care, such as long-term water treatment of acid mine drainage. Allowing owners or operators to self-insure where such long-term liabilities are anticipated may be ill-advised given that some sites require treatment into perpetuity. It should be noted that, although EPA currently allows the use of a financial test under various agency programs,
See:
Under this option, which EPA prefers, the Agency is proposing an approach under which a financial test would not be available for use by hardrock mining facilities subject to this rule. Under this approach, owners or operators could demonstrate financial responsibility only by using a trust fund, insurance, a letter of credit, or a surety bond, or a combination of those instruments. A corporate guarantee, which is based on the financial test, would not be available. EPA is proposing this option as a preferred option based on a number of factors. Covered initially are four broader factors of concern regarding the appropriateness of financial tests under CERCLA § 108(b). Further discussion follows that also outlines factors for why the use of any financial test would be particularly problematic for the hardrock mining industry. (1) Concerns regarding the use of a financial test under CERCLA § 108(b).
The Agency considered several concerns regarding the use of a financial test under this proposed rule. The Agency first considered the work involved in overseeing a financial test in the context of CERCLA § 108(b). EPA is particularly concerned about the administrative burden of a test under CERCLA § 108(b) given the freestanding nature of the CERCLA § 108(b) obligation that would not be buttressed by a permitting program. Observers, more generally, have commented that the financial test poses additional administrative burden. For example, in a 2001 audit of the RCRA Subtitle C financial assurance program, the Agency's OIG reported that financial tests pose unique administrative complexities that raise their implementation burden.
As discussed earlier, successful use of a financial test requires adequate oversight by the regulatory agency to assure that financial submissions are accurate and adequate, and that when owners or operators no longer meet the requirements of the financial test they secure an alternative financial responsibility instrument in a timely manner. Generally, where a financial responsibility requirement is tied to a permit, EPA has ongoing oversight of the owners or operators of the facility,
The Agency has attempted to address some of these concerns by structuring the proposed financial test to reduce implementation concerns, for example, by including reliance on credit rating. (This issue is discussed in section VI.C.4. of this preamble). However, even with the proposed financial test, the Agency would still be required to, at a minimum, verify the credit ratings, and to annually review financial submissions to assess whether the company meets other test requirements, such as coverage multiple requirements
In addition, the efficacy of the financial test proposed under Option 2 depends on the accurate and accessible accounting of covered environmental obligations company-wide to meet the U.S. assets and tangible net worth coverage multiple requirements. These requirements will be implemented by EPA Regional offices, but the co-proposed financial test includes nationwide obligations as part of the calculation, to ensure effectiveness of the test. This may necessitate verification of information located in another region or held by another agency or state entity, which could be a very timely and costly process.
The Agency has found implementation of a financial test under other Agency financial responsibility programs to present challenges. EPA is concerned that under CERCLA § 108(b), without the structure of a permit program and the level of interaction and knowledge of site conditions that it provides, it may be even more challenging to successfully oversee and implement.
Second, EPA is concerned that the use of a financial test may limit the realization of one of the potential benefits of this rule—the development of better mining practices. EPA believes that this is an important impact of this proposed rule. As explained in the discussion of the financial responsibility formula, EPA has built such incentives into that aspect of the rule. Those incentives are reinforced by the effect that an owner or operator adopting sound practices can be expected to be able to purchase an instrument from a third party, for a reduced amount of coverage and at a reduced cost. Similarly, some third-party providers may encourage owners and operators to adopt safer practices as well. However, with a financial test, so long as the owner or operator can meet the test requirements and avoid the need to obtain third party coverage, the cost savings incentive to implement improved practices may be lost, along with the associated risk reductions they would afford. Therefore, the Agency believes that providing a financial test under this proposed rule could reduce salutary effects of the rule. Further, because financial tests are available to the owners or operators that are best able to bear the costs, this reduced incentive affects the owners or operators in the best position to invest in improved practices.
Third, the Agency is further concerned that because of the potentially high costs associated with Superfund liabilities, particularly from hardrock mining facilities, and the potential for such costs falling to the taxpayer should the financial test fail, it might not be an appropriate instrument for use under CERCLA § 108(b). Under the proposed rule, owners or operators would be required to establish and maintain financial responsibility to cover all CERCLA § 107 liabilities at their facilities—response costs, natural resource damages, and health assessment costs.
Finally, because the financial test co-proposed in this rule is by design only available to the owners or operators best able to bear the costs, the Agency recognizes that allowing the use of a financial test in this rule would provide an economic advantage (in the form of a cost savings) to the economically strongest owners or operators, and potentially create an economic and competitive disadvantage for others.
The Agency solicits comment on the concerns identified by EPA regarding the use of a financial test under CERCLA § 108(b).
Beyond concerns related to the use of a financial test under CERCLA § 108(b), EPA considered issues specific to the use of a financial test for the hardrock mining industry under 108(b). First, there are significant concerns that owners or operators that are no longer able to meet the requirements of a financial test may become less able than owners or operators in other industries to secure an alternative financial responsibility instrument. One reason is because frequent fluctuations in commodity prices within the hardrock mining industry may result in sharp declines in production and accelerated mine closures. This scenario is currently playing out in the case of the coal mining industry.
• In 2015, Bank of America cut off its financing for coal extraction projects to reduce its exposure. (Kate Sheppard,
• In 2015, Citi Group and Goldman Sachs Group sold its investments in mining and reduced its financing of coal mining operations faced with large environmental obligations. (Jeanne Dugan, Timothy Puko,
• In 2016, JPMorgan announced it would be no longer finance new coal-fired plants in the U.S. (Michael Corkery,
Many mineral resource extraction firms are not able to absorb market fluctuations because they lack diversified lines of business. This may make it harder to ensure that owners or operators who do fail the test obtain a replacement instrument.
Second, numerous troublesome cases have occurred involving hardrock mining facilities that have gone through bankruptcy, while leaving extremely significant environmental impacts in their wake. Remedial work can be stopped or slowed in situations where the owner or operator's cash flow and revenue is reduced or they go bankrupt. Such impacts have occurred in the past when owners or operators of mines engaged in CERCLA cleanups have had to negotiate changes to the scope of work due to drops in metal prices. EPA experienced this problem when a major mining company slowed work at sites and then filed for bankruptcy in 2005. The company was using a financial test (which was a less sensitive financial test than the test proposed under Option 2) under a CERCLA Consent Decree with EPA at a smelter site in the northwest part of the U.S. EPA discovered that the company was having financial struggles, despite having recently submitted information that it met the necessary financial test requirements. In response, EPA requested that the company obtain a liquid financial responsibility instrument under the provisions of a consent decree, but the company was unable to do so, given its declining financial condition.
Third, given the relative market volatility observed within the hardrock mining industry, some have argued that there are no circumstances under which owners or operators of hardrock mining companies should be allowed to self-insure through a financial test. Analysis has shown that mining companies can be more likely to default on their financial obligations than other types of companies.
EPA is concerned that close linkage between the hardrock mining industry and global commodity prices means that companies that are invested in the same minerals are likely to fail or experience financial hardship at the same time, when the prices of these minerals decline.
Congress and the states have expressed concern over the volatility in the mining industry and the potential inability of a financial test to account for rapidly changing market conditions, asking the Comptroller General for a review of self-insurance practices.
EPA has information that decisions in the mining industry to expand or open new facilities are generally made over a longer period of time than some other industries (on for example, a ten-year, twenty-year, or longer amortization and investment basis).
Mining companies generally attempt to manage cyclical patterns by balancing new investment with projected sales of minerals.
“Mining companies have volatile earnings, coming from macroeconomic factors that are not in their control. As the economy weakens and strengthens, mining companies see their earnings and cash flows track with the commodity price.”
Mining profits are also generally tied to revenue rather than operating costs because operating costs tend to be highly fixed in the industry.
During the recent economic recession (characterized by the stock market drop in September 2008) for example, copper, nickel, tin, and zinc prices fell more than twenty percent between September and October 2008.
Such volatility impacts the effective use of a financial test by hardrock mining facilities. The cyclical nature of the industry and the rapid fluctuations in commodity prices may result in corresponding fluctuations in the financial health of hardrock mining companies. Whereas a mining company may accumulate substantial amounts of cash flow from operating activities during a period of peak prices, a price trough likely would result in decreased revenues, and corresponding decreased cash flow.
However, because of falling revenues and potentially compromised cash flow stemming from commodity price swings, EPA is concerned that companies may have insufficient tangible assets (financial reserves) to establish alternate financial instruments in years where they are unable to pass the financial test.
In 2000, the BLM identified similar concerns when it decided to prohibit new corporate guarantees for future reclamation work to restore lands when hardrock mining operations cease.
As a fourth and distinct concern, when a mine is reaching the end of its life and is bringing in less revenue, the owner or operator may not be able to secure a financial responsibility instrument for CERCLA liabilities that may continue to be required after the
As a fifth concern, allowing a financial test under this proposed rule for hardrock mining would be inconsistent with the approach taken by some other Federal regulators that have experience and expertise in the regulation of the hardrock mining facilities. After having formerly allowed a financial test, BLM modified its regulations at 43 CFR part 3809 and removed the financial test as an available financial responsibility instrument;
Finally, as noted earlier, the Agency is concerned that a financial test for the hardrock mining industry may not fully reflect the financial health of the owner or operator. Based on experience from requiring financial responsibility for CERCLA consent decrees, EPA has learned that mining companies often do not list “contingent” liabilities, such as the potential need for long-term operation and maintenance (“O&M”) on their corporate balance sheets, at least not during the early exploration and start-up phases of a mine. As such, a balance sheet can show that a given company has sufficient assets to meet the requirements of the financial test, despite the fact that all or a portion the recorded assets may be zeroed out by unrecorded “contingent” liabilities. The Agency solicits comment on this concern. Specifically, EPA is concerned that the six times multiples for tangible net worth and U.S. assets that have worked well in the RCRA Subtitle C program would not be effective for a mining industry with the potential for large contingent liabilities.
For these reasons, the Agency is proposing, as its preferred option, not to allow the use of a financial test under this proposed rule. The Agency solicits comment on this proposal.
Although the Agency's preferred option is to not allow a financial test under the proposed rule (see Option 1), EPA is proposing a second option—that is, to make a financial test available for use by hardrock mining facilities subject to this proposed rule. The Agency is proposing this option because it recognizes that allowance of a financial test under this proposed rule could result in significant savings to those members of the regulated community that could use it and qualify to self-insure.
Under the option that would allow a financial test, EPA is proposing the use of a credit rating—based financial test, developed specifically for this proposed rule. In developing the proposed financial test, the Agency attempted to address as many of the concerns discussed in Option 1 as possible, though the Agency recognizes that it cannot eliminate all of the concerns identified. EPA analyzed several financial test options and selected one for proposal that carries with it a relatively low risk to the Government that firms will pass the financial test and still default on their obligations. EPA requests comments on the extent to which its proposed financial test addresses the concerns outlined in Option 1.
EPA is proposing the use of a financial test based on the long-term corporate credit rating of the owner or operator. Under the terms of the proposed financial test, an owner or operator could assure its entire financial responsibility obligation by submitting annual verification that it holds at least one long-term corporate credit rating equal to or higher than A- as issued by Standard & Poor's (S&P) or its equivalent by another NRSRO. In addition, for some owners and operators with lower credit ratings, the proposed test would further allow an owner or operator to alternatively assure one half of its obligation by submitting annual verification that it holds at least one long-term corporate credit rating of BBB+ or BBB from S&P or the equivalent from another NRSRO.
In addition, an owner or operator electing to use the financial test would be required to have: (1) a tangible net worth of at least six times the amount of environmental obligations, including guarantees, covered by a financial test or guarantee, including this financial test and the corporate guarantee proposed in this rule; and (2) U.S. assets equal to or greater than ninety percent of its total assets, or six times the amount of environmental obligations covered by a financial test or guarantee, including this financial test and the corporate guarantee proposed in this rule.
The proposed test would allow the owner or operator to self-insure its entire obligation by submitting annual verification that the owner or operator holds at least one long-term corporate credit rating equal to or higher than A- as issued by S&P or its equivalent by another NRSRO. Credit rating-based thresholds are widely relied upon as a central feature of many financial tests. For example, this proposed rating threshold is the same as that used in the NRC's financial test for self-insurance of the decommissioning costs associated with byproduct materials licensees (per 10 CFR 30 Appendix C). The Agency chose this long-term corporate credit rating threshold based on expected default rates over a three year horizon.
The proposed test would further allow for coverage of up to one half of an owner's or operator's obligation by submitting annual verification that the owner or operator holds at least one long-term corporate credit rating of BBB+ or BBB from S&P or the equivalents from another NRSRO. This long-term corporate credit rating threshold was also chosen based on expected default rates over a three-year horizon. The Agency's analysis indicates that the risk of default roughly doubles for these rating tiers compared to A-rated long-term issuer credit ratings
Finally, under the proposed test EPA would not allow those companies at the lowest tier of investment grade ratings (BBB- in S&P's notation and the equivalent rating from other NRSROs) from using a financial test. EPA determined that, based on the three-year horizon default history for firms with the lowest tier investment grade ratings, the risk of default was significantly higher than for firms with investment grade ratings one tier higher. For example, the risk of default for firms rated BBB- by S&P is roughly twice that of firms rated BBB by the same rating agency.
EPA is aware that this demarcation differs from the normal split between investment grade and speculative grade ratings, and that often investors distinguish on the basis of whether a particular issuer carries an investment versus speculative grade rating. However, because of the significantly higher default rates for the very bottom of investment grade found in its analysis, the Agency proposes to eliminate the very bottom notch of investment grade from being allowed to self-insure under the proposed financial test.
EPA solicits comment on the credit-rating thresholds the Agency is proposing for use in the proposed financial test under Option 2.
In this proposal, an owner or operator eligible to use this financial test for any portion of its CERCLA § 108(b) liabilities would also be subject to a coverage multiple requiring them to have a tangible net worth of at least six times the amount of environmental obligations, including guarantees, covered by a financial test or guarantee, including this financial test and the corporate guarantee proposed in this rule. This is an important additional component of the proposed financial test as it would provide for a common check across EPA financial responsibility programs that a firm is not assuming too great a level of future costs that they might unduly strain the firm's ability to pay for them.
EPA financial tests typically account for only cost estimates and obligations covered by an EPA financial test. However, because of the numerous regulatory agencies that regulate hardrock mines, EPA expects that an owner or operator subject to this rule may have many of its financial test demonstrations under other Federal or state programs. To assure that a company is not using the same assets to self-insure multiple obligations, EPA believes it is necessary to account for all environmental obligations covered by a financial test or guarantee, and not just EPA financial assurance obligations covered by a financial test or guarantee.
Owners or operators would also be subject to an additional coverage multiple, requiring them to submit proof that the company either has assets located in the United States amounting to at least ninety percent of total assets or has U.S. assets totaling at least six times the amount of environmental obligations covered by a financial test or guarantee, including this financial test and the corporate guarantee proposed in this rule. This would serve as an additional precautionary measure to help ensure that U.S. assets would be available for claimants to proceed against, in the event of a bankruptcy or other default.
This proposed requirement would be very similar to that used for U.S. assets in past financial tests the Agency has created. For example, the RCRA Subtitle C closure and post-closure financial test requires assets located in the U.S. amounting to at least ninety percent of total assets or at least six times the sum of current closure and post-closure cost estimates and the current plugging and abandonment cost estimates.
For those firms without assets in the United States amounting to ninety percent or more of total assets, the firms would be required to demonstrate that they have U.S. assets greater than six times the sum of all financial responsibility obligations covered by a financial test. This six-times ratio is consistent with Alternative I of a recent RCRA consent decree that EPA entered into with several phosphoric acid mining companies, and is similar to other requirements in EPA's UIC Class VI well regulations and the RCRA Subtitle C regulations. The six times multiplier is intended to address the possibility that, in the event of a bankruptcy, funds required to meet other environmental obligations assured through other financial tests would reduce an owner or operator's ability to satisfy any CERCLA claims.
The proposed option that would allow a financial test would also require reporting of information necessary to implement the financial test. To demonstrate passage of the financial test, owners or operators would be required to submit the following information annually:
Chief Financial Officer Letter (CFO Letter): A letter to the Administrator signed by its chief financial officer (CFO) as worded in § 320.50. The CFO Letter confirms that the entity satisfies the financial criteria required under the financial test that makes the entity eligible to utilize the financial test as financial responsibility under this regulation.
The Agency is proposing to require standardized the language in the CFO Letter from the owner or operator. Such an approach is consistent with other Agency rules such as the RCRA Subtitle C or the Standardized Permit Rule and carries with it several benefits to the Agency. First, a standard CFO Letter will provide for relatively quick Agency review of financial test submissions and lowers the chances of administrative error in the review of submissions. Administrative burden, once again, is a key concern to the Agency as it wishes to preserve the resources for conducting cleanups. The Agency believes a standardized CFO Letter offers the additional potential advantage of improving the consistency and completeness of submissions, thereby limiting delays caused by human error and omissions.
(2) Annual Financial Statements: A copy of the owner's or operator's most recent independently audited annual financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (U.S. GAAP). At present, EPA expects that firms seeking to self-insure through the use of a financial test will do so based on financial statements that are audited in accordance with U.S. GAAP. The Agency recognizes that foreign firms might prepare audited financial statements in accordance with either GAAP or International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS), and that IFRS and U.S. GAAP may converge into a global set of accounting standards at some point in the future. Until such time as a unified set of accounting standards is established, the Agency is proposing to accept only audited financial statements in accordance with U.S. GAAP for purposes of compliance with the financial test criteria. However, EPA accepts comment on an alternative whereby the acceptable accounting standards are linked to those accepted by the Securities Exchange Commission (SEC) in order to potentially lower the reporting burden for certain firms seeking to use the financial test. Presently, such an option would allow foreign firms that file with the SEC to be able to submit annual financial statements prepared in accordance with IFRS or GAAP while domestic firms would submit statements prepared in accordance with GAAP. However, the underlying fundamentals of IFRS and GAAP differ with respect to the accounting of liabilities and assets. As such, to accept both IFRS and GAAP financial statements in support of the financial test would yield a potentially disproportionate playing field wherein some companies using IFRS may pass the test where they might otherwise fail under GAAP, and vice versa. EPA would thus be accepting potentially divergent levels of assurance.
(3) Special Audit Report: A special report of procedures and findings of an audit conducted by a licensed, third-party, independent certified public accountant (CPA) resulting from an agreed-upon procedures (AUP) engagement in accordance with applicable Federal laws governing independence and AUP engagements, or standards set by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants, Inc. (AICPA), to supplement Federal laws or when Federal laws are not applicable. The report would be required to describe the procedures performed and related findings as to whether or not there were differences or discrepancies identified between the financial information in the owner's or operator's CFO Letter and the owner's or operator's most recent audited annual financial statements. Where differences or discrepancies were found in the comparison of the owner's or operator's CFO Letter and the owner's or operator's most recent audited annual financial statements, the report of procedures and findings would reconcile any differences or discrepancies.
There are advantages to third-party auditing requirements, particularly with strong auditor competence and independence criteria. According to the Center for Chemical Process Safety (CCPS), “Third-party auditors . . . potentially provide the highest degree of objectivity,”
In audit engagements, CPAs are required by professional standards and Federal and State laws to maintain independence (both in fact and in appearance) from the entity for which they are conducting an attestation (audit and review) engagement. However, the Public Certified Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) found evidence that many, if not most, of some types of financial audits are flawed due to insufficient auditor competence, independence and/or lack of public transparency. Third-party auditing is a cornerstone of financial reporting, but the PCAOB found audit deficiencies in portions of seventy of the ninety audits they reviewed in its third annual report on audits of broker-dealers registered with the SEC. Independence problems were found in 21 of the ninety audits where, contrary to SEC rules, firms helped with the bookkeeping or preparation of the financial statements they audited.
Therefore, EPA is proposing to require that a CPA performing the audit required under this proposal be licensed. This requirement is designed to ensure the auditor has the requisite education and experience to perform the audit. Each state has its own licensing board. The proposal would also require that auditors be independent, follow the independence rules and standards established by the AICPA's Audit Standards Board (ASB), have passed the Uniform Certified Public Accountant Examination, be licensed as a CPA, and be current with all continuing professional education requirements.
The Agency also is proposing to require that the AUP engagement be conducted in accordance with the AICPA Statement on Standards for Attestation Engagement (SSAE) and related attestation interpretations, AT Section 201—
The audited annual financial statements, the CFO Letter, and an AUP engagement report signed and certified by an independent, licensed CPA would be submitted annually, within ninety days of the close of the owner's or operator's fiscal year. In so doing, the Agency receives up-to-date financial information to ensure the company still meets the standards of the test. In general, financial reports made directly to the SEC are completed within ninety days of the company's fiscal year end. Most small and medium-sized businesses, who are not filing with the SEC, track their fiscal year end to a calendar-year end. These companies tend to complete their annual financial reports in support of tax filings to the Internal Revenue Service, and generally do so within ninety days of the calendar year end. In either instance, most companies already prepare annual financial statements, and therefore the financial reporting requirements of the financial test should not present too significant of a reporting challenge. The annual reporting requirement is essential to ensure firms using the financial test maintain the requisite financial strength and do not pose an undue risk.
EPA believes, together, these reporting requirements will foster accountability, improve compliance, and ensure EPA is receiving an accurate portrayal of a company's financial ability to meet its environmental obligations. Thus, if the use of a financial test were to be allowed in the final rule, this would reduce the risk that the taxpayer would have to finance cleanup in the future. EPA believes that third-party reviews will help assist in rule compliance and oversight. Independence is important to preserve the integrity and objectivity of these audits, thereby providing reliable compliance information to EPA.
The Agency believes that requiring an AUP engagement would also further ease the implementation burden associated with reviewing financial test submissions, and reduce the prospect for errors. Third-party, independent audits will also promote cost-effective EPA prioritization of Superfund resources, and provide benefits to communities near facilities by assuring that secure financial responsibility is in place. The AUP would give EPA an independent third-party expert's opinion and attestation as to whether or not the financial information provided in the CFO Letter is consistent with that in the most recent audited financial statements and thus with U.S. generally accepted accounting practices. EPA believes independent, licensed CPAs are better suited to review such data and make such determinations, as EPA is not primarily a financial regulator.
EPA is asking for comment on these reporting requirements. Specifically, the public should comment on what other requirements, if any, should be required to ensure the completeness, reliability, and accuracy of the information submitted to determine that facilities have the funds necessary to meet their environmental obligations, thereby preserving taxpayer money. EPA is also accepting comments on the application of these laws and standards, whether or not these requirements are sufficient to ensure compliance with the financial test, provide EPA with the necessary information to implement the financial test, or preserve independence in performing under an AUP engagement, and the ability of the requirements to help EPA respond to deficiencies in financial test submissions or changes in financial situations.
Additionally, owners or operators would be required to notify the Administrator in the event of a change in their long-term issuer credit rating or financial position that would disqualify them from using the financial test. This requirement also exists in other EPA financial tests including the RCRA Subtitle C test for hazardous waste facilities. Such notification is designed to be independent from the annual reporting requirements associated with the financial test. Owners or operators would be required to notify the Administrator upon verifying that a change in their financial status has resulted in their becoming disqualified from using the financial test. In such circumstances, owners or operators will be required to send notice to the Administrator within thirty days, documenting their intent to establish an alternate financial responsibility instrument to cover the portion of their obligations for which they can no longer use the financial test. As such, owners and operators that currently qualify for self-insurance under the financial test will be responsible for continually self-monitoring their qualification status whenever they experience a change in their long-term issuer credit rating, tangible net worth, or value of U.S. assets. The Agency is proposing this reporting requirement to allow EPA to respond as quickly as possible to negative changes in a company's financial position. In the event the owner or operator no longer passes the financial test, the owner or operator would have 120 days from the date the owner or operator no longer qualifies to obtain a replacement instrument for that portion of its CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility requirement previously covered by the test.
The proposed regulations would allow the Administrator to request reports of financial condition at any time from the owner or operator in addition to those specified in § 320.43(b) in the event that the Administrator has reason to believe the owner or operator may no longer meet the financial test requirements. This is similar to a provision in the RCRA Subtitle C financial test found at 40 CFR 264.143(f)(7), for example. The Agency has found this provision very helpful in evaluating compliance with the regulations and proposes to include a similar provision in these regulations.
The Administrator would also have the discretion to disallow use of this test on the basis of qualifications of opinion given in the independent certified public accountant's report in the AUP engagement or the audited financial statements. An adverse opinion or disclaimer of opinion in either report will result in disallowance of the test. The Administrator will evaluate other qualifications on an individual basis. An adverse opinion suggests that the financial statements do not present fairly the financial condition of the firm. A disclaimer of opinion states that the auditor does not express an opinion on the financial statements. In both cases,
The owner or operator would be released from the proposed requirements of demonstrating financial responsibility with the financial test when: (1) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial responsibility as specified in this section; or (2) The Administrator releases the owner or operator from the requirements of this section in accordance with § 320 27.
The Option 2 proposed financial test was developed by EPA for use by hardrock mining facilities under CERCLA § 108(b). The Agency believes that it is more suited for use by hardrock mining facilities to demonstrate financial responsibility under CERCLA § 108(b) than are other financial tests currently implemented by EPA. As discussed earlier, EPA has also attempted to address to the extent possible, many of the concerns raised about the use of a financial test for hardrock mining facilities under proposed Option 1.
The proposed financial test utilizes long-term corporate credit ratings, rather than a series of ratios derived from a company's financial statements, as other tests do. The Agency took this approach, in part, to ease potential implementation challenges. A test based on long-term corporate credit ratings is relatively easy to verify and carries with it the lowest administrative burden of the financial test options considered. Moreover, the use of long-term corporate credit ratings is further substantiated by the robust data underpinning the measures of risk associated with each rating level. For example, default rate studies are often backed by large samples spanning many years. The ratings agencies themselves have done extensive studies demonstrating the efficacy of credit ratings as an indicator of credit risk.
The Agency's decision to propose a credit rating-based test also reflects the EFAB's statements, made in its reporting on the financial test and corporate guarantee under the RCRA programs, that independent credit analysis,
EPA has used different systems of ratings in other financial tests. This includes using the rating on the most recent bond issuance in the RCRA Subtitle C financial test, for example, found in 40 CFR 264.143(f). The use of long-term issuer credit ratings is included in this proposal as the Agency believes they most accurately reflect a firm's ability to meet the entirety of its financial obligations over the long term as opposed to the obligations related to a single debt issuance (
The proposed financial test includes a high credit rating threshold so an owner or operator with declining financial health will still have a relatively high credit status when it initially becomes ineligible to use the financial test. EPA expects that this will help to assure that owners or operators that no longer qualify for the test will still be sufficiently viable to obtain an alternate instrument. This is so, because evidence from agency analyses of past bankruptcies in this sector suggest that it usually takes many years for a company to enter bankruptcy after its credit rating drops below BBB.
The financial responsibility instruments proposed in this rule are new and unique and the market's appetite for providing these instruments is yet to be determined. The Agency expects that allowing a financial test could potentially help to address market capacity issues, should they arise.
Making a financial test available to owners or operators of hardrock mining facilities under this proposed rule would be consistent with EPA's approach in other programs. It would not, however, be consistent with approaches taken by some other Federal agencies.
According to the CERCLA § 108(b) Regulatory Impact Analysis (RIA), the estimated annualized compliance cost to industry without a financial test is $171 million. However, by allowing financial test, the cost to industry goes down to $111 million, which represents a 35 percent in cost saving to industry.
With respect to the impacts on government, without the financial test, the industry would internalize in approximately $527 million in potential CERCLA liabilities that would otherwise assumed by the Government (in instances of owner or operator failure) in the baseline (without the rule). However, by allowing the financial test, the cost internalized by the industry goes down to approximately $511 million. Therefore, the increased risks to the Government from unforeseen
Finally, EPA solicits comment on the potential impacts on small businesses of allowing a financial test under the proposed CERCLA § 108(b) rule. As noted earlier, concerns exist regarding the potential inequity of offering a test due to the advantages that it may create for larger versus smaller owners and operators. This is in part because the proposed financial test was designed to be highly stringent. As proposed, only those owners and operators with strong long-term credit ratings, plus substantial tangible net worth and U.S. assets would pass the test. Designing the test in this manner greatly lowers the risk of default by owners and operators that pass the test. Analyses conducted by EPA of the financial test options considered offers evidence, however, that fewer small businesses are likely to possess the credit ratings and net worth necessary to qualify for self-insurance. EPA, therefore, solicits comment on whether the availability of a financial test would thus create a competitive disadvantage for small businesses.
EPA also solicits comment on how allowance of a financial test under the CERCLA § 108(b) rule could affect the potential availability of third-party instruments to small businesses. EPA anticipates that the impact would depend in part on the willingness of instrument providers to provide instruments to small businesses. If instrument providers are willing to provide instruments to small businesses, allowing a financial test could make instruments more available to small businesses by freeing up overall capacity of such instruments in the open market. On the other hand, if instrument providers prove less willing to provide instruments to small businesses, the capacity freed by allowing the financial test may not increase the availability of the instruments to those entities. EPA therefore solicits comment on the likely impact on small businesses of making a financial test available in the rule, both in terms of potential disadvantages, and in terms of the availability of the instruments themselves.
(4) EPA's Data Analysis: In this section, EPA discusses the data analysis it performed in connection with developing financial test options generally for the CERCLA § 108(b) proposed rule, and in connection with the particular test selected for proposal. Specifically, EPA conducted several basic analyses to understand the impacts of the rule and tradeoffs associated both with and without a financial test. This is discussed in the following section (a). In section (b), EPA discusses its data analysis of the expected cost savings and potential costs to the public of alternative financial tests considered for proposal under Option 2. In section (c), EPA discusses its analysis of the ability of the alternative tests to screen out bankruptcies.
For this proposal, EPA sought to estimate the overall cost to the public from potential industry defaults that could occur absent the rule, versus the potential cost to industry under a rule without any financial test provisions (Option 1). All quantitative analyses conducted in relation to financial tests are more thoroughly described within the “Background Information Document for Financial Test Options Analysis for Hardrock Mining Industry under CERCLA § 108(b).”
For purposes of analysis EPA adopted several assumptions. At the time of these analyses, estimates were not yet available regarding the amounts of the financial responsibility that individual companies would be obligated to cover under this rule. Therefore, in order to facilitate necessary analyses of options for a financial test, EPA assumed an across-the-board obligation amount for all companies (both at $50 million, as well as $200 million respectively).
The Agency's analyses puts the annualized response costs for public taxpayers from bankruptcies and defaults at $1.22 billion in the absence of any CERCLA § 108(b) rule for the hardrock mining industry. EPA also calculated that in order to eliminate such costs borne by the public to the maximum extent possible, requiring financial responsibility (absent a financial test) would result in additional annualized costs to industry of approximately $488 million.
EPA evaluated the No Test and a range of alternative Financial Test options, incorporating a variety of financial metrics, to assess the ability of these tests and metrics to predict the likelihood of bankruptcy and ensure that sufficient funds are available to meet a company's ongoing environmental commitments. The Agency evaluated all candidate hardrock mining firms for which financial information was available against a variety of financial test options, including tests promulgated under other Federal statutes such as RCRA, and two ratings-based options designed by EPA (referred to as the Investment Grade and Higher-than-Investment-Grade Rating Tests).
The least sensitive of the options considered looked at using a test based solely on Investment Grade credit ratings. Under this test option, all companies with a rating of BBB- or better qualify to self-insure 100 percent of their financial responsibility obligations under the rule.
EPA also developed a more sensitive ratings-based financial test (the Higher-than-Investment-Grade Rating Test), which further limits qualification for self-insurance to only those companies with a BBB or better rating. Unlike the
EPA first assessed the relative costs borne by industry to maintain a financial test, or in lieu of doing so, to obtain a third-party instrument (industry's expected cost). EPA also assessed the costs that may be borne by the public in the event a company defaults on its obligations (public's expected default cost).
Results of these analyses indicated that the estimated costs to industry consistently increase, as the conditions of the alternative financial tests become more sensitive and fewer companies qualify to self-insure. As fewer companies are able to pass the test, they are required to pay for third party financial responsibility instruments on the open market, which comes at a cost. Conversely, as alternative financial tests become more sensitive and fewer companies qualify to self-insure, the potential for defaults decreases along with the potential costs to the public associated with such potential defaults.
Under the Investment Grade Ratings Test, EPA's analysis estimates the annualized cost savings to industry at approximately $112.5 million. As a result of allowing the test, the public would in turn experience potential costs in annualized dollars of approximately $19.6 million due to the possibility of a company defaulting in spite of having passed the test. Similarly, estimates for the RCRA Subtitle C Test, reveal marginally lower annualized cost savings to industry of roughly $110.2 million, with the public bearing potential costs from defaults valued at an annualized cost of $16.4 million.
Under a Higher-than-Investment-Grade Rating Test (with and without tangible net worth and U.S. Asset requirements), annualized cost savings to industry range from $75.2 to $90.8 million, respectively. Annualized costs to the public from potential defaults is further diminished to between $10.4 and $12.0 million respectively. By creating a stricter set of requirements, the Higher-than-Investment-Grade Rating Test (with tangible net worth and U.S. Asset provisions) makes it more difficult for companies with border-line investment grade ratings or insufficient assets to qualify for self-insurance. In so doing, this test further reduces the chance of defaults and potential costs to the public precipitated by such defaults, as compared to the other financial tests considered.
The Higher-than-Investment-Grade Rating Test is also the only option designed to carry with it a provision allowing a company to cover only a portion of its obligations depending on its current rating. Companies with lower relative ratings (BBB and BBB+) may only self-insure for up to 50 percent of their financial responsibility obligation. Such lower rated companies are not only at greater risk of default, but may also enter into default at a faster pace than companies rated at A or better, based on probability of default estimates for companies in different ratings tranches as seen in historical default studies done by NRSROs. Consequently, this tailored feature of the Higher-than-Investment-Grade Rating Test helps to further diminish the potential costs to the public relative to other financial tests, while still allowing some level of self-insurance in recognition of the creditworthiness of companies with investment grade ratings of BBB or higher.
The Agency endeavored to craft a test that would be able to predict bankruptcy in the hardrock mining industry. To assess both the no test proposal and that of the financial test options in this respect, the Agency collected as much financial information as possible for each of 3 years proceeding identified bankruptcies that had historically occurred among hardrock mining companies. This data was matched with bankruptcies in the industry identified over a 35-year period spanning 1980 to 2015, resulting in a sample of 25 unique occurrences of bankruptcies in this industry for which data is available. The financial data for each of these bankruptcies were then used to assess whether any of these companies would have been capable of passing any of the alternative tests, in each of the 3 years before entering bankruptcy. Of the tests considered, it was the Higher-than-Investment-Grade Rating Test (with Tangible Net Worth and U.S. Asset thresholds) that performed best in disqualifying companies from passing the test during the three-year period before they ultimately went bankrupt.
Indeed, the Agency's analysis shows that of the 25 hardrock mining bankruptcies for which data were available, the proposed test would have completely screened out 24 of the 25 companies at least three years in advance of bankruptcy. However, even in the case of the one company that the test did not screen out, the Higher-than-Investment-Grade Rating Test succeeded in restricting the level of self-insurance for which they qualified to just fifty percent of its financial responsibility obligations (instead of 100 percent). This resulted from the hybrid feature of the proposed Higher-than-Investment-Grade Rating Test. This offers evidence of the effectiveness of the hybrid approach included in the proposed test in meeting its objective of reducing the exposure to unfunded costs (by fifty percent) for the subset of companies with higher expected bankruptcy rates and ratings below that of an A rating.
Further, since a BBB rating forms the minimum basis for whether a company can qualify for any self-insurance of their financial responsibility obligation, EPA conducted further analyses to evaluate this ratings threshold more specifically. In particular, the Agency sought to assess fluctuations in BBB ratings in relation to previous bankruptcies in the hardrock mining industry. By looking at the historical record of rating shifts below the BBB threshold, the Agency sought to obtain perspective on how often BBB-rated companies experienced ratings downgrades, how susceptible companies were to receiving speculative-grade ratings after previously having been rated BBB, and how quickly they may have entered bankruptcy subsequent to their ratings having dropped to below BBB.
To assess these questions, EPA collected data on 102 hardrock mining companies that were rated by S&P at least once between 1984 and 2010. These companies reflected both hardrock mining companies (targets), and parents of hardrock mining companies (parents) who might ultimately be in a position to provide a corporate guarantee for their subsidiaries' obligations. The inclusion of parent companies within the scope of these analyses furthermore supplemented the Agency's analysis where hardrock mining target company data were unavailable.
Based on the data available from the 26-year sample period, the Agency's
What these results suggest are that relatively few bankruptcies were shown to have occurred for companies rated at BBB. The results also suggest that while ratings fluctuations do occur, such fluctuations generally do not signal an unfailing decline towards bankruptcy. Thirdly, they suggest that when a company that has been rated at investment grade does experience a ratings decline and ultimately defaults, this process is likely to take one or more years for such relatively solid enterprises to enter into bankruptcy. In such instances, the proposed annual Higher-than-Investment Grade Rating Test (combined with RA notification requirements when a company's qualification for the financial test ceases) will alert regulators as to the company's inability to pass the Higher-than-Investment-Grade Rating Test. Therefore, it appears that establishing the cutoff for passing the proposed test at a rating of BBB or above is well justified. Setting the ratings threshold at BBB, prevents companies with ratings of BBB- or below from passing the Higher-than-Investment-Grade Rating Test. This is designed to help ensure that there is sufficient time for the Agency to intercede and enforce the test requirements should a company's rating begin to decline.
EPA is proposing two options—to not allow a financial test (Option 1—preferred option), and to allow a “Higher-than-Investment-Grade Rating Test” (Option 2). EPA believes that not allowing a financial test would best avoid undue costs to the Government and to the public from unsecured environmental obligations that companies may be unable to cover when they go into default or bankruptcy, and that it would eliminate administrative burden upon the Agency associated with the review and verification of financial statements and attestations from financial test submissions.
Alternatively, the “Higher-than-Investment-Grade Rating Test” is being proposed, as it was the best financial test, from among those considered, at providing cost savings to industry while limiting the risks to the Government and the public. The Higher-than-Investment-Grade Rating Test was selected as the least risky option for the co-proposal, relative to the other tests considered, because it results in the lowest expected potential costs that may be borne by the Government, while offering significant cost savings to industry. In addition, the Higher-than-Investment-Grade Rating Test performed better than the other tests at predicting which owners or operators may have a higher potential for defaulting on their obligations. Finally, the Higher-than-Investment-Grade Rating Test also takes advantage of publically available credit analyses conducted by independent ratings agencies as a way to help lower administrative burdens on both industry and the Government.
EPA solicits comment on both proposed options.
Under proposed Option 2, which would allow a financial test, EPA also is proposing to allow owners and operators to demonstrate financial responsibility by obtaining a written corporate guarantee from another firm that meets the financial test requirements. The corporate guarantee serves as a contract through which a related firm guarantees to third-party CERCLA claimants that it will make payment for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages as provided in the guarantee.
The Agency would allow guarantees from the direct or higher-tier parent corporation of the owner or operator, a firm owned by the same parent corporation as the owner or operator, or a firm with a substantial business relationship with the owner or operator. These potential guarantors are the same as those allowed to provide guarantees under the RCRA Subtitle C Closure and Post-closure financial assurance and third-party liability regulations.
Initially, under the RCRA Subtitle C financial assurance requirements for closure and post-closure care, EPA allowed for guarantees provided only by immediate corporate parents believing that that relationship between the owner operator and the guarantor would aid in the enforceability of the guarantee and its strength. Further, EPA adopted a definition of “parent corporation” to ensure the relationship was close and direct.
However, EPA received several comments on the July 11, 1986 interim final rule that urged EPA to allow non-parent firms to provide guarantees. EPA analyzed the validity and enforceability of guarantee contracts by non-parent firms and decided to authorize the guarantees provided by “sibling” firms (firm whose parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator) and firms with a substantial business relationship with the owner or operator in the third party liability regulations provided they were able to provide certain additional information.
For the demonstration of sufficient consideration for the contract if the guarantor has a substantial business relationship with the owner or operator, the guarantor must describe the substantial business relationship in a way that would meet the proposed definition. EPA is proposing the same definition of substantial business relationship as used in the RCRA Subtitle C financial assurance program which recognizes that no single legal definition exists of what constitutes a business relationship between two firms that would justify upholding a guarantee between them and that such a determination would depend upon the application of the laws of the States of the involved parties. The proposed definition of substantial business relationship is “the extent of a business relationship necessary under applicable State law to make a guarantee contract issued incident to that relationship valid and enforceable. A “substantial business relationship” must arise from a pattern of recent or ongoing business transactions, in addition to the guarantee itself, such that a currently existing business relationship between the guarantor and the owner or operator is demonstrated to the satisfaction of the Administrator.”
In addition, if the guarantor's parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator or if the guarantor is a firm with a “substantial business relationship” with the owner or operator the letter from the guarantor's CFO would have to describe the value received in consideration of the guarantee. In some cases, preexisting business relationships, no matter how substantial, will be insufficient by themselves to demonstrate consideration because they will not have been bargained for to induce the promise in the guarantee contract. For this reason, these guarantors must also describe the consideration for the contract in the letter from their chief financial officer. As mentioned earlier, these requirements are the same as under the RCRA Subtitle C financial assurance closure post-closure and third-party liability financial assurance programs. These requirements would be familiar to the regulated community and the regulators familiar with RCRA financial assurance and were based on analysis to ensure the enforceability of the contract.
Furthermore, EPA would allow a guarantee from a non-U.S. guarantor that meets the financial test requirements outlined in the proposed regulations provided the guarantor also has identified a registered agent for service of process in the state in which the facility covered by the guarantee is located and in the state in which it has its principal place of business. This requirement is identical to that required in the RCRA third party liability regulations and was required to ensure a non-US guarantor be subject to enforcement proceedings in the U.S. The function of the agents is to accept service of process for the guarantor corporation for legal actions in a given state.
The guarantor would be required to provide the same evidence and supporting documentation that the guarantor passes the financial test. In addition, the guarantor would be required to submit a signed copy of the guarantee and comply with the terms in the guarantee. The wording in the guarantee would have to be identical to that specified in § 320.50(f).
In developing the proposed corporate guarantee language EPA looked to the guarantee language used in the RCRA Subtitle C program. Those guarantees were the product of iterative proposals, responses to comment and EPA analysis.
In the proposed CERCLA § 108(b) guarantee, the guarantor would guarantee payment up to the most current CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount required at each facility covered by the guarantee exclusive of any legal defense costs incurred by the guarantor in the same three scenarios for which the other instruments intend to provide financial responsibility (discussed later in this preamble). The value of the guarantee thus is designed to adjust with the value of the CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount. As evidence that the guarantor passes the financial test, the guarantor would be required to submit the letter from its CFO that identifies, for all the facilities for which it is providing a corporate guarantee, the amount of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility covered by the guarantee. This would occur annually or as required by a change in the CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount. The CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amounts covered by the guarantee identified in the CFO letter at each facility would serve as the basis for the value of the guarantee under the proposed guarantee language.
A similar arrangement is used in the RCRA Subtitle C closure post-closure guarantee whereby the value of the guarantee is linked to the current closure and post-closure cost estimates. The RCRA Subtitle C closure and post closure guarantee provides that, if the owner or operator fails to perform closure or post closure care of the facilities covered by the guarantee in accordance with the closure or post-closure plans and other permit or interim status requirements whenever required to do so, “the guarantor shall do so or establish a trust fund as specified in subpart H of 40 CFR part 264 or 265, as applicable, in the name of [owner or operator] in the amount of the current closure or post-closure cost estimates as specified in subpart H of 40 CFR parts 264 and 265. In this way the value of the guarantee adjusts without required amendments or modifications to the guarantee. EPA is proposing that the value of the guarantee similarly adjust to the current CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount.
To help effectuate this intent, the proposed language of the corporate guarantee would require the guarantor to agree to comply with the reporting requirements for guarantors and to report the full amount of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility for
An alternative approach would be to include specific dollar values for each facility in the guarantee itself as the basis of the guarantor's liability. Under this option, the guarantee would have to be amended or modified regularly as the amounts of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility changed and create additional reporting burdens. Further, EPA anticipates that potential guarantors will typically seek to provide a guarantee for the maximum amount allowable under the regulations to realize the maximum cost savings. Nevertheless, EPA requests comment on the proposed arrangement whereby the guarantor's liability is linked to the current CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount and does not require regular amendment of the guarantee as well as the alternative whereby the guarantee would specify specific dollar amount and would require routine amendment.
The proposed language of the corporate guarantee would allow claimants to make claims against the guarantor under three scenarios in addition to the direct action scenario. First, in the event that payment was not made for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with the facility as required in a final court judgment from a Federal court against one of the current owners or operators within thirty days, the guarantor would do so. Secondly, in the event that payment is not made as required in a CERCLA settlement associated with the facility between a current owner or operator and EPA or another Federal government agency, the guarantor would do so. Third, in the event that performance does not occur as required at the facility under a CERCLA unilateral administrative order issued to a current owner or operator by EPA or another Federal agency and for which the owner or operator provided a written statement allowing the guarantee to serve as financial responsibility assuring the work in the order, the guarantor would make payment into a trust fund established pursuant to the order.
The payment scenarios in the proposed guarantee are analogous to those in the other instruments proposed today. Similar documentary requirements are also required for a claimant to receive payment under these three scenarios in the proposed guarantee. Specifically, under the terms of the proposed guarantee, the guarantor would satisfy a third-party CERCLA claim on receipt of specific documents. Claimants seeking satisfaction of a valid final court judgment from a Federal court awarding payment for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with the facility against any of the current owners or operators at the facility that had not been satisfied within thirty days would need to submit the final court judgment itself. In addition, the claimant would need to submit a signed statement from the claimant certifying that the amounts had not been recovered or paid from any other source, including, but not limited to, the owner operator, insurance, judgments, agreements, and other financial responsibility instruments. These documentary payment requirements were selected as it removes EPA from the claims administration process but ensures that a court has determined that payment is due to the party making the claim under CERCLA and that the party has not already recovered or been paid the funds from another source. EPA believes that guarantors will be able to review such objective documentary submissions and determine whether payment should occur under the terms of the guarantee. A similar provision requiring the submission of a valid final court order is required in the RCRA third party liability guarantee (
In the payment scenario where payment was not made as required in a CERCLA settlement associated with the facility between a current owner or operator and EPA or another Federal government agency, Administrator or another Federal agency may make a claim by presenting two documents to the guarantor for payment. The first document would be a written signed statement from the Administrator or another Federal government agency requesting payment from the guarantor on the grounds that payment had not been made as required by a CERCLA settlement associated with the facility and with any of the current owners or operators. The second document is the signed statement from the claimant certifying that these amounts have not been recovered or paid from any other source, including, but not limited to, the owner operator, insurance, judgments, agreements, and other financial responsibility instruments.
In the payment scenario where performance at the facility does not occur as required under a CERCLA unilateral administrative order issued to a current owner or operator, the Administrator or another Federal agency may make a claim by presenting a similar set of two documents as described earlier in the settlement scenario to the guarantor for payment. Specifically, the first document required to make a claim in this scenario under the terms of the proposed guarantee would be a written signed statement from the Administrator or other Federal government agency requesting payment from the Guarantor into a trust fund established pursuant to a CERCLA unilateral administrative order on the grounds that performance at the facility had not occurred as required by a CERCLA administrative order issued to a current owner or operator. The second document that would be required to make a claim under this scenario would be a signed statement from the claimant certifying that these amounts have not been recovered or paid from any other source, including, but not limited to, the owner operator, insurance, judgments, agreements, and other financial responsibility instruments.
EPA believes, similar to the case of the letter of credit issued in favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants, the trust fund and the surety bond, that in instances where the claimant is a Federal government agency acting pursuant to delegated CERCLA authority a simpler set of documentary requirements are appropriate. EPA believes the relatively simple requirements of signed statements from EPA or another Federal agency acting pursuant to delegated CERCLA authority will streamline the claims
In addition to the three defined payment scenarios, the guarantor could also be subject to direct action under CERCLA § 108(c)(2). Specifically, the proposed terms of the guarantee include an explicit acknowledgement that in the case of a release or threatened release of (a) hazardous substance(s) from a facility covered by the guarantee, any claim authorized by § 107 or § 111 of CERCLA may be asserted directly against the guarantor as provided by CERCLA § 108(c). Further, the proposed terms of the guarantee require that the guarantor consents to suit with respect to these claims subject to the limitations in CERCLA § 108(d) and acknowledge that the guarantor would be entitled to the rights and defenses provided to guarantors by the statute in § 108(c). Finally, under the proposed language of the guarantee, the guarantor would agree to provide notice of any claims and payments resulting from a direct action to the Administrator. EPA believes this notification requirement is valuable as the owner operator may not be around to provide such a notice of claims and payments in a direct action scenario yet EPA wishes to remain informed of claims against the instrument and of the value of the financial responsibility.
The proposed language of the guarantee would also explicitly specify that the limit of the guarantor's liability under the guarantee would be exclusive of legal defense costs incurred by the guarantor. A similar provision is being proposed for insurer and surety liability today. To the maximum extent possible, EPA would like the value of the financial responsibility be preserved for the payment of valid third-party CERCLA claims. EPA requests comment on this proposed provision.
The proposed language of the CERCLA § 108(b) corporate guarantee also includes several other notification requirements. First, under the proposed language, the guarantor would agree that if, at any time before the termination of the guarantee, the guarantor fails to meet the financial test criteria, guarantor shall send within ninety days, by certified mail, notice to the Administrator and to the owner or operator that he intends to provide alternate financial responsibility as specified in Subpart C of 40 CFR part 320 in the name of the owner or operator. A similar provision is also employed in the RCRA Subtitle C closure post closure and third-party liability guarantee. The provision would provide EPA notice that the guarantee no longer passes the financial test and an acknowledgment from the guarantor that he intends to provide alternate financial responsibility as required under the terms of the guarantee should the owner or operator fail to do so. EPA believes it is important for the Agency to receive prompt notice of the guarantor's inability to continue to pass the financial test as the guarantor's financial strength is foundational to the efficacy of the guarantee. Further, EPA believes that it is not just consistent with past precedent but important that the guarantor be responsible for obtaining alternate financial responsibility in these instances. The proposed provision helps limit the risk that, in instances when a guarantor no longer passes the financial test, the facility will be left without alternate financial responsibility.
Likewise, the proposed terms of the guarantee would require the guarantor to agree that within thirty days after being notified by the Administrator of a determination that the guarantor no longer meets the financial test criteria or that he is disallowed from continuing as a guarantor, the owner or operator would be required to establish alternate financial responsibility as specified in Subpart C of 40 CFR part 320, as applicable, in the name of the owner or operator unless the owner or operator had done so. This provision serves the same intent as the provision described earlier—that the guarantor be responsible for obtaining alternate financial responsibility in an instance where the guarantor notices EPA that it no longer passes the financial test. The provision helps limit the risk that, in instances when a guarantor no longer passes the financial test, the facility will be left without alternate financial responsibility. This would be a very similar requirement to those used in the RCRA Subtitle C corporate guarantees so the regulated community should be familiar with the provision.
Under the proposed terms of the guarantee the guarantor would also be required to notify the Administrator by certified mail, of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under Title 11 U.S.C. (Bankruptcy), naming the guarantor as debtor, within ten days after commencement of the proceeding. This provision is also required in both the RCRA Subtitle C closure post closure and third-party liability guarantees. EPA recognizes the value of this notification provision and proposes its inclusion to the CERCLA § 108(b) guarantee in order for EPA to be promptly notified of such indicators of the guarantor's financial distress.
Finally, under the proposed terms of the guarantee, the guarantor would need to send a notice by certified mail to the Administrator and to the owner operator of its intent to terminate the guarantee. The intent of this provision is to provide notice to the Administrator and the owner operator that the guarantor wishes to cease providing a guarantee on behalf of the owner operator. Such a provision helps ensure continuity of financial responsibility coverage.
As described earlier, under the proposed terms of the guarantee, the guarantor would need to send a notice by certified mail to the Administrator and to the owner operator of its intent to terminate the guarantee. The corporate guarantee would remain in force and may not be terminated unless and until the owner or operator obtains, and the Administrator approves alternate financial responsibility. If the owner or operator failed to provide alternate financial responsibility as specified in the regulations and obtain the written approval of such alternate financial responsibility from the Administrator within ninety days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the Administrator of a notice of termination of the corporate guarantee from the guarantor, the guarantor would be required, under the terms of the guarantee, to provide such alternative financial responsibility in the name of the owner or operator. This provision would ensure the continuity of financial responsibility and is similar to that required for the other instruments. However, in the case of the guarantee, unlike the other instruments, the guarantor would not necessarily need to fund a trust fund. The guarantor could choose from the range of acceptable financial responsibility instruments when obtaining a financial responsibility mechanism on behalf of the owner or operator. This provision, and the similar provisions for other proposed instruments, as well as alternatives are discussed in more depth in the preamble section headed `issuer cancellation provisions.'
In the case of corporations incorporated in the United States, a guarantee would only be able to be used
For non-US corporate guarantors a guarantee would be able to be used to satisfy the CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility requirements only if the Attorney General or Insurance commissioner of each state in which a facility covered by this guarantee is located and the state in which the guarantor corporation has its principal place of business has submitted a written statement to EPA that a guarantee executed as described in the regulations and §§ 320.44 and 320.50(f) is a legally valid and enforceable obligation in that State.
These requirements for written statements from state Attorneys General and Insurance Commissioners are similarly used in the RCRA Subtitle I Underground Storage Tank financial responsibility regulations and the RCRA Subtitle C third-party liability regulations. The reason for the requirements is that EPA is concerned that guarantors may be subject to states insurance laws.
An owner or operator would be able to satisfy the proposed CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility requirements by establishing a trust fund in accordance with the proposed requirements including the proposed required wording. Funds transferred to the trust fund by the owners and operators or any letters of credit held by the trust would be held in the trust for the purpose of paying valid third-party CERCLA claims in certain circumstances identified in the trust agreement. In this way, the trust fund acts as a means of self-insurance whereby the owner and operator set aside funds to pay future claims which otherwise may not be satisfied at such a future date.
The owner or operator would be required to submit an originally signed duplicate of the trust agreement to the Administrator. This is a similar reporting requirement to those under EPA's RCRA Subtitle C financial assurance regulations and aids in the evaluation of compliance. The Agency does not anticipate this to be a significant burden to owners and operators. The trustee would be required to be an entity that has the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and examined by a Federal or state agency. This requirement is the same as that under the RCRA Subtitle C financial assurance program, which EPA required in order to establish a minimal level of reliability and security for trustee institutions managing trust funds under the Agency's financial assurance regulations (see 46 FR 2824, January 12, 1981). EPA considered alternative qualifications for trust providers but is proposing to utilize those that EPA has found to work well under the RCRA Subtitle C program. In making this decision, EPA considered the impact on the potential number of trustees and the administrative burden on EPA of reviewing additional qualifications. For more information on the consideration of alternative provider qualifications, please see the background document on instrument provider qualifications.
The wording of the trust agreement would be required to be identical to the wording specified in § 320.50(a)(1), and the trust agreement would be required to be accompanied by a formal certification of acknowledgment (for example, see § 320.50(a)(2)). As discussed in the introduction to Subpart C of the preamble “Available Financial Responsibility Instruments” EPA believes there are significant benefits to standardized wording. Namely, a standardized trust agreement reduces the administrative burden of reviewing the wide range of possible trust agreement wording that may otherwise be employed and ensures uniform integration with the Superfund program and enforcement of the CERCLA § 108(b) instruments nationwide. The trust agreement would be required to be accompanied by a formal certificate of acknowledgment. The language of the acknowledgment would be expected to vary by state to accommodate individual state requirements but the intent would be to ensure the validity and authenticity of the signatures on the trust agreement. This requirement exists for trust agreements in other EPA financial responsibility programs,
Under the proposed regulations, Schedule A of the trust agreement, which would identify the facilities covered by the trust agreement and their EPA Identification Numbers, names, addresses, current owners and operators, and the current financial responsibility amount, or portions thereof, for which financial responsibility is being demonstrated by the trust agreement, would have to be updated within sixty days of a change in the amount of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility at a facility covered by the agreement. Maintaining the accuracy of the information in Schedule A, including the current amount of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility the trust fund is covering at each facility, would be important to ensure the trustee would have an accurate accounting of the value of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility for each facility covered. This amount would serve as an upper bound for the value of payments made for valid third-party CERCLA claims associated with any given facility.
Payments by the owner or operator into the trust fund would be required so that the value of the trust fund would be at least as great as the required CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount. For existing facilities subject to this proposed rule, these payments would be made by the owner or operator in accordance with
EPA is aware that four years is shorter than the pay-in period provided by some EPA financial assurance programs. However, under the proposed regulations owners and operators would be allowed to use a combination of instruments to demonstrate the required CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount. Owners and operators would thus be able to simulate a longer trust fund pay-in period by combining the trust fund with another appropriate instrument. The trust fund could be funded over a longer period of time with the unfunded portion of the trust provided by a separate instrument. EPA believes this would help relieve any burdens that may be encountered because of the relatively short pay-in period required by the statute.
For new facilities, owners and operators would also be required to make payments into the trust fund so that the value of the trust fund is at least as great as the required CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount. However, in these cases there would not be a pay-in period as is provided for existing facilities by the four-year implementation period in the statute. For this first CERCLA § 108(b) rule, EPA expects that new hardrock mining facilities would likely have lower financial responsibility amounts as their footprint would be smaller initially and then grow over time, obviating the need for a pay-in period. EPA requests comment on the need for a pay in period for new facilities. EPA is specifically interested in comments as to the appropriate length of a pay-in period that could be provided for new facilities.
In developing required trust agreement language for this proposed rule, EPA first looked to the trust agreement language used in the RCRA Subtitle C financial assurance program. The basic terms and conditions of the RCRA Subtitle C trust agreement were defined by EPA in close consultation with trust experts at the American Banking Association and legal practitioners in the late 1970s and early 1980s. Additionally, the trust agreement was published for public comment multiple times. The required wordings of the RCRA trust agreements have served as templates adopted by other financial responsibility programs, both within EPA and across many States. This proposal includes proposed trust agreement language primarily modified to suit the needs of the proposed CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility program. The most significant aspects of the proposed trust agreement are discussed in following sections. Please also see the background document “Potential Requirements for Insurance, Surety Bonds, Letters of Credit and Trust Agreements and Standby Trust Agreements under CERCLA § 108(b)” that discusses potential instrument specifications and alternatives considered for more information on the proposed trust agreement specifications.
The proposed trust agreement language specifies that the trust fund is established for the benefit of any and all parties with valid third-party CERCLA claims against the grantor or other current owners and operators arising from the operation of the facilities covered by the agreement. EPA elected to propose such a beneficiary specification as the Agency believes it provides adequate flexibility to accommodate the various payment scenarios envisioned by the trust agreement and the CERCLA § 108(b) regulations. The RCRA Subtitle C closure post-closure trust agreement specifies EPA as beneficiary. However, due to the potential for multiple claimants including, but not limited to, EPA, the Agency considered such an arrangement sub-optimal. In such an arrangement, EPA would need to review all claims and assess the merits of the claims and direct payment from the trust fund accordingly. As discussed earlier in the letter of credit section, there are several draw backs to EPA administering the claims process. These draw backs include the redirection of Superfund resources to claims administration activities and away from cleanups or other programmatic priorities, frustrating the intent of the direct action provision and the potential for EPA to be in the awkward position of administering a claims process in which it is a potential claimant.
As a result, EPA elected a variation of the beneficiary specification employed in the RCRA Subtitle C third-party liability program that identifies “any and all third parties injured or damaged by [sudden and/or non-sudden] accidental occurrences arising from operation of the facility(ies) covered by” the trust agreement as beneficiaries. EPA believes that the proposed beneficiary specification provides adequate flexibility in that parties that obtain final court judgments or have other valid third-party CERCLA claims against one of the current owners or operators for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, or natural resource damages associated with the facility could make a claim without having to be specifically named in the trust agreement (see discussion of claims against the trust fund in following sections). At the same time, EPA intends that the beneficiary language combined with the payment instructions in the trust agreement will provide adequate clarity to trustees as to when to make payment from the trust fund. The EPA requests comments on the proposed specification of the beneficiary of the CERCLA § 108(b) trust agreement.
Claims against the trust fund could be made by parties with valid third-party claims for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages against one of the current owners or operators at the facility.
Under the proposed regulations, the trust would be available to claimants that obtain a final court judgment from a Federal court against any of the current owners or operators at the facility awarding CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with the facility should payment not occur as required by the judgment within thirty days. Under the proposed terms of the trust, the claimant would need to present the valid final court judgment to the trustee. The judgment would have to be dated at least thirty days earlier and be accompanied by an additional signed statement from the claimant certifying that the amounts had not been recovered or paid from any other source, including, but not limited to, the owner operator, insurance, judgments, agreements, and other financial responsibility instruments. The two proposed documentary requirements are being proposed with the intent of ensuring that a court has awarded such payment of CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages, the owner operator had thirty days to make
Under the proposed regulations, the trust would also provide for payment as required in a CERCLA settlement associated with the facility between a current owner operator and the EPA or another Federal agency if payment had not been made. In this scenario, to make a claim, the Administrator or other Federal agency would have to present two documents: (1) A written signed statement requesting payment from the trust fund on the grounds that payment had not been made as required by a CERCLA settlement associated with the facility and with any of the current owners or operators; and (2) a signed statement certifying that the amounts had not been recovered or paid from any other source, including, but not limited to, the owner operator, insurance, judgments, agreements, and other financial responsibility instruments.
Finally, under the proposed regulations, the trust fund would also be available to pay into a trust fund established pursuant to a CERCLA unilateral administrative order issued to a current owner or operator by EPA or another Federal agency in the event performance at the facility did not occur as required by the order. The Administrator or other Federal agency would only make such a claim if the owner or operator had provided written consent for the financial responsibility instrument to assure the obligations under the administrative order.
In this scenario, to make a claim, the Administrator or other Federal agency would have to present two documents: (1) A written signed statement requesting payment from the trust fund into a trust fund established pursuant to a CERCLA unilateral administrative order on the grounds that performance at the facility had not occurred as required by a CERCLA administrative order issued to a current owner or operator; and (2) A signed statement certifying that the amounts had not been recovered or paid from any other source, including, but not limited to, the owners or operators, insurance, judgments, agreements, and other financial responsibility instruments.
EPA selected these straightforward certifications as documentary payment conditions because EPA believes that in the instances when the potential claimants are limited to Federal government agencies a more streamlined payment condition is optimal to limit the administrative burden on the trustee. This is a similar documentary payment condition to that proposed for the letter of credit issued in favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants and the surety bond. EPA considered alternative documentary requirements for the claims scenarios limited to Federal claimants but did not believe they added additional benefit and may burden the trustee with additional administrative expenses. For example, the proposed trust agreement could specify the presentation of the CERCLA settlement itself as a requirement for making a claim but the benefits of such a requirement were unclear to EPA. EPA believes that the requirement of signed statements from the Administrator or another Federal agency acting pursuant to delegated CERCLA authority is a clear documentary condition and will require minimal due diligence on the part of trustees. EPA requests comment on the proposed documentary requirements for making a claim against a CERCLA § 108(b) trust fund.
In addition to the three payment scenarios, like all CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility instruments, the direct action provision in CERCLA § 108(c)(2) could come into play at facilities where a trust fund is the financial responsibility instrument. EPA is proposing trust agreement language that acknowledges that cause of action in the trust agreement itself.
In discussions with representatives of the trust industry, representatives expressed some concern about the direct action provision. Specifically, representatives suggested that interpreting “guarantor” as defined in CERCLA §§ 101(13) and 108(c)(2) to include a trustee of a CERCLA § 108(b) trust fund would greatly reduce the willingness of trust institutions to offer such services. EPA believes that in the CERCLA § 108(b) context, whereby a trust fund is funded by the owner or operator for the purposes of satisfying future valid third-party CERCLA claims, such an interpretation would be inappropriate. The trustee is simply providing administrative and fiduciary services over the funds set aside by the owner or operator and is not providing the instrument itself. EPA believes a more appropriate reading is that the trust fund itself is the guarantor as it provides for the funds set aside by the owner or operator to be available to third-parties with valid CERCLA claims.
As a result, the proposed trust agreement language expressly provides that in the case of a release or threatened release of (a) hazardous substance(s) from a facility covered by the agreement, any claim authorized by §§ 107 or 111 of CERCLA could be asserted directly against the trust fund as provided by CERCLA § 108(c)(2) subject to the limitations in CERCLA § 108(d). The proposed language of the agreement goes on to state that the trust fund shall be entitled to all rights and defenses provided to guarantors by CERCLA § 108(c) and that the trust fund itself is available for paying and defending claims in those instances.
Further, the proposed trust agreement language further clarifies the intent of the trust agreement with respect to direct action under section 3 of the agreement that deals with establishment of the fund. The relevant proposed wording in section 3 states that “The Grantor and Trustee do not intend for the Trustee to qualify as a “guarantor” as that term is used in CERCLA §§ 101(13) and 108(c)(2), and therefore intend that the Trustee will not be subject to a direct action by Trustee's agreement to act as Trustee for the Fund. The Grantor and Trustee intend for the Fund to qualify as a “guarantor” as that term is used in CERCLA §§ 101(13) and 108(c)(2), and therefore intend that only the Fund will be subject to any direct action brought pursuant to CERCLA § 108(c)(2).”
EPA believes that clearly specifying the Agency's intent that the trust fund itself, not the trustee, be the subject of any direct actions is optimal. Such an approach is more consistent with the role the two entities serve and does not suggest that trust institutions would be put in the unfamiliar and potentially unwelcome position of being sued under CERCLA. The downside to this arrangement is that the trust fund could incur significant legal expenses under a direct action scenario that may reduce the value of the trust fund available to make payment for valid third-party CERCLA claims. EPA has proposed to specify that trust expenses generally be paid by the owner operator that established the trust fund (the grantor) to reduce the impact of trustee expenses on the value of the financial responsibility. However, by its very nature, in a direct action scenario, the owner operator is unlikely to be available or able to pay such expenses and thus such expenses may be paid from the trust fund itself. This is a limitation of the proposed arrangement
The proposed trust agreement language also provides additional direction to the trustee with respect to when and how claims should be satisfied from the trust fund. Specifically, the proposed trust agreement specifies that claims be paid on a first come first serve basis. Additionally, the proposed trust agreement language also clarifies that in the event of simultaneous valid claims that exceed the value of the fund, the trustee would pay the claimants a pro rata share of their claim determined by the size of each valid claim. This language was included to reduce the potential uncertainty and ambiguity a trustee may face in the event multiple claims against the trust fund occur that exceed the value of the fund. Finally, the proposed language of the trust agreement specifies that payments for a claim should not exceed the value of the CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility for that facility provided by the trust fund which would be identified and updated in schedule A. The language is intended to provide added clarity that, if the trust agreement covers multiple facilities, claims against the fund associated with one facility should not exceed the value of the CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility for that facility provided by the trust fund. EPA believes that such facility-specific sub-limits are important to the extent multiple facilities are covered by one trust agreement as other current owners and operators at the facilities, in addition to the grantor, may have all contributed funds but may not be owner operators at all the facilities covered by the agreement.
Ambiguity in instances where a trustee may have to decide how much and if to make payment was a concern EPA heard from representatives of the banking community. EPA intends the proposed trust agreement language to reduce such uncertainty, but requests comment as to other language or specifications that might provide added clarity and provide trustees greater certainty.
As discussed in the letter of credit section of the preamble, this proposed trust agreement expressly authorizes and anticipates that a trustee may hold a CERCLA § 108(b) letter of credit for the purposes of drawing on the letter of credit to make payments to third-parties with valid CERCLA claims as provided by the trust agreement. EPA has included language in whereas clauses, section 4 of the trust dealing with payment from the fund, section 5 dealing with payments comprising the fund, section 6 dealing with trustee management, section 8 dealing with the express powers of the trustee, and section 10 dealing with annual valuations providing for and accounting for this possible role of the trustee. The intent of the language is to ensure that a trustee will be able to hold, account for, and draw upon, as necessary, a CERCLA § 108(b) letter of credit issued in favor of the trustee. As discussed in the letter of credit section, EPA believes this a worthwhile feature to propose based on input from members of the banking community that suggested a trustee may be better suited to manage the CERCLA § 108(b) claims process than an institution issuing a letter of credit. EPA requests comments on other provisions that could be included in the trust agreement that may provide further clarity of the trustee's ability to hold and draw on the letter of credit as provided for in the terms of the trust agreement.
In addition to the trust providing the trustee the authority to draw on the letter of credit to satisfy valid third-party CERCLA claims brought to the trust fund, under the proposed trust agreement, the trustee would also have the responsibility to draw on the letter of credit in order to maintain continuity of coverage. Specifically, the proposed trust agreement language provides that in the event of receipt of a notice of a decision not to extend the letter of credit from an institution issuing a letter of credit held by the trust fund, the trustee shall draw on the letter of credit and deposit any unused portion of the credit into the trust fund if the Administrator informs the Trustee that the owner operator did not establish alternate financial responsibility and obtain written approval of such alternate financial responsibility from the Administrator within the time frame provided by the regulations. The trust agreement would specify that this draw must occur prior to the expiration of the letter of credit. EPA believes this a necessary provision as in the case of a letter of credit issued in favor of a CERCLA § 108(b) trust fund trustee, EPA would not be authorized to draw on the letter of credit. EPA requests comment on this proposed trust agreement language.
In specifying the trustee's responsibilities with respect to trust management, EPA looked to the “prudent investor” standard which has become prevalent in trust law and practice. Specifically, the proposed language of the trust agreement reads as follows: “In investing, reinvesting, exchanging, selling, and managing the Fund, the Trustee shall discharge its duties with respect to the trust fund with undivided loyalty and solely in the interest of the beneficiaries and with the reasonable care, skill, and caution of a prudent investor, in light of the purposes, terms, distribution requirements, and other circumstances of the trust.” However, while EPA is proposing the prudent investor rule form the basis of the instruction to the trustee, the Agency is proposing a modified prudent investor standard. Specifically, the proposed trust agreement language would prohibit the trustee from acquiring or holding securities or other obligations of the grantor, or any other current owner or operator of the facilities, or any of their affiliates as defined in the Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended, Title 15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a) unless they are securities or other obligations of the Federal or a state government. This provision is similar to language used in other EPA financial assurance programs including the RCRA Subtitle C Closure Post-closure and third-party liability programs. The intent of the modification to the prudent investor rule is to restrict investments in assets whose performance may be correlated with the financial performance of the owners and operators at the facility. A further proposed modification to the prudent investor standard employed in the proposed trust agreement is an explicit authorization that the trustee may hold and draw upon standby letters of credit as specified in 40 CFR 320.40. EPA intends for the trustee management instructions in the trust agreement be consistent with current trust practice and requests comment on the proposed trustee management language in the trust agreement.
The proposed language of the trust agreement also includes a provision that if notified by the Administrator that the trust fund contains amounts in excess of the required CERCLA 108(b) financial responsibility amount, the trustee shall refund to the grantor such amounts in excess of the CERCLA § 108(b) financial
The Administrator would agree to the termination of the trust when the owner or operator substituted alternate financial assurance as specified in the regulations or the Administrator released the owner or operator from the requirements of these regulations in accordance with the proposed release provisions. As the proposed trust is irrevocable,
One similar feature across many of the instruments (surety bond, insurance, letter of credit and corporate guarantee, if allowed) in this proposal are cancellation provisions that include the potential requirement for the instrument provider to fund a standby trust (or in the case of a corporate guarantor, if a corporate guarantee is ultimately provided for, obtain alternate financial responsibility in the name of the owner operator). For the specifics related to cancellation for each instrument please see the instrument specific preamble discussions earlier in this preamble.
In each of the scenarios governing insurance, surety bond, letter of credit and guarantee cancellation, the proposal specifies that the issuer would be liable for the value of the instrument in the event the owner or operator failed to obtain alternate financial responsibility and obtain the Administrator's written approval of the financial responsibility provided within ninety days after receipt of a notice of cancellation from the issuer by the relevant parties. In the case of insurance, letter of credit or surety bond, the issuer would be liable to fund the accompanying standby trust to the value of the instrument. In the instance of a guarantee, if allowed, the guarantor would be required to provide alternate financial responsibility, in accordance with the regulatory requirements, in the name of the owner or operator.
Such cancellation provisions are very similar to provisions in other EPA financial assurance programs for letters of credit, surety bonds and corporate guarantees. EPA is proposing such cancellation provisions to ensure continuity of financial responsibility coverage and provide assurance that funds will be available to EPA and other third party claimants when necessary to pay for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damages incurred by claimants while limiting the implementation burden on EPA.
EPA acknowledges that such a provision may impact providers' appetite to issue instruments in particular for insurance, where there is not past precedent in EPA financial assurance programs of a requirement for the insurer to fund a standby trust. EPA did consider alternatives that may reduce the likelihood the instrument provider would need to make payment and thus may provide greater flexibility but, for the reasons provided in subsequent preamble discussion, believes this proposed approach is the best option available.
One possible alternative would be to specify issuer liability to fund a standby trust only after notice of cancellation by the provider if the owner or operator does not obtain alternate financial responsibility and obtain written approval of such alternate financial responsibility from the Administrator within ninety days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the Administrator of the notice and some additional triggering event had occurred. For example, additional conditions necessary to trigger issuer payment into a trust fund could include bankruptcy of the owner or operator, abandonment of the facility, and/or the issuance of a CERCLA notice letter. These are all indications of potential higher risk at the facility and a potential more imminent need for the financial responsibility. However, EPA is concerned that such criteria alone may not provide adequate assurance funds will be available when necessary to pay valid third-party CERCLA claims. Facilities owned or operated by non-bankrupt companies and non-abandoned facilities can present risks and require Superfund actions or create natural resource damages for which the owner operator may not be able to pay. Further, EPA was told by potential providers of CERCLA § 108(b) instruments that the credit profile of the owner or operator is an important consideration of theirs. If cancellation occurred when the owner operator was in marked financial decline, the facility may end up abandoned and the company bankrupt before alternate financial responsibility could be obtained, highlighting the risk of allowing cancellation of the financial responsibility instrument in a wide range of scenarios without a requirement to fund a standby trust. The inclusion of a CERCLA notice letter as another condition that would trigger issuer responsibility to fund a standby trust would provide some added assurance. However, this would potentially require EPA to perform a preliminary assessment/site investigation to assess the site which in many cases would not be possible in the 120-day notice of cancellation period. As EPA is not necessarily the primary regulator or permitting authority at these facilities, EPA may not have the same level of understanding of the conditions and risks at the facilities as it does in other EPA financial assurance programs. Beyond just practical timing and feasibility concerns, such an approach would raise serious resource concerns for the Superfund program. Such a provision may require the Superfund program to shift its resources from its priority sites to facilities where financial responsibility maintenance was in question. If EPA did not or could not take action to investigate the facility's condition to determine whether a notice letter should be issued, financial responsibility coverage could lapse in a broader range of circumstances that may ultimately be optimal and financial responsibility may not be available if a CERCLA action was necessary.
EPA also considered a notification of a release of a hazardous substance at the facility to the National Response Center as required under CERCLA § 103(a) as a
EPA requests comment, however, on any additional criteria (e.g. bankruptcy, abandonment of the facility), for requiring the issuer to fund the standby trust beyond the requirements previously discussed—the owner operator does not obtain alternate financial responsibility; and obtain written approval of such alternate financial responsibility from the Administrator within ninety days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the Administrator of the notice. EPA is interested in whether such additional criteria may be optimal for certain instruments, despite reducing the level of assurance provided that financial responsibility will be available to pay valid third-party CERCLA claims. Further, EPA is interested in other objective, readily identifiable supplemental criteria that EPA could include if such an option was ultimately pursued.
Another option EPA considered to address the potential lapse in coverage that may result from the issuer of a financial responsibility instrument cancelling the instrument is to specify non-cancellation triggering events. Under such an option, cancellation of the instrument could not occur after notice of cancellation by the provider if: (1) The owner operator does not obtain alternate financial responsibility and obtain written approval of such alternate financial responsibility from the Administrator within ninety days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the Administrator of the notice of cancellation, and (2) some additional triggering event had occurred. A further refinement to such an option would be to also restrict the scenarios in which cancellation can occur. EPA's RCRA Subtitle C closure and post-closure insurance regulations offer an example. Those regulations do not require the establishment of a standby trust alongside insurance. Rather, the provider is only permitted to cancel the policy in instances where the owner and operator failed to pay the premium and the provider gave at least 120 days advance notice. Further, cancellation, termination or failure to renew the policy may not occur in the event of one of several “triggering events.” Specifically, the RCRA Subtitle C closure insurance regulations state that cancellation, termination, or failure to renew may not occur and the policy will remain in full force and effect in the event that on or before the date of expiration: (1) The Administrator deems the facility abandoned; (2) the permit is terminated or revoked or a new permit is denied; (3) closure is ordered by the Administrator or a U.S. district court or other Federal court; (4) the owner or operator is named as debtor in a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under Title 11 U.S.C (Bankruptcy); or (5) the premium due is paid.
Such a series of non-cancellation provision was one alternative to a requirement to fund a standby trust that EPA considered. Such an option could potentially be used for all instruments. However, the non-cancellation triggering events used in the RCRA Subtitle C closure post-closure would not all be applicable in the instance of the proposed CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility program which does not compliment a broader permitting program. For example, two of the triggering events (the termination, revocation or denial of a permit and the Administrator ordering closure) are not applicable here as EPA does not have permitting authority over these facilities.
Additional triggering events similar to those identified (e.g. issuance of a CERCLA notice letter, notification of a release at the facility) could bolster such a provision to lower the likelihood that financial responsibility was not available when needed to pay valid third-party CERCLA claims. However, these supplemental criteria would present the same limitations, implementation challenges and resource issues as they would in the option where they would be additional triggers for issuer liability to fund a trust fund. Moreover, EPA was also concerned that such an arrangement may lead to scenarios whereby instruments may need to remain in effect and non-cancellable for many years. For example, it could take several years before a claimant could obtain a judgment for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages that may prompt a claim against the instrument. Based on conversations with instrument providers, EPA believes multi-year non-cancellation periods would likely be unpalatable to instrument providers. This concern is substantiated by past EPA experience. In the development of the RCRA Subtitle C closure and post-closure financial assurance programs EPA proposed that instruments would not be able to be terminated when a compliance procedure was pending. Specifically, after notice of intent to cancel or terminate an instrument was sent by the issuer, EPA would issue a compliance order requiring the owner operator to obtain alternate financial assurance. EPA would have been able to draw on the instrument to fund a standby trust had the owner operator not complied with the order. In the interim, the instrument would be non-cancellable as a result of the pending compliance proceeding and thus a lapse in financial assurance coverage would have been avoided.
Nevertheless, EPA requests comments on the option to specify non-cancellation triggering events and provisions that could eliminate the need for providers to fund a standby trust after a notice of intent to cancel the instrument. Specifically, commenters are asked to identify appropriate non-cancellation triggers, how instrument providers may react to the prospect of protracted periods of non-cancellation and whether such an arrangement may be appropriate for some mechanisms but not others.
EPA also considered an option whereby after the 120-day notice of cancellation period, issuers would face no potential liability and the instrument would be terminated regardless of whether the owner or operator provided alternate financial responsibility and obtained the Administrator's approval of the financial responsibility. This option has the advantage of possibly being the most palatable to instrument providers; however, it was not proposed for a variety of reasons. In particular, it provides the least assurance that funds would be available when necessary to pay CERCLA claimants. EPA believes the incentive to cancel, terminate, fail to renew or extend the coverage may be greatest in times when the facilities may present the greatest need for the instrument (e.g. the owner operator is experiencing financial decline, after a release of hazardous substances) and thus coverage may be lost precisely when it is most needed. Moreover, this concern is elevated in the case of CERCLA § 108(b) which may require the cost recovery process to run its course before a claim could be made against an instrument.
With all of these considerations in mind, EPA has decided to propose that the instruments would require a 120 day notice of cancellation, termination, failure to extend or failure to renew and that the issuer would become liable for the value of the instrument if the owner operator does not obtain alternate financial responsibility and obtain written approval of such alternate financial responsibility from the Administrator within ninety days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the Administrator of the notice. The proposed approach provides strong assurance that funds will be available when necessary to pay CERCLA claims and limits the extent to which Superfund resources are shifted from conducting cleanups to administering the proposed financial responsibility program. This approach also has the virtue of ensuring a trust fund is available to hold financial responsibility funds at each facility if necessary after facility closure or the owner operator no longer exists. EPA recognizes that a trust fund is unique when compared to third-party mechanisms such as surety bonds, letters of credit or insurance in that ongoing payments from the owner or operator are not necessary if funded adequately upfront. Depending on the duration of risk at a given facility, financial responsibility may need to remain in place long after the owner or operator ceases to exist. The proposed arrangement whereby if the owner or operator does not provide alternate financial responsibility in instances of cancellation of the instrument a trust is funded, ensures financial responsibility can remain in place for the long term.
However, EPA acknowledges that under this construction there would be instances where issuers would be required to make payment into a standby trust at facilities where a CERCLA claim may never arise. EPA requests comments on these provisions of the proposal. Furthermore, EPA requests comment on whether a hybrid of the options may be most appropriate whereby for one instrument one option be employed, and for another instrument a different option might be employed.
An owner or operator would be able to satisfy the requirements of this section by establishing more than one financial instrument per facility. The instruments would be required to meet the regulatory specifications applicable to each instrument except that it would be the combination of instruments, rather than the single instrument, which would have to demonstrate financial responsibility for an amount at least equal to the required amount of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility. If an owner or operator were to use a trust fund in combination with a surety bond, letter of credit or insurance policy, including a trust fund holding a letter of credit, the owner or operator would be able to use the trust fund as the standby trust fund for the other instruments. Should the owner or operator obtain a letter of credit issued in the favor of a trust fund trustee in combination with a surety bond or insurance policy, the owner or operator would be able to use the trust fund holding the letter of credit as the standby trust fund for the other mechanisms. A single standby trust fund could be established for two or more instruments. A claimant would be able to elect against which instrument used to provide evidence of financial responsibility to make a claim for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages. In this way, there would not be `primary' or `excess' instruments where the ability to draw on one instrument may be predicated on the exhaustion of another. EPA is electing to provide for multiple instruments in this fashion as the Agency believes it will be significantly less administratively cumbersome and will make implementation of the claims process easier.
An owner or operator would be able to use a financial responsibility instrument specified in this section to meet the requirements of this section for more than one facility. Evidence of financial responsibility submitted to the Administrator must include, for each facility, the EPA Identification Number, name, address, and the amount of funds for CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility assured by the instrument. If the facilities covered by the instrument are in more than one Region, identical evidence of financial assurance would be required to be submitted to and maintained with the regional delegees of the Administrator, as applicable, of all such Regions. The amount of funds available through the instrument would be required to be no less than the sum of funds that would be available if a separate instrument had been established and maintained for each facility. EPA is proposing this as it may provide for some administrative ease in the compliance and implementation process.
This is also provided for in RCRA Subtitle C closure and post-closure financial assurance program. However, in the proposed CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility program there is a much wider range of potential parties that may make a claim against an instrument than in the Subtitle C program. Therefore, the instruments proposed today are intended to have clear facility-specific sub-limits. Maintaining the accuracy of the facility-specific sub-limits is important as the consolidated form provision in CERCLA § 108(b)(4) provides that multiple owners and operators may obtain an instrument together while only one may be a common owner or operator at each facility covered by the instrument.
One final consideration is whether the inclusion of facility specific sub-limits might affect instrument providers' willingness to provide instruments. EPA believes that the added clarity and clear delineation of a provider's potential liability at any given facility combined with the lower administrative burden of preparing only one instrument would be a welcome specification. However, EPA could envision a scenario where a provider found issuing multiple instruments cleaner and easier than maintaining an accounting of the sub-limits within an instrument. For example, the proposed wording of the letter of credit would require the identification of the amount of financial responsibility at each facility covered by the credit. EPA, in past Agency rulemakings had proposed including such information in the letter of credit but was informed by commenters that such information typically would not be included in a letter of credit. As, in that case, the information could be included in a separate letter from the owner operator, EPA decided not to require the inclusion of facility specific amount in the letter of credit itself (See 47 FR 15042 April 7, 1982). However, as the Administrator will not be directing payments from CERCLA § 108(b) instruments such information would need to be included in the instrument were a letter of credit to cover multiple facilities.
The proposed instruments do not require that multiple facilities be covered and thus EPA believes and intended that they provide flexibility for regulated entities and instrument providers to identify the most efficient arrangement. EPA requests comment on the proposed allowance for mechanisms to cover multiple facilities. Specifically, EPA is interested in hearing if there are alternative means of specifying facility-specific sub-limits that may have certain advantages.
EPA had to consider how best to implement the provision for multiple owners or operators at a facility in CERCLA § 108(b)(4). The provision provides guidance on how a financial responsibility instrument could provide financial responsibility for the CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and or natural resource damages of all the current owners and operators of the facility in instances where there is not one single owner and operator. Under the proposal, where a facility is owned and/or operated by more than one person, evidence of financial responsibility covering the facility may be established and maintained by one of the owners or operators, or, in consolidated form, by or on behalf of two or more owners or operators. In practice, the instruments would follow the same form regardless of whether one of the owners or operators establishes a single instrument at the facility, whether multiple owners or operators establish a single instrument at the facility, or whether multiple owners or operators establish one or more instruments at the facility. EPA believes the flexibility in establishing financial responsibility at a facility when there are multiple owner operators is important as each arrangement may lend itself best to certain instruments. For example, EPA understands that sureties and banks issuing letters of credit have strong preference for one party obtaining the instrument. In discussions with the surety community, EPA learned that the surety typically interacts and has a surety relationship with one party at a facility and thus prefer one principal on the bond. While the bond would cover the valid CERCLA claims associated with all current owners and operators at the facility, only one principal need be listed. Representatives from the banking community also expressed a preference for one applicant per letter of credit on whom the lending institution would perform its credit assessment. Similar to the bond, the credit will cover the CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with all current owners and operators at the facility. On the other hand, EPA understands that with insurance a multiple insured arrangement is more common and may be required for the policy to cover claims against all the parties at the facility. In that case, EPA anticipates additional insureds may be listed on the policy. In this way, EPA proposes to implement the rule in a way that is consistent with both CERCLA's liability scheme and with commercial practice.
When evidence of financial responsibility is established in a consolidated form, the proportional share of the cost of demonstrating the financial responsibility for each participant would have to be shown in a separate letter submitted to the Administrator. This provision will require the owners and operators to plan out and apportion the responsibility of obtaining and maintaining the instrument up front which EPA believes may help reduce the likelihood of an instrument obtained by multiple parties lapsing due to failure to pay any premiums or fees required by the instrument provider.
In either scenario, the evidence of financial responsibility would have to be accompanied by a statement authorizing the owner or operator submitting the evidence of financial responsibility to act for and on behalf of each participant in submitting and maintaining the evidence of financial responsibility. It is worth noting that all of the current owners and operators at the facility would still be responsible for ensuring financial responsibility at the facility is obtained and maintained in accordance with the regulations. EPA would thus retain enforcement authority for the regulations against all of the current owners and operators.
The Agency is proposing that the classes of facilities within the hardrock mining industry that are identified in § 320.60 be subject to this rule. The classes of facilities that EPA is proposing for regulation are the classes of facilities that were identified in the 2009
In the 2009
Based on the information available at the time, EPA concluded that hardrock mining facilities present such risk that warranted giving those classes of facilities priority in the development of financial responsibility requirements under CERCLA § 108(b).
Throughout the discussion of its data analysis, EPA addresses several topics that were raised in public comments that EPA received on its data analysis for the 2009
As previously discussed, CERCLA § 108(b) states that “[p]riority in the development of such requirements shall be accorded to those classes of facilities, owners, and operators which the President determines present the highest level of risk of injury.” Though the 2009
The Agency considered how to define classes of mining facilities. EPA considered two options. EPA first considered identifying classes of mines based on the commodity mined. This approach had two advantages—it was consistent with the approach taken in the 2009
EPA has described in the following sections the basis for determining that exploration mines, placer mines, small surface mines of less than five acres, and mineral processors with less than five acres of surface impoundment and waste pile disturbance present a lower level of risk of injury. These classes, it should be noted, were identified based on facility characteristics and operations, rather than on the commodity mined.
EPA solicits comment on whether it would be feasible and appropriate to identify additional classes of hardrock mining facilities as presenting a lower level of risk of injury, particularly classes of mines that differ in their operations and associated risk from more tradition hardrock mining operations. For consistency with the approach taken by EPA to identify the lower level of risk of injury classes proposed in this rule, information to support additional lower level of risk of injury classes should address facility characteristics and operations, and should not rely on the commodity mined as a classification factor. However, EPA further solicits comment on whether classes of mines identified by commenters as presenting a lower level of risk of injury based on facility characteristics and operations could potentially encompass iron ore, phosphate, and uranium mines.
EPA has determined that exploration mines present a lower level of risk of injury and thus propose that owners and operators of facilities that conduct only exploration activities as defined in § 320.62 would not be required to comply with the CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility requirements. Mineral exploration is a precursor to the production of ores and associated wastes at hardrock mining and mineral processing facilities. The primary purpose of mineral exploration is to locate ore deposits and/or find significant extension of previously located deposits associated with operating or abandoned mines.
Many exploration projects have only minimal surface disturbances or impacts. Mineral exploration efforts begin with surface explorations for signs of potential mineral deposits, commonly utilizing initial field surveys generally involving low-impact techniques, such as aerial photography and remote sensing.
Potential impacts of mineral exploration can arise when sub-surface exploration does occur and include clearing land and potential contamination from boreholes (narrow shafts penetrating below the surface). Poor planning and management of drilled holes may cause aquifer contamination by infiltration of polluted surface water or by migration of materials in other layers of the earth that previously did not come in contact with the aquifer. However, due to nature of these operations where large-scale extraction of resources has not occurred, the disturbance and impact would be expected to be significantly smaller. For example, tailings facilities, large open pits, heap and dump leach operations, and large waste rock deposits, leading sources of releases of hazardous
EPA found no evidence directly linking exploration activities to releases leading to CERCLA listing. Although CERCLA documents noted the presence of mineral exploration activities at eight sites, exploration activities appear to have played little to no direct role in releases of hazardous contaminants.
For the reasons stated, EPA believes that mineral exploration presents a lower level of risk. As such, these mineral exploration activities are not included in today's proposed rule. EPA requests public comment regarding our determination to not include exploration mines in today's proposal.
EPA has determined that placer mines, as defined by EPA in this proposal (See proposed definition in section 320.62) present a lower level of risk of injury. EPA recognizes that placer mining would not typically be considered hardrock mining; however such mining practices would fall within the definition of hardrock mining used by EPA in identifying the priority class for regulation in the 2009
Placer mining is a method of mining in which the unconsolidated overburden is removed to expose valuable mineral-bearing gravel deposits beneath. Placer mines, commonly in alluvial deposits, typically seek to recover gold, titanium, and rare earths minerals. Alluvial deposits are commonly non-lithified (non-cemented) sands and gravels that rarely contain minerals that are more commonly the sources of contamination in other deposits (e.g. lode deposits). Placer mining can involve open pit, underground, or dredging operations using backhoes, bulldozers, or other excavating equipment to extract sand and gravel; at frozen placer mines, drilling and blasting techniques can be used to tunnel into the ground. Most commonly, dredges are used to break apart sand and gravel and remove valuable minerals. Dredge types vary widely, but generally use either mechanical methods to transport material on moving buckets or belts, or hydraulic methods to bring raw materials to the surface using pumps and pipes. Most placer recovery involves only sizing and separation by physical properties such as specific gravity, color, or magnetism.
Placer mining sediment discharges may diminish the quality of surrounding environmental resources such as surface water, ground water, soil, wetlands, and wildlife. Historically, the primary environmental impact from placer mining has been increases in sedimentation and heavy metals concentrations downstream from mining operations. Most current placer mining does not utilize added chemicals, nor would a placer operation using hazardous substances meet EPA's definition of placer mine, minimizing the potential for release of hazardous substances.
Placer mining practices were directly linked to releases leading to a CERCLA listing at two mining sites stemming from methods not typically recently employed domestically as a result of enhanced environmental regulation and law. Evidence revealed that at one of the sites sediment discharges resulted from hydraulic mining techniques which disturbed large volumes of sediment. Hydraulic mining, which was common in California and Alaska through the 1980s, used high-pressure jets of water to break apart gravel beds, washing mixtures of water, sand and minerals into a collection area. However, regulatory regimes that have since emerged greatly restrict hydraulic placer mining
In light of the benign nature of alluvial deposits and the absence of hazardous substances in the processing operations at placer mines meeting EPA's proposed definition, EPA believes such placer mines are unlikely to result in contamination. EPA requests public comment regarding our determination to not include placer mines in today's proposal. EPA requests comment on whether the class of placer mines as defined that is proposed as a lower level of risk of injury classes is appropriate, or whether that class should be further defined to limit the placer mines not included under this proposal.
EPA has determined that small surface mines with a disturbance of less than five acres not located within a mile of mine disturbance that occurred in the prior ten-year period that do not employ hazardous substances in their processes, and are not underground, present a lower level of risk of injury. While individual small mines may cause
Small surface mines tend to extract near-surface higher grade ores and previously unmined placer deposits. Larger mines are more able to take advantage of new ultra-mechanized mining; metallurgical techniques allow them to use lower-grade, large-volume extraction and processing. Small surface mines likely do not engage in these more modern practices due to financial factors. As a result, small surface mines will have much lower volumes of waste and the features from which releases have historically occurred (e.g. waste rock piles, open pits) will be much smaller. Furthermore, lower level of risk is further ensured by the requirement that the small mine also not employ hazardous substances in their mining practices. As a result, cyanide leaching, one source of releases or threatened releases, would not be practiced at small mines; nor would hazardous process chemicals be stored at the facility lowering the possibility of spills or other mishandling of hazardous substances. Additionally, it is worth noting that because this determination of lower risk is being made for small surface mines, processing operations would not be included in this lower risk class. As such, practices such as electrowinning, hydrometallurgy, or pyrometallurgy would not occur at these facilities; nor would tailings facilities exist. Underground mines are excluded because an underground mine can expose significant reactive material (e.g. pyrite) in underground workings, thereby causing contaminated mine drainage, and still be in an area covering less than 5 acres if the mined material is hauled off site for processing. Please see a discussion of low risk mineral processing facilities later in this preamble for more information on what class of mineral processing facilities EPA has determined present lower levels of risk of injury.
In current Federal and state regulations, “small” mines are also typically defined by acreage or volume of ore processed. Small mines are regulated by the BLM, Forest Service and most states based on their potential impacts and in most cases face reduced permitting and operation requirements.
The reduced risk presented by small mines is evident by the lack of small mines individually becoming Superfund sites. Historically, Superfund sites with smaller-scale mines reflect the combined environmental impacts of non-major mines in close proximity. One example consists of numerous abandoned and inactive hardrock mine sites that produced gold, lead, zinc and copper.
EPA believes that small surface mines of less than five acres present a lower level of risk when such mines are not in close proximity to another mine and do not use hazardous substances. EPA requests public comment on the proposal that owners and operators of such small mines would not be required to comply with the CERCLA § 108(b) hardrock mining financial responsibility regulations.
EPA is proposing that owners and operators of mineral processing facilities with less than five acres of surface impoundment and waste pile disturbance not be required to comply with the financial responsibility requirements in Part 320. EPA is proposing this because the Agency believes that releases from surface impoundments and waste piles present elevated risk at mineral processing facilities. These features were identified as contamination sources at many superfund sites historically. For example, surface impoundments which contained tailings and wastewater were the source of contamination for more than 160 different response actions; slag and heap leach waste piles were sources of contamination for more than 54 and 17 responses respectively. Further waste piles and surface impoundments at mineral processing and combined mining and mineral processing sites have caused natural resource damages.
Some of the risk of surface impoundments and waste piles stems from poor environmental practice (e.g. failure to use liners, overtopping, instability of berms). For example, in 2004, an EPA inspection of a mineral processing facility in Florida found that storage and disposal of hazardous waste into unlined ditches and surface impoundments released hazardous substances off-site. Nearby groundwater and private drinking water wells were contaminated as a result of these releases.
As the volume of wastes disposed of in a surface impoundment or pile increase, the units become larger and hydraulic pressure increases. This results in higher incidents of leaks and structural failures.
Mineral processing facilities with less than five acres of surface impoundment and waste pile disturbance generally pose lower risk due to the lower quantities of hazardous substances present, and less likelihood of spills and structural instability and the smaller expected impact of any releases. As such, EPA proposes that owners and operators of mineral processing facilities with less than five acres of surface impoundment and waste pile disturbance not be required to comply with the financial responsibility requirements in Part 320. EPA requests comment on this proposal. Specifically, EPA is interested in damage cases that have arisen at mineral processing facilities with less than five acres of waste pile or surface impoundment disturbance.
CERCLA § 108(b)(3) requires a phased-in approach to implementation of the financial responsibility requirements of this proposal. That section requires that financial responsibility requirements be imposed as quickly as can reasonably be achieved but in no event more than four years after the date of promulgation of the final rule. The statute further requires that, where possible, the amount of financial responsibility shall be achieved through incremental, annual increases. This phased approach provides time for the financial markets to develop and make available instrument capacity while, at the same time, has financial responsibility put into place at facilities subject to the rule quickly.
Under the proposed schedule for implementation of financial responsibility requirements, owner or operator's would be required to demonstrate financial responsibility for: (1) Health assessment costs by twenty four months after promulgation of the final rule, i.e., after publication of the final rule in the
In developing this proposed schedule for implementation of financial responsibility requirements, EPA considered the requirement in the statute that financial responsibility implemented in incremental annual increases, as well as the need for the financial markets do develop and make available capacity. EPA also sought to provide the maximum amount of time for owners or operators to establish a financial responsibility level for their facilities.
EPA proposed that owners or operators provide the amount of financial responsibility for the health assessment component of the formula first as that amount does not require a calculation, and thus requires no input of information by the facility. This approach provides three years before the first amount of financial responsibility that must be calculated is due to EPA. EPA believes that this is a reasonable approach, and that it balances the needs of the owner or operator as well as the financial market. Delaying further significant levels of financial responsibility would have resulted in a surge in demand on the financial market in year four. Requiring calculated financial responsibility earlier would have provided less time for owners or operators to become familiar with the formula, gather any necessary information, and perform necessary calculations.
EPA believes that this schedule would meet the statutory requirement for phased implementation, and would provide owners and operators an adequate time period to identify the necessary financial responsibility amount for their sites. Further, these phased-in requirements would help to assure the availability of instruments by providing extended time for market capacity to build. EPA solicits comment on this approach to implementation of the financial responsibility requirements, on the schedule for compliance, and on whether this approach would help assure availability of instruments. EPA solicits comment on this approach.
For owners and operators of hardrock mining facilities that come into operation after the effective date of this rule, the Agency is proposing a different approach.
Facilities that become subject to the rule after the effective date of the final rule and on or before the date four years after the effective date would be comply with the requirements for demonstrating financial responsibility that are applicable to facilities that were authorized to operate, or should have been authorized to operate on the effective date of the final rule. For example, if a facility were to become subject to the requirements of this rule two years after the effective date, the owner or operator would be required to demonstrate financial responsibility for the health assessment amount prior to beginning operations, and then follow the schedule provided in § 320.61(a).
Finally, facilities that become subject to the rule more than four years after the effective date of the final rule would be required to demonstrate financial responsibility for the full amount required under this rule before beginning operations.
The Agency believes this approach is reasonable in that the capacity concerns that arise when a newly promulgated rule becomes effective are not relevant as the Agency does not expect a large number of newly regulated facilities to enter the market seeking financial responsibility instruments after the rule initially becomes effective. The Agency solicits comment on this approach.
The Agency is proposing definitions in § 320.62 that are applicable to this
EPA considered options for how to calculate financial responsibility amounts for classes of facilities under CERCLA § 108(b). The statute provides only very general direction on this question, and thus confers upon EPA significant discretion in both methodology and in the ultimate selection of the appropriate amount. CERCLA § 108(b) establishes a general end-point for the Agency's financial responsibility requirements, which must be “consistent with” the “degree and duration of risk associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous substances” at the facility. EPA does not interpret this to require any precise association with a risk calculation. Standard dictionary definitions of the term “consistent” include merely “being in agreement” or “compatible.”
The statute also does not specify any particular methodology to reach that general end-point, specifying simply that the amount of financial responsibility be established at the level that the EPA “determines is appropriate.” The statute does provide a non-exclusive list of information sources in CERCLA § 108(b)(2) on which it is to base its decision—the payment experience of the Superfund; courts settlements and judgments; and voluntary claims satisfaction. Notably, it does not specify how the information from these sources is to be used—for example, how the data from each source should be weighted relative to the other sources. Similarly, the list of sources does not specify whether EPA is to derive particular values from each category to be aggregated into one amount that is “consistent with the degree and duration of risk,” or whether EPA is to identify from each category, particular practices (that is, for example, the types of activities for which the Fund has paid) the cost of which can form the basis for an amount. Therefore, EPA has concluded that these provisions of the statute confer a significant amount of discretion upon the Agency in how it uses the data it has, to determine the appropriate amount for which owners and operators must provide evidence of financial responsibility.
EPA considered four approaches to identify a financial responsibility amount for a facility—fixed amount, site-specific amount, parametric approach, and formulaic approach. A description of each approach follows. This proposed rule uses a combination of these approaches—specifically, a fixed cost approach for certain costs (health assessments) and a formulaic approach to identify an amount for potential response costs consistent with the risks to human health and the environment based on facility features.
Under a fixed amount approach, the Agency would identify a standard cost for the class. This method does not rely on site-specific factors but rather on historical costs associated with similar facilities to calculate an expected future amount. This approach is best applied where the costs at issue are fairly uniform, as the wider the variation, the lower the accuracy of the financial responsibility amount for that cost. If there is wide variation in the costs associated with the facilities within the class to which the fixed amount is applied, the result can be significant over-regulation at those facilities with lower levels of liabilities, and significant under-regulation of facilities with higher levels of liabilities. At the same time, this approach has advantages in that it requires a lower level of effort on the part of the regulated community and the Agency to implement because the rule does not require a site-specific calculation to be developed, submitted, or evaluated. Thus, EPA believes that in certain circumstances the fixed amount approach may be the best choice to implement CERCLA § 108(b) requirements.
For example, as discussed in section VI.D.4. of this preamble, the Agency was able to determine a fixed level for health assessment costs under this proposed rule, but applied a formulaic approach to determine financial responsibility amounts for response costs and natural resource damage costs.
The second method considered by EPA is a site-specific approach. Under this approach, the owner or operator would calculate the cost of conducting known activities to address identified problems. This approach is the most precise of the three approaches considered by EPA. However, it is also the most resource intensive to implement. It requires gathering detailed information about the site, including an assessment of the site conditions, and is most easily implemented where a release has occurred, a response is necessary, and a remedy determination has been made. As described earlier, CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility is not based on a remedy determination; therefore, EPA determined that a site-specific approach was not appropriate or practical for use under this rule. EPA solicits comment on how a site-specific approach might be developed for future CERCLA § 108(b) rulemakings in situations where there has been no remedy decision.
Having identified reasons that a site-specific approach may not be appropriate or practical to determine financial responsibility amounts for response costs and for natural resource damages, EPA sought to develop an approach that was more accurate than the fixed amount, yet could be implemented without conducting a full site investigation at the facility. The Agency's efforts resulted in development of a formula designed for facilities within the hardrock mining industry.
As discussed earlier, CERCLA § 108(b)(2) requires that the level of financial responsibility must be “based on the payment experience of the Fund, commercial insurers, courts settlements and judgments, and voluntary claims satisfaction.” Thus, in developing this proposed rule, EPA considered how to consider those factors. EPA considered two approaches to basing financial responsibility levels on the “payment experience of the Fund.” Under one approach, the Agency would consider the cost of past cleanups at similar facilities, and use those costs as a basis for financial responsibility. For example, EPA would look to historical cost data and, if a Superfund remedy at similar facilities averaged $X dollars, EPA would consider that the appropriate amount of financial responsibility for that class of facilities and promulgate a regulation requiring that amount at facilities in the class.
This interpretation would best be applied to the fixed amount methodology. Thus, if past Superfund actions at a class of facilities averaged $X dollars, the Agency would identify by rule that amount as the financial responsibility amount required for that class of facilities. EPA recognized limitations associated with this approach. For example, because it looks
Under a second approach, EPA would look at components of response actions taken by Superfund in the past—that is, distinct activities Superfund paid for—at facilities within the to-be-regulated class, and determine the cost of those activities today. For example, if a Superfund remedy involved installing an impermeable cap at a surface impoundment, the Agency would calculate the cost of installing such a cap today at the regulated facility with a similar unit to determine the financial responsibility amount. This second approach to considering the “payment experience of the Fund” was used by EPA in developing the formula for determining financial responsibility amounts for response costs and natural resource damages under this proposal. The Agency solicits comment on these two approaches to basing financial responsibility under this proposal on the criteria in CERCLA § 108(b)(2).
It should be noted that the Agency's decision to not propose requirements in this rule based on a site-specific approach to determining financial responsibility amounts does not mean that the Agency has concluded that methodology is not appropriate under CERCLA § 108(b). In fact, following initial implementation of financial responsibility at facilities subject to this proposed rule, EPA may identify site-specific conditions that indicate a response action is needed at the facility, and that the current amount of financial responsibility implemented under CERCLA § 108(b) is not adequate to cover the costs associated with the response. In those cases, the Agency believes it could apply a site-specific methodology at the facility to determine a more precise amount of financial responsibility more consistent with the degree and duration of risk at the facility. EPA would increase the amount of financial responsibility required at the facility under CERCLA § 108(b) rather than apply CERCLA § 106 authority to require a separate financial responsibility instrument. The Agency solicits comment on this approach.
EPA developed a financial responsibility formula for owners and operators of hardrock mining facilities to use to calculate the amount of financial responsibility that would be required under this proposed rule. EPA considered how to develop an amount of financial responsibility that reflected an estimate of funds that might be required in the event of a release from a regulated facility.
As described in section IV.B of this preamble, EPA is proposing to make the financial responsibility instruments available for all types of CERCLA liabilities enumerated in CERCLA § 107. Thus, in developing the financial responsibility formula, EPA sought to take into account the same three categories of costs (response costs (including both removals and remedial actions), natural resource damages, and health assessment costs) that may be incurred by owners and operators of facilities subject to the rule. To do so, EPA separately developed three formula components to estimate financial responsibility for each of those three categories. These three components—response costs, natural resource damages, and health assessment costs—make up the final formula.
EPA collected and analyzed data on both the total funds expended at CERCLA sites and the types of goods and services on which those funds were spent. Total funds expended were used to estimate both the health assessment component and the natural resource damage component, while the types of goods and services were used to estimate the response component. For each, this preamble discusses EPA's data collection efforts, how the Agency developed estimates of costs from that data, and how it developed the resulting formula.
EPA collected information on response costs from national priorities list (NPL) and non-NPL CERCLA response activities. This data consisted of records of decision (RODs), settlements, actual expenditures to date by EPA, and estimated expenditures for present and future work by potentially responsible parties. EPA used these data to generate a best estimate of total response costs at these hardrock mining facilities. EPA was able to collect this information for 319 sites.
In addition to the total response cost data, EPA also collected data on specific activities conducted at 438 operable units at 88 NPL or Superfund alternative hardrock mining sites. From this data on activities themselves, EPA could link specific site features to releases or threatened releases of hazardous substances, and to remedies that incurred response costs. EPA found that thirteen site features
EPA's prior experience with CERCLA cleanups leads it to expect that similar types of remedies will continue to be selected for mining sites in the future. EPA also expects that for eleven of the twelve remedy categories described earlier (the exception being “no action”), the magnitude of that cost will differ with changing site characteristics. For example, the expected costs of constructing a cap over a unit to prevent water infiltration can be expected to increase with the acreage of that cap. Thus, in order to produce more accurate estimations of costs at a particular facility, it is necessary to consider both specific response costs and specific response activities. However, EPA generally found that the response cost data discussed earlier were available in the form of payments or total expenditures. Since these payments or expenditures were aggregated across various activities, they could not be separated into more specific cost amounts (
Given this difficulty, EPA considered how to estimate the expected costs associated with these particular activities. EPA searched for existing, publicly available engineering cost estimates that contained costs specific to these activities. EPA found that such engineering cost data was readily available from cost estimates developed for state and Federal mining reclamation and closure plans, and associated documents. These engineering cost data were available for currently operating facilities potentially regulated under the proposed rule, and represented similar site features (
In order to monetize the expected costs for eight of the twelve types of remedies listed earlier, EPA linked these remedy types to similar tasks identified in the current engineering cost data. The remaining three CERCLA remedy types, “No action,” “Alternative drinking water,” and “Monitored natural attenuation” are excluded from the initial list of twelve remedy types. Since these three remedy types do not involve engineered controls, EPA was concerned that including them as part of a nationally-applicable rule could have the effect of producing an inadequate amount of financial responsibility for those sites where engineered controls were necessary. Therefore, as a conservative assumption to help ensure thea adequacy of the amount of financial responsibility should engineering controls prove necessary, EPA excluded these three remedy types from further consideration.
Also excluded was “Sediment dredging/disposal.” Although this element has appeared historically as a response category, EPA notes that it was already incorporated in the natural resource damages component. For example, the final restoration plan for the Upper Arkansas River/California Gulch Superfund site (one of the data points used in developing the natural resource damages multiplier) includes dredging of contaminated soils as a restoration alternative.
“On-site disposal (excavation, capping, covering, revegetation)” and “Engineering/containment (other)” were linked to engineering cost estimates categorized as backfill, portal closure, earthwork, revegetation, feature-specific stormwater controls, and source controls. These first two remaining categories were further linked to the specific site feature being addressed: Open pit, underground mine, waste rock, tailings facility, heap/dump leach, process ponds and reservoirs, and slag piles. Since not all currently operating facilities have all of these site features, this site-feature linkage allowed EPA to identify costs for only the features present at a given mine.
“Off-site disposal” and “Deconstruction/decontamination of buildings” were linked to engineering cost estimates categorized as solid waste disposal, hazardous waste disposal, organic solution removal, building decontamination, contaminated soils disposal, and haulage and disposal. “Surface water drainage” was linked to drainage controls. “Water treatment (lime)” and “Water treatment (other)” were linked to engineering cost estimates categorized as site and water management, process fluid stabilization, neutralization, solution disposal, reclamation of well-field and disposal wells, seepage capture, and water treatment. Finally, “Monitoring (all media and as separate remedy)” was linked to engineering cost estimates categorized as groundwater and surface water monitoring, geotechnical stability monitoring, erosion and vegetation monitoring, fish and wildlife monitoring, and other short- and long-term monitoring.
While not specific to any remedy category, multiple remedies' operations and maintenance activities were linked to the reclamation and closure plan tasks of road maintenance, stormwater repairs, revegetation repairs, reclamation of monitoring and pumpback wells, well maintenance, evaporation pond maintenance, and stormwater, erosion, and vegetation maintenance. Additionally, all remedies were linked to reclamation and closure plan tasks necessary to conduct direct engineering work including mobilization/demobilization, engineering design/redesign, contingency, contractor profit and overhead, contractor liability insurance, payment and performance bonds, agency direct costs, and agency indirect costs. EPA solicits comment on the accuracy of these linkages, and specific data or examples that would indicate an alternative linkage should be made.
EPA sought through its engineering cost estimate data collection effort to accumulate as much recent, high quality cost information for currently-operating hardrock mining facilities as possible and represent the range of states and commodities produced. EPA obtained and sorted data from the Mining Safety and Health Administration (MSHA) and the U.S. Geological Survey (USGS) to generate a combined list of 354 facilities. To derive this group of 354, EPA identified facilities that would correspond to the scope of the proposed rule. Thus, EPA excluded from the combined MSHA/USGS data set, those facilities that were not identified in the 2009
EPA obtained a sample of 63 facilities' reclamation and closure plan engineering cost data. This 63 facility subset was representative of the frequency of states and commodities identified in the full universe of 354 potentially regulated mines. Thus, EPA expected it would be representative of the larger group of facilities. This dataset included costs as well as related inputs that drive these cost components. For example, acreage is an input of the Standardized Reclamation Cost Estimator model used to conduct several of the collected engineering cost estimates. One of the highest-dollar response categories, water treatment, also presented one of the smallest cost sample sizes with only 15 facilities represented. As a result, EPA supplemented the closure plan cost data on water treatment costs with data from the three CERCLA sites contained in EPA's CERCLA site data set, for which water treatment cost data were readily available, and could be disaggregated from the sites' full costs. EPA solicits comment on additional cost estimates, whether historical or current, that would appropriately represent active hardrock mining facilities. EPA solicits comment on data generally, and specifically regarding industrial minerals, slag pile, in-situ leach, and water flows. EPA solicits comment on expanding the water treatment variable to capture additional facilities that would necessarily need more advanced water treatment due to the nature of their leachate.
EPA subject-matter experts believed that other variables could explain the differences between higher and lower costs at sites based on their professional experience. First, these experts believed that water-related factors such as distance to groundwater or surface water, as well as net precipitation could influence the costs estimated for a site. Second, these experts believed that the process methods used could influence costs necessary for a site. These data are not included in the reclamation plan data collected. Therefore, EPA located and collected them from Environmental Impact Statements or other publicly available documents.
Water-balance-related data that were available in these public documents included precipitation, evaporation, distance to surface water, and depth to groundwater. EPA solicits comment on the collection of these water balance data. In particular, six of the hardrock mining facilities in EPA's data set did not contain depth to groundwater data. EPA solicits comments on depth to groundwater data for the six hardrock mining facilities for which data were not collected. These facilities are: Silver Bell (Arizona), Clear Creek (Colorado), Hibbing Taconite (Minnesota), SCRAM (Minnesota), Standard (Nevada), and Trenton Canyon (Nevada).
In addition to water-balance-related data, EPA collected data related to process methods for the four leaching processes identified at the 63 sites in EPA's data set. These process method data included the use of floatation, cyanide, acid, and in-situ leaching processes. EPA solicits comments on data characterizing the process methods for these 63 sites as well as how EPA might analyze such data.
For more details about the data collected, see Section 4 of the Background Document. EPA solicits comment on alternative uses of its actual cost data from Section 2.2 of the background document. EPA solicits comment on additional data points that may be more appropriately apportioned to other site features. EPA solicits comments on the use of a 62 percent upward adjustment based on Ernst & Young (2015). The Agency also solicits comment on the proposal to use the 2013 Reclamation and Closure Plan document for Pinto Valley.
EPA performed statistical analysis on the engineering cost data collected, for each response category. The purpose of this statistical analysis was to establish a numerical relationship between a limited number of a facility's site-specific characteristics and the resulting associated reclamation and closure plan costs. Once this relationship was established, it could be used to generate a sub-formula that results in an expected financial responsibility amount for each response category, on a nation-wide basis. To ensure the accuracy of the regressions, EPA solicits comment on whether the reclamation and closure plan data is accurately described in Appendix G of the Formula Background Document. Specifically, EPA solicits comment on the accuracy of the estimated cost figures, acres, and source control tags for the thirteen response categories, as described in Appendix G.
A number of site-specific engineering-based models generated the detailed engineering cost estimates collected by EPA. However, certain parameters appeared to be central to the workings of those calculations. For instance, capital costs appeared to be affected by the relevant acreage that these costs were applied. While EPA did not know the exact suite of variables that might be relevant for any particular response category, some variables were much more likely to be statistically significant based on the use of these variables in reclamation and closure plan cost estimates. As a result, EPA chose to conduct a bidirectional elimination stepwise regression that started with variables believed to be most significant and test the addition or deletion of individual variables. Further details on the regression methodology, as well as the results of the regressions are available in Section 5 of the Background Document.
These results generally confirmed the significance of the variables EPA expected to be predictive. EPA performed an additional 88 robustness tests to demonstrate that the regressions selected by the stepwise regression process were the best fit possible for the data. EPA solicits comment on the appropriateness of the bidirectional elimination stepwise regression used here as well as alternative methods that may be appropriate and justifications for using those methods. EPA also solicits comments generally on the steps and criteria used in the stepwise regression process as applied. In particular, EPA solicits comment on the retention of the source control variable in the heap/dump leach regression (including additional data points that would supplement the two source controls in the dataset) and on the addition or removal of variables from the starting suite of variables when such additions or removals were made. EPA solicits comment on influence points Continental and Chino Mines for the Interim O&M regression, and Phoenix Copper for Water Treatment regression.
Further, because the formula is trying to monetize potential future CERCLA liability response costs, in the absence of an actual release/response to monetize, a potential drawback of this approach of predicting levels of financial responsibility could be that future major incidents will not have sufficient assurance to cover the necessary response costs, and that there could be an associated risk that the rule will potentially require financial responsibility that may never be required. EPA solicits comments on this potential drawback to the chosen approach.
EPA also calculated overhead and oversight costs (OCs) as a percent of direct engineering costs rather than through regressions on site-specific characteristics. However, not every facility calculated or reported every category of oversight costs. Thus, to avoid biasing any of the oversight cost
Four of the response cost categories—interim O&M, water treatment, short-term O&M, and long-term O&M—represent the expected costs for activities over time. Thus, the regression equations for represent annualized amounts. These annualized amounts must further be converted into a single net present value, so that they can be included as part of the final formula, which represents a facility's total financial responsibility amount. EPA converted to net present value using the same equation as that presented in U.S. EPA (2001).
EPA used an O&M period of ten years for converting both the short-term O&M and interim O&M costs into a net present value. This period has been discussed and used in guidance documents such as U.S. EPA and USACE (2000).
In addition, EPA's CERCLA data from hardrock mining facilities indicates that perpetual O&M expenditures are common. Specifically, in U.S. EPA (2004),
Finally, annualized O&M costs are converted to a net present value based on the ten-year short-term and perpetual long-term time horizons seen in the CERCLA cost data using the rate of return of the Superfund. Analysis of these real rates of return from the Superfund yielded a geometric mean of 2.63 percent. This approach is also consistent with recent EPA guidance on O&M cost estimation processes in the separate context of CERCLA settlement agreements and unilateral orders (U.S. EPA, 2015)
On average, the sub-total of overhead costs calculated by EPA was found to be 35.78 percent of direct engineering costs. However, a similar sub-total of oversight cost percentages was not estimated due to the region-specific nature of agency indirect costs. To calculate these percentages, region-specific indirect cost rates are multiplied by the national average agency direct cost percentage to estimate the agency indirect costs as a percentage of direct engineering costs. Adding agency direct cost percentage to the region-specific indirect cost percentages yields region-specific agency cost percentages. Total non-construction costs are estimated by adding the 35.78 percent overhead cost percentage sub-total to the region-specific total agency cost percentages. Using this approach, EPA calculated ten region-specific oversight cost percentages to be applied to the direct engineering costs estimated in the formula response components. These percentages can be found in Appendix II of the proposed rule.
Furthermore, the relationships estimated represent only a generic, nationwide engineering cost of a CERCLA response because the response category regressions were estimated using reclamation and closure plan cost data that had been normalized to national values. While this was necessary to perform regression analysis and develop a nationwide formula, the same labor and materials can have different prices in different locations. Hence, the resulting estimates described in earlier sections would immediately be inaccurate for any given state. To adjust for these locality differences in prices, the response component of the formula is multiplied by the most current state cost adjustment factors in USACE (2015).
EPA collected data on both natural resource damages and natural resource damage assessment costs at hardrock mining sites from CERCLA court settlements and judgments, and voluntary payments. This effort resulted in data on 64 sites. EPA's data indicate that natural resource damages and response costs are not independent of each other. Instead, response actions have regularly been shown to influence natural resource damages. This is particularly true in the case of sites receiving technical impracticability
One example summarized in U.S. EPA (2012)
EPA notes that although the extent of response actions ultimately necessary as a result of a release may affect the relative portion of how much natural resource damages may be in comparison with damages, the total magnitude of potential liabilities (response costs and natural resource damages combined) will increase or decrease together. This is effectively captured by a multiplier. Thus, EPA uses a similar approach here as to U.S. EPA (2014)
Within this dataset, EPA had both natural resource damages and total response costs from the response component data collection for 24 sites. From this subset of 24, EPA divided the average natural resource damages by the average response costs to generate a hardrock mining-specific natural resource damages multiplier. This resulted in average natural resource damages and natural resource damage assessment costs of 13.4 percent of the response costs to account for natural resource damages and assessment costs. Thus, EPA included a multiplier of 1.134 in the financial responsibility formula for the natural resource damage component. EPA solicits comment providing additional natural resource data. The Agency also solicits comment on the appropriateness of a fixed multiplier to estimate natural resource damages within the hardrock mining class of facilities, particularly with respect to the risk of magnifying any potential bias from the response cost formula. EPA solicits comment on alternate approach such as the use of a geometric mean or median instead of the mean for the multiplier calculation. EPA solicits comment on the feasibility of running the response component of the model for facilities which EPA has natural resource damages data for an alternative method, if data is readily available.
EPA is also considering an alternative approach. Under this approach, EPA would use the median natural resource damages and natural resource damage assessment costs of 3.8 percent of the response costs to account for natural resource damages and assessment costs. Thus, EPA would include a multiplier of 1.038 in the financial responsibility formula for the natural resource damage component. EPA solicits comment on whether the median or average NRD multiplier is more representative for application to future hardrock mining facilities.
Under 42 CFR 90.14, by the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR) is required to maintain documentation pertaining to the costs associated with all phases of a Public Health Assessment or a Health Consultation (HA) performed by the Agency to form the basis for cost recovery by EPA.
Based on the information available to it, EPA adopted a fixed amount of $550,000 representing the average health assessment cost reported by ATSDR as the health assessment component of the proposed formula. Health assessments often make use of EPA-collected data. Because this approach avoids potentially costly data collection activities, a relatively low amount of $550,000 is not unexpected for an average cost. Furthermore, EPA expects future health assessments to generally be consistent with this amount since ATSDR has experience performing the same types of reports routinely. Finally, EPA notes that this average health assessment cost reported by ATSDR is consistent with additional second-hand sources of estimates that EPA presents in Section 7 of the Background Document. EPA solicits comment on the appropriateness of a fixed health assessment cost for all classes, including data that would justify any alternate approaches suggested.
EPA's proposed rule requires that a facility's financial responsibility amount be adjusted for inflation to preserve the real value of the financial responsibility. This inflation adjustment must be made to the entire financial responsibility amount as calculated in 2014 dollars. The proposed rule uses an inflation
Additionally, in the absence of a site-specific remedial investigation/feasibility study (RI/FS) or ROD, EPA cannot categorically determine that source controls and water treatment activities would not be necessary to minimize the volume, toxicity, or mobility of hazardous substances. Therefore, as a conservative assumption to help ensure the adequacy of the amount of financial responsibility should source controls and water treatment prove necessary, EPA assumes that both will be used, and sets the variables corresponding to the activities equal to one for all hardrock mining facilities calculating CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amounts. EPA solicits comment on two alternatives to this approach that could be used alone or in conjunction. In the first alternative, EPA solicits comment on whether a weighted average of costs with and without source controls or water treatment would be appropriate. The weights for this average would be determined based on historical use of these responses. EPA also solicits comment on whether a conservative upper confidence interval such as the 95 percent confidence levels presented in Appendix J of the background document would be appropriate to avoid underestimating future financial responsibility needs.
Incorporating the net present value calculations and the assumptions of source controls and water treatment into the regression results, the response category equations for the response component are:
(1) Solid and hazardous waste disposal category = $2,600,000
(2) Open pit category = 5.07×10^(4.24+1.08×Log
(3) Underground mine category = $4,500,000 for an underground mine with hydraulic head or $200,000 for an underground mine otherwise.
(4) Waste rock category = 1.85×10^(5.18+0.75×Log
(5) Heap/dump leach category = 2.29×10^(4.57+1.01×Log
(6) Tailings category = 1.71×10^(5.32+0.68×Log
(7) Process pond and reservoir category = 1.64×10^(4.29+1.03×Log
(8) Drainage category = 9.56×10^(3.42+0.57×Log
(9) Slag pile category = $64,000×[Slag Pile Acres]
(10) Interim O&M category = {1.46×10^(6.04+0.01×[Net Precipitation]+0.34×Log
(11) Water treatment category = {1.16×10^(3.22+1.10×Log
(12) Short-term O&M and monitoring category = {1.82×10^(4.01+0.38×Log
(13) Long-term O&M and monitoring category = {1.64×10^(3.12+0.58×Log
Furthermore, the cost equation for water treatment requires the input of gallon per minute flows that require treatment. However, as discussed earlier, EPA calculates the potential costs associated with the use of source control covers for many site features. Albright (2015)
This results in flows being calculated as 0.05 × Precipitation × [Total Disturbed Acres] × 0.05166 for all flows except for underground mine flows and in-situ leach flows which are not assumed to receive the same types of source controls evaluated in ACAP. The Agency solicits comment on this approach for calculating the gallons per minute flow at a facility. EPA also solicits comment providing data demonstrating that source controls reduce the costs of diversion and/or O&M other than water treatment. EPA solicits comment on the exercise of validating the formula by running it for CERCLA sites that have incurred costs across all site features.
For a hypothetical facility with a single site feature of each type (
To implement the formula and calculate a financial responsibility amount for the facility, the owner or operator will have to input facility information. The Agency anticipates that the information required by the formula will largely be existing information, and that most facilities will not have to develop information to implement the financial responsibility formula. EPA solicits comment on whether the information required is largely existing at facilities.
The first piece of information required is acreage. For the site feature-specific calculations, the acreage is the total of all areas covered by the particular site feature. For example, a facility with two waste piles would add the acreage of each together and input the total acreage into the calculation. For site-wide calculations, such as short-term O&M, the acreage entered would be the entire area covered by the hardrock mine and/or mineral processor.
Several inputs to the formula are yes/no determinations. These include the presence of a pressurized bulkhead, in-situ leaching, and underground mines. If these are not present, the owner or operator should enter a zero into the formula.
The Agency is proposing under § 320.63(c) to allow (but not require) owners or operators to reduce the response cost component under § 320.63(b) by making an adequate demonstration that risk reducing regulatory requirements are in place. Owners and operators will have to demonstrate that they meet specific minimum standards for various formula components, along with a general performance standard, and other requirements. This approach is specifically designed to account for reductions in risk at a facility that may result from compliance with applicable Federal, state, tribal, and local requirements. The Agency solicits comment on this approach.
In developing these proposed requirements, EPA sought to balance a number of competing concerns. EPA desires to account for risk-reducing effects of compliance with other programs, while acknowledging that requirements for hardrock mining and mineral processing facilities, and implementation of them, vary substantially across the country. The CERCLA § 108(b) proposed rules, however, are nationally applicable. EPA was thus concerned that, should it allow an owner or operator to invoke other requirements as justification for reducing the amount otherwise required by the formula, it should do so only to the extent that reductions can confidently be tied to reductions in risk in a nationally-applicable rule. Similarly, in order for EPA to allow an owner or operator to reduce the amount of financial responsibility that it must obtain under CERCLA § 108(b) based on its compliance with non-CERCLA regulatory requirements imposing future risk-reducing controls, EPA must be confident that those non-CERCLA requirements will have their intended risk-reducing effects, by ensuring the controls will be implemented when necessary. Lastly, as discussed earlier, EPA has sought to develop an effective, nationally-applicable formula that can be readily applied by the regulated community and overseen by EPA. EPA is accordingly proposing to allow for simple, all-or-nothing reductions for the formula sub-components, when they can be justified. In sum, therefore, this proposed rule allows an owner or operator to rely on other regulatory controls in order to obtain reductions in the amount of CERCLA financial assurance it must obtain, but includes several conditions that must first be met by the owner or operator. EPA intends for this approach to allow for a more tailored amount of financial responsibility under the nationally-applicable formula, while still providing assurance that the resultant amount is consistent with the level of risk.
First, the reductions incorporate a general performance standard in paragraph 326.63(c). In order to qualify for a reduction, the owners and operators must be prepared to demonstrate to EPA that any requirements relied upon under paragraph 320.63(d) also meet the general standard, that the engineering requirements will result in a minimum degree and duration of risk associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage, or disposal, as applicable, of all hazardous substances present at that site feature. This general requirement will provide a benchmark against which the controls can be measured. In addition, this provision is intended to reflect that if the general performance standard is met, the proposed approach allows for a complete reduction from the financial responsibility formula component. Where the requirements do not result in a minimum level of risk, EPA cannot be confident that a complete reduction for that cost component is warranted.
Next, EPA is proposing to require that any of the requirements relied upon be enforceable against the owner or operator claiming the reduction, that they have in place adequate financial responsibility to assure that the requirements will be implemented, and that they certify that the facility is in compliance with the requirements. These conditions are intended to ensure that the underlying controls that form the basis of the risk reduction are highly likely to occur and thereby achieve their intended risk-reducing effect.
Third, EPA is proposing to require that the owner or operator certify that the facility is in compliance with the requirements relied upon in claiming a reduction to the facility's financial responsibility amount. This condition is intended to ensure that the controls
Fourth, the proposed rule also includes a general requirement that the owner and operator provide the information necessary for EPA to evaluate the claimed reductions. Specifically, § 320.63(c)(2) provides that information submitted must provide sufficient and detailed supporting information adequate to allow EPA to evaluate the adequacy of the financial assurance and of the underlying requirements for meeting the reduction.
Finally, EPA is proposing specific minimum standards for the various categories of reductions.
EPA solicits comment on the proposed reductions to the financial responsibility amount. EPA solicits comment specifically on whether the Agency has identified the appropriate criteria for the reductions, and whether the reduction criteria will provide incentives for owners or operators to implement more protective practices at their facilities to lower their financial responsibility amounts. EPA solicits comment on whether the criteria for the reductions are described in sufficient detail to allow for effective implementation and, if not, how they might be modified. EPA solicits comment on whether the reduction criteria are likely to be complied with and/or enforced such that, at the applicable time, risk at the facility will, in fact, be reduced.
EPA solicits comment on whether alternate or more flexible engineering standards can substitute for some or all of the numeric engineering standards in the proposed reduction criteria (e.g. planning for a 200-year storm event, reduction of net precipitation by 95 percent). In addition, EPA requests comment on whether the proposed reduction criteria would limit flexibility necessary for innovative or different site-specific approaches and, if so, how those might be preserved under the proposed rule. EPA also invites comment on a possible role for third-party certifiers or other regulatory authorities in identifying alternative, protective site-specific controls as a basis for financial responsibility reductions. EPA also requests comment on whether other regulatory programs already impose the requirements that would satisfy the reduction criteria. Finally, EPA solicits comment on allowing reductions to the financial responsibility amount for other risk-reducing practices and/or controls (e.g., voluntary practices) that are implemented at hardrock mining facilities that should be accounted for in the reductions, and on how, if reductions were allowed for such practices and/or controls, EPA could assure that those controls would remain in place and be effective over time where there is no regulatory program overseeing their maintenance and operation.
As discussed above, EPA is seeking to develop reduction criteria standards that are appropriate in the context of a nationally applicable rule. The Agency requests comment on whether any particular reduction criteria in paragraph 320.63(c) might be inappropriate under particular facility conditions that could still be defined in the context of a national rule. Specifically, EPA requests that commenters identify particular facility conditions where a nationally applicable standard different from the reduction criteria proposed should be applied. EPA requests that commenters identify both those alternative facility conditions and any appropriate reduction criteria with particularity. EPA is particularly interested in objective criteria that define facility conditions that could be verified by a certified professional.
As described above, EPA is proposing to allow reductions to the financial responsibility amount for the response component of the financial responsibility formula. Those reductions are based on criteria established in the rule for each of the thirteen response categories that together determine the response component amount. EPA is proposing that eligibility for the reductions be determined by owners and operators on a site-specific basis, subject to EPA review.
EPA has also considered whether reductions to the financial responsibility amount could be made by EPA, on a broader basis, to avoid expenditure of facility resources to determine eligibility for reductions, and reduce the burden on EPA to review each facility's claimed reductions individually. EPA is therefore also soliciting comment on whether the rule should also allow for EPA to conduct a programmatic review of other regulatory requirements and their implementation, with the objective of determining whether the reduction criteria are met across the program in question. Such a program deferral approach would provide for programmatic-based reductions in situations where the program meets the requirements for deferral of CERCLA § 108(b) requirements for the full response component of the financial responsibility formula—that is, for all facilities and all response categories.
Under this approach, owners and operators of facilities would not be required to comply with the requirements to calculate a financial responsibility amount and to obtain a financial responsibility instrument under EPA's CERCLA 108(b) regulations after EPA determines that a state or federal program meets certain criteria. The remainder of the requirements of Part 320 would remain applicable at the facility (e.g., notification to EPA, public notice requirements). Facilities would remain subject to these other requirements in order for EPA to monitor the regulated universe and ensure the continuing validity of any deferral determination. EPA would be able to withdraw its determination and impose all CERCLA § 108(b) requirements if the requirements for deferral are no longer met.
The criteria for deferral would be designed to assure that EPA would be able to make a program-wide determination that facilities regulated
EPA recognizes potential advantages to this approach. First, deferral of these requirements would minimize the implementation of the CERCLA § 108(b) rule at facilities that are already subject to programmatic requirements that, if implemented and enforced, can be determined to result in a minimum level of risk, thereby focusing implementation resources on the remaining universe of facilities with less protective practices. This approach would also reduce costs for owners and operators subject to programs that qualify for deferral of CERCLA § 108(b) requirements, as they would not have to submit information to support the calculation of a financial responsibility amount, or the reductions to that amount. Finally, providing for deferral provides an incentive for programs to adopt the necessary requirements to comply with the reduction criteria.
At the same time, EPA recognizes several disadvantages to the programmatic deferral approach. First, EPA is concerned that it may be difficult for the Agency to ensure that facilities remain in compliance with the underlying requirements, and thus ensure that the facilities continue to present a minimum degree and duration of risk over time. Potential problems could include the necessity for EPA to monitor changes to permitting regimes and substantive technical requirements. EPA is also concerned about how it could ensure that the financial assurance actually provided by every facility under a given regulatory regime is sufficient to ensure that the reduction criteria would be met in practice. Without such an assurance, EPA may find it difficult to conclude that the regulatory program requirements relied upon for the deferral determination will result in minimum risk. This concern is presented particularly where the determination of the amount of financial assurance is subject to the discretion of the regulator, instead of being identified with particularity in the terms of the regulations. In this case, EPA is unsure how it could make a broad-based determination that financial assurance requirements will be sufficient, if they have potential for varying stringency in practice. Finally, EPA is concerned that as a practical matter it may be difficult for the Agency to withdraw a programmatic deferral once granted, even where there is evidence that the criteria for programmatic deferral are no longer met. Thus, EPA expects that any deferral option would necessitate an oversight mechanism short of full withdrawal. EPA also expects that a dispute resolution process to resolve differences that arise among implementers would be an important component of a programmatic deferral approach.
It should be noted, however, that in taking this approach, EPA would not expect to review Federal and state closure and reclamation programs for adequacy, or to judge the quality or efficacy of those programs. EPA's concern would be whether requirements meeting the reduction criteria, designed for purposes of CERCLA § 108(b), are imposed and enforced at facilities, and secured with financial assurance adequate to assure their implementation. Those questions are separate from the question of whether the Federal or state closure program is adequate for its intended purpose or whether the financial assurance required is adequate financial responsibility for the purpose of that program.
EPA solicits comment on the programmatic deferral approach. EPA particularly solicits comment on whether regulators would be interested in seeking an EPA determination of programmatic deferral, whether existing programs would qualify for programmatic deferral based on the proposed reduction criteria, whether commenters believe EPA could assure compliance with the proposed reduction criteria if a programmatic deferral was implemented, how a conflict resolution process might be developed and implemented, and how a programmatic deferral approach might be improved.
EPA also solicits comment on whether to consider partial deferral from the response component of the formula where a federal or state program met the criteria for deferral for some but not all of the thirteen response categories. This would result in a requirement to calculate a financial responsibility amount and to obtain a CERCLA § 108(b) instrument, for a lower overall amount. This would not, however, otherwise change the operation of the rule in practice. As was discussed in section IV.D of this preamble, because the formula employs an aggregation of individual costs to obtain an overall amount for the facility, the individual cost components are not themselves intended to represent any sub-limits within the actual financial responsibility instrument—in other words, the total amount of funds would be available for any future Superfund action anywhere across the facility, and would not be tied to particular site features. This would remain the case in any partial deferral approach. For example, a program might include requirements that would satisfy the reduction criteria for the waste pile response category but not for the open pit category. In that situation, under this approach, owners or operators would not have to calculate an amount for waste pile areas at their facilities, or make the demonstrations necessary to qualify for reductions to that amount. Those facilities would still have to calculate a financial responsibility amount for open pit areas at their facilities, and any other portions of the formula not subject to an EPA partial deferral determination. The total amount of funds would be available for any future Superfund action
EPA sees a potential advantage to the regulated community from such an approach, because of the timing requirements of the statute. As was discussed in section VI.D.2 of this preamble, CERCLA § 108(b)(3) includes a statutory phasing provision that requires financial responsibility requirements to be imposed as quickly as can reasonably be achieved but in no event more than four years after the date of promulgation of the final rule. Thus, EPA has included provisions in the proposed rule reflecting this provision (§ 320.61). Owners and operators will need to comply with the requirement to calculate a financial responsibility amount and obtain a CERCLA § 108(b) instrument in accordance with the phase-in provisions of the proposed rule, until EPA makes a final determination on deferral. EPA's ability to make any deferral decisions (partial or complete) quickly, may in turn depend upon the actions of another regulator to make changes to its regulations, and/or the resources available to the Agency to undertake the necessary reviews. A partial program
EPA solicits comment on this approach. EPA requests comment on any drawbacks to allowing for partial deferral and, if the Agency were to adopt this approach, whether this approach should be a long-term component of the CERCLA § 108(b) requirements, or whether it should be a temporary mechanism to allow time for program modifications necessary to comply with the reduction criteria.
Finally, EPA is also soliciting comment on whether partial reductions should be allowed within the formula sub-components, and how partial reductions might be structured. As was explained above, EPA is proposing to allow for all-or-nothing reductions when all reduction criteria are met, and when the general performance standard (and other requirements) are met. As also explained above, one key consideration is how to ensure that the reductions can confidently be tied to reductions in risk in a nationally-applicable rule. Accordingly, EPA does not expect that allowing partial reductions for a response category amount based on partial compliance with the reduction criteria would be appropriate, as the reduction criteria are not intended to reflect proportional reductions in risk—rather, EPA's intent is to establish a combined system of requirements that together, would result in a set of conditions that result in a minimum degree and duration of risk. Nonetheless, EPA solicits comment on whether partial reductions should be allowed for response categories. EPA requests information regarding how the amount of a partial reduction could be determined, and the basis upon which EPA could apportion the reduction in risk among the reduction criteria to assign a corresponding decrease in the financial responsibility, while still providing assurance that the resultant financial responsibility amount will be consistent with the level of risk.
Owners or operators are required under § 320.66 to submit information to support the calculation of financial responsibility at their facility, and to maintain that information for a period of three years. The information submitted must be in sufficient detail to enable EPA to review the cost estimate and determine its adequacy.
The Agency anticipates that the type of information can be found in existing documents such as the owners or operator's plan of operations, reclamation and/or closure plans, and permits. EPA solicits comment on these reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
EPA is proposing that elements of the calculation of the financial responsibility amount submitted to EPA be certified by an independent qualified professional engineer. EPA believes that this requirement would improve the accuracy of submissions, and would thereby facilitate implementation of the rule by requiring less review by EPA of financial responsibility amount submissions.
The requirements to determine a financial responsibility amount that are proposed in § 320.63 include a formula in § 320.63(b) and criteria for reducing the financial responsibility amount in § 320.63(c). EPA solicits comment on the use of professional certifications in the implementation of those requirements. EPA is particularly interested in which elements of the formula would be best suited to certification by an independent professional engineer, what other independent professional certifications might be appropriate, and whether independent professional certifications are beneficial.
Proposed § 320.65 includes the requirement that the qualified professional engineer that certifies the financial responsibility amount be “independent.” EPA is considering whether the requirement for independence would help strengthen the certifications under this proposal, and whether that extra level of protection is necessary in this rule where EPA is not the permitting authority and will therefore have less familiarity with the facility than it would in other circumstances (e.g., RCRA closure requirements under 40 CFR part 264 and Part 265). EPA solicits comment on the proposed requirement for independence of the qualified professional engineer, on whether a requirement that a qualified professional engineer be independent would strengthen the certification requirement, and on whether such a requirement is appropriate under this proposed rule. EPA wants to ensure that the definition of “independent” contribute to the objectivity of the certifier. Thus, EPA solicits comment on criteria to define “independent,” including criteria related to personal, professional, and economic relationships between the owner or operator and the certifier.
Finally, EPA solicits comment on whether certification by other professionals other than professional engineers could be incorporated into this proposed rule to facilitate implementation. For example, EPA has heard from states that they are using third parties to review site features, bonding requirements, and financial documents. EPA request comment on the experience of implementers and the regulated community on the use of professional certifications in regulatory programs, including the benefits and disadvantages of such an approach.
Since issuing the 2009
In developing this proposed rule, EPA also documented examples of releases and threatened releases of hazardous substances from recent and current mining operations. The documents developed by EPA can be found in the docket for this rulemaking, and are discussed below.
This document discusses sources of releases at approximately thirty recently or currently operating mines and mineral processing facilities that had no previous significant legacy mining issues. These releases to the environment from mining and mineral processing activities, including tailings impoundments, waste rock piles, open pits, and leach pads were subsequently mitigated using CERCLA or CERCLA like actions under Federal and/or state statutory authority. Mines that have predicted future discharges to the environment and have proposed either preventative actions or CERCLA like mitigations also are discussed.
Examples of releases at currently operating facilities discussed in this document include:
EPA also gathered information on current mining and mineral processing practices to better understand the extent to which present day practices might have changed, determine whether currently operating hardrock mining and processing facilities continue to release CERCLA hazardous substances, and evaluate the present and future concerns regarding these releases. Initial research efforts focused on characterizing practices within each commodity sector. However, hardrock mining encompasses multiple commodities that represent a broad range of activities and marketable products. Through initial research and consultation with mining experts, EPA concluded that, for the most part, many of the mining, mineral processing, and waste management practices that are in widespread use within the current U.S. hardrock mining industry have a common thread regardless of the commodity. EPA therefore concluded that rather than evaluate releases on a commodity by commodity basis, a better approach was to focus on commonly employed practices and, when necessary, also evaluate commodity-specific issues and processes. EPA thus identified the following thirteen hardrock mining, mineral processing, and associated waste management practices for detailed evaluation: (1) Surface and underground mining; (2) non-entry (in-situ leaching or solution) mining; (3) physical, gravity, and magnetic processing; (4) flotation; (5)
For each practice, EPA gathered information including literature reviews of technical references, academic sources, and government publications. EPA also consulted with United States Geological Survey (USGS) staff and mining experts. EPA focused this research and discussions on the following topics for each practice listed earlier: (1) Historical and current use, (2) technical description, (3) potential sources and releases of CERCLA hazardous substances and management practices to address those potential sources and releases, and (4) documented releases at historical sites and currently operating facilities.
EPA developed a profile of historical and contemporary practices and the environmental releases of CERCLA hazardous substances associated with each practice. Information about historical sites was gathered largely from Record of Decision (ROD) and Remedial Investigation/Feasibility Study (RI/FS) documents. Information about currently operating sites came from various EPA databases, Emergency Response Notification System (ERNS) incident notifications, Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA) records, Federal and state permit documents, and general research.
EPA selected a sample of the 102 historical CERCLA sites (including both NPL and non-NPL sites at which removal actions occurred), involving hardrock mining and primary mineral processing sites, for additional data collection to characterize the practices and releases of hazardous substances. Some findings of the study follow.
Underground and surface mining create large amounts of excavated material, with surface mining tending to generate greater amounts of waste rock. Large-scale surface (open-pit) mining techniques generally create a greater surface impact than underground or non-entry (e.g., in situ leaching) mining methods. Surface mines generate dust, large piles of waste rock, and large, usually permanent holes in the earth's surface. The corresponding amount of waste rock and tailings being mined and deposited is increasing as a result of large-scale mining operations. The scale of these mining operations poses formidable obstacles to effectively and efficiently addressing releases. Such large scale mining operations cause a significant increase in exposure of ore constituents to precipitation, resulting in the leaching of hazardous substances to ground and surface waters, and to the wind, resulting in air emissions. The Rio Tinto Kennecott Bingham Canyon site, an open-pit copper, gold, silver, and molybdenum mine located near Salt Lake City, Utah provides an example of the problems posed by such large scale mining operations. As part of its operations, Kennecott had deposited waste rock on the slopes of the nearby Oquirrh Mountains. The waste rock dumps leached metals-rich acidic water first through an unlined reservoir and then into a groundwater plume that extended 72 square miles. The State of Utah took legal action against Kennecott as a result of the contamination in 1986; as a result of a consent decree reached in 2007, Kennecott agreed to treat the contaminated groundwater for the next forty years.
Similar to practices at some mines that became NPL sites, mining is currently performed in open pits and underground mines, both of which may discharge acidic waters, referred to as acid mine drainage that can result when stormwater, surface water or ground water comes in contact with sulfur bearing minerals, creating acidic water which dissolves and leaches toxic metals into the environment. The Formosa Mine, a former copper, zinc and thorium mine in southwest Oregon, provides an example of the risk posed by releases from underground mines. In this case, storm water-driven contaminant releases from the mine have led to an annual discharge of approximately five million gallons of acid rock drainage, containing up to 30,000 pounds of dissolved copper and zinc, along with other metals. One of the primary sources of these metals is underground mine workings; low pH shallow ground water and adit drainage to surface water, both laden with high concentrations of metals. According to the State of Oregon, the mine has contaminated 18 miles of the Oregon's Umpqua watershed (Middle Creek and South Fork of Middle Creek and Cow Creek)—eliminating prime habitat for the threatened Oregon coast Coho salmon and steelhead.
Dust and waste rock, produced during both open-pit and underground mining, can release trace elements and other toxic substances. Waste rock and overburden piles are typically stored on-site and remain an important consideration for the environmental performance of currently operating mines. Disposal typically involves depositing the waste rock in dedicated dumps or piles, or in some cases using it as mine backfill. Waste rock can also be co-disposed with filtered tailings, or in a slurry pond. Further, releases from waste rock disposals can arise years after operations have ceased, through discharges of mine influenced water, and pile deformation or collapse. Thus, waste rock disposals are often the focus of reclamation and closure plans and require consistent and long-term maintenance, monitoring, and potentially treatment.
As with acid mine drainage, other mine influenced water can also be of concern. Mine influenced water encompasses any water whose chemical composition has been affected by mining or mineral processing. This includes not only acid mine drainage but also drainage that is neutral or alkaline. In addition to environmental concerns posed by acidity or alkalinity, mine influenced water often contains elevated concentrations of mobilized contaminants, suspended solids, or sulfate or arsenate content. There are many potential sources of mine influenced water, because it includes any natural waters that come into contact with mining operations. Common sources include groundwater affected by pits or underground workings, surface water that has entered
The risk for contamination from hazardous substances originating in waste rock depends on the mineralogy and geochemical composition of the waste rock and its level of exposure to air and water at the disposal site. For example, sulfide rock can generate acids that dissolve trace elements that, without long-term containment, collection, and treatment, pose a significant concern long after initial disposal. Discharges can take years to develop, and pose a long-term risk of hazardous releases at the site. Environmental issues resulting from mine influenced water vary depending on commodity, climate, type of mine or mineral processing facility, and mine phase. A key characteristic for most mine influenced water (whether acidic, neutral, or alkaline drainage) is an elevated concentration of trace elements that have leached from surrounding solids such as waste rock, tailings, or mine surfaces. These acidic and metal-contaminated fluids are frequently a serious problem at mines and may be acutely or chronically toxic and may have harmful effects on humans, fish, animals, and plants.
An example of such a situation is the Barite Hill/Nevada Goldfields facility. The Barite Hill gold/silver mine located in South Carolina was previously owned by Nevada Goldfields, Inc., who operated an open pit cyanide heap leach operation on the property from 1989 until 1994. Nevada Goldfields conducted mine reclamation activities from 1995 until 1999 when they went bankrupt and subsequently abandoned the property. After the mine closed, the 10-acre Main Pit began to fill with water. At its highest, the Main Pit contained approximately sixty million gallons of highly acidic water with high dissolved metals content. The main mine pit, ponds, sediment, surface water and soil are contaminated with arsenic, cadmium, chromium, copper, lead, mercury, nickel, selenium, silver, zinc, and cyanide. Contamination affected surface water and sediment in Hawe Creek and its tributaries, posing a threat to people who eat fish from the Hawe Creek fishery as well as a nearby drinking water reservoir. When acid mine drainage occurs, it is extremely difficult and often very expensive to control, and also often requires costly long-term management measures.
Mineral processing practices likewise raise significant release issues. For example, flotation processes generate tailings that consist of a mixture of waste material and the remaining liquid, which consists mostly of water and any remaining reagents. These are generally pumped to a tailings impoundment, where solids are settled out of the solution. In some cases, reagents have the potential for environmental harm. Although most of these reagents are consumed during flotation and only small residual quantities make it into the tailings, facilities might dispose of wastes from various processes in the same waste management units, with the resulting mixture containing more hazardous constituents than tailings from flotation alone.
The use of cyanide in gold mining operations creates additional risks, including the potential release of cyanide into soil, groundwater, and/or surface waters, which has resulted in catastrophic cyanide spills. Cyanide leaching has occurred since the mid 1900's. While the use of acid to leach copper dumps, the use of cyanide to leach gold in heaps, and the spread of solvent extraction techniques have changed some aspects of mining, the basic operation of removing ore from the ground and concentrating it through beneficiation has remained fundamentally the same as when most of the non-active NPL sites were in operation. In the case of heap and dump leaching, the metals and other compounds in the ores have become more mobile due to the increased use of efficient lixiviants. In addition to the release of cyanide, discharges from cyanidation processes both during operations and after closure can also contain potentially toxic elements including lead, cadmium, copper, arsenic, and mercury. Leaching tanks, leach pads, piping and storage facilities (e.g., process solution ponds and facilities associated with leaching) can release sulfuric acid and mobilized contaminants into the environment. These leaching solutions can pose significant environmental and human health risks if they are not contained successfully. Information on documented releases reveals that acid leach operations have caused contamination of both surface and ground waters in addition to injuring habitat and wildlife. Releases due to equipment failures, chronic seepage, or weather-related overflows seem to be the most common problems; acid leach operations need to ensure proper reclamation of spent dump or heap leach piles, maintenance of equipment, and preparation of systems for severe weather in order to minimize environmental impacts. Cyanide leaching processes create wastes that can present risks of releases of hazardous substances such as cyanide, cyanide-metal complexes, and metals via groundwater and surface water routes. In addition, sulfuric acid can leach metals from other mining wastes and containment areas, transporting other contaminants to surface and groundwater systems. While leaching solutions are generally recycled back to the process, failure to contain them properly can result in releases. After leaching has been discontinued, the abandoned leach site can be a source of acidic effluents, hazardous trace elements, and total dissolved solids if it is not properly monitored and managed. Mine influenced water (e.g., acid, alkaline, or neutral mine drainage), i.e., runoff originating from exposed heap leach piles or tailings, is also a distinct risk associated with this practice.
The Beal Mountain Mine, a gold and silver mine in Montana, used cyanidation to extract precious metals until it was closed in 1997 when Pegasus gold went bankrupt. Although the mine is no longer operating, it has continued to pollute neighboring streams with cyanide, selenium and copper. Ongoing issues include the geotechnical stability of the pit high wall and leach pad dike, infiltration of precipitation and groundwater into the leach pad, and treatment and disposal of excess solution accumulating on the heap leach pad.
Zortman and Landusky Mines, in Montana, likewise used cyanidation to extract precious metals and also underwent bankruptcy and left significant pollution at their respective sites. In addition to a heap leach pad leak, the Zortman and Landusky facility experienced cyanide releases from a leach pad pipe, a solution pond liner leak, and a process pond liner leak.
Releases also have occurred from other leach pad operations, including the Barrick Goldstrike mine in Nevada, where there was a release of 159,000 gallons of cyanide in 2003 and 21,625 gallons of sodium cyanide in 1995. Also, the Florida Canyon mine in Nevada released 52,500 gallons of sodium cyanide (30 percent solution) in 1996. The groundwater contamination that resulted from releases from this facility's leach pad operation was previously discussed.
Similar to historical releases, tailings management played a role in roughly half of the publicly documented releases. Tailings are the waste material created when valuable minerals or metals have been extracted from ore. Depending on the commodity and the mineral processing method, tailings may contain chemical residues inherent to processing. For example, milling operations that practice flotation or leaching may produce tailings containing reagents such as lime or glycol ether and lixiviants including acids and cyanide. The Robinson Nevada Mining Company operates the Robinson Operation surface mine in White Pine County, Nevada. This facility produces gold and copper using flotation processes. The facility released copper flotation tailings five times in 1996, leading to violations of its water pollution control permit.
Tailings usually take the form of a slurry (e.g., wet tailings), but may also undergo dewatering and disposal as paste or filtered tailings. Depending on the commodity and the beneficiation process, tailings may contain a variety of hazardous materials, originating from geologic components of the ore or chemicals introduced during processing. Therefore, they require proper disposal and storage.
In addition to the previously discussed releases from the tailings storage units at the Jerritt Canyon mine, there have been releases at other tailings storage units, including: ArcelorMittal Minorca is an iron mining and processing facility located in Virginia, Minnesota. Three failures in the tailings and waste rock pipe and tailings dike at the site occurred in 2013 and 2014, discharging 8,500 cubic yards of tailings and waste rock and affecting 15.3 acres of wetlands, potentially destroying the area's ability to function as a natural aquatic habitat and filtration system.
The U.S. Silver Galena mine is a silver-lead and silver-copper underground mine located near Wallace, Idaho, and operated by the U.S. Silver Corporation since 2007. In 2014, U.S. Silver Corporation signed a Consent Agreement and Final Order with EPA Region 10 admitting to discharging wastewater from the Osburn tailings pond into Lake Creek and the Coeur d'Alene River that carried excessive concentrations of mercury and copper in 2012 and 2013. The discharge was the result of a failure to monitor treated water normally discharged to water system. U.S. Silver also admitted that on March 14, 2014, it discharged tailings slurry directly into Lake Creek.
The Golden Sunlight mine located in Montana is a gold and silver open pit mine and underground cyanide vat leach operation. This facility's original tailing disposal facility operated from 1983 to 1995. Seepage was detected from Tailing Impoundment No. 1 in 1983. To control effluent from the impoundment, the bentonite cut-off wall was immediately repaired. An extensive system of monitoring wells has been installed over the years, and several hydrogeologic investigations have been undertaken to continue to monitor, evaluate, and control leakage from the impoundment.
Tailings management presents significant environmental challenges to current mining operations. Because acid may not be generated for many years and most tailings ponds are designed to allow infiltration of water through the pond, the potential of acid generation and mobile metals are of such concern that many mines construct complex monitoring and water management systems for their tailings ponds. It is likely that some constituents of concern (i.e., arsenic, sulfates, etc.) have become more mobile due to crushing the ore to a smaller particle size. Although operators now generally attempt to contain these waste management features, proper long-term management is required to safeguard against leaks, runoff, and catastrophic failure. Because reclamation and closure are yet to occur at currently operating facilities, the available data do not capture information characterizing the scope and efficacy of these practices. Based on the experience of currently closed sites, the environmental impacts of releases to groundwater and runoff from tailings impoundments and waste rock piles will continue to be of concern at these facilities long after closure.
Fugitive dust emissions from tailings storage units also can be a concern. For example, Hecla Greens Creek is a lead, zinc, silver, and gold underground mine located near Juneau, Alaska, and operated by the Hecla Greens Creek Mining Company. The mill produces 650,000 tons of tailings annually. In 2013, elevated concentrations of metals were detected in the snow and lichens adjacent to the tailings disposal facility. The USFS, who installed the lichen to act as a biomonitor of the recently expanded tailings facility, concluded the contamination was the result of fugitive dust emissions from the tailings.
EPA recognizes various environmental regulatory programs may affect releases of CERCLA hazardous substances at hardrock mining and mineral processing facilities. Examples of the regulations include requirements under: (1) The Clean Water Act (CWA), (2) the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act (UMTRCA), and (3) reclamation requirements such as the BLM's 3809 regulations. However, EPA has found that significant issues involving noncompliance with regulatory requirements resulting in releases of hazardous substances persist. EPA's ongoing concern with reducing the risk of mining waste contamination of drinking water, rivers, and streams, and work to cleanup mining and mineral processing facilities has been an enforcement priority for almost ten years, as reflected in the Agency's National Enforcement Initiative (NEI): Reducing Pollution from Mineral Processing Operations reflects the Agency's concerted effort to reduce the risk of mining waste contamination of drinking water, rivers, and streams, and work to cleanup mining and mineral
EPA believes the results of this relatively recent effort to further document the state of current mining practices substantiates the findings from the other documents described herein and further reinforces the Agency's belief that currently operating hardrock mining and mineral processing facilities subject to this proposal continue to present risks of release of hazardous substances.
The document “Evidence of CERCLA Hazardous Substances and Potential Exposures at CERCLA § 108(b) Mining and Mineral Processing Sites” reports EPA preliminary efforts from 2009-2012 to examine CERCLA site-specific documents for estimated exposures of human and ecological receptors to CERCLA hazardous substances from mining and mineral processing sites cleaned up under Superfund in the past. The report also collects available information on potential exposures of human and ecological receptors to CERCLA hazardous substances from mining and mineral processing sites that were operational in 2009 (the most current available data at the time the evaluation took place).
EPA concluded the following: (1) Some of the sites operational in 2009 are already on Superfund's National Priority List (NPL) requiring cleanup; (2) mining and mineral processing practices at sites cleaned up under Superfund in the past continue to be used at sites operational in 2009, especially when comparing sites that mine or process the same range of commodities; (3) there are similarities between the Contaminants of Concern
Overall, the compiled information demonstrates that sites requiring cleaned up under Superfund in the past, and sites operational in 2009 share characteristics related to the potential release of CERCLA hazardous substances and the exposure of human and ecological receptors, and illustrates the applicability of EPA's CERCLA experience to evaluating currently operating mines and processors.
EPA has also identified numerous documents showing recent releases of CERCLA hazardous substances at hardrock mining and processing facilities and thus continuing risks of release or threatened release of CERCLA hazardous substances associated with those activities. These documents are available in the docket for this proposed rule and include:
This document, published in 1997, presents summaries about mining and mineral processing damage cases that occurred since 1990. Many of the damage cases included in this document involved mining and mineral processing of commodities covered by this proposed rule. The release incidents occurred from the production, treatment, storage or disposal of hazardous substances involving extraction and beneficiation operations, including inadequate containment of tailings, clay ponds, waste rock, process water, process solution (
This document provides an overview of the types of releases of hazardous substances associated with the production, storage, and disposal of hazardous substances and the associated impacts, including NPL cleanups. It also documents that `although some mining waste management practices have changed over time, the basic technology for extraction and beneficiation of mineral ores have remained fairly constant over the last fifty years.'
This document states that mining activities at many NPL sites resulted in the generation of tailings, acid drainage, waste dumps, and waste rock and that these are the same types of wastes generated by current mines. It further reports that tailings, mine water, and waste rock are the highest volume wastes generated by all past and current mining operations. In the case of tailings, it is likely that some constituents (
The document also states that `many current mining operations are extracting sulfide ores, having exhausted the less acidic oxide ores. Therefore, the potential for environmental damage from acid mine drainage at existing mines is possible, if favorable geologic and climatic factors exist. There are dozens of current mining operations with open pits or that have extensive underground tunnels are, similar to NPL sites, located in high sulfide environments.' These current operations continuously pump and treat groundwater that enters the pit or mined tunnels as part of the overall mine water management system. Some of the larger currently operating mines are not only pumping and chemically treating mine water, they are using other control methods such as intercepting aquifers to control water flow into the mine and diverting entire surface streams. In many cases, once the decision is made to divert streams and intercept aquifers, active water management will have to continue indefinitely, long after the mine is closed.
Finally, the document states that current mining practice is to impound tailings behind engineered dams and attempt to control and treat discharges to surface water and groundwater. Current design rarely includes lining the ponds. Unlined tailings ponds are specifically designed either to introduce water directly to groundwater or direct it to leachate collection systems that flow into surface ponds at the base of a dam (toe ponds). Tailings management presents significant environmental challenges to current mining operations. Because acid may not be generated for many years and most tailings ponds are designed to allow infiltration of water through the pond, the potential for acid generation and mobile metals are of such concern that many mines construct complex monitoring and water management systems for their tailings ponds.
Although this document was published almost 25 years ago, EPA has concluded that it still presents a relatively accurate description of current mining and mineral processing practices and the potential releases associated with these practices, as identified in the more recent documents previously described.
EPA developed this document to illustrate the human health and environmental damages caused by management of wastes from mining (
The damage cases illustrate the wide variety of human health and environmental impacts caused by wastes from mining and mineral processing operations, including groundwater, surface water, and soil contamination; human health damages or risks; and damages to vegetation, wildlife, and other biota. As noted earlier, in more recent documents prepared by EPA, many of the damage cases cited in this document involved releases that EPA has concluded are still indicative of current mining and mineral processing practices and the potential releases associated with these practices.
EPA evaluated several databases, as follows:
EPA also looked at releases of CERCLA hazardous substances reported under the Emergency Response Notification System (ERNS). EPA considered these data because of the potential insights the data offered on an annual basis over a prolonged period of time—providing a means by which to show the extent of and reasons for reported releases of CERCLA hazardous substances by hardrock mining and mineral processing facilities.
ERNS primarily contains initial accounts of releases reported to the National Response Center, made during or immediately after a release occurs. The National Response Center receives all reports of releases involving hazardous substances and oil that trigger Federal notification requirements under several laws. It also should be noted that the National Response Center is strictly an initial report-taking agency and does not participate in the investigation or incident response. The National Response Center receives initial reporting information only and notifies Federal and state On-Scene Coordinators for response.
From the National Response Center Web site (
EPA's analyses show that, since 1990, more than 950 reported releases of CERCLA hazardous substances were associated with currently operating facilities in the hardrock mining industry.
EPA also reviewed a report that substantially relied on ERNS data to show pipeline, seepage control and tailings impoundment failures at operating copper porphyry mines in the U.S., and the associated water quality impacts.
The Toxics Release Inventory (TRI) includes data on chemicals (including numerous CERCLA hazardous substances) that are released, recycled, treated, or used for energy recovery. Under TRI, releases include air emissions, surface water discharges, underground injection wells, and placement to land, including RCRA hazardous waste landfills and other landfills. TRI data also show quantities transferred to publicly owned treatment works (POTWs) and to off-site facilities. In developing this proposal, EPA examined recent TRI data
More than 99 percent of these onsite releases involved surface impoundments (
In the 2009
EPA considered these objections to the use of these data, in developing its data for this proposal. The Agency recognizes that a significant portion of the TRI releases reported as air emissions and surface water discharges are likely permitted by Federal/state regulatory authorities. EPA also recognizes that some of the surface impoundments, landfills, and waste piles used to manage wastes containing these large volumes of hazardous substances might be designed and operated to mitigate releases into the environment.
These data provide some perspective about the number of currently operating facilities and offer insights on the types, amounts, and management of hazardous substances at hardrock mining and mineral processing facilities potentially subject to this proposed rule. The presence of such significant amount of hazardous substances, even if subject to regulatory controls, provides some indication of the potential for risks to result if improperly managed. In addition, EPA previously has discussed the evidence of non-compliance with regulatory standards. Thus, the TRI data provide relevant information on the risks associated with hardrock mining facilities.
The RCRA Hazardous Waste Biennial Report (BR) contains data reported by hazardous waste handlers and must be submitted by large quantity hazardous waste generators and treatment, storage, and disposal facilities every two years. Because RCRA hazardous wastes, by statute, are designated CERCLA hazardous substances, EPA analyzed the BR data for the 2009, 2011, and 2013 reporting cycles. These data show the quantities of RCRA hazardous waste streams generated and how the waste
EPA found a wide variation in the quantity of hazardous waste generated by facilities in the hardrock mining industry, including nearly 3,000 tons in 2009, nearly 25,000 tons in 2011, and more than 13,000 tons in 2013. These generated quantities, for the most part, do not represent actual releases to the environment but instead represent amounts of hazardous substances produced and managed at the reporting facilities. The sources and types of hazardous wastes generated by these facilities are numerous and varied, including: (1) Contaminated soil from remediation and/or past contamination; (2) contaminated soil and debris from spills and accidental releases; (3) filters, solid adsorbents, ion exchange resins and spent carbon from air pollution control devices; (4) sludges, liquids, solids from cleanout of process equipment; (5) laboratory analytical wastes; (6) spent process liquids or catalysts, (7) removal of tank sludge, sediments, or slag; and (8) discarding off-specification or out-of-date chemicals or products.
To a large extent, facilities in the hardrock mining industry ultimately transfer their RCRA hazardous wastes to offsite treatment and disposal facilities. However, for those facilities that do treat and dispose of hazardous wastes onsite, the potential co-mingling of hazardous wastes with Bevill excluded wastes or non-hazardous wastes is a concern to EPA. Indeed, EPA has determined that some facilities place mixtures of exempt wastes (e.g. tailings) and non-exempt wastes in an on-site waste management unit.
In the 2009
EPA recognizes that the BR data concerning volume of hazardous waste generated and managed onsite, when considered alone, does not provide a direct indicator of risk of release or of mismanagement of wastes. Notwithstanding the issues pointed out by commenters, EPA believes these data do offer insights on the types, amounts, and management of RCRA hazardous wastes (by definition, CERCLA hazardous substances) at hardrock mining and mineral processing facilities potentially subject to this proposed rule.
EPA conducted analysis of historical response costs at 319 hardrock mining and processing sites on the National Priorities List (NPL) and at non-NPL CERCLA sites. EPA used this information to help further identify the magnitude of continuing risks from hardrock mining facilities potentially subject to the rule. Such costs also serve as a measure of the severity of consequences impacting human health and the environment as a result of releases of and exposure to hazardous substances. Specifically, the past and estimated future costs associated with protecting public health and the environment through what is often extensive and long-term reclamation and remediation efforts can be substantial.
The Agency developed a database for purposes of analysis that uses the “Expenditures”, “ROD Costs”, and “Settlements” data derived from CERCLIS, Integrated Financial Management System (IFMS), and Office of Enforcement and Compliance Assurance (OECA) information resources. These data sources for response costs included: (1) Fund expenditures incurred at each site to date, the type of expenditure (broadly speaking, construction versus non-construction) and the source of funds (whether the Fund was reimbursed by the potentially responsible party (PRP) through a “special account”); and (2) Records of Decision (RODs) at each site. A ROD is a document that provides the justification for the remedial action (treatment) chosen at a Superfund site. It also contains information concerning site history, site description, and site characteristics. The ROD Costs database provides a dollar estimate for each remedial action chosen at a site. Last, information was compiled about settlements with PRPs, including “cash out” funds accrued and deposits into special accounts associated with settlements at each site.
Following a review of the discussed data sources, EPA developed a tailored approach that attempts to characterize the total (
In considering the total remediation and other expenditures experienced at these sites (including both past and projected future expenditures necessary to complete cleanup), EPA estimates that the historical response costs total $12.9 billion at 243 hardrock mining and minerals processing facilities evaluated for which data were available at the time of the analyses. The estimate of response costs for just 117 NPL sites from the sample totals more than $12 billion, or an average of more than $103 million per site. Federal expenditures to date total roughly one-third of the total (or $4 billion), paid for through EPA's Superfund program. Such significant cleanup costs may be considered as an indication of the relative risks present at these sites, and the potential magnitude of environmental liabilities associated with this industry overall. It should be noted that this data does not capture funds spend cleaning up hardrock mining facilities outside of the Superfund program (
Costs associated with ATSDR Health Assessments and Natural Resource Damages further increase the liabilities attributable to the hardrock mining and mineral processing sectors. EPA identified documented natural resource damages settlements at 64 sites within this sector. This statistic alone suggests that as many as 25 percent of CERCLA sites in this sector have also been the source for associated damages to natural resources. Based on the natural resource damages cases identified, the values of the damages average more than $16 million across all of the cases, with individual settlements ranging from $32,000 to over $400 million.
Information available to EPA indicates strongly that the hardrock mining industry continues to present risks associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous substances. Mining activities at many NPL sites resulted in the generation of tailings, acid drainage, waste dumps, and waste rock; these are the same types of wastes generated by current mines. In many cases, releases were largely due to the direct discharge of wastes into the local environment or minimal containment efforts. For example, the P4/Monsanto-South Rasmussen facility, operating near Soda Springs in southeast Idaho, discharged wastewater containing high concentrations of selenium and heavy metals from a waste rock dump at the mine without a required permit. Further, P4's unpermitted discharges, which contained selenium levels far above Idaho's state water quality standards, polluted a nearby wetland and an unnamed tributary of Sheep Creek, as well as downstream waters that drain to the Snake River. P4 agreed to pay a $1.4 million civil penalty for alleged Clean Water Act violations and to continue collecting selenium-contaminated leachate from the waste rock pile and to prevent leachate from entering nearby creeks and wetlands until such time as the company either obtains a National Pollution Discharge Elimination System permit, or it undertakes a restoration of the waste rock dump under another state or Federal order.
Additionally, many releases described in publicly available information occurred after closure of the mine or mineral processing site, suggesting that the potential for releases and adequate monitoring remains a long-term concern after closure of the mining or mineral processing operation.
While some mining waste management practices have changed over time, the basic technologies for extracting and processing of mineral ores have remained fairly constant over approximately the last 50 years. Mining technology has become more efficient over time in recovering mineral values—allowing lower grade ores to be mined which produce more waste. At the same time, a combination of economic and technological factors have increased the scale of surface disturbance and waste generation. Mining and mineral processing facilities generate more toxic and hazardous waste than any other industrial sector.
Underground and surface mining create large amounts of excavated material. Disposal typically involves depositing the waste rock in dedicated dumps or piles, or in some cases using it as mine backfill. Waste rock can also be co-disposed with paste or filtered tailings, or in a slurry pond. Waste rock and overburden piles are typically stored on-site, which may result in acidic or other mine-influenced water. Common sources include groundwater affected by pits or underground workings, surface water that has entered surface excavations, or any precipitation that contacts pit faces, leach piles, waste rock piles, or tailings piles. Sulfide rock can generate acids that dissolve trace elements which, without long-term containment, collection, and treatment, pose a significant concern long after initial disposal.
Further, releases from waste rock disposal can arise years after operations have ceased, through discharges of mine influenced water, and pile deformation or collapse. Most mines require ongoing management for acidic drainage. Evidence has shown that such problems continue to be a problem even at sites that have been inactive for more than a century. Thus, discharges can take years to develop, and pose a long-term risk of hazardous releases at the site.
EPA's research indicates that all processing of ore, including physical and magnetic processing, can result in spills of intermediate material and waste. This is because transport within the facility of the many different commodities and process chemicals used in hardrock mining activities is required between subsequent processing steps, thus resulting in risk of release. In addition, where operators use toxic process chemicals, the potential for harm associated with these spills is increased. Similarly, ore must be transported from the extraction site to the mineral processing facility. Process water and solutions are often stored in ponds on site for use and recycling. Slurries are piped from mill facilities to storage facilities (which can include waste management features such as tailings ponds) by pipeline, truck, or conveyor. The slurry, containing ore and process chemicals, can contain mobilized contaminants and other hazardous substances. EPA has documented that leaks also often occur due to liner failures, containment failures during transport or at exchange points (
Finally, information available to EPA indicates that potential risks posed by hardrock mining and mineral processing facilities can affect all environmental media. Air, land, and water contamination may result when waste rock dumps, tailings disposal facilities and open pits are not maintained properly and release hazardous
This action is an economically significant regulatory action that was submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review. Any changes made in response to OMB recommendations have been documented in the docket. The EPA prepared an analysis of the potential costs and benefits associated with this action. This analysis, Regulatory Impact Analysis, is available in the docket. Section I.C. of this preamble summarizes the results of the RIA. As discussed in that section of the preamble, on annualized basis, the estimated regulatory costs to private entities for the two options in the proposed action are $171 million (without a financial test), and $111 million (with a financial test). EPA also segregated the costs borne by private entities into social cost (borne by society) and intra-industry transfers. The majority of the industry costs represent a transfer from the regulated industry to the financial industry, and hence the quantified annualized net social costs are estimated at $30 million to $44 million. Similarly, the Agency conducted a qualitative analysis of the benefits of the rule; however, the results were not monetized. As such, the net benefit-cost analysis of the two options may have an annual effect on the economic near $100 million or more. Accordingly, EPA submitted this action to the OMB for review under Executive Order 12866, and plans to incorporate changes in response to OMB recommendations on the proposal rule.
The information collection activities in this proposed rule have been submitted for approval to the OMB under the PRA. The ICR document that the EPA prepared has been assigned EPA ICR number 2554.01. You can find a copy of the ICR in the docket for this rule, and it is briefly summarized here.
The proposed rule would require that owners or operators of facilities subject to the rule submit information to EPA. This ICR addresses the following proposed information requirements that are part of the rule: (1) Submit an initial Notification Form to EPA within thirty days of the effective date of the regulation; (2) make relevant information available to the public on the company's website; (3) calculate financial responsibility amount and submit information to support the calculation to EPA; (4) submit evidence that support the establishment of financial responsibility; (5) update financial responsibility amount at minimum every three years and submit evidence of proper maintenance of financial responsibility; (6) notify EPA when the owner or operator and the issuer of financial instruments enter Chapter 11 bankruptcy proceedings; (7) notify EPA of any claim pursuant to CERCLA naming the owner, operator, or guarantor as defendant; (8) notify EPA when the facility is no longer authorized to operate or the date by which the owner or operator must provide notification that the facility is ceasing operations under another regulatory program; and (9) maintain a record of all of the information related to financial responsibility requirements and retain those records for three years after the owner or operator released from financial responsibility requirements.
EPA believes that submission of the information would be needed for effective implementation of CERCLA § 108(b) requirements. By requiring the owner or operator to submit information about the facility to EPA, these requirements would better enable the Agency to assure full compliance with the requirements for financial responsibility throughout the time the facility is subject to those requirements.
As discussed in section VI.A.3. of this preamble, some element of the information required for submission under this proposed rule may be claimed as proprietary business information or trade secrets. As described in that section, the proposal would not require or provide for posting of this sensitive information. However, the Agency expects that much of the information submitted to EPA under the proposal could be made available.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The OMB control numbers for the EPA's regulations in 40 CFR are listed in 40 CFR part 9.
Submit your comments on the Agency's need for this information, the accuracy of the provided burden estimates, and any suggested methods for minimizing respondent burden to EPA. This information should be submitted to the docket for tis proposed rule (Docket No. EPA-HQ-SFUND-2015-0781). You may also send your ICR-related comments to OMB's Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs via email to
Pursuant to section 603 of the RFA, EPA prepared an initial regulatory flexibility analysis (IRFA) that examines the impact of the proposed rule on small entities along with regulatory alternative that could minimize that impact. The complete IRFA is available for review in the docket and is summarized here.
A series of studies and reviews conducted by the EPA Office of Inspector General (OIG) and the Government Accountability Office (GAO) from 2004 through 2008 demonstrated that the hardrock mining industry presented a risk to EPA and taxpayers with respect to the amount of cleanup costs for which they would be responsible. Information available to EPA indicates strongly that the hardrock mining industry continues to present risks associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous substances. In accordance with CERCLA § 108(b) and in response to these concerns, EPA is publishing the proposed rule that would create a financial responsibility program in CERCLA.
The proposed rule endeavors to increase the likelihood that owners and operators will provide funds necessary to address the CERCLA liabilities at their facilities, thus preventing the burden from shifting to the taxpayer. In addition, the rule would provide an incentive for implementation of sound practices at hardrock mining facilities that would decrease the need for future CERCLA actions.
For purposes of assessing the impacts of this regulation on small entities, a small entity is defined as: (1) A small business as defined by the Small Business Administration's (SBA) regulations at 13 CFR part 121.201; (2) a small governmental jurisdiction that is a government of a city, county, town, school district or special district with a population of less than 50,000; and (3) a small organization that is any not-for-profit enterprise which is independently owned and operated and is not dominant in its field.
For the purposes of this analysis, EPA identified approximately 221 mines/processing facilities in the potentially regulated universe; of these, 53 facilities are estimated to have a small owner (including joint ventures), corresponding to 43 firms. Twelve additional mines have owners of unknown size (due to lack of available company data). Most (38) of these 53 facilities engage in mining/extraction; 15 facilities engage in processing/refining only.
Depending on the specific NAICS code of the owner, the determination of “small entity” status depends on either the revenue or the number of employees of the firm. The minimum threshold for revenue in the relevant NAICS codes ranges from $11 million to $36.5 million. The employment qualifications ranges from 100 employees to 1,500 employees. Table C-1 lists summary information on the small entity universe.
As required by section 609(b) of the RFA, EPA convened a Small Business Advocacy Review (SBAR) Panel to obtain advice and recommendations from small entity representatives that potentially would be subject to the rule's requirements. The SBAR Panel evaluated the assembled materials and small-entity comments on issues related to elements of an IRFA. A copy of the full SBAR Panel Report is available in the rulemaking docket.
The SBAR Panel recommended that EPA:
(1) Solicit comment on whether to provide for programmatic-based deferral of the requirement for owners and operators of facilities to calculate an individual financial responsibility amount and to obtain a financial responsibility instrument in situations where all facilities regulated by a particular Federal or state mining program could qualify for reductions for the full response component of the financial responsibility formula—that is, for all response categories, and at all facilities.
(2) propose to allow reductions to the financial responsibility amount applicable at facility for future requirements that are enforceable against the owner and operator, that are supported by adequate financial assurance, and with which the owner and operator are in compliance, and solicit comment on allowing reductions to the financial responsibility amount for other risk-reducing practices and/or controls (
(3) provide in the rule discussion and solicitation of comment on the impact of the financial test on small businesses. The discussion and solicitation of comment should consider whether making a financial test available would increase the available capacity for third-party instruments in the marketplace and increase the availability of such instruments to owners or operators of small businesses and/or whether it would create a competitive disadvantage for small business, and solicit comment on those concerns.
(4) solicit comment on all aspects of the proposed financial responsibility formula, including comment on specific elements of the formula such as the robustness of the regression analyses, identification and treatment of influential data points (
(5) solicit comment on the criteria used to identify lower-level of risk of injury classes in the proposed rule, and whether it would be feasible and appropriate to identify additional classes as presenting a lower level of risk of injury, particularly classes of mines that differ in their operations and associated risks from more traditional hardrock mines, and on whether such classes of mines, defined based on facility characteristics, could potentially encompass iron ore, phosphate, and uranium mines.
(6) request comment on whether more alternate or more flexible engineering standards can substitute for some or all of the numeric engineering standards in the proposed reduction criteria (
EPA revised the rule to include in § 320.63 a proposal to allow reductions to the financial responsibility amount applicable at facility for future requirements that are enforceable against the owner and operator, that are supported by adequate financial assurance, and with which the owner and operator are incompliance. These reductions are described in section VI.D.4. of this preamble. EPA also solicited comment on most of the areas recommended by the Panel.
EPA estimates industry costs for the owner/operator companies that are unable to utilize a self-insurance option under the proposed rule as the resources expended and/or foregone to obtain a third-party financial responsibility instrument. Additional administrative and recordkeeping costs to industry include reading the regulations, submitting initial facility information to EPA and the public, calculating financial responsibility amounts, choosing a financial responsibility instrument, acquiring and maintaining a financial responsibility instrument, recalculating financial responsibility amounts to reflect any changes in facility operations, and any functions the rule requires of owners and operators upon the transfer of a facility, owner or operator default, a CERCLA claim against the owner or operator, and release from financial responsibility.
As described earlier, EPA began its assessment of the impact of regulatory options on small entities by first estimating the number of small entities owning hardrock mining facilities that would be subject to the proposed rule. EPA then assessed whether these small entities would be expected to incur costs that constitute a significant impact; and whether the number of those small entities estimated to incur a significant impact represent a substantial number of small entities.
To assess whether small entities' compliance costs might constitute a significant impact, EPA averaged the annualized compliance costs as a percentage of entity revenue (cost-to-revenue test). EPA compared the resulting percentages to impacts criteria of one percent and three percent of revenue. Small entities estimated to incur compliance costs exceeding one or more of the one percent and three percent impact thresholds were identified as potentially incurring a significant impact.
Table C-1 shows that 35 to 49 small entities may face an average annual compliance cost of greater than the one percent of revenues. Similarly, 25 to 42 small entities may experience impact on revenues above three percent. The results of the impacts analysis do not vary significantly between the two regulatory options. However, impacts are generally lower under Option 2 due to the lower compliance costs when a financial test is available.
These results may suggest that a significant number of small entities expected to incur annualized cost of more than the three percent of the revenue thresholds. However, because of data limitations, the screening level analysis relied upon estimated financial responsibility amounts for each facility based on facility type, rather than actual size and nature of operations. Further, reliable and current revenues information for small, private firms was not readily available. As a result, these results are not suggestive of impacts for any specific company or entity.
These are the only financial responsibility requirements for non-transportation related facilities pursuant to CERCLA.
The Agency considered alternatives to provisions of this rule. Those alternatives are discussed in section VII.K. of this preamble.
This action contains a Federal mandate under UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, that may result in expenditures of $100 million or more for state, local and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or the private sector in any one year. Accordingly, EPA has prepared a written statement required under section 202 of UMRA. The statement is included in the docket for this action and briefly summarized here.
The RIA estimates the rule may affect 221 hardrock mining and processing facilities. EPA estimates that the regulation will have aggregate annual compliance costs ranging from $111 million to $171 million to the private sector. A detailed assessment of the anticipated costs and benefits (presented qualitatively) of the Federal mandate is provided in the RIA.
In accordance with UMRA § 205, EPA is proposing a range of regulatory options. The options can be summarized as: (1) A financial responsibility regulation that allows for a financial test, and (2) a financial responsibility regulation that does not allow for a financial test. These options are all considered to be technologically feasible and economically achievable.
This action is not subject to the requirements of § 203 of UMRA because it contains no regulatory requirements that might significantly or uniquely affect small governments.
EPA believes that this action will not have federalism implications as defined by agency policy for implementing Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism.”
Earlier in the development of this proposed rule, EPA projected that the CERCLA § 108(b) rules would have federalism implications under the terms of Executive Order 13132, and EPA planned certain outreach activities accordingly. As discussed in Section IV of this preamble, EPA spent significant time and effort gathering and evaluating information on regulated entities and considering various approaches to structuring the proposed rule. EPA also considered as part of this the potential relevance of CERCLA § 114(d). In light of further development of the proposed rule and its resultant analysis of the question of federalism implications as explained below, EPA has come to expect that this action does not, in fact, have federalism implications. Regardless of this determination on the applicability of the Executive Order, EPA nonetheless engaged its intergovernmental partners in the same pre-proposal outreach activities expected under the Executive Order.
As part of the regulatory impact analysis, EPA analyzed the CERCLA § 108(b) proposed rule's potential for federalism implications as defined in the Executive Order to include regulations that have “substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.” EPA typically considers a policy or regulation to have federalism implications if it results in the expenditure by State and/or local governments in the aggregate of $25 million or more nationally in any one year, or if the policy or regulation results in preemption, whether by intent or effect, of State of local government law. The proposed CERCLA § 108(b) rule does not impose requirements on, nor is expected to result in significant expenditure by, state and/or local governments. Further, as discussed in Section V of the preamble, EPA does not believe that CERCLA § 114(d) gives a preemptive effect to EPA's CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility regulations over state reclamation bonding requirements.
In any case, this proposed rule is of significant interest to state and/or local governments. Therefore, consistent with the EPA's policy to promote intergovernmental communication and cooperation, and in response to the considerable interest shown by states prior to and during the development of this action, EPA engaged in extensive pre-proposal consultation, under the auspices of Executive Order 13132, to ensure that our state and local partners would have the opportunity to provide meaningful and timely input into its development. EPA also anticipates additional state and local government input in response to the proposed rule. In this regard, EPA is interested in receiving information on any state hazardous substance response program(s) that require demonstrations of financial responsibility for claims made and that states believe could be preempted by this proposal. EPA is committed to continued interactions with the states before promulgating any final rule.
This action does not have tribal implications as specified in Executive Order 13175 (Executive Order 13175). Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments,
Earlier in the development of this proposed rule, EPA projected that the CERCLA 108(b) rules would have tribal implications and EPA planned certain outreach activities accordingly. As discussed in Section IV of this preamble, EPA spent significant time and effort gathering and evaluating information on regulated entities and considering various approaches to structuring the proposed rule. In light of further development of the proposed rule and its resultant analysis of the question of tribal implications as explained below, EPA has come to expect that this action does not, in fact, have tribal impacts. Regardless, EPA held early engagement with tribal governments as guided by EPA Policy on Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribes.
To assess the impact on tribal governments, EPA identified tribal lands and associated tribes that overlap with the “included” universe of currently operating facilities potentially subject to the CERCLA § 108(b) rulemaking. Relevant tribal lands were identified through a GIS dataset available from the U.S. Census Bureau.
To estimate the physical extent of the facilities, buffers of varying sizes were projected around these coordinates in ArcGIS. Half mile, one-mile, and ten-mile buffers were projected around each set of coordinates. The number of facilities overlapping tribal lands varied considerably depending on the size of the buffer used: with the half-mile buffer, four facilities overlapped three tribal land areas; with the one-mile buffer, six facilities overlapped four tribal land areas; and with the ten-mile buffer, 35 facilities overlapped 38 tribal land areas. A complete list of the facilities and tribes that fall within these buffers is presented in the RIA.
EPA has concluded that this action will have limited tribal implications to the extent that the facilities in its regulated universe are located close to tribal lands. As no tribal governments own or operate any of the regulated facilities, and therefore will not incur any direct compliance costs as a result of the proposed rule, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this rule.
Although Executive Order 13175 does not apply, the EPA consulted with tribal officials during the development phase of the proposed rule, consistent with the EPA Policy on Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribes. In early June 2016, EPA sent letters to all federally recognized Indian tribes, notifying them of the opportunity to provide input to the proposed rule during the consultation and coordination period. EPA conducted tribal outreach activities including a tribal webinar on June 22, 2016, and conference calls with the National Tribal Caucus on August 3, 2016, and the Great Lakes Fish and Wildlife Commission on August 8, 2016. EPA also participated in the Tribal Lands and Environment Forum from August 15-18, 2016, where several tribal leaders expressed interest in the proposed rulemaking. The EPA also intends to hold a second round of consultation and coordination with tribal officials aligned with the public comment period for the proposed rule. EPA also intends to summarize comments and input received from both consultation and coordination periods with the final action.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because EPA does not expect the environmental health risks or safety risks addressed by this action present a disproportionate risk to children. EPA expects that by adjusting the amount of financial responsibility to account for environmentally safer practices, the proposed rule would provide an incentive for implementation of sound practices at hardrock mining facilities and thereby decrease the need for future CERCLA actions. To the extent that environmental conditions surrounding mine sites improve following this rule, the children living in close proximity to mining facilities are likely to benefit. To assess the proportional distribution of the benefits of the proposed rule, EPA prepared an analysis of the demographic characteristics of populations surrounding hardrock mining site to identify the number and proportion of children living in close proximity to these sites. This analysis is presented in the Regulatory Impact Analysis (RIA), which is available in the docket.
As discussed in the RIA, of the 775,000 people living within one mile of regulated facilities, approximately 188,000 or 24.3 percent, are under the age of 18. Nationwide, approximately 23.5 percent of the population is under the age of 18. To the extent that environmental conditions surrounding mine and mineral processor sites improve following this rule, the children living in close proximity to mining facilities are likely to benefit.
This action is not a “significant energy action” because it is not likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution or use of energy. This proposed rule would establish financial responsibility requirements under CERCLA designed to assure that owners and operators of facilities provide funds to address CERCLA liabilities at their sites, and to create incentives for sound practices that will minimize the likelihood of a need for a future CERCLA response. The proposed rule is not expected to impact energy production, distribution, or consumption.
This rulemaking does not involve technical standards.
EPA believes that this action does not have disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority populations, low-income populations and/or indigenous peoples, as specified in Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The documentation for this decision is contained in the Regulatory Impact Analysis (RIA). A copy of the RIA can be found in the docket for this rule. As discussed in Section 8 of the RIA, EPA examined whether the actions being proposed under the proposed rules present environmental justice concerns for communities surrounding mining facilities.
EPA conducted an analysis of demographic characteristics of populations near hardrock mining and mineral processing facilities to determine whether the benefits of the proposed rule are differentially distributed. For this analysis, the agency analyzed national census population data within one-mile, five-mile, 15-mile, and 25-mile radii from mining facilities, and compared them with the demographic characteristics of states and national levels. Of the 221 hardrock mining/mineral processing facilities in the RIA universe, the total population within one mile of these sites is approximately 775,000 people, of which 260,000 (34 percent), belong to a minority group. In addition, 157,000 (21 percent) live below the Federal Poverty Level. Both of these proportions are roughly comparable to nationwide benchmarks. Nationally, 37 percent of the population belongs to a minority group, and 16 percent of the population lives below the Federal Poverty Level. The analysis also compared the concentrations of minority groups and people living in poverty to state averages. The results show that within one-mile radius, 230 (36 percent) census block groups exceeded the statewide minority average, and 356 (56 percent) census block groups exceeded their respective statewide poverty levels.
EPA expects this proposed rule will, when made final, increase the likelihood that owners and operators will provide funds necessary to address the CERCLA liabilities at their facilities, thus preventing owners or operators from shifting the burden of cleanup to
Environmental protection, Financial responsibility, Hardrock mining, Hazardous substances.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, title 40, chapter I of the Code of Federal Regulations is proposed to be amended by adding part 320 to read as follows:
(a) The purpose of this part is to establish requirements under § 108(b) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA), 42, U.S.C. 9601, et seq., for current owners and operators of non-transportation-related facilities to establish and maintain evidence of financial responsibility.
(b) The amount of financial responsibility under this part must be consistent with the degree and duration of risk associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous substances at their facilities, and must be available to pay for the response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damages under CERCLA for which the owner and operator are responsible.
(a) The regulations of this part apply to current owners and operators of facilities that are authorized to operate, or should be authorized to operate, on or after the effective date of the rule under which they become subject to this part. The Federal Government and States are exempt from the requirements of this part.
(b) Owners and operators of all facilities within the classes identified in Table A-1 must comply with the applicable requirements of subparts A through C of this part.
(c) Owners and operators of facilities identified in Table A-1 of this section must also comply with the applicable class-specific requirements as specified in Table A-1 of this section.
(d) The requirements of this part apply until EPA releases the owner and operator from the obligation to maintain financial responsibility for its facility in accordance with § 300.25 or § 300.27.
(a) As used in this part, words in the singular include the plural; words in the plural include the singular; and words in the masculine gender also include the feminine and neuter genders as the case may require.
(b) When used in this part, the following terms have the meanings given in this paragraph. Terms not defined in this part have the meaning given by CERCLA or the national Oil and Hazardous Substances Pollution Contingency Plan, 40 CFR part 300.
(a) Any information provided to EPA under this part, or required to be provided to the public by the owner or operator under this part, will be made available to the public to the extent and in the manner authorized by the Freedom of Information Act, 5 USC 552, section 104 of CERCLA, and EPA regulations implementing the Freedom of Information Act and section 104 of CERCLA, as applicable.
(b) Any person who submits information to EPA in accordance with this part, or who is required to provide information to the public under this part, may assert a claim of business confidentiality covering part or all of that information by following the procedures set forth in § 2.203(b). Information covered by such a claim will be disclosed by EPA, or will be required to be released by the owner or operator only to the extent, and by means of the procedures, set forth in part 2, subpart B, of this chapter. However, if no such claim accompanies the information when it is received by EPA, it may be made available to the public without further notice to the person submitting it.
(c) Assertions of claims of business confidentiality will not be considered by EPA if the information is covered by a Class Determination of non-confidentiality.
(a) (1) Each owner and operator that is authorized to operate or should be authorized to operate on the effective date of the final rule under which the facility becomes subject to the requirements of this part must complete the Notification Form in Appendix A of this part, providing all information requested, and submit it to the Administrator within thirty days of the effective date of that regulation.
(2) Owners or operators that become authorized to operate after the effective date of the final rule that makes their facility subject to the requirements of this part must submit the notification form required in paragraph (a)(1) of this section prior to beginning operations.
(b) Within thirty days of receiving notification EPA will:
(1) Provide the owner or operator acknowledgement of receipt of the notification, and
(2) If the facility has not received one, assign and provide an EPA Identification number to the facility.
(c) Owners and operators must notify EPA of changes at their facilities by updating their Notification Form, and/or other documents required under the applicable class-specific subpart, and resubmitting it to EPA within thirty days of the change.
Owners and operators must submit information as required by this part to support financial responsibility requirements including:
(a) The notification form required in § 320.5;
(b) Information required under the public involvement requirements of § 320.9;
(c) Notifications required under subpart B of this part;
(d) Demonstration of financial responsibility as required under subpart C of this part; and
(e) Information required under class-specific requirements identified in Table 1 of § 320.1(f) as applicable to the facility.
(a) Information submitted to the Administrator under the requirements of this part must be submitted in paper format until the electronic reporting compliance date, defined in § 320.3.
(b) Electronic submissions that are obtained, completed, and transmitted in accordance with this section, and used in accordance with this section, are the legal equivalent of paper submissions bearing handwritten signatures, and satisfy for all purposes any requirement in these regulations to obtain, complete, sign, provide, use, or retain such information.
(c) Where an electronic signature is required, such signature must be a legally valid and enforceable signature under applicable EPA and other Federal requirements pertaining to electronic signatures.
(d) The Administrator may waive the requirement for electronic submission under the following conditions:
(1)
(i) The owner or operator is unable to gain access to a system allowing electronic reporting because the owner or operator is located in an area with insufficient broadband access;
(ii) Obtaining a system to support electronic submission would impose an undue cost burden on the owner or operator,
(iii) The owner or operator's electronic system is incompatible with the Agency's, or
(iv) Religious practices of the owner or operator prohibit the use of necessary technologies.
(2)
(i) A large-scale national disaster (
(ii) A prolonged electronic reporting system outage; or
(iii) A prolonged failure of the owner's and operator's computer system.
(a) The owner or operator must develop a facility record that contains information related to its compliance with the financial responsibility requirements under this part.
(b) The facility record must include, at a minimum, the information that must be submitted to EPA under § 320.6(a), as applicable, and all notifications received from EPA related to the financial responsibility obligations of the facility.
(a) Within sixty days of the date it becomes subject to the requirements of this part, the owner or operator must establish and maintain a website titled “CERCLA Section 108(b) Financial Responsibility Information' and submit to EPA the URL of a location on its company Web site where it will make information available to the public.
(b) Within thirty days of receiving the URL, EPA will post on its website notice to the public that the facility is subject to § 108(b) requirements, and provide the public the facility name, EPA ID, and the URL.
(c) Beginning ninety days after the effective date of the final rule under which the facility becomes subject to the requirements of this part, the owner or operator must make information available to the public on its company website at the URL provided to EPA. The initial posting must include at least the information required under paragraph (d)(1).
(d) The information on the website must include, at a minimum:
(1) The current name and contact information for a person that will provide the public information about the facility's financial responsibility requirement under CERCLA § 108(b);
(2) Information the owner or operator is required to submit, or has submitted, to EPA under this part so long as that information is not successfully claimed as Confidential Business Information under 40 CFR 2.203(b).
(3) Notifications from EPA to the owner or operator.
(e) The owner or operator must assure that the information is readily available to the public by placing it in a prominent position on the company's website, and by assuring that public access is not obstructed by complex or overly burdensome access processes, passwords, or other information requirements.
(f) The owner or operator must update the website with new information including information submitted to EPA in compliance with this part. Information submitted to EPA must be posted on the owner or operator's website within thirty days of submitting it to EPA.
(a) EPA will provide the public information related to facilities subject to financial responsibility requirements under this part. That information may include, at a minimum:
(1) The current name and contact information for a person that can provide the public information about the facility's financial responsibility requirement under this part;
(2) Information the owner or operator is required to submit, or has submitted, to EPA under this part so long as that information is not successfully claimed as Confidential Business Information under 40 CFR 2.203(b).
(3) Notifications from EPA to the owner or operator.
Owners and operators must calculate a current amount of financial responsibility at their facilities in accordance with the requirements of this section, and in accordance with applicable class-specific subparts identified in § 320.1(f) Table 1.
Owners and operators must submit evidence of financial responsibility and supporting information to EPA in accordance with the requirements of this section, and in accordance with applicable class-specific subparts identified in § 320.2 Table 1.
(a) An owner or operator must recalculate the financial responsibility level three years after the date the owner or operator is first required to submit the full amount of financial responsibility under § 320.61, every three years thereafter, and within sixty days after every successful claim against a CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility instrument. The recalculation must use the most current facility information available. The owner or operator must submit the revised financial responsibility amount to EPA, along with supporting documentation.
(b) If the resulting amount of financial responsibility required is greater than the amount of financial responsibility provided by the current CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility instrument(s), the owner or operator must submit evidence of the increased value of the instrument(s) within sixty days of the recalculation.
(c) If the resulting amount of financial responsibility required is less than the amount of financial responsibility provided by the current CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility instrument(s), the owner and operator may submit a written request to the Administrator to lower the required financial responsibility amount at the facility. The request must include updated information to support the revised financial responsibility amount. The amount of financial responsibility required at the facility may be reduced to the recalculated amount only with written approval by the Administrator.
(a) An owner or operator must notify the Regional Administrator by certified mail of the commencement of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under Title 11 (Bankruptcy), U.S. Code, naming the owner or operator as debtor, within ten days after commencement of the proceeding.
(b) An owner or operator who demonstrates financial responsibility under this part by obtaining a trust fund, surety bond, letter of credit, or insurance policy will be deemed to be without the required financial responsibility in the event of bankruptcy of the trustee or issuing institution, or a suspension or revocation of the authority of the trustee
(a) An owner or operator must notify the Administrator by certified mail of the commencement of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under Title 11 (Bankruptcy), U.S. Code, naming the owner or operator as debtor, within ten days after commencement of the proceeding. A corporate guarantor of a corporate guarantee as specified in § 320.44, if named as a debtor, must make such a notification, as required under the terms of the corporate guarantee (§ 320.50(f)).
(b) An owner or operator who demonstrates financial responsibility under this part by obtaining a trust fund, surety bond, letter of credit, or insurance policy will be deemed to be without the required financial responsibility in the event of bankruptcy of the trustee or issuing institution, or a suspension or revocation of the authority of the trustee institution to act as trustee or of the institution issuing the surety bond, letter of credit, or insurance policy to issue such instruments. The owner or operator must provide other evidence of financial responsibility within sixty days after such an event.
An owner or operator subject to this part must notify the Administrator by certified mail of the filing of any claim pursuant to CERCLA naming the owner or operator or the owner or operator's guarantor, as defendant, within ten days after commencement of the proceeding. Such notification shall include a copy of any papers filed by the claimant with a court, or other information allowing the Administrator to identify the court, case name and number, and parties.
(a) If a facility, or a portion of a facility, subject to the requirements of this part is sold or otherwise transferred to another owner, or if the operation of a facility is transferred to another operator, the previous owner or operator must maintain financial responsibility for the facility, or transferred portion of the facility, in accordance with this part, until the Administrator releases the previous owner or operator from the obligation to maintain financial responsibility under paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) Any new owner or operator of a facility must provide evidence of financial responsibility as required in this part for the facility or portion of the facility prior to assuming ownership or operation. Upon the new owner or operator's demonstration of financial responsibility in accordance with this part, the Administrator will provide notice to the prior owner and operator that they are no longer required to provide evidence of financial responsibility in accordance with this part.
The owner or operator must notify the Administrator thirty days prior to:
(1) The date the facility is no longer authorized to operate, or
(2) The date the owner or operator is required under another applicable regulatory program to notify the relevant regulatory authority that the facility is ceasing operations, whichever is earlier.
(a) The owner or operator may petition to be released from its obligations under this part by submitting a request to the Administrator, which must include evidence demonstrating that the degree and duration of risk associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage and disposal of hazardous substances is minimal. Upon receiving such request, the Administrator will evaluate facility information, including the information submitted by the owner or operator, regarding the degree and duration of risk associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous substances at the facility, and make a determination regarding the owner's or operator's request.
(1) If the Administrator determines that the degree and duration of risk associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous substances at the facility is minimal, and that the facility should therefore be released from the requirements of this part, the Administrator will post the draft decision on the EPA website, provide the public opportunity to comment on the decision, and post the Agency's final decision, and response to comments received, on the EPA website.
(2) If the Administrator determines (either initially or following consideration of public comment during the procedures described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section), that the degree and duration of risk associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous substances is not minimal, the Administrator will not release the owner or operator from the requirement to maintain financial responsibility in accordance with this part. The Administrator will provide notice of the Agency's final decision, and response to comments received, and will provide the owner or operator a detailed written statement explaining the decision.
(3) An owner or operator that petitions the Administrator under the procedures in this section and does not obtain a release from requirements under this part may submit a petition for a renewed determination under this section only if the owner or operator can provide additional, relevant information, not previously considered by the Administrator, demonstrating that there is minimal risk associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous substances at the facility.
(b) [Reserved].
Owners and operators may demonstrate financial responsibility using one or a combination of the financial responsibility instruments provide in §§ 320.40 through 320.43.
Owners and operators may demonstrate financial responsibility using one or a combination of the financial responsibility instruments provide in §§ 320.40 through 320.45.
(a) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this part by obtaining an irrevocable standby letter of credit which conforms to the requirements of this section and is issued by an institution which has the authority to issue letters of credit and whose letter of credit operations are regulated and examined by a Federal or state agency.
(b) The wording of the letter of credit must be identical to the wording specified in § 320.50(b). The letter of credit must either be issued in favor of:
(1) The trustee of a trust fund established by an agreement worded identical to the language in § 320.50(a) and must authorize the trustee to make draws on the letter of credit to
(2) Any and all third-party CERCLA claimants and must provide for payment directly to claimants for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damages.
(c) If the letter of credit is issued in favor of the trustee of a trust fund, the owner or operator must submit a certified copy of the letter of credit to the Administrator and submit the original letter of credit to the trustee authorized to make draws on the letter of credit. An acknowledgment of the receipt of the letter of credit from the trustee must be submitted by the owner or operator to the Administrator.
(d) If the letter of credit is issued in the favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants, the owner or operator must submit the originally signed letter of credit to the Administrator.
(e) An owner or operator who uses a letter of credit to satisfy the requirements of this part must also establish a trust fund and update Schedule A of the trust agreement within sixty days after a change in the amount of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility. This trust fund must meet the requirements of the trust fund specified in § 320.45, except that:
(1) An originally signed duplicate of the trust agreement must be submitted to the Administrator with the original or the certified copy of the letter of credit; and
(2) Unless the trust fund is funded pursuant to the requirements of this part, including by holding the letter of credit as specified in this section, the following are not required by these regulations:
(i) Payments into the trust fund as specified in § 320.45;
(ii) Annual valuations as required by the trust agreement; and
(iii) Notices of payment as required by the trust agreement.
(f) The letter of credit must be irrevocable and issued for a period of at least one year. The letter of credit must provide that the expiration date will be automatically extended for a period of at least one year unless, at least 120 days before the current expiration date, the issuing institution notifies both the owner or operator, the trust fund trustee (if the letter is issued in favor of the trustee), and the Administrator by certified mail of a decision not to extend the expiration date. Under the terms of the letter of credit, the 120 days will begin on the date when the owner or operator, the trust fund trustee (if applicable), and the Administrator have received the notice, as evidenced by the return receipts. If the issuing institution timely notifies the owner or operator, the trustee, and the Administrator, and the owner or operator fails to submit and obtain the Administrator's approval of alternate financial responsibility within ninety days of the receipt of such notice, the Administrator is authorized to draw on the letter of credit as specified in paragraphs (k) and (l) of this section.
(g) The letter of credit must be issued in an amount at least equal to the current required CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount, except as provided in § 320.46.
(h) Whenever the required amount of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility increases to an amount greater than the credit, the owner or operator, within sixty days after the increase, must either cause the credit to be increased to an amount at least equal to the CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount and submit evidence of such increase to the Administrator and the trust fund trustee (if the letter is issued in favor of the trustee), or obtain other financial responsibility as specified in this part to cover the increase. Whenever the required amount of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility decreases, the credit may be reduced to the amount of the current required CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount following written approval by the Administrator.
(i) If the letter of credit is issued in favor of the trust fund trustee, parties may make claims against the trust fund in accordance with the terms of the trust agreement in order to receive payment from the letter of credit.
(j) If the letter of credit provides for direct payment, claimants may make claims as follows:
(1) Any party that obtains a final judgment from a Federal court awarding CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with the facility against any of the current owners or operators may make a claim against the letter of credit. The party may only make a claim after the thirtieth day after the judgement and if they have not recovered or been paid the funds from any other source.
(2) The Administrator or other authorized Federal agency may make a claim against the letter of credit for payment if payment has not been made as required by a CERCLA settlement associated with the facility between a current owner or operator and EPA or another Federal agency.
(3) The Administrator or another authorized Federal agency may make a claim against the letter of credit requesting payment into a trust fund established pursuant to a CERCLA unilateral administrative order issued to a current owner or operator if performance at the facility as required by the order has not occurred. The Administrator or another Federal agency may only make the claim against the letter of credit if the owner or operator has provided a written statement that the letter of credit may be used to assure the performance of the work required in the order.
(k) If the owner or operator does not establish alternate financial responsibility as specified in this part and obtain written approval of such alternate financial responsibility from the Administrator within ninety days after receipt by the owner or operator, the trust fund trustee (if the letter is issued in favor of the trustee), and the Administrator of a notice from the issuing institution that it has decided not to extend the letter of credit beyond the current expiration date:
(1) The Administrator will draw on the letter of credit if the letter of credit is issued in favor of any and all third party CERCLA claimants; or
(2) If the letter of credit is issued in favor of the trust fund trustee, the Administrator will inform the trustee of the trust fund that the owner or operator did not establish alternate financial responsibility and obtain written approval of such alternate financial responsibility within ninety days. In accordance with the terms of the trust agreement, this notice will prompt the trustee to draw on the letter of credit and deposit any unused portion of the letter of credit into the trust fund.
(l) The Administrator may delay the drawing or the notification to the trustee of the trust fund that the owner or operator did not establish alternate financial responsibility and obtain written approval of such alternate financial responsibility within ninety days if the issuing institution grants an extension of the term of the credit. During the last thirty days of any such extension the Administrator will draw on the letter of credit or notify the trustee of the trust fund that the owner or operator did not establish alternate financial responsibility and obtain written approval of such alternate financial responsibility if the owner or operator has still failed to provide alternate financial responsibility as specified in this section and obtain
(m) The Administrator will return the letter of credit to the issuing institution for termination or agree to the termination of the trust holding the letter of credit when:
(1) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance as specified in this part; or,
(2) The Administrator releases the owner or operator from the requirements of this part in accordance with § 320.27.
(a) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this part by obtaining a surety bond which conforms to the requirements of this paragraph and submitting the originally signed bond to the Administrator.
(b) The surety company issuing the bond must, at a minimum, be among those listed as acceptable sureties on Federal bonds in Circular 570 of the U.S. Department of the Treasury.
(c) The wording of the surety bond must be identical to the wording specified in § 320.50(c).
(d) A surety bond may be used to satisfy the requirements of this section only if the Attorneys General or Insurance Commissioners of:
(1) The state in which the surety is incorporated, and
(2) Each state in which a facility covered by the surety bond is located have submitted a written statement to EPA that a surety bond executed as described in this section and § 320.50(c) of this part is a legally valid and enforceable obligation in that state.
(e) The surety bond may be issued by multiple sureties provided that each is liable for its individual vertical percentage share of the total penal sum of the bond.
(f) An owner or operator who uses a surety bond to satisfy the requirements of this part must also establish a standby trust fund and update Schedule A of the trust agreement within sixty days after a change in the amount of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility. This standby trust fund must meet the requirements specified in § 320.45, except that:
(1) An originally signed duplicate of the trust agreement must be submitted to the Administrator with the surety bond; and
(2) Until the standby trust fund is funded pursuant to the requirements of this section, the following are not required by these regulations:
(i) Payments into the trust fund as specified in § 320.45;
(ii) Annual valuations as required by the trust agreement; and
(iii) Notices of nonpayment as required by the trust agreement.
(g) The surety bond must guarantee that the owner or operator will:
(1) Make payments or ensure that payments are made for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with the facility as required in a final court judgment from a Federal court against any current owner or operator within thirty days to the party or parties obtaining the judgment;
(2) Make payments or ensure payments are made as required in a CERCLA settlement associated with the facility between any of the current owners and operators at the facility and EPA or another Federal agency;
(3) Perform or ensure the performance of the work required at the facility by a CERCLA unilateral administrative order issued to any of the current owners or operators by EPA or by another Federal agency for which the owner or operator provides a written statement allowing for the bond to assure performance of the work; and
(4) Provide alternate financial responsibility as specified in this part or ensure that alternate financial responsibility as specified in this part is provided for facilities covered by the bond, and obtain the Administrator's written approval or ensure the Administrator's written approval is obtained of the financial responsibility provided, within ninety days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the Administrator of a notice of cancellation of the bond from the surety.
(h) Under the terms of the surety bond, the surety will become liable on the bond obligation when the owner or operator fails to perform as guaranteed by the bond and must make payment in accordance with the direction of the claimant and the terms of the bond. Provided, however, the liability of the surety will be limited to the penal sum of the bond plus the amount of any investigation or legal defense fees incurred by the surety.
(i) The penal sum of the bond must be in an amount at least equal to the required current CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount, except as provided in § 320.46.
(j) Whenever the required amount of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility increases to an amount greater than the penal sum, the owner or operator, within sixty days after the increase, must either cause the penal sum to be increased to an amount at least equal to the CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount and submit evidence of such increase to the Administrator, or obtain other financial assurance as specified in this section to cover the increase. Whenever the required amount of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility decreases, the penal sum may be reduced to the amount of the current required CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount following written approval by the Administrator.
(k) Under the terms of the bond, the surety may cancel the bond by sending notice of cancellation by certified mail to the owner or operator and to the Administrator. Cancellation may not occur, however, during the 120 days beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the owner or operator and the Administrator, as evidenced by the return receipts.
(l) The owner or operator may terminate the bond if the Administrator has given prior written authorization based on his receipt of evidence of alternate financial responsibility as specified in this part or the Administrator releases the owner or operator from the requirements of this part in accordance with § 320.27.
(a) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this part by obtaining insurance for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damages that conforms to the requirements of this section. Each insurance policy must be amended by the attachment of a CERCLA § 108(b) endorsement as worded in § 320.50(d).
(b) At a minimum, the insurer must be licensed to transact the business of insurance, or eligible to provide insurance as an excess or surplus lines insurer, in one or more states.
(c) The owner or operator must submit a signed duplicate original of the CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility endorsement to the Administrator, or regional delegees of the Administrator as applicable if the endorsement covers facilities located in multiple regions. The endorsement must provide coverage effective when required by the compliance schedule in § 320.2.
(d) The owner or operator may obtain insurance from up to four insurers to demonstrate CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility. If the owner operator obtained insurance from multiple insurers, an endorsement from each insurer must be submitted and must provide that a claimant may make a claim against each of the insurers providing evidence of financial responsibility for the insurer's proportional share of the CERCLA
(e) The insurance policy must provide coverage for third-party CERCLA claims against all current owners and operators at the facility as required by this part.
(f) An owner or operator who uses insurance to satisfy the requirements of this part must also establish a standby trust fund and update Schedule A of the trust agreement within sixty days after a change in the amount of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility. This standby trust fund must meet the requirements of the trust fund specified in § 320.45, except that:
(1) An originally signed duplicate of the trust agreement must be submitted to the Administrator with the endorsement; and
(2) Unless the standby trust fund is funded pursuant to the requirements of this part, the following are not required by these regulations:
(i) Payments into the trust fund as specified in § 320.45;
(ii) Annual valuations as required by the trust agreement; and
(ii) Notices of payment as required by the trust agreement.
(g) The insurance must provide first dollar coverage irrespective of any deductibles or self-insured retention both of which must be paid by the insurer with a right of reimbursement from the insured. The policy must be issued for a face amount at least equal to the required current CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount, except as provided in § 320.46, § 320.1(g)(1) and paragraph (d) of this section. The term “face amount” means the total amount the insurer is obligated to pay under the policy as required by this section, without sub-limits except for those that specify facility specific amounts of coverage, exclusive of legal defense and investigation costs, and must be segregated and independent from other coverage provided for by the policy that is outside the scope of paragraphs (h), (i), (j), and (l) of this section. Actual payments by the insurer will not change the face amount, although the insurer's future liability will be lowered by the amount of the payments.
(h) The policy must provide for the payment awarded in final court judgments from a Federal court against any of the current owners and operators for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with the facility to the party obtaining the judgment should such payment not be made within thirty days.
(i) The policy must provide for payment as required by a CERCLA settlement associated with the facility between any of the current owners or operators at the facility and EPA or another Federal government agency should payment as required by the settlement not be made.
(j) The policy must also provide for payment into a trust fund established pursuant to a CERCLA unilateral administrative order issued to any of the current owners or operators at the facility by EPA or another Federal agency in instances where performance at the facility as required by the order does not occur. The owner or operator must have provided a written statement allowing the insurance policy be used to assure performance of the work required in the order.
(k) The endorsement must provide that cancellation, failure to renew, or any other termination of the insurance by the insurer will be effective only upon written notice to the owner operator and the Administrator by certified mail and only after the expiration of 120 days beginning with the date of receipt of the notice by both the Administrator and the owner or operator, as evidenced by the return receipts. Such automatic renewal of the policy must, at a minimum, provide the insured with the option of renewal at the face amount of the expiring policy.
(l) The endorsement must specify that in instances where the owner or operator fails to obtain alternate financial responsibility and obtain written approval of such alternate financial responsibility from the Administrator within ninety days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the Administrator of a notice from the insurer that it has decided to cancel, not renew or otherwise terminate the insurance policy the insurer will be liable up to the face value of the policy for payment into the standby trust following notification by the Administrator.
(m) The endorsement must also provide that in the case of a release or threatened release of (a) hazardous substance(s) from a facility covered by the policy, the insurer acknowledges that any claim authorized by section 107 or section 111 of CERCLA may be asserted directly against the insurer as provided by CERCLA § 108(c)(2). Further, the endorsement must state that the insurer consents to suit with respect to these claims subject to the limitations in section 108(d) of CERCLA.
(n) The owner or operator must maintain the insurance in full force and effect until the Administrator consents to termination of the insurance by the owner or operator as specified in paragraph (p) of this section.
(o) Whenever the required CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount increases to an amount greater than the face amount of the policy, the owner or operator, within sixty days after the increase, must either cause the face amount of the policy to be increased to an amount at least equal to the required amount and submit evidence of such increase to the Administrator, or obtain other financial responsibility as specified in this section to cover the increase. Whenever the amount of required CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility decreases, the face amount may be reduced to the amount of the current required CERCLA § 108(b) amount following written approval by the Administrator.
(p) The Administrator will give written consent to the owner or operator that he or she may terminate the insurance policy when:
(1) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial responsibility as specified in this part; or
(2) The Administrator releases the owner or operator from the requirements of this section in accordance with § 320.27.
(a) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this section, up to the amount specified in this section, by demonstrating that it passes a financial test.
(1) To cover up to the full amount of financial responsibility required at its facility, the owner or operator must have:
(i) At least one-long term credit rating of AAA, AA+, AA, AA−, A+, A or A− as issued by Standard and Poor's (S&P), or an equivalent as issued by another Nationally Recognized Statistical Rating Organization (NRSRO);
(ii) Tangible net worth at least six times the amount of environmental obligations, including guarantees, covered by a financial test or guarantee, including this financial test and the corporate guarantee in § 320.44; and
(ii) Assets located in the United States amounting to either at least ninety percent of total assets; or at least six times the amount of financial responsibility obligations covered by a financial test or guarantee, including this financial test and the corporate guarantee in § 320.44; and
(2) To cover up to one half of the value of the financial responsibility
(i) At least one-long term credit rating of BBB+ or BBB as issued by S&P, or the equivalents as issued by another NRSRO;
(ii) Tangible net worth at least six times the financial responsibility obligations covered by a financial test or guarantee, including this financial test and the corporate guarantee in § 320.44; and
(ii) Assets located in the United States amounting to either at least ninety percent of the firm's total assets or at least six times the amount of financial responsibility obligations covered by a financial test or guarantee, including this financial test and the corporate guarantee in § 320.44.
(b) To demonstrate that it satisfies this financial test, an owner or operator must post on its website, include in its facility record, and annually submit all of the following:
(1) A letter to the Administrator signed by its chief financial officer (CFO) as worded in § 320.50(e).
(2) A special report of procedures and findings from an independent certified public accountant (CPA) resulting from an agreed-upon procedures engagement in accordance with the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants' (AICPA) Statement on Standards for Attestation Engagements (SSAE) and Related Attestation Interpretations, AT section 201—Agreed Upon Procedures Engagements, or any future superseding standards set by AICPA or any superseding body. The report would be required to describe the procedures performed and related findings as to whether or not there were differences or discrepancies identified between the financial information in the owner's or operator's CFO's letter and the owner's or operator's most recent audited annual financial statements. Where differences or discrepancies were found in the comparison of the owner's or operator's CFO's letter and the owner's or operator's most recent audited annual financial statements, the report of procedures and findings would reconcile any differences or discrepancies.
(3) A copy of the owner's or operators' most recent independently audited annual financial statements prepared in accordance with an accounting standard deemed acceptable by the SEC.
(c) An owner or operator of a facility must submit the three items specified in paragraph (b) of this section to the Administrator within sixty days of the date on which the CERCLA financial responsibility amount is first established.
(d) After the initial submission of the items specified in paragraph (b) of this section, the owner or operator must send annually updated information to the Administrator within sixty days after the close of each succeeding fiscal year. This information must consist of the three items specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
(e) An owner or operator who no longer meets the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section for any portion of his CERCLA financial responsibility requirement must send notice of the intent to establish an alternate financial responsibility instrument as specified in this section to the Administrator to cover the portion of the obligations that can no longer be covered by the financial test. This notice must be sent by certified mail within thirty days. The owner operator must then obtain alternate financial responsibility for the entire amount of required coverage as specified in paragraph (a) of this section. The owner or operator must submit evidence of coverage to the Administrator within 120 days of no longer meeting the requirements.
(f) The Administrator may, based on a reasonable belief that the owner or operator may no longer meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section for any portion of the CERCLA financial responsibility obligation, require reports of financial condition at any time from the owner or operator in addition to those specified in paragraph (b) of this section. If the Administrator finds, on the basis of such reports or other information, that the owner or operator no longer meets the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section for any portion of the CERCLA liability financial responsibility obligation, the owner or operator must provide alternate financial responsibility as specified in this section within thirty days after notification of such a finding.
(g) The Administrator may disallow use of this test on the basis of qualifications of opinion given in the independent certified public accountant's report in the agreed upon procedures engagement or the audited financial statements. An adverse opinion or disclaimer of opinion in either report will result in disallowance of the test. The Administrator will evaluate other qualifications on an individual basis. The owner or operator must provide alternate evidence of financial responsibility within thirty days after notification of the disallowance.
(h) The owner or operator is no longer required to submit the items specified in paragraph (b) of this section when:
(1) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial responsibility as specified in this section; or
(2) The Administrator releases the owner or operator from the requirements of this section in accordance with § 320.27.
(a) An owner or operator may meet the requirements of this part by obtaining a written guarantee, hereinafter referred to as “guarantee.”
(b) The guarantor must be the direct or higher-tier parent corporation of the owner or operator, a firm whose parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator, or a firm with a “substantial business relationship” with the owner or operator. The guarantor must meet the requirements for owners or operators in § 320.43 (a) through (g) and must comply with the terms of the guarantee.
(c) The wording of the guarantee must be identical to the wording specified in the Corporate Guarantee at § 320.50(f) of this part. A certified copy of the guarantee must accompany the items sent to the Administrator as specified in § 320.43(b). One of these items must be the letter from the guarantor's chief financial officer. If the guarantor's parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator, this letter must describe the value received in consideration of the guarantee. If the guarantor is a firm with a “substantial business relationship” with the owner or operator, this letter must describe this “substantial business relationship” and the value received in consideration of the guarantee.
(d) The terms of the guarantee must provide that:
(1) In the event that payment for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with the facility required in a final court judgment from a Federal court against one of the current owners or operators is not made within thirty days, the guarantor shall do so;
(2) In the event payment is not made as required in a CERCLA settlement associated with the facility between a current owner or operator and EPA or another Federal government agency, the guarantor shall do so;
(3) In the event that performance at a facility covered by the guarantee does not occur as required under a CERCLA unilateral administrative order issued to a current owner or operator by EPA or another Federal agency and for which the owner or operator provides a written statement allowing the guarantee to serve as financial responsibility assuring the work in the order, the guarantor shall make payment into a trust fund established pursuant to the order;
(4) The corporate guarantee will remain in force unless the guarantor sends notice of termination by certified mail to the owner or operator and to the Administrator. Termination may not occur, however, unless and until the owner or operator obtains, and the Administrator approves alternate financial responsibility complying with the requirements of this part; and
(5) If the owner or operator fails to provide alternate financial responsibility as specified in this part and obtain the written approval of such alternate financial responsibility from the Administrator within ninety days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the Administrator of a notice of termination of the corporate guarantee from the guarantor, the guarantor will provide such alternative financial responsibility, in accordance with the requirements of this part, in the name of the owner or operator.
(e) The guarantee must provide for payment as described in this section up to the required amount of the CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility covered by the guarantee.
(f) In the case of a corporation incorporated in the United States, a guarantee may be used to satisfy the requirements of this part only if the Attorneys General or Insurance Commissioners of:
(1) The state in which the guarantor is incorporated, and
(2) Each state in which a facility covered by the guarantee is located have submitted a written statement to EPA that a guarantee executed as described in this section and § 320.50(f) is a legally valid and enforceable obligation in that state.
(g) In the case of a guarantee provided by a corporation incorporated outside the United States, a guarantee may be used to satisfy the requirements of this part only if:
(1) The non-U.S. corporation has identified a registered agent for service of process in each state in which a facility covered by the guarantee is located and in the state in which it has its principal place of business; and
(2) The Attorney General or Insurance commissioner of each state in which a facility covered by this guarantee is located and the state in which the guarantor corporation has its principal place of business has submitted a written statement to EPA that a guarantee executed as described in this section and § 320.50(f) is a legally valid and enforceable obligation in that state.
(a) An owner operator may satisfy the requirements of this section by establishing a trust fund that conforms to the requirements of this paragraph, and submitting an originally signed duplicate of the trust agreement to the Administrator. The trustee must be an entity which has the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and examined by a Federal or state agency.
(b) The wording of the trust agreement must be identical to the wording specified in § 320.50(a)(1), and the trust agreement must be accompanied by a formal certification of acknowledgment (for example, see § 320.50(a)(2)). Schedule A of the trust agreement must be updated within sixty days after a change in the amount of § 108(b) financial responsibility.
(c) Payments into the trust fund must be made so that the value of the trust fund is at least as great as the required CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount required under § 320.20. The trust must be fully funded within four years of the owner operator being subject to the regulations. This funding amount may include the value of any letters of credit held by the trust in accordance with § 320.40. Receipt from the trustee for these payments must be submitted by the owner or operator to the Administrator.
(d) Whenever the required financial responsibility amount increases, the owner operator must compare the new amount with the trustee's most recent annual valuation of the trust fund. If the value of the fund is less than the new amount, the owner or operator, within sixty days after the change in the required § 108(b) financial responsibility amount, must either deposit an amount into the fund so that its value after this deposit at least equals the required § 108(b) financial responsibility amount, or obtain other financial assurance as specified in this section to cover the increase.
(e) If the value of the trust fund is greater than the required financial responsibility amount, the owner or operator may submit a written request to the Administrator for release of the amount of in excess of the required CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount.
(f) If the owner or operator substitutes other financial responsibility as specified in this section for all or part of the trust fund, it may submit a written request to the Administrator for release of the amount in excess of the required amount of CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility.
(g) Within sixty days after receiving a request from the owner operator for release of funds as specified in paragraph (e) or paragraph (f) of this section, the Administrator will notify the trustee that the trust fund contains amounts in excess of the required amount. Following this notification, the trustee may release the excess funds in accordance with the terms of the trust agreement.
(h) The trust, up to the value of funds held including letters of credit held in accordance with § 320.40, is required to provide for payment:
(1) To parties that obtain a final court judgment from a Federal court against any of the current owners or operators at the facility for awarding CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with a facility covered by the trust agreement should payment not occur as required by the judgment within thirty days.
(2) As required in a CERCLA settlement associated with the facility between a current owner or operator and EPA or another Federal agency if payment is not otherwise made.
(3) Into a trust fund established pursuant to a CERCLA unilateral administrative order issued to one of the current owners or operators by EPA or another Federal agency in the event the work is not performed at the facility as required by the order. The Administrator or other Federal agency shall only make such a claim if the owner or operator provides written consent for the financial responsibility instrument to assure the obligations under the unilateral administrative order.
(i) The Administrator will agree to the termination of the trust when:
(1) The owner operator substitutes alternate financial assurance as specified in this section; or
(2) The Administrator releases the owner or operator from the requirements of this section in accordance with § 320.27.
(a) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this part by establishing more than one financial instrument per facility.
(b) The instruments must be as specified in §§ 320.40 through 320.45, respectively, except that it is the combination of instruments, rather than the single instrument, which must demonstrate financial responsibility for an amount at least equal to the required CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount.
(c) An owner or operator using a trust fund in combination with a surety bond, letter of credit or insurance policy, including a trust fund holding a letter of credit, may use the trust fund as the standby trust fund for the other instruments.
(d) A single standby trust fund may be established for two or more instruments. A claimant may make a claim against any of the instruments used to provide evidence of financial responsibility.
(a) An owner or operator may use a financial responsibility instrument specified in this part to meet the requirements of this section for more than one facility.
(b) Evidence of financial responsibility submitted to the Administrator must include for each facility, the EPA Identification Number, name, address, and the amount of funds for § 108(b) financial responsibility assured by the instrument.
(c) If the facilities covered by the instrument are in more than one Region, identical evidence of financial responsibility must be submitted to and maintained with the regional delegees of the Administrator, as applicable, of all such Regions.
(d) The amount of funds available through the instrument must be no less than the sum of funds that would be available if a separate instrument had been established and maintained for each facility.
(a) Where a facility is owned or operated by more than one person, evidence of financial responsibility covering the facility may be established and maintained by one of the owners or operators, or, in consolidated form, by or on behalf of two or more owners or operators.
(b) When evidence of financial responsibility is established in a consolidated form, the proportional share of the cost of demonstrating the financial responsibility for each participant shall be shown in a separate letter to the Administrator.
(c) The evidence shall be accompanied by a statement authorizing the owner or operator submitting the evidence of financial responsibility to act for and on behalf of each participant in submitting and maintaining the evidence of financial responsibility.
(a)(1) A trust agreement for a trust fund, as specified 40 CFR 320.45 must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted.
Trust Agreement (the “Agreement”) is entered into as of [insert date] by and between [insert name of owner(s)/operator(s)], a business [insert relevant entity (corporation, partnership, association, proprietorship, etc.)], (the “Grantor”) and [insert name of corporate trustee], [insert “incorporated in the state of [name of state]” or “a national bank”] (the “Trustee”).
Whereas, the United States Environmental Protection Agency (“EPA”) has established regulations applicable to the Grantor requiring that an owner or operator of a facility subject to the regulations demonstrate financial responsibility as proof that funds will be available when needed for payment of CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damages at the facility.
Whereas, the Grantor has elected to establish a trust to provide all or part of such financial responsibility and/or to receive the proceeds from a letter of credit to assure all or part of such financial responsibility for the facilities identified herein.
Whereas, the Grantor, acting through its duly authorized officers, has selected the Trustee to be the trustee under this agreement, and the Trustee is willing to act as trustee,
Now, therefore, the Grantor and the Trustee agree as follows:
a) “Grantor” means the owner or operator who enters into this Agreement and any successors or assigns of the Grantor.
b) “Trustee” means the Trustee who enters into this Agreement and any successor Trustee.
The Trustee shall satisfy valid unpaid CERCLA claims by making payments on a first come first served basis from the Fund only upon receipt of one or more of the following documents and only in amounts up to the values specified in the document(s):
(i) A final court judgment dated at least 30 days earlier from a Federal court, in favor of the claimant, awarding CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with a facility covered by this Agreement against the Grantor or any of the current owners or operators at a facility covered by this agreement;
(ii) A written signed statement from the EPA Administrator or another Federal government agency requesting payment from the Fund on the grounds that payment has not been made as required by a CERCLA settlement associated with a facility covered by this Agreement and with any of the current owners or operators; or
(iii) A written signed statement from the EPA Administrator or other Federal government agency requesting payment from the Fund into a trust fund established pursuant to a CERCLA unilateral administrative order on the grounds that performance at a facility covered by this Agreement has not occurred as required by a CERCLA unilateral administrative order issued to a current owner or operator that references this trust agreement.
In addition to one of the documents listed above, all claimants must also present the following:
A signed statement from the claimant certifying that these amounts have not been recovered or paid from any other source, including, but not limited to, the owners or operators, insurance, judgments, agreements, and other financial responsibility instruments.
In the event of simultaneous valid claims that exceed the value of the Fund, the Trustee shall pay the claimants a pro rata share of their claim determined by the size of each valid claim.
In addition to the payment instructions above, in the case of a release or threatened release from a facility covered by the Agreement, any claim authorized by section 107 or 111 of CERCLA may be asserted directly against the Fund as provided by CERCLA section 108(c)(2) subject to the limitations in CERCLA section 108(d). The Fund shall be entitled to all rights and defenses provided to guarantors by CERCLA section 108(c). The Fund is available for paying and defending claims in these instances.
In addition, if notified by the EPA Administrator that the trust fund contains amounts in excess of the required CERCLA 108(b) financial responsibility amount, the Trustee shall refund to the Grantor such amounts in excess of the required CERCLA 108(b) financial responsibility amount.
(i) Securities or other obligations of the Grantor, or any other current owner or operator of the facilities, or any of their affiliates as defined in the Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a), shall not be acquired or held, unless they are securities or other obligations of the Federal or a state government;
(ii) The Trustee is authorized to invest the Fund in time or demand deposits of the Trustee, to the extent insured by an agency of the Federal or state government;
(iii) The Trustee is authorized to hold and draw upon standby letters of credit specified as in 40 CFR 320.50(b); and
(iv) The Trustee is authorized to hold cash awaiting investment or distribution un-invested for a reasonable time and without liability for the payment of interest thereon.
(a) To transfer from time to time any or all of the assets of the Fund to any common or collective trust fund created by the Trustee in which the Fund is eligible to participate, subject to all of the provisions thereof, to be jointly invested with the assets of other trusts participating therein; and
(b) To purchase shares in any investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, 15 U.S.C. 80a-1 et seq., including one which may be created, managed, underwritten, or to which investment advice is rendered or the shares of which are sold by the Trustee. The Trustee may vote such shares in its discretion.
(a) To sell, exchange, convey, transfer, or otherwise dispose of any property held by it, by public or private sale. No person dealing with the Trustee shall be bound to see to the application of the purchase money or to inquire into the validity or expediency of any such sale or other disposition;
(b) To hold and draw upon standby letters of credit that are worded as specified in 40 CFR 320.50(b);
(c) To make, execute, acknowledge, and deliver any and all documents of transfer and conveyance and any and all other instruments that may be necessary or appropriate to carry out the powers herein granted;
(d) To register any securities held in the Fund in its own name or in the name of a nominee and to hold any security in bearer form or in book entry, or to combine certificates representing such securities with certificates of the same issue held by the Trustee in other fiduciary capacities, or to deposit or arrange for the deposit of such securities in a qualified central depositary even though, when so deposited, such securities may be merged and held in bulk in the name of the nominee of such depositary with other securities deposited therein by another person, or to deposit or arrange for the deposit of any securities issued by the United
(e) To deposit any cash in the Fund in interest-bearing accounts maintained or savings certificates issued by the Trustee, in its separate corporate capacity, or in any other banking institution affiliated with the Trustee, to the extent insured by an agency of the Federal or state government;
(f) To compromise or otherwise adjust all claims in favor of or against the Fund.
In Witness Whereof the parties have caused this Agreement to be executed by their respective officers duly authorized and their corporate seals to be hereunto affixed and attested as of the date first above written. The parties below certify that the wording of this Agreement is identical to the wording
(2) The following is an example of the certification of acknowledgement which must accompany the trust agreement for a trust fund as specified in 40 CFR 320.45 of this chapter. State requirements may differ on the proper content of this acknowledgement.
On this [date], before me personally came [owner or operator] to me known, who, being by me duly sworn, did depose and say that she/he resides at [address], that she/he is [title] of [corporation], the corporation described in and which executed the above instrument; that she/he knows the seal of said corporation; that the seal affixed to such instrument is such corporate seal; that it was so affixed by order of the Board of Directors of said corporation, and that she/he signed her/his name thereto by like order.
(b) A letter of credit, as specified in 40 CFR 320.40 of this chapter, must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
We hereby establish our Irrevocable Standby Letter of Credit No. [insert number] in the favor of [insert either “any and all third-party CERCLA claimants” or the name of trustee of the trust fund that will hold the letter of credit], at the request and for the account of [insert name of Owner or Operator of Facility] (the “Applicant”), in the amount of $[insert amount] (the “Maximum Amount”) for the [insert name(s) and address(es) of the facility(ies) to be covered by this instrument] (the “Facility”). The letter of credit is established to assure payment for the current owners or operators' CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with the facilities covered by this letter. Payment shall be made up to amounts provided above for each facility and not to exceed in total the Maximum Amount, upon presentation of:
[If letter of credit is established in favor of a trust fund trustee insert: “A demand for payment from [name of trust fund trustee] bearing reference to this letter of credit number No. [insert number]
If letter of credit is issued in favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants insert: “A demand for payment bearing reference to this letter of credit number No. [insert number]; and
A final court judgment dated at least 30 days earlier from a Federal court, in favor of the claimant, awarding CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with a facility covered by the letter of credit against any of the current owners or operators at a facility covered by the letter of credit accompanied by a certification from the claimant that reads as follows: `I hereby certify that the amount of the demand is payable pursuant to regulations issued under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1980 as amended.'; or
A certification from the EPA Administrator or another Federal agency that reads as follows: `I hereby certify that the amount of the demand is payable pursuant to regulations issued under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1980 as amended.'”]
This letter of credit is effective as of [date] and shall expire on [date at least one year later], but such expiration date shall be automatically extended for a period of [at least one year] on [date at least one year later as specified above] and on each successive expiration date, unless, at least 120 days before the current expiration date, we notify [If letter of credit is issued in favor of a trust fund trustee insert: “[name of trustee],” ] the EPA Administrator and the Applicant by certified mail that we have decided not to extend this letter of credit beyond the current expiration date. In the event of such notification, any unused portion of the credit shall be paid into the accompanying trust fund issued by [insert name of issuing institution of trust fund] with account number [insert account number of the trust fund] upon presentation by [If issued in favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants enter “the EPA Administrator”; if issued in favor of a trust fund trustee insert name of trustee] of a demand for payment compliant with the terms above within 120 days after the date of receipt of such notification by both you and [owner's or operator's name], as shown on the signed return receipts.
Whenever this letter of credit is drawn on under and in compliance with the terms of this credit, we shall duly honor such demand upon presentation to us and shall pay as directed by claimant or the trustee.
[Insert if letter of credit is issued in favor of any and all third-party CERCLA claimants: “In the case of a release or threatened release of (a) hazardous substance(s) from a facility covered by the letter of credit, we acknowledge that any claim authorized by section 107 or 111 of CERCLA may be asserted directly against us as provided by CERCLA section 108(c)(2). We consent to suit with respect to these claims subject to the limitations in CERCLA section 108(d). We acknowledge that we are entitled to all rights and defenses provided to guarantors by CERCLA section 108(c). We will provide notice of
This credit is subject to [insert the most recent edition of either the Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits or International Standby Practices published and copyrighted by the International Chamber of Commerce.]
We certify that the wording of this letter of credit is identical to the wording specified in 40 CFR 320.50(b) as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below. [Signature(s) and title(s) of official(s) of issuing institution] [Date].
(c) A surety bond, as specified in 40 CFR 320.41 of this chapter, must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
Purpose: This is an agreement between the Surety(ies) and the Principal under which the Principal and Surety(ies) hereto are firmly bound to any and all third-party CERCLA claimants , in the above penal sum plus the amount of any investigation or legal defense fees incurred by Surety(ies) for the payment of which we bind ourselves, our heirs, executors, administrators, successors and assigns jointly and severally; provided that, where the Surety(ies) are corporations acting as co-sureties, we, the Sureties, bind ourselves in such sum “jointly and severally” only for the purpose of allowing a joint action or actions against any or all of us, and for all other purposes each Surety binds itself, jointly and severally with the Principal, for the payment of such percentage of the total penal sum only as is set forth opposite the name of each Surety plus the amount of any investigation or legal defense fees incurred by Surety, but if no limit of liability is indicated, the limit of liability shall be the total penal sum of the bond plus the amount of any investigation or legal defense fees incurred by Surety. We agree to be responsible for the following:
(1) the satisfaction of valid third-party CERCLA claims against the Principal or the other current owners and operators for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damages associated with the facility(ies) covered by this bond in the sums prescribed herein; and
(2) the guarantee that the Principal or other current owners and operators shall obtain alternate financial responsibility as specified in subpart C of 40 CFR 320 for the facility(ies) covered by this bond and obtain written approval of that financial responsibility provided within 90 days of receipt by the EPA Administrator and the Principal of a notice of cancellation of the bond from the Surety(ies).
The aforementioned responsibilities are subject to the governing provisions and the following conditions. Any provision in this bond conflicting with the following governing provisions or conditions shall be deemed deleted herefrom and provisions conforming to such governing provisions or condition shall be deemed incorporated herein.
Governing Provisions:
(1) the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1980, as amended.
(2) Rules and regulations of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), particularly 40 CFR part 320.
Conditions:
(1) The Principal and all the current owners and operators at the facility(ies) covered by this bond are subject to the applicable governing provisions that require the Principal and all the current owners and operators to have and maintain CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility to cover CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damage claims.
(2) This bond assures that the Principal will ensure that at facilities covered by this bond: (a) payments will be made as required by final court judgments from a Federal court against a current owner or operator for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages within 30 days; (b) payments will be made when required by a CERCLA settlement with a current owner or operator; (c) work will be performed as required in CERCLA unilateral administrative orders issued to a current owner or operator for which the owner or operator has provided a written statement allowing the bond to assure the performance of the work in the order; and (d) CERCLA 108(b) financial responsibility coverage will be maintained as described in condition 1.
(3) If the Principal fails to perform as described above the Surety(ies) becomes liable on this bond obligation.
(4) The Surety(ies) shall satisfy a valid claim for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages only upon the receipt of one of the following documents plus the additional signed statement specified below:
(a) A final court judgment dated at least 30 days earlier from a Federal court, in favor of the claimant, awarding CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with a facility covered by this bond against the Principal or any of the current owners or operators at a facility covered by this bond;
(b) A written signed statement from the EPA Administrator or another Federal government agency requesting payment from the Surety(ies) on the grounds that payment has not been made as required by a CERCLA settlement associated with a facility covered by this bond and with any of the current owners or operators; or
(c) A written signed statement from the EPA Administrator or other Federal government agency requesting payment from the Surety(ies) into a trust fund established pursuant to a CERCLA unilateral administrative order on the grounds that performance at a facility covered by this bond has not occurred as required by a CERCLA unilateral administrative order issued to a current owner or operator.
A signed statement from the claimant certifying that these amounts have not been recovered or paid from any other source, including, but not limited to, the owner operator, insurance, judgments, agreements, and other financial responsibility instruments.
(5) In addition to condition 4, in the case of a release or threatened release of (a) hazardous substance(s) from a facility covered by the bond, the Surety(ies) acknowledge that any claim authorized by section 107 or 111 of CERCLA may be asserted directly against the Surety(ies) as provided by CERCLA section 108(c)(2). The Surety(ies) consent(s) to suit with respect to these claims subject to the limitations in CERCLA section 108(d). The Surety(ies) shall be entitled to all
(6) If upon notice of cancellation by the Surety(ies) the Principal fails to obtain replacement CERCLA financial responsibility consistent with subpart C of 40 CFR 320 and written approval of the EPA Administrator of that replacement financial responsibility within 90 days of receipt of said notice by the EPA Administrator and the Principal the Surety(ies) shall become liable on this bond and shall make payment into the standby trust fund as directed by the EPA Administrator.
(7) The liability of the Surety(ies) shall not be discharged by any payment or succession of payments hereunder, unless and until such payment or payments shall amount in the aggregate to the penal sum of the bond. In no event shall the obligation of the Surety(ies) hereunder exceed the amount of said penal sum plus the amount of any investigation or legal defense fees.
(8) The Surety(ies) may cancel the bond by sending notice of cancellation by certified mail to the Principal and the EPA Administrator, provided, however, that cancellation shall not occur during the 120 days beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by the Principal and the EPA Administrator, as evidenced by the return receipt.
(9) The Principal may terminate this bond by sending written notice to the Surety(ies), provided however, that no such notice shall become effective until the Surety(ies) receive(s) written authorization for termination of the bond by the EPA Administrator.
(10) The Surety(ies) hereby waive(s) notification of amendments to applicable laws, statutes, rules and regulations and agree(s) that no such amendment shall in any way alleviate its (their) obligation on this bond.
(11) This bond is effective from [insert date] (12:01 a.m., standard time, at the address of the Principal as stated herein) and shall continue in force until cancelled or terminated as described above.
In Witness Whereof, the Principal and Surety(ies) have executed this Bond and have affixed their seals on the date set forth above.
The persons whose signatures appear below hereby certify that they are authorized to execute this surety bond on behalf of the Principal and Surety(ies) and that the wording of this surety bond is identical to the wording specified in 40 CFR 320.50(c), as such regulations were constituted on the date this bond was executed.
(d) A CERCLA § 108(b) insurance endorsement as required in 40 CFR 320.42 must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
1. This endorsement certifies that the policy to which the endorsement is attached provides liability insurance covering CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damages in connection with the insured's obligation to demonstrate financial responsibility under 40 CFR 320. The coverage applies at [list EPA Identification Number, name, address, total CERCLA 108(b) financial responsibility amount for each facility] for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and natural resource damages at a covered facility. The limits of liability are [insert the dollar amount(s) of the limits and the percentage share of the Insurer's liability for each covered facility], exclusive of legal defense and investigation costs.
2. The insurance afforded with respect to such facilities is subject to all of the terms and conditions of the policy; provided, however, that any provision, exclusion, definition, condition, retroactive date, clause, defense, or other term of the policy inconsistent with 40 CFR 320.42, or subsections (a) through (f) of this Paragraph 2 are hereby amended to conform with 40 CFR 320.42 and subsections (a) through (f) below:
(a) The Insurer will make payment only for third-party CERCLA claims as defined in section 101 of CERCLA; the insurance coverage is not available for payments to the insured. The Insurer will make:
i. payments awarded in final court judgments from a Federal court against any of the current owners and operators for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with a facility covered by the policy to the party obtaining the judgment should such payments not otherwise be made within 30 days.
ii. payments as required by a CERCLA settlement associated with a facility covered by the policy between EPA or another Federal government agency and any of the current owners and operators should such payments not occur.
iii. payments in instances where performance does not occur at a facility covered by the policy as required by a CERCLA unilateral administrative order issued by EPA or another Federal agency for which the owner or operator has provided a written statement that the policy be used to assure performance of the work required in the order.
iv. payment into a standby trust in instances where the owner or operator fails to obtain alternate financial responsibility and obtain written approval of such alternate financial responsibility from the EPA Administrator within 90 days after receipt by both the insured and the EPA Administrator of a notice from the insurer that it has decided to cancel, terminate or fail to renew the insurance policy beyond the current expiration date as provided for in paragraph (f) below.
(b) In addition to the payment condition in subsection (a), in the case of a release or threatened release of (a) hazardous substance(s) from a facility covered by the policy, the insurer acknowledges that any claim authorized by section 107 or section 111 of CERCLA may be asserted directly against the insurer as provided by section 108(c)(2) of CERCLA. Insurer consents to suit with respect to these claims subject to the limitations in section 108(d) of CERCLA. The Insurer will be entitled to all rights and defenses provided to guarantors by section 108(c) of CERCLA. Insurer will provide notice of any such resulting claims and payments to the EPA Administrator.
(c) Bankruptcy or insolvency of the insured shall not relieve the Insurer of its obligations under the policy to which this endorsement is attached.
(d) The Insurer is liable for the payment of amounts within any
(e) Whenever requested by the Administrator of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), the Insurer agrees to furnish to the EPA Administrator a signed duplicate original of the policy and all endorsements.
(f) Cancellation, failure to renew or any other termination of the insurance by the insurer will be effective only upon written notice to the owner operator and the EPA Administrator by certified mail and only after the expiration of 120 days beginning with the date of receipt of the notice by both the Administrator and the owner or operator, as evidenced by the return receipts.
Attached to and forming part of policy No. __ issued by [name of Insurer], herein called the Insurer, of [address of Insurer] to [name of insured] of [address] this___ day of___, 20__. The effective date of said policy is___ day of ___, 20__.
I hereby certify that the wording of this endorsement is identical to the wording specified in 40 CFR 320.50(d) as such regulation was constituted on the date first above written, and that the Insurer is licensed to transact the business of insurance, or eligible to provide insurance as an excess or surplus lines insurer, in one or more states.
(e) A letter from the chief financial officer, as specified in § 320.43, must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
[Address to EPA Administrator or Regional delegees for every Region in which facilities for which financial responsibility is to be demonstrated through the corporate financial test are located.]
I am the Chief Financial Officer (“CFO”) of
1. This firm is the owner or operator of the facilities, listed below, for which Financial Responsibility is demonstrated through the financial test specified in 40 CFR part 320.43. The current CERCLA § 108(b) Financial Responsibility amount and the amount covered by the financial test are provided for each listed facility:
[For each facility, identify: Facility name; Address; EPA Identification Number; CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount; and amount covered by financial test]
2. This firm guarantees, through the guarantee specified in 40 CFR part 320.44, financial responsibility of the following facilities owned or operated by the guaranteed party. The current CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount so guaranteed are shown for each listed facility:
[For each facility, identify: Facility name; Address; EPA Identification Number; CERCLA § 108(b) financial responsibility amount; and amount covered by financial test]
The firm identified above is:
3. The firm, as owner or operator or guarantor, is using a financial test to secure the environmental obligations of the facilities listed below for which financial responsibility is required. These obligations include, but are not limited to: current cost estimates for corrective action, closure, post-closure care, and amounts required for third-party liability for hazardous waste treatment, storage and disposal facilities under 40 CFR 264.101, 264.142, 264.144, 264.147, 265.142, 265.144 and 265.147 and as required by order under section 3008(h) of RCRA, 42 U.S.C. 6928(h); cost estimates for municipal solid waste landfill units under 40 CFR 258.71, 258.72 and 258.73; current plugging and abandonment cost estimates for underground injection control facilities under 40 CFR 144.62; cost estimates for underground storage tanks under 40 CFR 280.93; cost estimates for facilities storing polychlorinated biphenyls under 40 CFR 761.65; cost estimates for underground injection control class VI facilities for corrective action under 40 CFR 146.84, for injection well plugging under 40 CFR 146.92, for post injection facility care and facility closure under 40 CFR 146.93, and emergency and remedial response under 40 CFR 146.94; any financial responsibility required under any CERCLA settlement or order; and any other environmental obligation assured through a financial test or guarantee, excluding those costs represented in paragraphs 1 and 2 listed above. The cost estimates by obligation are provided for each listed facility:
[For each facility, identify: Facility name; Address; EPA Identification Number (if any); and amount covered by financial test]
4. The total of all such environmental obligations the firm is covering with a financial test or for which it issued a corporate guarantee for the listed facilities in paragraphs 1-3 above [sum of the portion covered by the financial test in paragraph 1 plus the sums in paragraphs 2 and 3] is $
5. The firm [
6. The fiscal year of the firm ends on [month, day]. The figures for the following items marked with asterisk are derived from this firm's independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year, ended [date].
7. The firm has received a qualified or adverse accountant's opinion for the latest completed fiscal year ended
8. The firm represents that as of the latest completed fiscal year-end
Test Worksheet:
1. The total of all environmental obligations the firm is covering with a financial test or for which it issued a
2. The firm represents that it holds the following long term credit ratings: [list all ratings and their dates that apply including but not limited to Long-Term Issuer Credit Ratings from Standard and Poor's, Long-Term Corporate Family Ratings from Moody's Investor Services, Long-Term Issuer Default Ratings from Fitch Ratings, and any other long-term credit rating from a Nationally Recognized Statistical Rating Organization (NRSRO)]
*3. Tangible Net Worth $___
4. Is line 3 at least 6 times line 1? (Yes/No) ___
*5. Total assets in U.S. [required only if the answer in paragraph 8 above is “No”] $___
6. Is line 5 at least 6 times line 1? (Yes/No) ___
I hereby certify that the information included in this letter, including all attachments and exhibits, is true and accurate. I further certify that the wording of this letter is identical to the wording specified in 40 CFR 320.50(e) as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below
(f) A corporate guarantee, as specified in § 320.44 must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
Guarantee made this [date] by [name of guaranteeing entity], a business corporation organized under the laws of [if incorporated within the United States insert “the State of ___” and insert name of state; if incorporated outside the United States insert the name of the country in which incorporated, the principal place of business within the United States, and the name and address of the registered agent in the state of the principal place of business], herein referred to as guarantor. This guarantee is made on behalf of the [owner or operator] of [business address], which is [one of the following: “our subsidiary”; “a subsidiary of [name and address of common parent corporation], of which guarantor is a subsidiary”; or “an entity with which guarantor has a substantial business relationship, as defined in 40 CFR 320.3” to any and all third-party CERCLA claimants.
1. Guarantor meets or exceeds the financial test criteria and agrees to comply with the reporting requirements for guarantors as specified in 40 CFR 320.44 and will report the full amount of CERCLA 108(b) financial responsibility for which it is eligible to cover as determined by the financial test criteria at 40 CFR 320.43 for each facility covered by the guarantee in the letter from its chief financial officer.
2. [Owner or operator] owns or operates the following facilities subject to CERCLA 108(b) financial responsibility requirements covered by this guarantee: [List for each facility: EPA Identification Number, name, address and if guarantor is incorporated outside the United States list the name and address of the guarantor's registered agent in each state.]
3. For value received from [owner or operator], and up to the most current § 108(b) financial responsibility amount required at each facility covered by the guarantee as identified in paragraph 2 of the guarantor's most recent CFO letter submission required under 40 CFR 320.44, and exclusive of any legal defense costs incurred by the guarantor, guarantor guarantees to any and all third-party CERCLA claimants that:
a) in the event that payment for CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with a facility identified above as required in a final court judgment from a Federal court against one of the current owners or operators is not made within 30 days, the guarantor shall do so;
b) in the event payment is not made as required in a CERCLA settlement associated with a facility identified above between a current owner or operator and EPA or another Federal government agency, the guarantor shall do so; and
c) in the event that performance at a facility covered by the guarantee does not occur as required under a CERCLA unilateral administrative order issued to a current owner or operator by EPA or another Federal agency and for which the owner or operator provides a written statement allowing the guarantee to serve as financial responsibility assuring the work in the order, the guarantor shall make payment into a trust fund established pursuant to the order.
4. The guarantor shall satisfy a third-party CERCLA claim only on receipt of one of the following documents plus the additional signed statement specified below:
(a) A final court judgment dated at least 30 days earlier from a Federal court, in favor of the claimant, awarding CERCLA response costs, health assessment costs, and/or natural resource damages associated with a facility covered by this guarantee against any of the current owners or operators at a facility covered by this guarantee;
(b) A written signed statement from an EPA Administrator or another Federal government agency requesting payment from the Guarantor on the grounds that payment has not been made as required by a CERCLA settlement associated with a facility covered by this guarantee and with any of the current owners or operators; or
(c) A written signed statement from the EPA Administrator or other Federal government agency requesting payment from the Guarantor into a trust fund established pursuant to a CERCLA unilateral administrative order on the grounds that performance at a facility covered by this guarantee has not occurred as required by a CERCLA administrative order issued to a current owner or operator.
A signed statement from the claimant certifying that these amounts have not been recovered or paid from any other source, including, but not limited to, the owner operator, insurance, judgments, agreements, and other financial responsibility instruments.
5. In addition to the payment provisions in paragraph 4 of this agreement, in the case of a release or threatened release of (a) hazardous substance(s) from a facility covered by the guarantee, guarantor acknowledges that any claim authorized by section 107 or 111 of CERCLA may be asserted directly against the guarantor as provided by CERCLA section 108(c). Guarantor consents to suit with respect to these claims subject to the limitations in CERCLA section 108(d). Guarantor will be entitled to all defenses provided to guarantors by CERCLA section 108(c). Guarantor agrees to provide notice of any such resulting claims and payments to the EPA Administrator.
6. The guarantor agrees that if, at any time before the termination of this guarantee, the guarantor fails to meet the financial test criteria, guarantor shall send within 90 days, by certified mail, notice to the EPA Administrator and to [owner or operator] of its intent to provide alternate financial responsibility as specified in subpart C of 40 CFR part 320 in the name of [owner or operator]. Within 120 days after the guarantor fails to meet the financial test criteria, the guarantor shall establish such financial responsibility unless [owner or operator] has done so.
7. The guarantor agrees to notify the EPA Administrator by certified mail, of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under Title 11 (Bankruptcy), U.S. Code, naming guarantor as debtor, within 10 days after commencement of the proceeding.
8. Guarantor agrees that within 30 days after being notified by an EPA Administrator of a determination that guarantor no longer meets the financial test criteria or that he is disallowed from continuing as a guarantor, he shall establish alternate financial responsibility as specified in subpart C of 40 CFR part 320, as applicable, in the name of [owner or operator] unless [owner or operator] has done so.
9. Guarantor agrees to remain bound under this guarantee notwithstanding any or all of the following: enforcement action taken under CERCLA at a covered facility, or any modification or alteration of an obligation of owner or operator pursuant to 40 CFR part 320, or the bankruptcy of an owner or operator at a facility covered by the agreement.
10. Guarantor agrees to remain bound under this guarantee for as long as [owner or operator] must comply with the applicable financial assurance requirements of subpart C of 40 CFR part 320 for the above-listed facilities, except as provided in paragraph 11 of this agreement.
11. Guarantor may terminate this guarantee by sending notice by certified mail to the EPA Administrator and to [owner or operator], provided that this guarantee may not be terminated unless and until [the owner or operator] obtains, and the EPA Administrator approves, alternate financial responsibility complying with subpart C of 40 CFR part 320.
12. Guarantor agrees that if [owner or operator] fails to provide alternate financial assurance as specified in subpart C of 40 CFR part 320 and obtain written approval of such assurance from the EPA Administrator within 90 days after a notice of cancellation by the guarantor is received by the EPA Administrator from guarantor, guarantor shall provide such alternate financial assurance in the name of [owner or operator].
13. Guarantor expressly waives notice of acceptance of this guarantee by the EPA or by [owner or operator]. Guarantor also expressly waives notice of any modification or alteration of an obligation of owner or operator pursuant to 40 CFR part 320.
I hereby certify that the wording of this guarantee is identical to the wording specified in 40 CFR part 320.50(f) as such regulations were constituted on the date first above written.
(a)(1) The requirements of this subpart apply to owners or operators of hardrock mining facilities within the classes identified in the
(2) The requirements of this subpart do not apply to owners or operators of the following classes of hardrock mining facilities identified in the
(i) Mines conducting only placer mining activities
(ii) Mines conducting only exploration activities
(iii) Mines with less than five disturbed acres that are not located within one mile of another area of mine disturbance that occurred in the prior ten-year period, and that do not employ hazardous substances in their processes, and
(iv) Processors with less than five disturbed acres of waste pile and surface impoundment
(a) Owners and operators of hardrock mining facilities that are authorized to operate, or should be authorized to operate, on [Date 30 days after publication of Final Rule] must demonstrate financial responsibility according to the following schedule:
(1) For the amount of the health assessment cost component identified in this subpart by [Date 24 months after promulgation of the final rule];
(2) For fifty percent of the response and natural resource damages cost components amount identified in this subpart by [Date 36 months after promulgation of the final rule]; and
(3) For the full response and natural resource damages component amount identified in this subpart by [Date 48 months after promulgation of the Final Rule].
(b) Owners and operators of hardrock mining facilities that are authorized to operate, or should be authorized to operate, between [Date of publication of final rule] and [Date four years after publication of the final rule] must be incompliance with the schedule in paragraph (a) and continue to comply with that schedule after beginning operations.
(c) Owners or operators of hardrock mining facilities that become authorized to operate, or should become authorized to operate, after [Date four years after the effective date of this rule] must demonstrate financial responsibility for the full financial responsibility amount required under this subpart before beginning or resuming operations.
When used in this subpart, the following terms are defined as follows:
(a) Owners and operators subject to the requirements of this subpart must calculate the financial responsibility amount for their facilities in accordance with this section.
(b)(1) Response component—
Determine the response component of the financial responsibility amount for the facility by totaling the response category amounts in paragraphs (i) through (xii) for all applicable response categories. Include in the calculation all site features that are authorized to operate, or should have been authorized to operate on [Effective Date of the Final Rule], or on the date the facility first becomes subject to requirements of this part, and have not been released from financial responsibility obligations under § 320.27.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
(xi)
(xii)
(xiii)
(2) Multiply the response cost amount calculated under paragraph (b)(1) of this section by the following:
(i) Overhead and oversight percentage ([1 +
(ii) State adjustment factor (
(iii) Natural resource damage component. The financial responsibility amount for natural resource damages at a facility is 13.4 percent of the total response component.
(3) Add the health assessment component to the amount calculated under paragraph (b)(2) of this section. The financial responsibility amount for the health assessment component is $550,000.
(c) Owners and operators may satisfy requirements of paragraph (b)(i) through (xiii), in whole or in part, by demonstrating that they are subject to, and in compliance with, requirements that will result in a minimum degree and duration of risk associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage, or disposal, as applicable, of all hazardous substances present at that site feature. A demonstration under this paragraph will reduce the amount of financial responsibility that an owner and operator must demonstrate under this part.
(1) The demonstration must be made individually for each site feature that must be included in the calculation as required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, and must include, at a minimum:
(i) Evidence that the owner or operator is subject to the requirements described in paragraph (d) of this section,
(ii) Evidence that the owner's or operator's obligation to implement such requirements are imposed in an enforceable document as defined in § 320.61,
(iii) Evidence that the owner or operator has demonstrated, and is required to demonstrate, adequate financial responsibility to assure implementation of the required activities, and
(iv) Certification by the owner or operator that the facility is in
(2) Information provided to make the demonstration in paragraph (c)(1) of this section must provide sufficient and detailed supporting information adequate to allow EPA to evaluate the adequacy of the financial responsibility and the underlying requirements.
(3) In the event that an owner or operator that reduces the maximum financial responsibility at its facility based on a reduction under paragraph (d) of this section becomes ineligible for that reduction because the facility no longer meets the requirements in paragraph (c)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section, it must recalculate the financial responsibility level at its facility and submit evidence of financial responsibility for the increased amount within thirty days of the date it no longer is eligible. The requirement to recalculate a financial responsibility level and submit evidence of financial responsibility under this paragraph does not affect the owner's or operator's obligations for instrument maintenance under § 320.22.
(d) Reductions to the response component amount.
(1) To satisfy the open pit category component in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section:
(i) A plan to address safety by prevention of public access by means of security fencing, or other effective methods.
(ii) Where ponding will occur, a plan that requires:
(A) regrading the bottom surface during closure to a stable configuration that prevents ponding and promotes the conveyance of surface water off the unit
(B) closure of all open pits where public access is not restricted
(C) structures that are considered to be critical structures to be designed for a long-term static factor of safety of 1.5 or greater
(D) structures that are considered to be non-critical structures to be designed for a long-term static factor of safety of 1.3 or greater
(E) units being closed be designed for a factor of safety of 1.1 or greater under pseudostatic analysis, and
(F) a stability analysis to be conducted for the unit and include evaluation for static and seismic induced liquefaction.
(iii) A plan for the management of all stormwater and sediment generated during reclamation and following closure that includes permanent stormwater conveyances, ditches, channels, and diversions, as necessary, designed to convey the peak flow and ponds and other collection devices, and that provides for controls designed to store the volume generated during a 24-hour period by a 200-year return interval storm event.
(iv) Where conditions at the open pit may allow a pit lake to form, or where meteoric water may percolate through the pit rock into groundwater below, and pit lake or any discharges may not meet water quality standards, a plan for the minimization, prevention, or collection and treatment of water in the pit lakes, discharges, and/or seepage, that factors in information on site hydrology, water quality characterization information, and pit lake ecological risk assessment information. The plan must address and provide for capture and treatment at closure consisting of a capture and treatment system that meets a minimum 200-yr life design criteria, and that is designed to either prevent pit lake formation or groundwater contamination exceeding applicable water quality standards to achieve at least a 95 percent capture efficiency of the affected groundwater, and to meet applicable water quality standards.
(v) If prevention/avoidance is relied on, a management plan that demonstrates geochemically active materials will effectively be avoided, and that includes provisions for sampling and monitoring documentation.
(vi) Requirements for concurrent or sequential reclamation of mined areas as they become available prior to final cessation of operations and closure.
(2) To satisfy the underground mine category component in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section:
(i) A plan to address public safety by prevention of public access by means of security fencing, or other effective methods.
(ii) A plan for the minimization, prevention or collection and treatment of discharges and or seepage based on site hydrology and water quality characterization information that provides for necessary additional source controls and/or capture and treatment at closure, all of which meet a minimum 200-year life design criteria, and includes:
(A) If seepage and/or discharge water quality is not expected to meet applicable water quality standards, requirements for a capture and treatment system designed to achieve at least a 95 percent capture efficiency and to meet applicable water quality standards, and
(B) If there will be a pressurized plug as a permanent feature controlling a discharge from underground mine workings at moderate to high heads (100-1,000+ kPa), a requirement to maintain the plug as a permanent feature.
(iii) If prevention/avoidance is relied on, a management plan that demonstrates geochemically active materials will effectively be avoided, and that includes provisions for sampling and monitoring documentation.
(iv) Requirements for concurrent or sequential reclamation of mined areas as they become available prior to final cessation of operations and closure.
(3) To satisfy the waste rock category component in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section:
(i) A plan to address public safety by prevention of public access by means of security fencing, or other effective methods.
(ii) If prevention/avoidance is relied on, a management plan that demonstrates geochemically active materials will effectively be avoided, and that includes provisions for sampling and monitoring documentation.
(iii) Requirements for concurrent or sequential reclamation of mined areas as they become available prior to final cessation of operations and closure.
(iv)
(v) Requirements to provide for a stability analysis to be conducted for the unit as part of the original design, and as part of mine modifications during the active life of the mine.
(vi) A plan for the management of all stormwater and sediment generated during operations and during and following closure. For existing units, the plan must provide for permanent stormwater conveyances, ditches, channels and diversions designed to convey the peak flow and ponds and other collection devices designed to store the volume generated during a 24-hour period by a 100-year return interval storm event. For unit that become authorized to operate after [Date of the Final Rule], the plan must provide for controls designed to store the volume generated during a 24-hour
(vii) A plan for the minimization, prevention, or collection and treatment of discharges and/or seepage, based on site hydrology and water quality characterization information, that provides for a cover system of, at a minimum, a store and release earthen cover system with a thickness of at least twelve inches and, if necessary, additional source controls or capture and treatment at closure, all of which meet a minimum 200-year life design criteria. If seepage water quality is not expected to meet applicable Federal and state groundwater and surface water quality standards at the point of compliance, the plan must provide for:
(
(
(
(4) To satisfy the heap and dump leach category component in paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section:
(i) A plan to address public safety by prevention of public access by means of security fencing, or other effective methods.
(ii) A plan to regrade surface during closure to a stable configuration that prevents ponding and promotes the conveyance of surface water off the unit, and that requires closure of all heap leach and dump leach piles considered to be critical structures to be designed for a long-term static factor of safety of 1.5 or greater and all non-critical structures to be designed for a long-term static factor of safety of 1.3 or greater; and requires that the units being closed be designed for a factor of safety of 1.1 or greater under pseudostatic analysis. The plan must also provide for a stability analysis to be conducted for the unit and include evaluation for static and seismic induced liquefaction.
(iii
(iv) A plan for the minimization, prevention, or collection and treatment of discharges and/or seepage, based on site hydrology and water quality characterization information, that provides for a cover system of, at a minimum, a store and release earthen cover system with a thickness of at least twelve inches and, if necessary, additional source controls or capture and treatment at closure, all of which meet a minimum 200-year life design criteria. If seepage water quality is not expected to meet applicable water quality standards, the plan must provide for:
(
(
(
(v) (For heap leach) A liner designed to minimize/eliminate releases from the unit based on site specific conditions.
(vi) Requirements for concurrent or sequential reclamation of mined areas as they become available prior to final cessation of operations and closure.
(5) To satisfy the tailings category component in paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section:
(i) A plan to address public safety by prevention of public access by means of security fencing, or other effective methods.
(ii) A plan to regrade surface during closure to a stable configuration that prevents ponding and promotes the conveyance of surface water off the unit, and that requires closure of all tailings impoundments and stacks considered to be critical structures to be designed for a long-term static factor of safety of 1.5 or greater and all non-critical structures to be designed for a long-term static factor of safety of 1.3 or greater; and requires that the units being closed be designed for a factor of safety of 1.1 or greater under pseudostatic analysis. The plan must also provide for a stability analysis to be conducted for the unit and include evaluation for static and seismic induced liquefaction.
(iii
(iv) A plan for the minimization, prevention, or collection and treatment of discharges and/or seepage, based on site hydrology and water quality characterization information, that provides for a cover system of, at a minimum, a store and release earthen cover system with a thickness of at least twelve inches and, if necessary, additional source controls or capture and treatment at closure, all of which meet a minimum 200-year life design criteria. If seepage water quality is not expected to meet applicable water quality standards, the plan must provide for:
(
(
(
(v) A liner designed to minimize/eliminate releases from the unit based on site specific conditions.
(vi) If prevention/avoidance is relied on, a management plan that demonstrates geochemically active materials will effectively be avoided, and that includes provisions for sampling and monitoring documentation.
(vii) If a wet tailings impoundment is present:
(
(
(viii) Requirements for concurrent or sequential reclamation of mined areas as they become available prior to final cessation of operations and closure.
(6) To satisfy the process pond and reservoir category component in paragraph (b)(1)(vi) of this section:
(i) A plan to address public safety by prevention of public access by means of security fencing, or other effective methods.
(ii) A plan for the design and operation of such ponds and reservoirs to ensure they have adequate freeboard and are designed to prevent discharges of hazardous substances.
(iii) A liner and collection system designed to minimize/eliminate releases from the unit based on site specific conditions.
(iv) A requirement that sludge and the sub-base below the liner be sampled and addressed in a manner that is protective of human health and the environment as part of closure.
(v) Requirements for concurrent or sequential reclamation of mined areas as they become available prior to final cessation of operations and closure.
(vi) A plan for the management of all stormwater and sediment generated during operations and during and following closure. For existing units, the plan must provide for permanent stormwater conveyances, ditches, channels and diversions designed to convey the peak flow and ponds and other collection devices designed to store the volume generated during a 24-hour period by a 100-year return interval storm event. For unit that become authorized to operate after [Date of the Final Rule], the plan must provide for controls designed to store the volume generated during a 24-hour period by a 200-year return interval storm event.
(7) To satisfy the slag pile category component in paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section:
(i) A plan to address public safety by prevention of public access by means of security fencing, or other effective methods.
(ii) If prevention/avoidance is relied on, a management plan that demonstrates geochemically active materials will effectively be avoided, and that includes provisions for sampling and monitoring documentation.
(iii) Requirements for concurrent or sequential reclamation of mined areas as they become available prior to final cessation of operations and closure.
(iv)
(v) Requirements to provide for a stability analysis to be conducted for the unit as part of the original design, and as part of mine modifications during the active life of the mine.
(vi) A plan for the management of all stormwater and sediment generated during operations and during and following closure. For existing units, the plan must provide for permanent stormwater conveyances, ditches, channels and diversions designed to convey the peak flow and ponds and other collection devices designed to store the volume generated during a 24-hour period by a 100-year return interval storm event. For unit that become authorized to operate after [Date of the Final Rule], the plan must provide for controls designed to store the volume generated during a 24-hour period by a 200-year return interval storm event.
(vii) A plan for the minimization, prevention, or collection and treatment of discharges and/or seepage, based on site hydrology and water quality characterization information, that provides for a cover system of, at a minimum, a store and release earthen cover system with a thickness of at least twelve inches and, if necessary, additional source controls or capture and treatment at closure, all of which meet a minimum 200-year life design criteria. If seepage water quality is not expected to meet applicable Federal and state groundwater and surface water quality standards at the point of compliance, the plan must provide for:
(
(
(
(8) To satisfy the solid and hazardous waste disposal component in paragraph (b)(1)(viii):
(
(ii) Requirements for contaminated soil disposal in a manner that is protective of human health and the environment and that is in compliance with all applicable Federal, state, and local requirements.
(iii) Requirements to decontaminate buildings and structures to remove and safely dispose of hazardous substances.
(9) To satisfy the drainage category component in paragraph (b)(1)(ix) of
(10) To satisfy the short-term O&M category component in paragraph (b)(1)(x) of this section:
(i) A plan for groundwater and surface water monitoring to assure that monitoring wells are located to detect an exceedance(s) or trends towards exceedance(s) of the applicable standards, and are detected at the earliest possible occurrence, so that investigation of the extent of contamination and actions to address the source of contamination may be implemented as soon as possible. The plan must be currently in effect and must cover a period of at least five years.
(ii) A plan for inspection and monitoring of erosion and revegetation to ensure reclamation success.
(iii) A plan for routine maintenance and repairs to roads, stormwater conveyances and collection devices and revegetation maintenance (
(11) To satisfy the interim O&M category component in paragraph (b)(1)(xi) of this section:
(i) A plan for the purpose of interim emergency water management to provide information on how process water systems, interceptor wells, seepage collection systems and storm water management systems are operated and maintained to prevent discharges in the event the regulator assumes management of the mine facility. The plan must include process water flow charts showing electrical system requirements, pump operations, seepage collection and interceptor well operations and applicable operation and maintenance requirements. The plan must be updated as major process water system changes occur that would affect the interim emergency water management plan.
(ii) A conceptual engineering document that describes the processes and methods that are expected to be used to reduce the quantities of process water in storage and circulation inventory at the end of mine production until all process solutions are eliminated and steady-state discharge is reached, in preparation for long-term water management or treatment. The document must include:
(A) A description and list of the current or proposed process water management units and inventories of process water;
(B) A description of the modifications to the process water management system required to create an efficient process water reduction system;
(C) The operation and maintenance requirements for the system with material take-offs of sufficient detail to prepare an engineering-level cost estimate; and
(D) An estimate of the required water reduction period based on the water reduction calculations provided in the plan to be used for planning and operation and maintenance cost calculations.
(12) To satisfy the long-term O&M category component in paragraph (b)(1)(xii) of this section:
(
(
(
(13) To satisfy the water treatment category component in paragraph (b)(1)(xiii) of this section:
(i) A plan for closure water management and water treatment consisting of a conceptual engineering document that describes the processes and methods that are expected to be used for long-term management or treatment of seepage and includes an analysis of the expected operational life of each long-term water management or water treatment system, including collection/interceptor systems, until each system is no longer needed to protect water quality and applicable standards are met. The plan must describe whether active or passive treatment is proposed and include all operations and maintenance activities required to support all collection and treatment systems. The plan must describe the long-term water management and water treatment systems with sufficient detail, including locations of key components, expected operational life, material take-offs, and capital, operational and maintenance costs to prepare an engineering-level cost estimate. The plan must be currently in effect and must cover a period of at least 200 years.
(ii) A plan for disposal of wastes produced from water treatment that is protective of human health and the environment and meets applicable Federal, state, and local requirements.
(a) Owners or operators must submit to EPA information that supports the cost calculation including the maximum financial responsibility amount, final financial responsibility amount, information to support all inputs to the formula, and information to support reductions to the maximum financial responsibility amount in accordance with paragraph (c), including necessary components of applicable enforceable documents. Such information must provide sufficient detail about facility conditions to allow the Administrator to review the formula calculation and determine if the inputs to the formula were accurate, and should include site characterization information and evaluations that support the enforceable documents provided to support reductions.
(b) Owners or operators must retain the calculation of the financial responsibility amount and the information supporting it for a period of three years following submission to EPA.
The financial responsibility amount submitted by owners or operators in compliance with § 320.63 must be certified by an independent qualified professional engineer as defined in § 320.62.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of intent to proceed with rulemakings.
Section 108(b) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) establishes certain regulatory authorities concerning financial responsibility requirements. Specifically, the statutory language addresses the promulgation of regulations that require classes of facilities to establish and maintain evidence of financial responsibility consistent with the degree and duration of risk associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous substances. On January 6, 2010, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published an Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) that identified additional classes of facilities within three industry sectors that may warrant the development of financial responsibility requirements under CERCLA section 108(b)—the Chemical Manufacturing industry (NAICS 325), the Petroleum and Coal Products Manufacturing industry (NAICS 324), and the Electric Power Generation, Transmission, and Distribution industry (NAICS 2211). This document formally announces EPA's intention to publish a notice for proposed rulemaking for classes of facilities within the three industries identified in the 2010 ANPRM, as well as gives an overview of some of the comments received on the ANPRM and initial responses to those comments. The announcement in this action is not a determination that requirements are necessary for any or all of the classes of facilities within the three industries, or that EPA will propose such requirements—rather, it is an announcement that EPA intends to move forward with the regulatory process. After that process, EPA will determine whether proposal of requirements for any or all of the classes of facilities within the three industries is necessary.
January 11, 2017.
For more information on this action, contact Peggy Vyas, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Resource Conservation and Recovery, Mail Code 5303P, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone (703)
CERCLA section 108(b) generally requires that EPA develop requirements that classes of facilities establish and maintain evidence of financial responsibility “consistent with the degree and duration of risk associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous substances.”
CERCLA section 108(b) also discusses particular instruments for EPA to consider in its regulations. Specifically, paragraph (b)(2) states that financial responsibility may be established by any one, or any combination, of the following: Insurance, guarantee, surety bond, letter of credit, or qualification as a self-insurer. Paragraph (b)(2) further authorizes EPA to specify policy or other contractual terms, conditions, or defenses which are necessary, or which are unacceptable in establishing evidence of financial responsibility. Paragraph (b)(2) also requires EPA to cooperate with and seek the advice of the commercial insurance industry to the maximum extent practicable when developing financial responsibility requirements.
CERCLA section 108(b)(3) requires that regulations promulgated under CERCLA section 108(b) incrementally impose financial responsibility requirements as quickly as can reasonably be achieved, but in no event more than four years after the date of promulgation.
CERCLA section 108(c) also includes a “direct action” provision under which any claim authorized by CERCLA section 107 or 111 may be asserted directly against any guarantor providing evidence of financial responsibility under CERCLA section 108(b) if the person is liable under CERCLA section 107 and (1) is in bankruptcy, reorganization, or arrangement pursuant to the Federal Bankruptcy Code, or (2) is likely to be solvent at the time of judgment, but over whom jurisdiction in the Federal courts cannot be obtained with reasonable diligence.
In August 2014, the groups Idaho Conservation League, Earthworks, Sierra Club, Amigos Bravos, Great Basin Resource Watch, and Communities for a Better Environment filed a lawsuit in the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit, for a writ of mandamus requiring issuance of CERCLA section 108(b) financial responsibility rules for the hardrock mining industry, and for the three additional industries identified by EPA in the ANPRM, that is, Chemical Manufacturing, Petroleum and Coal Products Manufacturing, and Electric Power Generation, Transmission, and Distribution.
In addition to requiring EPA to publish a proposed rule on hardrock mining financial requirements by December 1, 2016, the January 2016 Order requires EPA to “sign for publication in the
“EPA will sign for publication in the
EPA will sign for publication in the
EPA will sign for publication in the
While the January 2016 Order identifies the other industries as being the Chemical Manufacturing industry, the Petroleum and Coal Products Manufacturing industry, and the Electric Power Generation, Transmission and Distribution industry, and sets a rulemaking schedule, it does not specify which industry will be the
On July 28, 2009, EPA published a
Some of the factors reflect the basic elements of risk evaluation (
On January 6, 2010, EPA published an ANPRM,
EPA specifically requested public comment in the 2010 ANPRM on whether to propose a regulation under CERCLA section 108(b) for any class or classes, or the industry as a whole, including information demonstrating why such financial responsibility requirements would not be appropriate for those particular classes. In addition, the Agency requested information related to the industry categories discussed in the action, including data on facility operations, information on past and expected future environmental responses, use of financial responsibility mechanisms by the industry categories, existing financial responsibility requirements, and other information the Agency might consider in setting financial responsibility levels. Finally, EPA requested information from the insurance and the financial sectors related to instrument implementation and availability, and potential instrument conditions.
EPA received over sixty comments on the ANPRM, which can be found in the docket for that action (
Representatives for the electric utility industry submitted roughly one-third of the comments on the 2010 ANPRM. Representatives for the chemical manufacturing industry, the petroleum industry, the waste management industry, the hardrock mining industry, as well as other interested parties also submitted comments.
The comments on the 2010 ANPRM, which specifically addressed the need for CERCLA section 108(b) regulation for the additional classes, can be divided into four categories: (1) Other laws that the industry complies with that obviate the need for CERCLA section 108(b) regulation; (2) the sources of data EPA used to select the industries; (3) past versus current practices within each industry; and (4) the overall need for financial responsibility for each industry. EPA is broadly addressing these categories of comments in this action.
Many commenters cited existing laws that their industries are already complying with to ensure that there are no occurrences of non-permitted releases of hazardous substances. In particular, commenters pointed out that there are already financial responsibility requirements under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA). While EPA appreciates the concern, as was discussed above, CERCLA section 108(b) broadly directs the development of financial responsibility requirements consistent with the degree and duration of risk associated with the production, transportation, treatment, storage or disposal of hazardous substances. These requirements, which are designed to help ensure that CERCLA liabilities are paid if CERCLA claims are made, are distinct from financial responsibility requirements for closure imposed under other statutes, such as RCRA, which are more narrowly designed to assure
At the same time, the Agency recognizes that compliance with regulatory requirements may reduce the risks at a facility. Thus, as EPA moves forward with developing proposed rules for additional classes of facilities, EPA expects to consider site factors that reduce risks, including those that result from compliance with other regulatory requirements. EPA has taken a similar approach in the CERCLA section 108(b) proposed rule applicable to hardrock mining, which is published elsewhere in this
In the ANPRM, EPA used data from the Toxics Release Inventory (TRI), and RCRA's national Biennial Report (BR), among other sources, to identify and prioritize which classes of facilities present the highest risk of injury due to exposure, and thus to justify the need to prioritize financial responsibility requirements. The Chemical Manufacturing and Petroleum and Coal Products Manufacturing industries were the top two industries in a ranking of the quantity of hazardous waste generated in 2007. They were responsible for approximately 64 percent of all the hazardous waste reported to the 2007 Biennial Report cycle.
The Chemical Manufacturing and Electric Power Generation, Transmission and Distribution industries ranked high on the list of on-site releases reported to TRI in 2007, at number two and three respectively. The Petroleum and Coal Products Manufacturing industry ranked seventh on that list.
Commenters expressed concern that releases reported to TRI are permitted releases, subject to various environmental laws. Commenters also expressed concern that BR data merely shows the quantity of hazardous substances generated and managed, and not any mismanagement of those substances. Neither of these, commenters felt, should be used as indicators of potential risk of exposure due to a release. EPA recognizes the limitations on the extent of information that can be gained from TRI and BR data, however, EPA believes these data do offer insight into the characteristics and management of hazardous substances for facilities in each industry, and that in conjunction with other information, can be used as to evaluate the relative degree of risk posed by a class of facilities and the priority need for financial responsibility regulation under CERCLA section 108(b). As with the hardrock mining rule, for each subsequent industry rule, EPA intends to use other, more industry-specific and more current sources of data to identify risk, and will propose financial responsibility requirements based on the record EPA will develop for each rulemaking. Where the Agency finds risk associated with management of hazardous substances for a class of facilities, it is obligated to promulgate financial responsibility requirements that are consistent with the degree and duration of that risk. None of the commenters submitted data to dissuade the Agency from the path of acquiring additional and more comprehensive information for these industries. The Agency considers quantity and toxicity of hazardous substances released to the environment are good indicators of risk.
Another source of data for the ANPRM was the Superfund National Priorities List (NPL). The NPL is the list of national priorities among the known releases or threatened releases of hazardous substances, pollutants, or contaminants in the United States. The Agency assigned three-digit NAICS
Commenters whose industries had sites listed on the NPL pointed out that many of those sites either did not remain in production, or had practices that were improved based on environmental regulations issued after the initial contamination. Commenters felt that legacy contamination was not a valid indicator of current and future risk. Also at issue was EPA's analysis of the NPL data. Some commenters felt their industry was over-represented based on incorrect analysis of the NPL data.
EPA believes, notwithstanding the commenters' negative assessment of the Agency's analysis, that the NPL assessment is informative. Like the TRI and BR data, NPL data was used to indicate which industries pose potential risk that would warrant pursuing financial responsibility regulation under CERCLA section 108(b). The Agency did not receive evidence that risks do not continue at these sites. Where risk continues, EPA believes it is appropriate to consider site factors that reduce risks, such as current industry practices, in determining the level of financial responsibility required. Consideration will also be given to payment experience of the Fund, commercial insurers, court settlements and judgments, and voluntary claims satisfaction.
A common theme in the comments, across all three industries, was that there was no need for financial responsibility since facilities within these industries are not in danger of going bankrupt. Many commenters felt that rather than focus on a few examples of past bankruptcies, EPA should consider the financial health of all the companies in an industry as a group. EPA disagrees with commenters' suggestion that need for financial responsibility should be informed by the financial health of the overall industry. Financial responsibility is imposed on classes within an industry, but is assessed at the facility level, and not the industry as a whole. Economic solvency at an industry-wide level is not a substitute for insurance against the possibility of CERCLA liabilities remaining unsatisfied on a facility-specific basis. Furthermore, CERCLA section 108(b) funds could be used to address releases at currently-operating facilities. It should be noted that, as mentioned in the preamble to the
The Agency received two comments on the ANPRM that supported the need for CERCLA section 108(b) regulations for the additional classes. The first commenter provided an example of a facility that required cleanup and where, in the commenter's opinion, had the facility been subject to financial responsibility requirements, remediation would have been achieved much earlier as financial resources would have been available from the outset to carry out the remediation and there would have been less incentive for the responsible party to delay cleanup.
The second commenter supporting the need for financial responsibility requirements for the additional classes cited a 2005 GAO report that the number of sites on the NPL continues to expand, with EPA adding an average of 28 sites to the NPL each year from 1983 to 2003, and the 1995 expiration of CERCLA authority to collect taxes for the Superfund as reasons for EPA to move forward with regulations “to ensure that facilities generating and handling hazardous substances will remain financially able to clean-up improperly disposed substances that could pose threats to public health and the environment.”
Since the issuance of the 2010 ANPRM, EPA has not received evidence that would demonstrate that regulation under CERCLA section108(b) is not necessary for the Chemical Manufacturing industry (NAICS 325), the Petroleum and Coal Products Manufacturing industry (NAICS 324), and the Electric Power Generation, Transmission, and Distribution industry (NAICS 2211).
EPA has not, at this time, identified sufficient evidence to determine that initiating the rulemaking process is not warranted, nor has EPA identified sufficient evidence to establish the necessary CERCLA section 108(b) requirements, if any. To make a final decision regarding the need for CERCLA section 108(b) requirements, the Agency must gather additional information, and must further evaluate the classes of facilities within the three industry sectors.
Therefore, in response to the January 29, 2016 Court Order, EPA is announcing its intent to proceed with rulemakings according to the schedule stipulated in the order. This announcement does not indicate that EPA has determined that requirements are necessary for any or all of the classes of facilities within the three industries, or that EPA will propose such requirements—rather, this announcement indicates that EPA intends to move forward with the regulatory process. That process will include gathering and analyzing additional information to support the Agency's ultimate decision. At that time, EPA will decide whether proposal of requirements for any or all of the classes of facilities within each industry sector is necessary and, if they are, will propose appropriate requirements. If, however, after a careful evaluation of the information for each industry sector, EPA were to determine that requirements under CERCLA section 108(b) are not necessary, EPA would propose not to impose requirements. In other words, this document does not constitute a rulemaking. It merely indicates the initiation of the rulemaking process rather than being the culmination of such a process.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Request for public comments.
The Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) requires the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) to conduct a review every six years of existing national primary drinking water regulations (NPDWRs) and determine which, if any, need to be revised. The purpose of the review, called the Six-Year Review, is to evaluate current information for regulated contaminants to determine if there is new information on health effects, treatment technologies, analytical methods, occurrence and exposure, implementation and/or other factors that provides a health or technical basis to support a regulatory revision that will improve or strengthen public health protection. EPA has completed a detailed review of 76 NPDWRs and at this time has determined that eight NPDWRs are candidates for regulatory revision. The eight NPDWRs are included in the Stage 1 and the Stage 2 Disinfectants and Disinfection Byproducts Rules, the Surface Water Treatment Rule, the Interim Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule and the Long Term 1 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule. EPA requests comments on the eight NPDWRs identified as candidates for revision and will consider comments and data as it proceeds with determining whether further action is needed. In addition, as part of this Six-Year Review, EPA identified 12 other NPDWRs that were or continue to be addressed in recently completed, ongoing or pending regulatory actions. EPA thus excluded those 12 NPDWRs from detailed review. This document is not a final regulatory decision, but rather the initiation of a process that will involve more detailed analyses of factors relevant to deciding whether a rulemaking to revise an NPDWR should be initiated.
Comments must be received on or before March 13, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OW-2016-0627, to the
For technical inquiries contact: Richard Weisman, (202) 564-2822, or Kesha Forrest, (202) 564-3632, Office of Ground Water and Drinking Water, Environmental Protection Agency. For general information about the existing NPDWRs discussed in this action, contact the Safe Drinking Water Hotline. Callers within the United States may reach the Hotline at (800) 426-4791. The Hotline is open Monday through Friday, excluding Federal holidays, from 10 a.m. to 5:30 p.m. Eastern Time.
This action itself does not impose any requirements on individual people or entities. Instead, it notifies interested parties of EPA's review of existing national primary drinking water regulations (NPDWRs) and its conclusions about which of these NPDWRs may warrant new regulatory action at this time. EPA requests public comment on the eight NPDWRs identified as candidates for revision. EPA will consider comments received as the Agency moves forward with determining whether regulatory actions are necessary for the eight NPDWRs.
Please see Section VII for the topic areas related to this document for which EPA requests comment and/or information. EPA will accept written or electronic comments (please do not send both). Instructions for submitting comments can be found in the
You may find the following suggestions helpful when preparing your comments:
• Explain your views as clearly as possible.
• Describe any assumptions that you used.
• Provide any technical information and/or data you used that support your views.
• If you estimate potential burden or costs, explain how you arrived at your estimate.
• Provide specific examples to illustrate your concerns.
• Offer alternatives.
• Make sure to submit your comments by the comment period deadline.
To ensure proper receipt by EPA, identify the appropriate docket identification number in the subject line on the first page of your response. It would also be helpful if you provide the name, date, and volume/page numbers of the
Under the Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA), as amended in 1996, EPA must periodically review existing NPDWRs and, if appropriate, revise them. Section 1412(b)(9) of the SDWA states: “The Administrator shall, not less often than every six years, review and revise, as appropriate, each national primary drinking water regulation promulgated under this title. Any revision of a national primary drinking water regulation shall be promulgated in accordance with this section, except that each revision shall maintain, or provide for greater, protection of the health of persons.”
Pursuant to the 1996 SDWA Amendments, EPA completed and published the results of its first Six-Year Review (Six-Year Review 1) on July 18, 2003 (68 FR 42908, USEPA, 2003b) and the second Six-Year Review (Six-Year Review 2) on March 29, 2010 (75 FR 15500, USEPA, 2010h), after developing a systematic approach, or protocol, for the review of NPDWRs.
In this document EPA is announcing the results of the third Six-Year Review (Six-Year Review 3). Consistent with the process applied in the Six-Year Review 2, EPA is requesting comments on this document and will consider the public comments and/or any new, relevant data submitted for the eight NPDWRs listed as candidates for revision as the Agency proceeds with determining whether revisions of these regulations are necessary. The announcement whether or not the Agency intends to revise an NPDWR (pursuant to SDWA § 1412(b)(9)) is not a regulatory decision. Instead, it initiates a process that will involve more detailed analyses of health effects, analytical and treatment feasibility, occurrence, benefits, costs and other regulatory matters relevant to deciding whether a rulemaking to revise an NPDWR should be initiated. The Six-Year Review results do not obligate the Agency to revise an NPDWR in the event that EPA determines during the regulatory process that revisions are no longer appropriate and discontinues further efforts to revise the NPDWR. Similarly, the fact that an NPDWR has not been selected for revision means only that EPA believes that regulatory changes to a particular NPDWR are not appropriate at this time for the reasons given in this action; future reviews may identify information that leads to an initiation of the revision process.
The reasons that EPA has identified an NPDWR as a “candidate for revision”
• Improve the level of public health protection, and/or
• Achieve cost savings while maintaining or improving the level of public health protection.
The Agency has involved interested stakeholders in the Six-Year Review 3 process. Below are examples of such involvement:
• In November 2014, EPA briefed the National Drinking Water Advisory Council (NDWAC) on the Six-Year Review protocol and the key elements of that protocol as they relate to the microbial and disinfection byproducts (MDBP) rules. The briefing included information on how EPA is implementing NDWAC's previous recommendations (NDWAC, 2000) on the Six-Year Review process in review of the MDBP rules;
• In January 2015, states provided input (through the Association of State Drinking Water Administrators (ASDWA)) on rule implementation issues related to the NPDWRs being reviewed as part of the Six-Year Review 3 (ASDWA, 2016);
• EPA initiated a series of public stakeholder meetings about the review of the Long Term 2 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule (LT2). These meetings were held in accordance with the recommendation of the MDBP Federal Advisory Committee (FAC)
Table IV-1 lists all 88 NPDWRs established to date. The table also reports the maximum contaminant level goal (MCLG) and the maximum contaminant level (MCL). The MCLG is “set at the level at which no known or anticipated adverse effects on the health of persons occur and which allows an adequate margin of safety” (SDWA § 1412(b)(4)). The MCL is the maximum permissible level of a contaminant in water delivered to any user of a public water system (PWS) and generally “is as close to the maximum contaminant level goal as is feasible” (SDWA § 1412(b)(4)(B)).
Table IV-1 also includes NPDWRs that EPA identified as candidates for revision in past Six-Year Reviews. During the Six-Year Review 1, EPA identified the Total Coliform Rule (TCR) as a candidate for revision.
In addition to the regulated chemicals, radiological and microbiological contaminants included in the previous reviews, this document also includes the review of the MDBP regulations that were promulgated under the following actions: The Ground Water Rule (GWR); the Surface Water Treatment Rules (SWTRs); the Disinfectants and Disinfection Byproducts (D/DBP) Rules; and the Filter Backwash Recycling Rule (FBRR). EPA reviewed the LT2 in response to EO 13563 (USEPA, 2011) and as part of the Six-Year Review 3 process.
This section provides an overview of the process the Agency used to review the NPDWRs discussed in this action. The protocol document, “EPA Protocol for the Third Review of Existing National Primary Drinking Water Regulations,” contains a detailed description of the process the Agency used to review the NPDWRs (USEPA, 2016f). The foundation of this protocol was developed for the Six-Year Review 1 based on the recommendations of the NDWAC (2000). The Six-Year Review 3 process is very similar to the process implemented during the Six-Year Review 1 and the Six-Year Review 2, with some clarifications to the elements related to the review of NPDWRs included in the MDBP rules. Figure V-1 presents an overview of the Six-Year review protocol and review outcomes.
The primary goal of the Six-Year Review process is to identify and prioritize NPDWRs for possible regulatory revision. The two major outcomes of the detailed review are either:
1. The NPDWR is not appropriate for revision and no action is necessary at this time.
2. The NPDWR is a candidate for revision.
The reasons for a Six-Year Review outcome of “not appropriate for revision at this time” can include:
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Alternatively, the reasons for a Six-Year Review outcome that an NPDWR is a “candidate for revision” are that, at a minimum, the revision presents a meaningful opportunity to:
• Improve the level of public health protection, and/or
• Achieve cost savings while maintaining or improving the level of public health protection.
Individual regulatory provisions of NPDWRs that are evaluated as part of the Six-Year Review are: MCLG, MCL, MRDLG, MRDL, TT, other treatment technologies such as best available technology (BAT), and regulatory requirements, such as monitoring requirements.
For example, the microbial regulations include TT requirements because there is no reliable method that is economically and technically feasible to measure the microbial contaminants covered by those regulations. These TT requirements rely on the use of indicators that can be measured in drinking water, such as the concentration of a disinfectant, to provide public health protection. As part of the Six-Year Review 3, EPA evaluated new information related to the use of those indicators to determine if there is a meaningful opportunity to improve the level of public health protection. Results of EPA's review of the MDBP regulations are presented in Sections VI.B.3 and VI.B.4.
For the purpose of this document (except where noted for clarity), discussions of the review of MCLGs and MCLs should be assumed to also apply to the review of MRDLGs and MRDLs for disinfectants.
EPA applied a number of basic principles to the Six-Year Review process:
• The Agency sought to avoid redundant review efforts. Because EPA has reviewed information for certain NPDWRs as part of recently completed, ongoing or pending regulatory actions, these NPDWRs are not subject to the detailed review in this document.
• The Agency does not believe it is appropriate to consider revisions to NPDWRs for contaminants with an ongoing or planned health effect assessment and for which the MCL is set equal to the MCLG or based on benefit-cost analysis. This principle stems from the fact that any new health effects information could affect the MCL via a change in the MCLG or the assessment of the benefits associated with the MCL. Therefore, EPA noted that these NPDWRs are not appropriate for revision and no action is necessary at this time if the health effects assessment would not be completed during the review period for each contaminant that has either an MCL that is equal to its MCLG or an MCL that is based on the 1996 SDWA Amendments' cost-benefit provision. If the health effects assessment is completed before the next Six-Year Review, EPA will consider these NPDWRs at that time.
• In evaluating the potential for new information to affect NPDWRs, EPA assumed no change to existing policies and procedures for developing NPDWRs. For example, in determining whether new information affected the feasibility of analytical methods for a contaminant, the Agency assumed no change to current policies and procedures for calculating practical quantitation levels.
• EPA considered new information from health effects assessments that were completed by the information cutoff date. Assessments completed after this cutoff date will be reviewed by EPA during the next review cycle or (if applicable) during the revision of an NPDWR. The information cutoff date for the Six-Year Review 3 was December 2015.
• During the review, EPA identified areas where information is inadequate or unavailable (data gaps) or emerging and is needed to determine whether revision to an NPDWR is appropriate. To the extent EPA is able to fill data gaps or fully evaluate the emerging information, the Agency will consider the information as part of the next review cycle.
• EPA may consider accelerating review and potential revision for a particular NPDWR before the next review cycle when justified by new public health risk information.
• Finally, EPA assured scientific analyses supporting the review were consistent with the Agency's peer review policy (USEPA, 2015a).
The protocol for the Six-Year Review 3 is broken down into a series of questions that can inform a decision about the appropriateness of revising an NPDWR. These questions are logically ordered into a decision tree. This section provides an overview of each of the review elements that EPA considered for each NPDWR during the Six-Year Review 3, including the following: Initial review, health effects, analytical feasibility, occurrence and exposure, treatment feasibility, risk balancing and other regulatory revisions. The final review combines the findings from all of these review elements to recommend whether an NPDWR is a candidate for revision. Further information about the review elements is described in the protocol document (USEPA, 2016f). Results from the review of these elements are presented in Section VI.
EPA's initial review of all the contaminants included in the Six-Year Review 3 involved a simple identification of the NPDWRs that have either been recently completed, or are being reviewed in an ongoing or pending action since the last Six-Year Review (cutoff date was August 2008). In addition, the initial review also identified contaminants with ongoing health effects assessments that have an MCL equal to the MCLG. Excluding such contaminants from the Six-Year Review 3 prevents duplicative agency efforts.
The principal objectives of the health effects review are to identify: (1) Contaminants for which a new health effects assessment indicates that a change in the MCLG might be appropriate (
To meet the first objective, EPA reviewed the results of health effects assessments completed before December 2015, the information cutoff date for the Six-Year Review 3.
To meet the second objective, the Agency conducted an extensive literature review to identify peer-reviewed studies published before December 2015. The Agency reviewed the studies to determine whether there was new health effects information, such as reproductive and developmental toxicity data, that could potentially affect the MCLG, or otherwise change the Agency's understanding of the health effects of contaminants under consideration. EPA then evaluated the need to plan the initiation of a new health effects assessment.
When establishing an NPDWR, EPA identifies a practical quantitation limit (PQL), which is “the lowest achievable level of analytical quantitation during routine laboratory operating conditions within specified limits of precision and accuracy”, as noted in the November 13, 1985,
To determine if changes in analytical feasibility could possibly support changes to PQLs, EPA relied primarily on two alternate approaches to develop an estimated quantitation limit (EQL): an approach based on the minimum reporting levels (MRLs) obtained as part of the Six-Year Review 3 Information Collection Request (ICR), and an approach based on method detection limits (MDLs).
An MRL is the lowest level or contaminant concentration that a laboratory can reliably achieve within specified limits of precision and accuracy under routine laboratory operating conditions using a given method. The MRL values provide direct evidence from actual monitoring results about whether quantitation below the PQL using current analytical methods is feasible. An MDL is a measure of analytical method sensitivity. MDLs have been used in the past to derive PQLs for regulated contaminants.
EPA used the EQL as a threshold for occurrence analysis to help the Agency determine if there may be a meaningful opportunity to improve public health protection. It should be noted, however, that the use of an EQL does not necessarily indicate the Agency's intention to promulgate a new PQL. Any revision to PQLs will be part of future rulemaking efforts if EPA has determined that an NPDWR is a candidate for revision.
The occurrence and exposure analysis is conducted in conjunction with other review elements to determine if there is a meaningful opportunity to revise an NPDWR by:
• Estimating the extent of contaminant occurrence,
• Evaluating the number of people potentially exposed to contaminants at these levels.
To evaluate national contaminant occurrence under the Six-Year Review 3, EPA reviewed data from the Six-Year Review 3 ICR database (SYR3 ICR database), the UCMR datasets (USEPA, 2016j) and other relevant sources.
For the Six-Year Review 3, EPA collected SDWA compliance monitoring data through use of an ICR (75 FR 6023, USEPA, 2010a). EPA requested that all states and primacy entities (tribes and territories) voluntarily submit their compliance monitoring data for regulated contaminants in public drinking water systems. Specifically, EPA requested the submission of compliance monitoring data and related information collected between January 2006 and December 2011 for regulated contaminants and related parameters (
An NPDWR either identifies the BAT for meeting an MCL, or establishes enforceable TT requirements. EPA reviews treatment feasibility to ascertain if there are technologies that meet BAT criteria for a hypothetical more stringent MCL, or if there is new information that demonstrates an opportunity to improve public health protection through revision of an NPDWR TT requirement.
To be a BAT, the treatment technology must meet several criteria such as having demonstrated consistent removal of the target contaminant under field conditions. Although treatment feasibility and analytical feasibility together address the technical feasibility requirement for an MCL, historically, treatment feasibility has not been a limiting factor for MCLs. The result of this review element is a determination of whether treatment feasibility would pose a limitation to revising an MCL or provide an opportunity to revise the TT requirement.
EPA reviews risk-balancing to examine how the Six-Year Review can address tradeoffs in risks among different NPDWRs and take into account unregulated contaminants as well. Under this review, EPA considers whether a change to an MCL and/or TT will increase the public health risk posed by one or more contaminants, and, if so, the Agency considers revisions that will balance overall risks. This review element is relevant only to the NPDWRs included in the MDBP rules, which were promulgated to address risk-balancing between microbial and DBP requirements, and among differing types of DBPs. The risk-balancing approach was based on the SDWA requirements that EPA “minimize the overall risk of adverse health effects by balancing the risk from the contaminant and the risk from other contaminants the concentrations of which may be affected by the use of a TT or process that would be employed to attain the maximum contaminant level or levels” (SDWA § 1412(b)(5)(B)(i)).
EPA reviewed risk-balancing between microbial and DBP contaminants. For example, EPA considered the potential impact on DBP concentrations should there be a consideration to increase the stringency of microbial NPDWRs. This approach also was used during the development of more recent MDBP rules such as the LT2 rule and the Stage 2 Disinfectants/Disinfection Byproducts Rule (D/DBPR) rule. In addition, EPA reviewed risk-balancing between different types of DBP contaminants. Depending on the stringency of potential DBP regulations, compliance strategies used by the regulated community might have the effect of increasing the concentrations of other types of contaminants, both regulated and unregulated. EPA considered these potential compliance strategies when conducting its Six-Year Review 3 with a goal to balance the overall health risks.
In addition to possible revisions to MCLGs, MCLs and TTs, EPA evaluated whether other revisions are needed to regulatory provisions, such as monitoring and system reporting requirements. EPA focused this review element on issues that were not already being addressed through alternative mechanisms, such as a recently completed, ongoing or pending regulatory action. EPA also reviewed implementation-related NPDWR
The 1996 amendments to SDWA require special consideration of sensitive life stages and populations (
Executive Order (E.O.) 12898, “Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations or Low-Income Populations,” establishes a federal policy for incorporating environmental justice (EJ) into federal agency missions by directing agencies to identify and address disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects of its programs, policies and activities on minority and low-income populations. EPA evaluates potential EJ concerns when developing regulations. This Six-Year Review was developed in compliance with E.O. 12898. Should the Six-Year Review lead to a decision to revise an NPDWR, any subsequent rulemakings will include an EJ component and an opportunity for public comment.
Table VI-1 lists the results of EPA's review for each of the 76 NPDWRs discussed in this section of this action, along with the principal rationale for the review outcomes. Table VI-1 also includes a list of the 12 NPDWRs that have been recently completed, or have ongoing or pending regulatory actions.
For each of the 76 NPDWRs discussed in detail in the following sections of this action, the review outcomes fall in one of the following categories:
The current NPDWR remains appropriate and no action is necessary at this time. In this category, NPDWRs are grouped under the following subcategories:
• Health effects assessment in process (as of December 2015) or contaminant nominated for health assessment,
• No new information and NPDWR remains appropriate after review,
• Data gaps/emerging information, and
• No meaningful opportunity.
The NPDWR is a candidate for revision based on the review of new information.
The NPDWRs for chemical contaminants, collectively called the Phase Rules, were promulgated between 1987 and 1992 (after the 1986 SDWA amendments). In December 2000, EPA promulgated final radionuclide regulations, which were issued as interim rules in July 1976. Information related to the review for fluoride is discussed separately in Section VI.B.2.
EPA has decided that it is not appropriate at this time to revise any of the NPDWRs covered under the Phase Rules or Radionuclide Rules. These NPDWRs were determined not to be candidates for revision for one or more of the following reasons: There was no new information to suggest possible changes in MCLG/MCL; new information did not present a meaningful opportunity for health risk reduction or cost savings while maintaining/improving public health protection; or there was an ongoing or pending regulatory action. Details related to the review of all Phase Rules and Radionuclide Rules contaminants can be found in the “Chemical Contaminant Summaries for the Third Six-Year Review of National Primary Drinking Water Regulations” (USEPA, 2016b).
The initial review identified 12 chemical contaminants with NPDWRs under the Chemical Phase Rules that were being considered as part of ongoing or pending regulatory actions, and 61 chemical or radionuclide NPDWRs were identified as appropriate for review. The NPDWRs with ongoing or pending regulatory actions included eight carcinogenic volatile organic compounds (cVOCs), lead, copper, acrylamide and epichlorohydrin.
In 2011, EPA announced its plans to address a group of regulated and unregulated cVOCs in a single regulatory effort. The eight regulated VOCs being currently evaluated for a potential cVOCs group regulation include: Benzene; carbon tetrachloride; 1,2-dichloroethane; 1,2-dichloropropane; dichloromethane; PCE; TCE; and vinyl chloride. The regulatory revisions to TCE and PCE, initiated as an outcome of the Six-Year Review 2, are also being considered as part of the group regulatory effort. Since a regulatory effort is ongoing for these eight contaminants, they were excluded from a detailed review as part of the third Six-Year Review.
The NPDWRs for acrylamide and epichlorohydrin were also previously identified as candidates for regulatory revision and were pending regulatory action. The polyacrylamides and epichlorohydrin-based polymers available today for water treatment have lower residual monomer content than when EPA promulgated residual content as a TT (USEPA, 2016s). For example, the 90th percentile concentration of acrylamide residual monomer levels was approximately one-half the residual level listed in the current TT and no residual epichlorohydrin was detected. The health benefits associated with the lower impurity levels are already being realized by communities throughout the country; therefore, a regulatory revision will minimally affect health risk. Given resource limitations, competing workload priorities, and administrative costs and burden to states to adopt any regulatory changes associated with the rulemaking, as well as limited potential health benefits, these NPDWRs are considered a low priority and no longer candidates for revision at this time.
EPA is also currently considering Long-Term Revisions to the Lead and Copper Rule; and therefore, evaluation of that NPDWR under the Six-Year Review process would be redundant.
The principal objectives of the health effects review are to identify: (1) Contaminants for which a new health effects assessment indicates that a change in MCLG might be appropriate (
Before identifying chemical NPDWR contaminants for which an updated MCLG may be appropriate, EPA first identified chemicals with ongoing or planned EPA health effects assessments. As of December 31, 2015, 19 chemical/radiological contaminants reviewed had ongoing or planned formal EPA health effects assessments. Table VI-2 below lists the 19 contaminants with ongoing or planned EPA assessments and the status of those reviews.
For chemicals that were not excluded due to an ongoing or planned health effects assessment by EPA, or by the National Academy of Sciences (NAS), commissioned by EPA, a more detailed review was undertaken. Of the chemicals that underwent a more detailed review, EPA identified 21 for which there have been official Agency changes in the RfD and/or in the cancer risk assessment from oral exposure or new relevant non-EPA assessments that might support a change to the MCLG. These 21 chemicals were further evaluated as part of the Six-Year Review 3 to determine whether they were candidates for regulatory revision. Table VI-3 lists the 21 chemicals with available new health effects information and the sources of the relevant new information. As shown in this table, 11 chemical contaminants have information that could support a lower MCLG and 10 contaminants have new information that could support a higher MCLG.
Details of the health effects review of the chemical and radiological contaminants are documented in the “Six-Year Review 3—Health Effects Assessment for Existing Chemical and Radionuclides National Primary Drinking Water Regulations—Summary Report” (USEPA, 2016h).
EPA performed analytical feasibility analyses for the contaminants that reached this portion of the review. These contaminants included the 11 chemical contaminants identified under the health effects review as having potential for a lower MCLG and an additional 14 contaminants with MCLs based on analytical feasibility and MCLs higher than the current MCLGs. The document “Analytical Feasibility Support Document for the Third Six-Year Review of National Primary Drinking Water Regulations: Chemical Phase Rules and Radionuclides Rules” (USEPA, 2016a) describes the first step in the process EPA used to evaluate whether changes in PQL are possible in those instances where the MCL is limited, or may be limited, by analytical feasibility. The EQL analysis is documented in the ” Development of Estimated Quantitation Levels for the Third Six-Year Review of National Primary Drinking Water Regulations (Chemical Phase Rules)” (USEPA, 2016d).
Table VI-4 shows the outcomes of EPA's analytical feasibility review for two general categories of drinking water contaminants: Contaminants where health effects assessments indicate potential for lower MCLGs; and contaminants where existing MCLs are based on analytical feasibility.
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Where these evaluations indicated the potential for a PQL reduction, Table VI-4 lists the type of data that support this conclusion. The notation “PT” indicates that the PQL reassessment based on PT data (USEPA, 2016a) supports the reduction. The notations “MRL” and “MDL” indicates that these two approaches support PQL reduction. The findings based on PT offer more certainty. When the PQL reassessment outcome is that the current PQL remains appropriate, Table VI-4 shows the result “Data do not support PQL reduction.”
Using the SYR3 ICR database, EPA conducted an assessment to evaluate national occurrence of regulated contaminants and estimate the potential population exposed to these contaminants. The details of the current chemical occurrence analysis are documented in “The Analysis of Regulated Contaminant Occurrence Data from Public Water Systems in Support of the Third Six-Year Review of National Primary Drinking Water Regulations: Chemical Phase Rules and Radionuclides Rules” (USEPA, 2016p). Based on benchmarks identified in the health effects and analytical feasibility analyses, EPA conducted the occurrence and exposure analysis for 18 contaminants.
This analysis shows that these 18 contaminants occur at levels above the identified benchmark in a very small percentage of systems, which serve a very small percentage of the population, indicating that revisions to NPDWRs are unlikely to provide a meaningful opportunity to improve public health protection across the nation. Therefore, these contaminants were not identified as candidates for regulatory revision. Table VI-5 lists the benchmarks used to conduct the occurrence analysis, the total number of systems with mean concentrations exceeding a benchmark and the estimated population served by those systems.
In addition, EPA performed a source water occurrence analysis for the 10 chemical contaminants in which updated health effects assessments indicated the possibility to increase (
Currently, all of the MCLs for chemical and radiological contaminants are set equal to the MCLGs or PQLs or are based on benefit-cost analysis; none are currently limited by treatment feasibility. EPA considers treatment feasibility after identifying contaminants with the potential to lower the MCLG/MCL that constitute a meaningful opportunity to improve public health. No such contaminants were identified in the occurrence and exposure analysis described above.
In addition to possible revisions to MCLGs, MCLs and TTs, EPA considered whether other regulatory revisions are needed to address implementation issues, such as revisions to monitoring and system reporting requirements, as a part of the Six-Year Review 3. EPA used the protocol to evaluate which implementation issues to consider (USEPA, 2016f). EPA's protocol focused on items that were not already being addressed, or had not been addressed, through alternative mechanisms (
EPA compiled information on implementation related issues associated with the Chemical Phase Rules. EPA also identified unresolved implementation issues/concerns from previous Six-Year Reviews. EPA shared the list of identified potential implementation issues with a group of state representatives convened by ASDWA to obtain input from state drinking water agencies concerning the significance and relevance of the issues (ASDWA, 2016). The complete list of implementation issues related to the Phase Rules and Radionuclide Rules is presented in “Consideration of Other Regulatory Revisions in Support of the Third Six-Year Review of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations: Chemical Phase Rules and Radionuclide Rules” (USEPA, 2016c).
The Agency determined that the following three issues, identified by state stakeholders, were within the scope of NPDWR review and were the most substantive:
a. Nitrogen monitoring in consecutive systems and the distribution system,
b. Alternative nitrate-nitrogen MCL of 20 mg/L for non-community water systems (NCWSs), and
c. Synthetic organic chemical (SOC) detection limits.
Table VI-6 provides a brief description of the three issues and the Agency's findings to date.
Fluoride can occur naturally in drinking water as a result of the geological composition of soils and bedrock. Some areas of the country have high levels of naturally occurring fluoride. EPA established the current NPDWR to reduce the public health risk associated with exposure to high levels of naturally occurring fluoride in drinking water sources.
Low levels of fluoride are frequently added to drinking water systems as a public health protection measure for reducing the incidence of cavities. The decision to fluoridate a community water supply is made by the state or local municipality, and is not mandated by EPA or any other federal entity. The U.S. Public Health Service (PHS) recommendation for community water fluoridation is 0.7 mg/L (U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 2015). Fluoride is also added to various consumer products (such as toothpaste and mouthwash) because of its beneficial effects at low level exposures.
EPA published the current NPDWR on April 2, 1986 (51 FR 11396, USEPA, 1986) to reduce the public health risk associated with exposure to high levels of naturally occurring fluoride in drinking water sources. The current NPDWR established an MCLG and MCL of 4.0 mg/L to protect against the most severe stage of skeletal fluorosis (referred to as the “crippling” stage) (NRC, 2006a). EPA also established a secondary maximum contaminant level (SMCL) for fluoride of 2.0 mg/L to protect against moderate and severe dental fluorosis, which was considered at the time to be a cosmetic effect. As provided under the statute, the SMCL is not enforceable in the same manner as the MCL. Public notification is required when PWSs exceed the MCL or SMCL.
EPA has reviewed the NPDWR for fluoride in previous Six-Year Review cycles. As a result of the first Six-Year Review (68 FR 42908, USEPA, 2003b), EPA requested that the National Research Council (NRC) of the National Academies of Sciences (NAS) conduct a review of the health and exposure data on orally ingested fluoride. In 2006, the NRC published the results of its review and concluded that severe dental fluorosis is an adverse health effect when it causes both a thinning and pitting of the enamel, a situation that compromises the function of the enamel in protecting against decay and infection (NRC, 2006a). The NRC recommended that EPA develop a dose-response assessment for severe dental fluorosis as the critical effect and update an assessment of fluoride exposure from all sources.
During the Six-Year Review 2, the Agency was in the process of developing a dose-response assessment of the non-cancer impacts of fluoride on severe dental fluorosis and the skeletal system. In addition, EPA was in the process of updating its evaluation of the relative source contribution (RSC) of drinking water to total fluoride exposure considering the contributions from dental products, foods, pesticide residues, and other sources such as ambient air and medications. These assessments were not completed at the time of the Six-Year Review 2; thus, no action was taken under the Six-Year Review 2 (75 FR 15500, USEPA, 2010h).
In 2010, EPA published fluoride health assessments. The “Dose Response Analysis for Non-Cancer Effects” (USEPA, 2010b) identified an oral RfD for fluoride of 0.08 milligrams per kilograms per day (mg/kg/day) based on studies of severe dental fluorosis among children in the six months to 14 year age group (USEPA, 2010b). The “Exposure and Relative Source Contribution Analysis” (USEPA, 2010c) concluded that the RSC values for drinking water range from 40 to 70 percent, with the higher values associated with infants fed with powdered formula or concentrate reconstituted with residential tap water (70%) and with adults (60%). The major contributors to total daily fluoride intakes for these age groups are drinking water, commercial beverages, solid foods and swallowed fluoride-containing toothpaste (USEPA, 2010c).
The Agency has determined that a revision to the NPDWR for fluoride is not appropriate at this time. EPA acknowledges information regarding the exposure and health effects of fluoride (as discussed later in the “Health Effects” and “Occurrence and Exposure” sections). However, with EPA's identification of several other significant NPDWRs as candidates for near-term revision (see Sections VI.B.3 and VI.B.4), potential revision of the fluoride NPDWR is a lower priority that would divert significant resources from the higher priority candidates for revision that the Agency has identified, as well as other high priority work within the drinking water office. These other candidates for revision include the Stage 1 and Stage 2 Disinfectants and Disinfection Byproducts Rules (D/DBPRs) that apply to approximately 42,000 PWSs, and for which EPA has identified the potential to further reduce
While EPA has evaluated the available health effects and exposure information related to fluoride (as discussed later in the “Health Effects” and “Occurrence and Exposure” sections), the Agency also recognizes that new studies on fluoride are currently being performed. These include new studies that address health endpoints of concern other than dental fluorosis. Based on the NRC recommendations, EPA evaluated dental fluorosis for the purposes of this action. EPA will continue to monitor the evolving science, and, when appropriate, will reconsider the fluoride NPDWR's relative priority for revision and take any other available and appropriate action to address fluoride risks under SDWA.
Finally, most community water systems (CWSs) that provide fluoridation of their drinking water have already lowered their fluoridation level to a single level of 0.7 mg/L from a previous range of 0.7 to 1.2 mg/L to accommodate the updated PHS recommendation (U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 2015). The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) also issued a letter to bottled water manufacturers recommending that they not add fluoride to bottled water in excess of the revised PHS recommendations (FDA, 2015). In addition, the FDA stated it intends to revise the quality standard regulation for fluoride added to bottled water to be consistent with the updated PHS recommendation. Therefore, EPA anticipates that a significant portion of the population's exposure to fluoride in drinking water, as well as some commercial beverages that use fluoridated water from CWSs and certain bottled water, has already been or will be reduced. Notwithstanding this action's decision, EPA will continue to address risk associated with fluoride in drinking water, with a specific focus on the small systems with naturally occurring fluoride in their source waters.
EPA did not identify any recent, ongoing or pending action on fluoride that would exclude fluoride from the Six-Year Review 3.
The NRC (2006a) evaluated the impact of fluoride on reproduction and development, neurotoxicity and behavior, the endocrine system, genotoxicity, cancer and other effects, in addition to the tooth and bone effects. At fluoride levels below 4.0 mg/L, the NRC found no evidence substantial enough to support adverse effects other than severe dental fluorosis and skeletal fractures. The NRC concluded that the available data were inadequate to determine if a risk of effects on other endpoints exists at an MCLG of 4.0 mg/L and made recommendations for additional research.
EPA assessments (USEPA, 2010b; 2010c) found that the RSC values are lower than the RSC of 100 percent used to derive the original MCLG of 4.0 mg/L, where EPA assumed that drinking water was the sole source of exposure to fluoride. EPA has concluded that information on the dose-response and exposure assessment may support lowering the MCLG to reflect levels that would protect against risk of severe dental fluorosis and skeletal fractures.
As part of this Six-Year Review, EPA reviewed health effects data on the impact of fluoride on reproduction and development, neurotoxicity and behavior, the endocrine system, genotoxicity, cancer and other effects that were identified by the NRC as requiring additional research (NRC, 2006a). EPA noted limitations in some of these studies such as lack of details and confounding factors. Overall, the new data were insufficient to alter the NRC conclusion that severe dental fluorosis is the critical health effects endpoint for the MCLG.
Based upon the recommendations of the NRC, EPA has evaluated dental fluorosis as a critical endpoint of concern for this Six-Year Review (USEPA, 2010b; 2010c). However new studies are underway to examine other health endpoints (
The current PQL for fluoride is 0.5 mg/L (USEPA, 2009a). EPA has not identified any changes in analytical feasibility that could limit its ability to revise the MCL/MCLG for fluoride.
EPA analyzed fluoride occurrence using the SYR3 ICR database, which contains fluoride analytical results from approximately 47,000 PWSs in 49 states/entities from 2006 to 2011. Sample records for fluoridated water (
A BAT or small system compliance technology for fluoride was not established in the Code of Federal Regulations (40 CFR 141.62). However, EPA (1998d) identified activated alumina and reverse osmosis as BATs for fluoride.
Activated alumina is the most commonly used treatment technology for fluoride removal. It is capable of removing fluoride to concentrations well below the MCL of 4.0 mg/L, but with a shortened media life at lower target concentrations. Membrane technologies, such as reverse osmosis, nanofiltration, and electrodialysis, are
The D/DBPRs were promulgated in two stages—Stage 1 in 1998 (63 FR 69390, USEPA, 1998b) and Stage 2 in 2006 (71 FR 388, USEPA, 2006d). Disinfection byproducts (DBPs) are formed when the disinfectants commonly used in PWSs to kill microorganisms react with organic and inorganic matter in source water. DBPs have been associated with potential adverse health effects, including cancer and developmental and reproductive effects. Monitoring parameters within the D/DBPRs consist of the following: DBPs—TTHM, HAA5, bromate and chlorite; disinfectants—chlorine, chloramines and chlorine dioxide; and water quality indicators—total organic carbon (TOC) and alkalinity. The rules include MCLGs/MRDLGs, as well as MCLs/MRDLs and TT requirements, which were developed for individual parameters considering their health risks.
For organic DBPs, the concern is potential increased risk of cancer and short-term adverse reproductive and developmental effects. For bromate, the concern is potential increased risk of cancer. Chlorite (a regulated DBP) and chlorine dioxide (a disinfectant) are associated with methemoglobinemia, and for infants, young children and pregnant women, effects on the thyroid are also of concern. For chlorine and chloramines, health effects include eye/nose irritation and stomach discomfort (for chloramines, also anemia).
The D/DBPRs apply to all sizes of CWSs and non-transient non-community water systems (NTNCWSs) that chemically disinfect their water or receive chemically disinfected water (that is, involving any disinfectants other than ultraviolet (UV) light), as well as transient non-community water systems (TNCWSs) that add chlorine dioxide. The rules require that these systems comply with established MCLs, TTs, operational evaluation levels for DBPs and MRDLs for disinfectants.
A major challenge for water suppliers is balancing the risks from microbial pathogens and DBPs. The risk-balancing tradeoff approach was intended to lower the overall risks from DBP mixtures while continuing to provide public health protection from microbial risks.
EPA has identified the following NPDWRs within the D/DBPRs as candidates for revision under this Six-Year Review cycle because of the opportunity to further reduce public health risk from exposure to DBPs: Chlorite, HAA5 and TTHM. This result is based on a scientific review of publicly available information. EPA's review process follows the protocol described in Section V of this document. New information has strengthened the weight of evidence supporting an association between chlorination DBPs and bladder cancer risk compared to the information available during development of the existing D/DBPRs. New information also is available related to the reproductive/developmental effects discussed in the Stage 2 D/DBPR. In addition, new toxicological data are available to support the development of MCLGs for some individual DBPs currently lacking MCLGs (for example, dibromoacetic acid).
This result will also provide for additional opportunity to address concerns with unregulated DBPs: For example, nitrosamines and chlorate. In the
Chlorate and chlorite are two different oxidation states of chlorine and are chemically inter-convertible. They occur, and can co-occur, when hypochlorite solution and/or chlorine dioxide are applied during the drinking water treatment process. Chlorite is a regulated DBP. New information has shown that the relative source contribution for chlorite could be lower than previously estimated in the existing D/DBPRs, which could lead to a lower MCLG, and that there are common health endpoints associated with exposure to chlorite and chlorate.
Compliance monitoring data evaluated for the Six-Year Review 3 show widespread occurrence of DBPs and their organic precursors (as measured as TOC) in drinking water. Research that has been published since the development of the Stage 2 D/DBPR has improved EPA's understanding of the effectiveness of and limitations associated with various treatment approaches, such as those for removal of precursors, use of disinfectants other than chlorine and localized treatment.
Given that this is the first time EPA is conducting a Six-Year Review of the D/DBPRs, extensive information about review findings is provided below, with further information provided in EPA's “Six-Year Review 3 Technical Support Document for Disinfectants/Disinfection Byproducts Rules” (USEPA, 2016l). Additional information related to the review of D/DBPRs is provided in the “Six-Year Review 3 Technical Support Document for Chlorate” (USEPA, 2016k) and the “Six-Year Review 3 Technical Support Document for Nitrosamines” (USEPA, 2016o).
There are no recently completed, ongoing or pending regulatory actions on the D/DBPRs that would exclude them from the Six-Year Review 3.
Under the Stage 1 and 2 D/DBPRs, toxicology studies for specific DBPs and disinfectant residuals were used to inform MCLGs (and cancer potency factors where MCLGs are zero) and MRDLGs. Epidemiology studies were used to estimate potential risks from DBP mixtures (due to cancer and developmental/reproductive effects) and support the benefits analysis. Epidemiology studies supported a potential association between exposures to elevated THM4 levels in chlorinated drinking water and cancer, but the evidence was insufficient to establish a causal relationship. The most consistent evidence was for bladder cancer. For the development of the benefits analysis for both the Stage 1 and the Stage 2 D/DBPRs, EPA used five bladder cancer case-control epidemiology studies that were conducted in the 1980s and 1990s (Cantor et al., 1985; 1987; McGeehin et al., 1993; King and Marrett, 1996; Freedman et al., 1997; Cantor et al., 1998). In addition, EPA used one meta-analysis (Villanueva et al., 2003) and one pooled analysis (Villanueva et al., 2004). The five case-control studies used similar (though not identical) exposure metrics based on years of exposure to chlorinated drinking water (primarily chlorinated surface water) to
Studies from the 1970s to 2005 also suggested a possible association between adverse developmental/reproductive health effects and exposure to chlorinated drinking water. Effects were observed in all areas but lacked consistency across studies and did not provide enough of a basis to quantify risks or benefits. The adverse developmental/reproductive effects consisted of effects on fetal growth (small for gestational age, low birth weight and pre-term delivery), effects on viability (spontaneous abortion, stillbirth) and malformations (neural tube, oral cleft, cardiac or urinary defects).
Since the development of the Stage 2 D/DBPR, EPA has identified additional sources of information related to health effects of DBPs. New toxicological information could be used to develop MCLGs for the following regulated DBPs (within HAA5): Dibromoacetic acid (NTP, 2007), other brominated haloacetic acids not currently regulated, including bromochloroacetic acid (NTP, 2009) and bromodichloroacetic acid (NTP, 2014), plus additional unregulated DBPs such as nitrosamines and chlorate (USEPA, 2016k; 2016o).
EPA has identified new epidemiological, pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic studies that, considered together with studies available during the development of the Stage 2 D/DBPR, add to the weight of evidence for bladder cancer being associated with exposure to chlorination DBPs (notably those containing bromine) in drinking water.
Pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic studies (Ross and Pegram, 2003; 2004; Leavens et al., 2007; Stayner et al., 2014; Kenyon et al., 2015), in conjunction with epidemiology studies (Villanueva et al., 2007; Kogevinas et al., 2010; Cantor et al., 2010), indicate that non-ingestion routes of exposure (dermal and inhalation) from some brominated DBPs may play a significant role in influencing increased bladder cancer risk, and that there may be greater concern about sub-populations with certain genetic characteristics (polymorphisms). EPA's “Six-Year Review 3 Technical Support Document for Disinfectants/Disinfection Byproducts Rules” (USEPA, 2016l) characterizes the research that informs the mode of action by which brominated DBPs may be contributing to bladder cancer.
While uncertainties remain regarding the degree to which specific DBPs contributed to the bladder cancer incidence observed in epidemiology studies, the collective data suggest a stronger case for causality than when the Stage 2 D/DBPR was promulgated (Regli et al., 2015; USEPA, 2016l). However, the Agency recognizes there are also different perspectives on this issue, including suggestions about areas for additional research (Hrudey et al., 2015).
Further, the Agency has identified new information about health effects from unregulated DBPs. This includes health effects information on chlorate and nitrosamines that, along with occurrence/exposure information, was previously noted in the Preliminary Regulatory Determination 3 (79 FR 62715, USEPA, 2014b). The Agency is considering the health effects of chlorate and nitrosamines within the broader context of the health effects of regulated DBPs (USEPA, 2016k; 2016o).
EPA also identified information about the relative cytotoxicity and genotoxicity of many other unregulated DBPs (Richardson et al., 2007; Richardson et al., 2008; Plewa and Wagner 2009; Plewa et al., 2010; Fernández et al., 2010; Richardson and Postigo, 2011; Yang et al., 2014). Data from
Approximately 40 new studies about developmental/reproductive effects have become available since the development of the Stage 2 D/DBPR. These studies address endpoints such as fetal growth (low birth weight, small for gestational age and pre-term delivery), congenital anomalies and male reproductive outcomes. These studies continue to support a potential health concern, though, as discussed above, the relationship of DBP exposure to these types of adverse outcomes may not be well enough understood to permit quantification of risks or benefits. A recent “four-lab study” on the effects of DBP mixtures on animals, conducted by EPA researchers (Narotsky et al., 2011; 2013; 2015), suggests diminished concern for many developmental/reproductive endpoints.
EPA also examined data about health effects for inorganic DBPs, including information showing that the RSC for chlorite could be lower than 80 percent (which could potentially support lowering the MCLG) because there is more dietary exposure than previously assumed due to the increased use of chlorine dioxide and acidified sodium chlorite as disinfectants in the processing of foods (U.S. EPA, 2006e; WHO, 2008). In addition, chlorate, chlorite and chlorine dioxide may share common health endpoints, namely hematological and thyroid effects (Couri and Abdel-Rahman, 1980; Bercz et al., 1982; Moore and Calabrese, 1982; Abdel-Rahman et al., 1984; Khan et al., 2005; Orme et al., 1985; NTP, 2005; USEPA, 2006e; WHO, 2008; Lee et al, 2013; Nguyen et al, 2014).
The Agency did not identify any relevant data that suggest an opportunity to revise the MCLG for bromate, or the MRDLG for chlorine or chloramines.
The Agency has not identified any improvements to analytical feasibility that could lead to improvements to the NPDWRs included in the D/DBPRs. Development of these rules was not constrained by the availability of analytical methods, and new EPA-approved methods that would revise this finding have not been identified. Should new, EPA-approved methods for one or more D/DBPRs be identified, that information might be able to help inform potential future regulatory development efforts.
In this Six-Year Review evaluation of D/DBP occurrence and exposure, EPA
It is important to note that the information collected through the SYR3 ICR spans the years 2006-2011. As such, it primarily reflects occurrence following the effective date for the Stage 1 D/DBPR, but prior to the effective date for the Stage 2 D/DBPR. These evaluations help to inform Six-Year Review results but do not assess compliance with regulatory standards.
New information since the promulgation of the Stage 2 D/DBPR has improved our understanding on DBP formation and occurrence. As part of this Six-Year Review, EPA has identified literature describing more than 600 specific DBPs that have been found in drinking water (
EPA collected occurrence information for THMs (includes TTHM along with information on four individual species), HAAs (includes HAA5 along with information on five individual species), bromate and chlorite as part of the SYR3 ICR.
Data from the SYR3 ICR show that concentrations at or above the MCLs for TTHM and HAA5 were found in many surface water systems and, to a lesser degree, in ground water systems. Approximately 32 percent of surface water systems and five percent of ground water systems reported at least one instance of TTHM occurrence at a concentration greater than or equal to the MCL of 80 µg/L. For HAA5, approximately 19 percent of surface water systems and two percent of ground water systems reported at least one instance of occurrence at a concentration greater than or equal to the MCL of 60 µg/L. EPA anticipates that many of these peak concentrations will have been significantly lowered based on implementation of the 2006 Stage 2 D/DBPR, which was designed, in part, to lower such occurrences.
Approximately nine percent of systems had one or more samples that were greater than or equal to the bromate MCL of 10 µg/L. Approximately four percent of systems had one or more samples that were greater than or equal to the chlorite MCL of 1,000 µg/L.
The occurrence of six nitrosamine species was evaluated by EPA using data from the UCMR2. These data showed elevated concentrations of nitrosamines (relative to their health reference levels) in multiple drinking water systems, especially N-nitrosodimethylamine (NDMA) in systems that use chloramines (USEPA, 2016o). The Agency is seeking public comment regarding potential approaches that provide enhanced protection from health risks posed by nitrosamines in drinking water systems.
The occurrence of chlorate was evaluated by EPA using data from the UCMR3 (USEPA, 2016j). These data showed that chlorate levels above the health reference level of 210 µg/L occurred frequently in systems that use hypochlorite, chlorine dioxide or chloramines. In addition, EPA evaluated the co-occurrence of chlorite and chlorate and noted that these contaminants often co-occur (USEPA, 2016k). The Agency is seeking public comment regarding potential approaches that provide enhanced protection from health risks posed by chlorite, chlorate and chlorine dioxide. See Section VII for more information.
The American Water Works Association (AWWA), through the Water Industry Technical Action Fund #266, conducted its own survey of post-Stage 2 D/DBPR occurrence for systems that serve more than 100,000 people. Results from the AWWA survey (Samson, 2015) provide an overview of DBP occurrence for 395 systems across 44 states, covering a time period from 1980 to 2015.
In December 2015, EPA issued a proposal for the fourth cycle of the UCMR (80 FR 76897, USEPA, 2015b). That proposal includes provisions for collection of data about unregulated haloacetic acids and related precursors. Such data would help EPA to develop a better understanding of patterns of occurrence for those contaminants.
The Stage 1 D/DBPR requires that DBP precursors (measured as TOC) be monitored in source and treated drinking water. EPA evaluated compliance monitoring data from surface water systems for TOC in source and treated water, using the SYR3 ICR database. Data from 2011 showed that approximately 70 percent of all plants had average TOC concentrations greater than 2 mg/L in their source water and that approximately 29 percent of plants had average TOC concentrations greater than 2 mg/L in their treated water. Under the Stage 1 D/DBPR, a system is not required to further remove TOC when its treated water TOC level, prior to the point of continuous chlorination, is less than 2 mg/L. The reader is referred to later portions of this document under “DBP Precursor Removal” for information about EPA's evaluation of TOC data relative to the Stage 1 D/DBPR TOC removal requirement.
As discussed in the background portion of this section, the D/DBPRs require systems to maintain disinfectant residual levels (reported as free and/or total chlorine) in accordance with the MRDL requirements. EPA evaluated free and total chlorine measurements (collected during coliform sampling) from the SYR3 ICR database and found that very few records exceeded 4.0 mg/L (the MRDL for chlorine and chloramine residuals). Additional information is provided in “Six-Year Review 3 Technical Support Document for Disinfectants/Disinfection Byproducts Rules” (USEPA, 2016l).
During the development of the Stage 1 and Stage 2 D/DBPRs, a variety of technologies were evaluated for their effectiveness, applicability, unintended consequences and overall feasibility for achieving compliance with the TT requirements and MCLs, as well as providing a basis for the BATs (63 FR 69390; 71 FR 388; USEPA, 1998b; 2005a; 2005g; 2006d; 2007b).
Since the Stage 2 D/DBPR, the Agency has identified information that improves our understanding of technologies available for lowering occurrence of and exposure to regulated and unregulated DBPs. The information addresses the full spectrum of drinking water system
The SYR3 ICR database (USEPA, 2016i) includes paired source and treated water TOC data. This information was used to evaluate the extent to which TOC was removed from source waters (
The data show a wide range of percent TOC removal for each combination of raw water TOC and alkalinity levels provided in the Stage 1 D/DBPR TT requirement. The data also indicate that the mean removal for each element of the 3x3 matrix was six to 19 percent greater than the requirement. These observations are consistent with the notion that “since the Stage 1 D/DBPR does not require that all coagulable dissolved organic matter be removed, there is a potential for additional removal of organic matter beyond that required by the 3x3 matrix” (McGuire et al., 2014).
Some of the TOC removal greater than the Stage 1 D/DBPR requirement may reflect operational optimization of conventional treatment, including use of innovative coagulants/coagulant aids and/or use of biofiltration (Yan et al., 2008; Hasan et al., 2010; McKie et al., 2015; Azzeh et al., 2015; Delatolla et al., 2015; Pharand et al., 2015). Studies have shown that biological filtration can also reduce precursors of the DBPs other than TTHM/HAA5 (Sacher et al., 2008; Farré et al., 2011; Liao et al., 2014; Krasner et al., 2015). As noted by McGuire et al. (2014), if the removal of precursors for DBPs other than TTHM/HAA5 becomes part of the treatment goals, then performance parameters in addition to TOC may also be needed (
As was known during development of the Stage 1 and the Stage 2 D/DBPRs, granular activated carbon (GAC) and membranes can be added to existing treatment trains to achieve additional reductions of DBP formation potential. One longstanding issue has been the extent to which organic precursor removal may cause a shift of chlorinated species to more brominated species (as described earlier in this Section under the “Health Effects”) when the bromide level is relatively high in source water (Summers et al., 1993; Symons et al., 1993). The ICR Treatment Study database (USEPA, 2000b) provides extensive bench- and pilot-scale data by which to evaluate the effects of GAC and membrane removal of TOC and resulting shifts in brominated THMs. EPA's recent analysis of these data generally shows increased percent reduction of brominated THMs as TOC removal by GAC increases (
Various combinations of disinfectants and precursor removal processes have been used to achieve DBP MCLs, while also meeting the requirements of the microbial standards. Data from successive national drinking water datasets (including the DBP ICR, UCMR2 and UCMR3 datasets) show that the percentage of systems using disinfectants other than chlorine has increased during the past two decades, as had been forecasted in the “Economic Analysis of Stage 2 D/DBPR” (USEPA, 2005a). For example, data from the UCMR3 (2013-2015) and the DBP ICR (1998) have shown a relative increase in use of chloramines, which is associated with the formation of nitrosamines, as a disinfection practice.
EPA reviewed information related to the extent to which different types of DBPs may form when disinfectants are applied at different points in the treatment train and/or in combination with other disinfectants. EPA recognized that the extent to which occurrence and associated health effects data may be lacking for one group of DBP contaminants versus another, as well as for DBP mixtures, may make treatment decisions challenging when trying to evaluate DBP risk tradeoffs.
New information shows that source waters with relatively elevated sewage contributions have been associated with increased nitrosamine formation (Westerhoff et al., 2015; Krasner et al., 2013) and that source waters with elevated bromide levels from industrial discharges have been associated with increased brominated THMs (McTigue et al., 2014; States et al., 2013). Such factors as these impacts can increase the challenge of controlling DBPs during treatment and distribution. Weiss et al. (2013) developed a model for making source water selection decisions based on real-time DBP precursor concentrations.
Information shows that bank filtration can reduce dissolved organic carbon (DOC) and nitrogenous DBP precursors (Brown et al., 2015; Krasner et al., 2015), as well as removing pathogens (USEPA, 2016m).
Localized treatment in distribution systems, such as aeration in storage tanks, sometimes with the addition of GAC, has also been shown to reduce elevated levels of THMs (Walfoort et al., 2008; Fiske et al., 2011; Brooke and Collins, 2011; Johnson et al., 2009; Duranceau, 2015). Aeration approaches have been most successful in reducing concentrations of chloroform and the more volatile brominated species but may have little impact on less volatile species (Johnson et al., 2009; Duranceau, 2015).
The Agency has considered the risk-balancing aspects of the MDBP rules and has determined that potential revisions to the D/DBPRs could provide greater protection of public health while still being protective of microbial risks. The risk-balancing activities considered by the Agency include those between the microbial and disinfection byproduct rules, as well as those between different groups of DBPs. This includes risk-balancing for the THMs and HAAs included in the D/DBPRs, additional brominated HAAs, nitrosamines identified in the
Potential revisions could offer enhanced protection from both regulated and unregulated DBPs. Potential revisions that consider areas such as further constraints on precursors, and/or more targeted constraints on precursors (
The Agency is seeking public comment regarding potential revisions to D/DBPR. See Section VII for more information. Further discussion about potential revisions to existing D/DBPRs will occur as part of a separate regulatory development process.
In addition to evaluating information about health effects, analytical feasibility, occurrence and exposure, treatment feasibility and risk-balancing related to the NPDWRs included in the D/DBPRs, EPA considered whether other regulatory revisions are needed, such as revisions to monitoring and system reporting requirements, as a part of the Six-Year Review 3. EPA used the protocol to evaluate which of these implementation issues to consider (USEPA, 2016f). As with the Chemical Phase Rules/Radionuclides Rules, EPA shared the list of identified potential implementation issues with the ASDWA to obtain input from state drinking water agencies concerning the significance and relevance of the issues (ASDWA, 2016). Implementation issues will be considered as part of the activities associated with potential future rulemaking efforts; some of these might be addressed through regulatory revision or clarification, while others might be handled through guidance.
Examples of implementation-related considerations include the following:
Monitoring in some combined distribution systems may be insufficient to adequately characterize DBP exposure. Some large, hydraulically complex combined water distribution systems may be conducting monitoring that is not adequate to characterize exposure throughout the distribution system.
Compliance monitoring for DBPs in some systems may not fully capture DBP levels to which customers may be exposed during certain portions of the year. Systems that use chloramines as a residual disinfectant (generally as part of a compliance strategy to meet DBP MCLs) often temporarily switch to free chlorine as the residual disinfectant for a period (from two to eight weeks) in order to control nitrification in the distribution system. This practice is commonly called a “chlorine burn.” During the chlorine burn, higher levels of DBPs are expected to be formed. Systems often conduct their compliance monitoring outside of the chlorine burn period; and therefore, potentially higher TTHM and HAA5 levels may not be included in compliance calculations.
Except for the 1989 Total Coliform Rule, which was reviewed under the Six-Year Review 1, this is the first time EPA is conducting a Six-Year Review of the following microbial contaminant regulations:
• Surface Water Treatment Rule (SWTR),
• Interim Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule (IESWTR),
• Long Term 1 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule (LT1),
• Long Term 2 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule (LT2),
• Filter Backwash Recycling Rule (FBRR), and
• Ground Water Rule (GWR).
As discussed in Section V, the Initial Review branch of the protocol identifies NPDWRs with recent or ongoing actions and excludes them from the review process to prevent duplicative agency efforts. The cutoff date for the NPDWRs reviewed under the Six-Year Review 3 was August 2008. Based on the Initial Review, EPA excluded the Aircraft Drinking Water Rule, which was promulgated in 2009, and the Revised Total Coliform Rule (RTCR) (the revision of the 1989 TCR), which was promulgated in 2013.
In this document, the SWTR, the IESWTR and the LT1 are collectively referred to as the SWTRs because of the close association among the three rules (IESWTR and LT1 were amendments to the SWTR—additional information provided in Section VI.B.4.a). The LT2 is discussed separately in this document because EPA reviewed the LT2 in accordance with the Six-Year Review requirements and the Executive Order 13563 “Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review” (also known as Retrospective Review). Background information on each of the microbial contaminants regulations is presented in the subsequent sections.
The microbial contaminants regulations establish treatment technique (TT) requirements in lieu of MCLs. The review elements of the microbial contaminants regulations are: initial review, health effects, analytical feasibility, occurrence and exposure, treatment feasibility, risk-balancing and other regulatory revisions.
At this time, the SWTRs are being identified as a candidate for regulatory revision, but the LT2, the FBRR and the GWR are not. A summary of review findings of each rule is described in the subsequent sections. Additional information is provided in the “Six-Year Review 3 Technical Support Document for Microbial Contaminant Regulations” (USEPA, 2016n) and the “Six-Year Review 3 Technical Support Document for Long-Term 2 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule” (USEPA, 2016m).
EPA promulgated the SWTR in June 1989. It requires all water systems using surface water sources or ground water under the direct influence of surface water (GWUDI) sources (also known as Subpart H systems) to remove (via filtration) and/or inactivate (via disinfection) microbial contaminants (54 FR 27486, USEPA, 1989). Under the SWTR, EPA established NPDWRs for
The SWTRs established TT requirements in lieu of MCLs in these NPDWRs. The 1989 SWTR established TT requirements for systems to control
The SWTR also established TT requirements for disinfectant residuals (54 FR 27486, USEPA, 1989). The residual disinfectant concentration at the entry point to the distribution system may not be less than 0.2 mg/L for more than four hours. The residual disinfectant concentration in the distribution system “cannot be undetectable in more than 5 percent of the samples each month, for any two consecutive months that the system serves water to the public.” (40 CFR 141.72). A detectable residual may be established by: (1) an analytical measurement or (2) having a heterotrophic bacteria concentration less than or equal to 500 per mL measured as heterotrophic plate count (HPC). The purpose of these disinfectant residual requirements was to:
• Ensure that the distribution system is properly maintained and identify and limit contamination from outside the distribution system when it might occur,
• Limit growth of heterotrophic bacteria and
• Provide a quantitative limit, which if exceeded would trigger remedial action.
The SWTR also established sanitary survey requirements. The purpose of the sanitary survey requirements, which include consideration of distribution system vulnerabilities, is to identify water system deficiencies that could pose a threat to public health and to permit correction of such deficiencies.
As part of the development of the SWTR, EPA needed to clarify which systems would be regulated under Subpart H. In particular, EPA needed to clarify when systems that could be considered as ground water systems were more appropriate to regulate as surface water systems (for example, systems where the drinking water intake was in a riverbed, not in the river). Thus, to identify a system as either ground or surface water, the SWTR defined “ground water under the direct influence of surface water (GWUDI).” GWUDI is any water beneath the surface of the ground with: (1) significant occurrence of insects or other macroorganisms, algae or large-diameter pathogens such as
Surface water and GWUDI systems use concentration x time (CT) tables published by EPA to determine log-inactivation credits for the use of a disinfectant to meet the disinfection TT requirements. The “SWTR Guidance Manual” provides CT tables for
The IESWTR applies to all PWSs using surface water, or GWUDI, which serve 10,000 or more people. The IESWTR established TT requirements for
EPA identified the following NPDWRs under the SWTR as candidates for revision under the Six-Year Review 3 because of the opportunity to further reduce residual risk from pathogens (including opportunistic pathogens such as
•
• heterotrophic bacteria,
•
• viruses, and
•
This result is based on a scientific review of available information, following the protocol described in Section V. Based on the availability of new information, the review focused on the following major provisions of the SWTRs:
• Requirements to maintain a minimum disinfectant residual in the distribution system,
• GWUDI classification, and
• CT criteria for virus disinfection.
Collectively, the new information suggests an opportunity to revise the TT provisions of the SWTRs to provide greater protection of public health. More detailed information about the review results related to the major provisions of the SWTRs is provided in the following subsections.
EPA evaluated information related to the maintenance of a minimum disinfectant level in the distribution system and determined that there is an opportunity to reduce residual risk from pathogens (includes opportunistic pathogens such as
Given our understanding of the distribution system vulnerabilities (
EPA reviewed information on disease outbreaks, a randomized controlled intervention study, pathogenic protozoan occurrence data and studies evaluating parasitic protozoan removal surrogates and hydrogeologic studies, all of which were completed since the SWTR was published. The information suggests that there is an opportunity to provide greater public health protection by improved identification of unrecognized GWUDI PWSs. The data suggest that the SWTR regulation and guidance has performed well in identifying GWUDI for the PWS systems most at risk from
EPA suggests that the number of potentially misclassified GWUDI PWSs may be estimated by: (1) waterborne disease outbreak compilations, (2) the UCMR3 occurrence data (aerobic spore detections and concentrations), and (3) the SYR2 ICR and the SYR3 ICR (total coliform detections). EPA's preliminary characterization of the number of the potentially misclassified GWUDI PWSs is described in the “Six-Year Review 3 Technical Support Document for Microbial Contaminant Regulations” (USEPA, 2016n).
EPA evaluated whether the current CT criteria based on hepatitis A virus (HAV) are sufficiently protective against other types of viruses. EPA reviewed disinfection studies relevant to the CT tables published in the “1991 SWTR Guidance Manual” (USEPA, 1991). Over the years, many studies have indicated that HAV is less chlorine-resistant than some enteroviruses, such as Coxsackie virus B5 (Black et al., 2009; Cromeans et al., 2010; Keegan et al., 2012), and also less chloramine-resistant than adenovirus (Sirikanchana et al., 2008; Hill and Cromeans, 2010). Based on this review, EPA identified a potential need to update CT values for virus inactivation by free chlorine or chloramines, particularly for water with a relatively high pH. This assessment is also relevant to the LT2 and the GWR, which refer to the same CT tables in the original “1991 SWTR Guidance Manual.”
This section summarizes EPA's review of the information related to human health risks from exposure to microbial contaminants in drinking water. EPA evaluated whether any new toxicological data, or waterborne endemic infection or infectious disease information, would justify modifying the MCLGs. EPA reviewed information that included data from the Waterborne Disease and Outbreak Surveillance System (WBDOSS) collected by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) (
The SWTRs set MCLGs of zero for
EPA reviewed information from the Waterborne Disease and Outbreaks Surveillance System about the occurrences and causes of drinking water-associated outbreaks. This surveillance system is the primary source of data concerning such outbreaks in the U.S. (Beer et al., 2015). The drinking water-associated outbreak data from 1971-2012 illustrate that there is an observable reduction of reported outbreaks over that time frame, which may be, at least in part, due to the implementation of the TCR and the SWTR beginning in 1991.
Although the historic number of drinking water-associated outbreaks is declining, CDC notes that the level of surveillance and reporting activity, as well as reporting requirements, varies across states and localities. For these reasons, outbreak surveillance data likely underestimate actual values, and should not be used to estimate the total number of outbreaks or cases of waterborne disease (Beer et al., 2015).
Deficiencies at private wells and premise plumbing systems are increasingly responsible for disease outbreaks associated with drinking water (Beer et al., 2015). Premise plumbing is the portion of the distribution system from the water meter to the consumer tap in homes, schools, and other buildings (NRC, 2006b). In 2011-2012, the two most frequent deficiencies related to drinking-water-associated outbreaks were
In addition to epidemic illness, sporadic illness (
Collectively, the data indicate that outbreaks associated with drinking water may have been reduced as a result of drinking water regulations. However, opportunities remain to address disease outbreaks associated with distribution systems and untreated ground water and, at the same time, to potentially address some of the waterborne disease outbreaks associated with little to no disinfectant residual in the distribution system (Geldreich et al., 1992; Bartrand et al., 2014).
The precise burden of disease is not well quantified. Five primarily waterborne diseases (giardiasis, cryptosporidiosis, Legionnaires' disease, otitis externa, and non-tuberculous mycobacterial infection) were responsible for over 40,000 hospitalizations per year at a cost of nearly $1 billion per year (Collier et al.,
Wallender et al. (2014) summarized CDC outbreak data for the years 1971-2008 and determined that GWUDI was a “contributing factor” in 11 percent (six percent with
A randomized, controlled, triple-blinded drinking water intervention study was conducted in Sonoma County, California (Colford et al., 2009). The purpose of the study was to determine the proportion of acute gastrointestinal illnesses (AGI) attributable to drinking water. Sonoma County obtained water from five horizontal collector wells along the Russian River, four regulated as ground water and one regulated as GWUDI (part of the year). Colford et al. (2009) found that highly credible AGI in the population aged 55 and over was attributable to drinking water exposure. Illness occurred even though the water utility met all federal, state and local drinking water regulations.
In a karst aquifer in France, 18 ground water samples were taken from the Norville (Haute-Normandie) public water supply well (5,000 customers, chlorine treatment) and tested for
Because of concerns about analytical methods and the potential for false positives, the detectable concentration of disinfectant residuals in the distribution system may not be adequately protective of microbial pathogens. To further inform these concerns, EPA reviewed analytical methods that have been approved for free chlorine, total chlorine and chlorine dioxide under the SWTR and the D/DBPRs. Nearly all utilities use either the DPD (
For some systems using chloramines (a mixture of biocidal inorganic chloramines, of which monochloramine is the most effective), the presence of organic chloramines can be problematic since these related compounds have minimal biocidal properties, they can interfere with residual monitoring, and they can give the false impression that the finished water contains more active disinfectant than is actually present (Wahman and Pressman, 2015; Westerhoff et al., 2010). Organic chloramines will continue to form in the distribution system while inorganic chloramines decay, and thus areas of the distribution system with relatively high water ages may have residuals containing a significant amount of organic chloramines (Wahman and Pressman, 2015).
In addition, EPA reviewed research published regarding potential improvements to methods or technologies used in the determination of free or total chlorine (Dong et al., 2012; Tang et al., 2014; Saad et al., 2005). Analytical methods that can measure inorganic chloramines without the organic chloramine interferences are available, but not approved for determining compliance with NPDWRs. Field test kits based on the indophenol method are available that can specifically measure monochloramine without inclusion of mass from dichloramine or organic chloramines (Lee et al., 2007).
EPA's existing microbial contaminants regulations require monitoring of pathogenic protozoa in source water (
EPA previously used aerobic spores as surrogate measures of
Locas et al. (2008) found that aerobic spores were present in six of nine wells sampled in Quebec, Canada, and in 45 of 109 samples taken. The authors conclude that aerobic spore presence is an indicator of a change in water quality and warrants further investigation to determine the source of potential contamination.
In EPA's investigation of virus occurrence in untreated PWS wells under the UCMR3, 252 of 793 wells (317 of 1,047 samples) were positive for aerobic spores (USEPA, 2016j). Measured concentrations spanned three orders of magnitude, with about three percent having over 100 spore-forming units per 100 ml). Because aerobic spores originating in soil are found in GWUDI and ground water PWS wells, the UCMR3 data suggest that aerobic spores could be used as an indicator of the susceptibility of PWS wells to surface water infiltration. Together with other indicators and/or parasitic protozoa data from PWS wells, newer methods including spores (occurrence, concentration, and/or removal estimates) might be useful in identifying unrecognized GWUDI PWS wells. The LT2 Toolbox Guidance Manual identified aerobic spores as the indicator to determine
Coliform and/or
To assess the relationship between disinfectant residual and occurrence of indicators for pathogens in distribution systems, EPA evaluated information about chlorine residuals and total coliforms and
EPA found that there was a lower rate of occurrence of both TC and EC as the free or total chlorine residual increased to higher levels (note: total chlorine is often used as a measure for systems that use chloramines). For example, the TC positive rate was less than one percent when chlorine residuals were equal to or greater than 0.2 mg/L of free chlorine or 0.5 mg/L of total chlorine. This relationship between chlorine residuals and occurrence of TC and EC was similar to that reported by the Colorado Department of Public Health and Environment (Ingels, 2015).
A disinfectant residual also serves as an indicator of the effectiveness of distribution system best management practices. Best management practices include flushing, storage tank maintenance, cross-connection control, leak detection and effective pipe replacement and repair practices. The effective implementation of best management practices helps water suppliers to lower chlorine demand and maintain an adequate disinfectant residual throughout the distribution system. These same practices can also help control DBP formation.
EPA reviewed new information related to the TT requirements in the SWTR and identified the following treatment-related topics that support potential revisions to the SWTRs to improve public health protection:
• Detectable residual for systems using chloramine disinfection,
• State implementation of disinfection residual requirements,
• Disinfectant residuals for control of
• HPC alternative to detectable residual measurement, and
• CT criteria for viruses.
In addition, EPA reviewed key findings by the Research and Information Collection Partnership (RICP) on drinking water distribution system issues and research and information needs. The RICP is a working group formed on the recommendation of the Total Coliform Rule Distribution System Advisory Committee to identify specific high-priority research and information collection activities and to stimulate water distribution system research and information collection (USEPA, 2008b; USEPA and Water Research Foundation, 2016).
As discussed in the background portion of this section, for surface water systems or GWUDI systems, the SWTR requires that a disinfectant residual cannot be undetectable in more than five percent of samples each month for any two consecutive months.
EPA identified two issues that have implications for the protectiveness of allowing a detectable residual as a surrogate for bacteriological quality: Organic chloramines and nitrification. Organic chloramines affect the effectiveness of disinfectant residuals because they: (1) Form during the use of free chlorine or chloramines, (2) interfere with commonly used analytical methods for free and total chlorine measurements, and (3) are poor disinfectants compared to free chlorine and monochloramine (Wahman and Pressman, 2015).
Because chloramination involves introduction of ammonia into drinking water, and decomposition of chloramines can further release ammonia in the distribution system, chloramine use comes with the risk of distribution system nitrification (
States may adopt federal drinking water regulations or promulgate more stringent drinking water requirements, including those for disinfectant residuals. Preliminary information shows that 26 states require a detectable disinfectant residual in the distribution system. Twenty of these 26 states require a minimum free chlorine residual of 0.2 mg/L or more (Ingels, 2015; Wahman and Pressman, 2015). Five of the 20 states set standards even more stringent than 0.2 mg/L: Louisiana requires at least 0.5 mg/L free chlorine in its emergency rule, while Florida, Illinois, Iowa, and Delaware require 0.3 mg/L. For minimum total chlorine residual, state requirements vary from 0.05 mg/L (New Jersey) to 1.00 mg/L or higher (Kansas, Oklahoma, Iowa, Ohio, and North Carolina). North Carolina has a numeric requirement for total chlorine residual but not for free chlorine residual.
Colorado has amended its minimum disinfectant residual requirements in the distribution system to be greater than or equal to 0.2 mg/L, effective April 1, 2016 (Ingels, 2015). Pennsylvania recently proposed to strengthen its disinfectant residual requirements by increasing the minimum disinfectant residual in the distribution system to 0.2 mg/L free or total chlorine (Pennsylvania Bulletin, 2016). Louisiana's Emergency Distribution Disinfectant Residual Rule was established in 2013 to control
Since the reporting of disease outbreaks due to
Studies indicate that distribution systems can play a role in influencing the transmission and contamination of
To help address concerns about
EPA also reviewed the scientific literature on the effectiveness of disinfectant residuals at controlling biofilm growth. Many factors influence the concentration of the disinfectant residual in the distribution system; and therefore, the ability of the residual to control microbial growth and biofilm formation. These factors include the level of assimilable organic carbon (AOC), the type and concentration of disinfectant, water temperature, pipe materials, and system hydraulics.
Problems associated with biofilms in distribution systems include enhanced corrosion of pipes and deterioration of water quality. Biofilms can provide ecological niches that are suited to the potential survival of pathogens (Walker and Morales, 1997; Baribeau et al., 2005; Behnke et al., 2011; Wang et al., 2012; Biyela et al., 2012; Revetta et al., 2013; Ashbolt, 2015). The biofilm can protect microorganisms from disinfectants and can enhance nutrient accumulation and transport (Baribeau et al., 2005).
Under the SWTR, a system may demonstrate that its HPC levels are less than 500 per mL, at any sampling locations, in lieu of demonstrating the presence of a detectable disinfectant residual at that location, per primacy agency approval. EPA reviewed new information that suggests development of criteria which may be more protective than the HPC criterion. For example, criteria used in the Netherlands for systems operating without a distribution system disinfectant residual provides an example of an alternative criteria than the HPC criterion. In the Netherlands, chlorine is not used routinely for primary or secondary disinfection. Dutch water systems use the following general approach to control microbial activity in the distribution system without a disinfectant residual (Smeets et al., 2009): Produce a biologically stable drinking water; use distribution system materials that are non-reactive and biologically stable; and optimize distribution system operations and maintenance practices to prevent stagnation and sediment accumulation. For the determination of a biologically stable water they use AOC as an indicator.
EPA reviewed new disinfection studies published since the release of the original CT tables. Collectively, the data in the recent literature indicate that
EPA's CT values for chlorine incorporate a safety factor of three to account for differences between dispersed and aggregated hepatitis A virus and between buffered, demand-free water and environmental water. In light of new information about the hepatitis A virus and the effects of source water quality on chlorine disinfection, EPA concludes that the safety factor of three should be re-evaluated to ensure its adequacy. A larger safety factor (thus higher EPA CT values) is expected to enhance waterborne pathogen control but could lead to higher DBP formation and warrants further examination in any rulemaking activity.
Adenovirus is the virus that is most resistant to chloramines, through it is very susceptible to free chlorine disinfection. Several studies revealed that monochloramine disinfection might not provide adequate control of adenovirus in drinking water, particularly in waters with relatively high pH and at low temperature (Sirikanchana et al., 2008; Hill and Cromeans, 2010).
The RICP partners are EPA and Water Research Foundation. EPA examined information from the 10 high priority RICP areas in the context of the Six-Year Review, particularly information related to the effectiveness of sanitary survey and corrective action requirements under the IESWTR. However, EPA found limited information that would shed light on the frequency and magnitude of distribution system vulnerability events (
The Agency has considered the risk-balancing aspects of the MDBP rules and has determined that potential revisions to the SWTRs could provide improved health protection. The risk-balancing activities considered by the Agency include those between the microbial and disinfection by-product rules, as well as those between different groups of DBPs. This includes balancing the reduction in risks from microbial pathogens should there be additional requirements to maintain a disinfectant residual with the increased risk from D/DBPs resulting from such requirements. EPA also considered the potential impact of further constraints on DBP precursors on the reduction of demand for disinfectant residual. The risk-balancing review was based on a preliminary, qualitative assessment of unintended consequences; it is important to note that further assessment of such consequences would be an important component of any further rulemaking activities.
EPA promulgated the LT2 on January 5, 2006 (71 FR 654, USEPA, 2006c). The LT2 applies to all PWSs that use surface water or ground water under the direct influence of surface water as drinking water. The LT2 builds upon the IESWTR and the LT1 by improving control of microbial pathogens, specifically the contaminant
The LT2 also contains provisions to reduce risks from uncovered finished water reservoirs (UCFWRs).
The LT2 requires PWSs using uncovered finished water storage facilities to either cover the storage facility or treat the storage facility discharge (
Under the LT2, PWSs were required to notify their state/primacy agency by April 1, 2008, if they used UCFWRs. Additionally, the LT2 required all PWSs to either meet the requirement to cover the UCFWR, or treat the UCFWR discharge to the distribution system or be in compliance with a state-approved schedule for meeting these requirements no later than April 1, 2009. Under this review, EPA evaluated published information to assess whether allowing a state-approved risk management plan would justify revisions to the LT2.
Information available since promulgation of the LT2 either supports the current regulatory requirements or does not justify a revision. EPA determined that no regulatory revisions to the UCFWR requirements of the LT2 are warranted at this time based on the review of available information.
EPA reassessed the health risks resulting from exposure to
The principal objectives of this health effects review were to: (1) Evaluate whether there are new or additional ways to estimate risks from
The LT2 specifies approved analytical methods to determine the levels of
The LT2 requires PWSs using surface water or ground water under the direct influence of surface water to monitor their source waters for
Under the LT2, the date for PWSs to begin monitoring is staggered by PWS size, with smaller PWSs starting at a later time than larger systems. According to the LT2 rule requirements, all PWSs were expected to complete Round 1 in 2012.
To reduce monitoring costs, small filtered PWSs (serving fewer than 10,000 people) initially monitor for
Based on the source water monitoring results, filtered systems were classified in one of four risk categories to determine additional treatment needed (Bins 1-4). Systems in Bin 1 are required to provide no additional
Six years after the initial bin classification, filtered systems must conduct a second round of monitoring. Round 2 monitoring is in place to understand year-to-year occurrence variability. The difference observed between occurrence at the time of the ICR Supplemental Surveys (USEPA, 2000c) and the LT2 Round 1 monitoring indicates year-to-year variability. Round 2 monitoring began in 2015. Under this review, EPA considered whether a third round of monitoring would be justified at this time, in particular, requiring the use of Method 1623.1. EPA also considered whether a modification to the action bin boundaries should be made based on requiring Method 1623.1.
Because of the relatively modest gains in public health protection predicted by the Round 2 monitoring EPA does not believe a third round of monitoring is justified at this time, even if the Agency were to require the use of Method 1623.1 for this monitoring. Round 1
LT2 includes a variety of treatment and control options, collectively termed the “microbial toolbox,” that PWSs can implement to comply with the LT2's additional
The LT2 also requires all unfiltered PWSs to provide at least 2 to 3-log (
EPA reviewed information available since the promulgation of the LT2 on the use of the microbial toolbox to determine if the information would support a potential change to the prescribed credits or the associated design and operational criteria. In addition, EPA searched for information on new and emerging tools that would support their potential addition to the toolbox. The Agency also received input on the use and effectiveness of the microbial toolbox tools through public meetings, research of publicly available information and by actively communicating with some systems. EPA
EPA also examined information from some PWSs with UCFWRs to evaluate the potential effectiveness of risk management measures taken by those PWSs for protecting the finished water in the UCFWRs from contamination. The New York City Department of Environmental Protection (NYC DEP) has undertaken more activities than any other PWS to protect their Hillview Reservoir from contamination. These activities include wildlife management (
The LT2 includes disinfection profile and benchmark requirements to ensure that any significant change in disinfection, whether for disinfection byproducts control under the Stage 2 D/DBPR, improved
EPA did not identify information that would support a potential change to the methodology and calculations for developing the disinfection profile and benchmark under the LT2. However, EPA identified information that would support a potential change to the CT values required for virus disinfection (as discussed in the Section VI.B.4.a. “SWTRs”). EPA is considering this information in the review of the overall filtration and disinfection requirements in the SWTR.
Based on the outcome of this review, EPA determined that no regulatory revisions to the microbial toolbox options are warranted at this time. Any new information available to the Agency either supports the current regulatory requirements or does not justify a revision. For more information regarding EPA's review of treatment feasibility see the “Six-Year Review 3 Technical Support Document for Long-Term 2 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule” (USEPA, 2016m).
EPA promulgated the FBRR in 2001 (66 FR 31086, USEPA, 2001b). It requires PWSs to review their backwash water recycling practices to ensure microbial control is not compromised, and it requires PWSs to recycle filter backwash water.
EPA reviewed this rule as part of the Six-Year Review 3, and the result is to take no action on the basis that EPA did not identify any relevant information that indicate changes to the NPDWR.
EPA promulgated the GWR in 2006 (71 FR 65573, USEPA, 2006b) to provide protection against microbial pathogens in PWSs using ground water sources. The rule establishes a risk-based approach to target undisinfected ground water systems that are vulnerable to fecal contamination. If a system has an initial total coliform positive in the distribution system (based on routine coliform monitoring under the RTCR), followed by a fecal indicator positive (
In addition to the protection provided by the Revised Total Coliform Rule (RTCR) and GWR monitoring requirements, systems that do not disinfect are also protected by the sanitary survey provisions of the GWR and the Level 1 assessment provisions of the RTCR.
EPA has not identified the GWR as a candidate for revision under the Six-Year Review 3 because EPA needs to evaluate emerging information from full implementation of the GWR (71 FR 65573, USEPA, 2006b) and the RTCR (78 FR 10270, USEPA, 2013a) before determining if there is an opportunity to improve public health protection. Implementation of the GWR was not yet completed for the period of time covered by the SYR3 ICR. The RTCR was promulgated in 2013 and became effective on April 1, 2016. EPA expects that implementation on the RTCR may impact the percent of ground water systems that will be triggered into source water monitoring and taking any corrective actions under the GWR. Therefore, the effects of the GWR and the RTCR implementation in addressing vulnerable ground water systems are not yet known. EPA notes that the GWR was also recently reviewed under Section 610 of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, which required federal agencies to review regulations that have significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within 10 years after their adoption as final rules. The 610 Review of the GWR was recently completed; three comments were received. A report is available discussing the 610 Review, comments received, and EPA's response to major comments (USEPA, 2016g).
Borchardt et al. (2012) studied the health effects associated with enteric virus occurrence in undisinfected PWS wells in 14 communities in Wisconsin. Drinking water samples were assayed for a suite of viral pathogens using quantitative polymerase chain reaction (qPCR). Community members kept daily diaries to self-report AGI. The study found a statistically significant association between enteric virus occurrence in the drinking water and AGI incidences in the communities.
Using the 2005 data, EPA estimated a national average TC detection rate of 2.4 percent for routine samples from undisinfected CWSs with populations less than 4,100 people (USEPA, 2012). The 14 communities (with undisinfected PWS wells) studied by Borchardt et al. (2012) had TC detections of 2.3 percent. These data suggest that the 14 communities studied by Borchardt et al. (2012) had TC detection rates no different from an average undisinfected community PWS in the U.S.
Since the promulgation of the GWR in 2006, EPA has approved several new methods for the analysis of TC samples used as a trigger for GWR source water monitoring, or for source water fecal indicators used under the GWR. These methods can be found on the EPA Web site (
New information suggests that total coliform occurrence varies among small undisinfected ground water systems, depending upon whether the system is a community, non-transient non-community or transient non-community PWS (USEPA, 2016n). Statistical modeling of 2011 data (about 60,000 systems based on occurrence data collected from undisinfected ground water systems) shows that undisinfected transient non-community ground water systems have the highest occurrence, at approximately four percent median routine TC positive occurrence as compared with three percent for undisinfected non-transient non-community ground water systems and two percent for undisinfected community ground water systems (USEPA, 2016n). These occurrence levels are similar to those estimated during the development of the RTCR using 2005 data (USEPA, 2012). Additionally, according to the 2005 and 2011 datasets, the smaller systems had higher median TC occurrence than the larger systems. All positive total coliform samples were assayed for
A small percentage of undisinfected ground water systems have higher TC detection rates. For example, of the 52,000 undisinfected transient, non-community ground water systems serving populations less than 101 people (the total count is from USEPA, 2006b), EPA (2012) estimated that about 2,600 (five percent) of those systems (4.6 percent for the 2005 data set) had TC detection rates of 20 percent or more.
Under the third monitoring cycle of the Unregulated Contaminant Monitoring Rule (UCMR3), EPA sampled about 800 randomly selected undisinfected ground water systems serving fewer than 100 people for virus and virus indicators. These data show that only a small number of samples were virus positive by qPCR (16 out of 1,044 or two percent) (USEPA, 2016j). This result contrasts significantly with the virus positive sample rate from Borchardt et al. (2012) (287 out of 1,204 or 24 percent). One difference is that Borchardt et al. (2012) sampled prior to any treatment in the undisinfected wells (
EPA invites commenters to submit any relevant data or information pertaining to the NPDWRs identified in this action as candidates for revision, as well as other relevant comments. EPA will consider the public comments and/or any new, relevant data submitted for the eight NPDWRs listed as candidates for revision as the Agency moves forward in determining whether regulatory revisions for these NPDWRs are necessary. The announcement whether or not the Agency intends to revise an NPDWR (pursuant to SDWA § 1412(b)(9)) is not a regulatory decision.
Relevant data include studies/analyses pertaining to health effects, analytical feasibility, treatment feasibility and occurrence/exposure. This information will inform EPA's evaluation as the Agency moves forward determining whether regulatory revisions for these NPDWRs are necessary. The data and information requested by EPA include peer-reviewed science and supporting studies conducted in accordance with sound and objective scientific practices, and data collected by accepted methods or best available methods (if the reliability of the method and the nature of the review justifies use of the data).
Peer-reviewed data are studies/analyses that have been reviewed by qualified individuals (or organizations) who are independent of those who performed the work, but who are collectively equivalent in technical expertise (
Specifically, EPA is requesting comment and/or information related to the following aspects of potential revisions to the MDBP NPDWRs:
• Potential approaches that could enhance protection from DBPs, including both those that are regulated and those currently unregulated (
• Potential approaches that could enhance protection from chlorite, chlorate, and chlorine dioxide. Specifically, commenters are requested to provide information about approaches that could involve, for example: Setting standards for systems using hypochlorite that address combined exposure to chlorite and chlorate; and setting standards for systems using chlorine dioxide (alone or in combination with other disinfectants) that address combined exposure from chlorite, chlorate, and chlorine dioxide.
• Potential approaches that could provide increased protection from microbial pathogens and that take into consideration the issues noted about disinfection residual requirements, while considering the risk-balancing aspects of the MDBP rules. In addition, commenters are requested to provide information about approaches that could offer enhanced protection without the use of a chlorine-based disinfectant residual in the distribution system, including technology and management systems associated with those approaches.
• Information about how frequently PWS monitor for DBPs during chlorine burn periods, including revised monitoring schedules for DBPs, taking into account occurrence and exposure to DBPs during chlorine burn periods, and related short-term health effects on sensitive populations.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
This action proposes the federal plan for existing commercial and industrial incineration (CISWI) units. This proposed action implements the Environmental Protection Agency's (EPA) emission guidelines (EG) adopted on February 7, 2013, as amended on June 23, 2016, in states that do not have an approved state plan implementing the EG in place by the effective date of this federal plan. The federal plan will result in emissions reductions of certain pollutants from all affected units covered.
Dr. Nabanita Modak Fischer, Fuels and Incineration Group, Sector Policies and Programs Division (E143-05), Environmental Protection Agency, Research Triangle Park, North Carolina 27711; telephone number: (919) 541-5572; fax number: (919) 541-3470; email address:
The EPA will make every effort to accommodate all speakers who arrive and register. Because the hearing will be held at a U.S. governmental facility, individuals planning to attend the hearing should be prepared to show valid picture identification to the security staff in order to gain access to the meeting room. Please note that the REAL ID Act, passed by Congress in 2005, established new requirements for entering federal facilities. If your driver's license is issued by Alaska, American Samoa, Arizona, Kentucky, Louisiana, Maine, Massachusetts, Minnesota, Montana, New York, Oklahoma or the state of Washington, you must present an additional form of identification to enter the federal building. Acceptable alternative forms of identification include: Federal employee badges, passports, enhanced driver's licenses and military identification cards. In addition, you will need to obtain a property pass for any personal belongings you bring with you. Upon leaving the building, you will be required to return this property pass to the security desk. No large signs will be allowed in the building, cameras may only be used outside of the building and demonstrations will not be
Please note that any updates made to any aspect of the hearing, including whether or not a hearing will be held, will be posted online at
This table is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a general guide for identifying entities likely to be affected by the proposed action. To determine whether a facility would be affected by this action, please examine the applicability criteria in 40 CFR 62.14510 to 62.14525 of subpart III being proposed here. Questions regarding the applicability of this action to a particular entity should be directed to the person listed in the preceding
Clearly mark the part or all of the information that you claim to be CBI. For CBI on a disk or CD-ROM that you mail to the EPA, mark the outside of the disk or CD-ROM as CBI and then identify electronically within the disk or CD-ROM the specific information that is claimed as CBI. In addition to one complete version of the comment that includes information claimed as CBI, a copy of the comment that does not contain the information claimed as CBI must be submitted for inclusion in the public docket. Information marked as CBI will not be disclosed except in accordance with procedures set forth in 40 CFR part 2.
If you have any questions about CBI or the procedures for claiming CBI, please consult the person identified in the
Section 129 of the Clean Air Act (CAA), titled, “Solid Waste Combustion,” requires the EPA to develop and adopt standards for solid waste incineration units pursuant to CAA sections 111 and 129.
On March 21, 2011, the EPA promulgated revised new source performance standards (NSPS) and EG for CISWI units. Following this action, the Administrator received petitions for reconsideration that identified certain issues that warranted further opportunity for public comment. In response to the petitions, the EPA reconsidered and requested comment on several provisions of the February 2011 final NSPS and EG for CISWI incineration units. The EPA published the proposed revisions to the NSPS and EG for CISWI units on December 23, 2011 (76 FR 80452).
On February 7, 2013, the EPA promulgated the final reconsidered NSPS and EG for CISWI units (78 FR 9112). The final rule made some revisions to the December 2011 proposed reconsideration rule in response to comments and additional information received. Following that action, the EPA again received petitions for reconsideration. These petitions stated certain provisions should be reconsidered and that the public lacked sufficient opportunity to comment on some of the provisions contained in the final 2013 CISWI rule. On January 21, 2015, the EPA reconsidered and requested comment on four provisions of the 2013 final NSPS and EG for CISWI units. Additionally, the EPA proposed clarifying changes and corrections to the final rule, some of which were raised in petitions for reconsideration of the 2013 CISWI rule. On June 23, 2016, the EPA promulgated the final reconsidered NSPS and EG for CISWI units (81 FR 40956). For a more detailed background and additional information on how this rule is related to other CAA combustion rules issued under CAA section 112 and the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) definition of solid waste, refer to prior documents (76 FR 15704, 78 FR 9112).
Sections 111(b) and 129(a) of the CAA address emissions from new units (
Section 129(b)(2) of the CAA directs states with existing CISWI unit(s) subject to the EG to submit plans to the EPA that implement and enforce the EG. The deadline for states to submit state plans to the EPA for review was February 7, 2014 (
The EPA anticipates that facilities in approximately eight states and four U.S. territories will need to rely on the CISWI Federal Plan.
Section 129(b)(2) of the CAA requires states to implement the EG for existing solid waste incineration units, including CISWI units. States with existing CISWI units were required to submit to the EPA within 1 year following promulgation of the EG (by February 7, 2014) state plans that are at least as protective as the EG. Sections 111 and 129 of the CAA and 40 CFR 60.27(c) and (d) require the EPA to develop, implement, and enforce a federal plan in states which have not submitted an approvable plan. The EPA is proposing the CISWI Federal Plan so that a promulgated federal plan will be effective in any state that fails to provide an approvable state plan, thus, ensuring implementation and enforcement of the final CISWI EG.
The regulations require states without any existing CISWI units to submit to the Administrator a letter of negative declaration certifying that there are no CISWI units in the state (
Incineration of solid waste at commercial and industrial facilities causes the release of a wide array of air pollutants, some of which exist in the waste feed material and are released unchanged during combustion, and some of which are generated as a result of the combustion process itself.
Sections 111(d) and 129(b)(3) of the CAA, 42 U.S.C. 7411(d) and 7429(b)(3), authorize and require the EPA to develop and implement a federal plan for CISWI units located in states with no approved and effective state plan. Table 2 below lists the status of state plans as of the signature date for this proposal. Additionally, Table 2 lists states and local agencies that submitted negative declarations and/or those which have indicated that they intend to take delegation of the federal plan.
As the EPA Regional offices approve implementation plans, they will also, in the same action, amend the appropriate subpart of 40 CFR part 62 to codify their approvals. The EPA will maintain a list of implementation plan submittals and approvals on the Technical Air Pollution Resources Web site at
CISWI owners or operators can also contact the EPA Regional office for the state in which their CISWI units are located to determine whether there is an approved and effective state plan in place. Table 3 lists the names, email addresses, and telephone numbers of the EPA Regional office contacts and the states and territories that they cover.
A “CISWI” unit is any unit located at a commercial or industrial facility that combusts any amount of solid waste, as defined in 40 CFR part 241, that is not otherwise exempted from CISWI.
The federal plan will apply to the owner or operator of an existing CISWI unit that was constructed on or before June 4, 2010, or commenced modification or reconstruction after June 4, 2010, but no later than August 7, 2013, and that is not subject to an approved and effective state plan as of the effective date of the final federal plan notice.
This action will not preclude states from submitting a state plan at a later time. If a state submits a plan after the promulgation of the CISWI Federal Plan, the EPA will review and approve or disapprove the state plan.
Part 62 of Title 40 of the CFR identifies the status of approval and promulgation of CAA section 111(d) and CAA section 129(b) state plans for designated facilities in each state. However, the print version of 40 CFR part 62 is updated only once per year. Thus, if 40 CFR part 62 does not indicate that a state has an approved and effective plan, please contact the state environmental agency's air director or the EPA's Regional office (
Sections 111(d) and 129 of the CAA, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 7411(d) and 7429(b)(2), require states to develop and implement state plans for CISWI units to implement and enforce the final EG. Accordingly, subpart DDDD of 40 CFR part 60 requires states to submit state plans that include specified elements. Because this proposed federal plan will establish standards in the absence of an approved and effective state plan, this proposed plan includes the same essential elements as a state plan: (1) Identification of legal authority and mechanisms for implementation; (2) inventory of CISWI units; (3) emissions inventory; (4) compliance schedules; (5) emissions limits and operating limits; (6) operator training and qualification; (7) testing, monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting; (8) public hearing; and (9) progress reporting.
Sections 111(d) and 129(b)(3) of the CAA direct the EPA to develop a federal plan for states that do not submit approvable state plans. Sections 111 and 129 of the CAA provide the EPA with the authority to implement and enforce the federal plan in cases where the state fails to submit a satisfactory state plan. Pursuant to section 129(f)(2), compliance with the EG cannot be later than 5 years after the relevant EG are promulgated (
The docket for the proposed federal plan includes an inventory of the CISWI units that may potentially be covered by this federal plan in the absence of approved state plans. (
This proposed federal plan includes emissions estimates for existing CISWI units. The pollutants inventoried are Cd, CO, polychlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins/polychlorinated dibenzofurans (PCDD/PCDF), HCl, Pb, Hg, PM, NO
The CAA provides that owners or operators of affected CISWI units must comply no later than 5 years after the effective date of the final CISWI EG (
The proposed federal plan contains emissions limits that correspond to the final CISWI EG. (
The proposed federal plan requires that the owner or operator must qualify operators or their supervisors (at least one per facility) by ensuring that they complete an operator training course and annual review or refresher course. (
The proposed federal plan includes testing, monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements. (
This proposed federal plan provides an opportunity for public participation in adopting the plan. If requested to do so, the EPA will hold a public hearing at the EPA's office buildings in Washington, DC. A record of the public hearing, if any, will appear in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2016-0664. If a public hearing is requested and held, the EPA may ask clarifying questions during the oral presentation, but will not respond to the presentations or comments at that time. Written statements and supporting information submitted during the public comment period will be considered with equivalent weight as any oral statement and supporting information subsequently presented at a public hearing, if held.
The proposed federal plan requests that the EPA Regional Offices prepare annual progress reports to show the progress of CISWI units toward implementation of the EG. States that have been delegated the authority to implement and enforce this federal plan will be required to submit annual progress reports to the appropriate EPA Regional Office as part of their delegation (
The proposed CISWI Federal Plan requirements are described below.Table 4 lists each element and identifies where it is located or codified.
The proposed federal plan applicability reflects the final CISWI EG. The proposed federal plan applies to existing CISWI units meeting the applicability of 40 CFR 62.14510 that are located in any state that does not currently have an approved state plan in place. Existing CISWI units are all CISWI units for which construction commenced on or before June 4, 2010. All CISWI units for which construction commenced after June 4, 2010, or for which modification or reconstruction commenced after August 7, 2013, are “new” sources subject to NSPS emissions limits (40 CFR part 60, subpart CCCC). The federal plan requirements apply to owners and/or operators of incineration units combusting solid waste (as defined under RCRA) and located at commercial or industrial facilities (
The proposed federal plan requires owners or operators of CISWI units to come into compliance by February 7, 2018. The final CISWI EG included increments of progress in the compliance schedule. However, we are not including increments of progress as a compliance pathway for the proposed federal plan. Increments of progress were included in the EG to establish obligations that would apply to sources planning to take more than one year from approval of the state plan to comply. The increments would help ensure that sources planning to take more than one year to comply would make some incremental progress toward compliance after the first year. The increments did not require any additional action within one year of approval of a state plan (or promulgation of a federal plan). The EPA aims to take final action on this proposal in 2017. As explained above (
If a CISWI unit does not achieve final compliance by February 7, 2018, the proposed federal plan requires the CISWI unit to shut down by February 7, 2018, complete the retrofit while not operating, and be in compliance upon restarting. A CISWI unit that operates out of compliance after the final compliance date would be in violation of the federal plan and subject to enforcement action.
The EPA proposes to incorporate the EG emissions and operating limits from the final CISWI EG into this proposed CISWI Federal Plan. Table 5 of this preamble summarizes the EG emissions limits promulgated, as well as provides the existing CISWI Federal Plan emission limits (currently applicable only to existing incinerators) for comparison. Existing sources may comply with either the PCDD/PCDF toxicity equivalence or total mass balance emission limits. These standards apply at all times. Facilities will be required to establish site-specific operating limits derived from the results of performance testing. The site-specific operating limits are established as the minimum (or maximum, as appropriate) operating parameter value measured during the performance test. These operating limits will result in achievable operating ranges that will ensure that the control devices used for compliance will be operated to achieve continuous compliance with the emissions limits. Further discussion on performance testing can be found in section V.D of this preamble.
The EPA is proposing several performance testing and monitoring provisions amendments to the current 2003 CISWI Federal Plan that are consistent with the requirements of the final CISWI EG. The following paragraphs list a number of testing and monitoring requirements in the final CISWI EG that are being proposed in the CISWI Federal Plan.
The proposed federal plan requires all CISWI units to demonstrate initial and continuous compliance with the final CISWI EG emission limits. These provisions require initial and annual performance tests and initial and annual inspections of scrubbers, fabric filters (FF), and other air pollution control devices that are used to meet the emission limits. In addition, a Method 22 (40 CFR part 60, appendix A-7) visible emissions test of the ash handling operations is required during the initial and annual compliance test for all subcategories except waste-burning kilns, which do not have ash handling systems. Furthermore, for any CISWI unit that operates a FF air pollution control device, we are requiring that a bag leak detection system be installed to monitor the device. The proposed federal plan continues to require parametric monitoring of all other add-on air pollution control devices, such as wet scrubbers, dry scrubbers and activated carbon injection (ACI). CISWI units that install selective non-catalytic reduction technology to reduce NO
The proposed federal plan incorporates by reference three alternatives to the EPA reference test methods as shown in Table 6 below.
These tests are discussed further in section IX.I of this preamble, titled “National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) and 1 CFR part 51.”
The EPA is proposing that owners and operators of CISWI units are required to submit electronic copies of certain required performance test reports through the EPA's Central Data Exchange (CDX) using the Compliance and Emissions Data Reporting Interface (CEDRI). This mirrors the final CISWI EG for CISWI units. The EPA believes that the electronic submittal of the reports addressed in this proposed rulemaking will increase the usefulness of the data contained in those reports, is in keeping with current trends in data availability, will further assist in the protection of public health and the environment and will ultimately result in less burden on the regulated community. It also will improve compliance by facilitating the ability of regulated facilities to demonstrate compliance and the ability of air agencies and the EPA to assess and determine compliance. Under current requirements, paper reports are often stored in filing cabinets or boxes, which make the reports more difficult to obtain and use for data analysis and sharing. Electronic storage of such reports would make data more accessible for review, analyses, and sharing. Electronic reporting can also eliminate paper-based, manual processes, thereby saving time and resources, simplifying data entry, eliminating redundancies, minimizing data reporting errors and providing data quickly and accurately to the affected facilities, air agencies, the EPA and the public.
In 2011, in response to Executive Order 13563, the EPA developed a plan
The EPA Web site that stores the submitted electronic data, WebFIRE, will be easily accessible to everyone and will provide a user-friendly interface that any stakeholder could access. By making data readily available, electronic reporting increases the amount of data that can be used for many purposes. One example is the development of emissions factors. An emissions factor is a representative value that attempts to relate the quantity of a pollutant released to the atmosphere with an activity associated with the release of that pollutant (
The EPA has received feedback from stakeholders asserting that many of the EPA's emissions factors are outdated or not representative of a particular industry emission source. While the EPA believes that the emissions factors are suitable for their intended purpose, we recognize that the quality of emissions factors varies based on the extent and quality of underlying data. We also recognize that emissions profiles on different pieces of equipment can change over time due to a number of factors (fuel changes, equipment improvements, industry work practices), and it is important for emissions factors to be updated to keep up with these changes. The EPA is currently pursuing emissions factor development improvements that include procedures to incorporate the source test data that we are proposing be submitted electronically. By requiring the electronic submission of the reports identified in this proposed action, the EPA would be able to access and use the submitted data to update emissions factors more quickly and efficiently, creating factors that are characteristic of what is currently representative of the relevant industry sector. Likewise, an increase in the number of test reports used to develop the emissions factors will provide more confidence that the factor is of higher quality and representative of the whole industry sector.
Additionally, by making the records, data, and reports addressed in this proposed rulemaking readily available, the EPA, the regulated community, and the public will benefit when the EPA conducts its CAA-required technology and risk-based reviews. As a result of having performance test reports and air emission reports readily accessible, our ability to carry out comprehensive reviews will be increased and achieved within a shorter period of time. These data will provide useful information on control efficiencies being achieved and maintained in practice within a source
Under an electronic reporting system, the EPA's Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards (OAQPS) would have air emissions and performance test data in hand; OAQPS would not have to collect these data from the EPA Regional offices or from delegated air agencies or industry sources in cases where these reports are not submitted to the EPA Regional offices. Thus, we anticipate fewer or less substantial information collection requests (ICRs) in conjunction with prospective CAA-required technology and risk-based reviews may be needed. We expect this to result in a decrease in time spent by industry to respond to data collection requests. We also expect the ICRs to contain less extensive stack testing provisions, as we will already have stack test data electronically. Reduced testing requirements would be a cost savings to industry. The EPA should also be able to conduct these required reviews more quickly, as OAQPS will not have to include the ICR collection time in the process or spend time collecting reports from the EPA Regional Offices. While the regulated community may benefit from a reduced burden of ICRs, the general public benefits from the agency's ability to provide these required reviews more quickly, resulting in increased public health and environmental protection.
Electronic reporting could minimize submission of unnecessary or duplicative reports in cases where facilities report to multiple government agencies and the agencies opt to rely on the EPA's electronic reporting system to view report submissions. Where air agencies continue to require a paper copy of these reports and will accept a hard copy of the electronic report, facilities will have the option to print paper copies of the electronic reporting forms to submit to the air agencies, and, thus, minimize the time spent reporting to multiple agencies. Additionally, maintenance and storage costs associated with retaining paper records could likewise be minimized by replacing those records with electronic records of electronically submitted data and reports.
Air agencies could benefit from more streamlined and automated review of the electronically submitted data. For example, because the performance test data would be readily-available in a standard electronic format, air agencies would be able to review reports and data electronically rather than having to conduct a review of the reports and data manually. Having reports and associated data in electronic format will facilitate review through the use of software “search” options, as well as the downloading and analyzing of data in spreadsheet format. Additionally, air agencies would benefit from the reported data being accessible to them through the EPA's electronic reporting system wherever and whenever they want or need access (as long as they have access to the Internet). The ability to access and review air emission report information electronically will assist air agencies to more quickly and accurately determine compliance with the applicable regulations, potentially allowing a faster response to violations which could minimize harmful air emissions. This benefits both air agencies and the general public.
The proposed electronic reporting of data is consistent with electronic data trends (
The EPA is proposing requirements that reflect those finalized in the final CISWI EG. The federal plan requires that records of all initial and all subsequent stack or performance specification (PS) tests, deviation reports, operating parameter data, continuous monitoring data, maintenance and inspections of air pollution control devices, monitoring plan, and operator training and qualification must be maintained for 5 years. The results of the stack tests and PS test and values for operating parameters are required to be included in initial and subsequent compliance reports. Any incident of deviation, resumed operation following shutdown, force majeure, intent to stop or start use of Continuous Regulatory Systems (CMS), and intent of conducting or rescheduling a performance test are required to be reported to the Administrator. Furthermore, final compliance reports are required following the completion of each requirement and identifying any missed requirement.
As discussed in several portions of this preamble, we are proposing requirements for the federal plan to make it consistent with the final CISWI EG. While many of these requirements were significantly different from those currently in the CISWI Federal Plan, there are some that differ very little, if at all. Some requirements that differ little from those in the current CISWI Federal Plan include the requirements for owners or operators of existing CISWI units to meet operator training and qualification requirements, which include: Ensuring that at least one operator or supervisor per facility complete the operator training course, that qualified operator(s) or supervisor(s) complete an annual review or refresher course specified in the regulation, and that they maintain plant-specific information, updated annually, regarding training.
Another such requirement is that owners or operators of existing CISWI units are required to submit a monitoring plan for any CMS or bag leak detection system used to comply with the rule.
The proposed federal plan establishes that if owners or operators plan to permanently close currently operating CISWI units, they must do so and submit a closure notification to the Administrator by August 7, 2017. The proposed requirements for closing a CISWI unit will be set forth at 40 CFR 62.14570, subpart III. Conversely, the CISWI requirements do apply to a “mothballed unit” or inactive unit, where a unit does not operate, but it is not rendered inoperable. Until such time as a unit is permanently closed, it must comply with any applicable requirements of the federal plan. In addition, while still in operation, the CISWI unit is subject to the same requirements for title V operating permits that apply to units that will continue to operate.
The federal plan provides that in cases where a CISWI unit has already shut down permanently and has been rendered inoperable (
The unit inventory for this federal plan includes any CISWI unit known to have already shut down (but not known to be inoperable).
If the owner or operator of an inactive CISWI unit plans to restart before the final compliance date, the owner or operator must achieve final compliance by February 7, 2018.
Under the proposed federal plan, if the owner or operator of a CISWI unit closes the CISWI unit, but restarts the unit after the final compliance date of February 7, 2018, the owner or operator must complete emission control retrofits and meet the emissions and operating limits on the date the CISWI unit restarts operation. Within 6 months of the unit startup, operator(s) of these CISWI units would have to complete the operator training and qualification requirements. Within 60 days of installing an air pollution control device, operator(s) must conduct a unit inspection. Performance testing to demonstrate initial compliance would also be required as described at 40 CFR 62.14650. A CISWI unit may not use the provisions to close the CISWI unit and restart after the compliance date to gain an effective “extension” of the operator training and qualification requirements or initial compliance requirements. A CISWI unit that operates out of compliance after the final compliance date would be in violation of the federal plan and subject to enforcement action.
Under sections 111(d) and 129(b) of the CAA, the EPA is required to adopt EG that are applicable to existing solid waste incineration units. These EG are implemented when the EPA approves a state plan or adopts a federal plan that implements and enforces the EG. As discussed above, the federal plan regulates CISWI units in states that do not have approved plans in effect to implement the EG.
Congress has determined that the primary responsibility for air pollution prevention and control rests with state and local agencies. (
The preferred outcome under the statute and the regulations results when the state, tribal, and local agencies implement the EPA approved state (or tribal) plan because state, tribal, and local agencies not only have the responsibility to implement the final CISWI EG, but also have the practical knowledge and enforcement resources critical to achieving the highest rate of compliance. In cases where states are unable to develop and submit approvable state plans, it is still preferable for the state and local agencies to be the implementing agency. For these reasons, the EPA will do all that it can to expedite delegation of the federal plan to state, tribal, and local agencies, whenever possible, in cases where states are unable to develop and submit approvable state plans. The EPA will also continue to review and approve state plans after promulgation of the CISWI Federal Plan.
There are two mechanisms for transferring implementation authority to state, tribal, and local agencies: (1) The EPA approval of a state plan after the federal plan is in effect; and (2) if a state does not submit or obtain approval of its own plan, the EPA delegation to a state, tribe, or local agency with the authority to implement certain portions of this federal plan to the extent appropriate and if allowed by state law. Both of these options are described in more detail below.
After CISWI units in a state become subject to the federal plan, the state or tribal agency may still adopt and submit a state or tribal plan to the EPA. If the EPA determines that the state or tribal plan is as protective as the final CISWI EG, the EPA will approve the state or tribal plan. If the EPA determines that the plan is not as protective as the final CISWI EG, the EPA may approve the portions of the plan that are consistent with the final CISWI EG. If a state or tribal plan is approved in part, the federal plan will apply to the affected CISWI units in lieu of the disapproved portions of the state plan until the state or tribe addresses the deficiencies in the state plan and the revised state plan is approved by the EPA. Prior to any disapproval, the EPA will work with states and tribes to attempt to reconcile areas of the plan that remain inconsistent with the EG.
Upon the effective date of a state or tribal plan, the federal plan would no longer apply to CISWI units covered by such a plan and the state, tribe, territory, or local agency would implement and enforce the state plan in lieu of the federal plan. When an EPA regional office approves a state or tribal plan, it will amend the appropriate subpart of 40 CFR part 62 to indicate such approval.
The EPA, in its discretion, may delegate to state, tribe, territorial, or local agencies the authority to implement this federal plan. As discussed above, the EPA has concluded that it is advantageous and the best use of resources for states, tribes, territories, or local agencies to agree to undertake, on the EPA's behalf, administrative and substantive roles in implementing the federal plan to the extent appropriate and where authorized by federal, state, tribal, territorial, or local law. If a state, tribe, territory, or local agency requests delegation, the EPA will generally delegate the entire federal plan to the state, tribe, territory, or local agency. These functions include administration and oversight of compliance, and reporting and recordkeeping requirements, CISWI unit inspections and preparation of draft notices of violation, but will not include any authorities retained by the EPA. Agencies that have taken delegation, as well as the EPA, will have responsibility for bringing enforcement actions against sources violating federal plan provisions.
The EPA Regional Administrators have been delegated the authority for implementing the CISWI Federal Plan.
If a state, tribe, territory, or local agency intends to take delegation of the federal plan, the state, tribe, territory, or local agency should submit to the appropriate EPA regional office a written request for delegation of authority. The state, tribe, territory, or local agency should explain how it meets the criteria for delegation.
If authority is not delegated to a state, tribe, territory, or local agency, the EPA will implement the federal plan. Also, if a state, tribe, territory, or local agency fails to properly implement a delegated portion of the federal plan, the EPA will assume direct implementation and enforcement of that portion. The EPA will continue to hold enforcement authority along with the state, tribe, territory, or local agency even when the agency has received delegation of the federal plan. In all cases where the federal plan is delegated, the EPA will retain and will not transfer authority to a state, tribe, or local agency to approve the following items promulgated in the final CISWI EG:
1. Approval of alternatives to the emission limitations in table 5 of this document and operating limits established under 40 CFR 62.14635 and 62.14640;
2. Approval of major alternatives to test methods;
3. Approval of major alternatives to monitoring;
4. Approval of major alternatives to recordkeeping and reporting;
5. [Reserved];
6. The requirements in § 62.14640;
7. The requirements in § 62.14625(b)(2);
8. Approval of alternative opacity emission limits in § 62.14630 under § 60.11(e)(6) through (8);
9. Performance test and data reduction waivers under § 60.8(b)(4) and (5);
10. Determination of whether a qualifying small power production facility or cogeneration facility under § 62.14525(e) or (f) is combusting homogenous waste; and
11. Approval of an alternative to any electronic reporting to the EPA required by this subpart.
CISWI unit owners or operators who wish to petition the agency for any alternative requirement should submit a request to the Regional Administrator with a copy sent to the appropriate state.
All existing CISWI units regulated under state, tribal, or federal plans implementing the final CISWI EG must operate in a manner consistent with a title V operating permit that assures compliance with all federally applicable requirements for any regulated CISWI units, including all applicable CAA section 129 requirements.
The permit application deadline for a CAA section 129 source applying for a title V operating permit depends on when the source first becomes subject to the relevant title V permit program. Because existing major sources are subject to title V,
For any existing CISWI unit not subject to an earlier permit application deadline, the application deadline of February 7, 2016, which is in the past, applies regardless of whether or when any applicable federal plan is effective, or whether or when any applicable CAA sections 111(d)/129 plan is approved by the EPA and becomes effective. (
For more background information on the interface between CAA section 129 and title V, including the EPA's interpretation of CAA section 129(e),
As noted previously, issuance of a title V permit is not equivalent to the approval of a state or tribal plan or delegation of a federal plan.
As mentioned above, a state, local, or tribal agency may have the authority under state, local, or tribal law to incorporate CAA section 111/129 requirements into its title V permits, and implement and enforce these requirements in that context without first taking delegation of the CAA section 111/129 federal plan.
However, if a state or tribe can provide an Attorney General's (AG) opinion delineating its authority to incorporate CAA section 111/129 requirements into its title V permits, and then implement and enforce these requirements through its title V permits without first taking delegation of the requirements, then a state, local, or tribal agency does not need to take delegation of the CAA section 111/129 requirements for purposes of title V permitting.
In addition, if a permitting authority chooses to rely on an AG's opinion and not take delegation of a federal plan, a CAA section 111/129 source subject to the federal plan in that state must simultaneously submit to both the EPA and the state, local government, or tribe all reports required by the standard to be submitted to the EPA. Given that these reports are necessary to implement and enforce the CAA section 111/129 requirements when they have been included in title V permits, the permitting authority needs to receive these reports at the same time as the EPA.
In the situation where a permitting authority chooses to rely on an AG's opinion and not take delegation of a federal plan, the EPA regional offices will be responsible for implementing and enforcing CAA section 111/129 requirements outside of any title V permits. Moreover, in this situation, the EPA regional offices will continue to be responsible for developing progress reports and conducting any other administrative functions required under this federal plan or any other CAA section 111/129 federal plan.
It is important to note that the EPA is not using its authority under 40 CFR part 70.4(i)(3) to request that all states, local governments, and tribes that do not take delegation of this federal plan submit supplemental AG's opinions at this time. However, the EPA regional offices shall request, and permitting authorities shall provide, such opinions when the EPA questions a state's or tribe's authority to incorporate CAA section 111/129 requirements into a title V permit and implement and enforce these requirements in that context without delegation.
Additional information about these statutes and Executive Orders can be found at
This action is not a significant regulatory action and was, therefore, not submitted to the Office of Management and Budget for review.
This action does not impose an information collection burden under the PRA. This action simply proposes the CISWI Federal Plan to implement the EG adopted on February 7, 2013,
I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. In making this determination, the impact of concern is any significant adverse economic impact on small entities. An agency may certify that a rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities if the rule relieves regulatory burden, has no net burden, or otherwise has a positive economic effect on the small entities subject to the rule. EG for owners of existing CISWI units were established by the February 7, 2013, final rule (78 FR 9112), and that rule was certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This action establishes a federal plan to implement and enforce those requirements in those states that do not have their own EPA-approved state plan for implementing and enforcing the requirements. We have, therefore, concluded that this action will have no net regulatory burden for all directly regulated small entities.
This action does not contain an unfunded mandate of $100 million or more as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. The action imposes no enforceable duty or any state, local, or tribal government or the private sector.
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the
This action does not have tribal implications as specified in Executive Order 13175. The EPA is not aware of any CISWI units owned or operated by Indian tribal governments. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this action.
The EPA interprets Executive Order 13045 as applying only to those regulatory actions that concern environmental health or safety risks that the EPA has reason to believe may disproportionately affect children, per the definition of “covered regulatory action” in section 2-202 of the Executive Order. This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it does not concern an environmental health risk or safety risk.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211 because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Orders 12866.
This action involves technical standards. Please reference Table 6 of this preamble for the locations where these standards are available. The EPA has decided to use ANSI/ASME PTC 19.10-1981, “Flue and Exhaust Gas Analyses,” for its manual methods of measuring the oxygen or carbon dioxide content of the exhaust gas. These parts of ASME PTC 19.10-1981 are acceptable alternatives to EPA Methods 6 and 7 for the manual procedures only. The EPA determined that this standard is reasonably available because it is available for purchase. Another voluntary consensus standards (VCS), ASTM D6784-02 (Reapproved 2008), “Standard Test Method for Elemental, Oxidized, Particle-Bound and Total Mercury Gas Generated from Coal-Fired Stationary Sources (Ontario Hydro Method)” for its manual method of measuring mercury is an acceptable alternative to Method 29 and 30B. The EPA determined that this standard is reasonably available because it is available for purchase. The EPA further determined to use OAQPS Fabric Filter Bag Leak Detection Guidance, EPA-454/R-98-015, September 1997, for its guidance on the use of tiboelectic monitors as bag leak detectors for a fabric filter air pollution control device and monitoring system decriptions, selection, installation, set up, adjustment, operation, and quality assurance procedures. The EPA determined that this standard is reasonably available because it is freely available from the EPA. Lastly, the EPA decided to use EPA Methods 5, 6, 6C, 7, 7E, 9, 10, l0A, l0B, 22, 23, 26A, 29, and 30B. No VCS were found for EPA Methods 9 and 22.
While the EPA has identified 23 VCS as being potentially applicable to the rule, we have decided not to use these VCS in this rulemaking. The use of these VCS would be impractical because they do not meet the objectives of the standards cited in this rule.
Under 40 CFR 62.14838, the EPA Administrator retains the authority of approving alternate methods of demonstrating compliance as established under 40 CFR 60.8(b) and 40 CFR 60.13(i), subpart A (NSPS General Provisions). A source may apply to the EPA for permission to use alternative test methods or alternative monitoring requirements in place of any required EPA test methods, performance specifications, or procedures.
The EPA believes that this action does
The documentation for this decision is contained in this preamble section, as well as the final CISWI EG discussion for Executive Order 12898 (78 FR 9178, February 7, 2013). This proposed federal plan implements the final CISWI EG for states that do not have an approved state plan implementing the final CISWI EG. As discussed in the preamble to the 2013 CISWI rule, the final CISWI EG will not have disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority or low-income populations because it increases the level of environmental protection for all affected populations without having any disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on any population, including any minority or low-income population. The amendments finalized in 2013 (made to the 2011 CISWI final rule) do not relax the control measures on sources regulated by the CISWI rule, and, therefore, will not cause emissions increases from these sources. The March 2011 final CISWI rule will reduce emissions of all the listed hazardous air pollutants (HAP) emitted from this source. This proposed federal plan implements national standards in the final CISWI EG that would result in reduction in emissions of many of the listed HAP emitted from this source. This includes emissions of Cd, HCl, Pb, and Hg. Other emissions reductions include reductions of criteria pollutants such as CO, NO
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, Title 40, chapter I, part 62 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) is proposed to be amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401,
(a) This subpart establishes emission requirements and compliance schedules for the control of emissions from commercial and industrial solid waste incineration (CISWI) units that are not covered, or are only partially covered, by an EPA approved and currently effective state or tribal plan. The pollutants addressed by these emission requirements are listed in Table 1 and Tables 5 through 8 of this subpart. These emission requirements are developed in accordance with sections 111 and 129 of the Clean Air Act and subpart B of 40 CFR part 60.
(b) In this subpart, “you” means the owner or operator of a CISWI unit.
This subpart contains the eleven major components listed in paragraphs (a) through (k) of this section.
(a) [Reserved].
(b) Waste management plan.
(c) Operator training and qualification.
(d) Emission limitations and operating limits.
(e) Performance testing.
(f) Initial compliance requirements.
(g) Continuous compliance requirements.
(h) Monitoring.
(i) Recordkeeping and reporting.
(j) Definitions.
(k) Tables.
(a) You are subject to this subpart if you own or operate a CISWI unit as defined in § 62.14840 or an air curtain incinerator as defined in § 62.14840 and the CISWI unit or air curtain incinerator meets the criteria described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(3) of this section.
(1) Construction of your CISWI unit or air curtain incinerator commenced on or before June 4, 2010, or commenced modification or reconstruction after June 4, 2010 but no later than August 7, 2013.
(2) Your CISWI unit is not exempt under § 62.14525.
(3) Your CISWI unit is not regulated by an EPA approved and currently effective state or tribal plan, or your CISWI unit is located in any state whose approved state or tribal plan is only approved in part. In the case of a state or tribal program that is approved in part, the federal plan applies to affected CISWI units in lieu of the disapproved portions of the state or tribal program until the state or tribe plan addresses the deficiencies and the revised plan is approved by the EPA.
(b) If changes to the CISWI unit are made after August 7, 2013 that meet the definition of modification or reconstruction, your CISWI unit is subject to subpart CCCC of 40 CFR part 60 and this subpart no longer applies to that unit.
(c) If you make physical or operational changes to your existing CISWI unit primarily to comply with this subpart, then such changes do not qualify as modifications or reconstructions under subpart CCCC of 40 CFR part 60.
(a) If your CISWI unit is located in a state that does not have an EPA-approved state plan or your state's plan has not become effective, this subpart applies to your CISWI unit until the EPA approves a state plan that covers your CISWI unit and that state plan becomes effective. However, a state may enforce the requirements of a state regulation while your CISWI unit is still subject to this subpart.
(b) After the EPA fully approves a state plan covering your CISWI unit, and after that state plan becomes effective, you will no longer be subject to this subpart and will only be subject to the approved and effective state plan. If the state or tribal plan are only approved in part, you will remain subject to the federal plan to the extent necessary to address the deficiencies in the disapproved portions of the state or tribal plan.
This part (40 CFR part 62) contains a list of state and tribal areas with approved Clean Air Act section 111(d) and section 129 plans along with the effective dates for such plans. The list is published annually. If this part does not indicate that your state or tribal area has an approved and effective plan, you should contact your state environmental agency's air director or your EPA Regional Office to determine if the EPA has approved a state plan covering your unit since publication of the most recent version of this subpart.
Any CISWI unit that meets the applicability criteria in § 62.14510 is required to comply with the applicable emissions guidelines even if the source is not listed in the federal plan or otherwise applicable state or tribal plan inventory. CISWI units subject to this subpart are not limited to the inventory of sources listed in Docket EPA-HQ-OAR-2016-0664 for the federal plan. If your CISWI units meets the applicability criteria in § 62.14510, this subpart applies to you whether or not your unit is listed in the federal plan inventory in the docket.
This subpart exempts 8 types of units, described in paragraphs (a) and (c) through (o) of this section, from complying with the requirements of this subpart with the exception of the requirements specified in this section.
(a)
(1) Notify the Administrator that the unit meets these criteria.
(2) Keep records on a calendar quarter basis of the weight of pathological waste, low-level radioactive waste, and/or chemotherapeutic waste burned, and the weight of all other fuels and wastes burned in the unit.
(b) [Reserved]
(c)
(d)
(e)
(1) The unit qualifies as a small power-production facility under section 3(17)(C) of the Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C. 796(17)(C)).
(2) The unit burns homogeneous waste (not including refuse-derived fuel) to produce electricity.
(3) You submit documentation to the Administrator notifying the Agency that the qualifying small power production facility is combusting homogenous waste.
(4) You must maintain the records specified in § 62.14700(v).
(f)
(1) The unit qualifies as a cogeneration facility under section
(2) The unit burns homogeneous waste (not including refuse-derived fuel) to produce electricity and steam or other forms of energy used for industrial, commercial, heating, or cooling purposes.
(3) You submit documentation to the Administrator notifying the Agency that the qualifying cogeneration facility is combusting homogenous waste.
(4) You maintain the records specified in § 62.14700(w).
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j) [Reserved]
(k) [Reserved]
(l) [Reserved]
(m)
(n)
(o)
If you plan to continue operation of your CISWI unit, then you must follow the requirements in paragraph (a) of this section.
(a) If you plan to continue operation and come into compliance with the requirements of this subpart by February 7, 2018, then you must complete the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(5) of this section.
(1) You must comply with the operator training and qualification requirements and inspection requirements (if applicable) of this subpart by February 7, 2018.
(2) You must submit a waste management plan no later than November 7, 2017
(3) You must achieve final compliance by February 7, 2018. To achieve final compliance, you must incorporate all process changes and complete retrofit construction of control devices, so that, if the affected CISWI unit is brought online, all necessary process changes and air pollution control devices would operate as designed.
(4) You must conduct the initial performance test within 90 days after the date when you are required to achieve final compliance under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
(5) You must submit an initial report including the results of the initial performance test no later than 60 days following the initial performance test (
(b) [Reserved]
If you plan to permanently close your CISWI unit rather than comply with the federal plan, you must submit a legally binding closure agreement, to the Administrator no later than six months prior to your operation will cease. The closure agreement must specify the date by which operation will cease. The closure date cannot be later than February 7, 2018 for sources that will not operate on or after the compliance date.
If you close your CISWI unit but will restart it after February 7, 2018, you must complete emission control retrofits and meet the emission limitations and operating limits on the date your unit restarts operation.
A waste management plan is a written plan that identifies both the feasibility and the methods used to reduce or separate certain components of solid waste from the waste stream in order to reduce or eliminate toxic emissions from incinerated waste.
You must submit a waste management plan no later than November 7, 2017 or six months prior to commencing or recommencing burning solid waste, whichever is later.
A waste management plan must include consideration of the reduction or separation of waste-stream elements such as paper, cardboard, plastics, glass, batteries, or metals; or the use of recyclable materials. The plan must identify any additional waste management measures, and the source must implement those measures considered practical and feasible, based on the effectiveness of waste management measures already in place, the costs of additional measures, the emissions reductions expected to be achieved, and any other environmental or energy impacts they might have.
(a) You must have a fully trained and qualified CISWI unit operator accessible at all times when the unit is in operation, either at your facility or able to be at your facility within one hour. The trained and qualified CISWI unit operator may operate the CISWI unit directly or be the direct supervisor of one or more other plant personnel who operate the unit. If all qualified CISWI unit operators are temporarily not accessible, you must follow the procedures in § 62.14625.
(b) Operator training and qualification must be obtained through a State-approved program or by completing the requirements included in paragraph (c) of this section.
(c) Training must be obtained by completing an incinerator operator training course that includes, at a minimum, the three elements described in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section.
(1) Training on the eleven subjects listed in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (xi) of this section.
(i) Environmental concerns, including types of emissions.
(ii) Basic combustion principles, including products of combustion.
(iii) Operation of the specific type of incinerator to be used by the operator, including proper startup, waste charging, and shutdown procedures.
(iv) Combustion controls and monitoring.
(v) Operation of air pollution control equipment and factors affecting performance (where applicable).
(vi) Inspection and maintenance of the incinerator and air pollution control devices.
(vii) Actions to correct malfunctions or conditions that may lead to malfunction.
(viii) Bottom and fly ash characteristics and handling procedures.
(ix) Applicable Federal, State, and local regulations, including Occupational Safety and Health Administration workplace standards.
(x) Pollution prevention.
(xi) Waste management practices.
(2) An examination designed and administered by the instructor.
(3) Written material covering the training course topics that can serve as reference material following completion of the course.
(a) The operator training course must be completed by the later of the three dates specified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) of this section.
(1) February 7, 2018.
(2) Six months after CISWI unit startup; or
(3) Six months after an employee assumes responsibility for operating the CISWI unit or assumes responsibility for supervising the operation of the CISWI unit.
(b) [Reserved].
(a) You must obtain operator qualification by completing a training course that satisfies the criteria under § 62.14595(b).
(b) Qualification is valid from the date on which the training course is completed and the operator successfully passes the examination required under § 62.14595(c)(2).
To maintain qualification, you must complete an annual review or refresher course covering, at a minimum, the five topics described in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section.
(a) Update of regulations.
(b) Incinerator operation, including startup and shutdown procedures, waste charging, and ash handling.
(c) Inspection and maintenance.
(d) Responses to malfunctions or conditions that may lead to malfunction.
(e) Discussion of operating problems encountered by attendees.
You must renew a lapsed operator qualification by one of the two methods specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
(a) For a lapse of less than 3 years, you must complete a standard annual refresher course described in § 62.14610.
(b) For a lapse of 3 years or more, you must repeat the initial qualification requirements in § 62.14605(a).
(a) Documentation must be available at the facility and readily accessible for all CISWI unit operators that addresses the ten topics described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (10) of this section. You must maintain this information and the training records required by paragraph (c) of this section in a manner that they can be readily accessed and are suitable for inspection upon request.
(1) Summary of the applicable standards under this subpart.
(2) Procedures for receiving, handling, and charging waste.
(3) Incinerator startup, shutdown, and malfunction procedures.
(4) Procedures for maintaining proper combustion air supply levels.
(5) Procedures for operating the incinerator and associated air pollution control systems within the standards established under this subpart.
(6) Monitoring procedures for demonstrating compliance with the incinerator operating limits.
(7) Reporting and recordkeeping procedures.
(8) The waste management plan required under §§ 62.14580 through 62.14590.
(9) Procedures for handling ash.
(10) A list of the wastes burned during the performance test.
(b) You must establish a program for reviewing the information listed in paragraph (a) of this section with each employee who operates your incinerator.
(1) The initial review of the information listed in paragraph (a) of this section must be conducted by the later of the three dates specified in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section.
(i) February 7, 2018.
(ii) Six months after CISWI unit startup.
(iii) Six months after being assigned to operate the CISWI unit.
(2) Subsequent annual reviews of the information listed in paragraph (a) of this section must be conducted no later than 12 months following the previous review.
(c) You must also maintain the information specified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section.
(1) Records showing the names of all plant personnel who operate your CISWI unit who have completed review of the information in § 62.14620(a) as required by § 62.14620(b), including the date of the initial review and all subsequent annual reviews.
(2) Records showing the names of all plant personnel who operate your CISWI unit who have completed the operator training requirements under § 62.14595, met the criteria for qualification under § 62.14605, and maintained or renewed their qualification under § 62.14610 or § 62.14615. Records must include documentation of training, the dates of the initial refresher training, and the dates of their qualification and all subsequent renewals of such qualifications.
(3) For each qualified operator, the phone and/or pager number at which they can be reached during operating hours.
If all qualified operators are temporarily not accessible (
(a) When all qualified operators are not accessible for more than 8 hours, but less than 2 weeks, the CISWI unit may be operated by other plant personnel familiar with the operation of the CISWI unit who have completed a review of
(b) When all qualified operators are not accessible for 2 weeks or more, you must take the two actions that are described in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
(1) Notify the Administrator of this deviation in writing within 10 days. In the notice, state what caused this deviation, what you are doing to ensure that a qualified operator is accessible, and when you anticipate that a qualified operator will be accessible.
(2) Submit a status report to the Administrator every 4 weeks outlining what you are doing to ensure that a qualified operator is accessible, stating when you anticipate that a qualified operator will be accessible and requesting approval from the Administrator to continue operation of the CISWI unit. You must submit the first status report 4 weeks after you notify the Administrator of the deviation under paragraph (b)(1) of this section. If the Administrator notifies you that your request to continue operation of the CISWI unit is disapproved, the CISWI unit may continue operation for 90 days, then must cease operation. Operation of the unit may resume if you meet the two requirements in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section.
(i) A qualified operator is accessible as required under § 62.14595(a).
(ii) You notify the Administrator that a qualified operator is accessible and that you are resuming operation.
(a) You must meet the emission limitations for each CISWI unit, including bypass stack or vent, specified in table 1 of this subpart or tables 5 through 8 of this subpart by February 7, 2018. The emission limitations apply at all times the unit is operating including and not limited to startup, shutdown, or malfunction.
(b) Units that do not use wet scrubbers must maintain opacity to less than or equal to the percent opacity (three 1-hour blocks consisting of ten 6-minute average opacity values) specified in table 1 of this subpart, as applicable.
(a) If you use a wet scrubber to comply with the emission limitations, you must establish operating limits for four operating parameters (as specified in table 2 of this subpart) as described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section during the initial performance test.
(1) Maximum charge rate, calculated using one of the two different procedures in paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section, as appropriate.
(i) For continuous and intermittent units, maximum charge rate is 110 percent of the average charge rate measured during the most recent performance test demonstrating compliance with all applicable emission limitations.
(ii) For batch units, maximum charge rate is 110 percent of the daily charge rate measured during the most recent performance test demonstrating compliance with all applicable emission limitations.
(2) Minimum pressure drop across the wet particulate matter scrubber, which is calculated as the lowest 1-hour average pressure drop across the wet scrubber measured during the most recent performance test demonstrating compliance with the particulate matter emission limitations; or minimum amperage to the wet scrubber, which is calculated as the lowest 1-hour average amperage to the wet scrubber measured during the most recent performance test demonstrating compliance with the particulate matter emission limitations.
(3) Minimum scrubber liquor flow rate, which is calculated as the lowest 1-hour average liquor flow rate at the inlet to the wet acid gas or particulate matter scrubber measured during the most recent performance test demonstrating compliance with all applicable emission limitations.
(4) Minimum scrubber liquor pH, which is calculated as the lowest 1-hour average liquor pH at the inlet to the wet acid gas scrubber measured during the most recent performance test demonstrating compliance with the hydrogen chloride emission limitation.
(b) You must meet the operating limits established during the initial performance test on the date the initial performance test is required or completed (whichever is earlier). You must conduct an initial performance evaluation of each continuous monitoring system and continuous parameter monitoring system within 60 days of installation of the monitoring system.
(c) If you use a fabric filter to comply with the emission limitations and you do not use a PM CPMS for monitoring PM compliance, you must operate each fabric filter system such that the bag leak detection system alarm does not sound more than 5 percent of the operating time during any 6-month period. In calculating this operating time percentage, if inspection of the fabric filter demonstrates that no corrective action is required, no alarm time is counted. If corrective action is required, each alarm shall be counted as a minimum of 1 hour. If you take longer than 1 hour to initiate corrective action, the alarm time shall be counted as the actual amount of time taken by you to initiate corrective action.
(d) If you use an electrostatic precipitator to comply with the emission limitations and you do not use a PM CPMS for monitoring PM compliance, you must measure the (secondary) voltage and amperage of the electrostatic precipitator collection plates during the particulate matter performance test. Calculate the average electric power value (secondary voltage x secondary current = secondary electric power) for each test run. The operating limit for the electrostatic precipitator is calculated as the lowest 1-hour average secondary electric power measured during the most recent performance test demonstrating compliance with the particulate matter emission limitations.
(e) If you use activated carbon sorbent injection to comply with the emission limitations, you must measure the sorbent flow rate during the performance testing. The operating limit for the carbon sorbent injection is calculated as the lowest 1-hour average sorbent flow rate measured during the most recent performance test demonstrating compliance with the mercury emission limitations. For energy recovery units, when your unit operates at lower loads, multiply your sorbent injection rate by the load fraction, as defined in this subpart, to determine the required injection rate (
(f) If you use selective noncatalytic reduction to comply with the emission limitations, you must measure the charge rate, the secondary chamber temperature (if applicable to your CISWI unit), and the reagent flow rate during the nitrogen oxides performance testing. The operating limits for the selective noncatalytic reduction are calculated as the highest 1-hour average charge rate, lowest secondary chamber temperature, and lowest reagent flow rate measured during the most recent performance test demonstrating compliance with the nitrogen oxides emission limitations.
(g) If you use a dry scrubber to comply with the emission limitations, you must measure the injection rate of each sorbent during the performance testing. The operating limit for the injection rate of each sorbent is calculated as the lowest 1-hour average injection rate of each sorbent measured during the most recent performance test demonstrating compliance with the hydrogen chloride emission limitations. For energy recovery units, when your unit operates at lower loads, multiply your sorbent injection rate by the load fraction, as defined in this subpart, to determine the required injection rate (
(h) If you do not use a wet scrubber, electrostatic precipitator, or fabric filter to comply with the emission limitations, and if you do not determine compliance with your particulate matter emission limitation with either a particulate matter CEMS or a particulate matter CPMS, you must maintain opacity to less than or equal to ten percent opacity (1-hour block average).
(i) If you use a PM CPMS to demonstrate compliance, you must establish your PM CPMS operating limit and determine compliance with it according to paragraphs (i)(1) through (5) of this section:
(1) During the initial performance test or any subsequent performance test that demonstrates compliance with the PM limit, record all hourly average output values (milliamps, or the digital signal equivalent) from the PM CPMS for the periods corresponding to the test runs (
(i) Your PM CPMS must provide a 4-20 milliamp output, or the digital signal equivalent, and the establishment of its relationship to manual reference method measurements must be determined in units of milliamps or digital bits;
(ii) Your PM CPMS operating range must be capable of reading PM concentrations from zero to a level equivalent to at least two times your allowable emission limit. If your PM CPMS is an auto-ranging instrument capable of multiple scales, the primary range of the instrument must be capable of reading PM concentration from zero to a level equivalent to two times your allowable emission limit; and
(iii) During the initial performance test or any subsequent performance test that demonstrates compliance with the PM limit, record and average all milliamp output values, or their digital equivalent, from the PM CPMS for the periods corresponding to the compliance test runs (
(2) If the average of your three PM performance test runs are below 75 percent of your PM emission limit, you must calculate an operating limit by establishing a relationship of PM CPMS signal to PM concentration using the PM CPMS instrument zero, the average PM CPMS output values corresponding to the three compliance test runs, and the average PM concentration from the Method 5 or performance test with the procedures in (i)(1) through (5) of this section:
(i) Determine your instrument zero output with one of the following procedures:
(A) Zero point data for
(B) Zero point data for extractive instruments should be obtained by removing the extractive probe from the stack and drawing in clean ambient air;
(C) The zero point can also can be established obtained by performing manual reference method measurements when the flue gas is free of PM emissions or contains very low PM concentrations (
(D) If none of the steps in paragraphs (i)(2)(i)(A) through (C) of this section are possible, you must use a zero output value provided by the manufacturer.
(ii) Determine your PM CPMS instrument average in milliamps, or the digital equivalent, and the average of your corresponding three PM compliance test runs, using equation 1:
(iii) With your instrument zero expressed in milliamps, or the digital equivalent, your three run average PM CPMS milliamp value, or its digital equivalent, and your three run average PM concentration from your three compliance tests, determine a relationship of mg/dscm per milliamp or digital signal equivalent, with equation 2:
(iv) Determine your source specific 30-day rolling average operating limit using the mg/dscm per milliamp value, or per digital signal equivalent, from equation 2 in equation 3, below. This sets your operating limit at the PM CPMS output value corresponding to 75 percent of your emission limit:
(3) If the average of your three PM compliance test runs is at or above 75 percent of your PM emission limit you must determine your operating limit by averaging the PM CPMS milliamp or digital signal output corresponding to your three PM performance test runs that demonstrate compliance with the emission limit using equation 4 and you must submit all compliance test and PM CPMS data according to the reporting requirements in paragraph (i)(5) of this section:
(4) To determine continuous compliance, you must record the PM CPMS output data for all periods when the process is operating and the PM CPMS is not out-of-control. You must demonstrate continuous compliance by using all quality-assured hourly average
(5) For PM performance test reports used to set a PM CPMS operating limit, the electronic submission of the test report must also include the make and model of the PM CPMS instrument, serial number of the instrument, analytical principle of the instrument (
If you use an air pollution control device other than a wet scrubber, activated carbon injection, selective noncatalytic reduction, fabric filter, an electrostatic precipitator, or a dry scrubber or limit emissions in some other manner, including mass balances, to comply with the emission limitations under § 62.14630, you must petition the EPA Administrator for specific operating limits to be established during the initial performance test and continuously monitored thereafter. You must submit the petition at least sixty days before the performance test is scheduled to begin. Your petition must include the five items listed in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section.
(a) Identification of the specific parameters you propose to use as additional operating limits.
(b) A discussion of the relationship between these parameters and emissions of regulated pollutants, identifying how emissions of regulated pollutants change with changes in these parameters, and how limits on these parameters will serve to limit emissions of regulated pollutants.
(c) A discussion of how you will establish the upper and/or lower values for these parameters that will establish the operating limits on these parameters.
(d) A discussion identifying the methods you will use to measure and the instruments you will use to monitor these parameters, as well as the relative accuracy and precision of these methods and instruments.
(e) A discussion identifying the frequency and methods for recalibrating the instruments you will use for monitoring these parameters.
(a) All performance tests must consist of a minimum of three test runs conducted under conditions representative of normal operations.
(b) You must document that the waste burned during the performance test is representative of the waste burned under normal operating conditions by maintaining a log of the quantity of waste burned (as required in § 62.14700(b)(1)) and the types of waste burned during the performance test.
(c) All performance tests must be conducted using the minimum run duration specified in tables 1 and 5 through 8 of this subpart.
(d) Method 1 of 40 CFR part 60, appendix A must be used to select the sampling location and number of traverse points.
(e) Method 3A or 3B of 40 CFR part 60, appendix A must be used for gas composition analysis, including measurement of oxygen concentration. Method 3A or 3B of 40 CFR part 60, appendix A must be used simultaneously with each method.
(f) All pollutant concentrations, except for opacity, must be adjusted to 7 percent oxygen using Equation 5 of this section:
(g) You must determine dioxins/furans toxic equivalency by following the procedures in paragraphs (g)(1) through (4) of this section.
(1) Measure the concentration of each dioxin/furan (tetra- through octa-) isomer emitted using EPA Method 23 at 40 CFR part 60, appendix A-7.
(2) Quantify isomers meeting identification criteria 2, 3, 4, and 5 in Section 5.3.2.5 of Method 23, regardless of whether the isomers meet identification criteria 1 and 7. You must quantify the isomers per Section 9.0 of Method 23. [
(3) For each dioxin/furan (tetra- through octa-chlorinated) isomer measured in accordance with paragraph (g)(1) and (2) of this section, multiply the isomer concentration by its corresponding toxic equivalency factor specified in table 3 of this subpart; and
(4) Sum the products calculated in accordance with paragraph (g)(3) of this section to obtain the total concentration of dioxins/furans emitted in terms of toxic equivalency.
(h) Method 22 at 40 CFR part 60, appendix A-7 must be used to determine compliance with the fugitive ash emission limit in table 5, 6, or 8 of this subpart.
(i) If you have an applicable opacity operating limit, you must determine compliance with the opacity limit using Method 9 at 40 CFR part 60, appendix A-4, based on three 1-hour blocks consisting of ten 6-minute average opacity values, unless you are required to install a continuous opacity monitoring system, consistent with §§ 62.14670 and 62.14690.
(j) You must determine dioxins/furans total mass basis by following the procedures in paragraphs (j)(1) through (3) of this section:
(1) Measure the concentration of each dioxin/furan tetra- through octa-chlorinated isomer emitted using EPA Method 23 at 40 CFR part 60, appendix A-7;
(2) Quantify isomers meeting identification criteria 2, 3, 4, and 5 in Section 5.3.2.5 of Method 23, regardless of whether the isomers meet identification criteria 1 and 7. You must quantify the isomers per Section 9.0 of Method 23. (
(3) Sum the quantities measured in accordance with paragraphs (j)(1) and (2) of this section to obtain the total concentration of dioxins/furans emitted in terms of total mass basis.
You use results of performance tests to demonstrate compliance with the emission limitations in Table 1 of this subpart or tables 5 through 8 of this subpart.
You must conduct an initial performance test to determine compliance with the emission limitations in Table 1 of this subpart and tables 5 through 8 of this subpart, to establish compliance with any opacity operating limits in § 62.14635, to establish the kiln-specific emission limit in § 62.14670(y), as applicable, and to establish operating limits using the procedure in § 62.14635 or § 62.14640. The initial performance test must be conducted using the test methods listed in table 1 of this subpart and tables 5 through 8 of this subpart and the procedures in § 62.14650. The use of the bypass stack during a performance test shall invalidate the performance test. You must conduct a performance evaluation of each continuous monitoring system within 60 days of installation of the monitoring system.
(a) The initial performance test must be conducted no later than 180 days after your final compliance date. Your final compliance date is February 7, 2018, or the date you restart your CISWI unit if later than February 7, 2018.
(b) If you commence or recommence combusting a solid waste at an existing combustion unit at any commercial or industrial facility and you conducted a test consistent with the provisions of this subpart while combusting the given solid waste within the 6 months preceding the reintroduction of that solid waste in the combustion chamber, you do not need to retest until 6 months from the date you reintroduce that solid waste.
(c) If you commence or recommence combusting a solid waste at an existing combustion unit at any commercial or industrial facility and you have not conducted a performance test consistent with the provisions of this subpart while combusting the given solid waste within the 6 months preceding the reintroduction of that solid waste in the combustion chamber, you must conduct a performance test within 60 days from the date you reintroduce solid waste.
(a) The initial air pollution control device inspection must be conducted within 60 days after installation of the control device and the associated CISWI unit reaches the charge rate at which it will operate, but no later than 180 days after the final compliance date for meeting the amended emission limitations.
(b) Within 10 operating days following an air pollution control device inspection, all necessary repairs must be completed unless the owner or operator obtains written approval from the state agency establishing a date whereby all necessary repairs of the designated facility must be completed.
(a)
(2) If you cease combusting solid waste you may opt to remain subject to the provisions of this subpart. Consistent with the definition of CISWI unit, you are subject to the requirements of this subpart at least 6 months following the last date of solid waste combustion. Solid waste combustion is ceased when solid waste is not in the combustion chamber (
(3) If you cease combusting solid waste you must be in compliance with any newly applicable standards on the effective date of the waste-to-fuel switch. The effective date of the waste-to-fuel switch is a date selected by you, that must be at least 6 months from the date that you ceased combusting solid waste, consistent with paragraph (a)(2) of this section. Your source must remain in compliance with this subpart until the effective date of the waste-to-fuel switch.
(4) If you own or operate an existing commercial or industrial combustion unit that combusted a fuel or non-waste material, and you commence or recommence combustion of solid waste, you are subject to the provisions of this subpart as of the first day you introduce or reintroduce solid waste to the combustion chamber, and this date constitutes the effective date of the fuel-to-waste switch. You must complete all initial compliance demonstrations for any Section 112 standards that are applicable to your facility before you commence or recommence combustion of solid waste. You must provide 30 days prior notice of the effective date of the waste-to-fuel switch. The notification must identify:
(i) The name of the owner or operator of the CISWI unit, the location of the source, the emissions unit(s) that will cease burning solid waste, and the date of the notice;
(ii) The currently applicable subcategory under this subpart, and any 40 CFR part 63 subpart and subcategory that will be applicable after you cease combusting solid waste;
(iii) The fuel(s), non-waste material(s) and solid waste(s) the CISWI unit is currently combusting and has combusted over the past 6 months, and the fuel(s) or non-waste materials the unit will commence combusting;
(iv) The date on which you became subject to the currently applicable emission limits;
(v) The date upon which you will cease combusting solid waste, and the date (if different) that you intend for any new requirements to become applicable (
(5) All air pollution control equipment necessary for compliance with any newly applicable emissions limits which apply as a result of the cessation or commencement or recommencement of combusting solid waste must be installed and operational as of the effective date of the waste-to-fuel, or fuel-to-waste switch.
(6) All monitoring systems necessary for compliance with any newly applicable monitoring requirements which apply as a result of the cessation or commencement or recommencement of combusting solid waste must be installed and operational as of the effective date of the waste-to-fuel, or fuel-to-waste switch. All calibration and drift checks must be performed as of the effective date of the waste-to-fuel, or fuel-to-waste switch. Relative accuracy tests must be performed as of the performance test deadline for PM CEMS (if PM CEMS are elected to demonstrate continuous compliance with the particulate matter emission limits). Relative accuracy testing for other CEMS need not be repeated if that testing was previously performed consistent with section 112 monitoring requirements or monitoring requirements under this subpart.
(b) You must conduct an annual performance test for the pollutants listed in table 1 of this subpart or tables 5 through 8 of this subpart and opacity for each CISWI unit as required under § 62.14650. The annual performance test must be conducted using the test methods listed in table 1 or tables 5 through 8 of this subpart and the procedures in § 62.14650. Opacity must be measured using EPA Reference Method 9 at 40 CFR part 60. Annual performance tests are not required if you use CEMS or continuous opacity monitoring systems to determine compliance.
(c) You must continuously monitor the operating parameters specified in § 62.14635 or established under § 62.14640. Operation above the established maximum or below the established minimum operating limits constitutes a deviation from the established operating limits. Three-hour block average values are used to determine compliance (except for baghouse leak detection system alarms) unless a different averaging period is established under § 62.14640 or, for energy recovery units, where the averaging time for each operating parameter is a 30-day rolling average, calculated each hour as the average of the previous 720 operating hours over the previous 30 days of operation. Operation above the established maximum, below the established minimum, or outside the allowable range of the operating limits specified in paragraph (a) of this section constitutes a deviation from your operating limits established under this subpart, except during performance tests conducted to determine compliance with the emission and operating limits or to establish new operating limits. Operating limits are confirmed or reestablished during performance tests.
(d) You must burn only the same types of waste and fuels used to establish subcategory applicability (for ERUs) and operating limits during the performance test.
(e) For energy recovery units, incinerators, and small remote units, you must perform annual visual emissions tests for ash handling.
(f) For energy recovery units, you must conduct an annual performance test for opacity using EPA Reference Method 9 at 40 CFR part 60, apppendix A-4 (except where particulate matter continuous monitoring system or continuous parameter monitoring systems are used) and the pollutants listed in table 6 of this subpart.
(g) For facilities using a CEMS to demonstrate compliance with the carbon monoxide emission limit, compliance with the carbon monoxide emission limit may be demonstrated by using the CEMS according to the following requirements:
(1) You must measure emissions according to § 60.13 to calculate 1-hour arithmetic averages, corrected to 7 percent oxygen. CEMS data during startup and shutdown, as defined in this subpart, are not corrected to 7 percent oxygen, and are measured at stack oxygen content. You must demonstrate initial compliance with the carbon monoxide emissions limit using a 30-day rolling average of the 1-hour arithmetic average emission concentrations, including CEMS data during startup and shutdown as defined in this subpart, calculated using equation 19-19 in section 12.4.1 of EPA Reference Method 19 at 40 CFR part 60, appendix A-7.
(2) Operate the carbon monoxide continuous emissions monitoring system in accordance with the applicable requirements of performance specification 4A of appendix B and the quality assurance procedures of appendix F of this part.
(h) Coal and liquid/gas energy recovery units with annual average heat input rates greater than 250 MMBtu/hr may elect to demonstrate continuous compliance with the particulate matter emissions limit using a particulate matter CEMS according to the procedures in § 62.14690(n) instead of the continuous parameter monitoring system specified in § 62.14670(i). Coal and liquid/gas energy recovery units with annual average heat input rates less than 250 MMBtu/hr, incinerators, and small remote incinerators may also elect to demonstrate compliance using a particulate matter CEMS according to the procedures in § 62.14690(n) instead of particulate matter testing with EPA Method 5 at 40 CFR part 60, appendix A-3 and, if applicable, the continuous opacity monitoring requirements in paragraph (i) of this section.
(i) For energy recovery units with annual average heat input rates greater than or equal to 10 MMBTU/hour but less than 250 MMBtu/hr you must install, operate, certify and maintain a continuous opacity monitoring system (COMS) according to the procedures in § 62.14690.
(j) For waste-burning kilns, you must conduct an annual performance test for the pollutants (except mercury and particulate matter, and hydrogen chloride if no acid gas wet scrubber is used) listed in table 7 of this subpart. If you do not use an acid gas wet scrubber or dry scrubber, you must determine compliance with the hydrogen chloride emissions limit according to the requirements in paragraph (j)(1) of this section. You must determine compliance with the mercury emissions limit using a mercury CEMS according to paragraph (j)(2) of this section. You must determine compliance with particulate matter using CPMS:
(1) If you monitor compliance with the HCl emissions limit by operating an HCl CEMS, you must do so in accordance with Performance Specification 15 (PS 15) of appendix B to 40 CFR part 60, or, PS 18 of appendix B to 40 CFR part 60. You must operate, maintain, and quality assure a HCl CEMS installed and certified under PS 15 according to the quality assurance requirements in Procedure 1 of appendix F to 40 CFR part 60 except that the Relative Accuracy Test Audit requirements of Procedure 1 must be replaced with the validation requirements and criteria of sections 11.1.1 and 12.0 of PS 15. You must operate, maintain and quality assure a HCl CEMS installed and certified under PS 18 according to the quality assurance requirements in Procedure 6 of appendix F to 40 CFR part 60. For any performance specification that you use, you must use Method 321 of appendix A to 40 CFR part 63 as the reference test method for conducting relative accuracy testing. The span value and calibration requirements in paragraphs (j)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section apply to all HCl CEMS used under this subpart:
(i) You must use a measurement span value for any HCl CEMS of 0-10 ppmvw unless the monitor is installed on a kiln without an inline raw mill. Kilns without an inline raw mill may use a higher span value sufficient to quantify all expected emissions concentrations. The HCl CEMS data recorder output range must include the full range of expected HCl concentration values which would include those expected during “mill off” conditions. The corresponding data recorder range shall be documented in the site-specific monitoring plan and associated records; and
(ii) In order to quality assure data measured above the span value, you must use one of the three options in paragraphs (j)(1)(ii)(A) through (C) of this section:
(A) Include a second span that encompasses the HCl emission concentrations expected to be encountered during “mill off” conditions. This second span may be rounded to a multiple of 5 ppm of total HCl. The requirements of the appropriate HCl monitor performance specification shall be followed for this second span with the exception that a RATA with the mill off is not required;
(B) Quality assure any data above the span value by proving instrument linearity beyond the span value established in paragraph (j)(1)(i) of this section using the following procedure. Conduct a weekly “above span linearity” calibration challenge of the monitoring system using a reference gas with a certified value greater than your highest expected hourly concentration or greater than 75% of the highest measured hourly concentration. The “above span” reference gas must meet the requirements of the applicable performance specification and must be introduced to the measurement system at the probe. Record and report the results of this procedure as you would for a daily calibration. The “above span linearity” challenge is successful if the value measured by the HCl CEMS falls within 10 percent of the certified value of the reference gas. If the value measured by the HCl CEMS during the above span linearity challenge exceeds 10 percent of the certified value of the reference gas, the monitoring system must be evaluated and repaired and a new “above span linearity” challenge met before returning the HCl CEMS to service, or data above span from the HCl CEMS must be subject to the quality assurance procedures established in (j)(1)(ii)(D) of this section. In this manner values measured by the HCl CEMS during the above span linearity challenge exceeding +/-20 percent of the certified value of the reference gas must be normalized using equation 6;
(C) Quality assure any data above the span value established in paragraph (j)(1)(i) of this section using the following procedure. Any time two consecutive one-hour average measured concentration of HCl exceeds the span value you must, within 24 hours before or after, introduce a higher, “above span” HCl reference gas standard to the HCl CEMS. The “above span” reference gas must meet the requirements of the applicable performance specification and target a concentration level between 50 and 150 percent of the highest expected hourly concentration measured during the period of measurements above span, and must be introduced at the probe. While this target represents a desired concentration range that is not always achievable in practice, it is expected that the intent to meet this range is demonstrated by the value of the reference gas. Expected values may include above span calibrations done before or after the above-span measurement period. Record and report the results of this procedure as you would for a daily calibration. The “above span” calibration is successful if the value measured by the HCl CEMS is within 20 percent of the certified value of the reference gas. If the value measured by the HCl CEMS is not within 20 percent of the certified value of the reference gas, then you must normalize the stack gas values measured above span as described in paragraph (j)(1)(ii)(D) of this section. If the “above span” calibration is conducted during the period when measured emissions are above span and there is a failure to collect the one data point in an hour due to the calibration duration, then you must determine the emissions average for that missed hour as the average of hourly averages for the hour preceding the missed hour and the hour following the missed hour. In an hour where an “above span” calibration is being conducted and one or more data points are collected, the emissions average is represented by the average of all valid data points collected in that hour; and
(D) In the event that the “above span” calibration is not successful (
Only one “above span” calibration is needed per 24-hour period.
(2) Compliance with the mercury emissions limit must be determined using a mercury CEMS according to the following requirements:
(i) You must operate a CEMS in accordance with performance specification 12A at 40 CFR part 60, appendix B or a sorbent trap based integrated monitor in accordance with performance specification 12B at 40 CFR part 60, appendix B. The duration of the performance test must be a calendar month. For each calendar month in which the waste-burning kiln operates, hourly mercury concentration data and stack gas volumetric flow rate data must be obtained. You must demonstrate compliance with the mercury emissions limit using a 30-day rolling average of these 1-hour mercury concentrations, including CEMS data during startup and shutdown as defined in this subpart, calculated using equation 19-19 in section 12.4.1 of EPA Reference Method 19 at 40 CFR part 60, appendix A-7. CEMS data during startup and shutdown, as defined in this subpart, are not corrected to 7 percent oxygen, and are measured at stack oxygen content;
(ii) Owners or operators using a mercury continuous emissions monitoring systems must install, operate, calibrate and maintain an instrument for continuously measuring and recording the mercury mass emissions rate to the atmosphere according to the requirements of performance specifications 6 and 12A at 40 CFR part 60, appendix B and quality assurance procedure 5 at 40 CFR part 60, appendix F; and
(iii) The owner or operator of a waste-burning kiln must demonstrate initial compliance by operating a mercury CEMS while the raw mill of the in-line kiln/raw mill is operating under normal conditions and including at least one period when the raw mill is off.
(k) If you use an air pollution control device to meet the emission limitations in this subpart, you must conduct an initial and annual inspection of the air pollution control device. The inspection must include, at a minimum, the following:
(1) Inspect air pollution control device(s) for proper operation; and
(2) Develop a site-specific monitoring plan according to the requirements in paragraph (l) of this section. This requirement also applies to you if you petition the EPA Administrator for alternative monitoring parameters under § 60.13(i).
(l) For each CMS required in this section, you must develop and submit to the EPA Administrator for approval a site-specific monitoring plan according to the requirements of this paragraph (l) that addresses paragraphs (l)(1)(i) through (vi) of this section:
(1) You must submit this site-specific monitoring plan at least 60 days before your initial performance evaluation of your continuous monitoring system:
(i) Installation of the continuous monitoring system sampling probe or other interface at a measurement location relative to each affected process unit such that the measurement is representative of control of the exhaust
(ii) Performance and equipment specifications for the sample interface, the pollutant concentration or parametric signal analyzer and the data collection and reduction systems;
(iii) Performance evaluation procedures and acceptance criteria (
(iv) Ongoing operation and maintenance procedures in accordance with the general requirements of § 60.11(d);
(v) Ongoing data quality assurance procedures in accordance with the general requirements of § 60.13; and
(vi) Ongoing recordkeeping and reporting procedures in accordance with the general requirements of § 60.7(b), (c), (c)(1), (c)(4), (d), (e), (f) and (g).
(2) You must conduct a performance evaluation of each continuous monitoring system in accordance with your site-specific monitoring plan.
(3) You must operate and maintain the continuous monitoring system in continuous operation according to the site-specific monitoring plan.
(m) If you have an operating limit that requires the use of a flow monitoring system, you must meet the requirements in paragraphs (l) and (m)(1) through (4) of this section:
(1) Install the flow sensor and other necessary equipment in a position that provides a representative flow;
(2) Use a flow sensor with a measurement sensitivity at full scale of no greater than 2 percent;
(3) Minimize the effects of swirling flow or abnormal velocity distributions due to upstream and downstream disturbances; and
(4) Conduct a flow monitoring system performance evaluation in accordance with your monitoring plan at the time of each performance test but no less frequently than annually.
(n) If you have an operating limit that requires the use of a pressure monitoring system, you must meet the requirements in paragraphs (l) and (n)(1) through (6) of this section:
(1) Install the pressure sensor(s) in a position that provides a representative measurement of the pressure (
(2) Minimize or eliminate pulsating pressure, vibration, and internal and external corrosion;
(3) Use a pressure sensor with a minimum tolerance of 1.27 centimeters of water or a minimum tolerance of 1 percent of the pressure monitoring system operating range, whichever is less;
(4) Perform checks at the frequency outlined in your site-specific monitoring plan to ensure pressure measurements are not obstructed (
(5) Conduct a performance evaluation of the pressure monitoring system in accordance with your monitoring plan at the time of each performance test but no less frequently than annually; and
(6) If at any time the measured pressure exceeds the manufacturer's specified maximum operating pressure range, conduct a performance evaluation of the pressure monitoring system in accordance with your monitoring plan and confirm that the pressure monitoring system continues to meet the performance requirements in your monitoring plan. Alternatively, install and verify the operation of a new pressure sensor.
(o) If you have an operating limit that requires a pH monitoring system, you must meet the requirements in paragraphs (l) and (o)(1) through (4) of this section:
(1) Install the pH sensor in a position that provides a representative measurement of scrubber effluent pH;
(2) Ensure the sample is properly mixed and representative of the fluid to be measured;
(3) Conduct a performance evaluation of the pH monitoring system in accordance with your monitoring plan at least once each process operating day; and
(4) Conduct a performance evaluation (including a two-point calibration with one of the two buffer solutions having a pH within 1 of the pH of the operating limit) of the pH monitoring system in accordance with your monitoring plan at the time of each performance test but no less frequently than quarterly.
(p) If you have an operating limit that requires a secondary electric power monitoring system for an electrostatic precipitator, you must meet the requirements in paragraphs (l) and (p)(1) and (2) of this section:
(1) Install sensors to measure (secondary) voltage and current to the precipitator collection plates; and
(2) Conduct a performance evaluation of the electric power monitoring system in accordance with your monitoring plan at the time of each performance test but no less frequently than annually.
(q) If you have an operating limit that requires the use of a monitoring system to measure sorbent injection rate (
(1) Install the system in a position(s) that provides a representative measurement of the total sorbent injection rate; and
(2) Conduct a performance evaluation of the sorbent injection rate monitoring system in accordance with your monitoring plan at the time of each performance test but no less frequently than annually.
(r) If you elect to use a fabric filter bag leak detection system to comply with the requirements of this subpart, you must install, calibrate, maintain, and continuously operate a bag leak detection system as specified in paragraphs (l) and (r)(1) through (5) of this section:
(1) Install a bag leak detection sensor(s) in a position(s) that will be representative of the relative or absolute particulate matter loadings for each exhaust stack, roof vent, or compartment (
(2) Use a bag leak detection system certified by the manufacturer to be capable of detecting particulate matter emissions at concentrations of 10 milligrams per actual cubic meter or less;
(3) Conduct a performance evaluation of the bag leak detection system in accordance with your monitoring plan and consistent with the guidance provided in “Fabric Filter Bag Leak Detection Guidance,” (EPA-454/R-98-015, September 1997). This document is available from the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (U.S. EPA); Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards; Sector Policies and Programs Division; Measurement Policy Group (D-243-02), Research Triangle Park, NC 27711. This document is also available on the Technology Transfer Network under Emissions Measurement Center Continuous Emissions Monitoring;
(4) Use a bag leak detection system equipped with a device to continuously record the output signal from the sensor; and
(5) Use a bag leak detection system equipped with a system that will sound an alarm when an increase in relative particulate matter emissions over a preset level is detected. The alarm must be located where it is observed readily by plant operating personnel.
(s) For facilities using a CEMS to demonstrate compliance with the sulfur dioxide emission limit, compliance with the sulfur dioxide emission limit may be demonstrated by using the CEMS specified in § 62.14690 to measure sulfur dioxide. CEMS data during startup and shutdown, as defined in this subpart, are not corrected to 7 percent oxygen, and are measured at stack oxygen content. You must calculate a 30-day rolling average of the 1-hour
(1) During each relative accuracy test run of the CEMS required by performance specification 2 in appendix B of 40 CFR part 60, collect sulfur dioxide and oxygen (or carbon dioxide) data concurrently (or within a 30- to 60-minute period) with both the CEMS and the test methods specified in paragraphs (s)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section:
(i) For sulfur dioxide, EPA Reference Method 6 or 6C, or as an alternative ANSI/ASME PTC 19.10-1981, Flue and Exhaust Gas Analyses [Part 10, Instruments and Apparatus] must be used (
(ii) For oxygen (or carbon dioxide), EPA Reference Method 3A or 3B, or as an alternative ANSI/ASME PTC 19.10-1981, Flue and Exhaust Gas Analyses [Part 10, Instruments and Apparatus], as applicable, must be used (
(2) The span value of the CEMS at the inlet to the sulfur dioxide control device must be 125 percent of the maximum estimated hourly potential sulfur dioxide emissions of the unit subject to this rule. The span value of the CEMS at the outlet of the sulfur dioxide control device must be 50 percent of the maximum estimated hourly potential sulfur dioxide emissions of the unit subject to this rule.
(3) Conduct accuracy determinations quarterly and calibration drift tests daily in accordance with procedure 1 in appendix F of 40 CFR part 60.
(t) For facilities using a CEMS to demonstrate continuous compliance with the nitrogen oxides emission limit, compliance with the nitrogen oxides emission limit may be demonstrated by using the CEMS specified in § 62.14690 to measure nitrogen oxides. CEMS data during startup and shutdown, as defined in this subpart, are not corrected to 7 percent oxygen, and are measured at stack oxygen content. You must calculate a 30-day rolling average of the 1-hour arithmetic average emission concentration using equation 19-19 in section 12.4.1 of EPA Reference Method 19 at 40 CFR part 60, appendix A-7. The nitrogen oxides CEMS must be operated according to performance specification 2 in appendix B of 40 CFR part 60 and must follow the procedures and methods specified in paragraphs (t)(1) through (4) of this section:
(1) During each relative accuracy test run of the CEMS required by performance specification 2 of appendix B of 40 CFR part 60, collect nitrogen oxides and oxygen (or carbon dioxide) data concurrently (or within a 30- to 60-minute period) with both the CEMS and the test methods specified in paragraphs (t)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section:
(i) For nitrogen oxides, EPA Reference Method 7 or 7E at 40 CFR part 60, appendix A-4 must be used; and
(ii) For oxygen (or carbon dioxide), EPA Reference Method 3A or 3B, or as an alternative ANSI/ASME PTC 19.10-1981, Flue and Exhaust Gas Analyses [Part 10, Instruments and Apparatus], as applicable, must be used (
(2) The span value of the CEMS must be 125 percent of the maximum estimated hourly potential nitrogen oxide emissions of unit.
(3) Conduct accuracy determinations quarterly and calibration drift tests daily in accordance with procedure 1 in appendix F of 40 CFR part 60.
(4) The owner or operator of an affected facility may request that compliance with the nitrogen oxides emission limit be determined using carbon dioxide measurements corrected to an equivalent of 7 percent oxygen. If carbon dioxide is selected for use in diluent corrections, the relationship between oxygen and carbon dioxide levels must be established during the initial performance test according to the procedures and methods specified in paragraphs (t)(4)(i) through (iv) of this section. This relationship may be reestablished during performance compliance tests:
(i) The fuel factor equation in Method 3B must be used to determine the relationship between oxygen and carbon dioxide at a sampling location. Method 3A, 3B, or as an alternative ANSI/ASME PTC 19.10-1981, Flue and Exhaust Gas Analyses [Part 10, Instruments and Apparatus], as applicable, must be used to determine the oxygen concentration at the same location as the carbon dioxide monitor (
(ii) Samples must be taken for at least 30 minutes in each hour;
(iii) Each sample must represent a 1-hour average; and
(iv) A minimum of 3 runs must be performed.
(u) For facilities using a continuous emissions monitoring system to demonstrate continuous compliance with any of the emission limits of this subpart, you must complete the following:
(1) Demonstrate compliance with the appropriate emission limit(s) using a 30-day rolling average of 1-hour arithmetic average emission concentrations, including CEMS data during startup and shutdown, as defined in this subpart, calculated using equation 19-19 in section 12.4.1 of EPA Reference Method 19 at 40 CFR part 60, appendix A-7. CEMS data during startup and shutdown, as defined in this subpart, are not corrected to 7 percent oxygen, and are measured at stack oxygen content; and
(2) Operate all CEMS in accordance with the applicable procedures under appendices B and F of 40 CFR part 60.
(v) Use of the bypass stack at any time is an emissions standards deviation for particulate matter, HCl, Pb, Cd, Hg, NO
(w) For energy recovery units with a design heat input capacity of 100 MMBtu per hour or greater that do not use a carbon monoxide CEMS, you must install, operate, and maintain an oxygen analyzer system as defined in § 62.14840 according to the procedures in paragraphs (w)(1) through (4) of this section:
(1) The oxygen analyzer system must be installed by the initial performance test date specified in § 62.14635;
(2) You must operate the oxygen trim system within compliance with paragraph (w)(3) of this section at all times;
(3) You must maintain the oxygen level such that the 30-day rolling average that is established as the operating limit for oxygen is not below the lowest hourly average oxygen concentration measured during the most recent CO performance test; and
(4) You must calculate and record a 30-day rolling average oxygen concentration using equation 19-19 in section 12.4.1 of EPA Reference Method 19 of Appendix A-7 of 40 CFR part 60.
(x) For energy recovery units with annual average heat input rates greater than or equal to 250 MMBtu/hour and waste-burning kilns, you must install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a PM CPMS and record the output of the
(1) Install, calibrate, operate, and maintain your PM CPMS according to the procedures in your approved site-specific monitoring plan developed in accordance with paragraphs (l) and (x)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section:
(i) The operating principle of the PM CPMS must be based on in-stack or extractive light scatter, light scintillation, beta attenuation, or mass accumulation of the exhaust gas or representative sample. The reportable measurement output from the PM CPMS must be expressed as milliamps or the digital signal equivalent;
(ii) The PM CPMS must have a cycle time (
(iii) The PM CPMS must be capable of detecting and responding to particulate matter concentrations increments no greater than 0.5 mg/actual cubic meter.
(2) During the initial performance test or any such subsequent performance test that demonstrates compliance with the PM limit, you must adjust the site-specific operating limit in accordance with the results of the performance test according to the procedures specified in § 62.14635.
(3) Collect PM CPMS hourly average output data for all energy recovery unit or waste-burning kiln operating hours. Express the PM CPMS output as milliamps or the digital signal equivalent.
(4) Calculate the arithmetic 30-day rolling average of all of the hourly average PM CPMS output collected during all energy recovery unit or waste-burning kiln operating hours data (milliamps or their digital equivalent).
(5) You must collect data using the PM CPMS at all times the energy recovery unit or waste-burning kiln is operating and at the intervals specified in paragraph (x)(1)(ii) of this section, except for periods of monitoring system malfunctions, repairs associated with monitoring system malfunctions, required monitoring system quality assurance or quality control activities (including, as applicable, calibration checks and required zero and span adjustments), and any scheduled maintenance as defined in your site-specific monitoring plan.
(6) You must use all the data collected during all energy recovery unit or waste-burning kiln operating hours in assessing the compliance with your operating limit except:
(i) Any data collected during monitoring system malfunctions, repairs associated with monitoring system malfunctions, or required monitoring system quality assurance or quality control activities conducted during monitoring system malfunctions are not used in calculations (report any such periods in your annual deviation report);
(ii) Any data collected during periods when the monitoring system is out of control as specified in your site-specific monitoring plan, repairs associated with periods when the monitoring system is out of control, or required monitoring system quality assurance or quality control activities conducted during out-of-control periods are not used in calculations (report emissions or operating levels and report any such periods in your annual deviation report);
(iii) Any PM CPMS data recorded during periods of CEMS data during startup and shutdown, as defined in this subpart.
(7) You must record and make available upon request results of PM CPMS system performance audits, as well as the dates and duration of periods from when the PM CPMS is out of control until completion of the corrective actions necessary to return the PM CPMS to operation consistent with your site-specific monitoring plan.
(8) For any deviation of the 30-day rolling average PM CPMS average value from the established operating parameter limit, you must:
(i) Within 48 hours of the deviation, visually inspect the air pollution control device;
(ii) If inspection of the air pollution control device identifies the cause of the deviation, take corrective action as soon as possible and return the PM CPMS measurement to within the established value;
(iii) Within 30 days of the deviation or at the time of the annual compliance test, whichever comes first, conduct a PM emissions compliance test to determine compliance with the PM emissions limit and to verify. Within 45 days of the deviation, you must re-establish the CPMS operating limit. You are not required to conduct additional testing for any deviations that occur between the time of the original deviation and the PM emissions compliance test required under paragraph (x) of this section; and
(iv) PM CPMS deviations leading to more than four required performance tests in a 12-month process operating period (rolling monthly) constitute a violation of this subpart.
(y) When there is an alkali bypass and/or an in-line coal mill that exhaust emissions through a separate stack(s), the combined emissions are subject to the emission limits applicable to waste-burning kilns. To determine the kiln-specific emission limit for demonstrating compliance, you must:
(1) Calculate a kiln-specific emission limit using equation 7:
(2) Particulate matter concentration must be measured downstream of the in-line coal mill. All other pollutant concentrations must be measured either upstream or downstream of the in-line coal mill.
(3) For purposes of determining the combined emissions from kilns equipped with an alkali bypass or that exhaust kiln gases to a coal mill that exhausts through a separate stack, instead of installing a CEMS or PM CPMS on the alkali bypass stack or in-line coal mill stack, the results of the initial and subsequent performance test can be used to demonstrate compliance with the relevant emissions limit. A performance test must be conducted on an annual basis (between 11 and 13 calendar months following the previous performance test).
(z)
(1) American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME), Three Park Avenue, New York, NY 10016-5990 (Phone: 1-800-843-2763; Web site:
(i) ANSI/ASME PTC 19.10-1981, Flue and Exhaust Gas Analyses [Part 10, Instruments and Apparatus].
(ii) [Reserved]
(2) ASTM Int'l, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, Post Office Box C700, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959; or ProQuest, 300 North Zeeb Road, Ann Arbor, MI 48106 (Phone: 1-877-909-2786; Web site:
(i) ASTM D6784-02 (Reapproved 2008) Standard Test Method for Elemental, Oxidized, Particle-Bound and Total Mercury in Flue Gas Generated from Coal-Fired Stationary Sources (Ontario Hydro Method), approved April 1, 2008.
(ii) [Reserved]
(3) U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20460, (202) 272-0167,
(i) OAQPS Fabric Filter Bag Leak Detection Guidance, EPA-454/R-98-015, September 1997.
(ii) [Reserved]
You must conduct annual performance tests between 11 and 13 months of the previous performance test.
On an annual basis (no more than 12 months following the previous annual air pollution control device inspection), you must complete the air pollution control device inspection as described in § 62.14666.
(a) You must conduct annual performance tests according to the schedule specified in § 62.14675, with the following exceptions:
(1) You may conduct a repeat performance test at any time to establish new values for the operating limits to apply from that point forward, as specified in § 62.14685. The Administrator may request a repeat performance test at any time;
(2) You must repeat the performance test within 60 days of a process change, as defined in § 62.14840; and
(3) If the initial or any subsequent performance test for any pollutant in table 1 or tables 5 through 8 of this subpart, as applicable, demonstrates that the emission level for the pollutant is no greater than the emission level specified in paragraph (a)(3)(i) or (a)(3)(ii) of this section, as applicable, and you are not required to conduct a performance test for the pollutant in response to a request by the Administrator in paragraph (a)(1) of this section or a process change in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, you may elect to skip conducting a performance test for the pollutant for the next 2 years. You must conduct a performance test for the pollutant during the third year and no more than 37 months following the previous performance test for the pollutant. For cadmium and lead, both cadmium and lead must be emitted at emission levels no greater than their respective emission levels specified in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section for you to qualify for less frequent testing under paragraph (a) of this section:
(i) For particulate matter, hydrogen chloride, mercury, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, sulfur dioxide, cadmium, lead, and dioxins/furans, the emission level equal to 75 percent of the applicable emission limit in table 1 or tables 5 through 8 of this subpart, as applicable, to this subpart; and
(ii) For fugitive emissions, visible emissions (of combustion ash from the ash conveying system) for 2 percent of the time during each of the three 1-hour observation periods.
(4) If you are conducting less frequent testing for a pollutant as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this section and a subsequent performance test for the pollutant indicates that your CISWI unit does not meet the emission level specified in paragraph (a)(3)(i) or (a)(3)(ii) of this section, as applicable, you must conduct annual performance tests for the pollutant according to the schedule specified in paragraph (a) of this section until you qualify for less frequent testing for the pollutant as specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
(b) [Reserved].
(a) Yes. You may conduct a repeat performance test at any time to establish new values for the operating limits. The Administrator may request a repeat performance test at any time.
(b) You must repeat the performance test if your feed stream is different than the feed streams used during any performance test used to demonstrate compliance.
(a) If you are using a wet scrubber to comply with the emission limitation under § 62.14630, you must install, calibrate (to manufacturers' specifications), maintain, and operate devices (or establish methods) for monitoring the value of the operating parameters used to determine compliance with the operating limits listed in table 2 of this subpart. These devices (or methods) must measure and record the values for these operating parameters at the frequencies indicated in table 2 of this subpart at all times except as specified in § 62.14695(a).
(b) If you use a fabric filter to comply with the requirements of this subpart and you do not use a PM CPMS for monitoring PM compliance, you must install, calibrate, maintain, and continuously operate a bag leak detection system as specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (8) of this section.
(1) You must install and operate a bag leak detection system for each exhaust stack of the fabric filter.
(2) Each bag leak detection system must be installed, operated, calibrated, and maintained in a manner consistent with the manufacturer's written specifications and recommendations.
(3) The bag leak detection system must be certified by the manufacturer to be capable of detecting particulate matter emissions at concentrations of 10 milligrams per actual cubic meter or less.
(4) The bag leak detection system sensor must provide output of relative or absolute particulate matter loadings.
(5) The bag leak detection system must be equipped with a device to continuously record the output signal from the sensor.
(6) The bag leak detection system must be equipped with an alarm system
(7) For positive pressure fabric filter systems, a bag leak detection system must be installed in each baghouse compartment or cell. For negative pressure or induced air fabric filters, the bag leak detector must be installed downstream of the fabric filter.
(8) Where multiple detectors are required, the system's instrumentation and alarm may be shared among detectors.
(c) If you are using something other than a wet scrubber, activated carbon, selective non-catalytic reduction, an electrostatic precipitator, or a dry scrubber to comply with the emission limitations under § 62.14630, you must install, calibrate (to the manufacturers' specifications), maintain, and operate the equipment necessary to monitor compliance with the site-specific operating limits established using the procedures in § 62.14640.
(d) If you use activated carbon injection to comply with the emission limitations in this subpart, you must measure the minimum sorbent flow rate once per hour.
(e) If you use selective noncatalytic reduction to comply with the emission limitations, you must complete the following:
(1) Following the date on which the initial performance test is completed or is required to be completed under § 62.14650, whichever date comes first, ensure that the affected facility does not operate above the maximum charge rate, or below the minimum secondary chamber temperature (if applicable to your CISWI unit) or the minimum reagent flow rate measured as 3-hour block averages at all times; and
(2) Operation of the affected facility above the maximum charge rate, below the minimum secondary chamber temperature and below the minimum reagent flow rate simultaneously constitute a violation of the nitrogen oxides emissions limit.
(f) If you use an electrostatic precipitator to comply with the emission limits of this subpart and you do not use a PM CPMS for monitoring PM compliance, you must monitor the secondary power to the electrostatic precipitator collection plates and maintain the 3-hour block averages at or above the operating limits established during the mercury or particulate matter performance test.
(g) For waste-burning kilns not equipped with a wet scrubber or dry scrubber, in place of hydrogen chloride testing with EPA Method 321 at 40 CFR part 63, appendix A, an owner or operator must install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a CEMS for monitoring hydrogen chloride emissions, as specified in § 62.14670(j) of this subpart, discharged to the atmosphere and record the output of the system. To demonstrate continuous compliance with the hydrogen chloride emissions limit for units other than waste-burning kilns not equipped with a wet scrubber or dry scrubber, a facility may substitute use of a hydrogen chloride CEMS for conducting the hydrogen chloride annual performance test, monitoring the minimum hydrogen chloride sorbent flow rate, monitoring the minimum scrubber liquor pH.
(h) To demonstrate continuous compliance with the particulate matter emissions limit, a facility may substitute use of either a particulate matter CEMS or a particulate matter CPMS for conducting the particulate matter annual performance test and other CMS monitoring for PM compliance (
(i) To demonstrate continuous compliance with the dioxin/furan emissions limit, a facility may substitute use of a continuous automated sampling system for the dioxin/furan annual performance test. You must record the output of the system and analyze the sample according to EPA Method 23 at 40 CFR part 60, appendix A-7. This option to use a continuous automated sampling system takes effect on the date a final performance specification applicable to dioxin/furan from continuous monitors is published in the
(j) To demonstrate continuous compliance with the mercury emissions limit, a facility may substitute use of a continuous automated sampling system for the mercury annual performance test. You must record the output of the system and analyze the sample at set intervals using any suitable determinative technique that can meet performance specification 12B criteria. This option to use a continuous automated sampling system takes effect on the date a final performance specification applicable to mercury from monitors is published in the
(k) To demonstrate continuous compliance with the nitrogen oxides emissions limit, a facility may substitute use of a CEMS for the nitrogen oxides annual performance test to demonstrate compliance with the nitrogen oxides emissions limits and monitoring the charge rate, secondary chamber temperature and reagent flow for selective noncatalytic reduction, if applicable:
(1) Install, calibrate, maintain and operate a CEMS for measuring nitrogen oxides emissions discharged to the atmosphere and record the output of the system. The requirements under performance specification 2 of appendix B of 40 CFR part 60, the quality assurance procedure 1 of appendix F of 40 CFR part 60 and the procedures under § 60.13 must be followed for installation, evaluation and operation of the CEMS; and
(2) Following the date that the initial performance test for nitrogen oxides is completed or is required to be completed under § 62.14650, compliance with the emission limit for nitrogen oxides required under § 60.52b(d) must be determined based on the 30-day rolling average of the hourly emission concentrations using CEMS outlet data. The 1-hour arithmetic averages must be expressed in parts per million by volume corrected to 7 percent oxygen (dry basis) and used to calculate the 30-day rolling average concentrations. CEMS data during startup and shutdown, as defined in this subpart, are not corrected to 7 percent oxygen, and are measured at stack
(l) To demonstrate continuous compliance with the sulfur dioxide emissions limit, a facility may substitute use of a continuous automated sampling system for the sulfur dioxide annual performance test to demonstrate compliance with the sulfur dioxide emissions limits:
(1) Install, calibrate, maintain and operate a CEMS for measuring sulfur dioxide emissions discharged to the atmosphere and record the output of the system. The requirements under performance specification 2 of appendix B of 40 CFR part 60, the quality assurance requirements of procedure 1 of appendix F of 40 CFR part 60 and the procedures under § 60.13 must be followed for installation, evaluation and operation of the CEMS; and
(2) Following the date that the initial performance test for sulfur dioxide is completed or is required to be completed under § 62.14650, compliance with the sulfur dioxide emission limit may be determined based on the 30-day rolling average of the hourly arithmetic average emission concentrations using CEMS outlet data. The 1-hour arithmetic averages must be expressed in parts per million corrected to 7 percent oxygen (dry basis) and used to calculate the 30-day rolling average emission concentrations. CEMS data during startup and shutdown, as defined in this subpart, are not corrected to 7 percent oxygen, and are measured at stack oxygen content. The 1-hour arithmetic averages must be calculated using the data points required under § 60.13(e)(2).
(m) For energy recovery units over 10 MMBtu/hr but less than 250 MMBtu/hr annual average heat input rates that do not use a wet scrubber, fabric filter with bag leak detection system, or particulate matter CEMS, you must install, operate, certify and maintain a continuous opacity monitoring system according to the procedures in paragraphs (m)(1) through (5) of this section by the compliance date specified in § 62.14630. Energy recovery units that use a particulate matter CEMS to demonstrate initial and continuing compliance according to the procedures in § 62.14690(n) are not required to install a continuous opacity monitoring system and must perform the annual performance tests for opacity consistent with § 62.14670(f):
(1) Install, operate and maintain each continuous opacity monitoring system according to performance specification 1 at 40 CFR part 60, appendix B;
(2) Conduct a performance evaluation of each continuous opacity monitoring system according to the requirements in § 60.13 and according to performance specification 1 at 40 CFR part 60, appendix B;
(3) As specified in § 60.13(e)(1), each continuous opacity monitoring system must complete a minimum of one cycle of sampling and analyzing for each successive 10-second period and one cycle of data recording for each successive 6-minute period;
(4) Reduce the continuous opacity monitoring system data as specified in § 60.13(h)(1); and
(5) Determine and record all the 6-minute averages (and 1-hour block averages as applicable) collected.
(n) For coal and liquid/gas energy recovery units, incinerators, and small remote incinerators, an owner or operator may elect to install, calibrate, maintain and operate a CEMS for monitoring particulate matter emissions discharged to the atmosphere and record the output of the system. The owner or operator of an affected facility who continuously monitors particulate matter emissions instead of conducting performance testing using EPA Method 5 at 40 CFR part 60, appendix A-3 or, as applicable, monitor with a particulate matter CPMS according to paragraph (r) of this section, must install, calibrate, maintain and operate a CEMS and must comply with the requirements specified in paragraphs (n)(1) through (13) of this section:
(1) Notify the Administrator 1 month before starting use of the system;
(2) Notify the Administrator 1 month before stopping use of the system;
(3) The monitor must be installed, evaluated and operated in accordance with the requirements of performance specification 11 of appendix B of 40 CFR part 60 and quality assurance requirements of procedure 2 of appendix F of 40 CFR part 60 and § 60.13;
(4) The initial performance evaluation must be completed no later than 180 days after the final compliance date for meeting the amended emission limitations, as specified under § 62.14650 or within 180 days of notification to the Administrator of use of the continuous monitoring system if the owner or operator was previously determining compliance by Method 5 at 40 CFR part 60, appendix A-3 performance tests, whichever is later;
(5) The owner or operator of an affected facility may request that compliance with the particulate matter emission limit be determined using carbon dioxide measurements corrected to an equivalent of 7 percent oxygen. The relationship between oxygen and carbon dioxide levels for the affected facility must be established according to the procedures and methods specified in § 62.14670(t)(4)(i) through (iv);
(6) The owner or operator of an affected facility must conduct an initial performance test for particulate matter emissions as required under § 62.14650. Compliance with the particulate matter emission limit, if PM CEMS are elected for demonstrating compliance, must be determined by using the CEMS specified in paragraph (n) of this section to measure particulate matter. You must calculate a 30-day rolling average of 1-hour arithmetic average emission concentrations, including CEMS data during startup and shutdown, as defined in this subpart, using equation 19-19 in section 12.4.1 of EPA Reference Method 19 at 40 CFR part 60, appendix A-7;
(7) Compliance with the particulate matter emission limit must be determined based on the 30-day rolling average calculated using equation 19-19 in section 12.4.1 of EPA Reference Method 19 at 40 CFR part 60, Appendix A-7 of the part from the 1-hour arithmetic average of the CEMS outlet data;
(8) At a minimum, valid continuous monitoring system hourly averages must be obtained as specified § 62.14695;
(9) The 1-hour arithmetic averages required under paragraph (n)(7) of this section must be expressed in milligrams per dry standard cubic meter corrected to 7 percent oxygen (or carbon dioxide) (dry basis) and must be used to calculate the 30-day rolling average emission concentrations. CEMS data during startup and shutdown, as defined in this subpart, are not corrected to 7 percent oxygen, and are measured at stack oxygen content. The 1-hour arithmetic averages must be calculated using the data points required under § 60.13(e)(2);
(10) All valid CEMS data must be used in calculating average emission concentrations even if the minimum CEMS data requirements of paragraph (n)(8) of this section are not met;
(11) The CEMS must be operated according to performance specification 11 in appendix B of 40 CFR part 60;
(12) During each relative accuracy test run of the CEMS required by performance specification 11 in appendix B of 40 CFR part 60, particulate matter and oxygen (or carbon dioxide) data must be collected concurrently (or within a 30- to 60-minute period) by both the CEMS and the following test methods:
(i) For particulate matter, EPA Reference Method 5 at 40 CFR part 60, appendix A-3 must be used; and
(ii) For oxygen (or carbon dioxide), EPA Reference Method 3A or 3B at 40 CFR part 60, appendix A-2, as applicable, must be used.
(13) Quarterly accuracy determinations and daily calibration drift tests must be performed in accordance with procedure 2 in appendix F of 40 CFR part 60.
(o) To demonstrate continuous compliance with the carbon monoxide emissions limit, a facility may substitute use of a continuous automated sampling system for the carbon monoxide annual performance test to demonstrate compliance with the carbon monoxide emissions limits:
(1) Install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a CEMS for measuring carbon monoxide emissions discharged to the atmosphere and record the output of the system. The requirements under performance specification 4B of appendix B of 40 CFR part 60, the quality assurance procedure 1 of appendix F of 40 CFR part 60 and the procedures under § 60.13 must be followed for installation, evaluation, and operation of the CEMS; and
(2) Following the date that the initial performance test for carbon monoxide is completed or is required to be completed under § 62.14650, compliance with the carbon monoxide emission limit may be determined based on the 30-day rolling average of the hourly arithmetic average emission concentrations, including CEMS data during startup and shutdown as defined in this subpart, using CEMS outlet data. Except for CEMS data during startup and shutdown, as defined in this subpart, the 1-hour arithmetic averages must be expressed in parts per million corrected to 7 percent oxygen (dry basis) and used to calculate the 30-day rolling average emission concentrations. CEMS data collected during startup or shutdown, as defined in this subpart, are not corrected to 7 percent oxygen, and are measured at stack oxygen content. The 1-hour arithmetic averages must be calculated using the data points required under § 60.13(e)(2).
(p) The owner/operator of an affected source with a bypass stack shall install, calibrate (to manufacturers' specifications), maintain and operate a device or method for measuring the use of the bypass stack including date, time and duration.
(q) For energy recovery units with a heat input capacity of 100 MMBtu per hour or greater that do not use a carbon monoxide CEMS, you must install, operate and maintain the continuous oxygen monitoring system as defined in § 62.14840 according to the procedures in paragraphs (q)(1) through (4) of this section:
(1) The oxygen analyzer system must be installed by the initial performance test date specified in § 62.14635;
(2) You must operate the oxygen trim system within compliance with paragraph (q)(3) of this section at all times;
(3) You must maintain the oxygen level such that the 30-day rolling average that is established as the operating limit for oxygen according to paragraph (q)(4) of this section is not below the lowest hourly average oxygen concentration measured during the most recent CO performance test; and
(4) You must calculate and record a 30-day rolling average oxygen concentration using equation 19-19 in section 12.4.1 of EPA Reference Method 19 of Appendix A-7.
(r) For energy recovery units with annual average heat input rates greater than or equal to 250 MMBtu/hour and waste-burning kilns, you must install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a PM CPMS and record the output of the system as specified in paragraphs (r)(1) through (8) of this section. For other energy recovery units, you may elect to use PM CPMS operated in accordance with this section. PM CPMS are suitable in lieu of using other CMS for monitoring PM compliance (
(1) Install, calibrate, operate, and maintain your PM CPMS according to the procedures in your approved site-specific monitoring plan developed in accordance with § 62.14670(l) and (r)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section:
(i) The operating principle of the PM CPMS must be based on in-stack or extractive light scatter, light scintillation, beta attenuation, or mass accumulation of the exhaust gas or representative sample. The reportable measurement output from the PM CPMS must be expressed as milliamps or the digital signal equivalent;
(ii) The PM CPMS must have a cycle time (
(iii) The PM CPMS must be capable of detecting and responding to particulate matter concentrations increments no greater than 0.5 mg/actual cubic meter.
(2) During the initial performance test or any such subsequent performance test that demonstrates compliance with the PM limit, you must adjust the site-specific operating limit in accordance with the results of the performance test according to the procedures specified in § 62.14635.
(3) Collect PM CPMS hourly average output data for all energy recovery unit or waste-burning kiln operating hours. Express the PM CPMS output as milliamps or the digital signal equivalent.
(4) Calculate the arithmetic 30-day rolling average of all of the hourly average PM CPMS output collected during all energy recovery unit or waste-burning kiln operating hours data (milliamps or digital bits).
(5) You must collect data using the PM CPMS at all times the energy recovery unit or waste-burning kiln is operating and at the intervals specified in paragraph (r)(1)(ii) of this section, except for periods of monitoring system malfunctions, repairs associated with monitoring system malfunctions, required monitoring system quality assurance or quality control activities (including, as applicable, calibration checks and required zero and span adjustments), and any scheduled maintenance as defined in your site-specific monitoring plan.
(6) You must use all the data collected during all energy recovery unit or waste-burning kiln operating hours in assessing the compliance with your operating limit except:
(i) Any data collected during monitoring system malfunctions, repairs associated with monitoring system malfunctions, or required monitoring system quality assurance or quality control activities conducted during monitoring system malfunctions are not used in calculations (report any such periods in your annual deviation report);
(ii) Any data collected during periods when the monitoring system is out of control as specified in your site-specific monitoring plan, repairs associated with periods when the monitoring system is out of control, or required monitoring system quality assurance or quality control activities conducted during out-of-control periods are not used in calculations (report emissions or operating levels and report any such periods in your annual deviation report); and
(iii) Any PM CPMS data recorded during periods of CEMS data during startup and shutdown, as defined in this subpart.
(7) You must record and make available upon request results of PM CPMS system performance audits, as well as the dates and duration of periods from when the PM CPMS is out of control until completion of the corrective actions necessary to return
(8) For any deviation of the 30-day rolling average PM CPMS average value from the established operating parameter limit, you must:
(i) Within 48 hours of the deviation, visually inspect the air pollution control device;
(ii) If inspection of the air pollution control device identifies the cause of the deviation, take corrective action as soon as possible and return the PM CPMS measurement to within the established value;
(iii) Within 30 days of the deviation or at the time of the annual compliance test, whichever comes first, conduct a PM emissions compliance test to determine compliance with the PM emissions limit and to verify the operation of the emissions control device(s). Within 45 days of the deviation, you must re-establish the CPMS operating limit. You are not required to conduct additional testing for any deviations that occur between the time of the original deviation and the PM emissions compliance test required under this paragraph; and
(iv) PM CPMS deviations leading to more than four required performance tests in a 12-month process operating period (rolling monthly) constitute a violation of this subpart.
(s) If you use a dry scrubber to comply with the emission limits of this subpart, you must monitor the injection rate of each sorbent and maintain the 3-hour block averages at or above the operating limits established during the hydrogen chloride performance test.
For each continuous monitoring system required or optionally allowed under § 62.14690, you must monitor and collect data according to this section:
(a) You must operate the monitoring system and collect data at all required intervals at all times compliance is required except for periods of monitoring system malfunctions or out-of-control periods, repairs associated with monitoring system malfunctions or out-of-control periods (as specified in § 62.14730(o)), and required monitoring system quality assurance or quality control activities including, as applicable, calibration checks and required zero and span adjustments. A monitoring system malfunction is any sudden, infrequent, not reasonably preventable failure of the monitoring system to provide valid data. Monitoring system failures that are caused in part by poor maintenance or careless operation are not malfunctions. You are required to effect monitoring system repairs in response to monitoring system malfunctions or out-of-control periods and to return the monitoring system to operation as expeditiously as practicable.
(b) You may not use data recorded during monitoring system malfunctions, repairs associated with monitoring system malfunctions or out-of-control periods, or required monitoring system quality assurance or control activities in calculations used to report emissions or operating levels. You must use all the data collected during all other periods, including data normalized for above scale readings, in assessing the operation of the control device and associated control system.
(c) Except for periods of monitoring system malfunctions or out-of-control periods, repairs associated with monitoring system malfunctions or out-of-control periods, and required monitoring system quality assurance or quality control activities including, as applicable, calibration checks and required zero and span adjustments, failure to collect required data is a deviation of the monitoring requirements.
You must maintain the items (as applicable) as specified in paragraphs (a), (b), and (e) through (w) of this section for a period of at least 5 years:
(a) Calendar date of each record.
(b) Records of the data described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (6) of this section:
(1) The CISWI unit charge dates, times, weights, and hourly charge rates;
(2) Liquor flow rate to the wet scrubber inlet every 15 minutes of operation, as applicable;
(3) Pressure drop across the wet scrubber system every 15 minutes of operation or amperage to the wet scrubber every 15 minutes of operation, as applicable;
(4) Liquor pH as introduced to the wet scrubber every 15 minutes of operation, as applicable.
(5) For affected CISWI units that establish operating limits for controls other than wet scrubbers under § 62.14640, you must maintain data collected for all operating parameters used to determine compliance with the operating limits. For energy recovery units using activated carbon injection or a dry scrubber, you must also maintain records of the load fraction and corresponding sorbent injection rate records; and
(6) If a fabric filter is used to comply with the emission limitations, you must record the date, time, and duration of each alarm and the time corrective action was initiated and completed, and a brief description of the cause of the alarm and the corrective action taken. You must also record the percent of operating time during each 6-month period that the alarm sounds, calculated as specified in § 62.14635(c).
(c) [Reserved]
(d) [Reserved]
(e) Identification of calendar dates and times for which data show a deviation from the operating limits in table 2 of this subpart or a deviation from other operating limits established under § 62.14635(d) through (g) or § 62.14640 with a description of the deviations, reasons for such deviations, and a description of corrective actions taken.
(f) The results of the initial, annual, and any subsequent performance tests conducted to determine compliance with the emission limits and/or to establish operating limits, as applicable. Retain a copy of the complete test report including calculations.
(g) Records showing the names of CISWI unit operators who have completed review of the information in § 62.14620(a) as required by § 62.14620(b), including the date of the initial review and all subsequent annual reviews.
(h) Records showing the names of the CISWI operators who have completed the operator training requirements under § 62.14595, met the criteria for qualification under § 62.14605, and maintained or renewed their qualification under § 62.14610 or § 62.14615. Records must include documentation of training, the dates of the initial and refresher training, and the dates of their qualification and all subsequent renewals of such qualifications.
(i) For each qualified operator, the phone and/or pager number at which they can be reached during operating hours.
(j) Records of calibration of any monitoring devices as required under § 62.14690.
(k) Equipment vendor specifications and related operation and maintenance requirements for the incinerator, emission controls, and monitoring equipment.
(l) The information listed in § 62.14620(a).
(m) On a daily basis, keep a log of the quantity of waste burned and the types of waste burned (always required).
(n) Maintain records of the annual air pollution control device inspections that are required for each CISWI unit subject to the emissions limits in table
(o) For continuously monitored pollutants or parameters, you must document and keep a record of the following parameters measured using continuous monitoring systems:
(1) All 6-minute average levels of opacity;
(2) All 1-hour average concentrations of sulfur dioxide emissions. You must indicate which data are CEMS data during startup and shutdown;
(3) All 1-hour average concentrations of nitrogen oxides emissions. You must indicate which data are CEMS data during startup and shutdown;
(4) All 1-hour average concentrations of carbon monoxide emissions. You must indicate which data are CEMS data during startup and shutdown;
(5) All 1-hour average concentrations of particulate matter emissions. You must indicate which data are CEMS data during startup and shutdown;
(6) All 1-hour average concentrations of mercury emissions. You must indicate which data are CEMS data during startup and shutdown;
(7) All 1-hour average concentrations of hydrogen chloride emissions. You must indicate which data are CEMS data during startup and shutdown;
(8) All 1-hour average percent oxygen concentrations; and
(9) All 1-hour average PM CPMS readings or particulate matter CEMS outputs.
(p) Records indicating use of the bypass stack, including dates, times and durations.
(q) If you choose to stack test less frequently than annually, consistent with § 62.14680(a) through (c), you must keep annual records that document that your emissions in the previous stack test(s) were less than 75 percent of the applicable emission limit and document that there was no change in source operations including fuel composition and operation of air pollution control equipment that would cause emissions of the relevant pollutant to increase within the past year.
(r) Records of the occurrence and duration of each malfunction of operation (
(s) Records of all required maintenance performed on the air pollution control and monitoring equipment.
(t) Records of actions taken during periods of malfunction to minimize emissions in accordance with § 60.11(d), including corrective actions to restore malfunctioning process and air pollution control and monitoring equipment to its normal or usual manner of operation.
(u) For operating units that combust non-hazardous secondary materials that have been determined not to be solid waste pursuant to § 241.3(b)(1), you must keep a record which documents how the secondary material meets each of the legitimacy criteria under § 241.3(d)(1). If you combust a fuel that has been processed from a discarded non-hazardous secondary material pursuant to § 241.3(b)(4), you must keep records as to how the operations that produced the fuel satisfies the definition of processing in § 241.2 and each of the legitimacy criteria in § 241.3(d)(1) of this chapter. If the fuel received a non-waste determination pursuant to the petition process submitted under § 241.3(c), you must keep a record that documents how the fuel satisfies the requirements of the petition process. For operating units that combust non-hazardous secondary materials as fuel per § 241.4, you must keep records documenting that the material is a listed non-waste under § 241.4(a).
(v) Records of the criteria used to establish that the unit qualifies as a small power production facility under section 3(17)(C) of the Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C. 796(17)(C)) and that the waste material the unit is proposed to burn is homogeneous.
(w) Records of the criteria used to establish that the unit qualifies as a cogeneration facility under section 3(18)(B) of the Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C. 796(18)(B)) and that the waste material the unit is proposed to burn is homogeneous.
All records must be available onsite in either paper copy or computer-readable format that can be printed upon request, unless an alternative format is approved by the Administrator.
You must submit a waste management plan no later than November 7, 2017 or six months prior to the date you commence or recommence burning solid waste, whichever is later.
You must submit the information specified in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section no later than 60 days following the initial performance test. All reports must be signed by the facilities manager:
(a) The complete test report for the initial performance test results obtained under § 62.14660, as applicable;
(b) The values for the site-specific operating limits established in § 62.14635 or § 62.14640; and
(c) If you are using a fabric filter to comply with the emission limitations, documentation that a bag leak detection system has been installed and is being operated, calibrated, and maintained as required by § 62.14690(b).
You must submit an annual report no later than 12 months following the submission of the information in § 62.14720. You must submit subsequent reports no more than 12 months following the previous report. (If the unit is subject to permitting requirements under title V of the Clean Air Act, you may be required by the permit to submit these reports more frequently.)
The annual report required under § 62.14725 must include the ten items listed in paragraphs (a) through (j) of this section. If you have a deviation from the operating limits or the emission limitations, you must also submit deviation reports as specified in §§ 62.14735, 62.14740, and 62.14745.
(a) Company name and address;
(b) Statement by a responsible official, with that official's name, title, and signature, certifying the accuracy of the content of the report;
(c) Date of report and beginning and ending dates of the reporting period.
(d) The values for the operating limits established pursuant to § 62.14635 or § 62.14640.
(e) If no deviation from any emission limitation or operating limit that applies to you has been reported, a statement that there was no deviation from the emission limitations or operating limits during the reporting period.
(f) The highest recorded 3-hour average and the lowest recorded 3-hour average, as applicable, for each operating parameter recorded for the calendar year being reported;
(g) Information recorded under § 62.14700(b)(6) and (c) through (e) for the calendar year being reported.
(h) For each performance test conducted during the reporting period, if any performance test is conducted, the process unit(s) tested, the pollutant(s) tested and the date that such performance test was conducted. Submit, following the procedure specified in § 62.14755(b)(1), the performance test report no later than the date that you submit the annual report;
(i) If you met the requirements of § 62.14680(a) or (b), and did not conduct a performance test during the reporting period, you must state that you met the requirements of § 62.14680(a) or (b), and, therefore, you were not required to conduct a performance test during the reporting period;
(j) Documentation of periods when all qualified CISWI unit operators were unavailable for more than 8 hours, but less than 2 weeks;
(k) If you had a malfunction during the reporting period, the compliance report must include the number, duration, and a brief description for each type of malfunction that occurred during the reporting period and that caused or may have caused any applicable emission limitation to be exceeded. The report must also include a description of actions taken by an owner or operator during a malfunction of an affected source to minimize emissions in accordance with § 60.11(d), including actions taken to correct a malfunction;
(l) For each deviation from an emission or operating limitation that occurs for a CISWI unit for which you are not using a CMS to comply with the emission or operating limitations in this subpart, the annual report must contain the following information:
(1) The total operating time of the CISWI unit at which the deviation occurred during the reporting period; and
(2) Information on the number, duration, and cause of deviations (including unknown cause, if applicable), as applicable, and the corrective action taken.
(m) If there were periods during which the continuous monitoring system, including the CEMS, was out of control as specified in paragraph (o) of this section, the annual report must contain the following information for each deviation from an emission or operating limitation occurring for a CISWI unit for which you are using a continuous monitoring system to comply with the emission and operating limitations in this subpart:
(1) The date and time that each malfunction started and stopped;
(2) The date, time, and duration that each CMS was inoperative, except for zero (low-level) and high-level checks;
(3) The date, time, and duration that each continuous monitoring system was out-of-control, including start and end dates and hours and descriptions of corrective actions taken;
(4) The date and time that each deviation started and stopped, and whether each deviation occurred during a period of malfunction or during another period;
(5) A summary of the total duration of the deviation during the reporting period, and the total duration as a percent of the total source operating time during that reporting period;
(6) A breakdown of the total duration of the deviations during the reporting period into those that are due to control equipment problems, process problems, other known causes, and other unknown causes;
(7) A summary of the total duration of continuous monitoring system downtime during the reporting period, and the total duration of continuous monitoring system downtime as a percent of the total operating time of the CISWI unit at which the continuous monitoring system downtime occurred during that reporting period;
(8) An identification of each parameter and pollutant that was monitored at the CISWI unit;
(9) A brief description of the CISWI unit;
(10) A brief description of the continuous monitoring system;
(11) The date of the latest continuous monitoring system certification or audit; and
(12) A description of any changes in continuous monitoring system, processes, or controls since the last reporting period.
(n) If there were periods during which the continuous monitoring system, including the CEMS, was not out of control as specified in paragraph (o) of this section, a statement that there were not periods during which the continuous monitoring system was out of control during the reporting period.
(o) A continuous monitoring system is out of control if any of the following occur:
(1) The zero (low-level), mid-level (if applicable), or high-level calibration drift exceeds two times the applicable calibration drift specification in the applicable performance specification or in the relevant standard;
(2) The continuous monitoring system fails a performance test audit (
(3) The continuous opacity monitoring system calibration drift exceeds two times the limit in the applicable performance specification in the relevant standard.
(p) For energy recovery units, include the annual heat input and average annual heat input rate of all fuels being burned in the unit to verify which subcategory of energy recovery unit applies.
(a) You must submit a deviation report if any recorded 3-hour average parameter level is above the maximum operating limit or below the minimum operating limit established under this subpart, if the bag leak detection system alarm sounds for more than 5 percent of the operating time for any 6-month reporting period, or if a performance test was conducted that deviated from any emission limitation.
(b) The deviation report must be submitted by August 1 of that year for data collected during the first half of the calendar year (January 1 to June 30), and by February 1 of the following year for data you collected during the second half of the calendar year (July 1 to December 31).
In each report required under § 62.14735, for any pollutant or parameter that deviated from the emission limitations or operating limits specified in this subpart, include the four items described in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section.
(a) The calendar dates and times your unit deviated from the emission limitations or operating limit requirements;
(b) The averaged and recorded data for those dates;
(c) Duration and causes of the following:
(1) Each deviation from the emission limitations or operating limits and your corrective actions; and
(2) Bypass events and your corrective actions.
(d) A copy of the operating limit monitoring data during each deviation and, for any test report that documents the emission levels, the process unit(s) tested, the pollutant(s) tested and the date that the performance test was conducted. Submit, following the procedure specified in § 62.14755(b)(1), the performance test report no later than the date that you submit the deviation report.
(a) If all qualified operators are not accessible for two weeks or more, you must take the two actions in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section.
(1) You must submit a notification of the deviation within 10 days that includes the three items in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section.
(i) A statement of what caused the deviation;
(ii) A description of what you are doing to ensure that a qualified operator is accessible; and
(iii) The date when you anticipate that a qualified operator will be available.
(2) Submit a status report to the Administrator every 4 weeks that includes the three items in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section.
(i) A description of what you are doing to ensure that a qualified operator is accessible;
(ii) The date when you anticipate that a qualified operator will be accessible; and
(iii) Request approval from the Administrator to continue operation of the CISWI unit.
(b) If your unit was shut down by the Administrator, under the provisions of § 62.14625(b)(2), due to a failure to provide an accessible qualified operator, you must notify the Administrator that you are resuming operation once a qualified operator is accessible.
(a) Yes. You must submit notifications as provided by § 60.7.
(b) If you cease combusting solid waste but continue to operate, you must provide 30 days prior notice of the effective date of the waste-to-fuel switch, consistent with § 62.14670(a). The notification must identify:
(1) The name of the owner or operator of the CISWI unit, the location of the source, the emissions unit(s) that will cease burning solid waste, and the date of the notice;
(2) The currently applicable subcategory under this subpart, and any 40 CFR part 63 subpart and subcategory that will be applicable after you cease combusting solid waste;
(3) The fuel(s), non-waste material(s) and solid waste(s) the CISWI unit is currently combusting and has combusted over the past 6 months, and the fuel(s) or non-waste materials the unit will commence combusting;
(4) The date on which you became subject to the currently applicable emission limits; and
(5) The date upon which you will cease combusting solid waste, and the date (if different) that you intend for any new requirements to become applicable (
(a) Submit initial, annual, and deviation reports electronically on or before the submittal due dates. Submit the reports to the EPA via the Compliance and Emissions Data Reporting Interface (CEDRI). (CEDRI can be accessed through the EPA's Central Data Exchange (CDX) (
(b) Submit results of each performance test and CEMS performance evaluation required by this subpart as follows:
(1) Within 60 days after the date of completing each performance test (
(i) For data collected using test methods supported by the EPA's Electronic Reporting Tool (ERT) as listed on the EPA's ERT Web site (
(ii) For data collected using test methods that are not supported by the EPA's ERT as listed on the EPA's ERT Web site at the time of the test, you must submit the results of the performance test to the Administrator at the appropriate address listed in § 60.4.
(2) Within 60 days after the date of completing each continuous emissions monitoring system performance evaluation you must submit the results of the performance evaluation following the procedure specified in either paragraph (c)(1) or (c)(2) of this section:
(i) For performance evaluations of continuous monitoring systems measuring relative accuracy test audit (RATA) pollutants that are supported by the EPA's ERT as listed on the EPA's ERT Web site at the time of the evaluation, you must submit the results of the performance evaluation to the EPA via the CEDRI. (CEDRI can be accessed through the EPA's CDX.) Performance evaluation data must be submitted in a file format generated through the use of the EPA's ERT or an alternate file format consistent with the XML schema listed on the EPA's ERT Web site. If you claim that some of the performance evaluation information being submitted is CBI, you must submit a complete file generated through the use of the EPA's ERT or an alternate electronic file consistent with the XML schema listed on the EPA's ERT Web site, including information claimed to be CBI, on a compact disc, flash drive, or other commonly used electronic storage media to the EPA. The electronic storage media must be clearly marked as CBI and mailed to U.S. EPA/OAQPS/CORE CBI Office, Attention: Group Leader, Measurement Policy Group, MD C404-02, 4930 Old Page Rd., Durham, NC 27703. The same ERT or alternate file with the CBI omitted must be submitted to the EPA via the EPA's CDX as described earlier in this paragraph; and
(ii) For any performance evaluations of continuous monitoring systems
If the Administrator agrees, you may change the semiannual or annual reporting dates.
(a) An air curtain incinerator operates by forcefully projecting a curtain of air across an open chamber or open pit in which combustion occurs. Incinerators of this type can be constructed above or below ground and with or without refractory walls and floor. (Air curtain incinerators are not to be confused with conventional combustion devices with enclosed fireboxes and controlled air technology such as mass burn, modular, and fluidized bed combustors.)
(b) Air curtain incinerators that burn only the materials listed in paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section are only required to meet the requirements under § 62.14830 and under “Air Curtain Incinerators” (§§ 62.14765 through 62.14825):
(1) 100 percent wood waste;
(2) 100 percent clean lumber; and
(3) 100 percent mixture of only wood waste, clean lumber, and/or yard waste.
(a) If you close your incinerator but will reopen it prior to the final compliance date in this subpart, you must comply with the final standards on February 7, 2018.
(b) If you close your incinerator but will restart it after February 7, 2018, you must complete emission control retrofits and meet the emission limitations on the date your incinerator restarts operation.
If you plan to permanently close your incinerator rather than comply with this subpart, submit a closure notification, including the date of closure, to the Administrator no later than six months prior to your operation will cease. The closure date cannot be later than February 7, 2018 for sources that will not operate on and after the compliance date. In addition, while still in operation, your air curtain incinerator is subject to the same requirement to apply for and obtain a title V operating permit that applies to an air curtain incinerator that will not be permanently closing.
After the date the initial test for opacity is required or completed (whichever is earlier), you must meet the limitations in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
(a) Maintain opacity to less than or equal to 10 percent opacity (as determined by the average of three 1-hour blocks consisting of ten 6-minute average opacity values), except as described in paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) Maintain opacity to less than or equal to 35 percent opacity (as determined by the average of three 1-hour blocks consisting of ten 6-minute average opacity values) during the startup period that is within the first 30 minutes of operation.
(a) Use Method 9 of 40 CFR part 60, appendix A to determine compliance with the opacity limitation.
(b) Conduct an initial test for opacity as specified in § 60.8 no later than 180 days after your final compliance date.
(c) After the initial test for opacity, conduct annual tests no more than 12 calendar months following the date of your previous test.
(a) Keep records of results of all initial and annual opacity tests onsite in either paper copy or electronic format, unless the Administrator approves another format, for at least 5 years.
(b) Make all records available for submittal to the Administrator or for an inspector's onsite review.
(c) Submit an initial report no later than 60 days following the initial opacity test that includes the information specified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section.
(1) The types of materials you plan to combust in your air curtain incinerator; and
(2) The results (as determined by the average of three 1-hour blocks consisting of ten 6-minute average opacity values) of the initial opacity tests.
(d) Submit annual opacity test results within 12 months following the previous report.
(e) Submit initial and annual opacity test reports as electronic or paper copy on or before the applicable submittal date and keep a copy onsite for a period of 5 years.
Yes. Each CISWI unit and air curtain incinerator subject to standards under this subpart must operate pursuant to a permit issued under Clean Air Act sections 129(e) and title V.
The following authorities are withheld by the EPA Administrator and not transferred to the State or Tribe:
(a) Approval of alternatives to the emission limitations in tables 1 and 5 through 8 of this subpart and operating limits established under § 62.14635 and table 2 of this subpart.
(b) Approval of petitions submitted pursuant to the requirements of § 62.14640 establishing operating parameters when using controls other than a wet scrubber, fabric filter, activated carbon injection, selective noncatalytic reduction, or a dry scrubber to comply with the emission limitations in tables 1 and 5 through 8 of this subpart.
(c) Approval of major alternatives to test methods established under § 62.14650 and tables 1 and 5 through 8 of this subpart.
(d) Approval of major alternatives to monitoring requirements established under §§ 62.14690, 62.14605 and table 2 of this subpart.
(e) Approval of major alternatives to recordkeeping and reporting requirements of this subpart.
(f) [Reserved]
(g) Approval of requests submitted pursuant to the requirements in § 62.14625(b)(2).
(h) Approval of alternative opacity emission limits in § 62.14630 under § 60.11(e)(6) through (e)(8).
(i) Performance test and data reduction waivers under §§ 62.14650(j), 60.8(b)(4) and (5).
(j) Determination of whether a qualifying small power production facility or cogeneration facility under § 62.14525(e) or (f) is combusting homogeneous waste.
Terms used but not defined in this subpart are defined in the Clean Air Act, subparts A and B of part 60 and subpart A of this part 62.
(1) For incinerators and small remote incinerators: CEMS data collected during the first hours of operation of a CISWI unit startup from a cold start until waste is fed into the unit and the hours of operation following the cessation of waste material being fed to the CISWI unit during a unit shutdown. For each startup event, the length of time that CEMS data may be claimed as being CEMS data during startup must be 48 operating hours or less. For each shutdown event, the length of time that CEMS data may be claimed as being CEMS data during shutdown must be 24 operating hours or less;
(2) For energy recovery units: CEMS data collected during the startup or shutdown periods of operation. Startup begins with either the first-ever firing of fuel in a boiler or process heater for the purpose of supplying useful thermal energy (such as steam or heat) for heating, cooling or process purposes, or producing electricity, or the firing of fuel in a boiler or process heater for any purpose after a shutdown event. Startup ends four hours after when the boiler or process heater makes useful thermal energy (such as heat or steam) for heating, cooling, or process purposes, or generates electricity, whichever is earlier. Shutdown begins when the boiler or process heater no longer makes useful thermal energy (such as heat or steam) for heating, cooling, or process purposes and/or generates electricity or when no fuel is being fed to the boiler or process heater, whichever is earlier. Shutdown ends when the boiler or process heater no longer makes useful thermal energy (such as steam or heat) for heating, cooling, or process purposes and/or generates electricity, and no fuel is being combusted in the boiler or process heater; and
(3) For waste-burning kilns: CEMS data collected during the periods of kiln operation that do not include normal operations. Startup means the time from when a shutdown kiln first begins firing fuel until it begins producing clinker. Startup begins when a shutdown kiln turns on the induced draft fan and begins firing fuel in the main burner. Startup ends when feed is being continuously introduced into the kiln for at least 120 minutes or when the feed rate exceeds 60 percent of the kiln design limitation rate, whichever occurs first. Shutdown means the cessation of kiln operation. Shutdown begins when feed to the kiln is halted and ends when continuous kiln rotation ceases.
(1) Units burning only pulping liquors (
(2) Units burning only spent sulfuric acid used to produce virgin sulfuric acid;
(3) Units burning only wood or coal feedstock for the production of charcoal;
(4) Units burning only manufacturing byproduct streams/residue containing catalyst metals that are reclaimed and reused as catalysts or used to produce commercial grade catalysts;
(5) Units burning only coke to produce purified carbon monoxide that is used as an intermediate in the production of other chemical compounds;
(6) Units burning only hydrocarbon liquids or solids to produce hydrogen, carbon monoxide, synthesis gas, or other gases for use in other manufacturing processes; and
(7) Units burning only photographic film to recover silver.
(1) Fails to meet any requirement or obligation established by this subpart, including but not limited to any emission limitation, operating limit, or operator qualification and accessibility requirements; and
(2) Fails to meet any term or condition that is adopted to implement an applicable requirement in this subpart and that is included in the operating permit for any affected source required to obtain such a permit.
(1) The cumulative cost of the changes over the life of the unit exceeds 50 percent of the original cost of building and installing the CISWI unit (not including the cost of land) updated to current costs (current dollars). To determine what systems are within the boundary of the CISWI unit used to calculate these costs,
(2) Any physical change in the CISWI unit or change in the method of operating it that increases the amount of any air pollutant emitted for which section 129 or section 111 of the Clean Air Act has established standards.
(1) A physical change (maintenance activities excluded) to the CISWI unit which may increase the emission rate of any air pollutant to which a standard applies;
(2) An operational change to the CISWI unit where a new type of non-hazardous secondary material is being combusted;
(3) A physical change (maintenance activities excluded) to the air pollution control devices used to comply with the emission limits for the CISWI unit (
(4) An operational change to the air pollution control devices used to comply with the emission limits for the affected CISWI unit (
(1) The reconstruction begins on or after August 7, 2013; and
(2) The cumulative cost of the construction over the life of the incineration unit exceeds 50 percent of the original cost of building and installing the CISWI unit (not including land) updated to current costs (current dollars). To determine what systems are within the boundary of the CISWI unit used to calculate these costs,
(1) Low-density fluff refuse-derived fuel through densified refuse-derived fuel; and
(2) Pelletized refuse-derived fuel.
(1) For a corporation: A president, secretary, treasurer, or vice-president of the corporation in charge of a principal business function, or any other person who performs similar policy or decision-making functions for the corporation, or a duly authorized representative of such person if the representative is responsible for the overall operation of one or more manufacturing, production, or operating facilities applying for or subject to a permit and either:
(i) The facilities employ more than 250 persons or have gross annual sales or expenditures exceeding $25 million (in second quarter 1980 dollars); or
(ii) The delegation of authority to such representatives is approved in advance by the permitting authority;
(2) For a partnership or sole proprietorship: a general partner or the proprietor, respectively;
(3) For a municipality, state, federal, or other public agency: Either a principal executive officer or ranking elected official. For the purposes of this part, a principal executive officer of a Federal agency includes the chief executive officer having responsibility for the overall operations of a principal geographic unit of the agency (
(4) For affected facilities:
(i) The designated representative in so far as actions, standards, requirements, or prohibitions under Title IV of the Clean Air Act or the regulations promulgated thereunder are concerned; or
(ii) The designated representative for any other purposes under part 60.
(1) Materials recovery facilities (including primary or secondary smelters) which combust waste for the primary purpose of recovering metals;
(2) Qualifying small power production facilities, as defined in section 3(17)(C) of the Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C. 769(17)(C)), or qualifying cogeneration facilities, as defined in section 3(18)(B) of the Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C. 796(18)(B)), which burn homogeneous waste (such as units which burn tires or used oil, but not including refuse-derived fuel) for the production of electric energy or in the case of qualifying cogeneration facilities which burn homogeneous waste for the production of electric energy and steam or forms of useful energy (such as heat) which are used for industrial, commercial, heating or cooling purposes; or
(3) Air curtain incinerators provided that such incinerators only burn wood wastes, yard wastes and clean lumber and that such air curtain incinerators comply with opacity limitations to be established by the Administrator by rule.
(1) Grass, grass clippings, bushes, shrubs, and clippings from bushes and shrubs from residential, commercial/retail, institutional, or industrial sources as part of maintaining yards or other private or public lands;
(2) Construction, renovation, or demolition wastes; or
(3) Clean lumber.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |