Page Range | 43961-44170 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
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83 FR 44169 - Women's Equality Day, 2018 | |
83 FR 44120 - Notice of Intent To Rule on Request To Release Airport Property at the Dallas/Fort Worth International Airport, DFW, Texas | |
83 FR 44101 - Order Making Fiscal Year 2019 Annual Adjustments to Registration Fee Rates | |
83 FR 44123 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Solicitation of Proposal Information for Award of Public Contracts | |
83 FR 44055 - Proposed Information Collection Activity; Comment Request | |
83 FR 44070 - Interim Storage Partner's Waste Control Specialists Consolidated Interim Storage Facility | |
83 FR 44068 - Target Fabrication Portion of the Northwest Medical Isotopes Radioisotope Production Facility | |
83 FR 44119 - Determination Under Section 7012 of the Department of State, Foreign Operations, and Related Programs Appropriations Act, 2018 Relating to Assistance to Somalia | |
83 FR 44044 - General Dynamics Information Technology; Transfer of Data | |
83 FR 44045 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Extension of an Existing Collection (EPA ICR No. 0586.14); Comment Request | |
83 FR 44052 - Information Collection; Claims and Appeals | |
83 FR 44022 - Correction: Notice of Public Meeting of the Ohio Advisory Committee to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights | |
83 FR 44056 - DHL Laboratories Inc.; Proposal To Withdraw Approval of a New Drug Application for Dextrose 5% Injection in Plastic Container; Opportunity for a Hearing | |
83 FR 44052 - Notice of Agreements Filed | |
83 FR 44034 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 44038 - Certification Notice-254; Notice of Filing of Self-Certification of Coal Capability Under the Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act | |
83 FR 44037 - Application to Export Electric Energy; Enel Trading North America, LLC | |
83 FR 44039 - Application To Export Electric Energy; Mercuria Energy America, Inc. | |
83 FR 44029 - Agency Information Collection Activities Under OMB Review | |
83 FR 44038 - Agency Information Collection Extension | |
83 FR 44119 - Rescission of Social Security Ruling 82-53: Titles II and XVI: Basic Disability Evaluation Guides | |
83 FR 44062 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection of eComments Requested; Notification to Fire Safety Authority of Storage of Explosive Materials | |
83 FR 44063 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection of eComments Requested; Application for Explosives License or Permit-ATF F 5400.13/5400.16 | |
83 FR 44032 - Notice of Availability of Software and Documentation for Licensing | |
83 FR 44121 - Notice of Submission of Proposed Information Collection to OMB Agency Request for Renewal of a Previously Approved Information Collection Request: Reports by Air Carriers on Incidents Involving Animals During Air Transport | |
83 FR 44036 - Orders Granting Import/Export Authority Under the Natural Gas Act During July, 2018 | |
83 FR 44035 - Change in Control; Delfin LNG, LLC | |
83 FR 43999 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Pacific Cod by Trawl Catcher Vessels in the Central Regulatory Area of the Gulf of Alaska | |
83 FR 44075 - Senior Executive Service Performance Review Board | |
83 FR 44027 - Multilayered Wood Flooring From the People's Republic of China: Amendment to Notice of Court Decision Not in Harmony With the Second Amended Final Determination and Amendment to Notice of Third Amended Final Determination of the Antidumping Duty Investigation | |
83 FR 44061 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Tribal Reassumption of Jurisdiction Over Child Custody Proceedings | |
83 FR 44035 - Notice of Intent To Prepare Supplement II to the Final Environmental Impact Statement, Mississippi River and Tributaries (MR&T) Project, Mississippi River Mainline Levees and Channel Improvement | |
83 FR 44125 - Agency Information Collection Activity Under OMB Review: Appeal to Board of Veterans' Appeals | |
83 FR 43974 - Alabama Regulatory Program | |
83 FR 44033 - Chief of Engineers Environmental Advisory Board; Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting | |
83 FR 44022 - Information Collection Activity; Comment Request | |
83 FR 43972 - Alabama Regulatory Program | |
83 FR 44040 - Macquarie Energy Trading LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
83 FR 44039 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
83 FR 43985 - Safety Zone; San Francisco Giants Fireworks Display, San Francisco Bay, San Francisco, CA | |
83 FR 44042 - Maritimes & Northeast Pipeline, L.L.C.; Notice of Application | |
83 FR 44042 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
83 FR 44043 - Enable Mississippi River Transmission, LLC; Notice of Technical Conference | |
83 FR 44040 - Goose River Hydro, Inc.; Notice of Scoping Meetings and Environmental Site Review and Soliciting Scoping Comments | |
83 FR 44043 - Edison Electric Institute; Notice of Amendment Filing | |
83 FR 43977 - Ohio Regulatory Program | |
83 FR 44012 - Texas Regulatory Program | |
83 FR 43986 - Election Whether To Participate in the Wireless Emergency Alert System | |
83 FR 44029 - Performance Review Board (PRB) | |
83 FR 44067 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Extension With Change, of a Previously Approved Collection; Sequestered Juror Information Form | |
83 FR 44066 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comments Requested; Request for Registration Under the Gambling Devices Act of 1962 | |
83 FR 44064 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; New Collection: Death in Custody Reporting Act Collection | |
83 FR 44053 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
83 FR 44046 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Final Collection; Comment Request | |
83 FR 44047 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Final Collection; Comment Request | |
83 FR 44048 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Final Collection; Comment Request | |
83 FR 44049 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission | |
83 FR 44048 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission Under Delegated Authority | |
83 FR 43987 - Modification of Rules To Codify New Procedure for Non-Federal Public Safety Entities To License Federal Interoperability Channels | |
83 FR 44059 - Tuna-Tariff Rate Quota for Calendar Year 2018 Tuna Classifiable Under Subheading 1604.14.22, Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States | |
83 FR 44026 - Export Trade Certificate of Review | |
83 FR 43961 - Expanded Examination Cycle for Certain Small Insured Depository Institutions and U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks | |
83 FR 44031 - Privacy Act of 1974; Matching Program | |
83 FR 44015 - Inviting Applications for the Delta Health Care Services Grant Program | |
83 FR 44119 - SJI Board of Directors Meeting, Notice | |
83 FR 44062 - Royalty Policy Committee; Public Meeting; Correction | |
83 FR 44115 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend its Price List | |
83 FR 44114 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change Amending the Fee Schedule To Eliminate Fee Code IX on Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc. | |
83 FR 44096 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe BYX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change Related to Fees for Use on Cboe BYX Exchange, Inc. | |
83 FR 44098 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Delay the Implementation Date of Changes to Cboe Options Rule 24A.4, Interpretation and Policy .02, Concerning FLEX Options | |
83 FR 44083 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Designation of a Longer Period for Commission Action on a Proposed Rule Change Regarding BZX Rule 14.11(c) (Index Fund Shares) | |
83 FR 44091 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Options Clearing Corporation; Order Approving Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Partial Amendment No. 2, Concerning Updates to and Formalization of OCC's Recovery and Orderly Wind-Down Plan | |
83 FR 44076 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Options Clearing Corporation; Order Approving Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 2, Concerning Enhanced and New Tools for Recovery Scenarios | |
83 FR 44059 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Federal Migratory Bird Hunting and Conservation Stamp (Duck Stamp) and Junior Duck Stamp Contests | |
83 FR 44120 - Rescinding the Notice of Intent for an Environmental Impact Statement; Multiple Counties, Alabama | |
83 FR 44120 - Rescinding the Notice of Intent for an Environmental Impact Statement; Gadsden, Etowah County, Alabama | |
83 FR 44121 - Rescinding the Notice of Intent for an Environmental Impact Statement; Multiple Counties, Alabama | |
83 FR 44028 - Science Advisory Board; Solicitation for Members of the NOAA Science Advisory Board | |
83 FR 44065 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Settlement Agreement Under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act | |
83 FR 44109 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Options Clearing Corporation; Notice of No Objection to Advance Notice, as Modified by Partial Amendment No. 3, Concerning Updates to and Formalization of OCC's Recovery and Orderly Wind-Down Plan | |
83 FR 44083 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Options Clearing Corporation; Notice of No Objection to Advance Notice, as Modified by Amendment No. 2, Concerning Enhanced and New Tools for Recovery Scenarios | |
83 FR 44058 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 44058 - National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
83 FR 44057 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
83 FR 44065 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Consent Decree Under the Clean Water Act | |
83 FR 43984 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Saugatuck River, Saugatuck, CT | |
83 FR 43970 - Amendment of Class D and E Airspace; Austin, TX; and Establishment of Class E Airspace; Georgetown, TX, and Austin, TX | |
83 FR 43968 - Amendment of Class D and Class E Airspace; Pensacola, FL, and Establishment of Class E Airspace; Milton, FL | |
83 FR 43988 - Hours of Service Recordkeeping; Automated Recordkeeping | |
83 FR 43983 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Passaic River, Harrison, NJ | |
83 FR 43984 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Sloop Channel, Hempstead, NY | |
83 FR 44026 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; Chemical Weapons Convention Provisions of the Export Administration Regulations | |
83 FR 44024 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 44023 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 44025 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 44052 - Notice of Proposals To Engage in or To Acquire Companies Engaged in Permissible Nonbanking Activities | |
83 FR 44067 - Planetary Science Advisory Committee; Meeting | |
83 FR 44001 - Amendments to Clearing Exemption for Swaps Entered Into by Certain Bank Holding Companies, Savings and Loan Holding Companies, and Community Development Financial Institutions | |
83 FR 44027 - Trade Fair Certification (TFC) Program: Notice of Change of Application Deadline and Mailing Address | |
83 FR 44014 - Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement: Inapplicability of Certain Laws and Regulations to Commercial Items (DFARS Case 2017-D010); Reopening of Comment Period | |
83 FR 43965 - Rules of Practice and Procedure; Civil Money Penalty Inflation Adjustment | |
83 FR 43985 - Overweight Items | |
83 FR 44128 - Expanding Flexible Use of the 3.7 to 4.2 GHz Band | |
83 FR 44123 - 2018 Pricing of Numismatic Gold, Commemorative Gold, Platinum, and Palladium Products Grid |
Rural Business-Cooperative Service
Rural Utilities Service
Industry and Security Bureau
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Patent and Trademark Office
Air Force Department
Army Department
Defense Acquisition Regulations System
Engineers Corps
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Children and Families Administration
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Fish and Wildlife Service
Indian Affairs Bureau
Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement Office
Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives Bureau
United States Marshals Service
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Highway Administration
Federal Railroad Administration
Comptroller of the Currency
United States Mint
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), Treasury; Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board); and Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC).
Joint interim final rules and request for comments.
The OCC, Board, and FDIC (collectively, the agencies) are jointly issuing and requesting public comment on interim final rules to implement section 210 of the Economic Growth, Regulatory Relief, and Consumer Protection Act (Economic Growth Act), which was enacted on May 24, 2018. Section 210 of the Economic Growth Act amends section 10(d) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act) to permit the agencies to examine qualifying insured depository institutions (IDIs) with under $3 billion in total assets not less than once during each 18-month period. Prior to enactment of the Economic Growth Act, qualifying IDIs with under $1 billion in total assets were eligible for an 18-month on-site examination cycle. The interim final rules generally would allow qualifying IDIs with under $3 billion in total assets to benefit from the extended 18-month examination schedule. In addition, the interim final rules make parallel changes to the agencies' regulations governing the on-site examination cycle for U.S. branches and agencies of foreign banks, consistent with the International Banking Act of 1978 (IBA).
These interim final rules are effective on August 29, 2018. Comments on the rules must be received by October 29, 2018.
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Enacted on May 24, 2018, section 210 of the Economic Growth Act
More specifically, the agencies are issuing interim final rules to implement the Economic Growth Act's amendments to sections 10(d)(4) and 10(d)(10) of the FDI Act
Section 10(d)(1) of the FDI Act
In addition, section 7(c)(1)(C) of the IBA provides that a Federal or a State branch or agency of a foreign bank shall be subject to on-site examination by its appropriate Federal banking agency or State bank supervisor as frequently as a national or State bank would be subject to such an examination by the agency.
The agencies are adopting interim final rules to implement the Economic Growth Act's amendments to sections 10(d)(4) and 10(d)(10) of the FDI Act. The rules implement section 10(d)(4) of the FDI Act to increase, from $1 billion to $3 billion, the total asset threshold under which an agency may apply an
The agencies also are exercising their discretionary authority under section 10(d)(10) of the FDI Act to extend eligibility for an 18-month examination cycle, by regulation, to qualifying IDIs with an “outstanding” or “good” composite rating with total assets under $3 billion. The agencies have determined that increasing the maximum asset amount limitation for qualifying IDIs with less than $3 billion in total assets is consistent with the principles of safety and soundness.
In determining whether the reduction in examination frequency is consistent with the principles of safety and soundness for such IDIs, the agencies considered the following factors. The agencies agree that extending the examination cycle could make it more likely that there will be a delay in an agency's ability to detect deterioration in an IDI's performance. However, the agencies believe that extending the examination cycle from 12 months to 18 months for these small IDIs with relatively simple risk profiles should not appreciably increase their risk of financial deterioration or failure. In addition, the agencies will continue their off-site monitoring activities and have the ability to examine IDIs more frequently as necessary or appropriate. The agencies also note that, in order to qualify for an 18-month examination cycle, any IDI with total assets under $3 billion—including one with a composite rating of “good”—must meet the other capital, managerial, and supervisory criteria set forth in section 10(d) of the FDI Act and the agencies' implementing regulations.
Considering the agencies' off-site monitoring activities; their discretion to examine IDIs more frequently as necessary; and the capital, managerial, and supervisory criteria in section 10(d) of the FDI Act, the agencies believe that increasing the maximum asset amount limitation for IDIs from less than $1 billion to less than $3 billion is consistent with the principles of safety and soundness. Additionally, the agencies believe this increase will allow the agencies to better focus their supervisory resources on the IDIs and U.S. branches and agencies of foreign banks (collectively, financial institutions) that may present capital, managerial, or other issues of supervisory concern, and therefore has the ability to enhance safety and soundness collectively for all financial institutions. The agencies will continue to monitor financial institutions in this asset range and the impact of the extended examination cycle.
In accordance with section 7(c)(1)(C) of the IBA, the agencies also are making conforming changes to their regulations governing the on-site examination cycle for the U.S. branches and agencies of foreign banks. For the same reasons as discussed above, the agencies believe that extending similar treatment to qualifying U.S. branches and agencies of foreign banks is consistent with the principles of safety and soundness.
The agencies estimate that the interim final rules will increase the number of banks and savings associations that may qualify for an extended 18-month examination cycle by approximately 420 (227 of which are supervised by the FDIC, 100 by the OCC, and 93 by the Board), bringing the total number to 4,798 banks and savings associations.
The agencies are issuing the interim final rules without prior notice and the opportunity for public comment and the 30-day delayed effective date ordinarily prescribed by the Administrative Procedure Act (APA).
The agencies believe that the public interest is best served by implementing the statutorily amended thresholds as soon as possible. Immediate implementation will reduce regulatory burden on small, well capitalized, and well managed financial institutions while also allowing the agencies to better focus their supervisory resources on those financial institutions that may present capital, managerial, or other issues of supervisory concern. Because the affected financial institutions and agencies must plan and prepare for examinations in advance, the agencies believe issuing interim final rules will provide the certainty necessary to allow the financial institutions and agencies to begin scheduling for examinations according to the new examination cycle period. In addition, the agencies believe that providing a notice and comment period prior to issuance of the interim final rules is unnecessary because the agencies do not expect public objection to the regulations being promulgated as they merely provide the relief that Congress intended. Moreover, because the interim final rules will permit an agency to conduct an on-site examination of financial institutions more frequently than once every 18 months, the agencies retain the ability to maintain the current—or a more frequent—on-site examination schedule for a financial institution if the relevant agency determines it would be necessary or appropriate. For these reasons, the agencies find there is good cause consistent with the public interest to issue the rules without advance notice and comment.
The APA also requires a 30-day delayed effective date, except for (1) substantive rules which grant or recognize an exemption or relieve a restriction; (2) interpretative rules and statements of policy; or (3) as otherwise provided by the agency for good cause.
While the agencies believe there is good cause to issue the rules without advance notice and comment and with
Section 722 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act
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The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA)
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995
Pursuant to section 302(a) of the Riegle Community Development and Regulatory Improvement Act (RCDRIA),
Consistent with section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA), before promulgating any final rule for which a general notice of proposed rulemaking was published, the OCC prepares an economic analysis of the final rule. As discussed previously, the OCC has determined that the publication of a general notice of proposed rulemaking is unnecessary. Accordingly, the OCC has not prepared an economic analysis of the joint interim final rules under UMRA.
Administrative practice and procedure, Freedom of information, Individuals with disabilities, Minority businesses, Organization and functions (Government agencies), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Women.
Accounting, Agriculture, Banks, banking, Confidential business information, Crime, Currency, Federal Reserve System, Flood insurance, Mortgages, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Safety and soundness, Securities.
Exports, Federal Reserve System, Foreign banking, Holding companies, Investments, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Banks, banking, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Savings Associations.
Authority delegations (Government agencies), Bank deposit insurance, Banks, banking, Credit, Foreign banking, Investments, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, U.S. investments abroad.
For the reasons set forth in the joint preamble, the OCC amends part 4 of chapter I of title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
5 U.S.C. 301, 552; 12 U.S.C. 1, 93a, 161, 481, 482, 484(a), 1442, 1462a, 1463,
(b) * * *
(1) The bank or Federal savings association has total assets of less than $3 billion;
(b) * * *
(1) * * *
(i) Has total assets of less than $3 billion;
For the reasons set forth in the joint preamble, the Board amends parts 208 and 211 of chapter II of title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
12 U.S.C. 24, 36, 92a, 93a, 248(a), 248(c), 321-338a, 371d, 461, 481-486, 601, 611, 1814, 1816, 1818, 1820(d)(9), 1833(j), 1828(o), 1831, 1831o, 1831p-1, 1831r-1, 1831w, 1831x, 1835a, 1882, 2901-2907, 3105, 3310, 3331-3351, 3353, and 3906-3909; 15 U.S.C. 78b, 781(b), 78l(i), 780-4(c)(5), 78q, 78q-1, 78w, 1681s, 1681w, 6801 and 6805, 31 U.S.C. 5318; 42 U.S.C. 4012a, 4104b, 4106, and 4128.
(b) * * *
(1) The bank has total assets of less than $3 billion;
12 U.S.C. 221
(c) * * *
(2) * * *
(i) * * *
(A) Has total assets of less than $3 billion;
For the reasons set forth in the joint preamble, the Board of Directors of the FDIC amends parts 337 and 347 of chapter III of title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
12 U.S.C. 375a(4), 375b, 1463(a)(1), 1816, 1818(a), 1818(b), 1819, 1820(d), 1828(j)(2), 1831, 1831f, 5412.
(b) * * *
(1) The institution has total assets of less than $3 billion;
12 U.S.C. 1813, 1815, 1817, 1819, 1820, 1828, 3103, 3104, 3105, 3108, 3109; Pub. L. 111-203, section 939A, 124 Stat. 1376, 1887 (July 21, 2010) (codified 15 U.S.C. 78o-7 note).
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(1) * * *
(i) Has total assets of less than $3 billion;
Federal Housing Finance Agency.
Final rule.
The Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) is issuing this final rule amending its Rules of Practice and Procedure and other agency regulations to adjust each civil money penalty within its jurisdiction to account for inflation, pursuant to the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015.
Stephen E. Hart, Deputy General Counsel, at (202) 649-3053,
FHFA is an independent agency of the Federal government, and the financial safety and soundness regulator of the Federal National Mortgage Association (Fannie Mae) and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (Freddie
The Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990 (“Inflation Adjustment Act”), as amended by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (“Adjustment Improvements Act”), requires FHFA, as well as other Federal agencies with the authority to issue civil money penalties (CMPs), to adjust by regulation the maximum amount of each CMP authorized by law that the agency has jurisdiction to administer.
Annual inflation adjustments under the Adjustment Improvements Act are based on the percent change between the October Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (the CPI-U) preceding the date of the adjustment and the October CPI-U for the year before that.
This final rule adjusts the maximum penalty amount within each of the three tiers specified in 12 U.S.C. 4636 by amending the table contained in 12 CFR 1209.80 to reflect the new adjusted maximum penalty amount that FHFA may impose upon a regulated entity or any entity-affiliated party within each tier. The increases in maximum penalty amounts contained in this final rule may not necessarily affect the amount of any CMP that FHFA may seek for a particular violation, which may not be the maximum that the law allows; FHFA would calculate each CMP on a case-by-case basis in light of a variety of factors.
The Adjustment Improvements Act directs federal agencies to calculate each annual CMP adjustment as the percent change between the CPI-U for the previous October and the CPI-U for October of the calendar year before.
Similarly, the CMP for FHFA penalties under the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act were last adjusted in 2016.
Similarly, the CMP for FHFA penalties under the Flood Insurance regulation were last adjusted in 2016.
When promulgating any regulation that may have future effect relating to the Banks, the Director is required by section 1313(f) of the Safety and Soundness Act to consider the differences between the Banks and the Enterprises with respect to the Banks' cooperative ownership structure; mission of providing liquidity to members; affordable housing and community development mission; capital structure; and joint and several liability (12 U.S.C. 4513(f)).
FHFA finds good cause that notice and an opportunity to comment on this final rule are unnecessary under section 553(b)(B) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA), 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B). The Adjustment Improvements Act states that the annual civil money penalty adjustments shall be made notwithstanding the rulemaking provisions of 5 U.S.C. 553. Furthermore, this rulemaking conforms with and is consistent with the statutory directive set forth in the Adjustment Improvements Act. As a result, there are no issues of policy discretion about which to seek public comment. Accordingly, FHFA is issuing these amendments as a final rule.
Pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA),
The Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
FHFA has determined that this regulatory action does not qualify as either a “rule” or a “major rule” under the Congressional Review Act.
Administrative practice and procedure, Penalties.
Civil remedies, Program fraud.
Flood insurance, Government-sponsored enterprises, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, for the reasons stated in the
5 U.S.C. 554, 556, 557, and 701
The maximum amount of each civil money penalty within FHFA's jurisdiction, as set by the Safety and Soundness Act and thereafter adjusted in accordance with the Inflation Adjustment Act, is as follows:
The inflation adjustments set out in § 1209.80 shall apply to civil money penalties assessed in accordance with the provisions of the Safety and Soundness Act, 12 U.S.C. 4636, and subparts B and C of this part, for violations occurring after September 28, 2018.
12 U.S.C. 4501; 12 U.S.C. 4526; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note; 31 U.S.C. 3801-3812.
(a) * * * (1) A civil penalty of not more than $11,181 may be imposed upon a person who makes a claim to FHFA for property, services, or money where the person knows or has reason to know that the claim:
(b) * * * (1) A civil penalty of up to $11,181 may be imposed upon a person who makes a written statement to FHFA with respect to a claim, contract, bid or proposal for a contract, or benefit from FHFA that:
12 U.S.C. 4521(a)(4) and 4526; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note; 42 U.S.C. 4001 note; 42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)(3), (4), (5), (8), (9), and (10).
(c)
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This action amends Class D airspace and Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Choctaw Naval Outlying Field (NOLF), Milton, FL, by changing the city associated with the airport name in the above airspace classes and adjusting the geographic coordinates of the airport and the Santa Rosa TACAN navigation aid to match the FAA's aeronautical database. Additionally, Class E surface airspace is established at Choctaw NOLF for the safety of aircraft landing and departing the airport when the air traffic control tower is closed. Also, an editorial change is made to the Class D airspace legal description replacing “Airport/Facility Directory” with the term “Chart Supplement”. This action enhances the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at this airport.
Effective 0901 UTC, November 8, 2018. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
John Fornito, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; telephone (404) 305-6364.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it establishes Class E airspace, and amends Class D and Class E airspace at Choctaw NOLF, Milton, FL, to support IFR operations at the airport.
The FAA published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM in the
Interested parties were invited to participate in this rulemaking effort by submitting written comments on the proposal to the FAA. One comment was received supporting the proposal.
Class D and E airspace designations are published in paragraph 5000, 6002, and 6005, respectively, of FAA Order 7400.11B dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR part 71.1. The Class D and E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
This action amends Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 by:
Amending Class D airspace at Choctaw NOLF, Milton, FL, by adjusting the geographic coordinates of the airport and the Santa Rosa TACAN navigation aid to be in concert with the FAA's aeronautical database. Also, this action makes an editorial change in the airspace designation replacing the city associated with the airport name from Pensacola, to Milton, to comply with a change to FAA Order 7400.2L, Procedures for Handling Airspace Matters. Additionally, this action replaces the outdated term “Airport/Facility Directory” with the term “Chart Supplement” in the airspace legal description;
Establishing Class E surface area airspace at Choctaw NOLF, Milton, FL, within a 2.5-mile radius of Choctaw NOLF, with an extension from the 2.5-mile radius to 10.5 miles south of the Santa Rosa TACAN, for the safety of aircraft landing and departing the airport after the air traffic control tower closes; and Amending Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Choctaw NOLF, Milton, FL, by adjusting the geographic coordinates of the airport to be in concert with the FAA's aeronautical database. This action also makes an editorial change by removing the airport name, Choctaw Outlying Field, from the airspace designation, which now becomes Milton, FL.
This action amends the geographic coordinates of these airports and the Keesler TACAN navigation aid to be in concert with the FAA's aeronautical database.
Class D and Class E airspace designations are published in Paragraph 5000, 6002, and 6005, respectively, of FAA Order 7400.11B, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class D and E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. Therefore, this regulation: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 2,600 feet MSL within a 2.5-mile radius of Choctaw NOLF and within 1.5 miles each side of the Santa Rosa TACAN 188° radial, extending from the 2.5-mile radius to 10.5 miles south of the TACAN; excluding that airspace within Restricted Area R-2915A. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface within a 2.5-mile radius of Choctaw NOLF and within 1.5 miles each side of the Santa Rosa TACAN 188° radial, extending from the 2.5-mile radius to 10.5 miles south of the TACAN; excluding that airspace within Restricted Area R-2915A. This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.7-mile radius of Choctaw NOLF.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This action amends Class D airspace at San Marcos Regional Airport, Austin, TX; establishes Class E airspace designated as a surface area at Georgetown Municipal Airport, Georgetown, TX, and San Marcos Regional Airport; and amends Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at San Marco Regional Airport and Lockhart Municipal Airport, Lockhart, TX. This action is at the request of Austin Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)/Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) to establish part-time Class E airspace designated as a surface area at Georgetown Municipal Airport and San Marcos Regional Airport and to review the associated airspace for the safety and management of instrument flight rule (IFR) operations at these airports. The name of San Marcos Regional Airport is updated to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database, and the outdated term “Airport/Facility Directory” is replaced with the term “Chart Supplement”.
Effective 0901 UTC, November 8, 2018. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under Title 1 Code of Federal Regulations part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Jeffrey Claypool, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5711.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it amends Class D airspace at San Marcos Regional Airport, Austin, TX; establishes Class E airspace designated as a surface area at Georgetown Municipal Airport, Georgetown, TX, and San Marcos Regional Airport; and amends Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at San Marco Regional Airport and Lockhart Municipal Airport, Lockhart, TX, to support IFR operations at these airports.
The FAA published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) in the
Class D and E airspace designations are published in paragraphs 5000, 6002, and 6005, respectively, of FAA Order 7400.11B, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class D and E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
This amendment to Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71:
Amends the location in the header of the airspace legal description of the Class D airspace from San Marcos, TX, to Austin, TX, to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database; amends the radius to within a 4.3-mile radius (increased from a 4.2-mile radius) of San Marcos Regional Airport (formerly San Marcos Municipal Airport), Austin, TX; adds an extension 1.0 mile each side of the 306° bearing from the San Marcos Regional: RWY 13-LOC extending from the 4.3-mile radius to 4.6 miles northwest of the airport; updates the name of the airport to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database; and makes an editorial change to the airspace legal description replacing “Airport/Facility Directory” with “Chart Supplement”;
Establishes Class E airspace designated as a surface area within a 4.3-mile radius of San Marcos Regional Airport, Austin, TX, with an extension 1.0 mile each side of the 306° bearing from the San Marcos Regional: RWY 13-LOC extending from the 4.3-mile radius to 4.6 miles northwest of the airport; and with an extension 1.0 mile each side of the 313° bearing from the airport from the 4.3-mile radius to 5.0 miles northwest of the airport; and with an extension 1.0 mile each side of the 268° bearing from the airport from the 4.3-mile radius to 4.4 miles west of the airport; and with an extension 1.0 mile each side of the 358° bearing from the airport from the 4.3-mile radius to 4.4 miles north of the airport;
Establishes Class E airspace designated as a surface area within a 4.1-mile radius of Georgetown Municipal Airport, Georgetown, TX; and
Amends the location in the header of the airspace legal description of the Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface from San Marcos, TX, to Austin, TX, to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database; amends the radius to within a 6.8-mile radius (increased from a 6.7-mile radius) of San Marcos Regional Airport (formerly San Marcos Municipal Airport), Austin, TX; amends the extension to the northwest of the airport to 12.0 miles (increased from 11.1 miles); amends the extension to the east of the airport to 10.5 miles (increased from 10.4 miles); amends the extension to the southeast of the airport to 9.7 miles (increased from 9.6 miles); amends the extension to the south of the airport to 10.5 miles (increased from 10.4 miles); and amends the radius to within 6.4-miles (increased from a 6.3-mile radius) of Lockhart Municipal Airport, Lockhart, TX, included in the Austin, TX, airspace legal description.
This action is at the request of Austin ATCT/TRACON to establish part-time Class E airspace designated as a surface areas at Georgetown Municipal Airport and San Marcos Regional Airport and to review the associated airspace for the safety and management of IFR operations at these airports.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5.a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 3,100 feet MSL within a 4.3-mile radius of San Marcos Regional Airport, and within 1.0 mile each side of the San Marcos Regional: RWY13-LOC extending from the 4.3-mile radius to 4.6 miles northwest of the airport, and within 1.0 mile each side of the 313° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.3-mile radius to 5.0 miles northwest of the airport, and within 1.0 mile each side of the 268° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.3-mile radius to 4.4 miles west of the airport, and within 1.0 mile each side of the 358° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.3-mile radius to 4.4 miles north of the airport. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective dates and times will thereafter be continually published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 3,100 feet MSL within a 4.3-mile radius of San Marcos Regional Airport, and within 1.0 mile each side of the San Marcos Regional: RWY13-LOC extending from the 4.3-mile radius to 4.6 miles northwest of the airport, and within 1.0 mile each side of the 313° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.3-mile radius to 5 miles northwest of the airport, and within 1.0 mile each side of the 268° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.3-mile radius to 4.4 miles west of the airport, and within 1.0 mile each side of the 358° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.3-mile radius to 4.4 miles north of the airport. This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective dates and times will thereafter be continually published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 3,300 feet MSL within a 4.1-mile radius of Georgetown Municipal Airport. This Class E airspace is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective dates and times will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.8-mile radius of San Marcos Regional Airport, and within 2 miles each side of the 268° bearing from the airport extending from the 6.8-mile radius to 13.1 miles west of the airport, and within 2 miles each side of the 313° bearing from the airport extending from the 6.8-mile radius to 12.0 miles northwest of the airport, and within 2 miles each side of the 088° bearing from the airport extending from the 6.8-mile radius to 10.5 miles east of the airport, and within 2 miles each side of the 133° bearing from the airport extending from the 6.8-mile radius to 9.7 miles southeast of the airport, and within 2 miles each side of the 178° bearing from the airport extending from the 6.8-mile radius to 10.5 miles south of the airport, and within a 6.4-mile radius of Lockhart Municipal Airport.
Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, Interior.
Final rule; approval of amendment.
We, the Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement (OSMRE), are approving an amendment to the Alabama regulatory program (Alabama program) under the Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (SMCRA or the Act). Alabama proposed revisions to its program regarding permit fees. Alabama revised its program at its own initiative to raise revenues sufficient to fund the Alabama Surface Mining Commission's (ASMC) share of costs to administer the Alabama coal regulatory program, including the reviewing, administering, inspecting, and enforcing of surface coal mining permits in Alabama.
The effective date is September 28, 2018.
William Joseph, Acting Director, Birmingham Field Office, Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, 135 Gemini Circle, Suite 215, Homewood, Alabama 35209. Telephone: (205) 290-7282. Email:
Section 503(a) of the Act permits a State to assume primacy for the regulation of surface coal mining and reclamation operations on non-Federal and non-Indian lands within its borders by demonstrating that its program includes, among other things, State laws and regulations that govern surface coal mining and reclamation operations in accordance with the requirements of the Act and consistent with the Federal regulations.
By email dated August 14, 2017 (Administrative Record No. AL-0672), Alabama sent us an amendment to its program under SMCRA (30 U.S.C. 1201
We announced the receipt of the proposed amendment in the January 22, 2018,
We are approving the amendment as described below. The following are findings we made concerning Alabama's amendment under SMCRA and the Federal regulations at 30 CFR 732.15 and 732.17. Any revisions that we do not specifically discuss below concerning non-substantive wording or editorial changes can be found in the full text of the program amendment available at
Alabama proposed to revise its regulations at Alabama Administrative Code 880-X-8B-.07, increasing coal mining permit fees to adequately fund the ASMC for the purposes of reviewing, administering, inspecting, and enforcing surface coal mining permits in Alabama.
By this amendment, Alabama is:
(1) Increasing the initial acreage fee from $35.00 per acre to $75.00, to be paid on each acre in a permit covered by a performance bond prior to the initiation of operations on the permit (or on an increment if increments are used), and to be paid on all bonded acreage covered by a permit renewal;
(2) Increasing the basic fee for a coal exploration permit application from $2,000.00 to $2,500.00;
(3) Increasing the basic fee for a permit renewal application from $1,000.00 to $2,500.00;
(4) Increasing the basic fee for a permit transfer application from $200.00 to $500.00;
(5) Adding an annual acreage fee for expired permits of $15.00, per acre, to be paid by December 31st of each year on each acre covered by a performance bond as of October 1st of the year; and
(6) Adding the inspection of permits to the ASMC's uses for the deposited permit fees.
Alabama fully funds its share of costs to regulate the coal mining industry with fees paid by the coal industry. The proposed fee revisions are intended to provide adequate funding to pay the
We find that Alabama's fee changes are consistent with the discretionary authority provided by the Federal regulation at 30 CFR 777.17. Therefore, we are approving Alabama's revision.
We asked for public comments on the amendment. As noted in section II, we received four comments (Administrative Record No. AL-0672-03). The four commenters provided comments that were outside the scope of the proposed amendment and not germane to the topic of surface coal mining in general. We are not addressing these comments in this final rule for these reasons. The full texts of these comments are available at
On August 21, 2017, pursuant to 30 CFR 732.17(h)(11)(i) and Section 503(b) of SMCRA, we requested comments on the amendment from various Federal agencies with an actual or potential interest in the Alabama program (Administrative Record No. AL-0672-02). We did not receive any comments.
Under 30 CFR 732.17(h)(11)(ii), we are required to get a written concurrence from EPA for those provisions of the program amendment that relate to air or water quality standards issued under the authority of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1251
Under 30 CFR 732.17(h)(4), we are required to request comments from the SHPO and ACHP on amendments that may have an effect on historic properties. On August 21, 2017, we requested comments on the amendment (Administrative Record No. AL-0672-02). We did not receive any comments.
Based on the above findings, we are approving the Alabama amendment that was submitted on August 14, 2017 (Administrative Record No. AL-0672).
To implement this decision, we are amending the Federal regulations at 30 CFR part 901 that codify decisions concerning the Alabama program. In accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act, this rule will take effect 30 days after the date of publication. Section 503(a) of SMCRA requires that the State's program demonstrate the State has the capability of carrying out the provisions of the Act and meeting its purposes. SMCRA requires consistency of State and Federal standards.
This rulemaking does not have takings implications. This determination is based on the analysis performed for the counterpart Federal regulation.
Pursuant to Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Guidance dated October 12, 1993, the approval of state program amendments is exempted from OMB review under Executive Order 12866.
The Department of the Interior has reviewed this rule as required by Section 3(a) of Executive Order 12988. The Department has determined that this
This rule is not a “[p]olicy that [has] Federalism implications” as defined by Section 1(a) of Executive Order 13132 because it does not have “substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.” Instead, this rule approves an amendment to the Alabama program submitted and drafted by that State. OSMRE reviewed the submission with fundamental federalism principles in mind as set forth in Section 2 and 3 of the Executive Order and with the principles of cooperative federalism as set forth in SMCRA.
In accordance with Executive Order 13175, we have evaluated the potential effects of this rulemaking on Federally-recognized Tribes and have determined that the rulemaking does not have substantial direct effects on one or more Tribes, on the relationship between the Federal government and Tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Tribes. The basis for this determination is that our decision is on a State regulatory program and does not involve Federal regulations involving Indian lands.
Executive Order 13211 of May 18, 2001, requires agencies to prepare a Statement of Energy Effects for a rulemaking that is (1) considered significant under Executive Order 12866, and (2) likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy. Because this rulemaking is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866 and is not expected to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy, a Statement of Energy Effects is not required.
This rulemaking does not require an environmental impact statement because section 702(d) of SMCRA (30 U.S.C. 1292(d)) provides that agency decisions on proposed State regulatory program provisions do not constitute
This rulemaking does not contain information collection requirements that require approval by OMB under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3507
The Department of the Interior certifies that this rulemaking will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
This rulemaking is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804(2), the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act. This rulemaking: (a) Does not have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million; (b) Will not cause a major increase in costs or prices for consumers, individual industries, Federal, State, or local government agencies, or geographic regions; and (c) Does not have significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or the ability of U.S.-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises. This determination is based upon the fact that the State submittal, which is the subject of this rulemaking, is based upon counterpart Federal regulations for which an analysis was prepared and a determination made that the Federal regulation was not considered a major rule.
This rulemaking will not impose an unfunded mandate on State, local, or tribal governments or the private sector of $100 million or more in any given year. This determination is based upon the fact that the State submittal, which is the subject of this rulemaking, is based upon counterpart Federal regulations for which an analysis was prepared and a determination made that the Federal regulation did not impose an unfunded mandate.
Intergovernmental relations, Surface mining, Underground mining.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 30 CFR part 901 is amended as set forth below:
30 U.S.C. 1201
Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, Interior.
Final rule; approval of amendment.
We, the Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement (OSMRE), are approving an amendment to the Alabama regulatory program (Alabama program) under the Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (SMCRA or the Act). Alabama proposed revisions to its program to allow the Alabama Surface Mining Commission (ASMC) to revise its current permit fee collection procedures from the term of the mine permit to enable the collection of permit fees over the entire life of the mine. The revision also defines the life of the mine to be from the issuance of the permit through the full release of the performance bond.
The effective date is September 28, 2018.
William Joseph, Acting Director, Birmingham Field Office, Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, 135 Gemini Circle, Suite 215, Homewood, Alabama 35209. Telephone: (205) 290-7282. Email:
Section 503(a) of the Act permits a State to assume primacy for the regulation of surface coal mining and reclamation operations on non-Federal and non-Indian lands within its borders by demonstrating that its program includes, among other things, State laws and regulations that govern surface coal mining and reclamation operations in accordance with the requirements of the Act and consistent with the Federal regulations. See 30 U.S.C. 1253(a)(1) and (7). On the basis of these criteria, the Secretary of the Interior conditionally approved the Alabama program effective May 20, 1982. You can find background information on the Alabama program, including the Secretary's findings, the disposition of comments, and the conditions of approval of the Alabama program in the May 20, 1982,
By email dated June 21, 2017 (Administrative Record No. AL-0671), Alabama sent us an amendment to its program under SMCRA (30 U.S.C. 1201
We announced the receipt of the proposed amendment in the January 29, 2018,
We are approving the amendment as described below. The following are findings we made concerning Alabama's amendment under SMCRA and the Federal regulations at 30 CFR 732.15 and 732.17. Any revisions that we do not specifically discuss below concerning non-substantive wording or editorial changes can be found in the full text of the program amendment available at
Alabama proposed revisions to its regulations at Code of Alabama section 9-16-83, allowing the ASMC to revise its current permit fee collection procedures from the term of the mine permit to enable the collection of permit fees over the entire life of the mine. The revision also defines the life of the mine to mean the term of the permit and the time required to successfully complete all surface coal mining and reclamation activities and obtain a full release of the performance bond for each bonded area.
We find that Alabama's proposed amendments do not make its rules or regulations less effective than the Federal regulations governing permit fees found at 30 CFR 777.17. Therefore, we are approving Alabama's revision.
We asked for public comments on the amendment. As noted in section II, we received 13 comments (Administrative Record No. AL-0671-03). The 13 commenters provided comments that were outside the scope of the proposed amendment and not germane to the topic of surface coal mining in general. We are not addressing these comments in this final rule for these reasons. The full texts of these comments are available at
On July 27, 2017, pursuant to 30 CFR 732.17(h)(11)(i) and section 503(b) of SMCRA, we requested comments on the amendment from various Federal agencies with an actual or potential interest in the Alabama program (Administrative Record No. AL-0671-02). We did not receive any comments.
Under 30 CFR 732.17(h)(11)(ii), we are required to get a written concurrence from EPA for those provisions of the program amendment that relate to air or water quality standards issued under the authority of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1251
Under 30 CFR 732.17(h)(4), we are required to request comments from the SHPO and ACHP on amendments that may have an effect on historic properties. On July 27, 2017, we requested comments on the amendment (Administrative Record No. AL-0671-02). We did not receive any comments.
Based on the above findings, we are approving the Alabama amendment that was submitted on June 21, 2017, (Administrative Record No. AL-0671).
To implement this decision, we are amending the Federal regulations at 30 CFR part 901 that codify decisions concerning the Alabama program. In accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act, this rule will take effect 30 days after the date of publication. Section 503(a) of SMCRA requires that the State's program demonstrate the State has the capability of carrying out the provisions of the Act and meeting its purposes. SMCRA requires consistency of State and Federal standards.
This rulemaking does not have takings implications. This determination is based on the analysis performed for the counterpart Federal regulation.
Pursuant to Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Guidance dated October 12, 1993, the approval of state program amendments is exempted from OMB review under Executive Order 12866.
The Department of the Interior has reviewed this rule as required by Section 3(a) of Executive Order 12988. The Department has determined that this
This rule is not a “[p]olicy that [has] Federalism implications” as defined by Section 1(a) of Executive Order 13132, because it does not have “substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.” Instead, this rule approves an amendment to the Alabama program submitted and drafted by that State. OSMRE reviewed the submission with fundamental federalism principles in mind as set forth in Section 2 and 3 of the Executive Order and with the principles of cooperative federalism as set forth in SMCRA.
In accordance with Executive Order 13175, we have evaluated the potential effects of this rulemaking on Federally-recognized Tribes and have determined that the rulemaking does not have substantial direct effects on one or more Tribes, on the relationship between the Federal government and Tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Tribes. The basis for this determination is that our decision is on a State regulatory program and does not involve Federal regulations involving Indian lands.
Executive Order 13211 of May 18, 2001, requires agencies to prepare a Statement of Energy Effects for a rulemaking that is (1) considered significant under Executive Order 12866, and (2) likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy. Because this rulemaking is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866 and is not expected to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy, a Statement of Energy Effects is not required.
This rulemaking does not require an environmental impact statement because section 702(d) of SMCRA (30 U.S.C. 1292(d)) provides that agency decisions on proposed State regulatory program provisions do not constitute major Federal actions within the meaning of section 102(2)(C) of the National Environmental Policy Act (42 U.S.C. 4332(2)(C)).
This rulemaking does not contain information collection requirements that require approval by OMB under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3507
The Department of the Interior certifies that this rulemaking will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
This rulemaking is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804(2), the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act. This rulemaking: (a) Does not have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million; (b) Will not cause a major increase in costs or prices for consumers, individual industries, Federal, State, or local government agencies, or geographic regions; and (c) Does not have significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or the ability of U.S.-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises. This determination is based upon the fact that the State submittal, which is the subject of this rulemaking, is based upon counterpart Federal regulations for which an analysis was prepared and a determination made that the Federal regulation was not considered a major rule.
This rulemaking will not impose an unfunded mandate on State, local, or Tribal governments or the private sector of $100 million or more in any given year. This determination is based upon the fact that the State submittal, which is the subject of this rulemaking, is based upon counterpart Federal regulations for which an analysis was prepared and a determination made that the Federal regulation did not impose an unfunded mandate.
Intergovernmental relations, Surface mining, Underground mining.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 30 CFR part 901 is amended as set forth below:
30 U.S.C. 1201
Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, Interior.
Final rule; approval of amendment with two exceptions.
The Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement (OSMRE) is approving, with two exceptions, an amendment to the Ohio regulatory program (the Ohio program) under the Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (SMCRA or the Act). Ohio's submission demonstrates its intent to revise its program by amending the Ohio Reclamation Commission's (the Commission) procedural rules. By submission of the amended procedural rules, found within Ohio Administrative Code (OAC) at sections 1513-3-01 through 1513-3-22, Ohio proposed to revise the Ohio program pursuant to the additional flexibility afforded by the revised Federal regulations at 30 CFR 732.17, and SMCRA, as amended. As a result of review of the Ohio program, the proposed amendment, and an opportunity for public comments, OSMRE has determined that the majority of the submittal is no less stringent than SMCRA and no less effective than the corresponding regulations. The two revisions not approved by OSMRE are found within OAC at section 1513-3-07(A), which relates to intervention. OSMRE's rationale for not approving these proposed revisions is explained in depth below.
Mr. Ben Owens, Chief, Pittsburgh Field Division, OSMRE, Three Parkway Center, 2nd Floor, Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania 15220. Telephone: (412) 937-2827. Email:
Section 503(a) of SMCRA allows a State to assume primacy for the regulation of surface coal mining and reclamation operations on non-Federal and non-Indian lands within its borders by demonstrating that its State program includes, among other things, state laws and regulations that govern surface coal mining and reclamation operations in accordance with the Act and consistent with the Federal regulations. See 30 U.S.C. 1253(a)(1) and (7). On the basis of these criteria, the Secretary of the Interior conditionally approved the Ohio program effective August 16, 1982. Notice of the conditional approval of Ohio's permanent regulatory program was published in the
For background purposes, the Commission is an adjudicatory board established pursuant to Ohio Revised Code (ORC) section 1513.05. The Commission is the office to which administrative appeals may be filed by any person claiming to be aggrieved or adversely affected by a decision of the Ohio Department of Natural Resources, Chief of the Division of Mineral Resources Management (DMRM), relating to mining and reclamation issues. Following an adjudicatory hearing, the Commission affirms, vacates, or modifies the DMRM Chief's decision. The Commission is comprised of eight members appointed by the Governor of Ohio. Members represent a variety of interests relevant to mining and reclamation issues. The Commission adopts rules to govern its procedures. The Commission's rules are found at OAC section 1513-3-01 through 1513-3-22 and are the subject of the current amendment to the Ohio program. By letter dated November 6, 2013, Ohio submitted an amendment to its program, (Administrative Record No. OH-2192-01). Ohio's submittal was prompted by requirements within the Ohio statute that all state agencies must review their administrative rules every five years. Consistent with this requirement, the Commission revised its rules to ensure an orderly, efficient, and effective appeal process. By submitting the amendment to OSMRE, Ohio exercised its ability to revise the Ohio program pursuant to the additional flexibility afforded by the revised Federal regulations at 30 CFR 732.17, and SMCRA, as amended, to improve operational efficiency of the Ohio program and to ensure Ohio's proposed provisions are consistent, and in accordance, with SMCRA and are no less effective than the corresponding Federal regulations.
OSMRE announced receipt of the proposed amendment in the May 20, 2014,
OSMRE did not hold a public hearing or meeting, as neither were requested. The public comment period closed on June 19, 2014. OSMRE did not receive any comments.
Following is a summary of various provisions of the amendment that Ohio submitted, as well as OSMRE's findings on whether those provisions are consistent, and in accordance, with SMCRA and are no less effective than the Federal regulations at 30 CFR 732.15 and 732.17. As described below, OSMRE is approving the amendment with the exception of two provisions in the proposed rule, one at section 1513-3-07(A), relating to the intervention of a party, and the other at 1513-3-07(D)(4), relating to the effect of intervention. Any revisions that we do not specifically discuss below concern non-substantive wording or editorial changes.
These changes clarify existing definitions and provide additional definitions. Specifically, the definition of “appellant” is clarified to explicitly state that actions of the DMRM Chief are subject to appeal to the Commission. The definition of “final order” clarifies that the resolution of matters presented on appeal will be in writing and consistent with section 1513-3-19 of the OAC. The definition of “full party” is added. This definition will define “full party” to include the appellant, the appellee, and any intervenor participating in an appeal as defined by the OAC at section 1513-3-07 entitled, “Intervention.” Additionally, the term, “interested persons in an appeal pending before the Commission” is added. This term, as approved, defines interested person as the appellant, the appellee, any intervenors, or and any other persons who have notified the Commission of an interest in a pending appeal and have requested to be notified of hearings in said appeal. The
Paragraph (B) of Section 1513-3-02, which is entitled, “Quorum,” is modified to clarify the conditions for satisfying quorum requirements. Four members of the Commission must be present to qualify as a quorum, and an action by the Commission is not valid unless at least four members concur.
Additionally, the rule clarifies the procedure in the event concurrence is not reached. As amended, four members must agree that concurrence is not met. Further, when concurrence is not met, the existing record of proceedings is to be submitted to all members of the Commission who did not attend any portion of the proceedings. These members may determine if they wish to participate in the appeal. Following review of the record, they must participate in the rendering of a decision. The provision for a tied vote is eliminated.
The amendment provides that, in the event that a concurrence cannot be reached, a decision must be rendered stating such and an Order must be issued affirming the action of the DMRM Chief under review.
Furthermore, the rule clarifies that in the event a Commission member considered as part of the quorum misses any part of the proceeding, he or she must review the record before participating in the rendering of a decision. Audio-electronic hearings before the Commission constitute the official record of the hearing. However, other methods of creating the official record are permitted upon the Commission's discretion, by joint motion of the parties, or by motion of a party and subsequent approval by the Commission. Additionally, the issuance and service of subpoenas must comply with the Ohio Rules of Civil Procedure, and, as applicable, section 119.094 of the ORC, including its requirement that a fee must be paid to witnesses outside the county in which a hearing must be held.
The rule clarifies that any party may appear on their own behalf or may be represented by an attorney at law admitted to practice according to Ohio law. This includes the admittance of attorneys
Although the majority of the changes to this section are clerical and non-substantive, the rule clarifies that email addresses, if available, should be included in the notice of appeal. Additionally, appellants must include a copy of the written notice, order or decision of the DMRM Chief to be reviewed. Appellants are required to comply with the requirements of section 1513.02 of the ORC, pertaining to the power and duties of the DMRM Chief, and must include and forward the amount of any penalty for placement in a penalty fund. The rule adds a section describing information that the appellant may include in the notice of appeal. Appellants may, but are not required to, identify the area to which the notice, Order, or decision relates; state whether or not the Commission is requested to view the site; and state whether or not the appellant waives the right to have the hearing within the time frames established in section 1513.13(B), Appeal of notice of violation, order or decision to reclamation commission of the ORC.
When filing a notice of appeal pertaining to the review of a decision to approve or disapprove a permit application, an appellant must comply with section 1513.07, Coal mining and reclamation permit of the ORC, and must file the notice of appeal within 30 days of notice of the DMRM Chief's determination.
It is further clarified that a notice of appeal is deemed filed when complete notice has been provided. Further, a notice of appeal may be amended without leave of the Commission during the time allowed for original filing. However, amendment of a notice of appeal may not be employed to cure jurisdictional defects in the filing following the close of this time period. Following the close of this time period, a notice of appeal may be amended by leave of the Commission.
This section of the rule clarifies that the filing of a notice of appeal must conform to section 1513.13 of the ORC, Appeal to the Commission. The rule alters the definition of when a notice of appeal is deemed filed. The proposed amendment states that a notice of appeal will be deemed filed when received or if the notice of appeal is sent by certified mail, registered mail, or express mail, it will be deemed filed on the date of the postmark placed upon the sender's receipt by the postal service. However, documents requesting temporary relief are deemed filed when received by the Commission. Additionally, all filings other than a notice of appeal or a request for temporary relief, that are not sent to the Commission by certified mail, registered
The majority of the changes to this section are non-substantive and consist of renumbering for clarity. However, section (C)(1) is altered to definitively read that the Commission may not lengthen or reduce the time period allowed for any response to, or filing of, a request for temporary relief.
Ohio submitted a revision to this rule to require that any person seeking leave to intervene in an appeal before the Commission must do so within ten days prior to the beginning of an evidentiary hearing on the merits of an appeal, unless waived by the Commission for extraordinary cause. OSMRE is not approving this section of the amendment as it is inconsistent with the corresponding provisions of the Federal regulations found at 43 CFR 4.1110(a). The Federal counterpart allows any person, including a State or OSMRE, to petition to intervene at any stage of a proceeding. The provision proposed by Ohio prejudices a potential intervenor by imposing time limits on petitions to intervene. Although the proposed revision would allow intervention after the ten days preceding an evidentiary hearing, upon waiver by the Commission, the potential intervenor must still demonstrate extraordinary cause. This additional hurdle is not imposed by the Federal counterpart. Therefore, OSMRE is not approving the following sentence in section 1513-3-07(A), of the proposed amendment: “A petition for leave to intervene must be filed at least ten days prior to the beginning of an evidentiary hearing on the merits of an appeal, unless waived by the commission for extraordinary cause.”
Also, the deletion of 1513-3-07(D)(4) is less effective than the Federal regulations found at 43 CFR 4.1110. This deletion would prevent the Commission from considering the effect of intervention on the agency's ability to implement its statutory mandates. However, the Federal regulation at 43 CFR 4.1110(d)(4) explicitly allows the IBLA to consider this effect in deciding whether intervention is appropriate. The deletion of this provision in the OAC would render the Ohio program less effective by preventing its statutory mandate from receiving due consideration in Commission decisions on intervention. Therefore, OSMRE is not approving the deletion of OAC 1513-3-07(D)(4).
There is only one other substantive amendment to this section. The change, at section 1513-13-07(F), will allow the filing of amicus briefs and oral argument at hearing by amicus curiae upon leave by, and at the discretion of, the Commission. This provision does not have direct Federal counterparts. However, it is not inconsistent with relevant sections of 43 CFR part 4. Therefore, this provision of OAC 1513-3-07 is approved.
The amendments to this section are non-substantive and primarily consist of language to make references gender neutral. Therefore, the amendments are approved.
Previous discovery rules are amended to clarify parties to an appeal may obtain discovery in accordance with the provisions of rules 26 through 36 of the Ohio Rules of Civil Procedure. Additionally, the rule explains that all parties, including intervenors, are subject to discovery and that discovery from non-parties must be done through subpoena. In the event a party fails to obey an order to compel or permit discovery issued by the Commission, the Commission may make such orders in regard to the failure as it deems just.
This revision moves the provision at section (B), which allows a party to make a written motion requesting a hearing to be conducted before the full Commission, rather than before a hearing officer for the Commission, to section 1513-3-18, Reports and recommendations of the hearing officer. The revision to this section also provides that objections to jurisdiction are non-waivable and may be raised at any point in an appeal, consistent with the Ohio Rules of Civil Procedure.
This revision allows the Commission or its hearing officer, at its own initiative, or at the request of any party, to schedule and hold pre-hearing conferences on issues on appeal.
This rule specifies the locations of Commission hearings. It also clarifies the circumstances in which the Commission will conduct site views of mining operations, reclamation operations, or other relevant features. The rule also explicitly states that the Commission will control and direct the manner of conducting a site view. Specifically, where a site view is conducted on property subject to a mining and reclamation permit, parties must be informed prior to the site view of any necessary personal protective equipment, including hard hat, safety glasses, hearing protection, safety-toed shoes or boots and additional equipment that may be required on mine property as determined by the mine operator. Additionally, the Commission reserves the right to limit the number of persons who participate in the site view. Additionally, a hearing related to a cessation of mining or a motion for temporary relief must be held in proximity to the subject area of the hearing for the convenience of the Commission and the parties. All other proceedings will continue to be held in Columbus, Ohio, or at any convenient public location selected by the Commission.
The Commission is given discretion to administer consolidated appeals in the manner it deems most appropriate.
This rule applies to any person participating in an appeal before the Commission and definitively states that the Commission will determine the conduct of the hearing and the order of the presentation of evidence. Additionally, it further clarifies that the Commission is not bound by the formal rules of evidence as promulgated by the Ohio Supreme Court. The rule also establishes a procedure for in-camera inspection of documents claimed to contain proprietary business information or trade secrets. Additionally, the rule specifically details the number of copies of proposed exhibits a party must make available. The rule also adds a provision to clarify that a continuing objection is sufficient to preserve objection to an area of evidence. In regard to written testimony, affidavits may be admitted only if the evidence is otherwise admissible and all full parties agree that affidavits may be used in lieu of oral testimony. This alteration is limiting as it adds the adjective “full,” thus excluding certain parties. Parties wishing to use affidavits in lieu of oral testimony must serve all full parties with a copy of the affidavit at least 15 days before a hearing. It is clarified that in the event a declarant is unavailable, testimony may be offered in compliance with rule 804 of the Ohio Rules of Evidence. As proposed, objections to deposition testimony must be resolved in accordance with rule 32 of the Ohio Rules of Civil Procedure. Further, in instances when a party is attempting to use written testimony, any full party must present the Commission a schedule of objections to the written testimony prior to the commencement of the hearing. This is a change to the former rule that allowed objection at the hearing following receipt of the testimony into evidence. Regarding the presentation of witnesses, the Commission may require that a witness be called only once during a hearing and that the parties conduct all examinations at the time when the witness is called to testify. An Ohio notary may be given authority to administer oaths and affirmations to witnesses. Further, the Commission is given authority to require the parties to submit written closing arguments, post-hearing briefs, or proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law.
The adjective “full” is added to section (B), relative to agreement to settle. This addition limits settlements to those where all parties (
Section 1513-3-11(B), discussed above, is inserted in this section. This section allows a party to make a written motion requesting that a hearing be conducted before the full Commission, rather than before a hearing officer for the Commission.
The existing regulations required Reports and Recommendations of hearing officers to be submitted to the Commission within a time reasonably sufficient to allow the Commission to issue timely Orders. This amendment incorporates a proviso to that rule that in the event a decision before a hearing officer must be rendered within a specified time period, the appeal will be heard by the Commission, rather than by a hearing officer, unless there has been a waiver of the right to an expedited hearing.
This rule clarifies the procedures the Commission will follow when issuing decisions. Additionally, the rule allows the remission, within 30 days after issuing a final decision, of pre-paid civil penalties, where penalties are under appeal. The rule also provides more detailed information about the procedures that will be followed if errors are found in Commission decisions. Specifically, during the time period after a final decision has been issued by the Commission, clerical mistakes in the final decision and errors therein from oversight or omission may be corrected before an appeal of the Commission's final decision is filed. Thereafter, while an appeal is pending before an appellate court, a final decision may be so corrected with leave of the court. However, the correction of a clerical mistake or error in a final decision does not extend the time for filing a notice of appeal in the appellate court. Further, this rule extends the time the Commission may remit, transfer, or accept payment of an increased penalty assessment amount from fifteen days to thirty days.
The former “Costs” section is rescinded. Previously, this section allowed the Commission to assess costs
This rule clarifies the previous version of this rule approved by OSMRE in 2010.
However, the rule at 1513-3-21(D) clarifies that Ohio's statute and regulations relevant to minerals—not including coal or peat, found within Chapter 1514 of the Revised Code, do not include an award of costs and expenses provision similar to those required in Chapter 1513. Specifically, Ohio's rule references the provision found within section 1514.09 that specifically explains that attorneys' fees, costs, and expenses may not be recovered for minerals. Chapter 1514 is not required to be consistent with SMCRA or its implementing regulations, as it does not pertain to coal regulation. Because Chapter 1514 is not part of the approved Ohio program, OSMRE is not making a determination on this portion of the Ohio rule.
This rule clarifies that parties to actions involving coal mining and reclamation brought under section 1513 of the ORC may seek review of a Commission decision in the court of appeals for the county in which the activity addressed by the decision of the Commission occurred, is occurring, or will occur. Moreover, this rule clarifies that parties to actions involving industrial minerals mining and reclamation and brought under section 1514.09, Representation on commission for appeals, of the ORC may seek review of a Commission decision in the court of common pleas in the county where the operation addressed by the decision of the Commission is located, or in the Franklin County Court of Common Pleas. However, Chapter 1514 is not required to be consistent with SMCRA or its implementing regulations, as it does not pertain to coal regulation. Because Chapter 1514 is not part of the approved Ohio program, OSMRE is not making a determination on this portion of the Ohio rule.
Additionally, the rules provide the Commission with the authority to control the transcription and transmission of the record to the appropriate appellate court.
OSMRE asked for public comments in the May 20, 2014,
Under Federal regulations at 30 CFR 732.17(h)(11)(i) and section 503(b) of SMCRA, OSMRE requested comments on the amendment from various Federal agencies with an actual or potential interest in the Ohio program (Administrative Record No. OH-2192-02). Specifically, OSMRE solicited comment from the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation, the United States Department of Labor, the United States Fish and Wildlife Service, the United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), the Ohio Historic Preservation Office, and the United States Department of Agriculture. OSMRE did not receive any response to the request for comments.
Pursuant to the Federal regulations at 30 CFR 732.17(h)(11)(ii), OSMRE is required to get a written concurrence from EPA for those provisions of the program amendment that relate to air or water quality standards issued under the authority of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1251
None of the revisions that Ohio proposed in the submittal pertain to air or water quality standards. Therefore, we did not ask EPA to concur on the amendment, and as stated above, EPA did not provide comment.
Under 30 CFR 732.17(h)(4), we are required to request comments from the SHPO and ACHP on amendments that may have an effect on historic properties. OSMRE requested comments on the Ohio amendment (Administrative Record Number OH-2192-02). We did not receive any comments.
Based on the above findings, we approve the amendment Ohio sent us on November 6, 2013, (Administrative Record Number OH-2192-01) with the exception of two provisions. We are not approving the sentence in section 1513-
To implement this decision, we are amending the Federal regulations at 30 CFR part 935 that codify decisions concerning the Ohio program. In accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act, this rule will take effect 30 days after the date of publication. Section 503(a) of SMCRA requires that the State's program demonstrate that the State has the capability of carrying out the provisions of the Act and meeting its purposes. SMCRA requires consistency of State and Federal standards.
This rule does not have takings implications. This determination is based on the analysis performed for the counterpart Federal regulations. Other changes implemented through this final rule notice are administrative in nature and have no takings implications.
Pursuant to Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Guidance dated October 12, 1993, the approval of state program amendments is exempted from OMB review under Executive Order 12866.
The Department of the Interior has reviewed this rule as required by section 3(a) of Executive Order 12988. The Department determined that this
This rule is not a “[p]olicy that [has] Federalism implications” as defined by section 1(a) of Executive Order 13132 because it does not have “substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.” Instead, this rule approves an amendment to the Ohio program submitted and drafted by that State. OSMRE reviewed the submission with fundamental federalism principles in mind as set forth in sections 2 and 3 of the Executive Order and with the principles of cooperative federalism set forth in SMCRA. See,
In accordance with Executive Order 13175, OSMRE has evaluated the potential effects of this rule on Federally recognized Indian tribes and has determined that the rule does not have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, or the relationship between the Federal government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal government and Indian tribes. The basis for this determination is that our decision pertains to the Ohio regulatory program and does not involve a Federal program involving Indian lands or Indian tribes in any way.
Executive Order 13211 of May 18, 2001, which requires agencies to prepare a Statement of Energy Effects for a rule that is (1) considered significant under Executive Order 12866, and (2) likely to have significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy. Because this rule is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866 and is not expected to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy, a Statement of Energy Effects is not required.
This rule does not require an environmental impact statement because section 702(d) of SMCRA (30 U.S.C. 1292(d)) provides that agency decisions on proposed State regulatory program provisions, including amendments thereto, do not constitute major Federal actions within the meaning of section 102(2)(C) of the National Environmental Policy Act (42 U.S.C. 4332(2)(C)). It is further documented in the DOI Departmental Manual at 516 DM 13.5 that agency decisions on approval of State regulatory programs do not constitute major Federal actions.
This rule does not contain information collection requirements that require approval by OMB under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3507
The Department of the Interior certifies that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
This rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804(2), the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act. This rule: (a) Does not have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million; (b) will not cause a major increase in costs or prices for consumers, individual industries, geographic regions, or Federal, State, or local government agencies; and (c) does not have significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or the ability of U.S.-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises. This determination is based upon the fact that the State submittal, which is the subject of this rule, is based upon
This rule will not impose an unfunded mandate on State, local, or tribal governments or the private sector of $100 million or more in any given year. This determination is based upon the fact that the State submittal, which is the subject of this rule, is based upon counterpart Federal regulations for which an analysis was prepared and a determination made that the Federal regulation did not impose an unfunded mandate.
Intergovernmental relations, Surface mining, Underground mining.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 30 CFR part 935 is amended as set forth below:
30 U.S.C. 1201
(a) In OAC 1513-3-07(A), we are not approving the following sentence: “A petition for leave to intervene must be filed at least ten days prior to the beginning of an evidentiary hearing on the merits of an appeal, unless waived by the commission for extraordinary cause.”
(b) In OAC 1513-3-07(D) (4), we are not approving the deletion of the following sentence: “The effect of intervention on the agency's implementation of its statutory mandate.”
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the Route 280 Bridge across the Passaic River, mile 5.8, at Harrison, New Jersey. The deviation is necessary to perform steel repairs at the lift span. This deviation allows the bridge to remain closed during the construction period.
This deviation is effective from 12:01 a.m. on October 1, 2018, until 11:59 p.m. on December 14, 2018.
The docket for this deviation, USCG-2018-0779, is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Judy K. Leung-Yee, Bridge Management Specialist, First District Bridge Branch, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 212-514-4336, email
The owner of the bridge, New Jersey Department of Transportation, requested a temporary deviation in order to perform steel repairs at the lift span.
The Route 280 Bridge across the Passaic River, mile 5.8, at Harrison, New Jersey is a vertical lift bridge with a vertical clearance of 35 feet at mean high water and 40 feet at mean low water in the closed position. The existing drawbridge operating regulation is listed at 33 CFR 117.739(h).
This temporary deviation will allow the Route 280 Bridge to remain in the closed position from 12:01 a.m. on October 1, 2018, to 11:59 p.m. on December 14, 2018. The deviation will have minimal effect on navigation. The waterway is transited by recreational and commercial vessels. Coordination with waterway users has indicated no objection to the closure of the draw. Vessels able to pass through the bridge in the closed position may do so at any time. The bridge will not be able to open for emergencies. There is no immediate alternate route for vessels to pass.
The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterways through our Local and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the Meadowbrook State Parkway Bridge across Sloop Channel, mile 12.8, at Hempstead, NY.
This deviation is effective from 7 a.m. on September 28, 2018 to 7 a.m. on December 13, 2018.
The docket for this deviation, USCG-2018-0751 is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Stephanie E. Lopez, Bridge Management Specialist, First District Bridge Branch, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 212-514-4335, email
The owner of the bridge, the New York State Department of Transportation, requested a temporary deviation to facilitate the various structural, mechanical, and electrical rehabilitations. The spanlock platforms and machinery for both the Northbound and Southbound Bridge will be replaced in their entirety. Trunnion tower and rack gear supports repairs will be performed, and the bridge instrumentation will be replaced. The Meadowbrook State Parkway Bridge across the Sloop Channel, mile 12.8, has a vertical clearance in the closed position of 22 feet at mean high water and 25 feet at mean low water. The existing bridge operating regulations are found at 33 CFR 117.799(h).
This temporary deviation allows the Meadowbrook State Parkway Bridge to open only one bascule span at a time between 7 a.m. and 3 p.m., providing a minimum of 43 feet of available horizontal clearance, on the following days: September 28, 2018; October 1-5, 2018; November 26-30, 2018; and December 3, 2018.
Additionally, the Meadowbrook State Parkway Bridge shall remain in the closed position from 7 a.m. on October 15, 2018 through 7 a.m. on October 17, 2018 and from 7 a.m. on December 11, 2018 to 7 a.m. December 13, 2018.
The waterway is transited by commercial and recreational traffic. The Coast Guard notified known waterway users and there were no objections to this temporary deviation. Vessels able to pass under the bridge in the closed position may do so at any time. The bridge will not be able to open for emergencies and there is no immediate alternate route for vessels to pass.
The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterways through our Local and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the Metro-North SAGA Bridge across the Saugatuck River, mile 1.1 at Saugatuck, Connecticut. The deviation is necessary to conduct bridge maintenance and repair work. The deviation allows the bridge to remain closed to maritime navigation on weekdays and requires the bridge to open with 24 hours advance notice on weekends.
This deviation is effective from 8 a.m. on September 17, 2018, to 8 a.m. on October 29, 2018.
The docket for this deviation, USCG-2017-0754, is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Jeffrey Stieb, Bridge Management Specialist, First Coast Guard District, Coast Guard; telephone 617-223-8364, email
The owner of the bridge, Connecticut Department of Transportation, requested a temporary deviation from the normal operating schedule in order to conduct bridge maintenance and repair work. The Metro-North SAGA Railroad Bridge across the Saugatuck River, mile 1.1, at Saugatuck, Connecticut has a vertical clearance of 13 feet at mean high water in the closed position. The existing bridge operating regulations are listed at 33 CFR 117.221(b).
Under this temporary deviation, from 8 a.m. on Monday, September 17, 2018, to 8 a.m. on Monday, October 29, 2018, the Metro-North SAGA Bridge may operate as follows: From 8 a.m. Monday to 3 p.m. Friday, the draw may remain closed to marine navigation. From 3 p.m. Friday to 8 a.m. Monday, the draw shall open with 24 hours advance notice.
The waterway is transited by seasonal recreational vessels of various sizes. Vessels that can pass under the bridge in the closed position may do so at any time. The bridge will not be able to open for emergencies. The Department of Transportation has coordinated the closure with the harbormaster and has posted notice of the closure on the Connecticut Department of Transportation Construction News website. The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterway through our Local and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by this temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of enforcement of regulation.
The Coast Guard will enforce the safety zone for the San Francisco Giants Fireworks Display in the Captain of the Port, San Francisco area of responsibility during the dates and times noted below. This action is necessary to protect life and property of the maritime public from the hazards associated with the fireworks display. During the enforcement period, unauthorized persons or vessels are prohibited from entering into, transiting through, or anchoring in the safety zone, unless authorized by the Patrol Commander (PATCOM).
The regulations in 33 CFR 165.1191, Table 1, Item number 1, will be enforced from 11 a.m. on August 31, 2018 to 10:45 p.m. on August 31, 2018, or as announced via Broadcast Notice to Mariners.
If you have questions on this notice, call or email Lieutenant Emily K. Rowan, U.S. Coast Guard Sector San Francisco; telephone (415) 399-7443 or email at
The Coast Guard will enforce a 100 foot safety zone around the fireworks barge during the loading, transit, and arrival of the fireworks barge from the loading location to the display location and until the start of the fireworks display. From 11 a.m. until 5 p.m. on August 31, 2018, the fireworks barge will be loading pyrotechnics from Pier 50 in San Francisco, CA. The fireworks barge will remain at the loading location until its transit to the display location. From 8:30 p.m. to 9 p.m. on August 31, 2018 the loaded fireworks barge will transit from Pier 50 to the launch site near Pier 48 in approximate position 37°46′36″ N, 122°22′56″ W (NAD 83) where it will remain until the conclusion of the fireworks display. Upon the commencement of the 15 minute fireworks display, scheduled to begin at the conclusion of the baseball game, at approximately 10:00 p.m. on August 31, 2018, the safety zone will increase in size and encompass the navigable waters around and under the fireworks barge within a radius of 700 feet near Pier 48 in approximate position 37°46′36″ N, 122°22′56″ W (NAD 83) for the San Francisco Giants Fireworks in 33 CFR 165.1191, Table 1, Item number 1. This safety zone will be in effect from 11 a.m. on August 31, 2018 until 10:45 p.m. on August 31, 2018, or as announced via Broadcast Notice to Mariners.
Under the provisions of 33 CFR 165.1191, unauthorized persons or vessels are prohibited from entering into, transiting through, or anchoring in the safety zone during all applicable effective dates and times, unless authorized to do so by the PATCOM. Additionally, each person who receives notice of a lawful order or direction issued by an official patrol vessel shall obey the order or direction. The PATCOM is empowered to forbid entry into and control the regulated area. The PATCOM shall be designated by the Commander, Coast Guard Sector San Francisco. The PATCOM may, upon request, allow the transit of commercial vessels through regulated areas when it is safe to do so.
This notice is issued under authority of 33 CFR 165.1191 and 5 U.S.C. 552(a). In addition to this notice in the
If the Captain of the Port determines that the regulated area need not be enforced for the full duration stated in this notice, a Broadcast Notice to Mariners may be used to grant general permission to enter the regulated area.
Postal Service
Final rule.
The Postal Service is amending
Lizbeth Dobbins at (202) 268-3789 or Garry Rodriguez at (202) 268-7261.
The Postal Service published a notice of proposed rulemaking on April 20, 2018, (83 FR 17518-17519) to amend the DMM to add a process, which included a fee, for removing overweight items that are found in the postal network. Items that exceed the 70 pound weight limit are nonmailable and are not provided service.
The Postal Service received 2 formal responses to the proposed rule, one of which included multiple comments.
Both responses were in agreement with enforcing the 70 pound weight restriction. However, the second responder had several comments, as follows:
At this time, the Postal Service is implementing the process for removing items over the 70 pound maximum weight limit for Priority Mail Express®, Priority Mail®, USPS Retail Ground®, Media Mail®, Library Mail, Parcel Select®, and Parcel Return Service. Hazardous materials exceeding the applicable maximum weight limits discovered in the postal network may be subject to a civil penalty under 39 U.S.C. 3018.
Once the overweight item is identified, it will be secured and either the sender or receiver will be contacted to pick up the item within 14 calendar days. An overweight item not picked up within the 14 calendar day timeframe will be considered abandoned and disposed of at the Postal Service's discretion. Any amounts paid as purported postage and any fees would not be refundable.
The Postal Service is still determining the appropriate fee. However, because the safety of our employees is paramount, the Postal Service is moving forward immediately with implementing the process for intercepting and holding overweight items for pickup by mailers, without assessing a fee. The Postal Service will publish details regarding the fee in another
This revision will ensure the safety of our employees while providing a superb customer experience from sender to receiver.
The Postal Service adopts the following changes to
Accordingly, 39 CFR part 111 is amended as follows:
Administrative practice and procedure, Incorporation by reference, Postal Service.
5 U.S.C. 552(a); 13 U.S.C. 301-307; 18 U.S.C. 1692-1737; 39 U.S.C. 101, 401, 403, 404, 414, 416, 3001-3011, 3201-3219, 3403-3406, 3621, 3622, 3626, 3632, 3633, and 5001.
The maximum Postal Service mailpiece weight limit is 70 pounds, lower weight limits may apply. Any Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, USPS Retail Ground, Media Mail, Library Mail, Parcel Select, and Parcel Return Service item exceeding the 70 pound Postal Service maximum weight limit is nonmailable and if found in the postal network will be secured at the facility identifying the ineligible item for pick-up by the mailer or addressee.
Refunds are not made for the following:
i. For any amounts paid as purported postage and any fees on overweight items that are nonmailable under 601.1.2.
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule; announcement of effective date.
In this document, the Commission announces that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has approved, the information collection associated with the Commission's a Wireless Emergency Alert Second Report and Order and Second Order on Reconsideration (
The amendment to 47 CFR 10.240
Linda Pintro, Attorney-Advisor, Policy and Licensing Division, Public Safety and Homeland Security Bureau at 202-418-7490 or
This document announces that, on August 1, 2018, OMB approved, the information collection requirements relating to CMS Provider election of whether to participate in WEA, and the enhanced disclosure rules contained in the Commission's
To request materials in accessible formats for people with disabilities (Braille, large print, electronic files, audio format), send an email to
As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507), the FCC is notifying the public that it received final OMB approval on August 1, 2018, for the information collection requirements contained in the modifications to the Commission's rules in 47 CFR 10.240.
Under 5 CFR part 1320, an agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a current, valid OMB Control Number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act that does not display a current, valid OMB Control Number. The OMB Control Number is 3060-1113.
The foregoing notice is required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, October 1, 1995, and 44 U.S.C. 3507.
The total annual reporting burdens and costs for the respondents are as follows:
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule; announcement of effective date.
In this document, the Commission announces that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has approved, for a period of three years, the information collection associated with Order DA 18-282. This document is consistent with Order DA 18-282, which stated that the Commission would publish a document in the
The addition of 47 CFR 90.25, published at 83 FR 19976, May 7, 2018, is effective August 29, 2018.
Brian Marenco, Policy and Licensing Division, Public Safety and Homeland Security Bureau, at (202) 418-0838, or email:
This document announces that, on August 13, 2018, OMB approved, for a period of three years, the information collection requirements relating to new § 90.25 adopted in Order, DA 18-282, published at 83 FR 19976, May 7, 2018. The OMB Control Number is 3060-1257. The Commission publishes this document as an announcement of the effective date of the rules. If you have any comments on the burden estimates listed below, or how the Commission can improve the collection and reduce any burdens caused thereby, please contact Nicole Ongele, Federal Communications Commission, Room 1-A620, 445 12th Street SW, Washington, DC 20554. Please include the OMB Control Number, 3060-1257, in your correspondence. The Commission will also accept your comments via email at
To request materials in accessible formats for people with disabilities (Braille, large print, electronic files, audio format), send an email to
As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507), the FCC is notifying the public that it received final OMB approval on August 13, 2018, for the information collection requirement contained in new rule 47 CFR 90.25.
Under 5 CFR part 1320, an agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a current, valid OMB Control Number.
No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act that does not display a current, valid OMB Control Number. The OMB Control Number is 3060-1257.
The foregoing notice is required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995,
The total annual reporting burdens and costs for the respondents are as follows:
Federal Railroad Administration (FRA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
This rule is part of FRA's broader initiative to reduce the paperwork burden of its regulations while still supporting compliance with the Federal hours of service laws and regulations. Current regulations require employees covered by those laws or regulations (covered service employees) to create and retain hours of service records by hand (a paper system) or “certify” the record using a compliant computerized system (an electronic system) with program logic. Cognizant of the burden placed on small operations, FRA provides a simplified method of computerized recordkeeping (an automated system)—in which employees apply their electronic signatures to automated records stored in a railroad computer system without the complexity and functionality of an electronic system—for eligible smaller railroads (and contractors and subcontractors providing covered service employees to such railroads). This rule does not require the use of automated recordkeeping, but, when implemented by the small operations for which it is tailored, it will decrease the burden hours spent on hours of service recordkeeping.
This final rule is effective August 29, 2018 in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(1).
For access to the docket to read background documents or comments received, go to
Patrick J. Hogan, Transportation Specialist, Office of Railroad Safety, Federal Railroad Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, W33-448, Washington, DC 20590; telephone: 202-493-0277; email:
In 2009, FRA finalized amendments to the HS recordkeeping regulations at 49 CFR part 228 (part 228) to authorize electronic recordkeeping and reporting as a means of compliance with the Federal HS laws. In addition to certification requirements, see 49 CFR 228.9(b), these amendments added new subpart D to part 228, which established comprehensive requirements for electronic recordkeeping systems. Some smaller railroads informed FRA that the requirements of part 228, subpart D make electronic recordkeeping systems infeasible for their operations, which are less complex and variable than larger railroads' operations. Some small railroads already use an automated system for covered service employees to enter required HS data, which the employees then print and sign as a paper HS record. This rule allows a railroad with less than 400,000 employee-hours annually (an “eligible smaller railroad”), and contractors and subcontractors that provide covered service employees to that railroad, to have employees electronically sign the automated records of their hours of duty and to store the records in the railroad's computer system. Thus, this rule eliminates the requirement to print and sign the record.
This rule amends part 228, subpart D by defining an “automated recordkeeping system” for eligible smaller railroads under new § 228.201(b) and outlining the requirements of such a system under new § 228.206, while retaining the definition of an “electronic recordkeeping system” as § 228.201(a) and the existing requirements under §§ 228.203-228.205. The rule also provides general requirements for automated records, such as electronic signatures, retention periods, and FRA access, under new § 228.9(c), and it modifies training requirements under § 228.207.
This rule allows an eligible smaller railroad to adopt an automated recordkeeping system without conforming to all the requirements for an electronic recordkeeping system. For example, new § 228.206 does not require an automated recordkeeping system to include some of the program components and other features that are not appropriate or necessary for the operations of eligible smaller railroads, although those features are important for an electronic recordkeeping system in light of the more complex operations of larger railroads. New § 228.206 includes requirements for FRA and participating State inspector access to and ability to search an automated recordkeeping system to effectively monitor compliance with the HS laws and regulations, similar to the search capabilities and access requirements for electronic recordkeeping systems.
This rule significantly reduces costs and paperwork burdens for eligible smaller railroads because automated records require less time to complete than manual records and the records may be stored digitally, relieving eligible smaller railroads of the burden of storing and maintaining paper records. The costs of implementing an automated recordkeeping system are projected as substantially less than an electronic recordkeeping system and are relatively small compared to the benefits gained by eliminating a paper recordkeeping system. Adopting an automated recordkeeping system is purely voluntary, but FRA expects many eligible smaller railroads currently using manual records to begin creating and maintaining HS records using an automated system, with a projected reduction of over 194,000 burden hours. FRA's economic analysis projects an estimated $87.6 million in net savings over a 10-year period as a result of this rule, and the present value of this savings is $55.1 million (discounted at 7 percent). The final rule is expected to have no negative impact on safety, as it simply provides a voluntary option for eligible smaller railroads and their contractors and subcontractors to use an alternative means of compliance with recordkeeping obligations.
Federal laws governing railroad employees' hours of service date back to 1907
Congress has amended the HS statutory requirements several times over the years, most recently in the Rail Safety Improvement Act of 2008 (RSIA).
Additionally, section 108(f)(1) of the RSIA required the Secretary to prescribe a regulation revising the requirements for recordkeeping and reporting for hours of service of railroad employees, specifically to authorize electronic record keeping and reporting of excess
In general, the 2009 Recordkeeping Amendments required that either employees recording their own time, or the reporting crewmember of a train crew or signal gang who was recording time, certify their electronic HS records, instead of signing them by hand, and that the recordkeeping system electronically stamp the records with the name of the certifying employee and the date and time of certification.
• First, electronic recordkeeping systems must generate records that provide sufficient data fields for an employee to report a wide variety and number of activities that could arise during a duty tour.
• Second, the systems must have security features to control access to HS records and to identify any individual who entered information on a record.
• Third, systems must include program logic that identifies how periods of time spent in any activity that is entered on a record are treated under the HS laws (and the substantive HS regulations for passenger train employees).
• Fourth, program logic must allow the systems to calculate total time on duty from the data the employee entered, flag employee-input errors so the employee can correct them before certifying the record, and require the employee to enter an explanation when the data entered shows a violation of the HS laws or regulations.
• Fifth, electronic recordkeeping systems must provide a method known as a “quick tie-up” for employees to enter limited HS information when they have met or exceeded the maximum hours allowed for the duty tour, and railroads must have procedures for employees to do a quick tie-up by telephone or facsimile (fax) if computer access is not available.
• Finally, an electronic recordkeeping system must provide search capability so records may be searched by date or date range and by employee name or identification number, train or job assignment, origin or release location, territory, and by records showing excess service. The results of any such search must yield all records matching specified criteria.
The final rule applies only to eligible smaller railroads
Contractors and subcontractors to eligible smaller railroads are also eligible to use automated recordkeeping systems for their employees working on eligible smaller railroads, but not for their employees working on ineligible railroads. For instance, a contractor or subcontractor that performs covered service for both eligible smaller railroads and Class I railroads is not eligible to use an automated recordkeeping system for the hours of service records of its employees working for Class I railroads. If a contractor or subcontractor small enough to be eligible to use an automated recordkeeping system under this rule performs service for eligible and ineligible railroads and seeks to use an automated recordkeeping system, such a contractor or subcontractor may pursue relief through the waiver process, under 49 CFR 211.41.
It is appropriate to allow the eligible smaller railroads to use an automated recordkeeping system that lacks the programming and analysis capabilities required of an electronic recordkeeping system because of the less complex and less varied nature of the operations of eligible smaller railroads. For example, this rule does not require an automated system to calculate and fill in total time on duty based on the information an employee enters because that would require costly programming to enable the system to identify how various periods of time are treated. Instead, an employee will enter that information just as if the automated record were a paper record. Similarly, the rule does not require an automated system to include costly programming that would prompt the employee to enter an explanation of a duty tour over 12 hours or that would flag possible input errors or missing data (for example, showing an on-duty location that differs from the released location of the previous duty tour).
Approximately 746 railroads, 18 commuter railroads, and their contractors and subcontractors, are eligible to use automated recordkeeping systems pursuant to this rule. FRA declines to extend this rule to railroads with 400,000 or more employee-hours annually because the number of employees, volume of HS records, and complexity of operations associated with larger railroads requires a more sophisticated electronic recordkeeping system that complies with part 228, subpart D if those operations want to use an alternative to manual records.
Among commuter railroads, for example, Metro-North Commuter Railroad is currently using an electronic recordkeeping system, and New Jersey Transit Railroad is developing an electronic recordkeeping system. FRA understands that these railroads are willing to share some information with other commuter railroads that are ineligible for automated recordkeeping systems to help them develop electronic recordkeeping systems compliant with part 228, subpart D. By developing these partnerships, larger commuter railroads will have a cost-effective opportunity to eliminate paper records and adopt electronic recordkeeping systems even if they do not qualify for automated recordkeeping under this rule. For these reasons, FRA adopts this rule applicable only to eligible smaller railroads.
FRA received two public comments on the automated recordkeeping NPRM. The American Short Line and Regional Railroad Association filed a short comment October 23, 2015, indicating the NPRM accurately assessed the ability of small railroads to capture HS data and expressing eagerness to see a final rule in effect. FRA also received an anonymous comment October 22, 2015, indicating only that the NPRM was, “Good.” FRA received no public comments conveying a need to change the scope or substance of the proposed rule.
FRA adds definitions of “automated recordkeeping system”; “electronic recordkeeping system”; “electronic signature”; and “eligible smaller railroad.”
The definitions of “automated recordkeeping system” and “electronic recordkeeping system” distinguish the automated systems subject to this rulemaking, which are required to conform to the requirements of new §§ 228.201(b) and 228.206, from the electronic recordkeeping systems that must meet the pre-existing requirements of §§ 228.201(a) and 228.203-228.205.
The definition of “electronic signature” is consistent with the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act.
This rule defines an “eligible smaller railroad”, in general, as a railroad with less than 400,000 employee hours annually, which is eligible to use an automated recordkeeping system under this rule. More specifically, an eligible smaller railroad is defined as a railroad that has reported to FRA it had less than 400,000 employee hours during the preceding three consecutive calendar years on Form FRA 6180.55—Annual Railroad Reports of Manhours by State, as required by 49 CFR 225.21(d). As an exception to the general rule, railroads that have not been operating for three prior consecutive calendar years and expect to have less than 400,000 employee hours annually during the current year may use an automated recordkeeping system. This final rule combines the substantive content of the proposed definitions of “eligible smaller railroad” and “railroad that has less than 400,000 employee hours annually” into the final definition of “eligible smaller railroad.”
New § 228.9(c) establishes requirements for automated records that parallel the requirements of paragraph (a) for manual records and paragraph (b) for electronic records. Paragraph (c) requires that automated records be electronically signed and stamped with the certifying employee's electronic signature that meets the requirements of § 228.206(a) and the date and time that the employee electronically signed the record. As in paragraphs (a) and (b), paragraph (c) contains requirements for retaining and accessing the records. Unlike paragraph (b) applicable to electronic records, paragraph (c) does not require using an employee identification (ID) and password to access automated records.
Section 228.11(a) requires each railroad, or a contractor or a subcontractor that provides covered service employees to a railroad, to “keep a record, either manually or electronically, concerning the hours of duty of each employee.” Because HS records created and maintained using an automated recordkeeping system will also be required to comply with the requirements of § 228.11 (
FRA retains the pre-existing requirements of this section for electronic recordkeeping systems as paragraph (a) and adopts new paragraph (b) with similar but simplified requirements for automated recordkeeping systems, in part by cross-referencing those requirements of paragraph (a) also applicable to automated recordkeeping systems. The rule makes minor non-substantive changes to paragraphs (a)(3), (a)(4), and (a)(5) to correct typographical errors, specifically by deleting the “and” after paragraph (a)(3), replacing the periods at the end of paragraphs (a)(4) and (a)(5) with semicolons, and adding “and” after the semicolon at the end of paragraph (a)(5). New § 228.201(b)(1) requires an automated recordkeeping system to comply with new § 228.206. New § 228.201(b)(2) requires eligible smaller railroads using automated recordkeeping systems to comply with the requirements of paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(4)-(a)(6), requirements also applicable to electronic records and recordkeeping systems. The main difference between the requirements of new § 228.201(b)(2) for automated records and recordkeeping systems and the corresponding existing requirements for electronic records and recordkeeping systems is that automated systems are not required to have monitoring indicators in the system to help the railroad monitor the accuracy of the records. Eligible smaller railroads, however, remain responsible for the accuracy of their required HS records, regardless of whether the record is manual, automated, or electronic.
Finally, under new § 228.201(c), if a railroad, or a contractor or subcontractor to a railroad with an automated recordkeeping system, ceases to qualify as an “eligible smaller railroad” based on the new definition in § 228.5, that railroad, or contractor or subcontractor to a railroad, may not use an automated recordkeeping system unless FRA grants a waiver under 49 CFR 211.41. As described above, FRA believes larger railroads are better served by the use of an electronic recordkeeping system. In most cases, a railroad with such growth for three consecutive calendar years will have had sufficient time and funding to transition to an electronic recordkeeping system.
New § 228.206 establishes the requirements for an automated recordkeeping system, some of which are similar to the requirements for electronic recordkeeping systems found in §§ 228.203 and 228.205. As discussed in Section III above, however, § 228.206 is tailored to the nature and lesser complexity of the operations of eligible smaller railroads. Therefore, the rule does not require an automated system to include some of the program components and other features that apply to electronic recordkeeping systems. These elements are not appropriate or necessary for the operations of eligible smaller railroads; however, the rule requires other elements for the automated systems not used in an electronic recordkeeping system.
Paragraph (a) mandates an employee creating an automated record must sign the record and establishes the requirements for an electronic signature. These requirements largely track paragraph (g) of § 228.19, which explains the requirements for railroads to establish and use electronic signatures for filing reports of excess service. These requirements are unique to automated recordkeeping systems and do not apply to electronic recordkeeping systems.
Paragraph (b) provides standards for system security of automated recordkeeping systems. Eligible smaller railroads must control access to the automated recordkeeping system using a user name and password or comparable method. Paragraph (b)(1) restricts data entry to the employee, train crew, or signal gang whose time is being reported, although a railroad may pre-populate some of the known factual data on its employees' HS records. An employee's name or identification number, or the on-duty time for an employee who works a regular schedule, are examples of the kind of data that the automated system can pre-populate; however, the regulation requires that the employee may make changes to any pre-populated data at all times without requiring permission or authorization from any third party, such as, but not limited to, a railroad manager.
Paragraph (b)(2) requires no two individuals have the same electronic signature, and paragraph (b)(3) requires the system not permit the deletion or alteration of an electronically-signed automated record. Paragraphs (b)(4) and (b)(5) together require that any amendment to a record must (1) be stored digitally apart from the record it amends or attached as information without altering the record and (2) identify the person making the amendment. Finally, paragraphs (b)(6) and (b)(7) require the automated recordkeeping systems maintain records as submitted without corruption or loss of data and ensure supervisors and crew management officials can access, but not delete or alter, an automated record after an employee electronically signs the record. The proposed rule did not establish a specific interval for railroads to back-up the data contained in their automated recordkeeping system. FRA requested comments on the appropriate interval and method of data back-up, but did not receive any comments on this issue. To guarantee sufficient data redundancy to prevent substantial loss of HS records, paragraph (b)(6) now requires back-up of automated recordkeeping systems at least quarterly.
Paragraph (c) requires the automated recordkeeping system to identify each individual who enters data on a record and which data items each individual entered if more than one person entered data on a given record.
Paragraph (d) establishes the required search capabilities for an automated recordkeeping system. Though the rule provides specific data fields and other criteria the system must be able to use to search for and retrieve responsive records, the requirements are notably less complex than those for an electronic recordkeeping system.
Paragraph (e) establishes the requirements for access to automated recordkeeping systems. Eligible smaller railroads must grant FRA inspectors, and participating State inspectors, access to the system using railroad computer terminals as soon as possible, and no later than 24 hours after a request for access. The access must make visible each data field an employee completed, and data fields must be searchable as described in paragraph (d).
This rule revises the training requirements of part 228. Specifically, paragraph (b) of this section, which sets forth the components of initial training, will now require training on how to enter HS data into an automated system. The paragraph currently requires training of employees on the electronic recordkeeping system or the appropriate paper records used by the railroad, contractor, or subcontractor for whom the employees perform covered service. Paragraph (b) will now include a similar training requirement for eligible smaller
Similarly, this rule revises paragraph (c) of this section to specifically require eligible smaller railroads with automated systems to provide refresher training emphasizing any changes in HS substantive requirements, HS recordkeeping requirements, or a railroad's HS recordkeeping system since the employee was last provided training. FRA expects any railroad implementing an automated recordkeeping system to replace previously-used paper records would need to provide training on the use of that system to its employees, even if those employees had previously received training for paper records as required by this section.
This final rule has been evaluated in accordance with existing policies and procedures under Executive Order 12866, Executive Order 13563, Executive Order 13771, and DOT policies and procedures. 44 FR 11034, Feb. 26, 1979; 76 FR 3821, Jan. 21, 2011; 82 FR 9339, Jan. 30, 2017. OMB designated this rule nonsignificant. FRA prepared and placed in the docket a Regulatory Evaluation addressing the economic impacts of this rule.
FRA will now allow eligible smaller railroads, and their contractors and subcontractors, to use automated recordkeeping systems, a simpler alternative to electronic recordkeeping systems that are infeasible for them, because their operations are less complex and variable than the operations of larger railroads. Both electronic and automated records require substantially less time to complete and cost less to store than manual records. Under this rule, eligible smaller railroads can take advantage of paper-saving technology to create and maintain hours of duty records as required by 49 CFR part 228, subpart B without complying with the more-stringent requirements for electronic recordkeeping systems under 49 CFR part 228, subpart D that may not be relevant to their operations. As part of its regulatory evaluation, FRA explained the benefits/cost savings of automated records and recordkeeping systems under this rule and provided a monetized value. The rule substantially reduces costs compared to current paper recordkeeping systems by allowing eligible smaller railroads to use automated recordkeeping systems. FRA believes the majority of eligible smaller railroads will take advantage of the opportunity for cost savings and incur a small burden to realize projected significant net cost savings. The final rule also follows the direction of Executive Order 13563, which emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility.
Finally, this final rule is considered an E.O. 13771 deregulatory action. Details on the estimated cost savings of this proposed rule can be found in the rule's economic analysis.
FRA estimates this regulation will result in a total estimated reduction of just over 194,000 burden hours annually. Based on railroads' annual 6180.55 reports to FRA for 2016, this rule will apply to a total of approximately 764 railroads with less than 400,000 employee-hours annually. These 764 railroads include the eligible employees of 746 probable small freight railroads and 18 small commuter railroads, as well as their contractors and subcontractors. FRA estimates 615 of these entities will adopt an automated recordkeeping system: 80 percent of the 746 small railroads and all 18 of the small commuter railroads.
The economic analysis
FRA estimated the net cost savings expected from this final rule. In particular, over a 10-year period, $87.6 million in net savings could accrue through the adoption of automated recordkeeping systems. The present value of this savings is $55.1 million (discounted at 7 percent). FRA concludes the eligible small railroads would benefit significantly from adoption of the final rule.
Railroads are already producing HS records manually on paper records to comply with 49 CFR 228.11, and adopting an automated recordkeeping system is voluntary. FRA expects a relatively small implementation investment cost for railroads electing to use the automated system to realize the significant benefits (cost burden reduction). Costs are primarily labor driven along with the potential purchase of hardware
Therefore, this final rule would have a positive effect on these railroads, saving each railroad approximately a net $89,584 in costs at discounted 7 percent over the 10-year analysis. The table below presents the estimated net cost savings associated with the final rule, over the 10-year analysis.
Both the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), Public Law 96-354, as amended, and codified as amended at 5 U.S.C. 601-612, and Executive Order 13272—Proper Consideration of Small Entities in Agency Rulemaking, 67 FR 53461, Aug. 16, 2002, require agency review of proposed and final rules to assess their
The term “small entity” is defined in 5 U.S.C. 601 (Section 601). Section 601(6) defines “small entity” as having the same meaning as “the terms `small business', `small organization' and `small governmental jurisdiction' defined in paragraphs (3), (4), and (5) of this section.” In turn, Section 601(3) defines a “small business” as generally having the same meaning as “small business concern” under Section 3 of the Small Business Act, and includes any a small business concern that is independently owned and operated, and is not dominant in its field of operation. Next, Sec. 601(4) defines “small organization” as generally meaning any not-for-profit enterprises that is independently owned and operated, and not dominant in its field of operations. Additionally, Sec. 601(5) defines “small governmental jurisdiction” in general to include governments of cities, counties, towns, townships, villages, school districts, or special districts with populations less than 50,000.
The U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA) stipulates “size standards” for small entities. It provides that, in order to qualify for “small entity” status, a for-profit railroad business firm may have a maximum of 1,500 employees for “Line-Haul Operating” railroads and 500 employees for “Short-Line Operating” railroads.
Under exceptions in Section 601, Federal agencies may adopt their own size standards for small entities in consultation with SBA, and in conjunction with public comment. Under that authority, FRA published a “Final Policy Statement Concerning Small Entities Subject to the Railroad Safety Laws” (Policy) which formally establishes that small entities include among others, the following: (1) Railroads that Surface Transportation Board (STB) regulations classify as Class III and (2) commuter railroads “that serve populations of 50,000 or less.”
FRA amends its hours of service recordkeeping regulations to provide simplified recordkeeping requirements by allowing eligible smaller railroads, and their contractors and subcontractors, to utilize an automated system to create and maintain hours of duty records as required by 49 CFR 228.11. As stated above, FRA reports indicate there are 742 Class III railroads that are eligible to use the simplified automated recordkeeping system this final rule provides. However, if they are affected, it is voluntary because this final rule does not require any railroad to develop and use an automated recordkeeping system. As stated above, there are also 18 commuter railroads, each of which is run by a State, County, or Municipal Agency, eligible under this final rule to develop and use an automated recordkeeping system, but all serve populations of 50,000 or more and are not designated as small businesses.
FRA estimates 80 percent of small railroads and all small commuter railroads to convert to automated recordkeeping. For the purposes of this analysis, the 615 railroads FRA estimates are affected by this final rule are assumed to be small railroads. However, as discussed above, the economic impact on these small railroads is not significant. This final rule does not affect any other small entities other than these small railroads. As stated above in Section VI.A., although FRA estimates each of these railroads will expend $5,590, this final rule will have a positive net economic effect on these railroads, saving each railroad approximately $89,584 in costs at discounted 7 percent over the 10-year period analyzed. Since this amount is relatively small and beneficial, FRA concludes this final rule does not have a significant impact on these railroads.
To determine the significance of the economic impact for this RFA, during the NPRM process, FRA invited comments from all interested parties concerning the potential economic impact of this rulemaking on small entities. However, FRA did not receive any comments related to small entities.
FRA expects the final rule will reduce the paperwork burden for smaller railroads. Therefore, this RFA concludes this final rule will not cause an economic impact on any small entities.
Pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601(b), the FRA Administrator hereby certifies that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. FRA continues to invite comments from members of the public who foresee a significant impact.
Executive Order 13132, “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, Aug. 10, 1999), requires FRA to develop an accountable process to ensure “meaningful and timely input by State and local officials in the development of regulatory policies that have federalism implications.” The executive order defines “policies that have federalism implications” to include regulations that have “substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.” Under Executive Order 13132, the agency may not issue a regulation with federalism implications that imposes substantial direct compliance costs and that is not required by statute, unless the Federal government provides the funds necessary to pay the direct compliance costs incurred by State and local governments or the agency consults with State and local government officials early in the process of developing the regulation. Where a
FRA analyzed this final rule consistent with the principles and criteria contained in Executive Order 13132. FRA determined the final rule will not have substantial direct effects on States, on the relationship between the national government and States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. In addition, FRA determined this final rule will not impose substantial direct compliance costs on State and local governments. Therefore, the consultation and funding requirements of Executive Order 13132 do not apply.
This final rule amends FRA's HS reporting and recordkeeping regulations to allow a railroad with less than 400,000 employee hours annually, and a contractor or subcontractor providing covered service employees to such a railroad, to create and maintain HS records for its covered service employees using an automated recordkeeping system. FRA is not aware of any State with regulations covering the subject of this final rule. However, FRA notes this rule could have preemptive effect under Section 20106 of the former Federal Railroad Safety Act of 1970, that Congress repealed, reenacted without substantive change, codified at 49 U.S.C. 20106, and later amended (Section 20106). Section 20106 provides that States may not adopt or continue in effect any law, regulation, or order related to railroad safety or security that covers the subject matter of a regulation prescribed or order issued by the Secretary of Transportation (with respect to railroad safety matters), unless the State law, regulation, or order (1) qualifies under the “essentially local safety or security hazard” exception to Section 20106, (2) is not incompatible with a law, regulation, or order of the U.S. Government, and (3) does not unreasonably burden interstate commerce.
In sum, FRA analyzed this final rule consistent with the principles and criteria contained in Executive Order 13132. As explained above, FRA determined this final rule has no federalism implications other than possible preemption of State laws under 49 U.S.C. 20106 and 21109 (providing regulatory authority for hours of service). Accordingly, FRA determined it is not required to prepare a federalism summary impact statement for this final rule.
The Trade Agreement Act of 1979 prohibits Federal agencies from engaging in any standards or related activities that create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States. Legitimate domestic objectives, such as safety, are not considered unnecessary obstacles. The statute also requires consideration of international standards, and, where appropriate, that they be the basis for U.S. standards. This rulemaking is purely domestic in nature and is not expected to affect trade opportunities for U.S. firms doing business overseas or for foreign firms doing business in the United States.
The information collection requirements in this final rule are being submitted for approval to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3501
All estimates include the time for reviewing instructions; searching existing data sources; gathering or maintaining the needed data; and reviewing the information. Pursuant to 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(B), FRA solicits comments concerning: Whether these information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the functions of FRA, including whether the information has practical utility; the accuracy of FRA's estimates of the burden of the information collection requirements; the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and whether the burden of collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology, may be minimized. For information or a copy of the paperwork package submitted to OMB, contact Mr. Robert Brogan, Information Collection Clearance Officer, Office of Railroad Safety, at 202-493-6292, or Ms. Kim Toone, Information Collection Clearance Officer, Office of Railroad Administration, at 202-493-6132, or via email at the following addresses:
Organizations and individuals desiring to submit comments on the collection of information requirements should direct them to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Washington, DC 20503, Attention: FRA Desk Officer. Comments may also be sent via email to the Office of Management and Budget at the following address:
OMB is required to make a decision concerning the collection of information requirements contained in this final rule between 30 and 60 days after publication of this document in the
FRA cannot impose a penalty on persons for violating information collection requirements which do not display a current OMB control number, if required. FRA intends to obtain current OMB control numbers for any new information collection requirements resulting from this rulemaking action prior to the effective date of this final rule. The OMB control number assigned to the collection of information associated with the current rule is OMB No. 2130-0005.
FRA further concluded no extraordinary circumstances exist with respect to this final regulation that might trigger the need for a more detailed environmental review under sections 4(c) and (e) of FRA's Procedures. As a result, FRA finds that this final rule is not a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment.
Under section 201 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4, 2 U.S.C. 1531), each Federal agency “shall, unless otherwise prohibited by law, assess the effects of Federal regulatory actions on State, local, and tribal governments, and the private sector (other than to the extent that such regulations incorporate requirements specifically set forth in law).” Section 202 of the Act (2 U.S.C. 1532) further requires written statements from agencies before promulgating any general notice of proposed rulemaking that includes any Federal mandate that may result in expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted annually for inflation) in any 1 year and before promulgating any final rule for which a general notice of proposed rulemaking was published. The written statement, if required, would detail the effect on State, local, and tribal governments and the private sector.
For the year 2015, FRA adjusted the monetary amount of $100,000,000 to $156,000,000 for inflation. This final rule would not result in the expenditure of more than $156,000,000 by the public sector in any one year, and thus preparation of such a statement is not required.
Executive Order 13211 requires Federal agencies to prepare a Statement of Energy Effects for any “significant energy action.” 66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001. Under the Executive Order, “significant energy action” means any action by an agency (normally published in the
Administrative practice and procedures, Buildings and facilities, Hazardous materials transportation, Noise control, Penalties, Railroad employees, Railroad safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, FRA amends part 228 of chapter II, subtitle B of title 49, Code of Federal Regulations, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 20103, 20107, 21101-21109; Sec. 108, Div. A, Pub. L. 110-432, 122 Stat. 4860-4866, 4893-4894; 49 U.S.C. 21301, 21303, 21304, 21311; 28 U.S.C. 2461, note; 49 U.S.C. 103; and 49 CFR 1.89.
(1) An eligible smaller railroad, or a contractor or subcontractor to such a railroad, may use instead of a manual recordkeeping system or electronic recordkeeping system to create and maintain any records subpart B of this part requires; and
(2) Conforms to the requirements of § 228.206.
(1) A railroad may use instead of a manual recordkeeping system or automated recordkeeping system to create and maintain any records required by subpart B of this part; and
(2) Conforms to the requirements of §§ 228.201-228.205.
(1) Is attached to, or logically associated with, a contract or other record;
(2) Is executed or adopted by a person with the intent to sign the record, to create either an individual's unique digital signature, or unique digitized handwritten signature; and
(3) Complies with the requirements of § 228.19(g) or § 228.206(a).
(1) A railroad that reported to FRA that it had less than 400,000 employee hours during the preceding three consecutive calendar years under § 225.21(d) of this chapter on Form FRA 6180.55, Annual Railroad Reports of Employee Hours by State; or
(2) A railroad operating less than 3 consecutive calendar years that reported to FRA that it had less than 400,000 employee hours during the current calendar year under § 225.21(d) of this chapter on Form FRA 6180.55, Annual Railroad Reports of Employee Hours by State.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) Signed electronically by the employee whose time on duty is being recorded or, in the case of a member of a train crew or a signal employee gang, digitally signed by the reporting employee who is a member of the train crew or signal gang whose time is being recorded as provided by § 228.206(a);
(2) Stamped electronically with the certifying employee's electronic signature and the date and time the employee electronically signed the record;
(3) Retained for 2 years in a secured file that prevents alteration after electronic signature;
(4) Accessible by the Administrator through a computer terminal of the railroad; and
(5) Reproducible using printers at the location where records are accessed.
(a)
(a)
(1) The system used to generate the electronic record meets all requirements of this paragraph (a) of this section and all requirements of §§ 228.203 and 228.205;
(3) The railroad, or contractor or subcontractor to the railroad, monitors its electronic database of employee hours of duty records through a sufficient number of monitoring indicators to ensure a high degree of accuracy of these records;
(4) The railroad, or contractor or subcontractor to the railroad, trains its affected employees on the proper use of the electronic recordkeeping system to enter the information necessary to create their hours of service record, as required by § 228.207;
(5) The railroad, or contractor or subcontractor to the railroad, maintains an information technology security program adequate to ensure the integrity of the system, including the prevention of unauthorized access to the program logic or individual records; and
(b)
(1) The automated recordkeeping system meets all requirements of paragraph (b) of this section and all requirements of § 228.206; and
(2) The eligible smaller railroad or its contractor or subcontractor complies with all of the requirements of paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(4) through (6) of this section for its automated records and automated recordkeeping system.
(c) If a railroad, or a contractor or subcontractor to the railroad, is no longer eligible to use an automated recordkeeping system to record data subpart B of this part requires, the entity must begin keeping manual or electronic records and must retain its automated records as required under § 228.9(c) unless the entity requests, and FRA grants, a waiver under § 211.41 of this chapter.
(a)
(1) The record contains the printed name of the signer and the date and actual time the signature was executed, and the meaning (such as authorship, review, or approval) associated with the signature;
(2) Each electronic signature is unique to one individual and shall not be used by, or assigned to, anyone else;
(3) Before an eligible smaller railroad, or a contractor or subcontractor to such a railroad, establishes, assigns, certifies, or otherwise sanctions an individual's electronic signature, or any element of such electronic signature, the organization shall verify the identity of the individual;
(4) A person using an electronic signature shall, prior to or at the time of each such use, certify to FRA that the person's electronic signature in the system, used on or after August 29, 2018 is the legally binding equivalent of the person's traditional handwritten signature;
(5) Each employee shall sign the initial certification of his or her electronic signature with a traditional handwritten signature, and each railroad using an automated system shall maintain certification of each electronic signature at its headquarters or the headquarters of any contractor or subcontractor providing employees who perform covered service to such a railroad, and railroads, contractors, and subcontractors must make the certification available to FRA upon request; and
(6) A person using an electronic signature in such a system shall, upon FRA request, provide additional certification or testimony that a specific
(b)
(1) Data input is restricted to the employee or train crew or signal gang whose time is being recorded, except that an eligible smaller railroad, or a contractor or subcontractor to such a railroad, may pre-populate fields of the hours of service record provided that—
(i) The eligible smaller railroad, or its contractor or subcontractor, pre-populates fields of the hours of service record with information the railroad, or its contractor or subcontractor knows is factually accurate for a specific employee.
(ii) The recordkeeping system may allow employees to copy data from one field of a record into another field, where applicable.
(iii) The eligible smaller railroad, or its contractor or subcontractor does not use estimated, historical, or arbitrary information to pre-populate any field of an hours of service record.
(iv) An eligible smaller railroad, or a contractor or a subcontractor to such a railroad, is not in violation of paragraph (b)(1) of this section if it makes a good faith judgment as to the factual accuracy of the data for a specific employee but nevertheless errs in pre-populating a data field.
(v) The employee may make any necessary changes to the data by typing into the field without having to access another screen or obtain clearance from railroad, or contractor or subcontractor to the railroad.
(2) No two individuals have the same electronic signature.
(3) No individual can delete or alter a record after the employee who created the record electronically signs the record.
(4) Any amendment to a record is either:
(i) Electronically stored apart from the record that it amends; or
(ii) Electronically attached to the record as information without changing the original record.
(5) Each amendment to a record uniquely identifies the individual making the amendment.
(6) The automated system maintains the records as originally submitted without corruption or loss of data. Beginning August 29, 2018, an eligible smaller railroad must retain back-up data storage for its automated records for the quarters prescribed in the following table for the time specified in § 228.9(c)(3), to be updated within 30 days of the end of each prescribed quarter—
(7) Supervisors and crew management officials can access, but cannot delete or alter, the records of any employee after the employee electronically signs the record.
(c)
(d)
(1) Date (month and year);
(2) Employee name or identification number; and
(3) Electronically signed records containing one or more instances of excess service, including duty tours in excess of 12 hours.
(e)
(1) Access to records created and maintained in the automated recordkeeping system must be obtained as required by § 228.9(c)(4);
(2) An eligible smaller railroad must establish and comply with procedures for providing an FRA inspector or participating State inspector with access to the system upon request and must provide access to the system as soon as possible but not later than 24 hours after a request for access;
(3) Each data field entered by an employee on the input screen must be visible to the FRA inspector or participating State inspector; and
(4) The data fields must be searchable as described in paragraph (d) of this section and must yield access to all records matching the criteria specified in a search.
(b) * * *
(1) * * *
(iii) * * *
(B) The entry of hours of service data, into the electronic system or automated system or on the appropriate paper records used by the railroad or contractor or subcontractor to a railroad for which the employee performs covered service; and
(c) * * *
(1) * * *
(i) Emphasize any relevant changes to the hours of service laws, the recording and reporting requirements in subparts B and D of this part, or the electronic, automated, or manual recordkeeping system of the railroad or contractor or subcontractor to a railroad for which the employee performs covered service since the employee last received training; and
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; closure.
NMFS is prohibiting directed fishing for Pacific cod by catcher vessels using trawl gear in the Central Regulatory Area of the Gulf of Alaska (GOA). This action is necessary to prevent exceeding the annual allowance of the 2018 Pacific cod total allowable catch apportioned to trawl catcher
Effective 1200 hours, Alaska local time (A.l.t.), September 1, 2018, through 2400 hours, A.l.t., December 31, 2018.
Obren Davis, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the GOA exclusive economic zone according to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Gulf of Alaska (FMP) prepared by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Regulations governing fishing by U.S. vessels in accordance with the FMP appear at subpart H of 50 CFR part 600 and 50 CFR part 679. Regulations governing sideboard protections for GOA groundfish fisheries appear at subpart B of 50 CFR part 680.
The annual allowance of the 2018 Pacific cod total allowable catch (TAC) apportioned to trawl catcher vessels in the Central Regulatory Area of the GOA not participating in the cooperative fishery of the Rockfish Program is 2,275 metric tons (mt), as established by the final 2018 and 2019 harvest specifications for groundfish of the GOA (83 FR 8768, March 1, 2018).
In accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(i), the Administrator, Alaska Region, NMFS (Regional Administrator) has determined that the annual allowance of the 2018 Pacific cod TAC apportioned to trawl catcher vessels in the Central Regulatory Area of the GOA is necessary to account for the incidental catch in other anticipated fisheries. Therefore, the Regional Administrator is establishing a directed fishing allowance of 0 mt and is setting aside the remaining 2,275 mt as bycatch to support other anticipated groundfish fisheries. In accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(iii), the Regional Administrator finds that this directed fishing allowance has been reached. Consequently, NMFS is prohibiting directed fishing for Pacific cod by catcher vessels using trawl gear in the Central Regulatory Area of the GOA. While this closure is effective the maximum retainable amounts at § 679.20(e) and (f) apply at any time during a trip. This closure does not apply to fishing by vessels participating in the cooperative fishery of the Rockfish Program for the Central GOA.
This action responds to the best available information recently obtained from the fishery. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) as such requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion and would delay the directed fishing closure of Pacific cod by catcher vessels using trawl gear in the Central Regulatory Area of the GOA. NMFS was unable to publish a notice providing time for public comment because the most recent, relevant data only became available as of August 22, 2018.
The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of prior notice and opportunity for public comment.
This action is required by § 679.20 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Commodity Futures Trading Commission (Commission or CFTC) is proposing rule amendments pursuant to its authority under section 4(c) of the Commodity Exchange Act (CEA) to exempt from the clearing requirement set forth in section 2(h)(1) of the CEA certain swaps entered into by certain bank holding companies, savings and loan holding companies, and community development financial institutions.
Comments must be received on or before October 29, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by RIN number 3038-AE33 by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Please submit your comments using only one method.
All comments must be submitted in English, or if not, accompanied by an English translation. Comments will be posted as received to
The Commission reserves the right, but shall have no obligation, to review, pre-screen, filter, redact, refuse or remove any or all of your submission from
Sarah E. Josephson, Deputy Director, at 202-418-5684 or
On May 9, 2017, the Commission published in the
As discussed more fully below, the proposed revisions to Commission regulation 50.5 would exempt from the Clearing Requirement a swap entered into to hedge or mitigate commercial risk if one of the counterparties to the swap is either (a) a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company, each having no more than $10 billion in consolidated assets, or (b) a community development financial institution transacting in certain types and quantities of swaps. The Commission believes that this proposal would be consistent with the exemption from the Clearing Requirement the Commission granted for transactions entered into with small banks, savings associations, farm credit institutions, and credit unions.
The CEA, as amended by Title VII of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act),
Pursuant to section 2(h)(1)(A) of the CEA, if a swap is subject to the Clearing Requirement, it shall be unlawful for any person to engage in a swap unless that person submits such swap for clearing to a DCO that is registered under the CEA or a DCO that is exempt from registration under the CEA.
Section 2(h)(7)(A) of the CEA provides that the Clearing Requirement of section 2(h)(1)(A) of the CEA shall not apply to a swap if one of the counterparties to the swap: (i) Is not a financial entity; (ii) is using swaps to hedge or mitigate commercial risk; and (iii) notifies the Commission, in a manner set forth by the Commission, how it generally meets its financial obligations associated with entering into non-cleared swaps.
In the 2012, End-User Exception final rule implementing sections 2(h)(7)(A) and 2(h)(7)(C) of the CEA,
In adopting Commission regulation 50.50(d), the Commission noted that these small financial institutions tend to serve smaller, local markets and are well situated to provide swaps to the customers in their markets for the purpose of hedging commercial risk.
In 2016, in response to a request from the American Bankers Association (ABA), DCR issued a no-action letter stating that DCR would not recommend that the Commission take enforcement action against bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies with no more than $10 billion in consolidated assets
DCR was persuaded by the ABA's representation that many bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies enter into interest rate swaps to hedge interest rate risk that they incur as a result of issuing debt securities or making loans to finance their subsidiary banks or savings associations.
Also in 2016, in response to a request from a coalition of community development financial institutions (Coalition), DCR issued a no-action letter stating DCR would not recommend that the Commission take enforcement action against a community development financial institution for failure to comply with the Clearing Requirement, provided the entity elects not to clear a swap in accordance with the requirements of Commission regulation 50.50 and meets the terms and conditions of the letter.
DCR accepted the Coalition's representation that there are public interest benefits that may be served by permitting community development financial institutions to engage in tailored and limited swaps to pursue their public interest goals without the expense of posting margin to a DCO, and the cost of initial and annual fixed clearing fees and other expenses.
DCR limited the letter to community development financial institutions certified as such by the Treasury Department that only engage in swaps within specific product classes that meet certain criteria, and required that each community development financial institution enter into no more than 10 swaps per year, with an aggregate notional value cap of $200 million per year.
The Commission proposes to exempt from the Clearing Requirement certain swap transactions entered into with bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies with no more than $10 billion in consolidated assets, and community development financial institutions certified by the CDFI Fund. Although these entities are not eligible for the End-User Exception, the Commission believes that the same policy reasons that the Commission considered when exempting small financial institutions from the definition of a “financial entity” for purposes of the End-User Exception support an exemption for swap transactions entered into with certain bank holding companies, savings and loan association holding companies, and community development financial institutions.
The Commission proposes to adopt the definitions for “bank holding company” and “savings and loan holding company” referenced in the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
Proposed revised regulation 50.5(a) would define “bank holding company” to mean an entity that is organized as a bank holding company, as defined in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956. Section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act generally defines a “bank holding company,” subject to limited exceptions, as any company which has control over any bank or over any company that is or becomes a bank holding company.
Proposed revised regulation 50.5(a) would define “savings and loan holding company” to mean an entity that is organized as a savings and loan holding company, as defined in section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act of 1933. Section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act generally defines a “savings and loan holding company,” subject to limited exceptions, as any company that directly or indirectly controls a savings association or that controls any other company that is a savings and loan company.
Proposed revised regulation 50.5(a) would define community development financial institution to mean a community development financial institution, as defined in section 103(5) of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994, that is certified by the U.S. Department of the Treasury's Community Development Financial Institution Fund under the requirements set forth in 12 CFR 180.201(b). The proposed definition limits the entities that are eligible for the exemption. The Commission is proposing to limit the scope of entities that may qualify for an exemption from the Clearing Requirement as a community development financial institution to institutions that meet the definition of a “community development financial institution” in section 103 of the CDFI Act.
The Commission believes that it is appropriate to require all community development financial institutions included in the proposed exemption from the Clearing Requirement to have received and maintained certification by the CDFI Fund. Certification is a formal acknowledgment from the CDFI Fund that a financial institution meets certain community development finance criteria.
The Commission believes that this definition is appropriate because community development financial institutions are certified under the auspices of the Treasury Department's CDFI Fund to promote economic revitalization and community development in low-income communities.
The Commission proposes to exempt from the Clearing Requirement swaps entered into with bank holding companies, savings and loan holding companies, and community development financial institutions as defined in proposed Commission regulation 50.5(a) from the Clearing Requirement.
The Commission proposes to add a new paragraph (e) to Commission regulation 50.5 exempting certain swaps entered into with bank holding companies or savings and loan holding companies from the Clearing Requirement under regulation 50.2. The Commission believes these entities generally enter into interest rate swaps to hedge interest rate risk that they incur as a result of making loans or issuing debt securities, the proceeds of which are generally used to finance their subsidiaries, which are themselves small financial institutions.
The Commission believes that the bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies that meet the conditions of CFTC Letter No. 16-01, and which would meet the requirements of proposed Commission regulation 50.5(e), enter into swaps to hedge risk from financing transactions infrequently and have relatively low notional volume swap books.
The Commission believes that bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies with consolidated assets of no more than $10 billion should be considered to be sufficiently similar to the type of non-financial entity Congress was considering when it directed the Commission to consider an exemption from the Clearing Requirement for small banks and savings associations.
The Commission preliminarily believes there is less counterparty risk with transactions entered into with bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies that have no more than $10 billion in consolidated assets because the Commission understands that these entities generally enter into swaps with a notional amount of $10 million or less.
As with other exemptions under Commission regulation 50.5, the Commission is proposing in new regulation 50.5(e)(2) that the exemption be available only if the swap is reported to an SDR pursuant to regulations 45.3 and 45.4 of this chapter. The Commission is additionally proposing that the bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies subject to this proposal be required to report the information described in regulation 50.50(b) to an SDR. Commission regulation 50.50(b) requires a counterparty to notify the Commission that a swap is not subject to the Clearing Requirement and to indicate how the electing counterparty generally meets its financial obligations associated with its non-cleared swaps. The Commission believes that the reporting requirements are appropriate so it can verify that the exemption from the Clearing Requirement is being used in the way the Commission intended and track the entities using the Clearing Requirement exemption.
The Commission also proposes in new 50.5(e)(3) that only swaps used to hedge or mitigate commercial risk, as defined under regulation 50.50(c) of this part, may be exempt from the Clearing Requirement. The Commission believes this limitation appropriately reflects how these entities use swaps.
Proposed regulation 50.5(f) would exempt swap transactions entered into with a community development financial institution from the Clearing Requirement. The Commission believes that these entities only enter into limited interest rate swaps in the fixed-to-floating swap class and forward rate agreement class to hedge interest rate risk incurred as a result of issuing debt securities or making loans in pursuit of their organizational missions.
Since the issuance of CFTC Letter No. 16-02, five community development financial institutions submitted forms to DTCC's swap data repository, DDR, indicating they would elect the end-user exception for interest rate swaps between June 2016 and June 2018. Between January 1, 2017 and June 29, 2018, three community development financial institutions executed interest rate swaps: One executed two swaps with an aggregate notional value of $5.6 million; another executed three swaps with an aggregate notional value of $116 million; and another executed three swaps with an aggregate notional value of $130 million.
The Commission believes that community development financial institutions should be considered to be sufficiently similar to the type of non-financial entities Congress was considering when it directed the Commission to consider an exemption from the Clearing Requirement for small banks and savings associations.
As with the proposed exemptions discussed above for bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies, the Commission is proposing in new regulation 50.5(f)(1) that the exemption be available only if the swap is reported to an SDR pursuant to regulations 45.3 and 45.4 of this chapter, and if all information in regulation 50.50(b) is reported to an SDR. Commission regulation 50.50(b) requires a counterparty to notify the Commission that a swap is not subject to the Clearing Requirement and to indicate how the electing counterparty generally meets its financial obligations associated with its non-cleared swaps. The Commission believes that the additional reporting requirement is appropriate so it can verify that the exemption from the Clearing Requirement is being used in the way the Commission intended and track which entities are using the Clearing Requirement exemption.
The Commission proposes to require in new regulation 50.5(f)(2)-(5) four additional requirements for swaps entered into with a community development financial institution: (1) The swap is an interest rate swap in the fixed-to-floating swap class or the forward rate agreement class, denominated in U.S. dollars, that would otherwise be subject to the Clearing Requirement; (2) the total aggregate notional value of the interest rate swaps and forward rate agreements entered into by each community development financial institution is no more than $200 million per year; (3) a community development financial institution may enter into no more than ten swap transactions as outlined above per year; and (4) the swap is used to hedge or mitigate commercial risk, as defined under Commission regulation 50.50(c). These conditions generally track the
The Commission believes the requirements in proposed regulation 50.5(f)(2)-(5) properly circumscribe the transactions into which these community development financial institutions may enter while providing these institutions with the flexibility to enter into swaps that will contribute to their ability to carry on their mission.
Section 4(c)(1) of the CEA empowers the Commission to promote responsible economic or financial innovation and fair competition by exempting any transaction or class of transactions, including swaps, from any of the provisions of the CEA (subject to exceptions not relevant here).
The Commission believes that it would be consistent with the public interest and the purposes of the CEA to exempt from the Clearing Requirement swap transactions entered into with certain bank holding companies, savings and loan holding companies, and community development financial institutions as discussed above. In enacting the Dodd-Frank Act, Congress recognized that it may be appropriate for the Commission to exempt transactions entered into with certain small financial institutions from the Clearing Requirement. The Commission was directed to consider whether to exempt these small financial institutions from the definition of “financial entity” for purposes of the End-User Exception.
Because they are not depository institutions, bank holding companies, savings and loan holding companies, and community development financial institutions are not eligible for the exemption from the financial entity definition.
Based on the representations of market participants, the Commission also believes the bank holding companies, savings and loan holding companies, and community development financial institutions subject to the proposed regulation would tend to enter into swaps that have smaller notional amounts.
Based on the discussion above, the Commission preliminarily believes that an exemption from the Clearing Requirement for these small entities should lower the cost of financing which, in turn, should enable these entities to better manage their financing risks and provide cost-effective loans to their subsidiaries, and small and middle market businesses. Additionally, the Commission also believes that the interest rate swaps may need to be entered into by the bank holding company or savings and loan holding company, rather than the subsidiary, in order to gain hedge accounting treatment which may promote efficiencies to benefit their subsidiaries.
The Commission believes that the proposed amendments to the Clearing Requirement would be available only to “appropriate persons.” Section 4(c)(3) of the CEA includes within the term “appropriate person” a number of specified categories of persons, including among others, banks, savings associations and such other persons that the Commission determines to be appropriate in light of their financial or other qualifications, or the applicability of appropriate regulatory protections. Sections 2(e) and 5(d)(11)(A) of the CEA provide that only eligible contract participants (ECPs) may enter into uncleared swaps.
The Commission notes that certain bank holding companies, savings and loan holding companies, and community development financial institutions have not been clearing certain swaps covered by the Clearing Requirement in reliance on the DCR no action letters. The Commission is not aware of any increase in counterparty risk attributable to the affected entities' reliance on the no-action letters. The proposed exemptions from the Clearing Requirement are limited in scope and, as described further below, the Commission will continue to have access to information regarding the swaps subject to this exemption because they will be reported to an SDR as required by existing Commission regulation 50.50. In addition, the Commission retains its special call, anti-fraud, and anti-evasion authorities, which will enable it to adequately discharge its regulatory responsibilities under the CEA. The Commission therefore preliminarily believes the exemption would not have a material adverse effect on the ability of the Commission to discharge its regulatory responsibilities under the CEA.
For the reasons described in this proposal, the Commission believes it would be appropriate and consistent with the public interest to amend Commission regulation 50.5 as proposed.
Under Commission regulation 23.150(b)(1), the margin requirements for uncleared swaps under Part 23 of the Commission's regulations do not apply to a swap if the counterparty qualifies for an exception from clearing under section 2(h)(7)(A) and implementing regulations.
The proposed rules are not implementing section 2(h)(7)(A) of the CEA. The Commission, pursuant to its 4(c) authority (as discussed above), is proposing to exempt swaps entered into by certain bank holding companies, savings and loan holding companies and community development financial institutions from the Clearing Requirement. The Commission is not proposing to exclude these entities from the “financial entity” definition of section 2(h)(7)(C) of the CEA. Therefore, the bank holding companies, savings and loan holding companies, and community development financial institutions under the proposed rules are not eligible to elect the End-User Exception under Commission regulation 50.50, and they remain financial entities under the definition of section 2(h)(7)(C) of the CEA.
For the reasons stated above, the proposed rules do not implicate any of the provisions of section 4s(e)(4) of the CEA or Commission regulation 23.150.
Section 15(a) of the CEA requires the Commission to consider the costs and benefits of its actions before promulgating a regulation under the CEA or issuing certain orders.
The baseline for the Commission's consideration of the costs and benefits of this proposed rulemaking is the market as it exists under section 2(h)(1) of the CEA and existing Commission Regulation 50.5. The effect of the proposing release is the exemption of certain swaps with certain bank holding companies, savings and loan holding companies, and community development financial institutions from the Clearing Requirement through new proposed regulations 50.5(e) and (f). The Commission believes the entities whose transactions will be exempted by this proposing release are similar to the entities that are already exempt by Commission regulation 50.50(d) both in terms of their operational and business practices and their participation in the swaps markets.
The Commission notes that the consideration of costs and benefits below is based on the understanding that the markets function internationally, with many transactions involving U.S. firms taking place across international boundaries; with some Commission registrants being organized outside of the United States; with leading industry members typically conducting operations both within and outside the United States; and with industry members commonly following substantially similar business practices wherever located. Where the Commission does not specifically refer to matters of location, the below discussion of costs and benefits refers to the effects of the proposed rule on all activity subject to the proposed and amended regulations, whether by virtue of the activity's physical location in the United States or by virtue of the activity's connection with or effect on U.S. commerce under section 2(i) of the CEA.
In the sections that follow, the Commission considers: (1) The costs and benefits of the proposed exemptions for certain bank holding companies, savings and loan holding companies, and community development financial institutions from the Clearing Requirement in Commission Regulation 50.5, and (2) the impact of the exemptions on the Section 15(a) Factors.
Proposed regulations 50.5(e) and (f) would exempt certain swap transactions entered into with certain bank holding companies, savings and loan holding companies, and community development financial institutions from the Clearing Requirement. By exempting transactions with these entities from the Clearing Requirement, the Commission recognizes that the benefits of central clearing will not accrue to swaps entered into by these entities. The primary cost of the proposed exemptions from the Clearing Requirement is, therefore, that transactions with certain bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies, and community development financial institutions would not be subject to the Clearing Requirement.
In general, the principal risk to the financial system that central clearing seeks to address is counterparty credit risk. A DCO manages this risk by collecting initial and variation margin from its clearing members. DCOs set margin levels and calculate and collect variation margin daily as prices move. This allows DCOs to mitigate the possibility of its default, and to cover the losses due to default of a clearing member. By exempting transactions with these entities from the Clearing Requirement, the Commission recognizes that the risk-mitigating benefits of clearing will not attach to those transactions.
However, the Commission believes that the entities covered by the proposed exemptions tend to be entities that would have relatively modest contributions to systemic risk. For instance, the Commission believes that the bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies subject to the proposed regulation generally enter into swaps with a notional amount of $10 million or less and enter into swaps less frequently that other counterparties. Under the proposed rule, the exemption would only extend to swaps with community development financial institutions to the extent that they engage in swaps within specific product classes and the total aggregate notional value of all interest rate swaps and forward rate agreements entered into during a calendar year is less than $200 million.
The Commission proposes to require counterparties using the proposed exemption to comply with Commission regulation 50.50(b). Commission regulation 50.50(b) requires a counterparty to notify the Commission that the swap is not subject to the Clearing Requirement and to indicate how the electing counterparty generally meets its financial obligations associated with its non-cleared swaps. In general, the Commission believes the notification will be made by the swap dealer (SD). The bank holding companies, savings and loan holding companies, and community development financial institutions subject to this proposed regulation would provide the notification only for those swaps that are not entered into with a SD as the counterparty. While the Commission anticipates that the number of such swaps would be small, there is a lack of specific quantitative evidence regarding that number. As a practical matter, the procedure in proposed regulation 50.5 is the same as that
The $10 billion cap applied to certain bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies is a bright line. Due to the nature of using a bright line as a threshold, it is possible that some entities with attributes similar to those exempted entities may not be eligible for the exemption.
For these reasons, the costs associated with the proposed rule are likely to be low.
Certain bank holding companies, savings and loan holding companies, and community development financial institutions would benefit from an exemption from the Clearing Requirement for their transactions used to hedge interest rate risk because project financing and risk management transactions with these entities would not be subject to the Clearing Requirement or have the added expense of required clearing. The Commission believes the financial system benefits from having the bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies subject to this proposal enter into interest rate swaps to hedge interest rate risk they incur as a result of issuing debt securities or making loans to finance their subsidiary banks or savings associations. The Commission also preliminarily believes that the interest rate swaps may need to be entered into by the bank holding company or savings and loan holding company, rather than the subsidiary, in order to gain hedge accounting treatment that may promote efficiencies to benefit their subsidiaries.
The discussion that follows supplements the related costs and benefit considerations addressed in the preceding section and addresses the overall effect of the proposed rule in terms of the factors set forth in section 15(a) of the CEA.
Section 15(a)(2)(A) of the CEA requires the Commission to evaluate the costs and benefits of a proposed regulation in light of considerations of protection of market participants and the public. In developing the proposed rule, the Commission was cognizant that in enacting the Dodd-Frank Act, Congress directed the Commission to consider an exemption from the definition of “financial entity,” and therefore an exemption from the Clearing Requirement, for small banks, savings associations, farm credit system institutions, and credit unions.
Like the financial institutions listed in section 2(h)(7)(C)(ii), the Commission believes these entities are likely to have limited swap exposure, both in terms of value and number. As such, the Commission preliminarily believes the exemption will have a minimal impact on market participants. In addition, counterparties to a swap entered into with a bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or community development financial institution subject to this proposed regulation will have some degree of protection against default because the electing entity is required to indicate how it generally meets the financial obligations associated with its non-cleared swaps as required by Commission regulation 50.50(b). This will ensure that counterparties are aware of the potential exposure each transaction may have on the overall risk profile of the entities.
The Commission also preliminarily believes that the asset cap for bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies whose transactions will be subject to an exemption from the Clearing Requirement, combined with the required adherence to the requirements of Commission regulation 50.50(b) and (c) means the proposed exemptions are not likely to pose systemic or significant counterparty risk. Therefore, the Commission believes the proposed exemptions are not likely to have a negative impact on market participants or the public.
Section 15(a)(2)(B) of the CEA requires the Commission to evaluate the costs and benefits of a proposed regulation in light of efficiency, competitiveness, and financial integrity
Section 15(a)(2)(C) of the CEA requires the Commission to evaluate the costs and benefits of a proposed regulation in light of price discovery considerations. The Commission preliminarily believes that the proposed rule will not have a significant impact on price discovery. Swap transactions, regardless of the counterparty, are required by section 2(a)(13)(G) of the CEA to be reported to an SDR. Moreover, the proposed regulation maintains this reporting requirement; the price discovery function of the reporting requirement to an SDR is therefore unchanged.
Section 15(a)(2)(D) of the CEA requires the Commission to evaluate the costs and benefits of a proposed regulation in light of sound risk management practices. These proposed exemptions reflect the Commission's determination that sound public policy supports the finding that certain swaps entered into by certain bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies, and community development financial institutions subject to this proposal should not be subject to the Clearing Requirement. This preliminary conclusion is based on the Commission's determination that swaps entered into by these entities are similar to swaps entered into by the small financial institutions set out in section 2(h)(7)(C)(ii) of the CEA and should be treated in a similar manner. The Commission believes that the proposed exemptions therefore should better serve the financial markets by enabling these entities to use swaps for hedging purposes at a potentially lower cost. Furthermore, the Commission does not believe that swap transactions with these entities pose risk to the U.S. financial markets. As discussed earlier, the Commission believes that these entities generally use swaps to mitigate the interest rate risk exposure associate with their financing activities.
Section 15(a)(2)(E) of the CEA requires the Commission to evaluate the costs and benefits of a proposed regulation in light of other public interest considerations. The Commission has not identified any public interest considerations relevant to this proposed rule beyond those already noted above.
The Commission requests comment on all aspects of the costs and benefits relating to the proposed exemption of swaps entered into by certain bank holding companies, savings and loan holding companies, and community development financial institutions from the Clearing Requirement. The Commission requests that commenters provide any data or other information that would be useful in estimating the quantifiable costs and benefits of this proposed rulemaking.
Section 15(b) of the CEA requires the Commission to take into consideration the public interest to be protected by the antitrust laws and endeavor to take the least anticompetitive means of achieving the purposes of the CEA, in issuing any order or adopting any Commission rule or regulation (including any exemption under section 4(c) or 4c(b)), or in requiring or approving any bylaw, rule, or regulation of a contract market or registered futures association established pursuant to section 17 of the CEA.
The Commission believes that the public interest to be protected by the antitrust laws is generally to protect competition. The Commission requests comment on whether the proposed rule implicates any other specific public interest to be protected by the antitrust laws.
The Commission has considered the proposed rule to determine whether it is anticompetitive and does not anticipate that the proposed rule will have any anticompetitive effects or result in anticompetitive behavior. The Commission nevertheless encourages comments from the public on any aspect of the proposal that may be inconsistent with the antitrust laws or anticompetitive in nature. For example, the Commission is generally interested in whether providing this exemption to certain bank holding companies, savings and loan holding companies, and community development financial institutions could have anticompetitive effects. Accordingly, the Commission requests comment on whether the proposal in total, or its individual parts, could be deemed anticompetitive.
Because the Commission has preliminarily determined that the proposed rule is not anticompetitive and has no anticompetitive effects, the Commission has not identified any less anticompetitive means of achieving the purposes of the CEA. The Commission requests comment on whether there are less anticompetitive means of achieving the relevant purposes of the CEA that would otherwise be served by adopting the proposed rule.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) requires federal agencies to consider whether the regulations they propose will have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities and, if so, provide a regulatory flexibility analysis on the impact.
Accordingly, this proposed rule will not have a significant economic effect of any small entity. Therefore, the Chairman, on behalf of the Commission, hereby certifies pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that the proposed regulations will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA)
Business and industry; Swaps.
For the reasons set for in the preamble, the Commodity Futures Trading Commission proposes to amend part 50 of title 17 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
7 U.S.C. 2(h), 6(c), and 7a-1 as amended by Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376.
The additions read as follows:
(a)
(d) [Reserved]
(e) Swaps entered into by a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company shall be exempt from the clearing requirement under § 50.2, provided that:
(1) The bank holding company or savings and loan holding company has aggregated assets, including the assets of all its subsidiaries, that do not exceed $10,000,000,000 according to the value of assets of each subsidiary on the last day of each subsidiary's most recent fiscal year;
(2) The bank holding company or savings and loan holding company reports the swap to a swap data repository pursuant to §§ 45.3 and 45.4 of this chapter, and reports all information described under § 50.50(b) to a swap data repository; and
(3) The swap is used to hedge or mitigate commercial risk, as defined under § 50.50(c).
(f) Swaps entered into by a community development financial institution shall be exempt from the clearing requirement under § 50.2 provided, that:
(1) The community development financial institution reports the swap to a swap data repository pursuant to §§ 45.3 and 45.4 of this chapter, and reports all information described under § 50.50(b) to a swap data repository; and
(2) The swap is a U.S. dollar denominated interest rate swap in the fixed-to-floating class or the forward rate agreement class of swaps that would otherwise be subject to the clearing requirement under § 50.2;
(3) The total aggregate notional value of the interest rate swaps and forward rate agreements entered into during the twelve-month calendar year is less than or equal to $200,000,000;
(4) The swap is one of ten or fewer swap transactions that the community development financial institution enters into within a twelve-month calendar year; and
(5) The swap is used to hedge or mitigate commercial risk, as defined under § 50.50(c).
The following appendices will not appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
On this matter, Chairman Giancarlo and Commissioners Quintenz and Behnam voted in the affirmative. No commissioner voted in the negative.
Consistent with the overall goals of Project KISS, this proposal would codify Commission policy laid out in the preamble to the 2012 End-User Exception final rule and several staff no-action letters. It will also provide clarity and reduce unnecessary burdens on bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies with consolidated assets of $10 billion or less, and certain community development financial institutions.
I want to thank Commission staff for their intelligent work on this proposal. I am grateful to Commissioners Quintenz and Behnam and for their thoughtful input and unanimous support.
Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, Interior.
Proposed rule; public comment period and opportunity for public hearing on proposed amendment.
We, the Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement (OSMRE), are announcing receipt of a proposed amendment to the Texas regulatory program (Texas program) under the Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (SMCRA or the Act). Texas proposes revisions to its regulations regarding annual permit fees
This document gives the times and locations where the Texas program documents and this proposed amendment to that program are available for your inspection, establishes the comment period during which you may submit written comments on the amendment, and describes the procedures that we will follow for the public hearing, if one is requested.
We will accept written comments on this amendment until 4:00 p.m., CST, September 28, 2018. If requested, we will hold a public hearing on the amendment on September 24, 2018. We will accept requests to speak at a hearing until 4:00 p.m., CST on September 13, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by SATS No. TX-068-FOR, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
In addition, you may review a copy of the amendment during regular business hours at the following location:
William Joseph, Director, Tulsa Field Office. Telephone: (918) 581-6430, email:
Section 503(a) of the Act permits a State to assume primacy for the regulation of surface coal mining and reclamation operations on non-Federal and non-Indian lands within its borders by demonstrating that its program includes, among other things, State laws and regulations that govern surface coal mining and reclamation operations in accordance with the Act and consistent with the Federal regulations. See 30 U.S.C. 1253(a)(1) and (7). On the basis of these criteria, the Secretary of the Interior conditionally approved the Texas program effective February 16, 1980. You can find background information on the Texas program, including the Secretary's findings, the disposition of comments, and the conditions of approval of the Texas program in the February 27, 1980,
By letter dated February 7, 2018 (Administrative Record No. TX-706), Texas sent us an amendment to its program under SMCRA (30 U.S.C. 1201
Texas proposes to revise its regulation at 16 Texas Administrative Code (TAC) section 12.108(b) regarding annual permit fees by:
(1) Amending the calendar years specified in paragraph (b) to calendar year 2017 and 2018;
(2) Decreasing the amount of the fee, from $13.05 to $12.85, for each acre of land within a permit area covered by a reclamation bond on December 31st of the year; and
(3) Decreasing the amount of the fee, from $6,600 to $6,170, for each permit in effect on December 31st of the year.
Texas fully funds its share of costs to regulate the coal mining industry with fees paid by the coal industry. To meet these costs, Texas charges a permit application fee and two annual fees, as mentioned above. The proposed fee revisions are intended to provide adequate funding to pay the State's cost of operating its regulatory program, and provide incentives for industry to accomplish reclamation and achieve bond release as quickly as possible.
Texas proposes to revise its regulation at 16 Texas Administrative Code (TAC) section 12.309(j)(2)(B) by:
(1) Removing the condition that self-bond applicants not have been subject to bankruptcy proceedings during the 5-year period immediately preceding the date of application.
Texas proposes this revision to conform with the United States Bankruptcy Code at 11 U.S.C. 525(a) and 30 CFR 800.23(b)(2).
Under the provisions of 30 CFR 732.17(h), we are seeking your comments on whether the amendment satisfies the applicable program approval criteria of 30 CFR 732.15. If we approve the amendment, it will become part of the State program.
If you submit written comments, they should be specific, confined to issues pertinent to the proposed regulations, and explain the reason for any recommended change(s). We appreciate any and all comments, but those most useful and likely to influence decisions on the final program will be those that either involve personal experience or include citations to and analyses of SMCRA, its legislative history, its implementing regulations, case law, other pertinent State or Federal laws or regulations, technical literature, or other relevant publications.
We cannot ensure that comments received after the close of the comment period (see
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
If you wish to speak at the public hearing, contact the person listed under
To assist the transcriber and ensure an accurate record, we request, if possible, that each person who speaks at the public hearing provide us with a written copy of his or her comments. The public hearing will continue on the specified date until everyone scheduled to speak has been given an opportunity to be heard. If you are in the audience and have not been scheduled to speak and wish to do so, you will be allowed to speak after those who have been scheduled. We will end the hearing after everyone scheduled to speak and others present in the audience who wish to speak, have been heard.
If only one person requests an opportunity to speak, we may hold a public meeting rather than a public hearing. If you wish to meet with us to discuss the amendment, please request a meeting by contacting the person listed under
Pursuant to Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Guidance and dated October 12, 1993, the approval of state program amendments is exempted from OMB review under Executive Order 12866.
When a State submits a program amendment to OSMRE for review, our regulations at 30 CFR 732.17(h) require us to publish a notice in the
Intergovernmental relations, Surface mining, Underground mining.
Defense Acquisition Regulations System, Department of Defense (DoD).
Proposed rule; reopening of comment period.
DoD is proposing to amend the Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) to implement sections of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2017 that addresses the inapplicability of certain laws and regulations to the acquisition of commercial items, including commercially available off-the-shelf items. The comment period on the proposed rule is reopened for 60 days.
For the proposed rule published on June 29, 2018 (83 FR 30646), submit comments by October 28, 2018.
Submit comments identified by DFARS Case 2017-D010, using any of the following methods:
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○
○
○
Comments received generally will be posted without change to
Ms. Barbara J. Trujillo, telephone 571-372-6102.
On June 29, 2018, DoD published a proposed rule in the
The comment period for the proposed rule is reopened 60 days, from August 28, 2018, to October 28, 2018, to provide additional time for interested parties to comment on the proposed DFARS changes.
Government procurement.
Rural Business-Cooperative Service, USDA.
Notice.
This Notice announces that the Rural Business-Cooperative Service (Agency) is accepting fiscal year (FY) 2018 applications for the Delta Health Care Services (DHCS) grant program. The Agency will publish the program funding level on the Rural Development website:
You must submit completed applications for grants according to the following deadlines:
Paper copies must be postmarked and mailed, shipped, or sent overnight no later than Midnight Eastern Time November 26, 2018. Electronic copies must be received by Midnight Eastern Time November 19, 2018. Late applications are not eligible for funding under this Notice and will not be evaluated.
You should contact your USDA Rural Development State Office (State Office) if you have questions. You are encouraged to contact your State Office well in advance of the application deadline to discuss your Project and ask any questions about the application process. A list of State Office contacts can be found at:
Grants Division, Cooperative Programs, Rural Business-Cooperative Service, United States Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, MS 3253, Room 4208-South, Washington, DC 20250-3250, or call 202-690-1374.
The Agency encourages applications that will support recommendations made in the Rural Prosperity Task Force report to help improve life in rural America,
This Executive Order imposes requirements on Rural Development in the development of regulatory policies that have tribal implications or preempt tribal laws. Rural Development has determined that this Notice does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribe(s) or on either the relationship or the distribution of powers and responsibilities between the Federal Government and the Indian tribes. Thus, this Notice is not subject to the requirements of Executive Order 13175. Tribal Consultation inquiries and comments should be directed to RD's Native American Coordinator at
The Paperwork Reduction Act requires Federal agencies to seek and obtain Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval before undertaking a collection of information directed to ten or more persons. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the Agency conducted an analysis to determine the number of applications the Agency estimates that it will receive under the DHCS grant program. It was determined that the estimated number of applications was fewer than nine and in accordance with 5 CFR 1320, thus no OMB approval is necessary at this time.
The DHCS program is authorized by Section 379G of the Consolidated Farm and Rural Development Act (7 U.S.C. 2008u), as amended by the Agricultural Act of 2014 (Pub. L. 113-79). The primary objective of the program is to provide financial assistance to address the continued unmet health needs in the Delta Region through cooperation among health care professionals, institutions of higher education, research institutions, and other individuals and entities in the Delta Region. Grants are awarded on a
The definitions you need to understand are as follows:
• Not in a city or town that has a population of more than 50,000 inhabitants, according to the latest decennial census of the United States; and
• The contiguous and adjacent urbanized area,
• Urbanized areas that are rural in character as defined by 7 U.S.C. 1991(a)(13).
• For the purposes of this definition, cities and towns are incorporated population centers with definite boundaries, local self-government, and legal powers set forth in a charter granted by the State.
Applicants must meet all of the following eligibility requirements. Your application will not be considered for funding if it does not provide sufficient information to determine eligibility or is missing required elements. Applicants that fail to submit the required elements by the application deadline will be deemed ineligible and will not be evaluated further. Information submitted after the application deadline will not be accepted.
Grants funded through DHCS may be made to a Consortium as defined in Paragraph A of this Notice. Consortiums are eligible to receive funding through this Notice. One member of the Consortium must be designated as the lead entity by the other members of the Consortium and have legal authority to contract with the Federal Government.
The lead entity is the recipient (see 2 CFR 200.86) of the DHCS grant funds and accountable for monitoring and reporting on the Project performance and financial management of the grant. In addition, the lead entity (recipient) is responsible for subrecipient monitoring and management in accordance with 2 CFR 200.330 and 200.331, respectively. The remaining consortium members are subrecipients (see 2 CFR 200.93). They may receive subawards (see 2 CFR 200.94) from the recipient and are responsible for monitoring and reporting the Project performance and financial management of their subaward to the recipient.
(a) An applicant is ineligible if they do not submit “Evidence of Eligibility” and “Consortium Agreements” as described in Section D.2. of this Notice.
(b) An applicant is ineligible if they have been debarred or suspended or otherwise excluded from or ineligible for participation in Federal assistance programs under Executive Order 12549, “Debarment and Suspension.” The Agency will check the System for Award Management (SAM) to determine if the applicant has been debarred or
(c) Any corporation (1) that has been convicted of a felony criminal violation under any Federal law within the past 24 months or (2) that has any unpaid Federal tax liability that has been assessed, for which all judicial and administrative remedies have been exhausted or have lapsed, and that is not being paid in a timely manner pursuant to an agreement with the authority responsible for collecting the tax liability, is not eligible for financial assistance provided with funds appropriated by the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2018 (Pub. L. 115-141), unless a Federal agency has considered suspension or debarment of the corporation and has made a determination that this further action is not necessary to protect the interests of the Government.
(d) Applications will be deemed ineligible if the application includes any funding restrictions identified under Section D.6.
(e) Applications will be deemed ineligible if the application is not complete in accordance with the requirements stated in Section C.3.g.
Matching funds are not required. However, if you are adding any other contributions to the proposed Project, you must provide documentation indicating who will be providing the matching funds, the amount of funds, when those funds will be provided, and how the funds will be used in the Project budget. Examples of acceptable documentation include: A signed letter from the source of funds stating the amount of funds, when the funds will be provided, and what the funds can be used for or a signed resolution from your governing board authorizing the use of a specified amount of funds for specific components of the Project. The matching funds you identify must be for eligible purposes and included in your work plan and budget. Additionally, expected program income may not be used as matching funds at the time you submit your application. However, if you have a contract to provide services in place at the time you submit your application, you can verify the amount of the contract as matching funds. If you choose, you may use a template to summarize the matching funds. The template is available either from your State Office or the program website at:
(a)
• Health care services;
• health education programs;
• health care job training programs; and
• the development and expansion of public health-related facilities in the Delta Region.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
The application template for this funding opportunity is located at:
You may submit your application in paper form or electronically through
To apply electronically, you must follow the instructions for this funding announcement at:
You can locate the
When you enter the
To use
You must submit all of your application documents electronically through
After applying electronically through
If you want to submit a paper application, send it to the State Office located in the State where the Project will primarily take place. You can find State Office contact information at:
The organization submitting the application will be considered the lead entity. The Contact/Program Manager must be associated with the lead entity submitting the application.
Your application must also contain the following required forms and proposal elements:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(k)
• Number of businesses assisted;
• Number of jobs created;
• Number of jobs saved;
• Number of individuals assisted/trained.
It is permissible to have a zero in a performance element. When you calculate jobs created, estimates should be based upon actual jobs to be created by your organization as a result of the DHCS funding or actual jobs to be created by businesses as a result of assistance from your organization. When you calculate jobs saved, estimates should be based only on actual jobs that would have been lost if your organization did not receive DHCS funding or actual jobs that would have been lost without assistance from your organization.
You can also suggest additional performance elements for example where job creation or jobs saved may not be a relevant indicator. These additional elements should be specific, measurable performance elements that could be included in an award document.
(l)
(m)
(n)
(o)
(p)
In order to be eligible (unless you are exempted under 2 CFR 25.110(b), (c) or (d), you are required to:
(a) Provide a valid DUNS number in your application, which can be obtained at no cost via a toll-free request line at (866) 705-5711;
(b) Register in SAM before submitting your application. You may register in SAM at no cost at:
(c) Continue to maintain an active SAM registration with current information at all times during which you have an active Federal award or an application or plan under consideration by a Federal awarding agency.
The Agency may not make a Federal award to you until you have complied with all applicable DUNS and SAM requirements. If you have not fully complied with requirements by the time the Agency is ready to make a Federal award, the Agency may determine that the applicant is not qualified to receive a Federal award and the Agency may use this determination as a basis for making an award to another applicant.
Electronic applications must be RECEIVED by:
Executive Order (E.O.) 12372, Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs, applies to this program. This E.O. requires that Federal agencies provide opportunities for consultation on proposed assistance with State and local governments. Many States have established a Single Point of Contact (SPOC) to facilitate this consultation. For a list of States that maintain a SPOC, please see the White House website:
You are also encouraged to contact Cooperative Programs at 202-690-1374 or
Project Funds may not be used for ineligible purposes. In addition, you may not use Project Funds for the following:
(a) To duplicate current services or to replace or to substitute support previously provided. However, Project Funds may be used to expand the level of effort or a service beyond what is currently being provided;
(b) To pay for costs to prepare the application for funding under this Notice;
(c) To pay for costs of the Project incurred prior to the effective date of the period of performance;
(d) To pay expenses for applicant employee training not directly related to the Project;
(e) Fund political activities;
(f) To pay for assistance to any private business enterprise which does not have at least 51 percent ownership by those who are either citizens of the United States or reside in the United States after being legally admitted for permanent residence;
(g) To pay any judgment or debt owed to the United States;
(h) Engage in any activities that are considered a Conflict of Interest, as defined by this Notice; or
(i) Fund any activities prohibited by 2 CFR 200;
In addition, your application will not be considered for funding if it does any of the following:
i. Requests more than the maximum grant amount; or
ii. Proposes ineligible costs that equal more than 10 percent of the Project Funds.
We will consider your application for funding if it includes ineligible costs of 10 percent or less of total Project Funds, if it is determined eligible otherwise. However, if your application is successful, those ineligible costs must be removed and replaced with eligible costs before the Agency will make the grant award or the amount of the grant award will be reduced accordingly. If we cannot determine the percentage of ineligible costs, your application will not be considered for funding.
(a) You should not submit your application in more than one format. You must choose whether to submit your application in hard copy or electronically. Applications submitted in hard copy should be mailed or hand-delivered to the State Office where the Project will primarily take place. You can find State Office contact information at:
(b) National Environmental Policy Act. This Notice has been reviewed in accordance with 7 CFR part 1970, “Environmental Policies and Procedures.” We have determined that an Environmental Impact Statement is not required because the issuance of regulations and instructions, as well as amendments to them, describing administrative and financial procedures for processing, approving, and implementing the Agency's financial programs is categorically excluded in the Agency's National Environmental Policy Act regulation found at 7 CFR 1970.53(f), “Environmental Policies and Procedures.” We have determined that this Notice does not constitute a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment.
The Agency will review each grant application to determine its compliance with 7 CFR part 1970. The applicant may be asked to provide additional information or documentation to assist the Agency with this determination.
(c) Civil Rights Compliance Requirements. All grants made under this Notice are subject to Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 as required by the USDA (7 CFR part 15, subpart A) and Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973.
The State Offices will review applications to determine if they are eligible for assistance based on requirements in this Notice, and other applicable Federal regulations. If determined eligible, your application will be scored by a panel of USDA employees in accordance with the point allocation specified in this Notice. Applications will be funded in rank order until the funding limitation has been reached. Applications that cannot be fully funded may be offered partial funding at the Agency's discretion.
All eligible and complete applications will be evaluated based on the following criteria. Evaluators will base scores only on the information provided or cross-referenced by page number in each individual scoring criterion. DHCS is a competitive program, so you will receive scores based on the quality of your responses. Simply addressing the criteria will not guarantee higher scores. The total points possible for the criteria are 110. The minimum score requirement for funding is 60 points. It is at the Agency's discretion to fund applications with a score of 59 points or less if it is in the best interest of the Federal Government.
(a)
(1) The extent of the applicant's documentation explaining the health care needs, issues, and challenges facing the service area. Include what problems the residents face and how the Project will benefit the residents in the region.
(2) The extent to which the applicant is able to show the relationship between the Project's design, outcome, and benefits.
(3) The extent to which the applicant explains the Project and its implementation and provides milestones which are well-defined and can be realistically completed.
(4) The extent to which the applicant clearly outlines a plan to track, report, and evaluate performance outcomes.
Applicants should attempt to quantify benefits in terms of outcomes from the Project; that is, ways in which peoples' lives, or the community, will be improved. Provide estimates of the number of people affected by the benefits arising from the Project.
(b)
(1) The degree to which the organization has a sound management and fiscal structure including: Well-defined roles for administrators, staff, and established financial management systems.
(2) The extent to which the applicant identifies and demonstrates that qualifications, capabilities, and educational background of the identified key personnel (at a minimum the Project Manager) who will manage and implement programs are relevant and will contribute to the success of the Project.
(3) The extent to which the applicant demonstrates current successful and effective experience (or demonstrated experience within the past 5 years) addressing the health care issues in the Delta Region.
(4) The extent to which the applicant has experience managing grant-funded programs.
(5) The extent to which administrative/management costs are balanced with funds designated for the provision of programs and services.
(6) The extent and diversity of eligible entity types within the applicant's Consortium of regional institutions of higher education, academic health and research institutes, and economic development entities located in the Delta Region.
(c)
An eligible start and end date for the Project and for individual Project tasks must be clearly shown and may not exceed Agency specified timeframes for the grant period. You must show the source and use of both grant and other contributions for all tasks. Other contributions must be spent at a rate equal to, or in advance of, grant funds.
A panel of USDA employees will evaluate your work plan for detailed actions and an accompanying timetable for implementing the proposal. Clear and comprehensive work plans detailing all project goals, tasks, timelines, costs, and responsible personnel in a logical and realistic manner will result in a higher score.
(d)
(e)
i. Up to 5 points for projects with a primary purpose of providing treatment and counseling services for opioid abuse. Applicants who want to be considered for discretionary points must discuss how their workplan and budget addresses opioid misuse in the Delta Region; and
ii. up to 5 points for projects that seek to help rural communities build robust and sustainable economies through strategic investment in infrastructure, partnerships and innovation. Eligible applicants who want to be considered for discretionary points must discuss how their workplan and budget supports one or more of the five following key strategies:
• Achieving e-Connectivity for Rural America;
• Improving Quality of Life;
• Supporting a Rural Workforce;
• Harnessing Technological Innovation; and
• Economic Development
The State Offices will review applications to determine if they are eligible for assistance based on requirements in this Notice, and other applicable Federal regulations. If determined eligible, your application will be scored by a panel of USDA employees in accordance with the point allocation specified in this Notice. The review panel will convene to reach a consensus on the scores for each of the eligible applications. The Administrator may choose to award up to 10 Administrator discretionary points based on criterion (e) in section E.1. of this Notice. These points will be added to the cumulative score for a total possible score of 110. Applications will be funded in highest ranking order until the funding limitation has been reached. Applications that cannot be fully funded may be offered partial funding at the Agency's discretion. If your application is ranked and not funded, it will not be carried forward into the next competition.
If you are selected for funding, you will receive a signed notice of Federal award by postal mail, containing instructions on requirements necessary to proceed with execution and performance of the award.
If you are not selected for funding, you will be notified in writing via postal mail and informed of any review and appeal rights. Funding of successfully appealed applications will be limited to available FY 2018 funding.
Additional requirements that apply to grantees selected for this in program can be found in 2 CFR parts 25, 170, 180, 200, 400, 415, 417, 418, and 421; and 48 CFR 31.2, and successor regulations to these parts. All recipients of Federal financial assistance are required to report information about first-tier subawards and executive compensation (see 2 CFR part 170). You will be required to have the necessary processes and systems in place to comply with the Federal Funding Accountability and Transparency Act reporting requirements (see 2 CFR 170.200(b), unless you are exempt under 2 CFR 170.110(b)). These regulations may be obtained at:
The following additional requirements apply to grantees selected for this program:
• Agency approved Grant Agreement.
• Letter of Conditions.
• Form RD 1940-1, “Request for Obligation of Funds.”
• Form RD 1942-46, “Letter of Intent to Meet Conditions.”
• Form AD-1047, “Certification Regarding Debarment, Suspension, and Other Responsibility Matters—Primary Covered Transactions.”
• Form AD-1048, “Certification Regarding Debarment, Suspension, Ineligibility and Voluntary Exclusion-Lower Tier Covered Transactions.”
• Form AD-1049, “Certification Regarding a Drug-Free Workplace Requirement (Grants).”
• Form AD-3031, “Assurance Regarding Felony Conviction or Tax Delinquent Status for Corporate Applicants.” Must be signed by corporate applicants who receive an award under this Notice.
• Form RD 400-4, “Assurance Agreement.”
• RD Instruction 1940-Q, Exhibit A-1, “Certification for Contracts, Grants and Loans.”
• SF-LLL, “Disclosure of Lobbying Activities” if applicable.
After grant approval and through grant completion, you will be required to provide the following:
a. A SF-425, “Federal Financial Report,” and a project performance report will be required on a semiannual basis (due 30 working days after end of the semiannual period). For the purposes of this grant, semiannual periods end on June 30 and December 31. The project performance reports shall include a comparison of actual accomplishments to the objectives established for that period;
b. Reasons why established objectives were not met, if applicable;
c. Reasons for any problems, delays, or adverse conditions, if any, which have affected or will affect attainment of overall project objectives, prevent meeting time schedules or objectives, or preclude the attainment of particular objectives during established time periods. This disclosure shall be accompanied by a statement of the action taken or planned to resolve the situation; and
d. Objectives and timetable established for the next reporting period.
e. Provide a final project and financial status report within 90 days after the expiration or termination of the grant.
f. Provide outcome project performance reports and final deliverables.
If you have questions about this Notice, please contact the State Office as identified in the
In accordance with Federal civil rights law and U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) civil rights regulations and policies, the USDA, its Agencies, offices, and employees, and institutions participating in or administering USDA programs are prohibited from discriminating based on race, color, national origin, religion, sex, gender identity (including gender expression), sexual orientation, disability, age, marital status, family/parental status, income derived from a public assistance program, political beliefs, or reprisal or retaliation for prior civil rights activity, in any program or activity conducted or funded by USDA (not all bases apply to all programs). Remedies and complaint filing deadlines vary by program or incident.
Persons with disabilities who require alternative means of communication for program information (
To file a program discrimination complaint, complete the USDA Program Discrimination Complaint Form, AD-3027, found online at:
(1)
(2)
(3)
Rural Utilities Service, USDA.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) Rural Utilities Service (RUS) invites comments on this information collection for which approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) will be requested.
Comments on this notice must be received by October 29, 2018.
Michele Brooks, Team Lead, Rural Development Innovation Center—Regulatory Team, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, STOP 1522, Room 5162, South Building, Washington, DC 20250-1522. Telephone: (202) 690-1078. Email
The Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) regulation (5 CFR 1320) implementing provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13) requires that interested members of the public and affected agencies have an opportunity to comment on information collection and recordkeeping activities (see 5 CFR 1320.8(d)). This notice identifies an information collection that RUS is submitting to OMB for extension.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Comments may be sent to: Michele Brooks, Team Lead, Rural Development Innovation Center—Regulatory Team, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, STOP 1522, Room 5162, South Building, Washington, DC 20250-1522. Telephone: (202) 690-1078. Email
Copies of this information collection can be obtained from Thomas P. Dickson, Program Development and Regulatory Analysis at (202) 690-4492.
All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will also become a matter of public record.
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Correction; announcement of meeting.
The Commission on Civil Rights published a document August 16, 2018, announcing an upcoming Ohio Advisory Committee meeting. The document contained an incorrect address to the meeting.
Melissa Wojnaroski, DFO, at
In the
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
EDA is seeking an extension of the series of checklists and templates (formerly referred to as the “bluebook”) that constitute EDA's post-approval construction tools and the Standard Terms and Conditions for Construction Projects. These checklists and templates, as well as any special conditions incorporated into the terms and conditions at the time of award, supplement the requirements that apply to EDA-funded construction projects.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
This information collection request may be viewed at reginfo.gov. Follow the instructions to view Department of Commerce collections currently under review by OMB.
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
The Department of Commerce (DOC) will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
A CEDS emerges from a continuing planning process developed and driven by a public sector planning organization by engaging a broad-based and diverse set of stakeholders to address the economic problems and potential of a region. The CEDS should include information about how and to what extent stakeholder input and support was solicited. Information on how the planning organization collaborated with its diverse set of stakeholders (including the public sector, private interests, non-profits, educational institutions, and community organizations) in the development of the CEDS should be included. In accordance with the regulations governing the CEDS (see 13 CFR 303.7), a CEDS must contain a summary background, a SWOT Analysis, Strategic Direction/Action Plan, and an Evaluation Framework. In addition, the CEDS must incorporate the concept of economic resilience (
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
If a recipient wishes EDA to release its real property or tangible personal property interests before the expiration of the property's estimated useful life, the recipient must submit a written request to EDA and disclose to EDA the intended future use of the real property or the tangible personal property for which the release is requested (see 13 CFR 314.10). This collection of information allows EDA to determine whether to release its real property or tangible personal property interests.
This information collection request may be viewed at reginfo.gov. Follow the instructions to view Department of Commerce collections currently under review by OMB.
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
Bureau of Industry and Security.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before October 29, 2018.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Room 6616, Washington, DC 20230 (or via the internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Mark Crace, BIS ICB Liaison, (202) 482-8093 or at
The Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) is a multilateral arms control treaty that seeks to achieve an international ban on chemical weapons (CW). The CWC prohibits, the use, development, production, acquisition, stockpiling, retention, and direct or indirect transfer of chemical weapons. This collection implements the following export provision of the treaty in the Export Administration Regulations:
Submitted electronically or on paper.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
Notice of Issuance of an Amended Export Trade Certificate of Review to DFA of California, Application No. 14-4A004.
The U.S. Department of Commerce issued an amended Export Trade Certificate of Review to DFA of California (“DFA”) on August 21, 2018.
Joseph Flynn, Director, Office of Trade and Economic Analysis, International Trade Administration, by telephone at (202) 482-5131 (this is not a toll-free number) or email at
Title III of the Export Trading Company Act of 1982 (15 U.S.C. Sections 4001-21) authorizes the Secretary of Commerce to issue Export Trade Certificates of Review. The regulations implementing Title III are found at 15 CFR part 325 (2018). The U.S. Department of Commerce, International Trade Administration, Office of Trade and Economic Analysis (“OTEA”) is issuing this notice pursuant to 15 CFR 325.6(b), which requires the Secretary of Commerce to publish a summary of the issuance in the
DFA's Export Trade Certificate of Review has been amended to:
1. Add the following new Member of the Certificate within the meaning of section 325.2(1) of the Regulations (15 CFR 325.2(1)): John B. SanFilippo & Son, Inc.
International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Notice of change of application deadline and mailing address.
The United States Department of Commerce, International Trade Administration, is updating the Trade Fair Certification (TFC) program established under 22 U.S.C. 2455(f) to revise the application mailing address and the deadline for application submission for the Program. The updated TFC program guidelines can be found at:
Applicable on August 29, 2018.
Applications for TFC consideration should be mailed via preferred courier method to: Vidya Desai, Trade Fair Certification, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Mailstop 52024, Washington, DC 20230, Phone: 202-482-2311.
To ensure timely delivery of your application, please also email your application to:
Vidya Desai, Senior Advisor, Trade Events, Office of Trade Promotion Programs, U.S. Department of Commerce,
This change is reflected on the website at:
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
On August 15, 2018, the United States Court of International Trade (CIT or Court) amended its July 3, 2018, final judgment in
Applicable July 13, 2018.
Aleksandras Nakutis, Office IV, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-3147.
As explained in further detail in the
Pursuant to the CIT's July 3, 2018, final judgment, on July 25, 2018, Commerce issued the
On August 15, 2018, in response to an unopposed motion filed by Fine Furniture, the CIT amended its July 3, 2018, final judgment, and ordered the exclusion of Fine Furniture's affiliate, Double F Limited, a party previously collapsed with Fine Furniture into a single entity,
In its decision in
Pursuant to the CIT's August 15, 2018, order, we are amending the
This notice is issued and published in accordance with sections 516A(e)(1), 735, and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Office of Oceanic and Atmospheric Research (OAR), Department of Commerce (DOC).
Notice of solicitation for members of the NOAA Science Advisory Board.
NOAA is soliciting nominations for members of the NOAA Science Advisory Board (SAB). The SAB is the only Federal Advisory Committee with the responsibility to advise the Under Secretary of Commerce for Oceans, Atmosphere, and NOAA Administrator on long- and short-range strategies for research, education, and application of science to resource management and environmental assessment and prediction. The SAB consists of approximately fifteen members reflecting the full breadth of NOAA's areas of responsibility and assists NOAA in maintaining a complete and accurate understanding of scientific issues critical to the agency's missions.
Nominations should be sent to the web address specified below and must be received by October 15, 2018.
Applications should be submitted electronically to
Dr. Cynthia Decker, Executive Director, Science Advisory Board, NOAA, Rm. 11230, 1315 East-West Highway, Silver Spring, Maryland 20910. (Phone: 301-734-1156, Fax: 301-713-1459, Email:
At this time, individuals are sought with expertise in cloud computing, artificial intelligence and data management; weather modeling and data assimilation; remote/autonomous sensing technology; ocean exploration science and technology; and `omics science. Individuals with expertise in other NOAA mission areas are also welcome to apply.
Members will be appointed for three-year terms, renewable once, and serve at the discretion of the Under Secretary. If a member resigns before the end of his or her first term, the vacancy appointment shall be for the remainder of the unexpired term, and shall be renewable twice if the unexpired term is less than one year. Members will be appointed as special government employees (SGEs) and will be subject to the ethical standards applicable to SGEs. Members are reimbursed for actual and reasonable travel and per diem expenses incurred in performing such duties but will not be reimbursed for their time. As a Federal Advisory Committee, the Board's membership is required to be balanced in terms of viewpoints represented and the functions to be performed as well as the interests of geographic regions of the country and the diverse sectors of U.S. society.
The SAB meets in person three times each year, exclusive of teleconferences or subcommittee, task force, and working group meetings. Board members must be willing to serve as liaisons to SAB working groups and/or participate in periodic reviews of the NOAA Cooperative Institutes and overarching reviews of NOAA's research enterprise.
United States Patent and Trademark Office, Commerce.
Notice.
In conformance with the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978, the United States Patent and Trademark Office announces the appointment of persons to serve as members of its Performance Review Board.
Director, Human Capital Management, Office of Human Resources, United States Patent and Trademark Office, P.O. Box 1450, Alexandria, VA 22313-1450.
Anne T. Mendez at (571) 272-6173.
The membership of the United States Patent and Trademark Office Performance Review Board is as follows:
Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”), this notice announces that the Information Collection Request (“ICR”) abstracted below has been forwarded to the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) for review and comment. The
Comments must be submitted on or before September 28, 2018.
Comments regarding the burden estimate or any other aspect of the information collection, including suggestions for reducing the burden, may be submitted directly to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (“OIRA”) in OMB, within 30 days of the publication of this notice, by either of the following methods. Please identify the comments by “OMB Control No 3038-0021.”
•
•
A copy of all comments submitted to OIRA should be sent to the Commodity Futures Trading Commission (CFTC or Commission) by any of the following methods. The copies sent to the Commission also should refer to “OMB Control No. 3038-0021.”
•
• By Hand Delivery/Courier to the same address; or
• Through the Commission's website at
A copy of the supporting statement for the collection of information discussed herein may be obtained by visiting
All comments must be submitted in English, or if not, accompanied by an English translation. Comments will be posted as received to
Jocelyn Partridge, Special Counsel, Division of Clearing and Risk, Commodity Futures Trading Commission, (202) 418-5926; email:
The reporting requirements include, for example, notices to the Commission regarding the filing of petitions for bankruptcy and notices to the Commission regarding the intention to transfer open commodity contracts in a commodity broker liquidation. The recordkeeping requirements include, for example, the statements of customer accounts that a trustee appointed for the purposes of a commodity broker liquidation (Trustee) must generate and adjust as set forth in the regulations. The third party disclosure requirements include, for example, the disclosure statement that a commodity broker must provide to its customers containing information regarding the manner in which customer property is treated under Part 190 of the Commission's regulations in the event of a bankruptcy and, in the event of a commodity broker liquidation, certain notices that a Trustee must provide to customers and to the persons to whom commodity contracts and specifically identifiable customer property have been or will be transferred. The information collection requirements are necessary, and will be used, to facilitate the effective, efficient, and fair conduct of liquidation proceedings for commodity brokers and to protect the interests of customers in these proceedings both directly and by facilitating the participation of the CFTC in such proceedings.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB number. On June 25, 2018, the Commission published in the
The respondent burden for this information collection is estimated to be as follows:
• Reporting:
• Recordkeeping:
• Third Party Disclosures Applicable to a Single Respondent:
• Third Party Disclosures Applicable to Multiple Respondents:
There are no new capital or start-up or operations costs associated with this information collection, nor are there any maintenance costs associated with this information collection.
Corporation for National and Community Service.
Notice of computer matching program between the Corporation for National and Community Service and the Social Security Administration.
In accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended by the Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act of 1988, OMB Final Guidance Interpreting the Provisions of the Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act of 1988, and the Serve America Act, the Corporation for National and Community Service (CNCS) is issuing public notice of its renewal of its computer matching agreement with the Social Security Administration (SSA).
You may submit comments until September 28, 2018.
You may submit comments identified by the title of the information collection activity, by any of the following methods.
(1)
(2)
(3) Individuals who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TTY-TDD) may call (202) 606-3472 between 8:30 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time, Monday through Friday.
Amy Borgstrom, Associate Director for Policy, (202) 606-6930 or
The Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a), as amended by the Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act of 1988 (Pub. L. 100-503), regulates the use of computer matching agreements by federal agencies when records in a system of records are matched with other federal, state, or local government records. Among other things, it requires federal agencies involved in computer matching agreements to publish a notice in the
This renewed matching program will continue for 18 months after the effective date and may be extended for an additional 12 months thereafter, if the conditions specified in 5 U.S.C. 552a(o)(2)(A) and OMB Circular A-108 (December 23, 2016) have been met. In order to renew this agreement, both CNCS and SSA must certify to their respective Data Integrity Boards that: (1) The matching program will be
CNCS will provide SSA with a data file including social security number, first and last names, and date of birth. SSA will conduct a match on the identifying information. If the match does not return a result verifying the individual's social security number and citizenship status, CNCS will notify the individual or the grant recipient program that selected the individual. The affected individual will have an opportunity to contest the accuracy of the information provided by SSA in accordance with the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(p) and applicable OMB guidelines.
The individual will have at least 30 days from the date of the notice to submit evidence demonstrating the accuracy of the social security number and/or proof that the individual is a citizen, national, or lawful permanent resident alien of the United States. CNCS will consider any timely submitted evidence to determine whether the record establishes the accuracy of the social security number and/or the United States citizenship, nationality or lawful permanent residency of the individual. If the individual fails to timely submit such evidence, CNCS will presume that the information provided by SSA is accurate. The notice will so advise the individual.
Applicants and transferees will be informed that information provided on the application is subject to verification through a computer matching program. The application package will contain a privacy certification notice that the applicant must sign authorizing CNCS to verify the information provided. Individuals receiving a transferred Education Award will be informed at the time identifying information is requested from the transferee, that their data will be verified through this computer matching agreement. The form requesting this data will contain a privacy certification notice that the applicant must sign authorizing CNCS to verify the information provided.
CNCS's legal authority to enter into this agreement is in section 146(b)(3) of the National and Community Service Act (NCSA) (42 U.S.C. 12602(a)), concerning an individual's eligibility to receive a Segal AmeriCorps Education Award from the National Service Trust upon successful completion of a term of service in an approved national service position. The authority is further articulated in section 1711 of the Serve America Act (Pub. L. 111-13), that directs CNCS to enter into a data matching agreement to verify statements made by an individual declaring that such individual is in compliance with section 146(b)(3) of the NCSA by comparing information provided by the individual with information relevant to such a declaration in the possession of another federal agency.
Department of the Air Force, Department of Defense.
Availability of Memory Visualization software and documentation for licensing.
The Department of the Air Force announces the availability of Memory Visualization software and related documentation, which aids digital forensics examinations of computing device memory captures for user and malware identification.
Licensing interests should be sent to: Air Force Institute of Technology, Office of Research and Technology Applications, AFIT/ENR, 2950 Hobson Way, Building 641, Rm. 101c, Wright-Patterson AFB, OH 45433; Facsimile: (937) 656-7139.
Air Force Institute of Technology, Office of Research and Technology Applications, AFIT/ENR, 2950 Hobson Way, Building 641, Rm. 101c, Wright-Patterson AFB, OH 45433; Facsimile: (937) 656-7139, or Mr. Jeff Murray, (937) 255-3636, Ext. 4665.
One major challenge facing digital forensics practitioners is the complicated task of acquiring an understanding of the digital data residing in electronic devices. Currently, this task requires significant experience and background to aggregate the data their tools provide from the digital artifacts. Most of the tools available present their results in text files or tree lists. It is up to the practitioner to mentally capture a global understanding of the state of the device at the time of seizure and find the items of evidentiary interest.
The Memory Visualization software applies Information Visualization
This notice is pursuant to the provisions of Section 801 of Public Law 113-66 (2014 National Defense Authorization Act).
Department of the Army, DoD.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee meeting.
The Department of Defense is publishing this notice to announce that the following Federal Advisory Committee meeting of the Chief of Engineers Environmental Advisory Board (EAB) will take place.
The meeting will be held from 8:30 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. on September 21, 2018. Public registration will begin at 8:00 a.m.
The meeting will be conducted at the Alexander Hamilton U.S. Custom House; 1 Bowling Green; New York, NY 10004 (enter on lower level-group entrance).
Ms. Mindy M. Simmons, the Designated Federal Officer (DFO) for the committee, in writing at U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, ATTN: CECW-P, 441 G St. NW, Washington, DC 20314; by telephone at 202-761-4127; and by email at
This meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended), the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976 (5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended), and 41 CFR 102-3.140 and 102-3.150.
Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs, DoD.
30-Day information collection notice.
The Department of Defense has submitted to OMB for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
Consideration will be given to all comments received by September 28, 2018.
Comments and recommendations on the proposed information collection should be emailed to Ms. Cortney Higgins, DoD Desk Officer, at
Fred Licari, 571-372-0493, or
You may also submit comments and recommendations, identified by Docket ID number and title, by the following method:
•
Requests for copies of the information collection proposal should be sent to Mr. Licari at
Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition and Sustainment, DoD.
30-Day information collection notice.
The Department of Defense has submitted to OMB for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
Consideration will be given to all comments received by September 28, 2018.
Comments and recommendations on the proposed information collection should be emailed to Ms. Jasmeet Seehra, DoD Desk Officer, at
Fred Licari, 571-372-0493, or
You may also submit comments and recommendations, identified by Docket ID number and title, by the following method:
Requests for copies of the information collection proposal should be sent to Mr. Licari at
U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, DoD.
Notice of Intent; extension of public comment period.
USACE is announcing the public scoping meeting dates, times, and locations and extending the scoping comment period for the Notice of Intent (NOI) to prepare Supplement II (SEIS II) to the Final Environmental Impact Statement, Mississippi River and Tributaries (MR&T) Project, Mississippi River Mainline Levees and Channel Improvement of 1976 (1976 EIS), as updated and supplemented by Supplement No. 1, Mississippi River and Tributaries Project, Mississippi River Mainline Levee Enlargement and Seepage Control of 1998 (SEIS I) to the 1976 EIS. The NOI was published in the
The deadline for receipt of scoping comments is extended to October 15, 2018.
Written comments should be submitted: (1) To USACE at public scoping meetings; (2) by regular U.S. Mail mailed to: U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, ATTN: CEMVN-PDC-UDC, 167 North Main Street, Room B-202, Memphis, Tennessee 38103-1894; or (3) by email to:
For direct questions about the NEPA process and upcoming scoping meetings please contact: Mr. Mike Thron, by mail at U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, ATTN: CEMVN-PDC-UDC, 167 North Main Street, Room B-202, Memphis, Tennessee 38103-1894; by telephone at (901) 544-0708; or by email at
The dates, locations, and times of the public scoping meetings are:
1. September 10, 2018 at the Holiday Inn Blytheville, 1121 East Main Street, Blytheville, Arkansas 72315 from 7 p.m. to 9 p.m.
2. September 11, 2018 at the Vicksburg Convention Center, 1600 Mulberry Street, Vicksburg, Mississippi, 39180 from 7 p.m. to 9 p.m.
3. September 12, 2018 at the Louisiana Department of Environmental Quality, Room C111, 602 North 5th Street, Baton Rouge, Louisiana, 70802 from 7 p.m. to 9 p.m.
4. September 13, 2018 at United States Army Corps of Engineers, New Orleans District Headquarters District Assembly Room, 7400 Leake Avenue, New Orleans, Louisiana, 70118 from 7 p.m. to 9 p.m.
Office of Fossil Energy, DOE.
Notice.
The Office of Fossil Energy (FE) of the Department of Energy (DOE) gives notice of receipt of a Notice of Change in Control Through Indirect Equity Ownership Changes (Notice), filed July 10, 2018 by Delfin LNG, LLC (Delfin LNG) in FE Docket No. 13-147-LNG. The Notice describes changes to the corporate structure and ownership of Delfin LNG. The Notice was filed under section 3 of the Natural Gas Act (NGA).
Protests, motions to intervene or notices of intervention, as applicable, and written comments are to be filed using procedures detailed in the Public Comment Procedures section no later than 4:30 p.m., Eastern time, September 13, 2018.
On July 10, 2018, Delfin LNG filed a Notice of Change in Control Through Indirect Equity Ownership Changes in the above-referenced docket.
Additional details can be found in Delfin LNG's Notice, posted on the DOE/FE website at:
DOE/FE will review Delfin LNG's Notice in accordance with its Procedures for Changes in Control Affecting Applications and Authorizations to Import or Export Natural Gas (CIC Procedures).
Interested persons will be provided 15 days from the date of publication of this notice in the
Filings may be submitted using one of the following methods: (1) Preferred method: Emailing the filing to
Delfin LNG's Notice and any filed protests, motions to intervene, notices of intervention, and comments are available for inspection and copying in the Office of Regulation and International Engagement docket room, Room 3E-042, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585. The docket room is open between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
The Notice and any filed protests, motions to intervene, notices of interventions, and comments will also be available electronically by going to the following DOE/FE Web address:
Office of Fossil Energy, Department of Energy.
Notice of orders.
The Office of Fossil Energy (FE) of the Department of Energy gives notice that during July 2018, it issued orders granting or vacating authority to import and export natural gas, and to import and export liquefied natural gas (LNG). These orders are summarized in the attached appendix and may be found on the FE website at
They are also available for inspection and copying in the U.S. Department of Energy (FE-34), Division of Natural Gas
Office of Electricity, DOE.
Notice of application.
Enel Trading North America, LLC (ETNA or Applicant) has applied for authority to transmit electric energy from the United States to Mexico pursuant to the Federal Power Act.
Comments, protests, or motions to intervene must be submitted on or before September 28, 2018.
Comments, protests, motions to intervene, or requests for more information should be addressed to: Office of Electricity, Mail Code: OE-20, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585-0350. Because of delays in handling conventional mail, it is recommended that documents be transmitted by overnight mail, by electronic mail to
Exports of electricity from the United States to a foreign country are regulated by the United States Department of Energy (DOE) pursuant to sections 301(b) and 402(f) of the Department of Energy Organization Act (42 U.S.C. 7151(b) and 7172(f)) and require authorization under section 202(e) of the Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C. 824a(e)).
On August 3, 2018, DOE received an application from ETNA for authority to transmit electric energy from the United States to Mexico as a power marketer for a five-year term using existing international transmission facilities.
In its application, the Applicant states that it “is not a franchised public utility with a transmission or distribution system, and does not have captive customers.” The electric energy that ETNA proposes to export to Mexico would be surplus energy purchased from third parties such as electric utilities and Federal power marketing agencies pursuant to voluntary agreements. The existing international transmission facilities to be utilized by the Applicant have previously been authorized by Presidential Permits issued pursuant to Executive Order 10485, as amended, and are appropriate for open access transmission by third parties.
Comments and other filings concerning ETNA's application to export electric energy to Mexico should be clearly marked with OE Docket No. EA-460. An additional copy is to be provided to Margaret M. Bateman, Esq., Enel Green Power North America, Inc., 100 Brickstone Square, Suite 300, Andover, MA 01810.
A final decision will be made on this application after the environmental impacts have been evaluated pursuant to DOE's National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Procedures (10 CFR part 1021) and after a determination is made by DOE that the proposed action will not have an adverse impact on the sufficiency of supply or reliability of the U.S. electric power supply system.
Copies of this application will be made available, upon request, for public inspection and copying at the address provided above, by accessing the program website at
Office of Electricity Delivery, DOE.
Notice of filing.
On July 27, 2018, Panda Hummel Station LLC, as owner and operator of a new baseload electric generating powerplant, submitted a coal capability self-certification to the Department of Energy (DOE). The FUA and regulations thereunder require DOE to publish a notice of filing of self-certification in the
Copies of coal capability self-certification filings are available for public inspection, upon request, in the Office of Electricity, Mail Code OE-20, Room 8G-024, Forrestal Building, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585.
Christopher Lawrence at (202) 586-5260.
On July 27, 2018, Panda Hummel Station LLC, as owner and operator of a new baseload electric generating powerplant, submitted a coal capability self-certification to the Department of Energy (DOE) pursuant to § 201(d) of the Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978 (FUA), as amended, and DOE regulations in 10 CFR 501.60, 61. The FUA and regulations thereunder require DOE to publish a notice of filing of self-certification in the
The following owner of a proposed new baseload electric generating powerplant has filed a self-certification of coal-capability with DOE pursuant to FUA section 201(d) and in accordance with DOE regulations in 10 CFR 501.60, 61:
National Nuclear Security Administration, U.S. Department of Energy.
Submission for Office of Management and Budget (OMB) review; comment request.
The Department of Energy (DOE) has submitted an information collection request to the OMB for extension under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection requests a three-year extension of Assistance to Foreign Atomic Energy Activities, OMB Control Number 1901-0263. The proposed collection will implement the regulatory requirements for U.S. persons engaged in the export of unclassified nuclear technology and assistance to submit reports and applications to DOE. This information collection is necessary for the Secretary of Energy to execute his legal and regulatory responsibilities pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (AEA).
Comments regarding this collection must be received on or before September 28, 2018. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, please advise the OMB Desk Officer of your intention to make a submission as soon as possible. The Desk Officer may be telephoned at (202) 395-4718.
Written comments should be sent to the DOE Desk Officer, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Room 10102, 735 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503; and
Katie Strangis, Policy Advisor, Office of Nonproliferation and Arms Control, NA-24, National Nuclear Security Administration, Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Room 7F-075, Washington, DC 20585, Fax: (202) 586-6789, Email:
Due to potential delays in DOE's receipt and processing of mail sent through the U.S. Postal Service, DOE encourages responders to submit comments electronically to ensure timely receipt.
Katie Strangis, Policy Advisor, Office of Nonproliferation and Arms Control, NA-24, National Nuclear Security Administration, Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Room
This information collection request contains: (1)
Sections 57 b.(2) and 161(c) of the AEA.
Office of Electricity, DOE.
Notice of application.
Mercuria Energy America, Inc. (MEAI or Applicant) has applied for authority to transmit electric energy from the United States to Mexico pursuant to the Federal Power Act.
Comments, protests, or motions to intervene must be submitted on or before September 28, 2018.
Comments, protests, motions to intervene, or requests for more information should be addressed to: Office of Electricity, Mail Code: OE-20, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585-0350. Because of delays in handling conventional mail, it is recommended that documents be transmitted by overnight mail, by electronic mail to
Exports of electricity from the United States to a foreign country are regulated by the United States Department of Energy (DOE) pursuant to sections 301(b) and 402(f) of the Department of Energy Organization Act (42 U.S.C. 7151(b) and 7172(f)) and require authorization under section 202(e) of the Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C. 824a(e)).
On July 30, 2018, DOE received an application from MEAI for authority to transmit electric energy from the United States to Mexico as a power marketer for a five-year term using existing international transmission facilities. MEAI is also registered as a Purchasing and Selling Entity, as defined by the North American Electric Reliability Corporation (NERC).
In its application, MEAI states that it “does not currently own or control electric generation or transmission facilities of its own in the United States over which the export of wholesale electricity could have a reliability, fuel use, or system stability impact,” and that it does not have a franchised service area. The electric energy that MEAI proposes to export to Mexico would be surplus energy purchased from third parties such as electric utilities and Federal power marketing agencies pursuant to voluntary agreements. The existing international transmission facilities to be utilized by the Applicant have previously been authorized by Presidential Permits issued pursuant to Executive Order 10485, as amended, and are appropriate for open access transmission by third parties.
Comments and other filings concerning MEAI's application to export electric energy to Mexico should be clearly marked with OE Docket No. EA-459. An additional copy is to be provided to both Chloe Cromarty and Mark Greenberg, 20 E. Greenway Plaza, Suite 650, Houston, TX 77046.
A final decision will be made on this application after the environmental impacts have been evaluated pursuant to DOE's National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Procedures (10 CFR part 1021) and after a determination is made by DOE that the proposed action will not have an adverse impact on the sufficiency of supply or reliability of the U.S. electric power supply system.
Copies of this application will be made available, upon request, for public inspection and copying at the address provided above, by accessing the program website at
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of Macquarie Energy Trading LLC`s application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is September 12, 2018.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the website that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Take notice that the following hydroelectric applications have been filed with the Commission and are available for public inspection:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j. Deadline for filing scoping comments: October 26, 2018.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene and protests using the Commission's eFiling system at
The Commission's Rules of Practice require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.
k. This application has been accepted, but is not ready for environmental analysis at this time.
l. The project consists of the following existing facilities:
(1) a 14-foot-high, 250-foot-long rock masonry gravity dam impounding Swan Lake with a surface area of approximately 1,364 acres at an elevation of 201 feet above sea level; (2) a concrete inlet structure; (3) three 3.5-foot-high, 4-foot-wide manually operated butterfly gates that regulate flow through the inlet structure; (4) two culverts that convey flow under Route 141; and (5) appurtenant facilities.
(1) a 15-foot-high, 86-foot-long rock masonry dam impounding a reservoir with a storage capacity of approximately 1,621 acre-feet at an elevation of 188 feet above sea level; (2) a concrete inlet structure; (3) a manually operated butterfly gate regulating flow from the inlet structure to the penstock; (4) a 3-foot-diameter, 350-foot-long steel penstock; (5) a 266-square-foot concrete powerhouse containing two Kaplan turbines and generating units with a licensed capacity of 100 kW; (6) a 300-foot-long, 12-kilovolt (kV) transmission line; and (7) appurtenant facilities. Mason's Development generates when flows in excess of 5 cfs are available and when an operator is present.
(1) a 15-foot-high, 135-foot-long masonry gravity dam impounding a reservoir with a storage capacity of approximately 200 acre-feet at an elevation of approximately 159 feet above sea level; and (2) three 3-foot-high, 2.5-foot-wide manually operated butterfly gates.
(1) a 6-foot-tall, 70-foot-wide masonry dam impounding a reservoir with a storage capacity of approximately 7 acre-feet at an elevation of approximately 128 feet above sea level; (2) a concrete inlet structure; (3) a trash sluice with wooden stop logs; (4) a powerhouse containing a Francis-type turbine and generator unit with a licensed capacity of 75 kW; (5) a 60-foot-wide concrete spillway; and (6) an approximately 100-foot-long, 12-kV transmission line. The penstock used to deliver water to the powerhouse has been removed due to deterioration and subsequent leakage; thus, the powerhouse is not operating.
(1) a 21-foot-high, 231-foot-long buttress dam impounding a reservoir with a storage capacity of approximately 72 acre-feet at an elevation of approximately 109 feet above sea level; (2) a manually operated low-level water release lift gate; (3) a manually operated lift gate regulating flow to the penstock; (4) a 5-foot-diameter, 1,200-foot-long steel penstock; (5) a 300-square-foot concrete and timber powerhouse with a Kaplan-type turbine and generator unit with a licensed capacity of 200 kW; (6) a 42-foot-long spillway; and (7) an approximately 500-foot-long, 12-kV transmission line. The penstock used to deliver water to the powerhouse is currently out of service due to damage, deterioration, and subsequent leakage; thus, the powerhouse is not operating.
m. A copy of the application is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's website at
You may also register online at
n. Scoping Process.
The Commission intends to prepare an Environmental assessment (EA) on the project in accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act. The EA will consider both site-specific and cumulative environmental impacts and reasonable alternatives to the proposed action. Although our current intent is to prepare an EA, there is a possibility that an environmental impact statement (EIS) may be required. The scoping process will satisfy the NEPA scoping requirements, irrespective of whether the Commission issues an EA or an EIS.
FERC staff will conduct one agency scoping meeting and one public meeting. The agency scoping meeting will focus on resource agency and non-governmental organization (NGO) concerns, while the public scoping meeting is primarily for public input. All interested individuals, organizations, and agencies are invited to attend one or both of the meetings, and to assist the staff in identifying the scope of the environmental issues that should be analyzed in the EA. The times and locations of these meetings are as follows:
Copies of the Scoping Document (SD1) outlining the subject areas to be addressed in the EIS were distributed to the parties on the Commission's mailing list. Copies of the SD1 will be available at the scoping meeting or may be viewed on the web at
The Applicant and FERC staff will conduct a project Environmental Site Review beginning at 10:00 a.m. on September 25, 2018. All interested individuals, organizations, and agencies are invited to attend. All participants should meet at the southeast corner of Swan Lake, across the street from Swan Lake Grocery at 979 Swan Lake Avenue, Swanville, ME 04915. All participants are responsible for their own transportation to the site. Anyone with questions about the environmental site review (or needing directions) should contact Nicholas Cabral at
At the scoping meetings, the staff will: (1) Summarize the environmental issues tentatively identified for analysis in the EA; (2) solicit from the meeting participants all available information, especially quantifiable data, on the resources at issue; (3) encourage statements from experts and the public on issues that should be analyzed in the EA, including viewpoints in opposition to, or in support of, the staff's preliminary views; (4) determine the resource issues to be addressed in the EA; and (5) identify those issues that require a detailed analysis, as well as those issues that do not require a detailed analysis.
The meetings are recorded by a stenographer and become part of the formal record of the Commission proceeding on the project.
Individuals, organizations, and agencies with environmental expertise and concerns are encouraged to attend the meeting and to assist the staff in defining and clarifying the issues to be addressed in the EA.
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric securities filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that on August 10, 2018, Maritimes & Northeast Pipeline, L.L.C. (Maritimes), 5400 Westheimer Court, Houston, Texas 77056-5310, filed an application under section 7(b) and 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA) and Subpart A of Part 157 of the Commission's rules and regulations to reacquire 7,214 Dth/d of firm capacity on its jointly-owned system from Westbrook, Maine to Dracut, Massachusetts upon the in-service date of Phase III of Portland Natural Gas Transmission System's (Portland) Portland Xpress Project (PXP Project Phase III) and the termination of the Capacity Lease Agreement (Lease Agreement) between Maritimes and Portland, as described in Docket No. CP18-516-000, filed June 29, 2018. Upon the in-service date of the PXP Project Phase III, Maritimes seeks to abandon a portion of its ownership interest in a compressor unit at the Westbrook Compressor Station to Portland, all as more fully described in the application which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection. The filing may also be
Any questions regarding this application should be directed to Lisa A. Connolly, Director, Rates and Certificates, Maritimes & Northeast Management Company, LLC, 5400 Westheimer Court, Houston, Texas 77056-5310, or call (713) 627-4102, or email:
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules (18 CFR 157.9), within 90 days of this Notice, the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
There are two ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project. First, any person wishing to obtain legal status by becoming a party to the proceedings for this project should, on or before the comment date stated below file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426, a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.214 or 385.211) and the Regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.10). A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties. A party must submit 7 copies of filings made in the proceeding with the Commission and must mail a copy to the applicant and to every other party. Only parties to the proceeding can ask for court review of Commission orders in the proceeding.
However, a person does not have to intervene in order to have comments considered. The second way to participate is by filing with the Secretary of the Commission, as soon as possible, an original and two copies of comments in support of or in opposition to this project. The Commission will consider these comments in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but the filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. The Commission's rules require that persons filing comments in opposition to the project provide copies of their protests only to the party or parties directly involved in the protest.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commentors will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commentors will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commentors will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
Take notice that a technical conference will be held on Wednesday, September 19, 2018 at 10:00 a.m. (Eastern Daylight Time), in Hearing Room 7, at the offices of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426.
At the technical conference, the Commission Staff and the parties to the proceeding should be prepared to discuss all issues set for technical conference as established in the July 31, 2018 Order,
Commission conferences are accessible under section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973. For accessibility accommodations please send an email to
For more information about this technical conference please contact Brandon Henke at (202) 502-8386 or
Take notice that on August 14, 2018, Edison Electric Institute filed an amendment to its March 19, 2018 filed request for approval for electric companies to use Account 439, recently authorized by the Financial Accounting Standards Board.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
This notice announces that pesticide related information submitted to EPA's Office of Pesticide Programs (OPP) pursuant to the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) and the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA), including information that may have been claimed as Confidential Business Information (CBI) by the submitter, will be transferred to General Dynamics Information Technology in accordance with the CBI regulations. General Dynamics Information Technology has been awarded multiple contracts to perform work for OPP, and access to this information will enable General Dynamics Information Technology to fulfill the obligations of the contract.
General Dynamics Information Technology will be given access to this information on or before September 4, 2018.
William Northern, Information Technology and Resources Management Division (7502P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (703) 305-6478 email address:
This action applies to the public in general. As such, the Agency has not attempted to describe all the specific entities that may be affected by this action.
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2018-0563, is available at
The Contractor shall provide progress reporting monitoring performance and finances associated with this task order. The Technical and Quality Assurance Progress Report shall provide a general outline of the effort, state the percentage of work completed for the Task Order during the reporting period, and relate it to the overall effort.
This performance work statement (PWS) does not provide specific details on the types of solutions to be offered or the comprehensiveness of any specific solutions. However, the government requires the contractor to offer comprehensive solutions that (1) are based on an understanding of the current EPA IT infrastructure and the systems engineering, remote sensing and GIS environments, (2) provide the scope and breadth of remote sensing and Geographic Information System (GIS) services responsive to present and future needs of EPA, ORD, and partner user communities, (3) ensure an appropriate level of security based on government regulations, agency requirements, and industry best practices, and (4) meet performance levels or metrics associated with specific areas.
The Contractor shall prepare a Quality Management Plan (QMP) describing the technical approach, organizational resources and management controls to be employed to meet the cost, performance and schedule requirements throughout task order execution. The contractor shall employ a program management structure to ensure the efficient execution of all tasks and subtasks, and the capability to report on the status of work performed. The contractor shall use a single point of contact (POC) for all matters regarding project administration and reporting.
This contract will involve no subcontractors.
OPP has determined that the contracts described in this document involve work that is being conducted in connection with FIFRA, in that pesticide chemicals will be the subject of certain evaluations to be made under this contract. These evaluations may be used in subsequent regulatory decisions under FIFRA.
Some of this information may be entitled to confidential treatment. The information has been submitted to EPA under FIFRA sections 3, 4, 6, and 7 and under FFDCA sections 408 and 409.
In accordance with the requirements of 40 CFR 2.307(h)(3), the contracts with General Dynamics Information Technology prohibits use of the information for any purpose not specified in these contracts; prohibits disclosure of the information to a third party without prior written approval from the Agency; and requires that each official and employee of the contractor sign an agreement to protect the information from unauthorized release and to handle it in accordance with the
7 U.S.C. 136
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), this document announces that EPA is planning to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). The ICR, entitled: “TSCA Section 8(a) Preliminary Assessment Information Rule (PAIR)” and identified by EPA ICR No. 0586.14 and OMB Control No. 2070-0054, represents the renewal of an existing ICR that is scheduled to expire on April 30, 2019. Before submitting the ICR to OMB for review and approval, EPA is soliciting comments on specific aspects of the proposed information collection that is summarized in this document. The ICR and accompanying material are available in the docket for public review and comment.
Comments must be received on or before October 29, 2018.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2018-0516, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
Pursuant to PRA section 3506(c)(2)(A) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), EPA specifically solicits comments and information to enable it to:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility.
2. Evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimates of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
EPA or other federal agencies (
This information collection activity also covers certain specific chemical testing and reporting requirements under Subpart B of 40 CFR part 766 that are in part very similar to the PAIR requirements. The Agency rarely receives submissions of the information required by 40 CFR 766. EPA received less than five submissions over the course of the last OMB approval for this aspect of the information collection.
The dibenzo-para-dioxin/dibenzofuran regulations at 40 CFR part 766 require that any person who manufactures, imports, or processes a chemical substance listed at 40 CFR 766.25 test that chemical substance and submit appropriate information to EPA according to the schedules described at 40 CFR 766.35. Persons who commence manufacture, import, or processing of a chemical substance listed at 40 CFR 766.25 must submit a letter of intent to test or an exemption application within 60-days of starting any of those activities. Each person who is manufacturing or processing a chemical listed in 40 CFR 766.25 must submit a protocol for testing according to the schedule at 40 CFR 766.35(a)(2). Persons who manufacture or import a chemical substance listed under 40 CFR 766.25 must report positive test results, using the Dioxin/Furan Report Form (EPA Form 7710-51), of all existing test data that show that chemical substance has been tested for the presence of halogenated dibenzodioxins/halogenated dibenzofurans (HDDs/HDFs), as well as any health and safety studies for the chemical substance, as defined in the regulation, no later than 90 days after the date of submission of the positive test result. Additionally, any manufacturer or importer of a chemical substance listed in 40 CFR 766.25 in possession of unpublished health and safety studies on HDDs/HDFs is required to submit copies of such studies to EPA, in accordance with certain provisions of 40 CFR 716, no later than 90 days after the person first manufactures or imports the chemical substance.
The ICR, which is available in the docket along with other related materials, provides a detailed explanation of the collection activities and the burden estimate that is only briefly summarized here:
There is a decrease of 1 hour in the total estimated respondent burden compared with that identified in the ICR currently approved by OMB. This decrease reflects a correction in the ICR renewal which eliminates the burden from trade name notification by processors (included previously in error) and the increased CBI substantiation requirements in the 2016 Lautenberg Act amendments to TSCA. This change is an adjustment.
EPA will consider the comments received and amend the ICR as appropriate. The final ICR package will then be submitted to OMB for review and approval pursuant to 5 CFR 1320.12. EPA will issue another
44 U.S.C. 3501
Export-Import Bank of the United States.
Submission for OMB review and comments request.
The Export-Import Bank of the United States (EXIM), as a part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal Agencies to comment on the proposed information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
This form is to be completed by EXIM borrowers as required under EXIM Credit Guarantee Facility (CGF) transactions in conjunction with a borrower's request for disbursement for U.S. goods and services. It is used to summarize disbursement documents submitted with a borrower's request and to calculate the requested financing amount. It will enable EXIM lenders to identify the specific details of the amount of disbursement requested for approval to ensure that the financing request is complete and in compliance with EXIM's disbursement requirements.
Comments should be received on or before September 28, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Comments may be submitted electronically on
This form is submitted by the borrower to the CGF lender for review. The lender reports information regarding the disbursement electronically to EXIM using OMB Number 3048-0046 CGF (EIB 12-02) Disbursement Approval Request Report.
Export-Import Bank of the United States.
Submission for OMB review and comments request.
The Export-Import Bank of the United States (EXIM), as a part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal Agencies to comment on the proposed information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
This form is to be completed by EXIM borrowers as required under EXIM Credit Guarantee Facility (CGF) transactions in conjunction with a borrower's request for disbursement for local cost goods and services. It is used to summarize disbursement documents submitted with a borrower's request and to calculate the requested financing amount. It will enable EXIM lenders to identify the specific details of the amount of disbursement requested for approval to ensure that the financing request is complete and in compliance with EXIM's disbursement requirements.
Comments should be received on or before September 28, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Comments may be submitted electronically on
This form is submitted by the borrower to the CGF lender for review. The lender reports information regarding the disbursement electronically to EXIM using OMB Number 3048-0046 CGF (EIB 12-02) Disbursement Approval Request Report.
Export-Import Bank of the United States.
Submission for OMB review and comments request.
The Export-Import Bank of the United States (EXIM), as a part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal Agencies to comment on the proposed information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
This form is to be completed by EXIM borrowers as required under certain EXIM long-term guarantee and direct loan transactions in conjunction with a borrower's request for disbursement for local cost goods and services. It is used to summarize disbursement documents submitted with a borrower's request and to calculate the requested financing amount. It will enable EXIM to identify the specific details of the amount of disbursement requested for approval to ensure that the financing request is complete and in compliance with EXIM's disbursement requirements. This form will be uploaded into an electronic disbursement portal.
Comments should be received on or before September 28, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Comments may be submitted electronically on
Export-Import Bank of the United States.
Submission for OMB review and comments request.
The Export-Import Bank of the United States (EXIM), as a part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal Agencies to comment on the proposed information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
This form is to be completed by EXIM borrowers as required under certain EXIM long-term guarantee and direct loan transactions in conjunction with a borrower's request for disbursement for U.S. goods and services. It is used to summarize disbursement documents submitted with a borrower's request and to calculate the requested financing amount. It will enable EXIM to identify the specific details of the amount of disbursement requested for approval to ensure that the financing request is complete and in compliance with EXIM's disbursement requirements. This form will be uploaded into an electronic disbursement portal.
Comments should be received on or before September 28, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Comments may be submitted electronically on
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written comments should be submitted on or before October 29, 2018. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via email:
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written comments should be submitted on or before October 29, 2018. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via email:
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
The information collection requirements under Section 90.443(c) require that at least one licensee participating in the cost arrangement must maintain cost sharing records.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees. The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written comments should be submitted on or before October 29, 2018. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via email:
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
On December 21, 2001, the Commission released the
(1) Directed the Interstate Telecommunications Relay Services (TRS) Fund (TRS Fund) administrator to continue to use the average cost per minute compensation methodology for the traditional TRS compensation rate;
(2) required TRS providers to submit certain projected TRS-related cost and demand data to the TRS Fund administrator to be used to calculate the rate; and
(3) directed the TRS Fund administrator to expand its form for providers to itemize their actual and projected costs and demand data, and to include specific sections to capture speech-to-speech (STS) and video relay service (VRS) costs and minutes of use.
In 2003, the Commission released the
In 2007, the Commission released the
In 2007, the Commission also released the
(1) Adopted a new cost recovery methodology for interstate traditional TRS and interstate STS based on the Multi-state Average Rate Structure (MARS) plan, under which interstate TRS compensation rates are determined by weighted average of the states' intrastate compensation rates, and which includes for STS additional compensation approved by the Commission for STS outreach;
(2) requires STS providers to file a report annually with the TRS Fund administrator and the Commission on their specific outreach efforts directly attributable to the additional compensation approved by the Commission for STS outreach.
(3) adopted a new cost recovery methodology for interstate captioned telephone service (CTS), as well as internet Protocol captioned telephone service (IP CTS), based on the MARS plan;
(4) adopted a cost recovery methodology for internet Protocol (IP) Relay based on price caps;
(5) adopted a cost recovery methodology for VRS that adopted tiered rates based on call volume;
(6) clarified the nature and extent that certain categories of costs are compensable from the Fund; and
(7) addressed certain issues concerning the management and oversight of the Fund, including prohibiting financial incentives offered to consumers to make relay calls.
In 2018, the Commission released the
(1) Determined that it would transition the methodology for IP CTS cost recovery from the MARS plan to cost-based rates and adopted interim rates; and
(2) added two cost reporting requirements for IP CTS providers: (i) In annual cost data filings and supplementary information provided to the TRS Fund administrator, IP CTS providers that contract for the supply of services used in the provision of TRS, shall include information about payments under such contracts, classified according to the substantive cost categories specified by the TRS Fund administrator; and (ii) in the course of an audit or otherwise upon demand, IP CTS providers must make available any relevant documentation. 47 CFR 64.604(c)(5)(iii)(D)(
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to
The Commission may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written comments should be submitted on or before September 28, 2018. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicholas A. Fraser, OMB, via email
For additional information or copies of the information collection, contact Nicole Ongele at (202) 418-2991. To view a copy of this information collection request (ICR) submitted to OMB: (1) Go to the web page
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
In March 2016, the Commission adopted the
The Commission therefore proposes to revise this information collection. Any increased burdens are associated with the moving of these requirements and forms into this information collection.
The Commission hereby gives notice of the filing of the following agreements under the Shipping Act of 1984. Interested parties may submit comments on the agreements to the Secretary by email at
The companies listed in this notice have given notice under section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a) (HOLA) and Regulation LL, (12 CFR part 238) to engage
Each notice is available for inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The notice also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the question whether the proposal complies with the standards of section 10(c)(4)(B) of the HOLA 12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)(4)(B).
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding the notices must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than September 14, 2018.
1.
Additionally, Farrar Beresford Bancorporation, Inc. Irrevocable Trust and Beresford Bancorporation, Inc. have applied for retroactive approval to engage in general lending activities, including small business and agricultural loans, pursuant to section 238.54(a) of Regulation LL.
Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of request for public comments regarding an extension to an existing OMB clearance.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve an extension of a previously approved information collection requirement concerning claims and appeals.
Submit comments on or before October 29, 2018.
Submit comments identified by Information Collection 9000-0035, Claims and Appeals, by any of the following methods:
•
•
Mr. Charles Gray, Procurement Analyst, Federal Acquisition Policy Division, GSA, 703-795-6328 or via email at
It is the Government's policy to try to resolve all contractual issues by mutual agreement at the contracting officer's level without litigation. Reasonable efforts should be made to resolve controversies prior to submission of a contractor's claim. The Contract Disputes Act of 1978 (41 U.S.C. 7103) requires that claims exceeding $100,000 must be accompanied by a certification that (1) the claim is made in good faith; (2) supporting data are accurate and complete; and (3) the amount requested accurately reflects the contract adjustment for which the contractor believes the Government is liable. The information, as required by FAR clause 52.233-1, Disputes, is used by a contracting officer to decide or resolve the claim. Contractors may appeal the contracting officer's decision by submitting written appeals to the appropriate officials.
A 60-day notice published in the
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing effort to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies the opportunity to comment on a proposed and/or continuing information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on a proposed information collection project titled Epidemiologic Study of Health Effects Associated With Low Pressure Events in Drinking Water Distribution Systems.
CDC must receive written comments on or before October 29, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2018-0074 by any of the following methods:
•
•
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact Jeffrey M. Zirger, Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE, MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
The OMB is particularly interested in comments that will help:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
5. Assess information collection costs.
Epidemiologic Study of Health Effects Associated With Low Pressure Events in Drinking Water Distribution Systems—Reinstatement With Change—National Center for Emerging and Zoonotic Infectious Diseases (NCEZID), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
In the United States (U.S.), drinking water distribution systems are designed to deliver safe, pressurized drinking water to our homes, hospitals, schools and businesses. However, the water distribution infrastructure is 50-100 years old in much of the U.S. and an estimated 240,000 water main breaks occur each year. Failures in the distribution system such as water main breaks, cross-connections, back-flow, and pressure fluctuations can result in potential intrusion of microbes and other contaminants that can cause health effects, including acute gastrointestinal and respiratory illness.
Approximately 200 million cases of acute gastrointestinal illness occur in the U.S. each year, but we lack reliable data to assess how many of these cases are associated with drinking water. Further, data are even more limited on the human health risks associated with exposure to drinking water during and after the occurrence of low pressure events (such as water main breaks) in drinking water distribution systems. Studies in both Norway and Sweden found that people exposed to low pressure events in the water distribution system had a higher risk for gastrointestinal illness. A similar study is needed in the United States.
The purpose of this data collection is to conduct an epidemiologic study in the U.S. to assess whether individuals exposed to low pressure events in the water distribution system are at an increased risk for acute gastrointestinal or respiratory illness. This study would be, to our knowledge, the first U.S. study to systematically examine the association between low pressure events and acute gastrointestinal and respiratory illnesses. Study findings will inform the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), CDC, and other drinking water stakeholders of the potential health risks associated with low pressure events in drinking water distribution systems and whether additional measures (
We will conduct a cohort study among households that receive water from seven water utilities across the U.S.
The water systems will be geographically diverse and will include both chlorinated and chloraminated systems. These water utilities will provide information about low pressure events that occur during the study period using a standardized form (approximately 13 events per utility). Utilities will provide address listings of households in areas exposed to the low pressure event and comparable households in an unexposed area to CDC staff, who will randomly select participants and send them an introductory letter and questionnaire. Consenting household respondents will be asked about symptoms and duration of any recent gastrointestinal or respiratory illness, tap water consumption, and other exposures including international travel, daycare attendance or employment, animal contacts, and recreational water exposures. Study participants may choose between two methods of survey response: A mail-in paper survey and a web-based survey.
Participation in this study will be voluntary. No financial compensation will be provided to study participants. The study duration is anticipated to last 78 months. An estimated 7,900 individuals will be contacted and we anticipate 6,320 utility customers (18 years of age or older) will consent to participate in this study. The total estimated annualized hours associated with this study reinstatement is expected to be 199 hours per year. There are no costs to respondents other than their time.
In general, OTIP initiates the certification process when it receives a notice from DHS that DHS has granted a foreign victim of trafficking CP or T nonimmigrant status, or has determined an application for T nonimmigrant status is bona fide. To issue HHS Certification Letters, it is necessary for OTIP to collect information from a victim, or a victim's representative, such as an attorney, case manager, or law enforcement victim specialist, including an address to send the HHS Certification Letter.
OTIP will ask if the victim is in need of a case management services and the current location (city, state) of the victim, and refer the victim to an appropriate service provider in his or her area, if requested. OTIP will also ask about the victim's primary language and urgent concerns, such as medical care or housing, and transmit this information to the service provider with the victim's consent.
Finally, OTIP collects information, such as the victim's sex and the type of human trafficking the victim experienced, to provide to Congress in an annual report on U.S. Government activities to combat trafficking that is prepared by the U.S. Department of Justice. Congress requires HHS and other appropriate Federal agencies to report, at a minimum, information on the number of persons who received benefits or other services under subsections (b) and (f) of section 7105 of Title 22 of the U.S. Code in connection with programs or activities funded or administered by HHS. HHS includes in these annual reports additional aggregate information that it collects about the victims when assisting each victim to obtain certification or eligibility.
Previously, OTIP collected HHS Certification information via email. However, as email is not a secure means of transfer, OTIP developed the form to facilitate the submission of consistent information and improve program reporting. The provider will fill out the form, and return the form via password protected email or encryption. OTIP will store this information and any other details regarding the victim's case in OTIP's secure database. Other details maintained in the victim's file may include OTIP staff actions, referrals, and notes regarding the victim's interest in receiving services. Maintaining victim records within OTIP's database will ensure efficient service delivery for victims, allow OTIP staff to track victims' progress toward certification, verify their eligibility for benefits, and organize information for reporting aggregate data to Congress.
In compliance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13, 44 U.S.C. Chap 35), the Administration for Children and Families is soliciting public comment on the specific aspects of the information collection described above. Copies of the proposed collection of information can be obtained and comments may be forwarded by writing to the Administration for Children and Families, Office of Planning, Research and Evaluation, 33 C Street SW, Washington, DC 20201. Attn: ACF Reports Clearance Officer. Email address:
The Department specifically requests comments on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted within 60 days of this publication.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration's (FDA or Agency) Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER) is proposing to withdraw approval of a new drug application (NDA) for Dextrose 5% Injection in Plastic Container, 5 grams (g)/100 milliliters (mL), held by DHL Laboratories Inc., 155 Medical Science Dr., Union, SC 23979, and is announcing an opportunity for the holder of the NDA to request a hearing on this proposal. The basis for the proposal is that the holder of the NDA has repeatedly failed to file required annual reports for the NDA.
DHL Laboratories Inc. may submit a request for a hearing by September 28, 2018. Submit all data, information, and analyses upon which the request for a hearing relies by October 29, 2018. Submit electronic or written comments by October 29, 2018.
The request for a hearing may be submitted by DHL Laboratories Inc. by either of the following methods:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• Because your request for a hearing will be made public, you are solely responsible for ensuring that your request does not include any confidential information that you or a third part may not wish to be posted, such as medical information, your or anyone else's Social Security number, or confidential business information, such as a manufacturing process. The request for a hearing must include the Docket No. FDA-2018-N-3208 for “DHL Laboratories Inc.; Proposal to Withdraw Approval of a New Drug Application for Dextrose 5% Injection in Plastic Container; Opportunity for a Hearing.” The request for a hearing will be placed in the docket and publicly viewable at
DHL Laboratories Inc. may submit all data and analyses upon which the request for a hearing relies in the same manner as the request for a hearing except as follows:
• Confidential Submissions—To submit any data analyses with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your data and analyses only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total of all data and analyses. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of any decisions on this matter. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Florine P. Purdie, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6248, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-3601.
The holder of an approved application to market a new drug for human use is required to submit annual reports to FDA concerning its approved application in accordance with § 314.81 (21 CFR 314.81). DHL Laboratories Inc. has failed to submit the required annual reports and has not responded to the Agency's request for submission of the reports.
Therefore, notice is given to DHL Laboratories Inc. and to all other interested persons that the Director of CDER proposes to issue an order, under section 505(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 355(e)), withdrawing approval of NDA 019971, Dextrose 5% in Plastic Container, 5 g/100 mL, and all amendments and supplements to it on the grounds that DHL Laboratories Inc. has failed to submit reports required under § 314.81.
In accordance with section 505 of the FD&C Act and part 314 (21 CFR part 314), DHL Laboratories Inc. is hereby provided an opportunity for a hearing to show why approval of NDA 019971 should not be withdrawn and an opportunity to raise, for administrative determination, all issues relating to the legal status of the drug product covered by this application.
An applicant who decides to seek a hearing must file the following: (1) A written notice of participation and request for a hearing (see
The failure of an applicant to file a timely written notice of participation and request for a hearing, as required by § 314.200, constitutes an election by that applicant not to avail itself of the opportunity for a hearing concerning CDER's proposal to withdraw approval of the application and constitutes a waiver of any contentions concerning the legal status of the drug product. FDA will then withdraw approval of the application, and the drug product may not thereafter be lawfully introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce. Any new drug product introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce without an approved application is subject to regulatory action at any time.
A request for a hearing may not rest upon mere allegations or denials, but must present specific facts showing that there is a genuine and substantial issue of fact that requires a hearing. If a request for a hearing is not complete or is not supported, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs will enter summary judgment against the person who requests the hearing, making findings and conclusions, and denying a hearing.
All submissions under this notice of opportunity for a hearing must be filed in four copies. Except for data and information prohibited from public disclosure under 21 U.S.C. 331(j) or 18 U.S.C. 1905, the submissions may be seen at the Dockets Management Staff (see
This notice is issued under section 505(e) of the FD&C Act and under authority delegated to the Director of CDER by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(a) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the Center for Scientific Review Advisory Council.
The meeting will be open to the public, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting.
Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person.
In the interest of security, NIH has instituted stringent procedures for entrance into NIH buildings. Visitors will be asked to show one form of identification (for example, a government-issued photo ID, driver's license, or passport) and to state the purpose of their visit. Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Announcement of the quota quantity of tuna in airtight containers for Calendar Year 2018.
Each year, the tariff-rate quota for tuna described in subheading 1604.14.22, Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS), is calculated as a percentage of the tuna in airtight containers entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption during the preceding Calendar Year. This document sets forth the tariff-rate quota for Calendar Year 2018.
The 2018 tariff-rate quota is applicable to tuna in airtight containers entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption during the period January 1, 2018 through December 31, 2018.
Melba Hubbard, Headquarters Quota Branch, Interagency Collaboration Division, Trade Policy and Programs, Office of Trade, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Washington, DC 20229-1155, (202) 863-6560.
It has been determined that 13,951,961 kilograms of tuna in airtight containers may be entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption during the Calendar Year 2018, at the rate of 6.0 percent
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of information collection; request for comment.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service, we), are proposing a new information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before September 28, 2018.
Send written comments on this information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget's Desk Officer for the Department of the Interior by email at
To request additional information about this ICR, contact Madonna L. Baucum, Service Information Collection Clearance Officer, by email at
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.
We published a
We are again soliciting comments on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is the collection necessary to the proper functions of the Service; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Service enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Service minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
On March 16, 1934, Congress passed, and President Franklin D. Roosevelt signed, the Migratory Bird Hunting Stamp Act (16 U.S.C. 718-718k). Popularly known as the Duck Stamp Act, it required all waterfowl hunters 16 years or older to buy a stamp annually. The revenue generated was originally earmarked for the Department of Agriculture, but 5 years later was transferred to the Department of the Interior and the Service.
In the years since its enactment, the Federal Duck Stamp Program has become one of the most popular and successful conservation programs ever initiated. Today, some 1.5 million stamps are sold each year, and as of 2017, Federal Duck Stamps have generated more than $1 billion for the preservation of more than 6 million acres of waterfowl habitat in the United States. Numerous other birds, mammals, fish, reptiles, and amphibians have similarly prospered because of habitat
Jay N. “Ding” Darling, a nationally known political cartoonist for the Des Moines Register and a noted hunter and wildlife conservationist, designed the first Federal Duck Stamp at President Roosevelt's request. In subsequent years, noted wildlife artists submitted designs. The first Federal Duck Stamp Contest was opened in 1949 to any U.S. artist who wished to enter, and 65 artists submitted a total of 88 design entries. Since then, the contest has been known as the Federal Migratory Bird Hunting and Conservation Stamp Art (Duck Stamp) Contest and has attracted large numbers of entrants.
The Duck Stamp Contest (50 CFR part 91) remains the only art competition of its kind sponsored by the U.S. Government. The Secretary of the Interior appoints a panel of noted art, waterfowl, and philatelic authorities to select each year's winning design. Winners receive no compensation for the work, except a pane of their stamps, but winners may sell prints of their designs, which are sought by hunters, conservationists, and art collectors.
The Service selects five or fewer species of waterfowl each year; each entry must employ one of the Service-designated species as the dominant feature (defined as being in the foreground and clearly the focus of attention). Designs may also include hunting dogs, hunting scenes, waterfowl decoys, national wildlife refuges as the background of habitat scenes, non-eligible species, or other scenes that depict uses of the stamp for sporting, conservation, and collecting purposes. Entries may be in any media EXCEPT photography or computer-generated art. Designs must be the contestants' original hand-drawn creation and may not be copied or duplicated from previously published art, including photographs, or from images in any format published on the internet.
The Federal Junior Duck Stamp Conservation and Design Program (Junior Duck Stamp Program) began in 1989 as an extension of the Migratory Bird Conservation and Hunting Stamp. The national Junior Duck Stamp art contest started in 1993, and the first stamp design was selected from entries from eight participating states. The program was recognized by Congress with the 1994 enactment of the Junior Duck Stamp Conservation and Design Program Act (16 U.S.C. 719). All 50 states, Washington DC, and 2 of the U.S. Territories currently participate in the annual contest.
The Junior Duck Stamp Program introduces wetland and waterfowl conservation to students in kindergarten through high school. It crosses cultural, ethnic, social, and geographic boundaries to teach greater awareness and guide students in exploring our nation's natural resources. It is the Service's premier conservation education initiative.
The Junior Duck Stamp Program includes a dynamic art- and science-based curriculum. This non-traditional pairing of subjects brings new interest to both the sciences and the arts. The program teaches students across the nation conservation through the arts, using scientific and wildlife observation principles to encourage visual communication about what they learn. Four curriculum guides, with activities and resources, were developed for use as a year-round study plan to assist students in exploring science in real-life situations.
Modeled after the Federal Duck Stamp Contest, the annual Junior Duck Stamp Art and Conservation Message Contest (Junior Duck Stamp Contest) was developed as a visual assessment of a student's learning and progression. The Junior Duck Stamp Contest encourages partnerships among Federal and State government agencies, nongovernment organizations, businesses, and volunteers to help recognize and honor thousands of teachers and students throughout the United States for their participation in conservation-related activities. Since 2000, the contest has received more than 478,000 entries.
The winning artwork from the national art contest serves as the design for the Junior Duck Stamp, which the Service produces annually. This $5 stamp has become a much sought after collector's item. One hundred percent of the revenue from the sale of Junior Duck stamps goes to support recognition and environmental education activities for students who participate in the program. More than $1.25 million in Junior Duck Stamp proceeds have been used to provide recognition, incentives, and scholarships to participating students, teachers, and schools. The Program continues to educate youth about land stewardship and the importance of connecting to their natural worlds. Several students who have participated in the Junior Duck Stamp Program have gone on to become full-time wildlife artists and conservation professionals; many attribute their interest and success to their early exposure to the Junior Duck Stamp Program.
The Duck Stamp Contest is open to all U.S. citizens, nationals, and resident aliens who are at least 18 years of age by June 1. Individuals enrolled in kindergarten through grade 12 may participate in the Junior Duck Stamp Contest. All eligible students are encouraged to participate in the Junior Duck Stamp Conservation and Design Program annual art and conservation message contest as part of the program curriculum through public, private, and homeschools, as well as through informal educational experiences such as those found in scouting, art studios, and nature centers.
Each entry in the Duck Stamp Contest requires a completed entry form and an entry fee. Information required on the entry form includes:
• “Display, Participation & Reproduction Rights Agreement” certification form;
• Basic contact information (name, address, phone numbers, and email address);
• Date of birth (to verify eligibility);
• Species portrayed and medium used; and
• Name of hometown newspaper (for press coverage).
Each entry in the Junior Duck Stamp Contest requires a completed entry form that requests:
• Basic contact information (name, address, phone numbers, and email address);
• Age (to verify eligibility);
• Parent's name and contact information;
• Whether the student has a Social Security or VISA immigration number (to verify eligibility to receive prizes);
• Whether the student is a foreign exchange student;
• Grade of student (so they may be judged with their peers);
• The title, species, medium used, and conservation message associated with the drawing;
• Basic contact information for their teacher and school (name, address, phone numbers, and email address); and
• Certification of authenticity.
Students in Grades 7-12 and all national level students are also required to include citations for any resources they used to develop their designs. We use this information to verify that the student has not plagiarized or copied someone else's work. The Service also translates entry forms into other appropriate languages to increase the understanding of the rules and what the parents and students are signing.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Notice of information collection; request for comment.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we, the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA) are proposing to renew an information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before October 29, 2018.
Send your comments on this information collection request (ICR) by mail to Evangeline M. Campbell, Chief, Division of Human Services, Bureau of Indian Affairs, 1849 C Street NW, MIC-3645, Washington, DC 20240; or by email to
To request additional information about this ICR, contact Evangeline M. Campbell by email at
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.
We are soliciting comments on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is the collection necessary to the proper functions of the BIA; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the BIA enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the BIA minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment
The collection of information will ensure that the provisions of Public Law 95-608 are met. Any Indian Tribe that became subject to State jurisdiction pursuant to the provisions of the Act of August 15, 1953 (67 Stat. 588), as amended by title IV of the Act of April 11, 1968 (82 Stat. 73,78), or pursuant to any other Federal law, may reassume jurisdiction over child custody proceedings. The collection of information provides data that will be used in considering the petition and feasibility of the plan of the Tribe for reassumption of jurisdiction over Indian child custody proceedings. We collect the following information: Full name, address, and telephone number of petitioning Tribe or Tribes; a Tribal resolution; estimated total number of members in the petitioning Tribe of Tribes with an explanation of how the number was estimated; current criteria for Tribal membership; citation to provision in Tribal constitution authorizing the Tribal governing body to exercise jurisdiction over Indian child custody matters; description of Tribal court; copy of any Tribal ordinances or Tribal court rules establishing procedures or rules for exercise of jurisdiction over child custody matters; and all other information required by 25 CFR 13.11.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Office of Natural Resources Revenue, Interior.
Notice; correction.
The Office of Natural Resources Revenue (ONRR) published a document in the
Mr. Chris Mentasti, Office of Natural Resources Revenue at (202) 513-0614 or email to
In the
The Committee meeting will be held at the Sheraton Denver West Hotel, 360 Union Boulevard, Lakewood, CO 80228. Members of the public may attend in person or view documents and presentation under discussion via WebEx at
5 U.S.C. Appendix 2.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed collection OMB 1140-0071 (Notification to Fire Safety Authority of Storage of Explosive Materials) is being revised due to a change in burden, since there is a reduction in both the total responses and total burden hours due to less respondents, although there is a slight increase in the cost burden due to higher postage costs since 2015.
The comment period for the proposed information collection published on June 28, 2018 (83 FR 30458) is reopened. Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until September 28, 2018.
If you have additional comments, particularly with respect to the estimated public burden or associated response time, have suggestions, need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions, or desire any other additional information, please contact Anita Scheddel, Program Analyst, Explosives Industry Programs Branch, either by mail 99 New York Ave. NE, Washington, DC 20226, or by email at
The proposed information collection was previously published in the
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If additional information is required contact: Melody Braswell, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 3E.405A, Washington, DC 20530.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice
30-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
The comment period for the proposed information collection published on June 28, 2018 (83 FR 30457) is reopened. Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until September 28, 2018.
If you have additional comments, particularly with respect to the estimated public burden or associated response time, have suggestions, need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions, or desire any other additional information, please contact Shawn Stevens, Federal Explosives Licensing Center, either by mail at 244 Needy Road, Martinsburg, WV 25405, by email at
The proposed information collection was previously published in the
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If additional information is required contact: Melody Braswell, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 3E.405A, Washington, DC 20530.
Bureau of Justice Assistance, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Justice Assistance will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The Death in Custody Reporting Act (DCRA) requires states and federal law enforcement agencies to report certain information to the Attorney General regarding the death of any person occurring during interactions with law enforcement officers or while in custody. It further requires the Attorney General and the Department of Justice (Department) to collect the information, establish guidelines on how it should be reported, annually determine whether each state has complied with the reporting requirements, and address any state's noncompliance.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 30 days until September 28, 2018.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Chris Casto, Bureau of Justice Assistance, 810 Seventh Street NW, Washington, DC 20531 (email:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
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For each quarter in a fiscal year, a State must complete the Quarterly Summary (Form DCR-1) and submit it by the reporting deadline. The Quarterly Summary is a list of all reportable deaths that occurred in the State during the corresponding quarter with basic information about the circumstances of each death. If a State did not have a reportable death during the quarter, the State must so indicate on the Quarterly Summary. The reporting deadline to submit the Quarterly Summary is the last day of the month following the close of the quarter. For each quarter, BJA will send two reminders prior to the reporting deadline.
For each reportable death identified in the Quarterly Summary, a State must complete and submit by the same reporting deadline an Incident Report (Form DCR-1A), which contains specific information on the circumstances of the death and additional characteristics of the decedent. These include:
• The decedent's name, date of birth, gender, race, and ethnicity.
• The date, time, and location of the death.
• The law enforcement or correctional agency involved.
• Manner of death.
States must answer all questions on the Incident Report before they can submit the form. If the State does not have sufficient information to complete one of the questions, then the State may select the “unknown” answer, if available, and then identify when the information is anticipated to be obtained.
(3) An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond: For purposes of this collection, the term “State” includes any State of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Guam, and the Northern Mariana Islands. Thus, the affected public that will be asked to respond on a quarterly basis each federal fiscal year includes 56 State and Territorial actors. These States will be requesting information from approximately 19,450 State and local law enforcement agencies (LEAs), 56 State and Territorial departments of corrections, and 2,800 local adult jail jurisdictions.
(4) An estimate of the total public burden (in hours) associated with the collection: For purposes of this burden calculation, it is estimated that for each fiscal year there will be a total of 1900 reportable deaths by 1,060 LEAs, 1,053 reportable deaths by 600 jails, and 3,483 reportable deaths by prisons.
For FY 2020 and beyond, the total projected respondent burden is 13,756.49 hours. States will need an estimated 4.00 hours to complete each Quarterly Summary for a total of 4,480.00 hours, 0.25 hours to complete each corresponding Incident Reports (DCR-1A) for a total of 1,713.49 hours. For LEAs, the estimated burden to assist States in completing the Quarterly Summaries is 0.40 hours per Report for a total of 1,696.00 hours, and a total of 1,425.00 hours, at 0.75 hours for each corresponding Incident Report. The estimated burden for jails is a total of 960.00 hours to assist States in completing the Quarterly Summaries and 789.75 hours in completing Incident Reports. Finally, the estimated burden for prisons to assist States in completing the Quarterly Summaries is a total of 80.00 hours, and a total of 2,612.25 hours to assist States in completing Incident Reports.
If additional information is required contact: Melody Braswell, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 3E.405A, Washington, DC 20530.
On August 20, 2018, the Department of Justice lodged a proposed Consent Decree with the United States District Court for the Northern District of Iowa in the lawsuit entitled
The United States filed this lawsuit under Section 311(j) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1321(j). The United States' complaint seeks injunctive relief and civil penalties for violations of the Spill Prevention, Control, and Countermeasure regulations and the Facility Response Plan regulations at defendant's facilities in Iowa, Nebraska, and Minnesota. The consent decree requires the defendant to perform injunctive relief and pay a $500,000 civil penalty.
The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the Consent Decree. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to
During the public comment period, the Consent Decree may be examined and downloaded at this Justice Department website:
Please enclose a check or money order for $12.75 (25 cents per page reproduction cost) payable to the United States Treasury.
On August 23, 2018, the Department of Justice lodged a proposed Settlement Agreement with the United States Bankruptcy Court for the District of Utah in the matter entitled
The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the Settlement Agreement. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to
During the public comment period, the Settlement Agreement may be examined and downloaded at this Justice Department website:
Please enclose a check or money order for $5.00 (25 cents per page reproduction cost) payable to the United States Treasury. For a paper copy without the exhibits, the cost is $4.00.
30-day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Criminal Division, will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This proposed information collection was previously published in the
The proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies. Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 30 days until September 28, 2018.
If you have comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Michelle Hill, Counsel to the Director, U.S. Department of Justice, 950 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Criminal Division, Office of Enforcement Operations, Gambling Device Registration Program, JCK Building, Washington, DC 20530-0001. (telephone: 202-514-7049)
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
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If additional information is required contact: Melody Braswell, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 3E.405A, Washington, DC 20530.
U.S. Marshals Service, Department of Justice.
60-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), U.S. Marshals Service (USMS), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until October 29, 2018.
If you have additional comments, particularly with respect to the estimated public burden or associated response time, have suggestions, need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions, or desire any additional information, please contact Nicole Timmons either by mail at CG-3, 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20530-0001, by email at
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
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Form number (if applicable): Form USM-523A.
Component: United States Marshals Service, U.S. Department of Justice.
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Primary: Households/individuals.
Abstract: The United States Marshals Service is responsible for ensuring the security of federal courthouses, courtrooms, and federal jurist. This information assists Marshals Service personnel in the planning of, and response to, potential security needs of the court and jurors during the course of proceedings. The authority for collecting the information on this form is 28 U.S.C. 509, 510 and 561
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If additional information is required contact: Melody Braswell, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 3E.405A, Washington, DC 20530.
National Aeronautics and Space Administration.
Notice of meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) announces a meeting of the Planetary Science Advisory Committee (PAC). This Committee functions in an advisory capacity to the Director, Planetary Science Division, in the NASA Science Mission Directorate. The meeting will be held for the purpose of soliciting, from the planetary science community and other persons, scientific and technical information relevant to program planning.
Wednesday, September 26, 2018, 1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m., Eastern Time.
This meeting will be virtual and will be available telephonically and by WebEx. You must use a touch-tone phone to participate in this meeting. Any interested person may dial the USA toll free conference call number 1-800-779-9966 or the toll number 1-517-645-6359, passcode 5255996. The WebEx link is
Ms. KarShelia Henderson, Science Mission Directorate, NASA Headquarters, Washington, DC 20546, (202) 358-2355, fax (202) 358-2779, or
The agenda for the meeting includes the following topics:
It is imperative that the meeting be held on these dates to accommodate the scheduling priorities of the key participants.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Environmental assessment and finding of no significant impact; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is considering issuing an exemption to Northwest Medical Isotopes, LLC (NWMI) from its regulations, to waive the requirement that NWMI submit an application to the NRC for a license to possess and use special nuclear material for processing and fuel fabrication, scrap recovery or conversion of uranium hexafluoride, or for the conduct of any other activity which the NRC has determined will significantly affect the quality of the environment, at least 9 months prior to commencement of construction of the plant or facility in which the activity will be conducted. The NRC has prepared an environmental assessment (EA) and finding of no significant impact (FONSI) for this exemption request.
The EA and FONSI referenced in this document are available on the 24th day of August, 2018.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2018-0184 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may access publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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David Tiktinsky, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-8740, email:
The NRC is considering issuing an exemption to NWMI from section 70.21(f) in title 10 of the
The NWMI 10 CFR part 50 construction permit application, which included an environmental report, discussed processes that would fall under 10 CFR 70.21(f). The NRC staff environmental review of the 10 CFR part 50 construction permit application discussed, as a connected action, the environmental impacts of this process, consistent with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321
As required by 10 CFR 51.21, the NRC staff prepared an EA that analyzes the environmental impacts of the proposed exemption in accordance with NEPA. Based on the EA that follows, the NRC has determined not to prepare an EIS for the proposed exemption, and is issuing a FONSI.
The proposed action is the issuance of an exemption in response to a request dated December 18, 2017 (ADAMS Accession No. ML17362A040), as supplemented by a letter dated March 12, 2018 (ADAMS Accession No. ML18088A175), from NWMI. The purpose of the proposed action is to exempt NWMI from the requirement that NWMI submit an application to the NRC for a license under 10 CFR part 70 at least 9 months prior to commencement of construction of the plant or facility in which the 10 CFR part 70 activities will be conducted. The activities that will be subject to the 10 CFR part 70 license application are described in the construction permit application that NWMI previously submitted to the NRC under 10 CFR part 50 for an RPF to be constructed in Columbia, Missouri. (NWMI Preliminary Safety Analyses Report, Chapter 19, “Environmental Report.” Corvallis, OR, revision OA dated June 2015, (ADAMS Accession Nos. ML15210A123, ML15210A128, ML15210A129, and ML15210A131)).
The NWMI exemption request asks the NRC to exempt NWMI from the timing requirement in order to allow NWMI to begin construction of the 10 CFR part 70 components of the RPF upon the issuance of the 10 CFR part 50 construction permit.
NWMI received a construction permit under 10 CFR part 50 to construct the RPF, which would fabricate low-enriched uranium (LEU) targets and ship them to a network of U.S. research reactors for irradiation, receive irradiated LEU targets, disassemble and dissolve irradiated LEU targets, and recover and purify Molybdenum-99 (Mo-99). These processes would take place in a single RPF building divided into two separate areas where processes
NWMI submitted a 10 CFR part 50 construction permit application seeking authorization to construct the portion of the RPF where the processes subject to the 10 CFR part 50 regulations would occur. NWMI submitted an environmental report with its construction permit application, providing environmental information about all of the processes that would occur in both portions of the RPF. In accordance with Section 102(2)(C) of NEPA and the NRC's regulations in 10 CFR part 51, the NRC staff prepared an EIS (NUREG-2209) assessing the potential impacts of the construction, operation, and decommissioning of the proposed RPF on the quality of the human environment and reasonable alternatives. The construction and operation impacts from the portion of the RPF in which 10 CFR part 70 target fabrication activities would occur were evaluated as a connected action to the 10 CFR part 50 construction permit.
Because the NRC has evaluated the environmental impacts from the 10 CFR part 70 target fabrication activities in the RPF, as part of its EIS supporting NWMI's 10 CFR part 50 construction permit application, NWMI is requesting an exemption from the requirement that the application for these 10 CFR part 70 activities must be submitted at least 9 months prior to commencement of construction of the 10 CFR part 70 components of the RPF. The exemption would allow NWMI to initiate construction of the 10 CFR part 70 components of the RPF upon the issuance of the 10 CFR part 50 construction permit for the RPF even if the 10 CFR 70.21(f) timing requirement has not been met.
The environmental impacts associated with the construction of the target fabrication portion of the RPF were evaluated and discussed in the EIS issued for the construction permit application for the 10 CFR part 50 portion of the RPF (see NUREG-2209, Section 6-4). The EIS concluded that “[a]fter weighing the environmental, economic, technical, and other benefits against environmental and other costs, and considering reasonable alternatives, the NRC staff's recommendation, unless safety issues mandate otherwise, is the issuance of the construction permit under 10 CFR part 50 to NWMI.”
The purpose of the timing requirement in 10 CFR 70.21(f) is to allow the NRC sufficient time to conduct its environmental review of certain 10 CFR part 70 activities before commencement of construction of the facility in which they will occur. As explained above, the NRC considered the environmental impacts of the processes that will take place in 10 CFR part 70 portion of the RPF, where target fabrication processes will occur, as part of its review of the 10 CFR part 50 construction permit application. Because the exemption request concerns only the timing of when construction of the 10 CFR part 70 portion of the RPF begins, the proposed exemption would not: (a) Affect the probabilities of evaluated accidents; (b) impact margins of safety; (c) reduce the effectiveness of programs contained in licensing documents; (d) increase effluents; (e) increase occupational radiological exposures; or (f) impact operations or decommissioning activities of the RPF. The staff's safety review performed for issuance of the 10 CFR part 50 construction permit is documented in the staff's Safety Evaluation Report dated November 2017 (ADAMS Accession No. ML17310A368).
The requested exemption does not impact the scope of the proposed action or the connected actions at the RPF that were evaluated in the EIS. Accordingly, it does not involve any additional impacts or represent a significant change to those impacts described and analyzed in the environmental information submitted as part of the 10 CFR part 50 construction permit application. Based on the foregoing, the NRC staff has concluded that the proposed action would have no significant environmental impact.
A possible alternative to the proposed action would be to deny the exemption request (
Since NWMI has no plans to perform any new activities that were not considered in previous environmental reviews, the change in timing to initiate construction does not involve the use of resources not previously considered.
In a letter dated May 17, 2018 (ADAMS Accession No. ML18113A504), the NRC staff consulted with officials from the Missouri Department of Natural Resources regarding the environmental impact of the proposed action. The State responded on July 13, 2018, and stated that it had no comments (ADAMS Accession No. ML18197A199).
The NRC staff also reviewed the proposed action in accordance with the Section 106 process of the National Historic Preservation Act of 1966, as amended (NHPA) (54 U.S.C. 300101
Under Section 7 of the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (16 U.S.C. 1531
NWMI requested an exemption from 10 CFR 70.21(f) that would allow it to initiate construction of the 10 CFR part 70 components of the RPF upon the issuance of the 10 CFR part 50
This FONSI and other related environmental documents may be examined, and/or copied for a fee, at the NRC's PDR, located at One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. Publicly-available records are also accessible online in the ADAMS Public Documents collection at
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Revised license application; opportunity to request a hearing and to petition for leave to intervene; order imposing procedures.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) received a request from Interim Storage Partners, a joint venture between Waste Control Specialists, LLC (WCS) and Orano CIS, LLC by letters dated June 8, 2018, and July 19, 2018, to resume NRC staff review of a license application for the WCS Consolidated Interim Storage Facility (CISF) in Andrews County, Texas. By letter dated April 18, 2017, the previous applicant, WCS, asked NRC to temporarily suspend all safety and environmental review activities.
A request for a hearing or petition for leave to intervene must be filed by August 29, 2018. Any potential party as defined in section 2.4 of title 10 of the
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0231 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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John-Chau Nguyen, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-0262; email:
The NRC received, by letter dated April 28, 2016, an application from WCS for a specific license pursuant to 10 CFR part 72, “Licensing Requirements for the Independent Storage of Spent Nuclear Fuel, High-Level Radioactive Waste, and Reactor-Related Greater Than Class C Waste.” WCS proposed to construct a Consolidated Interim Storage Facility (CISF) on its approximately 60.3 square kilometer (14,900 acre) site in western Andrews County, Texas. WCS currently operates facilities on this site that process and store Low-Level Waste and Mixed Waste (
On January 30, 2017, the NRC published two notices in the
By letters dated June 8, 2018, and July 19, 2018, NRC received a request from Interim Storage Partners (ISP), a joint venture between WCS and Orano CIS, LLC to resume NRC staff review of the license application for the WCS Consolidated Interim Storage Facility (CISF) in Andrews County, Texas. ISP provided Revision 2 of the License Application, including a revised Safety Analysis Report and Environmental Report. In its June 8, 2018, letter, ISP stated that the Physical Security Plan and Safeguards Contingency Plan submitted with Revision 1 of its License Application remain applicable to the current application. The NRC staff has determined that Revision 1 of the Emergency Plan also remains applicable to the current application. Though ISP is the new owner, the name of the proposed facility remains the WCS CISF.
An NRC administrative completeness review found the revised application acceptable for a technical review. Prior to issuing the license, the NRC will need to make the findings required by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (AEA), and the NRC's regulations. The NRC's findings will be documented in a safety evaluation report and an EIS.
Within 60 days after the date of publication of this notice, any persons (petitioner) whose interest may be affected by this action may file a request for a hearing and petition for leave to intervene (petition) with respect to the action. Petitions shall be filed in accordance with the Commission's “Agency Rules of Practice and Procedure” in 10 CFR part 2. Interested persons should consult a current copy of 10 CFR part 2. The NRC's regulations are accessible electronically from the NRC Library on the NRC's website at
As required by 10 CFR 2.309(d), the petition should specifically explain the reasons why intervention should be permitted with particular reference to the following general requirements for standing: (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the petitioner; (2) the nature of the petitioner's right under the Act to be made a party to the proceeding; (3) the nature and extent of the petitioner's property, financial, or other interest in the proceeding; and (4) the possible effect of any decision or order which may be entered in the proceeding on the petitioner's interest.
In accordance with 10 CFR 2.309(f), the petition must also set forth the specific contentions which the petitioner seeks to have litigated in the proceeding. Each contention must consist of a specific statement of the issue of law or fact to be raised or controverted. In addition, the petitioner must provide a brief explanation of the bases for the contention and a concise statement of the alleged facts or expert opinion which support the contention and on which the petitioner intends to rely in proving the contention at the hearing. The petitioner must also provide references to the specific sources and documents on which the petitioner intends to rely to support its position on the issue. The petition must include sufficient information to show that a genuine dispute exists with the applicant or licensee on a material issue of law or fact. Contentions must be limited to matters within the scope of the proceeding. The contention must be one which, if proven, would entitle the petitioner to relief. A petitioner who fails to satisfy the requirements at 10 CFR 2.309(f) with respect to at least one contention will not be permitted to participate as a party.
Those permitted to intervene become parties to the proceeding, subject to any limitations in the order granting leave to intervene. Parties have the opportunity to participate fully in the conduct of the hearing with respect to resolution of that party's admitted contentions, including the opportunity to present evidence, consistent with the NRC's regulations, policies, and procedures.
Petitions must be filed no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. Petitions and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions that are filed after the deadline will not be entertained absent a determination by the presiding officer that the filing demonstrates good cause by satisfying the three factors in 10 CFR 2.309(c)(1)(i) through (iii). The petition must be filed in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document.
A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof, may submit a petition to the Commission to participate as a party under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(1). The petition should state the nature and extent of the petitioner's interest in the proceeding. The petition should be submitted to the Commission no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. The petition must be filed in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document, and should meet the requirements for petitions set forth in this section. Alternatively, a State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof may participate as a non-party under 10 CFR 2.315(c).
If a hearing is granted, any person who is not a party to the proceeding and is not affiliated with or represented by a party may, at the discretion of the presiding officer, be permitted to make a limited appearance pursuant to the provisions of 10 CFR 2.315(a). A person making a limited appearance may make an oral or written statement of his or her position on the issues but may not otherwise participate in the proceeding. A limited appearance may be made at any session of the hearing or at any prehearing conference, subject to the limits and conditions as may be imposed by the presiding officer. Details regarding the opportunity to make a limited appearance will be provided by the presiding officer if such sessions are scheduled.
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing and petition for leave to intervene (petition), any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene, and documents filed by interested governmental entities that request to participate under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC's E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007, as amended at 77 FR 46562; August 3, 2012). The E-Filing process requires participants to
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least 10 days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on the NRC's public website at
A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC's Electronic Filing Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's public website at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing stating why there is good cause for not filing electronically and requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff; or (2) courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service to the Office of the Secretary, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff. Participants filing adjudicatory documents in this manner are responsible for serving the document on all other participants. Filing is considered complete by first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail, or by courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service. A presiding officer, having granted an exemption request from using E-Filing, may require a participant or party to use E-Filing if the presiding officer subsequently determines that the reason for granting the exemption from use of E-Filing no longer exists.
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket which is available to the public at
The documents identified in this
A. This Order contains instructions regarding how potential parties to this proceeding may request access to documents containing sensitive unclassified information (including Sensitive Unclassified Non-Safeguards Information (SUNSI) and Safeguards Information (SGI)). Requirements for access to SGI are primarily set forth in 10 CFR parts 2 and 73. Nothing in this Order is intended to conflict with the SGI regulations.
B. Within 10 days after publication of this notice of hearing and opportunity to petition for leave to intervene, any potential party who believes access to SUNSI or SGI is necessary to respond to this notice may request access to SUNSI or SGI. A “potential party” is any person who intends to participate as a party by demonstrating standing and filing an admissible contention under 10 CFR 2.309. Requests for access to SUNSI or SGI submitted later than 10 days after publication will not be considered absent a showing of good cause for the late filing, addressing why the request could not have been filed earlier.
C. The requestor shall submit a letter requesting permission to access SUNSI, SGI, or both to the Office of the Secretary, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff, and provide a copy to the Associate General Counsel for Hearings, Enforcement and Administration, Office of the General Counsel, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The expedited delivery or courier mail address for both offices is: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. The email address for the Office of the Secretary and the Office of the General Counsel are
(1) A description of the licensing action with a citation to this
(2) The name and address of the potential party and a description of the potential party's particularized interest that could be harmed by the action identified in C.(1);
(3) If the request is for SUNSI, the identity of the individual or entity requesting access to SUNSI and the requestor's basis for the need for the information in order to meaningfully participate in this adjudicatory proceeding. In particular, the request must explain why publicly available versions of the information requested would not be sufficient to provide the basis and specificity for a proffered contention; and
(4) If the request is for SGI, the identity of each individual who would have access to SGI if the request is granted, including the identity of any expert, consultant, or assistant who will aid the requestor in evaluating the SGI. In addition, the request must contain the following information:
(a) A statement that explains each individual's “need to know” the SGI, as required by 10 CFR 73.2 and 10 CFR 73.22(b)(1). Consistent with the definition of “need to know” as stated in 10 CFR 73.2, the statement must explain:
(i) Specifically why the requestor believes that the information is necessary to enable the requestor to proffer and/or adjudicate a specific contention in this proceeding;
(ii) The technical competence (demonstrable knowledge, skill, training, or education) of the requestor to effectively utilize the requested SGI to provide the basis and specificity for a proffered contention. The technical competence of a potential party or its counsel may be shown by reliance on a qualified expert, consultant, or assistant who satisfies these criteria.
(b) A completed Form SF-85, “Questionnaire for Non-Sensitive Positions,” for each individual who would have access to SGI. The completed Form SF-85 will be used by the Office of Administration to conduct the background check required for access to SGI, as required by 10 CFR part 2, subpart C, and 10 CFR 73.22(b)(2), to determine the requestor's trustworthiness and reliability. For security reasons, Form SF-85 can only be submitted electronically through the electronic questionnaire for investigations processing (e-QIP) website, a secure website that is owned and operated by the Office of Personnel Management. To obtain online access to the form, the requestor should contact the NRC's Office of Administration at 301-415-3710.
(c) A completed Form FD-258 (fingerprint card), signed in original ink, and submitted in accordance with 10 CFR 73.57(d). Copies of Form FD-258 may be obtained by writing the Office of Administrative Services, Mail Services Center, Mail Stop P1-37, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, or by email to
(d) A check or money order payable in the amount of $324.00
(e) If the requestor or any individual(s) who will have access to SGI believes they belong to one or more of the categories of individuals that are exempt from the criminal history records check and background check requirements in 10 CFR 73.59, the requestor should also provide a statement identifying which exemption the requestor is invoking and explaining the requestor's basis for believing that the exemption applies. While processing the request, the Office of Administration, Personnel Security Branch, will make a final determination whether the claimed exemption applies. Alternatively, the requestor may contact the Office of Administration for an evaluation of their exemption status prior to submitting their request. Persons who are exempt from the background check are not required to complete the SF-85 or Form FD-258; however, all other requirements for access to SGI, including the need to know, are still applicable.
Copies of documents and materials required by paragraphs C.(4)(b), (c), and (d) of this Order must be sent to the following address: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Attn: Personnel Security Branch, Mail Stop TWFN-03-B46M, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, MD 20852.
These documents and materials should
D. To avoid delays in processing requests for access to SGI, the requestor should review all submitted materials for completeness and accuracy (including legibility) before submitting them to the NRC. The NRC will return incomplete packages to the sender without processing.
E. Based on an evaluation of the information submitted under paragraphs C.(3) or C.(4) above, as applicable, the NRC staff will determine within 10 days of receipt of the request whether:
(1) There is a reasonable basis to believe the petitioner is likely to establish standing to participate in this NRC proceeding; and
(2) The requestor has established a legitimate need for access to SUNSI or need to know the SGI requested.
F. For requests for access to SUNSI, if the NRC staff determines that the requestor satisfies both E.(1) and E.(2) above, the NRC staff will notify the requestor in writing that access to SUNSI has been granted. The written notification will contain instructions on how the requestor may obtain copies of the requested documents, and any other conditions that may apply to access to those documents. These conditions may include, but are not limited to, the signing of a Non-Disclosure Agreement or Affidavit, or Protective Order setting forth terms and conditions to prevent the unauthorized or inadvertent disclosure of SUNSI by each individual who will be granted access to SUNSI.
G. For requests for access to SGI, if the NRC staff determines that the requestor has satisfied both E.(1) and E.(2) above, the Office of Administration will then determine, based upon completion of the background check, whether the proposed recipient is trustworthy and reliable, as required for access to SGI by 10 CFR 73.22(b). If the Office of Administration determines that the individual or individuals are trustworthy and reliable, the NRC will promptly notify the requestor in writing. The notification will provide the names of approved individuals as well as the conditions under which the SGI will be provided. Those conditions may include, but are not limited to, the signing of a Non-Disclosure Agreement or Affidavit, or Protective Order
H. Release and Storage of SGI. Prior to providing SGI to the requestor, the NRC staff will conduct (as necessary) an inspection to confirm that the recipient's information protection system is sufficient to satisfy the requirements of 10 CFR 73.22. Alternatively, recipients may opt to view SGI at an approved SGI storage location rather than establish their own SGI protection program to meet SGI protection requirements.
I. Filing of Contentions. Any contentions in these proceedings that are based upon the information received as a result of the request made for SUNSI or SGI must be filed by the requestor no later than 25 days after receipt of (or access to) that information. However, if more than 25 days remain between the petitioner's receipt of (or access to) the information and the deadline for filing all other contentions (as established in the notice of hearing or opportunity for hearing), the petitioner may file its SUNSI or SGI contentions by that later deadline.
J. Review of Denials of Access.
(1) If the request for access to SUNSI or SGI is denied by the NRC staff either after a determination on standing and requisite need, or after a determination on trustworthiness and reliability, the NRC staff shall immediately notify the requestor in writing, briefly stating the reason or reasons for the denial.
(2) Before the Office of Administration makes a final adverse determination regarding the trustworthiness and reliability of the proposed recipient(s) for access to SGI, the Office of Administration, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.336(f)(1)(iii), must provide the proposed recipient(s) any records that were considered in the trustworthiness and reliability determination, including those required to be provided under 10 CFR 73.57(e)(1), so that the proposed recipient(s) have an opportunity to correct or explain the record.
(3) The requestor may challenge the NRC staff's adverse determination with respect to access to SUNSI or with respect to standing or need to know for SGI by filing a challenge within 5 days of receipt of that determination with: (a) The presiding officer designated in this proceeding; (b) if no presiding officer has been appointed, the Chief Administrative Judge, or if he or she is unavailable, another administrative judge, or an Administrative Law Judge with jurisdiction pursuant to 10 CFR 2.318(a); or (c) if another officer has been designated to rule on information access issues, with that officer.
(4) The requestor may challenge the Office of Administration's final adverse determination with respect to trustworthiness and reliability for access to SGI by filing a request for review in accordance with 10 CFR 2.336(f)(1)(iv).
(5) Further appeals of decisions under this paragraph must be made pursuant to 10 CFR 2.311.
K. Review of Grants of Access. A party other than the requestor may challenge an NRC staff determination granting access to SUNSI whose release would harm that party's interest independent of the proceeding. Such a challenge must be filed within 5 days of the notification by the NRC staff of its grant of access and must be filed with: (a) The presiding officer designated in this proceeding; (b) if no presiding officer has been appointed, the Chief Administrative Judge, or if he or she is unavailable, another administrative judge, or an Administrative Law Judge with jurisdiction pursuant to 10 CFR 2.318(a); or (c) if another officer has been designated to rule on information access issues, with that officer.
If challenges to the NRC staff determinations are filed, these procedures give way to the normal process for litigating disputes concerning access to information. The availability of interlocutory review by the Commission of orders ruling on such NRC staff determinations (whether granting or denying access) is governed by 10 CFR 2.311.
L. The Commission expects that the NRC staff and presiding officers (and any other reviewing officers) will consider and resolve requests for access to SUNSI or SGI, and motions for protective orders, in a timely fashion in order to minimize any unnecessary delays in identifying those petitioners who have standing and who have propounded contentions meeting the specificity and basis requirements in 10 CFR part 2. The attachment to this Order summarizes the general target schedule for processing and resolving requests under these procedures.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
U.S. Nuclear Waste Technical Review Board.
Notice of Performance Review Board membership.
This notice announces the membership of the Nuclear Waste Technical Review Board (NWTRB) Senior Executive Service (SES) Performance Review Board (PRB).
August 27, 2018.
Neysa M. Slater-Chandler by telephone at 703-235-4480, or via email at
5 U.S.C. 4314(c)(1) through (5) requires each agency to establish, in accordance with regulations prescribed by the Office of Personnel Management, one or more SES Performance Review Boards.
The PRB shall review and evaluate the initial summary rating of a senior executive's performance, the executive's response, and the higher-level official's comments on the initial summary rating. In addition, the PRB will review
5 U.S.C. 4314(c)(4) requires the appointment of board members to be published in the
42 U.S.C. 10262.
On December 18, 2017, The Options Clearing Corporation (“OCC”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change SR-OCC-2017-020 (“Proposed Rule Change”) pursuant to Section 19(b) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”),
The Financial Stability Oversight Council designated OCC a systemically important financial market utility on July 18, 2012.
On July 11, 2018, OCC filed Amendment No. 1 to the Proposed Rule Change.
The Amended Proposed Rule Change concerns proposed changes to OCC's Rules and By-Laws to enhance OCC's existing tools to address the risks of liquidity shortfalls and credit losses and to establish new tools by which OCC could re-establish a matched book and, if necessary, allocate uncovered losses following the default of a Clearing Member as well as provide for additional financial resources. Each of the proposed tools is contemplated to be deployed by OCC in an extreme stress event that has placed OCC into a recovery or orderly wind-down scenario. The proposed changes include modifying OCC's powers of assessment, introducing a framework for requesting voluntary payments to the Clearing Fund, and establishing OCC's authority to extinguish open positons (
OCC maintains a Clearing Fund comprised of required contributions from Clearing Members, and OCC has authority to use the Clearing Fund, by a proportionate charge or otherwise, to cover certain losses suffered by OCC.
Currently, a Clearing Member's obligation to make good its required contribution to the Clearing Fund is not subject to any pre-determined limit. However, a Clearing Member may limit the amount of its liability to contribute to the Clearing Fund by winding-down its clearing activities and terminating its membership. To do so, a Clearing Member must provide written notice to OCC that it is terminating its membership by no later than the fifth business day after application of the proportionate charge.
The proposal would introduce a minimum fifteen calendar day “cooling-off” period that automatically begins when OCC imposes a proportionate charge related to the default of a Clearing Member against non-defaulting Clearing Members' Clearing Fund contributions. During a cooling-off period, the aggregate liability for a Clearing Member would be capped at 200 percent of its then-required contribution to the Clearing Fund. The cooling-off period would be extended if one or more specific events related to the default of a Clearing Member (as set forth in OCC's By-laws)
Once the cooling-off period ends, each remaining Clearing Member would be required to replenish the Clearing Fund in the amount necessary to meet its then-required contribution. Any remaining losses or expenses suffered by OCC as a result of any events that occurred during that cooling-off period could not be charged against the amounts Clearing Members have contributed to replenish the Clearing Fund upon the expiration of the cooling-off period. However, after the end of a cooling-off period, the occurrence of another specified event that results in a proportionate charge against the Clearing Fund would trigger a new cooling-off period.
As noted above, to limit its liability to replenish the Clearing Fund, a Clearing Member currently must provide written notice of its intent to terminate its clearing membership by no later than the fifth business day after a proportionate charge. OCC's proposal would extend the time frame for a Clearing Member to provide such notice of termination, which would allow the terminating Clearing Member to avoid liability to replenish the Clearing Fund after the cooling-off period. Specifically, to terminate its status as a Clearing Member and not be liable for replenishment at the end of a cooling-off period, a Clearing Member would be required to: (i) Notify OCC in writing of its intent to terminate by no later than the last day of the cooling-off period, (ii) not initiate any opening purchase or opening writing transaction, and, if the Clearing Member is a Market Loan Clearing Member or a Hedge Clearing Member, not initiate any Stock Loan transaction through any of its accounts, and (iii) close-out or transfer all open positions by no later than the last day of the cooling-off period. If a Clearing Member fails to satisfy all of these conditions by the end of a cooling-off period, it would not have completed all of the requirements necessary to terminate its status as a Clearing Member, and therefore, it would remain subject to its obligation to replenish the Clearing Fund after the cooling-off period ends.
Given the products cleared by OCC and the composition of its clearing membership, OCC determined that a minimum 15-calendar day cooling-off period, rolling up to a maximum of 20 calendar days, is likely to be a sufficient amount of time for OCC to manage the ongoing default(s) and take necessary steps in furtherance of stabilizing the clearing system. Further, based on its conversations with Clearing Members, OCC believes that the proposed cooling-off period is likely to be a sufficient amount of time for Clearing Members (and their customers) to orderly reduce or rebalance their positions, in an attempt to mitigate stress losses and exposure to potential initial margin increases during the stress event.
The proposal would clarify the distinction between “replenishment” of the Clearing Fund and a Clearing Member's obligation to answer “assessments” charged by OCC. In this context, the term “replenish” (and its variations) would refer to a Clearing Member's standing duty, following any proportionate charge against the Clearing Fund, to return its Clearing Fund contribution to the amount required from such Clearing Member for the month in question. The term “assessment” (and its variations) would refer to the amount, during any cooling-off period, that a Clearing Member
OCC proposed new Rule 1011 to provide a framework for receipt of voluntary payments in a circumstance where a Clearing Member has defaulted and OCC has determined that it may not have sufficient resources to satisfy its obligations and liabilities resulting from such default.
In the event that OCC eventually obtains additional financial resources from the defaulting Clearing Member, OCC would give priority to repayment of Clearing Members that made Voluntary Payments. Specifically, if OCC subsequently recovers from the defaulted Clearing Member or the estate of the defaulted Clearing Member, OCC would seek to first compensate all non-defaulting Clearing Members that made voluntary payments.
OCC proposed new Rule 1111 to establish a framework to extinguish positions of a suspended or defaulted Clearing Member on a voluntary basis (“Voluntary Tear-Up”) or on a mandatory basis (“Partial-Tear Up”) and, in certain extreme circumstances, to allocate any uncovered losses in the event that OCC does not have sufficient financial resources to conduct the tear-up. A Voluntary Tear-Up, if provided, would precede a Partial-Tear Up, and any Partial Tear-Up would take into account any positions extinguished as part of a Voluntary Tear-Up. Further, Rule 1111(h) would provide that no action or omission by OCC pursuant to, and in accordance with, Rule 1111 shall constitute a default by OCC, provided that Rule 1111(h) would not apply where OCC pays Clearing Members a pro rata amount of the applicable Tear-Up price because OCC does not have adequate resources to pay the full Tear-Up price.
OCC's use of both Voluntary and Partial Tear-Up would be subject to certain prerequisites. First, any tear-up would occur after one or more failed auctions pursuant to Rule 1104 or 1106. Second, any tear-up would occur after OCC has determined that it may not have sufficient resources to satisfy its obligations and liabilities resulting from such default.
OCC represented that it would initiate its tear-up process on a date sufficiently in advance of the exhaustion of its financial resources such that OCC would expect to have adequate remaining resources to cover the amount it must pay to extinguish the positions of Clearing Members and customers.
As noted above, a Voluntary Tear-Up would provide an opportunity to holders of certain positions opposite a defaulting Clearing Member to voluntarily extinguish those positions. Although the Risk Committee of OCC's Board of Directors (“Risk Committee”) approval is not necessary to commence a Voluntary Tear-Up, the Risk Committee would be responsible for determining the scope of a Voluntary Tear-Up. Proposed Rule 1111(c) would provide discretion to the Risk Committee when determining the appropriate scope, but the discretion would be subject to, and limited by, certain conditions,
Once the Risk Committee has determined the scope, OCC would initiate the call for Voluntary Tear-Ups by issuing a notice (“Voluntary Tear-Up Notice”) to inform all non-defaulting Clearing Members of the opportunity to participate in a Voluntary Tear-Up.
Clearing Members and their customers that participated in a Voluntary Tear-Up and incurred losses would have a claim to amounts subsequently recovered from a defaulted Clearing Member (or the estate of the defaulted Clearing Member). The claim would be junior to Clearing Members who made a voluntary payment to the
Under proposed Rule 1111(b), OCC's Board would be responsible for the decision to conduct a mandatory Partial Tear-Up. The Risk Committee would then be responsible for determining the appropriate scope of the Partial Tear-Up, subject to the conditions in Rule 1111(c) discussed above.
The proposed rule would also provide the Board with the discretion to conduct a mandatory Partial Tear-Up to extinguish the remaining open positions of any defaulted Clearing Member or customer of such defaulted Clearing Member(s) (“Remaining Open Positions”) and/or any related open positions necessary to mitigate further disruptions to the markets affected by the Remaining Open Positions (“Related Open Positions”). The open positions subject to tear-up opposite to the Remaining Open Positions and the Related Open Positions would be designated in accordance with the methodology in Rule 1111(e). Specifically, for Remaining Open Positions, the aggregate amount in the identical Cleared Contracts and Cleared Securities would be designated on a pro-rata basis to non-defaulting Clearing Members that have an open position in such Cleared Contract or Cleared Security. For Remaining Open Positions, all open positions in Cleared Contracts and Cleared Securities identified in the scope of the Partial Tear-Up would be extinguished.
After the scope of the Partial Tear-Up is determined, OCC would initiate the Partial Tear-Up process by issuing a notice (“Partial Tear-Up Notice”). The Partial Tear-Up Notice would: (i) Identify the Remaining Open Positions and Related Open Positions designated for tear-up, (ii) identify the Tear-Up Positions, (iii) specify the termination price (“Partial Tear-Up Price”) for each position to be torn-up, and (iv) list the date and time, as determined by the Risk Committee, that the Partial Tear-Up will occur (“Partial Tear-Up Time”).
Rule 1111(f) would provide that, to determine the Partial Tear-Up Price, OCC would use its discretion, acting in good faith and in a commercially reasonable manner, to adopt methods of valuation expected to produce reasonably accurate substitutes for the values that would have been obtained from the relevant market if it were operating normally, including but not limited to the use of pricing models that use the market price of the underlying interest or the market prices of its components. Rule 1111(f) further specifies that OCC may consider the same information set forth in subpart (c) of Section 27, Article VI of OCC's By-Laws.
Every Partial Tear-Up position would be automatically terminated at the Partial Tear-Up Time, without the need for any further step by any party to the position. Upon termination, either OCC or the relevant Clearing Member would be obligated to pay to the other party the applicable Partial Tear-Up Price. The corresponding open position would be deemed terminated at the Partial Tear-Up Price. In the event that, given the amount of remaining resources, OCC would not be able to pay the full Partial Tear-Up Price, OCC would pay each torn-up Clearing Member a pro-rata amount of the applicable Partial Tear-Up Price based on the amounts of such resources remaining. Those Clearing Members would then have an unsecured claim against OCC for the value of the difference between the pro rata amount and the Partial Tear-Up Price.
The proposed changes would provide OCC with means to re-allocate losses, costs, and expenses associated with the tear-up process. First, the proposal would amend Article VIII of the By-Laws to provide OCC discretion to use remaining Clearing Fund contributions to re-allocate losses imposed on non-defaulting Clearing Members and customers from tear-up. Second, in connection with a Partial Tear-Up, proposed Rule 1111(g) would provide the Board with discretion to re-allocate losses, costs, and fees imposed upon non-defaulting Clearing Members and their customers among all non-defaulting Clearing Members to the extent that such losses, costs, and fees can be reasonably determined by OCC (“Special Charge”). The Special Charge would correspond to each non-defaulting Clearing Member's proportionate share of the variable amount of the Clearing Fund at the time of the Partial Tear-Up. The Special Charge would be distinct and separate from a Clearing Member's obligation to satisfy Clearing Fund assessments during a cooling-off period and, therefore, not subject to the cap on assessments.
Section 19(b)(2)(C) of the Exchange Act directs the Commission to approve a proposed rule change of a self-regulatory organization if it finds that such proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to such organization.
Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Exchange Act requires that the rules of a clearing agency be designed to, among other things, promote the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions, assure the safeguarding of securities and funds which are in the custody or control of the clearing agency or for which it is responsible, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest.
OCC is the sole registered clearing agency for the U.S. listed options markets. In general, OCC maintains equal and opposite obligations on cleared positions (commonly referred to as a matched book). In an extreme loss event caused by a Clearing Member default, re-establishing a matched book as quickly as possible is essential because it would allow OCC to continue clearing and settling securities transactions as a central counterparty. In addition, allocating uncovered losses is important in such an event because it would allow OCC to provide further certainty to Clearing Members, their customers, and other stakeholders about how it addresses such losses and avoid a disorderly resolution to such an event. Thus, taken together, the Commission believes that the new and amended authority granted to OCC specific to the context of extreme loss events and described in the Amended Proposed Rule Change should provide OCC with the ability to re-establish a matched book, allocate uncovered losses if necessary, and limit OCC's potential exposure to losses from such an event, all of which would be essential to OCC's ability to continue promptly and accurately clearing securities transactions in the event that an extreme market event places OCC in a recovery scenario.
Further, the Commission believes that the proposed changes would provide a reasonable amount of clarity and specificity to Clearing Members, their customers, and other stakeholders about the potential tools that would be expected to be available to OCC if such an event occurred, and the consequences that might arise from OCC's application of such tools. Because of this increased clarity and specificity, OCC's Clearing Members, their customers, and other stakeholders should have more information regarding their potential exposure and liability to OCC in an extreme loss event. Accordingly, the Commission believes that the proposed changes should allow Clearing Members, their customers, and other stakeholders to better evaluate the risks and benefits of clearing transactions at OCC because the proposed changes result in those parties having more information and specificity regarding the actions that OCC could take in response to an extreme loss event. To the extent that Clearing Members, their customers, and other stakeholders are able to use this increased clarity and specificity to better manage their potential exposure and liability in clearing transactions at OCC, such parties should be able to mitigate the likelihood that such tools could surprise or otherwise destabilize them. For these reasons, the Commission believes that the proposed rules providing for such clarity and specificity are designed, in general, to protect investors and the public interest.
It is important for OCC to implement measures, including measures designed to facilitate OCC's ability to address risks and obligations arising in the specific context of extreme loss events, that enhance OCC's ability to address losses and to avoid threatening its ability to safeguard securities and funds within OCC's custody or control. OCC's proposed modified assessment powers would impose a cap on a Clearing Member's potential liability to replenish the Clearing Fund following a particular default event and extend the timeframe during which a Clearing Member must determine whether to terminate its membership and avoid further losses. Taken together, the Commission believes that these tools are reasonably designed to provide OCC with sufficient financial resources to cover default losses and ensure that OCC can take timely actions to contain losses and continue meeting its obligations in the event of a Clearing Member default. Similarly, the Commission believes that these changes would provide Clearing Members and their customers with greater certainty and predictability regarding the amount of losses they must bear as a result of a Clearing Member default. For these reasons, the Commission believes that the Amended Proposed Rule Change is designed to assure the safeguarding of securities and funds in OCC's custody or control.
Additionally, OCC's proposed authority to conduct tear-ups would provide OCC with a mechanism for restoring a matched book and, in the event that OCC did not have sufficient financial resources to pay the full Partial Tear-Up Price, allocate losses to the non-defaulting Clearing Members. The Commission recognizes that a tear-up would result in termination of positions of non-defaulting Clearing Members. However, because under the proposed rules OCC would only be able to use its tear-up authority after it has conducted an auction pursuant to its Rules and when OCC has determined that it may not have sufficient financial resources to meet its obligations, a tear-up would only arise in an extreme stress scenario. Use of tear-up in such circumstances could potentially return OCC to a matched book quickly, thereby containing its losses and avoiding OCC's and its Clearing Members' exposure to additional losses. OCC's proposal would also address the determination of the Partial Tear-Up Price. Specifically, OCC would determine a Partial Tear-Up Price by using its discretion, acting in good faith and in a commercially reasonable manner, to adopt methods of valuation expected to produce reasonably accurate substitutes for the values that would have been obtained from the relevant market if it were operating normally, including but not limited to the use of pricing models that use the market price of the underlying interest or the market prices of its components. The Commission believes that OCC's proposed authority to conduct tear-ups could facilitate its ability to return to a matched book quickly and, in an extreme event, allocate losses. This, in turn, could help ensure that OCC is able to continue providing its critical clearing functions by facilitating the timely containment of default losses and liquidity pressures, thereby helping to prevent OCC from failing in such an event, and is therefore consistent with promoting the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions.
One commenter states that the Partial Tear-Up Price should be determined objectively and not on a discretionary basis.
Finally, OCC's proposal would also introduce methods of re-allocating losses after a tear-up. First, the revised By-Laws would allow OCC discretion to use remaining Clearing Fund contributions to re-allocate losses imposed on non-defaulting Clearing Members and their customers from a tear-up. Second, the revised Rules would provide the Board with the discretion to re-allocate losses among all non-defaulting members via a Special Charge, to the extent that such losses can be reasonably determined. As such, the Commission believes that these tools, and the associated governance, are designed to give OCC the ability to re-allocate the losses in a fair and equitable manner after an extreme market event, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest.
One commenter states that the power to impose the Special Charge in connection with a Partial Tear-Up potentially could impose costs onto non-defaulting Clearing Members that did not have an opposing position from a defaulting Clearing Member. According to the commenter, the Special Charge could, in effect, be another assessment against all Clearing Members, which could create unquantifiable and unmanageable risks to Clearing Members. Moreover, the commenter states that the discretion afforded the Board may result in the Special Charge being capriciously applied. For these reasons, the commenter believes that the costs associated with a Partial Tear-Up should not be transferrable to unaffected Clearing Members.
Under the terms of the proposed rule, the Special Charge could only be used when the losses, costs, and fees imposed upon non-defaulting Clearing Members and their customers directly resulting from a Partial Tear-Up reasonably can be determined by OCC. Further, if it were used, the Special Charge would correspond to each non-defaulting Clearing Member's proportionate share of the Clearing Fund at the time of the Partial Tear-Up. Thus, the Commission does not believe that OCC would be permitted under the proposed rule to engage in unlimited assessments because the amount of the Special Charge must be subject to a reasonable determination, and the Special Charge would then correspond to the non-defaulting Clearing Member's proportionate share of the Clearing Fund. These aspects of the Special Charge should help ensure that OCC does not apply the tool capriciously and that the Board would use the Special Charge in these delineated circumstances,
Therefore, the Commission believes that the proposed rule changes would promote the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions, assure the safeguarding of securities and funds in OCC's custody and control, and, in general, protect investors and the public interest, consistent with Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Exchange Act.
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(2) requires, in relevant part, that OCC establish, implement, maintain, and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to provide for governance arrangements that are clear and transparent; support the public interest requirements of Section 17A of the Exchange Act applicable to clearing agencies, and the objectives of owners and participants; and specify clear and direct lines of responsibility.
The proposal, taken together with existing OCC Rules, specifies the governance that would apply to use of each of the recovery tools. Specifically, with respect to the modified powers of assessment, the cooling-off period would commence automatically upon a number of events specified in the By-Laws. The use of Voluntary Payments and either Voluntary or Partial Tear-Up cannot occur unless OCC has determined that it may not have sufficient resources available to satisfy its obligations after a default. In addition, the proposal specifies the applicable decision-making body that would be responsible for determining whether to conduct a tear-up. Specifically, for a Voluntary Tear-Up, OCC would be able to make that determination, and for a Partial Tear-Up, which is mandatory, Board action is required. The Risk Committee would be responsible for determining the scope of the tear-ups, and any such determinations must take into account certain considerations. Only the Board may elect to impose a Special Charge to reallocate losses, costs, and fees from a Partial Tear-Up.
Thus, key decisions by OCC in connection with the use of its proposed recovery tools are subject to specific governance processes. These requirements include the involvement of the Risk Committee in determining the scope and pricing for any Partial Tear-up and specifically require Board approval with respect to instituting Partial Tear-Up and authorizing the Special Charge. Accordingly, the Commission believes that the governance process for using the recovery tools is clear and transparent and provides clear and direct lines of responsibility by addressing decision making in the use of recovery tools, thereby supporting the public interest requirements of Section 17A of the Exchange Act applicable to clearing agencies, and the objectives of owners and participants, and therefore the Commission believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(2)(i), (iii), and (v).
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(4)(viii) requires, in relevant part, that OCC establish, implement, maintain, and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to address allocation of credit losses OCC may face if its collateral and other resources are insufficient to fully cover its credit exposures.
Thus, the Commission believes that these additional recovery tools are reasonably designed to provide OCC with means to address allocation of credit losses that it may face if its collateral and other resources are insufficient to fully cover its credit exposures. Further, the Commission believes that these tools should address fully any credit losses that OCC may face as a result of any individual or combined default among its Clearing Members. Therefore, the Commission believes that these aspects of the proposed changes are consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(4)(viii).
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(4)(ix) requires, in relevant part, that OCC establish, implement, maintain, and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to describe OCC's process to replenish any financial resources it may use following a default or other event in which use of resources is contemplated.
The proposed changes to OCC's assessment powers would include the addition of a minimum fifteen-day cooling-off period that would be automatically triggered by a proportionate charge to the Clearing Fund arising from a Clearing Member default. At the end of the cooling-off period, a remaining Clearing Member (
The Commission recognizes that by placing a cap on its assessment power during the cooling-off period, these revisions would effectively limit the amount of financial resources available to OCC from its Clearing Fund during that period. However, the Commission believes that these proposals would provide greater certainty and predictability regarding Clearing Members' maximum liability to the Clearing Fund. Moreover, in light of the proposed cap on OCC's assessment powers during the cooling-off period, OCC has authority under Rule 603 to call for additional initial margin from Clearing Members to ensure that OCC maintains sufficient financial resources to meet its requirements under Rule 17Ad-22(e)(4)(iii). Finally, at the end of a cooling-off period, a Clearing Member would be required to replenish the Clearing Fund in the amount necessary to meet its then-required contribution.
In light of the foregoing discussion, the Commission believes that the provisions related to OCC's assessment powers, taken together with the other components of OCC's default management procedures and recovery rules, which are reasonably designed to allow OCC to replenish its financial resources following a default or other event in which use of such resources is contemplated, are consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(4)(ix).
One commenter states that OCC should provide an explanation of its determination to set the cap on the powers of assessment at 200 percent during a cooling-off period.
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(13) requires, in relevant part, that OCC establish, implement, maintain, and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to ensure that it has the authority and operational capacity to take timely action to contain losses and liquidity demands and continue to meet its obligations.
As discussed above, the Commission recognizes that a tear-up would result in termination of positions of non-defaulting Clearing Members. However, because OCC would only be able to use its tear-up authority after it has conducted an auction pursuant to its Rules and when OCC has determined that it may not have sufficient financial resources to meet its obligations, a tear-up would only arise in an extreme stress scenario. Further, use of tear-up in such circumstances could potentially return
The Commission believes that these tools are designed to provide greater certainty to Clearing Members seeking to estimate the potential risks and losses arising from their use of OCC, while enabling OCC to promptly return to a matched book. The Commission believes that returning to a matched book pursuant to these provisions in the context of OCC's default management and recovery facilitates OCC's operational capacity to timely contain losses and liquidity demands while continuing to meet its obligations. Thus, the Commission believes that the proposed changes are consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(13).
Rules 17Ad-22(e)(23)(i) and (ii) require, in relevant part, that OCC establish, implement, maintain, and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to provide for the public disclosure of all relevant rules and material procedures, including key aspects of default rules and procedures, as well as sufficient information to enable participants to identify and evaluate the risks, fees and other material costs they incur by participating in OCC.
On the basis of the foregoing, the Commission finds that the Amended Proposed Rule Change is consistent with the requirements of the Exchange Act, and in particular, with the requirements of Section 17A of the Exchange Act
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On June 21, 2018, Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc. (“BZX”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
The Commission finds that it is appropriate to designate a longer period within which to take action on the proposed rule change so that it has sufficient time to consider the proposed rule change. Accordingly, the Commission, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On December 8, 2017, The Options Clearing Corporation (“OCC”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) advance notice SR-OCC-2017-809 (“Advance Notice”) pursuant to Section 806(e)(1) of Title VIII of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, entitled Payment, Clearing and Settlement Supervision Act of 2010 (“Clearing Supervision Act”)
On July 11, 2018, OCC filed Amendment Nos. 1 and 2 to the Advance Notice to make certain changes to clarify the use of the recovery tools and to improve the overall transparency regarding the use of the recovery tools.
Since the proposal contained in the Advance Notice was also filed as a proposed rule change, all comments received on the proposal are considered regardless of whether the comments are submitted on the proposed rule change or the Advance Notice.
This publication serves as notice that the Commission does not object to the changes set forth in the Advance Notice, as amended by Amendment No. 2 (“Amended Advance Notice”).
The Amended Advance Notice concerns proposed changes to OCC's Rules and By-Laws to enhance OCC's existing tools to address the risks of liquidity shortfalls and credit losses and to establish new tools by which OCC could re-establish a matched book and, if necessary, allocate uncovered losses following the default of a Clearing Member as well as provide for additional financial resources. Each of the proposed tools is contemplated to be deployed by OCC in an extreme stress event that has placed OCC into a recovery or orderly wind-down scenario. The proposed changes include modifying OCC's powers of assessment, introducing a framework for requesting voluntary payments to the Clearing Fund, and establishing OCC's authority to extinguish open positons (
OCC maintains a Clearing Fund comprised of required contributions from Clearing Members, and OCC has authority to use the Clearing Fund, by a proportionate charge or otherwise, to cover certain losses suffered by OCC.
Currently, a Clearing Member's obligation to make good its required contribution to the Clearing Fund is not subject to any pre-determined limit. However, a Clearing Member may limit the amount of its liability to contribute to the Clearing Fund by winding-down its clearing activities and terminating its membership. To do so, a Clearing Member must provide written notice to OCC that it is terminating its membership by no later than the fifth business day after application of the proportionate charge.
The proposal would introduce a minimum fifteen calendar day “cooling-off” period that automatically begins when OCC imposes a proportionate charge related to the default of a Clearing Member against non-defaulting Clearing Members' Clearing Fund contributions. During a cooling-off period, the aggregate liability for a Clearing Member would be capped at 200 percent of its then-required contribution to the Clearing Fund. The cooling-off period would be extended if one or more specific events related to the default of a Clearing Member (as set forth in OCC's By-laws)
Once the cooling-off period ends, each remaining Clearing Member would be required to replenish the Clearing Fund in the amount necessary to meet its then-required contribution. Any remaining losses or expenses suffered by OCC as a result of any events that occurred during that cooling-off period could not be charged against the amounts Clearing Members have contributed to replenish the Clearing Fund upon the expiration of the cooling-off period. However, after the end of a cooling-off period, the occurrence of another specified event that results in a proportionate charge against the Clearing Fund would trigger a new cooling-off period.
As noted above, to limit its liability to replenish the Clearing Fund, a Clearing Member currently must provide written notice of its intent to terminate its clearing membership by no later than the fifth business day after a proportionate charge. OCC's proposal would extend the time frame for a Clearing Member to provide such notice of termination, which would allow the terminating Clearing Member to avoid liability to replenish the Clearing Fund after the cooling-off period. Specifically, to terminate its status as a Clearing Member and not be liable for replenishment at the end of a cooling-off period, a Clearing Member would be required to: (i) Notify OCC in writing of its intent to terminate by no later than the last day of the cooling-off period, (ii) not initiate any opening purchase or opening writing transaction, and, if the Clearing Member is a Market Loan Clearing Member or a Hedge Clearing Member, not initiate any Stock Loan transaction through any of its accounts, and (iii) close-out or transfer all open positions by no later than the last day of the cooling-off period. If a Clearing Member fails to satisfy all of these conditions by the end of a cooling-off period, it would not have completed all of the requirements necessary to terminate its status as a Clearing Member, and therefore, it would remain subject to its obligation to replenish the Clearing Fund after the cooling-off period ends.
Given the products cleared by OCC and the composition of its clearing membership, OCC determined that a minimum 15-calendar day cooling-off period, rolling up to a maximum of 20 calendar days, is likely to be a sufficient amount of time for OCC to manage the ongoing default(s) and take necessary steps in furtherance of stabilizing the clearing system. Further, based on its conversations with Clearing Members, OCC believes that the proposed cooling-off period is likely to be a sufficient amount of time for Clearing Members (and their customers) to orderly reduce or rebalance their positions, in an attempt to mitigate stress losses and exposure to potential initial margin increases during the stress event.
The proposal would clarify the distinction between “replenishment” of the Clearing Fund and a Clearing Member's obligation to answer “assessments” charged by OCC. In this context, the term “replenish” (and its variations) would refer to a Clearing Member's standing duty, following any proportionate charge against the Clearing Fund, to return its Clearing Fund contribution to the amount required from such Clearing Member for the month in question. The term “assessment” (and its variations) would refer to the amount, during any cooling-off period, that a Clearing Member would be required to contribute to the Clearing Fund in excess of the amount of the Clearing Member's pre-funded required Clearing Fund contribution.
OCC proposed new Rule 1011 to provide a framework for receipt of voluntary payments in a circumstance where a Clearing Member has defaulted and OCC has determined that it may not have sufficient resources to satisfy its obligations and liabilities resulting from such default.
In the event that OCC eventually obtains additional financial resources from the defaulting Clearing Member, OCC would give priority to repayment of Clearing Members that made Voluntary Payments. Specifically, if OCC subsequently recovers from the defaulted Clearing Member or the estate of the defaulted Clearing Member, OCC would seek to first compensate all non-defaulting Clearing Members that made voluntary payments.
OCC proposed new Rule 1111 to establish a framework to extinguish positions of a suspended or defaulted Clearing Member on a voluntary basis (“Voluntary Tear-Up”) or on a mandatory basis (“Partial-Tear Up”) and, in certain extreme circumstances, to allocate any uncovered losses in the event that OCC does not have sufficient financial resources to conduct the tear-
OCC's use of both Voluntary and Partial Tear-Up would be subject to certain prerequisites. First, any tear-up would occur after one or more failed auctions pursuant to Rule 1104 or 1106. Second, any tear-up would occur after OCC has determined that it may not have sufficient resources to satisfy its obligations and liabilities resulting from such default.
OCC represented that it would initiate its tear-up process on a date sufficiently in advance of the exhaustion of its financial resources such that OCC would expect to have adequate remaining resources to cover the amount it must pay to extinguish the positions of Clearing Members and customers.
As noted above, a Voluntary Tear-Up would provide an opportunity to holders of certain positions opposite a defaulting Clearing Member to voluntarily extinguish those positions. Although the Risk Committee of OCC's Board of Directors (“Risk Committee”) approval is not necessary to commence a Voluntary Tear-Up, the Risk Committee would be responsible for determining the scope of a Voluntary Tear-Up. Proposed Rule 1111(c) would provide discretion to the Risk Committee when determining the appropriate scope, but the discretion would be subject to, and limited by, certain conditions,
Once the Risk Committee has determined the scope, OCC would initiate the call for Voluntary Tear-Ups by issuing a notice (“Voluntary Tear-Up Notice”) to inform all non-defaulting Clearing Members of the opportunity to participate in a Voluntary Tear-Up.
Clearing Members and their customers that participated in a Voluntary Tear-Up and incurred losses would have a claim to amounts subsequently recovered from a defaulted Clearing Member (or the estate of the defaulted Clearing Member). The claim would be junior to Clearing Members who made a voluntary payment to the Clearing Fund, and OCC would satisfy the claims on a pro-rata basis.
Under proposed Rule 1111(b), OCC's Board would be responsible for the decision to conduct a mandatory Partial Tear-Up. The Risk Committee would then be responsible for determining the appropriate scope of the Partial Tear-Up, subject to the conditions in Rule 1111(c) discussed above.
The proposed rule would also provide the Board with the discretion to conduct a mandatory Partial Tear-Up to extinguish the remaining open positions of any defaulted Clearing Member or customer of such defaulted Clearing Member(s) (“Remaining Open Positions”) and/or any related open positions necessary to mitigate further disruptions to the markets affected by the Remaining Open Positions (“Related Open Positions”). The open positions subject to tear-up opposite to the Remaining Open Positions and the Related Open Positions would be designated in accordance with the methodology in Rule 1111(e). Specifically, for Remaining Open Positions, the aggregate amount in the identical Cleared Contracts and Cleared Securities would be designated on a pro-rata basis to non-defaulting Clearing Members that have an open position in such Cleared Contract or Cleared Security. For Remaining Open Positions, all open positions in Cleared Contracts and Cleared Securities identified in the scope of the Partial Tear-Up would be extinguished.
After the scope of the Partial Tear-Up is determined, OCC would initiate the Partial Tear-Up process by issuing a notice (“Partial Tear-Up Notice”). The Partial Tear-Up Notice would: (i) Identify the Remaining Open Positions and Related Open Positions designated for tear-up; (ii) identify the Tear-Up Positions; (iii) specify the termination price (“Partial Tear-Up Price”) for each position to be torn-up; and (iv) list the date and time, as determined by the Risk Committee, that the Partial Tear-Up will occur (“Partial Tear-Up Time”).
Rule 1111(f) would provide that, to determine the Partial Tear-Up Price, OCC would use its discretion, acting in good faith and in a commercially reasonable manner, to adopt methods of valuation expected to produce reasonably accurate substitutes for the values that would have been obtained from the relevant market if it were operating normally, including but not limited to the use of pricing models that use the market price of the underlying interest or the market prices of its components. Rule 1111(f) further specifies that OCC may consider the same information set forth in subpart (c) of Section 27, Article VI of OCC's By-Laws.
Every Partial Tear-Up position would be automatically terminated at the Partial Tear-Up Time, without the need for any further step by any party to the position. Upon termination, either OCC or the relevant Clearing Member would be obligated to pay to the other party the applicable Partial Tear-Up Price. The corresponding open position would be deemed terminated at the Partial Tear-Up Price. In the event that, given the amount of remaining resources, OCC would not be able to pay the full Partial Tear-Up Price, OCC would pay each torn-up Clearing Member a pro-rata amount of the applicable Partial Tear-Up Price based on the amounts of such resources remaining. Those Clearing Members would then have an unsecured claim against OCC for the value of the difference between the pro rata amount and the Partial Tear-Up Price.
The proposed changes would provide OCC with means to re-allocate losses, costs, and expenses associated with the tear-up process. First, the proposal would amend Article VIII of the By-Laws to provide OCC discretion to use remaining Clearing Fund contributions to re-allocate losses imposed on non-defaulting Clearing Members and customers from a tear-up. Second, in connection with a Partial Tear-Up, proposed Rule 1111(g) would provide the Board with discretion to re-allocate losses, costs, and fees imposed upon non-defaulting Clearing Members and their customers among all non-defaulting Clearing Members to the extent that such losses, costs, and fees can be reasonably determined by OCC (“Special Charge”). The Special Charge would correspond to each non-defaulting Clearing Member's proportionate share of the variable amount of the Clearing Fund at the time of the Partial Tear-Up. The Special Charge would be distinct and separate from a Clearing Member's obligation to satisfy Clearing Fund assessments during a cooling-off period and, therefore, not subject to the cap on assessments.
Although the Clearing Supervision Act does not specify a standard of review for an advance notice, the stated purpose of the Clearing Supervision Act is instructive: To mitigate systemic risk in the financial system and promote financial stability by, among other things, promoting uniform risk management standards for systemically important financial market utilities (“SIFMUs”) and strengthening the liquidity of SIFMUs.
Section 805(a)(2) of the Clearing Supervision Act
• To promote robust risk management;
• to promote safety and soundness;
• to reduce systemic risks; and
• to support the stability of the broader financial system.
Section 805(c) provides, in addition, that the Commission's risk-management standards may address such areas as risk-management and default policies and procedures, among others areas.
The Commission has adopted risk-management standards under Section 805(a)(2) of the Clearing Supervision Act and Section 17A of the Exchange Act (the “Clearing Agency Rules”).
The Commission believes that the proposal contained in OCC's Amended Advance Notice is consistent with the stated objectives and principles of Section 805(b) of the Clearing Supervision Act. Specifically, as discussed below, the Commission believes that the changes proposed in the Amended Advance Notice are consistent with promoting robust risk management in the area of credit risk, promoting safety and soundness, reducing system risks, and supporting the stability of the broader financial system.
First, the proposed rule changes would provide OCC with additional tools to address risks it may confront in an extreme stress event that places OCC in a recovery scenario. The Commission
In addition, the Commission believes that the proposed changes would provide a reasonable amount of clarity and specificity to Clearing Members, their customers, and other stakeholders about the potential tools that would be expected to be available to OCC if such an event occurred, and the consequences that might arise from OCC's application of such tools. Because of this increased clarity and specificity, OCC's Clearing Members, their customers, and other stakeholders should have more information regarding their potential exposure and liability to OCC in an extreme loss event. Accordingly, the Commission believes that the proposed changes should allow Clearing Members, their customers, and other stakeholders to better evaluate the risks and benefits of clearing transactions at OCC because the proposed changes result in those parties having more information and specificity regarding the actions that OCC could take in response to an extreme loss event. Further, to the extent that Clearing Members, their customers, and other stakeholders are able to use this increased clarity and specificity to better manage their potential exposure and liability in clearing transactions at OCC, such parties should be able to mitigate the likelihood that such tools could surprise or otherwise destabilize them and, by extension, the broader financial system. For these reasons, the Commission believes that the proposed changes are consistent with promoting robust risk management, promoting safety and soundness, and supporting the stability of the broader financial system.
Second, the Commission believes that the proposed changes are consistent with reducing systemic risks and supporting the stability of the broader financial system. OCC is the sole registered clearing agency for the U.S. listed options markets and a SIFMU. It is therefore important for OCC to implement measures that enhance its ability to address losses and avoid threatening the stability of the U.S. listed options markets and the broader financial system, including measures reflected in the proposed changes that are designed to facilitate OCC's ability to address risks and obligations arising in the specific context of extreme loss events that may heighten the need for recovery. Therefore, and for the reasons discussed above with respect to OCC's ability to re-establish a matched book, allocate uncovered losses if necessary, and limit OCC's potential exposure to losses from an extreme loss event, the Commission believes that, as a result of the new and amended authority granted to OCC to implement such measures, the proposed changes are reasonably designed to facilitate OCC's ability to fully allocate, and ultimately extinguish, any losses arising from an extreme market event, thereby enhancing OCC's ability to continue to provide its critical clearing services. Relatedly, the Commission also believes that the proposed changes should reduce the potential risk that OCC's handling of an extreme loss event results in additional financial stress or instability passing on to Clearing Members, their customers, other stakeholders and the broader financial system generally during such events. As such, the Commission believes the proposed change is consistent with reducing systemic risks and supporting the stability of the broader financial system.
Third, OCC's proposed modified assessment powers would impose a cap on a Clearing Member's potential liability to replenish the Clearing Fund following a particular default event and extend the timeframe during which a Clearing Member must determine whether to terminate its membership and avoid further losses. In addition, the new authority to seek Voluntary Payments would provide an additional tool by which OCC may increase its financial resources. Taken together, the Commission believes that these tools are reasonably designed to provide OCC with sufficient financial resources to cover default losses and ensure that OCC can take timely actions to contain losses and continue meeting its obligations in the event of a Clearing Member default. Similarly, the Commission believes that these changes would provide Clearing Members and their customers with greater certainty and predictability regarding the amount of losses they must bear as a result of a Clearing Member default. For these reasons, the Commission believes that these tools should enhance OCC's ability to address the issues arising from a Clearing Member default, thereby promoting robust risk management and safety and soundness.
Fourth, OCC's proposed authority to conduct tear-ups would provide OCC with a mechanism for restoring a matched book and, in the event that OCC did not have sufficient financial resources to pay the full Partial Tear-Up Price, allocate losses to the non-defaulting Clearing Members. The Commission recognizes that a tear-up would result in termination of positions of non-defaulting Clearing Members. However, because under the proposed rules OCC would only be able to use its tear-up authority after it has conducted an auction pursuant to its Rules and when OCC has determined that it may not have sufficient financial resources to meet its obligations, a tear-up would only arise in an extreme stress scenario. Use of tear-up in such circumstances could potentially return OCC to a matched book quickly, thereby containing its losses and avoiding OCC's and its Clearing Members' exposure to additional losses, as discussed further above. OCC's proposal would also address the determination of the Partial Tear-Up Price. Specifically, OCC would determine a Partial Tear-Up Price by using its discretion, acting in good faith and a commercially reasonable manner, to adopt methods of valuation expected to produce reasonably accurate substitutes for the values that would have been obtained from the relevant market if it were operating normally, including but not limited to the use of pricing models that use the market price
One commenter states that the Partial Tear-Up Price should be determined objectively and not on a discretionary basis.
Finally, OCC's proposal would also introduce methods of re-allocating losses after a tear-up. First, the revised By-Laws would allow OCC discretion to use remaining Clearing Fund contributions to re-allocate losses imposed on non-defaulting Clearing Members and their customers from a tear-up. Second, the revised Rules would provide the Board with the discretion to re-allocate losses among all non-defaulting members via a Special Charge, to the extent that such losses can be reasonably determined. As such, the Commission believes that these tools, and the associated governance, are reasonably designed to give OCC the ability to re-allocate the losses in a fair and equitable manner after an extreme market event, thereby promoting safety and soundness and supporting the stability of the broader financial system.
One commenter states that the power to impose the Special Charge in connection with a Partial Tear-Up potentially could impose costs onto non-defaulting Clearing Members that did not have an opposing position from a defaulting Clearing Member. According to the commenter, the Special Charge could, in effect, be another assessment against all Clearing Members, which could create unquantifiable and unmanageable risks to Clearing Members. Moreover, the commenter states that the discretion afforded the Board may result in the Special Charge being capriciously applied. For these reasons, the commenter believes that the costs associated with a Partial Tear-Up should not be transferrable to unaffected Clearing Members.
Under the terms of the proposed rule, the Special Charge could only be used when the losses, costs, and fees imposed upon non-defaulting Clearing Members and their customers directly resulting from a Partial Tear-Up reasonably can be determined by OCC. Further, if it were used, the Special Charge would correspond to each non-defaulting Clearing Member's proportionate share of the Clearing Fund at the time of the Partial Tear-Up. Thus, the Commission does not believe that OCC would be permitted under the proposed rule to engage in unlimited assessments because the amount of the Special Charge must be subject to a reasonable determination, and the Special Charge would then correspond to the non-defaulting Clearing Member's proportionate share of the Clearing Fund. These aspects of the Special Charge should help ensure that OCC does not apply the tool capriciously and that the Board would use the Special Charge in these delineated circumstances,
Accordingly, and for the reasons stated, the Commission believes the changes proposed in the Amended Advance Notice are consistent with Section 805(b) of the Clearing Supervision Act.
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(2) requires, in relevant part, that OCC establish, implement, maintain, and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to provide for governance arrangements that are clear and transparent; support the public interest requirements of Section 17A of the Exchange Act applicable to clearing agencies, and the objectives of owners and participants; and specify clear and direct lines of responsibility.
The proposal, taken together with existing OCC Rules, specifies the governance that would apply to use of each of the recovery tools. Specifically, with respect to the modified powers of assessment, the cooling-off period would commence automatically upon a number of events specified in the By-Laws. The use of Voluntary Payments and either Voluntary or Partial Tear-Up cannot occur unless OCC has determined that it may not have sufficient resources available to satisfy its obligations after a default. In addition, the proposal specifies the applicable decision-making body that would be responsible for determining whether to conduct a tear-up. Specifically, for a Voluntary Tear-Up, OCC would be able to make that determination, and for a Partial Tear-
Thus, key decisions by OCC in connection with the use of its proposed recovery tools are subject to specific governance processes. These requirements include the involvement of the Risk Committee in determining the scope and pricing for any Partial Tear-up and specifically require Board approval with respect to instituting Partial Tear-Up and authorizing the Special Charge. Accordingly, the Commission believes that the governance process for using the recovery tools is clear and transparent and provides clear and direct lines of responsibility by addressing decision making in the use of recovery tools, thereby supporting the public interest requirements of Section 17A of the Exchange Act applicable to clearing agencies, and the objectives of owners and participants, and therefore the Commission believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(2)(i), (iii), and (v).
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(4)(viii) requires, in relevant part, that OCC establish, implement, maintain, and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to address allocation of credit losses OCC may face if its collateral and other resources are insufficient to fully cover its credit exposures.
Thus, the Commission believes that these additional recovery tools are reasonably designed to provide OCC with means to address allocation of credit losses that it may face if its collateral and other resources are insufficient to fully cover its credit exposures. Further, the Commission believes that these tools should address fully any credit losses that OCC may face as a result of any individual or combined default among its Clearing Members. Therefore, the Commission believes that these aspects of the proposed changes are consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(4)(viii).
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(4)(ix) requires, in relevant part, that OCC establish, implement, maintain, and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to describe OCC's process to replenish any financial resources it may use following a default or other event in which use of resources is contemplated.
The proposed changes to OCC's assessment powers would include the addition of a minimum fifteen-day cooling-off period that would be automatically triggered by a proportionate charge to the Clearing Fund arising from a Clearing Member default. At the end of the cooling-off period, a remaining Clearing Member (
The Commission recognizes that by placing a cap on its assessment power during the cooling-off period, these revisions would effectively limit the amount of financial resources available to OCC from its Clearing Fund during that period. However, the Commission believes that these proposals would provide greater certainty and predictability regarding Clearing Members' maximum liability to the Clearing Fund, which could potentially limit loss contagion in the broader financial system. Moreover, in light of the proposed cap on OCC's assessment powers during the cooling-off period, OCC has authority under Rule 603 to call for additional initial margin from Clearing Members to ensure that OCC maintains sufficient financial resources to meet its requirements under Rule 17Ad-22(e)(4)(iii). Finally, at the end of a cooling-off period, a Clearing Member would be required to replenish the Clearing Fund in the amount necessary to meet its then-required contribution.
In light of the foregoing discussion, the Commission believes that the provisions related to OCC's assessment powers, taken together with the other components of OCC's default management procedures and recovery rules, which are reasonably designed to allow OCC to replenish its financial resources following a default or other event in which use of such resources is contemplated, are consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(4)(ix).
One commenter states that OCC should provide an explanation of its determination to set the cap on the powers of assessment at 200 percent during a cooling-off period.
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(13) requires, in relevant part, that OCC establish, implement, maintain, and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to ensure that it has the authority and operational capacity to take timely action to contain losses and liquidity demands and continue to meet its obligations.
As discussed above, the Commission recognizes that a tear-up would result in termination of positions of non-defaulting Clearing Members. However, because OCC would only be able to use its tear-up authority after it has conducted an auction pursuant to its Rules and when OCC has determined that it may not have sufficient financial resources to meet its obligations, a tear-up would only arise in an extreme stress scenario. Further, use of tear-up in such circumstances could potentially return OCC to a matched book quickly, thereby containing its losses.
The Commission believes that these tools are designed to provide greater certainty to Clearing Members seeking to estimate the potential risks and losses arising from their use of OCC, while enabling OCC to promptly return to a matched book. The Commission believes that returning to a matched book pursuant to these provisions in the context of OCC's default management and recovery facilitates OCC's operational capacity to timely contain losses and liquidity demands while continuing to meet its obligations. Thus, the Commission believes that the proposed changes are consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(13).
Rules 17Ad-22(e)(23)(i) and (ii) require, in relevant part, that OCC establish, implement, maintain, and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to provide for the public disclosure of all relevant rules and material procedures, including key aspects of default rules and procedures, as well as sufficient information to enable participants to identify and evaluate the risks, fees and other material costs they incur by participating in OCC.
By the Commission.
On December 8, 2017, The Options Clearing Corporation (“OCC”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change SR-OCC-2017-021 (“Proposed Rule Change”) pursuant to Section 19(b) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”),
The Financial Stability Oversight Council designated OCC a systemically important financial market utility on July 18, 2012.
On July 11, 2018, OCC filed Partial Amendment No. 1 to the Proposed Rule Change.
OCC's proposal would formalize and update its RWD Plan. The purpose of the RWD Plan is to: (i) Demonstrate that OCC has considered the scenarios which may potentially prevent it from being able to provide the services OCC determined to be critical as a going-concern; (ii) provide appropriate plans for OCC's recovery or orderly wind-down based on the results of such consideration; and (iii) impart to relevant authorities the information reasonably anticipated to be necessary for purposes of recovery and orderly wind-down planning.
The RWD Plan would identify the services provided by OCC that OCC has determined to be critical, and it would set forth five qualitative events that could trigger a recovery scenario and six qualitative events that could trigger an orderly wind-down. It would also address six scenarios that describe OCC's possible responses to series of stresses. The RWD Plan would also include an overview designed to provide information that OCC believes would be essential to relevant authorities for purposes of recovery and orderly wind-down planning, as well as to provide readers of the Plan with necessary context for subsequent discussion and analysis. The overview would also include a detailed description of OCC's business, summarizing the role OCC has in the options market as well as the services and products it provides to its clearing members and market participants. The RWD Plan would identify fourteen internal support functions at OCC and provide a brief description of the activities performed by each support function. Similar to the information regarding OCC's business, this information is designed to inform the relevant authorities for orderly wind-down planning and as necessary context for understanding other elements of the RWD Plan.
The RWD Plan would define the terms “Critical Services” and “Critical Support Functions.” Specifically, a Critical Service would be a service provided by OCC that, if interrupted, would likely have a material negative impact on participants or significant third parties, give rise to contagion, or undermine the general confidence of markets that OCC serves. A Critical Support Function would be a function within OCC that must continue in some capacity for OCC to be able to continue providing its Critical Services.
The RWD Plan would describe the framework that OCC uses to determine whether a service is critical. This framework includes four criteria to determine if failure or discontinuation of a particular service would impact financial and operational capabilities of OCC's clearing members, other FMUs, or the broader financial system: (1) Market dominance, (2) substitutability, (3) interconnectedness, and (4) barriers to entry. The current set of services designated as Critical Services under the RWD Plan is based on the analysis of these measureable indicators and subsequent internal discussion at OCC. The Critical Services currently include, but are not limited to, clearance services for listed options and clearance services for futures.
The RWD Plan would include plans for recovery from scenarios that could prevent OCC from providing Critical Services.
The sequence and timing of the deployment of each Recovery Tool is more structured and lacks the flexibility inherent in the sequence and timing for use of the Enhanced Risk Management Tools. For each tool, the RWD Plan provides an overview of the tool, and, as appropriate, a discussion of its implementation with an estimated time frame for use of the tool, key risks associated with use of the tool, and the expected impact and incentives of using the tool.
OCC stated that the Enhanced Risk Management Tools would be used prophylactically in an effort to prevent the occurrence of a Recovery Trigger Event and would not be limited to recovery. OCC would not anticipate applying a rigid order or timing for the deployment of the Enhanced Risk Management Tools. The RWD Plan would include five Enhanced Risk Management Tools: (1) Use of Current/Retained Earnings; (2) Minimum Clearing Fund Cash Contribution; (3) Borrowing Against Clearing Fund; (4) Credit Facility; and (5) Non-Bank Facility.
Under the RWD Plan, Recovery Tools would be different from Enhanced Risk Management Tools because OCC's use of a Recovery Tool is generally limited to a scenario in which a Recovery Trigger has occurred. The RWD Plan would identify five Recovery Tools, the last four of which would generally be deployed in the order they are described here: (1) Replenishment Capital; (2) Assessment Powers; (3) Voluntary Payments; (4) Voluntary Tear-Up; and (5) Partial Tear-Up.
The RWD Plan also would provide a mapping of Enhanced Risk Management Tools and Recovery Tools to different types of risk exposures. Such risk
The RWD Plan would outline an escalation process for the occurrence of each Recovery Trigger.
The RWD Plan would also include OCC's wind-down plan and include scenarios that could prevent OCC from being able to provide Critical Services as a going-concern. OCC would identify its wind-down objective as the pursuit of financial stability and ensuring the continuity of critical functions. The RWD Plan would provide OCC's assumptions concerning the wind-down process regarding: (1) Duration of wind-down; (2) cost of wind-down; (3) OCC's capitalization; and (4) the maintenance of Critical Services and Critical Support Functions. It also would identify six wind-down triggers (“WDP Trigger Events”), the occurrence of which could jeopardize the viability of OCC's recovery. Under the RWD Plan, the occurrence of a WDP Trigger Event would necessitate notification of regulators, including the Commission, the U.S. Commodity Futures Trading Commission, and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, as well as internal notifications to OCC senior management.
The RWD Plan would reference critical interconnections and key agreements for consideration in the context of wind-down. The RWD Plan also would discuss OCC's key actions in wind-down including the: (1) Decision by OCC's Board to initiate wind-down; (2) institution of heightened clearing member requirements; (3) imposition of heightened capital requirements for clearing members; (4) imposition of increased margin requirements; (5) cessation of investment by OCC; (6) institution of new operational practices; and (7) targeted reductions in force.
The RWD Plan also would identify transactions that could be entered into to accomplish OCC's wind-down objectives: (1) Stock transactions; (2) merger transactions; and (3) asset transactions. The RWD Plan focuses discussion of wind-down transactions on issues including, but not limited to, governance and regulatory issues. The goal of any such transaction would be to transfer ownership of OCC in a manner that ensures the continuation of OCC's critical services; however, the RWD Plan also would contemplate the cessation of Critical Services through OCC's existing close-out netting rules.
The RWD Plan would also memorialize the governance processes for maintenance, review, and approval of the RWD Plan. Under the RWD Plan, all changes would originate in a recommendation from OCC's RWD Working Group. Changes would go through a series of consecutive rounds of review and approval by OCC's Management Committee, the Risk Committee of OCC's Board of Directors, and the full Board of Directors, which would have final approval authority.
Section 19(b)(2)(C) of the Exchange Act directs the Commission to approve a proposed rule change of a self-regulatory organization if it finds that such proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to such organization.
Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Exchange Act requires that the rules of a clearing agency be designed to, among other things, promote the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions, assure the safeguarding of securities and funds which are in the custody or control of the clearing agency or for which it is responsible, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest.
As described above, the RWD Plan would specify the Enhanced Risk Management Tools and Recovery Tools available to OCC in recovery and in an orderly wind-down, as well as the governance framework applicable to the use of such tools. The RWD Plan would analyze the use of the Enhanced Risk Management Tools and Recovery Tools, the incentives created by such tools, and the risks associated with using such tools. The Commission believes that by specifying the tools that OCC would take in either a recovery or a wind-down, the RWD Plan would enhance OCC's ability to address circumstances specific to an extreme stress event, thereby increasing the likelihood that OCC could execute a successful recovery or orderly wind-down in such an event. In increasing the likelihood that OCC could execute a successful recovery or orderly wind-down, the RWD Plan would enhance OCC's ability to maintain continuity of its critical services (including clearance and settlement services) during, through, and following periods of extreme stress giving rise to the need for recovery, thereby promoting the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions. The Commission also believes that the rules proposed in the RWD Plan are designed to assure the safeguarding of securities or funds in the custody or control of OCC by reducing the likelihood of a disorderly or unsuccessful recovery or wind-down, which could otherwise disrupt access to such securities or funds.
Further, the Commission believes that the RWD Plan is designed, in general, to protect investors and the public interest by establishing a plan to effectuate an orderly wind-down. The RWD Plan's governance processes and regulatory notice provisions could facilitate either the orderly transfer of OCC's Critical Services to another entity or the orderly
Therefore, the Commission believes that the Amended Proposed Rule Change would promote the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions, assure the safeguarding of securities and funds in OCC's custody and control, and, in general, protect investors and the public interest, consistent with the Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act.
Rules 17Ad-22(e)(2)(i), (iii), and (v) require that OCC establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to provide for governance arrangements that are clear and transparent, that support the public interest requirements in Section 17A of the Exchange Act applicable to clearing agencies, and the objectives of owners and participants, and that specify clear and direct lines of responsibility.
The RWD Plan would outline an escalation process for the occurrence of a Recovery Trigger Event, which would provide a governance framework for the use and functioning of the Enhanced Risk Management Tools and Recovery Tools in addition to those specified elsewhere in OCC's rules. It would also identify the internal notification requirements that would apply to WDP Trigger Events and establish the role of the Board in determining whether to enter into a wind-down or take other key actions, consistent with the governance specified elsewhere in OCC's rules.
Moreover, the RWD Plan would identify the internal governance process for the approval of subsequent changes to OCC's RWD Plan. The RWD Plan would also specify the process OCC would take to receive input from various parties at OCC, including management and the Board.
Taken together, the Commission believes that these lines of control could contribute to establishing, implementing, maintain and enforcing clear and transparent governance arrangements that support the public interest requirements in Section 17A of the Exchange Act applicable to clearing agencies, and the objectives of owners and participants.
Therefore, the Commission believes that the proposed changes are consistent with Rules 17Ad-22(e)(2)(i), (iii), and (v).
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(3)(ii) requires that OCC establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to maintain a sound risk management framework for comprehensively managing legal, credit, liquidity, operational, general business, investment, custody, and other risks that arise in or are borne by OCC, which includes plans for the recovery and orderly wind-down of OCC necessitated by credit losses, liquidity shortfalls, losses from general business risk, or any other losses.
The Commission believes that the information the RWD Plan would provide about the OCC's recovery tools would enhance OCC's ability to recover from credit losses, liquidity shortfalls, general business risk losses, or other losses, consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(3)(ii).
Similarly, in providing detailed information about the assumptions, actions, and objectives related to triggering and implementing the wind-down portion of the RWD Plan, discussed in more detail above, the Commission believes that the RWD Plan would enhance OCC's ability to effectuate an orderly wind-down, consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(3)(ii).
Therefore, the Commission believes that the proposed changes to adopt plans for the recovery and orderly wind-down of OCC are consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(3)(ii).
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(15)(i) requires OCC to establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to identify, monitor, and manage its general business risk and hold sufficient liquid net assets funded by equity to cover potential general business losses so that OCC can continue operations and services as a going concern if those losses materialize, including by determining the amount of liquid net assets funded by equity based upon its general business risk profile and the length of time required to achieve a recovery or orderly wind-down, as appropriate, of its critical operations and services if such action is taken.
OCC's RWD Plan would estimate costs related to a wind-down based on a series of assumptions laid out in the RWD Plan. These assumptions include
Therefore, the Commission believes that the proposed changes that would determine costs associated with an orderly wind-down and that would further ensure that OCC holds liquid net assets greater than these costs, are consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(15)(i).
On the basis of the foregoing, the Commission finds that the Amended Proposed Rule Change is consistent with the requirements of the Exchange Act, and in particular, with the requirements of Section 17A of the Exchange Act
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange filed a proposal to amend the Exchange's fee schedule applicable to its equities trading platform to: (1) Increase the ADV requirements to qualify for Add/Remove Volume Tier 6 associated with fee codes W, BB, and N, and (2) increase the routing fee charged to orders routed to Investors Exchange LLC using the Destination Specific routing strategy under fee code IX, and eliminate an outdated reference to the TRIM and TRIM2 routing strategies in this fee code.
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to amend the Exchange's fee schedule applicable to its equities trading platform (“BYX Equities”) to: (1) Increase the ADV
The Exchange provides a standard rebate of $0.00050 for orders that remove liquidity from BYX in securities priced at or above $1.00. Members may also qualify for a higher rebate based on the Exchange's Add/Remove Volume Tiers, which are designed to encourage Members to bring order flow to BYX by providing higher rebates for removing liquidity and discounted fees for adding liquidity to firms based on their activity on the Exchange.
Currently, the fee schedule provides that orders in securities priced at or above $1.00 routed to IEX using specified routing strategies—
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the objectives of Section 6 of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed changes to the Add/Remove Volume Tier 6 are reasonable because the proposed changes are designed to incentivize Members to bring more order flow to the Exchange. Under the Exchange's fee schedule members are eligible for a rebate for liquidity removing orders that may be increased based on meeting certain additional requirements. With respect to Add/Remove Volume Tier 6, Members that meet specified ADV and ADAV requirements are eligible for such an increased remove rebate. The Exchange is proposing to increase the ADV requirements for this rebate tier to encourage Members to send more order flow to the Exchange in order to qualify for the rebate. The Exchange believes that the rebates are still competitive with rebates provided on other equities exchanges, notwithstanding the higher volume requirements required to meet this tier. The Exchange also believes that the proposed change is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the proposed ADV requirements (and associated rebate) would apply equally to all Members. Furthermore, the Exchange believes that all market participants would benefit from additional trading opportunities if the Exchange is successful in incentivizing increased order flow.
As other exchanges amend the fees charged for accessing liquidity, the Exchange believes that it is appropriate to amend its own routing fees so that it can recoup costs associated with routing orders to such away markets. The Exchange believes that the proposed fees for orders routed to IEX are reasonable because they reflect the costs associated with executing orders on IEX and additional operational expenses incurred by the Exchange. The Exchange is proposing to increase its routing fees due to an announced change in IEX's fee schedule that would result in a significant increase in the transaction fees being charged by IEX to some orders, including orders routed by the Exchange.
The Exchange also believes that the proposed change to eliminate references to TRIM and TRIM2 is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors as this is a non-substantive change being made because the Exchange no longer routes to IEX using these routing strategies. The Exchange had previously routed orders to IEX using the TRIM and TRIM2 order routing strategies, which are designed to route to low cost venues, but recently stopped doing so due increased routing costs associated with trading on IEX. As such, the Exchange believes that updating the fee schedule to reflect that these two routing strategies are not available for routing to IEX will increase transparency around the operation of the Exchange to the benefit of Members and investors. Because this change merely updates a fee code to remove references to routing strategies that are not in use on the Exchange, it will have
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act, as amended. The proposed changes to the Add/Remove Tiers are designed to incentivize Members to bring more order flow to BYX as the Exchange competes for order flow with other equities markets. Furthermore, the proposed changes to the IEX routing fees are meant to recoup costs associated with executing orders on that market, and to increase transparency by properly reflecting the routing strategies available for IEX, and are therefore not designed to have any significant impact on competition. The Exchange operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily direct their order flow to competing venues. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually review, and consider adjusting, its fees and rebates to remain competitive with other exchanges. For the reasons described above, the Exchange believes that the proposed fee changes reflect this competitive environment.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposal is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange proposes to delay the implementation date of rule change SR-CBOE-2018-008 to permit all FLEX series to be fungible with the corresponding non-FLEX series once an identical non-FLEX series becomes listed.
. . . Interpretations and Policies:
.01 No change.
.02
The below version of Interpretation and Policy .02 will remain in effect until [an effective date specified by the Exchange in a Regulatory Circular. The effective date shall be no later than July 31, 2018, and the Regulatory Circular announcing the effective date shall be
Provided the options on an underlying security or index are otherwise eligible for FLEX trading, FLEX Options shall be permitted in puts and calls that do not have the same exercise style, same expiration date and same exercise price as Non-FLEX Options that are already available for trading on the same underlying security or index. FLEX Options shall also be permitted before the options are listed for trading as Non-FLEX Options. Once and if the option series are listed for trading as Non-FLEX Options, (i) all existing open positions established under the FLEX trading procedures shall be fully fungible with transactions in the respective Non-FLEX Option series and (ii) any further trading in the series would be as Non-FLEX Options subject to the Non-FLEX trading procedures and rules. However, in the event the Non-FLEX series is added intra-day, a position established under the FLEX trading procedures would be permitted to be closed using the FLEX trading procedures for the balance of the trading day on which the Non-FLEX series is added against another closing only FLEX position. For such FLEX series, the FLEX Official will make an announcement that the FLEX series is now restricted to closing transactions; a FLEX Request for Quotes may not be disseminated for any order representing a FLEX series having the same terms as a Non-FLEX series, unless such FLEX Order is a closing order (and it is the day the Non-FLEX series has been added); and only responses that close out an existing FLEX position are permitted. Any transactions in a restricted series that occur that do not conform to these requirements will be nullified by the FLEX Official pursuant to Rule 24A.14.
The below version of Interpretation and Policy .02 shall be in effect on [the effective date specified by the Exchange in a Regulatory Circular. The effective date shall be no later than July 31, 2018, and the Regulatory Circular announcing the effective date shall be issued at least 30 days prior to the effective date]
The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Exchange's website (
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
On May 9, 2018, the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) approved certain changes to Rule 24A.4, Interpretation and Policy .02 (SR-CBOE-2018-008), which changes allowed flexibility structured options (“FLEX Options”) with quarterly expirations, short-term expirations, weekly expirations, and End-of-Month expirations to be fungible with Non-FLEX Options that have identical terms.
As noted in SR-CBOE-2018-008, to give effect to the Cboe Options rule change, the Options Clearing Corporation (“OCC”) would need to amend its By-Laws after Cboe Options amended its Rules.
Historically, Cboe Options would have announced this information pursuant to a Regulatory Circular as required by the rule text. However, Cboe Options announced the implementation date pursuant to an Exchange Notice in accordance with new company practice.
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
The proposed rule change is merely delaying the implementation date of a proposed rule change, the rule filing for which addressed why that change and the need for at least 30 days' notice of implementation of that change was consistent with the Act and was previously approved by the Commission. This will ensure market participants receive sufficient notice of the implementation date of the proposed rule change.
Cboe Options does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is merely delaying the implementation date of a proposed rule change, the rule filing for which addressed any potential competitive impact that change and the need for at least 30 days' notice of implementation of that change may have and was previously approved by the Commission. The proposed delay to the implementation date ensures market participants receive sufficient notice of the implementation date of the proposed rule change, which ultimately protects investors. The Exchange believes the proposed delay to the implementation date will have no impact on competition.
The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
The Commission collects fees under various provisions of the securities laws. Section 6(b) of the Securities Act of 1933 (“Securities Act”) requires the Commission to collect fees from issuers on the registration of securities.
Section 6(b)(2) of the Securities Act requires the Commission to make an annual adjustment to the fee rate applicable under Section 6(b).
Section 6(b)(2) sets forth the method for determining the annual adjustment to the fee rate under Section 6(b) for fiscal year 2019. Specifically, the Commission must adjust the fee rate under Section 6(b) to a “rate that, when applied to the baseline estimate of the aggregate maximum offering prices for [fiscal year 2019], is reasonably likely to produce aggregate fee collections under [Section 6(b)] that are equal to the target fee collection amount for [fiscal year 2019].” That is, the adjusted rate is determined by dividing the “target fee collection amount” for fiscal year 2019 by the “baseline estimate of the aggregate maximum offering prices” for fiscal year 2019.
Section 6(b)(6)(A) specifies that the “target fee collection amount” for fiscal year 2019 is $660,000,000. Section 6(b)(6)(B) defines the “baseline estimate of the aggregate maximum offering prices” for fiscal year 2019 as “the baseline estimate of the aggregate maximum offering price at which securities are proposed to be offered pursuant to registration statements filed with the Commission during [fiscal year 2019] as determined by the Commission, after consultation with the Congressional Budget Office and the Office of Management and Budget . . . .”
To make the baseline estimate of the aggregate maximum offering price for fiscal year 2019, the Commission is using a methodology that has been used in prior fiscal years and that was developed in consultation with the Congressional Budget Office and Office of Management and Budget.
The fiscal year 2019 annual adjustments to the fee rates applicable under Section 6(b) of the Securities Act and Sections 13(e) and 14(g) of the Exchange Act will be effective on October 1, 2018.
Accordingly, pursuant to Section 6(b) of the Securities Act and Sections 13(e) and 14(g) of the Exchange Act,
By the Commission.
Congress has established a target amount of monies to be collected from fees charged to issuers based on the value of their registrations. This appendix provides the formula for determining such fees, which the Commission adjusts annually. Congress has mandated that the Commission determine these fees based on the “aggregate maximum offering prices,” which measures the aggregate dollar amount of securities registered with the Commission over the course of the year. In order to maximize the likelihood that the amount of monies targeted by Congress will be collected, the fee rate must be set to reflect projected aggregate maximum offering prices. As a percentage, the fee rate equals the ratio of the target amounts of monies to the projected aggregate maximum offering prices.
For 2019, the Commission has estimated the aggregate maximum offering prices by projecting forward the trend established in the previous decade. More specifically, an ARIMA model was used to forecast the value of the aggregate maximum offering prices for months subsequent to July 2018, the last month for which the Commission has data on the aggregate maximum offering prices.
The following sections describe this process in detail.
First, calculate the aggregate maximum offering prices (AMOP) for each month in the sample (July 2008-July 2018). Next, calculate the percentage change in the AMOP from month to month.
Model the monthly percentage change in AMOP as a first order moving average process. The moving average approach allows one to model the effect that an exceptionally high (or low) observation of AMOP tends to be followed by a more “typical” value of AMOP.
Use the estimated moving average model to forecast the monthly percent change in AMOP. These percent changes can then be applied to obtain forecasts of the total dollar value of registrations. The following is a more formal (mathematical) description of the procedure:
1. Begin with the monthly data for AMOP. The sample spans ten years, from July 2008 to July 2018.
2. Divide each month's AMOP (column C) by the number of trading days in that month (column B) to obtain the average daily AMOP (AAMOP, column D).
3. For each month t, the natural logarithm of AAMOP is reported in column E.
4. Calculate the change in log(AAMOP) from the previous month as Δ
5. Estimate the first order moving average model Δ
6. For the month of August 2018 forecast Δ
7. Calculate forecasts of log(AAMOP). For example, the forecast of log(AAMOP) for October 2018 is given by FLAAMOP
8. Under the assumption that e
9. For October 2018, this gives a forecast AAMOP of $21.070 billion (Column I), and a forecast AMOP of $484.618 billion (Column J).
10. Iterate this process through September 2019 to obtain a baseline estimate of the aggregate maximum offering prices for fiscal year 2019 of $5,447,649,888,566.
1. Using the data from Table A, estimate the aggregate maximum offering prices between 10/01/18 and 9/30/19 to be $5,447,649,888,566.
2. The rate necessary to collect the target $660,000,000 in fee revenues set by Congress is then calculated as: $660,000,000 ÷ $5,447,649,888,566 = 0.000121153.
3. Round the result to the seventh decimal point, yielding a rate of 0.0001212 (or $121.20 per million).
On December 8, 2017, The Options Clearing Corporation (“OCC”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) advance notice SR-OCC-2017-810 (“Advance Notice”) pursuant to Section 806(e)(1) of Title VIII of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, entitled Payment, Clearing and Settlement Supervision Act of 2010 (“Clearing Supervision Act”)
On July 11, 2018, OCC filed Partial Amendment No. 1 to the Advance Notice.
This publication serves as notice that the Commission does not object to the changes set forth in the Advance Notice, as amended by Partial Amendment No. 3 (“Amended Advance Notice”).
OCC's proposal would formalize and update its RWD Plan. The purpose of the RWD Plan is to: (i) Demonstrate that OCC has considered the scenarios which may potentially prevent it from being able to provide the services OCC determined to be critical as a going-concern; (ii) provide appropriate plans for OCC's recovery or orderly wind-down based on the results of such consideration; and (iii) impart to relevant authorities the information reasonably anticipated to be necessary for purposes of recovery and orderly wind-down planning.
The RWD Plan would identify the services provided by OCC that OCC has determined to be critical, and it would set forth five qualitative events that could trigger a recovery scenario and six qualitative events that could trigger an orderly wind-down. It would also address six scenarios that describe OCC's possible responses to series of stresses. The RWD Plan would also include an overview designed to provide information that OCC believes would be essential to relevant authorities for purposes of recovery and orderly wind-down planning, as well as to provide readers of the Plan with necessary context for subsequent discussion and analysis. The overview would also include a detailed description of OCC's business, summarizing the role OCC has in the options market as well as the services and products it provides to its clearing members and market participants. The RWD Plan would identify fourteen internal support functions at OCC and provide a brief description of the activities performed by each support function. Similar to the information regarding OCC's business, this information is designed to inform the relevant authorities for orderly wind-down planning and as necessary context for understanding other elements of the RWD Plan.
The RWD Plan would define the terms “Critical Services” and “Critical Support Functions.” Specifically, a Critical Service would be a service provided by OCC that, if interrupted, would likely have a material negative impact on participants or significant third parties, give rise to contagion, or undermine the general confidence of markets that OCC serves. A Critical Support Function would be a function within OCC that must continue in some capacity for OCC to be able to continue providing its Critical Services.
The RWD Plan would describe the framework that OCC uses to determine whether a service is critical. This framework includes four criteria to determine if failure or discontinuation of a particular service would impact financial and operational capabilities of OCC's clearing members, other FMUs, or the broader financial system: (1) Market dominance, (2) substitutability, (3) interconnectedness, and (4) barriers to entry. The current set of services designated as Critical Services under the RWD Plan is based on the analysis of these measureable indicators and subsequent internal discussion at OCC. The Critical Services currently include, but are not limited to, clearance services for listed options and clearance services for futures.
The RWD Plan would include plans for recovery from scenarios that could prevent OCC from providing Critical Services.
The sequence and timing of the deployment of each Recovery Tool is more structured and lacks the flexibility inherent in the sequence and timing for use of the Enhanced Risk Management Tools. For each tool, the RWD Plan provides an overview of the tool, and, as appropriate, a discussion of its implementation with an estimated time frame for use of the tool, key risks associated with use of the tool, and the expected impact and incentives of using the tool.
OCC stated that the Enhanced Risk Management Tools would be used prophylactically in an effort to prevent the occurrence of a Recovery Trigger Event and would not be limited to recovery. OCC would not anticipate applying a rigid order or timing for the deployment of the Enhanced Risk Management Tools. The RWD Plan would include five Enhanced Risk Management Tools: (1) Use of Current/Retained Earnings; (2) Minimum Clearing Fund Cash Contribution; (3) Borrowing Against Clearing Fund; (4) Credit Facility; and (5) Non-Bank Facility.
Under the RWD Plan, Recovery Tools would be different from Enhanced Risk Management Tools because OCC's use of a Recovery Tool is generally limited to a scenario in which a Recovery Trigger has occurred. The RWD Plan would identify five Recovery Tools, the last four of which would generally be deployed in the order they are described here: (1) Replenishment Capital; (2) Assessment Powers; (3) Voluntary Payments; (4) Voluntary Tear-Up; and (5) Partial Tear-Up.
The RWD Plan also would provide a mapping of Enhanced Risk Management Tools and Recovery Tools to different types of risk exposures. Such risk exposures include: (1) Uncovered credit losses; (2) liquidity shortfalls; (3) replenishment of financial resource; (4) losses related to business, operational, or other structural weaknesses; and (5) re-establishment of a matched book. The RWD Plan discusses how each tool would apply to these risk categories and would reference the stress scenarios contemplated by the RWD Plan.
The RWD Plan would outline an escalation process for the occurrence of each Recovery Trigger.
The RWD Plan would also include OCC's wind-down plan and include scenarios that could prevent OCC from being able to provide Critical Services as a going-concern. OCC would identify its wind-down objective as the pursuit of financial stability and ensuring the continuity of critical functions. The RWD Plan would provide OCC's assumptions concerning the wind-down process regarding: (1) Duration of wind-down; (2) cost of wind-down; (3) OCC's capitalization; and (4) the maintenance of Critical Services and Critical Support Functions. It also would identify six wind-down triggers (“WDP Trigger Events”), the occurrence of which could jeopardize the viability of OCC's recovery. Under the RWD Plan, the occurrence of a WDP Trigger Event would necessitate notification of regulators, including the Commission, the U.S. Commodity Futures Trading Commission, and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, as well as internal notifications to OCC senior management.
The RWD Plan would reference critical interconnections and key agreements for consideration in the context of wind-down. The RWD Plan also would discuss OCC's key actions in wind-down including the: (1) Decision by OCC's Board to initiate wind-down; (2) institution of heightened clearing member requirements; (3) imposition of heightened capital requirements for clearing members; (4) imposition of increased margin requirements; (5) cessation of investment by OCC; (6) institution of new operational practices; and (7) targeted reductions in force.
The RWD Plan also would identify transactions that could be entered into to accomplish OCC's wind-down objectives: (1) Stock transactions; (2) merger transactions; and (3) asset transactions. The RWD Plan focuses discussion of wind-down transactions on issues including, but not limited to, governance and regulatory issues. The goal of any such transaction would be to transfer ownership of OCC in a manner that ensures the continuation of OCC's critical services; however, the RWD Plan also would contemplate the cessation of Critical Services through OCC's existing close-out netting rules.
The RWD Plan would also memorialize the governance processes for maintenance, review, and approval of the RWD Plan. Under the RWD Plan, all changes would originate in a recommendation from OCC's RWD Working Group. Changes would go through a series of consecutive rounds of review and approval by OCC's Management Committee, the Risk Committee of OCC's Board of Directors, and the full Board of Directors, which would have final approval authority.
Although the Clearing Supervision Act does not specify a standard of review for an advance notice, the stated purpose of the Clearing Supervision Act is instructive: To mitigate systemic risk in the financial system and promote financial stability by, among other things, promoting uniform risk management standards for systemically important financial market utilities (“SIFMUs”) and strengthening the liquidity of SIFMUs.
Section 805(a)(2) of the Clearing Supervision Act
• To promote robust risk management;
• to promote safety and soundness;
• to reduce systemic risks; and
• to support the stability of the broader financial system.
Section 805(c) provides, in addition, that the Commission's risk-management standards may address such areas as risk-management and default policies and procedures, among others areas.
The Commission has adopted risk-management standards under Section 805(a)(2) of the Clearing Supervision Act and Section 17A of the Exchange Act (the “Clearing Agency Rules”).
The Commission believes that the proposal contained in OCC's Amended Advance Notice is consistent with the stated objectives and principles of Section 805(b) of the Clearing Supervision Act. Specifically, as discussed below, the Commission believes that the changes proposed in the Amended Advance Notice are consistent with promoting robust risk management, promoting safety and soundness, reducing system risks, and supporting the stability of the broader financial system.
First, the Commission believes that the proposed changes are consistent with reducing systemic risks and supporting the stability of the broader financial system. OCC is the sole registered clearing agency for the U.S. listed options markets and a SIFMU. By specifying the steps that OCC would take in either a recovery or an orderly wind-down, the Commission believes that the proposed changes would enhance OCC's ability to address circumstances specific to an extreme stress event, thereby increasing the likelihood that it could execute a successful recovery or orderly wind-down in such an event. As such, the Commission believes that the RWD Plan would help reduce systemic risk by decreasing the likelihood of a disorderly or unsuccessful recovery or wind-down, which could otherwise disrupt the markets for which OCC clears, thereby leading to the transmission of risk across market participants. For the same reason, the Commission also believes the RWD Plan would support the stability of the broader financial system.
Second, the RWD Plan would, as described above, specify the Enhanced Risk Management Tools and Recovery Tools available to OCC in recovery, as well as the governance framework applicable to the use of such tools. It would analyze the use of the Enhanced Risk Management Tools and Recovery Tools, the incentives created by such tools, and the risks associated with using such tools. The Commission believes that by specifying the tools that OCC would use to address, or preferably prevent, a recovery scenario, the RWD Plan would increase the likelihood that recovery would be orderly, efficient, and successful. By doing so, the Commission believes that the RWD Plan would enhance OCC's ability to maintain the continuity of its critical services (including clearance and settlement services) during, through, and following periods of extreme stress giving rise to the need for recovery, thereby promoting both robust risk management and safety and soundness in the clearance and settlement in the listed-options and futures markets.
Similarly, the Commission believes that the RWD Plan would enhance OCC's ability to promote robust risk management and safety and soundness by establishing a plan to effectuate an orderly wind-down. The RWD Plan's governance processes and regulatory notice provisions could facilitate either the orderly transfer of OCC's Critical Services to another entity or the orderly close-out of positions. Providing additional information regarding the potential orderly transfer of services or close-out of positions would benefit Clearing Members and their customers by providing greater transparency and certainty regarding the potential disposition or treatment of their positions and assets at OCC, thereby benefiting market participants more broadly. Therefore, the Commission believes that these provisions would enhance OCC's ability to promote robust risk management and safety and soundness in the clearance and settlement of the listed-options and futures markets by assuring that transactions are transferred to another entity or closed out in an orderly and transparent manner.
Accordingly, and for the reasons stated, the Commission believes the changes proposed in the Amended Advance Notice are consistent with Section 805(b) of the Clearing Supervision Act.
Rules 17Ad-22(e)(2)(i), (iii), and (v) require that OCC establish, implement,
The RWD Plan would outline an escalation process for the occurrence of a Recovery Trigger Event, which would provide a governance framework for the use and functioning of the Enhanced Risk Management Tools and Recovery Tools in addition to those specified elsewhere in OCC's rules. It would also identify the internal notification requirements that would apply to WDP Trigger Events and establish the role of the Board in determining whether to enter into a wind-down or take other key actions, consistent with the governance specified elsewhere in OCC's rules.
Moreover, the RWD Plan would identify the internal governance process for the approval of subsequent changes to OCC's RWD Plan. The RWD Plan would also specify the process OCC would take to receive input from various parties at OCC, including management and the Board.
Taken together, the Commission believes that these lines of control could contribute to establishing, implementing, maintain and enforcing clear and transparent governance arrangements that support the public interest requirements in Section 17A of the Exchange Act applicable to clearing agencies, and the objectives of owners and participants.
Therefore, the Commission believes that the proposed changes are consistent with Rules 17Ad-22(e)(2)(i), (iii), and (v).
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(3)(ii) requires that OCC establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to maintain a sound risk management framework for comprehensively managing legal, credit, liquidity, operational, general business, investment, custody, and other risks that arise in or are borne by OCC, which includes plans for the recovery and orderly wind-down of OCC necessitated by credit losses, liquidity shortfalls, losses from general business risk, or any other losses.
The Commission believes that the information the RWD Plan would provide about the OCC's recovery tools would enhance OCC's ability to recover from credit losses, liquidity shortfalls, general business risk losses, or other losses, consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(3)(ii).
Similarly, in providing detailed information about the assumptions, actions, and objectives related to triggering and implementing the wind-down portion of the RWD Plan, discussed in more detail above, the Commission believes that the RWD Plan would enhance OCC's ability to effectuate an orderly wind-down, consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(3)(ii).
Therefore, the Commission believes that the proposed changes to adopt plans for the orderly recovery and wind down of OCC are consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(3)(ii).
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(15)(i) requires OCC to establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to identify, monitor, and manage its general business risk and hold sufficient liquid net assets funded by equity to cover potential general business losses so that OCC can continue operations and services as a going concern if those losses materialize, including by determining the amount of liquid net assets funded by equity based upon its general business risk profile and the length of time required to achieve a recovery or orderly wind-down, as appropriate, of its critical operations and services if such action is taken.
OCC's RWD Plan would estimate costs related to a wind-down based on a series of assumptions laid out in the RWD Plan. These assumptions include duration of the wind-down process, OCC's capitalization through the wind-down process, the maintenance of Critical Services and Critical Support Functions, and the retention of personnel and contractual relationships. OCC also provided information regarding its assumption about the cost of the wind-down process. Further, the RWD Plan identifies potential transactions that could be effected to accomplish the objectives of wind-down with the ultimate goal of transferring ownership of OCC itself by the consummation or a consensual sale or similar transaction, in a manner that ensures the continuation of OCC's Critical Services. The Commission considered the assumptions that the RWD Plan makes regarding wind-down as well as the potential transactions in which OCC might engage in the event of a wind-down. The Commission also considered the estimated cost of wind-down noted in the RWD Plan in light of OCC's rules regarding the maintenance of certain capital levels and qualifying liquid resources. The Commission
Therefore, the Commission believes that the proposed changes that would determine costs associated with an orderly wind-down and that would further ensure that OCC holds liquid net assets greater than these costs, are consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(15)(i).
It is therefore noticed, pursuant to Section 806(e)(1)(I) of the Clearing Supervision Act,
By the Commission.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange filed a proposal to amend the Exchange's fee schedule applicable to its equities trading platform to eliminate fee code IX, which applies to orders routed to Investors Exchange LLC using the Exchange's TRIM or TRIM2 routing strategies.
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to amend the Exchange's fee schedule applicable to its equities trading platform (“BZX Equities”) to eliminate fee code IX,
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The Exchange believes that the proposed change to eliminate fee code IX is consistent with the public interest and the protection [sic] investors as this is a non-substantive change being made because the Exchange no longer routes to IEX using the routing strategies specified in that fee code. The Exchange had previously routed orders to IEX using the TRIM and TRIM2 order routing strategies, which are designed to route to low cost venues, but recently stopped doing so due to increased routing costs associated with trading on IEX. As such, the Exchange believes that updating the fee schedule to reflect that these two routing strategies are not available for routing to IEX will increase transparency around the operation of the Exchange to the benefit of Members and investors. Because the proposed changes apply only to a fee code that is no longer in use on the Exchange, the proposed rule change will have no impact on the transaction fees actually assessed to Members.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposal is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend its Price List to (1) amend the cap applicable to certain transactions at the
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its Price List to (1) amend the cap applicable to certain transactions at the open; (2) add new incentives for member organizations and SLPs in Tape A securities when adding liquidity in UTP Securities (Tapes B and C); (3) add a new Step Up tier for SLPs in Tape A securities; and (4) amend the alternative NYSE CSII fee cap. In general, the proposed amendments are intended to encourage greater participation by Exchange member organizations and encourage submission of additional liquidity to a national securities exchange, to the benefit of all market participants.
The Exchange proposes to implement these changes to its Price List effective August 10, 2018.
For securities priced $1.00 or more, the Exchange currently charges fees of $0.0010 per share for executions at open, and $0.0003 per share for Floor broker executions at the open, subject to $30,000 cap per month per member organization, provided the member organization executes an average daily trading volume (“ADV”) that adds liquidity to the Exchange during the billing month (“Adding ADV”),
The Exchange proposes to lower the alternative fee cap from $20,000 to $10,000. The Exchange would also require member organizations to execute a Taking ADV, excluding liquidity taken by a DMM, of at least 1.20% of NYSE CADV in order to qualify for the lower cap. The additional requirement of an Open ADV of at least 8 million shares would remain unchanged.
The Exchange proposes an additional incentive to member organizations and SLPs in Tape A securities that add liquidity to the Exchange in UTP Securities, as follows.
As proposed, member organizations that meet the current requirements for the Tier 1 Adding Credit or Tier 2 Adding Credit on Tape A would be eligible to receive an additional $0.00005 per share in Tape A securities if the member organization adds liquidity, excluding liquidity added as an SLP, in UTP Securities of at least 0.20% of Tape B and Tape C CADV combined.
Similarly, SLPs that (1) meet the current requirements for the SLP Tier 1 or Tier 4 credits or the proposed requirements for the SLP Step Up Tier credits described below, and (2) add liquidity in UTP Securities of at least 0.30% of Tape B and Tape C CADV combined, would be eligible for an additional $0.00005 per share in Tape A securities for SLPs that meet the requirements for SLP Tier 1 and Tier 4 credits or an additional $0.0001 in Tape A securities for SLPs that meet the requirements for SLP Step Up Tier in securities with a per share price of $1.00 or more that meet the 10% average or more quoting requirement in an assigned security pursuant to Rule 107B (quotes of an SLP-Prop and an SLMM of the same member organization would not be aggregated).
SLPs that meet the current requirements for SLP Tier 1 and add liquidity in UTP Securities of at least 0.30% of Tape B and Tape C CADV combined would receive an additional credit of $0.00005 per share in Tape A securities for adding liquidity in securities, other than MPL and Non-Display Reserve orders, where they are not assigned as an SLP or in securities where they do not meet the 10% average or more quoting requirement in an assigned security pursuant to Rule 107B. For example, assume an SLP meets the requirements of SLP Tier 1 and adds liquidity in UTP Securities of at least 0.30% of Tape B and Tape C CADV combined. Further assume that the SLP averages an Adding ADV of 28 million shares a day in Tape A securities, with 20 million shares ADV in securities that meet the 10% quoting requirement and 8 million shares ADV in securities below the 10% requirement. Also assume that the SLP adds an additional 10 million shares ADV in Tape A securities as a non-SLP. Under these facts, the SLP would receive an $0.00005 credit for all 28 million Adding ADV shares as an SLP as well as the 10 million Adding ADV shares as a non-SLP.
The Exchange proposes a new, sixth SLP Tier designated the “SLP Step Up Tier” that would provide that an SLP, when adding liquidity to the NYSE with orders, other than MPL orders, in securities with a per share price of $1.00 or more, would receive a credit of $0.0018, or $0.0001 if a Non-Displayed Reserve Order, if the SLP (1) meets the 10% average or more quoting requirement in an assigned security pursuant to Rule 107B (quotes of an SLP-Prop and an SLMM of the same
Currently, the Exchange charges a fee of $0.0004 per share (both sides) for executions in NYSE CSII.
The Exchange proposes to lower the alternative cap to $15,000 per month for member organizations that execute a Taking ADV, excluding liquidity taken by a DMM, of at least 1.20% of NYSE CADV. The requirement for executing an Open ADV of at least 8 million shares would remain unchanged.
The proposed changes are not otherwise intended to address any other issues, and the Exchange is not aware of any problems that member organizations would have in complying with the proposed change.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that lowering the alternative fee cap to $10,000 and lowering the requirement for member organizations to execute a Taking ADV, excluding liquidity taken by a DMM, to at least 1.20% of NYSE CADV in order to qualify for the lower cap for executions at the open is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because it would encourage additional liquidity on the Exchange and because members and member organizations benefit from the substantial amounts of liquidity that are present on the Exchange. The Exchange believes the proposed changes are equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because it would continue to encourage member organizations to send orders, thereby contributing to robust levels of liquidity, which benefits all market participants. The proposed changes will encourage the submission of additional liquidity to a national securities exchange, thereby promoting price discovery and transparency and enhancing order execution opportunities for member organizations from the substantial amounts of liquidity that are present on the Exchange. Moreover, the proposed changes are equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because they would apply equally to all qualifying member organizations, including Floor brokers, that submit orders to the NYSE opening and that remove liquidity from the Exchange.
The Exchange believes that providing an additional incentive in Tape A securities for member organizations that add liquidity in UTP Securities is reasonable because it would further contribute to incenting member organizations to provide additional liquidity to a public exchange in UTP Securities, thereby promoting price discovery and transparency and enhancing order execution opportunities for member organizations. The Exchange believes that that the proposal is reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory because it would apply to all member organizations eligible for the relevant Tape A tier credits equally. The Exchange further believes that extending the additional credit to Tier 1 Adding Credit and Tier 2 Adding Credit is reasonable because it would increase the number of member organizations at the higher tiers that could qualify for the proposed credit. The Exchange further believes that the proposed credit is reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory because, although the proposed additional credit is less than that offered for Non-Tier, Adding Tier 3 and Adding Tier 4, members organizations qualifying for Tier 1 Adding Credit and Tier 2 Adding Credit tiers already receive a higher credit for such executions. Similarly, the Exchange believes that extending the additional credit to SLP Tier 1 and SLP Tier 4 and the proposed SLP Step Up Tier is reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory because SLPs qualifying for SLP Tier 3, SLP Tier 2 and SLP Tier 1A would already receive a higher additional credit for such executions. The Exchange further believes that the proposed credit is reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory because, although the proposed additional credit for SLP Tier 1 and SLP Tier 4 is less than that offered for SLP Tier 3, SLP Tier 2, SLP Tier 1A and the proposed SLP Step Up Tier, SLPs qualifying for SLP Tier 1 and SLP Tier 4 already receive a higher credit for such executions. In addition, the Exchange believes that the additional credit of $0.00005 per share for SLPs that meet the current requirements for SLP Tier 1 and add liquidity in UTP Securities of at least 0.30% of Tape B and Tape C CADV combined for adding liquidity in securities where they are not assigned as an SLP or in securities where they do not meet the 10% average or more quoting requirement in an assigned security pursuant to Rule 107B is reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory because SLP Tier 1 has the highest Adding ADV requirement. Finally, the proposed cross tape incentives are equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because they would apply equally to all qualifying member organizations, including SLPs, that add
The Exchange believes that the proposal to introduce a new SLP Step Up Tier is reasonable because it provides SLPs as well as SLPs that are also DMMs with an additional way to qualify for a rebate, thereby providing SLPs with greater flexibility and creating an added incentive for SLPs to bring additional order flow to a public market. In particular, as noted above, the Exchange believes that the new tier will provide greater incentives for more active SLPs to add liquidity to the Exchange, to the benefit of the investing public and all market participants. Moreover, offering a higher credit for SLPs that add liquidity for all assigned SLP securities in the aggregate (including shares of both an SLP-Prop and an SLMM of the same or an affiliated member organization) of an ADV of more than 0.085% of NYSE CADV over that SLPs' April 2018 adding liquidity and that meet the SLP quoting requirements would provide an incentive for less active SLPs to add liquidity in order to meet the SLP quoting requirements, thereby contributing to additional levels of liquidity to a public exchange, which benefits all market participants. Finally, the Exchange believes that the proposed tier is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because it would apply equally to all SLPs that don't qualify for better SLP tiered credits and that would submit additional adding liquidity to the Exchange in order to qualify for the new credit.
The Exchange believes that lowering the alternative cap to $15,000 per month and the Taking ADV requirement to at least 1.20% of NYSE CADV is reasonable and an equitable allocation of fees because it would encourage the execution of additional liquidity on a public exchange, thereby promoting price discovery and transparency. Further, the Exchange believes that the proposed requirements are reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because all member organizations that submit orders to the NYSE open, remove liquidity from the Exchange, and participate in CSII will be subject to the same fee structure and access to the Exchange's market would continue to be offered on fair and non-discriminatory terms. The Exchange further believes that the proposed lowering of the Taking ADV requirement would encourage additional member organizations to participate in CSII.
Finally, the Exchange believes that it is subject to significant competitive forces, as described below in the Exchange's statement regarding the burden on competition.
For the foregoing reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
Finally, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive or rebate opportunities available at other venues to be more favorable. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually adjust its fees and rebates to remain competitive with other exchanges and with alternative trading systems that have been exempted from compliance with the statutory standards applicable to exchanges. Because competitors are free to modify their own fees and credits in response, and because market participants may readily adjust their order routing practices, the Exchange believes that the degree to which fee changes in this market may impose any burden on competition is extremely limited. As a result of all of these considerations, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed changes will impair the ability of member organizations or competing order execution venues to maintain their competitive standing in the financial markets.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
The foregoing rule change is effective upon filing pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Social Security Administration.
Notice of rescission of Social Security Ruling 82-53.
The Acting Commissioner of Social Security gives notice of the rescission of Social Security Ruling (SSR) 82-53.
This rescission is applicable on August 29, 2018.
Dan O'Brien, Office of Vocational, Evaluation, and Process Policy in the Office of Disability Policy, Social Security Administration, 6401 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21235-6401, (410) 597-1632. For information on eligibility or filing for benefits, call our national toll-free number, 1-800-772-1213 or TTY 1-800-325-07708, or visit our internet site, Social Security Online, at
Although 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(1) and (a)(2) do not require us to publish this notice, we are doing so in accordance with 20 CFR 402.35(b)(1).
Through SSRs, we make available to the public precedential decisions relating to the Federal old-age, survivors, disability, supplemental security income, and special veterans benefits programs. We may base SSRs on determinations or decisions made at all levels of administrative adjudication, Federal court decisions, Commissioner's decisions, opinions of the Office of General Counsel, or other interpretations of the law and regulations.
We are rescinding SSR 82-53: “Titles II and XVI: Basic Disability Evaluation Guides,” because it is in part duplicative of other policy guidance and in part outdated.
SSR 82-53 provided an overview and an explanation of the definition and terms contained in the disability provisions of title II and title XVI of the Social Security Act (Act) and implementing regulations. The information in the SSR duplicates information available in the Act, regulations, and other sub-regulatory policy documents. For example, the definitions of “disability” and “blindness” already appear in the Act and in our regulations.
Additionally, some of the information in SSR 82-53 is outdated. For example, we no longer need to include language from expired State plans that excluded newly eligible Supplemental Security Income (SSI) recipients from State plans because those plans were rolled over as SSI benefits more than forty years ago. Another example is the elimination of the “comparable severity” disability standard for children's impairments, which was repealed under the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996.
Pursuant to section 7012 of the Department of State, Foreign Operations, and Related Programs Appropriations Act, 2018 (Div. K, Pub. L. 115-141) (the Act); Executive Order 12163, as amended by E.O. 13346; and Delegation of Authority No. 245-2, I hereby determine that assistance to Somalia is in the national interest of the United States and thereby waive, with respect to Somalia, the application of section 7012 of the Act.
This Determination shall be published in the
State Justice Institute.
Notice of meeting.
The SJI Board of Directors will be meeting on Monday, September
Nebraska Supreme Court, State Capitol, Law Library Reading Room, 1445 K Street, Lincoln, Nebraska, 68509.
Jonathan Mattiello, Executive Director, State Justice Institute, 11951 Freedom Drive, Suite 1020, Reston, VA 20190, 571-313-8843,
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of request to release airport property.
The FAA proposes to rule and invite public comment on the release of land at the Dallas/Fort Worth International Airport under the provisions of Section 125 of the Wendell H. Ford Aviation Investment Reform Act for the 21st Century (AIR 21).
Comments must be received on or before (from 30 days of the posting of this
Comments on this application may be mailed or delivered to the FAA at the following address: Mr. Ben Guttery, Manager, Federal Aviation Administration, Southwest Region, Airports Division, Texas Airports District Office, ASW-650, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, Texas 76177.
In addition, one copy of any comments submitted to the FAA must be mailed or delivered to the at the following address: Mr. Sean Donohue, Chief Executive Officer, Dallas/Fort Worth International Airport, Executive Office, P.O. Box 619428, DFW Airport, Texas 75261.
Mr. Steven Cooks, Program Manager, Federal Aviation Administration, Texas Airports District Office, ASW-650, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177, Telephone: (817) 222-5608, email:
The request to release property may be reviewed in person at this same location.
The FAA invites public comment on the request to release property at the Dallas/Fort Worth International Airport under the provisions of the AIR 21.
The Dallas/Fort Worth International Airport requests the release of 39.737 acres of non-aeronautical airport property for permanent easement to the Fort Worth Transportation Autority. The permanent and temporary easements to be released will enable TRA to construct the Interceptor line which is approximately 9,850 linear feet and continue to maintain the Interceptor in the future and revuenes shall be used to further develop, operate and maintain DFW Airport.
Any person may inspect the request in person at the FAA office listed above under
In addition, any person may, upon request, inspect the application, notice and other documents relevant to the application in person at the: Dallas/Fort Worth International Airport, Telephone Number (972) 973-4646.
Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), DOT.
Rescind Notice of Intent.
The FHWA is issuing this notice to advise the public that the 2004 Notice of Intent (NOI) published in the
Mr. Mark D. Bartlett, Division Administrator, Federal Highway Administration, 9500 Wynlakes Place, Montgomery, Alabama 36117; Email:
The FHWA, in cooperation with the Alabama Department of Transportation, is rescinding the NOI to prepare an EIS for Federal-aid project HPP-1602(539). The proposed project was to construct a limited access roadway from the eastern terminus of Interstate Highway 759 (I-759) near George Wallace Drive to a proposed interchange with U.S. Highway 431 and U.S. Highway 278 in the city of Gadsden. The proposed project would have been a multi-lane roadway on a new location.
The NOI for the project was published in the
Any future Federal-aid actions within this corridor will comply with environmental review requirements of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA, 42 U.S.C. 4321,
23 U.S.C. 315; 49 CFR 1.48.
Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), DOT.
Rescind Notice of Intent.
The FHWA is issuing this notice to advise the public that the 2005 Notice of Intent (NOI) published in the
Mr. Mark D. Bartlett, Division Administrator, Federal Highway Administration, 9500 Wynlakes Place, Montgomery, Alabama 36117; Email:
The FHWA, in cooperation with the Alabama Department of Transportation, is rescinding the NOI to prepare an EIS for Federal-aid project NCPD-PE02(910). The proposed project was to construct a multi-lane, limited access roadway to provide a connecting link in the freeway/Interstate system between Interstate 59/Interstate 20 (I-59/I-20) near the Mississippi state line and I-85 in Montgomery, Alabama. The study area included large parts of six Black Belt Counties (Dallas, Hale, Lowndes, Marengo, Perry, and Sumter), as well as Autauga and Montgomery Counties.
The NOI for the project was published in the
Any future Federal-aid actions within this corridor will comply with environmental review requirements of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA, 42 U.S.C. 4321,
23 U.S.C. 315; 49 CFR 1.48.
Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), DOT.
Rescind Notice of Intent.
The FHWA is issuing this notice to advise the public that the 2006 Record of Decision (ROD) and the Final Environmental Impact Statements (FEISs) for Federal-aid projects DPS-A002(002) and DPS-A002(003), the Memphis to Atlanta transportation corridor, in multiple counties in Alabama is rescinded.
Mr. Mark D. Bartlett, Division Administrator, Federal Highway Administration, 9500 Wynlakes Place, Montgomery, Alabama 36117; Email:
The FHWA, in cooperation with the Alabama Department of Transportation (ALDOT), is rescinding the ROD and FEISs for projects DPS-A002(002) and DPS-A002(003) [previously DPS-A002(001)]. The proposed projects were to construct a multi-lane, limited access roadway that would function as a major segment of the Memphis to Atlanta transportation corridor. The roadway would have proved a direct link between the two metropolitan areas. DPS-A002(002) contained the western portion of the corridor between interstate 65 (I-65) and the Mississippi state line and located in Colbert, Lawrence, Morgan and Limestone Counties. DPS-A002(003) contained the eastern portion of the corridor between I-65 and the Georgia state line and located in Cherokee, Dekalb, Marshall, Madison, and Limestone Counties.
The ROD for the projects was issued August 31, 2006. The FHWA has determined, in conjunction with ALDOT, the ROD and the FEIS for the projects shall be rescinded due to objections raised by Redstone Arsenal. The Arsenal objected to a public roadway passing through Arsenal property due to increased security concerns.
Any future Federal-aid actions within this corridor will comply with environmental review requirements of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA, 42 U.S.C. 4321,
23 U.S.C. 315; 49 CFR 1.48.
Office of the Secretary (OST), Department of Transportation (Department or DOT).
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), this notice announces that the request to renew the previously approved information collection request (ICR) OMB No. 2105-0552, “Reports by Air Carriers on Incidents Involving Animals During Air Transport,” has been forwarded to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). The current ICR approved by OMB expires August 31, 2018. DOT published a
Comments on this notice must be received by September 28, 2018.
You may submit comments (identified by Docket No. DOT-OST-2010-0211) through one of the following methods:
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Vinh Q. Nguyen, Senior Trial Attorney, Office of the General Counsel, Office of the Secretary, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, 20590, 202-366-9342 (Voice), 202-366-7152 (Fax), or
The PRA and its implementing regulations, 5 CFR part 1320, require Federal agencies to issue two notices seeking public comment on information collection activities before OMB may approve paperwork packages. On May 21, 2018, the Department published a 60-day notice in the
The Pet Industry Joint Advisory Council (PIJAC) states that the current reporting requirements should be retained and renewed. PIJAC explains that there are an increased number of people traveling with, or shipping, their pets. PIJAC states even though the number of incidents involving the loss, injury, or death of an animal is small, the publicity of such incidents is growing. PIJAC believes that transparency is the best method for confirming that incidents involving the loss, injury, or death of an animal are in fact extremely rare.
The American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA) also supports the renewal of the ICR. AVMA states that the information collected and provided in the reports is vital for ongoing analysis of adverse events and effective identification of areas of focus for prevention of future incidents. AMVA states that public access to these reports is important for animal owners researching and deciding whether air travel is a responsible option for their animal, as well as for veterinarians whose clients often approach them for recommendations regarding transportation options. AVMA suggests expanding the reporting requirement to include the following information: incidents involving the loss, injury, or death of an animal transported within the cabin; standard names for dog breeds; results of internal investigations and necropsies; and additional details on the nature, extent, and conditions of the animal's travel. AVMA also suggests a number of ways the reporting burden could be minimized, such as a creating a simplified reporting interface with drop-down selections, allowing an option to import veterinary health certificate information, reducing the frequency of the reports from monthly to quarterly, and providing covered carriers an option to update records with pertinent information after the filing deadline.
We carefully considered all of the comments filed in response the notice requesting the renewal of the previously approved ICR OMB No. 2105-0552, “Reports by Air Carriers on Incidents Involving Animals During Air Transport.” Accordingly, the Department announces that this ICR has been re-evaluated and certified under 5 CFR 1320.5(a) and forwarded to OMB for review and approval pursuant to 5 CFR 1320.12(c).
Before OMB decides whether to approve these proposed collections of information, it must provide 30 days for public comment.
On August 11, 2003, DOT, through its Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), issued a final rule implementing section 710 of AIR-21.
On July 3, 2014, DOT published a final rule amending the requirement that air carriers file reports with DOT on the loss, injury, or death of animals during air transport.
As noted earlier, on May 21, 2018, DOT published a
In order to reduce burden to covered carriers, the ACPD established a website and online system for filing the required reports,
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended; and 49 CFR 1.27(n).
Departmental Offices, U.S. Department of the Treasury.
Notice.
The U.S. Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on this continuing information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The public is invited to submit comments on the collection(s) listed below.
Written comments must be received on or before October 29, 2018.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
All responses to this notice will be included in the request for OMB's approval. All comments will also become a matter of public record.
Requests for additional information or a copy of the information collection can be directed to the addresses provided above.
44 U.S.C. 3501
United States Mint, Department of the Treasury.
Notice.
The United States Mint announces 2018 revisions to include palladium pricing within the Numismatic Gold, Commemorative Gold, Platinum, and Palladium Products Grid.
An excerpt of the grid with a recent price range for palladium appears below:
The complete 2018 Pricing of Numismatic Gold, Commemorative Gold, Platinum, and Palladium Products Grid will be available at
Pricing can vary weekly dependent upon the London Bullion Market Association gold, platinum, and palladium prices weekly average. The pricing for all United States Mint numismatic gold, platinum, and palladium products is evaluated every Wednesday and modified as necessary.
Cathy Olson; Numismatic and Bullion Directorate; United States Mint; 801 9th Street NW, Washington, DC 20220; or call 202-354-7500.
31 U.S.C. 5111, 5112, & 9701, Public Law 111-303.
Board of Veterans' Appeals, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, this notice announces that the Board of Veterans' Appeals, Department of Veterans Affairs, will submit the collection of information abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The PRA submission describes the nature of the information collection and its expected cost and burden and it includes the actual data collection instrument.
Comments must be submitted on or before September 28, 2018.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor, Enterprise Records Service (005R1B), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-5870 or email
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The
By direction of the Secretary.
Federal Communications Commission.
Proposed rule.
In this document, the Federal Communications Commission (Commission or FCC) adopts a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) to pursue the joint goals of making 3.7-4.2 GHz band spectrum available for new wireless uses while balancing desired speed to the market, efficiency of use, and effectively accommodating incumbent Fixed Satellite Service (FSS) and Fixed Service (FS) operations in the band. The Commission seeks comment on various proposals for transitioning all or part of the band for flexible use, terrestrial mobile spectrum, with clearing for flexible use beginning at 3.7 GHz and moving higher up in the band as more spectrum is cleared. The Commission also seeks comment on potential changes to its rules to promote more efficient and intensive fixed use of the band on a shared basis starting in the top segment of the band and moving down the band.
Comments are due on or before October 29, 2018; reply comments are due on or before November 27, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by GN Docket No. 18-122, by any of the following methods:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal:
• Federal Communications Commission's website:
•
For detailed instructions for submitting comments and additional information on the rulemaking process, see the
Ariel Diamond of the Wireless Telecommunications Bureau, Broadband Division, at (202) 418-2803 or
This is a summary of the NPRM portion of the Commission's
Pursuant to §§ 1.415 and 1.419 of the Commission's rules, 47 CFR 1.415, 1.419, interested parties may file comments and reply comments on or before the dates indicated on the first page of this document. Comments may be filed using the Commission's Electronic Comment Filing System (ECFS). See Electronic Filing of Documents in Rulemaking Proceedings, 63 FR 24121 (1998).
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• All hand-delivered or messenger-delivered paper filings for the Commission's Secretary must be delivered to FCC Headquarters at 445 12th St. SW, Room TW-A325, Washington, DC 20554. The filing hours are 8:00 a.m. to 7:00 p.m. All hand deliveries must be held together with rubber bands or fasteners. Any envelopes and boxes must be disposed of before entering the building.
• Commercial overnight mail (other than U.S. Postal Service Express Mail and Priority Mail) must be sent to 9050 Junction Dr., Annapolis Junction, Annapolis MD 20701.
• U.S. Postal Service first-class, Express, and Priority mail must be addressed to 445 12th Street SW, Washington, DC 20554.
Pursuant to § 1.1200(a) of the Commission's rules, this
As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended (RFA), the Commission has prepared this present IRFA of the possible significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities by the policies and rules proposed in the attached FNPRM. Written public comments are requested on this IRFA. Comments must be identified as responses to the IRFA and must be filed by the deadlines specified in the FNPRM for comments. The Commission will send a copy of this FNPRM, including this IRFA, to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration (SBA).
The
1. In this proceeding, the Commission is pursuing the joint goals of making spectrum available for new wireless uses while balancing desired speed to the market, efficiency of use, and effectively accommodating incumbent Fixed Satellite Service (FSS) and Fixed Service (FS) operations in the band. To gain a clearer understanding of the operations of current users in the band, the Commission collects information on current FSS uses. The Commission then seeks comment on various proposals for transitioning all or part of the band for flexible use, terrestrial mobile spectrum, with clearing for flexible use beginning at 3.7 GHz and moving higher up in the band as more spectrum is cleared. The Commission also seeks comment on potential changes to the Commission's rules to promote more efficient and intensive fixed use of the band on a shared basis starting in the top segment of the band and moving down the band. To add a mobile, except aeronautical mobile, allocation and to develop rules that would enable the band to be transitioned for more intensive fixed and flexible uses, the Commission encourages commenters to discuss and quantify the costs and benefits associated with any proposed approach along with other helpful technical or procedural details.
2. America's appetite for wireless broadband service is surging. And while mobile traffic is surging in sections of the United States, many communities still lack access to meaningful broadband connectivity. More intensive use of spectrum can allow wireless operators to fill in gaps in the current broadband landscape. Additional spectrum must be identified, however, if the Commission is to seize the 5G future and meet the connectivity needs of all Americans.
3. Enabling next generation wireless networks and closing the digital divide will require efficient utilization of the low-, mid-, and high-bands. In recent years, the Commission has taken several steps to use low-band spectrum below 3.7 GHz more efficiently and intensely, and it has paved the way for new opportunities in high-band spectrum above 24 GHz. Having identified additional spectrum in low- and high-bands, the Commission now seeks to identify mid-band spectrum for wireless broadband services. Mid-band spectrum is well-suited for next generation wireless broadband services due to the combination of favorable propagation characteristics (compared to high bands) and the opportunity for additional channel re-use (as compared to low bands).
4. Congress recently addressed the pressing need for additional spectrum for wireless broadband, including both mobile and fixed services, in the FY 2018 omnibus spending bill, which includes the MOBILE NOW Act under Title VI of RAY BAUM'S Act. The MOBILE NOW Act directs that spectrum be made available for new technologies and to maintain America's leadership in the future of communications technology. Section 603(a)(1) of the MOBILE NOW Act requires that no later than December 31, 2022, the Secretary of Commerce, working through the National Telecommunications and Information Administration (NTIA), and the Commission “shall identify a total of at least 255 megahertz of Federal and non-Federal spectrum for mobile and fixed wireless broadband use.” In making 255 megahertz available, 100 megahertz below 8000 MHz shall be identified for unlicensed use, 100 megahertz below 6000 MHz shall be identified for use on exclusive, licensed basis for commercial mobile use, pursuant to the Commission's authority to implement such licensing in a flexible manner, and 55 megahertz below 8000 MHz shall be identified for licensed, unlicensed, or a combination of uses.
5. Additionally, § 605(b) of the MOBILE NOW Act specifically requires the Commission to evaluate “the feasibility of allowing commercial wireless services, licensed or unlicensed, to use or share use of the frequencies between 3700 megahertz and 4200 megahertz,” which the Commission sought comment on in May 1, 2018 Public Notice. The Commission notes that there is no federal allocation for the 3.7-4.2 GHz band. The Commission intends to consult with NTIA and the heads of each affected Federal agency, as required by the Act, regarding the Federal entities, stations, and operations in the band, and the required issues and assessments for the report under § 605(b). This
6. In the 2017
7. The Commission proposes to protect incumbent earth stations from harmful interference as the Commission increases the intensity of terrestrial use in the band. The Commission seeks comment on how to define the appropriate class of incumbents for protection. For FSS earth station licensees and registrants, the Commission proposes to define incumbent stations as earth stations that: (1) Were operational as of April 19, 2018; (2) are licensed or registered (or had a pending application for license or registration) in the IBFS database as of October 17, 2018; and (3) have timely certified the accuracy of information on file with the Commission to the extent required by the
8. The Commission proposes to exclude from the definition of incumbents any earth stations that are not licensed or registered in IBFS, or that are licensed or registered in IBFS, but for which the licensee/registrant does not timely file the certification required in the
9. The Commission asks that commenters be specific in defining a protected incumbent and in explaining the relative obligations and/or rights that protected incumbents may have under each approach for more intense terrestrial use of the band. Which categories of incumbents must new flexible use licensees relocate under each approach, what would be the standard for determining the need to relocate each category of incumbents, and what are the terms or rules pursuant to which these relocations will occur? The Commission seeks comment on specific relief that should be provided to each class of incumbents. For example, should incumbent earth station operators be provided with filters to block transmissions from flexible use operations, should they receive filters and the technical assistance necessary to install them or repoint earth station antennas as necessary, or should earth station operators be provided with a lump sum to be used at their own discretion, either to upgrade existing facilities or to enable the switch to other means of transmission? Who would be responsible for reimbursing incumbent earth station operators and C-band customers for costs incurred in any transition, and how would such cost reimbursement be accomplished? How would disputes relating to cost reimbursement be resolved? What would be the basis for establishing reasonable cost reimbursements? For example, would it take into account any required improvements or replacement to an existing antenna or its supporting structure? Would it cover any required technological assistance? How should satellite news gathering vehicles or other temporary-fixed earth stations be addressed?
10. On April 19, 2018, the staff released the
11. In response to the
12. Regarding the first concern, in the
13. Regarding the second concern, the staff noted that “after the 90-day window closes, the Commission may determine to require all licensees,
14. To ensure that the Commission has the best information possible on existing earth stations in this band, the Commission proposes to update IBFS to remove 3.7-4.2 GHz band earth station licenses or registrations for which the licensee or registrant does not file the certifications required in the
15. The Commission seeks comment on how—once the accuracy of 3.7-4.2 GHz band earth station data has improved—to ensure that earth station data remains accurate to facilitate frequency coordination and maximize efficient use of the spectrum. How often do the frequencies received by a given earth station change? The Commission seeks comment on whether, for a constructed and operational earth station,
16. In addition, the Commission asks for parties to comment on whether to require an earth station licensee or registrant in the 3.7-4.2 GHz band to certify periodically,
17. Receive-only earth stations cannot cause interference, but under the Commission's current rules they can be coordinated and licensed or registered with the Commission to protect them from terrestrial microwave stations in bands shared co-equally with the FS. Section 25.203 requires FSS applicants to coordinate their proposed frequency use prior to filing their license applications with the Commission. Earth station applicants, to the extent practicable, must select sites and frequencies in areas where the surrounding terrain and existing frequency use will minimize the possibility of harmful interference between the sharing services. An earth station applicant, prior to filing an application to register or license with the Commission, must coordinate its proposed frequency usage with existing terrestrial users and with applicants that have filed for terrestrial station authorizations. The purpose of this coordination requirement is to establish the baseline level of interference that an earth station must accept in frequency bands shared by the FS and FSS on a co-primary basis. The coordination results entitle the FSS earth station to the interference protection levels agreed to during coordination, including against subsequent FS licensees. Currently, registered or licensed earth stations in the C-band are generally coordinated and authorized to use the entire band across the full geostationary arc, a policy known as full-band, full-arc.
18. A reexamination of the full-band, full-arc coordination policy is appropriate in light of the Commission's goal to maximize spectrum efficiency and use in the 3.7-4.2 GHz band including more intensive terrestrial use of the band. Accordingly, the Commission proposes that for purposes of interference protection, earth station operators will be entitled to protection only for those frequencies, azimuths, and elevation angles and other parameters reported as in regular use (i.e
19. At the same time, the Commission acknowledges that the full-band, full-arc policy has certain advantages,
20. In the
• Earth station call sign;
• geographic location;
• licensee and point of contact information;
• antenna gain;
• azimuth and elevation gain pattern;
• antenna azimuth relative to true north;
• antenna elevation angle;
• satellite(s) at which the earth station is pointed;
• transponder number(s) and how often each transponder is used: Regularly (
• antenna site elevation and height above ground.
21. The Commission's consideration of some transition options may also benefit from additional, more granular information on FSS earth station and space station operations in the band. For example, information on the type of content (
22. In the
23. The Commission also seeks comment on whether to collect the information described above on a nationwide basis or whether it may be appropriate to conduct an initial information collection for an initial sample of areas. For example, should the Commission collects information from entities based on a representative sampling of different types of areas, such as urban, suburban, and rural areas? If so, how should the sample be determined? The Commission seeks comment on this and any other methodology that will effectively balance the potential burden that an information collection may impose against the need to evaluate the feasibility of clearing more spectrum in this band. The Commission also seeks comment on whether small entities and entities operating in rural areas face any special or unique issues with respect to the information collection such that they would require certain accommodations or additional time to comply. The Commission also seeks comment on the costs and benefits of an additional information collection on this band.
24. Commenters should describe, with specificity, how any additional information collection would support a given transition proposal and should provide a detailed assessment of the costs and benefits of such additional collections. The Commission also encourages commenters to submit any information that could inform the Commission's consideration of specific transition proposals, including the types of information described in this section.
25. On June 21, 2018, the International Bureau released the
26. Due to the declining use of the band for fixed point-to-point FS links as well as the availability of other spectrum options for point-to-point links, the Commission proposes to sunset point-to-point FS use in the band. In addition, the Commission seeks comment on whether existing fixed links should be grandfathered or transitioned out of the band over some time period, after which all licenses would either be cancelled or modified to operate on a secondary, non-interference basis. If the latter, how long would incumbent users have to transition from the band? Three years? Five years? And should the Commission differentiate in treatment between those with permanent licenses and those with temporary licenses? Or those that have or are willing to relocate to the upper portion of the band?
27. The Commission describes several potential approaches for repurposing the band and the Commission encourages commenters in discussing their proposals to consider the economic tradeoffs described herein. Figure 1 below demonstrates the current
28. The Commission recognizes that co-channel sharing of spectrum between the FSS and more intensive terrestrial wireless use in the same geographic area may be difficult. For example, frequency coordination allows FSS and terrestrial fixed microwave to share the band on a co-primary basis, but coordination of mobile systems would be more complicated because the movement of the devices would require analyses and interference mitigation to FSS earth stations in this band spread over many locations within any given geographic area. In addition, because the C-band satellites are in geostationary orbit approximately 36,000 km above the equator, the signals received at the earth stations are extremely weak. This means that terrestrial mobile operations could cause harmful interference to the earth station receivers over large distances absent adequate protection.
29. Geographic sharing may be similarly difficult. Current Commission policy permits earth stations to coordinate reception across the entire GSO arc and over the entire 3.7-4.2 GHz band, which would exclude mobile wireless operations from transmitting across the entire band in a wide area around each earth station. For purposes of illustration, Figure 2 below shows a hypothetical 20 km exclusion zone around each earth station in the continental United States in the International Bureau Filing System (IBFS) database as of early May 2018.
30. The Commission was able to establish the Citizens Broadband Radio Service in the 3550-3700 MHz despite the presence of FSS receivers because there are only FSS earth stations in 35 cities and two MSS gateways in the 3600-3700 MHz band. This is unlike the current incumbent earth station environment in the 3.7-4.2 GHz band. Therefore, subject to confirming the landscape of existing earth stations through the certifications required by the
31. Notably, the Commission believes that increased terrestrial use of the band is ripe to meet the Commission's mandate under the MOBILE NOW Act to identify (with NTIA) 255 megahertz of spectrum for mobile and fixed wireless broadband use. For purposes of meeting § 603(a)(1), § 603(a)(3)(E) states “[s]pectrum that the Commission determines had more than
32. The Commission seeks comment on approaches for expanding flexible and more intensive fixed use of the band without causing harmful interference to incumbent operations. In discussing how much of the band should be made available for flexible use, more intensive fixed use, or maintained just for incumbent uses, the Commission asks commenters to address the relative present and future economic value of each of these services to individuals and businesses in the United States. What are the tradeoffs in accommodating one type of use instead of another? And what are the costs associated with accommodating new uses? Commenters should provide a detailed cost-benefit analysis in their proposal and address the relative economic values of alternative uses and the implementation costs of their specific proposal vis-à-vis other possible approaches to the band. The Commission also asks commenters to address the economic impact of the implementation time frame associated with their chosen approach.
33. The Commission proposes to add a non-federal mobile, except aeronautical mobile, service allocation to the 3.7-4.2 GHz band, and given the Commission's conclusion that co-channel sharing is not feasible, seek comment on several proposals below to clear all or part of the band for flexible use. In particular, the Commission seeks comment on the economic benefits of introducing a new allocation for mobile, except aeronautical mobile, and flexible use relative to the introduction of point-to-multipoint FS, perhaps shared with FSS, in all or part of the 3.7-4.2 GHz band. Commenters should consider the economic value of current and future use cases for each type of service, including benefits and opportunity costs to consumers and the Nation's economy overall, as well as to unserved or underserved areas and specialized market segments (
34. The Commission also seeks comment on the current and future economic value of FSS in the band. How intensively is this spectrum used by existing FSS licensees and how intensely will it be utilized in the future? Is spectrum in the band allocated to FSS currently being used efficiently and are there technologies that may facilitate more efficient use of spectrum in the band by FSS licensees without significant disruption to consumers and businesses that rely on these services? Are there alternative technologies available that could wholly or partially replace the services provided by FSS without significant disruption to existing customers? How long would it take and how much would it cost to transition existing customers to these alternative technologies? How may the cost-benefit analysis shift depending on how much spectrum is transitioned at particular times? Are there other considerations that the Commission should consider when assessing the most economically efficient allocation of the band between services? And would such considerations differ depending on when and how much spectrum is ultimately transitioned to flexible use?
35. Repurposing of the 3.7-4.2 GHz spectrum bands allocated to FSS raises at least three economic problems, some of which have not arisen in previous spectrum auctions. The first two problems are direct consequences of the C-band licensing structure, while the last is common to all spectrum reallocations. First, because all FSS licensees have equal, nonexclusive rights to the entire band under part 25 of the Commission's rules, they cannot compete in the same way that broadcast television licensees did in the broadcast incentive auction. Second, this nonexclusive licensing problem creates an incentive for an FSS licensee to overstate the value it assigns to the spectrum in order to increase the share of auction revenue it may receive. The Commission will refer to this as the “holdout” problem. Third, repurposing some of the 3.7-4.2 GHz spectrum band will reduce the amount of spectrum available for FSS, which lowers industry capacity and could lead to higher prices for downstream services, such as the transmission of video to cable head ends. The Commission notes that the first and last problems create opposite incentives for FSS licensees. The first provides an incentive to repurpose less than the efficient amount of spectrum while the last may create an incentive to repurpose more than the efficient amount.
36. The broadcast incentive auction relied on competition among licensees to induce broadcast incumbents to reveal the least amount they must be paid to relinquish their spectrum rights. Many broadcast licenses were substitutes because if one licensee bid to relinquish its spectrum usage rights this could make spectrum available to repack other broadcast stations and free spectrum for flexible use. In the 3.7-4.2 GHz FSS, all licensees must agree to relinquish their spectrum rights in a given geographic area in order to reassign spectrum and therefore licenses are not substitutes and competition is limited.
37. In addition to the problem that satellite licensees will not be competing to supply spectrum in the same way that television licensees did in the broadband incentive auction, there is an additional problem concerning how the satellite licensees will split any revenues from repurposing. In order to increase its share of auction revenues, a FSS licensee may have an incentive to overstate the value it assigns to the spectrum or to withhold its consent to repurpose. The holdout problem is the inverse of a public goods problem. The 500 megahertz of spectrum allocated for FSS is a public good, in that several distinct companies make non-exclusive, non-rivalrous use of the spectrum within a geographic area.
38. Several mechanisms have been developed to generate an efficient allocation of public goods, including one proposed by Hal Varian. In the standard public goods case, Varian proposed that individuals have the opportunity to subsidize the contributions of others towards the public good in a first-stage and then decide how much to contribute in a second-stage. Can such mechanisms be adapted to solve the holdout problem under consideration here? For example, in the first stage might each party announce the share of the payment it receives that it will give to each other party and in the second stage nominate how much spectrum to clear? Can such a mechanism be modified to mitigate the incentive to clear less than the efficient amount of spectrum? Some commenters suggest having the FSS providers meet, privately negotiate, and agree to put spectrum up for auction. The Commission seeks comment on the relative merits of FSS provider cooperation versus a more formal, non-cooperative mechanism, especially with regard to the three economic problems.
39. FSS operators currently compete to provide communication services (for example, to deliver programming content to rural cable companies). For the efficient allocation of spectrum, the social value of these services needs to be balanced against the social value of alternative services that could be provided by that spectrum, such as mobile data. Several commenters, such as the American Cable Association, contend that earth stations can and do switch providers, suggesting that competition currently exists in the C-band. Since a reduction in industry capacity generally leads to higher prices, reducing the spectrum associated with FSS may have the unintended consequence of increasing the price of FSS services and consequently of downstream services. Conversely, such a reduction should correspond with an increase in industry capacity for high-speed wireless broadband services, which would tend to lead to lower prices. How should the Commission evaluate proposed mechanisms with regard to their effect on downstream users of FSS and wireless broadband
40. In addition, the value of spectrum in alternative uses like mobile data is likely highest in dense urban areas. When the Commission has sold spectrum by geographic region, the prices obtained have been positively correlated with population density. FSS substitutes, particularly fiber, are most prevalent in urban areas while in rural areas there are fewer FSS substitutes. Thus, in rural areas, typically the value of the spectrum remaining in FSS is relatively high while the opportunity cost of clearing less flexible-use spectrum is relatively low, suggesting that the amount of spectrum repurposed should vary across geographic areas. The Commission therefore seeks comment on whether the Commission should repurpose a minimum amount of spectrum nationwide, and make additional fully unencumbered spectrum available in any areas where it is less costly to transition earth stations to other forms of transmission. Under this approach, the Commission also seeks comment on the appropriate size of such regions. If the regions are too small, this could make mobile data use impractical because it would not give wireless providers sufficient flexibility to scale their networks using this band, while if the regions are too large, this could threaten rural services because those regions would not be attractive to small and rural wireless providers. Is it practical to create regions based on the existence of alternatives to FSS like fiber? The Commission seeks comment on whether any flexible use licenses should also be overlay licenses, for which the terrestrial licensee is obligated to protect licensed or registered earth stations and can use any spectrum that becomes available by clearing earth stations.
41. Another consideration in the geographical division of spectrum involves the parties to compensate. Instead of paying FSS operators for relinquishing spectrum usage rights nationwide or in specific geographic regions a mechanism instead might pay earth stations for relinquishing access to C-band spectrum in specific geographic areas. Such earth stations might discontinue use in these areas by discontinuing receiving content or by receiving it by alternative transmission infrastructure like fiber, where the content might be delivered to the fiber from C-band earth stations in rural areas. Would such a mechanism present an alternative supplier of spectrum—with either the FSS operators or the earth stations effectively releasing spectrum rights? The Commission notes, however, that the holdout problem for licensed earth stations is likely more severe because there are more such earth stations that are independently owned than satellite operators. The Commission seeks comment on the practicality and social value of compensating licensed earth stations in exchange for agreeing to no longer be licensed to receive in the 3.7-4.2 GHz band. In particular, would such a mechanism protect those earth stations but not unlicensed earth stations? Also, how would satellite operators be compensated for loss of revenues after the expiration of their contracts with content providers serving the licensed earth stations that discontinued their reliance on satellite delivery of content?
42. The commission seeks comment on whether the Commission should adopt rules that would facilitate a market-based approach to transitioning incumbents from some or all of the 3.7-4.2 GHz band. Under such an approach, the Commission would authorize incumbent FSS operators to voluntarily clear all or part of the band. Satellite operators in the band could choose to make some or all of their spectrum available to terrestrial operators on the secondary market in exchange for compensation. Under such an approach, satellite operators could be responsible for clearing the portion of the band that would be made available for flexible use, including notifying earth stations of the need to modify their operations and compensating them for any costs associated with that transition.
43. A secondary market approach might make spectrum available more quickly than other available mechanisms, such as an FCC auction, and thus could facilitate rapid deployment of next generation wireless broadband networks. In addition, such an approach could leverage the technical and operational knowledge of satellite space station operators while relying on market incentives to promote economic efficiency. The Commission seeks comment on whether a market-based approach could effectively and rapidly facilitate new terrestrial deployments in the band. The Commission also seeks comment on whether a market-based approach that allows FSS licensees to coordinate their capacity would raise any antitrust concerns.
44. The Commission seeks comment on the efficacy of using a market-based approach to transition some or all of the 3.7-4.2 GHz band to flexible terrestrial use. The Commission observes, and some commenters in the record maintain, that a significant benefit of a market-based approach may be a more rapid introduction of C-band spectrum to the market. For example, Intel, Intelsat, and SES claim that their consortium approach would result in licensed mobile services within 18-36 months of a Commission order. Commenters also should address the costs and benefits of this approach vis-à-vis the alternative proposals set forth in this section.
45. The Commission seeks comment on using a market-based approach through a Transition Facilitator, a cooperative entity created by relevant satellite operators to coordinate negotiations, clearing, and repacking the band. The Commission notes that because of the holdout problem, a market-based approach in which FSS licensees act independently is unlikely to succeed. Consequently, should the Commission allow, encourage, or require satellite operators to cooperate in negotiating with potential terrestrial mobile licensees and in clearing an agreed amount of spectrum? A market-based approach that uses a Transition Facilitator would enable the satellite operators to use private negotiations to obtain participation and agreement from the relevant satellite operators, rather than requiring the Commission to address holdouts using more regulatory mechanisms.
46. The Commission seeks comment on whether using a market-based approach in which FSS operators form a Transition Facilitator would produce an economically efficient outcome. Specifically, would allowing all potential sellers to agree on the amount and price of the spectrum that will be repurposed result in a situation in which those sellers offer a lower quantity than is socially efficient? Is that concern mitigated by the fact that the market for spectrum for high-speed broadband services is much broader than just the 3.7-4.2 GHz band? The Commission seeks comment regarding some of these concerns about the potential effects of allowing collective
47. A transition under a market-based approach could be undertaken in a four-step process. The first step would involve the industry voluntarily forming a Transition Facilitator composed of eligible C-band satellite operators.
48.
49. There is record support for a centralized facilitator. Intelsat and SES—the two largest incumbent satellite operators in the 3.7-4.2 GHz band—support a consortium-based facilitator. While Eutelsat raises concerns regarding how satellite operators eligible to participate in a market-based approach would be defined it has stated publicly that it wants to participate. In considering such an approach, the Commission thus asks commenters to address how to define eligibility to participate in the Transition Facilitator. The Commission seeks comment on opening eligibility to participate in the Transition Facilitator to all C-band satellite operators providing service to any part of the United States pursuant to an FCC-issued license or grant of market access. Should the Commission limit eligibility in any way, such as requiring service throughout the lower 48 states?
50. Given the holdout problem, the Commission does not propose to require that all eligible satellite operators agree to a Transition Facilitator before it can take effect. Instead, the Commission seeks comment on the appropriate number of satellite spectrum interests in the band—a majority? all but one?—that should be represented by the Transition Facilitator to effectuate a successful transition. Are a minimum number of operators required to participate in the Transition Facilitator for this approach to work? If this number is not met, should the Transition Facilitator be approved by the Commission?
51. The Commission also seeks comment on what the Transition Facilitator should do if one or more eligible C-band satellite operators choose not to participate in the Transition Facilitator. Are any Commission actions necessary if one or more eligible C-band satellite operators do not join the Transition Facilitator? The Commission notes that Intelsat and SES propose that eligible C-band satellite operators that do not join a centralized facilitator would nonetheless have their “reconfiguration and relocation costs covered.” How would such a process work? Should the Transition Facilitator, or members of the Transition Facilitator, negotiate with non-participating satellite companies to ensure the spectrum is successfully repurposed? Or should non-participating satellite companies be bound by the decisions of the Transition Facilitator? If the latter, would a non-participating satellite company be limited to recouping its costs? Or would it be even eligible to recoup costs so long as the Transition Facilitator adequately protects its associated incumbent earth stations?
52. If there are earth station registrants or licensees that have no contractual relationship with any of the members of the Transition Facilitator or any FSS space station operators, will that create difficulties in clearing the band during later steps in the process? If so, how can those difficulties be addressed? Is there any reason that the Transition Facilitator would not able to negotiate with earth stations that don't have contractual relationships with any of the Transition Facilitator's members? Should there be a requirement that the C-band operators participating in the Transition Facilitator have contractual relationships with a minimum percentage of protected incumbent earth stations to avoid these potential difficulties? Should the Transition Facilitator be required to work with non-participating satellite companies to protect incumbent earth stations, or should the Transition Facilitator be free to work directly with those entities?
53. To ensure that the transition process proceeds expeditiously, should the Commission establish a benchmark for the Transition Facilitator filing of six months after
54.
55. For example, the negotiation process could include the following steps. First, the Transition Facilitator
56. Given the high demand for and high-value of mid-band spectrum, the Commission should strive to adopt a mechanism that will repurpose a socially efficient amount of spectrum in the band. Intelsat-SES-Intel believe that consortium members could make approximately 100 megahertz of spectrum available for licensed terrestrial service via privately negotiated agreements between consortium members and prospective terrestrial licensees. In addition, under that proposal, consortium members would clear an additional 40 to 60 megahertz above this spectrum to act as an internal band to protect against harmful interference from transmissions in the adjacent spectrum. Intel maintains that, if the demand for terrestrial mobile spectrum is as robust as commonly believed by 5G supporters, this market-based approach could clear additional spectrum beyond the 100 megahertz proposed by Intelsat and SES in the same timeframe. The Commission notes that T-Mobile asserts that a market-based approach “creates tremendous uncertainty regarding the availability of this spectrum for mobile broadband services and will likely result in inefficient reallocation of spectrum.” To address this concern, the Commission seeks comment on whether to require that an Initial Minimum Spectrum Benchmark—a socially efficient amount of spectrum—be repurposed in the band in order to use a market-based approach, and what this amount should be. Should the Commission set the Initial Minimum Spectrum Benchmark to be 100 megahertz, given the comments of Intelsat and SES? Would a higher or lower benchmark be appropriate? Should the Commission require the Transition Facilitation Plan to require the clearing of at least the Initial Minimum Spectrum Benchmark for approval? In addition, the Commission seeks comment on whether an internal protection band is necessary both above and below (
57. To ensure a timely transition process, should the Commission set specific benchmarks for the completion of initial negotiations with potential terrestrial licensees as well as protected incumbent earth stations? Intel, Intelsat, and SES maintain that such negotiations could be completed within three to eight months. The Commission asks commenters to consider whether eight months is an appropriate benchmark for completion of Transition Facilitator negotiations and submission of the Transition Facilitation Plan. What should be the effect of a failure to meet such a benchmark?
58. The Commission seeks comment on how to ensure that the market-based approach's negotiation process will facilitate a competitive and open market. For example, should the Commission require that all parties act in good faith? What other rules could the Commission adopt to ensure competition in the marketplace? The Commission notes that T-Mobile raises concerns that satellite operators could choose to limit the amount of spectrum available for flexible use in order to increase their profits, while others claim it will not take into sufficient account the interests of protected incumbent earth stations. How can the Commission ensure the negotiation process accounts for the interests of all stakeholders that have interests in the band—from new wireless entrants to existing satellite operators to protected incumbent earth stations, from those living in rural America to those living in cities? Would Commission oversight of this market-based approach—or over the Transition Facilitator—benefit in any way from insights from antitrust law?
59. The Commission also seeks comment on what role, if any, the Commission should play to facilitate or oversee these private market negotiations. For example, should the Commission allow some flexibility for the negotiators to make more spectrum available in some markets than others, potentially allowing a limited number of earth stations to continue to operate using wider bandwidths in certain areas where wireless operators are less interested in deploying (
60. The Commission also asks commenters to discuss the requirements and safeguards that the Commission should adopt, if any, to ensure that these privately negotiated agreements result in a timely and complete transition. The Commission will expect parties to negotiate a full range of transition commitments and penalties for failure to meet transition benchmarks. Nonetheless, does the Commission need to adopt baseline requirements, such as defining comparable facilities, including the relocation of incumbent operations to another band, to fiber, and/or to more efficient technologies? What would be the relative costs and benefits associated with adopting such requirements? Would such definitions or rules minimize disruption to existing operations during the transition? Are there mechanisms the Commission can adopt to ensure that all or specific categories of incumbents are not adversely affected by repacking of this band? For example, should the Commission require FSS space station licensees that are going to cease transmitting on a primary basis to notify earth stations receiving those signals? Could the parties determine that the transitioning of facilities should be undertaken by the terrestrial licensee instead of the Transition Facilitator? If so, would the parties or the FCC establish a benchmark for completing such a transition? Should the Transition Facilitator be required to have a mechanism for receiving reports from incumbents that experience disruptions, and should the Transition Facilitator also be required to notify the
61. If the Commission's role were more limited, what level of transparency, if any, should be required during the negotiation process? For example, should satellite operators be required to notify the Commission regarding the status of on-going negotiations? What types of information should be included in such a notice? Further, should the Commission require the filing of periodic reports (
62.
63. The Commission seeks comment on conducting the review of the Transition Facilitation Plan. Most specifically, how should the Commission ensure that protected incumbent earth stations are indeed protected? What types of certifications should be required to ensure that the Commission can take all appropriate actions to ensure that the Transition Facilitator and its members carry out the Transition Facilitation Plan and appropriately protect, compensate, and ensure adequate access for relevant stakeholder? Should the Commission make the plan available to comment, and what confidential information is likely to be included? How should the Commission evaluate the various methods suggested for protecting incumbent earth stations, such as installing filters, extending fiber, offering service on new satellites or in new satellite bands, offering service over microwave links, and creating geographic separation from harmful interference (likely only in rural areas)? What level of granularity should the Commission require the steps of the Transition Facilitation Plan to meet? And how long should the Commission have to review and approve or reject a Transition Facilitation Plan?
64. The Commission seeks comment on how to address initial licensing applications. First, the Commission seeks comment on establishing a 30-day filing window for new terrestrial license applications. Prospective licensees would file an application for any new licenses they have agreed to acquire through their negotiations with the Transition Facilitator, along with a certification from the Transition Facilitator to clear that portion of the band for the terrestrial operator's use. Should the Commission require any other specific information to be submitted as part of the application process? Applications would be accepted and reviewed pursuant to the requirements and procedures set forth in part 1 of the Commission's rules, including, among other things, the filing of certain FCC forms, release of a public notice listing the application as accepted for filing, and the opportunity for third parties to file petitions to deny the application. Upon the Commission's review and confirmation that the applicant has complied with all other Commission filing and qualification requirements, the Commission would grant a license subject to certain conditions discussed below. Second, the Commission could treat the Transition Facilitation Plan as an application for all the flexible use licenses that would be made available as a result of it being carried out, and then allow the Transition Facilitator and prospective licensees to file separate applications to transfer those licenses as the parties saw fit. Under this approach, the Transition Facilitation Plan would also have to comport with the requirements and procedures set forth in Part 1 of the Commission's rules and would be conditioned as discussed below.
65. The Commission will condition authorizations for licensed terrestrial operations on the licensee not commencing operations until the Transition Facilitation Plan's protections for incumbent earth stations have been carried out in that area (and subject to those conditions to the extent the plan requires geographic or other sharing). The provisions of any private agreement to transition designated spectrum to licensed terrestrial operations would therefore need to comply with the service rules the Commission may ultimately adopt in this proceeding. For example, under this approach, the deadlines for a licensee's regulatory obligations, including construction benchmarks, would begin running on the date of license issuance. The Commission therefore anticipates that private agreements would take construction deadlines into account when negotiating the date by which the Transition Facilitator must clear the relevant spectrum such that the licensee may commence operations. However, the Commission seeks comment on whether the Commission should consider the individually negotiated time periods for band clearing when setting the deadlines for each licensee's satisfaction of its construction benchmarks. The Commission seeks comment on these and any other conditions on new license authorizations that would facilitate efficient implementation of the market-based approach.
66. Additionally, the Commission seeks comment on what, if any, conditions should be placed on the license with respect to the protection or relocation of the approximately 115 incumbent microwave links in the band that would sunset under out proposal. For example, should the Commission require as a condition of the license that new licensees either protect or relocate incumbent users under the same part 27 and part 101 rules used for incumbent microwave links in the Advanced Wireless Services (AWS) bands or under some other protection and/or relocation mechanism?
67. To ensure a timely transition process, should the Commission set specific benchmarks for the completion of its review of the Transition Facilitation Plan and the processing of conditional authorizations? Intel, Intelsat, and SES expect the review process would take two to seven months, and propose the license grant would trigger certain obligations under private agreements, including the clearing of the band within 12-20 months. The Commission seeks comment on a process whereby the Commission would take action on all unopposed applications found acceptable for filing within four months from the commencement of the filing window discussed above (
68. The Commission also recognizes that the Transition Facilitator may find it necessary and beneficial to modify certain aspects of its Transition Facilitation Plan. The Commission therefore seeks comment on allowing the Wireless Telecommunications Bureau to approve minor amendments to the Transition Facilitation Plan that would not increase harmful interference to protected incumbent earth stations.
69. The Commission notes that the ultimate assignment of any license is subject to FCC approval under § 310(d) of the Communications Act. The Commission therefore seeks comment on the application process described above and any other application criteria that may be appropriate to fulfill the Commission's statutory obligations to license spectrum in the public interest and ensure that spectrum is put to its highest and best use.
70.
71. The Commission seeks comment on reasonable benchmarks for incumbents to cease transmitting on a primary basis in the portion of the 3.7-4.2 GHz band that becomes available for flexible use, a process Intel, Intelsat, and SES expect to take 12-20 months. The Commission seeks comment on providing the Transition Facilitator with 20 months to clear incumbent users from the designated spectrum in the band. Under this approach, the Transition Facilitator would be responsible for enforcing the various private agreements between new terrestrial licensees and incumbent users to clear the band. As spectrum becomes available for licensed use, the Transition Facilitator would notify licensees that they may begin operating in particular areas covered by their licenses where the spectrum has been cleared.
72. Finally, in light of our goal to promote the rapid deployment of new licensed terrestrial operations in the 3.7-4.2 GHz band, the Commission seeks comment on any further safeguards that should apply during the band-clearing process to ensure the transition is completed within a reasonable period of time. The Commission expects that the private agreements between new terrestrial licensees and incumbent users would contain provisions and penalties sufficient to address either party's failure to satisfy their respective contractual obligations in a timely manner. In addition to, and independent of, those private agreements, the Commission seeks comment on any appropriate penalties that should apply in the event that the Transition Facilitator is unable to clear the designated spectrum within the 20-month time period discussed above. What, if any, opportunities to cure should the Commission provide? For example, should the Commission allow new terrestrial licensees and incumbent users that default on their private agreements to re-enter the process beginning with Step 2 negotiations? If so, should the Commission apply more abbreviated time periods for the completion of each step? The Commission seeks comment on these and any other actions that may be appropriate to provide adequate opportunity for successful completion of a market-based approach, while also ensuring a rapid and efficient transition to flexible use in the 3.7-4.2 GHz band.
73. The Commission seeks comment on various auction approaches to expand flexible use of the band. Specifically, the Commission asks commenters to consider whether an overlay auction, incentive auction, capacity auction or other auction mechanism could be used to create opportunities for flexible use of the band.
74.
75. The Commission seeks comment on whether the Commission shall accept applications for one or more overlay licenses—assigned by competitive bidding if mutually exclusive applications for it were accepted—that would permit an overlay licensee to negotiate with both incumbent space station licensees and earth station owners and operators to clear all or part of the band. The Commission also seeks comment on whether the Commission shall require the overlay licensee(s) to transfer flexible use licenses in the secondary market (
76. Would assigning an overlay license or licenses for all of the band expedite flexible use of more of the band compared to other approaches? Compared to the market-based proposal, the overlay license approach potentially would allow non-incumbent bidders to develop innovative ways to clear the spectrum and clear more spectrum or varying amounts of spectrum depending on the relative costs and benefits of such repurposing. On the other hand, an overlay licensee may take longer to clear spectrum because the two largest FSS space station operators appear to already have an agreement on how to clear at least 100 megahertz for flexible use.
77. The Commission also seeks comment on how all parties that would be affected by repurposing 3.7-4.2 GHz band spectrum should be treated. In particular, should the space station operators relinquishing spectrum or the overlay licensee be required to provide incumbent earth station operators comparable replacement facilities or media? Would an overlay auction expedite the provision of terrestrial mobile services in the 3.7-4.2 GHz band or facilitate making more than 100 megahertz of the band available for flexible use? Commenters should also address the potential costs and benefits of an overlay approach for consumers and businesses in rural and underserved communities, as well as any economic impact on small businesses, and discuss any rules or procedures that could be implemented to ensure that the needs of these communities and businesses are adequately addressed. The Commission invites comment on these issues and on other matters that it may need to address to conduct an overlay auction in this band.
78.
79. The Commission seeks comment on whether a variation of the incentive auction could work in the context of the 3.7-4.2 GHz band. The Commission notes that in the case of the Commission's incentive auction authority, there is a legal aspect to the problem of FSS satellite operators' incentives to reduce the amount of spectrum for repurposing discussed above. Specifically, the Commission's legal authority to use that mechanism depends on having “at least two competing licensees participate in the reverse auction.” Would the Varian approach, discussed above, satisfy the statutory requirement that an incentive auction have at least two competing bidders take part in the reverse auction? The Commission seeks comment on means of inducing supply competition, such as by bringing in alternative bands as substitutes, both to insure a more competitive and efficient outcome, and to meet the legal requirement of having competing licensees participate in the reverse auction. The Commission also seeks comment on whether provision of supply by licensed earth stations can substitute for provision by FSS operators.
80.
81. At the time of any incentive auction, could satellite customers or earth stations in their own right be eligible to offer capacity? For example, could they make available capacity through mechanisms such as substituting services (
82. Several commenters propose that Ku-band capacity could be utilized for C-band services. Other commenters raise the concern that Ku-band capacity is not a reliable replacement spectrum for C-band services. The Commission seeks comment on Ku-band capacity as a replacement for C-band, including as an alternative for infrequent, portable, or more temporary uses such as for breaking news or live sporting events. The Commission also seeks comment on how to define capacity for purpose of this approach. What capacity definition meets the needs of such an auction? Depending on the band, what adjustments would be appropriate to ensure a unit of capacity in the band is comparable with a C-band unit of capacity? Would comparable communication capacity be defined in
83. Advocates for a capacity auction should specifically discuss the Commission's legal authority as well as implementation details and options. For example, could the Commission use its general incentive auction authority to hold a capacity auction? Which parties should be allowed to participate in the reverse auction? Is there a way for end users to participate and, if so, how would their costs be compensated? Would this approach incentivize bidders to make the appropriate tradeoffs among inputs such as compression technology and bandwidth in producing capacity? How could a capacity auction be designed to allocate capacity efficiently over time? Would this require the reverse auction to establish separate prices for capacity in each year? Would capacity need to be defined as packages of capacity at specified dates, and would a combinatorial auction be needed to determine auction winners and prices?
84. The Commission seeks comment on the applicability of § 647 of the Open-market Reorganization for the Betterment of International Telecommunications Act (ORBIT Act) to a capacity or other auction mechanism. The Commission tentatively concludes that the prohibition is not applicable here, as any auctioned spectrum would be used for a new domestic terrestrial service, and the spectrum capacity auction does not propose to assign by competitive bidding orbital locations or spectrum used for the provision of international or global satellite communications services. The Commission also tentatively concludes that the participation in an incentive auction by Ku-band operators to provide spectrum capacity to C-band operators would not violate the ORBIT Act, because this would not constitute an “assignment” of satellite spectrum, because the Ku-band operators would only be giving up some of their licensed spectrum capacity, rather than ceding their actual licenses. The Commission seeks comment on this tentative conclusion and invite commenters to discuss the ORBIT Act's application to any proposed auction mechanism.
85. The Commission also invites comment on other novel incentive auction mechanisms under the Commission's general incentive auction authority. Commenters should provide data on the costs and benefits associated with any proposed approach along with other helpful technical or procedural details. Commenters should also address the potential costs and benefits of an incentive-auction approach for consumers and businesses in rural and underserved communities, as well as any economic impact on small businesses, and they should discuss any rules or procedures that could be implemented to ensure that the needs of these communities and businesses are adequately addressed.
86. The Commission also seeks comment on approaches that combine various elements of the mechanisms discussed above, as well as other mechanisms for transitioning all or part of the 3.7-4.2 GHz band for wireless broadband use. Commenters offering sequential alternatives should address the circumstances under which one method of transitioning the band would end and a subsequent one would begin. Are any conditions necessary to prevent one approach from precluding later alternatives?
87. In response to the
88. The Commission seeks comment on whether T-Mobile's proposal, or a variant of this proposal, would solve or ameliorate the three economic problems discussed above. As discussed, there is a legal aspect to the problem of FSS satellite operators' incentives to reduce the amount of spectrum for repurposing because the Commission's incentive auction authority requires at least two competing participants in the reverse auction. Would T-Mobile's proposal, or a variant of that proposal, comply with the requirement that an incentive auction have two competing licensees in the reverse auction, as well as other requirements associated with the Commission's general incentive auction authority?
89. The Commission seeks comment on whether a hybrid approach that combines elements of the approaches discussed above would strike a balance between incumbent and new entrant interests. If the Commission decides to clear and auction the entire band, but reserve some of the band for satellite use in certain areas, what is the minimum amount that should be cleared for flexible wireless use? Would the minimum amount differ based on geographic area? Should the Commission consider auctioning a majority of the band, versus the entire band, and if so, what would be the appropriate amount of spectrum to be cleared under such an approach? How can the Commission ensure that the band is transitioned in a timely manner? Should a backstop approach be triggered by a FSS operator's failure to clear the band in a timely manner? Is this the right balance, or is there a better way that traditional relocation could be used as a backstop approach to any hybrid mechanism? Additionally, would this approach allow the Commission to meet its statutory requirements under its general incentive auction authority?
90. The Commission asks commenters to provide data on the costs and benefits associated with any hybrid approach over other possible or suggested methods. If the Commission adopted a split-revenue approach, under which revenue would be split between the federal government and the satellite operators, how would those funds be distributed? Are there are legal obstacles to such an approach? Commenters should also address the potential costs and benefits of any hybrid or alternative approach for consumers and businesses in rural and underserved communities, as well as any economic impact on small businesses, and discuss any rules or procedures that could be implemented to ensure that the needs of these communities and businesses are adequately addressed. Commenters should provide complete proposals to the extent technically and economically feasible.
91. In connection with the Commission's proposals above to reform the full-band, full-arc earth station coordination policy, the Commission seeks comment on rule changes to Part 101 to allow point-to-multipoint FS use of the 3.7-4.2 GHz band and invite parties to offer alternative rules or requirements that will allow for the more intensive point-to-multipoint FS use of the band. In doing so, the Commission seeks comment on how permitting fixed wireless would affect the possible future clearing of the band for flexible use and the use of the band for satellite operations. The Commission seeks to protect incumbent FSS earth stations from harmful interference and avoid disruption to existing operations in the band. Accordingly, the Commission seeks comment on the impact that point-to-multipoint use would have on the flexibility of FSS earth stations to modify their operations in response to technical and business needs. The Commission emphasizes that—under the proposals in this
92.
93. The Commission seeks comment on authorizing point-to-multipoint FS service, on a primary basis, in some portion of the 3.7-4.2 GHz band that does not become available for flexible use. The Commission proposes that flexible use licensees would operate in the lower segment of the band (starting at 3.7 GHz) and, if additional spectrum is cleared in the 3.7-4.2 GHz band, it would be relatively easy and cost-effective to expeditiously deploy more flexible use in the lower segment of this band that has been cleared and is contiguous to the spectrum for which flexible use is already licensed. The Commission also seeks comment as to whether, regardless of how much spectrum becomes available for flexible use in the near term, to make available for licensed point-to-multipoint use up to 160 megahertz (
94.
95.
96. The Commission seeks comment on allowing a point-to-multipoint FS applicant to coordinate each access point by sector based on the radius
97. The Commission also seeks comment on the administrative process that should apply to the coordination of point-to-multipoint FS operations in the band. Under the current rules, the administrative aspects of the coordination process are set forth in § 101.103(d) in the case of coordination of terrestrial stations with earth stations and in § 25.203 in the case of coordination of earth stations with terrestrial stations. What modifications to §§ 101.103(d), 25.203, or to another rule must be made to govern the administrative process that will apply to the coordination of point-to-multipoint FS operations with FSS and point-to-point FS, if grandfathered or remain in the band, and the coordination of FSS and point-to-point FS, if grandfathered or remain in the band, with point-to-multipoint FS operations in the band? The Commission seeks comment on subjecting point-to-multipoint FS applicants to an expedited coordination process with mandatory electronic notification and response. Should an expedited process, if adopted, govern coordination that occurs beginning 90 days after the adoption of final rules published in the
98. Additionally, the Commission seeks comment on the possibility of adopting an automated coordination process for point-to-multipoint FS applications. There is a lack of a consensus in the record as to when, or if, the Commission will be in a position to propose and adopt rules for automated coordination of point-to-multipoint FS applications in the 3.7-4.2 GHz band. The Broadband Access Coalition contends that automated coordination should not be the same as the Spectrum Allocation Server (SAS) system for licensing in the 3.5 GHz band. However, the Broadband Access Coalition believes that the existing process can be modified and automated over time to incorporate real-time, real-world FSS protection criteria and enable coordination between and among point-to-point FS, if grandfathered or remain in the band, and point-to-multipoint FS based on FSS, point-to-point FS and point-to-multipoint FS industry standards of protection criteria to be developed by affected stake-holders. Several commenters including IEE DySPAN, OTI &PK, and Federated, support using a spectrum access database similar to the sharing system used below 3.7 GHz for the Citizens Broadband Radio Service. Google offers another variant contending that a lightweight database supported authorization framework would enable the efficient deployment of fixed broadband access (FBA) systems. However, the satellite industry and content providers have strong objections to more intensive use of the 3.7-4.2 GHz by FS and have raised very specific concerns over the lack of proven methods for spectrum sharing with more intensive fixed use in this band. Satellite operators also raise concern about the ability of point-to-multipoint systems to quickly remedy interference when it is identified or to accommodate FSS earth stations when they change frequencies. The Commission seeks comment on the above. The Commission also asks that, given the lack of consensus, parties continue to work together to offer a more widely supported proposal for the Commission to consider.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104. Additionally, § 101.141(a)(3)(ii) requires that “traffic loading payload shall exceed 50 percent of payload capacity within 30 months of licensing.” The Commission recognizes that the minimum traffic loading payload requirement in § 101.141(a)(3)(ii) was designed for symmetrical traffic and that IP traffic is often asymmetrical. Should the Commission therefore not adopt a requirement for point-to-multipoint FS licensees or do parties have alternative proposals for us to consider?
105.
106.
107. The scope of the service rules adopted herein will vary depending on the mechanism ultimately adopted by the Commission to expand flexible use in the band. For convenience, the Commission refers to this indeterminate amount of spectrum as the Mid-Band Flexible Use or “MBX” spectrum. Assuming that the Commission ultimately decides to add a mobile, except aeronautical mobile, allocation and to make some or all of the 3.7-4.2 GHz band available for flexible use, in this section the Commission proposes or seeks comment on band plan, licensing and operating and technical rules for the 3.7-4.2 GHz band spectrum that becomes available for terrestrial mobile and fixed flexible-use. The Commission proposes to license this spectrum under the Commission's flexible-use, part-27 rules that permit licensees to provide any fixed or mobile service consistent with the allocations for this spectrum, subject to rules necessary to prevent or minimize harmful interference. The Commission seeks comment on this approach. The Commission also seeks comment, however, on whether there are any services,
108.
109. The Commission also seeks comment on whether the appropriate block sizes should be affected by the specific transition mechanism adopted by the Commission. For example, if the Commission adopts a market-based approach, the Commission seeks comment on allowing parties to define block sizes in their agreements. In this regard, would a default block size that could be aggregated and disaggregated help facilitate a market-based process? Commenters should discuss and quantify the costs and benefits of their proposals.
110.
111.
112.
113. The Commission also seeks comment on a licensing approach for the Gulf of Mexico. In AWS-1, AWS-3, AWS-4, and the H Block, the Commission issued separate licenses for the Gulf of Mexico. In the Upper 700 MHz band, however, the Commission included the Gulf of Mexico in larger service areas. Commenters who advocate a separate service area or areas to cover the Gulf of Mexico should discuss what boundaries should be used, and whether special interference protection criteria or performance requirements are necessary due to the unique radio propagation characteristics and antenna siting challenges that exist for Gulf licensees.
114. The Commission also seeks comment on whether the service areas should be affected by the specific transition mechanism adopted by the Commission. For example, if the Commission adopts a market-based approach, the Commission seeks comment on allowing parties to define service areas in their agreements. In this regard, would a default service-area size smaller than the contiguous 48 states that could be aggregated and disaggregated help facilitate a market-based process? If the Commission adopts an overlay auction, the Commission seeks comment on issuing a single nationwide license, or alternatively issuing licenses for five regions: (1) The contiguous 48 states and the Gulf of Mexico, (2) Alaska, (3) Hawaii, (4) Puerto Rico and the U.S. Virgin Islands, and (5) Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands, and American Samoa. Commenters should discuss and quantify the costs and benefits of their proposals.
115. The Commission also seeks comment on a licensing approach for the Gulf of Mexico. In AWS-1, AWS-3, AWS-4, and the H Block, the Commission issued separate licenses for the Gulf of Mexico. In the Upper 700 MHz band, however, the Commission included the Gulf of Mexico in larger service areas. Commenters who advocate a separate service area or areas to cover the Gulf of Mexico should discuss what boundaries should be used, and whether special interference protection criteria or performance requirements are necessary due to the unique radio propagation characteristics and antenna siting challenges that exist for Gulf licensees.
116. The Commission seeks to afford licensees the flexibility to align licenses in the 3.7-4.2 GHz band with licenses in other spectrum bands governed by Part 27 of the Commission's rules. The Commission therefore proposes that licensees in the 3.7-4.2 GHz band comply with licensing and operating rules that are applicable to all Part 27 services, including assignment of licenses by competitive bidding, flexible use, regulatory status, foreign ownership reporting, compliance with construction requirements, renewal criteria, permanent discontinuance of operations, partitioning and disaggregation, and spectrum leasing. The Commission seeks comment on this approach and ask commenters to identify any aspects of the Commission's general Part 27 service rules that should be modified to accommodate the particular characteristics of the 3.7-4.2 GHz band. The Commission asks proponents of the various mechanisms described above whether there are issues specific to this section and their preferred approach.
117. In addition, the Commission seeks comment on service-specific rules for the 3.7-4.2 GHz band, including eligibility, mobile spectrum holdings policies, license term, performance requirements, renewal term construction obligations, and other licensing and operating rules. In addressing these issues, commenters should discuss the costs and benefits associated with these proposals and any alternatives that commenters propose.
118.
119.
120. The Commission seeks comment generally on whether and how to address any mobile spectrum holdings issues involving 3.7-4.2 GHz spectrum to meet the Commission's statutory requirements and ensure competitive access to the band. Similar to the Commission's approach in the
121. The Commission also seeks comment on whether this band should be included in the Commission's spectrum screen, which helps to identify markets that may warrant further competitive analysis, for evaluating proposed secondary market transactions. If the Commission does determine that an auction is appropriate, the Commission seeks comment on reviewing holdings on a case-by-case basis when applications for initial licenses are filed post-auction to ensure that the public interest benefits of having a threshold on spectrum applicable to secondary market transactions are not rendered ineffective. The Commission seeks comment on whether and how the similarity of this spectrum to spectrum currently included in the screen should be factored into the Commission's analysis, including the suitability of 3.7-4.2 GHz spectrum for use in the provision of mobile telephony or broadband services. Commenters should discuss and quantify any costs and benefits associated with any proposals on the applicability of mobile spectrum holdings policies to 3.7-4.2 GHz spectrum. The Commission discusses above various mechanisms for expanding flexible use in all or part of the band. The Commission asks proponents of the various approaches described above whether there are issues specific to this section and their preferred approach. For example, should the Commission impose limits on the amount of spectrum acquired by one party through a market-based mechanism?
122.
123.
124. Accordingly, considering the unique characteristics of this band, and to ensure that licensees begin providing service to consumers in a timely manner, the Commission seeks comment on adopting specific quantifiable benchmarks as an important component of its performance requirements. The Commission seeks comment on requiring a 3.7-4.2 GHz band licensee, relying on mobile or point-to-multipoint service in accordance with the Commission's part 27 rules, to provide reliable signal coverage and offer service to at least forty-five (45) percent of the population in each of its license areas within six years of the license issue date (first performance benchmark), and to at least eighty (80) percent of the population in each of its license areas within 12 years from the license issue date (second performance benchmark). For licensees relying on point-to-point service, the Commission seeks comment on requiring them to demonstrate within six years of the license issue date (first performance benchmark) that they have four links operating and providing service, either to customers or for internal use, if the population within the license area is equal to or less than 268,000. If the population within the license area is greater than 268,000, the Commission seeks comment on requiring a licensee relying on point-to-point service to demonstrate it has at least one link in operation and providing service per every 67,000 persons within a license area. The Commission seeks comment on requiring licensees relying on point-to-point service to demonstrate within 12 years of the license issue date (final performance benchmark) that they have eight links operating and providing service, either to customers or for internal use, if the population within the license area is equal to or less than 268,000. If the population within the license area is greater than 268,000, the Commission seeks comment on requiring a licensee relying on point-to-point service to demonstrate it is providing service and has at least two links in operation per every 67,000 persons within a license area. The Commission seeks comment on whether in order to be eligible to be counted under the point-to-point buildout standard, a point-to-point link must operate with a transmit power greater than + 43 dBm.
125. The Commission believes that 12 years will provide sufficient time for any 3.7-4.2 GHz licensee to meet the proposed coverage requirements. The Commission anticipates that after satisfying the 12-year second performance benchmark, a licensee will continue to provide reliable signal coverage, or point-to-point links, as applicable, and offer service at or above that level for the remaining three years in the proposed 15-year license term prior to renewal. Establishing benchmarks before the end of the license term will ensure continuity of service over the license term, which is essential to the Commission's evaluation under the Commission's renewal standards.
126. The Commission also seeks comment on whether the proposals discussed above represent the appropriate balance between license-term length and a significant final buildout requirement. The Commission seeks comment on the proposed buildout requirements and any potential alternatives. The Commission, for example, seeks comment on alternative methodologies for measuring population coverage requirements in the Gulf of Mexico. Above, the Commission discusses various mechanisms for expanding flexible use in all or part of the band. The Commission asks proponents of the various approaches described above whether there are issues specific to this section and their preferred approach. The Commission also seeks comment on whether small entities face any special or unique issues with respect to buildout requirements such that they would require certain accommodations or additional time to comply. Finally, commenters should discuss and quantify how any supported buildout requirements will affect investment and innovation, as well as discuss and quantify other costs and benefits associated with the proposal.
127.
128. The Commission seeks additional comment on what metric it should adopt to accommodate IoT services, while recognizing the difficulty of crafting an IoT-specific metric, especially while the relevant technologies and use cases are still being developed. For example, a performance metric based on geographic area coverage (or presence) could allow for networks that provide meaningful service but deploy along lines other than residential population. Consistent with the Commission's approach above seeking comment on a first and second performance benchmark, the Commission seeks comment on the following metrics as an option for MBX-spectrum licensees to fulfill their buildout requirements: geographic area coverage of 35 percent of the license area at the first (six-year) performance benchmark, and geographic area coverage of 65 percent of the license area at the second (12-year) performance benchmark. The Commission also seeks comment on an alternative requirement of presence in 35 percent of subset units of the license area, such as census tracts, counties, or some other area at the first performance benchmark, and presence in 65 percent of subset units at the second benchmark. A standard requiring presence in subset units of a license area could accommodate deployments, such as sensor networks, that are not designed to provide mobile or point-to-multipoint area coverage, and for whom calculating “coverage of 65 percent of the area” would therefore not be a meaningful standard. Licensees would demonstrate compliance with this metric through a showing of the equipment or deployments that are part of a network that is actually providing service, either to external customers or for internal uses.
129. The Commission suggests these levels of geographic coverage as an attempt to maintain parity between the requirements in these metrics and the requirements of its earlier proposal based on population coverage.
130.
131. The Commission proposes that, in the event a licensee's authority to operate terminates, the licensee's spectrum rights would become available for reassignment pursuant to the competitive bidding provisions of § 309(j). Further, consistent with the Commission's rules for other licenses, including AWS-1, AWS-3, AWS-4 and H Block, the Commission proposes that any 3.7-4.2 GHz licensee who forfeits its license for failure to meet its performance requirements would be precluded from regaining the license.
132.
133.
134. The
135.
136. Consistent with the competitive bidding procedures the Commission has used in previous auctions, the Commission proposes that the Commission would conduct any auction for licenses for spectrum in the 3.7-4.2 GHz band in conformity with the general competitive bidding rules set forth in part 1, subpart Q, of the Commission's rules. Specifically, the Commission proposes to employ the part 1 rules governing competitive bidding design, designated entity preferences, unjust enrichment, application and certification procedures, payment procedures, reporting requirements, and the prohibition on certain communications between auction applicants. Under this proposal, such rules would be subject to any modifications that the Commission may adopt for its part 1 general competitive bidding rules in the future. In this
137.
138. It is anticipated that this new band may be able to accommodate much wider channel bandwidths than in the past. Current plans for 5G deployments are capable of channel bandwidths of as much as 100 MHz at frequencies below 6 GHz. There is some concern regarding the total power of a wide bandwidth channel when the power limit is specified as a power density level. Should the Commission propose a limit on the total power of a base station in order to relieve potential blocking? One possible solution is that the total power of a base station should be limited to 75 dBm EIRP, summed over all antenna elements, for fixed and base stations. The Commission seeks comment on this proposal.
139. The Commission notes that the power limit for most AWS services is specified based on an RMS-equivalent or average power measurement. This power measurement methodology is preferred for advanced digital modulation schemes that could create very short duration power spikes, while the overall power remains low. There are a few services whose power limit is specified based on a peak power measurement. The Commission proposes that the power limit be based on the average power measurement and seek comment on this proposal.
140.
141.
142. The out of band emission limits that the Commission adopts for the MBX spectrum will depend on the characteristics of the services likely to be deployed in the MBX spectrum and the coexistence needs of services in the adjacent bands. Notably, to ensure effective coexistence with adjacent band services, it may be necessary to adopt more stringent out of band emission limits beyond the edges of the band. For example, in the Citizens Broadband Radio Service, the Commission limits out of band emission to −25 dBm/MHz at or beyond 10 megahertz outside of the band edge and −40 dBm/MHz at or beyond 20 megahertz outside of the band edge. The Commission seeks comment on the out of band emission limits that will be needed to facilitate widespread deployment of next generation wireless services in the MBX spectrum while ensuring effective coexistence with the services operating in the adjacent bands. Commenters should analyze the costs and benefits of different options and provide detailed technical analysis in support of their proposals.
143. To fully define an emissions limit, the Commission's rules generally specify details on how to measure the power of the emissions, such as the resolution bandwidth. For most AWS bands, the resolution bandwidth used to determine compliance with this limit for base stations is one megahertz or greater, except that within one megahertz of the channel edge where a resolution bandwidth of at least one percent of the emission bandwidth of the fundamental emission of the transmitter may be employed. Rather than allow use of a bandwidth dependent resolution bandwidth near the channel edge, the Upper Microwave Flexible Use Service (UMFUS) rules under Part 30 instead specify use of a one megahertz resolution bandwidth but allow an out of band emission limit of −5 dBm per megahertz from the channel edge out to 10 percent of the channel. Considering that the MBX spectrum, like UMFUS, will likely employ much larger signal bandwidths than AWS, should the MBX spectrum rules adopt the AWS approach to defining the resolution bandwidth or follow the UMFUS approach?
144. Finally, should the same out of band emission limits apply to both base stations and mobile handsets? While the Commission finds that mobile handsets can meet the out of band emission limit the Commission has proposed, they also operate at lower power levels and their size could restrict the implementation of more stringent emission limits that would require nonstandard filtering. However, base station equipment may have more flexibility to implement more stringent filters if necessary to protect adjacent services. The Commission seeks comment on all aspects of the emission limits for mobile and portable devices as part of the discussion above.
145.
146. In general,
147. Alternatively, should the Commission define the MBX transmit power limit, out of band emission limits, and guard band and allow the satellite service providers to determine how to protect the earth station receivers? The Commission typically
148. The guard band used for receiver filter rejection can also be used to enhance the out of band emission performance of MBX transmitters. The Commission seeks comment on the out of band emission limit necessary at the upper end of guard band in order to ensure coexistence with earth station receivers. Does this out of band emission limit allow ubiquitous operation of base stations and mobile stations or does it require a minimum distance separation from earth station receivers? The Commission requests commenters to include proposed out of band emission at the upper end of guard band, propagation model, antenna gains and off-axis isolation between MBX transmitters and earth station receivers in their analysis. The Commission also seeks comment on whether this guard band could be used for other purposes such as coordinated fixed point-to-multipoint operations, a low power wireless broadband system, indoor-only system, or unlicensed use.
149.
150.
151. The Commission seeks comment and quantitative analysis to demonstrate if the proposed MBX spectrum power and emission limits are sufficient, without additional mitigation methods, to protect any FSS earth station operation below 3700 MHz. The Commission expects that a minimum propagation loss plus additional attenuation would be required to protect FSS earth stations below 3700 MHz, depending on the separation distance between FSS and MBX-spectrum transmitters, the RF propagation environment, and FSS antenna (gain) orientation. Would exclusion zones or coordination zones be required around the earth stations?
152. The Commission seeks comment on the achievable RF shielding around the FSS earth stations and the cost thereof. Would using RF shielding be sufficient to protect FSS earth stations below 3700 MHz? In addition, or alternatively, would it be possible for the MBX spectrum licensees to engineer around the FSS antenna sites, such that the predicted propagation loss and additional attenuation of base/mobile emissions (fundamental power and out of band emission) would be sufficient to ensure that co-channel/out of band emission and blocking FSS thresholds were not exceeded?
153.
154.
155.
156. The 47 dBµV/m limit that has been used in the AWS rules was developed at a time when signal bandwidths were much smaller than are likely to be used in the MBX spectrum. Furthermore, the 47 dBµV/m limit did not have an associated bandwidth. In the H Block proceeding, Sprint requested that the Commission modify the boundary limit to set a reference measurement bandwidth of 1 MHz, with the aim of limiting boundary power density to the equivalent of that first applied to PCS systems in 1993. At that time, operators were deploying mostly Digital AMPS, PCS1900 and CDMA technologies, which had channel bandwidths of 30 kHz, 200 kHz and 1.25 MHz, respectively. Sprint claims that because today's LTE transmissions operate on much wider bandwidths up to 20 MHz, a 47 dBµV/m limit measured over the full channel bandwidth will effectively result in a comparatively lower power level. Sprint proposed to adjust the field strength limit from 47 dBµV/m to 62 dBµV/m per MHz. Verizon has made a similar claim in the Incentive Auctions proceeding, proposing a field strength limit of 50 dBµV/m per MHz.
157. The Commission agrees with Sprint and Verizon that the market boundary limit should be related to the signal bandwidth. The Commission proposes to adopt the same −76 dBm/m
158. Finally, the Commission proposes that adjacent affected area licensees may voluntarily agree upon higher field strength boundary levels. This concept is already codified in the field strength rules for both PCS and AWS services, as Sprint acknowledges. Accordingly, to maintain consistency with the PCS and other AWS bands, the Commission proposes to permit adjacent area licensees to agree to a higher field strength limit
159.
160.
161.
162. As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended (RFA), the Commission has prepared this Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) of the possible significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities by the policies and rules proposed in this
163. The
164. In this proceeding, the Commission is pursuing the joint goals of making spectrum available for new wireless uses while effectively accommodating incumbent Fixed Satellite Service (FSS) and Fixed Service (FS) operations in the band. The
165. The 3.7-4.2 GHz band is currently allocated in the United States exclusively for non-federal use on a primary basis for the FSS (space-to-Earth) and the FS. For FSS, the 3.7-4.2 GHz band (space-to-Earth or downlink) is paired with the 5.925-6.425 GHz band (Earth-to-space or uplink), and collectively these bands are known as the “conventional C-band.” Domestically, satellite operators use this band to provide downlink signals of various bandwidths to licensed transmit receive, registered receive-only, and unregistered receive-only earth stations throughout the United States. Geostationary orbit (GSO) FSS satellites operating in the C-band typically have 24 transponders, each with a bandwidth of 36 megahertz received by one or more earth stations. Predominant GSO FSS uses include delivery of programming content to television and radio broadcasters, including transportable antennas used to cover live news and sports events, cable television and small master antenna systems, as well as the backhaul of telephone and data traffic. The band is also used for reception of telemetry signals transmitted by satellites, typically near 3.7 or 4.2 GHz.
166. Mid-band spectrum, in conjunction with lower and higher bands, is well suited for next generation wireless broadband services due to the combination of favorable propagation characteristics (as comparted to bands above 24 GHz) and the opportunity for additional channel re-use (as compared to bands below 3.7 GHz). With the ever-increasing demand for more data on mobile networks, wireless network operators have increasingly focused on providing more data capacity rather than providing coverage over large areas from individual base stations. One technique for providing increased capacity is to use smaller cell sizes—i.e
167. In the
168. The proposed action is taken pursuant to sections 1, 2, 3, 4(i), 7, 201, 301, 302, 303, 304, 307, 308, 309, and 310 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 151, 152, 153, 154(i), 157, 201, 301, 302, 303, 304, 307, 308, 309, 310, and section 706 of the Telecommunications Act of 1996, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 1302.
169. The RFA directs agencies to provide a description of—and where feasible, an estimate of—the number of small entities that may be affected by the rules, if adopted. The RFA generally defines the term “small entity” as having the same meaning as the terms “small business,” “small organization,” and “small governmental jurisdiction.” In addition, the term “small business” has the same meaning as the term
170.
171. Next, the type of small entity described as a “small organization” is generally “any not-for-profit enterprise which is independently owned and operated and is not dominant in its field.” Nationwide, as of August 2016, there were approximately 356,494 small organizations based on registration and tax data filed by nonprofits with the Internal Revenue Service (IRS).
172. Finally, the small entity described as a “small governmental jurisdiction” is defined generally as “governments of cities, counties, towns, townships, villages, school districts, or special districts, with a population of less than fifty thousand.” U.S. Census Bureau data from the 2012 Census of Governments indicate that there were 90,056 local governmental jurisdictions consisting of general purpose governments and special purpose governments in the United States. Of this number there were 37,132 General purpose governments (county, municipal and town or township) with populations of less than 50,000 and 12,184 Special purpose governments (independent school districts and special districts) with populations of less than 50,000. The 2012 U.S. Census Bureau data for most types of governments in the local government category show that the majority of these governments have populations of less than 50,000. Based on this data we estimate that at least 49,316 local government jurisdictions fall in the category of “small governmental jurisdictions.”
173.
174.
175. The potential rule changes proposed in this
176. The projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other compliance requirements proposed in the
177.
178. The
179. The
180. Because the Commission's consideration of some transition options may benefit from additional, more granular information on FSS earth station and space station operations in the band, the
181. Comments have also been sought by the Commission on amending § 101.101 of the Commission's rules to permit point-to-multipoint FS broadband service in a portion of the 3.7-4.2 GHz band. In order to accommodate point-to-multipoint operations, the
182.
183. In light of the differing approaches to transitioning the band to flexible use and the obligations that would result, the
184. More specifically, the
185. For auctions as a transition mechanism, the
186. Recognizing that the band's incumbent structure presents unique issues distinct from those present in the broadcast incentive auction, the
187. With the auctions mechanism, the
188. As another possible transition mechanism, the
189. Recognizing that the transition to flexible use licenses in the 3.7-4.2 GHz band will be complicated logistically and needs to be carried out promptly in order to get the repurposed spectrum into the hands of flexible use licensees to address spectrum needs, the
190. Assuming that the Commission ultimately decides to add a mobile,
191.
192.
193. Regarding mobile spectrum holding policies, the Commission proposes not to adopt a pre-auction bright-line limit on the ability of any entity to acquire spectrum in the 3.7-4.2 GHz band through competitive bidding at auction similar to the Commission's approach in the
194.
195. While the
196. Along with performance benchmarks, the
197.
198.
199.
200.
201. For out-of-band-emissions, the
202. To implement field strength limit at market boundaries, the
203. For new MBX spectrum, the
204. The RFA requires an agency to describe any significant, specifically small business, alternatives that it has considered in reaching its proposed approach, which may include the following four alternatives (among others): “(1) The establishment of differing compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) the clarification, consolidation, or simplification of compliance and reporting requirements under the rule for small entities; (3) the use of performance rather than design standards; and (4) an exemption from coverage of the rule, or any part thereof for small entities.”
205. In this proceeding, the Commission seeks to identify potential opportunities for additional flexible access—particularly for wireless broadband services—in 500 megahertz
206. With respect to the application freeze and information collection for incumbent earth stations operating in the 3.7-4.2 GHz band, the Commission has taken several steps to reduce the economic burden of its actions. During the freeze on new earth station applications and filing window for incumbent FSS earth station operators, the International Bureau granted a temporary waiver of the frequency coordination requirement in the band. To ensure that earth station data contained in the Commission's IBFS remains accurate to facilitate frequency coordination and maximize efficient use of the spectrum, the
207. The
208. The
209. Further, in its discussion of the three potential mechanisms for transitioning the band to flexible use—(1) market-based mechanism, (2) auctions mechanisms, (3) alternative mechanisms—the Commission seeks specific comment on the costs, benefits, and potential economic impact on small businesses, and asks commenters to discuss any rules or procedures that could be implemented to ensure that the needs of these communities and businesses are adequately addressed. Each of these transition mechanisms rely heavily on a competitive marketplace to set the value of spectrum and compensate incumbents for the costs of relocating, reconfiguring, and potentially lost opportunity cost. Specifically, for small entities that may be incumbent satellite or earth station operators in the band, the Commission is focused on facilitating competition in the band and ensuring that all relevant interests, not just those of the largest companies, are represented. This will help to reduce the potential economic impact on small entities.
210. The
211. The Commission finds an overriding public interest in encouraging investment in wireless networks, facilitating access to scarce spectrum resources, and promoting the rapid deployment of mobile services to Americans. All licensees, including small entities, play a crucial role in achieving these goals. Thus while the
212. None.
213.
214.
215.
216.
217.
Practice and procedure, Communications common carrier, Communications equipment, Reporting and recording requirements, Satellites.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission proposes to amend 47 CFR parts 1, 2, 25, and 27 as follows:
47 U.S.C. 151, 154(i), 154(j), 155, 157, 160, 201, 225, 227, 303, 309, 332, 1403, 1404, 1451, 1452, and 1455, unless otherwise noted.
(mm) The Mid-Band Flexible Use Service in the 3700-4200 MHz band.
47 U.S.C. 154, 302a, 303, and 336, unless otherwise noted.
NG182 In the band 3700-4200 MHz, the following provisions shall apply to geostationary satellite orbit (GSO) fixed-satellite service (space-to-Earth) operations:
(a) Space stations authorized prior to, or authorized as a result of an application filed prior to, June 21, 2018 may continue to operate on a primary basis, but no applications for new space station authorizations or new petitions for market access shall be accepted for filing after that date, other than applications by existing operators in the band seeking to make more efficient use of the band. Applications for extension, cancellation, replacement, or modification of existing space station authorizations in the band will continue to be accepted and processed normally.
(b) Earth station operations shall not claim protection from terrestrial stations, unless the requirements of 47 CFR 25.203(n) are satisfied.
47 U.S.C. 154, 301, 302, 303, 307, 309, 310, 319, 332, 605, and 721, unless otherwise noted.
(n) Earth stations operating in the 3700-4200 MHz band shall receive interference protection from terrestrial stations only to the extent that (1) the earth station was operational as of April 19, 2018, (2) the earth station was licensed or registered (or had a pending application for license or registration) in the IBFS database as of October 17, 2018, and (3) the operator timely certified the accuracy of information on file with the Commission to the extent required by the Order adopted in FCC 18-XXX. Earth stations failing to satisfy any of the above may continue to operate, but such operations shall be on an unprotected basis.
47 U.S.C. 154, 301, 302a, 303, 307, 309, 332, 336, 337, 1403, 1404, 1451, and 1452, unless otherwise noted.
(b) * * *
(15) 3700-4200 MHz.
(m)
(a) AWS and WCS licensees, with the exception of WCS licensees holding authorizations for the 600 MHz band, Block A in the 698-704 MHz and 728-734 MHz bands, Block B in the 704-710 MHz and 734-740 MHz bands, Block E in the 722-728 MHz band, Block C, C1 or C2 in the 746-757 MHz and 776-787 MHz bands, Block A in the 2305-2310 MHz and 2350-2355 MHz bands, Block B in the 2310-2315 MHz and 2355-2360 MHz bands, Block C in the 2315-2320 MHz band, Block D in the 2345-2350 MHz band, and 3700-4200 MHz band, and with the exception of licensees holding AWS authorizations in the 1915-1920 MHz and 1995-2000 MHz bands, the 2000-2020 MHz and 2180-2200 MHz bands, or 1695-1710 MHz, 1755-1780 MHz and 2155-2180 MHz bands, must, as a performance requirement, make a showing of “substantial service” in their license area within the prescribed license term set forth in § 27.13. * * *
(k) Licensees holding WCS or AWS authorizations in the spectrum blocks enumerated in paragraphs (g), (h), (i), (q), (r), (s), (t), and (u) of this section, including any licensee that obtained its license pursuant to the procedures set forth in paragraph (j) of this section, shall demonstrate compliance with performance requirements by filing a construction notification with the Commission, within 15 days of the expiration of the applicable benchmark, in accordance with the provisions set forth in § 1.946(d) of this chapter. * * *
(u) The following provisions apply to any licensee holding an authorization in the 3700-4200 MHz band:
(1) A licensee shall provide reliable signal coverage and offer service within six (6) years from the date of the initial license to at least forty-five (45) percent of the population in each of its license areas (“First Buildout Requirement”).
(2) A licensee shall provide reliable signal coverage and offer service within twelve (12) years from the date of the initial license to at least eighty (80) percent of the population in each of its license areas (“Second Buildout Requirement”).
(3) If a licensee fails to establish that it meets the First Buildout Requirement for a particular license area, the licensee's Second Buildout Requirement deadline and license term will be reduced by two years.
(4) If a licensee fails to establish that it meets the Second Buildout Requirement for a particular license area, its authorization for each license area in which it fails to meet the Second Buildout Requirement shall terminate automatically without Commission action, and the licensee will be ineligible to regain it if the Commission makes the license available at a later date.
(5) To demonstrate compliance with these performance requirements, licensees shall use the most recently available decennial U.S. Census Data at the time of measurement and shall base their measurements of population served on areas no larger than the Census Tract level. The population within a specific Census Tract (or other acceptable identifier) will be deemed served by the licensee only if it provides reliable signal coverage to and offers service within the specific Census Tract (or other acceptable identifier). To the extent the Census Tract (or other acceptable identifier) extends beyond the boundaries of a license area, a licensee with authorizations for such areas may include only the population within the Census Tract (or other acceptable identifier) towards meeting the performance requirement of a single, individual license. For the Gulf of Mexico license area, the licensee shall demonstrate compliance with these performance requirements, using off-shore platforms, including production, manifold, compression, pumping and valving platforms as a proxy for population in the Gulf of Mexico.
(d) The following power and antenna height requirements apply to stations transmitting in the 1695-1710 MHz, 1710-1755 MHz, 1755-1780 MHz,
(1) The power of each fixed or base station transmitting in the 1995-2000 MHz, 2110-2155 MHz, 2155-2180 MHz, 2180-2200 MHz band, or 3700-4200 MHz band and located in any county with population density of 100 or fewer persons per square mile, based upon the most recently available population statistics from the Bureau of the Census, is limited to:
(2) The power of each fixed or base station transmitting in the 1995-2000 MHz, the 2110-2155 MHz 2155-2180 MHz band, 2180-2200, or 3700-4200 MHz band and situated in any geographic location other than that described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section is limited to:
(4) Fixed, mobile, and portable (hand-held) stations operating in the 1710-1755 MHz band and mobile and portable stations operating in the 1695-1710 MHz, 1755-1780 MHz, and 3700-4200 MHz bands are limited to 1 watt EIRP. Fixed stations operating in the 1710-1755 MHz band are limited to a maximum antenna height of 10 meters above ground. Mobile and portable stations operating in these bands must employ a means for limiting power to the minimum necessary for successful communications.
(h)
(d)
(c) Operation in the 1695-1710 MHz, 1710-1755 MHz, 1755-1780 MHz, 1915-1920 MHz, 1995-2000 MHz, 2000-2020 MHz, 2110-2155 MHz, 2155-2180 MHz, 2180-2200 MHz, and 3700-4200 MHz bands is subject to international agreements with Mexico and Canada.
Mutually exclusive initial applications for 3700-4200 MHz band licenses are subject to competitive bidding. The general competitive bidding procedures set forth in 47 CFR part 1, subpart Q of this chapter will apply unless otherwise provided in this subpart.
(a)
(ii)
(2)
(b)
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |